CHEMISTRY

1. A solid cylindrical rod with a diameter of 1 in has a density of 7.75 g/cm 3. If we want a 1.00 kg mass of this rod,
how long a section must we cut off?
2. At 25 °C, the density of Mercury (the only metal that is liquid at this temperature) is 13.5 g/cm 3. Suppose we
want to know the volume, in mL, of 1.00 kg of Mercury at 25 °C.
3. The density of substance X is 5.50 g/cm3. Suppose we want to know the mass, in kg, of 3.00 mL of Substance X.
4. How many grams of MgCl2 would you need to obtain 5.0 x 1023 Cl- ions? (MgCl2 = 95.21 g/mol)
5. How many Oxygen atoms are present in 1.00 microgram of Mg(NO 3)2? (Assume Mg=24 g/mol, N=14 g/mol, O=16
g/mol)
6. How many moles of compound X are present in 1.505 x10 23 particles of the said compound?
7. The volatile liquid ethyl mercaptan, C 2H6S, is one of the most odiferous substances known. It is sometimes added
to natural gas to make gas leaks detectable. How many C 2H6S molecules are contained in 8.4 x 10-4 g C2H6S?
Assume C2H6S = 62.1 g/mol.
8. Dibutyl succinate is an insect repellant used against household ants and roaches. Its composition is 62.58% C,
9.63% H, and 27.79% O. Its experimentally determined molecular mass is 230 u. What are the empirical and
molecular formulas of dibutyl succinate?
9. The chlorine-containing narcotic drug pentaerythritol chloral has 21.51% C, 2.22% H, and 17.64% O by mass, as
its other elements. Its molecular mass if 726 u. What are the empirical and molecular formulas of the said drug?
(hint: chlorine-containing; aye sometimes you have to scratch the surface)
10. Compound Y is 12% H, 64% O, and 24% C by mass; its molecular mass is. Find the empirical and molecular
formula of Compound Y if its molecular mass is 200 g/mol.

ASSIGNING OXIDATION STATES

11. P4
12. Al2O3
13. MnO4-
14. Fe3O4

For numbers 15-17. 2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2

15. How many moles of O2 are produced from the decomposition of 1.76 moles of potassium chlorate?
16. What mass of O2 will be consumed if the rxn takes place?
17. How many moles of KCl and O2 are produced in the decomposition of 1.50 moles of potassium chlorate?
18. What mass of K2CrO4 (=194 g/mol) is needed to prepare exactly 250 mL of a 0.250 M K 2CrO4 solution in water?
19. A 15.00 mL sample of 0.450 M K2CrO4 is diluted to 100.00 mL. What is the concentration of the new solution?
20. A particular analytical chemist requires 0.0100 M K 2CrO4. What volume of 0.250 M K 2CrO4 must be diluted with
water to prepare 0.2500 L of 0.01 M K2CrO4?

For items 21 and 22. P4 + 6 Cl2 → 4 PCl3 (P=30g/mol; Cl=35g/mol)

21. What maximum mass of PCl3 will be produced from 323 g of Cl2 and 125 g of P4?
22. What is the limiting reactant of the rxn?
23. 3C(graphite) + 4 H2(g) → C3H8 (g)
Find the standard enthalpy change. Given the ffg:
C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O ΔH = -2219.9 kJ
C+ O2 → CO2 ΔH = -393.5 kJ
H2 + ½ O2 → H2O ΔH = -285.8 kJ
24. Use the Hess’s law to determine standard enthalpy change for the rxn
C3H4 + 2 H2 → C3H8 , given that
H2 + ½ O2 → H2O ΔH = -285.8 kJ
C3H4 + 4 O2 → 3 CO2 + 2 H2O ΔH = -1937 kJ
C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3 CO2 + 4 H2O ΔH= -2219.9 Kj
 25. In a solution the substance that does the dissolving is called ______.
A. soluble B. the solute C. the solvent D. an ion
26. Water is a good solvent because ______.
A. Water is a good solvent because it is a negatively charged ion.
B. Water is such a good solvent because it repels most molecules.
C. Water is such a good solvent because it is such a small molecule
D. Water is a good solvent due to its polarity and small molecular size
27. A solution that cannot hold any more solute at room temperature would be ______.
A. a dilute solution B. a concentrated solution C. a saturated solution D. a supersaturated solution
28. Ethanol dissolved in water would be an example of ______.
A. a solution between two miscible liquids B. a solution between a solid and liquid
C. a suspension between two liquids D. ethanol and water do not form a solution
29. To form a supersaturated solution requires ______.
A. reducing the amount of solute B. reducing the amount of solute
C. reducing the amount of solute D. none of the above
30. Which one of the following is an example of a physical change?
A. iron rusting B. a steak cooking C. sugar dissolving in water D. a candle burning
31. Which one of the following is not a physical change?
A. clothes drying in the dryer B. making a cup of coffee C. chopping wood D. boiling an egg
32. The chemicals after a chemical change ______.
A. has properties identical to the chemicals before the change.
B. has properties different to the chemicals before the change.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
33. Heptane is always composed of 84% carbon and 16% hydrogen by mass. What law does this observation
illustrate?
A. The Law of Multiple Proportions B. The Law of Definite Proportions.
C. The Law of Conservation of Mass D. The Law of Conservation of Energy
34. Give the mass number for an atom that has 10 protons, 10 electrons, and 11 neutrons.
A. 31 B. 20 C. 10 D. 21

For Numbers 35 and 36, refer to the following table:

Mass before Mass after the

Substance
the reaction (g) reaction (g)
W 6.0 0.0
Z 3.0 0.0
WZ 0.0 9.0

35. How much of substance W will react with 9.0 g. of substance Z?

A. 9.0 g B. 12.0 g C. 15.0 g D. 18.0 g
36. The amount of substance WZ that will be produced from 12.0g of substance Z assuming that substance W is in
excess is
A. 22.5 g B. 27.0 g C. 31.5 g D. 36.0 g
37. Which conditions will increase the rate of chemical reaction?
A. decreased temperature and decreased concentration of reactants
B. decreased temperature and increased concentration of reactants
C. increased temperature and decreased concentration of reactants
D. increased temperature and increased concentration of reactants
38. When a lit match is touched to the wick of a candle, the candle begins to burn. When the match is removed, the
candle continues to burn. In this reaction, the match ______.
A. behaves as a catalyst. B. supplies activation energy.
C. is part of the rate determining step. D. lowers the activation energy barrier.
39. Compared to a glass of ice water with ice in it, a glass of plain ice-cold water without ice on a warm day will
warm up ______.
A. faster B. slower C. in the same amount of time D. none of the above
 40. The solubility of a substance was determined in 300 cm3 water at different temperatures and the following is
part of the graph obtained :

In 150 cm3 water, how much of the substance will dissolve at 75˚ C?
A. 18 g B. 20 g C. 36 g D. 40 g

Questions 41 and 42 refer to the diagram that follows.

41. After studying the illustration above, one may conclude that ______.
A. water molecules are attracted by the electrodes B. sodium chloride dissociates when placed in water
C. chlorine ions are attracted to the negative electrode D. current flow cause an increase in water temperature
42. One may also conclude that ______.
A. only chlorine ions conduct current
B. the solution will not conduct current
C. the closed circuit illustrated results in neutrality
D. when ions are present they are attracted to electrodes having opposite electrical charges

For questions 43-49, refer to the following graph. A substance is heated by a source supplying 1000 calories per minute.

43. The freezing point of this substance is ______.

A. 0°C B. 10°C C. 20°C D. 30°C
44. The boiling point of the substance is ______.
A. 10°C B. 20°C C. 30°C D. 40°C
45. The substance undergoes a phase change between the ______.
A. 4th and 6th minutes B. 6th and 14th minutes
C. 14th and 18th minutes D. 16th and 22nd minutes
46. How many calories are needed to completely melt the sample at its melting point?
A. 500 B. 1000 C. 2000 D. 3000
47. How long did it take for the substance to completely turn into gas?
A. 4 min. B. 6 min. C. 10 min. D. 16 min.
48. The substance is solid at ______.
A. 2 min. B. 5 min. C. 10 min. D. 18 min.
49. How many calories are needed to completely change the sample into a liquid?
A. 4000 B. 6000 C. 14 000 D. 16 000
50. What factor distinguishes a suspension from a colloid?
A. light reflects off the particles of a suspension
B. the particles of a suspension will sink out if left over time to rest
C. suspensions are clear
D. suspensions cannot be filtered
51. Lorna placed 1 kg of sandy soil and 1 kg clay soil into Pot A and Pot B respectively. She then poured equal
volumes of water into each pot. After a day, it is expected that ______.
A. Pot A will weigh more than Pot B B. Pot B will weigh more than Pot A
C. Pot A and Pot B will weigh the same D. Pot A will be wet and Pot B will be dry
52. Hydrogen and oxygen molecules in a gas sample have the same temperature. This means the hydrogen
molecules, on the average, have the same ______.
A. speed, but more kinetic energy. B. kinetic energy, but more speed.
C. kinetic energy, but less speed. D. speed and the same kinetic energy.
53. Acids are substances that ______.
A. form hydronium ions when dissolved in water B. turn red litmus paper blue
C. make foods taste bitter D. reacts with neutral liquids to form bases
54. Marinades for meat commonly include acids such as vinegar or wine, because the acids can ______.
A. toughen meat B. tenderize meat C. preserve meat D. react with salt
55. The basic requirement for the separation of the components by _______ is that the composition of the vapor be
different from the composition of the liquid at the boiling point of the liquid.
A. absorption B. distillation C. extraction D. crystallization
56. Taken by itself, the fact that 8.0 g of oxygen and 1.0 g of hydrogen combine to give 9.0 of water demonstrates
what natural law?
A. Multiple Proportions B. Periodicity C. Conservation of Mass D. The Atomic Theory
57. What are the coefficients that will balance the formula equation below?
AlCl3 + NaOH → Al(OH)3 + NaCl
A. 1, 3, 1, 3 B. 3, 1, 3, 1 C. 1, 1, 1, 3 D. 1, 3, 3, 1
58. A hydrocarbon that contains one or more double bonds is classified as a(n) ______.
A. alkyne B. alkene C. ketone D. alkane
59. When heat is absorbed by the system from the surroundings, the process is said to be ______, and the sign of
process is ______.
A. exothermic, negative B. endothermic, positive C. exothermic, positive D. endothermic, negative
60. In the illustration below, A and B are liquids while C is a solid. Which of the following is true?
A. C is denser than both A and B.
B. C is less than B but denser than A.
C. C is less dense than A but denser than B.
D. C has just about the same density as both A and B.

61. Someone is wearing perfume on their wrist. Why can people near them smell it?
A. the particles of perfume spread from an area of higher concentration, their wrist, to areas of lower
concentration, the air
B. people can smell the concentrated perfume on the wrist, but it doesn't travel through the air
C. some of the perfume leaves the wrist, mixing with air particles
D. both A and B
E. both A and C
62. Water is boiled in a flask with a balloon over the top. As the water heats, the balloon expands. What has
happened to the weight of this flask and balloon in this experiment?
A. It has increased as the balloon expands. B. It has decreased as the water boiled away.
C. It has stayed the same. D. It is unpredictable because the balloon is flexible.
63. Bart placed four identical candles on a table and lit them. He covered the first candle with a big jar, the second
with a medium-sized jar, and the third with a small jar. He left the last candle uncovered. Which candle probably
took the longest time to burn?
A. the lit candle left uncovered B. the lit candle covered with the biggest jar
C. the lit candle covered with the smallest jar D. the lit candle covered with the medium-sized jar
64. Chlorine melts at -101⁰C and boils at -34.5⁰C. In what state does it exist at 0⁰C?
A. solid B. liquid C. gas D. plasma
65. What happens to the volume of ice when it melts?
A. increase B. decrease C. remains the same D. cannot be determined
66. A compound has a molecular weight of 78 g/mol and contains 92.3% C and 7.74% H. What is the formula of the
compound? (AW (g/mol): H:1, C:12)
A. C2H2 B. C6H6 C. CH4 D. C5H10
67. Which of the following has the highest number of moles? (AW (g/mol): C: 12, O:16)
A. 2.8 g CO B. 3.0 g O2 C. 4.0 g C D. 4.4 g CO2
68. What is the percentage composition of oxygen in potassium carbonate? (AW (g/mol): K: 39, C:12, O:16)
A. 8.69% B. 34.73% C. 56.52% D. 86.25%
69. Which compound has the +3 oxidation number for Carbon?
A. C B. CaCO3 C. CO D. CaC2O4
70. What is the correct electron configuration for 48Cd?
A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10 B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d10
2 2 6 2 6 2 10 6 4
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 4d D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p65s24d105s25d10
71. In an exothermic chemical reaction
A. the mass of the products is greater than the mass of the reactants.
B. the mass of the products is less than the mass of the reactants.
C. heat is released as the reaction proceeds.
D. heat is absorbed as the reaction proceeds.
72. In general, which does not increase the speed of a combustion reaction?
A. adding a catalyst B. increasing the temperature of the reaction
C. increasing the amount of fuel present D. using a combustion reaction with high activation energy
73. Which naturally occurring radioactive particles are negatively charged?
A. alpha particles B. beta particles C. gamma radiation D. neutrons
74. When a solution of ethanol, C2H5OH, is formed in water, the ethanol molecules
A. are attracted to the nonpolar water molecules. B. form hydrogen bonds to the polar water molecules.
C. form covalent bonds to the polar water molecules. D. are not attracted to the polar water molecules.
75. A 0.25 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride, NaCl, is tested for conductivity using the type of apparatus
shown. What do you predict will happen?

A. The bulb will not light up. NaCl does not dissolve in water.
B. The bulb will not light up. NaCl is in the molecular form in aqueous solution.
C. The light bulb will shine dimly. NaCl is only partially ionized in aqueous
solution.
D. The light bulb will shine brightly. NaCl is highly ionized in aqueous solution.
76.
77. What is the pressure of 1.25 moles of gas in a 8.21-L container at 100K?
A. 1.5 atm B. 1.25 atm C. 1.5 atm D. 0.5 atm
78. What is the orbital of an electron that has a principal quantum number (n) equal
to 3 and an orbital angular quantum number (l) equal to 2?
A. 3p B. 3d C. 5p D. 5d
79. How many unpaired electrons are there in a nitrogen atom ( 7N)?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
80. Atoms of metals generally react with atoms of nonmetals by
A. losing electrons to form ionic compounds B. losing electrons to form covalent compounds
C. gaining electrons to form ionic compounds D. sharing electrons to form covalent compounds
81. If 20.0 mL of a 6.0 M HNO3 solution is diluted to 120.0 mL, what is the final molarity of the HNO 3 after dilution?
A. 0.25 M B. 0.50 M C. 0.75 M D. 1.0M
82. Based on the table below, which statement is correct?
solution A B C D E
pH 6.9 6.2 6.0 5.5 4.8
Solution B is ________________________.
A.more acidic than solution C C. less acidic than solution A
B. less acidic than solution E D. more acidic than solution D
83. What is the density of NH3(g) at STP? (AW (g/mol): N: 14, H:1)
A. 0.760 g/mL B. 0.76 g/L C. 1.32 g/m D. 1.32 g/L
84. Gas A and B contain the same number of molecules and are at the same temperature. The external pressure on
Gas A is twice that of Gas B. What can be said of the volume of gas A compared with gas B?
A. twice that of gas B C. one-half that of gas B
B. four times that of gas B D. same as that of gas B
85. If the size of the fluorine atom is compared to the size of the fluoride ion,
A. they would both be the same size B. the atom is larger than the ion
C. the ion is larger than the atom D. the size difference depends on the reaction
86. Which is the most electronegative?
A. 7N B. 9F C. 6C D. 8O
87. The number of electrons in the nucleus of an atom of 2412Mg+2 is
A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 10
88. Which of the following involves ionic bonding?
A. H2 B. BaF2 C. H2O D. CCl4
238 234
89. When 92 U produces 90 Th , what radioactive particle is emitted?
A. alpha B. positron C. beta D. gamma
90. If the reaction A + B = C + D is initially at equilibrium and then more A is added, which of the following is not
true?
A. more collisions of A and B will occur B. equilibrium will shift to the right
C. moles of B will be increased D. moles of D will be increased
91. In the equation Zn + Cu(NO3)2  Zn(NO3)2 + Cu, what change did zinc undergo?
A. reduced and its oxidation number increased B. reduced and its oxidation number decreased
 C. oxidized and its oxidation number increased D. oxidized and its oxidation number decreased
92.

PHYSICS

1. Steve exerts a steady force of magnitude 210 N on a stalled car through a distance of 18 m. The car has a flat
tire, thus, Steve pushes it at an angle of 30 degrees to the direction of motion. How much work does Steve do?
2. A farmer hitches his tractor to a sled loaded with bananas and pulls it at a distance of 20m along level ground.
The total weight of the sled with bananas is 14, 700 N. The tractor exerts a constant 5000 N force at an angle of
36.9 degrees above the horizontal. A 3500 N friction force opposes the sled’s motion. Find the work done by
each force acting on the sled and the total work done by all the forces.
3. How many joules of energy does a 100 W light bulb use per hour? How fast would a 70kg person have to run to
have that amount of kinetic energy?
4. A 50.0 kg marathon runner runs up the stairs to the top of a 443 m tall Tower. To lift herself up to the top in 15.0
minutes, what must be her average power output? Express your answer in watts.
5. You throw a 0.145 kg baseball straight up, giving it an initial velocity of magnitude 20.0 m/s. Find how high it
goes, ignoring air resistance?

For questions 6 and 7.

Jacques Charles was a French hot air balloonist and scientist. He discovered Charles' law by studying the
relationship between the volume and temperature of a gas at a constant atmospheric pressure. As the
temperature of the gas in a balloon increased, its volume also increased. These increases inflated and lifted the
balloon. In equation form, for the case of a constant pressure: V/T = constant
6. If the volume of a gas at a certain pressure is halved, ______.
A. its temperature is halved B. its temperature is doubled C. its temperature remains constant
D. its temperature increases according to a geometric progression
7. Which of the following graphs shows the temperature-volume relationship for a gas? (T = temperature and V =
volume)

A. B. C. D.
8. Unless an object at rest is acted upon by a force, it stays at rest due to its ______.
A. matter B. inertia C. friction D. gravity
9. Maron rode on his bike from 9:00 am to 10:30 am. If he drove at an average speed of 15kph, what was the total
distance he covered?
A. 17.5 km B. 22.5 km C. 27.5 km D. 32.5 km
10. A woman exerts a constant horizontal force on a large box. As a result, the box moves across a horizontal floor
at a constant velocity. The constant force by the woman ______.
A. has the same magnitude as the weight of the box.
B. is greater than the weight of the box.
C. has the same magnitude as the total force which resists the motion of the box.
D. is greater than the total force which resists the motion of the box.
11. If the woman in question 23 suddenly stops applying a horizontal force to the box, then the box will ______.
A. immediately come to a stop. B. continue moving at a constant speed for a while and then slow to a stop.
C. immediately start slowing to a stop. D. continue at a constant speed.
12. The 0.20 kg block is attached to a spring which has a spring constant of 20 N/m. The block is initially stretched
0.10 meters and released at time t = 0 seconds. Complete the following statement: In order to increase the
frequency of the motion, one would have to ______.
A. reduce the spring constant B. decrease the mass of the block on the end of the spring
C. increase the length of the spring D. reduce the distance that the spring is initially stretched

For questions 13 and 14, choose your answers to the next three questions from the velocity-time graphs below.
 A. B. C. D.
13. Which of the graphs shows a body moving at constant speed?
14. Which of the graphs shows a body moving at high acceleration at the beginning then starts to lose acceleration
towards the end?
15. The acceleration in a body is due to ________.
A. balanced force B. unbalanced force C. mass D. electrostatic force
16. Two students are posed to dive off equal height diving towers to a swimming pool below. Student B is twice as
massive as student A. Which of the following is true?
A. Student B will reach the water sooner than student A.
B. Both students have the same gravitational potential energy.
C. Both students will have the same kinetic energy just before hitting the water.
D. Student B did twice as much work climbing the tower
17. Which of the following cases is/are NOT a uniformly accelerated motion?
(1) A feather falls from a certain height inside a vacuum tube.
(2) A ball rolls along a frictionless plane at uniform speed.
(3) A coin falls from a certain height in air but air resistance is negligible.
A. (1) only B. (2) only C. (1) and (2) only D. (2) and (3) only

For questions 18 and 19, refer to the following diagrams.

18. From the illustration, one can conclude that ______.

A. cube A has the least weight
B. cube C has the highest density
C. cube A has the highest density
D. water has greater buoyant force than cube A
19. Cube C sinks because ______.
A. it weighs much
B. it displaces much water
C. its weight is less than the weight of the water it has displaced
D. its weight is greater than the weight of the water it has displaced
20. In the figure that follows, what is the direction of the force exerted by the ladder?
A. downward and toward the wall
B. downward and away from the wall
C. upward and toward the wall
D. upward and away from the wall

21. A 200 N box is pushed up an incline that is 5.00 m long and rises 1.00 m. If the incline is
frictionless, then the work done by the pushing force is ______.
A. 336 J B. 305 J C. 275 J D. 200 J
22. A 2000 kg car accelerates from rest to a velocity of 20 m/s in 10 seconds. The power of the engine during this
acceleration is ______.
A. 200 kW B. 20,000 kW C. 4000 W D. 40 kW
23. Your flashlight has three identical 1.5 volt batteries in it, arranged in a chain to give a total of 4.5 volts. Current
passes first through battery (a), then through battery (b), then through battery (c), on its way to the bulb. When
you operate the flashlight, the batteries provide power to the current and they gradually use up their chemical
potential energy. Which battery will run out of chemical potential energy first?
A. All three will run out at the same time. B. Battery (a) will run out first.
C. Battery (b) will run out first. D. Battery (c) will run out first.
24. The figure shows a radiation heater. What heat transfer processes are involved at positions E and F?
A. E is radiation and F is conduction. B. E is conduction and F is convection.
C. E is convection and F is conduction. D. E is radiation and F is convection.
 25. An astronaut picks up a stone on the moon and finds its mass to be 2 kg. If the mass of the earth is 6 times more
than the mass of the moon, what will the mass and the weight of the stone be on the earth?
A. 2kg 12N B. 2kg 20N C. 12kg 120N D. 20kg 200N
26. A student wishes to find the density of an irregular piece of rock. How will she find volume?
A. length x width x height B. place it on a triple beam balance
C. put it in a beaker D. use water displacement
27. A barge filled with scrap iron is in a canal lock. If the barge were to sink what would happen to the water level?
A. It would fall. B. It would remain unchanged. C. It would rise. D. It would depend on its mass.
28. Which of the following is not considered a simple machine?
A. wedge B. pulley C. lever D. wheelbarrow
29. Suppose you have a pendulum clock which keeps correct time on Earth (acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2).
Without changing the clock, you take it to the Moon (acceleration due to gravity = 1.6 m/s2). For every hour
interval (on Earth) the Moon clock will record ______.
A. (9.8/1.6) h B. 1 h C. SQRT(9.8 / 1.6) h D. (1.6/9.8) h E. SQRT(1.6 / 9.8) h

For questions 30 and 31. Five positions of a swinging pendulum are shown in the following diagram. A and E are the
highest positions attained by the pendulum; the lowest is C.

30. The kinetic energy of the pendulum is highest at position(s) ______.

A. C B. B and D C. A and E D. A, C and E
31. Speed is minimum at position(s) ______.
A. C B. B and D C. A and E D. A, C and E

For questions 32 and 33, examine the

following graph of the movement of car.

32. At which point is the car decelerating?

A. A B. B C. C D. D
33. At which point is the car accelerating rapidly?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
34. In the diagram, assume that each container contain equal volumes of water. In what container is the pressure at
the bottom greatest?

A. A B. B C.C D. The pressure is the same in each container

35. At which point on the door will you apply the greatest force to close it?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

36. Graphs of distance (d) or velocity (v) of a body against time (t) are shown. Which one
shows that of a body is at rest?

A. B. C. D.
37. Which of the velocity-time graphs in the figure represents an object falling freely in a vacuum? (v = velocity, t =
time)
 A. B. C. D.
38. In the following illustration, if the pendulum was swinging in the direction indicated by the arrow when its string
was suddenly cut, in what direction did the pendulum go?
A. B. C. D.

39. In a river, if the water flows in the direction indicated by the arrows in the illustration
below, at which point is the flow fastest?
A. A B. B
C. C D. D

40. How much time should it take for a traveling bullet to hit the ground
compared to a bullet dropped from rest? Assume the ground remains flat for the entire distance the bullet may
travel.
A. The traveling bullet will take longer to hit the ground than the bullet dropped from rest
B. The traveling bullet will hit the ground at the same time as the bullet dropped from rest
C. The traveling bullet will hit the ground before the bullet dropped from rest
D. The traveling bullet moves so fast that it will never hit the ground
41. Based on the graph, who won the 100m-race?

150 A. Cedric B. Kade

distance (m)

100 C. Audrie D. Aldrei

Cedric
50
Kade 42. Refer to the figure above, who run with no acceleration?
0 Audrie
3 6 8 12 15 A. Cedric B. Kade
Aldrei
time (s) C. Audrie D. Aldrei

3
43. What is the equivalent of 1.00 kg/cm ?
0 3
A. 1.00 x 10 g/m C. 1.00 x 105 g/m3
3 3
B. 1.00 x 10 g/m D. 1.00 x 109 g/m3
44. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
A. the age of the earth B. the mass of a football
C. the earth's pull on your body D. the temperature of an iron bar
45. Four members of the Main Street Bicycle Club meet at a certain intersection on Main Street. The members then
start from the same location, but travel in different directions. A short time later, displacement vectors for the
four members are: A = 2.0 km, west; B = 1.6 km, north; C = 2.0 km, east; D = 2.4 km, south What is the resultant
displacement R of the members of the bicycle club: R = A + B + C+ D?
A. 0.8 km, south C. 0.4 km, 45° south of east
B. 3.6 km, 30° north of west D. 4.0 km, east
46. If an object moves through equal distances in equal times, then it is moving at a constant _______.
A. speed C. acceleration
B. displacement D. velocity
47. Whenever one particle exerts a force on a second particle, the second particle simultaneously exerts a force on
the first particle with the same magnitude in _________ direction:
A. same C. parallel
B. opposite D. perpendicular
48. Granting the volume is the same, which mass will yield the highest density?
A. 850 g B. 1.0 kg C. 1100 g D. 1.2 kg
49. A police officer living on a planet with no air resistance drops a pair of handcuffs and a handkerchief at the same
time. Which one will reach the ground first?
A. the handkerchief C. both will hit the ground at the same time
B. handcuffs D. cannot be determined
50. A 50-kg table is sliding on a concrete floor and is pushed with a constant force of 50 N over a distance of 5m. A
frictional force of 50N opposes the table’s motion. What is the acceleration of the table?
A. 0m/s2 B. 5m/s2 C. 2.5m/s2 D. 10m/s2
 51. On a velocity-versus-time graph, a horizontal straight line corresponds to ___________ acceleration.
A. zero B. increasing C. constant D. decreasing
52. If you pull a cart, what is the force that causes you to move forward?
A. the force that the cart exerts on you B. the force that you exert on the cart
C. the force you exert on the ground with your feet D. the force the ground exerts
53. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars is about 1/3 the acceleration due to gravity on Earth’s
surface. The weight of a space probe on the surface of Mars is about:
A.9 times greater than its weight on Earth’s surface B. 3 times greater than its weight on Earth’s surface
C. 1/3 its weight on Earth’s surface D. The same as its weight on Earth’s surface
54. According to the law of conservation of energy:
A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B. Energy can be converted from one form to another
C. Kinetic Energy can be changed into sound and heat D. More than one of these
55. A rock sitting at the edge of a cliff has_____ because of its position.
A.Kinetic Energy C. Potential Energy
B.Thermal Energy D. Atomic Energy

56. If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, which of the following statements is true?
A.The potential energy at the beginning is equal to the kinetic energy at the end
B.Some energy is converted to heat
C.Some energy is converted to sound
D.More than one of these
57. Kinetic energy is the greatest at point:

58. You are traveling east by plane and cross three time zone boundaries. If your watch reads 3:00pm when you
arrive, to what time should you reset it to?
A. 6:00pm B. 12 nn C. 6:00am D. 12 midnight
59.

EARTH SCIENCE

1. As a star exhausts hydrogen in its core, it ______.

A. becomes hotter and more luminous B. becomes cooler and more luminous
C. becomes hotter and less luminous D. becomes cooler and less luminous
2. An upright stick that is allowed to cast a shadow in sunlight is called ______.
A. Almagest B. Primum mobile C. Equinox D. gnomon
3. A solar or lunar eclipse will occur ______.
A. when the sun is near the line of nodes of the moon and the moon is new or full
B. any time the moon is new or full
C. when the sun is near the solstice and the moon is new or full
D. half way through an eclipse year
E. when the sun is near the equinox and the moon is new or full
4. A gem or mineral that is red absorbs ______.
A. red light B. mostly red light C. most wavelength of the visible spectrum except red
D. more of the visible spectrum than a gem or mineral that is violet
5. When viewed straight down (90° to the surface), an incident light ray moving from the water to air is refracted
______.
A. away from the normal B. towards the normal C. not at all D. about 49°
6. What does the fact that one side of the moon always faces the earth prove?
A. the moon rotates B. the moon does not rotate
C. then moon deflects rather than emits light D. the moon has a distorted shape
7. Which of the following characterizes a mineral?
A. organic solid C. crystalline
B. can be synthetically prepared D. has varying composition
8. During nighttime, how does the air temperature over the ocean compare with that over the land?
A. higher over the ocean C. lower over the ocean
B. the same D. cannot be determined
 9. What does the point of orbit of the earth around the sun indicate?

A.aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

10. Why doesn't Venus have seasons like Mars and Earth do?
A. Its rotation axis is nearly perpendicular to the plane of the Solar System.
B. It does not have an ozone layer.
C. It does not rotate fast enough.
D. It is too close to the Sun.
11. Comets are icy masses of frozen gases and dust particles. What happens when a comet gets too close to the
sun?
A. The gases catch fire, making the comet glow. B. The ice begins to melt, leaving a trail of gases and debris.
C. The comet explodes, which is called a supernova D. The comet bounces off the sun’s magnetosphere.
12. What is remarkable about the rotation of Uranus?
A. its rotation period is very long (about 12 years) B. its rotation axis lies in its orbital plane
C. its rotation axis always points at the sun D. its rotation period varies wildly from year to year

Use the diagram below to answer questions 13 and 14.

13. In which positions will the day and night hours be equal?
A. A and B C. B and C
B. C and D D. B and D
14. What season is it at point A in the northern hemisphere? Assume
the north pole is on top.
A. Winter B. Spring C. Summer D. Fall
15. Why do stars seem to twinkle?
A. because the atmosphere bend their light rays
B. because they shine
C. because they undergo nuclear burning
D. because they reflect light
16. In Coriolis effect, where is the direction of the wind oriented in the Northern hemisphere?
A. south B. left C. north D. right
17. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock?
A. granite B. basalt C. limestone D. marble
18. How is the pressure over the land compare with that over the sea during daytime?
A. higher B. lower C. equal D. none of the above
19. Which layer of the atmosphere is the coldest?
A. troposphere B. exosphere C. stratosphere D. mesosphere
20. The energy that drives the water cycle comes from _____.
A. the earth's own internal heat, 
B. the sun, 
C. the energy of rotation, combined with the Coriolis effect, 
D. the heat energy created by friction as the earth spins upon its axis, 
21. At mid-ocean ridges, two plates are 
A. moving towards each other.                        C. moving away from each other.                    
B. sliding along each other.                               D. stationary. 
22. Which of the following is not a mineral?  
A. olivine                B. limestone           C. calcite D. quartz
23. Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface?
A. Magmas are more viscous than solid rocks in the crust and upper mantle.
B. Most magmas are richer in silica than most crustal and upper mantle rocks.
C. Magmas, being melts and having gases, are less dense than the adjacent solid rock.
D. Magmas have higher content of pyroxenes than the surrounding rocks.    
24. An igneous rock contains a radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 10 million years. Careful analysis shows that
only one quarter of the original concentration of the parent isotope is left. How old is this igneous rock?
A. 5 million years old            C. 20 million years old                       
B. 40 million years old           D. 2.5 million years old
25. Human populations in specific locations, locations where there is extensive tectonic activity, should take
extensive precautions to minimize loss of: ___________________ and properties.
A. diamonds B. lives C. emeralds D. money E. wealth
26. Older crust tends to be ________________, and therefore is denser than younger crust.
A. hotter B. higher C. faster D.younger E. cooler
27. Of the three known boundaries, the "East-Pacific" Ridge or Rise, is considered to be a
_______________________ boundary.
A. intermediate B. convergent C. transform D. deep E. divergent
28. The Mariana Trench was most likely created by the
A. divergence of the Eurasian and Philippine Plates
B. convergence of the Pacific and Philippine Plates
C. sliding of the Pacific Plate past the North American Plate
D. movement of the Pacific Plate over the Hawaii Hot Spot
E. divergence of the Pacific and Antarctic Plates
29. Which part of Earth’s interior is inferred to have convection currents that cause tectonic plates to move?
A. crust B. outer core C. asthenosphere D. inner core E. rigid mantle
30. Primary (P) Seismic Waves can pass through ____________________________.
A. liquids only B. solids only C. gases only D. solids, gases, and liquids
E. crust and core only
31. Of the 3 seismic waves, the _____-Waves are the fastest.
A. R B. Q C. P D. S E. L
32. Secondary (S) Seismic Waves can pass through ____________________________.
A. gases only B. solids only C. liquids only D. solids, gases, and liquids E. crust and core only
33. P-Waves are also said to be ____________-____________ waves.
A. east-west B. side-side C. up-down D. north-sout E. push-pull
34. To find the epicenter of an earthquake, at least _____ seismic stations are needed.
A. 2 B. C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
35. The closest seismic station to the epicenter of an earthquake will record P-Waves ___________________.
A. third B. second C. first D. fourth E. fifth
36. A tsunami forms when the epicenter of an earthquake is on the _____________________ floor.
A. convergent B. desert C. crusty D. volcanic E. oceanic
37. Lasers are sometimes used to detect movements along faults. LASER is an acronym for:
____________________________________.
A. Light Amplification by Simplified Emission of Radiation
B. Light Altercation by Stenographic Emission of Radiation
C. Lunar Amplification by Simplistic Emission of Radiation
D. Local Altercation by Super Emission of Radiation
E. Lunar Amplification by Simplified Emission of Radiation
38. The Ring of Fire is located...
A. around the Pacific Plate B. around the Atlantic Plate C. around the San Andreas' Fault
D. around the Convergent zone E. around the Aztec Plate
39. The Hawaiian Islands are in the Ring of Fire. The Hawaiian Islands were formed by
A. active calderas, result of a subduction zone B. active mountains, result of the Aztec plate
C. active volcanoes, result of a hot spot D. active mantle, result of radioactive crust
E. active subduction zone, result of a divergent boundary
40. The famous meteorologist who helped bring forth the theory of Continental Drift was
A. Charles Darwin B. Albert Einstein C. Alfred Wegener D. Charles Bronson E. Alfred Hitchcock
41. Geographically, the east coast of South America seems to fit the __________________________.
A. west coast of Africa B. east coast of Africa C. west coast of India D. east coast of India
E. north coast of Australia
42. Minerals, Petroleum, and Gems are best found in ___________________________ zones.
A. transcending B. divergent C. transform D. convergent E. volcanic
43. Continental Drift Theory asserts that our continents have been ______________________ for millions of years!
A. rising B. growing C. moving D. subducting E. dying
44. Between the 3 known types of plate boundaries, the ________________________ zone is most dangerous to
human life.
A. transform B. convergent C. divergent D. oceanic E. continental
 45. Between the 3 known types of plate boundaries, the ________________________ zone is most known for
producing precious metals.
A. convergent B. transform C. divergent D. oceanic E. continental
46. What does Mt. Pinatubo, Mt. St. Helen's, and Redoubt Volcano of Alaska have in common?
A. All three are mountains B. All three are on the Ring of Fire
C. All three are safe to visit D. All three are on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
E. All three are on top of divergent zones
47. Diamonds are known to be formed in the Earth's
A. outer core B. surface C. inner core D. mantle E. biosphere
48. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at a subduction boundary?
A. The oceanic crust has a lighter density
B. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth’s magnetic field.
C. The continental crust has a more magnetic composition.
D. The oceanic crust is hotter.
E. The oceanic crust has a greater density.
49. The two types of crust are _________________________ and _________________________.
A. oceanic, volcanic B. oceanic, land C. land, pangaea D. continental, volcanic
E. oceanic, continental
50. At mid-ocean ridges, new ____________________________ crust is created.
A. continental B. oceanic C. volcanic D. convergent E. transform
51. Seafloor spreading is a process that creates new ________________________ crust.
A. convergent B. continental C. volcanic D. oceanic E. transform
52. Between oceanic and continental crusts, the ___________________ crust is denser.
A. oceanic B. continental C. convergent D. divergent E. transform
53. In seafloor spreading, the further the ocean floor is away from the mid-ocean ridge, the
_____________________ that floor will be.
A. younger B. newer C. rockier D. older E. prettier
54.

BIOLOGY

1. The sexually-transmitted disease gonorrhea is becoming difficult to treat because the causative bacteria are
evolving resistance to antibiotics. For example, in Hawaii between 1997 and 1999 resistance to fluoroquinolones
increased from 1.4 percent to 9.5 percent. Scientists attribute this to natural selection. What does natural
selection mean in this context?
A. The germs have learned to avoid that particular class of antibiotic.
B. The antibiotic has changed the genetic structure of the germs allowing them to become antibiotic-resistant.
C. The germs changed their genetic code in order to avoid problems with the antibiotic.
D. The antibiotic created an environment in which germs harboring antibiotic resistant genes could flourish.
E. The mutation rate for antibiotic resistance increased during the time period.
2. Which of the following did not help Darwin formulate his theory of evolution?
A. fossil evidence that species had changed over time B. closely related species on oceanic islands
C. belief that the earth was several thousand years old D. evidence of artificial selection in domestic animals
3. Which of the following pairs are analogous structures?
A. the front leg of a horse and a human arm B. the front leg of a frog and a bat wing
C. the wing of a bird and a bat wing D. the front flipper of a porpoise and a human arm
4. On the biological levels of organization, which represents the smallest or lowest level?
A. organs B. organisms C. cells D. tissues
5. Which of the following is not a property of life?
A. molding or adapting to one's environment B. regulating materials that enter or leave the system
C. responding to stimuli D. reproducing, passing hereditary material to the next generation
6. A slippery outer covering in some bacteria that protects them from phagocytosis by host cells is ______.
A. capsule B. cell wall C. flagellum D. peptidoglycan
7. Differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells include all of the following except ______.
A. eukaryotic cells have mitochondria B. eukaryotic cells have cilia and flagella with complex structure
C. prokaryotic cells have more complex cell walls D. prokaryotic cells have no genetic material
8. The optimum temperature for an organism is the one at which ______.
A. it grows with the shortest generation time B. it has the longest time between cell divisions
C. it is near one extreme of its range of tolerated temperatures D. its enzymes begin to denature
9. In a plant, what part stores sugars as starch?
A. leaves B. roots C. seeds D. all of the above
10. ADP energy is used for _______.
A. synthetic reactions B. active transport C. all energy-requiring processes in cells D. none of the above
11. The cytoskeleton of the cell functions to _______.
A. give the cell shape B. anchor organelles C. allow organelles to move D. all of the above.
12. A red blood cell plasma membrane contains _______ different types of proteins.
A. over 10 B. over 20 C. over 40 D. over 50
13. During ______, the chromosomes attach to the spindle and align at the metaphase plate of the spindle.
A. prophase B. prometaphase C. metaphase D. anaphase
14. If two flies heterozygous for wing length and body color are crossed, which of the following are possible results?
A. chance of L, long wings = 3/4 B. chance of l, short wings = 1/2
C. chance of G, grey body = 1/4 D. all of the above are true
15. A cross in which true-breeding plants differ in two traits is known as a _______ cross.
A. test B. dihybrid C. multi trait D. hybrid
16. Which is narrower?
A. fundamental niche of an organism B. realized niche of an organism
C. habitat of an organism D. all are the same
17. _______ are protozoa with no means of locomotion.
A. Amoeboids B. Ciliates C. Zooflagellates D. Sporozoa
18. The vertebrate skeleton _______.
A. is a living tissue which grows with the animal. B. protects internal organs.
C. serves as a place of attachment for muscles. D. all of the above
19. Protoplasts are cells without _______.
A. a nucleus. B. a membrane. C. a wall. D. cytoplasm.

20. Sarah designed an experiment to find out which mouthwash was most effective against some bacteria. She cut
out four different circles from a paper towel and soaked each circle in a different mouthwash. She put the circles
on a nutrient agar-coated Petri dish that was covered with bacteria commonly found in the mouth. She then
incubated the plate for 24 hours. The picture shows the results of this test. Which of the following should Sarah
do to improve her experiment?
A. Use different kinds of bacteria. B. Use the same type of mouthwash on each paper circle.
C. Use the same size paper circles for all mouthwashes. D. Use a smaller Petri dish.
21. What is the fraction of homozygous recessive offspring from a AaBb x AaBb cross?
A. 1/16 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 3/4
22. What are the offsprings produced when homozygous red flowers cross with heterozygous red flowers?
A. all homozygous red C. 1/2 homozygous red
B. all heterozygous red D. no offsprings produced
23. Which of the following can pass the human digestive tract chemically unchanged?
A. cellulose B. starch C. lipid D. protein
24. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. Is it possible for a father with normal color vision to have a
colorblind daughter?
A. Yes B. No C. information not enough D. Maybe

25. What is the cell division process that produces four new cells?
A. meiosis B. mitosis C. osmosis D. oogenesis
26. Human body (somatic cells) contains _____ chromosomes and the gametes (sex cells) contain ______
chromosomes.
A. 23, 46 B. 46, 23 C. 23, 23 D. 46, 46
27. Which best describes the metaphase stage?
A. chromosomes migrate to opposite poles B. chromosomes reach the poles of the cell
C. chromosomes align at the cell’s equatorial plate D. none of the above
28. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Hormones are released in the blood stream.
B. The right atrium receives red oxygenated blood from the lungs.
C. Enzyme action starts in the mouth during digestion.
 D. The blood entering the left atrium from the lungs is characterized by high oxygen content and low carbon
dioxide.
29. A normal daughter of a hemophiliac man marries a man without hemophilia. What is the probability that their
son will not have hemophilia?
A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 0%
30. Which of the following cannot be a possible genotype of a cross between a heterozygous round pea with a
homozygous wrinkled pea? (R-round, r-wrinkled)
A. RR B. Rr C. rr D. none
31. Which of the following is correctly paired?
A. mitochondria: ATP synthesis C. ribosomes: lipid synthesis
B. nucleus: protein transport D. golgi body: carbohydrate storage
32. How does the liver act as an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A. digest proteins found in meat C. secretes bile to digest lipids
B. secretes gastric juice to digest fats D. collects water from undigested food
33. When a body acquires an infection, which of the following usually increases in number?
A. white blood cells C. red blood cells
B. platelets D. hemoglobin
34. After meeting an accident, a man suddenly experiences inability to move his body. What part of the brain is
mostly likely been injured?
A. cerebrum C. cerebellum
B. medulla oblongata D. skull
35. Which of the following is part of the endocrine system?
A. pancreas C. spinal cord
B. skin D. epididymis
36. Which of the following is a sex-influenced trait?
A. hemophilia C. baldness
B. baldness D. large comb in roosters
37. What antigen is present in blood type O?
A. A C. AB
B. B D. none
38. Which of the following blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?
A. A B. B C. AB D. O
39. Which organisms are most closely related?
A. organisms of the same family B. organisms of the same kingdom
C. organisms of the same order D. organisms of the same class
40. Which of the following did not help Darwin formulate his theory of evolution?
A. fossil evidence that species had changed over time B. closely related species on oceanic islands
C. belief that the earth was several thousand years old D. evidence of artificial selection in domestic animals
41.