TOEFL PREPARATION CLASS

TOEFL SIMULATION TEST 1
TOEFL PREPARATION CLASS

Section 1
Listening Comprehension Test 1
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special directions for each
part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in this test.
PART A
Directions: In part A you will hear short conversations between two persons. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will
not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
choose the correct answer.
1. (A) The fil exam was harder than the others.

(B) There were no exams rather than one.
(C) He thought the exam would be easier.
(D) The exam was not very difficult.
2. (A) In a department store.

(B) In a stationery store.
(C) At the post office.
(D) At the airport.
3. (A) Jason Daniel isn’t home right now.

(B) The caller dialed the wrong number.
(C) Jason Daniel can’t come to the phone.
(D) Jason Daniel doesn’t want to speak to the caller.
4. (A) There was a scarcity of fresh fruit at the market.

(B) All of the fresh fruit in the market is hard.
(C) She hardly ever goes to the market to but fresh fruit.
(D) It is hard for the market to sell its fruit.
5. (A) The man needs to pay attention to every detail.

(B) The man doesn’t really need to apply for the scholarship.
(C) The man needs to fill out the application with dots and crosses.
(D) The man needs to improve his penmanship.
6. (A) The client presented his case to the lawyer.

(B) The client made the lawyer unhappy about the case.
(C) The client was annoyed because the lawyer returned the suitcase.
(D) The client was upset about the lawyer’s rejection.
7. (A) Write a message to the man

(B) Respond to the man’s questions.
(C) Make some phone calls.
(D) Get a new phone installed.
8. (A) The pipes did not need to be cleared.

(B) The plumber would be late.
(C) The plumber had already cleared the pipes.
(D) The pipes were not clear.
TOEFL PREPARATION CLASS | TOEFL SIMULATION TEST 1

9. (A) It was hard for her to hear Jane last night.
(B) She played the harp last night for Jane. 1
(C) Jane was playing hard while she was hurt.
(D) Jane gave a harp recital last night.
10. (A) Neither Tim nor Sylvia is talking care of art.

(B) Sylvia likes modern at even less than Tim does.
(C) Sylvia and Tim agree in their opinion of modern art.
(D) Sylvia doesn’t care for anything Tim does.
11. (A) Mary should visit the man.

(B) They should go to the hospital.
(C) The woman should try not to break her leg.
(D) They should go on a trip with Mary.
12. (A) He wants that job very much.

(B) No one is going to get the job.
(C) Everybody else wants that job as much as he does.
(D) He is not sure about talking the job.
13. (A) The students pointed at Max.

(B) Max was chosen by his classmates to represent them.
(C) The class representative suggested Max to the other students.
(D) Max was present when the other students made the appointment.
14. (A) She knows that she is not really for intermediate French.
(B) She’s not sure if she should take a trip to France.
(C) She is not sure which course she should take.
(D) She wants to take neither beginning nor intermediate French.
15. (A) They attended the concert even though the tickets were expensive.
(B) They wanted to attend the concert, but the tickets were sold out.
(C) The tickets were so inexpensive that they attended the concert.
(D) They couldn’t afford the tickets for the concert.
16. (A) She enjoys violent movies.

(B) She would have preferred a more violent movie.
(C) She enjoyed the movie.
(D) She thinks the film was too violent.
17. (A) The class thought the demonstration was too complex.
(B) The professor canceled it.
(C) The professor didn’t show up.
(D) Too many students showed up.
18. (A) Her family is unable to come to graduation.

(B) It is possible that her family will come.
(C) Her parents are coming to the ceremonies.
(D) She is not graduating this year.
19. (A) He will buy the car as soon as he gets the money.
(B) His friend is buying the car for him.
(C) He has already made the down payment on the car.
(D) He can.t afford to buy a new car.

20. (A) Borrow their friend’s glasses.
(B) Leave the room. 2
(C) Move to the front of the room.
(D) Sit together beside the room.
21. (A) The woman should announce the names of the committee members.
(B) The woman will serve on the committee.
(C) He is sure about the time of the appointment with the committee.
(D) He is thankful to be appointed to the committee.
22. (A) Lawyer-client.

(B) Doctor-patient.
(C) Dentist-patient.
(D) Bank teller-customer.
23. (A) It’s probably not going to rain.

(B) It will rain later.
(C) It’s raining now, but will probably stop.
(D) The rain has already stopped.
24. (A) She thinks his lectures are boring.

(B) She doesn’t like his choice of test question.
(C) She thinks his tests are too long.
(D) She doesn’t think he prepares well enough.
25. (A) The woman should look through a number of journals in the library.
(B) The woman must ask the professor for a copy.
(C) The article was placed on reserve.
(D) He has reservations about the information in the article.
26. (A) Start typing immediately.

(B) Find a different typing service.
(C) Change her topic.
(D) Have the paper typed by somebody else.
27. (A) He went to the concert because he didn’t want to work.

(B) He never goes to a concert if he has work to do.
(C) Although he has a lot of work to do, he went to the concert.
(D) He didn’t go to the concert because he had too much work to do.
28. (A) She can’t bear to try.
(B) She is daring person.
(C) She is challenging the man to make the effort.
(D) She doesn’t want the man even to try.
29. (A) In a photography studio.

(B) In a biology laboratory.
(C) In an office.
(D) In the library.
30. (A) He can’t attend the game because of his schoolwork.

(B) He wishes he could work on his term paper for sociology.
(C) He’d like to work on his social skills at the game.
(D) Sociology is less important to him than football this weekend.

PART B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you 1
will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the correct answer.
31. (A) All kinds of pollution

(B) How acid rain has harmed the earth.
(C) Pollution from cars and factories.
(D) The cause and possible effects of acid rain.
32. (A) Nuclear power.

(B) Electricity
(C) Burning coal and oil.
(D) solar power.
33. (A) From sulfur dioxide and water vapor.

(B) From sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide.
(C) From nitric acid and sulfur dioxide.
(D) From water vapor and nitric acid.
34. (A) Only in North America.

(B) At the North and South Poles.
(C) In parts of several northern continents.
(D) In equatorial areas.
35. (A) She should protect herself from the rain.

(B) She should clean up the water supply.
(C) She should read a novel.
(D) She should get more information about acid rain.
36. (A) To request an extension on a deadline

(B) To receive advise about time management.
(C) To ask for help in writing a term paper.
(D) To explain his absence from history class.
37. (A) He was arrested by campus police.

(B) His mother has a serious illness.
(C) He caught the flu and missed school.
(D) His dog ate his history term paper.
38. (A) She is confident that the student’s excuse will be reasonable.
(B) She is positive that the student is about to tell him a lie.
(C) She is angry that the student is asking him for a favor.
(D) She is skeptical that the student really has a legitimate excuse.
39. (A) He is cynical.

(B) He is servile.
(C) He is compassionate.
(D) He is unsympathetic.
40. (A) The student has finished a rough draft of his term paper.
(B) The professor agrees to let the student turn in his paper at the end of the week.
(C) The student is writing about the Civil War.
(D) The student asks the professor to check his writing.

PART C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear two long talks, and you will hear some questions. 2
The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers
in your test book and choose the correct.
41. (A) To compare diamonds and gold

(B) To discuss types of games
(C) To discuss the formation of diamonds
(D) To review the elements of carbon
42.(A) Carbon
(B) Carat
(C) Color
(D) Cut
43. (A) In a manufacturing plant

(B) In an electrical insulator
(C) Deep in the Earth’s mantle
(D) Alongside metals such as gold
44. (A) They can create heat

(B) They can hold heat in
(C) They can damage insulators
(D) They can conduct electricity
45. (A) Nobody will want to buy diamond computer chips.

(B) Advertisers will have fun marketing this type of product.
(C) Computers will take interest away from the jewelry industry.
(D) Jewelers will be competing with programmers.
46. (A) What caused the ring of fire

(B) The volcanoes of the ring of fire
(C) Hawaiian volcanoes
(D) Different types of volcanoes
47. (A) The Ring of Fire

(B) The characteristics of volcanoes in the Ring of Fire
(C) The volcanoes of Hawaii
(D) Mauna loa
48.(A) In Hawaii
(B) In the United States
(C) Along the Ring of Fire
(D) Within the Ring of Fire.
49. (A) They are not so violent

(B) They are located along the Ring of Fire
(C) They contain a lot of gas
(D) The contain thick Lave
50.(A) A volcano on the Ring of Fire

(B) An island in Hawaii
(C) A long, low volcanic mountain
(D) An explosive volcano

Section 2
Structure and written expression 3
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English there two types of questions is this section, with special directions for each type.
Time: 25 MINUTES.
The structure and written expression is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is
appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section with special
directions for each type.
PART A
Directions : questions 1 -15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence, you will see four
words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D) choose the one word that best completes the
sentences.
1. Skiing is a sport_________ goes back 4,000 years.

(A) and the history
(B) whose history
(C) that is a history that
(D) it has history
2.___________ , mercury is so poisonous that birth defects can easily result from its ingestion by
pregnant women.
(A) it is readily soluble in sulfuric and nitric acid
(B) readily soluble in sulfuric and nitric acid
(C) that is readily soluble in sulfuric and nitric acid
(D) becoming readily soluble in sulfuric and nitric acid
3. One theory of the origin of the universe is_____________ from the explosion of a tiny, extremely
dense fireball several billion years ago.
(A) because what formed
(B) the formation that
(C) that it formed
(D) when forming
4. Only with the advent of refrigeration __________ to consume fresh meat.

(A) most Americans were able to begin
(B) most were Americans able to begin
(C) were most Americans able to begin
(D) Americans were most able to begin
5.The memory of Juarez ________ in Mexico more than that of any other man.
(A) having been venerated
(B) who venerates
(C) it will venerate
(D) is venerated
6. An excellent cosmetologist in even the most unsophisticated hair salon can make a man seem to
have more hair than __________
(A) has actually he
(B) he actually has
(C) he actually does
(D) does he actually have

7. The eagle uses the same nest year after year, __________new material each time.
(A) by adding 4
(B) which adds
(C) and adds
(D) adding
8. When the eggs from the country storekeeper of the farmer himself were received at the packing
house, ________
(A) it was candled
(B) it was they which were candled
(C) they were candled
(D) they were those which were candled
9. Virtually all doctors agree ___________ a second diagnosis in the event of a potentially major
disease.
(A) that patients should seek
(B) patients should be sought
(C) patients they seek
(D) patients that they seek
10. __________ by the Northwest Mounted Police, Calgary is now one of Canada’s fastest growing
cities.
(A) built at the site of a fort established
(B) it is built at the site of a fort established
(C) to build at the site of a fort established
(D) having built at the site of a fort established
11. The Actor’s Studio, a professional actor’s workshop in New York City provides a place ______
without the pressure of commercial production.
(A) where actors can work together
(B) where can actors work together
(C) when actors can work together
(D) when can actors work together
12. Even at the peak of its power _________ at the core of a tornado almost never reaches in excess of
250 miles per hour.
(A) the circulating column of air
(B) which circulates column of air
(C) it is the circulating column of air
(D) that the circulating column of air
13. A gifted scientist, Newton ______ some of the most fundamental laws in the history of science.
(A) discovering
(B) who discovered
(C) he discovered
(D) discovered
14. __________ wonders on the fair faces, delicate tissues, and individual forms of a large variety of
plant species.
(A) environment work
(B) there is environment work
(C) environment works
(D) it is the environment that work

15. Road conditions in the United States suffered a severe setback _______ the Civil War.
(A) as a result of 5
(B) because
(C) despite
(D) in spite of the fact that
PART B
Directions : in question 16 – 40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be grammatically correct. Then on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen.
16. The ability to conceal themselves by camouflage enable some otherwise defenseless
A B C
animals to survive.
D
17. The Brooklyn Bridge which was built by John Roeblings who perfected the suspension
A B C D
bridge.
18. Located between the Tigris and the Euphrates rivers, the history of the city of Babylon
A B C
was long and rich.
D
19. Regarding as the creator of the historical novel, Sir Walter Scott captured his readers’
A B C
imagination with his stirring tales.
D
20. Esperato is unique among language because they were invented by a single man, Ludwig
A B C D
Zamenhof.
21. Contrary to popular belief, bananas grown on the soft stalk of a leafy plant and not on
A B C
trees with woody trunks.
D
22. Little do scientists know about conditions on Uranus and Neptune, two giant planet in the
A B C D
solar system.
23. Both the rising of bread dough and the changing of grape juice to wine are famous,
A B C
well-known examples of fermentation.
D
24. Because of their size, dachshunds are less expensive to feed, more easy to train, and more
A B C
congenial than Great Danes.
D

25. The eradication of tuberculosis from animal herds in the U.S. was once thought 6
A B
completely, but now forms of the disease have been diagnosed in such animals as
C D
buffalo.
26. In responding to telephone surveys with detailed answers, consumers are unawares that
A B C
they may be placed on telephone and email marketing lists.
D
27. Related to the manatee, the dugong eats seaweed, but its back teeth are few and soon
A B C
fallen out.
D
28. Making homework assigned by a professor is one of the best ways that a student has of
A B C
master material covered in class.
D
29. The ability of economists to explain such simple phenomenon as fluctations in the stock
A B C
market remains questionable.
D
30. Female cockroaches are about three times more numerous as male cockroaches and have
A B C
rudimentary wings.
D
31. From a psychological perspective, those people who expect that the worse will happen to
A B C
him are seldom disappointed.
D
32. The gopher digs with the big strong claws of its two front foot and with its overhanging
A B C D
front teeth.
33. The population of California more than doubled during the period 1940 – 1960, creating
A B
problems in road-building and provide water for its arid southern section.
C D
34. Some marine invertebrates, such as the sea urchin and the starfish, migrates from deep
A B
water to shallow during spring and early summer to spawn.
C D
35. Chopin, a famous Polish composer, he died at Place Vendome, a famous Paris square.
A B C D

36. None Natural disaster in history caused as much shock and grief worldwide as the 2004
A B C D 7
tsunami disaster in Asia.
37. Written mail, which is currently referred to as “snail mail” by frequent computer users,are
A B C
being slowly transformed by email and other electronic technologies.

D
38. The Actor’s Studio, a professional actor’s workshop in New York City, providing a place
A B
where actors can work together without the pressure of commercial production.
C D
39. Battles between ancient armies were usually fought wherever crucial trading rout, fertile
A B
agriculture fields, or important sources of water were found.
C D
40. Despite the simplicity of its construction, the ancient systems were found to exhibit very
A B C
complicated behavior.
D

Section 3 8
Reading Comprehension
Time : 55 minutes
Directions: In this section of test you will read several passages, each one is followed by several
questions about it. For question 1 - 50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), (D) to
each question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and the fill in the space
that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions following a passage on the basic of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Questions 1 -10
1 One of the most dangerous for pregnant women to consume is alcohol. Because alcohol is
delivered quickly into the blood and passes quickly into the tissues and membranes, the human
fetus is particularly vulnerable to its effects. In fact, the negative effects on a fetus are so
pronounced that babies born after exposure to
5 alcohol are said to be suffering from fetal alcohol syndrome. As a pregnant woman drinks
alcohol, the alcohol is passed into her bloodstream almost simultaneously. Moreover, because the
bloodstream of the fetus is inextricably tied to that of the mother, the alcohol passes directly into
the bloodstream of the fetus as well. And, what is more, the concentration of alcohol in the fetus
is exactly the same as is the
10 mother.
For the mother, this concentration is not a problem because her liver can remove one ounce of
alcohol from her system per hour. However, the fetus's liver is not completely developed (how
developed it is depends on its stage of development). The rate at which it is able to eliminate the
alcohol from the blood of the fetus is much
15 slower. Eventually, the alcohol will be returned to the mother's system by passing across the
placenta, but this process is slow. By the time this takes place, major neurological damage may
have already occurred. Research has shown that as little as one drink of alcohol can produce
significant, irreversible damage to the fetus. Babies born after exposure to alcohol generally
exhibit facial distortion, inability to
20 concentrate, and difficulty in remembering. Simply speaking, it is imperative that pregnant
women avoid alcohol.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) women and drugs
(B) The dangers of pregnancy
(C) The fetus and alcohol
(D) Drinking and the human body
2. In line 3 the word "its" refers to

(A) the fetus
(B) the blood
(C) the tissue
(D) the alcohol
3. In line 4, the word "pronounced" is close in meaning to?

(A) evident
(B) spoken
(C) described
(D) unfortunate

4. How much time can it be inferred that it takes alcohol to enter a woman’s bloodstream after she
takes a drink? 9
(A) about one hour
(B) a few seconds
(C) several minutes
(D) at least 24 hours
5. In line 7 the word "inextricably" most nearly means

(A) unexplainedly
(B) formerly
(C)forcefully
(D) inseparably
6. According to the passage, how does the concentration of alcohol in a fetus compare to that in the
mother?
(A) The concentration is more
(B) The concentration is less
(C) The concentration is equivalent
(D) The concentration cannot be measured
7. It can be inferred that the development of a fetal liver depends on

(A) how many months pregnant the mother is
(B) how much alcohol the mother has consumed
(C) how large the fetus is
(D) how well the mother has taken care of the fetus
8. According to the passage, how is alcohol finally returned to the mother's system?
(A) it is carried through the bloodstream
(B) it is transferred across the placenta
(C) it is expelled by the fetus's liver
(D) it is not completely returned
9. Which one of the following was NOT mentioned as assign of fetal alcohol syndrome?
(A) disfigurement of the face
(B) concentration difficulties
(C) increased aggression
(D) memory problems
10. At what place in the passage does the author discuss the quantity of alcohol necessary to produce
negative results?
(A) lines 2 - 3
(B) lines 11 - 13
(C) lines 21 - 22
(D) line 24 - 25
Questions 11 - 16
1 Bacteria are extremely small living things. While we measure our own sizes in inches or
centimeters, bacterial size is measured in microns. One micron is a thousandth of a millimeter a
pinhead is about a millimeter across. Rod shaped bacteria are usually from two to tour microns
long, while rounded ones are generally one micron in
5 diameter thus if you enlarged a founded bacterium a thousand times, it would be just about the
size of a pinhead. An adult human magnified by the same amount would be over a mile (1.6
kilometers) tall.
Even with an ordinary microscope, you must look closely to see bacteria. Using a magnification
of 100 times, one finds that bacteria are barely visible as tiny rods or

10 dots one cannot make out anything of their structure. Using special stains, one can see that some
bacteria have attached to them wavy - looking "hairs" called flagella. Others have only one 10
flagellum. The flagella and rotate, pushing the bacteria though the water. Many bacteria lack
flagella and cannot move about by their own power while others can glide along over surfaces by
some little understood mechanism.
15 From the bacteria point of view, the world is a very different place from what it is to humans to a
bacterium water is as thick as molasses is to us. Bacteria are so small that they are influenced by
the movements of the chemical molecules around them. Bacteria under the microscope, even
those with no flagella, often bounce about in the water. This is because they collide with the
water molecules and are pushed this
20 way and that. Molecules move so rapidly that within a tenth of a second the molecules around a
bacterium have all been replaced by new ones even bacteria without flagella are thus constantly
exposed to a changing environment.
11. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The characteristic of bacteria
(B) how bacteria reproduce
(C) The various functions of bacteria
(D) How bacteria contribute to disease
12. Bacteria are measured in

(A) Inches
(B) Centimeters
(C) Microns
(D) Millimeters
13. Which of the following is the smallest?

(A) A pinhead
(B) A rounded bacterium
(C) A microscope
(D) A rod-shape bacterium
14. According to the passage, someone who examines bacteria using only a microscope that magnifies
100 times would see
(A) tiny dots
(B) small "hairs"
(C) large rods
(D) detailed structures
15. The relationship between a bacterium and its flagella is most nearly analogous to which of the
following?
(A) A rider jumping on a horse’s back
(B) A being hit by a bat
(C) A boat powered by a motor
(D) A door closed by a gust of wind
16. In line 16, the author compares water to molasses, in order to introduce which of the following
topics?
(A) The bacterial content of different liquids
(B) What happens when bacteria are added to molasses
(C) The molecular structures of different chemicals
(D) How difficult it is for bacteria to move though water

Questions 17 -24
1 People are not only tightening their belts financially - obesity figures have fallen since the start of 11
the recession.
A study has found that the number of people who have become dangerously overweight halved
in the three years after the financial crisis of 2007.
5 The result has baffled researches because they had expected waistlines to expand as the
economic downturn affected family incomes. Previous studies have found that people with less
money tend to buy foods which are cheaper but higher in calories - such as takeaways and pre -
packaged meals - which is why poorer families are more likely to gain weight.
10 Academics do not yet know why the most recent research appears to suggest that having less
money reduces the number of people becoming fat.
But the effect was seen regardless of family income, which suggests a general trend across the
population and could be a sign that the healthy-eating message is having an impact at a time
when people are being more careful about how they shop.
15 Researchers used information collected from a study of 350,000 adults across the United States.
People were asked for their height and weight, which allows researchers to calculate their Body
Mass Index (BMI). The World Health Organization considers a person obese if they have a BMI
score of 30 or over, and overweight if they have a score of
20 between 25 and 30.
21The Arizona State University researchers said: 'in all but the poorest income group the annual
increase in BMI decelerated substantially during the recession. There is little evidence that the
economic downturn has exacerbated obesity by causing people to consume cheaper foods.'
25 Obesity rates in the UK-as in the US-have been rising for 20 years. As many as a quarter of all
Britons are officially classed as so overweight it threatens their health, and UK women are the
fattest in Europe.
17. The main idea of the passage is that

(A) The obesity rates have been rising
(B) a person obese if they have a BMI score 30 or over
(C) the economic downturn gas exacerbated obesity
(D) people who have become dangerously overweight reduced by half in the three years after the
financial crisis of 2007
18. The passage states that the recent research indicates that
(A) the crisis has lead people to healthy eating habit.
(B) the crisis has changed the consumer spending on food.
(C) the crisis has accelerated the number of people becoming fat.
(D) the crisis has not caused people to consume cheaper food.
19. The word "downturn" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) amplification
(B) reduction
(C) acceleration
(D) speed
20. According to the passage, WHO considers one overweight

(A) if they have a BMI score of thirty or over
(B) if they have a BMI score of below twenty-five
(C) if they have a BMI score of between twenty-five and thirty
(D) if they have a BMI score of twenty

21. The word "evidence" in line 23 could be best replaced by
(A) burden 12
(B) chart
(C) proof
(D) authority
22. It can be inferred from the passage that

(A) The crisis considerably changed the trend of junk food consumption
(B) The crisis has worsened the number of people becoming obese
(C) Poorer families are more likely to gain weight
(D) The researchers are completely sure of their recent study
23. The pronoun "their" in line 17 refers to

(A) Researchers
(B) Academics
(C) People
(D) Organization
24. Which of the following is true about the obesity rate according to the passage
(A) The obesity rate has mystified the experts
(B) The obesity rate has been predicted by the experts
(C) The obesity rate has pleased the experts
(D) The obesity rate in has made the experts unhappy
Questions 25 - 35
1 Exquisite patterns and surface ornamentation were an integral part of the aesthetics of the late
Victorian era. In America, these developments were incorporated into the themes of national
expositions and artistic movements, as cottage industries grew and productivity in the decorative
arts flourished. The last three decades of the
5 19th century saw a change in sensibility that resulted in new stylistic approaches in American
decorative arts, a departure from the previous era of Rococo and Renaissance Revival excess.
Shapes became more angular, smoother and less flamboyant. The popular carvings and deep
modeling of earlier years disappeared as ornamentation become more linear and lighter in
appearance. Decoration focused
10 on the surface with rich and elegant patterns a doming furniture, objects of every sort, and
architectural and interior decorations. This artistic reawakening was prompted by the effects of
the Industrial Revolution on contemporary design.
This new attitude, with its focus on ornament and the decorative, was later referred to as the
Aesthetic Movement, but it also encompassed the early Art and Crafts
15 movement as well. The purpose was to bring a refined sensibility and components of "good taste"
to the domestic interior. Art and good taste not only denoted good character, but also could be
used to induce proper moral conduct and actions, thereby contributing to the betterment of
society. This placed a heavy burden on designers/decorators as well as on women as keepers of
the home. Americana drew
20 inspiration from the writing and work of English artists. This way a period of great eclecticism.
Tastes ranged from the Modern Gothic through the Persian, Greek and Islamic to the Japanese,
and with more than a nod to Mother Nature. Yet, regardless of the influence, surface pattern
reigned supreme. English reformers dictated that ornament should be derived from nature, and
pattern should be flat and stylized.
25 forms were accentuated by colored outlines, or often with touches of gold. The emphasis was on
art and on development of a refined sensibility. It was all a matter of taste.

25. What is the main topic of the passage?
(A) defining the "Aesthetic Movement" 13
(B) decorative arts in late 19th century America
(C) English influences on American decorative arts in the late 15th century
(D) The change in tastes from "Rococo and Renaissance Revival" to the 'Aesthetic Movement' in
late 19th century America
26. The word "integral" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) essential
(B) additional
(C) important
(D) beautifying
27. According to the passage, during the Aesthetic Movement popular carvings and deep modeling of
earlier years
(A) were popular

(B) again became popular
(C) disappeared
(D) defined good taste
28. The word "elegant" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) beautiful
(B) ornamental
(C) colorful
(D) refined
29. According to passage, the purpose of the Aesthetic Movement was to

(A) induce proper moral conduct and actions
(B) define what was meant by good taste in the domestic interior
(C) encompass Arts and Crafts as well in the ornament a decoration
(D) define good character and contribute to the betterment of society
30. The phrase "new attitude" in line 13 refers to

(A) including the early Arts and Craft Movement as well
(B) artistic reawakening
(C) the Industrial Revolution
(D) Rococo and Renaissance Revival
31. The word "denoted" in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) promoted
(B) facilitated
(C) developed
(D) signified
32. Where in the passage does the author mention the influence of art and good taste or morals?
(A) lines 5 - 9
(B) lines 10 - 14
(C) lines 15 - 20
(D) lines 20 – 24

33. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(A) designers and decorators were mainly responsible for starting the new attitude 14
(B) the movement led to a higher standard of morality in late 19th century America
(C) the Americans considered the English to be arbiters of good taste
(D) women, as keepers of the home, faced a heavy burden
34. According to the passage, which of the following remained most important regardless of
influences from other countries?
(A) surface pattern
(B) English opinions
(C) good taste
(D) proper moral conduct and actions
35. Which of the following in NOT mentioned as a feature of the Aesthetic Movement?
(A) shape became less flamboyant
(B) ornamentation became lighter in appearance
(C) forms were accentuated by colored lines
(D) decorations focused mainly on furniture
Questions 36 - 44
1 The colossal Squid, sometimes called the Antarctic or Giant Cranch Squid, is believed to be the
largest squid species in terms of mass. It is the only known member of the genus
Mesonychoteuthis. Though it is known from only a few specimens, current estimates put its
maximum size at 12 - 14 meters (39 - 46 feet)
5 long, based on analysis of smaller and immature specimens, making it the largest known
invertebrate.
Unlike the giant squid, whose arms and tentacles only have suckers lined with small teeth, the
Colossal Squid's limbs are also equipped with sharp hooks : some swiveling, others three-pointed.
Its body is wider and stouter, and therefore heavier,
10 than that of the giant squid. Colossal Squids are believed to have a longer mantle than giant
squids, although their tentacles are shorter.
The squid exhibits abyssal gigantism. The beak of Mesonychoteuthis hamiltoni is the largest
known of any squid, exceeding that of Architeuthis (giant squid) in size and in robustness. The
Colossal Squid also has the largest eyes documented in the animal
15 kingdom.
While little is known about the life of this creature, it is believed to feed on prey such as
chaetognatha, large fish like the Patagonian toothfish and other squids in the deep ocean using
bioluminescence. The Colossal Squid is thought to have a slow metabolic rate, requiring only
around 30 g of prey daily. Estimates of its energetic
20 demands suggest that it is a slow-moving ambush predator, using its large eyes primarily for
predator detection rather than active hunting.
36. The passage is about

(A) A continent
(B) A kind of fish
(C) A fresh water giant
(D) A deep ocean
37. How long is approximately the longest colossal squid?

(A) less than 12 meters long
(B) more than 14 meters long
(C) more or less 13 meters long
(D) Unknown

38. A colossal squid can best be described as
(A) A kind of squid that is well-documented in the animal kingdom 15
(B) A squid that is using bioluminescence
(C) A giant squid whose arms and tentacle have suckers lined with small teeth
(D) The biggest squid in the ocean
39. The word "specimens" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) Samples
(B) Species
(C) Creatures
(D) Infants
40. Which of the following might be habitat of colossal squids?

(A) The Atlantic
(B) The Pacific
(C) Deep sea
(D) The South Pole
41. What diet does the colossal squid eat?

(A) Plankton, other squids, and fish living in the deep waters
(B) Big tropical fish
(C) Phytoplankton
(D) Mostly sperm whales
42. According to the passage, the colossal squids

(A) Eat lot everyday
(B) Rely on their sharp eyes for hunting
(C) Are hunting actively to catch predators
(D) Consume mostly 30-gram preys
43. Where in the passage does the writer describe how the squids hunt their food ?
(A) line 6 - 9
(B) line 10 - 13
(C) line 14 - 16
(D) line 17 - 19
44. The word "robustness" in line 14 can be best replaced by

(A) width
(B) strength
(C) height
(D) weight
Questions 45 - 50
1 One of the most popular literary figures in American literature is a woman who spent almost half of
her long life in China, a country on a continent thousands of miles from the United States. In her
lifetime she earned this country's most highly acclaimed literary award : the Pulitzer Prize, and
also the most prestigious form of literary
5 recognition in the world, the Nobel Prize for Literature. Pearl S. Buck was almost a household
word throughout much of her lifetime because of her prolific literary output, which consisted of
some eighty-five publishes works, including several dozen novels, six collections of short stories,
fourteen books for children, and more than a dozen works of nonfiction. When she was eighty
years old, some twenty - five
10 volumes were awaiting publication. Many of those books were set in China, the land in which she
spent so much of her life. Her books and her life served as a bridge between the cultures of the
East and the West. As the product of those two cultures she became as the described herself,

"mentally bifocal". Her unique background made her into an unusually interesting and versatile
human being. As we examine 16
15 the life of Pearl Buck, we cannot help but be aware that we are in fact meeting three separate
people : a wife and mother, an internationally famous writer and a humanitarian and
philanthropist. One cannot really get to know Pearl Buvm without learning about each of the
three. Though honored in her lifetime with the William Dean Howell Medal of the American
Academy of Arts and Letters in addition to the
20 Nobel and Pulitzer prizes. Pearl Buck as at total human being, not only a famous author. Is a
captivating subject of study?
45. What is the author's main purpose in the passage?

(A) To offer a criticism of the works of Pearl Buck.
(B) To illustrate Pearl Buck's views on Chinese literature
(C) To indicate the background and diverse interests of Pearl Buck
(D) To discuss Pearl Buck's influence on the cultures of the East and the West
46. According to the passage, Pearl Buck is known as a writer of all of the following EXCEPT
(A) novels
(B) children's books
(C) poetry
(D) short stories
47. Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the author as an award received by Pearl Buck?
(A) The Nobel Prize
(B) The Newberry Medal
(C) The William Dean Howell medal
(D) The Pulitzer prizes
48. According to the passage, Pearl Buck was an unusual figure in American literature in that she
(A) wrote extensively about a very different culture
(B) published half of her books abroad
(C) won more awards than any other woman of time
(D) achieved her first success very late in life
49. According to the passage, Pearl Buck described herself as "mentally bifocal" to suggest that she
was
(A) capable of resolving the differences between two distinct linguistic systems
(B) keenly aware of how the past could influence the future
(C) capable of producing literary works of interest to both adults and children
(D) equally familiar with two different cultural environments
50. The author's attitude toward Pearl Buck could best be described as
(A) indifferent
(B) admiring
(C) sympathetic
(D) tolerant

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TOEFL SIMULATION TEST 1

1. (A) The fil exam was harder than the others.

2. (A) In a department store.

3. (A) Jason Daniel isn’t home right now.

4. (A) There was a scarcity of fresh fruit at the market.

5. (A) The man needs to pay attention to every detail.

6. (A) The client presented his case to the lawyer.

7. (A) Write a message to the man

8. (A) The pipes did not need to be cleared.