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Hindi
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3
180720
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer
is harmful.
1
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
TOPIC : Vector, S.H.M. & Wave Theory, Kinematics upto Equation of Motion
Y Y
10 cm 10 cm
52 52
O t(s) O t(s)
64 32 64 16 64 32 64 8 64 32 64 16 64 32 64 8
–5 2 –5 2
–10 cm –10 cm
(1) y 10sin 16t cm (1) y 10sin 16t cm
4 4
(2) y 10sin 16t cm (2) y 10sin 16t cm
3 3
(3) y 10sin 16t cm (3) y 10sin 16t cm
4 4
(4) y 10cos 16t cm (4) y 10cos 16t cm
4 4
2. Figure shows the variation of force acting on a 2.
400 gm
particle of mass 400 gm executing simple
harmonic motion. The frequency of oscillation of
:-
the particle is :-
(N) F
(N) F 2.0
2.0
1.5
1.5
1.0
1.0
0.5
0.5
-20 -15 -10 -5 5 10 15 20 x(cm)
-20 -15 -10 -5 5 10 15 20 x(cm) -0.5
-0.5
-1.0
-1.0
-1.5
-1.5
-2.0
-2.0
1001CM305616004 H-1/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
3. A vertical spring carries a 5 kg body and is 3.
5 kg
hanging in equilibrium, an additional force is
applied so that the spring is further stretched.
When released from this position, it performs 50
25 sec
50
complete oscillations in 25 s, with an amplitude 5 cm
of 5 cm. The additional force applied is :- :-
(1) 80 N (2) 80 2 N (3) 4 2 N (4) 4 N (1) 80 N (2) 80 2 N (3) 4 2 N (4) 4 N
4. A particle executing SHM has velocities u and 4.
v and accelerations a and b in two of its positions. u
v
a
b
Find the distance between these two positions :-
:-
u 2 v2 v2 u 2 u 2 v2 v2 u 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
ab ab ab ab
v2 u 2 v2 u 2 v2 u 2 v2 u 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
ab ab ab ab
5. In a certain oscillatory system (particle is 5.
(SHM
)
performing SHM), the amplitude of motion is 5m
5m
4 sec
and the time period is 4s. The minimum time 3m
taken by the particle for passing between points,
4m
which are at distances of 3m and 4m from the
centre and on the same side of it will (
:-
approximately be :- 16 7
(1) s (2) s
45 45
16 7 8 13
(1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s 8 13
45 45 45 45 (3) s (4) s
45 45
6. A particle of mass m moving along the x-axis has 6. x-
m
a potential energy U(x) = a + bx2 where a and b
U(x) = a + bx2 a b
are positive constants. It will execute simple
harmonic motion with a frequency determined by
:-
the value of :-
(1) b alone (2) b and a alone (1) b (2) a b
(3) b and m alone (4) b, a and m alone (3) b
m (4) a, b m
7. The instantaneous displacement x of a particle 7. x,
executing simple harmonic motion is given by x = a1 sin t + a2 cos (t + /6)
x = a1 sin t + a2 cos (t + /6). The amplitude
:-
A of oscillation is given by :-
(1) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos
(1) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos 6
6
a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos (2) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos
(2) 3
3
(3) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos (3) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos
6 6
(4) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos (4) a12 a 22 2a1a 2 cos
3 3
H-2/40 1001CM305616004
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/02-10-2016
8. A plank of mass 12 kg is supported by two 8. 12 kg
identical springs as shown in figure. The plank
always remains horizontal. When the plank is
3sec
pressed down and released, it performs simple
harmonic motion with time period 3s. When a
block of mass m is attached to the plank the time m
period changes to 6s. The mass of the block is:- 6sec
:-
m
m 12kg
12kg
(1) 6iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ (2) 2iˆ 2jˆ 2kˆ (1) 6iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ (2) 2iˆ 2jˆ 2kˆ
(3) ˆi ˆj kˆ (4) 6iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ (3) ˆi ˆj kˆ (4) 6iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ
16. If F1 and F2 are two vector of equal magnitudes 16. F1
F2
F
F such that | F1 .F2 | | F1 F2 | , then | F1 F2 | | F1.F2 | | F1 F2 | | F1 F2 |
equals to :-
:-
(1) (2 2) F (2) 2F (1) (2 2) F (2) 2F
0.04 0.04
0.01 0.01
x(mm) x(mm)
20 20
2 2 2
(1) 1 × 10 N/m (2) 1.5 × 10 N/m (1) 1 × 10 N/m (2) 1.5 × 102 N/m
2
(3) 2 × 10 N/m (4) 3 × 102 N/m (3) 2 × 102 N/m (4) 3 × 102 N/m
18. A solid cube floats in water half immersed and 18.
has small vertical oscillations of time period
sec
5
sec. Its mass (in kg) is [Take g = 10 m/s2] :-
5
(kg
)
[g = 10 m/s2] :-
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0.5 (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0.5
19. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by 19.
the following equations :
:
Y1 = 40 sin t Y1 = 40 sin t
and Y2 = 10(sin t + c cos t)
Y2 = 10(sin t + c cos t)
If their displacement amplitudes are equal, then
the value of c is:
c
:
(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 10
(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 17 (4) 10
H-4/40 1001CM305616004
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/02-10-2016
20. The vertical motion of a ship at sea is described 20.
d2 x d2 x
by the equation 4x , where x is the 4x
x
dt 2 dt 2
vertical height of the ship (in metre) above its
(
)
mean position. If it oscillates through a height of 1m
-
1 m. (1)
1 m/s
(1) Its maximum vertical speed will be 1 m/s
(2)
2 m/s
(2) Its maximum vertical speed will be 2 m/s
(3)
2 m/s2
(3) Its greatest vertical acceleration is 2 m/s2
(4) Its greatest vertical acceleration is 1 m/s2 (4)
1 m/s2
21. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling 21.
of a car and its period of oscillation is T when T
the car is at rest. The car starts moving on a
g (
horizontal road with a constant acceleration g
)
(equal to the acceleration due to gravity, In T
magnitude) in the forward direction. To keep the
time period same, the length of the pendulum.
(1) 2 l
(1) will have to be increased by 2l
(2) ( 2 1) l
(2) will have to be increased by ( 2 1) l
(1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s (1) s (2) s (3) s (4) s
25 5 10 50 25 5 10 50
23. U is the potential energy of an oscillating particle 23. U
and F is the force acting on it at a given instant.
F
Which of the following is true ?
U 2U U 2U
(1) x0 (2) x0 (1) x0 (2) x0
F F F F
F F F F
(3) x0 (4) x0 (3) x0 (4) x0
U 2U U 2U
24. One-fourth length of a spring of force constant 24. k
k is cut away. The force constant of the remaining
spring will be
-
3 4 3 4
(1) k (2) k (3) k (4) 4 k (1) k (2) k (3) k (4) 4 k
4 3 4 3
1001CM305616004 H-5/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
25. What is the phase difference, at a given instant 25. y(x, t) = 0.03 sin (2t – 0.01x)
of time, between two particles 25 m apart, when
the wave y(x, t) = 0.03 sin (2t – 0.01x) travels 25 m
in a medium ?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
8 4 2 8 4 2
26. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, 26.
a,
wavelength and frequency n is travelling on a
n
stretched string. The maximum speed of particle
1 1
th the speed of propagation of the wave. If
a = 10–3 m
v = 10 ms–1
10 10
a = 10–3 m and wave velocity v = 10 ms–1, then
n
:-
and n are given by :-
(1) = 2 × 10–2 m (1) = 2 × 10–2 m
(2) = 10–3 m (2) = 10–3 m
10 3 10 3
(3) n Hz (3) n Hz
2 2
(4) (1) & (3) both (4) (1) (3)
27. Identify the figure, which correctly represents the 27.
given wave function
1
y 2 3 sin x 2t
1 6
y 2 3 sin x 2t
6
y y
2 3 2 3
3 3
(1) x (1) x
O O
y y
2 3 2 3
3 3
(2) x (2) x
O O
H-6/40 1001CM305616004
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/02-10-2016
29. The rope shown at an instant is carrying a wave 29.
n
travelling towards right, created by a source
vibrating at a frequency n.
c
a e c
b d a e
b d
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct (3) (1)
(2)
(4) Both (1) and (2) are wrong (4) (1)
(2)
30. A particle executes SHM on the x-axis with 30. x-A
T
amplitude A and time period T. The time taken
A
A
5
by the particle to travel a distance starting
5
:-
from rest is :-
T T 4
T T 4 (1) (2) cos 1
(1) (2) cos 1 20 2 5
20 2 5
T 1 T 1 T 1 T 1
(3) cos1 (4) sin 1 (3) cos1 (4) sin 1
2 5 2 5 2 5 2 5
31. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km 31. 6
2.5 km/h
with a speed of 2.5 km/h and walks back with a
4
constant speed by 4 km/h. His average speed for
round trip expressed (in km/h) is :-
:-
24 40 24 40
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4) 4.8 (1) (2) (3) 3 (4) 4.8
13 13 13 13
32. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a 32. OX
time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of t (
)
O
x (
)
the particle from O is given by : :
x = 40 + 12t – t3 x = 40 + 12t – t3
How long would the particle travel before coming
to rest ?
?
(1) 16m (2) 24m (3) 40m (4) 56m (1) 16m (2) 24m (3) 40m (4) 56m
33. Initial velocity of a particle is u 3iˆ 4 ˆj m/s & 33. ̂
u 3i 4 ˆj m/s
acceleration a 0.4iˆ 0.3ˆj m/s2 is acting on that a 0.4iˆ 0.3ˆj m/s2
10 sec
particle then velocity of particle after 10 sec is :- :-
(1) 7 2 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2 (1) 7 2 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 10 2 m/s2 (4) None (3) 10 2 m/s2 (4) None
1001CM305616004 H-7/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
34. If a particle moves from point A to B as shown 34.
A B
in figure then displacement of particle is
[OA = 3cm, OB = 4cm] - [OA = 3cm, OB = 4cm] -
B B
(1) 37 cm (1) 37 cm
(2) 7 cm (2) 7 cm
75° A 75° A
(3) 13 cm (3) 13 cm
15° 15°
0
(4) 1cm (4) 1cm 0
35. A body starts from rest and moves for 'n' seconds 35.
(a) n sec
with uniform acceleration 'a', its velocity after n
(n) sec 8 m/s
seconds is 8 m/s. The displacement of the body 3 sec
15 m
(a)
in last 3 seconds is 15 m. Find a :
(1) 4 m/s2 (1) 4 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2 (3) 2 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
36. x-coordinate of a particle moving along x-axis is 36. x
x
t3 2 t3 2
x= t 3t . Here x is in metre and t in second. x= t 3t
x
t
3 3
The motion starts at t = 0. Find acceleration of t = 0
particle when particle comes to instantaneous
rest :-
:-
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2 (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
(3) 7 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2 (3) 7 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
37. A body covers one-third of the distance with speed 37.
v1
v1. For the remaining distance, it travels for half v2
of the time with speed v2 & another half of the v3
time with speed v3. Find value of (n). If average
nv1 v2 v3
nv1 v2 v3
4v1 v 2 v3
n
:-
speed is :-
4v1 v 2 v3
(1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 1 (3) 5 (4) 1
38. A man walk 40 m along north direction then he 38. 40
30
walk 30 m along east direction and finally 30 2 m
30 2
along s-w direction then its displacement is :-
:-
(1) 10 m, North (1) 10 m, North
(2) 10 m, South (2) 10 m, South
(3) 10 m, East (3) 10 m, East
(4) 10 M, West (4) 10 M, West
39. A cyclist complets one round of a square track of 39. 2m
side 2m in 40 s. What will be the displacement 40 s.
3
at the end of 3 minutes ?
?
(1) 52 m (2) 0 (1) 52 m (2) 0
(3) 16 m (4) 2 2 m (3) 16 m (4) 2 2 m
H-8/40 1001CM305616004
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/02-10-2016
40. A particle moves in a straight line with velocity 40.
t0 v
v for time t0. Then its velocity becomes 2v for next t0 v0
t0 time. Finally its velocity becomes 3v for time T
3v
T. If its average speed during complete journey
2.5 v
was 2.5 v, then value of 'T' is :- T :-
(1) t0 (2) 2t0 (3) 3t0 (4) 4t0 (1) t0 (2) 2t0 (3) 3t0 (4) 4t0
41. 2
If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 4t ) m/s, then 41.
(10 + 4t ) m/s
2
1s 4s
the average acceleration of the particle between
:-
1s and 4s is :-
(1) 20 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (3) 12 m/s2 (4) 14 m/s2
(1) 20 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2 (3) 12 m/s2 (4) 14 m/s2
42. For a particle going on a straight line, which of 42.
the following are correct :-
:-
(a) If the velocity and acceleration have opposite (a)
signs, the object is slowing down
(b) If the position & velocity have opposite sign, (b)
the particle is moving towards the origin
(c) If the velocity is zero at an instant, the (c)
acceleration should also be zero at that instant
(d) If the velocity is zero for a time interval, the (d)
acceleration is zero at any instant within the
time internal
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b (1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b
(3) a, b, d (4) b, d (3) a, b, d (4) b, d
43. A person moves towards east for 3m, then towards 43.
3m
north for 4m, and then moves vertically up by 5m.
4m
5m
What is his minimum distance now from the
starting point ?
(1) 5 2m (2) 12m (3) 10m (4) 5m
(1) 5 2m (2) 12m (3) 10m (4) 5m
44. The displacement (x) of a particle depends on time 44.
(x) (t)
(t) as x = t2 – t. Choose the incorrect statement
x = t – t
2
:
from the following : (a)
(a) The particle never returns to its starting point
2 2
(b) The particle comes to rest after time (b)
3 3
(c) The magnitude of initial velocity of the
particle is (c)
(d) The initial acceleration of the particle is zero (d)
(1) a, b (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, d (4) All (1) a, b (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, d (4) All
45. A mosquito net over a 7ft × 4ft bed is 3ft high. 45. 7 × 4 3
The net has a hole at one corner of the bed through
which a mosquito enters the net. It flies and sits
at the diagonally opposite upper corner of the net,
then magnitude of the displacement of mosquito
is ?
?
(1) 84 (2) 74 (3) 64 (4) None (1) 84 (2) 74 (3) 64 (4) None
1001CM305616004 H-9/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
TOPIC : Periodic Table, Chemical Equilibrium, Chemical Kinetics, Functional Group, Isomerism
46. For an element having only one valence shell 46.
1 e
electron, which of the following difference will
have the maximum value ?
(1) IE2 – IE1 (2) IE3 – IE1 (1) IE2 – IE1 (2) IE3 – IE1
(3) IE3 – IE2 (4) None (3) IE3 – IE2 (4) None
47. Which is incorrect statement :- 47.
(1) In solid O2– is stabilised by neighbouring (1)
O2–
cations.
(2) Formation of O2– from O– is unfavourable in
(2)
O2– O–
gas phase
(3) Electron affinity of O < S (3) O
S
(4) I.E. of Sb < Te (4) Sb Te
48. Which chalcogen has maximum E.A. ? 48.
E.A.
:-
(1) Cl (2) F (1) Cl (2) F
(3) O (4) S (3) O (4) S
49. Select the correct order of I.E. ? 49.
:-
(1) Cu < Zn < Ga (2) Ag < cd < In (1) Cu < Zn < Ga (2) Ag < cd < In
(3) Hg > Au > Tl (4) Sr > In > Sn (3) Hg > Au > Tl (4) Sr > In > Sn
50. Genr the Ist I.E. increases along a period but others are 50.
some exceptions one which is not an exception is :-
:-
(1) Be and B (2) N and O (1) Be and B (2) N and O
(3) Ca and Ga (4) N and F (3) Ca and Ga (4) N and F
51. If the Quantum number could have the value of 51.
n
Sc(21)
n also then Sc(21) would have e– confr as :- (other e– :-
(
rules strictly followed) )
(1) 1s2, 1p6, 2s2, 2p6, 2d3, 3s2 (1) 1s2, 1p6, 2s2, 2p6, 2d3, 3s2
(2) 1s2, 1p6, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3d3 (2) 1s2, 1p6, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3d3
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d1, 4s2 (3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d1, 4s2
(4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d3 (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d3
52. If there were three possibilities of electron spin, 52.
K(19)
K(19) would be placed in :-
:-
(1) s-block (2) p-block (1) s-block (2) p-block
(3) d-block (4) p-block (3) d-block (4) p-block
53. Which set does not show correct matching :- 53.
:-
3+ 10
(1) Sc [Ne] 3s 3p 2 6
Zero group (1) Sc3+[Ne]103s23p6 Zero group
(2) Fe2+[Ar]183d6 VIII group (2) Fe2+[Ar]183d6 VIII group
(3) Cr[Ar]3d54s1 VI B group (3) Cr[Ar]3d54s1 VI B group
(4) All of these (4) All of these
H-10/40 1001CM305616004
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/02-10-2016
54. Consider the following I.E's values ev/atom for 54. Consider the following I.E's values ev/atom for
element W and X is :- element W and X is :-
Element I.E1 I.E2 I.E3 I.E4 Element I.E1 I.E2 I.E3 I.E4
W 18 27 33 240 W 18 27 33 240
X 20 24 210 230 X 20 24 210 230
other element Y and Z have outer electronic confr
Y Z e–ns2np4 ns2np5
2 4 2
ns np and ns np . 5
X, Y, Z and W belongs to second short period then X, Y, Z, W
find out the correct statement :- :-
(1) oxide of W element is basic (1) W
(2) E.A. of W is greater than X (2) W E.A. X
(3) III I.E. of Y is greater than X (3) Y III I.E. X
(4) IVth I.E. of X is more than Z (4) X IVth I.E. Z
55. WOF statement is correct regarding following 55.
process :- :-
E.A.
(a) Cl g Clg I.E.
(b) Cl g Cl g E.A.
(a) Cl g Clg I.E.
(b) Cl g Cl g
I.E. I.E.
(c) Cl g Clg
(d) Cl g Cl 2 I.E.
(c) Cl g Clg I.E.
(d) Cl g Cl 2
(1) |I.E of process (c)| = |I.E of process (b)| (1) |I.E of process (c)| = |I.E of process (b)|
(2) |I.E of process (d)| = |E.A. of process (a)| (2) |I.E of process (d)| = |E.A. of process (a)|
(3) |I.E of process (d)| = |I.E of process (c)| (3) |I.E of process (d)| = |I.E of process (c)|
(4) |I.E of process (b)| = |E.A. of process (a)| (4) |I.E of process (b)| = |E.A. of process (a)|
56. The sum of I.E1 and IE2, I.E3 and I.E4 for element 56. P Q I.E1 IE2, I.E3
I.E4
P and Q are given below :-
:-
(IE1 + IE2) (IE3 + IE4) (ev/atom) (IE1 + IE2) (IE3 + IE4) (ev/atom)
P 2.45 28.82 P 2.45 28.82
Q 2.85 6.11
Q 2.85 6.11
According to the given information the correct
:-
statement is :-
(1) P2+ is more stable than Q2+ (1) P2+
Q2+
(2) P2+ is less stable than Q2+ (2) P2+
Q2+
(3) P+4 is more stable than P4+ (3) P+4
Q+4
(4) All of these (4)
57. Determine the correct order :- 57.
:-
(1) EAI order [Ge < As] (1) EAI order [Ge < As]
(2) IEI order [Sb > Te] (2) IEI order [Sb > Te]
(3) IEI order [S > O] (3) IEI order [S > O]
(4) EAI order [F > Cl] (4) EAI order [F > Cl]
58. If A has the electronic configuration of 1s22s22p3 58. A e– 1s22s22p3
then WOF statement is incorrect ?
(1) IEI of A is negative (1) A IEI
(2) IE of A is less than E.A. of A (2) A IE, A E.A.
(3) IE2 IE3 for above element (3) IE2 IE3
(4) None of these (4)
1001CM305616004 H-11/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
59. The I.E. for B, Tl and Al are x, y and z Kcal/mole 59. B, Tl
Al I.E. x, y z
respectively. Choose the correct relationship
:-
between them :-
(1) z > x = y (2) x > y > z
(1) z > x = y (2) x > y > z
(3) x > y > z (4) x < y > z (3) x > y > z (4) x < y > z
60. The smallest size cation and anion that exist are 60.
:-
respectively :-
(1) H+ and H (2) H+ and F
+ +
(1) H and H (2) H and F
(3) Li+ and F (4) Li+ and H (3) Li+ and F (4) Li+ and H
H-12/40 1001CM305616004
Achiever Course/Phase-MAZK/02-10-2016
66. Consider the graph given in following diagram. 66.
Which of the following options does not show
instantaneous rate of reaction at 40th second ?
?
C5 C5
C4 C4
C3
C3
n
Conc
C2 C2
C1 C1
0 20 30 40 50
Time (in second) 0 20 30 40 50
( )
C5 C 2 C3 C 2
(1) (2) C5 C 2 C3 C 2
50 30 40 30 (1) (2)
50 30 40 30
C3 C1 C4 C 2 C3 C1 C4 C 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
40 20 50 30 40 20 50 30
1001CM305616004 H-13/40
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69. Thermal decomposition of a compound is of first 69.
order. If 50% of a sample of this compound is
50%
120 min
decomposed in 120 min, then how long will it
90%
take 90% of the compound to decompose ?
(1) 240 min. (2) 180.8 min.
(1) 240 min. (2) 180.8 min.
(3) 398.8 min. (4) 325.6 min. (3) 398.8 min. (4) 325.6 min.
70. Consider the plots for the types of reaction . 70. nA — B + C
nA — B + C
t t [A] t t
[A]
(i) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) 4.38 Kcal (2) 3.43 Kcal (1) 4.38 Kcal (2) 3.43 Kcal
(3) 6.62 Kcal (4) None of these (3) 6.62 Kcal (4)
72. The data given below are for the reaction of NO 72. NO Cl2, 295K
NOCl
and Cl2 to form NOCl at 295K
[Cl2] [NO] Initial rate (In mole lit–1 sec–1)
-
0.05 0.05 1 × 10–3
[Cl2] [NO]
(mole lit–1 sec–1
)
–3
0.15 0.05 3 × 10
0.05 0.05 1 × 10–3
0.05 0.15 9 × 10–3
0.15 0.05 3 × 10–3
n
Determine the reaction rate when conc of Cl2 and 0.05 0.15 9 × 10–3
NO are 0.2M and 0.4M respectively. Cl2 NO
0.2M 0.4M
73. In a reaction, n1A + n2B —m1C + m2D , 5M of 73. , n1A + n2B —m1C + m2D
,
reactant A are allowed to react with 3M of reactant A 5M B 3M
B. After 5 second, the concentration of A was 5
A
4M
found to be 4M. Rate of decomposition A and A
D
rate of formation of D respectively :-
:-
m2 m2
(1) 0.2M sec 1 ; 0.2 M sec 1 (1) 0.2M sec 1 ; 0.2 M sec 1
m1 m1
n2 n2
(2) 0.2M sec 1 ; 0.2 M sec 1 (2) 0.2M sec 1 ; 0.2 M sec 1
m2 m2
m2 m2
(3) 0.1M sec 1; 0.2 M sec1 (3) 0.1M sec1; 0.2 M sec1
n1 n1
m2 m2
(4) 0.2M sec 1 ; 0.2 M sec 1 (4) 0.2M sec 1 ; 0.2 M sec 1
n1 n1
74. At 27ºC, for the reaction, N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) , rate 74. 27ºC N 2O 4(g) 2NO2(g)
,
of reaction is 6 × 10–3 atm min–1. Find rate of same
6 × 10–3 atm min–1
reaction in terms of mol L–1 min–1 . mole L–1 min–1
(1) 1.2 × 10–4 (2) 2.4 × 10–4 (1) 1.2 × 10–4 (2) 2.4 × 10–4
(3) 3.2 × 10–2 (4) 6 × 10–3 (3) 3.2 × 10–2 (4) 6 × 10–3
1 1
75. Following figure shows a graph in log10K vs
T
75.
log10K
T
where K is rate constant and T is temperature.
K
T
BC
1
The straight line BC has slope, tan = 1
2.303
, tan =
2.303
Y–
5
and an intercept of 5 on Y–axis. Thus Ea, the
energy of activation is :-
Ea
:-
B B
log10K
log10K
C C
0 0
(1/T) (1/T)
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81. Consider the equilibrium 81.
1 1
CO2(g) CO(g) + O2 g CO2(g) CO(g) + O2 g
2 2
The equilibrium constant K is given by
K
(when < < 1)
< < 1)
3/ 2 3 3/ 2 3
(1) K (2) K (1) K (2) K
2 2 2 2
3/ 2 3/ 2 3 / 2 3/ 2
(3) K (4) K (3) K (4) K
2 3 2 3
82. For the reaction, N 2 O 4(g) 2NO 2 g , If 82.
N2O4(g) 2NO 2 g
N2 O4
percentage dissociation of N2O4 are 25%, 50%, 25%, 50%, 75% 100%
75% and 100% then the sequence of observed
d1,d2,d3 d4
vapour densities d1,d2,d3 and d4 at these conditions
?
will be :-
(1) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4 (2) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1
(1) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4 (2) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1
(3) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4 (4) None of these (3) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4 (4)
83. The equilibrium constants K P and K P for the
1 2 83.
X 2Y
Z P Q
reaction X 2Y and Z P Q , respectively K P1 K P2
are in the ratio of 1 : 4. If the degree of dissociation
1 : 4
X Z
of X is 2 times that of Z, then the ratio of total
pressure (P1 : P2) at these equilibria is 2
(Assume degree of dissociation for both reactions
(P1 : P2)
are very small) :- (
) :-
(1) 1 : 36 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 1 : 64 (4) None of these (1) 1 : 36 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 1 : 64 (4)
84. Hg() Hg(g) 84. Hg() Hg(g)
If partial pressure of Hg(g) is 2.63 × 10–6 atm at 27°C Hg(g)
2.63 × 10–6 atm
27°C then calculate equilibrium constant (KC) at
KC
?
this temperature. (1) 1.06 × 10–7 (2) 2 × 10–3
(1) 1.06 × 10–7 (2) 2 × 10–3
(3) 8.12 × 10–5 (4) 3.9 × 10–5
(3) 8.12 × 10–5 (4) 3.9 × 10–5
1 1
85. N 2 O2(g) NO2 g ; K eq K1 85. N 2 O2(g) NO2 g ; K eq K1
2 g 2 g
2NO2(g) N 2 O 4 g ; Keq = K2
2NO2(g) N 2 O 4 g ; Keq = K2
using above equations, write down expression for
equilibrium constant for the following reaction :
?
N 2 O4 g N 2(g) 2O2 g N 2 O 4 g N 2 (g) 2O 2 g
K 22 K 22
(1) K1 K 2 (2) (1) K1 K 2 (2)
K1 K1
1 1 1 1
(3) K K 2 (4) K K 2 (3) K K 2 (4) K K 2
2 1 1 2 2 1 1 2
1001CM305616004 H-17/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
86. Which of the following has different DU/DBE 86.
DU/DBE
than others ?
?
CN CN
CHO CHO
COOH COOH
OH OH
(1) DU of compound is 10 (1)
DU 10
(2) Carboxylic acid has highest priority according (2) IUPAC
carboxylic acid
to IUPAC
(3) Total different functional groups are 4 (3)
(4) All of these (4)
89. Correct IUPAC name of following compound is:- 89.
IUPAC
:-
H-18/40 1001CM305616004
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TOPIC : Cell biology upto nucleus, Animal diversity upto protochordata, Human reproduction,
Respiration system
91. Grana are :- 91.
:-
(1) Protein storing plastids (1)
(2) Coloured plastids (2)
(3) Stacks of thylakoids (3)
(4) Individual thylakoids present in stroma (4)
92. Which of the following statements is correct 92.
regarding sap Vacuole?
(1) It is membrane–bound and contains only (1)
storage proteins and lipids.
(2) It is membrane–bound and contains water and (2)
excretory substances.
(3) It lacks membrane and contains air. (3)
(4) It lacks membrane and contains water and (4)
excretory substances.
93. According to widely accepted "fluid mosaic 93.
model" cell membranes are semi–fluid, where
lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly.
In recent years, this model has been modified in
several respects. In this regard, which of the
following statements is incorrect?
(1) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within (1)
the lipid bilayer.
(2) Proteins can also undergo flip–flop (2)
movements in the lipid bilayer.
(3) Proteins can remain confined within certain (3)
domains of the membrane.
(4) Many proteins remain completely embedded (4)
within the lipid bilayer.
94. Select the right option which relates to Schwann 94.
regarding the following statements.
(i) He reported that cells have a thin outer layer (i)
which is today known as plasma membrane.
(ii) Cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell (ii)
(iii)Body of plants and animals are composed of (iii)
cells and products of cells.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) all correct (1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) Only (iii) is correct (2) (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) are correct (3) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i), (iii) are correct (4) (i) (iii)
1001CM305616004 H-19/40
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95. Which of the following is not the function of cell 95.
wall? (i)
(i) Provides shape to the cell (ii)
(ii) Protects the cell from mechanical damage and
infection. (iii)
(iii)Helps in cell to cell interaction
(iv) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules. (iv)
(v) Helps in cell recognition (v)
(1) Only (iii) (1) (iii)
(2) Only (iv) (2) (iv)
(3) Only (ii), (iii) and (v) (3) (ii), (iii) (v)
(4) Only (v) (4) (v)
96. Read the following statements and identify the 96.
correct option given?
(i) Contractile vacuole takes part in osmoregulation (i)
and excretion.
(ii) Food vacuole are formed by engulfing the (ii)
food particles.
(iii)The sap vacuole is bounded by a double (iii)
membrane called tonoplast.
(iv) Sap vacuole can occupy upto 90 percent of (iv)
90 %
the volume in plant cell.
(1) Only (i) and (ii) are correct (1) (i) (ii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct (2) (ii) (iv)
(3) All are correct except (iii) (3) (iii)
(4) All are wrong (4)
97. Match column–I with column–II and choose the 97. –I
–II
correct option.
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II (1) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I (2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I (3) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(4) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV (4) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
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98. Match column–I with column–II and select the 98.
–I
–II
correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
dkWyeI dkWyeII
A Leeuwenhoek I First saw and
described a living cell A
I
B Robert Brown II Presence of cell wall
is unique to plant B
II
cells.
C Schleiden III Discovered the
nucleus C III
D Schwann IV All plants are D IV
composed of different
kind of cells.
(1) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II (1) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV (2) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II (3) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(4) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III (4) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III
99. Which of the following statements is wrong ? 99.
(1) SER is the major site of lipid synthesis. (1)
(2) ER divides the intra cellular space into two
distinct compartments. (2)
(3) RER frequently observed in cells actively
(3)
involved in secretion and protein synthesis
(4) In animals lipid like steroidal hormones are (4)
synthesized in RER.
100. Different cells have different size. Arrange the 100.
following cells in ascending order of their size. (size)
Choose correct option among.
(i) Mycoplasma (ii) Ostrech egg (i) (ii)
(iii)Human RBC (iv) Bacteria (iii) RBC (iv)
Options :- Options :-
(1) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (1) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (3) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
101. Plasma membrane is an asymmetrical structure 101.
because :-
?
(1) Carbohydrate is present on inner surface and
spectrin protein is present on outer surface of (1)
plasma membrane.
(2) Carbohydrate is present towards extra cellular
(2)
face and spectrin protein is present towards
cytosolic face of cell membrane.
(3) Protein is present on outer surface and (3)
phospholipid is present on inner surface of
plasma membrane.
(4) Extrinsic protein on outer surface and intrinsic (4)
protein on inner surface of plasma membrane.
1001CM305616004 H-21/40
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102. Read the following statements (A–D) and find 102.
(A–D)
how many of them are incorrect.
(A) A specialised differentiated form of cell (A)
membrane called mesosome is the characterstic
of eukaryotes.
(B) Schwann concluded that presence of cell wall (B)
is unique character of plant cell.
(C) Eukaryotic cell has extensive (C)
compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through
the presence of membrane bound organelles.
(D) Prokaryotic cells have clear chromosome due (D)
to presence of histone proteins.
Options
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
103. The lipid molecules present in plasma-membrane 103.
has polar head and non polar tail. Which of the
following options represents the correct
arrangement of phospho lipid in bilayer of lipid?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
104. Below diagram represents the biochemistry of 104.
plasma- membrane structure. Amount of which
ABC
biochemical is indicated by A, B & C respectively:-
A A
C B C B
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119. Which of the following options gives the correct 119.
categorisation of the animals according to the type
of respiratory organs.
A B C A B C
Gills Tracheal System Cutaneous Dykse VsªfD;y ra= Roph;
(1) Pila Crab Pheretima (1)
(2) Prawn Locusta Nereis (2)
(3) Apis Periplaneta Hirudinaria (3)
(4) Anopheles Aedes Culex (4)
120. Which statements are correct about the given animal? 120.
?
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C)
(C)
(1) (A) Taenia, (B) Ascaris, (C) Leech (1) (A) Taenia, (B) Ascaris, (C) Leech
(2) (A) Scorpion, (B) Ancylostoma, (C) Fasciola (2) (A) Scorpion, (B) Ancylostoma, (C) Fasciola
(3) (A) Round worm, (B) Taenia, (C) Earthworm (3) (A) Round worm, (B) Taenia, (C) Earthworm
(4) (A) Earthworm, (B) Culex, (C) Ascaris (4) (A) Earthworm, (B) Culex, (C) Ascaris
1001CM305616004 H-25/40
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122. Here some informations are given about 122.
:-
Arthropoda :- –
– Bilateral symmetry –
– Incomplete digestive system –
– Organ system level of organisation –
– Coelomate –
– Open type circulatory system –
– Triploblastic –
– Unsegmented
?
How many informations are correct ? (1) (2)
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven (3) (4)
123. Which one of the statement hold true when we 123.
discuss about Physalia?
(1) Member of ctenophora (1)
(2) Have internal shell (2)
(3) Body asymmetric (3)
(4) Marine habitat (4)
124. Which animals belongs to the largest phylum and 124.
the second largest phylum of animalia respectively?
?
(1) Pila and Apis (2) Aedes and Loligo (1)
(2)
(3) Locusta and Pheretima (4) Nereis and Octopus (3)
(4)
125. In which one of the following, the genus name, 125.
its two characters and its phylum are not correctly
matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?
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127. The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of 127.
human development. Select the option giving (a, b, c, d)
correct identification together with site of
occurance ?
?
B B
A A
D D
C C
(1) B – Secondary Follicle – secrete progesterone (1) B –
–
(2) D – Corpus albicans – Secrete estrogen (2) D –
–
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – Secrete FSH & LH (3) A –
– FSH
LH
(4) C – Corpus luteum – Secrete progesterone (4) C –
–
1001CM305616004 H-27/40
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130. How many structures in the list given below are 130.
haploid ?
?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte,
ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar body
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five (1) (2) (3) (4)
131. How many of following event occurs in fallopian 131.
tube? A. B.
A. Fertilisation B. Cleavage C. D.
C. Morulation D. Organogenesis (1) (2)
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
132. Identify the correct match from the columns I, II 132. I, II III
and III.
(B) Secrectory (b) Ist-5th (ii) Development (B) (b) Ist-5th (ii)
phase day of Graafian
follicle
(C) (c) 15th-28th (iii) Stratum
(C) Bleeding (c) 15th-28th (iii) Shedding of
day stratum functional
functionale
(D) Ovulatory (d) 6th-13th (iv) Release of (D)
(d) 6th-13th (iv)
phase day secondary
oocyte
concentration
(D) (D)
(C) (C)
Hormone
Hormone
(A) (A)
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28
Days Days
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150. Identify the correct match from the column-I, II 150.
-
and III :-
I II II
I II II A a i
A Progesterone a Corpus i Maintain the
luteum endometrium
B b ii
B Oestrogen b Placenta ii Help in
parturition C c iii
C Relaxin c Theca iii Milk ejection
interna reflex D d iv
D Oxytocin d Posterior iv Proliferation
pituitary of endometrium
(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv (1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv
(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii (2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii
(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i (3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i
(4) B-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i (4) B-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i
151. Why the chances of pregnency are very low in a 151. 6
lactating women till six months after delivery ? ?
(1) High levels of HCG in women kill sperms. (1) HCG
(2) High levels of estrogen and progesterone, (2)
secreted by the corpus luteum, that inhibit the
secretion of gonadotropins.
(3) High levels of prolactin, inhibit the secretion (3)
of gonadotropins.
(4) All of these (4)
152. The region outside the seminiferous tubule which 152.
contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells and
immunologically competent cells is present
called:-
:-
(1) Perivitelline space (1)
(2) Peritesticular space (2)
(3) Interstitial space (3)
(4) Inguinal space (4)
153. The removal of both the testis before puberty 153.
results in the subject becomes
(1) Sterile (1)
(2) Childish (2)
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Not any effect (4)
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A B C D A B C D
(1) Germ cell Leydig's ABP GnRH (1) Germ cell Leydig's ABP GnRH
cell cell
(2) Hypothalamus Leydig's GnRH ABP (2) Hypothalamus Leydig's GnRH ABP
cells cells
(3) Hypothalamus Germ cell FSH LH (3) Hypothalamus Germ cell FSH LH
(4) Hypothalamus Leydig's FSH ABP (4) Hypothalamus Leydig's FSH ABP
cell cell
155. Match the following and choose the correct 155.
answer:
(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv) (1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) (2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) (3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv) (4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
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156. Match the column–A and B about the embryonic 156.
–A –
development of human :- B
:-
(i) End of one (a) Most of the major organ (i) (a)
month systems developed
(ii) End of second (b) Appearance of hair on (ii) (b)
month the head
(iii) End of three (c) Heart formation (iii) (c)
month
(iv) During fifth (d) Eye-lids separated (iv) (d)
month
(v) End of sixth (e) Limbs and digits (v) (e)
month formation
(1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d (1) (i) – e, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d (2) (i) – e, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – b, (v) – d
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d (3) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – d
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d (4) (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – d
157. Which of the following hormones are produced 157.
only during pregnancy :-
:-
FSH, LH, Estrogen, Progesterone, HCG, HPL, FSH, LH, ,
, HCG, HPL,
,
Relaxin, Cortisol, thyroxine ,
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3 (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3
158. Identify the correct match from the column I, II 158. I, II III
:-
& III :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
1. Estrogen (a) Testis (i) Ovary &
1. Estrogen (a) Testis (i) Ovary & testis
testis
2. FSH (b) Posterior (ii) Reproductive
2. FSH (b) Posterior (ii) Reproductive pituitary and
pituitary and secondary
secondary sex organs
sex organs
3. Oxytocin (c) Ovary (iii) Uterus
3. Oxytocin (c) Ovary (iii) Uterus
4. Testosterone (d) Anterior (iv) Reproductive
4. Testosterone (d) Anterior (iv) Reproductive pituitary tract,
pituitary tract,
mammary
mammary gland
gland
(1) 1-c-iv, 2-b-i, 3-d-iii, 4-a-ii (1) 1-c-iv, 2-b-i, 3-d-iii, 4-a-ii
(2) 1-b-iv, 2-c-i, 3-a-ii, 4-d-iii (2) 1-b-iv, 2-c-i, 3-a-ii, 4-d-iii
(3) 1-c-iv, 2-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-a-ii (3) 1-c-iv, 2-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-a-ii
(4) 1-a-i, 2-b-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv (4) 1-a-i, 2-b-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv
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159. Which of the following route of sperms is correct 159.
from seminiferous tubules to outside ?
(1) Rete testis Vas deferens Epididymis (1)
Ejaculatory duct
(2) Vasa efferentia Vas deferens Rete testis (2)
Epididymes
(3) Epididymes Rete testis Vasa efferentia (3)
Vas deferens
(4) Rete testis Vasa efferentia Epidiymis (4)
Vas deferens
160. Read the following statement :- 160.
:-
(A) After castration, testosterone level is increased (A) (castration)
in blood
(B) 60% part of semen is formed by seminal (B) 60%
vesicle
(C) Dartos muscles are found in scrotum (C)
(D) Total length of epididymis is 6mt in human (D)
6
How many statement are correct ?
(1) Four (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) One (3) (4)
161. Which of the following is injected by the doctors 161.
to induce delivery in pregnant woman?
?
(1) Estrogen (2) Cortisol (1) (2)
(3) Relaxin (4) Oxytocin (3) (4)
162. Correctly matched pair are : 162.
(i) Clitoris Tiny finger like structure at the (i)
junction to two labia minora
(ii) Sexual intercourse Coitus (ii)
(iii) Colostrum Secretion found in seminal fluid (iii)
(iv) Areola Pigmented circular area around the (iv)
nipple
(1) (i) and (ii) correct (1) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iv) correct (2) (ii) (iv)
(3) (i) (ii), (iv) are correct (3) (i) (ii), (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii) are correct (4) (i) (iii)
163. Read the following steps of inspiration. 163. (inspiration)
(a) Increases thoracic volume (a)
(b) Air move into lungs (b)
(c) Contraction in diaphragm and EICM (c) EICM
(d) Increases pulmonary volume (d)
(e) Lungs expand (e)
(f) Decreases the intra pulmonary pressure (IPP) (f) (IPP)
Find out the correct sequence of these steps.
(1) a, b, c, d, e, f (1) a, b, c, d, e, f
(2) c, d, a, e, f, b (2) c, d, a, e, f, b
(3) c, a, e, d, f, b (3) c, a, e, d, f, b
(4) c, e, d, a, f, b (4) c, e, d, a, f, b
1001CM305616004 H-35/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
164. Gaseous exchange occur in :- 164.
(1) Trachea and Alveoli (1)
(2) Alveoli and primary bronchi (2)
(3) Alveolar duct and Alveoli (3)
(4) Alveolar duct and trachea (4)
165. Which statement is wrong about partial pressure 165.
of oxygen.
(1) PO2
(1) PO2 more in atmospheric air than alveoli
(2) PO2
(2) PO2 more in alveoli than tissue
(3) PO2
(3) PO2 more in oxygenated blood than
deoxygenated blood
(4) PO2
(expired
(4) PO2 more in alveoli than expired air
air)
166. Consider the following statements and select the 166.
option which includes all the correct ones:-
:-
(a) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Alveolar (a)
O2 CO2
air are 104 mmHg and 40 mm Hg 104 mmHg 40 mm Hg
(b) Partial pressures of O 2 and CO 2 in (b)
O 2 C O 2
deoxygenated blood are 40 mmHg and 45 mm 40 mmHg 45 mmHg
Hg respectively
(c) Partial pressures of O 2 and CO 2 in (c)
O 2 CO 2
deoxygenated blood are 95 mmHg and 95 mmHg 40 mm Hg
40 mm Hg
(d)
O
2
CO 2
(d) Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in Atmospheric
40 mm Hg 46 mmHg
air are 40 mmHg and 46 mm Hg
:
Options :
(1) a,b c
(1) Statements a,b and c are correct
(2) Statements a,b,c and d are correct (2) a,b,c d
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168. Match the column I with column II 168.
I
II
(1) A (i), (vi), (x) B (iii), (v), (viii) (1) A (i), (vi), (x) B (iii), (v), (viii)
C (ii), (ix) D (iv), (vii) C (ii), (ix) D (iv), (vii)
(2) A (i), (vi), (x) B (iii), (iv) (2) A (i), (vi), (x) B (iii), (iv)
C (ii), (ix) D (viii), (vii) C (ii), (ix) D (viii), (vii)
(3) A (vi), (vii), (iv) B (i), (iii), (v) (3) A (vi), (vii), (iv) B (i), (iii), (v)
C (ii), (ix), (x) D (viii) C (ii), (ix), (x) D (viii)
(4) A (i), (vi), (x) B (iii), (iv) (4) A (i), (vi), (x) B (iii), (iv)
C (ii), (ix), (x) D (vii), (v) C (ii), (ix), (x) D (vii), (v)
169. The figure given below shows a small part of 169.
human lung where exchange of gases takes place.
In which one of the options given below, the one
A, B, C D
part, A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with
its function
Options : :
(1) C : arterial capillary-passes oxygen to tissues (1) C :
(2) A : alveolar cavity-main site of exchange (2) A :
of respiratory gases
(3) D : Capillary wall-exchange of O2 and CO2 (3) D :
O2
CO2
takes place here
(4) B : red blood cell-transport of CO2 mainly (4) B :
CO2
1001CM305616004 H-37/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
170. Which Respiratory capacity is correctly matched 170.
with its formulla & valve.
(4) Inspiratory Capacity TV + IRV 1600 ml (4) Inspiratory Capacity TV + IRV 1600 ml
171. What will be the PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric 171.
PO2
air compared to those in the alveolar air ? PCO2 :-
(1) PO2 lesser, PCO2 higher (1) PO2 , PCO2
(2) PO2 higher, PCO2 lesser (2) PO2 , PCO2
(3) PO2 higher, PCO2 higher (3) PO2 , PCO2
(4) PO2 lesser, PCO2 lesser (4) PO2 , PCO2
172. Which is correctly matched ? 172.
H-38/40 1001CM305616004
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175. The conducting part of respiratory tract does not 175.
help in :-
:-
(1) Transport the atmospheric air to the alveoli. (1)
(2) Clear air from foreign particles (2)
(3) Humidifie and bring the air to body temperature (3)
(4) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and air (4)
O2
CO2
176. Which is true for CO2 concentration ? 176. CO2
(1) More in alveolar air than in expired air. (1)
(2) More in expired air than in alveolar air. (2)
(3) More in inspired air than in alveolar air. (3)
(4) More in inspired air than in expired air. (4)
177. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? 177.
(1) The Principle of countercurrent flow facilitates (1)
efficient respiration in gills of fishes.
(2) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to (2)
distribute oxygen to tissues.
(3) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the (3)
efficiency of respiration in mammals.
(4) The Presence of non-respiratory air sacs, (4)
increase the efficiency of respiration in birds.
178. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs 178.
(inspiration)
at the end of a forced inspiration :
(1) ERV + RV (1) ERV + RV
(2) TV + ERV (2) TV + ERV
(3) TV + ERV + IRV (3) TV + ERV + IRV
(4) TV + ERV + IRV + RV (4) TV + ERV + IRV + RV
179. Which statements is incorrect ? 179.
(1) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a (1)
normal breathing is 2300 ml 2300 ml
(2) Inspir ation can occur if the pr essur e (2) (Inspiration)
within the lungs is less than atmospheric
pressure
(3) A healthy man can inspire or expire (3) 6000
approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per 8000ml
minute
(4) When the PCO is high and PO is low as in the (4)
PCO
PO
2 2 2 2
alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-
CO2
haemoglobin takes place
180. Which point is incorrect about transport of gases? 180.
(1) Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by (1) 20-25 CO2 RBC
RBC.
(2) About 7 percent of CO 2 is carried in a (2) 7 CO2
dissolved state through plasma.
(3) About 97 percent of CO2 is transported by (3) 97 CO2
plasma of blood.
(4) About 3 percent of O2 is carried in a dissolved (4) 3 O2
state through the plasma.
1001CM305616004 H-39/40
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/02-10-2016
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
H-40/40 1001CM305616004