Cont. No.

7304567567, 7304730730, 7261960000, 7972123533, 9421473208, 9156710417

Biology - 90 Chemistry - 45 Physics - 45

Mark Group NEET 2020 Date : 18/03/2020
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General Instruction
01. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Physics [Question No. : 1-45]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4th MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
02. Chemistry [Question No : 46-90]; 4(FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
03. Biology [Question No : 91-180]; 4 (FOUR) marks for each correct response,
1/4 MARKS (ONE MINUS) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
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Test Syllabus
Biology : NCERT Unit - II
Chemistry : Atomic Structure + H. and its compounds + Mole concept and Redox reaction
Physics : Laws of Motion, Work Energy & Power, System of Particles & Rotation Motion
 Section ‘A’ : Biology
01. Epithelial tissue lie on the basement membrane. It is 10. How many of the following junctions are found in
made up of - epithelium tissue
(1) Basal lamina composed of glycoproteins secreted Tight junction, Gap junction, Adhering and Inter
by epithelial cells digitation
(2) Fibrous lamina composed of collagen or reticular (1) Four (2) Three
fibres suspended in mucopolysaccharide of (3) Two (4) One
underlying connective tissue 11. Read the following (A-D) statements.
(3) Both (1) and (2) A. It is made of more than one layer (multi-layered)
(4) Cellular layer of cells.
02. The simple squamous epithelium lining the blood B. It has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
vessels is called as C. Their main function is to provide protection against
(1) Mesothelium chemical and mechanical stress.
(2) Endothelium
D. It covers the dry surface of the skin and the moist
(3) Pavement epithelium
surface of buccal cavity.
(4) Tessellated epithelium
How many of the above statements are correct for
03. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present in
compound epithelium
(1) Intestine
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule (1) Four (2) Three
(3) Stomach (3) Two (4) One
(4) Gall bladder 12. Read the following (A-D) statements :
04. Pseudostratified non-ciliated columnar epithelial tissue A. Connective tissue are most abundant and widely
distributed in the body of complex animals.

Date :-15/03/2020
is found in
(1) Urethra of male and parotid salivary gland B. They are named connective tissue because of their
(2) Trachea and large bronchi special function of linking and supporting other
(3) Vas deferens and epididymis tissues/organs of the body
(4) Buccopharyngeal cavity and oviduct C. They range from soft connective tissues to
05. Which of the following epithelium is much thinner specialised types, which include cartilage, bone,
and more stretchable than the stratified epithelium and adipose and blood.
covers the inner surface of urinary bladder and ureter? D. The cells of connective tissue secrete modified
(1) Transitional (2) Compound polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells
(3) Simple (4) Stratified and fibres and act as matrix.
06. Which of the following match is incorrect? How many of the following statements are correct
(1) Holocrine - Sebaceous (1) Four (2) Three
(2) Merocrine - Pancreas (3) Two (4) One
(3) Apocrine - Mammary glands 13. Identify the given below tissue with its type and select
(4) Eccrine (Merocrine) - Mammary glands
the right option for the two together
07. Exoskeleton originated from (e. g. feathers, nail, horn,
hoofs)
(1) Connective tissue proper
(2) Epithelium tissue
(3) Skeletal tissue
(4) Vascular tissue
08. Choroid of eye lined by
(1) Cuboidal Epithelium
(2) Squamous Epithelium
(3) Ciliated Epithelium
(4) Columnar Epithelium
09. Vesicles of thyroid gland is composed of Tissue Type
(1) Simple squamous epi. (1) Cartilage Specialised connective tissue
(2) Simple cuboidal epi. (2) Tendon Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) St. squamous epi. (3) Ligament Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Bone Specialised connective tissue
(4) St. cuboidal epi.
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14. Which of the following is incorrect statement for the 17. Haversian canal is situated in
simple columnar epithelium (1) Glandular connective tissue
(1) It is composed of a single layer of tall and slender (2) Skeletal connective tissue
cells (3) Fibrous connective tissue
(2) Their nuclei are located at the base (4) Nervous tissue
(3) Free surface may have microvilli 18. Collagen fibres are secreted by
(4) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and (1) Mast cells (2) Macrophage
air sac of lungs (3) Histiocytes (4) Fibroblasts
15. Identify the figure of animal tissue given below, along 19. Minimum regeneration power is present in
with it’s correct location (1) Nervous tissue (2) Connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue (4) Muscular tissue
20. Which of the following cells of connective tissue
secrete antibodies?
(1) Mast cells (2) Reticular cells
(3) Adipose cells (4) Plasma cells
21. The most common earthworm of India is
(1) Pheretima communissima
(2) Eutyphacus
Tissue Location (3) Pheretima posthuma
(1) Dense regular Connective Heart
(4) Lumbricus
tissue
(2) Dense irregular Connective At bone joints 22. In earthworm, pharyngeal nephridia occur in segments
tissue (1) 4, 5 and 6 (2) 5, 6 and 7
(3) Adipose tissue Beneath skin (3) 6, 7 and 8 (4) 3, 4 and 5
(4) Areolar connective tissue Beneath skin 23. Nephridiopores present over the body of earthworm

Date :-15/03/2020
belong to
16. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below (1) Intergumentary nephridia
represent four different types of animal tissues. Which (2) Septal nephridia
one of these is correctly identified in the option given (3) Pharyngeal nephridia
along with its correct location and function. (4) Peptonephridia
24. In Cockroach sclerites are joined by
(1) Terga (2) Sterna
(3) Pleura (4) Arthrodial membrane
25. Labrum in Cockroach is
(1) Upper lip (2) Lower lip
(3) Jaw (4) Tongue
26. Number of testes in Earthworm is
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Eight
27. Brood pouch is formed in female Cockroach by
(1) Seventh sternum (2) Eighth sternum
(3) Ninth sternum (4) All the above
28. 7-8 finger-like blind tubules open into anterior part of
midgut of Cockroach. They are
Tissue Location Function
(1) B Simple Fallopian tube Transport (1) Intestinal caeca
squamous of gamete (2) Malpighian tubules
epithelium (3) Hepatic caeca
(2) C Simple Wall of blood Diffusion (4) None of the above
cuboidial Vessels and air boundary 29. Number of alary muscles in Cockraoch is
epithelium sac of lungs (1) Tweleve pairs (2) Twelve
(3) D Compound Skin Protection (3) Thirteen (4) Thirteen pairs
epithelium
30. Cockraoch is
(4) A Simple Tubular part of Secretion
columnar nephron (1) Uricotelic (2) Ureotelic
Epithelium (3) Ammonotelic (4) Guanotelic

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31. Number of vision units in each eye of Cockroach is 36. A Bidder’s canal in each kidney of frog
(1) 2000 (2) 500 (1) Runs longitudianally in lateral region of kidney
(3) 200 (4) 50 (2) Runs longitudianally in medial region of kidney
32. Observe the following figure indicating the male (3) Runs traversely across the width of anterior part
reproductive system of frog. Identify A, B, C and D of kidney
(4) Runs transversely across the width of posterior part
of kidney
37. During hibernation, frog respires with
(1) Lung only
(2) Moist skin only
(3) Buccal cavity only
(4) External gills and lungs
38. In frog, respiration occurs by
(1) Lungs (2) Trachea
(3) Gills only (4) Both (1) and (2)
39. Three chambered heart of frog is not as efficient as
four-chambered human heart because
(1) Heart muscles are not strong
(2) It does not hold enough blood
A B C D
(1) Vasa Thyroid Urinogenital Cloaca (3) Ventricle does not pump blood properly
efferentia gland duct (4) Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix up
(2) Vasa Adrenal Urinogenital Cloaca 40. Frog has
efferentia gland duct (1) 4 fingers in hand and 5 toes in foot
(3) Bidder’s Adrenal Urinogenital Cloaca (2) 5 fingers in hand and 5 toes in foot

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canal gland duct (3) 5 fingers in hand and 4 toes in foot
(4) Bidder’s Adrenal Urinogenital Rectum (4) 6 fingers in hand and 5 toes in foot
canal gland duct
41. Identify 1, 2 and 3 in the given figure of shoot apical
meristem
33. Croaking of frog is
(1) Hunger call (2) Danger call
(3) Musical tone (4) Sex call for female
34. One of the main functions of frog’s skin is
(1) Diffusion of respiratory gases
(2) Absorption of ultraviolet rays to produce vitamin
D
(3) Storage of excess food in the form of subcutaneous
fat
(4) Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric
acid
35. Consider the following four statements (A-D) related
to the common frog Rana tigrina and select the correct (1) 1 - Leaf primordium, 2 - Shoot apical meristem, 3
option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones - Axillary bud
are false (F) (2) 1 - Leaf primordium, 2 - Shoot apical meristem, 3
Statements : - Floral bud
A. On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if its (3) 1 - Root hair primordium, 2 - Root apical meristem,
mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days 3 - Axillary bud
B. It has four-chambered heart (4) 1 - Root hair primordium, 2 - Root apical meristem,
C. On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic 3 - Terminal bud
D. Its life-history is carried out in pond water 42. The plant cell which is living but not possesses nucleus
(1) A-F; B-F; C-T; D-T at the maturity
(2) A-F; B-T; C-T; D-F (1) Cambium cell and companion cell
(3) A-T; B-F; C-F; D-T (2) Xylem parenchyma
(4) A-T; B-T; C-F; D-F (3) Sieve tube
(4) RBC
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43. In the following pair, where do you get lignin in both (1) Only (i)
the elements (2) All are correct
(1) Tracheid and collenchyma (3) Both (iii) and (iv)
(2) Sclerenchyma and Sieve tube (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) Sclerenchyma and tracheid 49. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaf of …….
(4) Endodermis and cork (1) Mango (2) Wheat
44. Pericycle and endodermis is absent in- (3) Soybean (4) Gram
(1) Maize stem & sunflower stem 50. A dendrochronologist observed total 22 ring of
(2) Maize stem & root spring wood and autumn wood in a dicot stem in
(3) Maize stem 1998. How many annual rings will be observed by
(4) All of the above him in 2007?
45. Identify the cor rect order of component with (1) 21 (2) 25
reference to their arrangement from outside to inner (3) 20 (4) 30
side in woody dicot stem 51. Which of the following is a false statement ?
1. Secondary cortex (1) Pericycle is parenchymatous in dicot root.
2. Autumn wood (2) Pericycle gives rise to lateral branches in dicot
3. Secondary phloem stem
4. Phellem (3) Pericycle forms a part of cork cambium in dicot
(1) 2, 3, 1, 4 (2) 4, 1, 3, 2 root.
(3) 1, 2, 4, 3 (4) 4, 3, 1, 2 (4) All of the above
46. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 52. Radial conduction of water and food material in the
correct woody stems is the function of
(1) Endodermis
Column - I Column - II
(2) Xylem fibres

Date :-15/03/2020
Hypodermis in dicot (3) Vessels
A. I. Absent
stem (4) Vascular rays
B. Pericycle in dicot stem II. Parenchymatous 53. The plane of division in tunica is
Ground tissue in monocot (1) Anticlinal
C. III. Collenchymatous
stem (2) Periclinal
Phloem parenchyma (3) Both anticlinal and periclinal
D. IV. Sclerenchymatous (4) Peripheral division
in monocot stem
54. Root differs from stem in having
(1) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(1) Parenchymatous cortex
(2) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
(2) Pith
(3) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(3) Exarch xylem
(4) A-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV
(4) Pericycle
47. If Dr. Mahesh Patil sir want to do critical study on
55. The vascular bundles in a dicot root are
secondary growth of the two plants, which one of
(1) Radial and endarch
the following pair is suitable
(2) Conjoint and exarch
(1) Sugarcane and Sunflower
(3) Concentric and exarch
(2) Sunflower and Pine
(4) Radial and exarch
(3) Sunflower and Maize
56. See the following figures and identify the given
(4) Wheat and Maize
below species belong to which of the following
48. Read the following statements and select the correct
families respectively.
one(s) from the options.
(i) In flowering plants, tracheid and vessels are the
main water transporting elements.
(ii) The presence of vessels is a characteristic
feature of angiosperms.
(iii) Xylem fibres have highly thinned walls and
their cell walls are made up of cellulose.
(iv)Xylem parenchyma store food materials in the
form of starch or fat and other substances like
tannins.

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 (1) Solanaceae, Fabaceae, Liliaceae 62. Match the Column-I and II and choose the correct
(2) Fabaceae, Solanaceae, Brassicaceae combination from the option given .
(3) Brassicaceae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae
(4) Fabaceae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae a. Epipetalous stamens 1. Nerium
57. Which one of the following represents the floral b. Axile placentation 2. Lily
characters of Liliaceae ?
c. Whorled phyllotaxy 3. Chinarose
(1) Bisexual complete, Epipetalous, Tricarpellary,
Syncarpous superior ovary, Axile placentation d. Berry fruit 4. Tomato
(2) Complete, Bisexual, Trimerous, Epiphyllous, 5. Sunflower
Polytepalous perianth, Axile placentation
(3) Bisexual, Complete, Epiphyllous, Trimerous, (1) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Tricarpellary syncarpous, Superior ovary (2) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(4) Complete, Bisexual, Tetramerous, Epiphyllous, (3) a-5, b-4, c-2, d-1
Axile placentation. (4) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-2
58. Which one is odd. 63. Placenta and pericarp both are edible in___
(1) Asparagus (2) Potato (1) Coconut (2) Mango
(3) Brinjal (4) Banana
(3) Tobacco (4) Mustard
64. Which of the following is incorrect about family
59. Which of the statement is wrong.
Brassicaceae
(1) Caryopsis fruit is found in cereals and it is
(1) Gynoecium is bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior
simple, dry & indehiscent type of fruit
having parietal placentation and false septum
(2) In epiphyt ic plants, such as Vanda and
,i.e., replum is absent
Dendrobium special epiphytic roots are present
which are hygroscopic in nature
(2) Floral fomula

Date :-15/03/2020
(3) Opuntia is an example of leaf-like many
internode long, flat cladode (3) Fruit is siliqua
(4) Capsicum, Tulip, Gloriosa and Petunia are (4) Many plants are used as vegetables.
examples of solitary flower. 65. How many plants have simple fruits
60. Identify the plant having following characters Fig, Indian Fig, Wheat, Maize, Mulberry, Jackfruit,
A. It is a herb Mustard, Indigofera, Pineapple, Groundnut, Rubber
B. It has dry, dehiscent fruit tree, Banyan tree.
C. It is vegetable (1) Two (2) Three
D. It has variation in filaments of stamens (3) Four (4) Five.
E. It has alternate phyllotaxy 66. The leaves are modified to perform functions other
(1) Solanum than photosynthesis are
(2) Sunflower (1) Pea, Cactus, Nepenthes, Citrus
(3) Lily (2) Dionea, Acacia, Nepenthes, Pea, Onion
(4) Mustard (3) Garlic, Pea, Cactus, Nepenthes, Venus-fly trap.
61. Consider the following four statements A,B,C and (4) Both 2 & 3.
D and select the right option for correct statements 67. In Pandanus multiple root caps are present in___
Statements: (1) Tap root (2) Fibrous root
A. In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal (3) Adventitious root(4) Prop root
is called, standard, two lateral ones are wings 68. How many plants have Complete, Bixsexual,
and two small anterior petals are termed keel. Hypogynous, Actinomorphic, Bracteate flowers.
B. T he flor a l for mula for Liliaceae is Pea, Indigofera, Tulip, Potato, Tobacco, Colchicum,
Sem, Sesbania, Mustard, Cauliflower, Asparagus,
Chilli, Makoi.
C. In sunflower and mar igold st amens ar e (1) Four (2) Three
epipetalous and synandrous. (3) Six (4) Five.
D. Stem and petiole get modified for photosynthesis 69. Select incorrect pair.
in Euphorbia and Australian Acacia respectively. (1) Soybean - Pulses
The correct statements are (2) Candytuft - Ornamental
(1) A and C (2) A, C and D (3) Maize - Fruit
(3) A and D (4) A, B, C and D (4) Asparagus - Medicinal
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70. In mature seeds of plants such as Gram, Pea and 80. Select incorrect pair.
Bean, Possess no endosperm, because- (1) Runner - Oxalis
(1) These plants are dicots (2) Stolon - Mint
(2) There is no double fertilization in them (3) Offset - Chrysanthemum
(3) Endosperm gets used up by developing embryo (4) Sucker - Banana
during seed development 81. In epigynous flower, ovary is situated below the____
(4) These plants are not Angiosperm. (1) Calyx and corolla
71. How many types of placentations are found in
(2) Androecium and corolla
monolocular ovary.
(3) Calyx, corolla & androecium
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One (4) Androecium
72. How many plants have multilocular, superior ovary. 82. Identify the type of flower
Sunflower, Marigold, Pea, Bean, Lemon, China rose,
Asparagus, Petunia, Sesbania, Dianthus, Primrose,
Tobacco, Colchicum, Sem, Moong, Groundnut,
Tridax,
(1) Two (2) Six
(3) Eight (4) Nine.
73. In _______usually ovary is one chambered but it
becomes two chambered due to formation of false
septum. (1) Perigynous (2) Bracteate
(1) Tulip (2) Indigofera (3) Unisexual (4) Tetramerous
(3) Belladona (4) Radish. 83. In ____floral whorls are unequally distrtibuted in a
74. How many plants have adhesion in their stamens. flower
China rose, Pea, Citrus, Sesbania, Trifolium, (1) Cassia (2) Mustard

Date :-15/03/2020
Calotropis, Gloriosa, Atropa, Aster, Sunflower, (3) Canna (4) Pea
Makoi, Bean, Lupin, Mustard, Turnip, Salvia, 84. Reticulate and parallel venation are the characteristic
Ocimum
of ______and ______respectively
(1) Four (2) Six
(3) Seven (4) Nine. (1) Monocot and dicot
75. Select incorrect pair (2) Dicot and monocot
(1) Medicinal - Colchicum (3) Dicot and dicot
(2) Ornamental - Iberis amara (4) Monocot and monocot
(3) Vegetable - Tomato 85. Small leaf-like structure present at the base of flower
(4) Oil yielding - Soybean. is called_____
76. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in (1) Stipule (2) Bract
vertical section and choose the correct option. (3) Bracteole (4) Scale leaf
A. Zone of maturation 86. In castor, the food storing tissue is __
B. Zone of meristem (1) Cotyledons (2) Endosperm
C. Zone of root cap (3) Mesocarp (4) Testa
D. Zone of elongation. 87. How many t ypes of fr uit develops fr om
(1) A, B, C, D (2) D, C, B, A
Polycarpellary, Syncarpous, Superior ovary,
(3) C, B, D, A (4) C, B, A, D
Drupe, Berry, Legume, Capsule, Siliqua.
77. Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of
arrangement of (1) One (2) Two
(1) Floral organs (3) Three (4) Four
(2) Veins and veinlets in lamina 88. The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich
(3) Leaves on stem in___
(4) All of them. (1) Starch (2) Protein
78. In swampy areas like the Sunderbans in West Bengal, (3) Lipid (4) Cellulose.
plants bear special kind of roots called_____ 89. Syncarpous, hypogynous, trilocular ovary with axile
(1) Assimilatory roots placentation is found in ___
(2) Epiphytic roots (1) Liliaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Parasitic roots (4) Breathing roots (3) Solanaceae (4) Brassicaceae
79. Which parts in Ginger and Onion are edible ? 90. Androecium in China rose (Hibiscus) is -
(1) Leaf and stem (2) Stem and stem (1) Synandrous (2) Gynandrous
(3) Stem and leaf (4) Leaf and leaf.
(3) Diadelphous (4) Monadelphous
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 Section ‘B’ : Chemistry
91. Bohr’s model is not able to account for which of the 98. If one million atoms of silver weight is 1.79 × 10–16 g,
following the gram atomic mass of silver is
1) Stability of atom 1) 107 g 2) 107.2 g
2) Spectrum of neutral helium atom 3) 107.8 g 4) 108.2 g
3) Energy of free electron at rest 99. Calculate the number of electrons present in 18 mL of
4) Calculation of radii of the stationary states H2O at 25o C.
92. Which of the following statement concerning 1) 6.023 × 1023
2) 6.023 × 1024
probability density ( ψ 2 ) and radial distribution
180
3) × 6.023 × 1023
function ( 4 r ψ ) for a s-orbital of H-like species is
2 2
22400
correct ? 180
23
4) 22.4 × 6.023 × 10
1) ψ 2 is minimum at nucleus but 4 r ψ is
2 2

100. Which of the following options does not represent

maximum at nucleus.
concentration of semimolal aqueous solution of NaOH
2) ψ 2 is maximum at nucleus but 4 r ψ is 2 2
having dsolution = 1.02 g/mL ?
minimum at nucleus. 1) Molarity = 1/2 M 2) XNaOH = 9/1009
3) % w/w = 10% 4) % w/v = 2%
3) Both ψ 2 and 4 r ψ are maximum at nucleus
2 2

101. The solution of Na2SO4 contains 92 g Na+ per kg of

2
4) Both ψ and 4 r ψ are minimum at nucleus
2 2
water. The molality of Na+ ions in that solution in mol
93. The energy of the electron in Be3+ ion depends on kg–1 is

Date :-15/03/2020
1) the principal quantum number only 1) 2 2) 4
3) 6 4) 8
2) the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers only
102. Which of the following arrangement of two electrons
3) the principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum
in two degenerated orbitals is possible ?
numbers only
4) the principal, azimuthal, magnetic and spin 1) 2)
quantum numbers.
94. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the 3) 4) None
existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons ? 103. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
1) Pauli’s exclusion priniple represents the highest energy of an atom ?
2) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
1
3) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity 1) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
4) Aufbau principle
95. For the reaction 1
2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
AlCl 3 + NaOH  Al(OH)3 + NaCl 2
if initially, 1 mole of each reactant is taken, then the if 1
initially, 1 mole of each reactant is taken, then the 3) n = 4, l = 1, m = 1, s = +
2
number of moles of AlCl 3 remaining after the
1
completion of reaction is 4) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +
2
1) 1 2) 1/3
104. Which option gives the values of the quantum numbers
3) 2/3 4) none of these
for the 21st electron of scandium (Z = 21) ?
96. Find volume occupied by 1 molecule of CH3CH2OCH3
having density of 0.8 g/cm3 1 1
1) 3, 1, 1, + 2) 3, 2, 2, +
[ Given : NA = 6 × 10 ] 23 2 2
–22 3 –22 3
1) 1.25 × 10 cm 2) 2.25 × 10 cm 1 1
3) 3.25 × 10 cm –22 3
4) 1.00 × 10–22 cm3 3) 3, 2, –3, – 4) 3, 1, 2, –
2 2
97. Find the mass (in g) of P 4O10 produced if 31 g of 105. The value of the magnetic moment of a particular ion
phosphorus (P4) is mixed with 32 g of O2. is 2.83 Bohr magneton. The ion is
1) 26.8 2) 56.8 1) Fe2+ 2) Ni2+
3) 586 4) 5.68 3) Mn2+ 4) Co3+
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 8 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
106. Which of the following electronic configurations have 115. Which is the intramolecular oxidation-reduction
zero spin multiplicity ? reaction ?
1) 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2
1) 2)
2) (NH4)2Cr2O7  N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
3) PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2
3) 4) None of these
4) All of the above
107. If the Aufbau principle is not followed and subshells 116. As S (yellow precipitate) is soluble in conc. HNO as
2 3 3
of a shell are progressively filled according to their given in unbalanced equation.
energy, which of the following elements is As2S3(s) + H+ + NO3– 
paramagnetic ?
NO + H2O + AsO43– + SO42–
1) Mg 2) Ca
Equivalent weight in terms of molar mass M of As2S3
3) Ni 4) Zn
is
108. The uncertainty in position of an electron (m = 9.1 ×
–28 4
10 gm) moving with a velocity 3 × 10 cm/s accurate M M
up to 0.001 % will be 1) 2)
2 4
1) 3.84 cm 2) 1.92 cm
3) 7.68 cm 4) 5.76 cm M M
3) 4)
109. The spin-only magnetic moment of a free ion is 8 28 24
B.M. The spin angular momentum of electron will be 117. In the following disproportionation of Cl2 in basic
h h medium
1) 2 2) 8 Cl2 + 2KOH  KCl + KClO + H2O
2 2
equivalent mass of Cl2 is
h 3 h 1) 35.50 2) 11.83
3) 6 4)

Date :-15/03/2020
2 4 2 3) 47.33 4) 71.00
110. The ratio of the wave numbers for the highest energy 118. One mole of KMnO will oxidise x moles of Iron (II)
4
transition of e– in Lyman and Balmer series of H-atom oxalate in acidic medium, x is
is 1) 1/3 2) 2/3
1) 4 : 1 2) 6 : 1
3) 3/3 4) 5/3
3) 9 : 1 4) 3 : 1
119. Following compounds of chromium ( W i t h
111. Statement I : The configuration of B atom cannot be
1s2 2s3 oxidation number shown in roman digit) are known,
Statement II : Hund’s rule demands that the all oxygen being in peroxy form
IV V
configuration should display maximum multiplicity
(I) (NH3)3 Cr Ox (II) K3 CrOy
1) Statement I is true, Statement II is true ; Statement
Thus, x and y are respectively
II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
2) Statement I is true, Statement II is true ; Statement x y
II is not correct explanation for Statement I. 1) 4 4
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false 2) 2 4
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true 3) 4 2
112. If the de Broglie wavelength of electron in nth Bohr 4) 4 8
III
orbit in hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 ao (ao is Bohr 120. In the complex [ (O )(NH ) (H O)]Cl . O will be in
Cr 2 3 4 2 2 2
radius), then the value of n/Z is the form of
1) 0.75 2) 0.40 1) dioxo 2) peroxo
3) 1.0 4) 1.50
3) superoxo 4) oxo
113. The O – O – H bond angle in H2O2 is
121. In which of the following reaction H2 O2 acts as a
1) 106o 2) 109o28`
reducing agent ?
3) 120o 4) 97o
114. Select the set of compounds with oxidation-reduction I. H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e–  2H2O
duality II. H2O2 – 2e–  O2 + 2H+
1) Cl2, H3PO4, HCHO, HNO2 III. H2O2 + 2e–  2OH–
2) Cl2, H3PO3, C6H5CHO, H2O2 IV. H2O2 + 2OH– – 2e–  O2 + 2H2O
3) Br2, H3PO2, CH3CHO, H3PO4 1) I and II 2) III and IV
4) CrO2Cl2, KMnO4, SO3, CO2 3) I and III 4) II and IV
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 9 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
122. 0.01 mole of NH2OH reduces 0.02 mole of FeCl3 to 129. Hydrogen combines directly with :
FeCl2 in acidic medium. Thus, nitrogen containing 1) Ca 2) Cu
compound is 3) Zn 4) Fe
1) NO 2) HNO2 130. Which is not true in case of H2O2 ?
3) H2N2O2 4) NH3 1) It is more stable in basic solution
123. If 0.50 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mole of 2) It acts as strong oxidizing agent in acid and
Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 basic solution
that can be formed is 3) It is decomposed by MnO2
1) 0.70 2) 0.50 4) It behaves as reducing agent towards KMnO4
3) 0.20 4) 0.10 131. The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is
124. A sucrose solution 40% by mass of solution changes 1) 4.8 2) 8.4
to 50% by mass of solution on heating. Thus, water 3) 3.0 4) 8.0
lost due to heating of 100 g of solution is 132. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid
1) 25 g 2) 20 g produces :
3) 15 g 4) 10 g 1) Two moles of sulphuric acid
125. To prepare a solution that is 0.50 KCl starting with 2) Two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid
100 mL of 0.40 M KCl 3) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole
1) add 0.75 g KCl of peroxomono sulphuric acid
2) add 20 mL H2O 4) One mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of
3) add 0.10 mol KCl peroxomono sulphuric acid and one mole
4) evaporate 10 mL H2O of hydrogen peroxide
126. The conversion of atomic hydrogen into ordinary 133. If 1/6 in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to
hydrogen is : be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole
1) exothermic change of a substance will

Date :-15/03/2020
2) endothermic change 1) Decrease twice
3) nuclear change 2) Increase two folds
4) photochemical change 3) Remains unchanged
127. The ortho and para hydrogen possess . 4) Be a function of the molecular mass of
1) Same physical properties but different element
chemical properties 134. When N2 is converted into NH3, the equivalent weight
2) different physical properties but same of nitrogen will be
chemical properties 1) 1.67 2) 2.67
3) same chemical and physical properties 3) 3.67 4) 4.67
4) different physical and chemical properties 135. Which of the following cannot give iodometric
128. Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with titrations ?
H2O2 yields 1) Fe3+ 2) Cu2+
2+
1) CrO3 + H2O + O2 3) Pb 4) Ag+
2) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2
3) CrO5 + H2O + K2SO4
4) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + O2

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 10 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

 Section ‘C’ : Physics
136. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle of 142. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg
120° is 10 Kg-wt and is perpendicular to one of changes its speed from 2.0 m s–1 to 3.5 m s–1 in 25 s.
the forces. That force is: The direction of the motion of the body remains
1) 10 3 Kg-wt 2) 20 3 Kg-wt unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction
10 of the force?
3) 10 kg-wt 4) Kg-wt 1) 0.06 N 2) 3 N
3
137. A ball of mass l00 g hits a smooth vertical wall 3) 0.18 N 4) 18 N
normally with a velocity of 15 m/s four times per 143. Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the
second and rebounds each time with a velocity two ends of a light inextensible string that passes
of 15 m/s. The average force exerted on the wall is : over a frictionless pulley. Find the tension in the
1) 6N 2) 15 N string when the masses are released.
3) 30 N 4) 12 N 1) 20 N 2) 48 N
138. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. 3) 40 N 4) 96 N
The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is 144. A batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 45°
suspended from it but will break if the mass without changing its initial speed which is equal
exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration to 54 km h–1. What is the impulse imparted to
with which the monkey can climb up along the the ball? (Mass of the ball is 0.15 kg.)
rope: (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2.4 kg m s–1 2) 4.2 kg m s–1
1) 10 m/s2 2) 25 m/s2 –1
3) 30 kg m s 4) 3 kg m s–1
3) 2.5 m/s2 4) 5 m/s2
145. Figure shows the position-time graph of a body

Date :-15/03/2020
139. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension
in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its of mass 0.04 kg. Find the time between two
acceleration is consecutive impulses received by the body and
1) –2
30 ms downwards 2) 4 ms upwards –2 the magnitude of each impulse?
3) 4 ms–2 downwards 4) 14 ms–2 upwards
140. Which of the following is the correct order of
forces?
1) Weak nuclear force < gravitational forces
< strong nuclear force < electromagnetic
force
2) Gravitatio nal < weak nuclear f orce 1) 4 s, 8 × 10–4 kg m s–1
< electromagnetic force < strong nuclear 2) 2 s, 8 × 10–4 kg m s–1
force 3) 2 s, 10 × 10–4 kg m s–1
3) Gravitational < electromagnetic force 4) 4 s, 10 × 10–4 kg m s–1
< weak nuclear force < strong nuclear force 146. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a
4) Weak nuclear force < gravitational
speed of 15 m s–1 gushes out of a tube of cross-
< electromagnetic force < strong nuclear
sectional area 10–2 m2, and hits a vertical wall
force
141. The accelerations of the block A and B are nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by
the impact of water, assuming it does not
A 2 kg
rebound?
1) 1150 N 2) 2000 N
3) 2250 N 4) 1500N
147. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other
on a table. Each coin has a mass m. Give the
B magnitude and direction of the force on the 7th
1) g/13 forward, 5 g/13 downward coin by the eighth coin,
2) g forward, g/2 downward 1) 3 mg up 2) 3 mg down
3) 6g/13 forward, 9g/13 downward 3) 4 mg up 4) 4 mg down
4) 9g/13 forward, 6g/13 downward
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 11 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
148. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in 152. A body constrained to move along the z-axis of
two different ways as shown in figure. What is the a coordinate system is subject to a constant force
action on the floor by the man in the two cases? If
F given by F  iˆ  2ˆj  3kˆ N where ˆi, ˆj, kˆ are unit
the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N, which
vectors along the x, y and z-axis of the system
mode should the man adopt to lift the block
respectively. What is the work done by this force
without the floor yielding?
in moving the body a distance of 4 m along the
z-axis ?
1) 10 J 2) 12 J
3) 14 J 4) 16 J
153. A pump on the ground floor of a building can
pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3 in
15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground,
and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much
electric power is consumed by the pump.
1) 20.2 kW 2) 60.3 kW
1) 750 N, 250 N, (b) 2) 250 N, 750 N, (b) 3) 43.6 kW 4) 15 kW
3) 250 N, 250 N, (a) 4) 750 N, 750 N, (a) 154. The bob A of a pendulum released from 30° to
149. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its the vertical hits another bob B of the same mass
vertical diameter with an angular frequency . at rest on a table as shown in figure. How high
The small bead on the wire loop remains at its does the bob A rise after the collision? Neglect

Date :-15/03/2020
g . The angle made by the the size of the bobs and assume the collision to
lowermost point for be elastic.
R
radius vector joining the centre to the bead with
2g
the vertical downward direction for   .
R
Neglect friction.
1) 30o 2) 45o
o
3) 60 4) 90o
150. The sign of work done by a force on a body is 1) upto 30o 2) upto 60o
important to understand. Identify the case in 3) doesn't rise 4) retraces its path
which work done is positive 155. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line
1) work done by a man in lifting a bucket out with velocity v = ax3/2 where a = 5 m–1/2 s–1. What
of a well by means of a rope tied to the is the work done by the net force during its
bucket. displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m?
2) work done by gravitational force in the 1) 25 J 2) 50 J
above case, 3) 75 J 4) 100 J
3) work done by friction on a body sliding 156. A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed
down an inclined plane, 70 m s–1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4 kg
4) work done by the resistive force of air on a and instantly comes to rest with respect to the
vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest. block. The block is suspended from the ceiling
151. A body is moving unidirectionally under the by means of thin wires. Calculate the height to
influence of a source of constant power. Its which the block rises.
displacement in time t is proportional to 1) 10.1 cm 2) 21.2 cm
1) t 1/2
2) t 3) 30.5 cm 4) 44.3 cm
3/2 2
3) t 4) t

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 12 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11

157. A 1 kg block situated on rough incline is 161. A mass (m) is lowered with the help of a string
connected to a spring of spring constant 100 N by a distance (d) at a constant acceleration g/4.
m–1 as shown in figure. The block is released from The work done by the string is
rest with the spring in the unstretched position.
The block moves 10 cm down the incline before mgd mgd
1) 2)
coming to rest. Find the coefficient of friction 4 3
between the block and the incline. Assume that
3mgd
the spring has. negligible mass and the pulley is 3) 4) mgd
frictionless. 4
162. A body of mass m at rest is subjected to a constant
force F for time t. The kinetic energy at time t is
given by

F 2t 2 F 2t 2
1) 2)
2m 3m

1) 0.6 2) 0.26 2F 2 t 2 F 2t 2
3) 0.126 4) 0.5 3) 4)
m m
158. Which of the following potential energy curves
163. The potential energy of a particle in a force field
in figure can possibly describe the elastic
collision of two billiard balls? Here r is the A B
is U   , where A and B are positivee
distance between centres of the balls. r2 r
constants and r is the distance of particle from
the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the

Date :-15/03/2020
distance of the particle is
(a) (b)
A B
1) 2)
B A

B 2A
3) 4)
2A B
(c) (d)
164. The graph between E k and 1 is (Ek = kinetic
p
1) a 2) b energy and p = momentum)
3) c 4) d
159. A force ˆi  2jˆ  3kˆ N displaces a body from
position vector of point (2,4,–1) m to the position Ek Ek
1) 2)
vector of point (5, 2, – 4) m. The work done is
1) 8J 2) 9 J 1/p 1/p
3) 10 J 4) 7 J
160. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force
which causes a displacement S in metres in it is
Ek
1 2 3) 4) Ek
given by s  t , where t is in second. Work done
3 1/p
by the force in 2s is 1/p

165. Position vector is r with components x, y, z and
5 19 
1) J 2) J momentum is p with components px' py and pz.
19 5
If the particle moves only in the x-y plane then
8 3 the angular momentum has only.
3) J 4) J
3 8 1) x-component. 2) y-component.
3) z-component. 4) xy-component.
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 13 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
166. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a 171. Velocity v of translation of a rolling body (like a
hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having ring, disc, cylinder or sphere) at the bottom of
the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free an inclined plane of a height h is given by ( where
k is the radius of gyration of the body about its
to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry, and
symmetry axis, and R is the radius of the body).
the sphere is free to rotate about an axis passing The body starts from rest at the top of the plane.
through its centre. Which of the two will acquire
2gR 2gh
a greater angular speed after a given time. 1) v2  2) v2 
1) hollow cylinder 2) solid sphere (1  k 2 / R 2 ) (1  k 2 / R 2 )
3) both acquire same 4) stop rotating 2gh
gh 2
167. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole 3) v2  4) v 
2 2
(1  k / R ) (1  R 2 / k 2 )
of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole is
172. A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed
at R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate
0 is placed (without any translational push) on
the centre of gravity of the resulting flat body. a perfectly frictionless table. The radius of the
1) R/6 from the center of orignal disc opposite disc is R. What are the linear velocities of the
to the center of cut portion points A, B and C on the disc shown in the figure.
2) R/6 from the center of orignal disc same
side to the center of cut portion
3) R/12 from the center of orignal disc
opposite to the center of cut portion
4) R/12 from the center of orignal disc same 1) 0 R / 2, 0 R, 0 R 2) 0R, 0R / 2, 0R / 2
side to the center of cut portion 3) 4) 0R / 2, 0R, 0R / 2
0 R,  0 R,  0 R / 2

Date :-15/03/2020
168. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at .its 173. Read each statement below carefully, and
centre. When two coins, each of mass 5 g are put identify the false statement
one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the 1) During rolling, the force of friction acts in
stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the same direction as the direction of
the mass of the metre stick? motion of the CM of the body.
1) 33 g 2) 44 g 2) The instantaneous speed of the point of
3) 55 g 4) 66 g contact during rolling is zero.
169. A hoop of radius 2 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along 3) The instantaneous acceleration of the point
of contact during rolling is zero.
a horizontal floor so that its centre of mass has a
4) For perfect rolling motion, work done
speed of 20 cm s–1. How much work has to be against friction is zero.
done to stop it? 174. A uniform cylinder has a radius R and length L.
1) 2J 2) 4 J If the moment of inertia of this cylinder about an
3) 6J 4) 8 J axis passing through its centre and normal to its
170. Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and I2 about circular face is equal to the moment of inertia of
their respective axes (normal to the disc and the same cylinder about an axis passing through
passing through the centre), and rotating with its centre and normal to its length; then:
angular speeds 1 and 2 are brought into contact 1) LR 2) L = 3 R
face to face with their axes of rotation coincident. R
3) L 4) L0
What is the angular speed of the two-disc 3
system? Take 1  2 175. A cricket mat of mass 50 kg is rolled loosely in
the form of a cylinder of radius 2 m. Now again
I11  I22 I12  I 21
1) 2) 3
I1  I 2 I1  I 2 it is rolled tightly so that the radius becomes th
4
of original value; then the ratio of moment of
I12  I 21 I11  I22 inertia of mat in the two cases is:
3) 1  2 4) 1  2 1) 1:3 2) 4 : 3
3) 16 : 9 4) 3 : 5
PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 14 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11
176 Two particles of masses m1 and m2 are connected 179. Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass
by a rigid massless rod of length r to constitute a are lying on xy plane as shown in figure. Let Ix,
dumb-bell which is free to move in the plane. Iy and Iz be the moments of inertia of both the
The moment of inertia of the dumb-bell about rods about x, y and z-axes respectively. Then:
an axis perpendicular to the plane passing
through the centre of mass is:
m 1m 2 r 2
1) m1  m2
2) (m1 + m2) r2

m 1m 2r 2
3) m1  m2
4) (m1 – m2) r2

177. If the moment of inertia of a disc about an axis

tangentially and parallel to its surface be I, then 1) Ix  Iy  Iz 2) I x  I y  I z
the moment of inertia about the axis tangential 3) Ix  Iy  Iz 4) I z  I y  I x
but perpendicular to the surface will be: 180. A sperical ball rolls on a table without slipping.
6 3 Then the fraction of its total energy associated
1) I 2) I
5 4 with rotation is:
3 5 1) 2/5 2) 2 / 7
3) I 4) I
2 4 3) 3/5 4) 3 / 7
178. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density
 and radius R about its diameter is:

Date :-15/03/2020
105 5 105 2
1) R  2) R 
176 176

176 5 176 2
3) R  4) R 
105 105

PCB PRE-FINAL ROUND : 02 15 TEST BOOKLET CODE-11