Test-11 Full Marks- 320
101. The membrane of the erythrocytes has
approximately ___% of proteins and ___% lipids.
(1) 42, 50 (2) 52, 40 (3) 50, 50 (4) 60,40
102. According to the fluid -mosaic model of cell
membranes, which of the following is a true
statement about membrane phospholipids?
(1) They frequently flip-flop from one side of the
membrane to the other.
(2) They move laterally along the plane of the
membrane
(3) They are free to depart from the membrane and
dissolve in the surrounding solution.
(4) They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the
membrane
103. Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from
prokaryotic cells that were ingested by an ancestral
cell. Which feature have the prokaryotes lost during
their evolution into mitochondria?
(1) Cell wall (2) Circular chromosome (3) Endoplasmic
reticulum (4) Ribosomes
104. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve
tube cells and most of mammalian erythrocytes is
(1) absence of mitochondria (2) presence of cell wall
(3) presence of haemoglobin (4) absence of nucleus
105. Which of the following is the correct sequence I
route of the secretory product?
(1) ER Vesicles Cis region of GB  Trans region of
GB  Vesicle  Plasma membrane
(2) RER GB  Lysosome Nuclear membrane 
Plasma membrane
(3) ER  Vesicles Trans region of GB  Cis region
of GB Vesicles  Plasma membrane
(4) Lysosome  ER  GB  Vesicles  Cell
membrane
106. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly
matched?
(1) Cristae – The tubular structure formed by
the folding of the inner membrane of the
mitochondrion.
(2) Plasmodesmata – The membrane surrounding the
vacuole in plants.
(3) Grana – Membrane bound discs in chloroplasts
that contain chlorophylls and carotenoids.
(4) Middle lamella – Layer between adjacent cells
walls in plants derived from cell plate.
107. Which of the following observations most
strongly support the view that mitochondria contain
electron transport enzymes aggregated into compact
association?
(1) Disruption of mitochondria yields membrane
fragments, which are able to synthesise ATP
(2) A contractile protein capable of utilising ATP has
obtained from mitochondria.
(3) Mitochondria have a highly folded inner wall.
(4) Mitochondria in animals embryos have a tendency
to concentrate in cells, which are to become
locomotory structures.
8. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option.
(1) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(2) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(3) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(4) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
109. "The cytoplasm of animal and plant cells is
transversed by a network of tiny tubular membranous
system that divided the intracellular space into 2
compartments (Luminal inside the membranous
system) and extraluminal (Cytoplasmic)
compartment."
The above statement is attributed to -
(1) ER (2) GB (3) Plasma membrane (4) Nuclear
membrane
110. You are asked to examine a cell using a powerful
light microscope. The image you see has a clearly
defined nucleus and mitochondria. It also has a large
central vacuole and chloroplasts. From what group of
organisms did this cell most likely come?
(1) Bacteria (2) Protists (3) Fungi (4) Plants
111. If you fractionate all the cell organelles from the
cytoplasm of a plant cell, which one of the following
set of fraction will have nucleic acids.
(1) Nucleus, mitochondria, lysosome, vacuole
(2) Mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisome, lysosome
(3) Nucleus, chloroplast, GB, ER
(4) Nucleus, mitochrondria, ribosome, chloroplast
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Test-11 Full Marks- 320

112. Which one of the following structural formulae
(A & B) of two organic compounds is correctly
identified along with its related function?
(1) B : Adenine — A nucleotide that makes up nucleic
acids.
(2) A: Triglyceride — Major source of energy
(3) B : Uracil — A component of DNA
(4) A: Lecithin — A component of cell membrane
116. Which of the following statements about
enzymes is incorrect?
(1) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in
certain exceptional organisms. They are effective even
at 80° - 90°C.
(2) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity.
(3) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.
(4) Enzymes are highly specific.
117. Enzymes are biocatalysts. They catalyse
biochemical reactions. In general they reduce
activation energy of reactions. Many physico-chemical
processes are enzyme mediated. Some examples of
enzyme mediated reactions are given below. Tick the
wrong entry
(1) Dissolving CO2 in water
(2) Unwinding the two strands of DNA
(3) Hydrolysis of sucrose
(4) Formation of peptide bond
118. The given graph shows concept of activation
energy with labelled 1, 2, 3, & 4. Co-relate the
statements I, II, III & IV with 1, 2, 3 & 4.

113.
You have isolated an unidentified liquid from a sample
of beans. You add the liquid to a beaker of water and
shake vigorously. After a few minutes, the water and
the other liquid separate into two layers. To which
class of biological molecules does the unknown liquid
most likely belong?
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Lipid (c) Proteins (4) Enzymes
114. Statement A -Amino acids are amphoteric in
their function.
Statement B -All amino acids are necessary for our
body.
(1) Statement A is wrong , statement B is correct I II III IV
(2) Both the statements A and B are wrong (1) 1 3 2 4
(3) Statement A is correct, statement B is wrong (2) 1 2 3 4
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct (3) 1 3 2 4
(4) 1 2 4 3
115. When you take cells or tissue pieces and grind
them with an acid in a mortar and pestle, all the small
119. Typically, cells that no longer undergo mitosis
biomolecules dissolve in the acid. Proteins,
have chromosomes with ___ molecule of DNA and
polysaccharides and nucleic acids are insoluble in
they remain in the ___ subphase of interphase -
mineral acid and get precipitated. The acid soluble
(1) One, G1 (2)Two, G2 (3) One, G2 (4) Two, S
compounds include amino acids, nucleosides, small
120. A plant cell has 12 chromosomes at the end of
sugars etc. When one adds a phosphate group to a
mitosis. How many chromosomes would it have in the
nucleoside one gets another acid soluble
G2-phase of its next cell cycle?
biomolecule called
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 24
(1) Nitrogen base (2) Adenine
(3) Sugar phosphate (4) Nucleotide

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Test-11 Full Marks- 320

121. A cell division time is 1 minute. In 20 minutes, a
culture tube (culture medium) is 1/8th filled with cells.
When the tube will be fully filled?
(1) 21 minutes (2) 23 minutes
(3) 60 minutes (4) 160 minutes.
122.
127 If Xis the rate of photosynthesis at shorter wave
length radiation, Y at higher wavelenth, Z is the rate at
the combination of shorter and higher wavelength,
then Emerson effect is ·
(1) X > Z + Y (2) Z = X + Y (3) Z = X = Y (4) Z > X + Y
28. Examine the figure given below and select the
right option giving the components (A/B/C/D)
correctly. identified.

123. Cells of certain species of animals have six pairs

of chromosomes. How many molecules of DNA will
remain in a nucleus of these animals during G2 phase?
(1) 12 (2) 48 (3) 6 (4) 24 (1) A- Photosystem - I, D - Photosystem - II
124. Study the given graph which shows the action (2) A-ATP synthase, C - Cyclic ETC
spectrum of A. Superimposed on B spectrum of (3) A- PQ, B - Photosystem - II, D - F0 - F 1 particle
chlorophyll a. Identify A & B in the graph. (4) A- Cyt b6f, C - Cycle ETC, D - Photosystem – I
29. Assertion: Photolysis of water occur on inner side
of the membrane of thylakoid.
Reason: Water splitting complex is associated with
PSII which is physically located on inner side of
thylakoid Membrane.
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
A B (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
1 Rate of respiration Action spectrum (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
2 Rate of respiration Absorption 130.
3 Rate of Photosynthesis Action spectrum
4 Rate of Photosynthesis Absorption

125. The light reactions of photosynthesis generate

high-energy electrons, that end up in _____ . They
produce ____ and ____ _
(1) ATP, NADPH2, 02 (2) 02, ATP, NADPH2 (3) Chl, 02,
131.
H20 (4) NADPH2, ATP, 02
126. The given diagram represents the Calvin cycle.

At which stage (inducated by P, Q, R and S)is CO2

incorporated?
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S
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Test-11
132.
133.
134. How many ATP will be produced during the
production of 1 molecule of acetyl CoA from 1
molecule of pyruvic acid?
(1) 3 ATP (2) 5 ATP (3) 8ATP (4) 38 ATP
135. In the given columns, column-I contain
complexes and column-II contain their alternative
names. Select the correct match from the option
given below.
(1) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II
(2) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – III
(3) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – III
136. Correct sequence of events in Kreb's cycle is -
(1) Acetyl CoA Citrate Pyruvate a-ketoglutarate
Succinate Malate Fumarate OAA
(2) Acetyl CoA Citric acida-ketoglutaric
acidSuccinic acidFumaric acidMalic acidOAA
(3) Acetyl CoA Citric acid Malic acid a -
ketoglutaric acid Succinic acid OAA
( 4) All are wrong
137. In yeast cell, if TCA cycle is shut down due to lack
of 0 2, glycolysis will probably-
(1) Shut down (2) Increase
(3) Produce more ATP I glucose molecule (4) Produce
more NADH2 /glucose molecule
Full Marks- 320
138.
139. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to
produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can
be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple
plants throughout the year to increase yield?
(1) Auxin and Ethylene (2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin and
Abscisic acid
140. Auxin can be bioassayed by
(1) Hydroponics
(2) Photometer
(3) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation
(4) Avena coleoptile curvature
141. From the following relationships between
respiratory volume and capacities, mark the correct
option.
(i) Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume + Residual
Volume
(ii) Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume (TV) +
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory Reserve
Volume (ERV).
(iii) Residual Volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) –
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal Volume (TV) = Inspiratory Capacity (IC) –
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
Codes
(1) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Incorrect, (iv)
Correct
(2) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct
(3) (i) Correct, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect. (iv) Correct
(4) (i) Correct, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Correct, (iv) Incorrect
142. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar
surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically
reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls
(1) Emphysema (2) Pneumonia
(3) Asthma (4) Pleurisy
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Test-11 Full Marks- 320
143. A health disorder that results from the deficiency
of thyroxine in adults and characterized by a low
metabolicrate, increase in body weight and tendency
to retain water in tissues is
(1) cretinism (2) hypothyroidism
(3) simple goitre (4) myxoedema
144. Following are the functions of insulin except
(1) Glycogenesis
(2) ↑ Glucose utilization by hepatocyte
(2) ↑ Glucose utilization by adipocyte
(4) Gluconeogenesis
145. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood
would
(1) cause delayed clotting
(2) prevent clotting
(3) cause immediate clotting
(4) prevent destruction of haemoglobin
146. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by
the gene I. It has three alleles – IA IB and i. Since there
are three different alleles, six different genotypes are
possible. How many phenotypes can occur?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Four (4) Two
147. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water
(70-80 %) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in
which of the following part of the nephron?
(1) Ascending limb loop of Henle
(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Descending loop of Henle
148. A large quantity of fluid is filtered everyday by
nephrons in the kidney but only about 1% of it is
excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filterate
(1) is stored in the urinary bladder
(2) is reabsorbed into the blood
(3) gets collected in the renal pelvis
(4) is lost as sweat.
149. The type of joint in which one of the two bones
fixed in its place and bears a peg like process over
which the other bone rotates is called
(1) hinge joint (2) saddle joint
(3) pivot joint (4) angular joint
150.Which of the following correctly characterises a "
fast oxidative"type of skeletal muscle fibre?
(1) Few mitochondria and high glycogen content
(2) Low myosin ATPase rate and few surrounding
capillaries
(3) Low glycolytic enzyme activity and intermediate
contraction velocity
(4) High myoglobin content and intermediate
glycolytic enzyme activity
151. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the
action potential results from the movement of :
(1) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(2) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular
fluid
(3) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(4) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular
fluid
152. Four healthy people in their twenties got
involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a
few cells of the following. Which of the cells are least
likely to be replaced by new cells?
(1) Liver cells
(2) Neurons
(3) Malpighian layer of the skin
(4) Osteocytes
153. Anesthetics reduce pain by blocking the
transmission of nerve impulses. The kind of chemicals
working as anesthetics are those that block
(1) only the voltage-gated sodium channels in
membranes
(2) only the voltage-gated potassium channels in
Membranes
(3) only the neuro-transmitter receptors
(4) voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels and
neuro-transmitter receptors
154. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are
the examples of those that can easily pass through the
cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a
receptor inside it
(Mostly in the nucleus)
(1) Insulin, glucagon
(2) Thyroxin, insulin
(3) Somatostain, oxytocin
(4) Cortisol, testosterone
155. Pancreas has two types of cells such as islets of
Langerhans and acinar cells. In early years of research
on diabetes, extract of this gland was tested on
diabetic patients. Results are tabulated below:
(1) anti-diabetic factor present in extract 'C' was
inactivated by extract 'A'
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Test-11 Full Marks- 320

(2) anti-diabetic factor present in 'A' was destroyed by 161. Which one of the following palindromic base
'B' sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the
(3) both 'A' and 'C' destroyed the anti-diabetic factor middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
present in 'B' (1) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
(4) anti-diabetic factor present in 'B' was destroyed by 3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
'C' (2) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
156. According to the accepted concept of hormone 3'.............CTACTA.............5'
action, if receptor molecules are removed from target (3) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
organs will 3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
(1) continue to respond to the hormone without any (4) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'
difference 3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
(2) not respond to the hormone 162.
(3) continue to respond to the hormone but will
require higher concentration
(4) continue to respond to the hormone but in the
opposite way.
157. From origin point of view the pituitary gland of
human is similar to
(1) Thyroid
(2) Adrenal medulla
(3) Gonads
(4) None of these
158. Paleontologists unearthed a human skull during 56.
excavation. A small fragments of the scalp tissue was
still attached to it. Only little DNA could be extracted
from it. If the genes of the ancient man need to be 162. Bt toxin gene are isolated from Bacillus
analysed, the best way of getting sufficient amount of thuringiensis and incorporated into crop plants
DNA from this extract is making them insecticidal. The choice of genes depend
(1) hybridising the DNA with DNA probe upon
(2) subjecting the DNA to polymerase chain reaction (1) crop plant only
(3) subjection the DNA to gel electrophoresis (2) targeted pest only
(4) treating the DNA with restriction endonucleases (3) Both (a) and (b)
159. A mixture containing DNA fragments a,b,c and d (4) Neither type of crop nor targeted pest
with molecular weights of a+b=c,a>b and d>c, was
subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The 163. A doctor while operating on an HIV (+ve) patient
positions of these fragments from cathode to anode accidently cuts himself with a scalpel. Suspecting
sides of the gel would be himself to have contracted the virus. Which of the
(1) b,a,c,d following test will be taking to confirm his suspicion?
(2) a,b,c,d (1) Routine urine examination
(3) c,b,a,d (2) TLC
(4) b,a,d,c (3) DLC
160. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic (4) PCR
library by using 164. Bacteria genetically engineered to express a gene
(1) Restriction enzymes from a plant will
(2) Cloning vectors (1) synthesise a protein with the same sequence of
(3) DNA probes amino acids as in the plant and, therefore, the protein
(4) Gene targets will have the same structure and function as in the
plant
(2) synthesise a protein with essentially the same

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Test-11 Full Marks- 320

sequence of amino acids as in the plant with (1) 128 (2) 24 (3) 64 (4) 32
differences relating to different codon Wobble rules 170. What will happen to a well growing herbaceous
between prokaryotes and eukaryotes. plant in the forest if it is transplanted outside the
(3) not be able to synthesize a protein due to the forest in a park?
presence of exon splicing sequences in the DNA (1) It will grow normally
sequence from the plant. (2) It will grow well because it is planted in the same
(4) not be able to synthesize a protein because locality
translation is coupled with transcription and (3) It may not survive because of change in its micro
posttranslational processing does not occur in it. climate
165. (4) It grows very well because the plant gets more
sunlight
171. If a student wants to study about birth rate,
death rate, sex ratio, age distribution, etc., of a
population, the information is obtained from :
(1) census (2) natality table
(3) life table (4) mortality table
172. The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands
became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island. This is apparently due to
(1) lower intrinsic rate of goat.
(2) the greater browsing efficiency of the goats.
(1)= (1) - (iii) – (D), (2) - (i) – (B), (3) - (ii) – (C), (4) - (iv)
(3) limiting resource.
– (A)
(4) superiority of the goat.
(2)= (1) - (ii) – (C), (2) - (i) – (B), (3) - (iii) – (D), (4) - (iv)
173. Arrange the following ecosystems in increasing
– (A)
order of mean NPP (Tonnes / ha / year)
(3)= (1) - (iii) – (D), (2) - (i) – (A), (3) - (ii) – (C), (4) - (iv)
A. Tropical deciduous forest
– (B)
B. Temperate coniferous forest
(4)= (1) - (iii) – (A), (2) - (i) – (B), (3) - (ii) – (D), (4) - (iv)
C. Tropical rain forest
– (A)
D. Temperate deciduous forest
166. The rate of formation of new organic matter by
(1) B < A < D < C (2) D < B < A < C
rabbit in a grassland, is called
(3) A < C < D < B (4) B < D < A < C
(1) Net productivity
174. Which of the following type of ecosystem is
(2) Secondary productivity
expected in an area where evaporation exceeds
(3) Net primary productivity
precipitation, and mean annual rainfall is bellow
(4) Gross primary productivity
100mm
167. The following Indian biome has mean annual
(1) Grassland (2) Shrubby forest
precipitation up to 100 cm and mean annual
(3) Desert (4) Mangrove
temperature range from 0- 25°C
175. Which of the given below pyramids represents
(1) Temperate forest (2) Tropical forest
the variation in biomass at different trophic levels in
(3) Coniferous forest (4) Grassland
pond ecosystem?
168. Which of the following would necessarily
decrease the density of a population in a given
habitat?
(1) Natality > mortality
(2) Immigration > emigration
(3) Mortality and emigration
(4) Natality and immigration
169. A protozoan reproduces by binary fission. What
will be the number of protozoans in its population
after six generations?
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Test-11 Full Marks- 320

176. 180. Match the following and then choose the correct
option.

177.
(1) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E– V
(3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(4) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – III

178. India relishes a history of religious and cultural

traditions which emphasised the protection of nature.
In many cultures, tracts of forest were set aside, all
the trees and wildlife within were venerated and
given total protection. Such areas are referred to as
(1) hotspots (2) ethical groves
(3) sacred groves (4) protected areas
179.Buffer zone, Core zone and the Transition zone
are three subdivisions of the Biosphere reserves. The
transition zone
(1) Covers the Buffer zone and lies in between Buffer
zone and the Core zone
(2) Covers the Core zone and lies in between the Core
zone and the Buffer zone
(3) Is the innermost zone of the Biosphere reserve
(4) Is the outermost zone of the Biosphere reserve

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101.1, 102.2, 103.1, 104.4, 105.1, 106.2, 107.2, 108.1,

109.1, 110.4, 111.4, 112.4, 113. 2, 114.4, 115.4, 116.3,
117.1, 118.2, 119.1, 120.4, 121.2, 122.4, 123.4, 124.4,
125.4, 126.1, 127.4, 128.4, 129.1, 130.2, 131.1, 132.2,
133.2, 134.1, 135.3, 136.2, 137.2, 138.1, 139.1, 140.3,
141.2, 142.1, 143.4, 144.4, 145.2, 146.3, 147.3, 148.2,
149.3, 150.4, 151.4, 152.2, 153.4, 154.4, 155.4, 156.2,
157.2, 158.2, 159.1, 160.3, 161.4, 162.3, 163.4, 164.1,
165.1, 166.2, 167.4, 168.3, 169.3, 170.3, 171.3, 172.2,
173.4, 174.3, 175.3, 176.3, 177.3, 178.3, 179.4, 180.1

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