Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology
8. Which of the following are not membrane-
bound?
1. Who concluded, based on his studies on 1. Vacuoles
plant tissues, that the presence of cell wall is 2. Ribosomes
a unique character of plant cells ? 3. Lysosomes
(1) Mathias Schleiden 4. Mesosomes
(2) Theodore Schwann
(3) Rudolph Virchow 9. Select the correct statement from the
(4) Robert Hooke following regarding cell membrane.
1. Na + and K ions move across cell membrane
2. Prokaryotic cells have something unique in by passive transport
the form of: 2. Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the
1. Inclusion bodies cell membrane
2. Plasmids 3. Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar
3. Cell wall heads towards the inner part
4. 70 S ribosomes 4. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
proposed by Singer and Nicolson
3. Carotenoid pigments are found in:
I. Chloroplasts 10. Which one of the following structures
II. Chromoplasts between two adjacent cells is an effective
III. Leucoplasts transport
(1) Only I pathway?
(2) Only I and II 1. Plasmodesmata
(3) Only II 2. Plastoquinones
(4) I, II and III 3. Endoplasmic rcticulum
4. Plasmalemma
4. A feature unique to prokaryotes would be:
1. A cell wall not made up of cellulose 11. Middle lamella is mainly composed of
2. An extrachromosomal plasmid DNA 1. hemicellulose
3. A cell membrane of peptidoglycan 2. muramic acid
4. Presence of inclusions 3. calcium pectate
4. phosphoglycerides
5. Fat soluble pigments like xanthophylls are
present in: 12. Cytoskeleton is made up of
1. Chromoplasts 1. calcium carbonate granules
2. Aleuroplasts 2. callose deposits
3. Elaioplasts 3. cellulosic microfibrils
4. Amyloplasts 4. proteinaceous filaments

6. The arrangement of outer and central 13. Which one of the following is not a
microtubules in a cilium is called the: constituent of cell membrane ?
1. 9 + 1 pattern 1. Cholesterol
2. 9 + 0 pattern 2. Glycolipids
3. Flagellin pattern 3. Proline
4. 9 + 2 pattern 4. Phospholipids

7. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single

strand of RNA is known as
(1) polymer
(2) polypeptide
(3) okazaki fragment
(4) polysome

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14. Identify the accurate explanation of 20. The fluid nature of the membrane is also
mesosome. important from the point of view of functions
It is like
(1) a specialised structure of prokaryotic cell (1)cell growth
formed by extension of plasma membrane (2)secretion
into the cytoplasm (3)cell division
(2) the middle layer of the prokaryotic cell (4)All of the above
wall
(3) the organelle of eukaryotic cell which 21. The most important function of plasma
helps in lipid synthesis membrane is the
(4) the middle layer of eukaryotic cell wall. (1) transportation of molecules across it
(2)cell division
15. Which one of the following structure is an (3)cell growth
organelle within an organelle? (4)endocytosis
(1) Ribosome
(2) Peroxysome 22. The transport of sodium and potassium
(3) ER ions through the membranes is an example
(4) Mesosome of
(1)transport against the concentration
16. Which of the following four cell structures gradient
is correctly matched with the accompanying (2)active process
description? (3)passive process
(1) Plasma membrane - Outer layer of (4)Both A and B
cellulose or chitin, or absent
(2) Mitochondria - Bacteria like elements with 23. Which of the following is true for
inner membrane forming sacs containing lysosomes
chlorophyll, found in plant cells and algae (1)membrane bound vesicles
(3) Chloroplasts - Bacteria like elements with (2)formed by golgibody
inner membrane highly folded (3)rich in hydrolytic enzymes
(4) Golgi apparatus - Stacks of flattened (4)All of the above
vesicles
24. Hydolytic enzymes comprises of which of
17. Which of the following is incorrect match the following
(1)bacillus- rod like (1)lipases
(2)coccus-comma shaped (2)proteases
(3)vibrio-comma shaped (3)carbohydrases
(4)spirillum-spiral (4)All of these

18. In membranes, the lipids are arranged 25. Hydrolytic enzymes are active at
within the membrane with the ______heads (1)acidic pH
towards the outer sides and the _________ tails (2)basic pH
towards the inner part. (3)Neutral pH
(1)polar, charged (4)Both A and B
(2)polar, hydrophobic
(3)polar, nonpolar 26. The common component between the cell
(4)Both B and C wall of algae and plants is
(1)cellulose
19. Integral or Peripheral proteins (2)Hemicellulose
classification is based on (3)Both A and B
(1)protein size (4)Mannans
(2)ease of extraction
(3)ease of function 27. Which of the following holds the
(4)ease of study neighbouring cells together
(1)calcium pectate
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28. Which of the following is the part of cell 35. Which of the following is true
envelope? (1)Centriole is well developed in animals
(1)glycocalyx (2)Centrioles lie perpendicular to each other
(2) cell wall and cell membrane in centrosome
(3)Both A and B (3)9+0 arrangement of microtubules is
(4)Glycocalyx and cell wall present in centrioles
(4)All of the above
29. Mesosomes extensions can be present in
the form of 36. Which of the following is true for vacuole
(1)vesicles (1)It is present in both plants and animals
(2)tubules (2)Central vacuole is present in plant
(3)lamellae (3)It occupies 90% volume of the plants
(4)All of the above (4)All of these

30. Which of the following is correct except 37. The contractile vacuole
(1)Pili and Fimbriae play role in motility (1) is present in Amoeba
(2)Flagella, pili, and fimbriae are surface (2)helps in osmoregulation
structures (3)helps in excretion
(3)Fimbriae help in attachment to surfaces (4)All of the above
(4)Both A and C
38. Which of the following is true about
31. Where can we find the ribosomes in microbodies
Bacteria (1)minute vesicular structures
(1)In cytoplasm (2)membrane bound structures
(2)In mitochondria (3)found in both plants and animals
(3)On Endoplasmic reticulum (4)All of the above
(4)All of these
39. Which of the following is not the function
32. Which of the following is true except of Golgi Body.
(1)all eukaryotic cells are identical 1. Glycosidation
(2)eukaryotic cells possess an organised 2. Glycosylation
nucleus with a nuclear envelope 3. Translation
(3)compartmentalisation is present in 4. Post-translational modification
eukaryotes
(4)All are correct 40. Which of the following is true about SER
(smooth endoplasmic reticulum), except
33. Which of the following are the functions of 1. Ribosomes are absent
cytoskeleton? 2. Actively involved in protein synthesis
(1)mechanical support 3. Steroidal hormone synthesis site
(2)motility 4. Both A and C
(3)maintenance of the shape of the cell
(4)all of the above 41. The type of leucoplast which stores oils
and fats is
34. How many of the following structures are (1)amyloplast
synthesised by microtubules? (2)aleuroplast
Centrioles, basal body, cilia, flagella, spindle (3)elaioplast
fibres (4)chromoplast
(1)5
(2)4 42. Carotene and xanthophylls are present in
(3)3 (1)Chloroplast
(4)2 (2)chromoplast
(3)leucoplast
(4) Both A and B

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43. A number of organised flattened 49. Correct statement in relation to vacuoles

membranous sacs are called is
(1)thylakoids
(2)starch granules (1) It is a triple membrane bound space found
(3)Quantasomes in cytoplasm containing sap
(4)None of these (2) It can occupy 90% of cell volume in plants
(3) Its membrane allows transport of
44. Chromatin can be observed in materials along the concentration gradient
(1)Interphase nucleus only
(2)dividing nucleus (4) Concentration of ions is significantly lesser
(3)Both A and B in vacuole than cytoplasm
(4)Nuclei of any stage

45. On what basis chromosomes have been

divided into four classes. 50. Vesicles from ER fuse with
1. position of centromere
(1) Maturing face of golgi body
2. position of primary constriction
(2) Forming face of golgi body
3. number of kinetochores
(3) Primary lysosome for intercellular
4. Both A and B
digestion
(4) Plasma membrane to remove them out
46. In which of the chromosomes two equal
from cell
arms are present
(1)sub-metacentric chromosome
(2)metacentric chromosome
(3)acrocentric chromosome 51. The content of nucleolus is continuous
(4)telocentric chromosome with nucleoplasm

47. Satellite body is formed in chromosome (1) Through microtubules

because of (2) Through nuclear pores
(1)primary constriction (3) Due to lack of membrane
(2)secondary constriction (4) Due to presence of channels in membrane
(3)Centromere
(4)Both A and C

48. A number of proteins synthesized by 52. Few chromosome have non-staining

ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are secondary constrictions at a constant location,
modified in the ______ of the Golgi apparatus also known as :-
before they are released from its trans face 1. Cristae
2. Satellite
(1) Tubules 3. Kinetochores
(2) Vesicles 4. Hub
(3) Cisternae
(4) More than one option is correct 53.
Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as
1. Polysome
2. Polyhedral bodies
3. Plastidome
4. Nucleosome

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54. 59. Mark the incorrect statement

Which one of the following cell organelles is 1. All the cell organelles perform different &
enclosed by a single membrane? specific
1. Chloroplasts function.
2. Lysosomes 2. Basal body of cilia & flagella in prokaryotes
3. Nuclei is
4. Mitochondria formed by cytoskeleton.
3. Endoplasmic reticulum helps in transport.
4. Microbodies are present in both plants and
animals.
55. The concept of "Omnis cellula-e-cellula"
regarding cell division was first proposed by: 60. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic
1. Aristotle structures in nucleus are the site for active
2. Rudolf Virchow synthesis of
3. Theodore Schwann 1. protein synthesis
4. Schleiden 2. mRNA
3. rRNA
56. Select the correct statement w.r.t. 4. tRNA
axoneme of eukaryotic flagella.
1. It is composed of 9 peripheral triplet
microfibrils of tubulin proteins. 61. Cell envelope in bacteria consists of
2. It does not have covering of plasma 1. Plasma membrane only
membrane. 2. Plasma membrane and mesosome
3. Central tubules are enclosed by a central 3. Glycocalyx only
sheath. 4. Glycocalyx, cell wall and plasma membrane
4. It gives rise to spindle apparatus during
cell division.
62. Which one of the following cell organelle
57. Nucleolus is is not the part of endomembrane system?
1. Bounded by a single membrane. 1. Vacuole
2. Always one per cell. 2. Lysosome
3. Present inside mitochondria. 3. Golgi bodies
4. The site for rRNA synthesis. 4. Peroxisome

58. Which is not a feature w.r.t. given 63. Choose incorrect statement
diagram of 1. Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a
mitochondria (as indicated in diagram)? living cell
2. Robert Brown discovered cell
3. Electron microscope revealed all the
structural details of cell
4. A large cell has a higher volume: surface
ratio than a smaller cell

64. For the fluid mosaic model of membrane

given by Singer and Nicolson, which of the
1. A → Continuous limiting boundary.
following conditions are not associated?
2. B → Forms number of infolding called
1. Lipids enable the lateral movement of
cisternae.
proteins in the membrane
3. A & B → Both having own specific enzyme.
2. Fluid nature of membrane helps in
4. C → Site of Krebs’ cycle.
secretion
3. Lipids can show flip flop movement from
one layer of membrane to other
4. The fluidity of membrane is mainly due to
oligosaccharides
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65. Select the incorrect statement(s) w.r.t. 71. Which one of the following organelles is
functions of various cellular components not associated with the endomembrane
a. Middle lamella works as glue to hold the system?
adjacent cells together. 1. Golgi bodies
b. Mitochondria, chloroplast and vacuoles are 2. ER
part of the endomembrane system as their 3. Glyoxysome
functions are coordinated. 4. Vacuole
c. Lipoidal steroid hormones are synthesized
by ER component which is not associated to 80 72. Both cilium and flagellum arise from the
S ribosomes. part which is structurally similar to
1. Only b 1. Centriole
2. Only a 2. Kinetochore
3. Both a and c 3. Kinetosome
4. Both b and c 4. Centrosphere

66. Select the correct match
1. 70 'S' ribosome - Bacterial mesosome
2. Cytoskeleton - Lipoproteins
3. Kinetochore - Centromere
4. Lysosome - Catalase
67. Kinetochores are associated with
1. Outer part of primary constriction
2. Centromere in its inner central part
3. Secondary construction
4. Satellite
68. The correct statement regarding RER is :
1. It bears enzymes for modifying
polypeptides
2. It takes part in detoxification of toxic
chemicals with the help of cytochrome 450
3. It makes glycosomes
4. If forms spherosome and synthesizes
ascorbic acid
69. Cilia and flagella resemble in the
1. Microtubular structure
2. Presence of basal granules
3. Mode of action
4. More than one option is correct
70. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Golgi 3. Are synthesized in the cytoplasm while
apparatus
1. The cis and trans faces of the organelle are 4. As well as proteins are synthesized in
similar but interconnected
2. The Golgi cisternae are concentrically
arranged near the nucleus
3. It remains in close association with the
endoplasmic reticulum
4. The ER vesicles fuse with the cis face
73. Read the statements carefully and select
the set of correct statements
a. Palade particles are found in all cellular
organisms
b. A membrane bound structure in nucleus is
the site of ribosomal RNA synthesis
c. The mitochondria can be divide meiotically
to produce daughter mitochondria
d. Vacuoles can occupy about 90% of the
volume of a plant cell
1. All except b
2. a & c
3, b & d
4. a & d
74. How many radial spokes and microtubules
are found in an axoneme of a eukaryotic
flagellum respectively?
1. 9 and 20
2. 9 and 18
3. 18 and 18
4. 18 and 20
75. In prokaryotes, ribosomal RNAs
1. As well as proteins are synthesized in
cytoplasm
2. Are synthesized in the nucleolus while
proteins in cytoplasm
proteins in the nucleolus
nucleus

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76. The granular endoplasmic reticulum is 78. Which of the following statements are
not associated with which of the following correct?
functions? a. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is
1. Synthesis of secretory as well as non- frequently observed in the cells actively
secretory proteins involved in protein synthesis.
2. Synthesis of non-secretory proteins b. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell
3. Synthesis of steroidal hormones are synthesized on free ribosomes.
4. Synthesis of secretory proteins c. In the eukaryotic cell there is an extensive
compartmentalization of cytoplasm through
the presence of membrane-bound organelles
77. Examine the figure given below and select d. ER is found prominently in human eggs
the part correctly matched with its and sperms.
function/structure 1. All are correct
2. b & d
3. a, b & d
4. a & c

79. Pick the odd one out

1. Glyoxysome - β oxidation of fatty acid
2. Peroxisome - Enzyme for peroxide
synthesis
3. Spahaerosome - Synthesise and storage
of fats
4. Mitochondria - Absence of enzymes on
outer membrane

80. a. The cytoskeleton is proteinaceous and

helps in motility and cell division.
b. The Endomembrane system includes GERL
and peroxisome.
c. Protein can show lateral movement in
membrane, dependent on lipids.
1. a, c are correct
2. b, c are correct
3. a, b are correct
1. Part (A) : Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S 4. All are correct
subunits
2. Part (C) : RER - principally performs the
function of packaging mateials 81. Select the incorrect statement
3. Part (D) : Nuclear pore - passage through 1. Movement of protein and RNA takes place
which movement of RNA takes pace in one in both directions through nuclear pore
direction only 2. Basal body of cilia or flagella is similar to
4. Part (B) : SER - synthesis of steroidal centriole by structure in eukaryotes
hormones 3. Few chromosomes have non-staining
secondary constrictions at a constant location
4. Microbodies are not present in plant cells

82. Select the odd one out w.r.t. chloroplasts

1. Found in mesophyll cells of the leaves
2. It contains small, double-stranded linear
DNA
3. Chlorophyll pigments are present in the
thylakoid membrane
4. Their ribosomes are smaller than
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83. Organelles whose functions are 86. Identify the cell organelles labelled as A, B,
coordinated constitute endomembrane C and D. Mark the correct option w.r.t.
system. This includes all, except organelle and its function.
1. Lysosome
2. Peroxisome
3. Golgi complex
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

84. Membrane-bound vesicular structures

formed by the process of packaging in the
Golgi apparatus
1. Contains materials not useful for cell and
is bounded by half unit membrane
2. Contains all types of hydrolytic enzymes
optimally active at the acidic pH
3. Are concerned with photorespiration in
plants and animals
4. Possess enzymes for Kerbs cycle

85. Which one of the following is not a

property of cell membrane?
1. Polar molecules can not pass through the
nonpolar lipid bilayer
2. Depending on the ease of extraction,
proteins can be classified in two types
3. The quasi-fluid nature of protein enables
flip-flop movement of lipid
4. Ratio of protein and lipid varies
considerably in different cell types
1. A - Major site for synthesis of lipid.
2. B - Performs the function of packaging
materials, to be delivered to only intracellular
targets.
3. C - Sites of anaerobic respiration.
4. D - Main arena of cellular activities

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87. The given diagram represents the four 90. Select the wrong statement about
different structures which one of these is eukaryotic cells.
correct containing material and function:- 1. They have well defined nucleus
2. Possess 70S ribosomes
3. May have a cell wall
4. No organelles are single membrane bound

Chemistry
91. According to Moseley, a straight-line graph
is obtained on plotting-
1. The frequencies of characteristic X-rays of
elements against their atomic numbers.
2. The square of the frequencies of
characteristic X-rays of elements against
their atomic numbers
3. The square root of the frequencies of
characteristic X-rays of elements against
Synthesis of their atomic numbers
rRNA for 4. The reciprocal of the frequencies of
a. Nucleolus NOR
formation of characteristic X-rays of elements against
80 S Ribosome their atomic numbers.
Exchange
material 92. Which of the following order is not in
b. Nuclear Pore Chromatin between accordance with the property stated against
cytoplasm and it?
nucleoplasm
Formation of 1. F2 > Cl 2 > Br2 > l 2 Oxidising Power
Nucleoplasm 2. Hl > HBr >HCl >HF Acidic property in water
c. Nucleoplasmin nuclear
Protein 3. F2 > Cl 2 > Br2 > l 2 Electronegativity
matrix
Nuclear Cellulose 4. F2 > Cl 2 > Br2 > l 2 Bond dissociation energy
d. Ribosome
membrane synthesis
93. An element X occurs in short period
1. A having configuration ns2np1 . The formula
2. B and nature of its oxide are:
3. C 1. XO3, basic
4. D
2. XO3, acidic
3. X2O3, amphoteric
4. X2O3, basic
88. Select the incorrect match
1. Palade particle – Ribosome 94. The elements X, Y, Z and J have the
2. Flagella – Cell movement indicated electron configurations starting
3. Centriole – Found in higher plants with the innermost shell. The most metallic
4. Lysosome – Acid hydrolase element is :
1. X = 2, 8, 3
89. The term ‘mesosome’ is associated with 2. Y = 2, 8, 8
1. Yeast 3. Z = 2, 8, 8, 1
2. Algae 4. j = 2, 8, 8, 7
3. Bacteria
4. Diatom

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95. Which statement is true? 102. The electronic configuration of the most
1. The electronegative nature of elements electropositive element is :
increases along the period 1. [He]2s1
2. The electropositive nature of elements 2. [Xe]6s1
increases along the period
3. [He]2s2
3. The chemical reactivity of elements
increases along the period 4. [Xe]6s2
4. The I.E of element decreases along the
period 103. Transition elements exhibit variable
oxidation states because they release
96. The most non-metallic element among electrons from the following orbits:
the following is: 1. ns and np orbits
1. Be 2. (n-1)d and ns orbits
2. B 3. (n-1)d orbits
3. Mg 4. ns orbits
4. Al

97. The element having atomic number 19, is: 104. Elements of groups IB and IIB are called:
1. an inert gas 1. Normal elements.
2. a metal with oxidation number +1 2. Transition elements.
3. a non-metal with oxidation number -3 3. Alkaline earth metals.
4. a metal with oxidation number -3 4. Alkali metals.

105. The radius of La 3+ (at. no. 57) is 1.06

°
98. The order of basic character of given A
oxides is: The radius of Lu 3+ (at.no. 71) might be:
1. Na 2O > MgO > Al 2O3 > CuO °
1. 1.06 A
2. MgO > Al 2O3 > CuO > Na 2O
°
3. Al 2O3 > MgO > CuO > Na 2O 2. 0.85 A

4. CuO > Na 2O > MgO > Al 2O3 3. 1.60

°
A
°
4. 1.40 A
99. A variable oxidation state is shown by
which of the following?
106. Elements with an electronic
1. Na
configuration
2. Cu
3. Mg 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s24p64d10 5s25p3
4. Al belong to the group :
1. 3rd
100. The difference between ions and atoms is 2. 15th
of: 3. 17th
1. relative size 4. 2nd
2. Configuration
3. presence of charge 107. Which one of the elements with the
4. All of these following outer orbital configurations may
exhibit the largest number of oxidation
101. Amongst the following electronic states?
configurations, highest ionisation energy is
1. 3d3,4s2
represented by-
2. 3d5,4s1
1. [Ne]3s23p3
3. 3d5,4s2
2. [Ne]3s23p2
4. 3d2,4s2
3. [Ar]3d104s24p3
4. [Ne]3s23p1

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108. The ions O2-, F-, Na +, Mg 2+, and Al 3+ are 114. Which one of the elements has the
isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show [2003] highest ionization energy?
1. an increase from O2- to F- and then 1. [Ne]3s23p1
decrease from Na + to Al 3+ 2. [Ne]3s23p2
2. a decrease from O2- to F- and then increase 3. [Ne]3s23p3
from Na + to Al 3+ 4. [Ar]3d104s24p2
3. a significant increase from O2- to Al 3+
4. a significant decrease from O2- to Al 3+
115. Match list-I with list II and select the
correct answer using codes given below:
109. The element with atomic number 30 is
1. List-I Ions List-II Radius
expected to be present in:
(in pm)
1. IB group
2. IA group (I) Li+ (a) 216
(II) Na + (b) 195
3. IIA group
4. IIB group (III) Br - (c) 60
(IV) I- (d) 95
110. Which pair has elements containing a Codes:
same number of electrons in the outermost I II III IV
orbit? 1. a b d c
1. N, O 2. b c a d
2. Na, Ca 3. c d b a
3. As, Bi 4. d c b a
4. Pb, Sb
116. Allred Rochow's scale is related to:-
111. Generally, the ionization enthalpy 1. Electronegativity, radius, and Z*
increases along a period but there are some 2. Resonance energy of the molecule,
exceptions. The one which is not an exception ionisation potential and electron affinity.
is- 3. Bond Polarity, diagonal relationship and
1. Be and B periodicity.
2. N and O 4. None of the above.
3. Mg and Al
4. Na and Mg 117. In which of the following has maximum
electronegativity:-
112. The electronegativity of the following 1. C
elements increases in the order of - 2. O
1. S < P < N < O 3. B
2. P < S < N < O 4. F
3. N < O < P < S
4. N < P < S < O
118. Removal of 2nd electron is always :-
(1) Endothermic
113. The correct order for electron affinity of
(2) Endothermic for Mg, Be, N
halogens is :
(3) Exothermic for Mg, Be, N and noble gases
1. Br > F
(4) Depends of electronic configuration
2. F > Cl
3. Br > Cl
119. The incorrect match among the following
4. F > I
is -
1. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation
enthalpy)
2. I < Br < F < Cl (increasing electron gain
enthalpy)
3. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
4. Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + <F- (increasing ionic size)
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120. Which of the following orders of ionic 126. There are four elements 'p', 'q', 'r' and 's'
radii is correctly represented? having atomic number Z-1, Z, Z+1 and Z+2
1. H->H>H + respectively. If there element 'q' is an inert
+ -
2. Na >F >O 2- gas, select the correct answers from the
following statements.
3. F->O2->Na +
(i) 'p' has most negative electron gain
4. Al 3+>Mg 2+>N3- enthalpy in the respective period.
(ii) 'r' is an alkali metal.
121. Which among the following is not a (iii) 's' exists in +2 oxidation state.
representative element? (1) (i) and (ii)
1. Tellurium (2) (ii) and (iii)
2. Tantalum (3) (i) and (iii)
3. Thallium (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. Astatine
127. Given below are four orders for the size of
122. Which of the following metal is highest the species. Choose the correct ones :
electropositive (metallic) in nature ? 3+ 2+ +
(a) Al < Mg < Na < F
−

(1) Be
3+
(2) Rb (b) Al < Mg
2+
< Li
+
< K
+

(3) Mn 4+ 3+
(c) Fe < Fe < Fe < Fe
2+

(4) Tl (d) Mg > Al > Si > P

1. (a), (b) & (c)
123. If the IUPAC name of an element is 2. (b), (c) & (d)
"unununium",then the correct statement 3. (a), (c)
regarding the element is 4. (a), (b), (c) & (d)
1. It is an inner transition element .
2. It belongs to the 8th period in the periodic 128. The correct order among the following
table . options is:
3. It is a transition element . 1. F>N>C>Si>Ga - Non-metallic character.
4. It is a non-transition element. 2. F>Cl>O>N - Oxidising property.
3. C<Si>P>N - Electron affinity value.
4. All of the above.
124. Which one will show variable oxidation
state? 129. Which of the following order of ionic radii
(I) [Kr]5s1 (II) is correctly represented?
[Rn]5f
14 1
6d 7s
2
1. H − > H + > H
(III)[Ar]3d 4s 4p
10 2 5
(IV) [Ar]3d 4s
6 2
2. N a+ > F − > O 2−
3. F − > O 2− > N a+
125. Incorrect statement about characteristics 4. N 3− > M g 2+ > Al3+
regarding halogens is :
1. Ionization energy decreases with increase 130. For the second period elements, the
in atomic number. correct increasing order of first ionisation
2. Electronegativity decreases with increase enthalpy is:
in atomic number. 1. Li<Be<B<C<O<N<F<Ne
3. Electron affinity decreases with increase in 2. Li<Be<B<C<N<O<F<Ne
atomic number. 3. Li<B<Be<C<O<N<F<Ne
4. Enthalpy of fusion increases with increase 4. Li<B<Be<C<N<O<F<Ne
in atomic number.
131. Element of the third period that is
expected to exhibit positive electron gain
enthalpy is:
1. Na
2. Al
3. Cl Page: 12
 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

132. The pair that has both members from the

same period of the Periodic Table is Physics
1. Cl, Br 136. Which of the following cannot be speed-
2. Ca, Cl time graph?
3. Na, Ca
4. Na, Cl

133. The total number of 3rd period elements

with more than one electron in a 3d orbital is
(A)
1. 9
2. 11
3. 0
4. 8
(B)
134. How does electron affinity change when
we move from left to right in a period in the
periodic table?
1. Generally increases
2. Generally decreases
(C)
3. Remains unchanged
4. First increases and then decreases

135. Match the element in column I with that

in column II.
Column-I Column-II (D)
(a) Copper (i) Non-metal
(b) Fluorine (ii) Transition metal
(c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid
(d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid
Identify the correct match: (E)
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) 1. (B) and (D)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 2. (C) and (E)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 3. (D) only
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) 4. (A) only

137. An alpha particle enters a hollow tube of

4 m length with an initial speed of 1 km/s. It is
accelerated in the tube and comes out of it
with a speed of 9 km/s. The time for which it
remains inside the tube is
(1) 8 × 10−3 s
−3
(2) 80 × 10 s
(3) 800 × 10−3 s
(4) 8 × 10−4 s

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

138. A body is moving according to the 143. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb
equation x = at + bt2 − ct3 where x = are dropped from two different heights a and
displacement and a, b and c are constants. b. The ratio of the time taken by the two to
The acceleration of the body is cover these distances are
(1) a + 2bt (1) a : b
(2) 2b + 6ct (2) b : a
(3) 2b − 6ct (3) √a : √b
(4) 3b − 6ct2 (4) a2 : b
2

139. A car, moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, 144. A stone dropped from the top of the tower
can be stopped by brakes after at least 6m. If touches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the
the same car is moving at a speed of 100 tower is about
km/hr, the minimum stopping distance is (1) 80 m
(1) 6m (2) 40 m
(2) 12m (3) 20 m
(3) 18m (4) 160 m
(4) 24m
145. A particle is dropped under gravity from
rest from a height h(g = 9 .8 m/ sec2 ) and it
140. Starting from rest, acceleration of a
particle is a = 2(t − 1). The velocity of the travels a distance 9h/25 in the last second, the
height h is
particle at t = 5s is:
(1) 100 m
1. 15 m/sec
(2) 122.5 m
2. 25 m/sec
(3) 145 m
3. 5 m/sec
(4) 167.5 m
4. None of these

141. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at

146. Water drops fall at regular intervals from
the rate f through a distance S, then
a tap which is 5 m above the ground. The
continues at a constant speed for time t and
f
third drop is leaving the tap at the instant
then decelerates at the rate 2 to come to rest. the first drop touches the ground. How far
If the total distance traversed is 15 S, then, above the ground is the second drop at that
(1) S = f t
1 2 instant
2
(1) 2.50 m
(2) S = 1 f t2 (2) 3.75 m
4

(3) S = 1
ft
2
(3) 4.00 m
72
1 (4) 1.25 m
(4) S = 6 f t2
147. Time taken by an object falling from rest
142. An express train is moving with a to cover the height of h1 and h2 is respectively
velocity v1. Its driver finds another train is t1 and t2 . Then the ratio of t1 to t2 is
moving on the same track in the same (1) h1 : h2
direction with velocity v2. To escape collision,
(2) √h1 : √h2
driver applies a retardation 'a' on the train.
(3) h1 : 2h2
The minimum time of escaping collision will
be (4) 2h1 : h2
v1 −v2
1. t =
a
2 2
v −v
2. t1 =
1

2
2

3. None
4. Both

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

148. A body, thrown upwards with some 152. The displacement of a particle as a
velocity, reaches the maximum height of 20m. function of time is shown in the figure. The
Another body with double the mass thrown figure shows that
up, with double initial velocity will reach a
maximum height of
(1) 200 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 40 m

149. A very large number of balls are thrown

vertically upwards in quick succession in
such a way that the next ball is thrown when 1. The particle starts with certain velocity but
the previous one is at the maximum height. If the motion is retarded and finally the particle
the maximum height is 5m, the number of stops
ball thrown per minute is (take g = 10 ms−2 2. The velocity of the particle is constant
) throughout
(1) 120 3. The acceleration of the particle is constant
(2) 80 throughout
(3) 60 4. The particle starts with constant velocity,
(4) 40 then motion is accelerated and finally the
particle moves with another constant velocity
150. A body falling from a high Minaret
travels 40 meters in the last 2 seconds of its 153. A ball is thrown vertically upwards.
fall to ground. Height of Minaret in meters is Which of the following graph/graphs
(take g = 10 ms−2 ) represent velocity-time graph of the ball
(1) 60 during its flight (air resistance is neglected)
(2) 45
(3) 80
(4) 50

151. A car accelerates from rest at a constant

rate α for some time, after which it
decelerates at a constant rate β and comes to
rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the
maximum velocity acquired by the car is
2 2
α +β
1. ( )t
αβ

2 2
α −β
2. ( )t
αβ

(α+β) t
3.
αβ

αβ t
4.
α+β

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

154. The x − t graph shown in figure 156. Which of the following graph represents
represents uniform motion ?

(1)

(1) Constant velocity

(2) Velocity of the body is continuously
changing
(3) Instantaneous velocity
(4) The body travels with constant speed upto
time t1 and then stops (2)

155. The displacement-time graph of a

moving particle is shown below. The
instantaneous velocity of the particle is
negative at the point

(3)

(1) D
(2) F
(3) C (4)
(4) E

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

157. Acceleration-time graph of a body is 158. Read the assertion and reason carefully
shown. to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
The corresponding velocity-time graph of the (4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
same body is (5) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : An object can have constant speed
but variable velocity.
Reason : Speed is a scalar but velocity is a
1. vector quantity.

159. Read the assertion and reason carefully

to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
2.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : The average speed of a body over a
3. given interval of time is equal to the average
velocity of the body in the same interval of
time if a body moves in a straight line in one
direction.
Reason : Because in this case distance
travelled by a body is equal to the
displacement of the body.

4.

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 Target Test
160. Read the assertion and reason carefully
to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : The slope of displacement-time
graph of a body moving with high velocity is
steeper than the slope of displacement-time
graph of a body with low velocity.
Reason : Slope of displacement-time graph =
Velocity of the body.
161. Read the assertion and reason carefully
to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : The relative velocity between any
two bodies moving in opposite direction is
equal to sum of magnitude of the velocities of
two bodies.
Reason : Sometimes relative velocity between
two bodies is equal to difference
in magnitude of velocities of the two.
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
162. Read the assertion and reason carefully
to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : Velocity-time graph for an object
in uniform motion along a straight path is a
straight line parallel to the time axis.
Reason : In uniform motion of an object
velocity increases as the square of time
elapsed.
163. The acceleration of a particle starting
from rest varies with time according to the
relation A = – aω2sinωt. The displacement of
this particle at a time t will be:
1
1. − 2 (aω2 sinωt)t2
2. aωsinωt
3. aωcosωt
4. asinωt
164. If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t2) m/s,
then the average acceleration of the particle
between 2 sec and 5 sec is:
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2
165. A thief is running away on a straight
road in a jeep moving with a speed of 9 ms–1.
A policeman chases him on a motor cycle
moving at a speed of 10 ms–1. If the
instantaneous separation of the jeep from the
motorcycle is 100 m, how long will it take for
the policeman to catch the thief?
1. 1 s
2. 19 s
3. 90 s
4. 100 s
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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

166. A car A is travelling on a straight level 170. A lift is going up. The total mass of the
road with a uniform speed of 60 km/h. It is lift and the passenger is 1500 kg. The
followed by another car B which is moving variation in the speed of the lift is as given in
with a speed of 70 km/h. When the distance the graph. The height to which the lift takes
between them is 2.5 km, the car B is given a the passenger is
deceleration of 20 km/h2. After how much time
will B catch up with A
(1) 1 hr
(2) 1/2 hr
(3) 1/4 hr
(4) 1/8 hr

167. Two trains one of length 100 m and

another of length 125 m, are moving in
(1) 3.6 meters
mutually opposite directions along parallel
(2) 8 meters
lines, meet each other, each with speed 10
(3) 1.8 meters
m/s. If their acceleration are 0.3 m/s2 and 0.2 (4) 36 meters
m/s2 respectively, then the time they take to
pass each other will be 171. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the
1. 5 s same radius are released from a height ‘h’ in
2. 10 s a vacuum. The time taken by both of them to
3. 15 s reach the ground is
4. 20 s (1) Unequal
(2) Exactly equal
168. A point starts moving in a straight line (3) Roughly equal
with a certain acceleration. At a time t after (4) Zero
beginning of motion the acceleration
suddenly becomes retardation of the same
value. The time in which the point returns to
the initial point is
(1) √2t
(2) (2 + √2) t
t
(3)
√2

(4) Cannot be predicted unless acceleration is

given

169. A particle is moving in a straight line

and passes through a point O with a velocity
of 6 ms–1. The particle moves with a constant
retardation of 2 ms–2 for 4 s and there after
moves with constant velocity. How long after
leaving O does the particle return to O
(1) 3s
(2) 8s
(3) Never
(4) 4s

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

172. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Then 175. An object is moving with variable speed,
the velocity-time (v-t) graph will be: then
(1) Its velocity may be zero
(2) Its velocity must be variable
(3) Its acceleration may be zero
(4) Its velocity must be constant

176. The position of a particle moving along

1. the x-axis given by x =(−2t3 + 3t2 + 5)m .
The acceleration of a particle at the instant
its velocity becomes zero is
(1) 12 m/s2
(2) -12 m/s2
(3) -6 m/s2
(4) Zero
2.
177. A body is projected vertically upward
with a speed 10 m/s and another at the same
time with the same speed in the downward
direction from the top of a tower. The
magnitude of acceleration of first body w.r.t.
second is {take g = 10 m/s2}
3. (1) Zero
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s2

4.

173. A car moves with a speed 60 km/h for 1

hour in the east direction and with the same
speed for 30 min in the south direction. The
displacement of the car from the initial
position is
1. 60 km
2. 30√3 km
3. 30√5 km
4. 60√2 km

174. If a particle is moving along a straight

line with increasing speed, then:
1. its acceleration is negative.
2. its acceleration may be decreasing.
3. its acceleration is positive.
4. both (2) & (3)

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

178. A body is projected vertically upward 179. For the acceleration-time (a-t) graph
from ground. If we neglect the effect of air, shown in figure, the change in velocity of
then which one of te following is the best particle from t=0 to t=6 s is
representation of variation of speed (v) with
timw (t) ?

(1)

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(2) (4) 8 m/s

180. Two cars A and B are moving in the same

direction with velocities 30 m/s and 20 m/s.
When car A is at a distance d behind the car
B, the driver of the car A applies brakes
producing uniform retardation of 2 m/s2.
There will be no collision when
(3) (1) d < 2.5 m
(2) d > 125 m
(3) d > 25 m
(4) d < 125 m

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