Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1.
Match the structure (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) with their correct
A centriole-like structure, from which the cilium and the location respectively:
flagellum emerge, is the:
1. Centrosome Abdominal
Structure
segment
2. Basal body
3. Axoneme (i) Testes (1) II to VI
4. Vimentin
(ii) Ovaries (2) VI-VII
2.
The type of caartilage present in the epiglottis, pinna and (iii) Spermatheca (3) VI
tip of the nose is:
(1) Elastic Mushroom
(iv) (4) IV to VI
gland
(2) Hyaline
(3) Fibrous (1) 4, 3, 1, 2
(4) Calcified (2) 4, 1, 3, 2
3. (3) 4, 1, 2, 3
Microbodies, which help to convert stored lipids into (4) 1, 4, 3, 2
carbohydrates so they can be used for plant growth, are
known as: 7.

1. Peroxisomes Mitochondria and plastids are similiar in all of the

following aspects, except :
2. Sphaerosomes
1. Possess circular ds-DNA
3. Glyoxysomes
2. Have endo-symbiotic origin
4. Lysosomes
3. Are the sites of carbohydrate bio-synthesis
4. Divide by fission
4.
8.
Which of the following features is not present in
Periplaneta americana? Select the odd one out with respect to ribosomes :

(1) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic
development
(2) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
(3) Metamerically segmented body
(4) Schizocoelom as body cavity
5.
Which of the following are the three basic components of
all type of connective tissue except blood?
1. Synthesised inside the nucleus in eukaryotes
2. Composed of DNA and proteins
3. Not surrounded by any membrane
4. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S
9.
The enzymes present in lysosomes belong the class ____
and acidic condition inside the lysosome is maintained by
___:

(1) Cells, fibres and ground substances 1. Oxidoreductases, pumping protons

(2) Fibroblast, reticular fibres and collagen 2. Hydrolases, secretion of acids

(3) Mast cells, lymphocytes and adipocyte 3. Hydrolases, pumping of protons

(4) Arteries, veins and capillaries 4. Lyases, removal of hydroxyl ions

6. 10.

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Which of the following feature is common in all types of (I) Saliva is secreted by exocrine glands.
plastids? (II) Epithelial tissue rests on non-cellular basement
membrane.
1. Double membrane (III) Muscular tissue possesses cell junctions.
2. Presence of chlorophyll (IV) Mucus-secreting goblet cells are multicellular.

3. Storage nature 1 I and II only

4. Presence of linear DNA 2. I and IV only

11. 3. I, II and III

The _______ lining of the urinary bladder allows it to 4. Only III

stretch without tearing or losing it to stretch without 16.
tearing or losing integrity.
Tegmina are not-
1. cuboidal
1. Mesothoracic
2. transitional
2. Forewings
3. muscle
3. Cover hindwings at flight
4. squamous
4. First pair of wings
17.
12.
Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have
The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous remarkably similar structure elements and arrangements.
waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of This leads us to which of the following as a probable
1. ammonia hypothesis?

2. potassium urate 1. Disruption of one of these types of structure should

necessarily disrupt each of the others as well.
3. urea
2. Loss of basal bodies should lead to loss of all cilia,
4. calcium carbonate flagella, and centrioles.
13. 3. Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved
Which of the following connective tissue is avascular, is before aby of these four kinds of structure.
aneural and has limited repair capabilities 4. Natural selection for motility must select for
1. Cartilage microtubular arrays in circular patterns.

2. Bone 18.

3. Ligament Which of the following statement is not true for cancer

cells in relation to mutations?
4. Tendon
1. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
14.
2. Mutations inactivate the cell control
Which of the following are the three basic components of
all type of connective tissue except blood? 3. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase

1. Cells, fibres and ground substances 4. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle

2. Fibroblast, reticular fibres and collagen 19.

3. Mast cells, lymphocytes and adipocyte Cytochromes are found in

4. Arteries, veins and capillaries 1. matrix of mitochondria

15. 2. outer wall of mitochondria

Which among the following statements are correct? 3. cristae of mitochondria

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

26.
4. lysosomes
What is true about ribosomes ? (AIPMT Pre. 2012)
20. 1. The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where "S" stands
Which of the following is not a true subcellular for sedimentation coefficient
organelle? 2. These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
3. These are found only in eukaryotic cells
1. peroxisome 4. These are self -splicing introns of some RNAs.
2. Ribosome 27.
3. Chloroplast The type of connective tissue present in skin is:
4. Lysosome
1. Loose connective tissue
21. 2. Dense irregular connective tissue
3. Dense regular connective tissue
In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take
4. Specialized connective tissue
place at
28.
(1) Stromal matrix
The main function of adipose tissue is:
(2) Thylakoid lumen
1. providing insulation from heat and cold
(3) Photosystem I 2. providing protective padding around organs
3. to be a reserve of lipids
(4) Photosystem II 4. providing feedback for hunger and diet to the brain
22. 29.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in Most of the functions of a cell membrane can be
(AIPMT-2004) attributed to its:
1. Type of movement and placement 1. Phospholipids
2. Location and mode of functioning 2. Cholesterol
3. Microtubular structure and function 3. Proteins
4. Microtubular organisation and type of movement 4. Carbohydrates
23. 30.
What precedes reformation of nuclear envelope in M- Consider the given two statements:
phase? (AIPMT-2004) I. Several antibiotics (notably the penicillins and
1. Decondensation of chromosomes and appearance of cephalosporins) stop bacterial infections by interfering
nuclear lamina with cell wall synthesis
2. Transcription of chromosomes and resassembly of II. Such antibiotics have no effects on human cells which
phargmoplast have no cell wall, only a cell membrane
3. Formation of phragmoplast and contraction ring
4. Formation of contraction ring and transcription from 1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
chromosome. 2. Both I and are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct and II is incorrect
24. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
Centromere is required for (AIPMT - 2005) 31.
1. Crossing over
2. Transcription At relatively high pressure, van der Waals' equation
3. Cytoplasmic cleavage reduces to:
4. Movement of chromosomes towards poles
(1) PV = RT
25.
(2) PV = RT + a/v
Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in (AIPMT Pre.
(3) PV = RT + Pb
2012)
1. Lysosomes (4) PV = RT - a/V2
2. Nucleolus
3. Nucleoplasm 32.
4. Ribosomes
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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

37.
With the increase of pressure, the mean free path:
SO3 (g) decomposes according to the equation
(1) decreases
             

2 SO3 (g)−−−→ 2 SO2 (g)+O2 (g)

(2) increases
(3) becomes zero A sealed container contains 0.5 mol of SO gas at 100°C
3

and 2 atm pressure. What would be the pressure in the

(4) remains the same container if the SO gas is decomposed completely
3

according to the above equation and the temperature

33.
were maintained at 100°C –
Rate of diffusion of LPG (a mixture of n-butane and
(A) 0.5 atm
propane) is 1.25 times of SO3. Hence, mass fraction of n-
butane in LPG is (B) 1.0 atm
1. 0.75 (C) 2.0 atm
2. 0.25 (D) 3.0 atm
3. 0.50 38.
4. 0.67 32 gm of oxygen and 3 gm of hydrogen are mixed and
kept in a vessel to 760 mm pressure and 0ºC. The total
volume occupied by the mixture will be nearly
34. (A) 22.4 lit.
The critical volume of a gas is 0.072 lit. mo1–1. The (B) 33.6 lit
radius of the molecule will be, in cm
(C) 56 lit
1

(1) ( (D) 44.8 lit

3
3 −23
× 10 )
4π

1 39.
(2) (
3
4π −23
× 10 )
3 A mixture of Ne and Ar at 250 K has a total K.E.=3 kJ in
1
a closed vessel, the total mass if Ne and Ar is 30 g. Find
(3) ( 3π
× 10
−23
)
3
mass % of Ne in a gaseous mixture at 250 K.
4

1
1. 61.63 %
3

(4) (
3 −8

4π
× 10 ) 2. 38.37 %

35. 3. 50 %

Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in an 4. 28.3 %

empty container at 25°C. The fraction of the total 40.
pressure exerted by oxygen is
A 20 g chunk of dry ice is placed in an empty 0.75 litre
(1) 1/3 wine bottle and tightly closed. What would be the final
(2) 1/2 pressure in the bottle after all CO has been evaporated
2

and temperature reaches to 25°C?

(3) 2/3
1. 14.827 atm
(4) 1/3 × 273/298
2. 15.827 atm
36.
3. 1.482 atm
Joule-Thomson expansion of an ideal gas is an
4. 1.56 atm
(A) Isothermal process
41.
(B) Isobaric process
If m ,  m are masses of an ideal gas, then which of the
1 2

(C) Isoenthalpic process graph represents m > m : 2 1

(D) Ideal process

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

4. 1.77 : 1
44.
7 moles of a tetra-atomic non-linear gas 'A' at 10 atm and
T K are mixed with 6 moles of another gas B at  K and
T

5 atm in a closed, rigid vessel without energy transfer

with surroundings. If final temperature of mixture was
K , then gas B is? (Assuming all modes of energy are
5T

active)
(1) Monoatomic
(2) Diatomic
(3) triatomic
(4) tetra atomic
45.
The compressibility factor for nitrogen at 330 K and 800
atm is 1.90 and at 570 K and 200 atm is 1.10. A certain
mass of N2 occupies a volume of 1 dm3 at 330 K and 800
atm. Calculate volume occupied by same quantity of N2
gas at 570 K and 200 atm:
1. I, II only
(1) 1 L
2. I, III only
(2) 2 L
3. I, IV only
(3) 3 L
4. I, II, III, IV
(4) 4 L
42.
46.
A bulb of three litre capacity filled with air is heated
from 27°C  to  t°C. The air thus, expelled measured 1.45 Two springs with spring constants k = 1500 N/m and k
1 2

litre at 17°C. Considering the pressure to be 1 atm = 3000 N/m are stretched by the same force. The ratio of
throughout the experiment and ignoring the expansion of potential energy stored in the springs will be
bulb, calculate t. 1. 2:1
1. 327 K 2. 1:2
2. 427 K 3. 4:1
3. 327°C
4. 1:4
4. 290°C
47.
43. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a
distance d with constant downward acceleration . Work
g

Dimethyl ether decomposes as 4

done by the cord on the block is

CH3 OCH3 (g)→ CH4 (g)+ CO(g)+H2 (g)

(1) M g d

When CH OCH decomposes to 20% extent at certain

3 3
4

fixed conditions, what is the ratio of diffusion of pure (2) 3M g d

CH OCH with methane ?

3 3
4

1. 0.59 :1 (3) −3M g d

2. 1.18 :1 (4) Mgd

3. 2.36 :1 48.

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

A lorry and a car moving with the same K.E. are brought
to rest by applying the same retarding force, then
(1) Lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance
(2) Car will come to rest in a shorter distance
(3) Both come to rest in a same distance
(4)
(4) None of the above
51.
49.
The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies
A particle free to move along the x-axis has potential with the position of the particle as shown in the fig.
2

energy given by U (x) = k[1 − e

−x
] for
−∞ ≤ x ≤ +∞ , where k is a positive constant of
appropriate dimensions. Then
(1) At point away from the origin, the particle is in
unstable equilibrium
(2) For any finite non-zero value of x, there is a force The body is in stable equilibrium at
directed away from the origin
(1) x = x1
(3) If its total mechanical energy is k/2, it has its
minimum kinetic energy at the origin (2) x = x2
(4) For small displacements from x = 0, the motion is (3) both x1 and x2
simple harmonic
50. (4) neither x1 nor x2

A particle is given a constant horizontal velocity from 52.

height h. Taking g to be constant every where, kinetic
A body moves from rest with a constant acceleration.
energy E of the particle w. r. t. time t is correctly shown
Which one of the following graphs represents the
in
variation of its kinetic energy K with the distance
travelled x ?

(1)
(1)

(2) (2)

(3)
(3)
(4)

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 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1. −mg u  cos  α
2. −mgu  sin  α
3. −
mgu  cos  α

mgu  sin  α
4. − 2

53. 58.
The potential energy of a particle in a force field is A particle is moving in a circle of radius r under the
U = −
A
,where A and B are positive constants and r
B action of a force F = ar which is directed towards centre
2

of the circle. Total mechanical energy (kinetic energy +

2 r
r

is the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For

potential energy) of the particle is (take potential energy
stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is
= 0 for r = 0)
(a) B/2A (b)2A/B 1 3
1.   αr
2

(c)A/B (d)B/A 5 3
2.   αr
6

54. 4 3
3.   αr
3

An engine pumps water through a hosepipe. Water passes 3

4.  αr
through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 ms . −1

The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 59.
.What is the power of the engine?
−1
kgm
A mass M is suspended by a spring having a spring
(a) 400W (b) 200W constant K. In equilibrium position mass M is given a
speed u. Find further extension in the spring.
(c) 100W (d) 800W
55.
Two springs A and B (k = 2k ) are stretched
A B

by applying forces of equal magnitudes at

the ends. If the energy stored in A is E, then
energy stored in B is
1.
E

2. 2E
3. E 1. √
M

K
u

4. E

56. 2. √
2M

K
u

A bus can be stopped by applying a retarding force F Mg

when it is moving with speed v on a level road. The 3.

M
√ u  +  
K K

distance covered by it before coming to rest is s. If the

load of the bus increases by 50% because of passengers, 3. 2M Mg
√ u  +  
K K
for the same speed and same retarding force, the distance
covered by the bus to come to rest shall be 60.
1. 1.5s A 50 kg straight uniform rod of length 2 m is lying on a
horizontal floor. If a man successfully tries to erect the
2. 2s
rod at 60° with vertical, then the amount of work done by
3. 1s the man is
4. 2.5s (1) 250 J
57. (2) 200 J
A particle of mass m is projected at an angle α to the (3) 150 J
horizontal with an initial velocity u, the average power
(4) 500 J
delivered by gravity is

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