High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2

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1.
Open circulatory
What is the net gain of number of ATP molecules and Pinctada
system
produced during aerobic respiration of one molecule of
glucose?
Branchiostoma Persistent
2.
1. 30 and Ascidia notochord
2. 36
3. 38 Aplysia and
4. 40 3. True coelom
Pheretima
2.
There is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood Gorgonia and
4. Cnidoblasts
[of Rh -ve mother] to small amounts of Rh +ve blood Pennatula
from the fetus during the: 7.
1. First trimester of any pregnancy Pteropus is a/an:
2. Third trimester of the second pregnancy only 1. Limbless amphibian
3. Delivery of the child 2. Extinct reptile that evolved into mammals
4. There is no such possibility 3. Bony fish that migrates from sea water to fresh water
3. for breeding

The useful purpose served by lactate fermentation is: 4. Mammal with flight
1. Make lactose available for gluconeogenesis 8.
2. Production of additional ATP in anaerobic conditions
3. Regeneration of NAD+ In animal cells, lipid-like steroidal hormones are
4. Increased availability of oxygen for the skeletal synthesized in the:
muscle
1. Nucleus
4.
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following Fungi is not capable of causing
ringworm infection in man? 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

1. Microsporum 4. Golgi apparatus

2. Trichophyton 9.
3. Epidermophyton
4. Trichoderma Two phenotypically normal individuals have an affected
child. What can we conclude about the parents?
5.
1. they both carried the diesease allele
Sexual reproduction by non-flagellated but similar in size
gametes is seen in: 2. they are not the parents of the child

1. Chlamydomonas 3. they are affected

2. Volvox 4. no conclusions can be drawn

3. Spirogyra 10.

4. Fucus What is the basis of pleiotropy?

6. 1. A spontaneous mutation during the replication of

DNA.
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
2. Interrelationship between various metabolic pathways
in the body.
Feature present in
Animals
both 3. Chromosomal aberration as chromosomes are the
vehicles of genes.
1. Balanoglossus 4. the behaviour of chromosomes
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during meiosis or gamete formation. lagging strand are joined together by:
11. 1. DNA ligase
The skeletal structure shown in the given diagram shows 2. DNA polymerase
the structure of :
3. Primase
4. Helicase
16.
The enzyme that catalyzes the peptide bonding in
prokaryotes is located in the:
1. Leader region of the mRNA
2. Central part of tRNA
3. Smaller subunit of the ribosome
1. Morphine
4. Larger subunit of the ribosome
2. Diacetyl morphine
17.
3. Cannabinoid
A woman receives her X chromosomes from:
4. Cocaine
1. Her mother only
12.
2. Her father only
In general, which of the following is not an adaptation
3. Both her mother and father
seen in parasites in accordance with their life style?
4. Mitochondria of mother only
1. Loss of unnecessary sense organs
2. Presence of adhesive organs
18.
3. Low reproductive capacity
Cells in some filamentous cyanobacteria that are
4. Loss of digestive system
specialized for nitrogen fixation are called:
13.
1. Phycobilisomes
Which of the following taxonomic categories contains
2. Chromatophores
organisms least similar to one another?
3. Grana
1. Class
4. Heterocysts
2. Genus
19.
3. Family
Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) will promote a(n)
4. Species
________ in the excretion of sodium and water; thus
14. ________ blood volume and blood pressure.
Genetic information in a DNA molecule is coded in the: 1. decrease, decreasing
1. Sequence of nucleotides 2. decrease; increasing
2. Base pairings 3. increase, decreasing
3. Proportion of each base present 4. increase, increasing
4. The turning pattern of the helix 20.
15. Which of the following would not be a feature seen in a
patient with the following karyotype ?
In DNA replication, the Okazaki fragments on the
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1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
23.
Consider the following statements:
I. Somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS to
skeletal muscles.
II. Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from
CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles
1. Many loops on finger tips
III. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in
2. Congenital heart disease spinal and cranial nerves
3. Big and wrinkled tongue Which of the above statements are true?
4. Mucus clogging of airways 1. I and II only
21. 2. I and III only
Given below is the initial amino acids of the beta chain 3. II and III only
of a hemoglobin molecule. What will be true about this
hemoglobin molecule ? 4. I,II and III
24.
Consider the following statements:
I. The resting axonal membrane is nearly impermeable to
sodium ions.
II. Depolarization of the axonal membrane is due to
influx of sodium ions.
III. The size of the action potential, if produced, does not
1. The RBCs carrying this molecule will undergo sickling depend on the strength of the stimulus.
at high oxygen tension
Which of the above statements are true?
2. The RBCs carrying this molecules will undergo
1. I and II only
sickling at low oxygen tension
2. I and III only
3. There will be a quantitative decrease in the synthesis
of this molecule 3. II and III only
4. This is normal beta chain of the hemoglobin molecule 4. I, II and III
22. 25.
Consider the following statements: The rate of enzyme action decreases at higher
temperature [after a certain value] because the increased
I. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting
heat
neuromuscular junction
II. Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degeneration of 1. changes the pH of the system
skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder 2. alters the active site of the enzyme
3. neutralizes the acids and bases in the system
III. Tetany is rapid spasms in muscle due to high Ca++ in 4. increases the concentration of the enzyme
body fluid.
26.
Which of the above statements are true?
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The animals belonging to all the following groups are 4. Tetracycline and Kanamycin
exclusively marine except:
1. Ctenophora 30.
2. Porifera Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational
3. Protochordata companies without authorization from the concerned
4. Echinodermata country is referred to as
27. 1. Bioweapon
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus 2. Biopiracy
are the site for active synthesis of
3. Bioethics
1. protein synthesis
4. Biowar
2. mRNA
31.
3. rRNA
Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, occupy the
4. tRNA same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and
leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of
competition is referred to as -
28.
1. Character displacement
Match the following enzymes with their functions:
2. Altruism

Column-I Column-II 3. Resource partitioning

4. Competitive exclusion
Restriction joins the DNA 32.
(a) (i)
endonuclease fragments
Artificial light, extended work-time and reduced sleep-
time disrupt the activity of
extends primers on
(b) Exonuclease (ii) genomic DNA 1. Thymus gland
template 2. Pineal gland
3. Adrenal gland
cuts DNA at specific
(c) DNA ligase (iii)
position 4. Posterior pituitary gland
33.
Tag removes nucleotides
(d) (iv) Which of the following conditions will stimulate
polymerase from the ends of DNA
parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone ?
Select the correct option from the following: 1. Fall in active Vitamin D levels
1. (a) - (iii), (b)- (i), (c)- (iv), (d)-(ii) 2. Fall in blood Ca+2 levels
2. (a) - (iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii)
3. Fall in bone Ca+2 levels
3. (a) - (iv), (b)- (iii), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii)
4. Rise in blood Ca+2 levels
4. (a) - (ii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(iii)
34.
29.
Which of the following animals are true coelomates with
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 bilateral symmetry ?
are for
1. Adult Echinoderms
1. Ampicillin and Tetracycline
2. Aschelminthes
2. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
3. Platyhelminthes
3. Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
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39.
4. Annelids
In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA
35. polymerase I transcribes -
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after 1. mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing
a forced expiration is known as :
2. tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
1. Expiratory Capacity
3. rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
2. Vital Capacity
4. Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
3. Inspiratory Capacity
40.
4. Total Lung Capacity
What initiation and termination factors are involved in
36. transcription in prokaryotes ?
Match the following parts of a nephron with their 1. σ  and  ρ, respectively
function:
2. α  and  β, respectively
(a) Descending limb of Henle's loop (i)
Reabsorption of salts only 3. β  and  γ, respectively
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule (ii) 4. α  and  σ, respectively
Reabsorption of water only
41.
(c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (iii)
Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that
and water 1. they require metal ions for their activity
(d) Distal convoluted tubule (iv) 2. they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to
Reabsorption of ions, water and organic apoenzymes.
nutrients
3. their association with apoenzymes is transient.
Select the correct option from the following:
4. they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-
1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) catalyzed reactions.
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 42.
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i),(c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure of
37. 1. RNA
Which of the following statements is correct? 2. Proteins
1. Lichens do not grow in polluted areas. 3. Triacylglycerides
2. Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont 4. DNA
3. Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont 43.
4. Lichens are not good pollution indicators. Where is the respiratory electron transport system (ETS)
38. located in plants?

From the following, identify the correct combination of 1. Mitochondrial matrix

salient features of Genetic Code 2. Outer mitochondrial membrane
1. Universal, Non-ambiguous,Overlapping 3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
2. Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless 4. Intermembrane space
3. Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate 44.
4. Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique
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 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
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to boost the production of tea- leaves. This is because diversity for novel products of economic importance is
known as :
1. Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated.
1. Biopiracy
2. Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages.
2. Bioenergetics
3. Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral buds
is enhanced. 3. Bioremediation
4. Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves. 4. Bioprospecting
45. 49.
Match the placental types (column-I) with their examples Between which among the following, the relationship is
(column-II) not an example of commensalism?
Column I Column II 1. Orchid and the tree on which it grows
(a) Basal (i) Mustard 2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
(b) Axile (ii) China rose 3. Sea Anemone and Clown fish
(c) Parietal (iii) Dianthus 4. Female wasp and fig species
(d) Free central (iv) Sunflower 50.
Choose the correct answer from the following options: An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from
ends of DNA is :
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
1. DNA ligase
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. Endonuclease
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. Exonuclease
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. Protease
46.
51.
A selectable marker is used to :
In RNAi, the genes are silenced using :
1. help in eliminating the non transformants so that the
transformants can be regenerated 1. dsRNA
2. identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien 2. ssDNA
organism
3. ssRNA
3. select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific
crop 4. dsDNA

4. mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using 52.

restriction enzyme Oxygen binding to haemoglobin in blood is
47. 1. directly proportional to the concentration of CO in 2

the medium
Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal 2. inversely proportional to the concentration of CO in 2

species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the the medium
following terms will you use to notify such species ? 3. directly proportional to the concentration of CO in the
medium
1. Endemic 4. independent of the concentration of CO in the medium
2. Vulnerable 53.
3. Threatened Which one of the following four glands is correctly
4. Keystone matched with the accompanying description?
1. Thyroid - hyperactivity in young children causes
48. cretinism
Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level 2. Thymus - starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
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3. Parathyroid - secrete parathormone which promotes Secretory phase

movement of calcium ions from blood into bones during Development
and increased
calcification of corpus
secretion of
4. Pancreas - Delta cells of the Islets of Langerhans luteum
progesterone
secrete a hormone which stimulates glycolysis
54. Breakdown of
Which one of the following statements is correct? myometrium
4. Menstruation
1. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa. and ovum not
2. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous fertilized
system regulates endocrine glands.
58.
3. Neither hormones control neural activity nor do the
neurons control endocrine activity. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice 1. Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia,
versa Spermatozoa
2. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa,
55.
Spermatid
Which one of the following statements about human 3. Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte,
sperm is correct? Spermatid
1. Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for 4. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid,
piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization Spermatozoa
2. The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg
59.
envelope facilitating fertilization
3. Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by
sperm towards the ovum 1. killing the sperms in uterus
4. Acrosome serves no particular function 2. preventing implantation
3. preventing ovulation
56.
4. both 2. and 3.
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum
60.
occurs
1. shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer
into the Fallopian tube (GIFT) is recommended for those females
2. after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm 1. Who cannot provide a suitable environment for
3. until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of fertilisation.
the ovum 2. Who cannot produce an ovum.
4. in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation 3. Who cannot retain the fetus inside the uterus.
division 4. Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage
for the sperms
57.
61.
Which one of the following is the correct matching of the
events occurring during menstrual cycle? What is true for individuals of same species?
1. Live in same niche
Column I Column II 2. Live in same habitat
3. Interbreeding
4. Live in different habitat
LH and FSH attain peak
1. Ovulation level and sharp fall in the 62.
secretion of progesterone
Areolar connective tissue joins
1. integument to the muscles
Rapid regeneration of 2. bones to the muscles
Proliferative myometrium and 3. bones to the bones
2.
phase maturation of Graafian 4. fat body to the muscles
follicle
63.
3. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group.
1. Fungi Page: 7
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2. Animalia 3. Bacillus thuringiensis

4. Glomus
3. Monera
4. Plantae
71.
64.
An organism used as biofertilizer for raising soyabean
At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins crop is
synthesized in a eukaryotic cell 1. Nostoc
1. During telophase 2. Azotobacter
2. During S-phase 3. Azospirillum
3. During G2 stage of prophase 4. Rhizobium
4. During entire prophase
65.
72.
Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species
1. Citrus The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of
2. Gossypium Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option
3. Triticum giving correct ‘identification together with what it
4. Brassica represents?

66.
The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers
of
1. Aloe
2. Tomato
3. Papaver
4. Michelia
67.
The hilum is a scar on the:
1. Fruit, where it was attached to the pedicel Options:
2. Fruit, where style was present 1. B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C
3. Seed, where micropyle was present separating the two DNA strands.
4. Seed, where funicle was attached 2. A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
68. 3. C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA
polymerase
Which one of the following may require pollinators, but 4. A - Annealing with two sets of primers
is genetically similar to autogamy?
1. Xenogamy 73.
2. Apogamy Some of the characteristics of BT cotton are
3. Cleistogamy 1. Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
4. Geitonogamy 2. High yield and production of toxic protein crystals
69. which kill dipterans pests
3. High yield and resistance to bollworms
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both: 4. Long fibre and resistance to aphids
1. Autogamy and xenogamy
2. Autogamy and geitonogamy 74.
3. Geitonogamy and xenogamy In fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by
4. Cleistogamy and xenogamy
1. Fission, conidia and ascospores
70.
2. Conidia, hypnospores and zoospores
A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant
diseases is 3. Conidia, sporangiospores and zoospores
1. Trichoderma
4. Sporangiospores, conidia and basidiospores
2. Baculovirus
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75.
2. Spirogyra – Zygote is a resistant structure
Photosynthetic organ originates from _______ meristem
and arranged in ______ order. 3. Cycas – Coralloid roots

1. Lateral, basipetal 4. Fucus – Isogametes

2. Root apical, acropetal 81.

3. Shoot apical, acropetal Choose the incorrect match w.r.t blood components

4. Intercalary, acropetal 1. Leucocytes – 6000 - 8000 mm–3

76. 2. Globulins – Involved in defence mechanisms

In the STPs, biological process of microbial degradation
of organic matter involves
1 Utilisation of activated sludge as inoculant produced in
the physical process
3. O– blood group – Antibodies A and B absent
4. Thrombokinase – Converts prothrombin into thrombin
82.

2 Mainly involves anaerobic breakdown of organic Which of the following is least likely to be caused by
matter reduced blood/oxygen supply to heart muscles?

3 Masses of unicellular bacteria entangled in filamentous 1. Atherosclerosis

bacterial forms represent flocs 2. Myocardial ischaemia
4 BOD is greatly reduced by the microbial activity 3. Angina pectoris
77. 4. Heart attack
Intercalated discs are types of 83.
1. Adhering junction Complete the analogy w.r.t reabsorption
2. Anchoring junction PCT : Glucose and amino acids :: DCT : _____
3. Communication junction
1. K+ and H+
4. Tight junction
2. H+ and HCO −

78.
3. NaCl and HCO −

Citrus differs from Opuntia in

3

1. Showing adventive embryony 4. K+ and H2O

2. Having zygotic embryos 84.

3. Having modified axillary buds as thorns Cells of immune system that do not provide innate
immunity are
4. Both 1 and 3
1. T-lymphocytes
79.
2. Neutrophils
Sporophyte in bryophytes is
3. NK cells
1. Parasitic on gametophyte
4. Macrophages
2. Formed by germination of meiospore
85.
3. Specialized to produce gametes
Which of the following function is not related to the
4. Haploid phase organelles that are considered to be a part of
80. endomembrane system?

Choose the incorrectly matched pair: 1. Detoxification of drugs

1. Ulothrix – Zygote is single celled diploid generation 2. Providing precursors of enzyme for the formation
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of lysosomes Match the following columns and select the correct

option
3. Formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis Column-I Column-II
4. Synthesizing non-secretory proteins (a) Abscisic acid (i) Sex expression
(b) Ethylene (ii) Closure of stomata
86. (c) Cytokinin (iii) Stem elongation in rosette
Match the following columns and select the correct plants
option. (d) Gibberellin (iv) Counteracts the apical
dominance
Column-A Column-B
1. a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(i)
(a) Metaphase (i) Duplication of centrioles 2. a–(iv), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iii)
3. a–(ii), b–(iv), c–(iii), d–(i)
(b) G phase
2 (ii) Synthesis of tubulin protein 4. a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii)

(c) S phase (iii) Congression 91.

of chromosomes Trunbull's blue is :

(d) Anaphase (iv) Shortening 1. ferricyanide

of chromosomal fibres 2. ferrous ferricyanide
1. (a) – iv, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iii 3. ferrous cyanide
2. (a) – iv, (b) – i, (c) – ii, (d) – iii 4. ferri ferrocyanide
3. (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iv 92.
4. (a) – iii, (b) – i, (c) – ii, (d) – iv How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary
87. alcohols?

Metaphase I is different from mitotic metaphase as in the 1. 5

later case 2. 4
1. Two metaphasic plates are formed 3. 2
2. Tetrads are arranged at the equator 4. 3
3. Single metaphasic plate is formed 93.
4. Homologous chromosomes get separated from each On boiling with concentrated hydrobromic acid phenyl
other ethyl ether yields:-
88. 1. phenol and ethyl bromide
The product(s) of photophosphorylation that 2. bromobenzene and ethanol
occurs mostly in the stroma lamellae membrane of green 3. phenol and ethane
plants is/are 4. bromobenzene and ethane
1. ATP and NADPH 94.
2. ATP and O 2

3. NADPH and O 2
Phenol on treatment with dil.HNO3 at room temperature
4. ATP only gives:
89.
Select the incorrect match from the following
1. One Calvin cycle – Requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
2. C plant – Shows slower process of carbon fixation
4

3. C plants – 20-25°C is optimum for photosynthesis

3
1.
4. Hatch and Slack – Primary CO acceptor pathway is
2
2.
phosphoenolpyruvate
90. Page: 10
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98.

In piperidine N atom has

hybridization:
1. sp
2. sp 2

3. sp 3

4. dsp 2

99.
3.
In a reaction, the rate = the order of
−1 2/3
k[A] [B]

reaction is-
1. 1/3
2. 2
3. -1/3
4. All 4. Zero
95. 100.
Common oxidizing agents used in organic chemistry are; What is the cell entropy change of the following cell?
1. Fenton's reagent P t(s)|H2  (g)|CH3 COOH , H Cl||KCl(aq)|H g2 Cl2 (s)|H g

2. osmium tetroxide P=1 0.1 M 0.1M

3. acidified KMnO4 Emf of the cell is found to be 0.045 V at 298 K
and temperature coefficient is
4. all are correct −4 −1
3. 4  ×  10  V  K

96.
Given
−5
Ka ( CH    =  10  M
3 COOH )

The rate constant for a reaction of zero orde in A is

0.0030 mol L-1 s-1.How long will it take for the initial 1. 60
concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M? 2. 65.2
1.8.3 sec
3. 69.2
2. 0.83 sec
4. 63.5
3. 83 sec
101.
4.10.3 sec
Para- hydrogen at room temp is:
97.
1. less stable than ortho- hydrogen
A compound forms hcp structure. What is the total
2. more stable than ortho- hydrogen
number of voids in 0.5 mol of it?
3. as stable as ortho- hydrogen
1. 9.033×1023
4. none of these
2. 6.011×1023
102.
3. 5.023×1023 At 298 K, assuming ideal behaviour, the average kinetic
4. 7.033×1023 energy of a deuterium molecule is
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1. Two times that of a hydrogen molecule 2. s-electrons in Mg

2. Four times that of a hydrogen molecule 3. d-electrons in Co+3
3. Half of that of a hydrogen molecule 4. p-electrons in Cl
_

4. Same as that of a hydrogen molecule 106.

103. The charge on the electron and proton are reduced to rd2

At room temperature, the average speed of Helium is of their original values. Let the present value of Rydberg
higher than that of Oxygen by a factor of constant of H-atom be R. What will be the new value of
Rydberg constant?
1. 2√2
2R
1.   
2. 6/√2
3

4R
2.   
3. 8 9

8R
3.   
4. 6 27

16R
4.   
104. 81

107.
A compound is made by mixing cobalt (III) nitrate and
potassium nitrite solution in the ratio of 1 : 3. The
NH2 OH N a/C2 H5 OH
aqueous solution of the compound showed 4 particles per
−−−
− →(X)−−−−−−−→(Y ) molecule whereas molar conductivity reveals the
presence of six electrical. charges. The formula of the
Identify Y in the following sequence compound is
1. Co (NO2 )   ⋅  2 KNO2
3

2. Co (NO2 )   ⋅  3 KNO2
3

1. 3. K3 [Co (NO2 ) ]
6

4. K[Co (NO2 ) ]
4

108.

Total number of elements of 3 period which have more

rd

2. than one electron in 3d-orbital :-

1. 9
2. 11
3. 0
3. 4. 8
109.
Which of the following group of metals have positive
value of electron gain enthalpy :-
4. 1. Cr, Fe
105. 2. Mn, Zn
The number of d-electrons in Fe 2+
is not equal to 3. Fe, Zn
that of the
4. Cr, Mn
1. p-electrons in Ne
110.
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 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

What is ionic percentage of XY, where E.N value of 3. 6.2 × 10 −10

X=2.1 & Y = 3.0 :-

4. 3.1 × 10 −10

1. 20
115.
2. 30
Which of the following alkene on ozonolysis give a
3. 17 mixture of ketones only :-
4. 23
111.
Which of the following is correctly matched :- 1.
1. F e +3
> Fe
+2
  >  F e
+
order of atomic radius
2. O > C > B > N - order of ionisation energy
3. O −2
  < O
−
  < O  < O
+
- increasing order of zeff 2.
4. O < N < F < Ne - order of electron affinity

3.
112.
For a reaction A →B; Arrhenius equation is given as loge
k= 4 - ; what will be the activation energy in j/mol for
1000

above reaction?
4.
1. 8314
116.
2. 2000
In alkaline medium ClO oxidises H O to O and it self
2 2 2 2

3. 2814 gets reduces to Cl . How many moles of H O are

−1
2 2

oxidised by 1 mol of ClO ?

4. 3412
2

1. 1.5
113.
2. 1
ln a closed vessel 50 ml of A B completely reacts with2 3

200 ml of C according to the following equation :

2 3. 2.5
2A2 B3 (g)  +  5C2 (g) →  3C3 B2 (g) + CA4 (g) 4. 3.5
The composition of gaseous mixture in the system will 117.
be:
Suppose following reaction :-
1. 100 ml C ,  50 ml C B , 50 ml CA
2 3 2 4

2. 25 ml C 2,  75 ml  C3 B2  25 ml CA4

3. 75 ml C 2,  75 ml C3 B2,  25 ml CA4

4. 10 ml C 2,  25 ml C3 B2,  100 ml CA4

A and B are isomeric compound. These two can be

114.
diffrentiated easily by−
What is [H +
] of a solution that is 0.1M HCN and 0.2 M
1. AgNO 3
NaCN:-
2. Br 2 /F eCl3
(Ka for HCN = 6.2 × 10 −10
)
3. Conc.HNO /Conc. H SO4
1. 3.1 × 10 10 3 2

4. NaCl(aq)
2. 6.2 × 10 5

118. Page: 13
 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Which of the following statement is incorrect

1. The atomic radius of Na is greater than that of Mg
2. Density of K is more than Na
3. M.P. & B.P. of Ca are greater than those of Mg
3.
4. Mg do not react with cold water
119.
When 4 g of iron is burnt to ferric oxide at constant
pressure, 29.28 kJ of heat is evolved.
What is the enthalpy of formation of ferric oxide?
(At. mass of Fe = 56) ? 4.
1. −81.98 kJ 122.
2. − 819.8 kJ How many columbs are required for the oxidation of 1
3. − 40.99 kJ mol of H O   to  O ?
2 2 2

4. +819.8 kJ 1. 9. 65 × 10 4
 C

120. 2. 93000 C

Which one of the following pair of solution can we 3. 1. 93 × 10 5

 C

expect to be isotonic at the same temperature? 4. 19. 3 × 10 2

 C

1. 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl 123.

2. 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl 2
Correct order of oxidising strength is
3. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na SO
2 4
1. HClO 4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

4. 0.1 M Ca(NO ) and 0.1 M Na SO

3 2 2 4
2. HOCl > HClO 2 > HClO3 > HClO4

121. 3. HClO 2
> HOCl > HClO3 > HClO4

What will be major product in following reaction:- 4. HClO 3

> HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2

124.
MnO2
CH2 = CH − C H − C H2 −−→
| |
OH OH

Product is:-
1. CH 2 = C H − C H − CH
|| ||
O O

2. CH 2
= CH − CH2 − C H3
|
OH

1. 3. CH 2 = CH − C − CH3
||
O

4. CH 3 = CH − C − C H2
|| |
O OH

125.
2. Three lanthanides which show +2 oxidation state also:
Page: 14
 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1. Sm, Tb, Gd
2. Sm, Eu, Yb
3. La, Gd, Lu
4. Yb, Pm, Sm
126.
The IUPAC name of the give compounds

II.
1. 3 – keto – 2 – methyl – pent – 4 – enal
2. 2 – keto – 2 – ethyl but – 2 – enal
3. 3 – keto – 2 – propyl pent – 4 – enal
4. 2 – keto – 2 – propyl pent – 4 – enal
127.
III.
The compound, whose stereochemical formula is shown
below, exhibits A-geometrical isomers and B-optical
isomers

IV.
1. 2 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. Only 2
The values of A and B are 129.
1. 4 and 4 The value of K for self ionization of formic acid is 10-
4 at room temperature. What percentage of formic acid is
2. 4 and 2
converted to formate ion?
3. 2 and 4 (Given : dHCOOH = 1. 22 g/ cc)

4. 2 and 2
1. 0.0185%
2. 0.0073%
128.
3. 0.074%
Which of the following compounds are chiral?
4. 0.037%
I.
130.
The azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol boils at
78.15°C. When
this mixture is distilled, it is possible to obtain
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 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

1. pure H O 2 3. +2
2. pure C H OH
2 5 4. 0
3. pure H O as well as pure C HOH
2 2 135.
4. neither H O nor C H OH in their pure state
2 2 5 Lactic acid on oxidation by alkaline potassium
permanganate gives
131.
1. propionic acid
The net work done for an ideal gas is given as
2. cinnamic acid
3. pyruvic acid
4. tartaric acid
136.
ABCA is cyclic process. Its P-V graph would be-

1. −3PV
2. 3PV
3. PV
4. Zero
132.
Aluminium reacts with concentrated HCl and
concentrated NaOH to liberate the
gases .... respectively 1.
1. H and H
2 2

2. O and O
2 2

3. O and H
2 2

4. H and O
2 2

2.
133.
Using MO theory predict which of the following species
has the shortest bond
length?
1. O  +

2. O  − 3.
2

3. O  2−

4. O  2+

134.
The oxidation state of sodium in sodium amalgam is 4.
1. -1 137.
2. +1
Page: 16
 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Suppose a voltmeter of resistance 660Ω reads 4.

−3Q

the voltage of a very old cell to be 1.32 volt 2

while a potentiometer reads its voltage to be 141.

1.44 volt. The internal resistance of the cell
is :- A solid sphere with a velocity (of centre of mass) v and
angular velocity ω is gently placed on a rough horizontal
1. 30Ω surface. The frictional force on the sphere
2. 60Ω 1. must be forward (in direction of v)
3. 6Ω 2. must be backward (opposite to v)
4. 0.6Ω 3. cannot be zero
138. 4. none of these
The energy required to move a satellite of mass m from 142.
an orbit of radius 2R to 3R around earth of mass M is
A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists across a P-N junction.
1. GMm

12R
If the depletion region is 5. 0 × 10 −7
m wide, the
intensity of the electric field in this region is
2. GMm

R
1. 1. 0 × 10  V /m 6

3. GMm

8R 2. 1. 0 × 10 5
 V /m

4. GMm

2R 3. 2. 0 × 10 5
 V /m

139. 4. 2. 0 × 10 6
 V /m

A wave traveling along the x-axis is described by the 143.

equation y(x, t)= 0. 005  cos  (αx − βt). If the
wavelength and the time period of the wave are 0.08 m A body of density 0.7 gm/cm floats on a lake of water.
3

and 2.0 s, respectively, then α and β in appropriate units The fraction of the body which is outside water is-
are : 1. 30%
1. α = 25. 00 π,  β = π 2. 70%
2. α = 0.08

π
,  β =
2.0

π 3. 25%
3. α =
0.04

π
,  β =
1.0

π
4. 50%

4. α = 12. 50 π,  β = π 144.

2.0

A square loop of side 'a' hangs from an insulating hanger

140.
Two concentric conducting spherical shells carry charge
Q each. The inner shell is earthed. The charge that flows
into the earth is -
of spring balance. The magnetic field of strength B
occurs only at the lower edge of loop which carries a
current I. Find the change in the reading of the spring
balance if the direction of current is reversed :-

1. Q
3Q
2. 2 1. IaB
2. 2IaB
−Q
3. 2
Page: 17
 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

3. I aB
2. 17
2

3. 7
4.
3
I aB
2

4. 13
145.
149.
A straight solenoid has 50 turns per cm in primary coil
and 200 turns in the secondary coil. The area of cross In a heating arrangement, an alternating current having a
section of the solenoid is 4 cm2. Calculate the mutual peak value of 28 A is used. To produce the same heat
inductance. energy if the direct current is used, its magnitude must
be:-
1. 5.0 H
1. about 14 A
2. 5. 0 × 10 −4
 H
2. about 28 A
3. 2.5 H
3. about 20 A
4. 2. 5 × 10 −4
 H
4. cannot say
146.
150.
In an astronomical telescope, the focal length of the
objective lens is 100 cm and of eye piece is 2 cm. The The displacement-time graph of a particle executing
magnifying power of the telescope for the normal eye is SHM is shown in the figure. Its displacement equation is
:- (Time period = 2 second)

1. 50
2. 10
3. 100
4. 1

50

147.
In a transistor circuit shown here the base current is 35 1. x  =  10  sin(πt  +  
π

6
)

µA.The value of the resistor Rb is (VBE is 4.5 V) :

2. x  =  10  sin(πt )

3. x  =  10  cos(πt )

4. x  =  5  sin(πt  +  
π

6
)

151.
The correct graph between the maximum energy of a
photoelectron and the inverse of the wavelength of the
incident radiation is given by the curve :

1. 128.5 kΩ
2. 257 kΩ
3. 5 kΩ
4. 2.5 kΩ
148.
Find maximum value of 5sinθ - 12cosθ?
1. 12 1. A

Page: 18
 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

2. B 1.  √2 gR

3. C 2.  √3 gR

4. None of these 3.  √5 gR

152. 4.  √gR

If a particle has negative velocity and 157.

negative acceleration, its speed
A particle is moving with a constant
1. increases
velocity along a line parallel to positive
2. decreases
X-axis. The magnitude of its angular
3. remains the same
momentum with respect to the origin is,
4. zero
1. zero
153. 2. increasing with x
3. decreasing with x
Two objects are projected at angles 30° and 60° 4. remaining constant
respectively with respect to the horizontal direction. The
range of two objects are denoted as R 30 and R
o
60 .o

Choose the correct relation from the following 158.

1.  R30o   =  R60o A rigid body rotates with an angular
2.   R30o   =  4R60o momentum L. If its kinetic energy is
R
60
o
halved, the angular momentum becomes,
3.   R30o   =  
2 1. L
4.   R30o   =  2 R60o 2. L/2
3. 2L
154. 4. L/√2
Two masses m and m are experiencing the same force
1 2

where m < m . The ratio

1 2
159.
of their acceleration is
a1

a2

1. 1 If a wire is stretched to double of its

2. less than 1 original length, then the strain in the
3. greater than 1 wire is
4. all the three cases 1. 1
155. 2. 2
A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 3. 3
2 kg are dropped from a tall building
whose height is 80 m. After, a fall of 40 4. 4
m each towards Earth, their respective
160.
kinetic energies will be in the ratio of
In a horizontal pipe of non-uniform
cross section, water flows with a
1.  √2  :  1
velocity of 1 m s at a point where
−1

2.  1  :  √2 the diameter of the pipe is 20 cm. The

3.  2  :  1 velocity of water (m s ) at a point where
−1

4.  1  :  2 the diameter of the pipe is 5 cm is-

156. 1. 8
What is the minimum velocity with 2. 16
which a body of mass m must enter a
vertical loop of radius R so that it can 3. 24
complete the loop?. 4. 32
161.
The graph between volume and
Page: 19
 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

temperature in Charles’ law is Two identical point charges of

1. an ellipse magnitude –q are fixed as shown in the
2. a circle figure below. A third charge +q is placed
3. a straight line midway between the two charges at
4. a parabola the point P. Suppose this charge +q is
displaced a small distance from the
162. point P in the directions indicated
When a uniform rod is heated, which by the arrows. In which direction(s)
of the following quantity of the rod will will +q be stable with respect to the
increase? displacement?
1. mass
2. weight
3. center of mass
4. moment of inertia
163.
When food is cooked in a vessel 1. A and A
1 2

by keeping the lid closed, after 2. B and B

1 2

some time the steam pushes the lid 3. both directions

outward. By considering the steam as 4. None
a thermodynamic system, then in the
167.
cooking process
1. Q > 0, W > 0, →
An electric field E = 10xˆi exists in
2. Q < 0, W > 0,
a certain region of space. Then the
3. Q > 0, W < 0,
potential difference V = Vo– VA, where
4. Q < 0, W < 0,
Vo is the potential at the origin and VA
164. is the potential at x = 2 m is:
A particle executing SHM crosses 1. 10 V
points A and B with the same velocity.
Having taken 3 s in passing from A to 2. –20 V
B, it returns to B after another 3 s. The
time period is 3. +20 V

1. 15 s 4. –10 V

2. 6 s 168.

3. 12 s A wire connected to a power supply

of 230 V has power dissipation P1.
4. 9 s Suppose the wire is cut into two equal
165. pieces and connected parallel to the
same power supply. In this case power
A person standing between two parallel dissipation is P2. The ratio
P2
is
hills fires a gun and hears the first echo P1

after t sec and the second echo after t

1 2 1. 1
sec. The distance between the two hills
is-[Given:Speed of sound v] 2. 2
v ( t1 −t2 ) 3. 3
1.  
2

v ( t1 t2 )
4. 4
2.  
2 ( t1 +t2 )

3.  v(t1 + t2 )

v ( t1 +t2 )
169.
4.  
2
A particle having mass m and charge
166. q is accelerated through a potential
difference V. Find the force experienced
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 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

when it is kept under perpendicular the coil

magnetic field
→
B . 2. No current will be induced
3. abcd
2q
3
BV 4. adcb
1.  √
m

3 2
q B V
2.  √
2m
172.
3 2
2q B V
3.  
√
m
Consider an oscillator which has a
2q
3
BV
charged particle oscillating about
4.  √
m
3
its mean position with a frequency
of 300 MHz. The wavelength of
170. electromagnetic waves produced by
A bar magnet of length l and magnetic this oscillator is
moment p is bent in the form of an arc
m 1. 1 m
as shown in figure. The new magnetic
dipole moment will be 2. 10 m
3. 100 m
4. 1000 m
173.
The wavelength λ of an electron and
e

λ of a photon of same energy E are

p

related by
1.  λp   ∝  λe

2.  λp   ∝ √λe

1
3.  λp   ∝  
√λ
e

2
4.  λp   ∝  λe
1.  pm

3
174.
2.   pm
π

2 Atomic number of H-like atom with ionization potential

3.   pm
π
122.4 V for n = 1 is
1
4.   pm
2
1. 1
171. 2. 2
An electron moves on a straight line 3. 3
path XY as shown in the figure. The
coil abcd is adjacent to the path of the 4. 4
electron. What will be the direction of
175.
current, if any, induced in the coil?
Two capacitors of capacitance 2 µF and 4 µF are
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
potential difference (VB – VA) is

1. The current will reverse its

direction as the electron goes past
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 High Yielding Test Series - Full Test 2
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

the rod is slightly disturbed and it falls towards the right,

then

(1) – 8 V
1. The center of mass moves vertically downward
(2) 8 V
2. The center of mass moves towards the right
(3) 12 V
3. The center of mass moves towards left
(4) – 12 V
4. The center of mass does not move
176.
180.
A man with hypermetropia cannot see objects closer than
a distance of 40 cm from the eye. The power of the lens One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K
required so that he can see objects at 25 cm from the eye does 15R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of
is specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at
constant volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will
1. +4.5D be
2. +4.0D 1. (T + 2.4) K
3. 1.5D 2. (T – 10) K
4. +3.0D 3. (T – 4) K
177. 4. (T + 10) K
A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration and
its velocity after n seconds is V. The displacement of the Fill OMR Sheet*
particle in the last 2s is.
V(n+1) *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
1. n where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
2V(n+1)
2. n

V(n−1)
3. n

2V(n−1)
4. n

178.
If x = 10.0 ± 0.1 and y = 10.0 ± 0.1, then 2x – 2y with
consideration of significant figures is equal to
1. Zero
2. 0.0±0.1
3. 0.0±0.2
4. 0.0±0.4
179.
A rod is standing vertically on a smooth surface, if
Page: 22