Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 7. In a dorsiventral [dicotyledonous] leaf:

I:
The abaxial epidermis generally bears more
1. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically stomata than the adaxial epidermis.
equivalent to: The palisade parenchyma is adaxially
1. megasporangium II:
placed.
2. megasporophyll
3. megaspore mother cell 1. Only I is correct
4. megaspore 2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
2. The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a 4. Both I and II are incorrect
polynucleotide chain serve to join:
1. One nucleoside with another nucleoside
2. One nucleotide with another nucleotide
8. Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two
3. One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
chambered due to the formation of a false
4. One DNA strand with the other DNA strand septum in:
Mustard and Argemone and
1. 2.
Argemone Dianthus
3. Moss peat is used as a packing material for
Mustard and Argemone and
sending flowers and live plants to distant places3. 4.
Primrose Primrose
because:
1. it is easily available
2. it is hygroscopic
9. Phloem fibers [bast fibers] are:
3. it reduces transpiration
4. it serves as a disinfectant made up of collenchyma and generally not
1.
seen in primary phloem
4. The difference in gram ⊕ and gram Θ 2. made up of collenchyma and generally not
bacteria is due to: seen in secondary phloem
1. Cell wall made up of sclerenchyma and generally not
3.
2. Cell membrane seen in primary phloem
3. Ribosome made up of sclerenchyma and generally not
4.
4. Cytoplasm seen in secondary phloem

5. The NADP reductase enzyme is located:

1. within the thylakoid membrane 10. Match the class of fungi in Column I with
on the stroma side of the thylakoid representative examples in Column II and
2. select the correct option:
membrane
on the lumen side of the thylakoid Column I Column II
3.
membrane A Phycomycetes P Morels and truffles
4. in the thylakoid lumen B Ascomycetes Q Alternaria, Trichoderma
C Basidiomycetes R Bread mould and Albugo
D Deuteromycetes S Smut and rust fungi
6. All the following are floral characters of Codes:
members of family Solanaceae except:
A B C D
1. Zygomorphic flower
2. Valvate aestivation 1. P R S Q
3. Epipetalous stamens 2. R S P Q
4. Endospermous seeds 3. P Q R S
4. R P S Q

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

11. Select the correct group of biocontrol 16. Which of the given figures shows the
agents: aestivation of corolla as seen in Calotropis?
1. Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
2. Bacillus thuringiensis. Tobacco mosaic virus,
Aphids 1. 2.
3. Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
thuringiensis
4. Oscilatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma

12. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism

of evolution is: 3. 4.
1. Multiple-step mutations
2. Saltation
3. Phenotypic variations
4. Minor mutations

13. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are 17. If two genes are closely linked on the same
prevented in: chromosome:
1. Monoecy 1. they will assort independently
2. Dioecy the proportion of recombinants formed will
2.
3. Chasmogamy be higher than the parental types
4. Cleistogamy the proportion of recombinants formed will
3. be much lower than the parental
14. Viruses are no more "alive" than isolated types
chromosomes because: the proportion of recombinants formed will
1. They require both RNA and DNA 4.
be equal to that of the parental types
2. They both need food molecules
3. They both require oxygen for respiration
Both require the environment of a cell to 18. Consider the two statements:
4.
replicate In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase
Statement I:
II transcribes hnRNA.
There is a single RNA
15. Identify the correct fact regarding the polymerase that catalyses
Statement II:
biodiversity hot spots in the world: transcription of all types of RNA
The current total number is 25 and 3 of in bacteria.
1.
these cover India
The current total number is 25 and 2 of Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. 1.
these cover India incorrect
The current total number is 34 and 3 of Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. 2.
these cover India correct
The current total number is 34 and 2 of Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. 3.
these cover India incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
correct

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

19. Identify the incorrect statement: 23. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
Despite great morphological difference PGR Chemical nature
1. between eucaryotic cells and prokaryotes, 1. IAA Indole compounds
they are remarkably similar metabolically. 2. Kinetin Adenine derivatives
The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are made 3. ABA Carotenoid derivatives
2.
up of 50S and 30S subunits.
4. GA Fatty acids
The rough part of rough endoplasmic
3. reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes
in the process of synthesizing ER proteins.
24. What is true regarding A, B and C in the
The nucleolus is where the structural RNA given diagrammatic representation of rDNA
4. for the cells ribosomes is transcribed from technology?
DNA.

20. Identify the amino acid:

1. Glycine
2. Serine
3. Alanine
4. Lysine

21. Which of the following is not correct

regarding differences between liverworts and
mosses in general? At A, same restriction enzyme is used to
I:
Liverworts Mosses cut both foreign and vector DNA
1. Rhizoids Unicellular Multi-cellular II: The enzyme used at B is DNA ligase
Less III: Step C can be called as transformation
2. Sporophyte More elaborate
elaborate
Budding in 1. I and II only 2. I and III only
Asexual 3. II and III only 4. I, II and III
3. Gemmae secondary
reproduction
protonema
Dominant
4. Gametophyte Sporophyte 25. A dikaryophase of fungus is commonly seen
generation
in the sexual reproduction of:
I. Phycomycetes
22. Onion root tip cells have 16 chromosomes. II. Ascomycetes
What will be the number of chromosomes in III. Basidiomycetes
this cell at the end of S phase? 1. Only I and II
1. 4 2. Only I and III
2. 8 3. Only II and III
3. 16 4. I, II and III
4. 32

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

26. Match each item in Column I with one in 29. The taxonomic category ‘family’ in plants is
Column II and select the correct match from the identified by the following ‘suffix’:
codes given: 1. - ales
Column I 2. - onae
Column II 3. - aceae
[Population
[Example] 4. - ae
Interaction]
An orchid growing as
A Mutualism P an epiphyte on a mango 30. Which of the following is the simplest
branch amino acid?
1. Alanine
Chthamalus and
B Commensalism Q 2. Asparagine
Balanus
3. Glycine
Fig trees and wasp 4. Tyrosine
C Parasitism R
species
Cuscuta growing on 31. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are
D Competition S
hedge plants considered closed because:
Codes: 1. a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
A B C D 2. cambium is absent
1. R P Q S 3. there are no vessels with perforations
2. R P S Q 4. xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
3. P R S Q
4. P R Q S
32. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select the correct match from the
27. Match each item in Column I with one in codes given:
Column II and select the correct match from the Column I Column II
codes given: Formation of C4 acids at night
Column I Column II A 3C plants P and C3 cycle during day in same
[Algal class] [Feature of flagella]
cells
A Chlorophyceae P 2, unequal, lateral
Formation of C4 acids in
B Phaeophyceae Q Absent C plants
B 4 Q mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in
C Rhodophyceae R 2-8, equal, apical bundle sheath cells
Codes:
CAM
A B C C R Only Calvin cycle
plants
1. R P Q Codes:
2. R Q P A B C
3. P R Q 1. R P Q
4. Q R P 2. R Q P
3. Q R P
4. Q P R
28. Geitonogamy is:
Functionally cross–pollination but
1.
genetically autogamy
33. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to
Functionally autogamy but genetically cross- the stigma of another flower of the same plant
2.
pollination is known as:
3. Functionally and genetically autogamy 1. Autogamy
Functionally and genetically cross- 2. Geitonogamy
4.
pollination 3. Cleistogamy
4. Xenogamy

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

34. The coconut water from tender coconut 38. Consider three genes: X, Y, and Z. The
represents? recombination frequency between X-Y, X-Z, and
1. fleshy mesocarp Y-Z gene pairs was found to be 50%, 25%, and
2. free - nuclear proembryo 50%, respectively. What would be the right
3. free - nuclear endosperm inference?
4. endocarp 1. genes X and Y are on the same chromosome
2. genes X and Z are on different chromosomes
35. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop
3. genes Y and Z are on different chromosomes
plant where the incorporated gene is meant for
the biosynthesis of: All three genes are located on the same
4.
chromosome
1. Vitamin-B 2. Vitamin-C
3. Omega 3 4. Vitamin-A
39. Consider the following statements:
The rate of production of organic matter
Botany - Section B I: during photosynthesis is called as gross
primary productivity of an ecosystem.
36. What process in aerobic respiration
The available biomass for the consumption
generates maximum ATP?
II: of heterotrophs is called secondary
substrate-level productivity.
1. 2. chemiosmosis
phosphorylation
The low productivity of the oceans can
Pyruvate III: mainly be attributed to the limited
3. Krebs cycle 4.
decarboxylation availability of nitrogen.

Which of the above statements are true?

37. Given below are two statements : one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 1. I and II only 2. I and III only
labelled as Reason (R). 3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
Agar gel electrophoresis is
employed to check the
Assertion (A):
progression of a restriction 40. The underlying basis of the Polymerase
enzyme digestion. Chain Reaction is:
Restriction enzyme digestion is DNA synthesis and hence amplification can
performed by incubating 1.
occur in a template independent manner.
purified DNA molecules with DNA, being thermostable, can be amplified
Reason (R): 2.
the restriction enzymes, at the during the thermal cycle in PCR.
optimal conditions for that
DNA polymerase I can synthesize large
specific enzyme. 3.
amounts of DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options PCR allows the direct amplification of DNA
4.
given below : even if it is present in minute quantities.
1. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2. 41. The size of Pleuro Pneumonia Like
explain (A).
Organism (PPLO) is:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. 0.02 μm
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) 2. 1-2 μm
4.
explains (A). 3. 10-20 μm
4. 0.1 μm

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

42. A cell has 2 pg DNA at G1 phase. What 46. Study the four statements (a–d) given below
would be the amount of DNA in this cell at the and select the two correct ones out of them:
end of anaphase I of meiosis I? A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding
1. 2 pg a: on grain are ecologically similar in being
2. 4 pg consumers
3. 6 pg Predator starfish Pisaster helps in
4. 8 pg b: maintaining species diversity of some
invertebrates
43. What would not be true for nucleic acids? Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of
1. They are polynucleotides. c:
prey species
Together with polysaccharides and Production of chemicals such as nicotine
polypeptides, these comprise the true d: and strychnine by plants is metabolic
2.
macromolecular fraction of any living tissue disorder
or cell.
A nucleotide has three chemically distinct The two correct statements are:
components: a heterocyclic compound, a 1. a and d
3. 2. a and b
monosaccharide, and a phosphoric acid or a
phosphate. 3. b and c
The hexose sugar found in polynucleotides is 4. c and d
4.
either ribose or 2’deoxyribose.

47. All the following statements regarding

44. The chief water conducting elements of
enzymes are correct except:
xylem in gymnosperms are:
Almost all enzymes are proteins that
1. vessels 1.
function as catalysts.
2. fibres
3. transfusion tissue 2. Almost all enzymes are substrate specific.
4. tracheids Enzymes provide activation energy for
3.
reactions.
45. Consider the given two statements: Enzymes may be used many times for a
4.
Stem tendrils which develop specific reaction.
from axillary buds are slender
Statement I: and spirally coiled and help
plants to climb such as in Citrus 48. Which law is based on the fact that the
and Bougainvillea. alleles do not show any blending and that both
Axillary buds of stems may get the characters are recovered as such in the F2
modified into woody, straight generation though one of these is not seen at
Statement II: and pointed thorns found in the F1 stage?
many plants such as gourds and 1. Law of blending Inheritance
grapevines. 2. Law of dominance
3. Law of segregation
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 4. Law of independent assortment
1.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

49. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 52. Identify the option where all given animals
the floral characters of family Liliaceae: belong to the same phylum:
1. Flower is bisexual; zygomorphic 1. Squid, Devil fish, Flying fish, Dogfish
Perianth tepal six (3+3), often united into a Apple snail, Pearl oyster, Brittle star, Brain
2. 2.
tube; valvate aestivation coral
3. Androecium: stamen six, 3+3, epitepalous 3. Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Sea horse
Gynoecium: tri carpellary, syncarpous, ovary 4. Cuttlefish, Sea-hare, Tusk shell, Chiton
4.
superior, trilocular with many ovules

53. The duration of inspiration can be reduced

50. Consider the given two statements:
BOD is an indirect measure of the organic
I:
matter present in the water.
The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of
II: oxygen by microorganisms in a sample of
water.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
Both I and II are correct but II does not
2.
explain I.
3. Only II is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
by:
1. an increase of carbon dioxide in blood
a chemical signal from aortic and carotid
2.
bodies
3. a neural signal from pneumotaxic center
an increase in hydrogen ion concentration
4.
in CSF
54. The single ventricle in the heart of a frog:
opens into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the
1.
dorsal side of the heart.
opens into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the
2.
ventral side of the heart.

Zoology - Section A 3.
opens into a dilated chamber sinus venosus
on the ventral side of the heart.
51. Given below are two statements : one is opens into a dilated chamber sinus venosus
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 4. on the dorsal side of the heart.
labelled as Reason (R).
Conserving the biological
diversity of the ecological 55. Match each item in Column I with one in
hotspots is very important Column II and select the correct match from the
Assertion (A):
component of efforts to codes given:
safeguard the world’s biological Column I Column II
heritage. Convergent Eye of vertebrate and eye
The hotspots of biodiversity A P
evolution of mollusc
Reason (R): cover a large percentage of the Divergent
land area of earth. B Q Darwin finches
evolution
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Industrial
most appropriate answer from the options C R Vertebrate hearts
melanism
given below :
Adaptive
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the D S Peppered moth
1. radiation
correct explanation of (A).
Codes:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. A B C D
correct explanation of (A).
1. R P S Q
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. P R Q S
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. P R S Q
4. R P Q S

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

56. Consider the following two statements: 60. During relaxation of a skeletal muscle:
Not all copulations lead to fertilization and
Calcium ions that are bound to troponin C
I: 1.
pregnancy now bind to troponin A
Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the Cross bridge formation between myosin
2.
II: sperms are simultaneously transported to head and actin takes place
the fallopian tubes. 3. The A band of the sarcomere lengthens
Calcium ions are pumped back to the
1. Both I and II are correct and II correctly 4.
sarcoplasmic cisternae
explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not
explain I.
61. Which of the following events is usually not
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
seen in a standard ECG?
4. I is incorrect but II is correct.
1. Depolarisation of atria
2. Depolarisation of ventricles
3. Repolarisation of ventricles
57. A transcription unit in DNA is defined 4. Repolarisation of atria
primarily by the three regions in the DNA
which include all the following except: 62. At the birth of the female child, the follicles
1. A promoter in her ovaries contain:
2. An operator Primary oocytes that have been arrested at
1.
3. Structural gene the S phase of the cell cycle
4. A terminator Primary oocytes that have been arrested at
2.
prophase I of meiosis I
58. In Amphibia: Secondary oocytes that have been arrested
3.
I: Skin is moist without scales prophase I of meiosis I
II: A tympanum represents the ear Secondary oocytes that have been arrested
4.
III: Fertilization is external at metaphase II of meiosis II

Only I and II are Only I and III are

1. 2. 63. Second messengers, employed in the action
correct correct
Only II and III are on target cells in case of some hormones,
I, II, and III are
3. 4. include all the following except:
correct correct
1. cAMP
2. Calcium
3. IP3
59. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data? 4. Catabolite Activator Protein
Secondary consumer: 120 g
Primary consumer: 60 g
Primary producer: 10 g
1. Inverted pyramid of biomass
2. Pyramid of energy
3. Upright pyramid of numbers
4. Upright pyramid of biomass

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

64. Consider the two statements: 67. Match each item in Column I with one in
DNA has evolved from RNA with Column II and select the correct match from the
Statement I: chemical modifications that codes given:
make it more stable. Column I Column II
DNA being double stranded and A T H Morgan P Linkage
having complementary strands Rediscovery of Mendel
Statement II: B Sturtevant Q
further resists changes by laws
evolving a process of repair. Cell free system for
De Vries, Correns
C R deciphering genetic
Statement I is correct; Statement II is and Tschermak
1. code
incorrect Marshall Mapping the position of
Statement I is correct; Statement II is D S
2. Nirenberg genes on chromosomes
correct Codes:
Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is A B C D
3.
correct 1. P S Q R
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. P S R Q
4.
incorrect
3. S P Q R
4. S P R Q
65. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
68. The function of copper ions in copper
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae releasing IUDs is to
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton 1. inhibit gametogenesis
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti 2. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica 3. inhibit ovulation
Choose the correct answer from the options 4. suppress sperm motility and fertilizing
given below: capacity of sperms

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 69. The Earth Summit was held in:
1. Montreal, 1987
2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. Kyoto, 1997
3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 3. Rio de Janeiro, 1992
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 4. Johannesburg, 2002

70. Analogous organs arise due to:

66. When compared to the initial filtrate 1. divergent evolution 2. artificial selection
formed, human kidneys can produce urine 3. genetic drift 4. convergent evolution
nearly:
1. 2 times concentrated
2. 4 times concentrated 71. As the distance from Z line to Z line
3. 8 times concentrated decreases, which bands shorten in a
4. 10 times concentrated sarcomere?
the I band and H the I band and A
1. 2.
band band
the A band and H
3. 4. all bands shorten
band

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

72. Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic 76. Which of the following is wrongly matched
material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these in the given table?
into host organisms and thus change the Microbe Product Application
phenotype of the host organism comes under: Monascus Lowering of blood
1. Bioprocess engineering 1. Statins
purpureus cholesterol
2. Genetic engineering
Removal of clot
3. Bioinformatics 2. Streptococcus Streptokinase
from blood vessel
4. Biomedical technology
Clostridium Removal of oil
3. Lipase
73. The Golgi complex plays a major role: butylicum stains
1. in digesting proteins and carbohydrates Trichoderma Cyclosporin-
4. Immunosuppressive
polysporum A
2. as energy transferring organelles
in post-translational modification of proteins
3.
and glycosidation of lipids
77. Histones are:
in trapping the light and transforming it into 1. positively charged basic proteins
4.
chemical energy 2. negatively charged basic proteins
3. positively charged acidic proteins
4. negatively charged acidic proteins
74. The electrical event represented by P wave
in an ECG leads to: 78. Emergency contraceptive methods must be
1. the contraction of both the atria employed within:
2. the contraction of both the ventricles 1. 72 hours of ovulation
3. the relaxation of both the atria 2. 72 hours of the onset of menstrual flow
4. the relaxation of both the ventricles 3. 72 hours of unprotected coitus
4. 72 hours of cessation of menstrual flow

75. Consider the given two statements

regarding frogs: 79. The first form of milk produced by the
In water, skin acts as aquatic mammary glands of humans immediately
Statement
respiratory organ (cutaneous following delivery of the newborn is rich in:
I:
respiration). 1. IgA antibodies
On land, the buccal cavity, skin 2. IgG antibodies
Statement 3. IgM antibodies
and lungs act as the respiratory
II: 4. IgE antibodies
organs.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
correct 80. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is place in:
incorrect 1. S-phase
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. G1-phase
correct 3. G2 -phase
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 4. M-phase
incorrect
81. What percent of the human DNA actually
codes for proteins?
1. Less than 2%
2. Around 20%
3. Between 35% and 40%
4. More than 98%

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

82. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of: 87. Consider the following diagram showing the
1. malaria working of the lac operon in E.coli in the
2. pneumonia presence of an inducer and choose the correct
3. tuberculosis statement from the ones given below:
4. typhoid

83. Osteoporosis is a type of disorder which

leads to:
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation
1.
of uric acid crystals
Weakening of bones due to decreased bone
2.
mass
Inflammation of joints due to cartilage
3.
degeneration
4. Weakening of bones due to low calcium level A is the inducer and can be either lactose or
1.
cAMP.
B is the enzyme that will metabolize glucose,
2.
84. A pleiotropic gene: the preferred energy source.
1. Is expressed only in primitive plants Some amount of C will be present in the cell
3.
even if lactose is absent.
2. Is a gene that evolved during Pliocene
The absence of D will stop lactose from
Controls a trait only in combination with 4.
3. entering the cell.
another gene
4. Controls multiple traits in an individual
88. Anal styles are borne on the:
1. 9th segment only in female cockroach
85. The parts of the human brain that help in
the regulation of sexual behavior, expression of 2. 9th segment only in male cockroach
excitement, pleasure, rage, fear, etc. are: 3. 10th segment only in female cockroach
1. Corpus callosum and thalamus 4. 10th segment only in male cockroach
2. Limbic system & hypothalamus
3. Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
4. Brain stem & epithalamus 89. Which of the following statements is not
true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

Zoology - Section B 1. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor

2. Mutations inactivate the cell control
86. If the adenohypophysis fails to stop
3. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
producing growth hormone (GH) after body
growth is completed, the person may suffer 4. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the
from: cell cycle
1. Cretinism
2. Dwarfism
3. Acromegaly 90. In Australia, marsupials and placental
4. Gigantism mammals have evolved to share many similar
characteristics. This type of evolution may be
referred to as :
1. Adaptive Radiation
2. Divergent Evolution
3. Cyclical Evolution
4. Convergent Evolution

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

91. Pneumotaxic center:
1. moderates the function of the rhythm center labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
2. establishes the respiratory rhythm
3. is located in medulla oblongata
reduces the duration of expiration and
4.
thereby alters the respiratory rate
92. The number of correct statements regarding
hemichordates from the given is:
A stomochord is present in the collar
I.
region
II. Circulation is of open type
III. Excretory organ is proboscis gland
IV. Development is indirect
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
95. Given below are two statements: one is
labelled as Reason (R):
Juxtamedullary nephrons are
Assertion (A): key adaptation for water
conservation in mammals.
Juxtamedullary nephrons
constitute about 85% of all
Reason (R):
nephrons in the mammalian
kidney.
In the light of the above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

96. Consider the following statements:

93. Nowadays, it is possible to detect the Acetylcholine is released at the electrical
mutated gene causing cancer by allowing the I:
synapse.
radioactive probe to hybridise its
II: Electrical synapses are faster.
complementary DNA in clone of cells, followed
by its detection using autoradiography because: It is more difficult to regulate an electrical
III:
mutated gene does not appear on a synapse with respect to a chemical synapse.
1. photographic film as the probe has no
Which of the above statements are true?
complementarity with it.
1. I and II only
mutated gene does not appear on a 2. I and III only
2. photographic film as the probe has 3. II and III only
complementarity with it. 4. I, II, and III
mutated gene partially appears on a
3.
photographic film.
mutated gene completely and clearly
4. 97. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle
appears on a photographic film.
involving ATPase activity is:
1. tropomyosin
94. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the 2. myosin
lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio- 3. α-actinin
ventricular septum, delays the spreading of 4. troponin
impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. This
delay allows:
1. blood to enter aorta.
2. the ventricles to empty completely.
3. blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
4. the atria to empty completely.

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 Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

98. Identify the incorrect statement:

The seminiferous tubules of the testis open Fill OMR Sheet*
1. into the vasa efferentia
through the rete testis. *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
into the epididymis there
2.
located along the posterior surface of each
testis.
The epididymis leads to the vas deferens that
3. ascend to the abdomen
and loop over the urinary bladder.
The epididymis receives a duct from the CLICK HERE to get
4. seminal vesicle and opens into
the urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
99. Consider the given statements:
The crop in the alimentary canal of
NEETprep course
cockroach is also known as proventriculus,
I:
has six highly chitinous plates called teeth
and helps in grinding food particles.
The gizzard is sac-like structure used for
II:
storing food in cockroach.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

100. Sex determination is based on the number

of sets of chromosomes an individual receives
in:
1. Honeybees
2. Grasshoppers
3. Fruit fly
4. Birds

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