Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 5. Plasmid pBR322 has a PstI restriction enzyme

site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin
1. Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
septum is seen in: gene for β galactoside production and the
1. Brassica recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli
2. Aloe strain:
3. Solanum 1. it will lead to the lysis of host cells.
4. Sesbania it will be able to produce a novel protein
2.
with dual abilities.
2. What is not true regarding sexual it will not be able to confer ampicillin
reproduction in basidiomycetes? 3.
resistance to the host cell.
1. Sex organs are well developed the transformed cells will have the ability to
Plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of 4. resist ampicillin as well as produce β-
2. two vegetative or somatic cells of different galactoside.
strains or genotypes
Karyogamy and meiosis take place in
3.
basidium, producing four basidiospores 6. Study the pathway given below:
Basidiospores are produced exogenously on
4.
the basidium

3. For a biocontrol agent to be part of an

integrated pest management, it should be:
1. species-specific and symbiotic
2. free living and broad spectrum
3. narrow spectrum and symbiotic
4. species-specific and inactive on non-target
organisms

4. Identify the incorrect statement:

As compared to the bryophytes,
1. pteridophytes have sporophyte as the main
plant body
Pteridophyte sporophyte has well
2.
differentiated true roots, stem and leaves
3. Selaginella has macrophylls like ferns
In sporophyte of ferns, leaf-like appendages In which of the following options, correct
4. words for all the three blanks A, B and C are
called sporophylls subtend sporangia
indicated?
A B C
1. Fixation Transamination Regeneration
2. Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
3. Carboxylation Decarboxylation Reduction
4. Decarboxylation Reduction Regeneration

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

7. Mesosomes, extensions of plasma membrane 11. Correct position of floral parts over
into the cell, help bacterium in all the following thalamus in the guava plant is:
processes except: Gynoecium occupies the highest position,
1.
Photosynthesis in while the other parts are situated below it.
1. 2. Respiration
cyanobacteria Margin of the thalamus grows upward,
Cell wall 2. enclosing the ovary completely, and other
3. DNA replication 4.
formation parts arise above the ovary.
Gynoecium is present in the center and other
3.
parts cover it partially.
8. The given floral formula represents plants Gynoecium is situated in the center, and
belonging to the family: 4. other parts of the flower are located at the
rim of the thalamus, at the same level.

1. Gramineae 2. Malvaceae 12. Match each item in Column I with one in

Column II and select the correct match from the
3. Cruciferae 4. Leguminosae
codes given:
Column I Column II
9. Consider the given two statements: Phloem tissue in
A Bulliform cells P
angiosperms
Mycoplasma are naturally resistant to
I: Phloem tissue in
antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis B Lenticels Q
gymnosperms
They are the smallest bacteria discovered
II: Albuminous Folding and unfolding of
yet C R
cells leaf tissue
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I S Exchange of gases
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not Codes:
explain I A B C
3. I is correct but II is incorrect 1. S R Q
4. Both I and II are incorrect
2. S R Q
3. R S P
4. R S Q
10. Casparian strips occur in?
1. Epidermis
2. Pericycle 13. The bacteriophage φ X 174 has:
3. Cortex 1. 5386 nucleotides
4. Endodermis 2. 48502 base pairs
3. 4.6 X 106 base pairs
4. 3.3 X 109 base pairs

14. A high value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen

Demand) indicates that:
1. water is pure
2. water is highly polluted
3. water is less polluted
consumption of organic matter in
4.
the water is higher by the microbes

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

15. Double fertilization is: 19. Match each item in Column I with one item
Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube in Column II and chose your answer from the
1. codes given below:
with two different eggs
Fusion of one male gamete with two polar Column I Column II
2.
nuclei (a) Alkaloid (i) Abrin
3. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (b) Toxin (ii) Morphine
4. Syngamy and triple fusion (c) Lectin (iii) Vinblastin
(d) Drug (iv) Concanavalin A

16. Consider the following statements: (a) (b) (c) (d)

The rate of decomposition is high if:
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
I: The detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
II: The detritus is rich in nitrogen and sugars.
3. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
The environmental conditions are warm
III: 4. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
and moist.

Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
17. Root hairs at the root tip are formed by:
1. Epidermal cells in the region of maturation
2. Cortical cells in the region of elongation
3. Epidermal cells in the region of elongation
4. Cortical cells in the region of maturation
18. In lac operon, lac y gene codes for:
1. β−galactosidase
2. Permease
3. Repressor
4. Transacetylase
20. Which of the following stages of Prophase I
of meiosis I can last for many months or years
in certain vertebrate oocytes?
1. Zygotene 2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene 4. Diakinesis
21. In order to increase the yield of sugarcane
crops, which of the following plant growth
regulators should be sprayed?
1. Ethylene 2. Auxins
3. Gibberellins 4. Cytokinins
22. In gymnosperms:
gametophytes have an independent free-
1.
living existence
2. pollen grains are transported by water
3. pollen tubes are not seen
4. seeds are not covered

23. In the logistic growth equation given below,

the carrying capacity is represented by:
dN K−N
= rN ( )
dt K

1. N 2. r
3. K 4. K–N/K

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

24. At maturity, the female gametophyte in 28. Match the name of the scientist in Column I
angiosperms has: with his contribution in Column II and select
Three cells grouped together at the the correct match from the codes given:
I: micropylar end constituting the egg Column I Column II
apparatus Julius von O2 evolved by the green
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are A. P.
II: Sachs plant comes from H2O
called the antipodals
T.W. Glucose is usually stored as
B. Q.
Engelmann starch by plants
1. Only I is correct
Cornelius van Sunlight is essential for
2. Only II is correct C. R.
Niel photosynthesis
3. Both I and II are correct Jan First action spectrum of
4. Both I and II are incorrect D. S.
Ingenhousz photosynthesis
Codes:
A B C D
25. Tetracycline resistance gene in the vector 1. Q S P R
pBR322 carries the recognition sequence for:
2. Q R P S
1. PstI
2. PvuII 3. P Q R S
3. BamH I 4. P S R Q
4. EcoR I

26. Which of the following secondary 29. All the following produce secondary tissues
metabolites is a carbohydrate-binding protein in a plant body except:
[Lectin]? 1. Fascicular vascular cambium
1. Abrin 2. Interfascicular cambium
2. Vinblastin 3. Cork-cambium
3. Curcumin 4. Intercalary meristem
4. Concanavalin A
30. In general, the embryo sac in angiosperm
27. The biodiversity hotspots in India include consists of:
all the following except: One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal
1.
Western Ghats and Sri cells, two Polar nuclei
1. 2. Indo-Burma
Lanka One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
2.
Deccan cells, three Polar nuclei
3. Himalayas 4.
plateau One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal
3.
cells, two Polar nuclei
One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal
4.
cells, two Polar nuclei

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

31. Consider the two statements:
Plant cells possess cell walls,
plastids and a large central
Statement I:
vacuole which are absent in
animal cells.
Animal cells have centrioles
which are absent in almost all
Statement II:
plant cells.
35. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant
tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin
due to:
1. alkaline pH of the insect gut
2. acidic pH of the insect gut
3. action of gut microorganisms
4. presence of conversion factors in the insect
gut

1.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect
Botany - Section B
36. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. The broadly utilitarian argument
correct
for conserving biodiversity says
Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is Statement I: that humans derive countless
3.
correct direct economic benefits from
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is nature.
4.
incorrect The ethical argument for
conserving biodiversity says that
Statement II: biodiversity plays a major role in
32. The role of an adapter molecule in the many ecosystem services that
translation of genetic information is performed nature provides.
by:
1. miRNA
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. hnRNA 1.
incorrect
3. tRNA
4. siRNA Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
33. The exponential growth of an organism or a 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
part of an organism can be expressed as W1 = correct
W0 ert, where e is: Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4.
correct
1. final size (weight, height, number etc.)
2. initial size at the beginning of the period
3. growth rate 37. The leafy stage in the life cycle of mosses:
4. base of natural logarithms 1. is a stage of the sporophytic generation.
is a creeping, green, branched and
2.
frequently filamentous stage.
34. Which one of the following plants shows a 3. develops directly from a spore.
very close relationship with a species of moth,
4. bears sex organs.
where none of the two can complete its life
cycle without the other?
1. Hydrilla 2. Yucca
38. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a
3. Banana 4. Viola nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:
1. 2'C pentose sugar 2. 3'C pentose sugar
3. 5'C pentose sugar 4. 1'C pentose sugar

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

39. Consider the given two statements: 44. In the genetic code dictionary, how many
Carbon dioxide is not produced codons are used to code for all the 20 essential
Assertion (A): amino acids:
in glycolysis.
Glycolysis is a metabolic 1. 20
Reason (R): pathway that does not require 2. 64
oxygen. 3. 61
4. 60
1. (A) is True but (R) is False
45. The given transverse section is of:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2.
explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does
3.
not correctly explain (R)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

40. The middle lamella of a typical plant cell:

I: mainly consists of calcium carbonate
holds or glues the different neighbouring
II:
cells together
III: is not traversed by plasmodesmata 1. Monocot stem 2. Dicot stem
3. Monocot root 4. Dicot root
1. Only II is correct
2. Only I is incorrect
46. According to Darwin, organic evolution is
3. I, II and III are incorrect due to:
4. Only II and III are correct 1. Interspecific competition.
2. Competition within closely related species.
Reduced feeding efficiency in one species
41. Which step in the decomposition of detritus 3.
due to the presence of interfering species.
is carried out by bacteria and fungi?
4. Intraspecific competition.
1. fragmentation 2. leaching
3. catabolism 4. mineralisation
47. What is the expected percentage of F2
progeny with yellow and inflated pod in
42. The stage during which separation of the
dihybrid cross experiment involving pea plants
paired homologous chromosomes begins is:
with green coloured, inflated pod and yellow
1. Pachytene 2. Diplotene
coloured constricted pod?
3. Diakinesis 4. Zygotene 1. 100%
2. 56.25%
3. 18.75 %
43. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, 4. 9%
spores are produced exogenously in?
1. Neurospora 2. Alternaria
3. Agaricus 4. Saccharomyces

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

48. Consider the two statements: 52. α Thalassemia is controlled by:

Statement No virus contains both RNA and 1. two closely linked genes on chromosome 16
I: DNA. 2. two closely linked genes on chromosome 11
Statement Bacteriophages are usually single- 3. a single gene on chromosome 11
II: stranded RNA viruses. 4. a single gene on chromosome 16

Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is

1.
correct 53. ART stands for:
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 1. Assisted Reproductive Technologies
2.
incorrect 2. Assisted Reproductive Techniques
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 3. Artificial Reproductive Technologies
3. 4. Artificial Reproductive Techniques
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. 54. In which one of the following, the genus
incorrect
name, its two characters and its phylum are not
correctly matched, whereas the remaining
49. When an enzyme denatures: three are correct?
the activation energy of the reaction is Genus Two
1. Phylum
doubled. Name Characters
the activation energy of the reaction is Body
2. (i) segmented
lowered. 1. Pila Mollusca
(ii) Mouth with
its optimal conditions for the temperature of
3. Radula
the enzyme are doubled.
Spiny skinned
4. the shape of the enzyme molecule changes
(i) Water
2. Asterias Echinodermata
(ii) Vascular
System
50. Wind-pollinated flowers are characterized
(i) Pore bearing
by the following, except: 3. Sycon Porifera
(ii) Canal system
1. Light and non-sticky pollen grains
Jointed
2. Well-exposed stamens (i) appendages
3. Many ovules in each ovary 4. Periplaneta Arthropoda
(ii) Chitinous
4. Large, often-feathery stigma exoskeleton

Zoology - Section A 55. The number of autosomes expected in a

human skin cell is:
51. Myelin sheath around axons in peripheral 1. 22
nervous system and in central nervous system 2. 23
is produced respectively by: 3. 44
1. Schwann cells; microglia 4. 46
2. oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
3. Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes 56. The cells in areolar loose connective tissue
4. satellite cells; astrocytes that can secrete histamine are:
1. Fibroblasts 2. Macrophages
3. Mast cells 4. Basophils

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

57. Embryological support for evolution was 61. The extent of the global diversity
proposed by: of invertebrates is represented in the image
1. Ernst Mayr below. Choose the correct combination of
2. Ernst Haeckel groups (A-D) respectively:
3. Hugo de Vries
4. Kary Mullis

58. Consider the following statements:

The first organisms that invaded land were
I:
the plants.
II: Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians.
Ramapithecus was more ape-like and
III: A B C D
Dryopithecus was more man-like.
Other
Which of the above statements are true? 1. Insects Crustaceans animal Molluscs
groups
1. I and II only 2. I and III only Other
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III 2. Crustaceans Insects Molluscs animal
groups
Other
59. All chordates have: 3. Molluscs animal Crustaceans Insects
1. scales covering their skin groups
2. jaws Other
3. notochord 4 Insects Molluscs Crustaceans animal
4. vertebral column groups
60. The structure formed during human
embryonic development is shown in the given
62. Consider the given two statements:
figure:
The amount of CO2 that can
diffuse through the diffusion
Assertion (A): membrane per unit difference
in partial pressure is much
higher compared to that of O2.
Haemoglobin does not play any
Reason (R): role in the transport of carbon
1. is morula and has 8 to 16 cells dioxide in human blood.
2. is the antral follicle with a fluid-filled antrum
is blastocyst that gets implanted on the 1. (A) is True but (R) is False
3.
uterine endometrium Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2.
is gastrula where the three germ layers are explains (A)
4.
formed before implantation Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
3.
correctly explain (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

63. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle 66. Match each item in Column I with one in
contraction because it: Column II and select the correct match from the
binds to troponin to remove the masking of codes given:
1.
active sites on actin for myosin. Column I Column II
2. activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
A Mitochondria P Photophosphorylation
detaches the myosin head from the actin B Chloroplast Q Oxidative phosphorylation
3.
filament. C Tonoplast R Vacuole
prevents the formation of bonds between the D Elaioplast S Stores lipids
4.
myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.Codes:
A B C D
1. P Q R S
64. Match the plasma proteins in Column I with
their function in Column II and select the 2. P Q S R
correct answer from the codes given: 3. Q P S R
Column I Column II 4. Q P R S
A. Albumins a. Hemostasis
Transport carriers and
B. Globulins b. 67. The posterior pituitary is:
immunity
C. Fibrinogen c. Colloid osmotic pressure
under the direct neural regulation of the
1.
Codes hypothalamus
under the regulation of the chemicals
2.
A B C produced by the hypothalamus
1. a b c is not under any regulation of the
3.
2. a c b hypothalamus
3. b a c is regulated directly by the humoral
4.
concentrations of the hormones it secretes
4. c b a

68. At which stage of HIV infection does one

65. The menstrual bleed is primarily due to the
usually shows symptoms of AIDS?
withdrawal of:
1. Oestrogen When viral DNA is produced by reverse
1.
2. Progesterone transcriptase.
3. LH When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-
4. FSH 2. lymphocytes and damages a large number of
these.
Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
3.
infected person.
When the infecting retrovirus enters host
4.
cells.

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

69. Which one of the following correctly 73. The given diagrammatic representation of
explains the function of a specific part of a the operation of natural selection on a trait
human nephron? shows:
Henle’s loop – most reabsorption of the
1. major substances from the glomerular
filtrate
Distal convoluted tubule – reabsorption of
2.
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
Afferent arteriole – carries the blood away
3.
from the glomerulus towards renal vein
Podocytes - create minute spaces (slit pores) 1. Stabilizing selection
4. for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s 2. Directional selection
capsule 3. Disruptive selection
4. Discontinuous selection

70. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in 74. A glenoid cavity is:

human males than in human females because: seen in scapula and articulates with head of
This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive 1.
1. humerus
mutation
seen in coxal bone and articulates with head
This disease is due to an X-linked recessive 2.
2. of femur
mutation
3. seen in clavicle and articulates with sternum
This disease is due to an X-linked dominant
3. 4. seen in femur and articulates with patella
mutation
4. A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
75. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select the correct match from the
71. Which of the following STDs are not codes given:
curable? Column I Column II
1. Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection [Partial pressure of [Value in mm
2. Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts oxygen in] Hg]
3. HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis A Atmospheric air P 104
4. Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B B Alveoli Q 159
C Oxygenated blood R 95
D Tissues S 40
72.
Codes:
Match Column I with Column II for housefly
A B C D
classification and select the correct option using
the codes given below: 1. Q P S R
Column I Column II 2. P Q R S
A. Family (i). Diptera 3. P Q S R
B. Order (ii). Arthropoda 4. Q P R S
C. Class (iii). Muscidae
D. Phylum (iv). Insecta

1. A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii)

2. A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
3. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
4. A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

76. Two core techniques that enabled birth of
modern biotechnology are:
Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic
material, to introduce these into host
A.
organisms and thus change the phenotype of
the host organism.
Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical
engineering process to enable growth of
B. only the desired microbes/eukaryotic cell in
large quantities for the manufacture of
biotechnological products.
A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is
1.
called as Biophysical engineering.
A is called as Genomics and B is called as
2.
Bioprocess engineering.
A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is
3.
called as Bioprocess engineering.
A is called as Genomics and B is called as
4.
Biophysical engineering.
79. Given below are two statements: one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R):
The alimentary canal in frogs is
Assertion (A):
short.
Reason (R): Frogs are carnivores.
In the light of the above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
80. Intercalated discs are found in:
1. Cuboidal epithelium
2. Smooth muscles
3. Cardiac muscles
4. Sarcolemma

77. Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the
sounds produced during each cardiac cycle.
The second sound is heard when:
1. AV valves open up
Ventricular walls vibrate due to the gushing
2.
of blood from the atria
Semi-lunar valves close down after the blood
3.
flows into vessels from the ventricles
4. AV node receives a signal from SA node
78. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
considered safe up to how many weeks of
pregnancy? 1. Twelve weeks
2. Eighteen weeks
3. Six weeks
4. Eight weeks
81. The fungus used in the industrial
preparation of citric acid is:
1. Penicillium chrysogenum
2. Clostridium butylicum
3. Trichoderma harzianum
4. Aspergillus niger
82. A disease that can be caused by the loss of
the ability of the adaptive immunity to
differentiate between self and non-self will be:
1. Tuberculosis 2. Covid-19
3. Bronchial asthma 4. Rheumatoid arthritis
83. The ‘beads-on-string’ is the description used
for the structure of:
1. nucleolus in a nucleus
heterochromatic inactivated X chromosome
2.
in females
3. nucleosome in chromatin
4. tetrad of paired homologs in first meiosis

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84. Synapsis occurs between:
1. a male and a female gamete
2. mRNA and ribosomes
3. spindle fibres and centromere
4. two homologous chromosomes
88. Given below is the initial amino acids of the
beta chain of a haemoglobin molecule. What
will be true about this haemoglobin molecule?

85. The type of immunity responsible for graft

rejection is:
1. Humoral immunity
2. Cell mediated immunity
3. Innate immunity
4. Hyperimmunity

Zoology - Section B The RBCs carrying this molecule will

86. Some hormones can act on their target cells
through second messengers. Identify the one
that does not:
1. cortisol 2. adrenaline
3. FSH 4. calcitonin
87.
Unless one cuts the vector and
the source DNA with the same
Assertion (A): restriction enzyme, the
recombinant vector molecule
cannot be created.
Restriction enzymes cut the
strand of DNA a little away
from the centre of the
Reason (R):
palindrome sites, but never
between the same two bases on
the opposite strands.
1.
undergo sickling at a high oxygen tension
The RBCs carrying this molecule will
2.
undergo sickling at a low oxygen tension
There will be a quantitative decrease in the
3.
synthesis of this molecule
This is the normal beta chain of the
4.
haemoglobin molecule
89. Tadpoles are typically:
1. carnivorous 2. filter feeders
3. sanguinivorous 4. herbivorous
90. A normal cellular gene which when altered
by mutation can contribute to cancer is called:
1. Oncogene 2. V – Onc
3. Neoplastic gene 4. Proto-oncogene

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.

91. The similarity of bone structure in the
2. (A) is False and (R) is True.
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 1. Homology
3.
correct explanation of (A). 2. Analogy
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 3. Convergent evolution
4.
correct explanation of (A). 4. Adaptive radiation

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
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92. What would not be true for a plasmid 97. Consider the given statements regarding the
present in some bacterial cells?
1. It is extrachromosomal DNA
2. It is circular and double stranded
It gets replicated with the help of ori of
3.
chromosomal DNA
It confers characters like resistance to
4.
antibiotics to bacterial cells
human skull:
I: It has a total of 22 bones.
Cranial bones are 14 in number and the
II:
facial bones are 8 in number.
III: It is monocondylic.
A single hyoid bone is located at the base of
IV:
the buccal cavity.

The correct statements include:

93. In contrast to Annelids, Platyhelminths
show: 1. Only I 2. Only I and IV
1. Absence of body cavity 3. Only II and III 4. Only I, II, and IV
2. Presence of pseudocoelom
3. Radial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry 98. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
human reproductive system get blocked, the
94. Which of the following equations regarding gametes will not be transported from:
the calculation of pulmonary capacities would 1. epididymis to vas deferens
be correct? 2. ovary to uterus
1. IC = IRV – TV 2. EC = VC – IRV 3. vagina to uterus
3. VC = ERV + IRV 4. TLC = VC – RV 4. testis to epididymis

99. Consider the two statements:

95. Match each item in Column I with one in Both ADH and aldosterone
Column II and select the correct match from the Statement I: attempt to decrease urine
codes given: output.
Column I Column II A person with uncontrolled
A Lub P Closure of AV valves diabetes mellitus will have a
Statement II:
higher than normal solute
Closure of semilunar
B Dub Q concentration in the urine.
valves
Passive ventricular
C R 70 % Statement I is correct; Statement II is
filling 1.
incorrect
Active ventricular
D S 30 % Statement I is correct; Statement II is
filling 2.
correct
Codes:
Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is
A B C D 3.
correct
1. Q P S R
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2. P Q R S 4.
incorrect
3. P Q S R
4. Q P R S

96. The first drug produced using recombinant

DNA technology is used to treat:
1. haemophilia 2. dwarfism
3. immunodeficiency 4. diabetes

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 Biology Prodigy Test #11 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

100. Given below are two statements: One is

labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
With the help of several
ommatidia, a cockroach can
Assertion (A):
perceive several images of an
object, i.e., mosaic vision
Mosaic vision gives less
Reason (R):
sensitivity but more resolution
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
4.
the correct explanation of (A)

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