Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 4. Match the following columns and select the

correct option:-
1. Regeneration of which of the following is an Column I Column II
important role of fermentation in cellular Biocontrol agents of
respiration: (a) Dragonflies (i) several plant
1. NADH pathogens
2. NADP+ Bacillus
(b) (ii) Get rid of mosquitoes
3. NAD+ thuringiensis
4. NADPH Narrow spectrum
(c) Glomus (iii) insecticidal
2. All the following plants belong to family applications
Liliaceae except: Biocontrol agents of
1. Gloriosa (d) Baculoviruses (iv) lepidopteran plant
2. Aloe pests
3. Asparagus
Absorb phosphorus
4. Trifolium (v)
from soil
3. The number of correct statements amongst
the given is: Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
Parasitism has evolved in many 1. (iii) (v) (iv) (i)
Statement I: taxonomic groups from plants 2. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
to higher vertebrates. 3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Many parasites have evolved to 4. (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
Statement II: be host-specific and both tend to
co-evolve.
All parasites have only one 5. Consider the following statements:
Statement III: primary and one intermediate RNA is the genetic material of the QB
host. I:
bacteriophage.
Only a few of the parasites DNA chemically is less reactive and more
Statement IV: II:
harm their hosts. stable than RNA.
Viruses having RNA genomes and shorter
1. 1 2. 2 III:
life spans mutate & evolve slowly.
3. 3 4. 4
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only 2. I and III only

3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III

6. For the assimilation of one CO2 molecule in

C3 plants, the energy required in the form of
ATP and NADPH2 is:
1. 2 ATP & 2 NADPH2
2. 5 ATP & 3 NADPH2
3. 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
4. 18 ATP & 12 NADPH2

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

7. The floral diagram given below describes a 10. All the following given differences between
typical plant belonging to the family: fungi belonging to Phycomycetes and
Basidiomycetes are correct except:
Phycomycetes Basidiomycetes
Branched and Aseptate and
1. Mycelium
septate coenocytic
Asexual Zoospores or Generally not
2.
spores aplanospores found
Notable Bread mould Rust and Smut
3.
examples and Albugo fungi
Dikaryon
4. Not seen Present
stage

1. Gramineae
2. Malvaceae 11. Consider the two given statements:
3. Cruciferae The spread of living
4. Leguminosae pteridophytes is limited and
Assertion (A):
restricted to narrow
8. Which of the following is not a character of geographical regions.
Ascomycetes?
Pteridophytes are terrestrial
1. Mycelium is unbranched and septate
Reason (R): plants that possess vascular
Asexual spores conidia are produced tissues – xylem and phloem.
2.
exogenously
Sexual spores called ascospores are Both (A) and (R) are True and the
3. 1.
produced endogenously (R) correctly explains (A)
4. Conidia on germination produce mycelium 2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
9. Which of the following does not relate to 4.
correctly explain (A)
heterotrophic bacteria?
1. They are important decomposers.
They are helpful in making curd from milk, 12. The cambial ring in the dicot stem cuts:
2. production of antibiotics and fixing nitrogen
cells that mature into secondary xylem
in legume roots.
1. towards pith and into secondary phloem
Some are pathogens causing damage to towards periphery
3.
human beings, crops, farm animals and pets.
cells that mature into secondary xylem
Almost all help in recycling nutrients like 2. towards periphery and into secondary
4.
nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur. phloem towards pith
cells that mature into primary xylem
3. towards pith and into primary phloem
towards periphery
cells that mature into primary xylem
4. towards periphery and into primary phloem
towards pith

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

13. The genetic variation shown by the 18. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in 1. Autogamy and geitonogamy
different Himalayan ranges in terms of the 2. Geitonogamy and xenogamy
potency and concentration of the active 3. Cleistogamy and xenogamy
chemical (reserpine) that the plant produces is 4. Autogamy and xenogamy
an example of:
1. Genetic diversity 19. The flower cannot be divided into two
2. Species diversity similar halves by any vertical plane passing
3. Ecological diversity through the centre in:
4. Global diversity 1. Canna 2. Pea
3. Mustard 4. Datura
14. A bud is present in:
I: the axil of petiole in simple leaf
II: the axil of petiole in compound leaf 20. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select the correct match from the
III: the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf
codes given:
1. Only I and II are correct Column I Column II
2. Only I is correct A RNA polymerase I P hnRNA
3. Only II and III are correct
B RNA polymerase II Q 5SrRNA
4. Only II is correct
C RNA polymerase III R 5.8SrRNA
Codes:
A B C
15. Which one of the following is not an 1. R P Q
inclusion body found in prokaryotes? 2. P Q R
1. Phosphate granule
3. Q R P
2. Cyanophycean granule
3. Glycogen granule 4. R Q P
4. Polysome

16. What is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in

Eukaryotes?
1. Poly A tail
2. Methyl cytosine triphosphate
3. Methyl guanosine triphosphate
4. Poly U tail

17. Although all types of ecological pyramids

are generally upright, an inverted pyramid of
biomass can be found in:
1. Forest ecosystem
2. Marine ecosystem
3. Grassland ecosystem
4. Tundra ecosystem

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

21. The figure given below shows the 23. A and B in the given diagram respectively
conversions of a substrate into product by an show:
enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4),
the components of the reaction labelled as A, B,
C and D are identified correctly:

Options
A B C D
Male thallus of Marchantia and Female
Activation Activation 1.
thallus of Marchantia
Transition Potential energy energy
1. Female thallus of Marchantia and Male
state energy without with 2.
enzyme enzyme thallus of Marchantia
Activation Activation Male thallus of Funaria and Female thallus of
3.
Potential Transition energy energy Funaria
2. Female thallus of Funaria and Male thallus of
energy state with without 4.
enzyme enzyme Funaria
Activation Activation
energy Transition energy Potential
3. 24. Identify the correct statements:
with state without energy
enzyme enzyme Pacific salmon and bamboo breed many
I:
Activation Activation times during their lifetimes.
Potential Transition energy energy Birds and mammals breed many times
4.
energy state without with II: during their lifetimes and produce a small
enzyme enzyme number of large-sized offspring.
Oysters and pelagic fishes produce a large
III:
number of small-sized offspring.
22. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in
a field is: 1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III
1. 2, 4-D 3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III
2. IBA
3. IAA
4. NAA
25. In a cereal grain, the single cotyledon of the
embryo is represented by:
1. coleorhiza
2. scutellum
3. prophyll
4. coleoptiles

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

26. The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by 32. The outer hard layer of the pollen wall is
malonate is an example of: made up of:
1. Non-competitive reversible inhibition 1. Callose, which is easily digested by enzymes
2. Non-competitive irreversible inhibition Sporopollenin, which is resistant to all
3. Competitive inhibition 2.
enzymes
4. Allosteric inhibition
Hemicellulose, which is difficult to digest by
3.
enzymes
27. One scientist cultured Cladophora in a
suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated the 4. Calcium pectate, which is easily digested by
culture by splitting light through a prism. He enzymes
observed that bacteria accumulated mainly in
the region of:
1. Violet and green light 33. Root knot disease in tobacco is caused by:
2. Indigo and green light 1. Infective double stranded RNA
3. Orange and yellow light 2. Abnormally folded proteins
4. Blue and red light 3. Nematode Meloidogyne incognita
4. Nematode Caenorhabditis elegans
28. The meristem that helps grasses regenerate
parts removed by the grazing herbivores is the: 34. Function of filiform apparatus is to:
Shoot apical Root apical 1. Recognize the suitable pollen at the stigma
1. 2. 2. Stimulate division of generative cell
meristem meristem
3. Intercalary meristem 4. Lateral meristem 3. Producer nectar
4. Guide the entry of the pollen tube

29. In angiosperms, the pollen tub, carrying

male gametes, enters into the embryo sac 35. Match each item in Column I with one in
through the: Column II and select the correct match from the
1. chalaza codes given below:
2. nucellus Column I Column II
3. micropyle A Ashwagandha P Ornamental
4. funiculus
B Petunia Q Dilation of pupil
30. The correct chronological stages of the C Fumigatory R Medicine
Calvin cycle will be: D Atropa S Tobacco
1. Carboxylation → Reduction →Regeneration Codes:
2. Carboxylation → Regeneration →Reduction A B C D
3. Regeneration → Reduction → Carboxylation 1. R P S Q
4. Reduction → Regeneration → Carboxylation 2. R S P Q
3. P R S Q
4. Q P R S
31. Which of the following PGR is present in
coconut milk which is used in tissue culture?
1. Cytokinin
2. Auxin
3. Gibberellin
4. Ethylene

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section B
39. The cell cycle in a typical eukaryotic cell is
divided into:
36. Given below are two statements: one is 1. Five phases
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 2. Four phases
labelled as Reason (R): 3. Three phases
Heterospory in some 4. Two phases
pteridophytes paved the way
Assertion (A): 40. Identify the correct statement:
for the evolution of seeds in
higher plants. The coding strand in a transcription unit is
1.
The megaspores and copied to an mRNA.
microspores in heterosporous Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
2.
Reason (R): ferns give rise to female and prokaryotes.
male gametophytes In capping, methylguanosine triphosphate is
3.
respectively. added to the 3' end of hnRNA.
RNA polymerase binds with the Rho factor to
4. terminate the process of transcription in
In the light of the above statements choose the bacteria.
correct answer from the options given below:

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
41. Lysosomes:
are membrane bound vesicular
Statement I: structures formed in the rough
endoplasmic reticulum.
are very rich in almost all types
Statement II: of hydrolytic enzymes optimally
active at the basic pH.

37. Antirrhinum majus with pink flowers is Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is

crossed with Antirrhinum majus with white 1.
incorrect
flowers. What is the expected phenotypic ratio
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
in the progeny? 2.
correct
1. 1 [red] : 2 [pink] : 1 white
2. 3 [red] : 1 [white] Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
3. 1 [pink] : 1 [white] incorrect
4. 3 [pink] : 1 [white] Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4.
correct
38. After the two molecules of pyruvate,
produced at the end of glycolysis from one
molecule of glucose, enter the mitochondrial 42. The thalloid body of a slime mould
matrix and till the Krebs cycle is complete, (Myxomycetes) is known as:
which of the following will not be a correct 1. protonema
number of the corresponding molecule 2. Plasmodium
produced? 3. fruiting body
1. Eight molecules of NADH + H+ 4. mycelium
2. Two molecules of FADH2
43. The three steps of decomposition occur:
3. Two molecules of ATP 1. sequentially, with catabolism being the last
4. Four molecules of carbon dioxide step.
2. sequentially, with leaching being the last
step.
3. simultaneously.
4. sequentially, but not in a particular order.
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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

44. Which of the following statements about 48. Consider the two statements:
cork cambium is/are correct?
It usually develops in the cortex region and I: world is rich financially, but poor in
I:
is a couple of layers thick.
It cuts off cells on both sides where the
inner cells differentiate into cork and the
II:
outer cells differentiate into secondary
cortex.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
45. Identify the number of correct statements:
Polygenic inheritance takes into account
I:
the influence of the environment.
In a polygenic trait, the phenotype reflects
II: the contribution of each allele, i.e., the
effect of each allele is additive.
The normal distribution curve is bell-
III:
shaped in polygenic inheritance.
IV: It is also known as quantitative inheritance. 4. diploid egg
Most of the developing and underdeveloped
biodiversity and traditional knowledge.
Most of the industrialised nations are rich in
biodiversity and traditional knowledge
II:
related to bio-resources but poor in
biotechnology.
1. Statement I is correct.
2. Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
4.
incorrect.
49. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from:
1. synergids
2. maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3. antipodal cells

1. 0 2. 1 50. Given below are two statements: one is

3. 3 4. 4 labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Mendel's law of independent
46. A species whose distribution is restricted to assortment holds good for genes
Assertion (A):
a small geographical area because of the that are located closely on the
presence of a competitively superior species, is same chromosome.
found to expand its distributional range Closely located genes assort
Reason (R):
dramatically when the competing species is independently.
experimentally removed. This is called:
Competitive In the light of the above statements, choose the
1. 2. Competitive Release correct answer from the options given below:
Exclusion
Competitive Competitive 1. (A) is not correct and (R) is not correct
3. 4.
Supremacy Inclusion Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
2.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
3.
47. Which of the following is a heteropolymer? the correct explanation of (A)
1. Starch 4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
2. Cellulose
3. Glycogen
4. Insulin

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Zoology - Section A
55. Tendons and ligaments are examples of:
1. Loose connective tissue
51. In Ctenophora: 2. Dense irregular connective tissue
body bears eight external rows of ciliated 3. Dense regular connective tissue
a: 4. Specialized connective tissue
comb plates, which help in locomotion.
reproduction takes place only by asexual
b: 56. Match List - I with List – II:
means.
List – I List – II
digestion is both extracellular and
c: (a) Metamerism (i) Ctenophora
intracellular.
(b) Canal system (ii) Cnidaria
d: sexes are separate.
(c) Comb Plates (iii) Annelida
The correct statements are:
(d) Metagenesis (iv) Porifera
1. a and c only 2. b and d only Choose the correct answer from the options
3. a, b and c only 4. a, b and d only given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
52. Suppression of sperm motility and their 2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
fertilizing capacity is the specific mechanism of 3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
action of: 4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
1. Lippes loop 2. Multiload 375
3. LNG 20 4. Progestasert
57. Which of the following hormones are NOT
secreted in women only during pregnancy?
53. (a) Relaxin
Microinjection is the only way to (b) Oxytocin
Assertion(A): introduce alien DNA into host (c) hCG
animal cells. (d) hPL
Biolistics or gene gun is a (e) Progesterone
Reason(R): method more suitable for Choose the most appropriate answer from the
transforming plant cells. options given below:
1. (c) , (d) and (e) only
2. (b) and (e) only
1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. (b) , (c) and (d) only
2. (A) is False and (R) is True. 4. (a) , (c) and (d) only
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A). 58. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the extinct due to:
4.
correct explanation of (A). 1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Over-exploitation
3. Alien species invasion
54. In frogs: 4. Co-extinction
I: neck and tail are absent.
II: a pair of nostrils is present.
a membranous tympanum (ear) receives
III:
sound signals.
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

59. Match the items given Column I with those 63. Fertilisation in humans is practically
in Column II and select the correct option given feasible only if?
below: the ovum and sperms are transported
Column I Column II 1. simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic
(a) Tidal volume (i) 2500-3000 mL junction of the fallopian tube
Inspiratory 1100-1200 mL the ovum and sperms are transported
(b) (ii) 2. simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic
Reserve volume
Expiratory junction of the cervix
(c) (iii) 500-550 mL volume the sperms are transported into the cervix
Reserve
(d) Residual volume (iv) 1000-1100 mL 3. within 48 hrs of the release of the ovum in
the uterus
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d) the sperms are transported into the vagina
4. just after the release of the ovum in the
1. iii ii i iv
fallopian tube
2. iii i iv ii
3. i iv ii iii
4. iv iii ii i 64. Select the incorrect statement.
1. Glucagon is associated with hyperglycemia.
2. Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes.
60. Identify the incorrect statement: 3. Adrenaline will cause a decrease in blood
1. Each limb in humans has 30 bones. sugar level.
Metacarpals are 8 in number while the 4. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
2.
metatarsals are 7 in number.
65. Which of the following methods is
3. Patella forms the knee cap.
especially useful for transforming animal cells?
Femur is the longest bone in the human 1. Electroporation
4.
body. 2. Biolistics
3. Microinjection
4. Heat shock
61. Which of the following conditions causes
erythroblastosis fetalis? 66. A more conservative and scientifically
+ ve − ve
1. Mother Rh and fetus Rh sound estimate made by Robert May places the
− ve + ve
2. Mother Rh and fetus Rh global species diversity at about:
− ve
3. Both mother and fetus Rh 1. 1.8 million
4. Both mother and fetus Rh
+ ve
2. 7 million
3. 22.22 million
62. If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C DNA 4. 50 million
content in G1 phase, what would be the
corresponding values at the end of the S phase? 67. The ‘family planning’ programs in India
1. 2N, 2C were initiated in:
2. 4N, 2C 1. 1951
3. 2N, 4C 2. 1957
4. 4N, 4C 3. 1961
4. 1971

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

68. If you are writing the binomial name of an 72. Fossils are generally found in:
organism you should not: 1. Sedimentary rocks 2. Igneous rocks
1. write the name in italics 3. Metamorphic rocks 4. Any type of rock
2. separately underline them
3. start the genus name with a capital letter
4. start the specific epithet with a capital letter 73. The first restriction endonuclease whose
functioning depended on a specific DNA
nucleotide sequence was:
69. Identify the incorrect statement: 1. EcoR I
2. Hind II
The descending limb of loop of Henle is
1. 3. Hind I
permeable to water.
4. Sma I
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
2.
impermeable to water. 74. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an
The descending limb of loop of Henle is example of:
3.
freely permeable to electrolytes. 1. chromosomal aberration
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is 2. point mutation
4.
permeable to electrolytes. 3. polygenic inheritance
4. codominance

70. Under normal physiological conditions in 75. Match the items given in Column I with
humans, the amount of O2 every 100 ml of those in Column II and select the correct option
oxygenated blood can deliver to the tissues and given below:
the amount of CO2 every 100 ml of oxygenated Column I Column II
blood can deliver to the alveoli, respectively a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
will be: b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
1. 15 ml and 20 ml c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
2. 5 ml and 4 ml
3. 4 ml and 5 ml
a b c
4. 20 ml and 15 ml
1. iii ii i
71. Match each item in Column I [Barriers in 2. i ii iii
innate immunity] with one in Column II 3. i iii ii
[Example] and select your answer from the 4. ii iii i
codes given:
Column I Column II
A. Physical a. Skin and mucus membranes 76. In animal cells, steroidal hormones are
B. Physiological b. PMNL synthesized in the:
Acid in stomach and saliva 1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cellular c. 2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
in mouth
D. Cytokine d. Interferon 3. Golgi apparatus
4. Lysosomes
Codes

Options: A B C D 77. Low Ca2+ in the body fluid may be the cause
1. a b c d of:
2. d b c a 1. tetany
3. a c b d 2. anaemia
4. d c b a 3. angina pectoris
4. gout

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

78. Consider the two statements: 82. The discontinuously synthesized DNA
The negatively charged DNA is fragments are later joined by:
wrapped around the positively 1. DNA helicase 2. Topoisomerase
Statement I:
charged histone octamer to form 3. DNA ligase 4. DNA polymerase
a structure called a nucleosome.
A typical nucleosome contains
Statement II:
200 bp of DNA helix. 83. Widal test is done for the diagnosis of:
1. Pneumonia
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. Typhoid
1. 3. Syphilis
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 4. AIDS
2.
correct
84. Prosthetic groups are distinguished from
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. other cofactors in that they are:
incorrect
1. tightly bound to the apoenzyme
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. inorganic compounds
4.
incorrect 3. metal ions
4. vitamins

79. Consider the given two statements: 85. Match List I with List II
Statement The frog never drinks water but List-I List-II
I: absorb it through the skin.
A. CCK I. Kidney
Statement In frog, the skin is always
B. GIP II. Heart
II: maintained in a moist condition.
C. ANF III. Gastric gland
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
correct D ADH IV. Pancreas
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is Choose the correct answer from the options
incorrect given below:
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
correct 1. IV II III I
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. IV III II I
incorrect 3. III II IV I
4. II IV I III
80. The contraceptive 'SAHELI':
1. is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill.
increases the concentration of estrogen and
2.
prevents ovulation in females Zoology - Section B
3. is an lUD 86. E. Coli about to replicate was placed in a
4. is a post-coital contraceptive medium containing radioactive thymidine for
five minutes. Then, it was made to replicate in a
normal medium. Which of the following
81. A tumor that invades surrounding tissues is observation shall be correct?
usually capable of producing metastases, may 1. Both strands of DNA will be radioactive
recur after attempted removal, and is likely to 2. One strand is radioactive
cause death unless adequately treated. Such a
3. Each strand is half radioactive
tumor is called a:
4. None is radioactive
1. Benign tumor 2. Malignant tumor
3. Teratoma 4. Secondary tumor

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

87. If you want to isolate DNA from a fungal 90. Common cold differs from pneumonia in,
cell, the enzyme that should not be used for the that:
purpose is: Pneumonia is a communicable disease,
1. Protease 1. whereas common cold is a nutritional
2. RNase deficiency disease
3. DNase Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
4. Chitinase 2. attenuated bacterial vaccine, whereas the
common cold has no effective vaccine
88. What is correct for the hormone whose
Common cold is caused by a virus, while
mechanism of action is shown in the given 3.
Pneumonia is caused by a bacterium.
diagram?
Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas
4. common cold affects the nose and the
respiratory passage but not the lungs

91. Match each item in Column I with one in

Column II and select the correct match from the
codes given:
Column I Column II
Extinct reptile group crocodiles
A P Therapsids
are descendents of
Extinct reptile group mammals
B Q 350 mya
are descendents of
The dinosaurs suddenly
C R Thecodonts
disappeared from the earth
Jawless fish probably evolved
This hormone will most likely be synthesized D S 65 mya
1. around
by the neural cells of the hypothalamus
Codes:
This hormone cannot be thyroxin or
2. A B C D
triiodothyronine
This hormone can be a derivative of 1. P R Q S
3. 2. R P S Q
cholesterol
This hormone will have an almost 3. P R S Q
4.
instantaneous onset of action 4. R P Q S

89. Regarding type of epithelium:

The bronchioles and fallopian tubes are
I:
lined with ciliated epithelium
The alveoli are lined with stratified
II:
squamous epithelium.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

92. The number of correct statements regarding 94. Select the correct events that occur during
cloning vectors amongst the given statements inspiration.
is: a. Contraction of diaphragm
Bacteriophages because of their high b Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
number per cell, have very high copy c. Pulmonary volume decreases
I. d. Intra pulmonary pressure increases
numbers of their genome within the
bacterial cells. 1. (c) and (d)
If one wants to recover many copies of the 2. (a), (b) and (d)
II. target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector 3. only (d)
whose origin supports high copy number. 4. (a) and (b)
A selectable marker helps in identifying
95. Consider the following two statements:
and eliminating non-transformants and
III. Statement Red fibres are ‘red’ due to large
selectively permits the growth of the
transformants. I: amount of myoglobin.
Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens Statement Red muscles are also called as
has now been modified into a cloning II: aerobic muscles.
vector which is no more pathogenic to the
IV. Both Statement I and Statement II are
plants but is still able to use mechanisms to
deliver genes of our interest into a variety 1. correct and Statement II explains
of plants. Statement I
Retroviruses in animals have the ability to Both Statement I and Statement II are
transform normal cells into cancerous cells 2. correct but Statement II does not explain
V. Statement I
and hence can never be used as a cloning
vector in rDNA procedures. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
3.
incorrect
1. 2 2. 3 Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
4.
3. 4 4. 5 correct

93. Consider the following statements regarding 96. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase
roundworms: of the menstrual cycle because :
Alimentary canal is complete Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
1.
Statement I: with a well-developed muscular ovulation
pharynx. 2. FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
An excretory tube removes 3. LH levels are high in the luteal phase
body wastes from the body Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal
Statement II: 4.
cavity through the excretory phase
pore.
They are dioecious and males
Statement III:
are longer than females.
The incorrect statement is/are:
1. Only Statement II
2. Only Statement III
3. Only Statement I and Statement II
4. Only Statement II and Statement III

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 Biology Prodigy Test #12 (Full Syllabus)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

97. Arteries are best defined as the vessels 100. Given below are two statements: one is
which: labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R):
carry blood away from the heart to different Frogs are at their most
1.
organs vulnerable to predators when
Assertion (A):
break up into capillaries which reunite to they are undergoing
2. metamorphosis.
form a vein
carry blood from one visceral organ to At this time, the tail is being lost
3. and locomotion by means of
another visceral organ Reason (R):
supply oxygenated blood to the different limbs is only just becoming
4. established.
organs
In the light of the above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
98. How many of the given statements are 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
correct? correct explanation of (A).
The left and right cerebral hemispheres are 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
I: connected by a tract of nerve fibres called correct explanation of (A).
corpus spongiosum. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Association areas are neither clearly 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
II:
sensory nor motor in function.
Thalamus is a major coordinating centre
III:
for sensory and motor signaling.

IV:
The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum Fill OMR Sheet*
and medulla.
Three major regions make up the brain *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
V: stem: mid brain, pons and medulla from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
oblongata. there
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

99. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will CLICK HERE to get

not cause the release of?
1. Atrial natriuretic factor FREE ACCESS for 2
2. Aldosterone
3. ADH days of ANY
4. Renin
NEETprep course

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