Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division
SECTION–A– [Part–1] b. Unicellular organisms are capable of independent
1. Gas vacuole are found in : existence (1) Red algae c. Unicellular organisms are capable of performing (2) Brown algae the essential function of life. (3) Virus Choose the option : (4) Purple and blue green photosynthetic bacteria (1) Only a and b 2. Which among the following is not a prokarotic (2) Only b anc c cell: (3) Only a (1) Bacteria (4) Only c (2) Blue green algae 7. Na+/K+ Pump is a example of : (3) Mycoplasma (1) Passive transport (4) Yeast (2) Active transport 3. Given below are two statements : (3) Osmosis Statement I : (4) None of these All living organisms are composed of cells and the 8. Which is a mismatched pair products of cell. (1) Capsule – Thick and tough glycocalyx Statement II : (2) Slime layer – Loose glycocalyx Some cell arises from pre-existing cells. (3) Pili – Motility organ In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Bacterial cells – Motile or non – motile correct answer from the options given below 9. Which of the following statements is not correct : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect in the endoplasmic reticulum (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (2) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active 4. Given below are two statements : one is labelled under acidic pH as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (4) Lysosomes are membrane-bound structures (R) 10. Match the column I with column II Assertion (A) Column I Column II The fluid filled matrix filling the cell is the cytoplasm. a. Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of protein Reason (R) b. Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and The genetics material basically nacked and not excretory products enveloped by a nuclear membrane in yeast. c. Vacuoles (iii) Formation of glyco In the light of the above statements, choose the proteins and glycolipids correct answer from the options given below : d. Ribosomes (iv) Digesting (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct biomolecules explanation of (A) Choose the right match from option given below : (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i) explanation of (A) (4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii) 5. If a prokaryotic cell has tubules and lamellaes 11. Select the mismatch which are the extension or extended form of plasma (1) Gas vacuoles - Green bacteria membrane then what is the name and function of (2) Large central vacuoles - Animal cells that structure: (3) Protists - Eukaryotes (1) Vesicles; DNA replication and Transcription (4) Methanogens - Prokaryotes (2) Chromatophores; cell wall formation 12. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is (3) Mesosome; cell wall formation, help in respiration chiefly regulated by and secretion (1) Mitochondria (4) Both 1 and 2 (2) Vacuoles 6. Which among the statement is incorrect : (3) Plastids a. Basic unit of life is the cell in some living (4) Ribosomes organism
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 1|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division 13. Which of the following is true regarding (1) DNA prokaryotes (2) Mitochondria (1) Cell wall surrounding the cell membrane is present (3) RNA (2) Genetic material not enveloped by nuclear mem (4) Cell membrane brane 20. Given below are two statements : (3) Small circular DNA present outside genomic DNA Statement I : that confers unique features to bacteria The organisation of the prokaryotic cell is fundamentally (4) All are true similar even though prokaryotes exhibit a wide variety of 14. Bacteria are divided into Gram positive and shape and function. negative on the basis of Statement II : (1) Differences in cell envelopes Some prokaryotes have cell wall surrounding the cell (2) Manner in which they respond to Gram’s stain membrane except in mycoplasma. (3) Craetes diseases in human In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Both 1 and 2 correct answer from the options given below 15. Function of mesosome in prokaryotes is (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) Cell wall formation, respiration (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) DNA replication& distribution to daughter cells (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) Secretion processes, increase surface area of en (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct zymatic content and plasma membrane 21. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (4) All of these as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason 16. Which of the following is not true (R) (a) depending on ease of extraction peripheral and Assertion (A) integral two types of protein are present in cell Beside flagella, Pili and Fimbriae are also surface emmbrane structure of the bacteria play a role in motility. (b) peripheral protein lie on surface of membrane Reason (R) (c) integral protein are partially or totally buried in Pili & Pimbriae both structure made up of special membrane protein. (d) ratio of protein and lipids remains same in In the light of the above statements, choose the different type of cells correct answer from the options given below : (1) a and d not true (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (2) d not true explanation of (A) (3) all are true (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) b,c and d not true (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 17. Which of the following scientist explained that (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct cells divided and new cells are formed from pre explanation of (A) existing cells : 22. Which of the following is not includes in (1) Schwann endomembrane system : (2) Schleiden (a) Golgi apparatus (3) Robert Brown (b) Endoplasmic Reticulum (4) Rudolf virchow (c) Mitochondria 18. Read the following statement and give correct (d) Lysosome answer regarding bacterial cell (1) a only (a) Glycocalyx is the outermost envelope in bacteria (2) a and d only (b) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called (3) c only capsule (4) d only (c) The glycocalyx may be the thick and tough 23. Which of the following structure is an organelle called slime layer within an organelle : (1) a correct (1) Mesosome (2) a, b correct (2) Mitochondria (3) a, c correct (3) Ribosome (4) b correct (4) Lysosome 19. Which of the following is absent in Prokaryotes :
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 2|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division 24. Which of the following present only on outer (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i side of membrane in given diagram. (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 30. Which of the following is involved in the formation of primary lysosomes : (1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosome (3) Chloroplast (4) Golgi complex 31. The fluid nature of the membrane helps in : (1) Cell growth, secretion (2) Cell division (3) Formation of intercellular junctions (1) A (4) All of the above (2) A, C 32. The arrangement of lipid molecule in plasma (3) B membrane found as: (4) A, B (1) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophilic 25. Which of the following does not differ in E.coli tails towards the inner side and Spirogyra : (2) Tails towards the outer side while polar head (1) Ribosome towards the inner side (2) Cell wall (3) Polar head towards the outer side and hydrophobic (3) Cell membrane tails towards the inner side (4) Mitochondria (4) Arranged alternatively with amino acids 26. Non-polar tail of the lipid layer is made up of : 33. What is the percentage of lipid and protein in (1) Saturated hydrocarbon human erythrocyte respectively : (2) Nucleotide chain (1) 50% , 40% (3) Polypeptide chain (2) 52%, 40% (4) Glycoprotein (3) 40%, 52% 27. Match the following scientists with their (4) 80%, 40%. discovery and research year. 34. In which among the following cell organelle, a) 1838 i- Matthias Schleiden steroidal hormones are being synthesised in animal b) 1839 ii- Theodore Schwann cells : c) 1954 iii- Rudolf Virchow (1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) 1855 iv- G. N. Ramachandran (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) Golgi complex (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (4) Vacuoles. (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 35. Match the following columns : (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii Column I Column II 28. Which of the following cellular organelle is the a. Bacteria i. 0.02 - 0.2 m site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids : b. PPLO ii. 0.1 m (1) Peroxisomes c. Viruses iii. 10 - 20 m (2) Mitochondria d. Eukaryotic cell iv. 1 - 2 m (3) Golgi apparatus (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (4) Chloroplast (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 29. Match the column I and column II (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii Column I Column II (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv a) 1-2 m i) Typical bacteria b) 0.2 to 1.0m ii) Diameter of SECTION–B– [Part–1] mitochondria 36. True regeneration – a fragmented organism c) 3-5 m iii) Size of bacteria regenerate the lost part of body and become a new d) 2-4m iv) Chloroplast width individual occurs in : (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (1) Roundworm (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) Planaria
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 3|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (3) Both (1) and (2) 42. Match the different types of spores listed under (4) Earthworm column-I with the names of the organisms given 37. Match the following column I and column II : under column-II Column I Column II Column-I Column-II (i) Mango (a) Felis Spores Organisms (ii) Leopard (b) Mangifera indica a. Ascospores f. Agaricus (iii) Tiger (c) Panthera pardus b. Basidiospores g. Yeast (iv) Cat (d) Panthera tigris c. Zygospores h. Rhizopus (1) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a d. Conidia i. Pencillium (2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b (1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i (3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a (2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i (4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d (3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f 38. In a zoological parks, what is incorrect : (4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i (1) Dead animal are preserved 43. Which of the following organisms are not (2) Dead plants are preserved included in the five kingdom system of (3) Both 1 and 2 classification (4) Living animals are kept in protected environment (1) Chrysophytes, viroids, lichens 39. Find out the incorrect statements : (2) Bacteriophages, Dinoflagellates, lichens (a) Isolated metabolic reactions can be demon (3) Bacteriophages, viroids, Lichens strated in invitro are not living things (4) Viroids, slime moulds, fungi (b) All living organisms have ability to sense their 44. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by surroundings (1) Prions (c) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal (2) Viroids and non seasonal breeders (3) Virus (1) Only a, b, c (4) Bacteriophage (2) Only c 45. The cell wall of plants is made up of : (3) Only b, c (1) Hemicellulose + pectin (4) Only a, d (2) Hemicellulose + lipids + proteins 40. Following are some characteristics of a specific (3) Hemicellulose + pectin + cellulose + protein group. Considered the characters and identify the (4) Hemicellulose + Chitin respective group : 46. What is the function of polysomes : i. Majority of them are fresh water (1) Translates DNA into proteins ii. Pellicle is present (2) Translates m-RNA into proteins iii. Two flagella present (3) Translates r-RNA into carbohydrate (1) Chrysophyta (4) Translate m-RNA into DNA. (2) Slime moulds 47. This diagram is not centriole because : (3) Euglenoids (4) Mycoplasma 41. Which is the following is incorrect about basidiomycetes: (a) Also called bracket fungi (b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative cells of different genotypes (c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside the basidium (1) Common sheath present (d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously (2) Central tubule present (1) Only a and b are correct (3) Bridge present (2) Only b and c are correct (4) All of these (3) Only a, b, c and d all are correct 48. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in (4) Only c amoeboid movement is:
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 4|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (1) Microfilament (3) Chlorophyll pigments are present in the thylakoids (2) Microtubule (4) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks like the piles of (3) Inter mediated filament coins called grana (4) All of these 55. Membrane–bound organelles are absent in : 49. Who among the following saw and described a (1) Streptococcus living cell first time : (2) Mature RBC of Human (1) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (3) Both (2) Robert Brown (4) Human WBC (3) Matthias Schleiden 56. Polysome is formed by : (4) Theodore Schwann (1) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear 50. A cell organelle X is divided by binary fission arrangement and other cell organelle Y that help in the protein (2) Several ribosomes attahced to a single mRNA synthesis. Identify X and Y respectively : (3) One ribosomes attahced to a single mRNA (1) E. R and Ribosome (4) A ribosome with several subunits (2) Ribosome and E.R 57. Select the wrong statement from the following : (3) E.R and mitochondria (1) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner (4) Mitochondria and ribosome and an outer membrane (2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal SECTION–A– [Part–2] compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the 51. Which of the following structure play a role in thylakoid membrane in both motility of bacteria : (3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA (1) Fimbriae and Pili (4) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than (2) Flagella mitochondria (3) Mesosome 58. The chromosomes in which centromere is (4) 1 and 2 both situated close to one end are : 52. Match the following (1) Telocentric a) 90 percent i) Vacuols occupy (2) Sub-metacentric Volume of the plant cell (3) Metacentric b) 0.5m ii) Average diameter of (4) Acrocentric. mitochondria 59. In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, beside c) 20-40 per cell. iii) Number of chloroplast mesosome other membranous extensions into in mesophyll cell cytoplasm is/are : d) 9 pairs of doublets iv) Axoneme of cilia (1) Golgibody e) 10 to 50 nm v) Space between two (2) Chromatophores nuclear membrane (3) Ribosome (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (4) Mitochondria (2) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii 60. The number of mitochondria per cell is variable, (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i depending on : (4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii (1) Size of cells 53. Tonoplast is differentially permeable membrane (2) Shape of cells surrounding the : (3) Physiological activity of cells (1) Mitochondria (4) Type of genes present in mt DNA (2) Cytoplasm 61. Mesosome are formed by : (3) Vacuole (1) Pre- existing (4) Nucleus (2) Mitochondria 54. Which among the following statement is (3) Cell membrane incorrect: (4) Plastids (1) Majority of the chloroplasts of the green plants are 62. Which of the following incorrect option found in the mesophyll cells of the leaves. (1) Lipids are generally water insoluble (2) The chloroplasts is double membrane bound the (2) Fatty acids could be saturated inner chloroplast membrane is relatively more (3) Fatty acids could be unsaturated permeable (4) Glycerol is dihydroxy Propane
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 5|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division 63. Which of the following correct option (1) Lipid are small molecular weight and found into (a) Lipids could be simple fatty acid structure of cell membrane (b) Neural tissue have lipids (2) Lipid are not strictly macromolecule (c) Glycerol is a simple lipid (3) Protein are polypeptides (d) Lipids have glycerol and fatty acid (4) Dietary protein are not the source of essential amino (1) Only (a) and (b) acid (2) Only (c) and (d) 71. Match the column : (3) All a,b,c,d Column A Column B (4) Only b,c,d i- Collagen a- Fight infection 64. Which of the following incorrect option : against microbes (1) Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine Nitrogen ii- GLUT - 4 b- Inter cellular ground base substances (2) Nitrogen base + Sugar Nucleoside iii- Anti body c- Sensory receptor (3) Nitrogen base + Sugar + Phosphate Nucleotide iv- Receptor d- Enables glucose (4) Nitrogen base + Phosphate Nucleoside transport into cells 65. Which of the following incorrect option : (1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (1) Carotenoids and anthocyanin are secondary (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a metabolites. (3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (2) Carotenoids and anthocyanin Pigment (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b 72. Which of the following correct statement (3) Rubber, Gum, Cellulose Drugs (1) Adenine and thymine are substituent of purines (4) Rubber, Gum, Cellulose Polymeric substance (2) Homocyclic ring is purine and heterocyclic ring is 66. Amount of oxygen present in human body as % pyrimidine weight is : (3) For nucleic acid, building block is a nucleotide (1) 65 (4) Sugar of RNA is called '2' deoxy ribose sugar (2) 18.5 73. Which of the following statements is/are correct: (3) 3.3 (i) Tertiary structure is neccessary for biological (4) 1.5 activity of protein 67. Correct statement about lipid : (ii) Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of second a. These are generally water soluble ary structures b. Lecithin is a sulpholipid (iii) Haemoglobin is an example of quaternary c. Glycerol is trihydric alcohol structure d. Phospholipid are found in cell membrane (iv) In primary structure of protein the first amino (1) Only a, b, c acid is called as N–terminal amino acid and the last (2) Only a, c and d one is called C–terminal amino acid (3) Only c, b, d (1) ii only (4) Only c, d (2) i and iv only 68. Which of the following is nucleotide : (3) i only (1) Thymidine (4) i, ii, iii and iv (2) Cytidine 74. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (3) Uridine as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (4) Adenylic acid (R) Assertion (A) A non-living rigid structure called cell wall an inner covering for the plasma membrane of fungi and plants. 69. This amino acids is : Reason (R) (1) Glycine Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell but also protect (2) Alanine the cell from mechanical damage and infection. (3) Serine In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Arginine correct answer from the options given below : 70. Which of the following statement is wrong : (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 6|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (d) Co-factor is a NAD and FAD (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) Only a, b (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (2) Only a, d explanation of (A) (3) Only c, d 75. Given below are two statements : one is labelled (4) Only a, b, c and d as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason 80. Enzyme which catalyses the linking together of (R) two compounds is : Assertion (A) (1) Hydrogenase Algae have a cell wall. (2) Transferase Reason (R) (3) Ligases Cell wall of algae made of cellulose, galactans, (4) Lyases. mannans and minerals like almunium sulphate 81. Elemental analysis of earth crust and In the light of the above statements, choose the livingorganism reveals that living organism have correct answer from the options given below : (1) Higher abundance of C and H as compared to (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct earth’s crust explanation of (A) (2) Lower abundance of C and H as compared to earth’s (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct crust (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (3) Equal amount of C and H as compared to earth’s (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct crust explanation of (A) (4) All of these 76. Correct for DNA double helical structure : 82. If a living tissue is grinded in trichloroacetic acid (a) Each step ascent in DNA is = 3.4Å in pestle and mortar and then filtered through (b) Turn of helical strand involve – 10 step cheesecloth, the acid soluble portion will come in (c) Distance between two successive base pair is – (1) Filtrate 3.4Å (2) Retentate (d) Pitch of helix is – 38Å (3) No acid soluble portion will be there (1) Only a, b, c, d (4) Both 2 and 3 (2) Only a, b, c 83. Analysis of a compound gives an idea of the (3) Only a, b, d kind of (4) Only c, d (1) Organic constituents 77. Functional enzymes have which level of protein (2) Inorganic constituents organisation: (3) Both 1 and 2 o (1) 1 (4) None of these o 84. Amino acids are organic compounds containing (2) 2 (3) 3 o an amino group and an acidic group on same (4) 4 o _______ carbon (1) Beta 78. Three of the following statements about (2) Alpha enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is (3) Gamma wrong: (4) Delta (1) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity 85. The chemical and physical properties of amino (2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in acids are due to certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at (1) Amino group temperatures 80°– 90°C (2) Carboxyl group (3) Enzymes are highly specific (3) R functional group (4) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids (4) All of these 79. Which one of the following correct statement : SECTION–B– [Part–2] (a) Prosthetic group are organic compound 86. Which of the following are aromatic amino acids (b) Proteineous portion of enzyme is called apo (a) Tryptophan enzyme +2 (b) Tyrosine (c) Zn is a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme (c) Phenylalanine carboxypeptidase (d) Histidine
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 7|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (1) all of these e. Antedon v. Hook worm (2) a,b,c (1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i (3) a and b only (2) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-iv, e-ii (4) b and c only (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-v 87. Palmitic and arachidonic acid have how many (4) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii carbons excluding carboxyl carbon 93. Which is a correct matching set : (1) 16,18 Column I Column II (2) 16,20 a. Metamerism i. Canal system (3) 15,19 constituent (4) 15,20 b. Spongocoel ii. Leech 88. Class of alga which show c. Acoelomate iii. Spongilla a. The form and size of thallus is highly variable d. Fresh water sponge iv. Platyhelminthes b. Structure of chloplasts is also various types (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii c. All types of sexual reproduction is found (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) Chlorophyceae (3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) Phaeophyceae (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (3) Rhodophyceae 94. Choose the correct : (4) Cyanophyceae (1) Exocoetus - False fish 89. Floridean starch is the stored food in (2) Scoliodon - Cat fish a. Fucus (3) Petromyzon - Lamprey b. Volvox (4) Trygon - Sea horse c. Chara 95. Air bladder regulate buoyancy present in : d. Polysiphonia (1) Labeo (1) a, d (2) Saw fish (2) c, b (3) Dog fish (3) d (4) both 1 and 3 (4) a, b 96. Platypus is : 90. Read the following statements regarding (1) Oviparous only Marchantia (2) Oviparous and homoiothermal a. Is unisexual (3) Oviparous, poikilothermal and development indirect b. Has antheridiophore and archegoniophore (4) Oviparous, homoiothermal, development indirect c. Foot and seta in its sporophyte absent and Radial symmetry. d. Is heterosporous in nature 97. In lipids glycerol and fatty acids are joined by Which of these statements are correct (1) Esterification (1) a and b (2) Glycosidic linkage (2) c and d (3) Aldehyde (3) a, b and c (4) Peptide bond (4) b and c 98. Which of the following is a phospholipid 91. Natural classification system took under (1) Gingely oil consideration which features : (2) Lecithin (1) External features, anatomy, embryology only (3) Palmitic acid (2) Morphology, embryology, phytochemistry only (4) Arachidonic acid (3) Ultra structure, anatomy, embryology, 99. Phosphate group is attached to nucleoside by phytochemistry only (1) Phosphoester bond (4) External features, ultra structure, anatomy, (2) Glycosidic bond embryology, phytochemistry. (3) Ether bond 92. Match the following columns : (4) Both 1 and 2 Column-A Column-B 100. Which of the following is not a nucleoside a. Ascaris i. King crab (1) Adenosine and guanosine b. Ancylostoma ii. Sea lily (2) Thymidine and cytidine c. Physalia iii. Round worm (3) Uridylic acid d. Limulus iv. Portuguese man of war (4) All are nucleoside
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 8|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division SECTION–A– [Part–3] (1) Apoenzyme, cofactor 101. The given diagram A and B respectively (2) Cofactor, apoenzyme (3) Cofactor, cofactor (4) Apoenzyme, apoenzyme, 109. Given below are two statements : Statement I : The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for (1) Ribose sugar and glycine synthesis of lipid. (2) Fructose and alanine Statement II : (3) Glucose and alanine In animal cells lipid-like steroidal harmones are (4) Ribose and alanine synthesised in SER. 102. The acid soluble pool have molecular weight In the light of the above statements, choose the ranging from correct answer from the options given below (1) 18-8000 daltons (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) 18-800 daltons (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) 8-18000 daltons (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both 2 and 3 (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct 103. Which of the following is the most abundant 110. Glycogen is a homopolymer made of protein in whole biosphere (1) Glucose units (1) RubisCO (2) Galactose units (2) Collagen (3) Ribose units (3) Keratin (4) Aminoacids (4) Myoglobin 111. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and 104. In our skeletal muscle during anaerobic NADP contain the vitamin niacin are example of condition glucose gets converted into (1) Prosthetic groups (1) Lactic acid (2) Co-enzymes (2) Ethanol (3) Metal ions. (3) Acetic acid (4) All of these (4) None of these 112. Concanavalin A is : 105. Biological enzymes differ from inorganic (1) A pigment catalyst as inorganic catalyst work efficiently at (2) An alkaloid (1) High temperature (3) An essential oil (2) High pressure (4) A lectin (3) Enzymes damage of high temperature except 113. "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the isolated from thermophilic organism. structure of : (4) 1 and 2 (1) RNA 106. In the absence and presence of enzyme (2) Proteins number of carbonic acid formed by CO2 and H2O are (3) Triachylglycerides (1) 200 - 6,00,000 /sec (4) DNA (2) 200 - 6,000 /sec 114. Which of the following statement is correct with (3) 200/hr - 6,00,000 /hr reference to enzymes : (4) 200/hr - 6,00,000 /sec (1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme 107. Many elements are found in living organisms (2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme either free or in the form of compounds. One of the (3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor following is negligible, found in living organisms. (4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme. (1) Silicon 115. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is (2) Magnesium (1) Lysozyme (3) Iron (2) Ribozyme (4) Sodium (3) Ligase 108. In holoenzyme protein and non protein part are (4) Deoxyribonuclease. respectively 116. Which one of the following statements is wrong (1) Uracil is a pyrimidine.
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 9|P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (2) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid. (3) Early metaphase (3) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (4) Late metaphase (4) Cellulose is a polysaccharide. 125. Match the following : 117. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is Column – I Column – II formed by the polymerisation of a. Metaphase i. Initiation of condensation (1) N - acetyl glucosamine of chromosomal material (2) Lipoglycans b. Interphase ii. Nuclear envelop (3) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate assembles around the (4) D - glucosamine. chromosome clusters 118. Select the option which is not correct with c. Telophase iii. Chromosomes arranged respect to Co-factor. at equatorial plate (1) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is d. Prophase iv. The phase between two removed from the enzyme successive M-phase (2) Cofactor play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv the enzyme. (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d- iii (3) Three kinds of cofactors may be identified: prosthetic (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii groups, apoenzymes and metal ions. (4) a- iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) Three kinds of cofactors may be identified: prosthetic 126. Which of the following statements are true groups, Co-enzymes and metal ions. about telophase : 119. The essential chemical components of many (a) Nuclear envelope assembles around the coenzymes are chromosome clusters. (1) Carbohydrates (b) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform (2) Vitamins (c) Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles (3) Proteins (d) Chromosomes arranged at equator (4) Nucleic acids. (1) only a and b are correct 120. Which of the following is not a Toxins (2) a, b and d are correct (1) Vinblastin (3) a, b and c are correct (2) Abrin (4) a,b,c,d all are correct (3) Ricin 127. Meiosis involves : (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division 121. A competitive inhibitor of succinic (2) Three sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division dehydrogenase is (3) Two sequential cycles of nuclear and three cell (1) -ketoglutarate divisions (2) Succinic acid (4) One sequential cycle of nuclear and cell division (3) Malonate 128. Terminalization, synaptonemal complex, (4) Oxaloacetate chiasmata, these terms are related to : 122. Anthocyanins is a (1) Mitosis (1) Alkaloid (2) Meiosis I (2) Pigment (3) Meiosis II (3) Toxin (4) All of these (4) Drug 129. Given below are two statements : one is 123. In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole Reason (R) duplicates in the : Assertion (A) (1) Nucleus Proteins are polypeptides. (2) Nucleolus Reason (R) (3) Both 1 and 2 Proteins are linear chains of amino acid linked by (4) Cytoplasm hydrogen bond. 124. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to In the light of the above statements, choose the disappear at: correct answer from the options given below : (1) Early prophase (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (2) Late anaphase explanation of (A)
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 10 | P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii, e-v (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct SECTION–B– [Part–3] explanation of (A) 136. How many meiotic division would be required 130. Given below are two statements : to produced 101 female gametophyte in Statement I : angiosperms N - acetyl galactosamine have chemically modified (1) 26 sugars. (2) 101 Statement II : (3) 127 Endoskeletons of arthropods have a complex (4) 202 polysaccharide. 137. Which stage is characterised by the In the light of the above statements, choose the appearance of recombination nodules correct answer from the options given below (1) Pachytene (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Zygotene (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) Diakinesiss (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Diplotene (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct 138. Most of the organelle duplication occurs during 131. Synapsis occurs between : (1) G1-phase (1) Two non-homologous chromosome (2) S-phase (2) mRNA and ribosomes (3) G2-phase (3) Spindle fibres and centromere (4) M-phase (4) Two homologous chromosome 139. Ligament connects 132. Electron micrographic view of which stage of (1) Bone to bone prophase–I will show clear tetrad : (2) Muscle to muscle (1) Leptotene (3) Bone to muscle (2) Pachytene (4) None of the these (3) Zygotene 140. Identify A, B, C and D in the following diagram : (4) Diplotene 133. Recombination is completed by which stage in meiosis: (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (3) Pachytene (4) None of these 134. The characteristic feature of diplotene stage of (1) A–Axon, B–Cell body with nucleus, C–Dendrite, meiosis-I is recognized by : D–Neuroglea (1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (2) A–Cell body with nucleus, B–Axon, C–Dendrite, (2) Homologous chromosomes of bivalent start separate D–Neuroglea from each other (3) A–Axon, B–Neuroglea, C–Dendrite, D–Cell body (3) X-shaped structure chiasmata formed with nucleus (4) All of the above (4) A–Cell body with nucleus, B–Axon, C–Neuroglea, 135. Match the following columns : D–Dendrite Column – I Column – II 141. In connective tissue cartilage, bone, adipose, a. G1 i. Liquid endosperm in and blood, which one of the following do not coconut secrete fibres b. Diplotene ii. Chiasmata (1) Cartilage c. Syncytium iii. Recombinase (2) Bone d. Crossing over iv. Quiescent stage (3) Adipose e. Go v. Gap First (4) Blood (1) a-v, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-iv 142. Least regenration power found in the tissue (2) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-iii (1) Connective tissue (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 11 | P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (2) Epithelial tissue moved to spindle equator (3) Neural tissue (b) Centromere splits ii. Metaphase (4) None of these (c) Pairing between iii. Pachytene 143. Which is a correct matching set Homologous chromosomes Column I Column II (d) Crossing over iv. Zygotene (a) Compound epithelium (i) Tendon between homologous (b) Exocrine gland (ii) Without duct chromosomes (c) Endocrine gland (iii) With duct (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (d) Dense regular tissue (iv) Skin (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 149. Crossing over is (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (1) Non-enzyme mediated process 144. Match the following with column I & column II (2) Not exchange of genetic material and choose the correct answer : (3) An enzyme mediated process Column I Column II (4) None of the above (Tissues) (Present in) 150. Given below are two statements : one is a. Squamous i. Ducts of glands labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as epithelium Reason (R) b. Cuboidal ii. Blood vessels and Assertion (A) epithelium air sacs of lungs. Kinetochores is essential for cell division. c. Columnar iii. Bronchioles and Reason (R) epithelium fallopian tubes Kinetochores serve as the site of attachment of spindle d. Ciliated iv. Stomach and fibres to the chromosome. epithelium intestine In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii correct answer from the options given below : (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii explanation of (A) (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 145. Which of the following correct for smooth (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct muscle fibre (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (1) Smooth muscle fibre taper at both ends explanation of (A) (2) Smooth muscle fibre taper at only one end (3) Smooth muscle fibre do not taper at both ends SECTION–A– [Part–4] (4) Smooth muscle fibre show striations 151. Given below are two statements : 146. Which one of the following correct option Statement I : (1) Neuroglia make up less than one half the volume of Morphology of chromosomes is most studied during neural tissue in our body metaphase of cell division. (2) Muscle tissue is made of many short, cylindrical Statement II : fibres arranged in parallel arrays Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the (3) Neurons are not excitable cells start of metaphase of mitosis. (4) Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of In the light of the above statements, choose the neural tissue in our body correct answer from the options given below 147. Which of the following correct option (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) Muscle fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) Muscle fibres contract (shorten) in response to (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct stimulation (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) In general, muscles play an active role in all the 152. How many mitotic division occur in a cell of movements of the body root tip to form 354 cells : (4) All of these (1) 354 148. Match the following correctly (2) 353 (a) Chromosomes are i. Anaphase (3) 177
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 12 | P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (4) 86 (4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) 153. In a cell amount of DNA is 2C and chromosome 159. Go through the following events : no. are 26 these after S-phase amount of DNA and (I) Termination of chiasmata occurs chromosome no. are (II) Chromosomes are fully condensed (1) C & 26 respectively (III) Meiotic spindle is assembled (2) 3C & 52 respectively (IV) By the end, nuclear membrane and nucleolus (3) 4C & 52 respectively disappear (4) 4C & 26 respectively The above points indicate that it is 154. The four haploid nuclei found at the end of (1) Zygotene stage meiosis differ from one another in their genetic (2) Diakinesis stage comoposition. Some of this difference is the result (3) Metaphase II of : (4) Pachytene (1) Cytokinesis 160. Which one is false about G1 -phase (Gap -I) : (2) Respiration of DNA during the "S" phase (1) It occurs between M and S phase (3) Spindle formation (2) In it the cells are metabolically active and (4) Crossing over during Prophase-I continuously grow 155. Chromosomes decondense into diffuse (3) It is pre-synthetic or post- mitotic phase chromatin (4) In this phase DNA replicates (1) At the end of telophase 161. The sequence of events by which a cell (2) At the beginning of prophase duplicates its genome, synthesis of other (3) At the end of interphase constituents of cells and eventually divides into (4) At the end of metaphase daughter cells is termed as : 156. How many statement(s) is/are incorrect : (1) Interphase (a) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the (2) M phase walls of two adjacents cells (3) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis (b) At the time of karyokinesis, organelles like (4) Cell cycle mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the 162. DNA replicates : daughter cells (1) Only once in each cell cycle (c) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes (2) Twice in each cell cycle place by cell-plate formation (3) Once in mitotic cell cycle, once in meiotic I (d) Cytokinesis in animal cells by furrowing and is (reductional division) and once in meiotic II (equational centripetal. division) (1) Four (4) None of these (2) Two 163. Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of (3) Three the centromeres are called : (4) One (1) Chromatophore 157. This phase of cell cycle is a period of intense (2) Spermatophore synthesis and growth. It constitutes 95% of the (3) Metaphasic plate duration of cell cycle it is (4) Kinetochores (1) Interphase 164. In some organisms like certain fungi and algae, (2) Telophase cells undergoing mitosis repeatedly without (3) Prophase subsequently undergoing cytokinesis. What would (4) Anaphase result from it : 158. Arrange the following events of meiosis in (1) Decrease in the chromosome number correct sequence : (2) Decrease in the DNA molecules (i) Crossing over (3) Formation of syncytium (ii) Synapsis (4) Multicellularity (iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata (iv) Disappearance of nucleolus (1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (3) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 13 | P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division 170. In meiosis-I, prophase-I is subdivided on the basis of : (1) Chromosomal behaviour (2) Chromosomal size (3) Chromosomal number (4) Chromosomal structure 171. Yeast cell divides once in approximately every 165. (1) 90 minutes Which among the following is correct for the above (2) 9 minutes figure : (3) 24 hours (1) Spindle f ibres at tach to kinetochores of (4) 24 days chromosomes 172. To observe chiasmata, the most appropriate (2) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and get stage of meiosis would be : aligned along metaphase plate through spindle fibres to (1) Metaphase – II both poles (2) Diakinesis (3) Centromeres split and chromatids separate (3) Diplotene (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Pachytene 166. Telophase–I states about 173. In meiosis, how many times nucleus divides : (1) mRNA and ribosomes (1) Once (2) Spindle fibres and centromere (2) Twice (3) Disappearance of nucleus and nucleolus (3) Does not divide (4) Reappearance of nucleus and nuclear membrane (4) Four times 167. Match the column-I with column-II and select 174. Which phase is usually of longest duration and the correct option : maximum growth and which is of shortest duration : Column-I Column-II (1) G1 and anaphase a. Interphase i. Division of cytoplasm (2) S-phase and telophase b. Karyokinesis ii. Synthesis phase (3) G2 and M-phase c. Cytokinesis iii. Division of nucleus (4) G1 and metaphase d. S-phase iv. Resting phase 175. Morphology of chromosome is most easily (1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii studied in which stage: (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (1) Metaphase (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) Anaphase (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) Telophase 168. Which of the following is incorrect (4) Late prophase (1) Equational division is usually restricted to the diploid 176. Given below are two statements : one is cells labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (2) In some social insects haploid cells divide by mitosis Reason (R) (3) A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell repair Assertion (A) (4) In all social insects haploid cells divide by mitosis Meiosis is also known as reduction division 169. Which of the following is incorrect Reason (R) (a) The stage between 2 mitotic divisions is called Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes in interphase daughter cells. (b) Meiosis II is initiated immediately after In the light of the above statements, choose the cytokinesis correct answer from the options given below : (c) The nuclear membrane reappears by the end of (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct prophase II explanation of (A) (d) Diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct synaptonemal complex (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) All are incorrect (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct (2) None of the option is incorrect explanation of (A) (3) Only (c) is incorrect 177. Given below are two statements : (4) Only (b) is incorrect Statement I :
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 14 | P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division First, the substrate binds to the active site of the (1) Mitosis enzyme, fitting into the inactive site. (2) Meiosis Statement II : (3) Cytokinesis The bindings of the substrate induces the enzyme to (4) Karyokinesis alter its shape, fitting loosely around the substrate. 185. If number of chromosome in one cell of onion's In the light of the above statements, choose the root is 14 then what will be the number of correct answer from the options given below chromosome in shoot cells after S-phase: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) 14 (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) 7 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) 23 (4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) 32. 178. Pairing of homologous chromosomes to form SECTION–B– [Part–4] bivalents occurs in zygotene. This pairing is called 186. At which meiotic division, the nuclear (1) Synaptinemal complex membrane and nucleolus reappear : (2) Disjunction (1) Anaphase I (3) Congression (2) Metaphase I (4) Synapsis (3) Prophase I 179. The stage between the two meiotic division is (4) Telophase I called : (1) Interphase (2) Interkinesis (3) Generation Time (4) Synthetic phase 180. The sequence of events of cell cycle are (1) G1-S-G2-P-M-A-T-C (2) S-G1-G2-P-M-T-A-C (3) G1-G2-S-P-M-A-T-C (4) C-T-A-M-P-G2-S-G1 187. 181. Which of the following statement is incorrect : Which among the following statement is true with (1) Plant cytokinesis usually occurs by cell plate method respect to the above shown figure : (2) The spindle formation starts in prophase (1) Centromere splits and chromatids separates (3) Cell plate formation starts from periphery of cell (2) Nuclear envelope reappears (4) The new nuclear membrane is formed in telophase (3) Bivalents are formed 182. A bivalent consists of : (4) Centromere does not splits but the chromatids (1) Two chromatids and one centromere separate. (2) Two chromatids and two centromeres 188. Pericarp consist of : (3) Four chromatids and two centromeres (1) Epicarp + Mesocarp (4) Four chromatids and four centromeres (2) Epicarp + Endocarp 183. Prophase of the first meiotic division is (3) Epicarp + Endocarp + Mesocarp typically longer and complex. It is subdivided into 5 (4) None of these phases leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene 189. Identify the order where plants show alternate, and diakinesis. Which of the following statements is opposite and whorled phyllotaxy incorrect about these phases : (1) China rose, Calotropis and Alstonia (1) The formation of synaptonemal complex is seen (2) Mustard, Guava and Alstonia during diakinesis stage (3) Alstonia, Calotropis and China rose (2) The compaction of chromosomes continues (4) More than one option are correct throughout the leptotene 190. How many plants in the list given below have (3) Diakinesis stage is marked by terminalisation of marginal placentation chiasmata Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sunhemp, (4) All of the above Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, 184. _____________involves pairing of homologous Lupin chromosomes and recombination between them : (1) Four
By – Anmol Sharma Sir 15 | P a g e
Cell : The Unit of Life, Biomolecules, Cell Cycle and Cell Division (2) Five Group I Group II (3) Six a. Amyloplast i. Carbohydrate (4) Three b. Elaioplast ii. Xanthophyll 191. How many statements are correct about given c. Aleuroplast iii. Protein below diagram : d. Chromoplast iv. Fat e. Chloroplast v. Chlorophyll (1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-v, e-ii (2) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v (3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii, e-v (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii, e-v (I) Forms major component within organs 198. Match the following columns : (II) Cell wall – thin, cellulosic Columns – I Column – II (III) Shape of cells – generally isodiametric a. Stem tendril i. Maize (IV) Intercellular space – present b. Thorns ii. Bougainvillea (V) Photosynthetic, storage or secretory in function c. Underground stem iii. Watermelon (1) Only three d. Stilt root iv. Colocasia (2) All five (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) Only four (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) Only two (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 192. Which one is correct (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (1) Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure 199. Phyllode (petiole modified) is present in : and function are simple tissues (1) Australian Acacia (2) Permanent tissues having different types of cell are (2) Opuntia complex tissues (3) Asparagus (3) Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma are (4) Euphorbia simple tissues 200. A typical flower has four different kind of whorl, (4) All of the above arranged successively on the swollen end of the 193. Which one is incorrect about bulliform/motor stalk called : cell (1) Receptacle (1) It is seen is grasses (2) Carpel (2) It is large - sized, thin - walled colourless and (3) Pedicel vascoulate cells on the abaxial epidermis (4) Calyx (3) It helps in rolling of leaf to minimize water loss when it is flaccid (4) All of these 194. Which of the following is incorrect match (1) Squamous air sac of lungs (2) Cuboidal ducts of glands (3) Ciliated bronchioles (4) Columnar blood vessels 195. Which one is cell of cartilage : (1) Osteocyte (2) Odontocyte (3) Chondrocyte (4) Osteoblast 196. In cockroach tegmina is (1) Metathoracic wing (2) Hind wing (3) Forewing (4) Mouth part 197. Match the following group I and II :