Topic cell and cell division

1. Who concluded that presence of cell wall is 4. Arrange the following cell on the basis of their
unique character of the plant cell? decreasing size
(1) Schleiden (2) Rudolf Virchow (a) Egg of an ostrich (b) Human RBC
(3) Schwann (4) Robert Brown (c) Mycoplasma (d) bacteria
(1) a > c > b > d (2) c > d > b > a
2. Match the following columns (3) a > b > d > c (4) a < b < d < c

COLUMN I COLUMN II 5. Which of the following cell structures are not

a i
b ii
c iii Round and
biconcave
d iv
Round and oval exclusive features of bacterial cell?
A. Pili B. Polysome C. Plasma membrane
D. Gas vacuole E. Double stranded DNA
(1) A & B (2) C & D
(3) B, C & E (4) A, B & D
Elongated
6. In bacteria three layers of the envelope performs
_________ function(s) and act as a ________
protective unit
(1) Distinct, Single (2) Different, Multiple
(3) Single, Distinct (4) Multiple, Different
7. In motile bacterial cells
(a) Flagella is made up of three different proteins as
Amoeboid in eukaryotic cells
(b) Flagella has three parts filament, hook and basal
body
(c) Pili or filmbrae help in locomotion
(1) a and b are true (2) Only a is true
(3) a and c are false (4) Only c is true

e v Long and narrow 8. Which one of the following structures determines

the shape of the cell and provides a strong structural
support to prevent the bacterium from bursting?
(1) Cell membrane (2) Glycocalyx
(3) Slime layer (4) Cell wall

9. Higher plant cells and animal cells are different

(1) (a) - i , (b)- v , (c)- iv , (d)- iii , (e)- ii in how many respects?
(2) (a) - iii , (b)- v , (c)- iv , (d)- ii , (e)- i (A) Plastids (B) Large central vacuole
(3) (a) - iii , (b)- v , (c)- iv , (d)- i , (e)- ii (C) Centriole (D) Stored food
(4) (a) - i , (b)-v , (c)- iii , (d)- iv , (e)- ii (E) Cell wall (F) Ribosome
(G) Mitochondria
(1) Five (2) Six (3) Three (4) Two
3. within cell ribosome is found in how many of the
following
10. (i) cell growth (ii) secretion
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Vacuoles (c) Mitochondria
(iii) Endocytosis (iv) Respiration
(d) Chloroplast (e) On RER (D) Golgi bodies (v) Photosynthesis
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Four (4) Five How many of the above functions are due to fluid
nature of membrane.
(1)Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
11. All statements are correct for plasma -
membrane, except
(1) Lipid component mainly consists of
Phosphoglycerides
(2) Human erythrocyte membrane has 40% lipids
and 52% protein approximately
(3) Quasi-fluid nature of protein enables lateral
movement of lipids within overall bilayer
(4) Improved and widely accepted model of the
structure of cell membrane was proposed by
Singer and Nicolson
12. (A) Cellulose, galactans, mannans & CaCO3
made cell wall is present in a.
(B) Cellulose, hemi-cellulose, pectins & protein are
present in cell wall of b.
(C) Calcium pectinate is present in c.
(d) In animal cells lipid-like steroidal hormones are
synthesized in SER.
(1) Statement (a), (b) and (d) is correct
(2) Statement (c) is incorrect
(3) Statement (b) is incorrect
(4) All statements are correct
17. Cell organelle that divides intracellular space of
a cell into two compartments luminal space and
extra luminal space
(1) Shows a distinct polarity and is situated near the
nucleus
(2) Is composed of tiny tubular structures scattered
in the cytoplasm
(3) May have ribosomes attached by its smaller
subunit
(4) Performs the function of packaging materials

A B C 18. Liver cells have a particular organelle in

1 Fungi Algae Primary cell wall abundance which contains enzymes that catalyzes a
2 Algae Animals Primary cell wall series of reaction to detoxify both lipid soluble
3 Algae Plants Middle Lamella drugs and various harmful compounds produced by
4 Plants Algae Middle Lamella metabolism. Identify the cell organelle.
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
13. Which cell wall is capable of growth and (2) Mitochondria
gradually diminishes as cell matures :- (3) Golgi apparatus
(1) Primary cell wall (4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Tertiary cell wall 19. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. golgi
(4) Primary and secondary cell wall apparatus?
(1) Fixed number of cisternae
14. How many of the following features are (2) The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
associated with the endomembrane system? near the nucleus
Synthesis of steroidal hormones; Digestion of (3) The cis and the trans faces of the organelle are
food, Storage of waste, Storage of proteins; entirely different (4) More than one option is correct
Synthesis of ATP; Formation of glycolipid
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Five (4) Two 20. The Golgi complex plays a major role
(1) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates
15. Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is (2) As energy transferring organelles
observed in the cells actively involved in: (3) In post translational modification of protein and
(1) Protein synthesis (2) Secretion glycosidation of lipids
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Lipid synthes (4) In trapping the light and transforming it into
chemical energy.
16. Read the following statements
(a) ER divides the intracellular space into two 21. _________ is membrane bound vesicular
distinct compartments- luminal and extra luminal. structures formed by the process of packaging in the
(b) ER often shows ribosome attached to their inner golgi apparatus.
surface. (1) Glyoxysomes (2) Lysosomes
(c) RER is frequently involved in protein synthesis (3) Centrosomes (4) Ribosomes
and secretion.
22. Secondary lysosomes consist of 27. The no. of chloroplast in chlamydomonas is
(1) Some hydrolytic enzymes capable of working at ____& in a mesophyll cell ranges between_____
basic pH (1) 1, 2 4 (2) 2, 20 40
(2) The food particles and hydrolytic enzymes (3) 20 40, 1 (4) 1, 20 40
functioning at acidic pH
(3) The food particles and inactive form of enzymes 28. The chloroplasts contain:-
(4) Only food particles stored at acidic pH (1) Fat soluble pigments anthocyanin and
chlorophyll
23. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (2) Water soluble pigments carotenoids and
matched? chlorophylls
(1) Contractile vacuole Osmoregulation, excretion (3) Water soluble pigments chlorophylls and
Amoeba anthocyanin
(2) Gas vacuoles Buoyancy Blue green algae (4) Fat soluble pigments carotenoids and
(3) Sap vacuoles Tonoplast Plant cells chlorophylls
(4) Digestive vacuole Phagosome and secondary
lysosomes Animals 29. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Amyloplast Potato tuber
24. Find out the labelled part from the diagram (2) Oleosome Castor seed
given below:- (3) Aleuroplast Maize
(4) Elaioplast Rice

30. Colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes

(1) Trap light energy for carbon assimilation
(2) Synthesise nutrients like starch, fat or proteins
(3) Lack granum and pigments
(4) Store proteins in endosperm of maize and castor

31. Which one of the following statement is/are not

(1) A Outer Membrane B Matrix C Inner
correct for 80s ribosome?
Membrane
(a) Present in prokaryote and eukaryote
(2) A Matrix B Inner Membrane C Outer
(b) Not surrounded by any membrane
Membrane
(c) "S" is indirectly a measurement of size and
(3) A Inner Membrane B Outer Membrane
density
C Matrix
(d) Composed of two subunit 50s and 30s
(4) A Outer Membrane B Inner Membrane C
(1) Only a (2) Only b & c
Matrix
(3) Only a and d (4) Only a & c
25. Vital stain used to stain mitochondria is
32. Which one are correct w.r.t. ribosomes?
(1) Janus Green (2) Safranin
(1) Composed of RNA and protein
(3) Methylene blue (4) Acetocarmine
(2) Composed of protein and lipid
(3) Not surrounded by any membrane
26. The organelle considered as the site of aerobic (4) More than one option is correct
respiration
(1) Possesses single, circular and single stranded 33. Microtubules are constituents of:
DNA molecule in matrix (1) Cilia, flagella, peroxisomes
(2) Produces cellular energy in the form of ATP (2) Spindle fiber, centriole, and cilia
(3) Spindle fiber, centriole & chromatin
(3) Forms number of infoldings in outer membrane (4) Centrosome, nucleosome & centrioles
known as cristae
(4) Divides by fission
34. How many radial spokes and microtubules are 40. In humans, ______ pairs of SAT chromosomes
found in an axoneme of eukaryotic cilia are present.
respectively? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3
(1) 18 and 20 (2) 9 and 20
(3) 9 and 18 (4) 18 and 18 41. Material of nucleus stained by ___A___ dye
was given the name ___B___ by Flemming.
35. Both cilium and flagellum of a eukaryotic cell A B
emerge from a structure which shows 1 Acidic Chromatin
(1) 9 + 2 organisation 2 Basic Nucleolus
(2) 9 + 0 organisation 3 Acidic Ribosome
(3) A membrane bound structure 4 Basic Chromatin
(4) A pair of centrally located microtubules
42. The cell organelle which is present in
36. In animal cells
germinating fatty seeds such as castor and involved
(a) More than one centriole may be present
in the conversion of insoluble lipid food reserve into
(b) These centrioles are present perpendicular to
soluble sugar for the growing tip is
one other
(1) Lysosomes (2) Glyoxysomes
(c) Arrangement of microtubules in centriole
(3) Peroxisomes (4) Sphaerosomes
represent cart wheel
(d) In centrioles peripheral triplets are connected to
43. Which of the following is non-membranous?
central tubules through radial spokes
Cell-organelles/structures:
(1) a, b, c are true (2) Only b, c are true
(1) Ribosome, centriole
(3) Only a, c are true (4) Only a, b are true
(2) Nucleolus, centrosome
(3) Chromosome, Microtubules
37. Space between the nuclear membrane:-
(4) All of the above
(1) 10 to 50 Å (2) 100 to 500 Å
(3) 1000 to 5000 Å (4) 1 to 5Å 44. How many of the given features are associated
with both plastid and mitochondria?
38. Which of the following chromosome has non- Thylakoids, cristae, double membrane,
staining constriction? 70S ribosome, RuBisCO, ssDNA
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

45. Which of the following structures are found in

prokaryotes and eukaryotes both?
(1) Ribosome, cell membrane and cell wall
(2) Cell membrane, ribosome and mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosome and cell wall
(4) Golgi apparatus, ribosome and cell membrane

46. Read the following statements carefully and

mark them as true (T) or false (F).
I. The content of nucleolus is continuous with the
rest of the nucleoplasm.
II. In the chromoplast water soluble carotenoid
Ans - 4 pigments like carotene and xanthophyll are present.
39. A nuclear pore allows III. Basal body of bacterial flagellum has 9 + 2
(1) Protein movement only arrangement of microtubules.
(2) RNA movement only (1) T, F, F (2) F, T, T
(3) Unidirectional movement of DNA (3) T, F, T (4) T, T, T
(4) RNA and protein movement
47. True statement about mitochondria is
(1) Change in shape and size and division both
occur
(2) Do not change shape but division occurs
(3) Do not change shape and size and division not
occurs
(4) Change shape but division does not occur
48. Which of the following would probably be
LEAST DAMAGED by a lipid-dissolving enzyme
(lipase)?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome (4) Nuclei
49. What is incorrect for the cells that are in
quiescent stage?
(1) These cells do not divide
(2) Cells in this stage are metabolically not active
(3) Heart cells exhibit this stage
(4) These cells exit G1 phase
50. A cell has 8pg DNA and 10 chromosomes at G1
phase. Then, after S phase DNA content and
chromosome number, respectively would be
(1) 16pg, 20 (2) 8pg, 10
(3) 16pg, 10 (4) 24pg, 40
51. Given below is the diagrammatic view of cell
cycle indicating formation of two cells from one
cell, with its part labelled from A to E.
Find out the wrong statement
(1) In animal cell during "C" DNA replication
begins in the nucleus and the centriole duplication
also occur in the nucleus.
(2) During "A" centriole move toward opposite pole
of the cell
(3) During "D" nuclear envelope assembles around
the chromosome clusters
(4) In animal "B" is achieved by the appearance of
the furrow in the plasma membrane
52. Human cells in culture, divide once in
approximately every 24 hours, during this
(1) Interphase lasts for 1 hour
(2) G1, S and G2lasts for more than 22 hours
(3) S phase takes more than 95% of the duration
(4) M-phase takes 50% the time
53. The correct sequence of events in cell cycle is
(a) DNA replication
(b) Tubulin protein synthesis
(c) Duplication of most of the cell organelles
(d) Division of chromosome
(e) Division of cytoplasm
(2)
54. Measurements of the amount of DNA per
nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from
a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels
ranged from 3 to 6 pg per nucleus. In which satge of
the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 pg of DNA?
(1) G0 (2) G1 (3) S (4) G2
55. The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
marks the
(1) Early prophase
(2) Start of second phase of mitosis
(3) First phase of mitosis
(4) End of second phase of mitosis
56. The different shapes of chromosomes i.e. I, J, V,
L can be clearly studied during:
(1) The alignment of chromosome at the equator
(2) The poleward movement of chromosomes.
(3) The phase when GC & ER disappears
(4) The phase when synthesis of amino acids of
histone protein occurs.
57. Shape of chromosome can be best studied in the
stage of mitosis which also shows
(1) Reformation of Golgi body and endoplasmic
reticulum
(2) Formation of equatorial plate
(3) Division of centromere
(4) Disappearance of nucleolus
58. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of
DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial
amount is denoted as 2C?
(1) G1 and S
(2) G2 and karyokinesis
(3) Only G2
(4) G0 and G1
59. Identify the phase of mitosis from given
diagram:-
A B C 63. The final stage of meiotic prophase-I is
(1) Metaphase Anaphase Prophase
(2) Metaphase Anaphase Telophase
(3) Anaphase Metaphase Prophase
(4) Metaphase Telophase Anaphase
60. Select the incorrect statements.
(1) In some social insects haploid cells divide by
mitosis
(2) Mitotic divisions take place only in the apical
meristem
(3) Mitosis helps to restore the nucleocytoplasmic
ratio
(4) Mitosis helps in cell repair
61. A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram.
Which stage is it and what are its characteristics?
(1) Anaphase Chromatids move to opposite poles
(2) Metaphase Spindle fibres attached to
centromere of kinetochore
(3) Late prophase Nuclear membrane, nucleolus,
golgi complexes and ER disappeared
(4) Transition to metaphase Spindle fibre attached
to kinetochores of chromosome
62. If the amount of DNA in the cell during given
mitosis stage is 20 pg, then the number of
chromosome and amount of DNA in its mother cell
at G1 phase was
(1) 8; 20 pg (2) 4; 10 pg
(3) 8; 10 pg (4) 4; 20 pg
diakinesis. This is marked by :
(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex
(2) Formation of tetrad
(3) Crossing over
(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata
64. What will be the amount of DNA in meiotic II
products if meiocyte at G1 stage possesses 80 pg
DNA?
(1) 20 pg (2) 40 pg (3) 80 pg (4) 10 pg
65. Poleward movement of chromosome as dyad
can be observed in
(1) Metaphase I
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Anaphase I
(4) More than one option is correct
66. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. meiosis
I. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase-II
II. Diplotene is shortest phase of prophase-I
III. Chiasmata is observed during pachytene
(1) I & II are correct (2) Only I is correct
(3) Only III is incorrect (4) I & III are correct
67. Formation of bivalents occur in _______ stage
of meiosis I and is facilitated by ________.
(1) Zygotene, synaptonemal complex
(2) Diplotene, synaptonemal complex
(3) Pachytene, recombinase
(4) Leptotene, recombinase
68. Mark the correct statement
(1) Meiosis results in conservation of specific
chromosome number of each species across
generation in asexually reproducing organism.
(2) The stage between two successive meiotic
divisions is generally long lived.
(3) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre
of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing
lateral walls
(4) Telophase-I can last for months or years
69.
(a) The diagram represents disjunction of
homologous chromosomes
(b) Centromere splitting is accompanied by
separation of chromatids
(c) This phase is followed by a phase in which each
cell has 2n number of chromosomes with 4C
contact
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) Only (b) is correct
(3) Both (a) & (c) are correct
(4) Both (b) & (c) are correct
70. Meiotically dividing spore mother cells have 20
chromosomes and 30 pg DNA in post meiotic gap
phase. What would be the number of bivalents and
DNA amount in prophase I respectively?
(1) 20 bivalents, 120 pg DNA
(2) 20 bivalents, 60 pg DNA
(3) 10 bivalents, 30 pg DNA
(4) 10 bivalents, 60 pg DNA
71. A bacterium divides every 20 minutes. If a
cultures containing 106 cells per ml is grown for
120 minutes, what will be the cell concentration per
ml after 120 minutes?
(1) 32 × 106 cells (2) 64 × 106 cells
6 (2) C and D respectively
(3) 16 × 10 cells (4) 120 × 106 cells
72. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. meiosis cell
division
(1) Leptotene and zygotene stages are short lived as
compared to pachytene
(2) Chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads in
pachytene
(3) Synaptonemal complex is dissolved in
pachytene
(4) Terminalisation of chiasma completed in
diakinesis
73. Unequal distribution of chromosomes in the
daughter cells during gamete formation occurs due
to
(1) Disjunction of chromosomes during anaphase
(2) Improper pairing of chromosomes during
prophase I
(3) Unequal distribution of chromosomes during
anaphase II
(4) Absence of the true equatorial plate during
Metaphase
74. The amount of DNA in a cell can be determined
by measuring the fluorescence of a dye that binds in
direct proportion to the amount of DNA. The
histogram below shows the fluorescence of a
eukaryotic cell during different stages of a cell
division A, B, C, D, E, F
If A represents the DNA content at the beginning of
meiosis, then which one will represent the DNA
content at the end of meiosis I and meiosis II?
(1) B and C respectively
(3) C and E respectively
(4) E and F respectively
75. Prophase-I of meiosis differ from prophase of
mitosis being
(1) Shorter, more complex
(2) Longer, less complex
(3) Shorter, less complex
(4) Longer, more complex

76. In which of the following stage of meiosis, the

homologous chromosomes separate while the sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres?
(1) Anaphase-II (2) Metaphase-II
(3) Metaphase-I (4) Anaphase-I

77. After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal

makeup of each daughter cell is
(1) Diploid, and the chromosomes are each
composed of a single chromatid.
(2) Diploid, and the chromosomes are each
composed of a two chromatid.
(3) Haploid, and the chromosomes are each
composed of a single chromatid.
(4) Haploid, and the chromosomes are each
composed of a two chromatid.

78. A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that

are genetically different
(1) The statement is true for mitosis only
(2) The statement is true for meiosis I only
(3) The statement is true for meiosis II only
(4) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II