HISTOLOGY MCQ DR. Osama Yaseen

Histology and methods of its study
1. Concerning the paraffin technique, the followings are fixative EXCEPT

A Frormol saline (4% formaldehyde)
B Boun's fluid
C Suza
D Xylol
2. The fixative has the following functions EXCEPT

A Hardens the tissue
B Preserves the structure of the tissue
C Prevents the staining of the tissue
D Kills the bacteria in the tissue
3. One statement is NOT correct

A Dehydration occurs by descending grades of alcohol
B Xylol is a solvent used for clearing
C Embedding occurs in the hard paraffin
D Egg albumin is used for mounting of the sections on the glass slides
4. Paraffin technique has the following advantages EXCEPT

A It takes a short time
B It gives serial sections
C It is ideal to stain the chemical components of the tissue (like glycogen)
D Sections are easy to stain
5. Following technique is suitable to stain the glycogen inside the cells?

A Paraffin technique
B Colloidin technique
C Freezing technique
D All of the above
6. The most common staining system in the histology is

A Silver stain
B Orcein stain
C Hematoxyline and eosin system (H&E)
D Periodic acid – Schiff reaction (PAS)
7. Which of the followings is suitable to examine the fat cells

A Periodic acid – Schiff reaction (PAS)
B Sudan black
C Sudan III
D B&C
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8. Periodic acid – Schiff reaction (PAS) is a suitable to stain
A Glycogen
B Lipids
C Proteins
D All of the above

A Magnification power of the light microscope is 1500 times
B Resolution power of electron microscope is 0.2mm
C Resolution power of light microscope is 0.2 µm
D Magnification power of the electron microscope is 500,000 times
10. Three dimensional image for a cell can obtained bt

A Scanning electron microscope
B Ordinary light microscope
C Transmission electron microscope
D All of the above
11. Which of the following microscopes uses an oblique rays

A Phase-contrast microscope
B Interference microscope
C Fluorescent microscope
D Non of the above
12. To examine living unstained cells you need

A An electron microscope
B An ordinary light microscope
C Phase-contrast microscope
D Fluorescent microscope
13. Which of the following microscopes uses an ultraviolet rays

A Interference microscope
B Fluorescent microscope
C Confocal microscope
D Scanning electron microscope
14. Immunohistochemistry technique is suitable to examine

A Specific protein in the tissue
B Viable cells
C Ultrastructures
D The three dimensions of the cells
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Cell membrane
15. Cell membrane is formed of
A Lipids
B Carbohydrates
C Proteins
D All of the above
16. The thickness of the cell membrane is

A 7.5 – 10 mm
B 7.5 – 10 µm
C 7.5 – 10 nm
D Non of the above
17. Cell membrane appears as trilaminar structure because

A It is formed of phospholipids, carbohydrate and proteins
B Phospholipids molecules have hydrophilic head and hydrophopic tail
C The proteins are integral , embedded and transmembrane
D Glycocalyx is present

A It is formed of phospholipids, carbohydrate and proteins
B Of the arrangement of phospholipids molecules bilayer
C The proteins are integral , embedded and transmembrane
D Glycocalyx is present outside the cell membrane

A It is formed of phospholipids, carbohydrates and proteins
B Glycocalyx is present outside the cell membrane
C Its proteins are integral , embedded and transmembrane proteins
D Of deposition of heavy metals in the hydrophilic heads of phospholipids

A Phospholipids molecules have hydrophilic head and hydrophopic tail
B Of the arrangement of phospholipids molecules bilayer
C Of deposition of heavy metals in the hydrophilic heads of phospholipids
D All of the above
21. Phospholipids molecules in the cell membrane have

A Hydrophilic heads directed outwards
B Hydrophobic heads directed inwards
C Hydrophilic tails directed outwards
D Hydrophilic tails directed inwards
22. All the statements concerned to the cell membrane are true EXCEPT
A It is known as plasmalemma
B All membranes of the cell have the same appearance
C By E/M it is formed of bilayer
D Invisible by light microscope
23. All the statements concerned to the trilaminar appearance of cell

membrane are true EXCEPT
A It is easy to see by light microscope
B Heavy metals deposits in the heads of the phospholipids bilayer
C Middle layer represents unstained hydrophilic tails
D Two outer electron-dense and middle electron-lucent layer
24. In the cell membrane, the phospholipids molecules have

A Two polar hydrophilic heads and nonpolar hydrophobic tails
B Two polar hydrophobic heads and nonpolar hydrophoilic tails
C Polar hydrophilic heads and nonpolar hydrophobic tails
D Polar hydrophilic heads and two nonpolar hydrophobic tails
25. All the statements concerning the integral proteins are true EXCEPT
A Directly incorporated in the lipid bilayer
B Partially embedded in the lipid bilayer
C Forms the transmembrane proteins
D Usually located at the inner surface of the cell membrane
26. Transmembrane proteins

A Act as cell receptors
B Share in the formation of glycocalyx
C Long proteins protrude from both surfaces of the cell membrane
D All of the above
27. Glycocalyx composed of

A A polysaccharide attached to the phospholipids bilayer
B A polysaccharide attached to peripheral proteins
C A polysaccharide attached to the phospholipids bilayer and
transmembrane proteins
D A polysaccharide attached to the transmembrane proteins
28. All the statements concerning the cell coat are true EXCEPT
A It is present in all cells
B Not found except in the epithelial lining of gastrointestinal tract
C Acts as a receptor
D Stained with PAS
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29. The cell membrane is asymmetrical structure because
A The internal protein is partially embedded in lipid bilayer
B Peripheral proteins are usually attached to the inner surface
C Outer surface is rough and the inner is smooth
D The integral protein is usually present on the outer surface
30. The cell membrane is asymmetrical structure because

A The internal protein is partially embedded in lipid bilayer
B The cell coat present only on the outer surface
C Outer surface is rough and the inner is smooth
D The integral protein is usually present on the outer surface
31. One of the followings is not a function of the cell membrane

A Active transport
B Passive diffusion
C Phagocytosis
D RNA synthesis
32. One of the followings is not a function of the cell membrane

A Pinocytosis
B Cell adhesion
C Exocytosis
D DNA synthesis
33. Cell membrane modifications mean

A Cell membrane modify to form microvilli
B Cell membrane modify to form cilia
C Cell membrane modify to form flagella
D All of the above
34. In active transport

A No energy required
B Substance pass against the concentration gradient
C Depends upon receptors
D It needs a carrier
35. In passive diffusion

B Substance pass through the cell membrane against the concentration
gradient
36. In facilitated diffusion
B Substance pass through against the concentration gradient
37. In selective transport

B Substance pass against the concentration gradient
Mitochondria
38. Life span of mitochondria is
A 10 months
B 10 days
C 10 hours
D 10 years
39. In the mitochondria

A The outer membrane projects inside to form cristae
B The inner membrane projects inside to form shelves
C The surface of the outer membrane is much greater than that of the inner
membrane
D No space between inner and outer membranes
40. Concerning mitochondria

A Steroid secreting cells have tubular cristae
B Matrix space is present between the two membranes
C Its division occurs by mitosis
D It controls the magnesium level
41. Enzymes for Krebs cycle are

A Studded on the inner surface of the outer membrane
B Found in the matrix space
C Present in the globular structure on the outer surface
D Present in the intermembranous space
42. The ADP to ATP phosphorylating system is

A Found in the matrix space
B Studded on the inner surface of the outer membrane
C Present in the globular structure on the inner surface
D Present in the intermembranous space
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43. In the highly active cells
A Mitochondria increase in number
B Mitochondria accumulate at sites of energy utilization
C Cristae of each mitochondrion increase in number
D All of the above
Ribosome
44. Polysome is
A Many ribosomes linked together by long mRNA
B The end product of ribosome
C An acidophilic structure
D Non of the above
45. Ribosome
A Is formed of two membranes (outer and inner)
B Is formed of two protein subunits (large and small)
C Is formed of two types of RNA (messenger and ribosomal)
D Is formed of two particles (proteins and rRNA)
46. Ribosomes
A Are intensely basophilic
B Are free or attached to RER
C Ate the site for amino acid assembling in protein synthesis
D All of the above
47. All the statements concerning ribosomes are true EXCEPT

A Diffuse basophilia indicates abundance of free ribosomes
B Patchy basophilia indicates abundance of bound ribosomes to RER
C Free ribosomes produce the secreted proteins
D Bound ribosomes produce the integral membrane protein
48. All the statements concerning ribosomes are true EXCEPT

A Diffuse basophilia indicates abundance of free ribosomes
B Patchy basophilia indicates abundance of bound ribosomes to RER
C Free ribosomes produce the secreted proteins
D Bound ribosomes produce the transmembrane protein
49. Ribosomes are intensely basophilic granules. This basophilia is due to

A Presence of basophilic protein
B Presence of amino acids for assembly
C Presence of rRNA
D Its attachment to RER
50. In the protein secreting cells, intense cytoplasmic basophilia is
referred to
A Abundance of free ribosomes
B Abundance of bound ribosomes to RER
C Abundance of secretory granules
D All of the above
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
51. One statement is true
A RER is present only in protein synthesizing cells
B RER is prominent in protein synthesizing cells
C RER is not present in all cells
D RER in the muscle is called sarcoplasmic reticulum
52. Concerning the RER, one statement is true

A Formed of two membranes, the inner is studded by ribosomes
B Formed of two membranes, the outer is studded by ribosomes
C Formed of one membrane, the outer surface is studded by ribosomes
D Formed of one membranes, the inner surface is studded by ribosomes
53. Function of RER is

A Synthesis of fatty acids and lipids
B Synthesis cytoplasmic matrix proteins
C Synthesis of secreted proteins
D Segregation of proteins synthesized by bound ribosomes
54. Segregated proteins in RER are delivered in

A Secretory vesicles
B Transfer vesicles
C Polysome
D Endosome
55. Transfer vesicles

A Carry the segregated proteins to the Golgi apparatus
B Transfer proteins to the cell membrane
C Transfer tRNA
D Non of the above
56. Concerning the RER, one statement is true

A Proteins are synthesized inside its lumen
B Synthesized proteins are segregated inside its lumen
C Its tubules sometimes continuous with cell membrane
D It is prominent in lipid storing cells
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Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
57. All the statements concerning SER are true EXCEPT
A Found in lipid synthesizing cells
B Responsible for detoxification of toxins and drugs
C It is double membrane organelle
D In the muscle, it is called sarcoplasmic reticulum
58. SER has the following function

A Synthesis of steroid hormones
B Protein synthesis
C Storage of phosphate
D Formation of transfer vesicles
59. SER has the following functions EXCEPT

A Synthesis of fatty acids and lipids
B Synthesis and breakdown of glycogen
C Synthesis of steroid hormones
D Synthesis of integral proteins
60. In the striated muscle, SER is concerned with

A Ca ion distribution
B Na ion distribution
C K ion distribution
D All of the above
Golgi apparatus
61. Golgi apparatus
A Appears as negative Gogi image when cells stained with silver
B Appears as granular network when the cells stained with H/E
C Variable in size, shape and position
D Easy to see in routine histological sections
62. Concerning the Golgi complex, all the statements are true EXCEPT
A Stained with silver
B Appears as Gogi image in H/E sections
C Variable in size, shape and position
D Not present in protein synthesizing cells
63. Golgi complex

A Has convex surface called maturing face
B Has concave surface called forming surface
C Has wide cisternae tend to narrow at the end
D Non of the above
64. Golgi complex
A Has convex surface called forming face
B Has concave surface called maturing surface
C Has narrow cisternae tend to wide at the end
D All of the above
65. Transfer vesicles

A Buds from the RER and fuse with the cis face of Golgi
B Buds from the SER and fuse with the cis face of Golgi
C Buds from the RER and fuse with the trans face of Golgi
D Buds from the SER and fuse with the trans face of Golgi
66. Golgi have the following functions EXCEPT

A Synthesis of polypeptide chains
B Packing of proteins
C Condensation of proteins
D Modification of proteins
67. All the followings are products of Golgi complex EXCEPT

A Coated vesicles
B Secretory vesicles
C Lysosomes
D Transfer vesicles
68. Zymogen granules are

A Secretory vesicles but arise from cis face of Golgi
B Secretory vesicles but cotain digestive enzymes
C Are component of Golgi apparatus
D Not surrounded by unit membrane
Lysosomes
69. All the following statements concerning lysosomes are true EXCEPT
A 20- 80 nm in diameter
B Contain hydrolytic enzymes
C Abundant in phagocytic cells
D Are product from trans face of Golgi

A Primary lysosome fuses with phagosome to form secondary lysosome
B Primary lysosome fuses with secondary lysosome to form phagosome
C Secondary lysosome fuses with primary lysosome to form phagosome
D Non of the previous statement is true
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71. Residual bodies
A Are the digested material in the secondary lysosome
B Are the undigested material in the secondary lysosome
C Are the undigested material in multivesicular bodies
D Non of the above
72. Lipofusin pigments

A Are the digested material in the secondary lysosome in long lived cells
B Are the undigested material in the secondary lysosome in long lived cells
C Are the undigested material in multivesicular bodies in long lived cells
D Non of the above
73. Pinocytic vesicles

A Are primary lysosomes
B Are secondary lysosomes
C Are derived fro cis face of Golgi
D Contain engulfed fluid
74. Autophage vacuoles are

A Primary lysosomes
B Secondary lysosomes
C Organelles enclosed by a membrane
D The fade of multivesicular bodies
75. Autophagosome
A Is a primary lysosome
B Is a secondary lysosome
C Is an autophage vacuole
D Non of the above
76. All the statements concerning peroxisomes are true EXCEPT they
A Contain hydrolytic enzymes
B Are spherical membrane bounded organelles
C Contain enzymes involved in formation of H2O2
D Contain enzymes involved in breakdown of excess H2O2
Coated vesicles
77. Coated vesicles
A They are vesicles which derived from the cell membrane
B Coated by clatherin from the outside
C Contain ingested macromolecules as hormones
D All of the above
78. Ligand
A Is a macromolecule has a specific receptor on the cell membrane
B It forms ligand receptor complex
C Are ingested by coated vesicles
D All of the above
79. When the coated vesicles separate from the cell membrane, the
followings events occur EXCEPT
A They loose their clathrin
B They fuse with primary lysosomes
C They fuse with early endosomes
D They fuse with late endosomes

A Lysosome fuses with endosome and digests content of coated vesicles
B Endosome fuses with coated vesicle and digests its content
C Lysosome fuses with coated vesicles and digest its content
D Coated vesicles return to the cell membrane and release its content
81. Clathrin
A Is a protein coats the cytoplasmic surface of the cell membrane
B Is a protein coats the outer surface of the cell membrane
C Is a specific receptor for ligand
D A specific enzyme present inside the endosome
82. Endosomes
A Have hydrolytic enzymes
B Are early and late endosomes
C Have the function of lysosomes
D All of the above
83. The statements concerned to the annulate lamellae are true EXCEPT
A Are parallel aggregates of membranes
B Enclose cisternae like spaces
C Have pores like nuclear pores
D Have 8- 10 µm diameter
Centeriole
84. All the statements concerned to centrosme are true EXCEPT
A Small spherical body located supranuclear
B Formed of two centeriols
C Centeriols perpendicular to each other
D It may present inside the nucleus
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85. Concerning the centeriol, one statement is true
A It replicates before cell division by developing of a new centeriol
B It replicates during cell division by developing of a new centeriol
C It replicates before cell division by its division into two centerioles
D It replicates during cell division by its division into two centerioles
86. All are functions of centeriol (centrosome) EXCEPT

A Formation of mitotic spindle
B Formation of basal bodies
C Act as microtubule organizing centre
D Formation of microvilli
87. Cytoskeleton is a network of

A Microtubules
B Thin filaments
C Intermediate filaments
D All of the above
88. Centeriol is a cylindrical structure

A 0.2 µm- and 0.5 µm in length
B 25 nm in outer diameter
C Its wall is formed of 13 protofilaments
D Non of the above
Microtubules
89. Microtubules are tubular structure
A Its wall made of nine set of triplet of protofilaments
B 25 nm in outer diameter
C It can be elongate by "minus end"
D It pass from one cell to another
90. Concerning the microtubules, all the statements are true EXCEPT
A 25 nm in outer diameter
B Diameter of its lumen is 15 nm
C Its length is variable
D Its wall is made up of 13 thin filaments
91. Concerning the microtubules, all the statements are true EXCEPT
A Elongate by adding thin filaments to the "plus end"
B Depolymerize at the "minus end"
C Form the mitotic spindle
D Elongate by adding tubulin subunits to the "plus ends"
92. Concerning the function of microtubules, all the statements are true
EXCEPT
A Support the cells
B Have a great role in the maintenance of cell shape
C Have an important role in the movement of organelles
D Have an important role in the movement of microvilli
93. Concerning the function of microtubules, all are true EXCEPT

A Participate in segregation of daughter chromosomes during cell division
B Form mitotic spindle
C Form cilia and microvilli
D Form flagella
94. Protofilamets
A A special type of thin filaments
B A special type of intermediate filaments
C Formed of α and β tubulin subunits
D It has no "plus and minus ends"

A Cilia are hair like processes
B Flagellum length varies from 100 to 200 nm
C Cilia differs from flagellum in core organization
D Some cells have many flagella
96. The axoneme is

A Formed of nine pairs of microtubules
B Formed of nine pairs of microtubules and two central singlets
C Formed of nine triplets of microtubules
D Formed of nine triplets of microtubules and two singlet
97. In the axoneme each doublets of microtubules join adjacent one by

A Radial spokes
B Dynin
C Nexin
D Dyenin arms
98. In the axoneme each doublets of microtubules join central sheath by

A Radial spokes
B Dynin
C Nexin
D Dynein arms
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99. Dynein arms
A Exhibit ATPase activity
B Formed of α and β tubulin subunits
C Join adjacent doublets of microtubules
D All of the above
100. Central sheath is a sheath of protein which surrounds

A Each of the central singlet of microtubules
B Each doublets of microtubules
C Each triplets of microtubules
D Each basal body
101. Concerning the microtubules, one statement is true

A Subunit A is formed of 13 protofilaments
B Subunit A is formed of 10 protofilaments
C Subunit B is formed of 13 protofilaments
D All the previous statements are true

A Subunit B is formed of 13 protofilaments
B Subunit α and subunit β tubulin form the protofilaments
C Subunit A is formed of 10 protofilaments
D Non of the above

A C subunit is present in axoneme
B C subunit is present only in the basal body
C C subunit is present in the basal body and centeriol
D C subunit is formed of 13 protofilaments
104. The cilia motility is obtained by

A Sliding of adjacent doublets one another
B Sliding of adjacent singlet one another
C Sliding of adjacent triplets one another
D Any of the above
105. Basal body has a structure similar to

A Centeriol
B Centrosome
C Axoneme
D flagellum
Microfilaments
106. Microfilaments
A 7 µm in diameter
B Present nearly in all cells
C Can be detected by ordinary light microscope
D Are not seen by EM
107. Concerning the microfilaments, all the statements are true EXCEPT
A 7 nm in diameter
B Present nearly in all cells
C Can be detected by fluorescent microscope
D Are not seen by EM

A G actin is globular protein
B F actin is globular protein
C G actin is helically coiled filaments
D G actin is tubulin protein
109. Microfilaments have the following functions EXCEPT

A Microtubule organizing centre
B Movement of cytoplasmic components
C Alteration the shape of the cell
D Developing cleavage furrow
110. Microfilaments have the following functions EXCEPT

A Movement of the cilia
B Contraction of microvilli
C Provide support for microvilli
D Muscle contraction
111. Keratin filaments are

A Microfilaments
B Intermediate filaments
C Thick filaments
D Microtubules
112. Desmin filaments are

A Microfilaments
C Thick filaments
D Microtubules
113. Vimentin filaments are
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A Microfilaments
C Thick filaments
D Microtubules
114. Neurofilaments filaments are

A Microfilaments
C Thick filaments
D Microtubules
115. Glial filaments are

A Microfilaments
C Thick filaments
D Microtubules
116. All statements concerning intermediate filaments are true EXCEPT

A Their diameter about 10 nm
B Present in the skin (keratin)
C Present in the smooth muscle (neurofilaments)
D Present in the glial cells (glial filaments)
117. All the statements concerned the intermediate filaments are true
EXCEPT
A Present in the smooth muscle (myofilaments)
B Present in the skin (keratin)
C Present in the neurons (neurofilaments)
D Present in the glial cells (glial filaments)
118. The following organelles are membranous organelles EXCEPT

A Mitochondria
B Annulat lamellae
C Centrosome
D endosome

A Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B Annulat lamellae
C Ribosome
D endosome
120. The following organelles are non membranous organelles EXCEPT
A Coated vesicles
B Microtubules
C Centrosome
D Centeriol

A Mitochondria
B Annulat lamellae
C Centrosome
D Endosome
122. Filaments are

A Cytoplasmic inclusions
B Microtubules
C Membranous organelles
D Non of the above
Inclusions
123. Cytoplasmic inclusions have the following characteristics EXCEPT
A Nonliving components
B Not bounded by cell membrane
C Metabolically active
D Usually destroy the cells
124. Glycogen granules are

A Stored food
B Exogenous pigments
C Endogenous pigments
D Crystals
125. lipids are

A Stored food
D Crystals
126. Hemoglobin is
A Stored food
D Crystals
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127. Carotene is
A Stored food
D Crystals
128. Carbon particles are

A Stored food
D Crystals
129. Melanin is
A Stored food
D Crystals
130. Lipofusin is
A Stored food
D Crystals
131. Glycogen granules are

A Most common storage form of glucose
B Most abundant pigments in the body
C Stored mainly in the adipocytes
D Manufactured by melanocytes
132. lipids are

133. Hemoglobin is
134. Melanin is
135. lipids
A Stored mainly in the muscle cells
B Can be stained with PAS
C Mainly stored in the liver cells
D Non of the above
136. Concerning the glycogen granules, the following statements are true
EXCEPT
A Visible by LM as clusters of β particles
B Can be stained with PAS
C Abundant in liver cells and muscles
D Break down to glucose
137. Concerning lipid droplets, the following statements are true EXCEPT
A Stored mainly in the adipocytes
B In the histological sections appear as clear rounded vacuoles
C Stained by Saudan black and Saudan III
D Undetectable by EM
138. Melanosomes
A Are organelles of melanocytes
B Are cell inclusions of melanin pigments
C Transferred to keratinocytes
D Non of the above
139. One statement is NOT true

A Melanin is an endogenous pigment
B Melanin is present in some brain cells
C Melanin is a membranous organelle
D Melanin manufactured by melanocyte
Nucleus
140. Multinucleated cells
A Cells which have two nuclei
B Cell which have more than two nuclei
C Cells which have polyploidy nucleus
D Cells which peripheral nucleus
141. Each of the following statement concerning nucleus is true EXCEPT
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A Basophilic
B Not present in RBCs
C Deeply stained in lymphocytes
D Very small in the blood platelets
142. Following statements concerning nuclear envelope are true EXCEPT
A Formed of two membranes
B Perforated at various interval by nuclear pores
C Not resolved by EM
D Has perinuclear cisterna (10 – 30 nm)

A The outer membrane is 6 nm
B The inner membrane is 6 nm
C The perinuclear cisterna is 10 – 30 nm
D Has no pores to protect the DNA

A The outer membrane is continuous with the RER
B The outer membrane has many ribosomes
C The inner membrane in close contact with nuclear lamina
D Prevents completely the passage of macromolecules to inside the nucleus
145. Nuclear pores

A The sites of nuclear envelope perforation
B Sites at which the inner and the outer membranes are continuous
C Regulate the exchange of substances between nucleus and cytoplasm
D All of the above
146. Nuclear pore complex refers to

A The nuclear pores
B Non membranous structure fits the pores
C Rim of the nuclear pores
D All of the above
147. Each of the following statement concerning the nuclear pore complex
is true EXCEPT
A Formed of two coaxial rings
B Each ring is formed of 8 subunits
C Eight spokes project from the eight subunits
D All of the above
148. Each of the following statement concerning the heterochromatin is
true EXCEPT
A It is a condensed inactive form of chromatin
B Deeply stained with basic dyes
C Prominent in the active protein synthesizing nuclei
D Of three forms; peripheral, nucleolar associated and chromatin islands
149. Nucleolus
A Deeply basophilic because it contains great amount of inactive DNA
B Spherical structure with single nuclear membrane
C Easy to see during mitosis
D Stains basophilic being rich in rRNA and protein
150. Euchromatin
A Not visible with LM
B Represents the inactive form of chromatin
C Is a nucleolar associated chromatin
D Deeply stained with basic dyes
151. Nucleolus associated heterochromatin

A Is a membrane surrounds the nucleolus
B Is a heterochromatin attached to the nucleolus
C Nucleolar organizer regions
D Non of the above
152. Nucleolus formed of three regions

A Pars granulosa, pars fibrosa and nucleolar organizer regions
B Peripheral , nucleolar associated chromatin and chromatin islands
C rRNA , ribosomal proteins and DNA
D Heterochromatin, euchromatin and nucleolar matrix
153. Pars granulosa of the nucleolus is

A Electron dense granules containing rRNA and ribonucleoproteins
B Representing the newly synthesized rRNA
C Representing nucleolar organizer regions
D All of the above
154. Nucleolar organizer regions

A Represents regions of chromosomes that have nucleolar genes
B Regions where the gene loci encoding rRNA are located
C Regions on chromosomes number, 13,14,15,21 and 22
D All of the above
DNA
155. Codon
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A Is a triplet of consecutive bases
B Codon is present on the DNA
C Each amino acid is represented by different codon
D All of the above
156. DNA molecule consists of

A Polynucleotide chains
B Polypeptide chains
C Polynitrogenous bases sequences
D Many phosphate groups
157. Genes
A Are units of hereditary
B Represents a segment of the DNA molecule
C Cods for a particular protein synthesis
D All of the above
158. Genes
A Carried at a specific site on the chromosome
B Is a sequence of amino acids
C Is a segment of RNA molecule
D Has no codons
159. Genome
A Is the total number of genes in one cell
B Is the total number of genes on one chromosome
C Is the total number of chromosomes
D Is the total amount of DNA
160. DNA replication

A Is the process by which the DNA molecules are duplicated
B Is the process by which the DNA molecules are transcriped
C Is the process which occurs in the G2 phase of cell cycle
D Is the process by which the centromer becomes duplicated
161. DNA replication depends upon

A Complementary base pairing
B Presence of genes
C Histon and non histon proteins
D All of the above
A A complementary with T
B A complementary with G
C C complementary with T
D A complementary with C
RNA
163. The following statements describe the difference between RNA and
DNA EXCEPT
A RNA is a single strand
B The sugar in RNA is ribose instead of deoxyribose
C The base uracil instead of thymine
D RNA not present in the nucleus
164. There are three types of RNA

A Messenger, ribosomal and transfer RNA
B Complementary region, start codon and stop codon
C Nuclear, nucleolar and cytoplasmic RNA
D Non of the above

A RNA is a sequence of nucleotides
B DNA is a single strand
C DNA is present only inside the nucleus
D The sugar in the RNA is deoxyribose instead of ribose
166. The following statements concerning the RNA is true EXCEPT

A It is formed of sequence of nucleotide
B It is a single strand
C The sugar in the RNA is ribose instead of deoxyribose
D The base uracil (U) is present instead of Guanine (G)
167. Messenger RNA

A A carrier for genetic information encoded in DNA
B Synthesized in the pars fibrosa of nucleolus
C Has an anticodon sites
D Once it is formed in the cytoplasm, it is transported to the nucleus
168. Ribosomal RNA

169. Transfer RNA

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170. Transfer RNA

A Transfers the genetic information encoded in DNA
B Transfers the amino acids to the ribososme-mRNA complex
C Contains start codon and stop codon
D Non of the above
171. The following statements concerning the rRNA are true EXCEPT
A It is synthesized in the pars fibrosa of nucleolus
B It is joined to both large and small subunits of ribosome
C It is the main cause of basophilic cytoplasm
D It contains start codon and stop codon
172. The following statements concerning the mRNA are true EXCEPT
B Once it is formed in the nucleus, it is transported to the cytoplasm
C It has the start codon and stop codon
D The sugar in the mRNA is deoxyribose instead of ribose
173. The following statements concerning the mRNA are true EXCEPT
A It has specific attachment site for one of the different 20 amino acids
B It has anti-codon site
C It transfers amino acids to the ribosome
D It is synthesized in the pars fibrosa of nucleolus
174. Complementary copy of DNA is called

A rRNA
B mRNA
C tRNA
D All of the above
175. Codon is a word consists of

A one letter
B 2 letters
C 3 letters
D 4 letters
176. Codon
A Corresponds to a particular amino acid
B Corresponds to a particular polypeptide chain
C Corresponds to a particular protein
D Corresponds to a particular gene
177. Gene
A Corresponds to a particular polypeptide chain
B Corresponds to a particular sequence of codons
C Corresponds to a particular sequence polynucleotide chain
D All of the above
178. Which of the following arrangements is true (concerning protein

synthesis)
A Unwinding , transcription and translation
B Unwinding translation, and transcription
C Unwinding , transfer and translation
D Unwinding , replication and translation
179. Template strand of DNA

A To assemble and polymerize complementary bases on mRNA
B For synthesis of new strand
C A&B
D Non of the above
180. TGA is a codon on the DNA, it is transcribed on mRNA as

A ACU
B ACT
C UCT
D UCU
181. mRNA
A Carry decoded information from DNA cods
B Pass to the cytoplasm where the information it carry are decoded
C Has no cods
D Has anticodons
182. The direction of protein synthesis is usually

A DNA, RNA, protein
B RNA, DNA, protein
C DNA,, DNA, protein
D Non of the above
Cell activities
183. Membrane trafficking
26
A A cycle of exocytosis/endocytosis
B Movement of membrane to and from various component of the cell
C A&B
D Non of the above
184. The following statements concerning the apoptosis are true EXCEPT
A Active cell death
B Programmed cell death
C Normal death in life spanned cells
D A form of necrosis
185. Necrosis is a cell death which occurs as result of

A Exposure of the cells to mechanical cell injury
B Exposure of the cells to toxins
C Exposure of the cells to anoxia
D All of the above
Cell cycle
186. Duplication of DNA and centeriol takes place in
A G0 phase
B G1 phase
C G2 phase
D S phase
187. During G1
A DNA duplication occur
B The chromosomes are formed of 2 chromatids
C The amount of DNA is 4 N
D The cells synthesize RNA and proteins essential for cell division
188. In the metaphase stage

A The nuclear membrane disappears
B The chromosomes arranged in equatorial plane
C The mitotic spindle elongated
D All of the above
189. Concerning prophase, all the following statements are true EXCEPT
A Two centeriol pairs migrate to the opposite poles
B Mitotic spindle starts to appear
C Chromosomes start to condense
D Cytoplasmic furrow develops
190. Stem cells are cells that

A Stay in G0
B Can return to the cell cycle
C Can differentiate to progenitor cells
D All of the above
191. Cell cycle is

A The cell life between two S phases
B The life of highly differentiated cells
C Better to study in heart muscle cells
D Non of the above
192. The prophase of the 1st meiotic division….

A Lasts 22 hours in male and 12 –50 years in female
B Lasts 22 days in male and 12–50 years in female
C Lasts 22 days in female and 12– 50 years in male
D Lasts 22 days in male and 12–50 months in female
193. Stem cell is

A Highly differentiated cell
B The progeny of highly differentiated cell
C Permanent stem cell
D Not present in the liver
194. Heart muscle cells are

A Potentially renewing cells
B Continually renewing cells
C Non renewing cells
D Non of the above
195. Progenitor cells are

A Highly differentiated cell
B Undifferentiated cells
C Less differentiated cells
D Can produce all types of cells
196. Diakinesis is
A Last stage in prophase of the1st meiotic division
B Last stage in the cell cycle
C Last stage in 2nd meiotic division
D Last stage of the prophase of mitosis
197. When liver partially removed

28
A Stem cell restore the depleted cells
B Liver cells divide to restore the depleted cells
C It cannot restore its cells
D It is replaced by connective tissue
198. Following stem cells are multipotential EXCEPT

A Blood stem cells
B Spermatogenic cells
C Small intestine stem cells
D Skin stem cells
199. Pluripotential cells means

A Cells that give one type of cells
B Cells that give all types of cells
C Cells that can give many types of cells
D Non of the above
200. Chiasmata is
A Crossing of homologous chromosomes one another
B Breakage of chromosomes at certain sites
C A character of zygotene
D The exchange of genetic material
201. Nerve cells

A Are highly differentiated cells
B Can not divide
C Have no stem cells
D All of the above
202. Gametes (sperms and ova) are

A The end product of the mitotic division
B Cells which have diploid amount of DNA
C Cells which have diploid number of chromosomes
D Non of the above
203. In all types of cell division, migration of chromosomes starts in

A Prophase
B Metaphase
C Anaphase
D Telophase
204. Double chromosome is seen in

A Metaphase of mitosis
B Pachytene of mieosis
C A and B
D Non of the above
205. Nuclear envelope disappears in metaphase and reconstituted in

A Anaphase
B Prophase
C Telophase
D After the end of mitosis
206. Bivalent chromosomes in the cell division means

A Double chromosomes
B Homologous chromosomes
C Spitted chromosomes
D Non of the above
207. In all divisions the chromosome splits into two chromatids Except in
A 1st meiotic divison
B 2nd meiotic division
C Mitosis
D Non of the above
208. Meiosis produces haploid cells (23 chromosomes) because

A It consists of two successive division
B One cell produces 4 cells
C It consists of two successive division without S phase
D Non of the above
209. In meiosis exchange of genetic materials occurs in

A Anaphase of 1st meiotic division
B Prophase of 2nd meiotic division
C Prophase of 1st meiotic division
D Non of the above
210. Nucleosome
A Subunit A of ribosome
B Protein around the centromer
C Core of four types of histones and two rounds of DNA
D Chromatin fiber with 300 nm thickess
211. Human somatic cells have

30
A 22 auotomes and one pair of sex chromosomes
B 22 pairs of autosomes and two sex chromosomes
C A or B
D Non of the above
212. Haploid number of chromosomes means

A The number of chromosomes in gametes
B Number of autosomes
C Chromosomes of maternal origin
D Chromosomes of paternal origin
213. Causes of chromosomal aberrations

A Ionizing radiation
B Virus
C Drugs
D All of the above
214. Triploidy is a form of

A Polyploidy
B Aneuploidy
C Trisomy
D Monosomy
215. Tetraploidy is a form of

A Trisomy
B Aneuploidy
C Polyploidy
D Monosomy
216. Hypolpoidy is a form of

A Polyploidy
B Aneuploidy
C Trisomy
D Non of the above
217. Hyperlpoidy is a form of

A Polyploidy
B Aneuploidy
C Monosomy
D Non of the above
218. Primary nondisjunction is the
A Failure of two homologous chrom. to separate in the1st meiotic division
B Failure of two homologous chrom. to separate in the 2nd meiotic division
C Failure of two homologous chromosomes to arrange in equatorial plane
D Failure of one homologous chromosomes to duplicate
219. Secondary nondisjunction is the

A Failure of two homologous chromo. to separate in the1st meiotic division
B Failure of two chromatids to separate in the 2nd meiotic division
220. Simple loss of a chromosome is the

221. Failure of duplication is the

D Failure of one homologous chromosomes to duplicate during S phase
222. The following statements concerning the monosomy is true EXCEPT

A Usually lethal when occurs in autosomes
B It means hypoploidy (45 chromosomes)
C It explains Down syndrome
D It explains Turner syndrome
223. Trisomy of
A Chromosome 21 = Down syndrome
B Chromosome Y = Klinefelter syndrome
C Chromosome 5 = cri du cat syndrome
D Chromosome X = Turner syndrome
224. All the following statements concerning the Klinefelter syndrome is

true EXCEPT
A The baby is female in phenotype
B The cell contain extra X chromosome
C Its karyotype is 22 autosomes + XXY (47)
D One Bar body
225. The following cases show one Bar body EXCEPT

32
A Klinefelter syndrome
B Turner syndrome
C Female mongol
D Normal female
226. The following cases show no Bar body

A Klinefelter syndrome
B Turner syndrome
C Female mongol
D Normal female
227. Mocaisim
A Is the presence of different karyotypes in an individual
B Is the presence of different cells in a tissue
C Is the presence of different tissues in an organ
D When cells viewed from the surface it appears hexagonal (mosaic)
228. Deletion means

A Loss of fragmented portion of the chromosome
B Inversion of fragmented portion of the chromosome
C Duplication of certain portion of the chromosome
D Translocation of fragmented portion of the chromosome
229. Inversion means

A Loss of fragmented portion of the chromosome
B Inversion of fragmented portion of the chromosome
C Duplication of certain portion of the chromosome
D Translocation of fragmented portion of the chromosome
230. Ring chromosome

A Occurs after two terminal deletions
B Occurs after two interstitial deletions
C Results in Robertsonian translocation
D Results from Robertsonian translocation
231. Translocation
A Occurs between two homologous chromosomes
B Occurs between two non-homologous chromosomes
C A or B
D Non of the above
232. Isochromosome
A Arises through transverse splitting of the centromere
B Arises through longitudinal splitting of the centromere
C Arises through inversion of the centromere
D All of the above
Epithelium
233. Which of the followings is NOT a character of the epithelium
A Closely arranged cells
B Very little intercellular substances
C Cells are strongly adherent
D Rich in lymphatic
234. Which is NOT a character of the epithelium

A Attached to underlying tissue by basement membrane
B Subject to degeneration and regeneration
C Derived from all three germ layers (ect, endo and meso-derm)
D Rich in blood vessels
235. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is

A Transitionalepithelium
B Stratified columnar epithelium
C A simple columnar epithelium
D It is a false appearance of epithelium, it is CT

A Simple squamous epithelium has flat nuclei
B Simple columnar epithelium present in the nasal surface of the soft palate
C Simple cuboidal epithelium forms the skin
D Simple squamous epithelium of two types; keratinized or non-keratinized

A Squamous cells have flat nuclei
B Columnar cells have oval nuclei
C Cuboidal cells have rounded nuclei
D Pseudostratified columnar epithelium cells have no nuclei
238. Stratified epithelium formed of

A Several types of cells
B Several layers of cells
C Several types of simple epithelium
D Several layers of simple epithelium
239. In the stratified squamous epithelium
A The basal layer is squamous cells
34
B The basal layer is columnar cells
C The basal layer is polyhydral cells
D Non of the above
240. Stratified squamous non keratinized epithelium

A Covered by thick layer of keratin
B Present in the moist surfaces (mouth, pharynx, and esophagous)
C Forms the epidermis of the skin
D Lines the trachea
241. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

A Covered by thick layer of keratin
B Present in the moist surfaces (mouth, pharynx, and esophagous)
C Lines the digestive tract
D Lines the uterus
242. All the statements concerning the transitional epithelium is true

EXCEPT
A Exclusively in the urinary system
B Superficial cells occasionally bicnucleated
C Basal layer is squamous cells
D The number of cell layers is changeable
243. The followings are free surface specialization EXCEPT

A Microvilli
B Cilia
C Streocilia
D Phagocytosis
Microvilli
244. The microvilli have a core consists of
A Nine triplets of microtubules
B Nine doublets of microtubules and two central singlet
C Actin filaments
D Non of the above
245. Terminal web is

A Terminal deletion of the chromosome
B Complex of transversely actin and intermediate filaments
C Terminal portion of the microvilli
D Formed of tubulin protein
246. The acin filaments forms the core of the microvilli, it is embedded in
A Basal body
B Kinetochore
C Terminal web
D Cetrosome
247. Microvilli under light microscope are described as

A Brush border
B Striated border
C A or B
D Non of the above
248. Fimbrin proteins in the microvilli

A Cross link the actin filaments together
B Cross link the actin filaments with cell membrane
C All of the above
D Non of the above

A Stereocilia is long microvilli
B Stereocilia is long cilia
C Stereocilia is short flagella
D Stereocilia consists of 9 triplets of microtubules
250. Stereocilia have the following function /s

A Increase the surface area
B Signal generation in the ear
C A an B
D Movement of the mucous
Cell junction
251. The following statements concerning the zonula occludenc are true
EXCEPT
A They are belt like junction
B The most apically located junction
C No space between the two cells
D Present between heart muscle cells
252. The following statements concerning the facia occludenc are true
EXCEPT
A They are not extending around the whole cell
B No space between the two cells
C Present between the endothelial cells of the blood vessels
D Present between smooth muscle cells
253. Function/s of the tight junctions is/ are
A Prevents water soluble substances from passing between the cells
36
B Prevents movement of the integral proteins
C A and B
D Non of the above
254. Zonula adherence

A They are belt like junction with a space of 15-20nm
B The most apically located junction
C Prevents water soluble substances from passing between the cells
D Present between heart muscle cells
255. Desmosome (macula adherence)

A Disk shaped plaque of electron dense materials
C Dense vertical line
D All of the above
256. The following statements concerning desmosome are true EXCEPE

A Abundant in the prickle cell layer of the skin
B Abundant between the heart muscle cells
C Abundant in the intestinal epithelial cells
D The intercellular space at desmosome is zero nm
257. Junctional complex is formed of three types of junctions

A Zonula occludense, zonula adherence and macula adherence
B Zonula occludense, zonula adherence and gap junction
C Zonula occludense, zonula adherence and hemidesmosome
D Zonula occludense, facia adherence and gap junction
258. Gap junction (nexus) is

A Occluding junction
B Adhering junction
C Communicating junction
D All of the above
259. All the following statements concerning gap junction (nexus) are true
EXCEPT
A Leaves an intercellular cleft 2-3 nm
B Minute structure bridging the gap called connexons
C Each connexon consists of six subunits
D Provides an actual fusion of adjacent two cell membranes
260. The following statements concerning gap junction (nexus) are true
EXCEPT
A It links the interior of adjacent cells
B It permits ions and small molecule to pass from one cell to another
C They transmit impulses at certain synapses
D Provides an actual fusion of adjacent two cell membranes
Basement membrane
261. Concerning the basement membrane ONE statement is true
A It is supporting layer between the epithelium and connective tissue
B Basal lamina synthesized by epithelial cells
C Lamina reticularis manufactured by connective tissue cells
D All of the above
262. Basal lamina by EM is formed of two layers

A Basement membrane and lamina lucida
B Lamina lucida and lamina densa
C Lamina lucida and lamina reticularis
D Lamina densa and basal lamina
263. Function of basal lamina

A Support the epithelium
B Molecular sieve
C Regulate cell proliferation
D All of the above
264. The following statements concerning lamina reticularis are true

EXCEPT
A Manufactured by reticulocytes
B Composed of type I and type III collagen
C Present between basallamina and underlying CT
D Manufactured by fibroblast
265. Metaplasia is
A Dissolving of cell junctions
B Transformation of one type of epithelium to another
C Removal of basement membrane
D All of the above
Glandular epithelium
266. According to the mode of secretion the exocrine glands classified into
A Apocrine, holocrine and merocrine glands
B Mucous, serous and mucoserous glands
C Simple, branched, and compound glands
D Alveolar, tubular and tubuloalveolar glands
267. According to nature of secretion the exocrine glands classified into
A Apocrine, holocrine and merocrine glands
38
B Mucous, serous and mucoserous glands
C Simple, branched, and compound glands
D Alveolar, tubular and tubuloalveolar glands
268. Concerning the classification of the exocrine glands the term

"simple" refers that
A Its duct is not branching
B Its secretory part is one unit
C Its secretory part is tubular
D Its secretory part is alveolar
269. Concerning the exocrine glands the term "tubular" refers to

A Its duct is not branching
B Its secretory part is one unit
C Its secretory part is tubular
270. Concerning the exocrine glands the term "compound" refers to

A Its duct is branching
B Its secretory part is branching
C A and B
271. Concerning the exocrine glands the term "branched" refers to

A Its duct is branching
B Its secretory part is branching
C A and B
272. Mixed gland is a mixture of

A Endocrine and exocrine glands
B Simple and compound glands
C Unicellular and multicellular glands
D Stroma and parenchyma
273. Concerning the myoepithelial cells all the following statements are
true EXCEPT
A They are spindle shaped cells
B They contain actin and myosin
C They can contract
D They are related to the endocrine glands
A Neuroepithelium is a special type of nerve cells modified to epithelium
B Neuroepithelium is a special type of epithelium modified to sensory
function
C Neuroepithelium means that nerve and epithelium are of the same origin
D Neuroepithelium means that epithelium develop from the nerve
Connective tissue
275. Connective tissue is
A Mesodermal in origin
B Ectodermal in origin
C Endodrmal in origin
D All of the above
276. In the C.T., the fixed cells

A Are resident population of cells
B Arise from bone marrow
C Are short-lived cells
D Are motile cells
277. In the C.T., the free cells are

A Cells which originate mostly arise from bone marrow
B Long lived cells
C Pericytes, adipose cells and fixed macrophage
D All of the above
278. The following cells are resident (fixed) in CT EXCEPT

A Fibroblast
B Adipose cells
C Pigment cells
D Reticular cells
279. The following cells are transient (free) in CT EXCEPT

A Plasma cells
B Mast cells
C Leucocytes
D Endothelial cells
280. The most correct statement

A CT is formed of free cells, fixed cells and different fibers
B CT is formed of cells, fibers and ground substance
C CT is formed of cells, and ground substance
D CT is formed of cells, filaments and ground substance
281. The followings are characters of CT EXCEPT
A It is mesodermal in origin
40
B Formed of arranged one type of cells resting on basement membrane
C Formed of cells, fibers and ground substance
D It is classified into proper and specialized CT
282. CT mesenchymal cells have the following charcters EXCEPT

A They are stem cells
B They are multipotential cells
C They can differentiate into other types of CT cells
D They are active cells
Fibroblast
283. Fibroblast in the histology is a good example for
A Active cells
B Free CT cells
C Steroid secreting cells
D Undifferentiated stem cells
284. Fibroblast has

A Acidophilc cytoplasm
B Pale nucleus, prominent nucleolus and basophilic cytoplasm
C Dark nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm
D Abundant SER
285. Fibroblast has the following functions EXCEPT

A Synthesis of CT fibers
B Synthesis of ground substances
C Secretion of tropocollagen
D Secretion of heparin
286. One statement is correct

A Fibrocyte is much large in size than fibroblast
B Fibrocyte has more basophilic cytoplasm than fibroblast
C Fibrocyte is quiescent state of fibroblast
D Fibrocyte has more abundant RER than fibroblast
287. All the followings are concerned to the function of the fibroblast
EXCEPT
A Secretion of elastin and fibrillin
B Secretion of tropocollagen
C Repair of injuries
D Growth of epithelium
288. All the statements are actually concerned to myofibrobalst EXCEPT

A They are modified fibroblast
B They have the characters of fibroblast and smooth muscle cells
C They have actin and myosisn
D They are related to the endocrine glands acini
Macrophage
289. Macrophages
A Migrates to the blood and become monocytes
B And monocytes are different cells in the same stage of maturation
C Arise from the same precursor cells that produce monocytes
D Some times referred as fibrocyte
290. Which of the following cells can be stained with vital stains
A Macrophage
B Fibrocyte
C Plasma cell
D Pericyte
291. The following cells are types of macrophages EXCEPT

A Langerhan cells
B Kupffer cells
C Microglia
D Reticular cells
292. The following cells are types of macrophages EXCEPT

A Langerhan cells
B Kupffer cells
C Osteoclast
D Fibrocyte
293. Epithelioid cells

A Are phagocytic cells in origin
B Are epithelial like cells
C Have an exocrine function
D Can differentiate to pseudostratified epithelium
294. Concerning "foreign body giant cells", one statement is true

A They are multinucleated macrophage
B They are small histocytes
C They result from multiple divisions of macrophage
D They invade the tissue when giant foreign body is present
295. EM picture of macrophage shows the followings EXCEPT
A Prominent Golgi complex
42
B Prominent RER
C Many lysosomes
D Zymogen granules
296. One site for corresponding type of macrophages is NOT correct

A Kupffer cells in the liver
B Dust cells in the lung
C Langerhans cell in the pancreas
D Microglia in bone marrow
297. The followings are members of mononuclear phagocytic system

EXCEPT
B UMS in the connective tissue
C Langerhans cell in the skin
D Dust cells in the lung
298. Members of mononuclear phagocytic system EXCEPT

B Microglia in the brain
C Osteoclast cell in the bone
D UMS in the lung
299. The followings are the functions of phagocytic cells EXCEPT

A Phagocytosis
B Antigen presenting cells
C Immunity
D Collagen secretion
300. Macrophages are of two types

A Free and fixed
B Unilocular and multilocular
C Primary and secondary
D Any of the above
Adipocytes
301. Adipocytes are of two types
A Free and fixed
B Unilocular and multilocular
C Primary and secondary
D Any of the above
302. Concerning the unilocular adipocyte
A Contain large number of lipid droplets
B They form brown connective tissue
C Are cells with single large lipid droplet
D Are cells with prominent Golgi complex and RER
303. Concerning the multilocular adipocyte

A Contain large number of lipid droplets
B They form brown connective tissue
C Are cells with single large lipid droplet
D Are cells with prominent Golgi complex and RER
304. White adipose connective tissue

A Formed mainly of multilocular adipocytes
B Formed mainly of unilocular adipocytes
C All of the above
D Non of the above
305. "Signet ring appearance" is a descriptive term for the

A Fat cells stained with sudan III
B Fat cells stained with sudan black
C Fat cells stained with sudan H/E
D Fat cells stained with toludin blue
306. Concerning the reticular cells, the followings are true EXCEPT
A Present mainly in the stroma of the organs
B Considered as fibroblast
C Are active cells
D Has a phagocytic function
307. Endothelial cells are the followings EXCEPT

A Simple squamous epithelial cells
B Mesodermal in origin
C Secret type I collagen fibers
D Having tight junctions between their lateral borders
308. Endothelial cells have the following functions EXCEPT

A Epithelial lining of the circulatory system
B Exchange through the capillaries
C Produce type III collagen
D Formation of the elastin
Plasma cell
309. Russell bodies are spherical inclusion present in
44
A Fat cells
B Plasma cells
C Phagocytic cells
D Endothelial cells
310. Negative Golgi image is a microscopic future of

A Plasma cells
B Pancreatic cells
C Reticular cells
D Pericytes
311. Plasma cells

A Differentiate from UMC
B Differentiate from B-lymphocytes
C Differentiate from T-lymphocytes
D Differentiate from precursor cells of lymphocytes
312. Intense basophilic cytoplasm in the plasma cell is referred to

A Well developed RER and abundance ribosomes
B Few mitochondaria
C Secretory granules
D Centerioles
313. Clock face nucleus is discretion for the nucleus of

A Lymphocyte B
B Lymphocyte T
C Plasma cells
D All of the above
314. Function of plasma cells

A Differentiate to B-lymphocyte
B Secretion of the antibodies
C Phagocytosis of antigens
D Secretion of histamine for vasodilatation
Mast cells
315. Concerning the metachromasia, the followings are true EXCEPT
A A phenomenon related to the used stain
B The stained granules gives color different from the color of the stain
C A character of the phagocytic cells
D Can stain heterochromatin
316. Mast cells synthesize and secrete
A Heparin
B Histamine
C Serotonin
D All of the above
317. After staining the CT with toludin blue the cells which have magenta
granules are
A Plasma cells
B Mast cells
C Phagocytic cells
D Endothelial cells
318. Mast cells are abundant in the CT of the

A Skeletal muscle
B Cardiac muscle
C Respiratory and digestive system
D Eye
319. The cell membrane of the mast cells have specific receptors for
A IgM
B IgG
C IgA
D IgE
320. In the immediate hypersensitivity reaction

A IgE is involved
B The mast cells are sensitized
C The mast cells are degranulated
D All of the above
321. In hyperallergic persons

A The hypersensitivity reaction is sever
B The hypersensitivity reaction is systemic
C The hypersensitivity reaction leads to anaphylactic shock
D All of the above
322. Antigens which conjugate IgE leads to degranulation of

A Macrophages
B Mast cells
C Neutrophiles
D Monocytes
323. Antigens which conjugate IgE (venom and pollen) leads to release of
46
A Histamine and heparin from mast cells
B Antibodies from plasma cells
C Hydrolytic enzymes from lysosomes
D Melanin from melanophores
324. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction is

A An immune response
B An inflammatory response
C A and B
D Non of the above
Pigment cells
325. Pigment cells are
A Macrophages phagocytose melanin pigment
B Melanocytes
C Langerhans cells
D Non of the above
326. Melanophores are

A Melanin forming cells
B Melanin carrier cells
C Epithelial cells
D All of the above
327. Macrophages that phagocytose melanin pigments are called

A Melanocytes
B Melanophores
C Pigment cells
D B and C
Collagen fibers
328. Collagen fibers have the following characters EXCEPT
A Thick, unbranched and aggregate to form bundles
B Elastic
C Flexible to resist the tension
D Colorless in unstained preparation
329. Collagen fibers have the following characters EXCEPT

A White in unstained preparation (when present in great number)
B Acidophilic
C Stain pink with H/E
D Branched fibers
330. After staining of collagen fibers

A With H/E it appears pink
B With Mallory it appears blue
C With Masson's trichrome it appears green
D All of the above
331. With EM, the collagen fibers consists of fibrils having diameter of
A 50 – 90 nm
B 50 – 90 mm
C 50 – 90 µm
D Non of the above
332. With EM, the collagen fibrils have transverse striations of

A 67 nm
B 90 mm
C 280 µm
D 50 subunits
333. With EM, the collagen fibrils formed of

A Elastin protein
B Collagen fibers
C Tropocollagen
D Non of the above
334. Tropocollagen is
A Formed of 3 alpha polypeptide chains
B Of 280 nm in length
C Of 1.5 nm in diameter
D All of the above
335. The most abundant protein in the human body

A Hemoglobin
B Myoglobin
C Collagen
D Albumin
336. The most common type of collagen is

A Type I
B Type III
C Type V
D Type VI
337. Type I collagen fiber is found abundant in

48
A Hyaline cartilage
B Reticular CT
C Tendon
D Basal lamina of the epithelium
338. Reticular fibers are formed of

A Type I
B Type III
C Type V
D Type IV
339. Type II collagen protein is abundant in

A Hyaline cartilage
B Tendons
C Stroma of the glands
D The dermis as anchoring fibers
340. In the basal lamina of the epithelia

A Type I collagen protein is abundant
B Type IV collagen protein is abundant
C Type II collagen protein is abundant
D Type VII collagen protein is abundant
341. Anchoring fibers which bind dermis to the epidermis is of

A Type I
B Type III
C Type VII
D Type IV
342. In the synthesis of collagen fibers one arrangement is correct

A Protocollagen, preprocollagen, procollagen and collagen fibrils
B Preprocollagen, procollagen, protocollagen and collagen fibrils
C Preprocollagen, protocollagen, procollagen and collagen fibrils
D Procollagen, protocollagen, preprocollagen, and collagen fibrils
343. In the synthesis of collagen fibers one statement is NOT correct

A It is formed by fibroblast
B Preprcollagen is assembled in the RER of the fibroblast
C Prcollagen is assembled in the RER of the fibroblast
D Collagen fibrils are formed extracellularly
344. In the fibroblast one statement is NOT correct
A On its ribosomes synthesis preprocollagen
B In its RER the procollagen is assembled
C In its Golgi the addition of oligosaccharides occurs
D Collagen fibrils is present in its secretory vesicles
345. Reticular fibers have the following characters EXCEPT

A Stained black with silver (argyrophilic)
B Positive for PAS
C From the stroma of various organs
D They are unbranched fibers
346. The following CT fibers can branch EXCEPT

A Collagen fibers type I
B Elastic fibers
C Reticular fibers
D Collagen fibers type III
Elastic fibers
347. What are stretchable CT fibers?
B Elastic fibers
C Reticular fibers
348. What are flexible CT fibers?

B Elastic fibers
C Reticular fibers
349. What are CT fibers yellow in fresh state?

B Elastic fibers
C Reticular fibers
D Collagen fibers type VII
350. Concerning to the elastic fibers, the following concepts are correct
EXCEPT
A They are composed of elastin protein
B It is resistant to hydrolysis by acids and alkali
C It is digestible by elastase enzyme
D It is formed by skeletal muscle fibers
351. Elastic fibers
A Does not exhibit axial periodicity
50
B Made up of fibrils
C Does not branch
D Digestible by gastric HCl
352. Elastic fibers are NOT abundant in

A The wall of the large arteries
B The lung
C Elastic ligaments
D Tendons
353. Regarding the staining, the following are true EXCEPT

A Elastic fiber stain brown with orcien
B Reticular fibers stain pink with H/E
C Collagen fibers stain green with Masson trichrome
D Mast cells stain magenta with toludin blue
Ground substance
354. Ground substance of the CT is composed of the followings EXCEPT
A Glycosaminoglycan
B Proteoglycan
C Glycoproteins
D Phospholipids
355. Concerning to the glycosaminoglycan in CT matrix, the followings

are true EXCEPT
A Long unbranched polysaccharides
B Formed of chains of repeated disaccharides
C Sulfated or non-sulfated
D Globular proteins
356. The followings are sulfated glycosaminoglycan EXCEPT

A Heparin sulfate
B Chondroitin sulfate
C Keratin sulfate
D Hayluronic acid
357. The following is a non-sulfated glycosaminoglycan

A Dermatan sulfate
B Chondroitin sulfate
C Keratin sulfate
D Hayluronic acid
358. The followings are glycoproteins share in the matrix of CT EXCEPT

A Fibrinectin
B Heparin
C Osteonectin
D Chondonectin
359. CT is classified into CT proper and specific CT according to

A The matrix
B The fibers
C The cells
D All of the above
Connective tissue proper
360. The most widespread CT is
A Loose areolar CT
B Reticular CT
C Mucous CT
D Adipose CT
361. Loose arolar CT is abundant in

A Dermis and hypodermis of the skin
B Wharton's jelly
C The cartilage
D Wall of the elastic arteries
362. It forms the stroma of liver, lymph node and spleen

A Mucous CT
B Loose areolar CT
C Reticular CT
D Dense regular elastic CT
363. Concerning to the mucous CT, the followings are true EXCEPT
A It is jelly like
B It is rich in hyaluronic acid
C It has a abundant amount of collagen fibers type I
D It is the main component of umbilical cord
364. Dense CT
A Has more cells and few fibers
B Has more fibers and few cells
C Has few cells and huge amount of matrix
D Has few fibers and huge amount of matrix
365. Dense irregular CT is present in the following sites EXCEPT
A Capsule of the organs
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B Periosteum
C Fibrous coat of the eye
D Dura matter of the brain
366. Dense regular CT is of two types

A Collagen and elastic
B Collagen and reticular
C Elastic and reticular
D Non of the above
367. Dense regular elastic CT is abundant in the following tissues

EXCEPT
A Large blood vessels
B Ligamentum nuchae
C Ligamentum flava
D Lung CT
368. Functions of CT are the followings EXCEPT

A Provide binding and support of the parenchyma
B Provide a medium for gas and nutrient exchange
C Provide protection and defense against microorganisms
D Provide a conductive system in neuromuscular junction
Adipose tissue
369. The following organs devoid adipose CT EXCEPT
A Eyelids
B Penis
C Scrotum
D Buttocks of females
370. The following organs rich in adipose CT EXCEPT

A Breasts
B Eyelids
C Lobule of the external ear
D Ometum, mesentery, retroperitoneal area
371. The following concepts for adipose CT are correct EXCEPT

A It has a stroma of reticular fibers
B It has septa of loose CT
C It has sympathetic nerve supply
D It is not under hormonal control
372. The following concepts for adipose CT are correct EXCEPT
A It is the largest store of energy in the body
B It is in a state of continuous renewal
C It is of two types white and brown
D It is not under hormonal control
373. In the white adipose tissue, the adipocytes have the following
characters EXCEPT
A Are unilocular
B Contain small single lipid droplet (signet ring)
C Spherical in shape and 50-140 µm in diameter
D Have a prominent Golgi complex
374. Concerning brown fat, the followings are correct EXCEPT

A It shows an extensive vascularity
B It is composed of multilocular fat cells
C The cells contain abundant mitochondria
D It is more extensive in the elderly (old age)
375. In a comparison of white to brown fat, one statement is NOT correct

A White fat has more vascularity
B Brown fat produces more energy
C Brown fat is exclusively in neonates and certain animals
D White fat presents almost in all human adipose tissues
376. The followings are functions for adipose CT EXCEPT

A Gives the shape of the body
B Shock absorber
C Energy reservoir and regulation of body temperature
D Scar formation
377. The followings are functions for adipose CT EXCEPT

A Act as thermal insulator against heat loss
B Antibody secretion
C Keep some organs (like kidney) in position
D Fill the spaces between the tissues
Cartilage
378. The cartilage is a special type of CT because it has
A Firm flexible matrix
B Hard calcified matrix
C Watery solvent matrix
D Soft jelly matrix
A Cartilage rich in blood vessels, lymphatic and nerves
54
B Cartilage rich in blood vessels and devoid lymphatic and nerves
C Cartilage has no blood vessels lymphatic and nerves
D Cartilage has no blood vessels but rich in lymphatic and nerves
380. The followings are sources of nourishment for the cartilage EXCEPT
A Surrounding CT
B Synovial fluids in the joint cavity
C Blood capillaries between the chondrocytes
D Perichonderium
381. Three types of cartilage are identified, which is NOT?

A Hyaline cartilage
B Elastic cartilage
C Reticular cartilage
D Fibrocartilage
382. The most common type of cartilage in the body

A Elastic cartilage
B Fibrocartilage
C A&B
D Hyaline cartilage
383. The articular surfaces of the joints

A Formed of hyaline cartilage with perichonderium
B Formed of hyaline cartilage without perichonderium
C Formed of elastic cartilage
D Formed of fibrocartilage
384. Perichonderium has the following functions EXCEPT

A Essential for growth and repair of the cartilage
B Site of sensation
C Supplies the cartilage with nutrition
D Separate the cartilage from the synovial fluids
385. Three types of cells are present in the cartilage

A Fibroblasts, chondroblasts and chondrocytes
B Osteoclasts , chondroblasts and chondrocytes
C Chondrogenic cells, chondroblasts and chondrocytes
D Fibroblasts, fibrocytes and chondroblasts
386. Chondrogenic cells

A Derived from monocytes and differentiate to chondrocytes
B Derived from monocytes and differentiate to chondroblasts
C Derived from UMC and differentiate to chondroblasts
D Derived from UMC and differentiate to chondrocytes
387. Concerning the cartilage, the most active cell

A Chondrogenic cell
B Chondroblast
C Chondrocyte
D Non of the above is an active cell
388. The following concepts related to the chondroblasts are correct

EXCEPT
A Are basophilic with LM
B Rich in RER, Golgi and secretory vesicles with EM
C Proliferate and differentiate to chondrocytes
D They are present in lacunae
389. Chondrocytes
A More common in the perichonderium
B Present inside lacunae
C Differentiate to chondroblasts
D Multinucleated cells
390. In the cartilage, lacunae

A Are the spaces containing one or more of chondrocytes
B Are spaces formed after apoptosis of chondroblast
C Are spaces in the perichonderium facing the synovial fluid
D Is a space formed after death and shrinkage of its contents
391. Chondrocytes may be

A Small or large
B Young active or old inactive
C Young or active
D Present or not present in lacunae
392. In the fresh state of hyaline cartilage, the matrix is

A Semitranslucent and blue-grey
B Opaque
C Non-homogenous
D Has many pores (lacunae)
393. The matrix of the cartilage contains
A Proteoglycans bound to hayluronic acid
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B Glycosaminoglycan as keratin sulfate and chondroitin sulfate
C Glycoproteins as chondronectin
D All of the above
394. The matrix of the cartilage contains

B Collagen fibers type II
C Collagen fibers type III
D Collagen fibers type IV
395. With LM no fibers can be detected in the matrix of hyaline cartilage

because
A There is no fibers in the matrix
B The fiber are type III (reticular fibers)
C The fibers are type II
D Non of the above
396. Hyaline cartilage is present in the following sites EXCEPT

A Articular surfaces of the joints
B Skeleton of the fetus
C Costal cartilage
D Intervertebral disks
397. Hyaline cartilage is present in the following sites EXCEPT

A Respiratory passages
B Nose and in the larynx
C Epiphyseal plates of growing bones
D Ear pinna
398. The elastic cartilage contains

A Collagen fibers type II
B Elastic fibers
C Collagen fibers type I
D All of the above
399. In comparison to hyaline cartilage, the elastic cartilage

A Is more flexible
B Has less number of smaller Chondrocytes
C Has abundant matrix
D Is more common in the body tissues
400. Elastic cartilage is distributed in the following sites EXCEPT

A Ear pinna
B Eustachian tube
C Epiglottis
D Articular surfaces
401. In comparison to hyaline cartilage, the fibrocartilage

A Does not posses perichonderium
B Contains more matrix
C Is more basophilic
D Has less number of collagen fibers type I
402. The fibrocartilage has the following characters EXCEPT

A Yellow color in fresh state
B Does not posses perichonderium
C Contains large numbers of collagen fibers typeI
D Acidophilic cartilage
403. The fibrocartilage is present in the following sites EXCEPT

A Intervertebral disks
B Symphysis pupis
C End of tendons
D Ear pinna
404. Histology of the intervertebral disks refer the followings EXCEPT

A It is composed of nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus
B It can resist the displacement of the vertebrae
C The disk disappears at the age 20 year
D It can resist the force of compression
405. The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disk

A Consists of few cells, soft matrix and collagen fibers type II
B Is a ring of fibrocartilage surrounds the annulus fibrosus
C Has no haluronic acid in its matrix
D Its cells increase in number by the age of 20 years
406. The annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral disk

A Consists of few cells, soft matrix and collagen fibers type II
B Is a ring of fibrocartilage surrounds the annulus fibrosus
C Has no collagen fibers type I
D Its fibers increase in number by the age of 20 years
407. Herniation of the intervertebral disk
A Is a rupture of nucleus pulposus and herniation of annulus fibrosus
58
B Is a rupture of annulus fibrosus and herniation of nucleus pulposus
C A or B according to the cause
D Non of the above
Bone
408. Each of the following statement concerning the decalcified bone is
true EXCEPE
A The bone is decalcified in strong alkai
B The bone is decalcified in acid solution
C After decalcification the bone becomes soft tissue
D It is a method for bone processing for stained sections
409. Ground bone

A The bone sections obtained after decalcification
B Sections of bone stained with special stains
C Sections obtained from died bone by grinding
D Non of the above
410. Periosteum
A Is the most inner layer of the bone
B Is the most vascular layer of the bone
C Is formed of outer cellular and inner fibrous layers
D Is formed of outer fibrous and inner cellular layers
411. Sharpey's fibers

A Is the collagen bundles from the outer layer penetrate the matrix
B Bundles of fibers facing the articular surface of the bone
C Bundles of fibers forming the fibrocartilage
D Is the name of some tendons
412. Endosteum is
A The most outer layer of the bone
B Formed of inner cellular and outer fibrous layers
C A cellular layer lines the internal cavities of the bone
D All of the above
Bone cells
413. All the following cells are presented in the bone EXCEPT
A Oseoproginator cells
B Osteoblast
C Osteoclast
D Megakaryocyte
414. Statements concerning the osteoproginator cells are true EXCEPT
A They develop from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
B They are present in lacunae
C They distribute near or at the free surfaces of the bone
D They give rise to osteoblasts
415. Osteoproginator cells are present in the following sites EXCEPT

A Periosteum
B Endosteum
C Lining haversian canal
D Inside the lacunae of osteocytes
416. Osteoproginator cells give rise to

A Osteoblasts
B Osteocytes
C A &B
D Osteoclasts
417. The most active cells during growth of the bone are
A Osteoproginator cells
B Osteoblasts
C Osteocytes
D Osteoclasts
418. Each of the following statement concerning the osteoblasts is true

EXCEPT
A They are flat, cupoidal or columnar
B The cytoplasm is deeply basophilic
C Negative Golgi image in the cytoplasm
D Heterochromatic nucleus
419. Following statements concerning the osteoblasts are true EXCEPT

A They are active protein synthesizing cells
B They are present in lacunae of matrix
C They give positive PAS reaction
D They have well develop Golgi, RER and secretory vesicles
420. Each of the following statement concerning the functions of

osteoblasts is true EXCEPT
A Secretion of elastin
B Synthesis of collagen fibers (type I)
C Synthesis of oseonectin
D Synthesis of osteopntin
421. Osteoid tissue is
A An uncalcified matrix between osteoblasts and bone
60
B The bone formed after fracture
C A completely calcified bone
D The name of the bone after decalcification by acid solution
422. Osteocytes are mature bone cells that arise from

B Osteoblasts
C Osteoclasts
D Undifferentiated stem cells
423. Osteocytes have many processes that

A Penetrate the neighboring cells
B Have well developed Golgi
C Have gap junctions with the neighboring cells
D Have all of the above
424. Lacunae in the bone are the houses for osteocytes, they
A Are formed by osteoblasts
B Are formed by osteocytes
C Are formed by osteocalsts
D Have many one, two or four osteocytes
425. The following statements concerning the osteocytes are true EXCEPT
A Derived from osteoblasts
B Present in lacunae
C Maintain the bone
D Best examined in the periosteum
426. The following statements concerning the osteocytes are true EXCEPT
A They have many processes
B They receive nutrition through capillaries in the lacunae
C They have gap junctions
D They have small Golgi
427. When comparing the osteocytes with osteoblasts, the followings are
true EXCEPT
A Osteoblasts are more active
B Osteoblasts are present in lacunae
C Osteocytes have many processes
D Osteocytes are not present in the periosteum
428. Which of the following cells responsible for bone formation
A Osteocytes
B Osteoblasts
C Osteoclasts
D A and B
429. Which of the following cells responsible for bone resorption

A Osteocytes
B Osteoblasts
C Osteoclasts
D B and C
430. Which of the followings is the largest cell

B Osteocytes
C Osteoblasts
D Osteoclasts
431. Which of the followings is a motile cell

B Osteocytes
C Osteoblasts
D Osteoclasts
432. Which of the followings is the bone eating cell

B Osteocytes
C Osteoblasts
D Osteoclasts
433. Which of the followings is present in the Howship's lacunae

B Osteocytes
C Osteoblasts
D Osteoclasts
434. Each of the following statements concerning the osteoclasts is true

EXCEPT
A They have gape junctions
B They arise from monocytes
C They have up to 50 nuclei
D They have acidophilic cytoplasm
435. The following statements concerning osteoclasts are true EXCEPT
A They have brush border
62
B They have no lysosomes
C Responsible for remodeling of the bone
D They have receptors for calcitonin hormone
436. The following statements concerning osteoclasts are true EXCEPT

A Their processes have many cytoplasmic organelles
B Its stimulation is indirect (through osteoblasts)
C They have numerous lysososmes
D They have up to 50 nuclei
437. The cytoplasm of the osteoclasts divided into 3 zones (One is true)
A Clear zone which is deep to the ruffled border
B Vesicular zone, contains many vesicles of various shapes and sizes
C Basal zone which facing to the bone surface
D Nuclear zone which contain up to 50 nuclei
438. The organic component of the bone matrix is composed of the

followings EXCEPT
A Collagen fibers type II (90%)
B Collagen fibers type I (90%)
C Chondroitin sulfate and keretan sufate
D Hyaluronic acid
439. The inorganic component of the bone matrix is composed of the

followings EXCEPT
B Calcium
C Phosphorus
D Bicarbonate and citrate magnesium, potassium and sodium
440. The bone is classified histologically into

A Compact and spongy bone
B Long, short and flat bones
C Primary and secondary bones
D Non of the above
441. The bone is classified anatomically into

D Non of the above
442. The bone is classified according to its maturity into
D Non of the above
Compact bone
443. Compact bone is formed of
A Haversian systems
B Outer and inner circumferential lamellae
C Interstitial lamellae
D All of the above
444. Compact bone is present in the following sites EXCEPT

A The shaft of the long bones
B The outer covering of the flat bones
C Inner and outer tables of the skull
D Bodies of the vertebrae
445. each of the following statements concerning the Haversian system is

true EXECPT
A It is perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
B It contains blood vessels and nerves
C It is formed of concentric bone lamellae
D Its histological structure includes an endosteum
446. Volkmann's canal has the following characters EXECPT

A Transverse canal
B They are surrounded by concentric lamellae
C Connect the Havesian canals with each other
D Connect the Havesian canals with periosteum
447. The inner circumferential lamellae of the bone

A Are the main component of the compact bone
B Are located around the bone marrow cavity
C Are located around Haversian canal
D Are locate under and parallel to the periosteum
448. The outer circumferential lamellae of the bone

C Are the most outer lamellae of the Haversian systems
D Are locate under and parallel to the periosteum
449. The Haversian (concentric) lamellae of the bone
64
C Are located only around Volkmann's canal
D Are the main component of the spongy bone
Spongy bone
450. Spongy bone has the following histological features EXCEPT
A Formed of bone trabeculae
B Contains many bone marrow spaces
C Its Haversian systems run parallel to its longitudinal axis
D It likes the sponge
451. Spongy bone is present in the following sites EXCEPT

A Flat bones like ribs and sternum
B Bodies of vertebrae
C Embryonic bones
D Diaphysis of long bones in the adult
452. Woven bone

A Is special type of bone for women
B First bone formed during fetal life
C Mature permanent bone
D Has many Haversian systems
453. The following statements concerning the primary bone is true

EXCEPT
A It is called Woven bone
B It is temporary bone
C High mineral content
D Formed of irregular bundles of collagen fibers and many osteocytes
454. The statements concerning the secondary bone are true EXCEPT
A It is called Woven bone
B It is mature permanent bone
C Formed of bone lamellae
D Histologically, it is of two types; compact and spongy
455. Long bone is formed of

A Diaphysis (shaft of the bone)
B Epiphysis (ends of the bone)
C Epiphyseal plate (in growing bone)
D All of the above
456. Metaphysis of the long bone is
A The shaft of the ends of the long bone
B The ends of the ends of the long bone
C The site of bone growth
D Is a spongy bone between epiphysis and diaphysis
457. long bone histologically formed of

A Compact bone
B Spongy bone
C A&B
D Decalcified bone
458. The skull is a god model for flat bone, histologically it is formed of
A Spongy bone because it is flat bone
B Outer and inner layers of compact bone and in between layer of spongy
bone
C Compact bone to protect the brain
D Non of the above
459. The skull

A Has many bone marrow cavities
B Has a single bone marrow cavity
C Has no periosteum
D Has no bone marrow
Ossification
460. Bone development is known as
A Calcification
B Ossification or Osteogenesis
C A&B
D Non of the above
461. The following statements concerning the intramembranous

ossification are true EXCEPT
A It occurs in the most flat bones
B In which the embryonic connective tissue is transformed into bones
C It results in the formation of spongy bone
D It results in the formation of spongy and compact bone
462. intramembranous ossification needs all the followings EXCEPT

A High vascularity
B Mesenchymal membrane (connective tissue)
C Primary ossification centre
D Hyaline cartilage
463. Concerning intramembranous ossification, one statement is true
A The connective tissue is replaced by spongy and compact bone
66
B The connective tissue is replaced by cartilage which transformed into
bone
C The connective tissue is transformed into bone
D The connective tissue is replaced by bone marrow
464. One statement is a true

A Cancellous bone arise by intramembranous ossification
B Cancellous bone arise by intramembranous or endochodral ossifications
C A&B
D Non of the above
465. Concerning endochonral ossification, one statement is true

A The cartilage is replaced by spongy and compact bone
B The cartilage is replaced by CT. which transformed into bone
C The cartilage is transformed into bone
D The cartilage is transformed into bone marrow
466. Secondary ossification centre

A Develop under the bone collar of the diaphysis
B Develop at the epiphysis where there is no bone collar
C Present in both endochondral and inramembranous ossifications
D All of the above
467. Subperiosteal bone collar

A Develops after formation of primary ossification centre
B Develops in the perichonderium before the ossification centers
C Transformed latter into spongy bone
D It is a collar of bone covers both diaphysis and epiphysis
468. Length of the long bone increases by

A Endochoneral ossification
B Intra membranous ossification
C A&B
D By the secondary ossification centre
469. Which of the followings is responsible for the length of the long bone
A Primary centre of ossification
B Secondary centre of ossification
C Epiphyseal cartilage (epiphyseal plate)
D All of the above
470. During growth of the bone one arrangement is correct
A Zone of resting cartilage, proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification and ossification
B Zone of resting cartilage, hypertrophy, proliferation, calcification and ossification
C Zone of resting cartilage, proliferation, calcification, hypertrophy and ossification
D Zone of resting cartilage, proliferation, hypertrophy, and ossification
471. In the epiphyseal cartilage the calcification

A Cause the hypertrophy of the chondrocytes
B Direct cause for transformation of chondrocytes into osteoblasts
C Causes the death for chondrocytes and appearance of cavities
D All of the above

A Hyaline cartilage is replaced by spongy bone which transformed into
compact bone
B Hyaline cartilage is replaced directly by compact bone
C The epiphyseal cartilage increases in the length
D The epiphyseal cartilage persists for the life
473. To repair the fractured bone, please arrange the followings

A Blood clot, connective tissue, cartilage, primary bone callus and
secondary bone
B Blood clot, cartilage, connective tissue, and bone callus
C Blood clot, primary bone, cartilage, connective tissue, and bone callus
D Blood clot, primary bone, secondary bone, cartilage, , and bone callus
474. Osteocalsts are essential in

A Repair of fractured bone
B Transformation of spongy into compact bone
C Appositional growth of the bone
D All of the above
475. Concerning the different types of joints one statement is NOT correct
A Synanthrosis means joints that have no or little movement
B Diarthrosis means joints that have free movement
C Most of the joints are diarthrosis
D Synarthrosis are joints which have synoveal membrane
476. The following statements concerning diarthroses are true EXCEPT

A The most joint in the body
B Have free movement
C Surrounded by synoveal membrane
D Symphysis pupis is a good example
Blood
477. Buffy coat
68
A It contains the packed RBCs
B It contains all the fibrinogen present in the blood
C A thin layer separates the plasma from the RBCs after centrifugation
D It is white because it contains the platelets only
478. hematocrit value refers to

A Percentage of packed RBCs to the whole blood volume
B Percentage of packed RBCs to the plasma volume
C Percentage of plasma volume to the whole blood volume
D Hemoglobin content of the RBCs
479. All the following statements concerning plasma are true EXCEPT
A Water constitute about 90% of its volume
B Its main proteins are albumin, globulins and fibrinogen
C It is obtained after blood clotting
D It represents about 50 – 60 % of blood volume
480. Serum is a plasma minus

A Plasma proteins
B Albumin
C Alpha, beta and gammaglobulins
D Fibrinogen
Erythrocytes
481. The following statements concerning erythrocytes are true EXCEPT
A Rounded biconcave non nucleated cells
B 7.5µm in diameter
C It is red because of its hemoglobin content
D It is very active cell
482. One of the following definitions is NOT correct

A Spherocytes are biconvex RBCs
B Anisocytosis is a small sized RBCs
C Poikilocytes are pear shaped RBCs
D Sickle cells are crescent like RBCs
483. The following statements concerning hemoglobin are true EXCEPT

A Consists of four globin polypeptide chains and one haem
B Its normal concenteration is 12-17 gm%
C Normochromic RBCs are that contain normal hemoglobin concenteration
D Hypochromic RBCs contain hemoglobin concenter. more than normal
484. All the following statements concerning RBCs are true EXCEPT
A Its diameter rang from 6 – 9 µm
B Its number ranges from 4.5 – 6 mil/cmm
C Its life span about 120 days
D It can be stained by supravital stain

A Anemia is the decrease in the number of RBCs
B Polycythaemia is the increase in the RBCs number
C RBCs has an elastic flexible membrane to change its shape
D RBCs leave the capillary normally to become one of the CT cells
486. RBCs have a diameter 4µm and low concenteration of hemoglobin in

A Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B Normocytic normochromic anemia
C Macrocytic anemia
D Non of the above
487. Normocytic hypochromic anemia caused by

A Iron deficiency
B Folic acid deficiency
C Chronic diseases
D All of the above
488. Vitamin B12 deficiency is the main cause for

A Microcytic hypochromic anemia
B Normocytic normochromic anemia
C A&B
D Macrocytic anemia
489. Following statements concerning the reticulocytes are true EXCEPT

A In the CT it is called reticular cells
B It is immature RBCs containing rRNA
C Can be stained with supravital stain (brilliant cresyl blue)
D Normally present in the circulation (2% of RBCs number)
490. (A person of blood group A and Rh positive), this means that, he has
A Antigens A and Rh on the RBCs and anti A in his plasma
B Antigens A and Rh on the RBCs and anti B in his plasma
C Antigen A on the RBCs and has anti B and anti Rh in his plasma
D Non of the above
491. A person of blood group 0 and Rh negative, this means that, he has
A Antigens A, B and Rh on the RBCs and no antibodies in his plasma
70
B No antigens on the membrane of RBCs and anti Rh in his plasma
C No antigens on the RBCs and anti A and B in his plasma
D Non of the above
492. Hypertonic solution

A Produces no change in the size of RBCs
B Shrinks the RBCs
C Hemolyses the RBCs
D Stimulates RBCs to divide
493. Hypotonic solution

B Shrinks the RBCs
C Hemolyses The RBCs
494. Isotonic solution

B Shrinks the RBCs
C Hemolyses The RBCs
495. The followings concerning RBC adaptation to its function ECXEPT

A Biconcave shape provides a large surface area
B Cell membrane is highly selective for gas exchange
C Cell membrane is elastic to pass through the small capillaries
D The small nucleus provide a wide space for hemoglobin
Leucocytes, neutrophils
496. Each of the following statement concerning the leucocytes is true
EXCEPT
A Nucleated cells and colorless in fresh state
B Their total number ranges from 4,000 – 10,000 /cmm
C Their hemoglobin content is lesser than RBCs
D They leave the blood to the CT
497. Leucocytes are divided into two main groups

A Granular and non granular leucocytes
B Basophils and esinophils
C Mononcytes and lymphocytes
D Neutorophils and lymphocytes
A Neutrophils, normally constitute 40 – 60 % of the total leucocytes
B Esinophils, normally represents 1 – 6 % of the total leucocytes
C Basophils, normally constitute 10 – 15 % of the total leucocytes
D Monocytes , normally constitute 3 – 8 % of the total leucocytes
499. The following statements concerning neutrophils are true EXCEPT

A Have segmented nucleus (2 -5 lobes)
B The cytoplasm has two types of granules (specific and azurophilic)
C They represent 0 – 1% of total leucocytes
D In the female, it shows drumstick sex chromatin
500. The following statements concerning stab cells are true EXCEPT
A They are immature form of neutrophils
B They have non segmented nucleus
C They represent about 50% of neutrophils nromally
D Their increase indicates an increase in the production of neutrophils
501. Specific granules of the neutrophils

A Have alkaline phosphatase, collagenase and lysozyme
B Are the lysosomes
C Are zymogen granules
D All of the above
502. The following statements concerning neutrophils are true EXCEPT

A The first line of the defense mechanism
B They are called microphages
C They share in pus formation
D They differentiate into dust cells in the lung CT
503. Neutrophils increase in number (neutrophilia) in

A Acute infection (tonsillitis)
B Allergic diseases
C Chronic infection (T.B)
D All of the above
504. Neutrophilia occurs in the following cases

A Tonsillitis, appendicitis and cystitis
B Tissue injuries (e.g. burning)
C Hemorrhage
D All of the above
505. Neutrpenia occurs in the following cases

A Typhoid fever
72
B Viral infection like hepatitis
C Prolonged exposure to X ray
D All of the above
Esinophils
506. The following statements concerning esinophils are true EXCEPT
A They have bilobed nucleus
B They contain large acidophilic granules
C They have lysosomes (azurophilic granules)
D They have histamine and heparin granules
507. Each of the following statements concerning the function of

esinophils is true EXCEPT
A They are important in allergic reaction
B They are involved in destruction of the parasites
C They differentiate into mast cells in the connective tissue
D They phagocytose the antigen-antibody complex
508. Basophils
A Have S shape nucleus
B Have large basophilic granules
C Contain heparin and histamine
D All of the above
509. The followings cells are involved in the allergic reaction EXCEPT
A Mast cells
B Undifferentiated stem cells
C Esinophils
D Basophils
510. The metachromatic granules are found in the following cells

A Basophils
B Mast cells
C A &B
D Non of the above
Lymphocytes, Monocytes
511. The following statements concerning lymphocytes are true EXCEPT
A The cytoplasm has no specific granules
B Normally, it represents about 90% of circulating leucocytes
C Presents in the blood, lymph and connective tissue
D It has dark large nucleus
512. The followings are types of lymphocytes EXCEPT
A B-lymphocytes
B T-lymphocytes
C Natural killer cells (null cells)
D Thymocytes
513. The following statements concerning B-lymphocyte are true EXCEPT

A The main responsible for humoral immunity
B Differentiate into plasma cells
C Arise and become immunecompetent in the thymus gland
D They have non-granular basophilic cytoplasm
514. The following statements concerning T-lymphocyte are true EXCEPT

A The main responsible for cell mediated immunity
B Differentiate into plasma cells
C Arise in bone marrow and become immune competent in the thymus
D Constitute about 80% of circulating lymphocytes
515. The followings are subtypes of T-lymphocytes EXCEPT

A T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
B T helper lymphocytes
C T suppressor cells
D Macrophages
516. Lymphocytosis occurs in

A Lymphocytic leukemia
B Viral hepatitis
C Tuberculosis
D All of the above
517. Each of the following statements concerning monocytes is true

EXCEPT
A Represent about 3 – 8% of circulating leucocytes
B The cytoplasm has fine azurophilic granules (lysosomes)
C The nucleus has abundant extended chromatin (euchromatin)
D Precursor for macrophages (mononuclear phagocytic system)
518. Monocytosis occurs in

A Chronic infection (tuberculosis)
B Malaria
C Moncytic leukemia
D All of the above
Platelets
519. The following statements concerning platelets are true EXCEPT
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A Non nucleated cells
B Normally it counts 150,000 – 400,000/cmm
C We can not see by light microscope
D They show hyalomere (pale peripheral) and granulomere (central dark)
520. In the platelets, the granulomere contains the followings EXCEPT

A Alpha granules which contain fibrinogen
B Beta granules which contain DNA and RNA
C Delta granules which contain calcium ions
D Lambda granules which contain lysosomes
521. Concerning the function of the platelets

A Platelets adhesion, platelets aggregation and formation of the plug
B Activation of coagulation factors
C Removal of the blood clot
D All of the above
Haemopoiesis
522. The process by which the blood cells are formed is called
A Haemopoiesis
B Erythropoisis
C Osteogenesis
D Non of the above
523. Blood is
A Ectodermal in origin
B Mesodermal in origin
C Endodermal in origin
D All of the above
524. Concerning the phases of haemopoiesis, ONE arrangement is correct

A Mesoplastic phase, hepatic and spleenic phases and myeloid phase
B Mesoplastic phase, myeloid phase and hepatic and spleenic phases
C Myeloid phase, hepatic and spleenic phases and mesoplastic phase
D Hepatic and spleenic phases, myeloid phase and mesoplastic phase

A There are two type of bone marrow; red and yellow
B Yellow marrow, under stress, can convert to red marrow
C Blood forming cells are present in the yellow bone marrow
D After adulthood, red bone marrow is present in the spongy bone
526. In the red bone marrow, you can recognize

A Fat cells, fibroblasts and endothelial cells
B Macrophages and reticular ells
C Blood forming cells
D All of the above
527. The mother cell of all blood cells is

A Pluripotential haemopoietic stem cell
B Colony forming unit megakaryoblast
C Macrophages
D Oseoproginator cell
528. Concerning pluripotential haemopoietic stem cell

A They have the capacity for self renewal
B They differentiate to multipotential haemopoietic stem cell
C The mother cells for all blood cells
D All of the above
529. Concerning multipotential haemopoietic stem cell

A Two types myeloid and lymphoid multipotential haemopoietic stem cell
B They differentiate to pluripotential haemopoietic stem cell
C They have no capacity for self renewal
D They are highly differentiated cells
530. Myeloid multipotential stem cells

A The mother cells for all blood cells
B The mother cells for white cells and red blood cells
C The mother cells for granulocytes, erythrocytes, monocytes and platelets
D The mother cells for B and T lymphocytes
531. Progenitor cells in the bone marrow

B Differentiate into pluripotential haemopoietic stem cell
C Are highly differentiated cells
D Have no capacity for self renewal
532. Precursor cells in the bone marrow

B Differentiate to pluripotential haemopoietic stem cell
C Have no capacity for self renewal
D Are highly differentiated cells
533. The process by which RBCs is formed is called
A Erythroblastosis
76
B Erythropoiesis
C Haemopoiesis
D Thrmbopoiesis
534. Concerning the erythropoiesis, the following cell has no nucleus

A Proeryhtroblast
B Basophilic erythroblast
C Normoblast
D Reticulocyte
535. Reticulocytes
A Their cytoplasm rich in metachromatic granules
B Their cytoplasm has residual RNA (basophilic cytoplasm)
C Are multinucleated cells
D Produce reticular fibers
536. The following factor/s is/are essential for erythrpoiesis

A Erythropoietin
B Iorn
C Folic acid and folic acid
D All of the above
537. Myeloblast
A Is a cell stage in the process of granulopoiesis
B Is a cell stage in the process of monopoiesis
C Is a cell stage in the process of erythropoiesis
D Non of the above
538. The following statement concerning myelocyte are true EXCEPT

A A cell stage in the process of granulopoiesis
B There are three types of myelocytes; neutrophil, esinophil and basophil
C They divide continuously for self renewal
D They differentiate into neutrophil, esinophil and basophil
539. Each of the following statement concerning megakaryocyte is true

EXCEPT
A A cell stage in the process of thrombopoiesis
B A large cell with very large nucleus
C They divide by mitosis to many platelets
D They contain well developed Golgi, RER and many azurophilic granules
540. The following factors affect the process of leucopoiesis EXCEPT
A Interleukin 3
B Granulocyte-monocyte colony stimulating factor
C Monocyte- colony stimulating factor
D Erythropoietin
Muscle, smooth muscle
541. Each of the following statements concerning smooth muscle is true
EXCEPT
A It is present in hollow organs
B It is not under voluntary control
C Its cells are multinucleated
D Its cells have abundant gap junctions
542. The following filaments present in the smooth muscle cells EXCEPT
A Collagen fibrils
B Intermediate filaments (desmin and vimentin)
C Thick filaments (myosin)
D Thin filament (actin)
543. In the smooth muscle cells, caveolae means

A Dense plaques
B Gap junctions
C Vesicular invaginations of the cell membrane
D Non of the above
544. Following statements concerning smooth muscle are true EXCEPT

A The cells are fusiform in shape
B Striated cells
C The length of cells varies from 20µm to 500 µm
D Multinucleated cells
545. Concerning contraction of smooth muscle, one statement is NOT true

A The mechanism involves the sliding of acitn and myosin
B Shortening of the sarcomere is noticed
C The force of contraction transmitted through the dense bodies
D It leads to twisting and shortening of the cells
546. The function of the smooth muscle

A Regulates the size of the lumen of hollow organs
B Synthesizes the collagen, elastin and proteoglycans
C Regulate the blood pressure
D All of the above
Skeletal muscle
547. The connective tissue component of the skeletal muscle consists of
78
A Epimysium
B Perimysium
C Endomysium
D All of the above

A Epimysium is the CT which surrounds the whole of the muscle
B Endomysium is the CT which surrounds the individual nerve fiber
C Perimysium is the CT which surrounds bundles of muscle fibers
D Endomysium is the CT which surrounds the individual muscle fiber
549. The types of skeletal muscle are

A Red, white and intermediate
B Smooth, striated and cardiac
C Voluntary and involuntary
D Bone and non-bone attached
550. The statements concerning the red muscle fibers are true EXCEPT
A Small in diameter
B Rich in myoglobin
C Stain weakly with succenic dehydrogenase reaction
D Resist the fatigue
551. The statements concerning the white muscle fibers are true EXCEPT
A Large in diameter
B Rich in myoglobin
C Stain weakly with succenic dehydrogenase reaction
D Fast contraction
552. Followings concerning the skeletal muscle fibers are true EXCEPT
A They are multinucleated cells
B Ectodermal in origin
C They have acidophilic sarcoplasm
D In longitudinal sections it shows cross-striations
553. The sarcoplasm contains the followings EXCEPT

A Well developed Golgi and prominent RER
B Myofibrils
C Well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum
D Glycogen and lipid droplets
554. In longitudinal sections, the following bands are recognized EXCEPT
A Dark band (anisotrope)
B I band (isotrope)
C H band
D Chromosome band
555. M line in the skeletal muscle section is the line which bisect
A Dark band
B I band
C H band
D Non of the above
556. Z line in the skeletal muscle section is line which bisect

A Dark band
B I band
C H band
D Non of the above
557. The following statements concerning the sarcomere are true EXCEPT
A Structural and functional unit of the muscle
B It shortens during muscle contraction
C It is the distance between two M lines
D It is about 2.5µm in length
558. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is a special term for

A Rough endoplasmic reticulum in the muscle
B Mitochondaria in the muscle
C Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in the muscle
D Cytoplasm of the muscle
559. Terminal cisternae are

A The dilated spaces in the mitochondria of the muscle
B The terminal dilatation of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C Invagination of the srcoplasmic membrane
D Non of the above
560. Each of the following statements concerning sarcoplasmic reticulum

is true EXCEPT
A Is rough endoplasmic reticulum
B Regulates the ca ions in the muscle
C Ends by terminal dilatation called terminal cisternae
D Repeats with every sarcomere
561. The following cell inclusions are seen in the skeletal muscle EXCEPT
A Lipids
80
B Glycogen
C Myoglobin
D Hemoglobin
562. Triad is
A One T-tubule and two terminal cisternae
B Two T-tubules and one terminal cisternum
C Repeated at every Z line
D Composed of actin, myosin and tropomyosin
563. T-tubule is
A Full of sarcoplasm
B A direct regulator for Ca ions in the muscle cell
C An invagination of the cell membrane inside the cytoplasm
D Continuous with sarcoplasmic cisternae
564. Myofilaments are

A Thick filaments
B Thin and thick filaments
C Thin and intermediate filaments
D Thick and intermediate filaments
565. The dominant filaments in the I bands are

A Actin filaments
B Myosin filaments
C Actin and myosin filaments
D Non of the above
566. Concerning the molecular structure of the thin filaments of the

skeletal muscle one statement is NOT correct
A It is formed of three proteins (acitn, tropomyosisn and troponin)
B The actin filaments is formed of two chains (F actin)
C The F actin is formed globular protein (G acin)
D Each actin filament attaches to myosisn filament
567. The thick filaments of the skeletal muscle formed of

A Actin filaments
B Myosin filaments
C Actin and myosin filaments
D Non of the above
568. The thick filaments predominant in
A I band
B A band
C Z line
D All of the above
569. Concerning the molecular structure of myosin molecules

A It is composed of two heavy chains and two pairs of light chains
B It is composed of two pairs of heavy chains and two pairs of light chains
C It is composed of two heavy chains and two light chains
D It is composed of two pairs of heavy chains and two light chains
570. Light meromyocin

A Composed of light chains
B Formed when light chains attach the globular heads of myosin molecules
C Formed when the heavy chains are twisted together
D Non of the above
571. Heavy meromyocin

A Composed exclusively of heavy chains
B Formed when the light chains attach the globular heads of the myosin
molecules
C Formed when the heavy chains are twisted together
D Non of the above
572. One of the followings consists of actin filaments only

A A band
B I band
C H zone
D Sarcomere
573. One of the followings consists of thick filaments only

A A band
B I band
C H zone
D Sarcomere
574. One of the followings consists of thin and thick filaments

A M line
B I band
C H zone
D Sarcomere
575. The function of the T-tubules
A Transmit the nerve impulse to the inside the muscle fibers
82
B Help the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release their calcium at the same time
C Make the maximum contraction
D All of the above
576. During muscle contraction, the excitation of the cell membrane

releases calcium from terminal cisternae which bind to
A Troponin
B Tropomyosin
C Actin
D All of the above
577. Calcium ions during muscle contraction is regulated by

A Terminal cisternae
B Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C Mitochondaria
D T tubules
578. Binding of calcium to the troponin
A Changes the shape of troponin
B Shifts the tropomyosin deeper to expose the myosin binding sites
C Activates ATPase enzyme
D All of the above
579. During contraction, the following does NOT change its lengths
A Sarcomere
B A band
C I band
D H zone
Muscle innervations
580. The followings concerning the motor end plate are true EXCEPT
A It is the site of myoneural junction
B Uses the acetylcholine as a chemical transmitter
C The myelin sheath extends between the axonal terminal and the
postsynaptic membrane
D The surface area of postsynaptic membrane increases by folding
581. Following events occurs after stimulation of axon terminal EXCEPT

A Calcium channels open and calcium influx into the axon terminal
B Mitochondria rupture to release more calcium
C Synaptic vesicles fuse to release acetylcholine
D Acetylcholine binds to its receptor on the postsynaptic membrane
582. Each of the following statements concerning the intrafusal muscle
fibers is correct EXCEPT
A It is capsulated structure (surrounded by CT capsule)
B It is non capsulated structure
C Fusiform in shape
D Contains fluid
583. Concerning the intrafusal muscle fibers all are correct EXCEPT
A Modified muscle fibers (small, elongated and narrow)
B Consist of contractile and non contractile portions
C Receive alpha motor fibers
D Receive sensory fibers
584. Contractile portion of the intrafusal muscle fibers receives

A Alpha motor fibers
B Gamma motor fibers
C Sensory fibers with annulspiral endings
D Sensory fibers with flower spray endings
585. Intrafusal muscle fibers are of two types

A Nuclear bag and nuclear chain fibers
B Intrafusal and extrafusal fibers
C Sensory and motor fibers
D Contractile and non contractile fibers
586. Nuclear bag type of intrafusal muscle fibers receives

A Annulospiral nerve endings
B Flower spray nerve endings
C A and B
D Alpha motor fibers
587. Nuclear chain type of intrafusal muscle fibers receive

A Annulospiral nerve endings
B Flower spray nerve endings
C A and B
D Alpha motor fibers
588. Annulospiral nerve ending fibers
A Wrap around both nuclear bag and nuclear chain muscle fibers
B Respond to the duration of muscle stretch
C Are motor fibers
D All of the above
Cardiac muscle
589. Cardiac muscle
84
A Striated voluntary muscle
B Striated involuntary muscle
C Smooth voluntary muscle
D Smooth involuntary muscle
590. The followings concerning cardiac muscle cells are true EXCEPT
A The nucleus is single large and oval
B The muscle fibers branch and anastomose
C No glycogen granules
D Show cross striations
591. Each of the following statements concerning high energy utilization

by the cardiac muscle is true EXECPT
A Mitochondria are large and numerous with many cristae
B Glycogen granules are abundant
C T-tubules are large and located at Z line
D Lipid droplets are common
592. The high conductivity of the cardiac muscle is referred to

A Wide T-tubules at the Z line
B Intercalated disks
C Gap junctions
D All of the above
593. The followings are modified muscle fibers EXCEPT

A S-A node
B A–V node
C A-V valve
D Bundle of His

A Cardiac muscle has no capacity for regeneration
B Skeletal muscle has a limited capacity for regeneration
C Skeletal and cardiac muscles have a limited capacity for regeneration
D Smooth muscle has high capacity for regeneration
Nervous tissue, neuron
595. The nervous tissue is divided anatomically into
A Autonomic and somatic nervous systems
B Central and peripheral nervous systems
C Neurons and glial cells
D All of the above
596. The nervous tissue is divided histologically into

A Autonomic and somatic nervous systems
B Central and peripheral nervous systems
C Neurons and glial cells
D All of the above
597. The typical neuron consists of three parts

A Soma, axon and dendrites
B Nucleus, cytoplasm and synapse
C Myelin sheath, Schowann cell and node of ranvier
D Non of the above
598. All the following characteristics indicate the high activity of the nerve
cell EXCEPT
A Euchromatic nucleus
B Nissl bodies
C Prominent Golgi
D Melanin pigments
599. In the nerve cell, Nissl granules are present in

A Axon hillock
B Dendrites
C Axons
D All of the above
600. The following statements concerning Nissl bodies are true EXCEPT
A Are collections of polyribosomes
B Are basophilic structures
C Its number varies according to the type and size of the neuron
D Are collections of numerous mitochondria
601. The following inclusions are seen inside the nerve cell EXCEPT
A Melanin pigments
B Carbon particles
C Lipid droplets
D Lipofusin pigments
602. The following filamentous structures are seen in the nerve cell
EXCEPT
A Intermediate filaments
B Elastic fibers
C Microtubules
D Microfilaments
603. Each of the following statement concerning dendrites of the neuron is
86
true EXCEPT
A Branched
B Multiple
C Receive the impulses from other neurons
D Have no Nissel granules
604. Following statement concerning dendrites are true EXCEPT

A They are naked or enveloped by myelin sheath
B Multiple axons arise from one neuron
C Conduct the impulses to other neurons
D Have no Nissel granules
605. The following statements concerning axon hillock are true EXCEPT
A Conical in shape
B Rich in cell organelles
C Give rise the axon
D The cell has single axon hillock
606. Anterior horn cells are NOT

A Polygonal neurons
B Multipolar neurons
C Motor neurons
D Unipolar neurons
607. The most common type of neurons in the human is

A Unipolar neurons
B Bipolar neurons
C Multipolar neurons
D Pseudounipolar neurons
608. The following neuron/s has/have single process

A Unipolar neurons
B Pseudounipolar neurons
C A &B
D Bipolar neurons
609. Functionally, the neurons are classified into

A Polygonal, pyramidal and pyriform
B Unipolar, bipolar and multipolar
C Sensory, motor and intermediate
D Myelinated and non myelinated
Nerve myelination
610. The length of the Schwann cells early equals
A The internodal segment
B Node of Ranvier
C The length of the myelin sheath
D Non of the above
611. When Schwann cell wrap one round around the axon, it is called
A Neurolemma
B Neurolemmal sheath
C Myelin sheath
D Endoneurium
612. The Schwann cells have the following characters EXCEPT

A Flat cells with flat nuclei
B Covered by basal lamina
C Constricted at the node of Ranvier
D Surrounded by thin layer of CT (endoneurium)
613. The function/s of the Schwann cells is/are

A Essential for nerve viability
B Formation of myelin sheath
C Essential for nerve regeneration
D All of the above
614. The following statements concerning myelin sheath are true EXCEPT
A It is called endoneurium
B It consists of successive Schwann cell membrane wrapped around the
axon
C It is formed of lipids
D It is a tubular structure
615. The function/s of the myelin sheath is/are

A Increase the conductivity
B Act as insulator
C Has a protective and nutritive function to the axon
D All of the above
616. The myelin sheath can be stained with osmium because it is rich in
A Lipids
B Polysaccharides
C Glycoproteins
D All of the above
88
617. Concerning the myelination of the nerve fibers, ONE statement is true
A Schwann cell myelinate the axons of peripheral nervous system
B Schwann cell myelinate the axons in central nervous system
C Schwann cell myelinate the axons of peripheral and central nervous
system
D No myelination in the central nervous sytem
618. The following cell or cells is/ are responsible for nerve myelination
A Schwann cell
B Oligodendrocyte
C A &B
D Microglia
619. Unmyeinated nerve fibers

A Are the axons not covered by myelin sheath
B Are the axons not covered by Schwann cells
C Are axons have no mesoxon
D All of the above
620. Naked nerve fibers

A Are axons which have no myelin sheath
B Are axons which have no nodes of Ranvier
C Are nerve fibers which have neurolemmal sheath
D All of the above
621. Node of Ranvier is

A The length of Schwann cell
B An area of the axon which covered by myelin sheath
C An area of the axon which not covered by myelin sheath
D Non of the above
622. Neurolemmal sheath

A It is the cell membrane of the axon
B Cell membranes of the Schwann cell wrapped around the axon
C It is not interrupted by node of Ranvier
D All of the above
623. Neurolemmal sheath is formed of
A Cell membranes of the Schwann cell wrapped around the axon
B Basal lamina of the Schwann cell
C Endoneurium
D All of the above
624. Endoneurium
A Is the inner membrane of the Schwann cell (contact with the axon)
B Is the outer membrane of the Schwann cell (not contact with the axon)
C Is the basement membrane of the Schwann cell
D Is a delicate layer of connective tissue around the Schwann cell
625. Internal mesoxon

A Is the joined cell membranes of the Schwann cell contact with the axon
B Is the joined cell membranes of the Schwann cell contact with the
Schwann cell
C Is a delicate layer of connective tissue around the Schwann cell
D Non of the above
626. External mesoxon

A Is the joined cell membranes of the Schwann cell contact with the axon
B Is the cell membranes of Schwann cell contact with the Schwann cell
C Is a delicate layer of connective tissue around the Schwann cell
D All of the above
627. Naked nerve fibers are abundant in

A Gray matter of CNS
B White matter of CNS
C Peripheral nervous system
D All of the above
628. Sympathetic nerve fibers are

A Naked nerve fibers
B Myelinated nerve fibers without neurolemmal sheath
C Myelinated nerve fibers with a neurolemmal sheath
D Non of the above
629. Peripheral somatic nerve fibers are

A Naked nerve fibers
B Myelinated nerve fibers without neurolemmal sheath
C Myelinated nerve fibers with a neurolemmal sheath
D Non of the above
630. Epineurium is a layer of connective tissue which covers

A A single nerve fiber
B A bundle of nerve fibers
C A single nerve trunk
D All of the above
90
631. Perineurium is a layer of connective tissue which covers
A A single nerve fiber
D Non of the above
632. Endoneurium is a layer of connective tissue which covers

A A single muscle fiber
D Non of the above
Ganglia
633. Concerning the ganglia one definition is true
A It is a collection nerve fibers outside the CNS
B It is a collection nerve cells outside the CNS
C It is a collection nerve fibers inside the CNS
D It is a collection nerve cells inside the CNS
634. Concerning the nucleus one definition is true

A It is a collection nerve fibers outside the CNS
B It is a collection nerve cells outside the CNS
C It is a collection nerve fibers in the CNS
D It is a collection nerve cells in the CNS have the same function
635. Ganglia are of two types

A Sensory and secretory
B Motor and autonomic
C Sensory and autonomic
D Motor and sympathetic
636. The followings concerning the sensory ganglia are true EXCEPT
A Not covered by CT capsule
B Contain grouped pseudounipolar cells
C Contain myelinated nerve fibers
D Satellite cells are present around the nerve cells
637. Following statements concerning sensory ganglia are true EXCEPT
A Covered by thick CT capsule
B Contain grouped pseudounipolar cells
C Have many synapses
D Satellite cells are present around the nerve cells
638. Sensory ganglia

A Associated with cranial nerves (cranial ganglia)
B Associated with the dorsal root of the spinal nerves (spinal ganglia)
C A and B
D Associated with the autonomic nerve fibers of both cranial and spinal
nerves
639. Sympathetic ganglia

A Are motor in function
B Are sensory in function
C Are secretory in function
D All of the above
640. Followings concerning sympathetic ganglia are true EXCEPT

A Contain multipolar cells
B Contain psoudounipolar cells
C Have few satellite cells
D Contain myelinated and non myelinated nerve fibers
641. Followings concerning sympathetic ganglia are true EXCEPT

A Have many synapses between preganglionic and post ganglionic fibers
B Contain multipolar cells
C Have few satellite cells
D Have a very thick CT capsule
Synapses
642. Synapses
A Are site of nerve impulse transmition between neuron and other cells
B Not present in the peripheral nerves
C Not present inside the CNS
D C &D
643. The axodenderitic synapse is present between

A Two axons
B One axon and a dendrite
C One axon a nerve cell body (soma)
D Non of the above
644. The axoaxonic synapse is present between
A Two axons
D Non of the above
645. The axosomatic synapse is present between

92
A Two axons
D Non of the above
646. The denderodenderitic synapse is present between

A Two axons
D Non of the above
647. Synaptic cleft

A Is a vesicle filled with the chemical neurotransmitter
B Is a postsynaptic membrane
C Is a space between pre and post synaptic membranes
D Non of the above
648. The followings are chemical transmitters utilized by the synapses

EXCEPT
A Acetylcholine
B Serotonin
C Histamine
D Dopamine
649. At the synapse, the nerve impulse passes from the

A Presynaptic membrane to the postsynaptic membrane
B Postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic membrane
C A &B
D Non of the above
Neuroglia
650. The following statements concerning the neurogilal cells EXCEPT
A They are present inside and outside the CNS
B Transmit the nerve impulse inside the CNS
C They function as insulators
D Their number is 10 folds the numbers of neurons
651. Astrocytes are
A Multipolar nerve cells
B Psoudunipolar nerve cells
C Neuroglial cells
D Non of the above
652. Protoplasmic astrocytes

A Substitute the neuron function after nerve injury
B Myelinate the nerve axons inside the CNS
C Present in the gray matter of the CNS
D Myelinate the nerve dendrite inside the CNS
653. Fibrous astrocytes

A Substitute the neuron function after nerve injury
B Myelinate the nerve axons inside the CNS
C Present in the gray matter of the CNS
D Their process are highly associated with blood vessels
654. Oligodendrocytes
A Are unipolar neurones
B Myelinate the nerve axons inside and outside the CNS
C Present in the sympathetic ganglia
D Non of the above
655. Each of the following statement concerning the oligodenderocytes is

true EXCEPT
A Present in the white and gray matters of the CNS
B Single oligodenderocyte forms myelin segments around several neurons
C They have no processes
D They protect the neurons inside CNS
656. Cells originate from the blood monocyte in the CNC is called
A Oligodenderocyte
B Astrocytes
C Microglia
D Ependymal cells
657. Lining epithelium of central canal of spinal cord and brain ventricles
A Satellite cells
B Astrocytes
C Ependymal cells
D Microglia
658. Neuroglial cells of the PNS are
A Schwann cells
B Satellite cells
C All of the above
D Non of the above
659. Blood brain barrier is formed of the followings EXCEPT

94
A Basal lamina of the endothelium
B Endothelial lining of the blood vessels
C Ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles
D Feet of the astrocytes processes
Nerve regeneration
660. Which occurs at the site of nerve damage is called
A Wallerrian degeneration
B Traumatic degeneration
C Retrograde degeneration
D All of the above
661. Which occurs distal to the site of nerve damage is called

D Non of the above
662. Which occurs at the site of nerve damage is called

D All of the above
663. The following cells share in nerve regenerations EXCEPT

A The neuron
B Schwann cell
C Macrophages
D Skeletal muscle cell
664. Chromatolysis is the process by which

A The chromatin dissolve and decrease basophilia after nerve damage
B The Nissl granules dissolves and decrease basophilia after nerve damage
C The mitochondaira aggregate after nerve damage
D Non of the above
665. Nerve regeneration depends upon the followings EXCEPT
A The type of the degenerated nerve
B The distance between the two cut ends
C Presence of infection
D The degree of cutting
Receptors
666. The followings concerning prorioceptors are true EXCEPT
A They are encapsulated receptors
B They receive pressure, vibration and tactile localization
C They receive pain sensation
D Muscle spindle, tendon spindle and pacinian corpuscle are examples
667. Touch sensation is transmitted by the following receptors EXCEPT

A Meissner's corpuscle
B Peritrechial nerve endings
C Free nerve endings
D Merkel's disc
668. Pain sensation is transmitted by the following receptors

B Peritrechial nerve endings
C Merkel's disc
D Free nerve endings
669. Osmoreceptors are those structures which are sensitive to

A Changes of the temperature
B Chemical changes
C Touch and pressure
D Change of osmotic pressure
670. Each of the followings is NON encapsulated nerve ending EXCEPT

A Merkel's disc
B Free nerve endings
C Pacinian corpuscle
D Peritrechial nerve endings
671. The following statements concerning Merkel's disc are true EXCEPT
A Encapsulated receptors
B Abundant in the epidermis of the soles, palms and tips of the fingers
C Receive touch sensation
D The nerve endings expand like a disk between the epithelial cells
672. Following statements concerning free nerve endings are true EXCEPT
A Non encapsulated receptors
B Found in the cornea and connective tissues
D The nerve endings branch between the epithelial cells
673. The followings concerning peritrichial nerve ending are true EXCEPT
A Non encapsulated receptors
96
B Found related to hair follicles
D The nerve endings expand like a disk between the epithelial cells
674. The followings are encapsulated receptors EXCEPT

B Krause ending bulb
C Merkel's disc
D Ruffini corpuscle
675. The dermis of the skin contains the following receptors EXCEPT
B Tendon spindle
C Merkel's disc
D Ruffini corpuscle
676. The epidermis of the skin contains the following receptors

A Free nerve endings
C Ruffini corpuscle
D All of the above
677. The epidermis of the skin contains the following receptors

C Ruffini corpuscle
D Non of the above
678. The pain which occur in the muscle is transmitted through

A Muscle spindle
B Tendon spindle
C Free nerve endings
D Non of the above
679. The followings are proprioceptors EXCEPT

A Pacinian corpuscle
B Muscle spindle
C Tendon spindle
D Merkel's disk
680. The followings are nerve ending effectors EXCEPT

A Motor end plate
B Autonomic motor endings
C Secretary motor endings
D Exocrine glands
Autonomic
681. The sympathetic fibers leave the CNS through
A Dorsal root
B Ventral root
C A&B
D Non of the above
682. The origin of the parasympathetic system lies in

A Brain and sacral regions
B Brain and thoracic region
C Brain and lumber region
D Brain and thoracolumber regions
683. The chemical mediator secreted by preganglionic parasympathetic

A Catecholamine
B Dopamine
C Acetylcholine
D Serotonin
684. The neurotransmitter secreted by preganglionic sympathetic fibers is

A Catecholamine
B Dopamine
C Acetylcholine
D Serotonin
685. The neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic parasympathetic

fibers is
A Catecholamine
B Dopamine
C Acetylcholine
D Serotonin
686. The chemical mediator secreted by postganglionic sympathetic is
A Norepinephrine
B Dopamine
C Acetylcholine
D Serotonin
687. Concerning to the site of parasympathetic ganglia

A Present inside the CNS
98
B Present inside the organs
C Present paravertebral
D All of theabove
Circulatory system
688. The cardiovascular system consists of two systems of blood vesssels
A Arteries and veins
B Pulmonary and systemic
C Systemic and portal
D Heart and blood vessels
689. The tunica intima is formed of the followings EXCEPT

A Single layer of flat epithelium (endothelium)
B Basement membrane
C Subendothelial layer of CT
D Skeletal muscle fibers
690. Internal elastic lamina can be detected in

A Tunica intima
B Tunica media
C Tunica adventitia
D All of the above
691. Smooth muscle fibers abundant in

A Tunica intima
B Tunica media
C Tunica adventitia
D All of the above
692. Vasa vasorum

A Blood supply of the of the blood vessels
B Blood supply of the cardiac muscle
C Blood supply of lymph node
D Blood supply of the brain and spinal cord
693. Section in the aorta shows the following histological features
EXCEPT
A Endothelium (simple squamous epithelium)
B Subendothelial layer of CT
C Little number of elastic laminae in the tunica media
D Smooth muscle fibers in the tunica media
694. Tunica media of the aorta is adapted to

A Maintain the blood perfusion during heart relaxation
B Maintain, directly, the systolic blood pressure
C Maintain the closure of the aorta
D All of the above
695. Each of the followings concerning vasa vasorum is true EXCEPT

A They formed from small artery and vein
B They present in the adventitia
C They are responsible for nutrition of great blood vessels
D They are branches of coronary arteries
696. The followings are muscular arteries EXCEPT

A Femoral artery
B Brachial artery
C Pulmonary arteries
D Radial artery
697. In comparison to the aorta one of the following statement is NOT

correct
A Muscular arteries have more prominent internal elastic lamina
B Tunica media of muscular arteries is more thin
C Muscular arteries have more smooth muscle in its tunica media
D Muscular arteries have indistinct external elastic lamina
698. Basilar artery

A It is medium sized artery which supply the brain inside the skull
B It has wide lumen and thin wall
C It has prominent internal elastic lamina
D All of the above
699. Coronary arteries

A Have thick wall
B Smooth muscle fibers in tunica intima are arranged longitudinally
C Have well developed external and internal elastic laminae
D All of the above
700. Umbilical artery
A Its adventia rich in mucoid connective tissue
B Has prominent internal elastic lamina
C Has no tunica media
D All of the above
701. The followings concerning the metaarteriols are true EXCEPT

A They are intermediate between arterioles and capillaries
100
B Their ends have sphincters formed of smooth muscle fibers
C They control the blood flow to the tissues
D They are special type of blood capillaries
Blood capillaries
702. The wall of the blood capillaries is formed of the followings except
A Single layer of endothelium
B Basal laminae
C Reticular fibers
D Numerous smooth muscle fibers
703. Each of the following statements concerning the pericytes is true

EXCEPT
A It is one of connective tissue cells
B It is present inside the basal lamina of the endothelium
C It has processes that wrap around the capillaries
D It has gap junction with endothelium
704. Following statements concerning the pericytes are true EXCEPT

A It is one of epithelial cells which forms the blood capillaries
B It is present outside the basal lamina of the endothelium
C It has actin, myosin and tropomyosin
D It contracts to regulate the blood flow in the capillaries
705. Each of the following statement concerning the fenestrated blood

capillaries is true EXCEPT
A They have many pores in their wall
B Their basal lamina is continuous
C They are present abundant in the most tissues
D They permit rapid exchange between blood and tissues
706. One of the followings has continous blood capillaries

A Intestine
B Kidney
C Skeletal muscle
D Endocrine glands
707. Each of the following statement concerning the endothelium of blood
capillary is true EXCEPT
A They are joined with each other by tight junctions
B They are joined with the pericytes by gap junctions
C They have contractile functions
D They are continuous or fenestrated cells
708. Blood sinusoids

A Formed of single layer of endothelium
B Their cells and their basal lamina are fenestrated with large pores
C The pores have no diaphragm
D All of the above
709. Blood sinusoids

A Are small blood capillaries
B They are present in the liver, bone marrow and lymphatic organs
C Their cells are continuous (no pores)
D Formed mainly from macrophages
710. The functions of the blood capillaries

A Exchange between blood and tissues (permeability)
B Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C Prevents adhesion of blood platelets to the suendothelial CT
D All of the above
711. Each of the following statements concerning the A-V anastomoses is

true EXCEPT
A They are side branches from the arterioles
B They end in blood capillaries
C They regulate the blood pressure
D They regulate the body temperature
712. Glomus
A Is a special vascular organ in the kidneys
B It regulates the blood pressure
C Present in the nail beds and tips of fingers and toes
D It is special type of blood capillaries
713. In comparison to medium sized arteries, the medium sized vein has
A A narrower lumen
B A thicker tunica intima
C A thicker tunica media
D A thicker adventitia
714. The veins are adapted for their functions by the followings EXCEPT
A They have wide lumen (blood reservoir)
B They have longitudinal smooth muscle fibers in their adventitia
C They have thick tunica media
D They have many valves
715. The endocardium has the following characters EXCEPT
102
A It covers the heart from outside
B It is lined by simple squamous epithelium
C It has subendothelial layer of connective tissue
D It contains Purkinjie fibers
716. The epicardium has the following characters EXCEPT

A It covers the heart from outside
B It is lined by simple columnar epithelium
C It has the nerve ganglia
D It is formed of two layers (visceral and parietal)
717. Mesothelium is
A The simple squamous epithelium which line the inside of the heart
B The simple squamous epithelium which covers the outside of the heart
C The simple squamous epithelium which forms the parietal layer of the
epicardium
D Non of the above
Lymphatic system
718. All the body tissues have lymphatic drainage EXCEPT
A CNS, eye and ear
B Bone and cartilage
C Epidermis of the skin
D All of the above
719. The lymph is

A Another definition for the plasma
B It is the serum
C A special excess fluid which circulates in its own vessels
D The fluid present ONLY in the lymph nodes
720. The lymphoid system consists of the followings EXCEPT

A Thymus, lymph nodes and spleen
B Diffuse lymphatic tissues
C Isolated lymphoid cells in different connective tissues
D Neuroglia
721. The followings represent the lymphoid cells EXCEPT
A Lymphocytes ( B & T)
B Plasma cells
C Macrophages
D Cells forming islets of Langerhans in the pancreas
722. The lymphocytes morphologically divided into

A Large, medium sized and small lymphocytes
B B and T lymphocytes
C Helper, cytotoxic and suppressor lymphocytes
D All of the above
Lymphocytes
723. The lymphocytes physiologically divided mainly into
A Large, medium sized and small lymphocytes
B B and T lymphocytes
C Helper, cytotoxic and suppressor T-lymphocytes
D All of the above
724. B-lymphocytes
A Arise in the bone marrow and become immunocompetent in the thymus
B Arise in the thymus and become immunocompetent in the bone marrow
C Arise and become immunocompetent in the bone marrow
D Arise in the thymus and become immunocompetent in thymus
725. The "activated B –lymphocytes" means

A The immunocompetent B-lymphocytes
B The immunocompetent B-lymphocytes which contact its specific antigen
C B-lymphocyte in the thymus
D All of the above
726. ONE statement is true

A The immunocompetent B-lymphocytes can secrete antibodies
B The activated B-lymphocytes can secrete antibodies
C The activated B-lymphocytes divide into plasma and memory cells
D The activated B-lymphocytes differentiate to T-lymphocytes
727. B-lymphocytes
A Represent 10-15% f circulating lymphocytes in the blood
B Represent 70-80% f circulating lymphocytes in the blood
C Present only in the lymphoid organs
D Present only in the connective tissue
728. In the humoral immune response system
A The antibodies attack the antigens
B The B-lymphocytes is the main cells
C Specific system for specific antigens
D All of the above
729. T-lymphocytes
A Arise in the bone marrow and become immunocompetent in the thymus
104
B Arise in the thymus and become immunocompetent in the bone marrow
C Arise and become immunocompetent in the bone marrow
D Arise and become immunocompetent in thymus
730. In the cell mediated immune response system

A The antibodies attack the cells (as tumor cells)
B The T-lymphocytes is the main cells
C Non specific immune system
D All of the above
731. Which of the following statement concerning the helper-T cells is

true?
A They secret antibodies
B They secrete cytokines
C They are the main cells responsible for humoral immune response
D They are subtype of b-lymphocytes
732. The followings are the subtypes of T-lymphocytes EXCEPT

A T-helper cells
B Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
C Suppressor T-lymphocytes
D Memory B-lymphocytes
733. Following cells share in the humoral immune mechanism EXCEPT

A T-helper cells
B Suppressor T-lymphocytes
C Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
D B -lymphocytes
734. Null cells

A Are subtype of B-lymphocytes
B Are subtype of T-lymphocytes
C Are natural killer cells
D Are not present in the blood
Antigens and antibodies
735. Each of the followings is an antigen presenting cell EXCEPT
A Macrophages
B B-lymphocytes
C Langerhans cells of the epidermis
D T-lymphocytes
736. Immunogen is
A The substance that elicit the immune response
B The substance that react specifically with its specific antibody
C A &B
D Non of the above
737. Antigen is
A The substance that elicit the immune response
B The substance that react specifically with its specific antibody
C A &B
D Non of the above

A All antigen are immunogens
B Most immunogens are not antigens
C Not all antigen are immunogens and most immunogens are not antigens
D Not all antigen are immunogens and most immunogens are antigens
739. The following cell can secrete antibodies

A B-lymphocytes
B T-lymphocytes
C Plasma cells
D Null cells
740. The region of the antigen that reacts with the antibody is called
A Immunogen
B Epitope
C Hinge region
D FC fragment
741. Each of the following statement concerning antibody is true EXCEPT
A Circulating plasma glycoproteins
B Secreted by B-lymphocytes
C Reacts specifically with epitope of the antigen
D It is formed of two heavy chains and two light chains
742. The papain enzyme cleaves the antibody into

A Two heavy chains and two light chains
B One heavy chain and two light chains
C One FC fragment and two Fab fragments
D Two FC fragments and one Fab fragment
743. Each of the following statements concerning the FC fragment is true

EXCEPT
106
A It consists of two parts of heavy chains
B It has the antigen binding site
C It is easy to crystallize
D It is present in the five subtypes of the antibodies
744. The cytokines that secreted by lymphocytes are called

A Monokines
B Lymphokines
C Interleukins
D Non of the above
745. The cytokines that secreted by monocytes are called

A Monokines
B Lymphokines
C Interleukins
D Non of the above
746. The cytokines that act between leukocytes are called

A Monokines
B Lymphokines
C Interleukins
D Non of the above
Lymphoid organs
747. Primary lymphoid organs
A Bone marrow
B Thymus
C A& B
D Spleen
748. The followings are secondary lymphoid organs EXCEPT

A Spleen
B Lymph nodes
C Thymus gland
D Tonsils
749. The thymus has a dual embryological origin

A Ectoderm and endoderm
B Mesoderm and ectoderm
C Endoderm and mesoderm
D Non of the above
750. The thymus characterized histologically by the followings EXCEPT
A Has no capsule
B Consists of two lobes
C Formed of cortex and medulla
D Has lymphoid component and epithelial component
751. The thymus characterized by the followings EXCEPT

A Situated in the superior mediastinum
B It is a primary lymphoid organ
C Undergoes involution at the childhood
D The site for B-lymphocytes maturation
752. The cortex of the thymus contains the following cells EXCEPT
A T-lymphocytes
B Macrophages
C Chondroblasts
D Epithelial reticular cells
753. Concerning the cortex of the thymus one statement is NOT correct
A Epithelial reticular cells isolate the cortex completely
B Most T- lymphocyte die in the cortex
C It is the site for T-lymphocyte programming (immunocompetent)
D T-cell programming occur while the cells are in contact with their
specific antigens
754. T-lymphocytes which programmed in the cortex of the thymus

A Will die in the medulla
B Migrate to bone marrow for more differentiation
C Migrate to the medulla and enter the blood stream
D Transforms to B-lymphocytes
755. The medulla of the thymus stain lighter than the cortex because
A The number of the lymphocytes in the medulla is much less in cortex
B It contain a large number of epithelial reticular cells
C A&B
D Non of the above
756. Hassall's corpuscle

A Concentric aggregation of white blood corpuscles
B Concentric aggregation of red blood corpuscles
C Concentric aggregation of epithelial reticular cells
D Non of the above
A Blood thymus barrier separate the blood from the medulla
108
B The thymus does not filter lymph
C The thymus capillaries are of fenestrated type
D Hassall's corpuscle are one of mononuclear phagocytic system
758. Blood thymus barrier has the following characteristics EXCEPT

A It separates the blood from the cortex
B It protects the developing T-lymphocytes from circulating antigens
C It has no direct or indirect role in the immune systems
D The blood capillaries are of continuous type
759. Blood –thymus barrier consists of the followings EXCEPT

A Continues endothelium
B Thick basement membrane
C Pericytes
D Layer of cortical T-lymphocytes
760. The epithelial reticular cells in the thymus produce the followings
EXCEPT
A Thymosin
B Prolactin
C Thymolin
D Thymopoietin
761. The stroma of the lymph node consists of the followings EXCEPT
A Connective tissue capsule
B Connective tissue trabeculae
C Network of reticular fibers
D Reticulocytes
762. The followings are types of lymph node sinuses EXCEPT

A Subcapsular lymph sinuses
B Cortical lymph sinuses
C Trabecular lymph sinuses
D Medullary lymph sinuses
763. Concerning the lymph circulation ONE circulation is correct

A Afferent lymphatic, subcapsular, medullary, cortical sinuses to efferent
B Afferent lymphatic, cortical, subcapsular, medullary sinuses to efferent
C Afferent lymphatic, subcapsular, cortical, medullary sinuses efferent
D Afferent lymphatic, cortical, medullary, subcapsular sinuses to efferent
764. The following cells can be seen in the lymphatic sinuses EXCEPT
A Endothelial cells
B Macrophages
C Reticulocytes
D Reticular stellate cells
765. ONE statement is NOT true

A Primary lymphatic nodule has no plasma cells nor memory cells
B Secondary lymphatic nodules characterized by the germinal centers
C The germinal center is darker than the peripheral zone
D Secondary lymphatic nodules arise from the primary nodules
766. The germinal center is more pale than the peripheral zone because
A Its cells have heterochromatic nuclei
B It contains more larger and less packed lymphocytes
C It contains more smaller and packed lymphocytes
D Its cells have scanty cytoplasm
767. ONE statement is true

A Secondary lymphatic nodules have no germinal centers
B Primary lymphatic nodules arise after exposure to the antigens
C Primary nodules are present in the medulla of the lymph nodes
D Secondary lymphatic nodules arise after exposure to the antigens

A B-lymphocytes are abundant in the primary nodules
B T-lymphocytes are abundant in the outer cortex of the lymph nodes
C Secondary nodules are the site for B-cell differentiation
D No distinct boundaries between outer an inner cortex
769. Thymus dependent zones have the following characters EXCEPT

A They are areas rich in T-lymphocytes
B They are present in the inner cortex of lymph nodes
C They are the sites fro T-cell differentiation
D It forms the sheath of the lymphoid tissue in the spleen
770. The function/s of the lymph nodes is/are

A Primary site for blood filtration
B Antigen recognition and B-lymphocyte differentiation
C T-lymphocytes differentiation
D All of the above
Spleen
771. ONE statement is NOT true
110
A The lymph node consists of cortex and medulla
B The spleen consists of red and white pulps
C There are primary and secondary lymphoid organs
D All lymphoid organs have afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
772. Which of the followings is concerning the filtration of the lymph

A Palatine tonsil
B Thymus gland
C Spleen
D Non of the above
773. Histologically, the spleen has the following structures EXCEPT

A Smooth muscle fibers
B Reticular cells and reticular fibers
C Outer cortex and inner medulla
D Thymus dependent zones
774. Which of the followings is NOT in the construction of the spleenic

white pulp
A Central arteriole
B Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
C Blood sinusoids
D Lymphatic nodules
775. Marginal zone in the spleen

A It is a thymus dependent zone
B It separates the lymphatic nodule from the Periarterial lymphatic sheath
C It separates the white pulp from the red pulp
D It is the blood thymus barrier
776. Marginal zone in the spleen consists of

A Plasma cells
B B and T-lymphocytes
C Denderetic cells
D All of the above
777. Cords of Billroth is another name for

A Umbilical cord
B Spermatic cord
C Spleenic cord
D Non of the above
778. The spleenic sinuses adapted for their function by the followings
EXCEPT
A The endothelial cells separated by narrow clefts
B Complete basal lamina around the sinus
C The sinus surrounded by reticular cells
D They have wide lumen
779. Arrange the following arterial branches of the spleen

A Central artery, trabecular artery, penicillar artery and ellipsoid capillaries
B Trabecular artery, penicillar artery and ellipsoid capillaries
C Trabecular artery, penicillar artery, central artery and ellipsoid capillaries
D Trabecular artery,central artery,penicillar artery and ellipsoid capillaries
780. Closed circulation in the spleen means

A Blood flow from the artery to the vein through the spleenic sinuses
B Blood flow from the artery to the veins through the spleenic cords
C Blood flow from the artery to the vein direct through blood capillaries
D Non of the above
781. Open circulation in the spleen means

A Blood flow from the artery to the vein through the spleenic sinuses
B Blood flow from the artery to the veins through the spleenic cords
C Blood flow from the artery to the vein direct through blood capillaries
D Non of the above
782. One of the followings is NOT a function of the spleen

A Filtration of the lymph
B Filtration of the blood
C Recycling of the iron
D Haemopoiesis
783. MALT are letters of

A Many Associated Lymphoid Tissues
B Most Associated Lymphoid Tissues
C Mucosa- Associated Lymphoid Tissues
D Miscellaneous Assembled Lymphoid Tissue
784. MALT have the following characters EXCEPT

A They have primary and secondary lymphatic nodules
B They are present in GIT, and respiratory and urinary systems
C They have thick capsules
D They have an immunological functions
112
785. Adenoid is
A Hypertrophy of lingual tonsil
B Hypertrophy of pharangeal tonsil
C Hypertrophy of palatine tonsil
D Hypertrophy of Peyer's patch
786. Peyer's patch refers to diffuse lymphoid tissues in

A The tonsil
B The ileum
C The appendix
D All of the above
787. The function/s of the tonsils is/are

A Filtration of the blood
B Filtration of the lymph
C Filtration of both the inspired air and the ingested food
D Non of the above
788. "Z"-line is found in which of the following?

A The "I"-band
B The "A"-band
C The "M"-band
D The "H"-band
E None of the above
789. Concerning canaliculi one, statement is correct?

A Connect lacunae in cartilage
B Connect lacunae in bone
C Contain nerve fibers
D Contain blood vessels
E None of the above
790. Concerning blood cell formation, all statements are true EXCEPT
A Formation is stem cell dependent
B Most stem cells are dormant at any one time
C Stem cells are euchromatic with basophilic cytoplasm
D Stem cells are the major component of cells in bone marrow
E Stem cells can divide
791. Fibrocartilage
A Is composed primarily of coarse parallel bundles of type-II collagen
fibers
B Has a well-developedperichondrium
C Exhibits well-developed isogenous groupings
D Contains multiple concentric lamellae of collagenous fibers
E Is located in long bones
792. Which of the organelles listed below belongs to the cytoskeleton of

the cell?
A Golgi apparatus
B Rough -surfaced endoplasmic reticulum
C Smooth-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum
D Centrioles
E Microtubules
793. Lymph arriving at a lymph node via an afferent lymphatic vessels

goes next to a
A Medullary sinuse
B Subcapsular sinus
C Cortical sinus
D Efferent lymphatic
E None of the above
114
794. Blood vessel has the thickest wall relative to its diameter
A The inferior vena cava
B An arteriole
C The saphenous vein (medium sized vein)
D A venule
E The ulnar artery (medium sized muscular artery)
795. The most common type of cartilage is

A Fibrocartilage
B Hyaline
C Tropocollagen
D Elastic
E Chondrocartilage
796. Unilocular adipocytes
A Contain sphericalcentrally located nuclei
B Contain single large lipid droplet
C Are activated in a cold environment
D Have abundant cytoplasm
E Occur all over the body

A Contain spherical centrally located nuclei
798. Concerning bone, all of the following are true EXCEPT

A It is constantly renewed
B It is responsive to endocrine and nutritional factors
C It is avascular
D It may develop from mesenchyme
E It may grow by appositional growth
799. Which of the following proteins found in the skeletal muscle fiber
bind calcium?
A Myosin
B Myoglobin
C Meromyosin
D Troponin
E Actin
800. All of the following about bone marrow are true EXCEPT
A Bone marrow occurs in two forms
B It is composed primarily of haversian systems
C It may contain variable amounts of adipose cells
D It is an active part of hemopoiesis
E It is found throughout the skeleton in newborns
801. As cells undergo hemopoiesis,

A The nucleus decreases in size
B The nucleocytoplasmic ratio increases
C The cell enlarges
D The nucleoli become more prominent
E The chromatin becomes finer and more disperse
802. All of the following statements are true about the erythrocytic cell
line EXCEPT
A They contain numerous fine cytoplasmic granules
B They are produced under control by erythropoietin
C The cells change their staining characteristics as they mature
D They arise from primordial cells in the fetal liver
E They are actively involved in oxygen transport
803. During anaphase

A The chromosomes uncoil becoming indistinct
B The chromosomes become visible and condense
C The chromatids separate, moving away from each other
D The cell contains intermediate filaments
E None of the above
804. Cellular changes or alterations in the epithelia to strengthen their

attachment to one another include
A Maculae
B Desmosomes
C tight junctions
D Zonulae
E All of the above
805. Which is INCORRECT when the skeletal muscle fiber contracts?
A H-band disappears
B Z-bands are closer together
C Myosin filaments slide into the I-band
116
D Actin filaments slide into the A-band
E The sarcomere becomes thicker
806. In the early of an inflammatory response, predominate blood cells

A Macrophages
B Monocytes
C Basophils
D Neutrophils
E Plasma cells
807. Sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounds which of the following?

A Skeletal muscle actin filaments
B Skeletal muscle myosin filaments
C Skeletal muscle fiber
D Skeletal musclemyofibril
E None of the above
808. The white pulp of the spleen contains

A Lymphatic nodules
B Central arteries
C Diffuse lymphatic tissue
D Reticular fibers
E All of the above
809. Which of the following statements about epithelium NOT true?

A Basal cells always rest on a basement membrane (lamina)
B Epithelial cells are incapable of reproduction
C May contain modified cells related to functional specificity
D May be composed of more than one cell layer
E Separate the external and internal environments
810. A person suffering from an active parasitic infections would be

expected to have a high count of
A Neutrophils
B Basophils
C Eosinophils
D Rubricytes
E Myelocytes
811. The principal metabolic center of a neuron is its

A Axon hillock
B Dendritic tree
C Axonal arborization
D Cell body
E Synaptic vesicles
812. Each of the following statements concerning B cells is true EXCEPT
A They can differentiate into plasma cells
B They do not interact with helper T cells before they produce antibody
C They are derived from bone marrow
D They are abundant in secondary nodules
E They are less common than T cells in the PALS in the spleen
813. A sarcomere is the area between
A Two A-bands
B Two I-bands
C Two Z-lines
D Two M-lines
E Two H-bands
814. Stratified squamous epithelium would be best for lining

A Esophagus
B Trachea
C Stomach
D Small intestine
E Urinary bladder
815. Which of the following do not contribute to the strengthening of
intercellular attachments in epithelia?
A Maculae
B Cilia
C Desmosomes
D Zonulae
E Tight junctions
816. Find the best answer: The matrix of hyaline cartilage

A Contains primarily type-II collagen
B Contains hyaluronic acid
C Contains proteoglycans
D Contains glycosaminoglycans with sulfated hexosamines
E All of the above
817. The most important immunoglobulin in immune responses is

A IgA
B IgD
C IgE
118
D IgG
E IgM
818. Which description is INCORRECT about muscular arteries?
A Muscular tunica adventitia
B An inner elastic membrane
C Muscular tunica media
D Vasa vasorum in tunica adventitia
E None of the above
819. The two types of adipose tissue differ in

A Color
B Vascularity
C Metabolic activity
D Body distribution
E All of the above
820. The most abundant tissue in the aorta is

A Dense irregular connective tissue
B Smooth muscle
C Elastic
D Elastic cartilage
E None of the above
821. Lymphocytes are

A The most numerous of the leukocytic cells
B Contain large azurophilic granules
C Give rise to tissue macrophages
D The principle agents in the humoral defense response
E Typically exhibit multilobed nuclei
822. A macrophage can originate from which of the following cells?

A Reticular cell
B Neutrophil
C Plasma cell
D Monocyte
E None of the above
823. The muscular layer of the blood vessels is known as the

A Tunica intima
B Tunica media
C Tunica adventitia
D Mesothelium
E Endothelium
824. Within the CNS, phagocytosis of cellular debris is carried out by
A Microglia
B Protoplasmic astrocytes
C Fibrous astrocytes
D Ependymal cells
E None of the above
825. Muscular arteries are characterized by

A An inner elastic membrane
B An external elastic membrane
C Decreased elastic material in the tunica media
D A and B
E All of the above
826. The statements concerning large veins are true EXCEPT

A They have valves
B They have well defined external and internal elastic laminae
C The adventitia may contain smooth muscle
D The media contains elastic fibers
E The media contains smooth muscle
827. Which of the following are true about osteoblasts?

A Reside in lacunae within the matrix
B Are typicallymultinucleated
C Are active in resorption of bone
D Are part of the haversian systems
E Are aligned along the surface of bone
828. Dense regular connective t contains following components EXCEPT

A Numerous extracellular fibers
B Numerous cells
C Numerous collagen fibers
D Fibroblasts
E Amorphous ground substance
829. Which of the statements about myocardial cells is/are true?

A Have many large mitochondria with abundant cristae
B Have centrally located nuclei
C Contain lipofuscin
D All of the above
E None of the above
120
830. The statements concerning platelets are true EXCEPT
A They aggregate when they contact the collagen
B They are megakaryocyte fragments
C They contain a small, dense nucleus
D They have a plasma membrane
E Peripheral blood contains fewer platelets than erythrocytes
831. Goblet cells can be observed in the

A Urinary bladder
B Esophagus
C oral cavity
D Small intestine
E Ovary
832. The statements concerning the palatine tonsils are true EXCEPT
A They lack secondary nodules
B They contain primary nodules
C They contain numerous B cells
D They are associated with an epithelium different from the epithelium of
the pharyngeal tonsils
E They are associated with stratified squamous epithelium
833. The statements concerning smooth muscle cells are true EXCEPT
A They do not contain sarcomeres
B They contain many regularly arranged thick filaments
C They contain many mitochondria
D They have gap junctions
E They do not contain T tubules
834. Many blood vessels have elastic fibers in their tunica media. Which
of the following blood vessels contains the most elastic fibers?
A The radial artery
B The renal artery
C The aorta
D The inferior vena cava
E The superior vena cava
835. Elongated, centrally located nuclei are found in

A Smooth muscle
B Skeletal muscle
C Cardiac muscle
D Endomysial connective tissue
E All of the above
836. The space between two segments of myelin sheath along an axon
A Major dense line
B Intraperiod line
C Node of Ranvier
D Schmidt-Lantermann cleft
E Mesaxon
837. The statements concerning collagen synthesis are true EXCEPT

A Cross-linking occurs outside the cell
B Glycosylation occurs outside the cell
C Polypeptide chains are assembled inside the cell
D Collagen is synthesized by fibroblasts
E Collagen is assembled into microfibrils inside the cell
838. The plasma membrane has all of the following functions EXCEPT
A It is a selectively permeable barrier surrounding the cell
B It is a site for hormone receptors
C It is a cell adhesion interface
D It facilitates the transport of sugars
E It is the primary protein synthesis site
839. Which of the following cells stain with osmium tetroxide or

Sudan Black to show small multilocular globules?
A White fat cells
B Brown fat cells
C Yellow fat cells
D Ovarian tissue
E None of the above
840. The statements concerning the nucleolus are true EXCEPT

A Electron microscope revels its homogenous granular structure
B DNA strands comprise its nucleolar organizer region
C They are prominent in the active cells
D rRNA synthesis and assembly occur in the nucleolus
E A cell nucleus may contain more than one nucleolus
841. The statements concerning cardiac muscle tissue are true EXCEPT
A Each cardiac muscle cell contain a single central nucleus and many
sarcomeres
122
B Cardiac muscle tissue exists in the proximal aorta
C Cardiac muscles cells are joined by intercalated disks
D Cardiac muscle tissue contains gap junctions
E Cardiac muscle tissue regenerates by satellite cell mitosis
842. Platelets arise

A As cytoplasmic separations from megakaryocytes
B By differentiation of a stem cell plateletoblast
C As noncellular aggregations of blood-borne precursor substances
D By budding from monocytes
E As granules extruded from neutrophils
843. Which of the following cellular strictures is found in neuronal cell

bodies but not in axons?
A Rough endoplasmicreticulum
B Microtubules
C Mitochondria
D Membrane vesicles
E Neurofilaments
844. Azurophilic granules in the granulocytic lineage of cells

A Are related to phagocytosis
B Contain peroxidase
C Contain hemoglobinparticles
D Are lysosomes
E Are directly related to blood clot promotion
845. The mitotic spindle is composed mostly of

A Golgi flattened sacs
B Smooth -surfaced endoplasmic reticulum
C Microtubules
D Intermediate filaments E none of the above
846. Which statement about T lymphocytes is FALSE?

A They are active participants in the humoral immune response
B They secrete cytokines
C They have no antigen receptors on their surfaces
D They stimulate differentiation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells
E They synthesize abundant amounts of antibodies
847. Cellular structural modification suitable for respiratory system?

A Stereocilia
B Brush border
C Keratinization
D Striated border
E Cilia
848. Each of the following statements concerning basement membranes is

true EXCEPT
A They do not contain elastin
B They contain abundant type IV collagen
C They underlie epithelial cells
D They are not present in nerve and muscle cells
E They contain little type I collagen
849. The statements concerning mast cells are true EXCEPT

A They are found in the CT present under the epithelium
B They are distinct from basophils
C Their granules stain orthochromatically with basic dyes
D Their granules contain heparin
E They are involved in inflammatory responses
850. All of the following are considered as inclusion bodies EXCEPT

A Secretory granules
B Pigment granules
C Glycogen
D Lipid
E Lysosomes
851. The statements concerning the human karyotype are true EXCEPT
A Karyotype analysis can be performed with histological sections
B Male sex chromosomes are heteromorphic
C Female sex chromosomes are homomorphic
D There are pairs of autosomes
E A normal human karyotype contains 46 chromosomes
852. The statements concerning the spleen are true EXCEPT

A Its connective tissue capsule has smooth muscle fibers
B Its sinuses are continuous capillaries
C The white pulp contains T cells and B cells
D T cells are concentrated in the PALS
E B cells are concentrated in lymphoid nodules
853. Function of brown adipose tissue is
124
A Filler
B Cushion
C Insulation
D Energy production
E None of the above
854. The following statements concerning glycocalyx are true EXCEPT

A It contains glycoprotein constituents
B Polysaccharides project from the glycoproteins around the cell
C It gives many cells a PAS reaction
D It is involved in cell-to-cell recognition
E It prevents digestive enzymes from degrading intestinal cell membranes
855. Which of the following statements best characterizes venules?

A They carry blood to capillary networks
B Their walls are thicker than arteriole wall
C Their adventitia is distinct from surrounding connective tissues
D Their media contains many layers of smooth muscle
E It is a site for leucocytes emigration
856. Concerning outer circumferential lamellae one, statement is correct?

A Are formed by the periosteum
B Line the inner surface of long bones
C Disappear during bone formation
D Are typical of spongy bone
E None of the above
857. The cell type listed below is a component of the mononuclear

phagocyte system EXCEPT
A Histiocytes
B Macrophages
C Microglia
D Neutrophils
E Osetoclasts
858. Granulopoiesis
A Give rise to monocytes as well as granulocytes
B Results in mature red blood cells
C Is produces blood platelets
D When stimulated, produces enormous numbers of proerythroblasts
E Is not influenced by cytokines
859. The statements concerning muscular arteries are true EXCEPT
A They contain more elastic fibers than smooth muscles cells
B The media contains smooth muscle cells
C They have an endothelium at the lumen
D They have an external elastic lamina
E The media contains elastic fibers
860. The statements concerning cardiac muscle cells are true EXCEPT
A They have less sarcoplasmic reticulum than skeletal muscle cells
B They are abundant in the walls of the ventricles and atria
C They are abundant in the epicardium
D They contain T tubules
E Gap junctions facilitate ionic communication between them
861. The statements concerning stratified epithelium are true EXCEPT

A All of its cells rest on the basement membrane
B Some of its cells reach the apical level
C It is found in the esophagus
D It can be keratinized
E It is forming the epidermis
862. Oxidative phosphorylation to adenosine triphosphate in

mitochondria is associated with
A The matrix
B Outer mitochondrialmembrane
C Dense granules
D Cristae
E None of the above
863. The statements concerning nucleolar organizer region are true

EXCEPT
A It is located in the nucleolus
B It is located in the fibrillar component of the nucleolus
C It contains DNA
D It contains the genes necessary for rRNA synthesis
E It persists during mitosis
864. The spleen functions as

A A reservoir of monocytes
B A storage depot for platelets
C An organ for clearing blood of damaged erythrocytes
D A filter
E All of the above
126
865. This component of the wall of vascular tissue contains the vasa
vasorum:
A Tunica intima
B Tunica media
C Tunica adventitia
D All of the above
E None of the above
866. A cell containing both a hyalomere and granulomere regions is a

A Promyelocyte
B Monocyte
C Platelet
D Basophil
E None of the above
867. Epithelium can be classified according to

A The number of cells in the layer above the basal lamina
B The shape of the cells lining the lumen
C Cellular specializations
D All of the above
E None of the above
868. The statements concerning simple colum. epithelium is true EXCEPT
A It is found in intestinal absorptive epithelium

B It is found in tracheal epithelium
C All of its cells rest on the basement membrane
D All of its cells reach the apical level
E It contains well developed junctional complexes
869. The statements concerning eosinophils are true EXCEPT

A Peripheral blood contains fewer eosinophils than neutrophils
B Patients with Bilharzia have elevated eosinophil counts
C Peripheral blood contains fewer eosinophils than lymphocytes
D Peripheral blood contains fewer eosinophils than basophils
E Eosinophils are capable of phagocytosis
870. Cilia
A Are nonmotile
B Are found in the esophagus
C Are significantlysmaller than microvilli
D Are adapted to move luminal material
E Increase significantly the absorptive surface of cells
871. The pars granulosa and pars fibrosa refer to specific portions of the
A Nucleus
B Nucleolus
C Nuclear envelop
D RER
E SER
872. During voluntary contraction of skeletal muscle, the sarcomere

A Stays the same length
B Gets longer
C Gets shorter
D The I-bands within the sarcomere get longer
E None of the above
873. The statements concerning skeletal muscle cell are true EXCEPT:
A They are syncytial cells with peripheral nuclei
B They are joined to each other by intercalated disks
C They contain many elongated mitochondria
D They have membrane triads at the junction of the A and I bands
E They contain an elaborate sarcoplasmic reticulum
874. The statements concerning elastin are true EXCEPT

A It contains tropoplastin
B It is amorphous (no periodicity)
C It resists boiling and alkali
D It is abundant in dermal elastic fibers
E It is abundant in basement membranes
875. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the spleen?

A Has a dense connective tissue capsule
B Has trabeculae with arteries and veins
C Has splenic cords (Billroth's cords)
D Has sinusoids within trabeculae
E Contains a loose net of reticular cells
876. The statements concerning continuous capillaries are true EXCEPT

A They have a basement membrane
B They have occluding junctions between cells
C They are abundant in spleenic red pulp
D They have gap junctions
128
E They are abundant in skeletal muscle
877. Veins differ from arteries in that they generally

A Have thinner walls
B Have larger lumens
C Contain valves
D A and C
E A, B, and C
878. The term multipolar neuron best refers to a nerve cell which
A Has multiple axons
B Has multipledendrites
C Synthesizes more than one type of neurotransmitter
D Is binucleated
E Is implicated in schizophrenia
879. Type of epithelium would you use to build a urinary bladder?

A Simple cuboidal
B Keratinized stratified squamous
C Pseudostratified columnar
D Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
E Transitional
880. Find the INCORRECT statement Brown fat cells

A Are found mainly in fetuses
B Are unilocular
C Can be stimulated by sympathetic nervous system
D Mitochondria have no elementary particles
E Are less numerous than white fat cells
881. Which of the following best characterizes a cardiac muscle cell?

A Triads are rare
B Large T -tubule
C T -tubule at Z-line
D Central "swollen"nuclei
E All of the above
882. Thin filaments have all of the following components EXCEPT

A Myosin
B Troponin C
C F- actin
D Troponin I
E Tropomyosin
883. The statements concerning nuclear envelope are true EXCEPT

A It consists of two asymmetrical unit membranes
B Nuclear pores is formed of six subunits
C Macromolecules pass from the nucleus to cytoplasm through pores
D Nuclear proteins pass from the cytoplasm to nucleus through pores
E Unit membranes are continuous at the nuclear pores
884. The most common antigen-presenting cells are

A Macrophages
B Helper T lymphocytes
C Reticulocytes
D Large lymphocytes
E Plasma cells
885. Which of the following statements best characterizes adipose tissue?

A It is one type of general connective tissue proper
B It has a poor blood supply
C Its cells contain fat vacuoles surrounded by a unit membrane
D It may contain unilocular or mulitlocular adipocytes
E It is equal distributed in males and females
886. Which is true about the I-band of the skeletal muscle myofibril?
A There are only myosin filaments
B There are both actin and myosin filaments
C There are only actin filaments
D Contains mitochondria
E None of the above
887. The sinoatrial node (pacemaker) is found in

A The left atrium
B The right atrium
C The left ventricle
D The right ventricle
E None of the above
888. Along its extent from the cell body in the spinal cord to its muscle
target, the myelination of a motor neuron axon is contributed by
A Oligodendrocytes
B Schwann cells
C First A then B
130
D First B then A
E Neither A nor B
889. Monocytes
A Represent over 20% of the WBCs
B Represent 1% of the WBCs
C Represent approximately 30% of the WBCs
D Represent approximately 5% of the WBCs
E None of the above
890. The statements concerning lymph nodes are true EXCEPT
A T cells are present in secondary nodules
B T cells predominant in the deep cortex
C Secondary nodules lack macrophages
D Reticular fibers surround subcapsular sinuses
E Secondary nodules contain reticular fibers
891. The following regarding white adipose tissue are correct EXCEPT
A Is in a continual state of formation and degradation
B Serves effectively as an insulator
C Adipocytes contain numerous fat droplets
D Also termed unilocular adipose tissue
E Adipocytes exhibit "signet ring" appearance
892. All of the following are considered organelles EXCEPT

A Lysosomes
B Centromer
C Mitochondria
D Golgi apparatus
E Peroxisomes
893. In a peripheral nerve, the layer which is composed of dense CT

(thick fibrous coat)
A Perineurium
B Epineurium
C Endoneuriutn
D all of the above
E none of the above
894. Concerning Volkmann's canals, which one statement is correct?
A Connect osteocytes
B Are absent from long bones
C Contain blood vessels and nerves
D Are created by calcium deficiency
E None of the above
895. The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure
A Contains actin filaments
B Has hydrophobic elements directed away from the center
C Has hydrophilic elements directed away from the center
D Contains intermediatefilaments
E None of the above
896. The statements concerning cartilage proteoglycan are true EXCEPT

A It contains hyaluronic acid
B It is a phospholipids molecule
C It is a macromolecule
D It contains chondroitin sulfate
E It binds water
897. Macrocytosis, microcytosis, and spherocytoses, refer to

abnormalities of the
A Neutrophils
B Erythrocytes
C Monocytes
D Basophiles
E All of the above
898. The germinal center of lymph nodes

A Has few large lymphocytes
B Is composed primarily of T lymphocytes
C Contains plasma cells produced in the medulla
D Contains activated B lymphocytes
E Is seldom involved as a site of antibody synthesis
899. The primary element of the hyaline cartilage matrix is

A Collagen
B Chondrocytes
C Triglycerides
D Elastic fibers
E Lacunae
900. Which is INCORRECT about the thymus?

A Possesses lobules
B Has afferent lymphatics
C Has epithelial reticular cells
D Has Hassell's corpuscles
132
E Involutes after puberty
901. Canaliculi are found in

A Articular cartilage
B Perichondrium
C Compact bone
D Bone marrow
E None of the above
902. Each organ listed below contains connective tissue embedded among
parenchymal cells EXCEPT
A Skin
B Brain
C Pancrease
D Liver
E Spleen
903. The statements concerning the mitotic spindle are true EXCEPT
A It contains manymicrotubules
B Its components attach to the chromosome at the centromere
C It is responsible for chromosome movement during anaphase
D It is assembled before chromosome condensation
E The mitotic spindle forms from the centriole
904. The cell type which is found partially surrounding the capillary
endothelial cells and may have a contractile function is called a
A Myocyte
B Smooth-muscle cell
C Pericyte
D Myoblast
E Fibroblast
905. The most prominent nucleated cells in the circulation are
A Neutrophils
B Basophils
C Eosinophils
D Monocytes
E Erythrocytes
906. DNA is replicated during

A Prophase
B G of phase
C S of phase
D G of phase
E Metaphase
907. The aorta is an example of a/an
A Elastic artery
B Muscular artery
C Arteriole
D Medium vein
E Large vein
908. Osteogenic tissue is found in

A Bone marrow
B Endosteum
C Tendon
D Hyaline cartilage
E None of the above
909. All epithelia which comprise a simple lining rest on

A Connective tissue
B Elastic fibers
C Basal lamina
D Papillae
E Capillaries
910. Chondrocytes are nourished by

A Closely associated capillary plexuses
B The rich vascularity of cartilage
C Diffusion of metabolites through the matrix
D Intrachondral canaliculi
E Capillaries directly open to lacunae
911. Within the CNS, myelin is produced by

A Microglia
B Fibrous astrocytes
C Protoplasmic astrocytes
D Oligodendrocytes
E Schwann cells
912. Sinusoids are a type of

A Capillary
B Artery
C Vein
D Lymph vessel
E Purkinje fiber
134
913. The cell-mediated immune response is performed by
A B lymphocytes
B Macrophages
C T-lymphocytes
D Plasma cells
E Memory cells
A Contain spherical centrally located nuclei
915. Elastic differs from hyaline cartilage because elastic cartilage
A Has more chondrocytes per unit area of matrix
B Has a soft viscous center
C Has a much more abundant matrix
D Is moreflexible
E Is less opaque
916. Blood granulocytes contain very large metachromatic granules?

A Basophil
B Mast cell
C Monocyte
D Neutrophil
E Lymphocyte
917. You would expect a 4-month old conceptus (pregnancy) to have

A An established bone marrow with ongoing haemopoiesis
B Multiple circulating plasma cells
C Nucleated erythrocytes
D Multiple circulatingmyelocytes
E Multiple circulating megakaryocytes
918. As bone grows

A It changes its external form
B Haversian systems remain unaltered
C Continual deposition and resorption of matrix is involved
D The periosteum plays an active dual role
E The epiphyses play essentially no rule
919. Which of the following processes involves microtubules?

A Movement of cilia
B Movement of chromosomes during mitosis
C Intracellular transport of secretory granules
D Movement of flagella
E All of the above
920. Epiphyseal plates
A Separate two epiphyses
B Are easily observed in bones of children
C Are composed of spongy bone
D Contain Volkmann's canals
E Separate two diaphyses
921. Isogenous groupings of lacunae are most commonly seen in

A Fibrocartilage
B Elastic cartilage
C Perichondrium
D Hyaline cartilage
E All of the above
922. Reticulocytes
A Typically exhibit a dense compact nucleus
B Have a acidophiliccytoplasm
C Arise from immature monocytes
D Exhibit dense cytoplasmic granulation
E Contain polyribosomes in aggregations
136

HISTOLOGY MCQ DR. Osama Yaseen

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HISTOLOGY MCQ DR. Osama Yaseen

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Histology and methods of its study

1. Concerning the paraffin technique, the followings are fixative EXCEPT

2. The fixative has the following functions EXCEPT

3. One statement is NOT correct

4. Paraffin technique has the following advantages EXCEPT

5. Following technique is suitable to stain the glycogen inside the cells?

6. The most common staining system in the histology is

7. Which of the followings is suitable to examine the fat cells

9. One statement is NOT correct

10. Three dimensional image for a cell can obtained bt

11. Which of the following microscopes uses an oblique rays

12. To examine living unstained cells you need

13. Which of the following microscopes uses an ultraviolet rays

14. Immunohistochemistry technique is suitable to examine

16. The thickness of the cell membrane is

17. Cell membrane appears as trilaminar structure because

18. Cell membrane appears as trilaminar structure because

19. Cell membrane appears as trilaminar structure because

20. Cell membrane appears as trilaminar structure because

21. Phospholipids molecules in the cell membrane have

23. All the statements concerned to the trilaminar appearance of cell

24. In the cell membrane, the phospholipids molecules have

26. Transmembrane proteins

27. Glycocalyx composed of

30. The cell membrane is asymmetrical structure because

31. One of the followings is not a function of the cell membrane

32. One of the followings is not a function of the cell membrane

33. Cell membrane modifications mean

34. In active transport

35. In passive diffusion

37. In selective transport

39. In the mitochondria

40. Concerning mitochondria

41. Enzymes for Krebs cycle are

42. The ADP to ATP phosphorylating system is

47. All the statements concerning ribosomes are true EXCEPT

48. All the statements concerning ribosomes are true EXCEPT

49. Ribosomes are intensely basophilic granules. This basophilia is due to

52. Concerning the RER, one statement is true

53. Function of RER is

54. Segregated proteins in RER are delivered in

55. Transfer vesicles

56. Concerning the RER, one statement is true

58. SER has the following function

59. SER has the following functions EXCEPT

60. In the striated muscle, SER is concerned with

63. Golgi complex

65. Transfer vesicles

66. Golgi have the following functions EXCEPT

67. All the followings are products of Golgi complex EXCEPT

68. Zymogen granules are

70. One statement is true

72. Lipofusin pigments

73. Pinocytic vesicles

74. Autophage vacuoles are

80. One statement is true

86. All are functions of centeriol (centrosome) EXCEPT

87. Cytoskeleton is a network of

88. Centeriol is a cylindrical structure

93. Concerning the function of microtubules, all are true EXCEPT

95. One statement is true

96. The axoneme is

97. In the axoneme each doublets of microtubules join adjacent one by

98. In the axoneme each doublets of microtubules join central sheath by