1.

Which of the following statements regarding

mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?
(1) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(2) The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds
of molecules.
(3) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are
embedded in the outer membrane.
(4) The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming
a series of infoldings.
Answer: 3
2. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is
not correct?
(1) Cilia contain an outer of nine doublet
microtubules surrounding two single
microtubules.
(2) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by
fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane.
(3) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
Answer: 2
3. Which one of the following is not a constituent of
cell membrane ?
(1) Phospholipids (2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycolipids (4) Proline
Answer: 4
4. Select the wrong statement from the following :
(1) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than
mitochondria
(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an
inner and an outer membrane
(3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an
internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
DNA
Answer: 3
5. Polysome is formed by :-
(1) A ribosome with several subunits
(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear
arrangement
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of
endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: 3
6. Vacuole in a plant cell :-
(1) Lacks membrane and contains air
(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and
excretory substances
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains storage
proteins and lipids
(4) is membrane-bound and contains water and
excretory substances
Answer: 4
7. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded
exclusively in the:-
(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Proplastids
(4) Glyoxysomes
Answer: 4
8. Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for the
structure of cell membrane, which one of the following
statements is correct with respect to the movement
of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the
other (described as flip-flop movement) ?
(1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
(2) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
(3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(4) While lipids can rarely flip-flop,proteins can not
Answer: 4
9. Plasmodesmata are :-
(1) Connections between adjacent cells
(2) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(3) Locomotory structures
(4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with
plasmalemma
Answer: 1
10. Middle lamella is composed mainly of :-
(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Calcium pectate
Answer: 4
11. Cytoskeleton is made up of :-
(1) Proteinaceous filaments
(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosic microfibrils
Answer: 1
12. The plasma membrane consists mainly of :
(1) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
(2) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(3) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
(4) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
molecules
Answer: 3
13. Which one of the following structures between two
adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway ?
(1) Plasmalemma
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Plastoquinones
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: 2
14. Which one of the following has its own DNA ?
(1) Peroxisome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Dictyosome
(4) Lysosome
Answer: 2
15. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:
(1) Nucleus
(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Mitochondrian
(4) Cytoplasm
Answer: 4
16. Algae have cell wall made up of:
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins
Answer: 2
17. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous
structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in
the maintenance of cell shape is called :
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(2) Plasmalemma
(3) Cytoskeleton
(4) Thylakoid
Answer: 3
18. Identify the components labelled A, B,C and D in
the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given with
Components :
The correct
(i) Cristae of mitochondria component are :
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria A B C D
(iii) Cytoplasm (1) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (2) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix (4) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)
(vii) Cell vacuole
(viii)Nucleus
Answer: 4
19. Singer & Nicolson are associated with :-
(1) Cell theory
(2) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(3) Fluid mosaic model
(4) Unit membrane theory
Answer: 3
20. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids is :-
(1) Vacuole
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Plastid
(4) Lysosome
Answer: 2
21. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in :-
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(3) Chromoplast (4) Ribosomes
Answer: 4
22. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles
eukaryotic cell is :-
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Nucleus
(3) Ribosomes (4) Cell wall
Answer: 1
23. Which one of the following is not considered as a
part of the endomembrane system ?
(1) Lysosome (2) Golgi complex
(3) Peroxisome (4) Vacuole
Answer: 3
24. The figure below shows the structure of a
mitochondria with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C)
and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its
function.
(1) Part (A) : Matrix - major site for respiratory chain
enzymes
(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane - gives rise to inner
membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms infoldings
called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae - possess single circular DNA
molecule and ribosomes
Answer: 3
25. Cell theory was proposed by -
(1) A Botanist
(2) A Zoologist
(3) A botanist and zoologist
(4) A psychologist
Answer: 3
26. Select the correct statement from the following
regarding cell membrane :-
(1) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar
heads towards the inner part
(2) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
proposed by Singer and Nicolson
(3) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane
by passive transport
(4) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell
membrane
Answer: 2
27. What is true about ribosomes ?
(1) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
(2) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs
(3) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S where"S"
stands for sedimentation coefficient
(4) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and
proteins
Answer: 4
28. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in :-
(1) Nucleoplasm
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Nucleolus
Answer: 4
29. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly
described ?
(1) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger
(80 S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller
(70 S)
(2) Lysosomes-optimally active at a pH of about
8.5
(3) Thylakoids-flattened membranous sacs forming
the grana of chloroplasts
(4) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
Answer: 3
30. Which one of the following structures is an organelle
within an organelle?
(1) ER
(2) Mesosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Peroxisome
Answer: 3
31. The Golgi complex plays a major role :
(1) in post translational modification of proteins and
glycosylation of lipids
(2) in trapping the light and transforming it into
chemical energy
(3) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(4) as energy transferring organelles
Answer: 1
32. A major site for synthesis of lipids is :
(1) Nucleoplasm (2) RER
(3) SER (4) Symplast
Answer: 3
33. Which one of the following organelle in the figure
correctly matches with its function ?
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of
glycoproteins
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
Answer: 1
34. In plant and animal cells, chromatids or chromatin
are made up of :-
(1) Only DNA
(2) DNA, RNA and Histone
(3) DNA, RNA, Protein and some fat bodies
(4) DNA, RNA, Histone and non histones
Answer: 4
35. Which structures perform the function of
mitochondria in bacteria ?
(1) Nucleoid (2) Ribosomes
(3) Cell wall (4) Mesosomes
Answer: 4
36. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a
diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of
monomer are known as :
(1) Microtubules (2) Microfilaments
(3) Intermediate filaments (4) Lamins
Answer: 2
37. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is
chiefly regulated by :
(1) Mitochondria (2) Vacuoles
(3) Plastids (4) Ribosomes
Answer: 2
38. Match the following and select the correct answer :
(a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria
(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
(d) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or flagella
Answer: 1
39. DNA is not present in :-
(1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast
Answer: 1
40. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :-
(1) Membrane of Golgi complex
(2) Microtubules
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: 3
41. The structures that are formed by stacking of
organized flattened membranous sacs in the
chloroplasts are :
(1) Grana (2) Stroma lamellae
(3) Stroma (4) Cristae
Answer: 1
42. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated
close to one end are:
(1) Acrocentric (2) Telocentric
(3) Sub-metacentric (4) Metacentric
Answer: 1
43. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body
found in prokaryotes ?
(1) Cyanophycean granule
(2) Glycogen granule
(3) Polysome
(4) Phosphate granule
Answer: 3
44. Select the correct matching in the following pairs:
(1) Smooth ER - Synthesis of lipids
(2) Rough ER- Synthesis of glycogen
(3) Rough ER - Oxidation of fatty acids
(4) Smooth ER - Oxidation of phospholipids
Answer: 1
45. Which of the following structures is not found in
prokaryotic cells?
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Nuclear envelope
(3) Ribosome (4) Mesosome
Answer: 2
46. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
(1) Mesosomes (2) Vacuoles
(3) Ribosomes (4) Lysosomes
Answer: 3
47. Cellular organelles with membranes are :
(1) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
(2) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
(3) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic
reticulum
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei
Answer: 1
48. A protoplast is a cell :
(1) without cell wall
(2) without plasma membrane
(3) without nucleus
(4) undergoing division
Answer: 1
Answer: 3
50. rRNA is synthesised in :-
(1) Nucleus (2) Golgi body
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleoplasm
Answer: 4
51. Telomere shortening during cell divisions signifies:-
(1) Cellular aging
(2) Loss of base pairs from chromosomal ends
(3) Decrease replication potential of cells
(4) All of these
Answer: 4
52. Mitochondria and chloroplast are :-
(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and
they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing
machinery
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) is true but (a) is false
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
(4) Both (a) and (b) are false
Answer: 3
53. Microtubules are the constituents of :-
(1) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
(2) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(3) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
(4) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
Answer: 2
54. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand
of RNA is known as :-
(1) Polysome
(2) Polymer
(3) Polypeptide
(4) Okazaki fragment
Answer: 1
55. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed
by a single membrane ?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts
(3) Lysosomes (4) Nuclei
Answer: 3
56. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles
are :-
(1) Xanthophylls (2) Chlorophylls
(3) Carotenoids (4) Anthocyanins
Answer: 4
57. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is:-
(1) Ribosome
(2) Mesosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Microsome
Answer: 3
Answer: 2
Answer: 1
60. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible
for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
ATP ?
(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
Answer: 3
61. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by :-
(1) Singer and Nicolson
(2) Jacob and Monad
(3) Schleiden and Schwann
(4) Rudolf Virchow
Answer: 1
62. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(3) It takes part in spindle formation.
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
Answer: 4
63. The Golgi complex participates in
(1) Fatty acid breakdown
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(3) Respiration in bacteria
(4) Activation of amino acid
Answer: 2
64. Which of the following events does not occur in
rough endoplasmic reticulum ?
(1) Protein folding
(2) Protein glycosylation
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide
(4) Phospholipid synthesis
Answer: 4
65. Select the incorrect match :
(1) Lampbrush - Diplotene bivalents
chromosomes
(2) Allosomes - Sex chromosomes
(3) Submetacentric - L-shaped chromosomes
chromosomes
(4) Polytene - Oocytes of amphibians
chromosomes
Answer: 4
66. Which cell organelle is mainly involved in
glycosylation of proteins?
(1) ER
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Peroxisomes
Answer: 1
67. Lipid biosynthesis occurs in :-
(1) RER (2) SER
(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus
Answer: 2
68. Protein synthesis and secretion occurs by :-
(1) RER (2) SER
(3) Golgi body (4) Ribosome
Answer: 1
69. Which function is related with SER ?
(1) Protein synthesis
(2) Basal body formation
(3) Carbohydrate and lipid synthesis
(4) Photorespiration
Answer: 3
70. Hydrolases, lipases, proteases and carbohydrases
are found in :-
(1) lysosome (2) ribosome
(3) mitochondria (4) chloroplast
Answer: 1
71. Organelles of which of the following sets not contain
DNA ?
(1) mitochondria, peroxisome
(2) mitochondria, chloroplast
(3) peroxisome, glyoxysome
(4) chloroplast, ribosome
Answer: 3
Biomolecules
1. Which monosaccharide does not show optical
isomerism :
(1) Dihydroxyacetone (2) Glyceraldehyde
(3) Erythrose (4) Ribose
Answer: 1
2. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell
membrane ?
(1) Phospholipids (2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycolipids (4) Proline
Answer: 4
3. Lactose is made up of :-
(1) b-glucose & a-glucose
(2) Glucose & Mannose
(3) b-glucose & b-galactose
(4) Glucose & Fructose
Answer: 3
4. Correct order of abundance of oxygen, sulphur,
magnesium and calcium in the earth crust ?
(1) O > Ca > Mg > S
(2) S > O > Mg > Ca
(3) Ca > O > S > Mg
(4) Mg > Ca > S > O
Answer: 1
5. Which one of the following structural formulae of two
organic compounds is correctly identified along with
its related function ?
(1) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic
acids
(2) A : Triglyceride - major source of energy
(3) B : Uracil - a component of DNA
(4) A : Lecithin - a component of cell membrane
Answer: 4
Answer: 4
7. Which one out of A - D given below correctly
represents the structural formula of the basic amino
acid ?
Options
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Answer: 4
8. Which one is the most abundant protein in the
animal world ?
(1) Collagen
(2) Insulin
(3) Trypsin
(4) Haemoglobin
Answer: 1
9. The most abundant intracellular cation is :
(1) K+ (2) Na+
(3) Ca++ (4) H+
Answer: 1
10. Macromolecule chitin is :
(1) Simple polysaccharide
(2) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(3) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(4) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
Answer: 2
11. Which one of the following is a non - reducing
carbohydrate ?
(1) Maltose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose
(4) Ribose
Answer: 2
12. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed
by the polymerisation of :
(1) lipoglycans
(2) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(3) D-glucosamine
(4) N-acetyl glucosamine
Answer: 4
13. Which of the following pair of amino acid have
positive charge at pH = 7 :-
(1) Asp - glu
(2) Lys - Arg
(3) Gly - Ala
(4) Asp - gly
Answer: 2
14. One of the major components of cell wall of most
fungi is :-
(1) Chitin (2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose (4) Hemicellulose
Answer: 1
15. A typical fat molecule is made up of :-
(1) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid
molecule
(2) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(3) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(4) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
Answer: 2
16. Which of the following is the least likely to be
involved in stabilizing the three–dimensional folding
of most proteins?
(1) Hydrophobic interaction
(2) Ester bonds
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Electrostatic interaction
Answer: 2
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
Answer: 2
18. Match the following-
(1) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
(2) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
(3) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV
(4) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
Answer: 1
19. Glycoprotein contains :-
(1) More than 200 amino acids and carbohydrate
as its side chain
(2) More than 20 amino acids and carbohydrate as
its side chain
(3) More than 200 amino acids and steroids as its
side chain
(4) More than 20 amino acids contains steroids as
its side chain
Answer: 1
20. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
(1) Proteins
(2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids
(4) Nucleic acids
Answer: 3
21. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars
are
(1) hydroxyl and methyl
(2) carbonyl and methyl
(3) carbonyl and phosphate
(4) carbonyl and hydroxyl
Answer: 4
22. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
hormone ?
(1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone
(3) Estradiol (4) Estriol
Answer: 1
23. Glycine amino acid is coded by :-
(1) CCC, CCG, CCA
(2) GGG, GGC, GGU
(3) UUU, UUC, UUA
(4) AAA, AAC, AAG
Answer: 2
(1) A-uracil, B-adenine, C-glucose, D-ribose
(2) A-glucose, B-ribose, C-adenine, D-uracil
(3) A-ribose, B-glucose, C-uracil, D-adenine
(4) A-adenine, B-uracil, C-ribose, D-glucose
Answer: 2
Cell cycle and cell division
1. Synapsis occurs between :-
(1) Two homologous chromosomes
(2) A male and a female gamete
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(4) Spindle fibres and centromere
Answer: 1
2. Given below is a schematic break-up of the
phases/stages of cell cycle :-
Which one of the following is the correct indication
of the stage/phase in the cell cycle ?
(1) A - Cytokinesis (2) B - Metaphase
(3) C - Karyokinesis (4) D - Synthetic phase
Answer: 4
3. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear
at :
(1) Early prophase (2) Late prophase
(3) Early metaphase (4) Late metaphase
Answer: 2
4. Which stages of cell division do the following

figures A and B represent respectively ?

Answer: 4
5. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis
(1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre
of the cell in anaphase.
(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles
in telophase.
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are
still visible at the end of prophase.
(4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator
and get aligned along equatorial plate in
metaphase
Answer: 4
6. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the
spindle fibres by their :-
(1) Centromere
(2) Satellites
(3) Secondary constrictions
(4) Kinetochores
Answer: 4
7. Meiosis is not having the one of the character out
of the four given below-
(1) It involves two stages of DNA replication,
one before meiosis-I and another before
meiosis-II
(2) It involves recombination and crossing over
(3) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase-II
(4) Nuclear membrane disappears during prophase
Answer: 1
8. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase
participates during :-
(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-II
Answer: 1
Answer: 3
10. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous
chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids
remain associated at their centromeres :-
(1) Anaphase I
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Metaphase II
Answer: 1
11. Which of the following is wrong about G1 phase?
(1) G-1 Stage followed by Mitosis
(2) Cell is metabolically active
(3) Cell grows continuously
(4) Cell does not replicate its DNA
Answer: 1
Answer: 2
13. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
homologous chromosomes is called :
(1) Axoneme
(2) Equatorial plate
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Bivalent
Answer: 4
14. In which phase of cell cycle the amount of DNA
in a diploid cell become four times as compared
to a haploid cell ?
(1) G1 (2) S
(3) G2, S & M (4) Go
Answer: 2
15. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA
in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount
is denoted as 2C ?
(1) G0 and G1
(2) G1 and S
(3) Only G2
(4) G2 and M
Answer: 4
16. In S' phase of the cell cycle :-
(1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
(3) Chromosome number is increased.
(4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.
Answer: 1
17. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage
of meiosis :
(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis
Answer: 1
18. Which of the following is longest phase of the cell
cycle ?
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase
(3) Telophase (4) M - phase
Answer: 2
19. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase
of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same
species, has :
(1) same number of chromosomes but twice the
amount of DNA
(2) twice the number of chromosomes and four times
the amount of DNA
(3) four times the number of chromosomes and twice
the amount of DNA
(4) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the
amount of DNA
Answer: 2
20. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct
sequence :
(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus
(1) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Answer: 3
21. During cell cycle in which phase normal components
of cell are synthesized, and assembled?
(1) S (2) G2
(3) G1 (4) M
Answer: 3
22. Spindle fibres attach on to :-
(1) Telomere of the chromosome
(2) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(3) Centromere of the chromosome
(4) Kinetosome of the chromosome
Answer: 2
23. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at :
(1) Pachytene
(2) Leptotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene
Answer: 1
24. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in:-
(1) G2 phase
(2) M phase
(3) S phase
(4) G1 phase
Answer: 3
25. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which
checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
(1) M
(2) Both G2/M and M
(3) G1/S
(4) G2/M
Answer: 4
26. Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to their
characteristic features in Column-II and select the
correct option using the codes given below
Answer: 3
Answer: 1
28. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell,
which of the following is expected to occur ?
(1) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(2) Chromosomes will not segregate
(3) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
(4) Chromosomes will not condense
Answer: 2
29. The stage during which separation of the paired
homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene
Answer: 2
30. Interphase includes :-
(1) G0, G1, S, G2
(2) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(3) Cytokinesis
(4) Mitosis/M-phase
Answer: 1
31. Which one is correct for G0 stage ?
I. It is a quiescent stage.
II. In this phase cell cycle is stopped
III. G0 cells do not grow or proliferate but
metabolically active
IV. G0 cells can divide in response to some
stimulus
(1) All are correct
(2) I,II,III are correct
(3) I,II are correct
(4) Only I and IV are correct
Answer: 1
32. Which of the following is not correctly matches a
phase of the cell cycle with its function ?
(1) Second gap phase - Period of cytoplasmic
growth
(2) First gap phase - Most of the organelle
duplication
(3) Interphase - Phase of preparation
for cell division
(4) DNA synthesis - Doubling of number of
phase chromosome in cell
Answer: 4
33. Mark incorrect statements :-
(A) Meiosis involves only a single cycle of
DNA replication
(B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
meiosis-I
(C) Meiosis occurs in diploid cells
(D) In yeast, cell cycle takes about 90 minutes.
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) Only B (4) All are correct
Answer: 3
34. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA
replication is called :-
(1) G2 Phase (2) G1 phase
(3) Karyokinesis (4) S phase
Answer: 2
35. Diploid cell in human, where cell division does not
occur :-
(a) Heart cell (b) Muscle cell
(c) Nerve cell
(1) Only c (2) b and c
(3) a and c (4) a, b and c
Answer: 4
36. The events shown below occur during different
phases -
A. Centromere splits, chromatids separate and move to
opposite poles, chromatids are now called chromosome
B. Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles,
decondensation of chromosome, reappearance of NM,
GB and ER.
C. Chromosomal replication
D. Kinetochores attach to spindle fibres and
chromosome are arranged at equatorial plate
E. Condensation of chromosomal materials
Which of the following correctly identifies each of the
phases described-
Answer: 1
37. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct
sequence -
A. Terminalisation of chiasmata
B. Crossing over
C. Synapsis
D. Disjunction of chromosomes
E. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is-
(1) A - B - C - D - E
(2) E - D - C - B - A
(3) C - B - D - E - A
(4) C - B - E - A - D
Answer: 4
38. Identify the following diagram-
(1) Transition to Metaphase (mitosis)
(2) Transition to Anaphase-II (meiosis)
(3) Transition to Metaphase-I (meiosis)
(4) Transition to Anaphase (mitosis)
Answer: 1
Answer: 3
Answer: 1
41. A cell has 46 chromosomes at each pole in mitotic
telophase. In this division the number of chromatids
at the metaphase was :-
(1) 23 (2) 46 (3) 92 (4) 69
Answer: 3
42. A mouse cell is treated with a chemical that
interferes with the activity of microfilaments. Which
of the following will probably be affected the most?
(1) Formation of spindle fibres
(2) Division of cytoplasm
(3) Chromosome duplication
(4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Answer: 2
43. Number of chromosome pairs at equator in
metaphase-I of a diploid plant cell (n = 25
chromosomes) shall be-
(1) 50 (2) 100 (3) 75 (4) 25
Answer: 4
44. How many meiotic divisions are required during the
formation of 500 zygotes, if in males one meiotic
division results in formation of four male gametes
and in females one meiotic division results in
formation of one female gamete?
(1) 625 (2) 500 (3) 1000 (4) 2500
Answer: 1
45. Number of chromatids in each chromosome at
anaphase is-
(1) One in mitosis, one in meiosis-I and two in meiosis-I
(2) One in mitosis, two in meiosis-I and one in meiosis-II
(3) Two in mitosis, one in meiosis-I and two in meiosis-II
(4) Two in mitosis, two in meiosis-I and two in meiosis-II
Answer: 2
46. In which of the following stages of mitosis,
chromosomes are most condensed ?
(1) Stage between the stage of cell plate formation and stage of
DNA replication
(2) Stage between the stage of centrioles separation and stage of
splitting of centromere
(3) Stage between the stage of DNA replication and stage of
initiation of condensation of chromatin
(4) Stage between the stage of metaphase plate formation and
stage of decondensation of chromosomes
Answer: 2
47. If the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes
at G1, after S phase the number of chromosomes
in the cell is ?
(1) 2 n (2) 4 n
(3) n (4) 3n
Answer: 1
48. The following graphs (A and B) depicts changes in
DNA Content during cell cycle. Identify the cell
division from A and B :-
Answer: 4
49. In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA is
20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be the
quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?
(1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg (3) 5 pg (4) 40 pg
Answer: 2
50. During meiosis how many cycles of nucleus division,
DNA replication and division of centromere take
place respectively :-
(1) Three, Two, One (2) One, Two, Two
(3) Two, Two, One (4) Two, One, One
Answer: 4
51. Gap between division phase and start of
DNA-replication is called :-
(1) G1 - phase (2) G2 - phase
(3) M - phase (4) Interkinesis
Answer: 1
52. In meiosis, division of centromere occurs during:-
(1) Interphase (2) Anaphase - I
(3) Anaphase - II (4) Metaphase - I
Answer: 3
53. In meiosis, nuclear membrane and nucleolus
disappear during :-
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis (4) Metaphase - I
Answer: 3
54. In cell cycle, which stage is misnomerly called
resting phase :–
(1) S- phase (2) Telophase
(3) Cytokinesis (4) Interphase
Answer: 4
55. Separation of homologous chromosomes during
Anaphase - I is called :-
(1) Synapsis (2) Disjunction
(3) Nondisjunction (4) Crossing over
Answer: 2
56. During cell division, spindle fibers attach to which
part of chromosome :-
(1) Primary constriction
(2) Secondary constriction
(3) Telomere
(4) Satellite
Answer: 1
57. Diakinesis represents :-
(1) transition to prophase
(2) transition to metaphase
(3) transition to anaphase
(4) transition to telophase
Answer: 2
58. Synaptonemal complex is characteristic of :–
(1) Mitotic chromosomes
(2) Leptotene chromosomes
(3) Paired meiotic chromosomes
(4) Metaphase
Answer: 3
59. During which stage a diploid cell becomes tetraploid
in mitosis:-
(1) G2 (2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
Answer: 4
60. Division of centromere occurs in:-
(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase
Answer: 3
61. Each chromosome composed of one chromatid in:-
(1) Anaphase - I
(2) Anaphase - II
(3) Metaphase - I
(4) Metaphase - II
Answer: 2
62. If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase - I,
what shall be the number of chromosomes in
daughter cells after meiosis - I and meiosis - II
respectively:-
(1) 8 and 4 (2) 4 and 4
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 16 and 8
Answer: 3
63. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Cell divided by cytokinesis only in mitosis
(2) DNA is replicated before the start of meiosis
only
(3) Spindles consisting of microtubules are formed
only in mitosis
(4) Exchange of genetic materials occurs only
in meiosis
Answer: 4
64. Which of the following not occurs in Anaphase- I
(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes
(2) Shortening in spindle
(3) Poleward movement of chromosomes
(4) Division of centromere
Answer: 4
65. In meiosis :-
(1) Division of nucleus twice but replication of DNA
only once
(2) Division of nucleus twice and replication of DNA
twice
(3) Division of nucleus once and replication of DNA
is also once
(4) Division of nucleus once and DNA - replication
is twice
Answer: 1
66. After meiosis - I, the two chromatids of a
chromosome are :-
(1) Genetically similar
(2) Genetically different
(3) There occurs only one chromatid in each
chromosome
(4) None of the above
Answer: 2
67. Chiasmata appears during :-
(1) Diakinesis (2) Synaptotene
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
Answer: 3
68. What happens in synthesis phase during cell cycle:-
(1) DNA synthesis
(2) Chromosome number becomes double
(3) Formation of two nuclei
(4) Synthesis of tubulin proteins
Answer: 1
69. Reappearance of nuclear membrane & nucleolus
along with thinning & elongation in chromosomes
are diagnostic characters for the phase:-
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase
(3) Interphase (4) Telophase
Answer: 4
70. Condensation of chromosomes and appearance of
astral rays occur during :-
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
Answer: 1
71. During telophase :-
(1) Nuclear membrane is formed
(2) Nucleolus appears
(3) Astral rays disappear
(4) All the above
Answer: 4
72. Chromosomal morphology (Structure) is best
observed at :-
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Interphase (4) Anaphase
Answer: 2
73. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is called:-
(1) Disjunction (2) Synapsis
(3) Segregation (4) Polyteny
Answer: 2
74. Preparation phase of mitosis is :–
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) Prophase (4) Interphase
Answer: 4
75. Synaptonemal complex first appear :–
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene
Answer: 3
76. The correct sequence of prophase-I of meiosis is :–
(1) Leptotene, pachytene, zygotene, diplotene,
diakinesis
(2) Leptotene, diplotene, pachytene, zygotene,
diakinesis
(3) Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene,
diakinesis
(4) Leptotene, zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene
Answer: 3
77. M phase of cell cycle consist of :–
(1) G1, S and G2 phase
(2) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(3) Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
Telophase
(4) Only prophase
Answer: 2
78. If the cell is diploid in G1 than after the S phase
cell remain/become :-
(1) n (2) 4n
(3) 8n (4) 2n
Answer: 4
79. Nuclear membrane disappears in :–
(1) Late prophase (2) Early prophase
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase
Answer: 1
80. Pre DNA synthesis phase is:-
(1) G1 - phase (2) G2 - phase
(3) S-phase (4) Prophase
Answer: 1
81. Which of the following is called heterotypic
division :–
(1) Meiosis- I (2) Meiosis- II
(3) Mitosis (4) Amitosis
Answer: 1
82. DNA replication is found in :–
(1) Mitosis and meiosis- I
(2) Mitosis and meiosis- I and meiosis- II
(3) Meiosis only
(4) Mitosis only
Answer: 1
83. Thick- thread stage occurred in :–
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
Answer: 3
84. How many times divisions will occur in an isolated
tip cell to form 128 cells ?
(1) 128 (2) 127 (3) 32 (4) 7
Answer: 4
85. In which stage the DNA is doubled :-
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase
(3) Interphase (4) Prophase
Answer: 3
86. The significance of Meiosis is that it -
(1) Produce four cells having chromosomal number
equal to mother cell
(2) Occurs in all types of cells
(3) Maintains the constant Chromosomes number
to a particular species
(4) Growth of animal body organs
Answer: 3
Answer: 3
88. The number of DNA in chromosome at G2 state of
cell cycle :-
(1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Eight
Answer: 2
89. Crossing over that results in genetic recombination
in higher organisms occurs between –
(1) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
(2) Two daughter nuclei
(3) Two different bivalents
(4) Sister chromatids of a bivalents
Answer: 1
90. In the somatic cell cycle :-
(1) DNA replication takes place in S- phase
(2) A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic
phase
(3) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
(4) In G1 phase DNA content is double the amount
of DNA present in the original cell
Answer: 1
91. When synapsis is complete all along the
chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage
called
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
Answer: 2
92. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically
even through they do not have :-
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Mitochondria (4) Plastids
Answer: 4
93. Centromere is required for –
(1) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
(2) Cytoplasmic cleavage
(3) Crossing over
(4) Transcription
Answer: 1
94. At which stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins
synthesized in a eukaryotic cell ?
(1) During telophase
(2) During S phase
(3) During G2 stage of prophase
(4) During entire prophase
Answer: 2
95. If the n=16 in plant cell then what is possible in
metaphase - I of meiosis ?
(1) 32 Bivalents
(2) 16 Telravalents
(3) 16 Bivalents
(4) 32 Bivalents
Answer: 3
96. Prophase which follows the S and G2 phases of
interphase, is the first stage of :-
(1) Meiosis-II (2) Karyokinesis
(3) Interphase (4) G1 phase
Answer: 2
97. The two asters together with spindle fibres form:-
(1) Mitotic apparatus (2) Asters
(3) Astral fibres (4) Centrosome
Answer: 1
98. In prophase centrosome which had undergone
duplication during interphase, begins to move
towards :
(1) Same poles of the cell
(2) Opposite poles of the cell
(3) One towards centre while another towards pole
(4) Both towards centre
Answer: 2
99. During prophase each centrosome radiates out
microtubules called :
(1) Mitotic apparatus (2) Spindle apparatus
(3) Asters (4) Spindle fibres
Answer: 3
100. Telophase is :
(1) Final stage of karyokinesis
(2) Final stage of mitosis
(3) Mid stage of karyokinesis
(4) First stage of cytokinesis
Answer: 1
101. Which one of the following is most correct statement :-
(1) Chromatin material tends to collect in a mass in
the two poles
(2) Each set of chromatin material tends to collect
at each of the two poles
(3) Each set of chromatin material tends to collect
at metaphasic plate
(4) Chromatin material tends to collect in a mas at
one pole
Answer: 2
102. Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome
clusters at :
(1) One pole
(2) Centre
(3) Each pole
(4) Pole as well as centre both
Answer: 3
103. Cytokinesis is :
(1) Formation of cell wall
(2) Formation of cell membrane
(3) Separation of nucleoplasm
(4) Separation of cytoplasm
Answer: 4
104. Meiosis involves :
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination
between sister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes
(2) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination
between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(3) Pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes and recombination
between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination
between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
Answer: 2
105. In which on of the following stage, the four
chromatids of each bivalent chromosomes becomes
distinct and clearly appears as tetrads.
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
Answer: 3