Reasoning Banknotes 180405084744 PDF

Tables of CONTENTS
Chapters Page no
1. Alphabetical Series 2 - 12
2. Coding Decoding 13 - 44
3. Inequalities 45 - 59
4. Blood relation 60 - 76
5. Distance and Direction 77 - 90
6. Order and Ranking 91 - 96
7. Syllogism 97 - 112
8. Seating Arrangement 113 - 143
9. Puzzle 144 - 154
10. Machine Input Output 155 - 173
11. Data Sufficiency 174- 181
12. Statement and Assumption 182-190
13. Statement and Argument 191 -200
14. Statement and conclusion 201 - 205
15. Course of Action 206 -211
16. Decision Making 212 - 213
17. Cause and Effect 214 -217
18. Combined Reasoning 218 -220
Total no. of Pages 220
Plutus Academy-(1)
Alphabetical Series
To solve the problem of alphabets ,we should know about the position of alphabets from
beginning to end.
Left to right(1-26)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Right to left (26-1)
Trick to remember alphabets:

E J O T Y C F I L O R U X
5 10 15 20 21 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
(Left side)A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (Right side)
Reverse place value (Position of alphabet from right) = 27 - Forward place value(Position of
alphabet from left)
TRICK TO REMEMBER REVERSE OF ALPHABETS:

A-Z (Amazon)
B-Y (Boy)
C-X (Crax)
D-W (Dew)
E-V (Even)
F-U (Fun)
G-T (GST)
H-S (His)
I-R (Indian Railways)
J-Q (Jack Queen)
K-P (Kanpur)
L-O (Love)
M-N (Man)
Plutus Academy-(2)

Ex 1 : Which element is the 8th to the left of 17th element from the left side of the alphabetical
series.?
Short trick: Like - Subtraction
Unlike - Addition

From which side To the left/right ACTION TO BE TAKEN
RIGHT RIGHT SUBTRACT(From right side)
LEFT LEFT SUBTRACT(From left side)
RIGHT LEFT ADDITION (From right side)
LEFT RIGHT ADDITION(From left side)

Sol: Since in question, both is left (i.e like sides), hence subtraction:
= (17-8)th from left side
= 9th from left side
= I

Ex 2 : Which element is the 8th to the right of 17th element from the right side of the
alphabetical series.?
Sol: Since in question, both is right(i.e like sides), hence subtraction,
= (17-8)th from right side
= 9th from right side
= R

Ex 3 : Which element is the 8th to the right of 17th element from the left side of the alphabetical
series.?
Sol: Since in question, one is right and the other is left (i.e unlike sides), hence addition,
= (17+8)th from left side
= Y

Ex 4 : Which element is the 8th to the left of 17th element from the right side of the alphabetical
series.?
Sol: Since in question, one is right and the other is left (i.e unlike sides), hence addition,
= (17+8)th from right side
= 25th from right side
= 2nd from left side
Plutus Academy-(3)
= B

Ex 5 : J Y 2 = S $ D E G M * 7 & H P 9 K L b @ W Q 1 3 # C D %
1. If all the numbers and symbols are dropped from the above series, which element is 4th
to the left of 5th element from the right side of the series.?
Sol: H

2. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
followed by a number or preceded by a letter but not both.
Sol: 3

3. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
followed by a number or preceded by a number but not both.
Sol: 4

4. If 2YS is related to ED$, what is PHK related to in the same way?
Sol: @bL

Complete the missing Series:

Ex-1 APZ BQY CRX DSW ?
a) ETV b) DXV c) FWXd) EVX e)None
Sol: a)ETV

Ex-2 Z WV SRQ NMLK ?
a) HEFED b) HGFED c) JKLMN d) GHLKJ e) None
Sol: b) HGFED

Ex-3 10za 8yb 6xc ? 2ve
a) 3wd b) 5we c) 4dw d) 4wd e) None
Sol: d) 4wd

ODD ONE OUT:

Ex-1 MNPK, STVQ, FGID, VWYT, JKMI
Sol: JKMI as there are 3 letters between the last two letter(i.e M and I) unlike in the other words
where there are 4 letter each between the last two letters.

Ex-2 XVTU, LJHI, POMN, FDBC, MKIJ
Sol: POMN.
There is one letter between 1st, 2nd and 3rd letter each. But this pattern is not followed in
POMN.
Plutus Academy-(4)
Pair formation
Ex1 : How many pairs of letters are there in the word STUDENT , which have the same number
of letters between them as in the english alphabets?

We have to find alphabetical order of letters such as after “S” “T” is come...and after that “U”
come. And so on. 5 pairs are formed while comparing letters.

Ex2 : How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBILEAUTO , which have the same
number of letters between them in the word as in the english alphabets?
Sol:
5 Pairs

Plutus Academy-(5)
EXERCISE
1.Which letter is fifth to the right of the eighteenth letter from your right in the alphabetical
series?
1)N 2)M 3)E 4)C

2. If the alphabets are arranged in the reverse order, Which letter will be twelfth to the left of the
sixteenth from your left ?
1)X 2)W 3)V 4)U

3. If all the vowels are removed from the alphabet , which letter will be the seventh to the right of
the fifth letter from the left ?
1)L 2)V 3)J 4)P

4. If A and B written as B and A, C and D is written as D and C and so on.What will be the
position of M from your right ?
1)11 2)12 3)13 4)14

5. If every alternative letter starting with A, is removed from the alphabet ,Which letter among
the remaining letters would be the third to the right of the fifth letter from the right ?
1)J 2)L 3)V 4)X

6. How many meaningful letters can be made from the word ESDO by using each letter only
once?
1) One 2) two 3) three 4)none

7. How many meaningful letters can be made from the word EIDT by using each letter only
once?
1) ONE 2)TWO 3) THREE 4) FOUR

8. How many meaningful letters can be made from the word EDNO by using each letter only
once?

9. How many meaningful letters can be made from the word EOPR by using each letter only
once?

10.How many meaningful letters can be made from the word INATS by using each letter only
once?

(11-15). M 3 R # A P 4 9 K % D 1 U H @ J 2 N ^ W E Q 5 T 6 $ V 7 * 1 F 8 B Y
11. Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the 21st from the right end ?
1)% 2)P 3)H 4)B

12. If all the number from the above arrangement are removed then what will be the 7th from
the right end ?
Plutus Academy-(6)
1)@ 2)Q 3)T 4)V

13. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
1)YBF 2)VTQ 3)EWN 4)HUD

14. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
followed by the number and preceded by the vowels ?
1)None 2)One 3)Two 4)Three

15. How many such number in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by
the letter and preceded by the Number?
1)None 2)One 3)Two 4)Three

(16-20) H 3 R % M A $ K 2 P 5 E ^ N 4 W @ F & Q 1 U / 9 J I D 7 8
16. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the 12th from the left end of the above
arrangement ?
1)$ 2)@ 3)/ 4)W

17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement then what will be the 10th from
the right end ?
1)W 2)@ 3)/ 4)N

18. How many such symbol in the above arrangement that is either immediately preceded by
letter or immediately followed by a number but not both ?
1)More than three 2)One 3)Two 4)Three

19. What should come in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
HR% AK2 5^N ?
1)@Q1 2)F&Q 3)W@F 4)WF&

20. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which are
immediately preceded by letter and immediately followed by letter ?
1)None 2)One 3)Two 4)More than Three

21.The letters in the word PROTEIN are arranged in such a way that the consonants are
arranged in alphabetical and then the vowels are arranged in alphabetical order.
How many letters will be ter between R and I after the rearrangement.
1) None 2) one 3) three 4) two

22. Which of the following will be the third from the right after rearrangement?
1) T 2) O 3) None 4) I

23. Which of the following will be third from the left after rearrangement?
1) R 2) N 3) O 4) P

24. Which of the following will be 4th from the left to the 2nd from the right after
rearrangement?
Plutus Academy-(7)
2) R 2) N 3) O 4) P

25. BMRG, DLTF, FKVE, HJXD, ? (SSC CGL Tier-I 2011)
a) JIZC b) JZIBc) GIFBd) MOLC

26. A, CD, GHI, ? , UVWXY (SSC CGL Tier-I 2014)
a) LMNP b) MNOL c) NOPL d) MNOP

27. FAK IEM LIO ? (SSC CGL Tier-I 2015)
a) OMQ b) OPQ c) MNO d) NOP

28. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement? (IBPS PO Pre 2017)
BED EIG HMJ KQM ?
(a) PUN (b) OUQ (c) NUQ (d) NUP (e) NUR

29. Consider the word “YOURSELF”, arrange the vowels in alphabetical order from left to right
and then consonant letters in alphabetical order from left to right. Now, take the next alphabet
for each letter in the changed arrangement. Which letter comes fourth from the right side.
(IBPS PO Pre 2017)
(a) N (b) M (c) L (d) S (e) R

30. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second,third, sixth,and eighth
letters of the word FRAGMENTS using each letters only once, which of the following will be the
third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give X as answer and more than one
such word can be formed, give “Y” as answer?
1) A 2) X 3) Y 4) E

31.If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the third, sixth, ninth and twelfth
letters of the word ELECTRIFICATION using each letters only once, which of the following will
be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give N as answer and more than
one such word can be formed, give “D” as answer?
1) R 2)N 3) D 4) S

32.How many meaningful english words can be formed with the letters of the word “ STOP”
each using only once in a word but in different sequence, starting with letter P.
1) One 2) two 3) three 4)none

33. Each vowel in the word “JOURNEY” is replace by the previous letter in the english alphabets
and each consonant is replaced by the next letters in the alphabets, then arrange the letters
alphabetically . which of the following will be the fifth from the left end?
1) None 2) D 3) K 4)O

34. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the FIRST,sixth,eighth and ninth
letters of the word HOARDINGS using each letters only once, which of the following will be the
third letter of that word? If no such word can be formed, give X as answer and more than one
such word can be formed, give “Y” as answer?
Plutus Academy-(8)
1) G 2) X 3) Y 4) I

35. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Which letter in this alphabetical series is the eighth letter to the right of the letter, which is tenth
letter to the left of the second last letter of the alphabet?
1)X 2)W 3)I 4)H

36. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement? (IBPS RRB Pre 2017)
ZB XD UG QK ?
(a) LK (b) LO (c) LP (d) KP (e) Other than the given options

37. How many such pair of numbers are there in the given number “46579739” (Both backward
and forward) same as far as according to numeric series? (IBPS RRB Pre 2017)
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than three (e) None of these.

38. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the 1st ,2nd ,4th and 7th letters of the
word ‘ECUADOR’ which would be the second letter of the word from the right? If more than one
such word can be formed give ‘Y’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your
answer. (IBPS RRB Pre 2017)
(a) Y (b) E (c) I (d) Z (e) M

39. If 1 is subtracted from each odd number and 2 is added to each even in the number
9436527, then how many digits will appear twice in the new number thus formed?
(IBPS RRB Pre 2017)
(a) Only 8 (b) Only 8 and 6 (c) 8, 6 and 4 (d) 2, 4 and 6 (e) None of these

40. How many letter will be remain the same position in the word ‘MONSTER’ when they
arranged in the ascending order from left to right? (IBPS RRB Pre 2017)
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) More than Three (e) None

41. Direction: How many pairs of letters are there in the following words , which have the same
number of letters between them in the word as in the english alphabets?

1.COMPUTER
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) none
2. CONTROVERSY
a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) none
3. BEAUTIFUL
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
4. MEDITATION
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
5. POPULATION
a) 1 b) 2 c)5 d) more than 5
6. TECHNOLOGY
a) 1 b) 3 c)4 d) none
Plutus Academy-(9)
7. POPULAR
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) more than 4
8. MISTRY
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
9. COMMERCIAL
a) 7 b) 2 c)4 d) none
10. PRIYANKA
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
11. SAURABH
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
12. DEEPALI
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
13. SUPPORT
a) 1 b) 2 c)5 d) none
14. ROMANTIC
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
15. DIGITIZER
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
16. EXPRESS
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
17.DOCUMENT
1 b) 2 c)4 d) none
18. RECOVERED
a) 3 b) 4 c)2 d)5
19. NUTRITION
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

42. How many digits are there in the number 367849 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number.
a) 1 b) 2 c)4 d) none

43. How many digits are there in the number 243896715 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number.
a)1 b) 2 c)3 d) none

Plutus Academy-(10)
Answer sheet
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 3
5. 4
6. 2 (DOES, DOSE)
7. 4 (DIET, EDIT, TIDE, TIED)
8. 2 (NODE, DONE)
9. 2 (ROPE,PORE)
10. 2 (STAIN,SAINT)
11. 2)P
12. 3)T
13. 2)VTQ
14. 1)None
15. 2)One 4 9 K
16. 2)@
17. 1)W
18. 1)More than three
19. 4)WF&
20. 4)More than Three
21. 4) two NPRTEIO
22. 3) None
23. 1) R
24. 4) P
25. a) JIZC
26. d) MNOP
27. a) OMQ
28. d) NUP
29. (b) M
30. 3) TEAR,RATE Thus,ANS is 'Y'.
31. 3) D (TIRE, TIER and RITE)
32. 2) two POTS and SPOT
33. 1) None
34. 3) Y (SIGN, SING)
35. 2 In the given alphabet, last but one letter of alphabet is Y. 10th letter to the left
of Y is O, 8th letter to the right of O is W.
36. (c) LP
37. (d) More than three
38. (a) Y( RACE, CARE)
39. (c) 8, 6 and 4
40. (a) One
41.
41.1. C
41.2. C
Plutus Academy-(11)
41.3. C
41.4. C
41.5. D
41.6. B
41.7. D
41.8. A
41.9. A
41.10. A
41.11. B
41.12. B
41.13. C
41.14. B
41.15. B
41.16. B
41.17. D
41.18. B
41.19. 7
42. Sol. 987643 means only 2 digits are same when arranged in descending order.
43. c)3

For video solutions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lzadplZo2-A

Plutus Academy-(12)
Coding Decoding

In any communication(verbal or non-verbal), there are always two parties i.e. Sender (The one
who wants to send the data) and Receiver(one who receives the data).We always want to send
our data securely. For this purpose, we use the mechanism of coding and decoding so that the
third party (other than the sender and receiver) can never understand the communication of
both the parties.Coding means transforming the original data into an encrypted form which
follows a certain pattern. Coding is also known as encryption.Decoding means converting the
coded data into an original form. It is also known as Decryption.

The coding and decoding test is setup to determine the ability of a candidate that he is capable
to decipher any code or message. In english alphabetically coding search the code and try to
find the pattern.

Opposite Alphabet Coding: Pair of alphabets is also given as codes.
A-Z (Amazon)
B-Y (Boy)
C-Z (Crax)
D-W (Dew)
E-V (Even)
F-U (Fun)
G-T (GST)
H-S (His)
I-R (Indian Railways)
J-Q (Jack Queen)
K-P (Kanpur)
L-O (Love)
M-N (Man)

Types of Coding
1). Letter Coding
2). Number Coding
3). Conditional Coding
4). Substitutional Coding

Type 1-Letter Coding: In letter coding, letters are coded in letters by using different
patterns or sequence.

Ex. 1. In a certain code language, TEACHER is written as UGDGMKY, then how is STUDENT
written in the same code language?
Sol.
Plutus Academy-(13)

Ex. 2. In a certain code ‘MONARCH’ is written as ‘NPOBSDI’. How will ‘STANDARD’ be written in
that code?

Sol: In this question, each letter of ‘MONARCH’ is simply replaced by its next letter as per
English Alphabet.
M + 1 = N;
O + 1 = P;
N + 1 = O;
A + 1 = B;
R + 1 = S;
C + 1 = D;
H + 1 = I;.
Based on similar pattern, code for ‘CITIZEN’ is ‘DJUJABO’.
Ex 3: In a certain code ‘ARCHERY’ is written as ‘DSBGZSF’. How will the word ‘TERMITE’ be
written in that code?
Sol:
1. Write down the letters in one line and its code in the line below.
2. Analyze the coding pattern by matching the code with the word.
Plutus Academy-(14)

We can see that the word has been divided into three parts, where letters of the first and third
parts are increased by 1 position and then reversed among themselves while the lone letter in
the middle part is decreased by 1.
NOTE: Here increasing or decreasing by ‘n’ place means, exchanging the current letter with a
letter that is ‘n’ places to the right or left, respectively, in the English Alphabet.
3. Once the pattern has been identified, find the code for the word asked in the question:
Hence, code for TERMITE is ‘SFULFUJ’
Type 2-Number Coding: In number coding, letters are coded in numbers by using
different patterns and sequence.
There are two coding mechanism that is used in these type of questions.

Plutus Academy-(15)
i) Alphabetical code letters are assigned to the numbers

OR

ii) Numerical code values are assigned to a word.

i)Alphabetical code letters are assigned to the numbers-
Ex1. In a code Language the following alphabets are coded in a particular way.

V U N L J E A T K P
1 5 8 6 3 4 7 2 9 0
Which group of alphabets can be decoded from the following?
762539
1) ALTJUK 2) ALTUKJ 3) ALTVJK 4) ALTUJK

Sol: 4) ALTUJK

Ex 2. In a certain code PEN is Coded as 123,PENCIL as 123456,CABLE as 48962, then
6283123456 means what?

1) LAENPENCIL 2) LEANPNCLI 3) LANPENCIL 4) LEANPENCIL
Sol: 4) LEANPENCI

ii)numerical code values are assigned to a word-
Ex 3. In a certain code language, ASKED is written as 45211, then how is EIGHT written in the
same code language?
1) 59782 2) 28795 3) 597820 4) 95728 5) None of these
Sol:
Plutus Academy-(16)
Ex 4. If BROAD means 19812.Then,CLOCK means
1) 68262 2) 68622 3) 26826 4) 37836

Sol: 3) 26826
Ex 5. In a certain code language, PERSON is written as 957561, then how is SHOULD written in

the same code language?
1) 186334 2) 198152 3) 681433 4) 861334 5) None of these
Sol:

Type 3- Conditional Coding: In conditional coding, few conditions are given in the
question, we have to follow the same to code the characters.
Ex1. Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Letter M I K T A B E J W F H U D P Y
Code 6 * 5 © 7 8 @ 1 2 3 4 % 9 # $
Condition:
i)If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes are to be
interchanged.
ii)If the first letter is consonant and the last letter is a vowel,both are to be coded as the code
for the vowel.
Plutus Academy-(17)
iii)If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as ‘&’.
Q1. MEAPTD
1) 6@7#©9 2) 6@7#©6 3) 9@7#©9 4) 9@7#©6 5) None of these
Sol: 1) 6@7#©9
Q2. BMJKPU
1) %615#8 2)%615#% 3)8615#% 4)8615#8 5)None of these
Sol: 2) %615#%
Q3. IPTWHY
1) $#©24$ 2) $#©24* 3) *#©24$ 4) *#©24* 5)None of these
Sol:2) $#©24*
Q4. ABJFEP
1) 7813@7 2) 7813@# 3) #183@7 4) #813@7 5)None of these
Sol: 4) #813@7
Q5. EYBEJA
1) &$8@1& 2) @$8@17 3) 7$8@1@ 4) 7$8@1& 5) None of these
Sol: 1) &$8@1&
TYPE 4 -SUBSTITUTIONAL CODING

Ex 1. If air is called ‘green’,’green’ is called ‘blue’,’blue is called ‘sky’,’sky’ is called ‘yellow’,’yellow’
is called ‘water’ and ‘water’ is called ‘pink’ then what is the colour of clear ‘sky’?
1) Sky 2) Water 3) Blue 4) Yellow

Sol: Sky

Ex 2. In a certain code language FIRE is written as #%@$ and DEAL is written as !$*^. How is
FAIL Written in that code Language?
1) #*%^ 2) #$%^ 3) #*!$ 4) #*!^ 5)None of these
Plutus Academy-(18)

Sol: #*%^

Ex 3 In a certain code,
‘786’ means ‘study very hard’,
‘958’ means ‘hard work pays’
‘645’ means ‘study and work’.
Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?
1. 7
2. 5
3. 8
4. 6
5. Either 6 or 7
Sol: A
Explanation:
In the first and second statements, the common word is ‘hard’ and the common code digit is ’8’.
So, ‘8’ means ‘hard’.
In the first and third statements, the common word is ‘study’ and the common code digit is ‘6’.
So, ’6’ means ‘study’.
Thus, in the first statement ‘7’ means ‘very’

Ex 4. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language
“tell them young” means “ke la pa”
“wise young sharp tell” means “na pa kup ke”
“bring clever young them” means “ se to pa la”
“clever sharp young tomorrow” means “to kup pa jo”

1. What is the code for “sharp” ?
1) pa 2) na 3) ke 4) kup 5) la
Sol: 4) kup

2. What does “To” stand for?
1) clever 2) young 3) bring 4) them 5) Can’t be determined
Sol: 1) clever

3. Which of the following represents “Tell tomorrow”
1) la jo 2) in ke 3) ke jo 4) jo in 5) pa ke
Sol: 3) ke jo
Plutus Academy-(19)

4. What is the code for “Clever young girl”
1) be ve pa 2) to pa be 3) la na to 4) to pa jo 5) ke ni to
Sol: 2) to pa be

5. Which of the following code represents “kup la so na”
1) wise them sharp tell
2) young tell sharp them
3) some wise them and
4) clever wise them sharp
5) sharp them not wise
Sol: sharp them not wise
Ex 5: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code language

‘given time single plan’ is written as ‘@E4 &N4 %N5 #E6’
‘timed solution plant great’ is written as ‘#N8 @D5 %T5 &T5’
‘sick point good turn’ is written as ‘#K4 %D4 @N4 &T5’
‘garden sister phone team’ is written as ‘&E5 #R6 %N6 @M4’

1.Which of the following code for ‘translate’?
A. @E8
B. @E9
C. #E8
D. #T8
E. #T9
Sol: B. @E9

Here are some points to keep in minds when solving these kinds of questions-
■ There is always a concept behind this so we need to find it. When we look at the
questions we can see that in all steps all the 4 words start with same alphabet. They all
start with- G, T, S and P and their code words also starts with same symbol in each
steps- @, %, & and #. So we just have to find which of the first alphabet represent the
particular symbol.
■ Now we can see that their code words end with digits. The digits are total number of
letters for each word.
■ Now we can see the middle code word is last letter of that particular word. Now we solve
the questions.

2. Which of the following code for ‘plane’?
A. %N5
B. @E4
C. &E5
D. #E6
E. None of these
Plutus Academy-(20)
Sol: &E5
Total count of letters is 5 and last letter is E and ‘p’ is coded as & so Final answer will be- &E5

3. In the given code language, what does the code ‘%D4’ stands for?
A. point
B. turn
C. sick
D. good
E. None of these
Sol: D. good

Ex 6: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code,
‘superstring park avail prelim’ is written as ‘#22T %8Q $10B @12Q’,

‘cereal revolving crook newsroom’ is written as ‘#10S @16O $12D %10D’,
‘training system unequal talk’ is written as ‘$14V %8U @12T #16U’, and
‘payback dream using ethical’ is written as ‘%14Q $14F #10V @10E’.

1. What is the code for ‘shooting upstream’?
A) @16V %16T
B) @16V #18T
C) @16V #16T
D) @16U %16T
E) Cannot be determined
Sol: Option C
Symbols are according to last letter in words:
g – #, k – %, l – $, m – @
Number represents double the number of letters in words
Alphabet represents the next letter in alphabetical series to first letter of word.
So superstring — # for last letter g, 22 for 2*11 (11 letters in superstring), and T for next letter
to s
So superstring – #22T
2) What is the code for ‘making framework’?
A) #12N %18G
Plutus Academy-(21)
B) #12M $18G
C) #12M %20G
D) #12N @18G
Sol: A) #12N %18G

3) What is the code for ‘logical coding’?
A) @12M $12E
B) #14M $12D
C) @14M $12C
D) #14M $12D
Sol: #14M $12D

4) What is code for ‘environmental petroleum’?
A) @18Q $24F
B) @16Q $26E
C) @18Q $26F
D) #16Q $26E
Sol: C) @18Q $26F

5) What is code for ‘maximum cashback’?
A) #14N %16D
B) @16N %16D
C) @14N %16E
D) @14N %16D
Sol: D) @14N %16D

Ex 7: Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code,
‘letter found option result’ is written as ‘w#6 m@15 i#12 g@18’,

‘input sneak never final’ is written as ‘o#6 p@19 i@14 g#9’,
‘travel pirate height office’ is written as ‘g#8 v@16 o@20 v@15’, and
‘stark mutual outward quantum’ is written as ‘w@15 n@17 o#13 p@19’.

1) What is the code for ‘store gallery’?
A) u#19 b#8
B) v@18 c#7
Plutus Academy-(22)
C) u@18 d#7
D) v@19 b#7
Sol: Option D

There are only 2 symbols in the above coding. They have been set according to first letter of
word. Words having numerical value less than equal to 13 are kept in one group and are denoted
by #. and from 14-26 by @. (i.e. for first half letter (a-m) – #, and for last 13 letters (n-z) – @
Number represents the numerical value of first letter
Alphabet represents the reverse of last letter according to their number in alphabetical series, a
= 26, b = 25, …….z = 1
So letter — r -> i, # for l and 12 for l
So letter – i#12

2) What is the code for ‘inshort phone’?
A) g#9 v@18
B) g#9 v@16
C) h@10 v@18
D) h#10 v#16
Sol: B) g#9 v@16

3) What is the code for ‘messages internet’?
A) h@13 g#8
B) h#13 g#9
C) h#12 g@8
D) h#13 g#8
Sol: B) h#13 g#9

4) What is code for ‘settling clock’?
A) p#13 t@19
B) p#3 t@18
C) p#3 t@19
D) p@3 t#19
Sol: C) p#3 t@19

5) What is code for ‘word money’?
A) w@24 c#14
B) v@22 b#13
C) w@24 b#13
D) w#24 c@13

Sol: C) w@24 b#13
Plutus Academy-(23)

Ex 8: Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code,
‘Aspirant Time Stock Zone’ is written as ‘TP20 SG32 OV16 IV16’,

‘Jump Marker Reach Against ’ is written as ‘ES20 UK16 GG28 AI24’,
‘Refer Wave Further Belong’ is written as ‘AV16 ET24 UI28 EI20 ’, and
‘Private Keen Child Red ’ is written as ‘HW20 RV28 EW12 EM16 ’.

1) Which is the code for ‘Beyond Team ’?
A) EW32 EN16
B) EW24 AN20
C) EW12 EN12
D) EW24 EN16
E) None of these
Sol: Option D

Numbers: Number of letters in word multiplied by 4
First letter in code is second letter of respective word. Second letter in code is reverse of last
letter of respective word.
So Aspirant – S for second letter S, G for reverse of T, 8 letter word so 8*4 = 32 makes SG32

2. What is the code for ‘Massive Alert’?
A) AV28 LG20
B) AW24 LG20
C) AV28 LH20
D) AW28 LH20
E) None of these
Sol: A) AV28 LG20

3. What is the code for ‘National Park’?
A) AO32 AP12
B) AP32 AP16
C) AN32 AP12
D) AO32 AP20
E) None of these
Sol: A) AO32 AP12

4. “DT20 OM24’ will be the code for
A) Ports Plant
B) Edits Poles
C) Admit Power
D) Edits Notion
E) None of these
Plutus Academy-(24)
Sol: D) Edits Notion

5. Which is the code for ‘Normal Cupboard’?
A) ON24 UV36
B) OO24 UW32
C) OP24 UU36
D) OO24 UW36
E) None of these
Sol: OO24 UW32

TYPE-5(Capital Letter to Small Letter)

Ex1. Using the following code and Key,Decode the given coded word:
Code L X P Z J Y Q M N B
Key b a e s p r h i g t

What is the Code for the Word- ZBYXMNQB
1) strength 2) height 3) struggle 4) straight
Sol: 4) straight

TYPE-6(Matrix Coding)
Q 1. Study the matrix below and answer the following:
Matrix2
5 6 7 8 9
5 S E H B T
6 H S E T B
7 B T S E H
8 E H T B S
9 T S E H B
Matrix 1
0 1 2 3 4
0 F A N O I
1 I O F A N
2 A N O I F
3 O F I N A
4 N I A F O,.
Plutus Academy-(25)

Ex 1. NEST
a) 33,85,88,86 b) 21,76,77,76 c) 14,67,66,67 d) 02,56,55,59
Sol: d) 02,56,55,59

Ex 2 .FAITH
a) 43,42,41,78,89 b) 31,34,23,76,79 c) 24,31,10,59,57 d) 12,20,40,68,65
Sol:b) 31,34,23,76,79
Ex 3. FINE
a) 31,32,33,82 b) 24,19,21,78 c) 12,10,13,67 d) 00,04,02,56
Sol: d) 00,04,02,56

Ex 4. HEAT
a) 79,53,20,87 b) 65,56,13,57 c) 57,56,01,59 d) 29,85,34,93
Sol: c) 57,56,01,59

Ex 5. BOTH
a) 88,30,85,86 b) 75,22,76,79 c) 69,67,68,59 d) 58,02,68,65
Sol:b) 75,22,76,79

Plutus Academy-(26)
EXERCISE
Q1. TAP is SZO, then FREEZE is

1) EQDFYG 2) EQDDYD 3) ESDFYF 4) GQFDYF

Q2. If the word PRINCIPAL is written as LAPICNIRP, how ADOLESCENCE can be written in that
code?
1) ECNCESELODA
2) ECNECSLEODA
3) ECNSCEELODA
4) ECNECSELODA

Q3. In a certain Language PROSE is coded as PPOQE. How will LIGHT be coded?
1) LIGFT 2) LGGHT 3) LLGFE 4) LGGFT

Q4. If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD,then how GEORGE will be coded in that code language?
1) CADMNO 2) CAKNIT 3) CAKNCA 4) JAKINS

Q5. In a certain code language DHIE is written as WSRV and AEFB is written as ZVUY.How will
GKLH be written in that code language?
1) TOPQ 2)TPOS 3)TPOG 4)TOPH

Q (6-10)Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In a certain code Language,

‘Rural and urban divide’ is coded as
Na ku za la
‘Gap in rural infrastructure’ is coded as
Kt la vm pi
‘Urban planning more important’ is coded as
ti na cu bu
‘More divide than gap’ is coded as
Pi cu dm za

Q6.What is the code for ‘and’?

1) zu 2) na 3) ku 4) la 5) cannot be determined

Q7.What is the code for ‘gap’?
1) pi 2) na 3) ku 4) la 5) cannot be determined

Q8.What is the code for ‘rural distance’?
1) zu la 2) la dm 3) pi zu 4) ku 5) cannot be determined

Plutus Academy-(27)
Q9.What is the code for ‘than’?

1) pi 2) dm 3) cu 4) zu 5) ti

Q10. Which of the following may possibly be the code for ”infrastructure gap divide rural and
urban planning’?
1)bu ku na zu pi la cu
2)vm la zu pi na cu ku
3)kt bu zu pi ti vm la
4)la ku vm kt ti bu na
5)cannot be determined

Q11. In a certain code
‘253’ means ‘books are old’;
’546’ means ‘man is old’ and
‘378’ means ‘buy good books.’
what stands for “are” in that code?
1) 6 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5

Q12. If C=3, and CAT=24,what is FAULT?
1) 60 2) 57 3) 64 4) 72

Q13. In a certain code,LONDON is coded as 24-30-28-8-30-28.How will FRANCE be coded?
1) 10-24-6-28-6-12
2) 12-26-6-28-8-10
3) 12-36-2-28-6-10
4) 12-36-2-28-8-10

Q14. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7,what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?

1) 6 2) 8 3) 9 4) 10

Q15. Following words are written in a code language.Study them carefully and find out the word
in the given code.
CAR- $ * ^
SIT- # ! @
WELL- % & ( (
MAP- ~ * )

Given Code- ( * ~ *

1)LAMP 2)LAMA 3)LAME 4)LAMB

Q 16. If SENSATIONAL can be written as 12314567348 in a certain code, then how will STATION
be written in the same code?
1) 1554673 2) 1545673 3) 1455673 4) 1545763
Plutus Academy-(28)

Q 17. In a certain code language TEACH is written as SXZVG. Then how will CHILD be written in
that code language?
1) BPRSZ 2) WORSX 3) NMRTU 4) APRRI 5) XSWRK

Q 18. In a certain code language REASONING is written as HZVILTMRM. Then how will
DIGINOTES be written in that code language?
1) RTRMMHVVG 2) RSTMMHVVG 3) RTRWMHVGL
4) RTRMMHVVG 5) MTRMMHVXG

Q 19. In a certain code language TITAN is written as 48797. Then how will WATCH be written in
that code language?
1) 16784 2) 17894 3) 68174 4) 79784 5) 17846

Q 20. In a certain code language ZEBRA is written as WBYAJ. Then how will HORSE be written in
that code language?
1) MIWIT 2) MIWTI 3) MTIMW 4) MTIWI 5) None of these

Q 21. In a certain code language GGOLD is written as IKUTN. Then how will STARS be written in
that code language?
1) GZCUI 2) UXGZC 3) XGCCD 4)YXDEW 5) None of these

Q 22. In a certain code language RTS is written as 19 and MTS as 25. Then how will IPL be
written in that code language?
1) 21 2) 35 3) 13 4) 32 5) None of these

Q 23. In a certain code language UNION is written as WLKQL. Then how will PERSON be written
in that code language?
1) NGPPOL 2) NGPQQL 3) NPGQQL 4) NGGPOL 5) None of these

Q 24. In a certain code language DIGITAL is written as GKHISYI. Then how will PRINTER be
1) STJNSCO 2) TJUSCOS 3) JNSOLTE 4) NTJNSOC 5) None of these

Q 25. In a certain code language BLOCK is written as NDLIA. Then how will UNION be written in
that code language?
1) MLRWP 2) MSRWP 3) MLZWP 4) PWRLM 5) None of these

Q 26. In a certain code language TIMES is written as 79548. Then how will INDIA be written in
that code language?
1) 98495 2) 94598 3) 47958 4) 45897 5) None of these

Q 27. In a certain code language SUPPORTERS is written as 8780. Then how will INEVITABLE be
1) 5970 2) 7985 3) 7925 4) 5940 5) None of these

Q 28. If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, then how is GATE coded?
1) 5427 2) 2547 3) 5247 4) 5724
Plutus Academy-(29)
Q29. In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code, PAROLE will be
written as-
1) RYPQJG 2) RCPQJG 3) NCPQJG 4) NCPQJC

Q 30. If green means red, red means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means orange and orange
means green, what is the colour of clean sky ?

1) Blue 2) Red 3) Yellow 4) Orange

Q31. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of letters as in two
matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of
Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9.You have to identify the set for the word ‘POLE’.

0 1 2 3 4
0 G V E A C
1 R O N G L
2 M N E L I
3 O T I T A
4 N L N E P

5 6 7 8 9
5 R E O N G
6 N P V E L
7 M T I O N
8 E A I O C
9 N T A R L

1) 66, 11, 67, 02 2) 44, 11, 69, 85 3) 66, 89, 32, 56 4) 44, 13, 69, 65

Q 32. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9.You have to identify the set for the word 'MOST'.

Plutus Academy-(30)
0 1 2 3 4
0 O S W H N
1 W N S O H
2 H O N W S
3 S W H N O
4 N H O S W

5 6 7 8 9
5 T A P M D
6 M D A T P
7 D T A P M
8 A P M D T
9 P M T D A

1) 79, 13, 30, 68 2) 56, 12, 41, 86 3) 97, 43, 21, 79 4) 65, 21, 32, 76

Q 33.A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9.You have to identify the set for the word “MATH”.
0 1 2 3 4
0 E S T M N
1 T N S E M
2 M E N T S
3 S T M N E
4 N M E S T

Plutus Academy-(31)
5 6 7 8 9
5 W A P H D
6 H D A W P
7 D W A P H
8 A P H D W
9 P H W D A

1) 32, 77, 23, 79 2) 23, 76, 32, 97 3) 41, 57, 23, 85 4) 14, 78, 23, 58

Q 34. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9.You have to identify the set that is not for the word “SAND”.
0 1 2 3 4
0 E S R U N
1 R N S E U
2 U E N R S
3 S R U N E
4 N U E S R

5 6 7 8 9
5 W A P T D
6 T D A W P
7 D W A P T
8 A P T D W
9 P T W D A

1) 12, 67, 40, 66 2) 43, 85, 22, 87 3) 24, 67, 22, 66 4) 30, 77, 33, 59

Q 35.A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.
Plutus Academy-(32)
Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9.You have to identify the set for the word “PENT”.

0 1 2 3 4
0 E S R U N
1 R N S E U
2 U E N R S
3 S R U N E
4 N U E S R

5 6 7 8 9
5 W O P T I
6 T I O W P
7 I W O P T
8 O P T I W
9 O P T I W

1) 86, 21, 33, 65 2) 95, 34, 40, 79 3) 57, 02, 34, 87 4) 78, 42, 11, 56

Q36. Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Letter S P W J K I L T Q O D R Y H E A F G U
Code X + 1 = # 4 ? $ @ 5 6 3 8 9 2 0 7 * &
Condition:
i)If the first letter and last letter’s place value are even according to the English Alphabetical
order, then both are to be coded by the code of U.
ii)If the first letter and last letter’s place value are odd according to the English Alphabetical
order, then both are to be coded by the code of S.
iii)If the first letter is a vowel and last letter is a consonant, and there are more than two vowels
in the group, then both are to be coded by each other’s code.

Plutus Academy-(33)
Q1. EDAIFH

a)260479 b) 960472 c) 960479 d) 604792 e) None of these

Q2. QERTYW
a)X23$8X b) @23$81 c) 123$8@ d) &23$8& e) None of these
Q3. RWYHPJ
a)X189+X b) @189+@ c) &189+& d) 1189+X e) None of these

Q4. TQODSP
a)&@56X& b) X@56XX c) *@56X* d) *@56X& e) None of these

Q5. SWJKIL
a)X1=#4? b) X1=#4X c) &1=#4& d) ?1=#4X e) None of these

Q37. Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Letters A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Code 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 7 9 11 10 13 12

Condition:
i)If the first and last letter’s place value according to the English Alphabetical order has
difference of 1,, then both are to be coded by the code of G.
ii)If 4th letter’s place value is multiple of 3, then the 2nd letter is to be coded by the code for 6th
letter.
iii)If the first letter is a vowel and last letter is a consonant, then the code of both are to be
interchanged.

Q 1. CBJIKM
a) 3 2 10 9 11 12 b) 3 2 11 10 9 12 c) 3 12 11 9 10 12
d) 3 12 10 9 11 12 e) None of these

Q 2. DMIEAC
a) 8 12 9 5 1 8 b) 4 12 9 5 1 3 c) 4 12 9 5 1 4
d) 3 12 9 5 1 3 e) None of these

Q 3. HGLBCA
Plutus Academy-(34)
a) 7 8 13 2 3 7 b) 7 8 13 2 3 1 c) 1 8 13 2 3 7
d) 8 8 13 2 3 8 e) None of these

Q 4. EIJKDC
a) 5 9 11 10 4 5 b) 3 9 11 10 4 3 c) 3 9 11 10 4 5
d) 5 9 11 10 4 3 e) None of these

Q 5. EFGMJA
a) 5 6 8 12 11 1 b) 1 6 8 12 11 1 c) 5 6 8 12 11 5
d) 8 6 8 12 11 8 e) None of these

Q38. (1 –5) Study the information below and answer the following question: –
In a certain code language,
‘Thin paper neatly folded’ is written as @D6, %R5, !N4, ?Y6
‘Four people from USA’ is written as @M4, %E6, #A3, @R4
‘Urban development programme launched’ is written as % E9, *T11, #N5 &D8
‘Dhaya likes forties hero’ is written as @E7, &E5, *A5, $O4
1. The code for the word ‘People’ is

1.@M4 2.%E6 3.#A3 4.@R4 5.None of these

2. The code ‘ *A5 ‘ denotes which of the following word ?
1.Likes 2.Hero 3.Forties 4.Dhaya 5.None of these

3. The code word of ‘Four’ is
1. @R4 2.%E6 3.@M4 4.#A3 5.None of these

4. ‘#’ denotes which letter of the given words ?
1.N 2.F 3.L 4.D 5.U

5. According to the given code word, what will be the code for ‘ Data Line reach points’ ?
1.*4A &4E @5H %6S
2.*4A &4E !5H %6S
3.*4A &4E #5H %6S
4.*4A &4E $5H %6S
5.None of these

Q 39 (1-5) Study the information below and answer the following question:
‘Arrive today eagles later’ is written as 21*R,6$A, 14$O, 25*A

‘Begin work faster table’ is written as 14$A, 17%O, 26*A, 22$E
‘Length error arrow burn’ is written as 6*E, 25$R, 22%U, 21$R
‘Trial better than wisdom’ is written as 14$R, 14%H, 22*E, 17*I

1. The code for the word ‘ table’
Plutus Academy-(35)
1) 26*A 2) 17%O 3) 14$A 4) 22$ E 5) None of these
2. The code word 6$A for the word
1.Later 2.Arrive 3.Earlier 4.Today 5.Either 1 or 3
3. Find the code word for the word ‘Burn’ ?
1) 25$R 2) 22%U 3) 21$R 4) 6*E 5) Can’t be determined
4. According to the given code, what is the code for ‘M’ ?
1) 12 2) 8 3) 10 4) 7 5) Can’t be determined
5. By using the given code word, find the code word for ‘ Better Luck Next Arrive’ ?
1) 22$E, 21$R, 6*U, 8%E
2) 8*E, 21*R, 22%E, 6%U
3) 22*E, 6%U, 8%E, 21*R
4) 21%R, 22$E, 6*U, 8%E
5) 6$U, 22*E, 8*E, 21%R

Q40(1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code,
Give solution for problem - #E4, $R3, *M7, @N8
Pure first sale great - @E4, $T5, #T5, *E4
Pet sensed ghostly form - *T3, $M4, @D6, #Y7
Spa guards picked flake - #S6, *D6, $E5, @A3

1. What is the code for ‘solution’?
(a) #E4 (b) $R3 (c) *M7 (d) @N8 (e) Cannot be determined

2. Which of the following code can be coded for ‘FRIENDS’?
(a) #S7 (b) $R7 (c) $S7 (d) @S6 (e) Cannot be determined

3. What is the code for ‘search from page’?
(a) *E4 @H6 $M4 (b) $R3 *E4 @D5 (c) *M7 @H5 #E4
(d) @N8 $M4 @H5 (e) Cannot be determined

4. What is the code for ‘Gross’?
(a) #S5 (b) $S3 (c) *S7 (d) #N5 (e) Cannot be determined

5. What is the code for ‘Payment’?
(a) #T4 (b) $T7 (c) *T7 (d) @N7 (e) Cannot be determined
Q41: (1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Plutus Academy-(36)
In a certain code,
‘Most safety high level’ is written as ‘8*Y, 7?L, 6#H, 6%T
‘Made in India project’ is written as ‘9@T, 7!A, 6%E, 4!N’
‘Set list new home’ is written as ‘5*T, 6#E, 6?T, 5&W’
‘Large sale post interval’ is written as ‘6@T, 10!L, 7?E, 6*E’
(All the codes are three-letter codes only.)

1) According to the given code word, what will be the code for ‘Leave his much peace’ ?
a) 5@E, 3#S, 5?E, 3%H
b) 7@E, 5#S, 7?E, 6%H
c) 9@E, 7#S, 7?E, 8%H
d) 9#E, 5#S, 5@E, 5%H
e) None of these

2) ‘?’ denotes which letter of the given words ?
a) P b) M c) L d) S e) H

3) The code word of ‘Intend’ according to the given code is
a) 8!N b) 6!D c) 8!D d) 6!N e) None of these

4) The code ‘6*E’ denotes which of the following word ?
a) Large
b) Set
c) Sale
d) Home
e) None of these

5) The code for the word ‘Person’ is
a) 8*E
b) 6*N
c) 8@N
d) 6@E
e) None of these

In a certain coded language,
‘Built above abuse catch’ is coded as ‘d20z?’ ‘t21a%’ ‘w15a%’ ‘m9t^’,
‘Chair dance drill equal’ is coded as ‘b21p!’ ‘m9q!’ ‘d14z%’ ‘j1g#’,
‘Frank house image lives’ is coded as ‘f22h&’ ‘h1l%’ ‘t21n%’ ‘o1q*’.
‘Minus needs peace refer’ is coded as ‘f6d#’ ‘d1d%’ ‘e5d&’ ‘v14h&’

1) What is the code for the word “order” using the above coded method?
a) g8v# b) e5d# c) f4q# d) a2l# e) n1n#

2) What does the code “s1g%” represents?
a) Make b) Share c) Rural d) Shape e) Green

3) How “third teams” can be coded using the above method?
Plutus Academy-(37)
a) o9i$ y15z& b) m4b© d7g& c) k6e● u65&
d) s9g$ n1d& e) q9g$ n1d& .

4) What does the code “f22h&” represents?
a) Lives b) Image c) House d) Franks e) Cannot be determined

5) What does the code “o5qΔ b13n£” represents?
a) Until have
b) Trend woman
c) where comes
d) Loves others
e) be happy

Q43: 1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions:
‘Students needs more placements’ is coded as ‘t5m t10o f4l t8r’
‘Pakistan win the match’ is coded as ‘o3v i5l f3s o8o’
‘Practice makes perfect man’ is coded as ‘u7o f8o o3l t5l’

1. What is the code for “toys makers” in the above code language?
a) r4t t6l b) s4r l6t c) t4s t6l d) s4t t5l e) None of these

2. what is the code for “property”?
a) x7o b) z8o c) w8o d) z8m e) None of these

3. which of the following is the exact code for “place for give respect”?
a) f5o r3s f4f u3r
b) g3h h5m f4f v7q
c) u7q f4f s3e f5o
d) u7r f4e s3e f5o
e) cannot be determined

4. Which of the following is code for “pleasure”?
a) f8o b) o8m c) r7q d) f8q e) d80

5. In given code language, what does the code “u5q e6o f4f” stands for?
a) right more played
b) right game played
c) maths easy subject
d) very sense thing
e) played game thing


“New economic development begin” is written as “38%v 30~p 17#x 46&s”
“Great influence to development” is written as “19@y 30~p 27%v 40*r”
“New opportunity to start” is written as “19@y 15%v 14~p 17#x”
“Have less economic opportunity” is written as “46&s 14~p 41$w 23$w”
Plutus Academy-(38)
1. Which of the following is the code for the word “economic”?
(a) 38%v (b) 38%v (c) 17#x (d) 46&s (e) None of these

2. The code “27%v 15%v” denotes which of the following word?
(a) Development Start (b) Great influence (c) Great start
(d) Either a or b (e) None of these

3. The code word of “capacity” according to the given code is?
(a) 26?t (b) 26&t (c) 25&s (d) 26*s (e) 26&s

4. “38%v 46?u” denotes which of the following word?
(a) New Economic (b) Great influence (c) Development start
(d) Course begin (e) None of these

5. According to the given code word, what will be the code for “given opportunity for
development”?
(a) 30~p 33%v 14~p 30&x (b) 30~p 33$v 14~p 30#x
(c) 30~p 33%v 14*p 30#x (d) 30?p 33%v 14~p 30#x
(e) 30~p 33%v 14~p 30#x

Q44: 1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions:

‘Picture worth thousand words’ is coded as ‘xi6 ue9 xt6 qf8’
‘watched pot never boil’ is coded as ‘qu4 os6 xe8 ct6’
‘Beggars can’t be choosers’ is coded as ‘ct8 dt9 du5 cf3’

1. What is the code for “island”?
a) jd6 b) jf6 c) he7 d) je7 e) None of these

2. What may be the code for “vigorous”?
a) ut8 b) ut9 c) wt9 d) wt8 e) None of these

3. “Grass is always greener” will be coded as?
a) hs8 jt3 ht6 bt7
b) ht5 ht7 js3 bs8
c) bt7 jt4 hs8 ht5
d) bs7 ht6 hs8 jt3
e) None of these

4. How “beggars” is coded in the language?
a) ct8 b) dt9 c) cf3 d) du5 e) None of these

5. How “choosers choice” will be coded in the language?
a) df6 dt8 b) dt9 df7 c) dt9 df8
d) df9 dt7 e) None of these

Plutus Academy-(39)
Q45: Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.(IBPS PO
2017)
In a certain code,
‘detail event year this’ is written as ‘bi gv oc st’
‘event revised of awaited’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’
‘of detail results first’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’
‘awaited great year of’ is written as ‘da strx tm’

1. In the given code language, what does the code ‘mk’ stand for?
(a) Either ‘detail’ or ‘year’ (b) this (c) of (d) Either ‘first’ or ‘results’ (e) great

2. What is the code for ‘awaited’ in the given code language?
(a) tm (b) rx (c) st (d) da (e) None of these

3. What is the code for ‘event’ in the given code language?
(a) nh (b) oc (c) gv 6 (d) pu (e) rx

4. What may be the possible code for ‘awaited revised’ in the given code language?
(a) ve be (b) da nh (c) nh ve (d) pu da (e) bi da

5. If ‘of year home’ is written as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then what is the code for
‘home revised this’?
(a) aj gv nh (b) pu aj bi (c) nh bi pu (d) bi da aj (e) aj oc pu

Coding Decoding Answer Sheet

Q1.(2) EQDDYD
Q2.(4)ECNECSELODA (Reverse of the word)
Q3.(4)LGGFT
Q4.(3)CAKNCA
Q5- TPOS (Reverse of each Letter)
Q6-ku
Q7.pi
Q8.zu la
Q9.dm
Q10.cannot be determined
Q11.4) 5
Q12.(1)60
Q13.(3) 12-36-2-28-6-10 (Two times the place value of each letter)
Q14. 3) 9( NUMBER OF LETTERS - 1)
Q15.(2) LAMA
Q16. 2) 1545673
Q17. WORSX
Q18. 3) RTRWMHVGL
Plutus Academy-(40)
Q19. 1)16784
Q20. 4) MTIWI
Q21. 2) UXGZC
Q22. 3) 13
Q23. 3) NPGQQ
Q24. 1) STJNSCO
Q25. 4) PWRLM
Q26. 2) 94598
Q27. 4) 5940
Q28. 3) 5247
Q29. 3) NCPQJG
Q30. 4) Orange
Q31. 2) 44, 11, 69, 85
Q32. 1) 79, 13, 30, 68
Q33. 1) 32, 77, 23, 79
Q34. 2) 43, 85, 22, 87
Q35. 1) 86, 21, 33, 65
Q36. 1) b) 960472
2) d) &23$8&
3) c) &189+&
4) a)&@56X&
5) a)X1=#4?
Q37. 1) c) 3 12 11 9 10 12
2) a) 8 12 9 5 1 8
3) b) 7 8 13 2 3 1
4) c) 3 9 11 10 4 5
5) a) 5 6 8 12 11 1
Q38. 1. The code for the word ‘People’ is %E6
Explanation :
People – %E6
P – %
No of letters – 6
Last letter – E
T =!, P = %, N = ?, F = @, U =#, D = *, L = &, H = $
2. 4.Dhaya
3. 1. @R4
4. 5.U
5 None of these
Data Line reach points is *4A &4E ?5H %6S
Q39. 1. 3) 14$A
2. 1) Later
3. 2) 22%U
4. 4) 7
Plutus Academy-(41)
5. 1) 22$E, 21$R, 6*U, 8%E

Q40 1. (d) @N8
Every symbol represents the first letter of each word in the following manner
# - G
@ - S
$ - F
* - P
Every Letter in the code represents the last letter of the respective word.
Every number represent the total number of letters in the word.
2. (c) $S7
3. (a) *E4 @H6 $M4
4. (a) #S5
5. (c) *T7

Q41 1. b) 7@E, 5#S, 7?E, 6%H
2. c) L
3. c) 8!D
4. c) Sale
5. c) 8@N
(Hint: I – !
D – last letter of the word D and
Total no of letter 6 + 2 = 8
I =!,M = %,L = ?,P = @,H =#,S = *,N = &)
Q42 1. c) f4q#
2. b) Share
3. d) s9g$ n1d&
4. a) Lives
5. b) Trend woman
(Hint: (c)
Every symbol represent last letter in the word.
e – %, r – #, s – &, l – !s t–^ k–* h -?
Above – w15d%
Number 15 – Middle letter position in alphabet
Plutus Academy-(42)

Q43. 1. c) t4s t6l
2. b) z8o
3. c) u7q f4f s3e f5o
4. a) f8o
5. b) right game played
(Hint: Pattern: Number Number of letter count
1st letter – 1st letter (last letter +1)
Last letter – Last letter (first letter -1)

Q44. 1. (d) 46&s
2. (c) Great start
3. (e) 26&s
4. (d) Course begin
5. (d) 30?p 33%v 14~p 30#x

Hint: Example
● N E W —————————————— 17 # x

● The First Letter of the word is N
Take the Reverse Letter of N which is M
M’s Position is 13
Take the Last word which is W
Take the reverse letter of W which is D
D’s Position is 4
Add the Position of M + D = 13+4 = 17
● Count the Number of Letters in the word. Each number corresponds to a certain
symbol
No of Letters Corresponding Symbol
2 @
3 #
4 $
Plutus Academy-(43)
5 %
8 &
9 *
10 ~

● Total Number of letters in the word is 3 , So the reverse letter of the number 3 is X.

Q44. 1. d) je7
2. c) wt9
3. a) hs8 jt3 ht6 bt7
4. a) ct8
5. b) dt9 df7
Hints: Ex: ‘Picture’ coded as ‘qf8’
‘q’ – first letter + 1 (i.e. p+1=q)
‘f’ – last letter + 1 (i.e. e+1=f)
‘8’ Number of letters in the word Picture +1

Q45. Word-Code
Detail-gv
Event - oc
Year - st
Of - tm
This - bi
Awaited - da
Revised - pu
Great - rx
Results/ first---mk/nh

1. (d) Either ‘first’ or ‘results’
2. (d) da
3. (b) oc
4. (d) pu da
5. (b) pu aj bi

For video solutions visit: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cQNK4wTSJ9g&t=32s
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jt4XjN1ZU80&t=4s

Plutus Academy-(44)
Inequality

Inequality is basically comparison of two or more than two variables.

Example of Inequality Questions-In these type of questions relationship between different
elements is shown in the Statements. These statements are followed by number of
conclusions.We have to study all the statement carefully after that we have to identify which
conclusion is/are correct according to the relationships given in the statements.
Question Pattern-
Statements- _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Conclusions- _ _ __ _ _ _

Ex- Statement - A>B=C
Conclusion - i) A>B
ii) A>C

Options: 1) Only i follows.
2) Only ii follows.
3) Either i or ii follows.
4) Both follows.
5) None follows.

Symbols of Inequalities:
There is 3 basic fundamental symbol.
> (greater than)
< (smaller than)
= (Equal to)

> and < are known as Single or definite Inequality symbol.
The presence of = does not have any significant effect on the conclusion.

Along with these, there are 3 more symbols that are of significance.
1) ≥ (Either greater than or equal to)
2) ≤ (Either smaller than or equal to)
3) =/ (Not Equal to)

≤ and ≥ are known as double or possible inequality symbols.
The concept of =/ is totally different. So it doesn’t come under our purview.

Plutus Academy-(45)
Symbols and their definitions:
Symbols Definition
> Greater than
Ex- A > B means A is greater than B
< Less than

Ex- A < B means A is less than B
= Equal to
Ex- A = B means A is equals to B
>= or ≥ Greater than equal to

Ex- A ≥ B means A is greater than and equal to B
<= or Less than equal to

Ex- A ≤ B means A is smaller than and equal to B
≠ Not equal to

Ex- A ≠ B means A is not equal to B
Neither greater than nor equal to

Ex- A B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B
Neither smaller than nor equal to

Ex- A B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B

Steps to follow while solving:
1) Check if the symbols are in same order(direction)
Conclusions can only be determine if all the symbols used within the statements are in the
same direction-

For Ex - A>B>C or A>B=C or A>B>=C or A>=B>C or A<B<=C or A<B<C

2) Check if single inequality symbol is present. If single inequality symbol is present, conclusion
will be that single inequality symbol.
3) If single inequality symbol is not present and double inequality symbol is present, then
conclusion will always be double.

Types of Inequalities:
Type I) Simple Inequality(Statement and Conclusion)
Plutus Academy-(46)
Type II) Coded Inequality (Coded statement and conclusion)
Type III) Conditional Inequality( Statement condition based)

Tricks:-
1. Normal Situation-
Sl. No. Type(if statements contains below Conclusion Example
symbols in any order) (Statements and true
conclusions)
1 >,>,> > Statement-

A>B>C
Conclusions-
1)A>C
2)B>C
2 > , >= , = > Statement-

A>B>=C=D
Conclusions-
1)A>C
2)A>D

3 > , >= > Statement-

A>B>=C
Conclusions-
1)A>C
4 > , = > Statement-

A>B=C
Conclusions-
1)A>C
5 >= , = >= Statement-

A>=B=C
Conclusions-
1)A>=C
6 <,<,< < Statement-

A<B<C
Conclusions-
1)A<C
2)B<C
7 < , <= , = < Statement-

A<B<=C=D
Conclusions-
Plutus Academy-(47)
1)A<C
2)A<D

8 < , <= < Statement-

A<B<=C
Conclusions-
1)A<C
9 < , = < Statement-

A<B=C
Conclusions-
1)A<C
10 <= , = <= Statement-

A,=B=C
Conclusions-
1)A<=C

2. Either Situation-

Either condition occurs when 2 conclusions follow for the same elements in any
statement.
Ex1-

Statement - A>=B
Conclusion-
A>B
A=B

Here either I or II will follow.

Ex-2-

Statement - A < B >= C
Conclusions-
I A < C
II A >= C

Here either I or II will follow.

Plutus Academy-(48)

3. False Situations-
Statement:
P > Q
P > R
Conclusion: Q > R
R > Q
Both conclusions are false.

Statement:
A > B < C
Conclusion: A>C
A<C
Both conclusions are false as both symbols are not in same direction.

Type-1
In these questions relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These
statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I,II,III and IV. Study the statements and
Conclusions carefully and select the correct answer: (IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE-IV 2014 )
Q1.Statement:
Y>R ≥ S=T<M ≤ N<J
Conclusions:
I. T<Y
II. N>S
III. J<S
IV. S>=Y

1) Only Conclusions I,II and III are true.
2) Only Conclusions I and II are true.
3) Only Conclusions II and III are true.
4) Only Conclusions I,II,III and IV are true.

Q2.Statements:
S>H>=T<=C;
Y>T>=N;
Conclusions:
I. H>Y
II. S>C
Plutus Academy-(49)
III. C=Y
IV. C>=N

1) Only conclusions I and IV are true.
2) Only conclusion III is true.
3) Only conclusions II and IV are true.
4) Only Conclusions IV is true.
5) Only Conclusions I and II are true.

Q3.Statement:
K>H<Y<=Z<A>R>=L

Conclusions:
I. A>Y
II. L>A
III. H<A
IV. K>R

1) Only conclusions I and III are true.
2) Only conclusions II and IV are true.
3) None of the conclusion is true.
4) Only conclusions II and III are true.
5) Only conclusions II,III and IV are true.

Q4. Statements:
D > M > U >=E;
N < U >=J
Conclusions:
I D>E
II E<=J
III M>N
IV D>J
1) Only conclusions I,II and III are true.
3) Only conclusions I,III and IV are true.
4) None of the conclusions is true.
5) All the conclusions I,II,III and IV are true.

Q5. Statement:
P>L=U>=C<=K>S
Conclusions:
1) Only conclusions I and II are true.
Plutus Academy-(50)
2) Only conclusions III and IV are true.
3) Only conclusions I and IV are true.
4) Only conclusions I,II and IV are true.

Q(6-10)In these questions , relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.
These statements are followed by the two conclusions. (Indian overseas bank PO 2011)
Mark answer (1) if only conclusion I follow
Mark answer (2) if only conclusion II follow
Mark answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follow
Mark answer (4) if neither conclusion I or II follow
Mark answer (5) if both conclusion I and II follow

Q6. Statements:
A > = B = C;
B < D < = E;
Conclusions: I. D > A
II. E > C

Q7. Statements:
L > U > = K;
Z < U < R
Conclusions: I L > Z
II K < R

Q8. Statements:
Y < J = P > = R > I
Conclusions: I J > I
II Y > R

Q9.Statements:
V > = K > M = N;
M > S;
T < K
Conclusions: I T < N
II V = S

Q10.Statements:
F <= X < A;
R < X <= E;
Conclusions: I F <= E
Plutus Academy-(51)
II R < F

Type-2

Q(11-15) In the following questions, the symbols #, %,@,$ and are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’
‘P Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of
the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Mark answer (1) if only conclusion I is true
Mark answer (2) if only conclusion II is true
Mark answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true
Mark answer (4) if neither conclusion I or II is true
Mark answer (5) if both conclusion I and II is true (Indian Overseas Bank PO 2009)

Q11.Statements :
H W, W%R,R @F
Conclusions: I R H
II R @ H

Q12. Statements:
M$T, T@K, K D
Conclusions: I D$ T
II K$M

Q13. Statements:
R%N, N#F, F@B
Conclusions: I F R
II B$N

Q14. Statements:
H@W, W$M, M#K
Conclusions: I K$W
Plutus Academy-(52)
II H@M

Q15. Statements:
R#T, T M, M@D
Conclusions: I D $ T
II R#M

Q16. Statements:
F#K, K$B, B%M
Conclusions: I M@F
II B@F

Q(17-21) In the following question , the symbols @ , $, # , * and % are used with the following
meaning as illustrated below.
P $ Q means ‘ P is not smaller than Q ‘ .
P* Q means ‘ P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
P# Q means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
P% Q means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
P@ Q means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statement to be true , find which of
four Conclusion a, b, c,d given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly.
Q17. Statement- R# J, J$ D, D@ K, K% T
Conclusion-1. T# D
2. T@ D
3.R# K
4. J$ T
Options:a) Either 1 or 2 is true
b) Only 3 is true
c) 3 and 4 are true
d) Either 1 or 2 and 3 are true
e) None of these
Plutus Academy-(53)
Q18. Statement-T% R, R$ M, M@D, D* H
Conclusion-1. D%R
2.H# R
3.T* M
4.T% D
Options: a) Only 1 is true
b) 1 and 4 are true
c) 1 and 2 are true
d) 2 and 4 are true
e) None of these
Q19. Statement-M@ B, B# N, N$ R, R* K
Conclusion-1.K# B 2. R* B 3. M$ R 4. N* M
Options: a) 1 and 3 are true
b) 1 and 2 are true
c) 2 and 4are true
d) 2, 3,4 are true
e) None of these
Q20. Statement- F# H, H@ M, M* E, E$ J
Conclusion-1. J* M
2. E# H
3. M* F
4. F# E
Options: a) 1 and 2 are true
b) 2 and 3 are true
c) 1 , 2 and 3 are true
d) 2, 3 and 4 are true
e) None of these
Plutus Academy-(54)
Q21. Statement-D% A, A@ B, B* K, K% M
Conclusion- 1. B$ D
2. K# A
3. M # B
4. A* M
Options: a) 1, 2 and 4 are true
b) 1, 2 and 3 are true
c) 2, 3 and 4 are true
d) 1, 3 and 4 are true
e) None of these
Q(22-). @ means ‘ less than’
($) means ‘not greater than’
(-) means ‘equal to’
(+) means’ not equal to’
(*) means ‘not less than’
(=) means ‘greater than’
Q22. X@ Y + Z implies
Options: a)X- Y = Z
b) X * Y – Z
c) X $ Y @ Z
d) X + Y = Z
Q23. X@ Y – Z implies
Options a) X* Y – Z
b) X –Y * Z
c) X + Y * Z
d) X* Y = Z
Q24. X –Y + Z implies
Plutus Academy-(55)
Options: a) X+ Y + Z
b) X@ Y – Z
c) X- Y @ Z
d) None of these
Q25. X- Y = Z implies
Options: a) X + Y + Z
b) X $ Y * Z
c) X + Y @ Z
d) X+Y * Z
Q26. X = Y Z implies
Options: a) Y@ X = Z
b) Z @Y @ X
c) Z@ X = Y
d) None of these

Type 3:
Read the following statement carefully and answer the following questions-
Q27. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R>O =A >S < T is definitely
true?
1) O > T
2) S < R
3) T > A
4) S = O
5) T < R

Q28. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark(?) in the given
expression in order to make the expressions ‘P>A’ as well as ‘T<L’ definitely true?
P > L ? A > = N = T
1) <=
2) >
Plutus Academy-(56)
3) <
4) >=
5) Either <= or <

Q29. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the
same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that
makes the expressions ‘B>N’ as well as ‘D <= L’ definitely true?
B__L__O__N__D
1) =,=,>=,>=
2) >,>=,=,>
3) >,<,=,<=
4) >,=,=,>=
5) >,=,>=,>

Q30. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same
order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes
the expression ‘A<P’ definitely false?

___<___<___>____
1) L ,N, P ,A
2) L , A,P, N
3) A, L, P, N
4) N, A ,P, L
5) P, N, A, L

Q31. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively *(in the
same order, from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that
makes the expression ‘F > N’ and ‘U > D’ definitely false?
F__O__U__N__D
1) < , < , > , =
2) < , = , = , >
3) < , =, = , <
4) >=, = , = ,>=
5) > , > , = ,<

Q32. Which of the following expressions has E>G and C>F definitely true?

(A) A < E ≥ B > D > F = G < C
(B) B ≤ A < C < D > E > F > G
(C) A ≤ C ≥ B ≥ D < G ≥ E > F
(D) D ≤ G > E ≥ F > C ≤ A ≤ B
(E) C ≥ A > D ≥ B ≥ E = G > F
Q33. Which of the following should replace the question mark so that C>D is definitely true?
Plutus Academy-(57)
C = B ? A ≥ D ≤ G > F<E
Options: (A) =
(B) >
(C) ≤
(D) ≥
(E) <
Q34.Which of the following order of letters (from left to right) in the blanks makes the
expression, D<C is definitely true?
____ < ____≤ ____ = _____> ____
Options:(A) B,C,D,E,A
(B) C,A,D,B,E
(C) D,B,A,C,E
(D) E,C,A,B,D
(E) A,B,C.D,E
Inequality Answer Key

Q1-2
Q2-4
Q3-1
Q4-3
Q5-3
Q6-2
Plutus Academy-(58)
Q7-5
Q8-1
Q9-4
Q10-1
Q11-3
Q12-1
Q13-2
Q14-4
Q15-5
Q16-4
Q17-D
Q18-A
Q19-C
Q20-B
Q21-E
Q22-C
Q23-C
Q24-C
Q25-B
Q26-4
Q27-2
Q28-4
Q29-4
Q30-5
Q31-3
Q32-(A) A < E ≥ B > D > F = G < C
Q33-(B) >
Q34-(C) D,B,A,C,E

For video solution: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oxBIAvZKxco&t=228s

Plutus Academy-(59)
Blood Relations
In these type of questions, information is given about the different relationships among different
people. The relationship can be direct or indirect . After examining the question carefully we
have to identify the relationship between people and answer the given questions accordingly.

Basic term used in blood relations question:
It is important to be aware of the terminologies used in blood relations questions. We are aware
of the relationships like mother, father,husband, wife, brother, sister, son and daughter.
Given below are few relationships:
Parents: Mother and father.
Children : Son or Daughter
Siblings : Brother or Sister( of the same parents)
Spouse : Husband or wife.
Aunt: In english aunt means father’s sister, mother’s sister, father’s brother’s wife or mother’s
brother’s wife.
Uncle: In english uncle means father’s brother, Mother’s brother, Father's sister’s husband,
mother’s sister’s husband.
Niece : Brother’s and sister’s daughter.
Nephew : Brother’s and sister’s son.
Cousins : Children of aunt and uncle .
Father in-law : Father of spouse
Mother in-law : Mother of Spouse.
Sister in-law could be sister of spouse, wife of brother, wife of spouse’s brother.
Brother in-law could be brother of spouse, husband of sister, husband of spouse’s sister.

A relation on the mother’s side is called “ maternal” while that on the father’s side is called
“paternal”. Thus mother’s brother is “ maternal uncle” while father’s brother is “paternal uncle”

Generations: Generation can be depicted as
(G=Grand)
(Gr=Great)

Gr.G Father Gr.G Mother
G Father G Mother
Father Mother
I/We
Son Daughter
Grand son Granddaughter
Gr.G Son Gr.G Daughter

Plutus Academy-(60)
Relationship Chart
Type Relation
Mother’s Or father’s son brother
mother’s or father’s daughter sister
mother’s or father’s brother uncle
mother’s or father’s sister aunt
Mother’s or father’s father grandfather
mother’s or father's mother grandmother
son’s wife daughter in law
daughter’s husband son-in-law
husband’s or wife’s sister sister in law
husband’s or wife’s brother brother in law
brother's/sister’s son nephew
brother’s/sister’s/ daughter niece
uncle or aunt’s son or daughter cousin
sister's husband brother in law
Brother’s wife sister in law
grandson or granddaughter of daughter great granddaughter
Grandfather’s grandson Brother
Grandfather’s granddaughter Sister

TRICKS TO SOLVE BLOOD RELATION QUESTIONS
While solving blood relation question, it is convenient if the given information is depicted in
pictorial form. Hence family tree will be used for representation. For easy calculation, few
symbols will be used to denote the relationships in the family tree. The symbols are as follows:
denotes Male
denotes female
Plutus Academy-(61)

denotes couple
denotes siblings.
denotes generation gap

There are three types of questions in blood relationship.
1. Indicative form also known as Pointing/ introducing form
2. Puzzle form
3. Coded form

Indicative Type

Q1. Introducing a man, a woman said” his mother is the only daughter of my father”. how is the
man related to the woman? (Bank PO 1998) (SSC CGL Tier-I 2015)
1) brother
2) son
3) father
4) uncle
Sol: The man is the son of the woman.

Q2. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Amar said ,” her mother’s brother is the only son of my
mother’s father.My mother has only one sibling ” How is the girl’s mother related to Amar?
a) Mother
b) sister
c) aunt
d) grandmother
e) none of these
Sol: The girl’s mother is also Amar’s mother.
Plutus Academy-(62)

Q3. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak who is male ,said” his only brother is the father of my
daughter's father.” how is the gentleman related to Deepak? (Bank PO 1997)
a) Grandfather
b) Father
c) Brother-in-law
d) Uncle
e) none of these

Sol: Uncle

Q4. Pointing towards a girl raj said that she is the daughter of my mother's daughter then how is
the girl related to Raj?
a) niece
b) daughter
c) mother
d) aunt
e) none of these
Sol: Niece
Plutus Academy-(63)

Puzzle Type
Q5. L is the Father of P, who is the father of S.M is the grandmother of R, who is the son of O.N
is paternal uncle of R, who is brother of S. What is the relationship between O and R?
a) Mother and son
b) uncle and nephew
c) Father and son
d) No relation
e) Cannot be determined

Q6. A,B,C,D,E and F are 6 member of a family.A is the son of C. and E is the daughter of A.D is
the daughter of F who is the mother of E.B is the spouse of C. Find number of male and
Female .Also find the relationship between B and D?
a) 2,4,no relation
b) 2,4,cannot determined
c) 4,2,grandfather-granddaughter
d) 4,2,grandmother-granddaughter
e) cannot be determined

Q7. Karan has a brother ‘Prem’ and a sister Nisha.Karan’s wife is naaz and has a daughter
‘Naksha’. Naksha got married with Nisha’s Son Akbar and has a baby girl ‘Riya’. what is relation
between ‘Naksha’ and Nisha?(SSC CHSL 2015)
a) Sister
b) Niece and Aunt
c) Mother and Daughter
d) Mother and Granddaughter
e) none of these

Q8. Among her children, Ganga favourite are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of the sharat,
who is loved more by his uncle Mithun. the head of the family is Ram Lal, who is the succeeded
by his sons Gopal and Mohan.Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3
children. what is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?
Plutus Academy-(64)
(SSC CGL 2011)
a) Uncle
b) son
c) brother
d) no relation
e) none of these

Coded Form

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P @ Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’
P + Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’
P $ Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’
P % Q means ’P is the mother of Q’
P & Q means ’P is the father of Q’ (SBI Management Executive exam 2014)

Q9. Which of the following indicates that ‘D is niece of A’?
a) A+M%R$D@V
b) B&D$H+A%T
c) A$F%W@D%M
d) A+k&D@L$Q
e) none of these

Q10. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the expression ‘A+B@C&D?E’ if it
indicates that C is father in law of E?
a) &
b) %
c) $
d) +
e) @

Q11. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression
‘A%B@C+D$E%F’?
a) D is daughter of
b) C is paternal uncle of F
c) A is the father of C and E
d) A has two daughters and only one son.
e) None of these

Q12. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression?
‘B%C@D+E&F’?
a) E is the sister of C and D
Plutus Academy-(65)
b) C is aunt of E
c) D is daughter of B
d) B has two daughters
e) B is grandmother of F

Directions(13-15):
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A and Y are brothers of K.Y is the son of P and S.P is the daughter of X.M is the father in law of
S.Q is the son of X. (SBI Associate PO online Exam 2014)

Q13. If J is the brother of X,then how is J related to Q?
a) Uncle
b) Nephew
c) Cannot be determined
d) brother in law
e) son in law

Q14. How is Y related to M?
a) Nephew
b) Father
c) Brother in law
d) Grandson
e) Brother

Q15. How is K related to Q?
a) cannot be determined
b) niece
c) daughter
d) Nephew
e) Son-in-law

Q 16. Pointing to harish , seema says, “ he is the paternal grandfather of my eldest son
Mahesh.” how is harish related to seema?
a) Father -in law b) uncle c) Brother-in-law d) data inadequate

Q 17. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother or sister but that man's father is
my father's son." Whose photograph was it ?
a) Himself b) His Son c) His Father d) His grandfather

Plutus Academy-(66)
Q 18. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, ankita said, "He is the only son of the father of
my sister's brother." How is that person is related to Ankita ?
a) Anjali Father b)Anjali Mother c)Anjali Brother d)Maternal Uncle
Q 19. Pointing to a man, sarita said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the
sarita related to the man ?
a) Mother b)Daughter c)Sister d) GrandMother
Q 20. If B’s mother’s was A’s mother’s daughter, how was A related to B?
a) Uncle b) Auntc) sister d) data inadequate
Q 21. A is the father of B and C. B is son of A but C is not the son of A. how is C related with A?
a) Daughter b) Son c) Niece d) Nephew
Q 22. A is the mother of B. B’s father C has three children. Based on these information,which of
following is true?
a) C has three daughtersb) C has three sons c) B is a male child d) none .

Q23 .Pointing to a woman, Nitin said, "She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother."
How is the woman related to Nitin?
(a) Sister (b) Niece (c) Cousin (d) Data inadequate

Q 24. Pointing to a photograph, a man tells his friend, "She is the granddaughter of the elder
brother of my father." How is the girl in the photograph related to this man?
(a) Niece (b) Siste (c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law

Q 25. A man said to a woman, "Your mother's husband's sister is my aunt." How is the woman
related to the man?
(a) Daughter (b) Grand daughter (c) Mother (d) Sister

Q 26. Dipika said to sarita, “ your mother’s father’s own son is the husband of my sister”. How
dipika related to sarita.
a) Sister-in-law b) Cousin c) Aunt d) Data inadequate
Q27. Pointing to the lady in the photograph, Mrinalini said, “Her son’s father is the only
son-in-law of my mother”. How is Mrinalini related to the lady.
a) Sister b) Mother c) Cousin d)none
Plutus Academy-(67)
Q 28. Pointing to a photograph of Harish, Vijaya said, “The father of his sister is the husband of
my wife’s mother’. How is Vijaya related to Harish?
a)Brother b) Brother-in-law c) Uncle d) Data inadequate
Q (29-30). A is a retired officer. He has 3 childrens. His two sons C and E have only one sister D.
X and Y are the sister-in-law of D, E and C,D respectively. X and D have two children each. The
grandchildren of A and B are P,Q,R and S. P is the male sibling of Q. Q is the cousin sister of R, S.
S is husband of O. O has only one daughter Z. U and V are siblings( one male, one female). V is
the cousin sister of Z. P and R are Unmarried.

Q 29. If M is the father of V, how is he related to X.
a) Son-in-law b) son c) great grandson in law d) cousins

Q30 . If V grows up and gets married and has a baby girl K, then K will belongs to which
generation of the family starting from A?
a) First b) third c) fourth d) second

Q 31. K is sister of S. S is married to M. M is father of R. Q is son of P. S is mother-in-law of P. M
has only one son and no daughter. K is married to T. N is daughter of K.How is P related to M ?
a) Uncle b).Son c).Daughter in law d)Grandson

Q (32-34)In a family there are two fathers, two mothers, one sister, one brother, two daughter,
one mother-in-law, one daughter-in-law, two sister-in-law, one son, one grandfather, one
grandmother and one granddaughter.

Q 32.How many married couples are there in the family ?
a) three b) one c) two d) four

Q 33. How many female members are there in family?
a) Three b) two c) four d) one

Q34 .What is the maximum number of members in family?
a) 8 b) 7 c) 5 d) 6

Q35 . M is daughter of N and sister of L. K is daughter of L and granddaughter of G. F is
sister-in-law of M. L is only sibling of M.
How is K related to N ?
a) Grandson b)Granddaughter c)Daughter d)Daughter-in-law

Directions (36-37): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. P is
the husband of Q. R is the grandchild of P.P has only one child(son) who is married to T’s child.
T has only two children one son and one daughter. X is grandson of T. S is brother in law of son
of T. U and V are children of T. W is married to the son of T. X is son of U’s brother.
Plutus Academy-(68)
(SBI PO MAINS 2017)

Q36. If T is married to Y than how is T related to R?
(a) Grandfather (b) Grandmother (c) Maternal Grandfather
(d) Maternal Grandmother (e) Either (c) or (d)

Q37. How is X related to V?
(a) Son (b) Daughter (c) Son in law (d) Daughter in law (e) Husband

Q38. P's father is Q's son .M is the paternal uncle of P and N is the brother of Q .How is N
related to M? (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
(a) Brother (b) Nephew (c) Cousin (d) Data inadequate (e) None of the above

Q39. B is the husband of P. Q is the only grandson of E, Who is wife of D and mother - in-law of
P. How is B related to D? (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
(a) Cousin (b) Son -in-law (c) Son (d) Nephew (e) None of these

Q40. A retiring President was asked who would succeed him as head of the firm , and he replied
,"The father of my successor is my father's son, but I have no brothers or sons."Who will
succeed him ? (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
(a) Himself (b) His nephew (c) his Daughter (d) His sister

Q41. Looking at a portrait, a man said ,"That man's father is my father's son. Brothers and
Sisters I have none." At whose portrait was the man looking ? (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
(a) His own (b) His son's (c) His father's (d) His uncle's

Q42. Pointing to the lady in the photograph , Seema said, "Her son's father is the son-in-law of
my mother." How is Seema related to the lady? (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Cousin (d) Aunt

Directions (43-44): Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
R is the sister of Q. M is the father of R. V is the son of Q. C is the maternal grandfather of V. M
does not have married daughter. (IBPS PO Prelims 2017)

Q43. How is R related to V?
(a) Uncle
(b) Aunt
(c) Mother
(d) Can’t be determined
(e) Nephew

Q44. If B is married to Q, then how is B related to M?
(a) Grandson
Plutus Academy-(69)
(b) Son-in-law
(c) Son
(d) Daughter-in-law
(e) Can’t be determined

Blood Relations answer key

Q1=Son

Q2=

Answer-Mother
Q3=
Plutus Academy-(70)

Answer- Uncle

Q4

Answer-Niece

Q5

Answer-Mother and son

Q6
Plutus Academy-(71)

Number of Male-2
Number of Female-4
Answer-2,4,cannot be determined

Q7

Niece and Aunt

Q8

Answer-No Relation

Plutus Academy-(72)
Q9 @ Sister + Brother $ Husband % Mother & Father

a)A+M%R$D@V

Wrong Option

b)B&D$H+A%T
Wrong Option as ‘H’ is female.

c)A$F%W@D%M

Wrong option

d)A+k&D@L$Q

Answer-(d)

Q10.
Plutus Academy-(73)
Answer-(C) $

Q11.

Answer-(b) C is the paternal uncle of F
Q12.

Answer-(E) B is grandmother of F

Q13.(13-15)

Plutus Academy-(74)
Main Question Diagram

Q13.

Uncle
Q14.

Answer-(D)Grandson
Plutus Academy-(75)

Q15. Answer-(A) as we don’t know the gender of K.
Q16. A
Q17. B
Q 18. C
Q19. C
Q 20. D
Q 21. A
Q 22. D
Q23 A
Q24. A
Q25. D
Q26 C
Q27 D
Q28 B
Q29 A
Q30 C
Q31 C
Q32 C
Q33 D
Q34 D
Q35 B
Q36 E
Q37 A
Q38 E
Q39 C
Q40 A
Q41 A
Q42 A
Q43 B
Q44 D

For video solutions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3FDggje9GEk&t=207s
Plutus Academy-(76)

Distance and Direction

N(North)
NW NE
W(West) E(East)
SW SE
S(South)
In this chapter there are three important words to understand:

1. Distance : It is the measurement of the complete path from one point to
other.
2. Direction : It is the path to reach from one point to other.
3. Displacement : It is the direct measurement of the path between one point to
other.
There are Two types of Direction:

1. Main direction : North, South, East and West
2. Cardinal direction : The direction between two Main directions are called
cardinal direction. There are four cardinal directions namely : North-West,
North-East, South-West and South-East
Plutus Academy-(77)
Sunrise and Sunset case: Sun always Rises from the East and Sets in the West.
Shadow Cases: Two Cases -

Case 1: Morning (sunrise time)
● If a person is facing towards Sun, the shadow will be towards his back or in west.
● If a person is facing towards South, the shadow will be towards his right.
● If a person is facing towards West, the shadow will be towards his front.
● If a person is facing towards North, the shadow will be towards his left.

Case 2: Evening (Sunset time)
● If a person is facing towards Sun, the shadow will be towards his back or in East.
● If a person is facing towards North, the shadow will be towards his right.
● If a person is facing towards East, the shadow will be towards his front.
● If a person is facing towards South, the shadow will be towards his left.

Rotation of Angles :
There are angle movement questions in which it is required to have the knowledge of rotation of
angles.

Clockwise and anticlockwise rotation

Right direction movement is a movement of clockwise rotation whereas left direction
movement is a movement of anticlockwise rotation.

Plutus Academy-(78)
Types of Question
A)Distance & Direction Based
Ex1. A man left home and cycled 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5km and turned
right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10km.How many kilometers will he have to
cycle to reach his home straight?
Sol.= E 10km D------------- A
10km 10km
C 5km B
Clearly man cycled A->B=10km,then B->C=5km,then C->D=10km,then D->E=10km.
Then distance from A->E=ED+DA
10km+5km=15km
Ex2.-Komal walks 10 km towards North.From there she walks 6km towards south.then she
walks 3km towards east.How far is she from starting point?
Sol.= B
10km 6km
3km-→
C D
A AD=?
Clearly Komal moves a->B=10km,then B->C=6km,then C->D=3km.So,Komal ‘s distance from
starting point i.e A->D
AD²=AC²+CD² =>4²+3² =>25
AD= √25
Plutus Academy-(79)
=>5
Ex3. Sourabh walks 12m towards east then he turn to his right and moves 8m.then he turns to
his left and moves 6m again he turns to his left and moves 15m and finally he turns to his left
and moves 18m.Now towards how far is he from starting point and in which direction?
Sol.=Clearly saurabh walk A->B=12m,then B->C=8m,then C->D=6m,D->E=15m, then

E->F=18m.So,FA=ED-BC.=>15m-8m=>7m towards North.
F 18m E
A 12m B 15m
8m
C 6m D

Plutus Academy-(80)
B)Angle Based
Ex1. A man is facing south.He turns 135˚ in the anti clockwise direction and then 180˚ in the
clockwise direction.Which direction is he facing now
A 135˚
SW 180˚
C
Ex2. I am facing South.I turn 100˚ in the clockwise direction and then 145˚ in the anti clockwise
direction.Which direction am I facing now?
100˚
A SW(South East)
Plutus Academy-(81)
Exercise
Q1. Kittu walks towards East and then towards South. After walking some distance he turns
towards West and then turns to his left. In which direction is he walking now?
a)North b)South c)East d)West
Q2. A person is driving towards West. What sequence of directions should he follow so that he
is driving towards South?
a)left,right,right
b)right,right,left
c)left,left,left
d)right,right,right
Q3. Richa drives 8km to the south, turns left and drives 5km.Again, she turns left and drives
8km. How far is she from her starting point?
a)3km b)5km c)8km d)13km
Q4. Dingi runs 40 km towards North then turns right and runs 50km. He turns right and runs
30km, and once again turns right and runs 50km.How far is he from his starting point?
Q5. If North is called North-West,North-West is called West,West is called South-west and so
on.What will south-East be called?
a)East b)West c)North-East d)South-west
Q6. A man travels 100km towards South.From there he turns right and travels 100km and again
turns right to travel 50km. Which direction is he in from his starting point.
a)North b)North-east c)East d)South-West
Q7. A train runs 120km in west direction,30 km in south direction and then 80km in east
direction before reaching the station. In which direction is the station from the train’s starting
point?
a)South-West b)North-West c)South-East d)South
Q8. Facing the west direction, Priya jogs for 20m, turns left and goes further 40m.She turns left
again and jogs for 20m.Then she turns right to go 20 m to reach the park. how far is the park
from her starting point and in which direction?
Plutus Academy-(82)
a)20m South b)40m West c)60m South d)100m East
Q9.If all the directions are rotated i.e., North is changed to west and east to north and so on,
then what will come in place of North-West?
a)South-West b)North-East c)East-North d)East-West
Q10 A and B start together from one point. They walk 10km towards North, A turns left and
covers 5km whereas B turns right and covers his 15km. How far is A from B?
Answer Key
1)B 6)D
2)D 7)A
3)B 8)C
4)C 9)A
5)A 10)D
Previous year Questions with Answer Key

Q1.Prabir started walking towards South. He took a right turn after walking 10 meters. He again
took a left turn after walking 20 meters .which direction is he facing now? (Bank PO Exam2011)
a)South b)North c)West d)East e)Cannot be determined
Q2.Alok walked 30 meters towards east and took a right turn and walked 40 meters. He again
took right turn and walked 50 meters. Towards which direction is he from his starting point?
(Bank PO Exam 2010)
a)South b)West c)South-West d)South-East e)None of these
Q3.A and B standing at a distance of 20 km. From each other on a straight East-West road. A
and B start walking simultaneously ,eastwards and westwards respectively, and both cover a
distance of 5km. Then A turns to his left and walks 10km.B turns to his right and walks 10 km,
at the same speed. Then both turn to their left and cover a distance of 5km, at the same speed.
What will be the distance between them? (Bank PO Exam 2009)
a)10km b)5km c)20km d)25km e)None of these
Plutus Academy-(83)
Q4.Maya starts at point T, walks straight to point U which is 4 feet away .She turns left at 90˚
right and walks to W which is 4 ft away, turns 90˚ right and goes 3 feet to P, turns 90˚ right and
walks 1 feet to Q, turns left at 90˚ and goes to V, which is 1 feet away and once again turns 90˚
right and goes to R, 3 feet away. What is the distance between T and R? (SSC 2003)
a)4 feet b)5 feet c)7 feet d)8 feet
Q5.Namita walks 14 meters towards west, then turns to her right and walks 14 meters and then
turns to her left and walks 10 meters. Again turning to her left she walks 14 meters. What is the
shortest distance (in meters) between her starting point and the present position? (SSC 2002)
a)10 b)24 c)28 d)38
Q6.You go North, turn right ,then right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you
now?(SSC 2002)
Q7.Rohan walks a distance of 3 km towards North, then turns to his left and walks for 2km. He
again turns left and walks for 3 km. At this point he turns to his left and walks for 3km. how
many kilometers is he from the starting point?(SSC 2005)
Answer Key:
1.A 6.C
2.C 7.A
3.A
4.D
5.B

Plutus Academy-(84)
Practice Set
Q1.Kanika walks 12 m towards east, then turns to her right and walks 10m.she turns right and
walks 12m.Again turning to her left she walks 5m.What is the shortest distance(in metres)
between her starting point and the present position?
a)10 b)24 c)15 d)17
Q2.Rani walks towards West and then towards South. After walking some distance he turns
towards East and then turns to his left. In which direction is he walking now?
Q3.A man is facing North. He turns 120˚ in the anticlockwise direction & then 75˚ in clockwise
direction then turn 135˚ in anticlockwise direction. which direction is he facing now.
a)North-East b)South c)South-East d)South-West
Q4.A person is driving towards West. What sequence of directions should he follow so that he is
driving towards South?
a) left, right, right
b) right, right, left
c) left, left, left
d) right, right, right
Q5.A biker rides the bike 20km towards East. From there he ride 17 km towards West. Then he
takes left and ride 4km.How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
a)5km South b)5km South-East c)7km East d)7km West
Q6.Meenu drives 8km to the south, turns left and drives 5km. Again, she turns left and drives
8km. How far is she from her starting point?
Q7.A student is searching an institute. He went 60m in west. Then he turns right & walks
30m.Then he walks 30m towards his right. Again he turns left &walk 10m.Finally before
reaching the institute he takes right turn and walks 60m.How far did the student from the
starting point?
a)60m b)70m c)50m d)40m
Plutus Academy-(85)
Q8.Deepak runs 40 km towards North then turns right and runs 50km. He turns right and runs
30km, and once again turns right and runs 50km.How far is he from his starting point?
Q9.Ravi is standing at point P and facing towards East. He walks straight to point Q which is 5
feet away. He turns left to reach the point R by walking 4ft. Again he turns 90˚ right & goes 3ft to
reach the point S. Again He turns 90˚ right and walks 4 feet & reach the destination T. Now, how
far is he from the starting point?
a)7 feet b)9feet c)6feet d)8feet
Q10.If north is called North-West, North-West is called West, West is called South-west and so
on. What will south-East be called?
a)East b)West c)North-East d)South-west
Q11.I am facing North. I turn 95˚ to clockwise direction & then 155˚ in anticlockwise direction.
Again 75˚ in anticlockwise direction. Which direction am I facing now?
a)North-West b)South-West c)South-East d)North-East
Q12.Gaurav travels 100km towards South. From there he turns right and travels 100km and
again turns right to travel 50km. Which direction is he in from his starting point?
a)North b)North-east c)East d)South-West
Q13.Sunil walked 25m towards South. Then he turned his right & walked 40m .then he turned to
his right and walked 55m.Now, How far & in which direction is he from the starting position?
a)30 North-East b)30 North c)40 North d)30 South-East
Q14.A Bus runs 120km in west direction, 30 km in south direction and then 80km in east
direction before reaching the destination. In which direction is the destination from the Bus’s
starting point?
a)South-West b)North-West c)South-East d)South
Q15.Lokesh started walking from his office and covers 5km.Then he turns his left and cover
8km and then turns to his right 45˚ and covers 8 km. Finally turns to his left and covers 3km and
observe that at last he was going towards which south direction. Find out from which direction
he starts walking?
a)North-East b)North-West c)South-East d)South-West
Plutus Academy-(86)
Q16.Facing the west direction, Nancy jogs for 20m, turns left and goes further 40m.She turns
left again and jogs for 20m.Then she turns right to go 20 m to reach the park. How far is the
park from her starting point and in which direction?
a)20m South b)40m West c)60m South d)100m East
Q17.A train facing west direction & travels 60km.Then it takes right turn & travels 40km.Then it
takes right turn & travel 90km to reach the destination. Find the straight distance to reach the
starting point from the destination point?
Q18.If all the directions are rotated i.e., North is changed to west and east to north and so on,
then what will come in place of North-West?
a)South-West b)North-East c)East-North d)East-West
Q19.Point A is on the west of Point B. Point C is on the east of Point A. Point D is on the west of
Point B. Point C is on the east of Point E. If Point D is on the west of Point A, in which direction
from Point C is Point D.
a)East b)West c)North d)South
Q20.A and B start together from one point. They walk 10km towards North, A turns left and
covers 5km whereas B turns right and covers his 15km. How far is A from B?
Q21.after starting from a point, Dewakar walks 3km towards East, then turning to his left he
moves 3km.After this he again turns left and moves 3km.Which choice given below indicates
the correct direction in which he is from his starting point?
a)North b)East c)West d)South
Q22.Sourabh walks 12m towards east then he turn to his right and moves 8m.then he turns to
his left and moves 6m again he turns to his left and moves 15m and finally he turns to his left
and moves 18m.Now towards how far is he from starting point and in which direction?
a)7m towards North b)7m towards south c)8m towards West d)8m towards East
Q23.Somya is facing North. She turns right and make an angle of 135˚.then she make an angle
180 ˚ in anticlockwise direction. Which direction she is facing now?
a)North b)North-West c)East d)West
Plutus Academy-(87)
Q24.A dog is trying to catch a rat and runs 20m towards east and turns to right, runs 10m and
turns to right, runs 9 and again turns to left, runs 5m and then turns to left, runs 12 and finally
turns to left and runs 6m.Now,which direction is the dog facing?
a)South b)West c)East d)North
Q25.I went 15m to the west from my house, then turned left and walked 20m.Again I turned to
the East and walked 25m and finally ,turning to left, I covered 20m.In which direction am I from
my house?
a)10m b)5m c)80m d)40m
Answer Key

1)15
2)South
3)South
4)right,right,right
5)5km South-East
6)5km
7)50m
8)10km
9)8feet
10)East
11)South-West
12)South-West
13)North-West
14)South-West
15)North-West
16)60m South
17)50km
18)South-West
19)West
20)8km
21)North
22)7m towards North
23)North-west
24)North
25)10m

For video solutions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=of5WnNYIrEU&t=8s
Plutus Academy-(88)
Coded Distance and Direction:
Direction (1-4): Read the questions carefully and answer the following questions. (IBPS PO
MAINS 2017)
P@Q: P is to the west of Q; P is either 2 or 12 km west of Q.
P#Q: P is to the east of Q; P is either 2 or 12 km east of Q.
P$Q: P is to the North of Q; P is either 5 or 9 km north of Q.
P&Q: P is to the south of Q; P is either 5 or 9 km south of Q.
P@$Q: P is to the north west of point Q.
(Note: Distance between P and Q is not known).
P&#Q: P is to the south east of Point Q.
(Note: Distance between P and Q is not known).

1. P@Q, R&#P, Q$R. If the distance between P and R is 13 find the distance between Q and R?
A. 12 B. 2 C. 5 D. 9 E. None of these

2. U @Q, U$T, T#S, R#T, which of the following cannot be the distance between S and R?
A. 14 B. 24 C. 4 D. 16 E. None of these

3. S@$T, T@Z, X&Z; X is in which direction with respect to S?
A. North east B. South east C. South west D. North west E. None of these

4. S&#T, T#Q, R@$Q; What is the position of R with respect to S?
A. North east B. North west C. North D. South E. South west
Solution:
1. Ans. C
P@Q means P is to the west of Q; P is either 2 or 12 km west of Q
R&#P means R is to the south east of Point P.
Q$R means Q is to the North of R; Q is either 5 or 9 km north of R.
By the given statements,
Now only condition satisfying the given condition will be only if the distance between
P and Q = 12
Q and R = 5
By Pythagoras theorem,
PR ² = PQ ² + QR ²
13 ²= 12 ² + 5 ²
169= 169
Hence option c is the right answer.

2 Ans. D
U @Q means U is to the west of Q; U is either 2 or 12 km west of Q.
U$T means U is to the North of T; U is either 5 or 9 km north of T.
T#S means T is to the east of S; T is either 2 or 12 km east of S.
R#T means R is to the east of T; R is either 2 or 12 km east of T.
Plutus Academy-(89)
By the given statements.
From the given combinations,
Distance between S and R can be
i. 2+12=14
ii. 12+12=24
iii. 2+2= 4
Combination of 16 cannot be possible.
Hence option D is the right answer.

3. Ans. B
S@$T means S is to the north west of point T.
T@Z means T is to the west of Z; T is either 2 or 12 km west of Z
X&Z means X is to the south of Z; X is either 5 or 9 km south of Z
By the given statements:
Clearly X is in South east of point S.
Hence option b is the right answer.

4. Ans. B
S&#T; S is to the south east of Point T.
T#Q; T is to the east of Q; T is either 2 or 12 km east of Q.
R@$Q; R is to the north west of point Q.
By the given statements;
Clearly, R is to the northwest of point S.

Plutus Academy-(90)
ORDER AND RANKING

Type 1. To Find Total Number of Person in a Row
Total Number of Person= (Persons From Left+ Person From Right) - 1
Ex: In a Class A is 17th from the top and 33rd from bottom. How many students are there in the
class?
Solution = 17+33-1=>29
Position of a Person From One Side = ( Total Person- Position of Person From Given Side)+1
Ex: In a class of 50 students A is 17th from the top, what its position from the bottom?
Solution= (50-17)+1=>34
Type 2. To find Number Of Person Between two or more than two persons
● When there is no overlapping and find person between them
Total Persons-(sum of position of persons from both the sides.)
Ex: In a class of 50 students A is 15th from the top and S is 15th from the bottom. How many
student are there between A and S?
Solution: 50-(15+15) => 20
● When there is a overlapping between the persons
(Sum of positions of two different persons from both side) - Total number of person - 2.
Example: In a class of 50 students A is 35th from the top and S is 35th from the bottom. How
many students are there between A and S?
Solution : (35+35)- 50-2=>18
Type 3. If Total number of person asked and position of different persons are given, it is always
a case of “ cannot be determine”
Type 4. If positions are interchange.

Example: In a row Vivek is 12th from left side of row and Jitesh is 18th from right side of row. If
they interchange their positions vivek become 25th from left. Then Find
1. New Position of Jitesh From right.
2. Total number of person
3. Number of Persons Between them.
Solution:1. As Vivek position changes from 12 to 25 from left end so there is an increase of 13
rank so new position of jitesh from right side = 18+13=>31
2. Total no. of person
As vivek Position changes from 12 to 25 from lft means person from left are 11+ 13=> 24
add all left and right persons= 24+17+1=> 42 Total person.
3. Number of person between Them
(Position of Vivek from left after interchange- Position of vivek before interchange)-1
(25-12)-1=>12
In this type of questions, we have to identify the position of given person or sequence of order
(ascending, descending...etc.) of persons
Plutus Academy-(91)
EXERCISE

Q1.In a class of 50 students A is 17th from the top,what its position from the bottom?

Q2.In a Class A is 17th from the top and 33rd from bottom. How many students are there in the
class?

Q3.In a class of 50 students A is 15th from the top and S is 15th from the bottom.How many
student are there between A and S?

Q4.In a class of 50 students A is 35th from the top and S is 35th from the botttom.How many
students are there between A and S?

Q5.In a class Amit is 11th from the left.Suraj is 15th from the right if their positions are
interchange then the rank of amit from left is 15th.
(i)How many students are there in a class?
(ii)What is suraj’s rank from the right after interchange
(ii)How many students are there b/w Amit and Suraj?

Q6.Four kinds P,Q,R and S are up on the ladder.P is further up the ladder than Q,Q is between P
and R.If S is further up than P,who is the third from the bottom?(SSC 2012)
a)Q b)R c)P d)S

Q7.Priti scored more than rahul.yamuna scored as much as divya .Lokita scored less than
Manju.Rahul scored more than yamuna.Manju scored less than divya.Who scored the
lowest?(SSC CGL 2013)
a)Rahul b)Manju c)Yamuna d)Lokita

Q8.Akshay is 16th from the left end in the row of boys and vijay is 18th from the right
end.Avinash is 11th from akshay towards the right end and 3rd from vijay towards the right
end.How many boys are there in the row?(bank PO 2004)
a)Data inadequate b)42 c)40 d)48 e)None of these

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
There are five men,Anuj,Kunal,Sourav,Rahul and Harish.The one who is tallest is not the
youngest.Kunal is older than only Harish.Sourav is older than Rahul but shorter than him.Only
one person is taller than Rahul.Anuj is shortest while younger than only Sourav and Rahul.Only
two men are shorter than Sourav.
Q9.Which of the following men is third tallest of the five?
a)Sourav b)Rahul c)Harish d)Kunal e)Kunal or Rahul

Q10.Who among the following men is tallest?
a)Sourav b)Rahul c)Kunal d)Harish e)Sourav or Harish
Plutus Academy-(92)

Q11. If the five men are made to stand in a line according to the height,first in ascending
order,then in descending order,then whose position will remain the same in both arrangement?
a)Harish b)Rahul c)Kunal d)Sourav e)Rahul and Anuj

Q12. Who among the following is older than kunal but younger than Rahul?
a)Harish b)Sourav c)Anuj d)Data Inadequate e)Sourav or Anuj

Q13. Who among the following is taller than Anuj only?
a)Sourav b)Harish c)Rahul d)Kunal e)Kunal or Harish

Q14. Five birds Crow,Pigeon,Little Pigeon,Big Crow and Eagle fly one after the other from a tree
branch.Big Crow flew after Crow but is ahead of Eagle.pigeon is between Crow and Big
Crow.Little Pigeon is before crow.Which bird is the Last?
a)Pigeon b)Big Crow c)Eagle d)none of these

Q15. In a row of trees one tree is the 7th from either end of the row.how many trees are there in
the row?(SSC steno 2011)
a)11 b)13 c)15 d)14

Q16. Suit ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is his rank from the last?
a) 18 b) 19 c) 31 d) 32
Q17. How many 6s are there in the following number series, each of which is immediately
preceded by 1 or 5 and immediately followed by 3 or 9.
2 6 3 7 5 6 4 2 9 6 1 3 4 1 6 3 9 1 5 6 9 2 31 6 5 4 3 2 1 9 6 7 1 6 3
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three
Q18. Bharat is 8 ranks ahead of Divya who ranks 26 in a class of 42. What is Bharat’s rank
from the last?
a) 9th b) 24th c) 25th d) 34th
Q19. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in
the row ?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
Q 20. In a queue, Amrit is 10th from the top while Mohit is 25th from bottom and Meena is just in
the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue. What position does Meena occupy
from the top ?
a) 18th b) 19th c) 20th d) 15th
Q21. In a row of girls, Shilpi is eighth from the left and Rita is seventeenth from the right. If they
interchange their positions, Shilpi becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are there in
the row?
a) 34 b) 35 c) 30 d) 37
Plutus Academy-(93)
Q22. In a row of thirty five children, A is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children
between A and B. What is B's position from the left end of the row?
a) 15 b) 5 c) 30 d) Data inadequate
Q23.In the series given below,count the number of 9s,each of which is not immediately
preceded by 5 but is immediately followed by either 2 or 3.How many such 9s are there?
1 9 2 6 5 9 3 8 3 9 3 2 5 9 2 9 3 4 8 2 6 9 8
a) One b)Three c)Five d)Six
Q24. In a row of girls Kamala is 11th from the front. Neelam is 3 places ahead of Soni who is
22nd from the front. How many girls are there between Kamala and Neelam in the row?
a) Six b) Eight c) Seven d) Cannot be determined
Q25 In a row of 40 students facing North, Kaitan is 6th to the left of Suman. If Suman is 30th
from the left end of the row, how far is Kaitan from the right end of the row?
a) 17 b) 16 c) 15 d) 26
Q26. In a row of Girls, there are 16 girls between Priya and Natasha. priya is 32nd from the lft
end of the row. If Priya is nearer than Natasha from the right end of the row, then how far away
is natasha from the left end of the row?
a) 14th b) 15th c) 16th d) data inadequate
Q27. If Ankit finds that he is twelfth from the right and forth from the left , how many boys should
be added to the queue so that there are 28 boys in the line?
a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 20
Q28. Mohan is older than Prabir, Suresh is younger than Prabir. Mihir is older than Suresh but
younger than Prabir. Who among the four is the youngest?
a) Prabir b) Mihir c) Mohan d) Suresh
Q29. In a class of 10 girls and 20 boys, Jayanti’s rank is 4 among the girls and 18 in the class.
What is Jayanti’s rank among the boys in the class?
a) Cannot be determined b) 16 c) 14 d) 15
Q30. Among M, N, P, R and T each one has secured different marks in an examination. R
secured more marks than M and T. N secured less marks than P. Who among them secured
third highest marks?
a) N b) R c) M d) None
Q31. Among A, B, C, D and E each having a different weight, D is heavier than A and E and B
is lighter than C. Who among them is the heaviest?
a) D b) B c) C d) Data inadequate
Plutus Academy-(94)
Q32. In a class, among the passed students, Amisha is twenty-second from the top and Sajal,
who is 5 ranks below Amisha, is thirty-fourth from the bottom. All the students from the class
have appeared for the exam. If the ratio of the students who passed in the exam to those who
failed is 4 : 1 in that class, how many students are there in the class?
a) 60 b) 75 c) 90 d) Data inadequate
Q33 In a row of girls, there are 16 girls between Priyanka and Nita. Priyanka is thirty-second
from the left end of the row. If Priyanka is nearer than Nita to the right end of the row, then how
far away is Nita from the left end of the row?
a) Data inadequate (b) 14th (c) 15th (d) 16th
Q34. In a row of boys, if A who is tenth from the left and B who is ninth from the right
interchange their positions, A becomes fifteenth from the left. How many boys are there in the
row?
a) 23 b) 27 c) 28 d) 31
Q35. In a row of 40 boys, Satya was shifted 10 places to the right of Rohit and Kewat was
shifted 10 places to the left of Vikas. If Vikas was twenty-sixth from the left and there were three
boys between Kewat and Satya after shifting, what was the position of Rohit in the row?
a) 10th from the right end b) 10th from the left end c) 39th from the right end d)
Data inadequate

Answer Key-
1.Sol-Total student=50
A’s position from top=17
50-17=33
33+1=34th (A’s rank from the bottom).

2.Sol-A’s position from the top=17
A’s position from the bottom=33
Total =50
Total student=50-1=49

3.A’s position from the top=15
S’s position from the bottom=15
total=30
50-30=20
4.Solution-Total students=50
Both positions=35+35=70
70is more than 50,so it is overlapping case.then
70-50=20
Plutus Academy-(95)
20-2=18
5.
(i)S rank=15(before interchange)
A rank=15(after interchange)
15+15=30-1(29)total student

(ii)Amit rank from left is 11 before interchange
=29-11=18+1=19
19 rank from right of Amit

(iii)total number of student between A and S=3.there are two method to find this.
(a)29-(15+11)=3
(b)11-----15.there are only 3 student i.e 12,13,14.
6.Answer-P
7.Answer-Lokita
8.Answer-None of these as no of boys are-41
9.Answer-Sourav
10.Ans-Kunal
11.Ans-Sourav
12.Ans-Anuj
13.Ans-Harish
14.Ans-Little Pigeon->Crow->Pigeon->Big Crow->Eagle
15.Answer=13
16. 32
17. d
18. 25
19. b
20. a
21. c
22. d
23. b
24. d
25. a
26 c
27 b
28 d
29 d
30 d
31 d
32 b
33 c
34 a
35 d
Plutus Academy-(96)
SYLLOGISM

In Syllogism Questions, Some statements are given followed by some conclusions. We have to
examine all statements carefully and check that given conclusions follows or not.

Ex-

Statements-
------------------------------
------------------------------
------------------------------
Conclusions-
-----------------------------
-----------------------------
-----------------------------

Types of Statement-

1) According to Positivity or Negativity-
a) Positive type statements- Positive types statements include below types-
i) All and ii) Some
b) Negative type statements- Negative types statements include below types-
i) Some not and ii) No/All not
2) According to truthness
a) Definitely true or 100% true
b) Possibility
c) Definitely false or 100% false

A) Syllogism with Definitely truth statements-

In Normal Situation, you will see 4 types of statement in the questions.
1) All A are B
2) Some A are B
3) No A are B
4) Some A are not B

Now we will see according to these statements which conclusions will follow or true by using
venn diagram .

Plutus Academy-(97)
1. Statement: All A are B
Conclusions: All A are B ✔

Some A are B ✔
Some B are A ✔
Some A are not B ×
Some B are not A ×
All B are A ×
No A are B ×
No B are A ×
2. Statement: Some A are B
Conclusions: Some A are B ✔

Some B are A ✔
Some A are not B ×
Some B are not B ×
All A are B ×
All B are A ×
No A are B ×
No B are A ×
Plutus Academy-(98)
3. Some A are not B
Conclusions: Some A are not B ✔
4. No A are B or All A are not B
Conclusions: No A are B ✔
No B are A ✔
Some A are not B ✔
Some B are not A ✔
Some A are B×
Some B are A ×
All A are B ×
All B are A ×
There are certain statements which consist of ‘atleast some’, ‘few’, ‘many’, ‘more’ , ‘very few’, any
percentage from 1 to 99 can be converted into ‘some’ type stattement.
Also, you might find a statement “Only A are B” which can be converted into “All A are B”
Plutus Academy-(99)
(B) Conditions for ‘Either- Or’
1) Requires same subject and predicate in two different conclusion.
2) Relation must not be clear between the subject and predicate(doubtful conclusion).
3) One conclusion must be positive and another one must be negative..
4) ‘Either-or’ is not allowed between ‘All’ type and ‘No’ type conclusion
5) Cases in which we can say either can come-
a) Some (+ statement) and No (- negative statement)
b) All (+ statement) and Some not (- negative statement)
c) Some(+ statement) and Some not (- negative statement)
Statements: Some number are alphabets.

No Alphabets are vowel.
Conclusion: Some number are not vowel. ×
Some number are vowel.×
Individually they are wrong but forms complementary pairs hence either will follow.
(C) Condition for “No Statement”-

In No statements we expand the figure to check whether a figure can enter in other figure or not.
Example:
Statements: Some number are alphabets
No alphabets are vowel
Conclusions: No vowel are numbers ×

No number are vowel ×
All vowels are numbers ×
All numbers are vowel ×
Plutus Academy-(100)
Previous year Questions:-
Directions: In each of the following questions below are given some statements followed by
some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows:
Q1. Statements: All building are rains

All paper are building
All dogs are paper
Conclusions:
A. All dogs are rains
B. Some papers are rains
C. Some rains are building
D. Some rain are papers (Bank PO 2005)

Q2. Statements: All pencils are birds
All birds are skies
All skies are hills
Conclusions:
A. All pencils are hills
B. All hills are birds
C. All skies are pencils
D. All birds are hills (SBI PO 2005)

Q3. Statements: Some fruits are flowers
No flower is a boat
All boats are rivers
Conclusions:
A. Some fruits are river
B. Some river are boats
C. Some river are fruits
D. Some flower are fruits (SBI PO 2002)

Q4. Statements: Some numbers are digits
All digits are alphabets
No alphabet is vowel
All consonants are vowels
Conclusions:
A. No digit is a vowel
B. No alphabet is a consonant
C. No vowel is a number
D. All vowels are numbers. (IBPS PO 2013)
Q5. Statements: Some flowers are skies
Some skies are rooms
Some room are window
Conclusions:
A. Some windows are skies
B. Some rooms are flowers
C. No sky is window

Q6. Statements: No group is people
All people are animals
All animals are plants
All plants are roots
Conclusions:
A. No group is plant
B. All people are plants
C. At least some group are plants
D. All plants are groups (IBPS PO 2013)

Q7. Statements: All documents are files
Some files are papers
All papers are certificates
No certificate is a manuscript
Conclusions:
A. At least some documents are papers
B. No manuscript is a document
C. At least some certificates are files
D. No paper is a document (IBPS PO 2013)

Q8. Statements: Some jobs are vacancies
All jobs are works
No work is trade
All professions are trades
Conclusions:
A. At least some works are jobs
B. No vacancy is a trade
C. No professions is a work
D. At least some works are professions (IBPS PO 2013)

Q9. Statements: All marks are grades
No grade is a score
All letters are scores
All scores are characters

Conclusions:
A. At least some letters are grades
B. At least some scores are grades
C. At least some characters are marks
D. Some characters are letters (IBPS PO 2013)

Q10. Statements: Some spoon are bowls
All bowls are knives
All knives are forks
Conclusions:
A. All spoon are forks
B. All bowls are forks
C. Some knives are bowls
D. Some forks are spoon (Bank PO 2006)

Q11. Statements: Some tigers are lions
Some lions are rabbit
Some rabbits are horses
Conclusions:
A. Some tigers are horses
B. Some rabbits are tigers
C. Some horses are lions
D. All horses are rabbits (RBI 2004)

Q12. Statements: No Man is sky
No sky is road
Some men are roads
Conclusions:
A. No road is Man
B. No road is sky
C. Some skies are men
D. All roads are men (Bank PO 2003)

Q13. Statements: All jungles are tigers
Some jungles are horses.
Conclusions:
A. Some horses are jungles
B. No horse is jungle. (Bank PO 2005)

Q14. Statements: All huts are mansions
All mansions are temples
Conclusions:

A. Some Temple are huts
B. Some temples are mansions
C. All huts are temples
D. All temple are huts (RBI 2003)

Q15. Statements: All pens are chalks
All chairs are chalks
Conclusions:
A. some pens are chairs
B. some chalks are pens (Bank PO 2005)

Q16. Statements: No bat is ball
No ball is wicket
Conclusions:
A. No bat is wicket
B. All wickets are bats (MAT 2003)

Q17. Statements: No Man is Donkey
A is a Man
Conclusions:
A. A is not donkey
B. All men are not A

Q18. Statements: All rods are bricks
Some bricks are ropes
All ropes are doors
Conclusion:
A. Some rods are doors
B. Some rods are not doors
C. Some doors are bricks
D. All doors are ropes (Bank PO 2000)

Q19. Statements: All A are B
All B are C
No C is D
Conclusion:
A. No D is A
B. No A is B

Q20. Statements: All building are houses
No house is apartment
All apartments are flats

Conclusion:
A. No Flat is a house
B. All apartments are flats (Allahabad Bank PO 2011)

Q21. Statements: Some leaves are fruits
All branches are fruits
Some roots are branches
Conclusion:
A. Some roots are fruits
B. Some branches are leave
C. No leaf is branch
D. Some leaves are roots (Bank PO)

Q22. Statements: No Tree is fruit
All fruits are stones
All stones are rains
Conclusion:
A. No stone is tree
B. No rain is tree
C. Some rain are fruits
D. Some rain are tree (Bank PO )

Q23. Statements: All Petals are flower
Some flower are buds
Some buds are leaves
All leaves are plants
Conclusion:
A. Some petals are not buds
B. Some flower are plants
C. No flower is plant (Bank PO)

Q24. Statements: No Book is paper
All paper are red
Conclusion:
A. Some books are red
B. Some red are paper
C. Some red are not paper
D. Some paper are white (Bank PO)

Q25. Statements: Some cars are bikes
No bike is fast
Conclusion:
A. Some bikes are cars
B. Some fast are cars
C. Some cars are not bikes
D. All fast are cars (Bank PO)

Syllogism with Possibility
In this type of questions, conclusions will be in possibility. we have to check these conclusions
(true or Not)as we check conclusions of “No Case”.
The possibility conclusions will contain below keywords-

Can be, can never be, may be, is being etc.
‘Can be’/ “is a possibility”/ “may be” type conclusions only follows for conclusion where
relation is not clear between the subject and predicate.
‘Can never be’ type conclusion only follows for a conclusion that is definitely false.(100% false
conclusion)
Tricks:-
1) If Statement is 100% true then conclusion can’t be 100% false.
2) Some Case:
Statement: Some A are B
Conclusions: Some A are B is a possibility X
Some B are A is a possibility X
Some A are not B is a possibility ✔
Some B are not A is a possibility ✔
All A are B is a possibility ✔
All B are A is a possibility ✔
3) All Case:
Statement: All A are B
Conclusions: All B are A is a possibility X
Some B are not A is a possibility ✔
4) Not Case:
Statement: No conclusion with possibility follow
Previous year Question and Examples
Q1. Statements: All gliders are parachutes
No Parachutes is an airplane
All airplane are helicopters
Conclusions: No helicopter is a glider
All parachutes being helicopter is a possibility
No glider is an airplane
All gliders being helicopter is a possibility (Bank PO)
Q2. Statements: Some mails are chtas

All updates are chats
Conclusions: All mails being updates is a possibility
No update is a mail (Bank PO)
Q3. Statements: No Stone is metal

Some metals are papers
All papers are glass
Conclusions: No glass is metal
At least some glasses are metals
All stone being glass is a possibility
No stone is paper (Bank PO)
Q4. Statements: Some exams are tests

No exam is a question
Conclusions: No question is a test
Some tests are definitely not exams (Bank PO)
Q5. Statements: All forces are energies

All energies are power
No power is heat
Conclusions: Some forces are definitely not power
No heat is force
No energy is heat
Some force being heat is a possibility (Bank PO)
Q6. Statements: No note is coin

Some coins are metals
All plastics are notes
Conclusions: No coin is plastic
All plastic being metal is a possibility
No metal is plastic
All notes are plastics (Bank PO)
Q7. Statements: All building are houses
No house is an apartment
All apartments are flats
Conclusions: No flat is a house
No building is an apartment
All building being flat is a possibility
All apartments being buildings is a possibility (Allahabad Bank PO)
Q8. Statements: All TV are LCD

Some LCD are LED
Conclusions: Some LED are TV
All TV being LED is a possibility (Bank PO)
Q9. Statements: Some parrots are peacocks

No peacocks are sparrows
Conclusions: All sparrow being a parrot is a possibility
At least some sparrow are peacocks
Q10. Statements: Some planes are ships

No ship is a radar
All cars are radars
Conclusions: No car is a ship
All radars being planes is a possibility (NIACL AO Exam 2015 )
REVERSE SYLLOGS
In Reverse syllogs, two conclusion are given followed by two or more statement. You have to
identify which statements can the conclusions be derived from.
Tip: These questions should be tackled by omitting the options.
Direction (1-2): Each question consists of some conclusion followed by five statements.
Consider the given conclusion to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide from which statement, the conclusion can
be possible.
1. Conclusion:
No toxic is injection.
Some injection are glucose.
Statement:
(a) All toxic are tablet. No tablet is glucose. Some glucose are medicine. All medicine are
injection
(b) Some toxic are tablet. All tablet are injection. Some injection are glucose. All glucose are
medicine
(c) All tablet are toxic. No injection is toxic. Some glucose are injection. All glucose are
medicine.
(d) Some injection are toxic. All injection are tablet. Some toxic are glucose. All glucose are
medicine
(e) Some medicine are toxic. Some toxic are injection. Some injection are tablet. All tablet are
glucose

2.Conclusion:
Some clock are watch.
Some wheel are buses.
Statement:
(a) All watch are clocks. Some clocks are tyres. Some tyres are wheels. Some wheels are buses.
(b) Some watch are wheel. All wheel are tyre. Some tyre are buses. All buses are clock
(c)Some buses are tyre. Some tyre are clock. All clock are watch. Some watch are wheel
(d)All tyre are buses. Some buses are wheel. Some wheel are clock. No clock is watch.
(e)Some buses are watch. Some watch are tyre. Some tyre are clock. Some clock are wheel

Direction (3-10): In each group of questions below are two conclusions followed by five set of
statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that logically satisfies given
conclusions. Given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts.
3. Conclusions:
All dogs being monkeys is a possibility.

Some Monkeys are Cats is a possibility
Statements:
1. All dogs are cats. No cat is Pig. All Pigs are Monkeys.
2. No Cat is dog. No dog is Monkey. No Monkey is pig.
3. All dogs are cats. No dog is Pig. No cat is monkey.
4. All Cats are dogs. No cat is Pig. No dog is Monkey.
5. All dogs are cats. No cat is Monkey. All Pigs are Monkeys.
A. Only Statements – 1
B. Only Statements – 2
C. Only Statements – 3
D. Only Statements – 4
E. Only Statements – 5

4. Conclusions:
No teacher is a lawyer.
All doctors are students.
Statements:
1: All Students are teachers. All teachers are doctors. No doctor is a lawyer.
2: All doctors are teachers. All teachers are students. Some Students are lawyers.
3: All doctors are teachers. No teachers is student. Some Students are lawyers.
4: All doctors are teachers. All teachers are students. No Student is a lawyer
5: All doctors are teachers. No teachers is student. No Student is a lawyer.

5. Conclusions:
At least some hills being lake is a possibility.
Some mountains are hills.
Statements:
1:All Hills are Mountains. All hills are rivers. No hill is a lake.
2: All Hills are Mountains. All Mountains are rivers. No river is a lake.
3: Some Hills are Mountains. Some hills are rivers. No hill is a lake.
4: Some Hills are Mountains. All Mountains are rivers. No hill is a lake.
5: All Hills are Mountains. Some hills are rivers. No river is a lake.

6. Conclusions:
Atleast some beans are carrot.
Some brinjals being carrot is a possibility
Statements:
1: All carrots are beans. Some beans are apples. No brinjal is Carrot.
2: No carrots is beans. Some beans are brinjals. No brinjal is apple.
3: All carrots are beans. Some beans are brinjals. No brinjal is apple.
5: All carrots are beans. Some beans are apples. No brinjal is carrot.


7. Conclusions:
Atleast some beans are carrot.
Some brinjals being carrot is a possibility
Statements:
1: All carrots are beans. Some beans are apples. No brinjal is Carrot.
3: All carrots are beans. Some beans are brinjals. No brinjal is apple.
5: All carrots are beans. Some beans are apples. No brinjal is carrot.


8. Conclusions:
All Donkeys being Tigers is a possibility
All Monkeys being Tigers is a possibility
Statements:
1: All monkeys are Donkeys. No Donkey is Tiger. All elephants are Tigers
2: All monkeys are Donkeys. No Donkey is elephant. All elephants are Tigers
3: Some monkeys are Donkeys. No Donkey is Tiger. All elephants are Tigers
4: No monkey is Tiger. No Donkey is elephant. All elephants are Tigers
5: Some monkeys are Donkeys. No Donkey is elephant. No monkey is Tiger


9. Conclusions:
Some covers are pillows.
All sheet being cover is a possibility.
Statements:
Statements – 1: No pillows is cover. Some covers are bed. No pillow is sheet.
Statements – 2: Some pillows are covers. Some covers are bed. No Sheet is cover.
Statements – 3: All pillows are covers. Some covers are bed. No pillow is sheet.
Statements – 4: Some pillows are covers. All covers are bed. No Sheet is cover.
Statements – 5: No pillows is cover. All covers are bed. No pillow is sheet.

10. Conclusions:
All tanks are gingers.
Some gingers are not fishes
Statements:
1: Some tanks are jars. Some jars are ginger. No fish is jar
2: All gingers are jars. Some jars are tanks. No fish is jar
3: All tanks are jars. Some jars are ginger. Some fishes are ginger
4: All tanks are jars. All jars are ginger. No fish is jar
5: All tanks are jars. All jars are ginger. Some fishes are ginger

For video solutions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Q3eBVDC0OYQ
Reverse syllogs: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dPoV2ufeTmo&t=11s
Seating Arrangement

In this type of question, some clues regarding sitting or placing sequence of any items is
given.The item can be some person,place,Animal or any Noun.The sequence of arranging the
item can be in any format for ex-circle,single Row,parallel
row,square,rectangle,pentagon,hexagon,octagon etc. format.

In sitting arrangement,We have three types/forms of question-
1)Line/Row-Single or Parallel
2)Circular table
3)Square/Rectangle/Pentagon/Hexagon/Octagon/Decagon table

Q1. Seven persons A,B,C,D,E,F and G are standing in a straight line.
D is to the right of G.
C is between A and B.
E is between F and D.
There are three persons between G and B.(SSC CGL 2015)
Who is on the extreme left?
a)G b)A c)B d)D
Ans-G
Pattern-Left<-G->D->E->F->B->C->A->Right

Q2.Six girls are standing in such a way that they form a circle,facing the centre.Subbu is to the
left of pappu,Revathi is between Subbu and nisha,Aruna is between pappu and Keerthana.who is
to the left of Pappu?(SSC CGL 2013)
a)Subbu b)Keerthana c)Nisha d)Aruna
Ans-Subbu
Pattern= Subbbu<-Pappu<-Aruna<-Keerthana<-Nisha<-Revathi
Q3.A group of friends are sitting in an arrangement one each at the corner of an octagon.All are
facing the centre.Mahima is sitting diagonally opposite Rama,who is on sushma’s right.Ravi is
next to Sushma and opposite girdhar,who is on Chandra’s left.Savitri is not on mahima’s right
but opposite shalini.Who is on Shalini’s right?(SSC CGL 2010)
a)Ravi b) Mahima c) Girdhar d) Rama
Ans-Ravi

Q4.Six person A,B,C,D,E,F are sitting in 2 rows,3 in each.If E is not at any end,D is second to left
of F,C is neighbour of E and is sitting diagonally opposite to D and B is neighbour of F.Find who
will be opposite to B?
a)A b)E c)C d)D

Ans-E

Q5.Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed.Shikha is to the left of Reena.Manju is
to the right of reena.Rita is between Reena and Manju.who would be second from the left in the
photograph?(Bank PO 1994)
a)Reena
b)Shikha
c)Manju
d)Rita
Answer-D(Rita)
Right-------Manju->Rita->Reena->Shikha-------left
According to the given persons we have taken Left and Right and Answering the questions
according to our perception

Q 6 Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(Bank PO 1994)
(A)There are five friends.
(B)They are standing in a row facing south.
(C)Jayesh is to the immediate right of alok.
(D)Pramod is between bhagat and Subodh.
(E)Subodh is between Jayesh and Pramod.
Right--------Bhagat->Pramod->Subodh->Jayesh->alok--------Left
(As they are facing south)

Q2.Who is at the extreme left end?
a)Alok
b)Bhagat
c)Subodh
d)Data inadequate
e)None of these
Answer-(a)

Q3.Who is in the middle?
a)Bhagat
b)Jayesh
c)Pramod
d)Subodh
e)Alok
Answer-(d)

Q4.To find answers to the above two questions,which of the given statements can be dispensed
with?
a)None
b)A only
c)B only
d)C only
e)D only
Answer-(b)

Q7 .Five persons A,B,C,D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left of C and
B is on the right of E.A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D.If E occupies a corner
position,then who is sitting in the centre? (CBI 1995)
a)A
b)B
c)C
d)D
Answer-(d)
Right--------A--C--D--B--E----Left

Q 8. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
In a seven storey building,having floors numbered one to seven,P,Q,R,S,T and V each live on a
different floor.(the ground floor is numbered floor no 1,the floor above it floor no 2 and so
on).One of the floors in the building is vacant.P lives on the fifth floor. No floor below fifth floor
is vacant ALSO no odd numbered floor is vacant.Only S lives between T and V.T does not live on
an odd numbered floor.T does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below R’s
floor.Q does not live on the bottom most floor.(UBI PO 2010)
Sol-

Q1)Who lives on the topmost floor?
a)Q
b)S
c)R
d)V
e)No one as it is vacant.
Answer-Q

Q2)On which of the following floors does R live?
a)Seventh
b)Sixth
c)Third
d)Second
e)First
Answer-First

Q3)Which of the following floors is vacant?
a)Seventh
b)Sixth
c)Third
d)Second
e)Fourth
Answer-Sixth

Q 9 . Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each.in such a way that
there is an equal distance between adjacent persons.In row-1,P,Q,R,S,T and V are seated and all
of them facing south.In row-2 A,B,C,D,E and F are seated and all of them are facing north.
Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another
member of the row.
A sits third to right of D,Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends.T faces D.V does not face A and V
does not sit at any of the extreme ends.V is not an immediate neighbor of T.B sits at one of the
extreme ends.Only two persons sit between B and E.E does not face V.Two persons sit between
R and Q.R is not an immediate neighbour of T.C does not face V.P is not an immediate
neighbour of R. (Corporation Bank PO 2011)

Q1) Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
a)B,E
b)S,T
c)P,R
d)B,F
e)none of these
Ans-(c)P,R

Q2) Who amongst the following faces A?
a)R
b)T
c)P
d)Q
e)S
Ans-(e)S

Q3)How many persons are seated between T and S?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
e)5
Ans-(b)2

Q4)P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F.To which of the following is E related
to,following the same pattern?
a)B
b)D
c)C
d)A
e)none of these
Ans-(a)B

Circular Table Seating Arrangement

Q1. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:-
A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are sitting around a circle,facing the centre.A sits fourth to the right of H
while second to the left of F.C is not the neighbour of F and B.D sits third to the right of C.H
never sits next to G. (Bank PO 2008)

Q1.Who amongst the following sits between B and D?
Q2.Which of the following pairs sit between H and G?
Q3.Who is immediate right of A?
Q4.Who sits second to the right of B?
Q5.Which is the position of B with respect of C?

Q6.Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their position in the sitting
arrangement & so form the group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
AE HF BD GE CH
Answer-1-F, 2-CE, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B is third to the left of C/B is fifth to the right of C,
6-AE
_________________________________________________________________________
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:-
A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.Each one of them has a
different profession viz.Doctor,Engineer,Architect,Pilot,Banker,Teacher,Businessman and
Politician.
The politician sits third to right of G.C is an immediate neighbour of G.Architect sits second to
right of C.B sits third to right of H.H is neither a politician nor an architect.Only one person sits
between C and the teacher.A and F are immediate neighbours of each other.Neither A nor F is a
politician.Doctor sits second to right of A.Two people sit between D and the engineer.D is not a
politician.Pilot is not an immediate neighbour of the politician.Banker sits second to left of A.


Q7.Who amongst the following is a businessman?
Q8.What is the position of F with respect to the politician?
Q9.who sits exactly between the teacher and the engineer?
Q10.What is the profession of G?

Q11.Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on the sitting arrangement and thus
form a group.which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a)G-Doctor b)E-Architect c)H-BusinessMan d)E-Politician e)D-Pilot

Q12.What is the profession of E?

Q13.Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
a)D is an immediate neighbour of G
b)G is a banker
c)The banker and the teacher are immediate neighbours of each other
d)Pilot sits exactly between architect and the businessman.
e)Doctor sits second to the right of the businessman

Answers-7-A,
8-F is Second to the right of politician/F is sixth to the right of politician
9-H(Doctor) sits between Teacher and Engineer.
10.Pilot
11.E-Politician
12.Politician
13.Doctor sits second to the right of the businessman

Study the following information carefully
Eight colleagues, A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are sitting around a circular table facing centre not
necessarily in the same order.Each one of them holds a different post viz. Manager,Company
Secretary,Chairman,President,Vice-President,Group Leader,Financial Advisor and Managing
Director.
A sits third to right of the Managing Director.Only two people sit between the Managing Director
and H.Vice President and company secretary are immediate neighbour of each other.Neither A
nor H is a Vice President or a Company Secretary.Vice President is not an immediate neighbour
of the Managing Director.Manager sits second to the left E.E is not an immediate neighbour of
H.the Manager is an immediate neighnour of both group Leader and the Financial
Advisior.Financial Advisor sits third to right of B.B is not the Vice President.C sits to the
immediate right of Chairman.A is not the chairman.F is not an immediate neighbour of A.G is
not an immediate neigbhour of the Manager.

14.Who among the following sits third to the left of E?
15.Who among the following is the president of the company ?
16.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus
form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a)F-Chairman
b)G-President
c)D-Manager
d)A-Financial Advisor
e)B-Managing Director
17.Who amongst the following is the Group Leader?
18.Who amongst the following sit exactly between the Managing Director and H?
19.Which post does the B hold in the company?
Answer-
14-D(Financial Advisor),15-A,16-B-Managing Director,17-F,18-EF,19-Company secretary


Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons -J,K,L,M,P,Q,R and S are sitting around a circular table at equal distances between
each other,but not necessarily in the same order.Some of the people are facing the centre while
some others are facing outside(i.e. In a direction opposite to the centre.(Note:-Facing the same
direction means if one faces the centre then the other also faces the centre and vice
versa.Facing the opposite directions means if one faces the centre then the other faces outside
and vice-versa.)
(NIACL AO -online 2015)
K sits second to the right of P.K is an immediate neighbour of J.P faces towards centre.P is to
the immediate left of M.Neither K nor L is an immediate neighbour of M.S sits second to the
right of M.L is the immediate right of S.R sits third to the right of Q.L and Q face the same
direction as that of M.Q sits second to the right of J.Both the immediate neighbours of Q face
the same direction.Both the immediate neighbour of M face the same direction.


Q20.How many persons in the given arrangement face outside?
Q21.Who is sitting third to the left of L?
Q22.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement
and hence they form a group.Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1)P 2)Q 3)J 4)L 5)S
Q23.who sits exactly between K and P if one moves clockwise from K?
Q24.What is the position of R with respect to Q?
Q25.Who is sitting second to the left of S?
Answer-
20-Five,
21-M is sitting third to the left of L,
22-Except P,all others face outside,
23-Q sits exactly between K and P when one moves clockwise from L,
24-R is the third to the right of Q,
25-M is sitting second to the left of S.

Eight Person E,F,G,H,I,J,K, and L are seated around a square table-two on each side.there are
three lady members and they are not seated next to each other.J is between L and F.G is
between I and F.H, a lady member,is second to the left of J.F, a male member,is seated opposite
E, a lady member.There is a lady member between F and I.(Bank PO 1995)

Q26.Who among the following is seated between E and H?
a) F b) I c) J d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

Q27.How many persons are seated between K and F?
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)cannot be determined e)None of these

Q28.Who among the following are the three lady members?
a)E,G,J b)E,H,G c)G,H,J d)cannot be determined e)none of these

Q29.Who among the following is to the immediate left of F?
a)G b)I c)J d)cannot be determined e)none of these

Q30.Which of the following is true about J?
a)J is male b)J is Female c)Sex of J cannot be determined d)Position of J cannot be
determined e)none of these.

Answer-
26-E
27-C
28-B
29-C
30-A

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:-
Eight friends, Meenal,Rumia, Shikha,Ali,Peter,Harleen,Ketan and Bharat are sitting around a
rectangular table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the rectangle while four
sit in the middle of each of the four sides.The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre
while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

Bharat sits second to the right of Shikha. Bharat does not sit at any of the corners.Meenal sits
third to the right of peter.Peter is not an immediate neighbour of shikha.Rumia and Ketan are
immediate neighbour of each other but Rumia does not sit at any of the corners of the
table.Harleen is neither an immediate neighbour of Peter nor Shikha.(Allahabad Bank PO 2011)

Q31.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
1)Peter2)Rumai 3)Harleen 4)Shikha 5)Bharat

Answer-(3)

Q32.Who sits third to the left of Ali?
1)Bharat 2)Rumia 3)Shikha 4)Peter5)Cannot be determined

Answer-(1)

Q33.What is the position of peter with respect to Meenal?
1)To immediate Left
2)Second to the left
3)Third to the left
4)Third to the right
5)Second to the right

Answer-(4)

Q34.Who amongst the following sits second to the right of Ketan?
1)Shikha 2)Ali 3)Bharat 4)Harleen 5)Meenal

Answer-(4)

Q35.Who amongst the following represent the immediate neighbours of Harleen?
1)Meenal,Ketan
2)Bharat,Rumia
3)Bharat,Meenal
4)Ali,Rumia
5)Ali,Ketan

Answer-(5)
Q36.Who amongst the following is an immediate neighbour of Meenal?
1)Rumia
2)Ali
3)Ketan
4)Harleen
5)Shikha
Answer-(5)

Directions(1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions.
M, N, O, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family. They belong to three different
generations. There are three married couples. All of them are sitting around a circular table,
facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
· D and F are a married couple. D, the wife of F, sits second to the left of her husband.
· O and M are offspring of D. M is not an immediate neighbour of his mother.
· There is only one person sitting between O and his niece G, but that person is not G’s
father.
· E, a bachelor, sits third to the right of his uncle M, but neither to the opposite nor to the
immediate left of his father.
· G is not an immediate neighbour of her aunt N. No three females are sitting together.
· O and his sister-in-law are immediate neighbour.
1. Who among the following is G’s father?

a) F
b) M
c) H

d) N
e) Can’t be determined
2. How many females are there in the family?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Can’t be determined
e) N
one of these
3. What is the position of D with respect to her granddaughter?

a) Second to the left
b) Fourth to the right
c) Third to the right
d) Fourth to the left
e) Immediate left
4. Who among the following is the aunt of E?

b) D
c) G

d) H
5. Which of the following represents a group of male members of the

family?
a) EN
b) FG
c) OG
d) FM
1. b) M
2. e) None of these
3. c) Third to the right
4. a) N
5. d) FM

EXERCISE
Q1: Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
Eight people- A, B, C, D, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a circle facing the centre. All eight people are
from different place i.e. Okhla, Dwarka, Lajpat Nagar, Chanakyapuri, Saket, Mehrauli, Rohini and
Karol Bagh but not necessarily in the same order. W is sitting third to the left of Y. The person
who is from Dwarka is to the immediate right of W and W is not from Okhla. B is sitting fourth to
the right of Z. Z is not the neighbor of Y. Neither B nor Z is an immediate neighbor of W. X is
from Chanakyapuri and is sitting third to the right of the person from Dwarka.The person from
Mehrauli is sitting second to the left of person from Chanakyapuri. The person from Rohini is
sitting second to the left of W. A who is Lajpat Nagar is sitting exactly between X and Z. The
person from Saket is sitting second to the right of the person from Lajpat Nagar. C is sitting
third to the left of X.(IBPS PO 2016 Prelims)
1. Who amongst the following persons belongs to Okhla?
(a) Y (b) D (c) C (d) B (e) None of these
2. What is A’s position with respect to B?
(a) Third to the right (b) Second to the right (c) Third to the left (d) Second to the left (e) Fourth
to the right
3. How many people are sitting between Z and C when counted in an anticlockwise direction
From C?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None
4. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so from a group. Which of the following does not to the group?
(a) B-Rohini (b) Z – Mehrauli (c) D – Okhla (d) Y – Saket (e) X – Dwarka
5. Which of the following statements is false according to the above mentioned arrangement?
(a) C is to the immediate right of the Karol Bagh
(b) The person from Lajpat Nagar is third to the right of the person from Mehrauli.
(c) The person from Dwarka is sitting exactly between the Karol Bagh and the Saket.
(d) D is neither from Chanakyapuri nor from Karol Bagh.
(e) There are only three people between A and C.

Q2. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not
necessarily in the same order). Some of them are facing south while some are facing north.
(Note : Facing the same direction means, if one is facing north then the other also faces north
and vice-versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if one is facing north then the other faces
south and vice-versa) S faces north. Only two people sit to the right of S. T sits third to the left of
S. Only one person sits between T and X. X sits to the immediate right of W. Only one person
sits between W and Z. Both the immediate neighbors of T face the same direction. U sits third to
the left of X. T faces the opposite direction as S. Y does not sit at any of the extremes ends of
the line. V faces the same direction as W. Both Y and U face the opposite direction of Z.
(IBPS PO 2016 Prelims)
1. How many persons in the given arrangement are facing North?
(a) More than four (b) Four (c) One (d) Three (e) Two
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(a) W, X (b) Z, Y (c) T, S (d) T, Y (e) V, U
3. What is the position of X with respect to Z?
(a) Second to the left (b) Third to the right (c) Third to the left (d) Fifth to the right (e) Second to
the right
4. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Z and W?
(a) T (b) Y (c) X (d) W (e) U
5. Who is sitting 2nd to the right of T?
(a) Z (b)V (c)X (d)W (e)None of these.

Q3. Study the following information and answer the given questions: (IBPS PO 2016 Prelims)
A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H are eight friends and sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in
same order. Some of them are facing inside and some of them are facing outside. A sits third to
right of H. There is two people sits between H and B. C sits second to left of B. There is three
people sits between B and E. D is second to left of F, who is not immediate neighbor of A.
Immediate neighbours of H faces same direction as H. F sits third to left of A, who faces centre.
The immediate neighbors of A face opposite to the direction of A.

Q1. Who is sitting third to right of F?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) E
(e) D

Q2. Who is facing inside?
(a) AD
(b) AGH
(c) AB
(d) ADC
(e) None of these

Q3. Who sits opposite to H?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) F
(d) E
(e) G

Q4. How many people are siting between C and B, when counted from left of C?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Four
(e) Five

Q5. Who is sitting exactly between D and C when counted from right of D?
(a) HE
(b) CE
(c) FH
(d) BF
(e) DF

Q4: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions:
(IBPS PO 2016 Prelims)
Ten persons are sitting in 2 parallel rows containing 5 persons in each row. In 1st row M, N, O, P
and Q are seated and are facing south. In 2nd row, U, V, X, Y and Z are seated and are facing
north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another
member of the other row. They like different colours Red, Orange, Blue, Brown, Black, White,
Yellow, Pink, Peach, and Grey (not necessarily in same order). M doesn’t like brown and P likes
black. Y sits third to the left of U, who likes yellow. M faces immediate neighbour of Y, who likes
orange. The one who likes peach sits at extreme end. O sits second to the right of M. The one
who likes red faces the one who likes pink but M doesn’t like pink. Only one person sits between
N and P. V and Z are immediate neighbours. Z does not face M and N, who doesn’t like grey.
The one who faces U likes white. The one who faces an immediate neighbour of Y likes brown.

Q1. How many persons are seated between N and the one who likes white?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) None of these

Q2. Who amongst the following faces P?
(a) U
(b) The one who likes pink
(c) X
(d) N
(e) The one who likes grey

Q3. Which of the following is true regarding M?
(a) N and X are immediate neighbours of M
(b) M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(c) M likes black.
(d) P sits immediate left of M
(e) None of these

Q4. Who amongst the following pair sits exactly in the middle of the rows?
(a) M, Z
(b) P, Y
(c) None of these
(d) U, N
(e) M, V

Q5. V likes which of the following colour?
(a) Brown
(b) Pink
(c) Black
(d) White
(e) None of these

Q5: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: (IBPS PO
2016 Prelims)
Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line. They all are facing north.
Each one of them has a different age i.e. 8, 11, 15, 17, 21, 25, 27 and 30 year, but not necessarily
in the same order. The following conditions are given below.
P sits one of the extreme ends of the row. There are three person sits between P and the one,
who is 11 year old. R sits third to the left of the person, who is 17 year old. The person, who is 17
year old, is not immediate neighbour of the person, who is 11 year old. R is not 11 year old. P is
not 17 year old.
Q is 15 year old. S is not the youngest person. R is older than P but his age is a not whole square
number. There are as many person sits between P and R is same as the person sits between W
and the person, who is 30 year old.
T sits immediate left of the person, who is 8 year old. Q sits third to the left of S. Youngest
person sits extreme right end of the row. Persons,who sits left of W are younger than W. U is
older than V.Q does not sit at extreme left end.

Q1. Who among the following person sits extreme right end of the row?
(a) U
(b) P
(c) V
(d) Q
(e) None of these

Q2. How many persons are older than S?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 0
(d) 6
(e) 4

Q3. How many persons are sits between the person, who is 25 year old and the person, who sits
immediate right of U?
(a) None
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) One

Q4. Which of the following statement is true according to the given conditions?
(a) R sits third to the right of P.
(b) R sits immediate left of S.
(c) All are true
(d) T is 17 year old.
(e) W sits immediate right of the person, who is 15 year old.

Q5. Who among the following persons sits extreme ends of the row?
(a) W, The person who is 21 year old.
(b) The person, who is 21 year old and V.
(c) P and The person, who is 15 year old.
(d) None of these
(e) Q and The person, who is 8 year old.

Q 6 Direction (1-5): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that
there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all
of them are facing north and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are seated and are facing south, but not
necessarily in the same order. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s daughter is
immediate neighbour of the one, who faces R. There are one person sits between R’s son and
R’s daughter. Q is married to F. R’s son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the
person, who is immediate left of A’s brother. Two persons sit between S and T. R’s brother sits
second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-inlaw of B.
A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is married to S. only one person sits between
A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit one of the extreme ends. A’s sister-in-law
faces S. A’s sister-in-law sits third to the left of R’s daughter. P faces E, who sits one of the
extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s
wife. R’s mother sits third to the left of the one, who faces the one, who sits immediate right of
R’s son in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s wife. C sits diagonally opposite to
the one, who is immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D.(IBPS PO MAINS 2016)

1. Who sits immediate left of the one, who is sister-in law of A?
(a) B (b) C’s brother (c)Q’s brother (d)E’s brother-in-law (e)

Q 2. Who is grandmother of B?
(a) T (b) D’s mother-in-law (c)Person sits one of the extreme left end. (d)E’s mother-in-law (e) All
are true

3. Who sits second to the left of the one, who faces the person, who sits second to the left of P?
(a) R’s brother (b) Q (c) None are true (d)A (e) S’s husband

4. Who is the niece of P?
(a) B (b) T’s son (c)Q’s wife (d)Q’s sister-in-law (e)

Q5. If P related to A’s sister-in-law in the same way as Q related to R’s daughter. Which of the
following is U related to, following the same pattern?
(a)R’s brother (b) C’s brother (c)F (d)A (e) None of these
Q 7 Direction (1-3): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight
members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting in a row facing north But not necessary in the same
order. No two successive members are sitting together according to alphabetical order. For
Example: A does not sit with B. similarly B does not sit with C and so on. They also have a hobby
like Playing game, Watching TV, Singing, Dancing, Online surfing, Chatting, Acting and Cooking,
but not necessary in the same order. Either A or H sits at the extreme end of the row. A is sitting
third to the left of the person whose hobby is online surfing. B sits second to the right of the
person who likes acting. C sits second to the right of F. G who likes watching TV is sitting
second from the right end of the row. The person whose hobby is dancing is immediate
neighbor of F who likes Playing Games. The person whose hobby is acting is not sitting
adjacent to the person whose hobby is online surfing. C’s hobby is neither acting nor online
surfing. D and E do not sit any extreme end of the row. One of the immediate neighbors of H
likes Cooking and the one whose hobby is singing sits left end of the row. Neither H nor D likes
Acting. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
Q1. Which of the following member is sitting sixth to the right of the second from the right end
of the row?
(a) E
(b) The one whose hobby is acting
(c) A
(d) The one whose hobby is cooking
(e) None of these.

Q2. A is related to B and F is related to E in the same way how is the member whose hobby is
dancing related to which of the following?
(a) The one whose hobby is acting
(b) G
(c) The one whose hobby is cooking
(d) C
(e) B

Q3. Which of the following combination is not true?
(a) A-Singing (b) E-Acting (c) G-Watching TV (d) B-Playing games (e) D-Dancing
Q 8 Direction (1-2): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are two square fields of different size such that the larger one is surrounding smaller
field. Four gates are there for each field in the middle of the sides. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G
and H are standing at different gates but not necessary in the same sequence. The persons who
are on the sides of larger park facing center and The persons who are at side of smaller park
facing outside such that inner sides persons and outer sides persons are facing each other.
There is one person standing between B and D. C faces B. A is to the immediate right of C. G is
not the immediate neighbor of D. G faces neither D nor F. One person is standing between H and
F. E is facing the center (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

Q1. Which of the following persons are facing to each other?
(a) BD (b) EB (c) FH (d) DE (e) AH

Q2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based from a group which one of the
following does not belong to that group?
(a) EF (b) CH (c) DA (d) FC (e) BH

Q 9 Direction (1-5): Eight Friends Parkash, Qartar, Ram, Sooraj, Takshay, Vanketesh, Wasir and
Zubaid out of whom one is a pilot, professor, businessman, doctor, lawyer, banker, cricketer or
an architect (but not necessarily in the same order) are sitting around a circular table facing the
center. Sooraj who is a banker sits third to right of Zubaid. The professor and the architect are
immediate neighbors of each other. Neither the professor nor the architect is an immediate
neighbor of either Zubaid or Sooraj.Cricketer and the pilot are immediate neighbors of each
other. Neither Zubaid nor Wasir is a pilot. The one who is a professor sits second to the right of
Takshay who is a lawyer. Vanketesh who is a cricketer is not an immediate neighbor of the
banker. Only Ram sits between the professor and the doctor. Parkash sits third to the right of
the pilot. (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)

1. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbors of the doctor?
a) Professor - Businessman
b) Pilot - Professor
c) Cricketer - Businessman
d) Lawyer - Architect
e) None of The Above

2. What is the position of the businessman with respect to the pilot?
a) Third to the left
b) Second to the left
c) Immediately to the right
d) Fourth to the right
e) Second to the right

3. Who sits third to the right of the professor?
a) The Banker
b) Qartar
c) The Cricketer
d) The Lawyer

4. Which of the following is true regarding Ram?
a) He is a doctor
b) He is an immediate neighbor of the Pilot
c) Ram sits between Qartar and Takshay
d) He is an immediate neighbor of the professor
e) None is true

5. How many people sit between the Banker and Wasir when counted in anti - clockwise
direction from the banker?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of The Above
Q 10 Direction (1-5): Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
Akram, Bakhtawar, Changez, Dayud, Ekam, Farah, Gulrej and Humayun are seated in straight line
facing north.
Changez sits fourth to the left of Gulrej. Dayud sits second to right of Gulrej. Only two people sit
between Dayud and Akram. Bakhtawar and Farah sits adjacent to each other.
Humayun is not an immediate neighbor of Dayud.(IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)

1. Who among the following sits exactly in the middle of the persons who sit fifth from the left
and the person who sits sixth from the right?
a) Changez
b) Humayun
c) Ekam
d) Farah
e) Dayud

2. Who among the following sits third to the right of Changez?
a) Bakhtawar
b) Farah
c) Akram
d) Ekam

3. Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
a) Changez and Dayud b) Akram and Bakhtawar c) Bakhtawar and Gulrej
d) Dayud and Humayun e) None of The Above

4. What is the position of Humayun with respect to Changez?
a) Third to the Left b) Immediate Right c) Second to Right
d) Fourth to Left e) Immediate Left

5. How many persons are seated between Akram and Ekam?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) None of The Above

Q 11 Direction (1-6): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below: Eight friends – E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. Each of them is wearing dress of different cartoon characters i.e. Nobita, Osward,
Popeye, Yogi, Simpon, Minion, Scrooge and Dexter but not necessarily in the same order. F is
sitting second to the left of K. The one who is wearing dress of Dexter is an immediate
neighbour of K. There are only three people sits between the the one who is wearing dress of
Dexter and E. Only one person sits between the one who is wearing dress of Yogi and E. The one
who is wearing dress of Osward is to the immediate right of the one who is wearing dress of
Yogi. M is second to the right of K. H is wearing dress of Dexter. G and J are immediate
neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is wearing dress of Yogi. The one who is wearing
dress of Simpon is to the immediate left of F. The one who is wearing dress of Minion is second
to the right of the one who is wearing dress of Osward. The one who is wearing dress of
Scrooge is an immediate neighbour of the one who is wearing dress of Yogi. G is second to the
right of the one who is wearing dress of Nobita. (BOB PRELIMS 2016)

1. Who is sitting second to the right of E?
(a) The one who wearing dress of Minion
(b) G
(c) The one who wearing dress of Yogi
(d) F
(e) K

2. Who amongst the following is wearing dress of Scrooge?
(a) F (b) L (c) M (d) K (e)None of these

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and
hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to group?
(a) Nobita – H
(b) M-Popeye
(c) J - Yogi
(d) Simpon – L
(e) Minion- K

4. What is the position of L with respect to the one who is wearing dress of Dexter?
(a) Third to the left (b) Second to the right (c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right (e) Immediate right

5. Which of the following statements is true accordingly the given sitting arrangement?
(a) The one who is wearing dress of Minion sits second to the left of the one who is wearing
dress of Popeye
(b) E is an immediate neighbour of the one who is wearing dress of Simpon
(c) H sits exactly between F and the one who is wearing dress of Simpon
(d) Only four people sit between the one who is wearing dress of Osward and F (e) All of the
given statements are true

6. Who amongst the following is wearing dress of Nobita?
(a) E (b) L (c) M (d) K (e)None of these
Q 12 Direction (1-5): Study the lowing information to answer the given questions S, T, U, V, W, X,
Y and Z are sitting in a straight line equidistant from each other (but not necessarily in the same
order). Some of them are facing south while some are facing north. (Note : Facing the same
direction means, if one is facing north then the other also faces north and vice-versa. Facing the
opposite directions means, if one is facing north then the other faces south and vice-versa) S
faces north. Only two people sit to the right of S. T sits third to the left of S. Only one person sits
between T and X. X sits to the immediate right of W. Only one person sits between W and Z.
Both the immediate neighbors of T face the same direction. U sits third to the left of X. T faces
the opposite direction as S. Y does not sit at any of the extremes ends of the line. V faces the
same direction as W. Both Y and U face the opposite direction of Z. (BOB 2016)

1. How many persons in the given arrangement are facing North?
(a) More than four (b) Four (c) One (d) Three (e) Two

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, and so form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(a) W, X (b) Z, Y (c) T, S (d) T, Y (e) V, U

3. What is the position of X with respect to Z?
(a) Second to the left (b) Third to the right (c) Third to the left
(d) Fifth to the right (e) Second to the right

4. Who amongst the following sits exactly between Z and W?
(a) T (b) Y (c) X (d) W (e) U

5. Who is sitting 2nd to the right of T?
(a) Z (b)V (c)X (d)W (e)None of these.

6. What is the position of W with respect to S?
(a) Second to the left (b) Third to the right (c) Third to the left
(d) Fifth to the right (e) Second to the right
Q 13 Direction (1-5): Study the following information and answer the given questions: A, B, C, D,

E, F, G & H are eight friends and sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in same order.
Some of them are facing inside and some of them are facing outside. A sits third to right of H.
There is two people sits between H and B. C sits second to left of B. There is three people sits
between B and E. D is second to left of F, who is not immediate neighbor of A. Immediate
neighbours of H faces same direction as H. F sits third to left of A, who faces centre. The
immediate neighbors of A face opposite to the direction of A. (IBPS PO Prelims 2017)

1. Who is sitting third to right of F?
(a) C (b) B (c) A (d) E (e) D

2. Who is facing inside?
(a) AD (b) AGH (c) AB (d) ADC (e) None of these

3. Who sits opposite to H?
(a) A (b) D (c) F (d) E (e) G

4. How many people are siting between C and B, when counted from left of C?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Four (e) Five

5. Who is sitting exactly between D and C when counted from right of D?
(a) HE (b) CE (c) FH (d) BF (e) DF

Q 14 Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions: Ten
persons are sitting in 2 parallel rows containing 5 persons in each row. In 1st row M, N, O, P and
Q are seated and are facing south. In 2nd row, U, V, X, Y and Z are seated and are facing north.
Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another
member of the other row. They like different colours Red, Orange, Blue, Brown, Black, White,
Yellow, Pink, Peach, and Grey (not necessarily in same order). M doesn’t like brown and P likes
black. Y sits third to the left of U, who likes yellow. M faces immediate neighbour of Y, who likes
orange. The one who likes peach sits at extreme end. O sits second to the right of M. The one
who likes red faces the one who likes pink but M doesn’t like pink. Only one person sits between
N and P. V and Z are immediate neighbours. Z does not face M and N, who doesn’t like grey.
The one who faces U likes white. The one who faces an immediate neighbour of Y likes brown.
(IBPS PO Prelims 2017)

Q1. How many persons are seated between N and the one who likes white?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these

Q2. Who amongst the following faces P?
(a) U (b) The one who likes pink (c) X (d) N (e) The one who likes grey

Q3. Which of the following is true regarding M?
(a) N and X are immediate neighbours of M
(b) M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(c) M likes black.
(d) P sits immediate left of M
(e) None of these

Q4. Who amongst the following pair sits exactly in the middle of the rows?
(a) M, Z (b) P, Y (c) None of these (d) U, N (e) M, V

Q5. V likes which of the following colour?
(a) Brown (b) Pink (c) Black (d) White (e) None of these

SOLUTIONS:

1.
1.(a) Y
2.(a) Third to the right
3.(d) Four
4.(e) X – Dwarka
5.(c) The person from Dwarka is sitting exactly between the Karol Bagh and the Saket.


1.(b) Four
2.(d) T, Y
3.(b) Third to the right
4.(a) T
5.(a) Z

1. (d) E
2. (c) AB
3. (b) D
4. (c) One
5. (d) BF

4.

1. (c) Two
2. (e) The one who likes grey
3. (d) P sits immediate left of M
4. (e) M, V
5. (b) Pink

5.

1. (c) V
2. (d) 6
3. (b) Three
4. (c) All are true
5. (b) The person, who is 21 year old and V.

6.

1. c)
2. e)
3. e)
4.d)
5. b)

7.

1. D
2. B
3. D

8.

1. D
2. E

9.
1. c) Cricketer - Businessman
2. a) Third to the left
3. c) The Cricketer
4. d) He is an immediate neighbor of the professor
5. c) Two

10.
1. d) Farah
2. c) Akram
3. d) Dayud and Humayun
4. e) Immediate Left
5. a) One

11
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a)
12
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (b)
6. (a)
13

1. (d) E
2. (c) AB
3. (b) D
4. (c) One
5. (d) BF
14
1. (c) Two
2. (e) The one who likes grey
3. (d) P sits immediate left of M
4. (e) M, V
5. (b) Pink

Classification Test
This type of Puzzle question consist a group of items. These item can be anything (like humans,
cards, vehicle, place etc). Each item will have many characteristics regarding which we have
many clues and remarks given in the question. We have to identify the each characteristic for
each member of the group after examining the various clues. After proper arrangement, we will
get a group whose data is organized.
To solve this type of question we need to examine each clue carefully and maintain all the data
related to given group in tabular form i.e. in Rows and column format.
Eamplex 1. In a Hockey session, Team A defeated Team B twice. Team C defeated Team A
twice,Team B defeated Team C twice,Team A defeated Team D twice & Team C defeated
Team D twice.which Team has lost most number of times.
Solution:
Won Defeat
Team A Team B
Team A Team B
Team C Team A
Team C Team A
Team B Team C
Team B Team C
Team A Team D
Team A Team D
Team C Team D
Team C Team D
Clearly Team D loses most of the matches.
Example 2. Study the following information and answer the questions given below it.
(i) komal ,shivani and Reena are Intelligent.
(ii)Komal,Rani and Seeta are hard working.
(iii)Rani,Reena and Seeta are honest.
(iv)Komal,shivani and Seeta are ambitious.
Q1.Which of the following persons is neither hard working nor ambitious?
a)Komal b)shivani c)Reena d)Rani
Q2.Which of the following persons is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious?
a)Komal b)shivani c)Reena d)Rani
Solution: Make a Tabular form after examined various clues.
Student Tyes of Student
Name Intelligent Hardworking Honest Ambitiou
s
Komal ✔ ✔ ✔
Shivani ✔ ✔
Reena ✔ ✔
Rani ✔ ✔
Seeta ✔ ✔ ✔

Solution 1: Clearly Reena is a person who is neither hard working nor ambitious.
Solution 2: Clearly Shivani is a person who is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious.

Example 3. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) There are five types of cards viz. A,B,C,D and E.There are three cards of each type.These
are to be inserted in envelopes of three colours-Red,Yellow and Brown.There are five
envelopes of each colour.(SBI PO 2000).
(ii) B,D and E type cards are inserted in red envelopes .A,B and C type cards are to be inserted
in yellow envelopes and C,D and E type cards are to be inserted in brown envelopes.
(iii)Two cards each of B and D type are inserted in red envelopes.

Sol: Make a tabular form after examined various clues.
Envelopes Color/Types Types of Cards
Red B D E B D
Yellow A B C A A
Brown C C E C E

Q Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of
envelope is definitely correct?
(a)A-2,B-2,C-1:yellow
(b)C-2,D-1,E-2:Brown
(c)C-1,D-2,E-2:Brown
(d)B-2,D-2,A-1:Red
(e)none of these
Sol:(b) is correct.

Q Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is
definitely correct in respect of E-type cards?
(a)Red-1:yellow-2
(b)Yellow-1:Brown-2
(c)Red-2:Brown-1
(d)Red-2:yellow-1
(e)none of these
Sol:(e) as the correct combination in respect of E-type is Red-1:Brown-2

Q Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is
definitely correct in respect of yellow coloured envelopes?
(a)A-1,E-1,D-2
(b)A-2,B-1,C-2
(c)A-3,B-1,C-1
(d)B-1,C-2,D-2
(e)none of these
Sol-(c)

Ex 4.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:(Bank PO
2004).
(i)Eight persons A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H work in three different companies X,Y,Z.
(ii)There are two ladies who work in different companies and their specialization is also
different.
(iii) Two of them have specialization in finance,another two have specialization in human
Resources,two have specialization in Marketing, one's engineer and one of them is specialist
in computer.
(iv) D is a specialist in Human Resource working in company X while her friend G is a Finance
specialist and works in company Z.
(v)H is a Human REsource specialist who work with Marketing specialist B but does not work
in company Y.
(vi)The two persons with same specialization do not work together.
(vii)Marketing specialist F works in company Y and his friend A who is finance specialist works
in Company X with only one other specialist.
(viii)In no company more than three persons work.
(ix)C is an engineer and his sister works in Company Z.
(x)No lady is an Engineer or Computer Specialist.

Q1.In which company does C work?
X b) Y c) Z d)Either Y or Z e) None of these
Q2.In which two companies do Human Resource specialists work?
a)X and Y b)Y and Z c)X and Z d)Data Inadequate e)None of these
Q3.The two ladies are:
a)B and D b) D and G c)D and H d)Either a or b e)Data inadequate
Q4.Who is Computer specialist?
a)C b)E c)H d)Data inadequate e)None of these
Solution:-There are 2 Female and 5 Males.
persons= 2-F.S, 2-M.S, 2-M.S, 1-Eng., 1-computer
Persons Specialist Company M/F
A Finance Specialist X M
B Marketing Specialist Z M/F
C Engineer Y M
D H R Management X F
E Computer Y M
F Marketing Specialist Y M
G Finance Specialist Z M/F
H H R Specialist Z M
Sol1-C works in Company Y.
Sol2.Human resource specialist work in X and Z company.
Sol3.The two ladies are:D and Either B or G.
Sol4.E is computer specialist.

Ex5. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) A,B,C,D,E and F are six members of a group in which there are three female members.
Females work in three departments -Accounts, Administration and Personnel and sit on three
different floors-Ist, IInd and IIIrd.Persons working in the same department are not on the same
floor.On each floor two person work.
(ii)No two ladies work in the same department or on the same floor.B and E work in the same
department but not in personnel work in Administration and A are on the Ist and IIIrd floors
respectively and work in the same department. D ,a lady does not work on the IInd Floor.C, a
man, works on Ist floor. (Bank PO 2001)

Q1)Which of the following groups of persons are females?
a)ADF b)CDF c)DEF d)Data inadequate e)None of these
Q2)Which of the following pairs work on IInd floor?
a)AE b)BD c)BF d)CF e)None of these
Q3)Which of the following pairs of persons work in administration?
a)BD b)CD c)CE d)Data Inadequate e)None of these
Q4)F works in which department?
a)Administration b)Accounts c)Personnel d)Accounts or Personnel e)None of
these
Solution:
III A Accounts M D Admin F
II B Accounts M F Personnel F
I C Personnel/Adm M E Accounts F
in
1) D,F and E are female members.
2) B and F worked on IInd Floor.
3) Data is adequate.
4) F works in personnel.

Comparison Type Puzzle

In this type of Questions,we will do comparisons based on certain quality between the objects.
Based on Comparisons we will arrange them in some order(Ascending,Descending etc.) and
answers the questions accordingly.

Study the following information and answer the following questions:-
Ex1-A Carpenter have five wooden table J,K,L,M and N,each having a different weight.
1. J weighs twice as much as K.
2. K weighs four and a half times as much as L.
3. L weighs half as much as M.
4. M weighs half as much as N.
5. N weighs less than J but more than L.
Q1 Which of the following is the lightest in weight?
A)J B)K C)L D)M E)N

Q2.N is lighter in weight than which of the other two articles?
a)J,K b) M,L c) J,L d)M,K e)K,N

Q3.E is heavier than which of the following two articles?
A)M,K B)M,L C)J,L D)J,K E)none of these

Q4.Which of the following articles is the heaviest in weight?
A)J B)K C)L D)M E)N

Q5.Which of the following represents the descending order of weights of the articles?
A)J,K,N,M,L
B)K,M,NJ,L
C)N,L,M,J,K
D)L,J,D,K,N
E)J,K,M,N,L

Q6.Which of the above given statements is not necessary to determine the correct order of
articles according to their weights?
A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4 E)5
Answer-
J->K->N->M->L
1)C 2)A 3)B 4)A 5)A 6)E

Ex-2 There are five friends-P , Q , R , S and T . P is shorter than Q but taller than T. R is
tallest.S is a little shorter than Q and little taller than P.
Q1. Who is the shortest?
a) T b) P c) S d)Q e) None of these
Q2. If they stand in order of their heights,who will be in the middle?
a) Q b) T c) P d) S e) None of these
Q3. If they stand in the order of increasing heights,who will be the second?
a) S b) P c) T d) Q e) None of these
Q4. Who is second tallest?
a) S b) P c) T d) Q e) None of these
Answer- R->Q->S->P->T
1) T 2) S 3) P 4) Q

Q. A Toys Manufacturing Company launches nine different soft toys-Teddy, Panda, Tweety,
Pikachu, Lion, Monkey, Mickey Mouse, Doraemon, Doll. in delhi. The Soft toys were launched
one after the other over the period of 6 months in 2010. The order in which the products were
launched is as follows:-
1. Monkey is launched before both Doraemon and Teddy.
2. Teddy gets launched after doll.
3. Pikachu gets launched before monkey but after Panda.
4. Tweety gets launched after monkey.
5. Panda gets launched before Mickey Mouse.
Q1.Which one of the following could be true?
1)Y is the second product to be launched
2)R is the third product to be launched
3)Q is the fourth product to be launched
4)S is the fifth product to be launched
Answer-(4)

Previous Exam Question-
Study the following information and answer the following questions:-
Each of five friends A,B,C,D and E scored different marks in an examination.Maximum marks of
the examination are 100.B scored more than E but less than C.Only two people scored more
than A.E did not score the minimum marks.The one who scored second highest marks scored
87%.E scored 72% marks. (IDBI Bank 2012)
Q1.How many people scored more than E in the examination?
a)Noneb)One c)Two d)Three e)Cannot be determined.

Q2.Who amongst the following possibly scored 81% marks?
a)C b)D c)B d)A e)Either C or B

Q3.Which of the following percentages may correctly represent C’s percentage in the exam?
a)65% b)74% c)87% d)83% e)89%

Answer-C->B->A->E->D
1) D, 2) D, 3)E
Family Based Problems

In this type of Questions, some clues are given regarding members of a family and their
features(for e.g. their like or dislike,profession,qualities,dresses,preferences,belonging city
name etc.).The candidate is required to examine all clues carefully and answer the questions
based on clues.
To solve these questions we will use tabular form to maintain all data regarding Members of a
Family

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-
A. In a Family of Six persons,there are people from three generations.Each person has
separate profession and also like different colours.There are two couple in the family.

B. Rohan is a C.A and his wife neither is a doctor nor likes green colour.
C. Engineer likes red colour and his wife is a teacher.
D. Mohini is Mother-In-Law of Sunita and she likes orange colour.
E. Vinod is grandfather of Tanmay and Tanmay,who is a principal, likes black colour.
F. Nanu is GrandDaughter of Mohini and she likes blue colour.Nanu’s mother likes white
colour. (SBI PO 1995)
Q1.Who is an Engineer?
1)Nanu 2)Mohini 3)Sunita 4)Cannot be determined 5)None of these
Answer-(5)Vinod

Q2.What is the profession of Sunita?
1)Engineer 2)Doctor 3)Teacher 4)Cannot be determined 5)None of these
Answer-(4)

Q3.Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?
1)Mohini-Vinod and Rohan-Sunita
2)Vinod-Mohini and Rohan-Nanu
3)Rohan-Sunita and Tanmay-Nanu
4)Cannot be determined
5)None of these
Answer-(1)

Q4.How many ladies are there in the family?
1)Two 2)Three 3)Four 4)Cannot be determined 5)None of these
Answer-(2)

Q5.Which colour is liked by CA?
1)Green 2)White 3)Either White or Green 4)cannot be determined
5)None of these

Answer-(1)Green
Solution-

Selection based Puzzle

In this type of questions,some clues are given regarding the selection of items of the group.we
have to make selection of items after examining the such clues and answer the questions
accordingly.
Eight student A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are planning to enjoy car racing.There are only two cars and
following are the conditions.
1) One car can accommodate maximum five and minimum four students.
2) A will sit in the same car in which D is sitting but H is not in the same car.
3) B and C can’t sit in the same car in which D is sitting.
4) F will sit in the car of four people only along with A and E but certainly not with G.
(Bank PO 1996)
Q1.If H and G are sitting in the same car, who are other two students sitting in the same car?
1)B and C 2)C and D 3)E and B 4)None of these 5)None of these

Q2.If E and A are sitting in the same car,which of the following statements is true?
1)Five students are sitting in the same car’
2)B is sitting in the same car
3)F is not sitting in the same car
4)G is not sitting in the same car
5)None of these

Q3.Which of the following statements is superfluous for the above sitting arrangements?
1)only (i) 2)only(ii) 3)only(iii) 4)only(iv) 5)none of these

Solution=
Car I-A,D,F,E
Car II-H,B,C,G

Q1-(1)BC Q2.(4)G is not sitting in the same car Q3.(1)only(i)

Sequential order of things
In this type of questions,some clues are given regarding the occurrence of the events done by
objects.We have to Examine the clues carefully to frame the right sequence of events. After that
based on this sequence we will give answer to the given questions.

Previous Exam Questions-
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-

Six plays A,B,C,D,E and F are to be staged on six day of the week starting from monday and
ending on saturday.Play C is staged on a tuesday.Plays A,F and B are staged one after the
other in the same order.Play D is not staged on a Monday or a Wednesday.
(PNB MT 2010)

Q1.How many plays are staged after play A is staged.
a)One b)Two c)Three d)Four e)Cannot be determined

Q2.Four of the following five form a group based on the days that they are staged.Which one of
them does not belong to that group?
a)EC b)FD c)CA d)AF e)BD

Q3.Which play is staged immediately before the day play E is staged?
a)B b)A c)F d)D e)there is no such play E is staged

Q4.If play D was staged on a Monday,Which of the following plays would definitely be staged on
a Saturday(all the other conditions given above remain the same)?
a)B b)E c)D d)F e)Cannot be determined

Q5.Which play is Staged on thursday?
a)B b)E c)D d)F e)cannot be determined

Answer-
Pattern-E->C->A->F->B->D
1)C 2)B 3)E 4)D 5)D

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:-(SBI
Associates PO 2014)
Each of the six people,U,V,W,X,Y and Z stayed for a different number of days in india. X stayed
for less number of days than only V. Y stayed for more number of days than only two people. U
did not stay less than Y. W did not stay for the minimum number of days. The one who stayed
for the second lowest number of days stayed for eight days. U stayed for 17 days in india.

Q6.The one who stayed for the maximum number of days stayed 15 more than W.Which of the
following is possibly the number of days for which it stayed in india?
a)5 b)32 c)23 d)20 e)17

Q7.Which of the following is true with respect to Z as per the given information?
a)The possible number of days for which z stayed in india is 14 days.
b)Z stayed for the minimum number of days
c)None of the given options is true
d)Only two people stayed for more number of days than Z.
e)Z definitely stayed for more number of days than Y.

Q8.Which of the following may be the possible number of days for which Y stayed in india?
a)11 b)8 c)19 d)5 e)22

Answer-
Pattern-V->X->U->Y->W->Z
6)C 7)B 8)A

A building has 7 floors numbered 1 to 7, in such a way that ground floor is numbered one, the
floor above it, number 2 and so on such that the topmost floor is numbered 7. One out of the 7
persons,, viz. P, Q,R , S, T,U and V Lives on each floor, but not necessarily in the same order.
each one of them is travelling to different places,viz., Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur,
Kolkata ,Mumbai and Patna, but not necessarily in the same order.
3 persons live on the floors above the floor of P. there is only one person between P
and the person travelling to Bangalore. U lives immediately below the person who is travelling
to Mumbai.The person who is travelling to Mumbai lives on an even numbered floor.P live
below the person travelling to Mumbai. Two persons are leaving between the persons who are
travelling to Bangalore and Patna respectively.T live immediately above R.T is not travelling to
Patna. Two persons Live between Q and the person travelling to Kolkata. The person who is
travelling to Delhi is not living immediately above or below the floor of Q. the person who is
travelling to Kolkata lives below Q. S does not live immediately above or below the floor of P. V
is not traveling to Chennai. The person who is travelling to Delhi does not live on the ground
floor.
(IBPS RRB Officer scale 1 CWE 2014).

Q1)Who among the following lives on the topmost floor?
1)U 2)Q 3)V 4)T 5)S
Q2)Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group based on
the given arrangement. which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1)R 2)S 3)V 4)U 5)T
Q3) who among the following travel to Delhi?
1)T 2)U 3)S 4)R 5)P
Q4) how many persons Live between the person who is travelling to Mumbai and S?
1)three2)four 3)One 4)Two 5)five
Q5)Who among the following does live on the floor immediately above the floor of T?
1)S 2)Q 3)U 4)P 5)V

MACHINE INPUT
In this type of questions we have some sequence of words and numbers which is known as
Input.After that some rearrangement will be done in various steps on this given input by
following some particular order.At the end we get the sequenced output in a particular order.
This whole process is known as sequential output tracing or Machine Input Output.

Input------------------->Machine Processing or Sequential output tracing---------------------->Output
(doing some arrangement after following some particular pattern/Order)

To solve these questions we need to identify two things.
1)Direction: This defines from which direction is inputting.
2)Pattern/Order: This defines the type of pattern machine is using to arrange the data or to trace
sequential output. Pattern can be alphabetical order,reverse order alphabets,ascending
order,descending order….etc.

After that we give solution to given question based on these two things i.e. Direction and
Pattern/order.

TYPES OF INPUT OUTPUT
1. Arrangement Type
2. Shifting Type
3. Combined Type
4. Mathematical Type

ARRANGEMENT TYPE:
In this type, the position of the first element remains same
Ex1. 85 16 36 04 19 97 63 09 (Bank PO 1995)
StepI 97 85 16 36 04 19 63 09
StepII 97 85 63 16 36 04 19 09
Step III 97 85 63 36 16 04 19 09
Step IV 97 85 63 36 19 16 04 09
Step V 97 85 63 36 19 16 09 04

Here we can find that sequence is arranging in descending order by altering only one position in
a single step.
so,start marking the sequence using 123....,If some number/word is already in a sequence or at
the legal position then mark that as AutoFill(AF) by following the sequence no.
Direction-Left to Right
pattern-Number(Descending order) and Only one value at a time
Input- 85 16 36 04 19 97 63 09

AF(1.1) AF(4.4) 3 AF(5.5) 4 1 2 5

As per the rules followed in above Steps.Find out the Answer for the following questions.

Ques1. 25 08 35 11 88 67 23 find step
AF(3.1) AF(5.1) 3 5 1 2 4

so the ans is 88 67 35 25 23 11 08
______________________________________________________________________________

Ques2. 09 25 16 30 32 19 17 06 find step III
- 3 - 2 1 - - -

so the ans is 32 30 25 09 16 19 17 06

Ques3. 16 09 25 27 06 05 Find last step
AF(2.1) AF(2.2) 2 1 AF(2.3) AF(2.4)

so the ans is 27 25 16 09 06 05(No of steps required are 2)
______________________________________________________________________________

Ques 4. 03 31 43 22 11 09 What will be
last step-Step V
AF(5.1) 2 1 3 4 5
so the ans is 43 31 22 11 09 03

______________________________________________________________________________

Ques 5. 92 86 71 69 15 19 06 63 58 This is given
the Step IV.Find What will be the Input.
Ans:=Answer cannot be determined as we can have multiple way to find Input.

______________________________________________________________________________

Ex2)Input--- Go for to Though By easy To Access at (SBI PO 1997)
I Access Go for to Though By easy To at
II Access at Go for to Though By easy To
III Access at By Go for to Though easy To
IV Access at By easy Go for to Though To
V Access at By easy for Go to Though To
VI Access at By easy for Go Though to To
VII Access at By easy for Go Though To to
Sol: Direction-Left to Right
Pattern-words(alphabetical order) and only one word at a time
Go for to Though By easy To Access at
AF(5.1) 5AF (7.1) 6 3 4 7 1 2

Ans Access at By easy for Go Though To to

Ques 6: story For around on was He at Write step IV
- 3 1 - - 4 2
Write data from 1-4 as we have marked and remaining data as it is in the given input.

Ans- around at For He story on was
______________________________________________________________________________
Ques 7: for the given sequence which step will be---------an and every for peer to
every and peer to an for

AF(2.1) 2 AF(3.1) AF(3.2) 1 3
Ans -Step III
______________________________________________________________________________
Ques 8:Find last but one/Second Last
Together over series on feast the so
AF(6.1) 3 4 2 1 6 5
Ans-Step V is the second last Step i.e.
feast on over series so together the
______________________________________________________________________________
Ques 9:Which of the following would definitely be the input when Step-II is given.
Step-II and Do pet to on that
Options:-
A) Do on pet to and that
B) Do pet to and that on
C) Do and pet to on that
1.1 1 2.1 3.1 2 3
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
Do on pet to and that
Af(2.1) - 2 - 1 -
So the Step II is- and Do pet on to that (FALSE-as doesn’t match with given step)
Do pet to and that on
1.1 1.2 - 1 - 2
So the step II is- and Do pet on to that (FALSE-as doesn’t match with given step)
Do and pet to on that
1.1 1 2.1 3.1 2 3
Answer is (e) None of these
Q10. Which step number will be the last step of the below input?
Over Go For through at one
Answer- 4.1(af) 3 2 4.2(af) 1 4
So the answer is 4.
______________________________________________________________________________

Ex 3.Input 63 lovely 18 star 45 92 game honest (Bank PO)
I 92 63 lovely 18 star 45 game honest
II 92 game 63 lovely 18 star 45 honest
III 92 game 63 45 honest lovely 18 star
IV 92 game 63 45 honest 18 lovely star
Solution-----
Direction=Left to Right
Pattern=Number(Descending)+Words(Alphabetical order) and two values are placing in a single
step.

Seq. 63 lovely 18 star 45 92 game honest
Q11. find Last Step
Year month 23 date 15 19
Seq. 5.1(af) 4 1 2 5 3
Last step is 5.

Q12.Find step 3rd.
Lotus like 45 26 Lily
Seq. _ 2 1 3 _
III- 45 like 26 lotus lily

Ex quick fire 15 28 39 war 19 yellow
I Yellow quick fire 15 28 39 war 19
II Yellow 15 quick fire 28 39 war 19
III Yellow 15 war quick fire 28 39 19
IV Yellow 15 war 19 quick fire 28 39
V Yellow 15 war 19 quick 28 fire 39

Pattern-words(Reverse)+number(ascending order) and one values is placing in a single step.

Q13.Find Last but one step(i.e. Second Last step)
Step II zebra 12 bank carriage 46 31 29 dusk
1 2 af(6.1) 5 af(6.2) 6 4 3

1 and 2 position are already fixed

Q14.How many steps will be require to complete the rearrangement?

Age die 72 53 35 hold goal 26
af(6.1) 5 af(6.2) 6 4 1 3 2

Answer-6

Q15.Find Last step
win 12 92 for 81 always 36 home
0.1 0.2 af(5.1) 3 4 5 2 1
Sol-Last step =win 12 home 36 for 81 always 92

Q16.Step III-Train 23 star 61 32 fall hard 53 (Find Input)
Sol-Cannot be determined as term can be rearranged in several way.

Ex- 48 245 182 26 99 542 378 297
I 542 48 245 182 26 99 378 297
II 542 26 48 245 182 99 378 297
III 542 26 378 48 245 182 99 297
IV 542 26 378 48 297 245 182 99
V 542 26 378 48 297 99 245 182 (SBI PO 2000)
Pattern-number(highest to lowest)+number(Lowest to highest) and one value at a time.

Q17. Step-II 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 350 Find Step IV?
1 2 3 4
Answer- 765 42 542 65 183 289 110 350

Q18. show the output of last step?
39 88 162 450 386 72
29
Seq 3.1(af) af(5.1) 4 1 3 5
2
Output-450 29 386 39 162 72 88
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ex- worst pink 48 lovely 17 98 33 camel
I 98 pink 48 lovely 17 33 camel worst
II 98 48 lovely 17 33 camel pink worst
III 98 48 33 17 camel lovely pink worst

Pattern- Number(Descending)+Words(Reverse alphabetical order) two values at a time.
Direction- Number(Left to right) +Words(right to Left)
-------------> ←-------------
Q19. Find Last Step
17 gate gain groom 45 ghost 28 54
3.1(af) A.3 A.3.1(af) A.1 2 A.2 3 1
Last step is= 54 45 28 17 gain gate ghost groom

Q20. How many steps required to get an output.
37 hold 89 joker 67 kite fish 45
af(3.1) A.3 1 A.2 2 A.1 af(A.3.1) 3

So total steps required=3.

Directions (21-23): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. An
input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step.
No mathematical operation is repeated in next step. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions
the appropriate step for the given input.

Q21. Find the addition of the two numbers obtained in step III?
(a) 1.5 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 3.5 (e) None of these

Q22. Find the difference between sum of numbers which obtained in 1st step and sum of
numbers obtained in all other steps?
(a) 232 (b) 185 (c) 188 (d) 183.5 (e) None of these

Q23. Find the multiplication of the numbers obtained in step II?
(a) 426 (b) 462 (c) 188 (d) 98 (e) None of these

21. Sol:
For step-I, both the numbers of 1st block is written as, Ist number of block-1 of the Input is
multiplied with 2nd no. of block-4 of the Input same as 2nd number of block-1 is multiplied with
1st number of block-4. This process is same for Block-2 and Block-3 in step-1.
For step-II, All 1st digit of each block is added and that sum is written in 1st block and all 2nd
digit of each block is added and that sum is written as 2nd block.
For step-III, Half of the addition of 1st and 2nd digit of each block.
For Step- IV, Subtraction of both numbers of Step-3.
So, INPUT: 42 51 29 32 71 14
Step-1: 86 57 89
Step-2: ….21….22….
Step-3: ….1.5….2….
Step-4:…...0.5……

22. Ans. (b)
23. Ans. (b)

EXERCISE
Q1.Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Input: daily 79 do diverse 57 14 dear 86 63 domain 42 dog
Step I: diverse daily 79 do 57 dear 86 63 domain 42 dog 41
Step II: domain diverse daily 79 do 57 dear 86 63 dog 41 24
Step III: daily domain diverse 79 do dear 86 63 dog 41 24 75
Step IV: dear daily domain diverse 79 do 86 dog 41 24 75 36
Step V: dog dear daily domain diverse do 86 41 24 75 36 97
Step VI: do dog dear daily domain diverse 41 24 75 36 97 68
Step VI is the largest step of above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the Input.
Input: table 63 tour 19 typhoon 72 25 to tea 48 tablet 56
1. Which element comes exactly between ‘typhoon’ and ‘tour’ in Step III of the given input?
2. Which of the following combinations represent the sixth and eighth element in Step II of
the given input from left end?
3. If in the last step ‘2’ is added to each of the odd numbers and ‘1’ is subtracted from each
of the even numbers, then how many numbers multiple of ‘3’ will be formed?
4. Which element is fourth to the left of one which is ninth from the left end in second last
step?
5. If the Step IV, ’72’ interchange its position with ‘table’ and ‘typhoon’ also interchanges its
position with ’91’ then which element will be to the immediate right of ’91’?

Q2.Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A number arrangement machine when given an input of words/numbers, rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of
rearrangement.
Input: 29 oat 45 lap ice 18 21 ace 37 van 91 sun
Step 1: ace 29 oat 45 lap ice 21 37 van 91 sun 18
Step 2: ace ice 29 oat 45 lap 37 van 91 sun 18 21
Step 3: ace ice oat 45 lap 37 van 91 sun 18 21 29
Step 4: ace ice oat lap 45 van 91 sun 18 21 29 37
Step 5: ace ice oat lap sun van 91 18 21 29 37 45
Step 6: ace ice oat lap sun van 18 21 29 37 45 91
Step 7: 22 19 12 15 9 1 18 21 29 37 45 91
Step 8: 4 10 3 6 9 1 9 3 11 10 9 10
This is the final arrangement and step 9 is the last step for this input.
Input: fat pin 94 uni 41 46 oak 13 eat hut 28 93
1. Which element is 3rd to right of 6th from the right end in step 3?
2. How many numbers/words are there between uni and 41 in step 6?
3. If in a certain way ‘oak’ is related to ‘pin’ in step 4 and ‘pin’ is related to ‘13’ in step 5, then
in the same way ‘8’ is related to what in step 8?
4. What is the difference in the numbers which is 4th from right end in step 6 and which is
4th from the right end in last step?
5. Find the sum of numbers in the last step of the input.

Q3 Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A
number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers/words, rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of
rearrangement.
Input: been laws mind need seat then they
Step 1: need been laws they mind seat then
Step 2: they need been then laws mind seat
Step 3: then they need seat been laws mind
Step 4: seat then they mind need been laws
Step 5: mind seat then laws they need been
Step 6: laws mind seat been then they need
Step 7: been laws mind need seat then they
Step 8: 26 55 40 28 45 47 58
Step 9: 26 28 40 45 47 55 58
Input: data high late paid plan risk what
1. Which word/number is third to right of seventh element from right end in step 4?
2. In step 5, if ‘plan’ interchanges position with ‘high’ and ‘what’ with ‘data’, then which
word is between ‘plan’ and ‘data’?
3. How many words are there in between words ‘late’ and ‘what’ in step 6?
4. Which number is third to left of 5th from left end in step 8?
5. Find the difference in numbers which is 4th from right end in step 9 and 4th from
left end in step 8.
Q4.Directions (1 – 2): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Input:car and home loan borrowers are being addressed.
Step I: addressed car and home borrowers are being loan.
Step II:addressed and car borrowers are being loan home.
Step III:addressed and are borrowers being loan home car.
Step IV:addressed and are being loan home car borrowers.
Step V: addressed and are loan home car borrowers being.
Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
Input- each of the five questions has only one distinct answer
Q.1. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
(1) Four (2) Six (3) Five (4) Seven (5) None of these
Q.2. Which step number would be the following output?
answer each of one only distinct the question has five
(1) IV (2) V (3) VI (4) VII (5) None of these

Q5 . Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Input : 52 peak 91 snow freeze 46 cold 15 high 31 73 trek
Step I : 15 52 peak snow freeze 46 cold high 31 73 trek 91
Step II : 15 31 52 peak snow freeze 46 cold high trek 73 91
Step III : 15 31 46 peak snow freeze cold high trek 52 73 91
Step IV : 15 31 46 cold peak snow freeze high trek 52 73 91
Step V : 15 31 46 cold freeze peak snow high trek 52 73 91
Step VI : 15 31 46 cold freeze high peak snow trek 52 73 91

Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input for the questions.
Input: 67 hot sun 19 best 83 ice 49 ace 77 cut 37
1. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
2. Which Step number would be the following output?:
19 37 49 ace best hot sun ice cut 67 77 83
3. Write the Step I ?
4. Write the last Step?
5. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be on 7th position (from the
right)?

Q6. Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
When an input of words and numbers are given to a word and number
arrangement machine its rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement given below.
Input: telecom turtle tares 225 64 toll 49 81 treason 256
Step I: tares telecom turtle 225 64 toll 81 treason 256 49
Step II: tares telecom toll turtle 225 81 treason 256 49 64
Step III: tares telecom toll treason turtle 225 256 49 64 81
Step IV: tares telecom toll treason turtle 256 49 64 81 225
Step V: tares telecom toll treason turtle 49 64 81 225 256
Step VI: 19 13 12 14 5 7 8 9 15 16
Step VII: 1 4 3 5 5 7 8 9 6 7
Step VIII: 1 3 4 5 5 6 7 7 8 9
Step VIII is the last step of the above input arrangement.
as per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the following question the
appropriate step for the given input.

Input: shadow shade 100 324 shack shabby 441 676 snake 289 Squad 841
1. Write step V?
2. Step III of above input is: ‘shabby shack shade shadow 441 676 snake Squad 841 100
289 324’. How many more steps will be required to complete the above rearrangement?
3. How many steps will be required to complete the above Input?
4. What will be the last but one step?

Q7. Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Input: artificials extraordinary can't have superficial elephant
Step 1: extraordinary artificials can't have superficial elephant
Step 2: extraordinary superficial artificials can't have elephant
Step 3: extraordinary superficial artificials elephant can't have
Step 4: extraordinary superficial artificials elephant have can't
Step 5: 25 12 19 20 5 20
Step 6: 7 3 1 2 5 2

Input: Can curious frequently apparent elements fantabulous
1. Write last step?
2. Write last but one step?
3. How many steps will be required to complete the above Input?
Q 8 Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement. (BOB PRELIMS 2016)
Input: 42 chair 65 rocket 29 egg 98 still 85 52 holy apple.
Step I: apples 42 chair 65 rocket egg 98 still 85 52 holy 28
Step II: 41 apples 65 rocket egg 98 still 85 52 holy 28 chairs
Step III: eggs 41 apples 65 rocket 98 still 85 holy 28 chairs 51
Step IV: 64 eggs 41 apples rocket 98 still 85 28 chairs 51 holys
Step V: rockets 64 eggs 41 apples 98 still 28 chairs 51 holys 84
Step VI: 97 rockets 64 eggs 41 apples 28 chairs 51 holys 84 stills

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the steps given
above, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: call 85 76 implicit land 59 94 under ape sold 15 90.

1. In which step are the elements ’apes 94 under sold 90’ found in the same order?
(a) Fifth (b) Seventh (c) Third (d) Fourth (e) There is no such step

2. How many steps will be required to complete the above input?
(a) Eight (b) Six (c) Five (d) Seven (e) None of these

3. How many words or numbers are there between ‘under’ and ‘84’ as they appear in the fifth
step of the output?
(a) Six (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e) Seven

4. In the third step of the rearrangement, ‘land’ is related to ‘85’and ‘calls’ is related to ‘14’ in a
certain way. Which of the following would ‘sold’ be related to, following the same pattern?
(a) under (b) apes (c) 90 (d) 14 (e) 94

5. Which of the following represents the position of ‘58’ in the last but one step?
(a) Ninth from the right end (b) Tenth from the left end (c) Seventh from the right end
(d) Fourth from the left end (e) Both (a) and (d)

Q 9 Directions (1 – 5): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A
number arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearranges them following a
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
(SBI CLERK Mains 2016)
Input : 98 Bite 102 Legal 88 54 Mango 21 Cool Zing.

Step1: Bite 98 Legal 88 54 Mango 21 Cool Zing 102
Step2: Cool Bite Legal 88 54 Mango 21 Zing 102 98
Step3: Legal Cool Bite 54 Mango 21 Zing102 98 88
Step4: Mango Legal Cool Bite 21 Zing 102 98 88 54
Step5: Zing Mango Legal Cool Bite102 98 88 54 21

appropriate steps for the given input. Input for the questions.
Input: Kite 19 54 Give 31 Right 72 87 Dream Ace.
1. In step-3, what is position of ‘Ace’ from the left end?
(a) Third (b) Fifth (c) Second (d) Sixth (e) First

2. In step-5 , how many Letters/Numbers are between Dream and 72?
(a) Five (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six (e) Three

3. ‘Kite Give Dream Ace Right 87 72 54 31 19’ in which of the following step?
(a) Step-2 (b) Step-4 (c) Step-5 (d) There is no such Step (e) Step-3

4. In Step-2, which of the following letter/number is 5th right of Kite?
(a) 31 (b)Give (c)Right (d) 87 (e) 54

(a) Four (b) Two (c) Seven (d) Six (e) Fifth

Q 10 Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement. (IBPS RRB PO 2017)
Input: 97 nosy 21 snow cold 32 asian 46 65 viral 83 high
Step I: 211 97 nosy snow cold asian 46 65 viral 83 high 322
Step II: asian 211 97 nosy snow 46 65 viral 83 high 322 cold
Step III: 463 asian 211 97 nosy snow viral 83 high 322 cold 654
Step IV: high 463 asian 211 97 snow viral 83 322 cold 654 nosy
Step V: 835 high 463 asian 211 snow viral 322 cold 654 nosy 976
Step VI: snow 835 high 463 asian 211 322 cold 654 nosy 976 viral
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: peak 18 utility 76 emerge 27 beautiful 37 51 visible 86 know
(a) X (b) VIII (c) V (d) VI (e) None of these

2. What will the addition of the numbers which is fifth from the left end in step II and 5th from
the right end in step IV?
3. Which of the following would be the difference of the numbers which is 2nd from left end in
step IV and 2nd from right end in Step II?

4. Which of the following element will be 6th from the left of 3 rd from the right end in step V?
(a) 181 (b) beautiful (c) 373 (d) know (e) None of these

5. In Step IV, which of the following word/number would be on 4th position (from the left end)?
(a) visible (b) 181 (c) 97 (d) utility (e) None of these

Q 11 Directions (1 – 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions. (SBI PO MAINS 2016)
and rearrangement.
Input: 23 56 price 59 terrific 72 unit situation 86 information
Step I : 88 informatioish 23 56 price 59 terrific 72 unit situation
Step II : pricish 74 88 informatioish 23 56 59 terrific unit situation
Step III: 57 situatioish pricish 74 88 informatioish 23 56 terrifiish unit
Step IV : terrifiish 58 57 situatioish pricish 74 88 informatioish 23 unit
Step V : 21 uniish terrifiish 58 57 situatioish pricish 74 88 informatioish
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement.

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, find out in each of the following questions
the appropriate step for the given input.
Input : 22 39 since 12 growth sector 76 future demand 25
1. Which step number would be the following output?
futurish 37 78 demanish 22 since 12 sector growth 25
(a) Step IV (b) Step V (c) Step VI (d) Step VII (e) There will be no such step

2. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘futurish’ and ‘24’ as they appear
in the last step of the output?
(a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five (e) None of these

3. What is sum of the numbers which is second from the right and fourth from the left in the
third step?

Directions 12 (1-5): A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers
and rearrangement. (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
Input : where age 42 earn 17 Money in daddy 7 9
Step I : age when 42 earn 17 Money in daddy 7 9
Step II : age 42 we earn 17 Money in daddy 7 9
Step III : age 42 earn we 17 Money in daddy 7 9
Step IV : age 42 earn 7 we 17 Money in daddy 9
Step V : age 42 earn 7 in we 17 Money daddy 9
Step VI : age 42 earn 7 in daddy we 17 Money 9
Step VII : age 42 earn 7 in 17 daddy we Money 9
Step VIII : age 42 earn 7 in 17 daddy 9 we Money
Step IX : age 42 earn 7 in 17 daddy 9 Money we
Step IX is the last step.

1. If the following is the II nd step of an input what will be Vth step?
Step II : After 89 she 38 wins 11 Olympic 22 the 7
(1) after 89 she 7 the 22 Olympic 11 wins 38
(2) after 89 Olympic she 38 wins 11 22 the 7
(3) after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the wins 11 22
(4) after 89 Olympic 7 she 38 the 11 wins 22
(5) None of the above

2. Which of the following is the last step for the Input ‘eat 9 fast icecream 22 3 umbrella cat 5’?
(1) cat eat 9 fast 5 icecream 22 umbrella 3
(2) eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella 9 cat 5 fast
(3) eat 22 umbrella 3 icecream 9 cat 5 fast
(4) eat 22 icecream 3 umbrella5 cat 9 fast
(5) None of the above

3. Which step will be the last step for the Input ‘elephant 17 free open 41 27 danger 15’?
(1) IV (2) V (3) VI (4) VII (5) None of these

4. Which word/number will be at 4th from the left in step V for the given input in above
question?
(1) 41 (2) danger (3) open (4) 15 (5) None of these

5. Which word/number will be 3rd to the right of ‘41’ in step IV for the given input in Q. 3?
(1) open (2) danger (3) 15 (4) 17 (5) None of these

ANSWER KEYS
Q no 1 Solutions:
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. A

Q no 2 Solutions:
Words are arranged according to starting letter – first vowels, then consonants
For numbers: Multiply the digits of numbers and arrange in increasing order and then arrange in
steps
like in given example: numbers are 21, 18, 91, 29, 45, 37
Multiply the digits 2, 8, 9, 18, 20, 21. Arrange according to this order from back
Step 7: number corresponding to first letter of word. ace(1) ice(9) oat(15) lap(12) sun(19)
van(22)
Put in back order: 22 19 12 15 9 and 1
Step 8: add the digits of numbers.
Input: fat pin 94 uni 41 46 oak 13 eat hut 28 93
Step 1: eat fat pin 94 uni 41 46 oak hut 28 93 13
Step 2: eat oak fat pin 94 uni 46 hut 28 93 13 41
Step 3: eat oak uni fat pin 94 46 hut 93 13 41 28
Step 4: eat oak uni fat pin 94 hut 93 13 41 28 46
Step 5: eat oak uni fat pin 94 hut 13 41 28 46 93
Step 6: eat oak uni fat pin hut 13 41 28 46 93 94
Step 7: 8 16 6 21 15 5 13 41 28 46 93 94
Step 8: 8 7 6 3 6 5 4 5 10 10 12 13
1. C
2. E
3. A
4. E
5. B

Q no 3 Solutions:
Observe that input and step 7 is same.
In steps 1 to 7:
Fourth word is taken at beginning and last word at fourth place. In each step this is performed.
Step 8: Addition of all numbers corresponding to letters in word. been = 2+5+5+14 = 26
Step 9: All numbers arranged in ascending order
Input: data high late paid plan risk what
Step 1: paid data high what late plan risk
Step 2: what paid data risk high late plan
Step 3: risk what paid plan data high late
Step 4: plan risk what late paid data high
Step 5: late plan risk high what paid data
Step 6: high late plan data risk what paid
Step 7: data high late paid plan risk what
Step 8: 26 32 38 30 43 57 52
Step 9: 26 30 32 38 43 52 57
1. C
2. E
3. D
4. A
5. C

Q no 4 Solutions:
1. 3
2. 1

Q no 5 Solutions:
Explanation:
There are six numbers and six words in the input. The three numbers are placed in the beginning
and the remaining three numbers are placed in the last. The numbers are rearranged in
ascending order. The six words are rearranged in alphabetical order in the middle.
Input : 67 hot sun 19 best 83 ice 49 ace 77 cut 37
Step I : 19 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 83
Step II : 19 37 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace cut 77 83
Step III : 19 37 49 hot sun best ice ace cut 67 77 83
Step IV : 19 37 49 ace hot sun best ice cut 67 77 83
Step V : 19 37 49 ace best hot sun ice cut 67 77 83
Step VI : 19 37 49 ace best cut hot sun ice 67 77 83
Step VII : 19 37 49 ace best cut hot ice sun 67 77 83
Seven steps are needed to complete the arrangement.
1. 7
2. Step V
3. 19 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 83
4. 19 37 49 ace best cut hot ice sun 67 77 83
5. Sun

Q no 6 Solutions:
1. Shabby shack shade shadow snake Squad 841 100 289 324 441 676
2. 6
3. 9
4. 7 2 5 5 5 4 1 8 9 3 8 2

Q no 7 Solutions:
1. 1 7 1 1 2 5
2. 19 25 19 19 20 14
3. 7

Q no 8 Solutions:
Directions (1-5): Logic: In the given machine input, in first step smallest letter according to
dictionary is arranged with addition of “s” at extreme left side and the smallest number among
all by subtracting “1” is arranged at extreme right side and in next step second smallest number
among all by subtracting “1” is arranged at extreme left side and second smallest letter
according to dictionary is arranged with addition of “s” at extreme right side. And this process is
continued upto last step. Input: call 85 76 implicit land 59 94 under ape sold 15 90.
Step I: apes call 85 76 implicit land 59 94 under sold 90 14
Step II: 58 apes 85 76 implicit land 94 under sold 90 14 calls
Step III: implicits 58 apes 85 land 94 under sold 90 14 calls 75
Step IV: 84 implicits 58 apes 94 under sold 90 14 calls 75 lands
Step V: solds 84 implicits 58 apes 94 under 14 calls 75 lands 89
Step VI: 93 solds 84 implicits 58 apes 14 calls 75 lands 89 unders
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (e)

Q no 9 Solutions:
Direction (1-5)
Input: Kite 19 54 Give 31 Right 72 87 Dream Ace.
Step1: Ace Kite 19 54 Give 31 Right 72 Dream 87.
Step2: Dream Ace Kite 19 54 Give 31 Right 87 72.
Step3: Give Dream Ace Kite 19 31 Right 87 72 54.
Step4: Kite Give Dream Ace 19 Right 87 72 54 31.
Step5: Right Kite Give Dream Ace 87 72 54 31 19.
‘Step-5’ is the final step of this input.
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (e)

Q no 10 Solutions:
Logic: - There are six numbers and six words in the input. In the first step the numbers are
arranged in ascending order from both the ends with a natural number starting from 1 at unit
place in left end number and with a natural number 2 at unit place in right end number. After that
in second step the words are arranged in alphabetical order from both the ends. And then again
number are arranged in third step and words are arranged in forth step and so on.
Input: peak 18 utility 76 emerge 27 beautiful 37 51 visible 86 know
Step I: 181 peak utility 76 emerge beautiful 37 51 visible 86 know 272
Step II: beautiful 181 peak utility 76 37 51 visible 86 know 272 emerge
Step III: 373 beautiful 181 peak utility 76 visible 86 know 272 emerge 514
Step IV: know 373 beautiful 181 utility 76 visible 86 272 emerge 514 peak
Step V: 765 know 373 beautiful 181 utility visible 272 emerge 514 peak 866
Step VI: utility 765 know 373 beautiful 181 272 emerge 514 peak 866 visible
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (b)

Q no 11 Solutions:
The machine rearranges one number and one word in each step. Words are arranged in an
alphabetical order whereas numbers are arranged in an order of decreasing order and there is
an addition of two in every even numbers and subtraction of two in every odd numbers. In first
step, firstly there is an arrangement of number and then alphabet. In second step, firstly there is
an arrangement of alphabet and then number and so on. And there is replacement of last digit
of alphabets with ‘ish’ after rearrangement.
Input: 22 39 since 12 growth sector 76 future demand 25
Step I : 78 demanish 22 39 since 12 growth sector future 25
Step II : futurish 37 78 demanish 22 since 12 growth sector 25
Step III: 23 growtish futurish 37 78 demanish 22 since 12 sector
Step IV: sectoish 24 23 growtish futurish 37 78 demanish since 12
Step V : 14 sincish sectoish 24 23 growtish futurish 37 78 demanish
1. (e)
2. (e)
3. (d)

Q no 12 Solutions:
1. 3
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 2

Data Sufficiency
In this type of questions a problem is given. Problem can be related to any topic such as puzzle
test, coding-decoding, distance and directions, blood relation etc. is given, followed by certain
statements. These statements will give certain clues to solve the given question. The candidate
is required to find out which statements is/are sufficient to answer the given question.

Q1. Who among siddhartha, Nikunj, Vipul and Mukul is the youngest?
I. Vipul is younger than Mukul but older than siddhartha and Nikunj.
II. Mukul is the oldest.
III. Siddhartha is older than Nikunj. (SBI PO 1997)
1. Only I
2. I and II together
3. II and III together
4. I and III together
5. None of these

Directions(2-7) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and the two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. you have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and -
(IBPS PO/MT 2014)

Give answer(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone sufficient to answer the
question.

Give answer (4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.

Give answer (5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

Q2. 6 friends A B C D E and F are sitting around a circular table. some of them are facing outside
while some others are facing towards the centre. What is the position of C with respect F?
I. C is sitting second to the left of D, D is facing towards the centre.F is an immediate
neighbour of both A and D. E is sitting second to the right of the B. B.is not an immediate
neighbour of A. F faces just opposite to that of B.
II. Two persons are sitting between D and E. D and E are facing towards the centre. E is an
immediate neighbour of both C and A. F faces the same direction as that of B. D is an
immediate neighbour of both B and F. F is not an immediate neighbour of C.

Q3. 7 people P, Q, R, S, T, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing North but not necessarily in
the same order. how many people sit to the right of P?
I. R sits at one of the extreme end of the line. T has as many people sitting on his right, as
to his left.
II. S sits third to the left of X. Q sits to the immediate left of the W. Q does not sit at any of
the extreme ends of the line.

Q4. Points M is towards which direction from point H?
I. If a person walks 6 metres towards west from point M, takes a left turn and walks 6
metres again, he would be 5 metres away from the point H.
II. Point M is towards the north of point N; point N is towards the east of point T and point
H is towards the East of point T.

Q5. How part is written in a certain code language?
I. In that code language ‘going to a party’ is written as ‘la fa gi ne’ and ‘for a party’ is written
as ‘fa di ne’.
II. In that code language ‘start the party’ is written as ‘ne bs am’ and ‘going to start’ is
written as ‘gi bs la’.
Q6. How is ranjay related to Parvati?
I. Ranjay is son of Parvati’s grandfather’s only daughter.
II. Ranjay has no siblings. Parvati has only one brother.

Q7. Among M, R, H, D and S who scored the highest marks in an Examination?
I. R scored more than D but less than S.
II. M scored less than H and D. H has not scored the highest marks.

Directions(8-12) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and the two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. you have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and -
(SBI PO 2014)

Give answer(1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer(2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone sufficient to answer the
question.

Give answer (4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.

Give answer (5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

Q8. Who is the lightest amongst A, B, C, D, And E.
I. D is heavier than C and lighter than A.
II. B is heavier only than E.

Q9. On which date of the month was rajiv born?
I. Rajiv’s mother correctly remembers that he was born after 12th and before 18th of May.
II. Rajiv’s father correctly remembers that he was born before 23rd and after 16th of May.

Q10. How many brothers does sonal have?
I. Nisha, the mother of sonal’s brother has only two children.
II. Sonal’s brother has only one sister.

Q11. Town M is towards which direction of Town L?
I. Driving 50km in a straight line from Town M leads to Town L?
II. Towns M and L are located between towns K and P.

Q12. How is ‘Late’ coded in the language?
I. ‘Came late to office’ is coded as ‘so ti ly ja’ and late in the night ‘ is coded as ‘fo pa ti me’.
II. ‘It was late summer’ is coded as ‘ru ki ne ti’ and ‘reached two hours late’ is coded as ‘ti le
di co’.

Directions(13-14) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements
numbered I,II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question: (IBPS PO/MT 2013)
Q13. Who is the daughter in law of B?
I. I is the brother of D. S is the wife of J’s nephew.
II. R is the brother of N. T is the son of N. S is the mother of T.
III. B is the wife of D. D is the father of N. D has two children.
(1) Only I and III
(2) All I, II and III
(3) Only II and III
(4) Questions cannot be answered even with all I, II and III.
(5) Only I and II

Q14. How many students are there in the class?
I. There are more than 22 but less than 36 students in the class.
II. If students of the class are divided into groups each group has exactly 11 students.
III. There are more than 29 but less than 45 students in the class.
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only II and either I or III are required to answer the question
(3) Only II and III
(4) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(5) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.

Directions(15-18) Each of the questions below consists of a questions below consists of a
question and three statements numbered I,II and III given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
(SBI ME 2014)

Q15. Who amongst P,Q,R,S,T and V ,each securing different marks, secured the second lowest
marks?
I. R and T secured more marks than P and Q
II. V secured the highest marks
III. S secured more marks than P but less than Q.
(1) Only I and III
(2) All I,II and III are required to answer the question
(3) Only II and III
(4) Question cannot be answered even with all I, II and III
(5) Only I and II

Q16. Which village is to the North-East of Village R?
I. Village S is to the South-East of Village N which is to the South-West of village P and
Village P is to the North of Village Q.
II. Village T is to the North-West of Village Q which is to the south of village P.
III. Village R which is to the North of Village S, lies between villages N and Q and village N is
to the West of Village R.
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only II and III
(3) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question
(4) All I, II and III are required to answer the question
(5) Only I and III or only II and III are required to answer the question

Q17. What is the rank of Animesh in a class of 17 students?
I. Nirmal who is thirteen from the bottom is six rank ahead of bhumika who is two position
below Animesh.
II. Bhumika is four position ahead of kamal.
III. Bhumika is two position below Animesh and Kamal’s rank is 15th.
(1) Only I and III
(2) Only I and II
(3) Only I or II and III together are required to answer the question
(4) Only II is required to answer the question
(5) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question

Q18. How is ‘them’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Tell them young’ is written as ‘seme ye’ and ‘wise young sharp tell’ is written as ‘me yo
na ye’ in that code language.
II. ‘Clever sharp come tomorrow’ is written as ‘na ki pa lo’ and ‘bring clever young them’ is
written as ‘ki po se ye’ in that code language.
III. ‘Clever sharp come tomorrow’ is written as ‘pa na se ki te’ and ‘yellow come sharp run
clever no’ is written as ‘ki ni pa be te na’ in that code language.
(1) Only III is required to answer the question
(2) Only I and II are required to answer the question
(3) Only I or II and III together are required to answer the question.
(4) Only II is required to answer the question
(5) All I,II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.

Answer Key-
1. (4) I and III together
2. (3)
3. (5)
4. (4)
5. (5)
6. (5)
7. (5)
8. (2)
9. (5)
10. (1)
11. (4)
12. (3)
13. (3)
14. (1)
15. (2)
16. (5)
17. (3)
18. (1)


Data sufficiency questions asked in previous years

Directions (1-2): In each of the following questions, a question is followed by three statements
numbered I, II and III. Read all the statements to find the answer to given question and then
answer accordingly that which statement/s can give the answer alone/together.
(SBI PO MAINS 2017)
Q1. What is the direction of point U with respect to point X?
Statement I: Point R is 7 m to the North of point Q. Point P is 8 m to the West of point Q. Point R
is 6 m to the West of point U.
Statement II: Point B is 9 m to the North of point A. Point P is 5 m to the North of point Z. Point
Z is 4 m to the West of point A.
Statement III: Point C is 7 m to the East of point A. Point X is 2 m to the East of point F. Point F
is 3 m to the North of point C
(a) Both I and III
(b) Both II and III
(c) All I, II and III
(d) II and either I or III
(e) Even I, II and III together are also not sufficient
Q2. What does the code ‘bp’ stand for in the given code language? (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
Statement I: In the language, ‘black white red’ is coded as ‘df dc or’ and ‘green blue grey’ is
coded as ‘st hn wo’
Statement II: In the language, ‘blue pink brown’ is coded as ‘er bp hn’ and ‘pink blue white’ is
coded as ‘hn or bp’
Statement III: In the language, ‘green violet orange’ is coded as ‘pa wo kl’ and ‘yellow pink
brown’ is coded as ‘bp bi er’
(a) Both II and III
(b) I and either II or III
(c) II and either I or III
(d) Both I and III
(e) All I, II and III
Directions (3-7) – Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give Answer (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question,while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in Statement I alone or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
d) If the data in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the Statement I and II are together necessary to answer the question

3. What is the difference in the age of Paarth and Keshav?
I. Paarth is 20 years older than Mohan
II. Mohan is 2 years younger than Zorawar

4. The sum of ages of Manak, Neesha and Opendar is 50 years. What is Neesha’s age?
I. Neesha is 10 year older than Manak
II. Opendar is 30 year old

5. How many students are there in the class?
I. There are more than 20 but less than that 27 students in the class.
II. There are more than 24 but less than 31 students in the class. The number of students in the
class can be divided into groups such that each group contains 5 students.

6. Among five friends – Jatin, Kalu, Lucky, Manish and Naresh each of a different height, who is
the second tallest?
I. Naresh is taller than Manish and Kalu. Kalu is shorter than Manish.
II. Lucky is taller than Naresh. Jatin is not the tallest.

7. How is ‘call’ written in a code language?
I. ‘call me back’ is written as ‘531’ in that code language.
II. ‘you can call me any time’ is written as ‘94163’ in that code language

Direction (8-12): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
d) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(BOB 2016)
8. There are six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sitting around a table. Who is on the immediate right
of T?
I. Only U is sitting between T and P.
II. P is third to the right of S.

9. What is the shortest distance between two points `A’ and `B’?
I. ‘A’ is 15 km North from another point ‘ P’, which is to the East of ‘B’ at a distance of 22 km.
II. point ‘X’ is to the West of ‘B’ at a distance of 5.6 km and to the North of ‘A’ at a distance of 6.5
km.

10. Who is Kavita’s sister?
I. Sapna is the granddaughter of Amit, who is the father of Kavita’s father.
II. The name of Kavita’s sister starts with the letter ‘S’.
11. Who among the five friends Sumit, Tare, Mukesh, Vikrant and Basuki is the youngest?
I. Basuki is older than three of them but Sumit is younger than Mukesh.
II. Tare is older than Vikrant and Basuki.

12. What is the code for ‘book’ in a code language?
I. In that language `pik tik rik’means ‘I like reading’ and ‘mik nek bek fek’ means ‘this book is
interesting’.
II. In the same language ‘pik tik mik rik’means ‘I like reading book’ and ‘mik juk pan’ means ‘you
write book’.

Solutions:
1. (c) All I, II and III
2. (c) II and either I or III
3. (d)Relation between Paarth and Keshav can not be established with the help of both
Statements I and II. So, both the statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
4. (e)
5. (e) From Statement I Number of Students in class = 21 or 22 or 23 or 24 or 25 or 26 From
Statement II Number of Students in class = 25 or 26 or 27 or 28 or 29 or 30 Since, number of
students can be divided into groups of 5 students, therefore number of students must be
multiple of 5. Number of students in the class = 25 or 30 On combining Statements I and II
Number of students in the class = 25 Hence, the data in both the Statement I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
6. (d)From Statement I: Naresh > Manish > Kalu
From Statement II: Lucky > Naresh
Hence from both the Statements
Lucky > Naresh > Manish > Kalu
But height of Jatin is not clear.
Thus, second tallest friend can’t be determined.
Hence, data neither in Statement I nor in Statement II are sufficient to answer the question.
7. (d) Both the statements are not sufficient.
8. (d) Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions.
9. (c) Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
10. (d) From statement I and II together still it is still not clear who is Kavita’s sister. It is not
sure whether Sapna is sister or cousin of Kavita.
11. (d) From I and II : – Still we do not know who is the youngest.
12. (b) From II. we get code for book is “mik”.

Statement and Assumption
Format of Question:
In each question, below is given a statement followed by 2 assumption numbered 1 & 2.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit
in the statement.
Key Points:
● Statement is a part of our speech of which most of the ideas remain
unexpressed.
● Assumption is something in which the reader assume something on the basis of
the given statement.
● If statement and assumption are not co-related, then it is not implicit.
● Assumption is always positive regarding the completion of the work favoring the
executor.
● Request/advise/order is considered valid in the case of assumption.
There may be 4 types of question.

1. Advertisement based
2. Warning based
3. Information based
4. Passage based.
Directions(1-4): In each of these question given a statement followed by two

assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide
which of these is/are implicit in the statement.Give answers:
(1) Only I is Implicit

(2) Either I or II is implicit
(3) Only II is implicit
(4) Both I and II are implicit
(5) Neither I nor II is implicit
1. St: An advertisement in the newspaper- “Learn a foreign language course to get a

high paying job”
Assumption: I. All those who learn foreign language get highly paid job.
II. Only a foreign language can get someone a high paying job.
2. St: “Do not lean out of the door of the bus”- A warning in a school bus.
Assumption: I.Leaning out of running bus is dangerous.
II. Children do not pay attention to such warning
3. St: “Do not enter- avoid the risk of getting infected with the ABC disease”- written
outside the quarantine ward no. 2(meant only for ABC disease of a hospital)
Assumption: I.Disease ABC is contagious.
II. All the patients in ward no 2 suffer from disease ABC.
4. St: India’s contribution to the growing global market of management consultancy may
touch 5 billion dollars by 2030, which is 10% of the current export size.
Assumption: I.The current export size is 50 billion dollar.
II. The current year is 2010.
Q1. The constable has been recommended for a suitable reward by his superior in
recognition of his sincere duty and busting of several gangs of criminals actively
involved in the loot and incidents of pickpocketing.
Which of the following can be a possible assumption of the above statement?
(1) The superior is certain that recommendation would be denied.
(2) The number of criminals apprehended by this particular constable was
exceptionally high.
(3) The constable desires to be monetarily compensated for his efforts.
(4) The superior wants to set an example for his other juniors by recommending the
reward.
(5) Rewards recognising the sincerity and accomplishments of policemen are given.
(IBPS SO CWE 2013)
Q2. The Government has appealed to all citizens to use potable water judiciously as
there is an acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in future
months.
Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above statement?(An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted)
(1) People may ignore the appeal and continue using water as per their
consideration.
(2) Government may be able to tap those who do not respond to the appeal
(3) Government may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event
of a crisis situation.
(4) Large number of people may positively respond to the Government’s appeal and
help tide over the crisis.
(5) Only poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply.
(IBPS PO 2011)
Q3. Directions(3-4): In each of these question given a statement followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide
which of these is/are implicit in the statement.
3. Statement: Send employee XYZ for a training in UK to gain more insight into the
project which he is handling at present. (SBI Associates PO 2014)
I. Some similar training programs are available in the employee’s own country as
well.
II. With the present skill sets, employee XYZ is incapable of handling the project.
(1) Only I is Implicit
(2) Either I or II is implicit
(3) Only II is implicit
(4) Both I and II are implicit
(5) Neither I nor II is implicit
4. Statement: Minute traces of nitrate sometimes present in cattle fodder B may be

responsible for the poor health of the cattle therefore use fodder G to ensure that your
cattle remain healthy.
I. Cattle fodder G does not contain nitrate.
II. Nitrate is toxic to all living beings.
1. Only I is Implicit
2. Either I or II is implicit
3. Only II is implicit
4. Both I and II are implicit
5. Neither I nor II is implicit
Q5. Statements: The ‘X’ Finance company has launched a new tractor loan scheme. It
has brought prosperity among the farmers.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above statements?
(1) The prosperity of farmers solely depends upon the tractor loan scheme.
(2) Tractor is an important input for farmers to enhance the farm activities
(3) Earlier there was no tractor loan scheme for farmers
(4) Farmers do not prefer to take loans for buying tractors.
(5) None of these (IBPS PO/MT 2013)
Directions(6-11): In each question below is given a statement followed by two

assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken
for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither assumption I or assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if both assumptions I and II are implicit. (BOI PO 2010)
Q6. Statement: Job rotation helps employee get an overview of the organisation
Assumptions:
I. Job relation is the only method to get an overview of the organisation.
II. It is required to have an overview of the organisation.
Q7. Statement: Let us appoint Ms. X as the CEO of our Company so that the
company’s products are also perceived to be genuine.
Assumptions:
I. CEO can change the perception of products.
II. Perception is same as the actual reality.
Q8. Statement: An advertisement -

The new model has been launched with K-series engine.
Assumptions:
I. People know about K-Series engine.
II. Engine type/series is important for buyers
Q9.Statement: Mohan tells Nita, “Let us meet over lunch tomorrow”.
Assumptions:
I. Lunch timings are known to both.
II. Both are aware of the venue for launch.
Q10. Statement: You need to be talented to identify talent

Assumptions:
I. Talent is acquired and developed.
II. Talent is hereditary.
Q11. Statement : The movie is a super-duper hit and has broken all the records.
Assumptions:
I. There is no authentic criterion to judge a hit or a flop.
II. The performance of earlier movies is known.
Directions(12-16): In each question below is given a statement followed by two

assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken
for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only assumption I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither assumption I or assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both assumptions I and II are implicit.
(United India Insurance AAO 2012)
12. Statement: “Though the candidates have been instructed to bring pencil, yet
provide some pencils with each invigilator”-
An instruction to test administration staff.
Assumptions:
I. Pencils are in short supply
II. All the candidates will bring the pencil.
13. Statement: “Please drop this letter in the letterbox”- An officer tells his assistant.
Assumptions:
I. The Assistant knows the address where the letter is to be sent.
II. The Assistant would follow the instructions.
14. Statements: If you want timely completion of work-Provide independent cabins”- An
employee tells the director of a Company.
Assumptions:
I. There are not enough cabins
II. Others presence hinders timely timely completion of work.
15.Statements: “We need to appoint more teachers”-Principal informs the school staff.
Assumptions:
I. Teachers are available.
II. Present teachers are not good.
Answer Key:
1. 5
2. 4
3. 5
4. 1
5. 2
6. 2
7. 1
8. 5
9. 5
10. 1
11. 2
12. 4
13. 4
14. 4
15. 1

Statement and assumption questions asked in previous years(IBPS

PO/SBI PO)
1. Statement:- By asking five prominent hospitals in the national capital to deposit nearly Rs.
600 crore to compensate for their failure to treat poor patients, the Delhi government has drawn
attention to the social obligation of healthcare providers in the corporate sector as well as the
need for timely enforcement of applicable regulations. According to the Delhi government,
trusts and registered societies to which public land was allotted to establish hospitals were
required to earmark a percentage of their medical facilities and services for indigent patients.
(IBPS PO MAINS 2016)
Assumptions:
I. This strengthens the case for private hospitals to dedicate a part of their services to those
who cannot afford treatment.
II.Social responsibility of hospitals must be monitored and central government should ensure
compliance by the corporate hospitals.
III. There is a great need for the government to monitor and enforce “health services” so that the
poor who cannot afford modern health facilities that are extremely costly- are able to be
benefited.
(a) All are implicit
(b) Only III is implicit
(c) Only I and III are implicit
(d) Only I and II are implicit
(e) None is implicit
2. The ancient Nubians inhabited an area in which typhus occurs, yet surprisingly few of their
skeletons show the usual evidence of this disease. The skeletons do show deposits of
tetracycline, an antibiotic produced by a bacterium common in Nubian soil. This bacterium can
flourish on the dried grain used for making two staples of Nubian diet, beer and bread. Thus,
tetracycline in their food probably explains the low incidence of typhus among ancient Nubians.
(IBPS PO MAINS 2016)
Which of the following is an assumption that can be drawn from the passage?
I. Infectious diseases other than typhus to which the ancient Nubians were exposed are
unaffected by tetracycline.
II. Tetracycline is not rendered ineffective as an antibiotic by exposure to the process involved in
making bread and beer.
III. Typhus cannot be transmitted by ingesting bread or beer contaminated with the infectious
agents of this disease.
IV. Bread and beer were the only items in the diet of the ancients Nubians which could have
contained tetracycline.
V. Typhus is generally fatal.
(a) Only II follows
(b) Only III & V follow
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only II,III,IV and V follow
(e) None of these
3. The Government has appealed to all citizens to use potable water judiciously as there is an
acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in future months. Which of
the assumptions is implicit in the above statement? An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted) (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
(a)People may ignore the appeal and continue using water as per their consideration
(b)Government may be able to tap those who do not respond to the appeal
(c)Government may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of a crisis
situation
(d)Large number of people may positively respond to the Government’s appeal and help tide
over the crisis
(e)Only poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply
4. Statement: Science is a sort of news agency comparable in principle to other news agencies.
But this news agency gives us information which is reliable to an extraordinary high degree due
to elaborate techniques of verification and its capacity to survive centuries. So, science should
be read with as much interest as we read news. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
Assumptions:
I. Science encourages investigative spirit.
II.People read news out of interest.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit
(b) If only assumption II is implicit
(c) If either I or II is implicit
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit
(e) Both I and II are implicit
5. Twenty percent of all energy consumed in the country is consumed by home appliances. If
appliances that are twice as energy-efficient as those currently available are manufactured, this
figure will eventually be reduced to about ten percent.(IBPS PO MAINS 2016)
The argument above requires which of the following assumptions?
(a) Home-appliance usage would not increase along with the energy efficiency of the
appliances.
(b) It would not be expensive to manufacture home appliances that are energy-efficient.
(c) Home-appliance manufacturers now have the technology to produce appliances that are
twice as energy-efficient as those currently available.
(d) The cost of energy to the consumer would rise with increases in the energy efficiency of
home appliances.
(e) None of these
SOLUTION:
1. (c);Such strict actions of Delhi government made private hospitals to serve their services to
poor people. So I is implicit. But nothing is mentioned about central government in the
statement II also it is a course of action, So, II is not implicit. According to statement Delhi Govt.
wanted to provide medical facilities for indigent patients. So we can assume that there is need
for the govt. to monitor and enforce health services to the needy person.
2. (a);Statement II is a valid assumption as tetracycline is produced by a bacterium which is
found in Nubian soil and the bacterium can develop on the grain which is used in making bread
& beer.so tetracycline is formed through the process of making of bread & beer. Statement I is
not valid because nothing is said in the passage about the disease other than typhus. Statement
III is also not valid because Typhus is a disease and the statement talks about the
contamination of a disease by another disease which is wrong in the context of this passage.
Statement IV & V is invalid as No information is given in the passage that bread & beer were
their only items in the diet and also about Typhus is fatal.
3. Ans.(d) Sol. Option (d) is an assumption. Any appeal has some effects and people generally
respond positively to any appeal.
4. Ans.(d) Sol. Both I and II can’t be assumed from the given statement as statement I is vague
and II statement is also not implicit because it is not clear from the given statement that
whether people are interested in such news or not.
5. Sol: 1. (a) This argument is based on the assumption that if the appliances become more
efficient, then more homes would not be tempted to increase their utility/consumption in the
household.
Statement and Arguments
● Mostly these questions are followed by two contrary argument and you have to
decide which of the given argument is strong and which is weak.
● It is necessary to understand which one is weak and which one is strong.
● Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the
question.
● Weak arguments are those which are less important and not directly related to
the question.
STRONG ARGUMENTS:
An argument is considered as strong argument in the following cases.
1. When related to development: If an argument is related to development of a
country whether infrastructure development or educational development, etc,
then it is considered as strong argument.
2. Universal truth: If any argument is universally accepted, that cannot be denied
and it is related with the statement, then it is a strong argument.
Ex: Computer is beneficial to us.
3. Analyzed Truth: The decision taken by our government/ constitutional body/
united nation or any supreme authority is always welcomed and is deemed as a
strong argument.
Ex: Primary education has been incorporated as fundamental rights in India.
4. Experience based: If any argument is on the basis of experience, then it will be
accepted.
Ex: E-commerce should be encouraged in our country.
WEAK ARGUMENTS:
An argument is considered as weak argument in the following cases.
1. Ambiguous: The argument which are not clear in meaning and creates doubt or
confusion, then it is considered as weak argument.
Ex: One should eat, drink freely because tomorrow one has to die.
2. Copied Argument: If any argument shows that the sentence is immitating or
copying anything then it can’t be accepted.
Ex: M S Dhoni should take retirement from cricket because most of the cricketer
prefer to retire at this age.
3. Opinion Based: If there is any personal suggestion, opinion, comments etc.,
then such type of argument can never be accepted.
Ex: Relocating the factories out of the city is the only way to save our city from
the pollution
4. Superfluous: The argument that can’t be accepted is known as superfluous
argument.
Ex: Import of foreign books should be banned.

Directions to Solve
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and
II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’
argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.
1. Statement: Military service should be made compulsory in the country.
Arguments: I. Yes, every citizen should protect his country.

II. No, it is against the policy of non-violence.

2. Statement: Non vegetarian foods should be totally banned in our country.
Arguments: I. Yes,it is expensive and therefore beyond the means of most people in our country.
II. Nothing should be banned in a democratic country.

3. Statement: Should mercy death be legalised?
Arguments: I. Yes,patients undergoing terrible suffering and have absolutely no chance of
recovery should be liberated from sufferings through mercy death.
II. No, even mercy death is a sort of killing and killing can never be legalised.

Exercise
Q1. Statement: Doctors found that company M is selling drugs without testing the
important aspects of the drugs. Such practice tends the doctor to negate the use of
drug.
Which of the following arguments would strengthen the stance of the Company
M?
(1) The commercial production of any drug is permitted after its repeated trial and
verification of result.
(2) Some other companies are also selling the drugs which are sold by the company
M.
(3) Some people do not agree with the view put forward by the doctors.
(4) Any drug is put on test by the pharmacist. Doctors are not competent to approve
or disapprove any drug.
(5) Doctors promote those drugs which are very costly as they have some share in
the profit.
(IBPS PO/MT CWE-IV 2014)
Directions(2-4) Read the following statements carefully and answer the questions
which follow. (IBPS SO CWE 2013)
Q2. Statement: The ministry of sports has been advised by a committee to take the
highest award in the field of sports back from two players who were allegedly involved in
match fixing.
Which of the following statements would weaken the argument put forward by the
committee to the sports ministry?
1) A good conduct in the past and a lack of evidence against the players make the
case against them very weak.
2) The ministry of sports has never declined the recommendations made by the
committee earlier.
3) Taking the award back from the players would set a good example to other
players for avoiding such actions in the future.
4) There have been past cases where the award had to be taken back from the
players owing to some misconduct later on.
5) The committee is constituted of some of the most respected and esteemed
members from the field of sports and politics.
Q3. Statement: Many organizations have been resorting to recruitment based upon
performance at graduate/post graduate level exams rather than conducting exams for
the same purpose.
Which of the following statements would strengthen the argument given in the
above statement?
1) A recent study shows no link of past performance with the performance in
recruitment exams.
2) The graduate/post graduate exams are considered to be severely deficient in
training in job related environment.
3) Organisations which had undertaken recruitment on the basis of graduate/post
graduate exams report a significant drop in the quality of the recruited
employees.
4) Such policies would add to unemployment among students having below
average performance in graduation or post graduation.
5) Such policies could save time,money and resources of the organisation which
are wasted in the conduct of recruitment examinations.
Q4. Statement: According to a recent government directive, all bank branches in rural
areas should be computerized.
Which of the following statements would weaken the government’s argument?
1) Computerization of bank branches in urban areas has helped in making their
performance more efficient and fast.
2) Lack of skilled and qualified manpower has been suitably substituted by
computers in banks.
3) Non- computerised bank branches in the rural areas have been proved to be as
efficient as their computerized counterparts.
4) The government has introduced a special test for computer knowledge in all
recruitment exams for banks.
5) Unemployment in the rural areas could be controlled by training more and more
professionals in computers.
Q5. Statement : It has been reported in a recent study that intake of moderate quantity
of milk chocolate reduces the risk of suffering from the central nervous system related
illnesses.
Which of the following would weaken the findings of the study reported in the
above statement?
1) People generally prefer to eat chocolate when they are young.
2) Majority of those not diagnosed with diseases related to central nervous system
have stayed away from eating chocolates in their lives.
3) Chocolates contain certain elements which strengthen the functions of the central
nervous system.
4) Majority of those suffering from the central nervous system related diseases are
middle aged.
5) Many of those who suffer from diabetes also suffer from other major ailments.
(IBPS SO CWE 2012)
Q6. A very large number of technically qualified young indians are coming out of
colleges every year though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful
employment.
Which of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?
1) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like
BA/B.Sc /B.Com etc.
2) The Government has not done effective perspective planning for engaging
technically qualified personnel while authorising the setting up of technical
colleges.
3) A huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified
graduates and requirement of the industry.
4) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from india to developed
countries for better opportunities.
5) None of these (IBPS PO/MT 2011)
Directions(7-11) In making decision about important questions, it is desirable to

be able to distinguish between “Strong” argument and “Weak” argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong.
Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.
Give answer (3) if either argument I or II is strong.
Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor II is strong.
Give answer (5) if both argument I and II are strong. (SBI Associates bank PO 2007)
Q7. Statement: Should the habit of late coming in educational institutions be checked?
Arguments:
I. No,Until it affects the work.
II. Yes. discipline must be maintained.
Q8. Statement: Should seniority be the only criterion for the promotion?
Arguments:
I. No, All the senior employees are not interested in promotion.
II. Yes. Otherwise senior employees do feel humiliated.
Q9. Statement: Should children be prevented completely from watching television?

Arguments:
I. No. We get vital information regarding education through television
III. Yes. It hampers the study of children.
Q10. Statement: Should trade unions be banned completely?

Arguments:
I. No. This is the only way through which employees can put their demands before
management.
II. Yes. Employees get their illegal demands fulfilled through these unions.
Q11. Statement: Should women be given equal opportunity in matter of employment in

every field?
Arguments:
I. Yes. They are equally capable.
II. No. They have to shoulder household responsibilities too.
Q12. Statement:Many Major automakers will increase the prices of their vehicles by 7
percent from next month, mainly to offset higher input and operational costs.
Which of the following arguments would weaken the facts given in the statement?
Arguments:
1) The largest auto maker in the country, Verontee had failed to make any profit
when prices for its vehicles were increased by almost 4 percent.
2) Operational and input costs continue to be 85% of the total costs of the vehicles.
3) Both input and operational costs were gradually increased by the government to
avoid sudden transit losses to the companies.
4) At any given time, a price rise of more than 5 % definitely leads to substantial
decrease in sales of the vehicles.
5) Rather than increasing profit, 7 % price rise would bring it at the same level
which existed before the rise in input/operational costs.
Answer
1) 1
2) 1
3) 5
4) 3
5) 5
6) 4
7) 2
8) 4
9) 1
10)1
11)1
12)4
Statement and argument questions asked in previous years(IBPS PO/SBI

PO/BOB)
1. It is not often that professional footballers retire from internationals at the peak of their
game. When the 29-year-old Lionel Messi, widely reckoned to be the most skilled footballer
today, announced after the 2016 Copa America Final against Chile that he would not wear the
Argentinian shirt again, he took everyone by surprise. It is not clear if he has made the
retirement call in the heat of the moment. It came after Messi failed, yet again, to win a major
title with the Argentinian team; he also missed a crucial penalty in the shootout against Chile
after efficient but goal-less play in regulation and extra time. In fact, Messi’s overall international
record with Argentina has been good, if not spectacular. With him, the team has reached the
finals of four important tournaments: the World Cup in 2014 and the Copa America in 2007,
2015 and 2016.
According to the given question, you have to decide which of the statement is/are strong on the
basis of the given passage:-
After defeating in Copa America Final, Should Messi continues his international career for two
years more? (IBPS PO MAINS 2016)
I. Yes, because it is the only way he can prove himself to the world as a challenging person.
II. No, It is his personal decision to play no more for Argentina and as a player he gave a lot of
contribution to his nation. So we should respect his decision.
III. No, because Messi’s record as a player of Barcelona is quite better than as a player of
Argentina. So he should focus on one side rather than playing for both of them.
(a)Only II & III are strong
(b) Only I & III are strong
(c) Only II is strong
(d) Only III is strong
(e) None is strong
2. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with
Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has
encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions. Which of the following
statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument? (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
(a) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for
faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(b) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty
positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%
(c) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in
academics
(d) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions is equal to the rate of growth of
salaries for academic positions for the past three years
(e) None of the above
3. The rate of violent crime in this state is increased up to 30% from last year. The fault lies
entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judge’s sentences have been so lenient that
criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that
(a) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state
(b) White-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year
(c) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts
(d) Polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment
4. Landmark preservation laws unfairly impinge on the freedom of owners to develop their own
property as they see fit. In some cases, owners of hotels and office buildings designated as
landmarks have been forbidden to make changes in the original facades or interiors, even
though they reasonably believe that the changes would enhance the structures and make them
more valuable. Which of the following statements, if true, seriously weakens the author’s
argument? (BOB PO 2016)
(a) Altering the appearance of a historic structure sometimes does not enhance its beauty or
value.
(b) In traditional legal doctrine, ownership of a property implies the right to alter it at will.
(c) Only buildings over 75 years old are normally affected by landmark preservation laws.
(d) Landmark designations must be approved by a local regulatory body before taking effect.
(e) Historic buildings represent a cultural heritage which the community has a legitimate stake
in preserving.
5. The percentage of family income spent on entertainment has remained almost the same over
the past twenty years – about twelve per cent. When new forms of entertainment become
popular, they do not expand this percentage; instead, they take consumer spending away from
other forms of entertainment. Therefore, film producers have observed the video boom with
concern, knowing that every dollar spent on rental of videos means a dollar less spent on movie
theatre admissions. Which of the following, if true, most forcefully undermines the argument of
the passage above? (BOB PO 2016)
(a) The cost of renting a video is generally substantially less than the price of a movie theatre
admission.
(b) Most film producers receive a portion of the income from the sale of video rights to their
movies.
(c) Fears of some film producers that videos would completely supersede movies have not
come to pass.
(d) Since the start of the video boom, money spent on forms of entertainment other than videos
and movies has dropped.
(e) Some movies that were unprofitable when shown in theatres have become successful when
released in video form.

SOLUTIONS:
1.(c);
Only II is strong argument because it clearly explains the freedom which is given to a person to
take decisions about his life. So it gives a valid reason.
Argument I is a weak statement because of the ‘only’ word used in the statement. Messi can
prove himself by all other ways also.
Argument III is also a weak Statement because there is a comparison between the position of
Messi as a player of Argentina and the position of Messi as a player of Barcelona club.
2. Ans.(a)
Statement (a) is the correct option because it clearly strengthen the argument that persons with
sufficient qualification prefer to go to industrial field rather than to go in academics as a faculty
in business schools.
3. Ans.(c)
Statement (c) is the correct option because according to this, the increase in crime rate has
been contributed by other factors, not leniency in the punishment.so it weakens the given
passage.
4. (e);
The conclusion of the argument is that landmark preservation laws deprive landlords of their
right to use their own property. (e) comes to grips with this assumption by nothing that a
landmark building may not be purely private property and some part of building may belong to
the community at large. (a) does not valid as it represents only a partial attack on argument.(b)
strengthens the claims that landmark preservation laws represent an unwanted interference
with the rights of the landlord.
5. (d);
The author argues for the following connection: videos take money away from movies. What
choices (d) asserts, in effect, is that the money spent on videos came from some other
source.so,(d) statement undermines the given passage

Statement and Conclusion/Inferences
A statement is a group of words arranged to form a meaningful sentence.
A conclusion is a judgement or decision reached after consideration of the given statement.
An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given
information.
In this type of questions, you have to choose correct or appropriate conclusion or inferences
based on the given problem after analysing the whole conditions given for that problem.This
requires a very logical approach.
KEY POINTS:
1. If statement is formed with two or more sentences, then there should be no mutual
contradiction in sentence.
2. Statement and conclusion should not go against established facts and prevailing
notions of truth.
3. If words of perfection like all, always, atleast, only, exactly and so on are used, then such
words make the conclusion ambiguous.
4. Always try to find keywords as they enhance our analysis.
5. If the conclusion is provided with a stated example, then conclusion is invalid.
Directions to Solve
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions
together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.
1. Statement: Sealed tenders are invited from competent contractors experienced in executing
construction job.
Conclusion: I. Tenders are invited only from experienced contractors.
II. It is difficult to find competent tenderers in construction jobs.
2. Statement: The boss humiliated Rahul in the presence of his colleagues.

Conclusion: I. The boss did not like Rahul.
II. Rahul was not popular with his colleagues.
3. Statement: The distance of 600 km by road between Mumbai and Goa will be reduced to 400
km by sea. This will lead to saving of Rs 5.96 crore per annum on fuel.
Conclusion: I. Transportation by sea is cheaper than that by road.
II. Fuel must be saved to a great extent.

4. Statement: Mr Z is one of the probable candidate to be shortlisted for the post of dean of XYZ
Institute.
Conclusion: I. Mr Z will be selected as the dean of XYZ Institute.
II. Mr Z will not be selected as the dean of XYZ Institute.

5. Statement: Research has proved that people eating high fat diets coupled with decreased
level of exercises are prone to heart disease.
Conclusion: I. People should reduce their high fat diet as a preventive measure.
II. People must have sufficient level of exercise to reduce their chances of having a
heart disease.

EXERCISE
Directions(1-5): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be
drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in
the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
(IBPS SO CWE 2013)
Mark Answer (1) If the inference is “Definitely true” i.e. it properly follows from the statement of
facts given.
Mark Answer (2) If the inference is “Probably true” though not “definitely true” in the light of the
facts given.
Mark Answer (3) If the data is inadequate i.e from the facts given , you cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark Answer (4) If the inference is “Probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of
the facts given.
Mark answer (5) If the inference is “Definitely false” i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the
facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
(Note: Each of the five questions has only one distinct answer i.e. no two questions can have
the same answer. If you get the same answer for more than one question, consider both again
and decide which one of the two would more definitely be that answer and in the same way
review the other also.)
Cardiovascular disease is so prevalent that virtually all businesses are likely to have employees
who suffer from , or may develop, this condition. Research shows that between 50-80 per cent
of all people who suffer a heart attack are able to return to work. However, this may not be
possible if they have previously been involved in heavy physical work. In such cases, it may be
possible to move the employee to lighter duties, with appropriate retraining where necessary.
Similarly, high pressure , stressful work, even where it does not involve physical, should also be
avoided. Human Resource managers should be aware of the implications of job roles for
employees with a cardiac condition.
Q1. Employee who suffer from cardiovascular disease are mostly unable to return to work.
Q2. Employee who suffer from cardiovascular disease are unable to handle stressful situations.
Q3.Employees above the age of 50 are found to suffer from cardiovascular disease.
Q4. Physical and stressful work definitely leads to heart attack.
Q5. Heart disease can affect employees in any type of business.

Q6. Statement : Expert define the social entrepreneurship as such that pursues opportunities to
serve the mission to give solutions to social problems. Business entrepreneurs typically
measure performance in profit and return. (IBPS PO 2013)
Which of the following can be concluded from the above statements?
1) It is possible to address social problem while making business profitable.
2) Social entrepreneurship is different from the business entrepreneurship.
3) Business entrepreneurship does not care social problems while devising their business
policy.
4) Business entrepreneurship is more important that social entrepreneurship.
5) None of these

Q7. Statement: A few travellers were severely beaten by villagers recently in a remote rural part
of the state as the villagers found the movement of the travellers suspicious. The district
authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits. (IBPS PO 2011)
Which of the following inference can be drawn from the above statement?
1) The villagers dislike presence of strangers in their vicinity.
2) Villagers are Generally suspicious in nature.
3) Travellers prefer to visit countryside.
4) The Government generally provides protection to travellers across the country.
5) None of these

Q8.Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Small brands are now looking beyond grocery stores and are tying up with supermarkets such
as big bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given information?(An inference is something
that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
(IBPS PO 2012)
1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near
future.
2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up.
3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that
of small grocery stores.
4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared
to the smaller ones.
5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small
grocery stores.
Q9. Statement : Always remain in an air conditioned environment for better health and well
being. (SBI PO 2014)
I. Filters in the air- conditioners lower exposure to allergy creating pollen and other outdoor
allergies.
II. Spending too much time in an air-conditioned environment result in gradual intolerance
of body towards natural temperatures.
1) Statement I weakens the information while statements II is a natural statement.
2) Both statements I and II weaken the information.
3) Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the statement.
4) Statement I weakens the information while statement II strengthens the statement.
5) Both statements I and II strengthen the information.

Q10. Expert A says that dinosaurs became extinct due to climatic changes occurred on the
earth due to volcanic eruptions some 65 million years ago.
Expert B does not agree with the volcanic eruption theory. According to him dinosaurs became
extinct due to the impact of asteroid.
Which of the following statements may provide support to the theory propounded by expert B?
A) The frigid and sweltering climatic extremes caused the extinction of dinosaurs.
B) A wide crater lying just of the yucatan peninsula was created due to the impact of
asteroid.
C) Scientists have discovered levels of iridium 30 times greater than average in the
Cretaceous/ Tertiary boundary, the layer of sedimentary rock laid down at the time of the
dinosaur extinction.
D) Some palaeontologists after analysing the fossil record believe that dinosaurs were
doing quite well prior to the end of the cretaceous, when the dinosaurs became extinct.
1) Only A
2) Only A and C
3) Only C and D
4) Only A and B
5) Only B, C and D (RBI Grade-B 2014)

Answer Key-
1) 5
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) 1
6) 2
7) 4
8) 3
9) 3
10) 5

Course of Action
A statement means something that is said or expressed by someone.
A course of action is a step to be taken for improvement of situation or leading to further action
with regards to the problem, on the basis of the information given in the statement.
This type of question comes in logical reasoning. In each question a statement is given followed
by 2 or more course of action. After reading and analysing the statement, the candidate has to
take decision to solve the problem or for improvement or for follow-up or for further action or
for taking care of solution or for immediate action.
We should remember below terms when we take decision or choose appropriate course of
action in respect of statement.
● The decision should either lessen the problem or should improve upon the present
situation.
● Simple problem must have simple course of action and not a complex one so that it may
solve or reduce the problem and not create more issue.
● The decision should not be harsh(Termination,suspension).
● The solution should be viable(practicable/workable/Feasible).
● The decision must give immediate solution for the problem means time taking solution
should be avoided.
● The solution should not break the service.
● The solution should not break the hierarchy.
● The solution which does not give surety about the solving of problem must be avoided.
● The government related things will be true.
● The solution which break independence will be wrong.
● Decisions or solutions which were successful in past will be true.
● The decisions which creates an example will be true.
● Initiative and regulative decisions will be true.
● The solution should not break the service.
● The solution which bring loses will be wrong.
Type 1
Q1. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ration against women in india during the past
decade and situation may get out of hand if adequate decisions or steps are not taken to stop
female foeticide.
Which of the following can be an effective decision or solution to reverse the trend?
(A) The government should completely ban use of scanners/sonography on expectant
mothers at all health centers immediately .
(B) The government should announce a substantial incentive scheme for couples who have
at least one girl child.
(C) The government should launch a nationwide campaign to create awareness against
female foeticide. (IBPS PO 2011)
(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) All A ,B and C
(5) None of these

Q2. Statement- The prices of vegetables and other food articles have decreased in the recent
months raising hope among policy planners that the RBI’s tight grip on supply of liquid money
in the market for controlling inflation may be eased.
Which of the following may be a possible action or decision of the above situation?
(IBPS PO 2012)
(1) The reserve bank of india may not reduce its key interest rates in near future.
(2) The government may step in and make certain concessions to the common people on
various issues.
(3) The reserve bank of india may consider lowering certain rates to bring in more liquidity in
the market.
(4) The RBI may wait for at least another year before taking any step.
(5) The RBI may collect more data from the market and wait for another four months to
ensure they take the correct step.

Type 2
Q1. Directions(1-5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up of further action in regard of the problem, policy etc.On the basis of the
information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true,
then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
Give answer (1) if only course of the action I follows.
Give answer (2) if only course of action II follows
Give answer (3) if either course of action I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither course of action I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both course of action I and II follow. (SBI ME Exam-2014)

Q1. Statement: Drinking water supply to many parts of town is disputed due to loss of water
because of leakage in pipe supplying water.
Courses of action:
I The government should order an enquiry into the matter.
II The Civic body should set up a fact finding team to assess the damage and take effective
step.

Q2 Statement: There is an alarming increase in the number of people suffering from malaria in
many parts of the city.
Courses of action:
I The municipal corporation has advised all the government hospital to store adequate supply
of Malaria drugs.
II The Municipal Corporation has urged people to use mosquito repellants and keep their
premises clean.

Q3.Statement: Many people have encroached into the government property and built their
houses and business establishments.
Courses of action:
I The government should take immediate steps to remove all unauthorised constructions on
government land.
II All the encroachers should immediately be put behind bars and also be slapped with a hefty
fine.

Q4.Statement: The Meteorological Department has predicted normal rainfall throughout the
country during the current monsoon.
Course of action:
I The government should reduce the procurement price of food grains for the current year.
II The government should reduce subsidy on fertilizers for the current year.

Q5.Statement: The number of dropouts in Government schools have significantly increased in
the urban areas over the past few years.
Courses of action:
I The government should immediately close down all the schools in the urban areas where the
dropout goes beyond 20%.
II The parents of all students who dropped out of the government schools in the urban areas
should be punished.

Directions(6-10): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action
number I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard of problem policy etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true,
then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
mark answer 1 if only course of action I follow.
mark answer 2 if only course of action II follows.
mark answer 3 if either course of action I or course of action II follows.
mark answer 4 if neither course of action I or course of action II follows.
Mark answer 5 if both course of action I and courses action II follow.
(BOI banking officer 2010)

Q6. Statement: Many school children died in few accidents caused due to poor maintenance of
school buses during the last few months.
Courses of action:
I. The government should set up an expert group to inspect the condition of school buses
to avoid such accidents.
II. The government should suspend the licence of all school buses which are not properly
checked.

Q7. Statement : Many customers complained to the manager of the local branch of the bank
against high handedness of the bank employees while dealing with the customers.
Courses of action:
I. The Bank management should immediately suspend all them employees of the branch
and deploy a different set of employees.
II. The Bank management should ask for a report from the manager of the branch for
taking necessary steps.

Q8. Statement: Two persons, while on their daily walks in the Jogger’s Park were killed by
unidentified miscreants early in the morning.
Courses of action:
I. The police authorities should deploying police constables near the Joggers Park to
prevent search criminal acts in future.
II. The citizens of the locality should go for early morning off in groups to avoid search
attacks.

Q9. Statement: A huge oil tanker overturned on the highway leading to the state capital and
blocked most part of the highway from vehicular traffic.
Course of action:
I. The government should immediately constitute a high-level enquiry committee to look
into the matter.
II. The driver of the old tanker should immediately be arrested.

Q10. Statement: A very large number of recently recruited officers left the bank after attending
the training program on branch banking operations conducted by the bank.
Courses of action:
I. The bank should take a bond of at least 2 years from each newly recruited officers
before putting them into the training programme.
II. The bank should conduct the training program at least one year after the newly recruited
officers joined the bank.

Directions (11-12): In each question below are given a statement followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the
basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of
action logically follow(s) for pursuing. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)
Give answer
(a) If only I follows;
(b) If only II follows,
(c) If either I or II follows;
(d) If neither I nor II follows and
(e) If both I and II follow.

Q11. Statement: Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the monsoons, we have some
cases of conjunctivitis, but this year, it seems to be a major epidemic, witnessed after nearly
four years.
Courses of action:
I. Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to check this epidemic.
II. People should be advised to drink boiled water during rainy season.

Q12. Statement: Researchers are feeling agitated as libraries are not equipped to provide the
right information to the right users at the right time in the required format. Even the users are
not aware about the various services available for them.
Courses of action:
I. All the information available to the libraries should be computerized to provide faster services
to the users.
II. Library staff should be trained in computer operations.

Answer Keys
Type 1
1. 3
2. 3
Type 2
1. 4
2. 5
3. 1
4. 4
5. 4
6. 1
7. 2
8. 5
9. 4
10. 1
11. Ans.(b) Sol. The disease occurs at the end of monsoons every year. So, precautionary
measures every four years shall not help. The second course of action shall be a
preventive measure. So, only course II follows.
12. Ans.(e) Sol. Clearly, the library needs to be provided with the essential facilities and
trained personnel for better services. So, both the courses follow.
For video solutions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=H6Ct1pvwUx4

DECISION MAKING

Q1. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below-
(IBPS SO CWE 2012)
Following are the conditions for selecting Manger-HR in an organisation:
The candidate must-
(i) be at least 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 1/3/12.
(ii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in graduation in any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 65 % marks in the post graduate degree/diploma in personnel
Management / HR.
(iv) have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the personnel/HR
department of an organisation.
(v) Have secured at least 50 % marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except-
(a) At (ii) above, but has secured at least 55 % marks in graduation in any discipline and at
least 70 % marks in post graduate degree/Diploma in personnel Management/HR, the
case is to be referred to GM- HR.
(b) At (iv) above, but has post qualification work experience of at least four years out of
which at least two years as Deputy Manager-HR. The case is to be referred to President-
HR.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following
courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions
given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to
assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given
to as on 1/3/2012.
Mark answer(1)- If the candidate is not selected.
Mark answer(2)- If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
Mark answer(3)- If the case is to be referred to president-HR.
Mark answer(4)- If the case is to be referred to GM-HR.
Mark answer(5)- If the candidates is to be selected.

Q1. Rita Bhatt was born on 25th July 1978. She has secured 62% marks in Graduation and 65%
marks in Post Graduation diploma in management. She has been working for the past six years
in the personnel department of an organisation after completing her post graduation. She has
secured 55% marks in the selection process.

Q2. Ashok Pradhan was born on 8th August 1980. He has been working in the personnel
Department of an organisation for the past four years after completing his post graduate with
67 %. Out of his entire experience, he has been working for the past two years as deputy
Manager-HR. He has secured 62% marks in graduation and 58 percent marks in the selection
process.

Q3. Alok Verma was born on 4th March 1976. He has been working in personnel department of
an organisation for the past 6 years after completing his post graduate diploma in personnel
management with 66% marks. He has secured 7% marks in the selection process and 63%
marks in graduation.

Q4. Satish has been working in the personnel department of an organisation for the past 5 years
after completing his postgraduate degree in HR with 72% marks. He has secured 56% marks in
graduation. He was born on 22nd May 1977 . He has secured 58% marks in the selection
process.

Q5. Seema Mahal has been working in the personnel department of an organisation for the past
7 years after completing her post graduation in personnel management with 70% marks.She
was born on 5th July 1979 . She has scored 65% marks in graduation and 50% marks in the
selection process.

Q6. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
(SBI PO MAINS 2017)
Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization. The Candidate
must-
(i) Be a Graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks.
(ii) Have secured at least 40% marks in the selection interview.
(iii) Have post qualification work experience of at least five years in the Marketing division of an
organization.
(iv) Have secured at least 45% marks in the selection examination.
(v) Have a post Graduate degree/diploma in Marketing-Management with at least 60% marks.
Study the following information carefully and find which of the following condition shows
candidate is not selected?
(a) Candidate is daughter of a renowned freedom fighter from another state.
(b) Candidate has a post Graduate degree in Finance with 60% marks.
(c) Candidate has completed his graduation with 80% marks.
(d) Candidate does not own a house in Noida.
(e) Candidate has secured 56% marks in Cap Gemini’s interview.
ANSWERS
1. Answer-5
2. Answer-3
3. Answer-1
4. Answer-4
5. Answer-5
6. Ans.(b)
Cause & Effect

Directions(1-4): Study the following information and statements given below it carefully and
answer the questions which follow: (IBPS PO/MT CWE-IV 2014)

Advertisements play an important role in the sell of a product. Advertisements help consumer to
decide which product he/she should buy . In the absence of advertisements consumer has very
little choices to buy the products of his/her needs.
(A) Advertisements highlight only the bright side of the product. They do not reveal the weak
features of the product.
(B) Most of the people wish that companies should stop issuing advertisements as these
attract people and they start using the glamorous articles.
(C) The increased frequency of advertisements attracts more different classes of people to
buy the products.
(D) The products which are heavily advertised attract a large number of people and they
start buying the products. For example, a large number of people buy potato chips.
(E) Consumers lose faith in the advertisement when they do not find the products upto
mark.
Q1. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) mentioned above represents an
effect of the given information most appropriately?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only C and D
(5) Only D and E

Q2. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) mentioned above would
weaken/contradict the facts presented in the paragraph?
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only C and D
(4) Only D
(5) Only E

Q3. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) mentioned above represents a
cause for issuing advertisements?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C and D
(3) Only B
(4) Only B and E
(5) Only A and E

Q4. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) mentioned above highlights the
limitation of an advertisement?
(1) Only D
(2) Only E
(3) Only A
(4) Only B and E
(5) Only C and E

Directions(5-9): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both
the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. (SBI PO 2014)
Mark answer(1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer(2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer(3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer(4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Mark answer(5) if both the statements(A) and (B) are effects of some common cause

Q5.(A) Municipal corporation of a city has started providing meals at the school to support the
education of a slum children. it also started providing books free of cost to the children so that
it could help them to study and monetary issue do not hamper their education.
(B) In order to help slum children in their study the prices of books have been reduced by 40% .
The prices of uniform have also been reduced by 50%.

Q6.(A) A legal notice was issued by the high court in the city A. According to this notice the slum
area in the city A should not be removed. The legal notice supports the slum area in city A. The
slum area should be provided with better facilities.
(B) Builders of the city A have increased the rate of residential area in the city by 40% The
residential flats have become more costly than earlier.

Q7.(A)A Hospital has lost the case against its patient. The patient has charged that by eating
food from hospital he has got down by the food poisoning.
(B) Hospital management has become strict in bringing food from outside the hospital premise.
The food made in the canteen will only be served inside the hospital premise.

Q8(A)The temperature of the city was lowest during the week. The city recorded low
temperature of the decade. The city was also engulfed in fog.
(B) There was unusual delay in the flights from the city and so passengers were stranded at the
airport. The passengers faced many problems at the airport.

Q9(A) The roads of city A get flooded with vehicles during the evening hour and major parts of
city face the problem of traffic jam.
(B) The level of air pollution has been increased in the city A these days.

Q10.Effect- The temple at the religious site wears a deserted look with the number of devotees
trickling down.
which of the following can be a possible cause of the above effect?
(1) A structural engineer had visited the temple a month back and had declared the
structure unsafe.
(2) The temple is facing a drastic depletion of its funds which had accumulated over the
years due to offerings made by devotees
(3) The local Corporation decided to denote a huge amount of money to the temple for its
renovation.
(4) The village housing the religious site has qualified priests to perform religious
ceremonies.
(5) A famous actor recently visited the temple and paid his respects to the deity.
(IBPS SO CWE 2013)

Q11. Effect: As a step to regulate private hospitals,the State Health Department is framing rules
to ensure all such hospitals are registered with it. which of the following can be a possible
cause of the above statement?
(1) The department realised the private hospitals charge much less for treatment as
compared to government hospitals.
(2) Government run hospitals do not maintain the same standards as private hospitals.
(3) The department realised that several hospitals were rejecting cases is stating lack of
infrastructure.
(4) Apart from the number of doctors, nurses and beds, the kind of procedures a hospital
can carry out based on its infrastructure will also be registered and detailed.
(5) Private hospitals not registering with the department shall be forced to do so and will
have to pay hefty penalties (IBPS SO CWE 2013)

Q12. Statement: The income tax authorities carried out raid at 3 different business houses in
the City last week.
which of the following can be a possibility of the above statement?
(1) The three business houses are regular defaulters in payment of their income tax.
(2) Income tax department had received the tip of about illegal activities going on in the
three business houses.
(3) The government decided to look into the matter and has appointed an inquiry
committee.
(4) Other business houses took immediate action to clear of all their income tax dues in
order to avoid a raid on their establishments
(5) The authorities intend to conduct raids in several other business houses in the vicinity.
(IBPS SO CWE 2013)

Q13. Statement: The college has finally received accreditation and has gained the status of a
deemed university.
which of the following can be a possible effect of the above statement?
(1) The principal of the college well now have to be a retired government official.
(2) Number of students seeking admission to this college in the next academic year would
drop significantly.
(3) The college will charge lesser fees from all students despite not getting a grant from the
government.
(4) The college will reduce the number of courses that it runs by significant margin.
(5) The reputation of college amongst the student population in general has improved.

Q14. Statement: According to the survey innumerable diseases and unhealthy habits from the
recent pandemic to cancer, AIDS and obesity have plagued the mankind.
Which of the following may be the most plausible cause of the situation given in the above
statements?
(1) The lifestyle and food habits of people are responsible for this State.
(2) Environmental degradation has led to the present situation.
(3) The people remain ignorant above their health.
(4) Technological advancement and fast pace of life are contributing to the spread of
diseases.
(5) none of these (IBPS PO/MT CWE-III 2013)

Answer Key
1) 4
2) 5
3) 2
4) 3
5) 5
6) 2
7) 1
8) 1
9) 1
10) 1
11) 3
12) 4
13) 5
14) 1

For video solutions: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tARakLOhZPg
Combined Reasoning
Q1.All the members of the Student Rights Coalition signed the petition calling for a meeting with
the university trustees. Philip must be a member of the Student Rights Coalition since his
signature appears on the petition. Which of the following best states the central flaw in the
reasoning above?(BOB PRELIMS 2016)
(a) Some members of the Student Rights Coalition may not support all of the organization’s
positions.
(b) It is possible that Philip’s signature on the petition was forged by a member of the Student
Rights Coalition.
(c) Any member of the student body is eligible to sign a petition dealing with university affairs.
(d) Philip may have resigned from the Student Rights Coalition after signing the petition.
(e) Some of those who signed the petition may not be members of the Student Rights Coalition.

Q2. Directions (2-3): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The Budget session began on a stormy note as opposition members demanding a debate on
the recent hate crimes against Indians living in the USA. Congress blamed the Modi government
for remaining silent on the attacks against Indians in US. In his reply, Union Home Minister said
that the government has taken a serious note and PM will reply in next week of Parliament
session. In recent weeks, at least two Indians have been killed in incidents of hate crime in the
US. “Each attack involved a slogan. Go back to your country”. America condemned it but is not
taking any steps to address the issue. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

Q2. What may be the repercussions after recent attacks on Indians in US?
(I) There may be impact on Indian-US trade policy.
(II) Indian Government will coerce US Government.
(III) American Govt. will give life imprisonment to accused to make a set mark that America is
against racism.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and II
(e) None of these

Q3. Which of the following substantiates the laxity of Indian-American Govt.? (SBI PO MAINS
2017)
(I) Modi govt. has taken a serious note and ready to reply in next week of parliament session.
(II) Condemning the attack but not taking any steps by American Govt.
(III) Still there is no action as racism slogan “Go back to your country” is spreading.

(a) Only III (b) Only I and II (c) All of three (d) Only II (e) None of these

Q4. During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about
23,670 doctors who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of
those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more figures, it can be concluded that it
was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than it
was not to participate in SARS treatment. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?
(a) Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to
addition to deaths among doctors who had not participated is SARS treatment
(b) Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among doctors who had treated
SARS sufferers and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total
number of deaths
(c) Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths
caused by infect of SARS suffers
(d) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than comparing total
numbers of deaths

Directions (5-7): Study the information carefully answers the questions given below. @ means
either hour hand or minute hand is at 8 # means either hour hand or minute hand is at 5 $
means either hour hand or minute hand is at 4 % means either hour hand or minute hand is at 12
& means either hour hand or minute hand is at 2 £ means either hour hand or minute hand is at
3 Note: if two symbols are given than by default first symbol is consider as hour hand and
second one is considered as minute hand. And all time are consider at PM.
(SBI PO MAINS 2017)

Q5. If A takes 25 min to reach railway station and his train is scheduled at #& then at what time
should he leave to reach the station 5 minute earlier?
(a) $% (b) $& (c) &S (d) $@ (e) £$

Q6. If a train departed from a station at &£ and it takes 2 hours to reach the destination then
when it will reach to the destination?
(a) $£ (b) $% (c) #$ (d) $# (e) £$

Q7. A person has to catch a train that is scheduled to depart at ‘@%’. It takes the person 4 hours
and 15 minutes to reach the railway station from his home. At what time should he leave from
his home for the railway station to arrive at the station at least 25 minutes before the departure
of the train?
(a) %@ (b) £$ (c) %+ (d) +@ (e) None of these

ANSWERS
1. (e); In the above question it is asked to choose from a given option which weaken the
statement or make it imperfect so correct answer will be (e).
2. Ans.(d) Sol. As stated in statement America is not taking any steps to address the issue,
so to calm down the situation Indian Govt. may pressurize American Govt. or they may
be impact on Indian-US trade. And as stated in statement America is not taking any
action despite of racism attack on Indians which results death of two citizens. So it
cannot be assumed that American Govt. will give life imprisonment according to the
statement.
3. Ans.(c) Sol. All of three supports the negligence of Indian-American Govt. as Modi Govt.
denies replying in same week after racial attack. American Govt. is not ready tackle the
issue despite of environment of racism is spreading.
4. Ans.(d) Sol. Most logically such comparison should reveal mortality rate per thousand
doctors indulged in SARS treatment and not indulged in treatment.so statement (d) is
the correct option.
5. Ans.(d) Sol. train is scheduled at= 5 hour 10 minute = #& Time should he leave to reach
the station 5 minute earlier= 5 hour 10 minute-(25+5) minute= 4 hour 40 minute
6. Ans.(a) Sol. 4 hour 15 minute
7. Ans.(b) Sol. Scheduled time of departure of train= @%= 8:00 PM Time for travel+ early
arrival= 4 hour 15 minutes + 25 minutes = 4 hour 40 minutes 8:00 PM- 4 hour 40
minutes= 3:20 PM= £$


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Tables of CONTENTS

Chapters Page no

Total no. of Pages 220

13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Trick to remember alphabets:

(Left side)​A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z ​(Right side)

TRICK TO REMEMBER REVERSE OF ALPHABETS:

RIGHT RIGHT SUBTRACT(From right side)

LEFT LEFT SUBTRACT(From left side)

RIGHT LEFT ADDITION (From right side)

LEFT RIGHT ADDITION(From left side)

Based on similar pattern, code for ‘CITIZEN’ is ‘DJUJABO’.

Hence, code for TERMITE is ‘SFULFUJ’

1) 59782 2) 28795 3) 597820 4) 95728 5) None of these

Ex 5. ​In a certain code language, ​PERSON is written as ​957561​, then how is ​SHOULD written in

1) 186334 2) 198152 3) 681433 4) 861334 5) None of these

Ex1. Study the following information to answer the given questions.

1) 6@7#©9 2) 6@7#©6 3) 9@7#©9 4) 9@7#©6 5) None of these

Sol:​ ​1) 6@7#©9

1) %615#8 2)%615#% 3)8615#% 4)8615#8 5)None of these

Sol: ​2) %615#%

1) $#©24$ 2) $#©24* 3) *#©24$ 4) *#©24* 5)None of these

1) 7813@7 2) 7813@# 3) #183@7 4) #813@7 5)None of these

Sol: ​4) #813@7

1) &$8@1& 2) @$8@17 3) 7$8@1@ 4) 7$8@1& 5) None of these

TYPE 4 -SUBSTITUTIONAL CODING

​In a certain code,

‘superstring park avail prelim’ is written as ‘#22T %8Q $10B @12Q’,

Symbols are according to last letter in words:

Number represents double the number of letters in words

2) What is the code for ‘making framework’?

Sol: ​A) #12N %18G

‘letter found option result’ is written as ‘w#6 m@15 i#12 g@18’,

‘Aspirant Time Stock Zone’ is written as ‘TP20 SG32 OV16 IV16’,

Q1. TAP is SZO, then FREEZE is

a)X23$8X b) @23$81 c) 123$8@ d) &23$8& e) None of these

a)X189+X b) @189+@ c) &189+& d) 1189+X e) None of these

a)&@56X& b) X@56XX c) *@56X* d) *@56X& e) None of these

a)X1=#4? b) X1=#4X c) &1=#4& d) ?1=#4X e) None of these

Code 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 7 9 11 10 13 12

1. The code for the word ‘People’ is

In a certain code language,

‘Arrive today eagles later’ is written as 21*R,6$A, 14$O, 25*A

2. ​The code word 6$A for the word

1.Later 2.Arrive 3.Earlier 4.Today 5.Either 1 or 3

3. ​Find the code word for the word ‘Burn’ ?

1) 25$R 2) 22%U 3) 21$R 4) 6*E 5) Can’t be determined

4. ​According to the given code, what is the code for ‘M’ ?

< Less than

>= or ≥ Greater than equal to

<= or Less than equal to

≠ Not equal to

Neither greater than nor equal to

Neither smaller than nor equal to

1 >,>,> > Statement-

2 > , >= , = > Statement-

3 > , >= > Statement-

4 > , = > Statement-

5 >= , = >= Statement-

6 <,<,< < Statement-

7 < , <= , = < Statement-

8 < , <= < Statement-

9 < , = < Statement-

(Left side)A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (Right side)

Ex 5. In a certain code language, PERSON is written as 957561, then how is SHOULD written in

Sol: 1) 6@7#©9

Sol: 2) %615#%

1) $#©24$ 2) $#©24* 3) #©24$ 4) #©24* 5)None of these

Sol: 4) #813@7

In a certain code,

Sol: A) #12N %18G

a)&@56X& b) X@56XX c) @56X d) *@56X& e) None of these

‘Arrive today eagles later’ is written as 21R,6$A, 14$O, 25A

2. The code word 6$A for the word

3. Find the code word for the word ‘Burn’ ?

4. According to the given code, what is the code for ‘M’ ?

__ < ≤ = _> __

denotes generation gap

2. Direction : It is the path to reach from one point to other.

There are Two types of Direction:

1. Main direction : North, South, East and West

Shadow Cases: Two Cases -

Sol.= E 10km D------------- A