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Index of Special Paid Bundle PDF for IBPS CLERK Prelims 2020 (Reasoning Ability)
S.No Topic No. of Questions Pages

1 Circle Seating Arrangement 50 05
2 Linear Seating Arrangement 50 20
3 Parallel Seating Arrangement 50 32
4 Square Seating Arrangement 50 47
5 Rectangle Seating Arrangement 50 72
6 Triangle Seating Arrangement 50 90
7 Unknown Linear Seating Arrangement 50 104
8 Unkown Circle Seating Arrangement 50 118
9 Day Puzzle 50 130
10 Month and day puzzle 50 147
11 Box/Stack Puzzle 50 163
12 Profession/Designation puzzle 50 181
13 Year Puzzle 50 193
14 Month Puzzle 50 209
15 Floor and Flat Puzzle 50 226
16 Floor Puzzle 50 242
Page 1 of 1079
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17 Order and Ranking Puzzle 50 263

18 Random Puzzle 50 275
19 Input Output 50 296
20 Coding Decoding (Even odd type) 50 309
21 Direction 50 327
22 Blood Relation 50 340
23 Inequality 50 351
24 Syllogism 50 364
25 Alpha Numeric Series 50 381
26 Coding Decoding Letter Code 50 397
27 Alphabet Series 50 408
28 Coding Decoding Chinese Code 50 424
29 Numerical Sequence 50 436
30 Alphabetical Order (Forward and Backward) 50 448
31 Data Sufficiency 50 462
32 Odd One Out 50 488
33 Meaningful Words 50 498
TOTAL NO. OF QUESTIONS 1650
Index of Special Paid Bundle PDF for IBPS CLERK Prelims 2020 (Aptitude)
Page 2 of 1079

1 Simplification 50 510
2 Approximation 50 518
3 Quadratic Equation 50 528
4 Missing Number 50 544
5 Wrong Number 50 555
6 Table DI 50 565
7 Pie DI 50 581
8 Line DI 50 598
9 Bar DI 50 613
10 Caselets 50 628
11 Ages 50 646
12 Partnership 50 664
13 Simple & Compound Interest 50 681
14 Profit and Loss 50 697
15 Time Speed Distance 50 712
16 Boats Stream 50 727
17 Probability 50 742
18 Time & Work 50 756
19 Data Sufficiency 50 773
20 Quantity I & Quantity II 50 788
Index of Special Paid Bundle PDF for IBPS CLERK Prelims 2020 (English Language)
Page 3 of 1079

1 Misplet Word 50 805
2 Single Fillers 50 814
3 Double Fillers 50 830
4 Error Spotting 50 847
5 Usage of Words 50 858
6 Identifying Correct Sentence 50 873
7 Cloze Test 50 900
8 Sentence Correction/ Improvement 50 917
9 Sentence Completion 50 936
10 Rearrange the Word 50 953
11 Word Replacement 50 968
12 Pick up the Correct Starter /Connector 50 981
13 Match the Column 50 995
14 Sentence Rearrangement 50 1021
15 Phrasal Replacement 50 1035
16 Reading Comprehension 50 1050
17 Jumbled Sentence 50 1069
Circle Seating Arrangement

Direction (1-5): Study the following information
carefully and answer the below questions.
Page 4 of 1079
M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T are eight friends and sitting 4) How many people are sitting between O and N?
around a circular table facing outside the center but not A.None
necessarily in the same order. B.2
Q sits third to the left of M. T is sitting second to the left C.More than three
of P. P is not an immediate neighbor of both M and Q. R D.3
and N are immediate neighbors of each other. N is not an E.1
immediate neighbor of M. S is not an immediate neighbor 5) Who is sitting exactly between P and T?
of T. A.S
1) What is O’s position with respect to M? B.Q
A. Third to the right C.O
B. Third to the left D.M
C. Second to the right E.R
D. Second to the left Direction (6-10): Study the following information and
E. None of these answer the given questions:
2) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way Eight persons H, L, M, N, P, Q, R, and S are sitting around
based on their seating positions in the above a circular table facing the centre. N sits second to the left
arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not of H. Two persons sit between N and S. Only one person
belong to the group? sits between S and P. L sits on the immediate right of M.
A.PQ Only one person sits between M and R. P and H are not
B.ST immediate neighbours of each other. Q and N are not
C.SN immediate neighbours of each other.
D.MO 6) Who among the following person sits third to the
E.RT right of H?
3) Who is sitting third to the left of one who is sitting A. The one who sits immediate left of Q.
to the immediate left of P? B. P
A.S C. The one who sits immediate right of P.
B.M D. L
C.Q E. None of these
D.R 7) How many persons sit between P and M?
E. None of these A. One
Page 5 of 1079
B. As many between R and Q. immediate left of S. L sits opposite to the one who sits on
C. As many between Q and H. the immediate left of Q. L and R are not immediate
D. Four neighbours. Only one person sits between Q and S. H and
E. None of these S are not immediate neighbours.
8) If P is related to R, H is related to L, then in the same 11) How many persons sit between K and S?
way Q is related to which of the following person? A.1
A.M B.2
B.N C.3
C.Q D.4
D.S E.None of these
E.None of these 12) Who among the following person sits opposite to
9) Who among the following person sits on the the one who sits second to the left of S?
immediate left of P? A.R
A.S B. The one who sits immediate left of H.
B. The one who sits third to the right of R. C.H
C.R D. The one who sits immediate right of Z.
D. The one who sits immediate right of S. E. None of these
E. None of these 13) If Q is related to K, Z is related to R, then in the
10) Who among the following person sits opposite to same way L is related to which of the following person?
L? A.S
A.S B.X
B.M C.H
C.R D.Z
D.N E.None of these
E. None of these 14) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
Direction (11-15): Study the following information and so form a group. Find the one which does not
carefully and answer the questions given below: belong to the group?
Eight persons K, L, X, H, Q, S, Z, and R are sitting around A.Q-X
a circular table facing the centre. R sits third to the left of B.K-S
K. Only one person sits between K and X. Z sits on the C.H-Z
Page 6 of 1079
D.L-R E. None of these

E.X-S 18) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
15) Who sits on the immediate left of the one who sits and hence they form a group. Which one of the
opposite to X? following does not belong to that group?
A.K A.S, T
B.R B.R, G
C.H C.T, X
D.Q D.G, K
E.None of these E.W, S
Direction (16-20): Study the following information 19) Who among the following sits third right of S?
carefully and answer the below questions. A.R
Ten persons are sitting around a circular table facing B. The one who sits immediate left of Q.
inside the table. A sits third right of G. W is an immediate C.K
neighbor of R who faces A. T sits second to the left of S D. The one who sits second to the left of X.
but T is not an immediate neighbor of both A and G. Four E. None of these
persons sit between H and Q. K sits exactly between A 20) Which of the following statements is true about X?
and Q. X is one of the persons. A.X sits second left of H
16) Who among the following persons sits to the B. All are true
immediate left of X? C. There are four persons sitting between X and W
A.Q D. G sits sixth right of X
B.H E. None is true
C.S Direction (21-25): Study the following information
D.T carefully and answer the questions given below.
E.A There are nine persons are sitting around a circular table
17) How many persons are sitting between W and K and all of them are facing opposite from the center of the
when counted to the right of W? table. All the persons are sitting with equidistance from
A.4 each other.
B.1 Q sits third to the left of E. J sits second to the right of M
C.3 and is one of the immediate neighbours of Q. S sits fourth
D.2 to the right of V, who is not an immediate neighbour of E.
Page 7 of 1079
T is an immediate neighbour of S. W is not an immediate D.M – T

neighbour of B. At least two persons are sitting between E.E – V
W and M. 25) Who among the following sits fifth to the left of
21) Who sits to the immediate right of M? second to the right of T?
A.T A.B
B. The one who sits third to the left of Q. B.J
C.V C.V
D. The one who sits immediate left of J D.W
E.S E.M
22) How many persons are sitting between V and M Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on the
when counted from right of M? information given below.
A. None Nine people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are standing
B. Three on the circumference of the circular ground facing
C. Two towards the center, but not necessarily in the same order.
D. More than three S stands third to the left of the one who is fifth to the right
E. One of U. W is three persons away from U. X stands second to
23) If E is related to M and J is related to W in a certain the left of the one who is fourth to the right of W. Q stands
way. Then, M is related to which of the following fifth to the right of X. P stands to the immediate left of the
persons? persons who is second to the left of Q. T stands second to
A.B the right of V and second to the left of R who is not an
B.V immediate neighbor of P.
C.T 26) Who among the following pair is adjacent to Q?
D.Q A.U, S
E.S B.T, V
24) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way C.S, V
and hence form a group. Which one of the following D.X, Q
does not belong to the group? E.W, X
A.W – E 27) The number of persons stands between P and ___
B.V – J is same the same as the number of persons standing
C.B – S
Page 8 of 1079
between R and ___ when from the right of both P and Ten people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting
R respectively. around the circular table facing the centre but not
A.T, S necessarily in the same order.
B.W, V P sits fourth to the left of the one, who sits to the
C.V, U immediate right of U. Only two persons sit between P and
D.Q, P the one who sits second to the right of Y. Q sits adjacent
E. All of the above to Y. W sits third to the right of Q. X sits fourth to the left
28) Which of the following statement/s is/are true? of V, neither of them sits adjacent to U. Only one person
A. U stands third to the left of V sits between T and S. S doesn’t sit third to the right of W.
B. W stands second to the right of Q 31) Who among the following person sits fourth to the
C. P stands fourth to the right of W. right of P?
D. All of these A.X
E. None of these B. The one who sits second to the right of U.
29) Who among the following person stands second to C.Y
the right of the one who is fifth to the left of S? D. The one who sits fourth to the left of R
A.U E. None of these
B.R 32) Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
C.X A. Q sits adjacent to X
D.W B. Y sits third to the left of R
E.Q C. W sits immediate left of R
30) How many persons stand between T and U when D. U sits second to the right of V
counted from the left of T? E. All are true
A. Four 33) How many persons sit between X and S, when
B. Three counted from the right of X?
C. Five A.2
D. Two B.6
E. None of these C.7
Direction (31-35): Answer the questions based on the D.3
information given below. E.None of these
Page 9 of 1079
34) Four of the following five are similar in such a way A.P
to form a group, Which of the following pair doesn’t B.X
form a group? C.W
A.WP D.S
B.XR E.None of these
C.QX 37) How many persons sit between X and Y when
D.UY counted from the right of Y?
E.TV A. One
35) The number of persons sits between R and ___ is B. Three
the same as the number of persons sits between S and C. Four
__ when counted from the right of both R and S D. Two
respectively. E. None of these
A.X, W 38) Who sits to the immediate left of R?
B.U, Y A.P
C.V, X B. The one who sits second to the right of W.
D.T, V C.W
E. None of these D. The one who sits third to the left of Y.
Direction (36-40): Study the following information E.T
carefully to answer the given question: 39) If Q is related to T, V is related to U in the same
Ten persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting way P is related to whom?
around a circular table and faces outside but not A.X
necessarily in the same order. B.S
Two persons are sitting between R and Y. Three persons C.W
sit between Y and W, who is not an immediate neighbour D.Q
of R. P sits third to the right of S and both of them are not E.Y
an immediate neighbour of R and Y. R sits immediate left 40) Who sits third to the right of the one who is
of V, who is not an immediate neighbour of S. One person immediate left of W?
sit between Q and X who does not sit immediately next to A.R
Y. T does not sit immediate next to P. B.U
36) Who sits third to the right of Q? C.P
Page 10 of 1079
D.V C. The one who sits immediate right of F.

E.None of these D. G
Direction (41-45): Study the following information E.None of these
carefully and answer the questions given below it. 44) Who sits immediate left of D?
There are seven persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, and G A. C
sitting around a circular table which has eight seats. There B. B
is a vacant seat. They are not necessarily seated in the C. Vacant seat
mentioned order. All the persons are facing towards the D. A
center. Each seat is arranged in such a way that there is an E. None of these
equal distance between adjacent seats. 45) Which of the following pair is adjacent to the
There are two seats between C and G (either left or right). vacant seat?
F sits second to the left of G. B sits immediate right of G. A. E-C
D sits immediate left of A. E sits second to the left of B. F B. D-B
does not sit opposite of vacant seat. C. B-C
41) Who among the following sits third to the left of E? D. A-C
A.C E. None of these
B.A Direction (46-50): Study the following information
C.B carefully and answer the below questions.
D.D Ten persons namely – Hetal, Neha, Leo, Tinku, Madhu,
E. No one Govind, Zeshan, Tom, Kajal, and Hitesh are sitting
42) How many persons are sitting between C and B around a circular table in equal distance between them and
when counting to the left of C? sits facing the center.
A. One Leo sits fourth to the left of Kajal, who doesn’t sit adjacent
B. Two to Govind. Zeshan sits third to the right of Madhu, who
C. Three sits adjacent to Kajal. Tinku sits fourth to the left of Hetal,
D. Four who sits immediately left of Leo. One person sits between
E. None of these Hetal and Hitesh, who doesn’t sit adjacent to Zeshan. Tom
43) Who among the following sits opposite of A? sits immediately left of Govind.
A. The one who sits third to the left of B. 46) Who sits second to the left of Leo?
B. B A. Hetal
Page 11 of 1079
B. Govind D. Zeshan
C. Neha E. None of these
D. Tom 49) Which of the following statement is/are not true?
E. None of these A. Hetal sits third to the left of Neha.
47) What is the position of Neha with respect to B. One person sits between Madhu and Zeshan.
Hitesh? C. Govind sits immediate right of Tom
A. Second to the left D. Leo sits third to the left of Madhu
B. Third to the right E. All the statements are true
C. Immediate right 50) Four of the five are related in a certain way and
D. Second to the right thus form a group, find the odd one out?
E. None of these A. Leo – Govind
48) Who among the following person sits facing B. Tom – Tinku
Tinku? C. Neha – Kajal
A. Leo D. Hetal – Tom
B. Neha E. Hitesh – Hetal
C. Hetal
Circle Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

Direction (1-5): N is not an immediate neighbor of M.
1. Answer: C S is not an immediate neighbor of T.
2. Answer: B
3. Answer: D
4. Answer: D
5. Answer: C
Explanation
Step 1 –
Q sits third to the left of M.
T is sitting second to the left of P.
P is not an immediate neighbor of both M and Q.
R and N are immediate neighbors of each other.
Page 12 of 1079
Direction (6-10):
6. Answer: (a)
7. Answer: (c)
8. Answer: (b)
9. Answer: (d)
10. Answer: D
Explanation Case 2 will be dropped because Q and N are not
immediate neighbours.
Direction (11-15):
11. Answer: (c)
12. Answer: (b)
13. Answer: (d)
14. Answer: (e)
15. Answer: B
Explanation
N sits second to the left of H.

Two persons sit between N and S.
Only one person sits between S and P.
P and H are not immediate neighbours.
R sits third to the left of K.

Only one person sits between K and X.
L sits on the immediate right of M.

Only one person sits between M and R.
Q and N are not immediate neighbours.
Page 13 of 1079
Only one person sits between Q and S. W is an immediate neighbor of R who faces A.
Z sits on the immediate left of S. From the statements, we get case 1 and case 2.
L sits opposite to the one who sits on the immediate left
of Q.
L and R are not immediate neighbours.
H and S are not immediate neighbours.
T sits second to the left of S but T is not an immediate

neighbor of both A and G.
From the statements, Case 2 gets eliminated.
Case 1 will be dropped because H and S are not immediate

neighbours.
Direction (16-20):
16. Answer: E
17. Answer: D
18. Answer: C
19. Answer: B
Four persons sit between H and Q.
20. Answer: B
K sits exactly between A and Q.
Explanation
X is one of the persons. From the statements, we get
A sits third right of G.

Direction (21-25):
Page 14 of 1079
21. Answer: D
22. Answer: B
23. Answer: D
24. Answer: A
25. Answer: C
Explanation
At least two persons are sitting between W and M.

W is not an immediate neighbour of B.
Q sits third to the left of E.

J sits second to the right of M and is one of the immediate Direction (26-30):
neighbours of Q. 26. Answer: B
27. Answer: E
28. Answer: D
29. Answer: C
30. Answer: A
S sits fourth to the right of V, who is not an immediate

neighbour of E.
T is an immediate neighbour of S.
So, Case-2 will be dropped.
Explanation
1. S stands third to the left of the one who is fifth to
the right of U.
2. W is three persons away from U.
Page 15 of 1079
3. X stands second to the left of the one who is fourth

Direction (31-35):
to the right of W.
31.Answer: D
4. Q stands fifth to the right of X.
32.Answer: C
33.Answer: B
34.Answer: D
35.Answer: C
Explanation
3. P stands to the immediate left of the persons who is

second to the left of Q.
1. P sits fourth to the left of the one, who sits to the

immediate right of U.
2. Only two persons sit between P and the one who sits
5. T stands second to the right of V and second to the second to the right of Y.
left of R who is not the immediate neighbor of P.
6. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
Page 16 of 1079
3. Q sits adjacent to Y. 38.Answer: B

4. W sits third to the right of Q. 39.Answer: A
5. X sits fourth to the left of V, neither of them sits 40.Answer: B
adjacent to U. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
Explanation
Two persons are sitting between R and Y.

Three persons sit between Y and W, who is not an
immediate neighbour of R.
P sits third to the right of S and both of them are not an
immediate neighbour of R and Y.
6. Only one person sits between T and S.

7. S doesn’t sit third to the right of W.
R sits immediate left of V, who is not an immediate

neighbour of S.
So that case 1 gets eliminated
Direction (36-40):
36.Answer: C
37.Answer: D
Page 17 of 1079
One person sits between Q and X who does not sit

immediately next to Y. T does not sit immediate next to
P.
There are two seats between C and G (either left or right).
So, the final arrangement is,
F sits second to the left of G. Here, we have the following
cases.
Direction (41-45):
B sits immediate right of G.
41. Answer: E
42. Answer: B
43. Answer: C
44. Answer: B
45. Answer: D
Explanation
D sits immediate left of A.

Here, we have one more case from case-1.
Page 18 of 1079
Hence, the final solution is Case-1(b).

E sits second to the left of B.
Now, we have only one place left for a vacant seat.
Direction (46-50):
46. Answer: B
47. Answer: C
48. Answer: A
49. Answer: B
F does not sit opposite of the vacant seat. 50. Answer: C
Here, Case-1(a) and Case-2 are eliminated.
Explanation
Page 19 of 1079
Based on the above-given information we have:
We have: Case (2) is not valid as Tinku sits fourth to the left of
Leo sits fourth to the left of Kajal, who doesn’t sits Hetal, who sits immediately left of Leo.
adjacent to Govind. Again, we have:
Zeshan sits third to the right of Madhu, who sits adjacent • One person sits between Hetal and Hitesh, who
to Kajal. doesn’t sit adjacent to Zeshan.
That means, in case (1) Madhu sits immediate left of That means, Hitesh sits immediate right of Leo.
Kajal, in case (2) Madhu sits immediate right of Kajal. • Tom sits immediately left of Govind.
Tinku sits fourth to the left of Hetal, who sits immediately That means, Govind sits immediate left of Hetal and Neha
left of Leo. sits immediately left of Madhu.
That means, in case (1) Tinku sits immediate left of Based on the above-given information we have the final
Zeshan, case (2) is not valid. arrangement as follows:
Linear Seating Arrangement

Direction (1 – 5): Study the following information a. C
carefully and answer the questions given below: b. D
Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are siting in a c. R
row facing towards north direction but not necessarily d. Q
in the same order. Three people are there between P e. None of these
and D. R is immediately between S and D. Neither Q 2) How many persons sit between R and C?
nor B sits at extreme end of the line. A does not sit a. Two
adjacent to S. P is siting at one of the end of the line. C b. Five
is second to the left of D. Q sits to the right of B. c. One
1) Who sits immediate right to B? d. Three
Page 20 of 1079
e. None of these E and A are adjacent to each other. Two person sit
3) Which of the following pair is immediate neighbor between A and C. B faces North direction.
of Q? 6) Which of the following pair sits at the end of the
a. C and D line?
b. C and P a. C and F
c. S and P b. G and C
d. B and R c. B and G
e. None of these d. E and G
4) Who sits at extreme left end of the line? e. None of these
a. P 7) How many people sit between B and G?
b. A a. Three
c. Q b. One
d. R c. Four
e. None of these d. Two
5) Who sits second left of S? e. None of these
a. D 8) Who sits immediate right of D?
b. B a. F
c. P b. B
d. C c. G
e. None of these d. A
Direction (6 – 10): Study the following information e. None of these
carefully and answer the questions given below: 9) Which of the following statement is true?
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are siting in a a. F faces to South direction
single row. Some of them are facing north and some of b. A and D are neighbors
them are facing South at equidistant from each other c. G and E face opposite direction
but not necessarily in the same order. No two adjacent d. B sits at one of the end of the line
people face same direction. Only two people sit e. None of these
between F and E. E faces South direction. C is not 10) How many person sit between C and D?
adjacent to F. D does not sit at any of the extreme end a. One
of the line. F Sit second from the right end of the line. b. Three
Page 21 of 1079
c. Two e. None of these

d. Four 14) Which of the following statement is true?
e. None of these a. P and V are Neighbors
Direction (11 – 15): Study the following information b. R sits to the right of T
carefully and answer the questions given below: c. Only two persons sit between S and Q
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a d. W sits to the left of Q
straight line facing south. V sits to the left of R. Neither e. None of these
P nor T sit at the end of the line. T is not the neighbor 15) What is the position of Q?
of W. Q does not sit at the end of the line. Neither S nor a. Immediate neighbor of T
U sit adjacent to V. S sits to the left of U. Three people b. 2nd to the right of P
sit between R and V but none of them sit at the end of c. Immediate left of S
the line. Two people sit between V and W. P and T are d. 2nd from the right end
adjacent to each other. e. None of these
11) Which of the following pair sit at extreme end? Direction (16 – 20): Study the following information
a. U and V carefully and answer the questions given below:
b. W and T Eleven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K siting
c. S and U in a row facing towards north direction but not
d. W and R necessarily in the same order. Six person sit between I
e. None of these and F. D sit third to the left of H. The number of person
12) Who sits second to the right of W? sit between D and I is equal to the number of person
a. T sit between H and J. G sits adjacent to E. B is not
b. V adjacent to I. Two person sit between B and C. F sit at
c. R one of the corner of the line. H sit in the middle of the
d. U line. D sit to the left of I but not immediate left. A and
e. None of these E are immediate neighbors of D.
13) How many person sit between R and Q? 16) Who sit second to the left of J?
a. Four a. G
b. One b. K
c. Three c. C
d. Two d. F
Page 22 of 1079
e. None of these necessarily in the same order. Four people sit between
17) Who sit fourth from the left end of the line? J and G. More than two person sit between J and I but
a. E I does not sit at any of the corner. H is in the middle of
b. I F and B. A and K are neighbours of D and none of
c. K them sit at the end of the line. More than four person
d. G sit between B and K. J sits fifth from one of the end of
e. None of these the line. E sits to the immediate right of G. Only one
18) How many person sit between D and B? person sit between I and H.
a. Four 21) Which of the following pair sit at the end of the
b. Three line?
c. One a. C-I
d. Six b. E-K
e. None of these c. B-C
19) If H and C interchange there position then, who is d. E-C
third to the right of E? e. None of these
a. C 22) Who sit third to the left of B?
b. F a. J
c. H b. A
d. B c. F
e. None of these d. D
20) Who sit fifth left of G? e. None of these
a. F 23) How many person sit between K and B?
b. A a. Six
c. B b. Five
d. K c. Four
e. None of these d. Three
carefully and answer the questions given below: 24) Who sits third to the left of H?
Eleven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K siting a. D
in a row facing towards north direction but not b. J
Page 23 of 1079
c. A a. Six
d. G b. Three
e. None of these c. Two
25) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way d. Four
and hence they form a group. Which one of the e. None of these
following does not belong to that group? 27) Four of the following five pair are alike in a certain
a. J way and hence they form a group. Which one of the
b. H following pair does not belong to that group?
c. E a. R-U
d. D b. P-T
e. G c. S-R
Direction (26 – 30): Study the following information d. V-W
carefully and answer the questions given below: e. R-Q
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are siting in a 28) Who sit second to the left of W?
row but not necessarily in the same order. Some of a. T
them facing towards north direction and some of them b. P
are facing towards south direction. Not more than c. R
three consecutive persons face in same direction. Both d. R
the person sitting at the corner faces some direction. V e. Q
sit second from one of the end of the line but not 29) How many persons sit between R an U?
neighbor of Q. S sits to the left of R. Number of person a. One
sit between P and S is equal to the number of person b. Three
sit between P and U. W and U faces in opposite c. Four
direction. Q sit at one of the corner of the line and face d. Two
north. Two person sit between T and Q. V is to the left e. None of these
of T. S and R are immediate neighbors of V and both 30) Which of the following pair is immediate neighbor
of them face in same direction. P does not face in south of P?
direction. a. T-R
26) How many person is facing towards South b. W-T
direction? c. P-U
Page 24 of 1079
d. T-V a. Immediate neighbor of F

e. None of these b. 2nd to the right of E
Direction (31 – 35): Study the following information c. Immediate left of C
carefully and answer the questions given below: d. 2nd from the right end
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G siting in a row e. None of these
facing towards north direction but not necessarily in 35) Which of the following statement is true?
the same order. Three persons sit between D and G. a. F and G are Neighbors
Only three persons sit between E and F. B sits to the b. C sits to the right of A
left of C. A and E are not neighbors. D sits at left end c. Only two person sit between A and C
of the line. Only one person sits between G and E. B d. B sits to the left of D
and C are immediate neighbors of G. e. None of these
31) How many persons sit between F an E? Direction (36 – 40): Study the following information
a. Two carefully and answer the questions given below:
b. Four Nine people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are siting in
c. One a row facing towards north direction but not
d. Three necessarily in the same order. Five persons sit between
e. None of these P and T. Only one person sit between X and W. U sit
32) Who sit immediate left of B? left of S. V does not sit at end of the line. P sits second
a. E from left end. X sit in the middle of the line. U and S
b. F are neighbors. Only one person sits between U and R.
c. A 36) Which of the following pair sit at the end?
d. C a. R and Q
e. None of these b. P and T
33) Who sits third to the left of C? c. S and T
a. F d. Q and S
b. A e. None of these
c. B 37) Who sits third to the left of V?
d. G a. S
e. None of these b. P
34) What is the position of G? c. W
Page 25 of 1079
d. U Sandhya and Priya. Sikha sits fourth from the right

e. None of these end. More than two girls sit between Sikha and Divya.
38) How many person sits between P and T? 41) Who sits immediate left of Sikha?
a. Two a. Priya
b. Five b. Jyoti
c. Three c. Divya
d. One d. Rubi
e. None of these e. None of these
39) Who sit immediate left of P? 42) Who sits fifth from the left end of the line?
a. Q a. Surbhi
b. T b. Sikha
c. R c. Divya
d. S d. Jyoti
40) Which of the following statement is true? 43) How many person sit between Divya and Soni?
a. W and S are Neighbors a. Three
b. V sits to the right of T b. Five
c. Only two person sit between X and W c. Two
d. T sits to the left of V d. One
Direction (41 – 45): Study the following information 44) Who sit to the extreme left end of the line?
carefully and answer the questions given below: a. Sandhya
Ten girls Priyanshi, Soni, Sikha, Surbhi, Priya, b. Divya
Jyoti,Riti, Rubi, Divya and Sandhya are sitting in a c. Priyanshi
straight line, facing north but not necessary in the d. Soni
same order. Jyoti is second to the right of priya. Riti e. None of these
and Divya sits adjacent to each other but none of them 45) Which of the following statement is true?
sit adjacent to Sandhya or Jyoti. Neither Rubi nor Soni a. Two person sit between Soni and Surbhi
sit at the end. Surbhi sits to the left of Rubi but right b. Divya and Jyoti are adjacent to each other
of Soni (but not immediate). Six persons sit between c. No one sit between Soni and Priya
Page 26 of 1079
d. Riti sit to the left of Jyoti d. V

Direction (46 – 50): Study the following information 48) Who sits third to the left of R?
carefully and answer the questions given below: a. S
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are siting in a row b. P
facing towards north direction but not necessarily in c. V
the same order. Three person sit between U and V. Q d. U
is immediate between U and T. R is not immediate e. None of these
neighbor of U. U is second from one of the end. P is 49) Which of the following statement is true?
immediate right of V. S sits to the left of R. a. Q and S are Neighbors
46) How many person sits between V and U? b. T sits to the right of V
a. Two c. Only two person sit between U and T
b. Five d. T sits to the left of U
c. Three e. None of these
d. One 50) What is the position of R?
e. None of these a. Immediate neighbor of Q
47) Who sit immediate left of T? b. 2nd to the right of Q
a. P c. Immediate left of T
b. Q d. 3nd from the right end
c. R e. None of these
Linear Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

Explanation (1-5) IV. R is immediately between S and D.
1. B V. Q sits to the right of B.
2. A VI. Neither Q nor B sits at extreme end of the
3. C line.
4. B VII. A does not sit adjacent to S. Thus Case-II
5. A is not possible
I. P is siting at one of the end of the line.
II. Three people are there between P and D.
III. C is second to the left of D.
Page 27 of 1079
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. D
I. Three people sit between R and V but none
of them sit at the end of the line.
Explanation (6-10) II. V sits to the left of R.
6. B III. Two people sit between V and W.
7. C IV. Neither P nor T sit at the end of the line.
8. D V. P and T are adjacent to each other.
9. B VI. T is not the neighbor of W.
10. B VII. Q does not sit at the end of the line.
I. F Sit second from the right end of the line. VIII. Neither S nor U sit adjacent to V.
II. Only two people sit between F and E. IX. S sits to the left of U. Thus Case-II is not
III. E and A are adjacent to each other. possible.
IV. E faces South direction. Thus Case-II is not
possible.
V. Two person sit between A and C.
VI. C is not adjacent to F.
VII. D does not sit at any of the extreme end of
the line.
VIII. B faces North direction.
Explanation (16-20)
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. E
Explanation (11-15)
i. F sit at one of the cornor of the line.
11. C
Page 28 of 1079
ii. Six person sit between I and F. iii. E sits to the immediate right of G.
iii. H sit in the middle of the line. iv. More than two person sit between J and I
iv. D sit third to the left of H. but I does not sit at any of the corner. Thus
v. D sit to the left of I but not immediate Case-II is not possible.
left. Thus Case-I is not possible.
vi. The number of person sit between D v. Only one person sit between I and H.
and I is equal to the number of person vi. H is in the middle of F and B.
sit between H and J. vii. A and K are neighbours of D and none of
vii. A and E are immediate neighbours of them sit at the end of the line.
D. viii. More than four person sit between B and
viii. G sits adjacent to E. K.
ix. B is not adjacent to I.
x. Two person sit between B and C.
Explanation (26-30)
26. C
Explanation (21-25) 27. D
21. D 28. E
22. A 29. B
23. B 30. A
24. C i. Q sit at one of the corner of the line and
25. C face north.
i. J sits fifth from one of the end of the line. ii. Both the person sitting at the cornor faces
ii. Four people sit between J and G. some direction.
Page 29 of 1079
iii. Two person sit between T and Q. VI. B sits to the left of C.
iv. V sit second from one of the end of the line VII. A and E are not neighbors. Thus Case-II is
but not neighbor of Q. not possible.
v. V is to the left of T.
vi. S and R are immediate neighbours of V
and both of them face in same direction.
vii. S sits to the left of R.
viii. Number of person sit between P and S is
equal to the number of person sit between
P and U. Thus Case-II is not possible.
ix. P does not face in south direction. Explanation (36-40)
x. W and U faces in opposite direction. 36. A
37. D
38. B
39. C
40. E
I. P sits second from left end.
II. Five persons sit between P and T.
III. X sit in the middle of the line.
Explanation (31-35) IV. Only one person sit between X and W.
31. D V. U and S are neighbors.
32. B VI. U sit left of S.
33. A VII. V does not sit at end of the line.
34. C VIII. Only one person sit between U and R. Thus
35. B Case-II is not possible.
I. D sits at left end of the line.
II. Three persons sit between D and G.
III. Only one person sit between G and E.
IV. Only three persons sit between E and F.
V. B and C are immediate neighbors of G.
Page 30 of 1079
vii. Surbhe sits to the left of Rubi but right of Soni

(but not immediate).
46. C
Explanation (41-45) 47. B
41. A 48. D
42. D 49. E
43. B 50. B
44. C Explanation (46-50)
45. C I. U is second from one of the end.
i. Six person sit between Sandhya and Priya. II. Three person sit between U and V.
ii. Jyoti is second to the right of priya. III. P is immediate right of V.
iii. Sikha sits fourth from the right end. IV. Q is immediate between U and T.
iv. Riti and Divya sits adjacent to each other but V. S sits to the left of R.
none of them sit adjacent to Sandhya or Jyoti. VI. R is not immediate neighbor of U. Thus
v. More than two girls sit between Sikha and Case-II is not possible
Divya. Thus Case- I is not possible.
vi. Neither Rube nor Soni sit at the end.
Parallel Rows Seating Arrangement

Direction (1-5): Study the following information Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows contains six
carefully and answer the below questions. people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance
Page 31 of 1079
between adjacent persons. In row-1 T, U, V, W, X and Y C.U

are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-2 A, B, D. The one who faces D
C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north. E.W
All the above information is not necessarily in the same 4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
order. based on the given arrangement and so form a group.
V sits second from one of the ends. Only three persons sit Who among the one is does not belong to that group?
between the one who faces V and F. As many people sit A.T
to the left of F is same as to the right of C. W sits second B.W
to the right of X. Neither W nor X is an immediate C.C
neighbour of V. The one who faces W sits on the D.X
immediate right of E. Only one person sits between D and E.F
E. Neither Y nor T faces D. U faces an immediate 5) Which of the following statements is/are not true?
neighbour of B. Y does not sit at any of the ends. A. Only one person sits between U and V.
1) How many people are sitting between C and the one B.A is an immediate neighbour of E.
who faces V? C.U faces an immediate neighbour of F.
A. One D. Both a and b
B. Two E. Both b and c
C. Four Direction (6-10): Study the following information
D. None carefully and answer the below questions.
E. Three Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing
2) Who among the following person faces T? four people each, in such a way that there is an equal
A.E distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, J, K, L, and
B.B M are seated and. In row-2, W, X, Y, and Z are seated and
C.C only people sitting on both corners are faces each other
D.A and rest are facing North.
E.D J sits second to the right of M. Y sits second to the left of
3) Who among the following person sits third to the left one who is opposite to J. Y is not an immediate neighbor
of Y? of Z. M sits opposite to the one who is immediate neighbor
A. The one who faces F W. W is not immediate neighbor X. K did not sit one of
B. The one who faces A the extreme ends. At least two persons sit to the left of Y.
Page 32 of 1079
6) How many people sit between M and the one who C.Z, L
faces X? D.M, W
A.1 E.X, K
B. None Direction (11-15): Study the following information
C.2 carefully and answer the below questions.
D. Can’t determine Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing
E. None of these six people each, in such a way that there is an equal
7) Which of the following statement is true? distance between adjacent persons. In row-1, G, H, I, J, K,
A. Two persons sit between Y and the one who faces J and L are seated and all of them are facing south. In row-
B. No one sits between K and the one who opposite to Z 2, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are seated and all of them are
C. Only two persons sit between W and X facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement
D.Y and J sit at the extreme ends each member seated in a row faces another member of the
E. All are true other row.
8) Who amongst the following sits immediate left of Y? U sits third to the right of Z. Either U or Z sits at extreme
A.W ends. U faces L, who sits second to the left of G. Three
B.L persons sit between Z and Y. Y faces the one who is an
C.X immediate neighbor of K. X does not face K and G. J sits
D. The one who faces J fourth to the right of H. I faces the one who is an
E. None of these immediate neighbor of V, who is not an immediate
9) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way neighbor of Y.
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not 11) Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of
belong to the group? the rows?
A.Y A.J, Y
B.J B.Z, H
C.M C.W, K
D.X D.G, U
E.L E.H, W
10) Who sits extreme end of the row? 12) Who amongst the following faces V?
A.X, M A.I
B.Y, J B.G
Page 33 of 1079
C.J Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member

D.L seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
E.H U sits third to the right of X. Neither U nor X sits at
13) How many persons are seated between V and Y? extreme ends. I faces X. J does not face U and J does not
A.2 sit at any of the extreme ends. J is not an immediate
B.1 neighbor of I. V sits at one of the extreme ends. Only two
C.3 people sit between V and Y. Y does not face J. Two
D. None persons sit between G and F. G is not an immediate
E.4 neighbor of I. W does not face J. E is not an immediate
14) J is related to Z in the same way as I is related to neighbor of G.
X. In the same way K is related to ____? 16) Who among the following sit at extreme ends of the
A.Y rows?
B.W A.E, Z
C.U B.G, X
D.X C.W, E
E.V D.V, I
15) Which of the following is true regarding L? E.F, U
A.L sits between I and H 17) Who among the following faces U?
B.L sits second to the left of K A.J
C.L faces Y B.H
D.L is not an immediate neighbor of H C.G
E.L sits at one of the extreme ends of the line D.F
Direction (16-20): Study the following information E.E
carefully and answer the below questions. 18) How many persons are seated between I and H?
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows six people A.2
each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between B.1
adjacent persons. In row-1 E, F, G, H, I and J are seated C.3
and all of them are facing south. In row-2 U, V, W, X, Y, D. None
and Z are seated and all of them are facing north. E. More than three
Page 34 of 1079
19) E is related to W in the same way, F is related to Y. C.R

To which of the following is H related to following the D. The one who is immediate right of R
same pattern? E.T
A.Z 22) Who among the following faces the one who sits
B.U second to the right of N?
C.V A.T
D.X B. The one who is second to the left of S
E. None of these C.Q
20) Which of the following statement is true regarding D. The one who is second to the left of P
Z? E.S
A.Z sits second to the left of V 23) Who among the following sits third to the right of
B.Z sits at one of the extreme ends of the line R?
C.Z sits third to the right of X A.P
D.Z sits second to the left of U B. The one who is second to the right of P
E.Z sits second to the right of W C.T
Direction (21-25): Study the following information D. The one who is facing N
carefully and answer the following questions. E. None of these
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows and facing 24) Who among the following person sits at the
each other.P, Q, R, S, Tsit in row 1 facing south and J, K, extreme ends?
L, M and N sit in row 2 facing north. A.N
P sits third from one of the ends and faces the one who sits B.M
second to the left of L.One person sits between P and Q C.S
who doesn’t face L.Two persons sit between Q and R.Two D.P
persons sit between J and M and one of them sits at one of E.Q
the extreme ends. S who doesn’t sit at any of the ends 25) If J is related to P and K is related to T, then N is
faces the one who sits immediate left of K. Immediate related to __?
neighbors of S doesn’t face M. A.S
21) Who among the following person faces K? B.Q
A.Q C.P
B. The person who is third to the left of S D.T
Page 35 of 1079
E.R C. The one who sits immediate right of Q

Direction (26-30): Study the following information D. The one who sits immediate left of P
carefully and answer the below questions E. The one who sits second to the right of H
In a hotel, twelve persons are sitting at the table facing 28) Who among the following person sits second to the
each other. In a Row1 F, G, H, I, J, and K are seated faces left of O?
south. In row2 L, M, N, O, P, and Q are seated and faces A. The one who sits immediate left of P
north. All the information is not necessarily in the same B. The one who sits immediate right of Q
order. C.O
F sits third from one of the ends. The one who faces F sits D. The one who sits opposite to I
second to the left of Q. Only two persons are sitting E.Q
between F and K who sits opposite to the one who sits 29) Which of the following statements is/are true?
diagonally opposite to G. H is adjacent to neither K nor G. I). Only one person sits between G and F
H and O are opposite to each other. M sits right of O. J sits II). N sits immediate left of Q
left of I who faces P. P sits immediate left of N. III). L and K are diagonally opposite to each other.
26) In which of the following statement 1st person sits A. Both I and III
exactly between 2nd and 3rd person in the final B. Only III
arrangement? C. Both I and II
I. FHI D. Only II
II. NOP E. None of the statement is true
III. LQM 30) Who among the following person sits third to the
A. Only II right of the one who is immediate left of J?
B. Only I and II A.F
C. Only III B. The one who sits second to the right of F
D. All I, II and III C.H
E. None of these D. The one who sits third to the right of J
27) Four among the following five are alike in a certain E.K
way and thus form a group which among the following Direction (31-35): Study the following information
doesn’t belong to the group? carefully and answer the below questions.
A.G Ten persons sit in the two parallel rows which are facing
B.K each other. Five persons sit in each row. U sits third to the
Page 36 of 1079
right of V. Either V or U sits at one extreme end. O sits B.V

immediate right to U and facing the person who sits C.P
immediate left of T. U is facing south and sits opposite of D.O
one who sits third to the left of P. Q sits opposite to one E.R
who sits immediate left of S and S third to the right of R. 35) Who sits third to the left of T?
M does not sits at any extreme end. N doesn’t sit opposite A.U
to S. B.P
31) Who sits immediate left of the one who sits opposite C.V
to T? D. No one
A.V E. None of these
B.S Direction (36-40): Study the following information
C.Q carefully and answer the below questions.
D.P Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, X, Y, and Z are sitting
E. None of these in the theater facing the screen which is in the north
32) What is the position of R with respect to T? direction. They all are sitting in two parallel rows each
A. Second to the right containing five persons but not necessarily in the same
B. Second to the left order.
C. immediate left X sits behind Z who sits at the corner of the Row. Y is not
D. Cannot be determined an immediate neighbor of Z but sits to the right of Z. Only
E. None of these P is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits in front of
33) Who sits in between S and T? M.O sits second to the left of R who sits behind the one
A.N who is an immediate neighbor of N. Neither Q nor M sits
B.P in the same row. Neither Y nor P sits in front of S.
C.O 36) Who among the following person sits third to the
D.U right of O?
E. None of these A. The one who sits second to the right of S
34) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way B. The one who sits behind P
to form a group, which one does not belong to the C. The one who sits between O and R
group? D.X
A.S E.Z
Page 37 of 1079
37) Which of the following statement is/are false? Direction (41-45): Study the following information
I). Only one person sits between S and R carefully to answer the given questions:
II). Q sits in front of O Ten persons are H, I, J, K, L, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting
III). X and Mare sitting at the same Row in two parallel rows such that H, I, J, K and L sits in row
A. Only I and III 1 faces towards north direction and V, W, X, Y and Z sits
B. Only I in the row 2 such that all are facing south direction. Person
C. Only I and II sitting in the row 1 faces the person sitting in row 2.
D. Only II I sit third to the right of K and one of them sits at an
E. None of the statement is false extreme end. V is an immediate neighbor of the one who
38) What is the position of Q with respect to P? faces I. Only one person sits between V and X. W is not
A. Second to the right an immediate neighbor of V. The one who faces X is an
B. Third to the right immediate neighbor of H. J faces W. Only one person sit
C. Second to the left between the one who faces H and Y. Z is to the right of
D. Third to the left W. L sits to the immediate left of I.
E. None of the above 41) Who among the following faces V?
39) Four of the following are alike in a certain way. A.K
Who among the following one does not belong to the B.H
group? C.J
A.Z D.L
B.Y E. None of these
C. The one who sits in front of M 42) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
D. The one who sits behind Z so form a group which of the following does not belong
E. The one who sits in front of R to the group?
40) Who among the following person sits behind to the A.X
one who sits second to the left of Y? B.K
A.S C.W
B.Q D.J
C. No one E.Z
D.O 43) Which of the following is not true regarding V?
E.R A. Two persons sit to the right of V
Page 38 of 1079
B.W sits second to the left of V 46) Who among the following sits diagonally opposite
C.V faces the one who is an immediate neighbour of I to S?
D.K is an immediate neighbour of the one who faces V A.D
E. Only one person sits between V and X B.A
44) What is the position of J with respect to H? C.B
A. Second to the left D.C
B. Third to the right E. None of these
C. Immediate right 47) Who among the following does not belong to the
D. Immediate left group?
E. Second to the right A.Q
45) What is the position of Z with respect to Y? B.S
A. Second to the right C.C
B. Third to the left D.D
C. Immediate right E.E
D. Second to the left 48) Who sits opposite to A?
E. None of these A.P
Direction (46-50): Study the following information B.Q
carefully and answer the questions given below it. C.R
Ten people A, B, C, D,E, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in D.T
two rows. Five people in each row facing each other. A, E.S
B, C, D and E are facing north. P, Q, R, S and T are facing 49) How many persons sitting between D and C?
south but not necessarily in the same order. A. One
C sits third to the right of A. One who is sitting opposite B. Two
to C sits immediate left of R. Only one person sitting C. Three
between R and T. Only two people are sitting between T D. Four
and S. One who is sitting opposite to Q sits third to the left E. None of these
of B. But B is not sitting at the extreme ends. The number 50) Who sits second right of S?
of persons sitting to the left of P and the number of persons A.P
sitting to the Left of E is same. T is sitting one of the right B.Q
positions of R. C.R
Page 39 of 1079
D.S E.T
Parallel Rows Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

Direction (1-5): Y does not sit at any of the ends. Hence final arrangement
1. Answer: D is:
2. Answer: C
3. Answer: A
4. Answer: B
5. Answer: A
Direction (1-5):
Solution: It is given that, V sits second from one of the
ends.
Direction (6-10):
Only three persons sit between the one who faces V and
6. Answer: C
F.
7. Answer: B
As many people sit to the left of F is same as to the right
8. Answer: A
of C.
9. Answer: B
So we have two possible cases i.e. case-1 and case-2:
10. Answer: A
Explanation
Step-1
J sits second to the right of M.
W sits second to the right of X.

Neither W nor X is an immediate neighbour of V.
The one who faces W sits on the immediate right of E.
So case-2 is eliminated. Only one person sits between D
and E.
Y sits second to the left of one who is opposite to J.
Neither Y nor T faces D. U faces an immediate neighbour
Step-2
of B.
Y is not an immediate neighbor of Z.
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M sits opposite to the one who is immediate neighbor W. X does not face K and G. J sits fourth to the right of H.
W is not immediate neighbor X. I faces one who is an immediate neighbor of V, who is not
K did not sit one of the extreme ends. an immediate neighbor of Y.
At least two persons sit to the left of Y. hence case 2
dropped.
Direction (11-15): Direction (16-20):
11. Answer: C 16. Answer: C
12. Answer: B 17. Answer: B
13. Answer: A 18. Answer: A
Explanation Explanation
U sits third to the right of Z. Step-1
Either U or Z sits at extreme ends. U sits third to the right of X.
U faces L, who is second to the left of G. Neither U nor X sits at extreme ends.
I faces X.
J does not face U and J does not sit at any of the extreme
ends.
J is not an immediate neighbor of I.
V sits at one of the extreme ends.
Three persons sit between Z and Y. Due to this case-2

dropped.
Three persons sit between Z and Y.
Y faces one who is an immediate neighbor of K.
Page 41 of 1079
Step-2 P sits third from one of the ends and faces the one who sits
Only two people sit between V and Y. second to the left of L.
Y does not face J. One person sits between P and Q who doesn’t face L.
Two persons sit between Q and R.
S who doesn’t sit at any of the ends faces the one who sits
Y does not face J. Due to this case-1 dropped.
immediate left of K. Immediate neighbors of S doesn’t
Step-3
face M.
Two persons sit between G and F.
G is not an immediate neighbor of I.
W does not face J.
E is not an immediate neighbor of G.
Immediate neighbor of S doesn’t face M, so case 2 will be
eliminated so the final arrangement is-
Direction (21-25):
Direction (26-30):
21. Answer: D
26. Answer: B
22. Answer: B
27. Answer: E
23. Answer: B
28. Answer: D
24. Answer: E
29. Answer: A
25. Answer: E
30. Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation
From the given statements, two persons sit between J and
M and one of them sits at one of the extreme ends.
Page 42 of 1079
P sits immediate left of N

From the above condition, case2 & case 2a gets
eliminated.
F sits third from one of the ends.

The one who faces F sits second to the left of Q.
From the above condition, there are two possibilities.
From the above condition, case1 shows the final

arrangement.
Only two persons are sitting between F and K who sits

opposite to the one who sits diagonally opposite to G.
Direction (31-35):
H is adjacent to neither K nor G. 31. Answer: C
H and O are opposite to each other. 32. Answer: C
M sits right of O. 33. Answer: A
34. Answer: A
35. Answer: D
Sol.
U sits third to the right of V.
Either V or U sits at one extreme end.
O sits immediate right to U and facing the person who sits
immediate left of T.
So we have two possible cases i.e. case-1 and case-2:
J sits left of I who faces P.
Page 43 of 1079
X sits behind Z who sits at the corner of the Row.

Y is not an immediate neighbor of Z but sits to the right
of Z.
From the above condition, we can definitely say that Z sits
in the left end of the row.
U is facing south and sits opposite of one who sits third to

the left of P.
So case-1 is eliminated.
Q sits opposite to one who sits immediate left of S and S
third to the right of R. Only P is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits in
M does not sit at any extreme end. front of M.
N doesn’t sit opposite to S. From the above condition, we can definitely say that M
So the final solutions: sits in the right end of the row.
O sits second to the left of R who sits behind the one who
Direction (36-40): is an immediate neighbor of N.
36. Answer: A
37. Answer: B
38. Answer: C
39. Answer: E
40. Answer: A
Explanation
Page 44 of 1079
Neither Q nor M sits in the same row.

Neither Y nor P sits in front of S.
Y is not an immediate neighbor of Z but sits to the right
of Z.
From the above condition case 1 shows the final answer.
Only one person sits between V and X.
The one who faces X is an immediate neighbor of H.
J faces W.
W is not an immediate neighbor of V.
So, now we get two possible cases-
Direction (41-45):
41. Answer: d
42. Answer: e
43. Answer: d
44. Answer: b Only one person sits between the one who faces H and Y.
45. Answer: a Z is to the right of W.
Explanation So, case-1 gets eliminated and the final arrangement is-
Direction (46-50):
46. Answer: A
I sits third to the right of K and one of them sit at an
47. Answer: E
extreme end.
48. Answer: D
V is an immediate neighbor of the one who faces I.
49. Answer: C
L sits to the immediate left of I.
50. Answer: A
So, from this there will be two possible cases-
Explanation
Page 45 of 1079
One who is sitting opposite to Q sits third to the left of B.

But B is not sitting at the extreme ends. Since Case (2) is
not possible.
C sits third to the right of A.
One who is sitting opposite to C sits immediate left of R.
Number of persons sitting to the left of P and number of

persons sitting to the Left of E is same.
So the final arrangement is,
Only one person sitting between R and T.
T is sitting one of the right positions of R.
Only two people are sitting between T and S.
Square Seating Arrangement

(Direction 1-5): Study the following information Kamal sits second to the left of Vishu. Only one person
carefully and answer the given questions: sits between Vishu and Reena who doesn't sit at the
Eight persons i.e. Vinod, Vishu, Reena, Kamal, corner of the table. Tina who is an immediate
Pritam, Ranbir, Tina and Juhi are sitting in a square neighbour of Vishu sits diagonally opposite to Pritam.
table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of Vinod is neither an immediate neighbour of Vishu nor
the table and they are facing outside the table while Ranbir. Juhi sits three places away from Ranbir who
four of them are sitting at the middle of the table and doesn't faces Vishu. More than four persons sit
they are facing inside the table. between Tina and Kamal when counted in the
anticlockwise direction from Kamal.
Page 46 of 1079
1) Who among the following sits third to the left of the A) Pritam and Juhi
person who faces Vishu? B) Juhi and Vinod
A) Vishu C) Tina and Vishu
B) Person sits diagonally opposite to Pritam D) Ranbir and Kamal
C) Person who is an immediate neighbour of Vinod E) Vishu and Tina
D) Juhi (Direction 6-10): Study the following information
E) Ranbir carefully and answer the given questions:
2) Which of the following statement is/are correct? Eight persons i.e. Tia, Tanuj, Nisha, Honey, Henu,
A) Tina and Pritam sit opposite to each other Shreya, Kalpit and Mira are sitting in a square table
B) Vishu doesn't sit at the corner of the table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of the
C) Vinod faces inside the table table and they are facing outside the table while four
D) Both A and B of them are sitting at the middle of the table and they
E) Both A and C are facing inside the table.
3) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and Mira sits at the middle of the table and faces Kalpit.
hence forms a group.Which of the following does not Nisha is an immediate neighbour of Kalpit. Honey sits
belong to that group? diagonally opposite to Nisha who sits exactly between
A) Person who sits to the immediate right of Vinod Kalpit and Tia. Tanuj doesn't faces Shreya who sits
B) Kamal three places away from Mira. Hemu doesn't sit to the
C) Person who sits second to the right of Pritam right of Honey.
D) Vishu 6) If all the persons are sitting in an order of dictionary
E) None of These starting from Hemu in a clockwise direction then how
4) How many persons sit between Vinod and Vishu many persons remain at the same position except
when counted anticlockwise from Vishu? Hemu?
A) Four A) Two
B) Three B) Three
C) Two C) One
D) One D) None
E) None E) More Than Three
5) Which among the following pair does not sit to the 7) Which of the following statement is/are not correct?
immediate right of each other? A) Kalpit sits at the corner of the table
Page 47 of 1079
B) Honey sits to the immediate right of Tanuj four of them are sitting at the middle of the table and
C) Mira sits exactly between Tia and Tanuj they are facing inside the table.
D) Both A and B Dev and Ved are sitting to the immediate right of each
E) None is True other. Only one person sits between Dev and Mayank
8) How many persons sit between Nisha and Tia when who does not sit to the left of Ved. Akshay sits three
counted clockwise from Tia? places away from Mayank. Raghav sits to the
A) Seven immediate left of Akshay. Sam sits diagonally opposite
B) Five to the person who sits to the immediate right of Anmol.
C) Six Tejas sits second to the right of Anmol.
D) Three 11) Who among the following sits third to the right of
E) Four the person who faces Tejas?
9) What is the position of Shreya with respect to Tia? A) Raghav
A) Third to the right B) Person who sits opposite to Sam
B) Third to the left C) Mayank
C) Fifth to the left D) Person who sits to the immediate left of Anmol
D) Fourth to the right E) Both B and C
E) Both A and C 12) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and
10) If all the persons are facing inside then who sits hence forms a group.Which of the following does not
third to the right of Hemu? belong to that group?
A) Nisha A) Tejas
B) Tanuj B) Raghav
C) Honey C) Person who sits opposite to Raghav
D) Kalpit D) Person who sits to the immediate right of Akshay
E) Shreya E) Mayank
(Direction 11-15): Study the following information 13) Which of the following statement is/are correct?
carefully and answer the given questions: A) Anmol sits between Dev and Ved
Eight persons i.e. Raghav, Sam, Dev, Ved, Anmol, B) Dev and Ved sit to the immediate right of each other
Mayank, Tejas and Akshay are sitting in a square C) Akshay faces Tejas
table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of D) All are True
the table and they are facing outside the table while E) None is True
Page 48 of 1079
14) Which among the following pair sit to the B) Two

immediate right of each other? C) Three
A) Tejas and Mayank D) None
B) Akshay and Anmol E) More Than Three
C) Ved and Dev 17) Which of the following statement is/are not correct
D) Sam and Raghav regarding Anwesha?
E) Tejas and Akshay A) Anwesha sits at the middle of the table
15) What is the position of Sam with respect to Tejas? B) Anwesha faces the person who sits to the immediate
A) Third to the left right of Shruti
B) Second to the right C) Anwesha sits exactly between Alia and Kanika
C) Fourth to the left D) Both A and B
D) Third to the right E) All are True
E) Fifth to the right 18) If all the persons are facing outside then who sits
(Direction 16-20): Study the following information second to the right of Navya?
carefully and answer the given questions: A) Divya
Eight persons i.e. Navya, Alia, Anwesha, Shruti, B) Anwesha
Kanika, Arti, Sanjhi and Divya are sitting in a square C) Alia
table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of D) Shruti
the table and they are facing outside the table while E) Sanjhi
four of them are sitting at the middle of the table and 19) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and
they are facing inside the table. hence forms a group.Which of the following does not
Sanjhi sits second to the right of Alia. Kanika sits third belong to that group?
to the right of Sanjhi. Arti sits at the corner of the table A) Person who sits between Alia and Sanjhi
and faces Alia. Only one person sits between Shruti B) Person who faces Divya
and Arti. Navya who faces Kanika sits second to the C) Kanika
left of Divya. Anwesha doesn't sit at the corner of the D) Person who sits to the immediate right of Divya
table. E) Anwesha
16) How many persons sit between Kanika and Divya 20) If all the persons are sitting in an order of
when counted anticlockwise from Divya? dictionary starting from Alia in a clockwise direction
A) One
Page 49 of 1079
then how many persons remain at the same position A) One

except Alia? B) None
A) One C) Two
B) None D) Three
C) Two E) More Than Three
D) Three 23) Who among the following sits third to the left of the
E) More Than Three person who sits opposite to Prachi?
(Direction 21-25): Study the following information A) Person who sits between Preeti and Prachi
carefully and answer the given questions: B) Person who faces Anshika
Eight persons i.e. John, Preeti, Prachi, Harsh, Aman, C) Preeti
Anshika, Raman and Richa are sitting in a square D) Person who sits at the south-east corner of Harsh
table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of E) None of These
the table and they are facing outside the table while 24) What is the position of John with respect to Harsh?
four of them are sitting at the middle of the table and A) Immediate right
they are facing inside the table. B) Second to the right
Aman sits diagonally opposite to Prachi. Preeti sits C) Second to the left
second to the right of Prachi. Raman is an immediate D) Immediate left
neighbour of Preeti. Only one person sits between E) Third to the left
Raman and Anshika who sits second to the right of 25) Which of the following statement is/are correct?
Harsh. John does not face Anshika. Richa sits exactly A) Richa doesn't faces Anshika
between John and Prachi. B) Preeti doesn't sit opposite to John
21) Which among the following pair sit to the C) Aman faces inside the table
immediate right of each other? D) Both B and C
A) Anshika and Aman E) None is True
B) Harsh and Preeti (Direction 26-30): Study the following information
C) Raman and Prachi carefully and answer the given questions:
D) Richa and John Eight persons i.e. Rashid, Rishi, Raghav, Pankhi,
E) Both C and D Rajat, Mahima, Apurva and Disha are sitting in a
22) How many persons sit between Richa and Aman square table such that four of them are sitting at the
when counted clockwise from Aman? corner of the table and they are facing inside the table
Page 50 of 1079
while four of them are sitting at the middle of the table E) All are Correct
and they are facing outside the table. 29) Which among the following pair sit to the
Disha sits at the middle side of the table. Raghav sits immediate left of each other?
diagonally opposite to Rajat who is an immediate A) Rajat and Disha
neighbour of Disha. Rashid sits second to the left of B) Apurva and Raghav
Rajat. Mahima sits opposite to Disha. Rishi sits three C) Rashid and Apurva
places away from Mahima. Pankhi is not an immediate D) Mahima and Rashid
neighbour of Rashid. Three persons sit between E) Rishi and Pankhi
Apurva and Pankhi. 30) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and
26) If all the persons are facing inside then who sits hence forms a group.Which of the following does not
third to the right of Pankhi? belong to that group?
A) Rajat A) Rajat
B) Person who sits exactly between Raghav and Rajat B) Raghav
C) Mahima C) Apurva
D) Person who faces Disha D) Rashid
E) None of These E) Rishi
27) If all the persons are sitting in a reverse order of (Direction 31-35): Study the following information
dictionary starting from Rishi in a clockwise direction carefully and answer the given questions:
then how many persons remain at the same position Eight persons i.e. John, Jack, Honey, Candy, Happy,
except Rishi? Herman, Michael and Oliver are sitting in a square
A) None table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of
B) One the table and they are facing inside the table while four
C) Two of them are sitting at the middle of the table and they
D) Three are facing outside the table.
E) More Than Three Jack doesn't face inside the table. Oliver is an
28) Which of the following statement is/are correct ? immediate neighbour of Jack. Happy sits third to the
A) Pankhi doesn't sit at the corner of the table right of Oliver. Candy four places away from Happy.
B) Disha and Apurva are neighbours of Rajat Michael sits second to the left of Honey, who sits
C) Rashid faces outside the table diagonally opposite to Oliver. More than two persons
D) Both A and B sit between Herman and Jack.
Page 51 of 1079
31) Which of the following statement is/are not 35) What is the position of Herman with respect to
correct? Oliver?
A) Happy doesn't sit at the corner of the table A) Fifth to the right
B) Candy is an immediate neighbour of Oliver and B) Second to the right
Herman C) Third to the left
C) Jack sits opposite to Happy D) Both A and B
D) Both A and B E) Both A and C
E) Both B and C (Direction 36-40): Study the following information
32) How many persons sit between Herman and carefully and answer the given questions:
Happy when counted anticlockwise from Herman? Eight persons i.e. Anurag, Jimna, Samir, Meera,
A) None Suman, Nakul, Hari and Pihu are sitting in a square
B) One table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of
C) Two the table and they are facing inside the table while four
D) More Than Three of them are sitting at the middle of the table and they
E) Three are facing outside the table.
33) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and Jimna sits second to the right of Pihu. Only one person
hence forms a group.Which of the following does not sits between Pihu and Samir who sits to the immediate
belong to that group? right of Suman. Meera sits opposite to Suman. Anurag
A) Michael sits third to the right of Jimna and faces outside the
B) Jack table. Hari sits exactly between. Meera and Suman.
C) John 36) If all the persons are facing outside then who sits
D) Oliver second to the right of Nakul?
E) Honey A) Samir
34) Who among the following sits fifth to the left of the B) Jimna
person who faces Honey? C) Meera
A) Person who sits opposite to Candy D) Suman
B) Person who sits exactly between Michael and Jack E) Anurag
C) Person who sits to the immediate left of Michael 37)Which of the following statement is/are correct?
D) All are True A) Pihu faces Nakul
E) Both A and B B) Suman faces Jimna
Page 52 of 1079
C) Anurag doesn't sit opposite to Hari inside the table while four of them are sitting at the
D) Samir sits between Hari and Suman middle of the table and they are facing outside the
E) None is Correct table.
38) What is the position of Meera with respect to Aradhya and Vasudev are sitting to the immediate left
Suman? of each other. Abhay sits second to the right of
A) Third to the right Vasudev. Madhav sits to the immediate right of
B) Immediate left Aradhya. Only one person sits between Kanha and
C) Immediate right Madhav. Kumar is not an immediate neighbour of
D) Opposite to Suman Kanha. Keshav sits between Kanha and Abhay who
E) Fifth to the left sits at the corner of table.
39) How many persons sit between Jimna and Anurag 41) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and
when counted anticlockwise from Anurag? hence forms a group.Which of the following does not
A) None belong to that group?
B) One A) Person who faces Abhay
C) Two B) Person who sits to the immediate left of Krishna
D) Three C) Person who sits opposite to Keshav
E) More Than Three D) Person who sits to the immediate right of Aradhya
40) Which among the following pair sit to the E) Person who sits exactly between Vasudev and Kanha
immediate right of each other? 42) If all the persons are facing inside then who sits
A) Pihu and Hari third to the left of Kumar?
B) Samir and Anurag A) Kanha
C) Nakul and Meera B) Madhav
D) Both A and E C) Aradhya
E) Jimna and Hari D) Abhay
(Direction 41-45): Study the following information E) Krishna
carefully and answer the given questions: 43) If all the persons are sitting in an order of
Eight persons i.e. Keshav, Madhav, Aradhya, dictionary starting from Abhay in a anticlockwise
Vasudev, Kanha, Krishna, Kumar and Abhay are direction then how many persons remain at the same
sitting in a square table such that four of them are position except Abhay?
sitting at the corner of the table and they are facing A) One
Page 53 of 1079
B) Two each other. Parul sits opposite to Priya. Sapna sits

C) Three second to the left of Ananya and second to the right of
D) More Than Three Shreya. Surbhi does not sit diagonally opposite to Rita.
E) None 46) If all the persons are facing outside then who sits
44) Which of the following statement is/are not third to the right of Shreya?
correct? A) Person who sits to the south of Parul
A) Aradhya sits between Vasudev and Krishna B) Person who sits to the west of Surbhi
B) Kumar sits opposite to Krishna C) Person who sits to the north-west of Kamya
C) Three persons sit between Madhav and Abhay D) Person who sits to the south-east of Surbhi
D) All are True E) None of These
E) None is True 47) Which among the following pair sit to the
45) What is the position of Keshav with respect to immediate left of each other?
Kanha? A) Sapna and Surbhi
A) Second to the left B) Ananya and Priya
B) Immediate left C) Shreya and Surbhi
C) Immediate right D) Rita and Sapna
D) Third to the left E) Kamya and Ananya
E) Second to the right 48) How many persons sit between Kamya and Sapna
(Direction 46-50): Study the following information when counted anticlockwise from Kamya?
carefully and answer the given questions: A) One
Eight persons i.e. Shreya, Priya, Surbhi, Sapna, B) None
Ananya, Parul, Rita and Kamya are sitting in a square C) Two
table such that four of them are sitting at the corner of D) Three
the table and they are facing inside the table while four E) More Than Three
of them are sitting at the middle of the table and they 49) Who among the following sits to the immediate left
are facing outside the table. of the person who faces Ananya?
Kamya sits third to the left of Rita. Shreya sits second A) Person who sits opposite to Rita
to the right of Kamya. Two persons sit between Shreya B) Person who sits between Kamya and Priya
and Priya who is not an immediate neighbour of Rita. C) Person who sits second to the left of Priya
Kamya and Priya are an immediate neighbours of D) Both A and B
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E) Both A and C C) Kamya faces the person who sits to the immediate left
50) Which of the following statement is/are correct? of Parul
A) Parul faces inside the table D) Shreya and Surbhi are an immediate neighbours
B) Rita sits exactly between Parul and Priya E) Both B and D
Square Seating Arrangement – Answers and Explanation

Answers (1-5): STEP II: Only one person sits between Vishu and Reena
1) B who doesn't sit at the corner of the table.
2) D As per this statement, CASE II will get eliminated and we
3) C will continue with CASE I and the arrangement will look
4) A like this:
5) B CASE I:
Solutions (1-5):
STEP I: Kamal sits second to the left of Vishu.
As per this statement, there will be two possible cases and
the arrangement will look like this:
CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
STEP III: Tina who is an immediate neighbour of Vishu

sits diagonally opposite to Pritam.
As per this statement, CASE I will get spilt into one more
case and the arrangement will look like this:
CASE I:
Page 55 of 1079
CASE I (A): Answers (6-10):

6) C
7) A
8) C
9) E
10) D
STEP IV: Vinod is neither an immediate neighbour of Solutions (6-10):
Vishu nor Ranbir. Juhi sits three places away from Ranbir STEP I: Mira sits at the middle of the table and faces
who doesn't faces Vishu. More than four persons sit Kalpit.
between Tina and Kamal when counted in the As per this statement, the arrangement will look like this:
anticlockwise direction from Kamal.

As per this statement, CASE I will get eliminated and we
will continue with CASE I (A) and the final arrangement
will look like this:
CASE I:
STEP II: Nisha is an immediate neighbour of Kalpit.

As per this statement, CASE I will get split into one more
case and the arrangement will look like this:
CASE I:
CASE I (A):
Page 56 of 1079
STEP IV: Tanuj doesn't faces Shreya who sits three

CASE II: places away from Mira. Hemu doesn't sit to the right of
Honey.
will continue with CASE II and the final arrangement will
look like this:
CASE I:
STEP III: Honey sits diagonally opposite to Nisha who

sits exactly between Kalpit and Tia.
As per this statement, the arrangement will look like this:
CASE I:
CASE II:
Answers (11-15):
CASE II:
11) E
12) A
13) B
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14) C
15) D
Solutions (11-15):
STEP I: Dev and Ved are sitting to the immediate right of
each other.
the arrangement will look like this: CASE II:
CASE I:
STEP III: Akshay sits three places away from Mayank.

CASE II:
CASE I:
STEP II: Only one person sits between Dev and Mayank
who does not sit to the left of Ved.
As per this statement, the arrangement will look like this: CASE II:
CASE I:
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STEP IV: Raghav sits to the immediate left of Akshay.

CASE I:
Answers (16-20):
16) A
17) C
18) B
CASE II:
19) D
20) B
Solutions (16-20):
STEP I: Sanjhi sits second to the right of Alia.
STEP V: Sam sits diagonally opposite to the person who CASE I:
sits to the immediate right of Anmol. Tejas sits second to
the right of Anmol.
will continue with CASE II and the final arrangement will
look like this:
CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
Page 59 of 1079
CASE II:
STEP II: Kanika sits third to the right of Sanjhi.
CASE I:
STEP IV: Only one person sits between Shruti and Arti.
CASE II:
CASE II:
STEP V: Navya who faces Kanika sits second to the left

of Divya.
STEP III: Arti sits at the corner of the table and faces
CASE II:
Alia.
will continue with CASE II and the arrangement will look
like this:
CASE I:
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STEP II: Preeti sits second to the right of Prachi.

STE VI: Anwesha doesn't sit at the corner of the table.
As per this statement, the final arrangement will look like
this:
CASE II:
STEP III: Raman is an immediate neighbour of Preeti.

Only one person sits between Raman and Anshika who
sits second to the right of Harsh.
As per these statements, CASE I will get split into one
Answers (21-25):
more case and the arrangement will look like this:
21) E
CASE I:
22) C
23) A
24) D
25) E
Solutions (21-25):
STEP I: Aman sits diagonally opposite to Prachi.
CASE I (A):
Page 61 of 1079
29) D
30) C
Solutions (26-30):
STEP I: Disha sits at the middle side of the table.
STEP IV: John does not face Anshika. Richa sits exactly
between John and Prachi.
As per this statement, CASE I (A) will get eliminated and
we will continue with CASE I and the final arrangement
CASE I: STEP II: Raghav sits diagonally opposite to Rajat who is
an immediate neighbour of Disha.
CASE I:
CASE I (A):
CASE II:
Answers (26-30):
26) B
27) C
28) D
STEP III: Rashid sits second to the left of Rajat.
Page 62 of 1079

CASE I:
STEP V: Rishi sits three places away from Mahima.

CASE II:
will continue with CASE II and the arrangement will look
like this:
CASE I:
STEP IV: Mahima sits opposite to Disha.

CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
STEP VI: Pankhi is not an immediate neighbour of

Rashid. Three persons sit between Apurva and Pankhi.
this:
CASE II:
Page 63 of 1079
Answers (31-35):
CASE II:
31) E
32) D
33) B
34) A
35) E
Solutions (31-35):
STEP I: Jack doesn't face inside the table.
As per this statement, the arrangement will look like this: STEP III: Happy sits third to the right of Oliver.
CASE I:
STEP II: Olive is an immediate neighbour of Jack.

CASE II:
CASE I:
Page 64 of 1079
STEP VI: More than two persons sit between Herman and
STEP IV: Candy four places away from Happy.
Jack.
As per this statement, CASE II will get eliminated and we
will continue with CASE I and the arrangement will look
this:
like this:
CASE I:
CASE I:
Answers (36-40):
CASE II: 36) B

37) A
38) D
39) E
40) A
Solutions (36-40):
STEP I: Jimna sits second to the right of Pihu.
STEP V: Michael sits second to the left of Honey who the arrangement will look like this:
does not sit diagonally opposite to Oliver. CASE I:
CASE I:
Page 65 of 1079
CASE II:
STEP III: Meera sits opposite to Suman.

CASE I:
STEP II: Only one person sits between Pihu and Samir
who sits to the immediate right of Suman.
CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
STEP IV: Anurag sits third to the right of Jimna and faces
outside the table.
Page 66 of 1079
As per this statement, CASE I will get eliminated and we 43) A

will continue with CASE II and the arrangement will look 44) D
like this: 45) B
CASE I: Solutions (41-45):
STEP I: Aradhya and Vasudev are sitting to the
immediate left of each other.
the final arrangement will look like this:
CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
STEP V: Hari sits exactly between Meera and Suman.

this:
CASE II:
STEP II: Abhay sits second to the right of Vasudev.

CASE I:
Answers (41-45):
41) C
42) B
Page 67 of 1079
CASE II: STEP IV: Only one person sits between Kanha and
Madhav.
CASE I:
STEP III: Madhav sits to the immediate right of Aradhya.

CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
STEP V: Kumar is not an immediate neighbour of Kanha.
CASE I:
Page 68 of 1079
CASE II: Answers (46-50):

46) D
47) C
48) D
49) E
50) E
Solutions (46-50):
STEP I: Kamya sits third to the left of Rita.
STEP VI: Keshav sits between Kanha and Abhay who its
at the corner of table.
As per this statement, CASE II will get eliminated and we
CASE I:
will continue with CASE I and the final arrangement will
look like this:
CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
Page 69 of 1079
STEP II: Shreya sits second to the right of Kamya. CASE II:

this:
CASE I:
STEP IV: Kamya and Priya are an immediate neighbours

of each other.
CASE II: CASE I:
CASE II:
STEP III: Two persons sit between Shreya and Priya who
is not an immediate neighbour of Rita.
CASE I:
Page 70 of 1079
STEP VI: Sapna sits second to the left of Ananya and

second to the right of Shreya. Surbhi does not sit
diagonally opposite to Rita.
As per these statements, CASE I will get eliminated and
we will continue with CASE II and the final arrangement
STEP V: Parul sits opposite to Priya. CASE I:

CASE I:
CASE II:
CASE II:
Rectangle Seating Arrangement

Directions (1-5): Study the following information each middle of the sides. V sits third to the right of W.
carefully to answer the given questions: Two persons sit between V and U . S sits third to the right
Eight persons sit in a rectangular table facing center such of T who sits at the corner. S is an immediate neighbour
that one person sits at each corner and one person sits at
Page 71 of 1079
of neither W nor V. Q sits third to the right of P and third A. Q,U

to the left of R. B. Q,R
1. Who among the following sits third to the right of C. P,T
the one who sits to the immediate right of Q? D. P,Q
A.W E. W,V
B.P Direction(6-10):Study the following information
C.T carefully and answer the questions below.
D.V A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a rectangular
E. None of these table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same
2.How many persons sit between T and S when counted order. Three persons are sitting on each longer side and
from the left of T? one person sits on each smaller side of the table. Persons
A.2 who sit at each side are exactly opposite to each other.
B.1 C is sitting 4th to the left of G and both are facing each
C.3 other. Only one person is sitting between G and A but that
D. None person is not F. E sits 3rd to the right of A. A Person who
E.4 is sitting immediate right of B is neither G nor C. H is
3.Who among the following sits opposite to Q? facing one of the immediate neighbours of A. F is sitting
A.U 2nd to the right of H. D is sitting adjacent to B.
B.W 6.Which among the following pair of persons are
C.T immediate neighbours of G?
D.V A.D and H
E. None of these B.B and F
4.Four of the following five belongs to a group in a certain C.F and H
way, find the one who does not belong to that group? D.E and B
A.U E.D and E
B.Q 7._____ sits 3rd to the left of ______ respectively?
C.T A.H and B
D.V B.D and F
E.W C.G and F
5. ____ sits second to the left of _____ respectively? D.A and B
Page 72 of 1079
E.G and E the corners, two persons are seated on each longer sides
8.Which of the following statement is/are true regarding and one person is seated on each shorter sides.
C? One person sits between Bala and Siva who sits at one f
A.C is an immediate neighbour of F the corners. Raj sits fourth to the left of Bala and to the
B.C sits 2nd to the left of A. immediate right of Kala. Two persons sit between Kala
C. Two persons sit between C and B. and Kavi who sits to the immediate left of Vishal. The
D.C sits immediate right of E. number of persons from the left of Vishal to Kala is the
E. None of these same as the number of persons from the right of Mathi to
9.When all the persons are sitting according to the Kala. Ram sits third to the left of Meena who doesn’t sit
alphabetical order starting from A in the clockwise facing Jaya. The person who sits immediate right of Siva
direction then how many persons remain unchanged in is sitting on one of the shorter sides.
their position (excluding A)? 11.Who among the following person sits third to the
A.3 right of Bala?
B. None A. Kala
C.4 B. Siva
D.2 C. Meena
E.1 D. Jaya
10.Who sits exactly between G and B when counting from E. None of these
the left of G? 12.Who among the following person sits opposite to
A.C Ram?
B.H A. Meena
C.E B. Vishal
D.D C. Kavi
E. None of these D. Siva
Direction(11-15): Answer the questions based on the E. None of these
information given below. 13.What is the position of Siva with respect to Kavi?
Ten persons viz. Bala, Jaya, Kala, Kavi, Mathi, Meena, A. Second to the left
Ram, Raj, Siva and Vishal are seated in a rectangular table B. Immediate Left
such that all of them are facing towards the center, but not C. Third to the right
necessarily in the same order. Four persons are seated at D. Fourth to the right
Page 73 of 1079
E. None of these direction as E. G doesn’t sit adjacent to A. B doesn’t face

14.Who among the following person sits seventh to the the centre.
right of Meena? 16.Who among the following person sits to the immediate
A. Ram left to B?
B. Mathi A.F
C. Kala B. The one who sits third to the left of F
D. Bala C.D
E. None of these D. The one who sits second to the right of J.
15.If Jaya is related to Bala and Kavi is related to Kala E. None of these
in a certain way, then in same manner who among the 17.How many persons are sitting between J and F,
following person is related to Vishal? when counted from the right of F?
A. Mathi A. Two
B. Raj B. Four
C. Kavi C. Six
D. Meena D. Three
E. Jaya E. None of these
Direction(16-20):Answer the questions based on the 18. Who among the following person is sitting 4th to the
information given below. right of D?
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting A.J
around a rectangular table in such a way that four of them B.G
sit at the corner facing outside and others sit at the middle C.F
of the sides and facing towards the centre but not D.B
necessarily in the same order. Two persons sit on each E. None of these
longer side and one person sits on each shorter side. 19.What is the position of E with respect to A?
A sits third to the left of I. Both A and I either sit along A. Immediate left
the sides or at the corners. J sits third to the right of I. Only B. Immediate right
one person sits between A and D, who faces the centre. E C.9th to the right
sits to the immediate right of D. H sits fourth to the right D. Either (a) or (c)
of E. G sits to the immediate right of F, who faces the same E. None of these
Page 74 of 1079
20. Four of the following five are similar in such a way 22. How many persons sit between Q and the person who
to form a group. is facing T, when counted from the right of Q?
Which among the following doesn’t form a group? A. One
A.DI B. Two
B.CB C. Three
C.HJ D. Four
D.FA E. None of these
E.ED 23. Who among the following person sits third to the left
Direction(21-25): Study the following information of V, if all the persons are sitting in the alphabetical order
carefully and answer the below questions in the clockwise direction from P?
Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting A.T
around the rectangular table but not necessarily in the B.S
same order. One person sits at each corner and facing C.Q
inside and one person sits at each middle side of the table D.P
and facing outside with one person sitting at each shorter E. None of these
sides and one person sitting on each longer sides. 24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
R and the person who sits second to the left of T are facing and hence form the group. Who among the following one
each other. R sits third to the left of Q.W is facing the does not belong to the group?
person who sits second to the left of P.S sits immediate A. The person who sits opposite to R
left of P.S sits opposite to the person who sits second to B. The person who sits opposite to V
the right of U. S sits at the shorter side. V sits neither at C. The person who sits opposite to U
the corner nor at the shorter side of the table. D. The person who sits opposite to S
21. Who among the following person sits fifth to the right E. The person who sits opposite to Q
of the person who is facing R? 25. The number of persons sitting between Q and S is the
A. The person who sits opposite to T same as the number of persons sitting between P and
B.U ___(in both the sides)?
C. The person who sits opposite to Q A. T
D. The person who sits opposite to W B. Q
E. None of these C. S
D. W
Page 75 of 1079
E. R A. One
Direction(26-30):Answer the questions based on the B. Two
information given below. C. Three
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated on D. More than three
a rectangular table such that three persons are sitting on E. None
the longer side while one person is sitting on the shorter 29. As many persons sit between ___ and G is the same
side and all of them are facing towards the center, but not as between D and ___, when counted from the right of
necessarily in the same order. The consecutive G and D respectively.
alphabetically named person doesn’t sit adjacent to each A.E, B
other. B.H, C
A sits exactly opposite to the one who is second to the C.F, C
right of B where both A and B are sitting on the opposite D.C, B
longer sides. G is the immediate neighbour of B. F sits E. None of these
second to the left of G and fourth to the right of C. D sits 30.Who among the following person sits third to the
to the immediate right of H. right of E?
26.Who among the following person sits to the A.B
immediate right of G? B.F
A.C C.G
B.E D.C
C.D E.H
D.A Direction(31-35): Study the following information
E. None of these carefully and answer the below questions.
27.What is the position of A with respect to C? Ten persons sit around a rectangular table. Two persons
A. Third to the right sit at each longer sides of the table and one person sits at
B. Third to the left each smaller side. Four persons sit at the corner of the
C. Immediate right table. The persons sitting at the corner are facing inside
D. Immediate left the table and the persons sitting at the sides are facing
E. Cannot be determined outside the table.
28.How many persons sit between F and H when G sits third to the right of H. Three persons sit
counted from the left of F? between H and L who doesn’t sit adjacent to G. M sits
Page 76 of 1079
second to the right of L. Both N and I sit adjacent to each C.2

other. Four persons sit between M and K. Three persons D.1
sit between K and J. N sits fourth to the left of P. Number E. None of these
of persons sit between H and J are the same as between O 35. If all the persons are sitting in the alphabetical
and G. P sits immediate left of O. G doesn’t sit on the order from position L in a clockwise direction. How
shorter side of the table. many persons position remains unchanged?
31. Who sits fourth to the right of I? A.1
A. K B.3
B. O C.2
C. L D.4
D. J E. None of these
E. None of these Direction(36-40): Study the following information
32. Who sits second to the left of G? carefully and answer the below questions.
A.M Eight persons S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in the
B.H rectangular table. An equal number of persons sit at the
C.N corner and middle of the sides of the table. The persons
D.I who are facing inside sit at the middle of the sides and the
E. None of these persons who are facing outside sit at the corner of the
33. As many persons sit between N and L as between P table.
and _____, when counted from the left of both P and U sits third to the right of W. One person sits
N? between Z and U. S sits immediate left of Z. V sits second
A.M to the right of T. X sits at one of the shorter sides of the
B.J table and also immediate left of U . The Number of
C.O persons sitting between W and X is the same as the
D.I number of persons sitting between U and V when counted
E. None of these from the right of both X and V. U doesn’t sit on the shorter
34. How many persons are there between K and J, side of the table.
when counted from the right of J? 36. Who sits 2nd to the left of the one who sits 3rd to the
A.3 right of Y?
B.4 A.W
Page 77 of 1079
B.U 40. If X and T interchange their positions, then who sits

C.V third to the right of X?
D.S A.S
E. None of these B.V
37. How many persons are sitting between T and the C.Y
one who sits immediate left of Z when counted from D.Z
the right of T? E. None of these
A.3 Direction(41-45): Study the following information
B.1 carefully and answer the questions given below.
C.4 Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W are sitting
D.2 around a rectangular table in such a way that one person
E. None of these sits on each corner of the table and other one person sits
38.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on each middle of the sides. The one who sits at the corner
and hence form a group, which one does not belong to faces outside the centre and the one who sits at the middle
the group? of the sides faces towards the centre of the table. Persons
A.U sitting on the opposite sides are exactly opposite to each
B.Y other.
C.T V sits at one of the shorter sides of the rectangle. Two
D.V persons sit between R and V. Only one person sits
E.Z between R and S, who is not an immediate neighbour of
39. If all the persons are arranged in the alphabetical V. Q sits either third to the right of S or third to the left of
order from the position of X in an anti-clockwise S. U and R are diagonally opposite to each other. W sits
direction then how many persons unchanged their third to the right of U. P faces towards the centre.
position? 41. What is the position of P with respect to V?
A.1 A. Immediate right
B.2 B. Second to the left
C.3 C. Second to the right
D.4 D. Third to the left
E. None of these E. Cannot be determined
42.Who sits opposite to W?
Page 78 of 1079
A.Q Direction(46-50): Study the following information

B.S carefully and answer the question below.
C.V Eight persons M, N, O, P, J, K, G, and H are sitting around
D.T a rectangular table – 2 persons on each side. The persons
E.R who are sitting on the longer side are facing inside the
43.How many persons sit between S and T, when table and the persons who are sitting on the smaller side
counted from the right of S? are facing outside the table.
A. None O is sitting 2nd to the right of K who is sitting opposite to
B. One the one who is an immediate neighbour of H who sits on
C. Two the smaller side of the table. P sits immediate left of N and
D. Three vice versa. G faces one of the immediate neighbours of M.
E. More than three J neither sits opposite to N nor sits on the smaller side of
44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way the table. O is not an immediate neighbour of M.
and hence forms a group. Who among the following 46. Who among the following person is sitting 2nd to the
does not belong to the group? left of the person who is sitting opposite to H?
A.P A.M
B.V B.J
C.W C.G
D.Q D.P
E.T E.O
45. If all the persons are made to sit in the alphabetical 47.Which of the following is definitely true regarding M?
order starting from P in an anti-clockwise direction, A.M faces inside of the table
then the position of how many persons remain B.N faces one of the immediate neighbours of K
unchanged?(excluding P) C.G sits 2nd to the left of M
A. None D.H is an immediate neighbour of M
B. One E. Both (b) and (d)
C. Two 48. Who among the following person is sitting to the
D. Three immediate left of the person who is sitting to the 2nd left
E. More than three of J?
A.K
Page 79 of 1079
B.O D. Four
C.H E. Three
D.N 50.Who among the following person is sitting 5th to the
E.P right of P?
49. How many persons are sitting between O and G when A.O
counted from the right side of G? B.M
A. Five C.J
B. Two D.H
C. One E.G
Rectangle Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

Directions (1-5):
1. Answer: A
2. Answer: E
3. Answer: B
4. Answer: D
5. Answer: A
Explanation
S sits third to the right of T who sits at the corner.
As per the given statements, V sits third to the right of W. S is an immediate neighbour of neither W nor V.
So, we have two possible cases i.e. case 1 and case 2. So, case 1 and case 3 get eliminated here.
Two persons sit between V and U.
Page 80 of 1079
C is sitting 4th to the left of G and both are facing each

other.
Here we get two possibilities.
Only one person is sitting between G and A but that person

is not F. E sits 3rd to the right of A. Here we get two
Q sits third to the right of P and third to the left of R. So, possibilities in each case
case 2 shows the final arrangement ,
CASE 2:
Direction(6-10):
6.Answer: A
7.Answer: C
8.Answer: A
9.Answer: E
10.Answer: D
Explanation
Page 81 of 1079
H is facing one of the immediate neighbours of A. F is Direction(11-15):

sitting 2nd to the right of H. 11. Answer: D
12. Answer: B
13. Answer: D
14. Answer: A
15. Answer: B
Explanation
As we know that only one person sits between A and G

and that person is not F. So case (1a) and case (2a) are 1. One person sits between Bala and Siva who sits at
eliminated. one f the corners.. Raj sits fourth to the left of Bala
A Person who is sitting immediate right of B is neither G and to the immediate right of Kala.
nor C. D is sitting adjacent to B. 2. The person who sits immediate right of Siva is
sitting on one of the shorter sides.
We cannot fix the position of D in case (1). So this case

is eliminated. 3. Two persons sit between Kala and Kavi who sits to the
Hence case 2 shows the final arrangement. immediate left of Vishal.
4. The number of persons from the left of Vishal to Kala
is the same as the number of persons from the right of
Mathi to Kala.
Page 82 of 1079
5. Ram sits third to the left of Meena who doesn’t sit

facing Jaya. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
1. A sits third to the left of I.
2. Both A and I either sit along the sides or at the corners.
Case 2 shows the final arrangement, 3. J sits third to the right of I.

4. Only one person sits between A and D, who faces the
centre.
5. E sits to the immediate right of D.
6. H sits fourth to the right of E.
Direction(16-20):
16.Answer: D 7. G sits to the immediate right of F, who faces the same
17.Answer: A direction as E.
18.Answer: B 8. G doesn’t sit adjacent to A.
19.Answer: B 9. B doesn’t face the centre.
20.Answer: C 10. Hence, both case 1 and 2 get eliminated.
Explanation
Case 3 shows the final arrangement.
Page 83 of 1079
S sits opposite to the person who sits second to the right

Direction(21-25): of U. S sits immediate left of P. S sits at the shorter side.
21.Answer: C V sits neither at the corner nor at the shorter side of the
22.Answer: B table.Case-1 gets eliminated.
23.Answer: C
24.Answer: A
25.Answer: A
Explanation
Case 2 shows the final arrangement,
R and the person who sits second to the left of T are facing
each other. R sits third to the left of Q.
Direction(26-30):
26.Answer: B
27.Answer: C
28.Answer: A
29.Answer: D
W is facing the person who sits second to the left of P.
30.Answer: E
Explanation
Page 84 of 1079
1. A sits exactly opposite to the one who is second to

the right of B where both A and B are sitting on Direction(31-35):
the opposite longer sides. G is the immediate 31.Answer: B
neighbour of B. 32.Answer: C
33.Answer: D
34.Answer: A
35.Answer: C
Explanation
2. F sits second to the left of G and fourth to the right of

C. D sits to the immediate right of H. The consecutive
alphabetically named person doesn’t sit adjacent to each
other. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
G sits third to the right of H. Three persons sit between H
and L who doesn’t sit adjacent to G. M sits second to the
right of L. G doesn’t sit on the shorter side of the table
Page 85 of 1079
Case 2 gets eliminated because N sits fourth to the left of

P.
Four persons sit between M and K. Three persons sit

between K and J. Number of persons sit between H and J
are the same as between O and G. P sits immediate left of
O.
Direction(36-40):
36.Answer: C
37.Answer: D
38.Answer: B
39.Answer: C
40.Answer: A
Explanation
Case 2a and case 1a get eliminated because P sits

immediate left of O. U sits 3rd to the right of W. One person sits between Z and
U. S sits immediate left of Z. U doesn’t sit on the shorter
N sits fourth to the left of P. Both N and I sit adjacent to side of the table.
each other.
Page 86 of 1079
Direction(41-45):
41.Answer: B
42.Answer: C
V sits 2nd to the right of T. X sits at one of the shorter sides
43.Answer: D
of the table and also immediate left of U. By these
44.Answer: E
conditions , case 1,case 1a get eliminated.
45.Answer: A
Explanation
V sits at one of the shorter sides of the rectangle. Two

persons sit between R and V. Only one person sits
The Number of persons sitting between W and X is the
between R and S, who is not an immediate neighbour of
same as the number of persons sitting between U and V
V.
when counted from the right of both X and V. By this
condition case 2a gets eliminated.
Q sits either third to the right of S or third to the left of S.

U and R are diagonally opposite to each other.
Page 87 of 1079
W sits third to the right of U. P faces towards the centre.
Since W cannot be placed, Case 1 gets cancelled.

P sits immediate left of N and vice versa.
Direction(46-50):
46.Answer: C
47.Answer: D
48.Answer: A
49.Answer: D
50.Answer: C
Explanation
G faces one of the immediate neighbours of M who is not

an immediate neighbour of O.
O is sitting 2nd right of K who is sitting opposite to the one

who is an immediate neighbour of H who sits on the
smaller side of the table.
Here we get three possibilities.
Page 88 of 1079
J neither sits opposite to N nor sits on the smaller side of

We cannot fix the position of J in Case (2) and Case (3).
the table.
So these cases are eliminated.
Triangle Seating Arrangement

Directions: 1-5) Read the information carefully and who all are sitting on the edges of table are facing inside
answer the following questions. the table.
Six people- Akash, Raj, Govind, John, Surya and Amar Govind and Surya are facing in same direction. Raj is
are sitting around a triangular shaped table such that three sitting third to the right of Surya who is sitting to the
of them sit at the corner while remaining three are sitting immediate left of John. Govind is sitting second to the left
on the edges but not necessarily in the same order. People of Amar who is not sitting on the edges of table.
sitting at corner are facing outside the table and people 1) Who is sitting to the immediate right of John?
a. Surya
Page 89 of 1079
b. Govind Directions: 6-10) Read the information carefully and

c. Raj answer the following questions.
d. Akash Six persons are sitting around a triangular table such that
e. Amar 3 of them sit at the corner while 3 sit on the sides of the
2) Who is sitting opposite to Raj? table. People sitting at the corner are facing inside while
a. Akash people at the sides are facing outside.
b. John A sit at the corner of the table. M is an immediate neighbor
c. Govind of A. Only 2 people sit between M and B. C sits to the
d. Either b and c immediate right of B. Only 2 people sit between C and N.
e. Surya O is the immediate neighbor of N.
3) Which of the following statements are true about 6) How many persons are sitting between O and N
Govind? when counted from the right of O?
a. Govind is facing inside the table. a. 4
b. He is sitting to the immediate right of Akash. b. None
c. Only three persons are sitting between Govind and c. 3
Akash. d. 2
d. Raj and Govind are facing in the same direction. e. None of these
e. None is true. 7) What is the position of B with respect to O.
4) Who is sitting opposite to Amar? a. Fourth right
a. Akash b. Second left
b. John c. Third right
c. Govind d. Immediate left
d. Either b and c e. None of these
e. Surya 8) Four of the following five belongs to a group
5) Who is sitting to the immediate right of Govind? following a certain pattern. Who does not belong to the
a. Surya group?
b. John a. BN
c. Raj b. BM
d. Akash c. AO
e. Amar d. CN
Page 90 of 1079
e. OA 11) Find the odd one out.

9) Who is immediate right of M? a. NP
a. B b. LO
b. M c. OQ
c. A d. MP
d. N e. QL
e. None of these 12) Who among the following likes Blue?
10) Who is sitting opposite to N? a. Q
a. B b. N
b. M c. M
c. A d. Either (a) or (b)
d. C e. P
e. None of these 13) How many persons are sitting between L and Q,
Directions: Answer the questions based on the when counted from the left of L?
information given below. a. 2
Six persons, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting at the sides of b. 3
a triangular table. Some of them are facing the centre, c. 1
while others are facing away from the centre. Each of d. 4
them like different colors, Green, Red, Yellow, Blue, Pink e. cannot be determined
and Black. 14) ____ likes Pink?
Q is sitting 2nd to the right of the person, who likes Green a. M
and both of them are facing the same direction. O is sitting b. P
to the immediate right of Q. One person is sitting between c. Q
P and L, who likes Red. Neither M nor N is sitting adjacent d. O
to O, who is facing the opposite direction of M. Person, e. None of the above
who likes Black, is sitting opposite to the one, who likes 15) ____ is sitting adjacent to the person, who is sitting
Blue. M doesn’t sit immediately left of P. Person, who 3rd to the right of O.
likes Pink, is not sitting 2nd to the right of M. Person a. N
sitting adjacent to P likes Yellow. Person, who likes b. Q
Yellow is not facing away from the centre. c. L
Page 91 of 1079
d. P a. Samar
e. None of the above b. Kapil
Directions: 16-20) Answer the questions based on the c. Rohit
information given below. d. Leo
There are 7 persons Akshay, Leo, Raju, Kapil, Abhi, Rohit e. Cannot be determined
and Samar sitting around the triangular table and are 19) How many persons are sitting between Abhi and
facing towards the centre of the table. Three are sitting at Kapil, when counted from the right of Abhi?
different corners, three are at one edge and one is sitting a. One
at an other edge. b. Two
Both the immediate neighbors of Rohit, who is sitting c. Three
second to the right of Leo, are sitting at the edge. Kapil, d. Four
who is sitting third to the left of Leo, is sitting two places e. Cannot be determined
away from Samar. Akshay is sitting second to the right of 20) Who is sitting to the immediate left of Samar?
Abhi. Raju is not sitting at the corner. Rohit is not sitting a. Raju
on the edge. Raju is not the immediate neighbor of Rohit. b. Leo
16) Who among the following is sitting on the edge c. Kapil
where only one person is sitting? d. Akshay
a. Akshay e. Cannot be determined
b. Kapil Direction: Read the given information and carefully
c. Abhi answer the following questions.
d. Raju Six people C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
e. Cannot be determined triangular table. Three persons are sitting at the corner of
17) Who among the following is not sitting at the table facing inside and other three are sitting on the edge
corner? facing outside. They have different occupation like,
a. Samar Doctor, Dancer, Painter, Singer, Clerk and Teacher but
b. Kapil not necessarily in same order.
c. Rohit E is not a singer. C is neither a painter nor a doctor. Two
d. Leo people sit between singer and clerk. Neither E nor G is a
e. Cannot be determined clerk. D and F are immediate neighbors. Clerk is
18) Who is sitting second to the right of Raju? immediate neighbor of D who is not a doctor. F does not
Page 92 of 1079
sit at the corner of the table and he is a dancer. C sits c. F

immediate left of E and immediate right of G. d. H
21) Who is a teacher? e. Cannot be determined
a. F Directions: 26-30) Study the following information
b. C carefully and answer the questions given below
c. H Six persons are sitting in an equated triangular table.
d. G Three of them sit at the corner of the table and three of
e. B them are sits at the middle of the side. All of them are
22) Who among the following does not face inside? facing the center of the table. Each of them like different
a. D game i.e. cricket, hockey, football, badminton, tennis,
b. G table tennis but not necessarily in the same order.
c. E The one who like football sits second to the right of
d. C cricket. There are two people sit between the one who like
e. Both a) and b) tennis and the one who like table tennis. Only one person
23) Who sits diagonally opposite to H? sits between the one who like tennis and the one who like
a. F hockey. The one who likes cricket sits at the corner of the
b. D table who is immediate neighbour of hockey.
c. E 26) How many people are sitting between the one who
d. C like table tennis and the one who like football when
e. G counted from left of the one who like table tennis?
24) Who sits third to right of F? a. One
a. Doctor b. Two
b. Clerk c. Three
c. D d. More than three
d. C e. None
e. G 27) Who sits exactly between the one who likes
25) Who sits exactly between D and doctor when badminton and the one who like tennis, when counted
counted from left of D? left from the one who likes badminton?
a. C a. One who like Football
b. G b. One who like Cricket
Page 93 of 1079
c. One who like Hockey B is second to the right of F. C sits opposite to B and is of
d. One who like Table Tennis 20 years of age. E is 56 years old and sits second to the
e. Cannot be determined left of C. The age of A is half the age of D. D does not sit
28) Which of the following statements is TRUE? near to E. The age of F is twice the age of C. The age of
a. One who like Cricket is immediate neighbor of the one D is 28 years. The sum of ages of A and B is 32.
who like hockey 31) Who is sitting immediate to the left of B?
b. One who like Hockey sits third to the right of the one a. A
who like football b. C
c. One who like Tennis sits at the middle of the side c. D
d. All three are true d. E
e. None of these e. F
29) Who among the following like the game who sits 32) What is the age of B?
third to the left of the person who like football? a. 26 years
a. Tennis b. 22 years
b. Hockey c. 24 years
c. Cricket d. 16 years
d. Badminton e. 18 years
e. Cannot be determined 33) How many persons are sitting between A and E,
30) Who among the sits second to the left of the one when counted from the left of E?
who like Cricket? a. Two
a. One who like Football b. Three
b. One who like Cricket c. One
c. One who like Hockey d. Four
d. One who like Table Tennis e. None
e. Cannot be determined 34) What is the sum of ages of A, D, and F?
Direction: 31-35) Read the following questions a. 62
carefully and answer the questions that follow. b. 82
There are six persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, and F. They c. 74
all are sitting around a triangular table facing the centre. d. 86
They all have different ages. e. 92
Page 94 of 1079
35) Which pair of name – age is incorrect? c. One

a. A – 14 d. Four
b. B – 18 e. None
c. D – 28 38) Who is sitting opposite to the one who likes orange?
d. F – 40 a. C
e. C – 22 b. E
Direction: 36-40) Read the following information c. The one who likes mango
carefully and answer the questions that follow. d. The one who likes apple
There are 6 persons namely A, B, C, D, E and F. They all e. F
are sitting around a triangular table facing the centre. Each 39) Who is sitting second to the right of C?
one of them likes a fruit namely, Apple, Banana, Guava, a. D
Mango, Papaya and Orange but not necessarily in the b. A
same order. c. E
A likes apples and is sitting second to the left of B. The d. B
one who likes mango sits between the one who likes apple e. F
and B. C who likes papaya sits opposite to E. Two persons 40) Which pair of name – fruit is correct?
are sitting between B and F. The one who likes guava sits a. F – Apple
immediately to the left of the one who likes apples. D and b. D – Guava
B do not like mango. D sits second to the right of E and c. B – Mango
likes orange. d. A – Papaya
36) Which fruit does F like? e. B – Banana
a. Mango Direction: 41-45) Read the following information
b. Apple carefully and answer the questions that follow.
c. Guava Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U were sitting around a
d. Banana triangular table but not necessarily in the same order. All
e. Papaya of them were facing towards inside.
37) How many persons are sitting between A and E, 1. Two people were sitting between P and R.
when counted to the left of A? 2. S is neighbour of P.
a. Two 3. T is sitting second to the right of S.
b. Three 4. Q sits immediate right of R.
Page 95 of 1079
5. U is not the immediate neighbour of S. d. S

41) How many people were sitting between T and U e. None of these
when counted to the right of U? Direction: 46-50) Read the following information and
a. 1 answer the given questions
b. 3 Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U sits around a triangular
c. 4 table such that three of them sit at the corners and rest on
d. 2 the middle of the side. The one who sits at the corner face
e. Cannot be determined away from the center and the one who sit at the middle of
42) What is the position of R with respect to Q? the side face towards the center.
a. Second to the right P sits immediate right of R and immediate left of S. Q sits
b. Third to the right at one of the sides. S is third to the right of Q. T does not
c. Immediately right face the center.
d. Immediately left 46) Who sits immediate left of T?
e. Either 3 or 4 a. U
43) Who is sitting exactly between T and S? b. S
a. P c. P
b. Q d. Q
c. Both a and d e. R
d. R 47) Who among following sits between P and Q taking
e. Both b and d clockwise from Q?
44) Who sits third to the right of Q? a. T
a. P b. S
b. Q c. R
c. T d. U
d. U e. None
e. None of these 48) Which direction is S facing?
45) Who sits opposite to U? a. Away from center
a. P b. Towards center
b. Q c. Same as Q
c. T d. Same as U
Page 96 of 1079
e. Both 2 and 3 50) Four among the five are alike in certain way. Find
49) Who sits fourth to the right of R? the one that does not belong to that group.
a. s a. TQ
b. u b. SU
c. Q c. US
d. T d. TU
e. None of these e. RP
Triangle Seating Arrangement – Answers and Explanation

1. e
2. e
3. e
4. a
5. c
Solutions 1-5
1) Govind is sitting second to left of Amar who is not
sitting on the edges of table.
Final arrangement,
2) Raj is sitting third to the right of Surya who is sitting to

the immediate left of John.
3) Govind and Surya are facing in the same direction.
Answers
6. b
7. d
8. a
Page 97 of 1079
9. c Answers
10. d 11. e
Solutions 6-10 12. d
1) A sit at the corner of the table. 13. e
2) M is an immediate neighbour of A. 14. d
15. a
Solutions 11-15
1. O is sitting immediate right of Q.
3. One person is sitting between P and L, who likes Red.
4. Neither M nor N is sitting adjacent to O, who is facing
the opposite direction of M. Person, who likes Black is
3) Only 2 people sit between M and B. sitting opposite to the one, who likes Blue.
4) C sits to the immediate right of B. 5. M doesn’t sit immediately left of P. Person sitting
adjacent to P likes Yellow. Person, who likes Yellow, is
not facing away from the centre.
Case 1: When Q is facing the centre. Person, who likes
Yellow, is not facing away from the centre, so this case is
not possible.
5) Only 2 people sit between C and N.

Therefore, Case 2 eliminates.
6) O is an immediate neighbour of N.
Case 2: When Q is facing away from the centre.

The final arrangement is as follows:
Page 98 of 1079
4. Akshay is sitting second to the right of Abhi.

Answers
5. Raju is not sitting at the corner.
16. c
6. Rohit is not sitting on the edge.
17. b
7. Raju is not the immediate neighbor of Rohit.
18. d
So, Rohit is not sitting on the edge which invalids the case
19. b
I. Also, Abhi must be sitting immediate left of Rohit and
20. a
Raju must be sitting immediate right of kapil.
Solutions 16-20
1. Rohit sits at the corner or at the edge of the table.
2. Both the immediate neighbors of Rohit, who is sitting
second to the right of Leo, are sitting at the edge.
3. Kapil, who is sitting third to the left of Leo, is sitting
two places away from Samar.
So, there are 2 possibilities i.e. either Rohit sits at the
corner or one of the edges of the table.
Case I: When Rohit sits at one of the edges of the table: Answers
21. e
22. d
23. e
24. a
25. d
Solutions 21-25
1) F does not sit at the corner of the table and he is a
Case II: When Rohit sits at the corner: dancer.
Page 99 of 1079
2) D and F are immediate neighbors.

3) Clerk is immediate neighbor of D who is not a doctor.
4) Two people sit between singer and clerk.
5) E is not a singer.
6) Neither E nor G is a clerk.
Case 1:
Answers
26. a
27. a
28. d
29. b
Case 2: 30. d
Solutions 26-30
1) The one who likes cricket sits at the corner of the table.
2) The one who like football sits second to the right of
cricket.
7) C sits immediate left of E and immediate right of G.

8) C is neither a painter nor a doctor.
Here, case 2 gets eliminated.
The final arrangement is given below- 3) There are two people sit between the one who like
tennis and the one who like table tennis.
4) Only one person sits between the one who like tennis
and the one who like hockey.
5) The one who like cricket who is immediate neighbour
of hockey.
Page 100 of 1079

Answers
31. c
7) The age of F is twice the age of C.
32. e
(According to statement 2, the age of C is 20 years so the
33. d
age of F will be 20 × 2 = 40 years).
34. b
8) The sum of ages of A and B is 32.
35. e
(According to statement 6, the age of A is 14 years so the
Solutions 31-35
age of B will be 32 – 14 = 18 years).
1) B is second to the right of F.
Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:
2) C sits opposite to B and is of 20 years of age.
3) E is 56 years old and sits second to the left of C.
Answers
36. c
4) D does not sit near to E. 37. d
(Hence, D will sit between B and F). 38. d
5) The age of D is 28 years. 39. b
6) The age of A is half the age of D. 40. e
(Hence, the age of A will be 28 ÷ 2 = 14 years). Solutions 36-40

Page 101 of 1079
1) A likes apple and is sitting second to the left of B.

2) The one who likes mango sits between the one who
likes apple and B.
Answers
3) Two persons are sitting between B and F. 41. c
(B and F will be opposite to each other). 42. d
4) The one who likes guava sits immediate to the left of 43. c
the one who likes apple. 44. c

45. d
Solutions 41-45
1) Two people were sitting between P and R.
5) C who likes papaya sits opposite to E.

(There is only one position left for C to be opposite to E
and that is if E likes mango then C can be opposite to E). 2) S is neighbour of P.
6) D and B does not like mango.
7) D sits second to the right of E and like orange.
(The only fruit left is banana so B likes banana).
Hence, the final arrangement will be as follows:
Page 102 of 1079

46. a
47. c
48. a
49. d
50. d
Solutions 46-50
1) Q sits at one of the sides.
3) T is sitting second to the right of S.
2) S is third to the right of Q.
4. Q sits immediate right of R.

3) P sits immediate right of R and immediate left of S.
5. U is not the immediate neighbour of S.
4) T does not face the center.
Answers
Unknown Linear Seating Arrangement

Directions: 1-5) Answer the questions based on the between Nihaal and Rajan. Only three persons are sitting
information given below. between Vishal and Sophia. More than two persons are
Certain number of persons sits in a linear row and all are sitting between Rajan and Sophia. Tripti sits second to the
facing towards the south. Only three persons are sitting right of Rajan. More than three persons are sitting between
Page 103 of 1079
Tripti and Dhairya. Only three persons are sitting between d. Tripti sits second to the left of Nihaal
Mani and Kavya, who sits at the one end of the line. Only e. All are true
three persons are sitting between Mani and Nihaal and 5) If Yuvika sits exactly between Rajan and Vishal and
Mani is sitting to the right of Nihaal. Only two persons sit Hina sits exactly between Nihaal and Tripti then how
between Nihaal and Dhairya. Rajan is sitting second to the many persons sitting between Hina and Yuvika?
right of Vishal. a. Two
1) Who sits third to the left of Dhairya? b. Three
a. Rajan c. Four
b. Vishal d. Five
c. Kavya e. One
d. Nihaal Directions: 6-10) Answer the questions based on the
e. Sophia information given below.
2) If L sits second to the right of Sophia then who Certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north
among the following sits second to the right of L? direction. M is second to the left of U, who is three places
a) Vishal away from Q. S sits third to the left of N, who is immediate
b) Nihaal left of O. Two persons sit between Q and T, who sits
c) Kavya second from one of the ends. P is second to the left of R,
d) Tripti who is adjacent to Q. Four persons sit between M and O.
e) None of the above Number of persons to the right of T is one more than
3) If only one person sits to left of Sophia, then how number of persons to the left of S.
many persons are sitting in the row? 6) How many persons sit in the row?
a. 21 a. 21
b. 23 b. 19
c. 20 c. 20
d. 19 d. 22
e. 15 e. 29
4) Which of the following statement is true? 7) Who sits immediate right of Q?
a. Kavya sits second to the right of Mani a. P
b. Dhairya sits to the left of Tripti b. T
c. Sophia sits to the right of Vishal c. R
Page 104 of 1079

d. S persons sitting to the left of S8 is equal to the number of

e. N persons sitting between S2 and S3. S1 is sitting 2nd to the
8) How many persons sit to the left of O? left of S8. Three persons are sitting between S1 and S6.
a. Four Number of persons sitting between S11 and S4 is equal to
b. Three the number of persons sitting in the left of S6. S10 is
c. One sitting 2nd to the left of S4. Two persons are sitting
d. Five between S10 and S6, who is not sitting adjacent to S4. Not
e. Six less than 15 persons are sitting between S10 and S9. S4 is
9) Who sits second to the left of P? not adjacent to S5.
a. M 11) ___ is sitting 4th to the left of S6.
b. U a. S8
c. O b. S7
d. S c. S11
e. N d. S1
10) How many persons sit to the right of R? e. None of the above
a. Two 12) How many persons are sitting in the row?
b. Four a. 33
c. One b. 20
d. Three c. 31
e. Five d. 23
(Directions: 11-15) Answer the questions based on the e. None of the above
information given below: 13) How many persons are sitting in the right of S4?
A certain number of persons are sitting in a row. All of a. 13
them are facing the north. Information about only a few b. 21
persons is known. c. 19
S5 is sitting at the right end. One person is sitting between d. 20
S5 and S2. Two persons are sitting between S2 and S9. S3 e. None of the above
is sitting 2nd to the left of S9. Two persons are sitting 14) Who is sitting exactly in the middle of S4 and S3?
between S3 and S7. Three persons are sitting between S7 a. S7
and S11, who is not sitting adjacent to S9. Number of b. S11
Page 105 of 1079

c. S10 b. K
d. S3 c. A
e. None of the above d. Unknown person
15) ___ is sitting 2nd to the left of S6. e. None of the above
a. S8 18) How many persons sit to the right of C?
b. S7 a. Four
c. S11 b. Two
d. S1 c. One
e. None of the above. d. Three
Directions: 16-20) Answer the questions based on the e. None of the above
information given below: 19) How many persons sit between T and C?
Composite numbers of persons sit in a straight row facing a. 10
north direction. Perfect square number of persons less than b. 14
15, sit to the left of P. Four persons sit between P and T.A c. 12
sits exactly in the middle of T and the person, who sits at d. 13
the extreme left end. One person sits between A and K.B e. None of the above
sits 3rd to the right of K.R sits exactly in the middle of B 20) Number of persons to the right of U is three less
and T. Person, who sits 3rd to the right of R, sit exactly in than the number of persons to the left of __.
the middle of the row. Five persons sit between R and M. a. K
More than four persons sit between M and C, who doesn’t b. T
sit to the left of K.U sits immediate right of C. T sits to the c. A
right of P. d. R
16) How many persons sit in the row? e. None of the above
1. 21 Directions: 21-25) Answer the questions based on the
2. 25 information given below.
3. 15 A certain number of persons are sitting in row facing south
4. 27 direction. Not more than 18 persons are sitting in the row.
5. None of the above Only one person sits between P and Q. R sits fourth to the
17) Who sits immediate left of T? left of P. Five persons sit between R and S. Four persons
a. R sit between S and T. Not more than six persons sit to the
Page 106 of 1079

right of S. Number of persons sit between P and T is same 25) Who among the following sits at the extreme ends
as the number of persons sit between Q and U. Q sits to of the row?
the right of U. Three persons sit between U and V. V sits a. P
to the immediate left of R. T and U are not sitting 2nd from b. Q
the extreme ends of the row. c. T
21) If A sits exactly between S and P, then what is d. Can’t be determined
position of R with respect to A? e. V
a. 4th to the left Directions: 26-30) Answer the questions based on the
b. 3rdto the right information given below.
c. immediate right A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing
d. 5th to the left towards the north. Q sits 4th from one of the extreme ends
e None of the above of the row. There is one person sitting between T and Q.
22) Who sits 3rd to the right of V? There are four persons sitting between T and U. S sits third
a. R to the right of U. Number of persons sitting to the left of
b. T U is same as the persons sitting to the right of Q. At least
c. Q three persons sit between Q and U. L sits exactly between
d. U T and S but L is not an immediate neighbor of T and S.
e. None of the above 26) How many persons are sitting in the row?
23) How many persons are sitting in a row? a. 12
a. 17 b. 20
b. 18 c. 14
c. 15 d. 18
d. 16 e. None of the above
e. None of the above 27) How many persons are sitting to the right of U?
24) Who sits at left end of the row? a. 2
a. R b. 3
b. U c. 4
c. P d. 1
d. V e. None of the above
e. S
Page 107 of 1079

28) Who among the following person is sitting at the At least two persons sit between Jagriti and Jolie. Jolie is
extreme end of the row? not sitting immediate right of Jaanvi.
a. S 31) How many persons sit in the row?
b. Both S and T a. 11
c. T b. 9
d. U c. 12
e. None of the above d. 10
29) If X sits immediate left of Q and Y sits 5th to the e. None of the above
left of S then what is the position of Y with respect to 32) If P sits adjacent to Jane, who sits 4th the left of P?
X? a. Jolie
a. 9th to the right b. Jagriti
b. 8th to the right c. Joey
c. 7th to the right d. Can’t be determined
d. 6th to the right e. None of the above
e. None of the above 33) How many persons sit between Janis and Jagriti?
30) Who sits fourth to the right of L? a. Four
a. Q b Six
b. S c. Three
c. T d. Five
d. U e. None of the above
e. None of the above 34) If four persons sit between Jolie and K, who sits
Directions: 31-35) Answer the questions based on the 2nd to the left of K?
information given below. a. Joey
Certain number of persons sits in a row facing north. Not b. Jane
more than 12 persons are sitting in a row. c. Can’t be determined
Three persons sit between Janis and Jane. Jane doesn’t sit d. Jagriti
adjacent to Jolie. Joey sits 2nd to the right of Jagriti and e. None of the above
adjacent to Jane. Jolie sits adjacent to Jaanvi. Janis sits 3rd 35) If R sits immediate left of Jagriti, how many
to the left of Jolie. Joey doesn’t sit 3rd to the left of Janis. persons sit between Janis and R?
a. Six
Page 108 of 1079

b. Nine 38) If J sits 2nd to the right of B then how many

c. Eight persons sit between J and D?
d. Seven a. Eight
e. None of the above b. Ten
Directions: 36-40) Answer the questions based on the c. Three
information given below. d. Nine
Certain numbers of persons are seated in a row facing e. None of the above
towards the north. The information about only few 39) What is the position of V with respect to C?
persons is known. No seat is vacant. Less than 15 persons a. 4th to the left
are sitting in the row. b. 2nd to the right
Two persons sit between D and C. Only one person sits c. 3rd to the left
between C and A, who sits immediate right of E. Number d. immediate right
of persons sitting between F and B is same as the number e. 4th to the right
of persons sitting between F and A. B sits to the left of F. 40) Four of the following five are related to each other
V sits seventh to the right of E. V sits at one of the extreme in some way and thus formed a group. Choose the one
ends. More than three persons sit between C and F. C does which does not belong to that group.
not sit at the 10th position from the left end. a. F
36) Who sits at the extreme left end of the row? b. E
a. F c. V
b. B d. D
c. V e. A
d. D Directions: 41-45) Answer the questions based on the
e. None of the above information given below.
37) How many persons sit in the row? A certain number of persons sit in a straight row facing
a. 14 north direction.
b. 12 Person, who sits immediate left of Dan, sits in the middle
c. 10 of the row. Dinu sits 3rd from the right end. Diya sits 2nd
d. 13 to the left of Dinu. Derek sits immediate left of the person,
e. 11 who sits in the middle of Dan and Diya. Deep sits 4th from
Page 109 of 1079

the left end. One person sits between Deep and Diva. Four c. Immediate left
persons sit between Diva and Dan. d. 3rd to the left
41) How many persons sit in the row? e. None of the above
a. 18 Directions: 46-50) Answer the questions based on the
b. 20 information given below.
c. 21 A certain number of persons sit in a row and all of them
d. 19 facing North. There are two perons sitting between P and
e. None of these Q. T sits third to the left of V. Three persons sit between
42) What is the position of Diva with respect Derek? V and R. W sits one of the extreme ends of the row.
a. 5th to the left Number of persons sitting between P and U is same as the
b. Immediate left number of persons sitting between S and T. S sits the left
c. 6th to the left of T and right of P and P sits to the right of U. Not more
d. 7th to the left than four persons sits between X and Q. V sits sixth from
e. None of the above right end. Q sits third to the left of T. Nineteen persons sits
43) How many persons sit between Diva and Dinu? between W and R. X sits second to the right of U and not
a. 6 more than five persons sit between W and X.
b. 11 46) How many persons sitting between X and T?
c. 8 a. Eight
d. 7 b. Seven
e. None of the above c. Three
44) If Joey sits adjacent to Dan, then ___ persons sit d. Two
between Joey and Diya. e. None of the above
a. Five 47) Who sits 4th to the right of U?
b. Four a. T
c. Can’t be determined b. R
d. Three c. V
e. None of the above d. W
45) What is the position of Dan with respect to Derek? e. P
a. Immediate right 48) How many persons sitting in the row?
b. 2nd to the left a. 22
Page 110 of 1079

b. 21 e. W
c. 20 50) Number of persons sitting between P and W are
d. 24 equal to the number of persons sitting between __ and
e. 23 __.
49) Who sits to the immediate left of R? a. S and U
a. T b. S and V
b. P c. V and R
c. Unknown person d. W and X
d. U e. None of the above
Unknown Linear – Answer and Explanation

1. d
2. a
3. c 5. Only three persons sitting between Vishal and Sophia.
4. d 6. More than two persons sitting between Rajan and
5. b Sophia.
Solution 1-5 7. Tripti sits second to the right of Rajan.
1. Mani is sitting to the right of Nihaal. 8. Only three persons sitting between Mani and Kavya,
2. Only two persons sit between Nihaal and Dhairya. who sits second from one end of the line.
So, Dhairya is either left or right of Nihaal. So, case II is invalid, because only one person sits between
3. Rajan is sitting second to the right of Vishal. Rajan and Sophia. There can be persons to the left of
4. Only three persons sitting Nihaal and Rajan. Sophia.
So, Either 8 or 2 persons are sitting between Dhairya and The final arrangement is as follows:
Vishal.
Case I: When Dhairya is sitting on the right of Nihaal.
Answers
6. b
Case II: When Dhairya is sitting on the left of Nihaal.
7. c
When Sophia is sitting in the left of Vishal, then Tripti
8. a
cannot be placed in the arrangement, so this case is not
9. b
possible.
Page 111 of 1079
10. d 1. S5 is sitting 2nd from the right end. One person is sitting
Solution 6-10 between S5 and S2.
1. M is second to the left of U, who is three places away 2. Two persons are sitting between S2 and S9. S3 is sitting
from Q. 2nd to the left of S9.
2. Two persons sit between Q and T, who sits second from 3. Number of persons sitting in the left of S8 is equal to
one of the ends. the number of persons sitting between S2 and S3.
So, we have two cases as show below, 4. S4 is not adjacent to S5.
Case 1: So, S9 is sitting in the left or right of S2.
Case 1: When S9 is sitting 3rd to the right of S2. S1 is
sitting 2nd to the left of S8, so this case is not possible.
Case 2:
5. Two persons are sitting between S3 and S7. Three

3. Four persons sit between M and O. persons are sitting between S7 and S11, who is not sitting
4. Number of persons to the right of T is one more than adjacent to S9.
number of persons to the left of S. 6. Three persons are sitting between S1 and S6.
5. P is second to the left of R, who is adjacent to Q. 7. Number of persons sitting between S11 and S4 is equal
So, case 2 won’t be possible as statements of S and T to the number of persons sitting in the left of S6. S10 is
contradicts each other sitting 2nd to the left of S4.
6. P sits immediate left of Q. 8. Two persons are sitting between S10 and S6, who is not
sitting adjacent to S4.
So, S9 is sitting in the left of S2. S7 is sitting in the left or
Answers
right of S3.
11. d
Case 2: When S7 is sitting in the left of S3. Not more than
12. a
15 persons are sitting between S10 and S9, so this case is
13. b
not possible.
14. b
15. a
Solution 11-15 Case 3: When S7 is sitting in the right of S3.
Page 112 of 1079

Note: There is no vacant seat unknown persons are sitting

in the following arrangement, where no name is
mentioned.
The final arrangement is as follows 4. One person sits between A and K.
5. B sits 3rd to the right of K.
6. R sits exactly in the middle of B and T.
Answers
So, A sits 2nd to the left of K or 2nd to the right of K and R
16.a
sits immediate left of B or 3rd to the right of B.
17.b
Case I: One person sits to the left of P:
18.c
19.c
20.c
Solution 16-20
1. Perfect square numbers of persons less than 15 sit to the Case II: Nine persons sit to the left of P:
left of P.
2. Four persons sit between P and T. T sits to the right of
P.
3. A sits exactly in the middle of T and the person, who 7. Person, who sits 3rd to the right of R, sit exactly in the
sits at the extreme left end, so four persons can’t sit to the middle of the row.
left of P. 8. Five persons sit between R and M.
Hence, Either 21 or 29 persons sit in the row, but as
Hence, Either one or nine persons sit to the left of P and composite number of persons sit in the row, so 21 persons
A sits 2nd to the right of P or 2nd to the left of P. sit in the row.
Case I: One person sits to the left of P:
9. More than four persons sit between M and C, who

doesn’t sit to the left of K.
Case II: Nine persons sit to the left of P: 10. U sits immediate right of C.
Page 113 of 1079

Hence, C must sit to the right of M and U sits at the 5. Number of persons sit between P and T is same as the
extreme right end of the row. number of persons sit between Q and U.
The final seating arrangement is given below: 6. Q sits to the right of U.
7. Three persons sit between U and V. V sits immediate
left of R.
Answers Inference: So, in case I, U must be sitting adjacent to R
21. d but then V can’t sit immediate left of R so, case I is
22. c invalid.
23. a The final arrangement is as follows:
24. b
25. c
Solution 21-25 Answers
1. Only one person sits between P and Q but either Q sits 26. c
to the left or right of P. 27. b
th
2. R sits 4 to the left of P. 28. a
3. Five persons sit between R and S. 29. d
4. Four persons sit between S and T. Not more than six 30. b
persons sit to the right of S. Solution 26-30
So, not more than six persons sit to the right of S which 1. Q sits 4th from the one of the extreme ends.
means Q cannot sit to the right of P. Also, S must be sitting 2. There is one person sitting between T and Q.
to the right of R and T either sits to the left or right of S. 3. There are four persons sitting between T and U. S sits
Case I: When T sits to the left of S: third to the right of U.
4. Number of persons sitting to the left of U is same as the
persons sitting to the right of Q.
5. At least three persons sit between Q and U.
Case II: When T sits to the right of S: So, when Q sits 4th from the left end then T and U must be
sitting to the right of Q as there are at least 3 persons
between Q and U. Similarly, when Q sits 4th from the right
end then both T and U must be sitting to the left of Q.
Case I: When Q sits 4th from the left end:
Page 114 of 1079
6. Joey sits 2nd to the right of Jagriti and adjacent to Jane.

7. Joey doesn’t sit 3rd to the left of Janis.
So, Joey is sitting immediately left of Jane.
Case II: When Q sits 4th from the right end:
8. At least two persons sit between Jagriti and Jolie. Not

more than 12 persons sit in the row.
6. L sits exactly between T and S but L is not an
So, 12 persons sit in the row.
immediate neighbor of T and S.
The final seating arrangement is as follows:
So, case II is invalid as L is not an immediate neighbor of
S and T.
Answers
36. b
37. d
Answers 38. a
31. c 39. e
32. b 40. c
33. b Solution 36-40
34. b 1. C sit either to the left or right of D.
35. d 2. Only one person sits between C and A, who sits
Solution 31-35 immediate right of E.
rd
1. Janis sits 3 to the left of Jolie. 2. V sits seventh to the right of E.
2. Three persons sit between Janis and Jane. 3. V sits at one of the extreme ends.
3. Jane doesn’t sit adjacent to Jolie. As, only one person sits between C and A who sits
4. Jolie is not sitting immediate right of Jaanvi. immediate right of E so, we have three cases.
S, Jolie sits immediate left of Jaanvi: Case I: When C sits to the right of D:
Page 115 of 1079

Case II(a): When C sits to the left of D and E sits 44. b

immediate right of C: 45. c
Solution 41-45
1. Deep sits 4th from the left end. One person sits between
Deep and Diva.
Case II(b): When C sits to the left of D and E sits 3rd to 2. Four persons sit between Diva and Dan.
the left of C: 3. Person, who sits immediate left of Dan, sits in the
middle of the row.
So, Diva is sitting either in the left or right of Deep.
Case I:
4. Number of persons sitting between F and B is same as
the number of persons sitting between F and A. B sits left
of F.
Case II:
5. More than three persons sit between C and F. C does
not sit at the 10th position from the left end.
So, more than 3 persons sit between C and F and B sits to
4. Dinu sits 3rd from the right end. Diya sits 2nd to the left
the left of F which means F must be sitting to the left of
of Dinu.
C.
5. Derek sits immediate left of the person, who sits in the
Now, not more than 15 persons sitting in the row which is
middle of Dan and Diya.
not possible in case I and II(a) as number of persons sitting
So, Diya sits 2nd to the left of Dinu, this is not possible in
F and B is same as persons sitting between F and A.
case I, so case I is rejected. So, Derek sits immediate right
Now, there must be 4 persons sitting between C and F as
of Dan.
C does not sit 10th from the left end.
The final arrangement is given below:
Answers
Answers 46. b
41. d 47. e
42. c 48. a
43. b 49. c
Page 116 of 1079
50. b 7. There are two perons sitting P and Q.

Solution 46-50 So, in case II if we fix X at the gap of maximum five
1. V sits sixth from right end so, we will start solving from persons between X and W then there would be more than
fixing the position of V. four persons between X and Q so, case II is invalid. But in
2. T sits third to the left of V. Three persons sit between V case I either there are four persons between W and X or
and R. five persons between them.
3. Nineteen persons sits between W and R. Case I(a): When there are four persons between W and X:
4. W sits on of the extreme ends of the row. Q sits left to
the right of T.
So, three persons sit between V and R which means R sits Case I(b): When there are five persons between W and X:
either to the rigth or left of V.

Case I: When R sits to the right of V:
8. Number of persons sits between P and U is same as the
number of persons sits between S and T.
Case II: When R sits to the left of V: 9. S sits the left of T and right of P and P sits to the right
U who sits 2nd to the left of X.
So, this is not possible in case I(b).
5. X sits second to the right of U and not more than five The final arrangement is as follows:
persons sit between W and X.
6. Not more than four persons sits between X and Q.
Unknown Circular Seating Arrangement

Direction (1 – 5): Study the following information neither B nor C. F is not the neighbor of D. F is
carefully and answer the questions given below: neighbor of neither A nor G. Four persons sits between
Some people were sited around circular table facing F and E.
center. Six persons sit between J and G. H and B are 1) Total how many persons sit around the table?
immediate neighbors of J. B sit to the left of H. Only a. 13
one person sit between H and D. Six persons sit b. 14
between G and B. Two persons sit between G and C c. 15
who sit immediate right of I. Six person sit between B d. 16
and A. A is not the neighbor of D. F is neighbor of e. 12
Page 117 of 1079

2) How many person sit between A and J when counted and W. W sit second to the left of Q. Five person sit
from J in clockwise direction? between Q and S when counted from the left of S. V is
a. 6 immediate neighbor of S. R sit second to the left of W.
b. 8 P and T are adjacent to each other. No person sit
c. 5 between R and T. Not more than one person sit
d. 4 between P and S.
e. None of these 6) What is the position of U with respect to T?
3) Who sits third to the left of C? a. Fourth right
a. B b. Immediate neighbor
b. A c. Second right
c. J d. Fourth left
d. G e. None of these
e. None of these 7) Total how many persons sit around the table?
4) Which of the following statement is true? a. 13
a. G and I are immediate neighbors b. 14
b. D sits to the left of E c. 15
c. No person sit between H and D d. 16
d. Two people sit between G and I e. 12
e. None of these 8) Who among the following person sit fifth to the left
5) Who among the following person fifth to the left of of U?
A? a. P
a. H b. Q
b. J c. W
c. E d. T
d. B e. None of these
e. None of these 9) How many persons are siting between Q and P when
Direction (6 – 10): Study the following information counter from the right of P?
carefully and answer the questions given below: a. Four
An uncertain number of person sitting around a b. Six
circular table facing Centre. Six person sit between U c. Five
Page 118 of 1079

d. Three c. Five
e. None of these d. Three
10) Which of the following statement is true? e. None of these
a. U and V are adjacent to each other 13) Which of the following sit at second to the left of
b. T sits to the left of P R?
c. No person sit between Q and W a. B
d. Five Person sit between Q and U b. D
e. None of these c. P
Direction (11 – 15): Study the following information d. Q
carefully and answer the questions given below: e. None of these
Some persons are siting around a circular table facing 14) What is the position of C with respect to A?
towards the center. Eight person sit between P and Q. a. 6th left
B sits third to the left of Q. Number of person between b. 6th right
P and C when counted from the right of P is equal to c. 7th left
the numbet of person between C and B when counted d. 7th right
from the left of B. R is immediate left of C. Only one e. None of these
person sit between P and R. D sits fifth to the left of R. 15) Which of the following statement is true?
No person sit between A and D. Q does not sit adjacent a. A and Q are adjacent to each other
to D. Not more than three person sit between A and B. b. R sits to the left of P
11) Total how many persons are siting around the c. No person sit between Q and D
table? d. Total 16 persons are siting around the table.
a. 13 e. None of these
b. 14 Direction (16 – 20): Study the following information
c. 15 carefully and answer the questions given below:
d. 16 Certain number of people is siting around the circular
e. 12 table. All of them are facing towards the center. Three
12) How many persons are siting between D and B person set between P and Q. L sit third to the left of P.
when counter from the right of B? Only two person sit between L and U. D is an
a. Four immediate left of Q. B sit second to the left of U. Two
b. Six person sit between B and O but O is not neighbor of U.
Page 119 of 1079

The number of person sit between Q and M is equal to e. None of these

the number person sit between M and U. The number 20) Who among the following person fifth to the left of
of person sit between U and K is equal to the number M
of person sit between K and Q. K does not sit a. U
immediate left of P. b. Q
16) What is the position of P with respect to M? c. B
a. Immediate left d. K
b. 3th right e. None of these
c. Immediate right Direction (21 – 25): Study the following information
d. 5th right carefully and answer the questions given below:
e. None of these Some persons are siting around a circular table. All of
17) How many persons is siting between U and L when them are facing towards the center. Six persons are
counter from the right of U? there between P ad H. O sits fifth to the left of H. Only
a. Four one person sit between P and M. The number of person
b. Six sit between H and O is equal to the number of person
c. Five sit between O and K. Total number of person setting
d. Two around the circle is less than sixteen. Three person sit
e. None of these between K and S. S does not sit adjacent to P. Four
18) Total how many persons are siting around the persons sit between S and N which is adjacent to D.
table? One person sit between E and K but E is not adjacent
a. 13 to P.
b. 14 21) Total how many persons are siting around the
c. 15 table?
d. 16 a. 13
e. 12 b. 14
19) Which of the following statement is true? c. 15
a. O and P are adjacent to each other d. 16
b. B sits to the left of K e. 12
c. No person sit between U and D 22) What is the position of H with respect to O?
d. Total 15 persons are siting around the table. a. Immediate left
Page 120 of 1079

b. 3th right between R and D when counted from left of R is equal

c. Immediate right to the number of person sit between R and F when
d. 5th right counted from left of F. only five person sit between S
e. None of these and F. T and S are immediate neighbors. More than
23) How many persons is siting between P and D when two persons sit between T and P. At least two persons
counted from the right of P? sit between Q and T.
a. Four 26) Total how many persons are siting around the
b. Three table?
c. Five a. 18
d. Two b. 19
e. None of these c. 16
24) Which of the following sit at second to the left of d. 17
K? e. 21
a. E 27) Who sits 4th to the right of D?
b. P a. F
c. S b. P
d. D c. S
e. None of these d. Q
25) Who sits 5th to the right of E? e. None of these
a. D 28) How many persons is siting between P and S when
b. P counted from the left of P?
c. S a. Four
d. N b. Seven
e. None of these c. Five
Direction (26 – 30): Study the following information d. Six
carefully and answer the questions given below: e. None of these
A certain number of persons is sitting in a circle facing 29) Who sits between D and R?
outside the center. Four person sit between P and Q. D a. Q
sits fourth to the right of Q. D sits second to the left of b. P
R. S sit third to the left of Q. Number of persons sit c. S
Page 121 of 1079

d. F c. Five
e. None of these d. Six
30) If K sits between F and R, then what is the position e. None of these
of T with respect of K? 33) If C sits adjacent to F, then who sits 5th to the right
a. 6th left of C?
b. 9th right a. N
c. 6th right b. E
d. 5th right c. G
e. None of these d. U
carefully and answer the questions given below: 34) How many persons is siting between E and D when
A certain number of persons is sitting around a circle counted from the left of E?
table facing inside the center. D is Ninth to the left of a. Four
E. B is an immediate neighbor of D and M. N is third b. Seven
to the left of D. Only Five people sit between E and F c. Eight
when counted from left of E. Not more than thirteen d. Six
people sit around the circle. G is immediate right of F. e. None of these
The number of person sit between M and U is equal to 35) What is the position of D with respect to G?
the number of person sit between U and F. a. Immediate left
31) Total how many persons are siting around the b. 3th right
table? c. 4th left
a. 15 d. 5th right
b. 13 e. None of these
c. 16 Direction (36-40): Study the following information
d. 12 carefully and answer the questions given below:
e. 19 A certain number of persons is sitting around a circle
32) How many persons is siting between D and U when table facing away from the center. Three person sit
counted from the left of U? between W and D. T sits fifth to the left of D. T and V
a. Four are immediate neighbors. Q sits fifth to the left of V. P
b. Seven is immediate neighbor of V and S. Not more than three
Page 122 of 1079

person sit between sit between W and S. Number of e. None of these

person sit between V and B when counted from right 40) How many persons is siting between D and Q when
of V is equal to the number of person sit between B and counted from the left of Q?
W when counted from left of W. a. Four
36) How many persons is siting between S and B when b. Seven
counted from the left of B? c. Five
a. Four d. Six
b. Seven e. None of these
c. Eight Direction (41 – 45): Study the following information
d. Six carefully and answer the questions given below:
e. None of these A certain number of persons is sitting around a circle
37) Total how many persons are siting around the table facing inside the center. Three person sit between
table? M and W. K sits fourth to the left of M. Two person sit
a. 15 between K and H. Only three person sit between H and
b. 13 W. Total person setting around the table is more than
c. 16 fourteen people. Two person sit between P and W. P
d. 12 does not sit immediate neighbor to M. The number of
e. 19 person siting between K and E is equal to the number
38) What is the position of W with respect to S? of person between E and M.
a. Immediate left 41) Total how many persons are siting around the
b. 4th right table?
c. 4th left a. 15
d. 5th right b. 13
e. None of these c. 16
39) If C sits adjacent to D, then who sits 7th to the right d. 12
of C? e. 19
a. S 42) If C sits adjacent to H, then who sits 6th to the right
b. P of C?
c. Q a. W
d. T b. P
Page 123 of 1079

c. K person sit between Q and M. Q is exactly between P

d. M and D.
e. None of these 46) How many persons is siting between D and N when
43) How many persons is siting between K and P when counted from the left of N?
counted from the left of K? a. Four
a. Four b. Three
b. Three c. Five
c. Five d. Six
d. Six e. None of these
e. None of these 47) Which of the following is true?
44) What is the position of H with respect to w? a. D and Q are Neighbors
a. Immediate left b. Three people sit between M and N
b. 4th right c. Q sits to the left of D
c. 4th left d. No person sit between H and N
d. 5th right e. None of these
e. None of these 48) Total how many persons are siting around the
45) Which of the following is true? table?
a. K and E are Neighbors a. 15
b. Three people sit between E and W b. 13
c. H sits to the left of P c. 16
d. No person sit between M and W d. 12
e. None of these e. 19
Direction (46 – 50): Study the following information 49) What is the position of H with respect to P?
carefully and answer the questions given below: a. 3rd left
A certain number of persons is sitting around a circle b. 4th right
table facing inside the center. Two person sit between c. 5th left
M and N. P sit fifth to the left of N. N is second left of d. 5th right
H. Z is fourth left of P and immediate neighbor of H. e. None of these
Z is not immediate neighbor of N. The number of 50) If C sits adjacent to Z, then who sits 5th to the right
person sit between Z and Q is equal to the number of of C?
Page 124 of 1079

a. P d. D
b. M e. None of these
c. H
Unknown Circular – Answer and Explanation

Solution (1-5)
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. A
i. Six persons sit between J and G.
ii. H and B are immediate neighbors of J. Solution (6-10)
iii. B sit to the left of H. 6. D
iv. Only one person sit between H and D. 7. B
v. Six person sit between G and B. 8. B
vi. Two person sit between G and C who sit 9. C
immediate right of I. 10. E
vii. Six person sit between B and A. i. Six person sit between U and W.
viii. A is not the neighbor of D. ii. W sit second to the left of Q.
ix. F is neighbor of neither B nor C. iii. Five person sit between Q and S when counted
x. F is not the neighbor of D. from the left of S.
xi. F is neighbor of neither A nor G. Thus iv. V is immediate neighbor of S.
Case-II is not possible. v. R sit second to the left of W.
xii. Four person sits between F and E. vi. P and T are adjacent to each other.
vii. No person sit between R and T.
viii. Not more than one person sit between P and S.
Thus Case-II and Case-II is not possible.
Page 125 of 1079

Solution (11-15)
11. B
Solution (16-20)
12. A
16. C
13. C
17. D
14. D
18. D
15. A
19. E
i. Eight person sit between P and Q.
20. A
ii. B sits third to the left of Q.
i. Three person set between P and Q.
iii. Number of person between P and C when
ii. L sit third to the left of P.
counted from the right of P is equal to the
iii. Only two person sit between L and U.
number of person between C and B when
iv. D is an immediate left of Q.
counted from the left of B.
v. B sit second to the left of U.
iv. R is immediate left of C.
vi. Two person sit between B and O but O is
v. Only one person sit between P and R.
not neighbor of U.
vi. D sits fifth to the left of R.
vii. The number of person sit between Q and M
vii. No person sit between A and D.
is equal to the number person sit between
viii. Q does not sit adjacent to D.
M and U.
ix. Not more than three person sit between A
viii. The number of person sit between U and K
and B. Thus Case-II is not possible.
is equal to the number of person sit
between K and Q. Thus Case-II is not
possible.
ix. K does not sit immediate left of P.
Page 126 of 1079

Solution (26-30)
26. D
Solution (21-25) 27. A
21. C 28. B
22. D 29. B
23. B 30. C
24. A i. Four person sit between P and Q.
25. B ii. D sits fourth to the right of Q.
i. Six persons are there between P ad H. iii. D sits second to the left of R.
ii. O sits fifth to the left of H. iv. S sit third to the left of Q.
iii. Only one person sit between P and M. v. Number of persons sit between R and D
iv. The number of person sit between H and O when counted from left of R is equal to the
is equal to the number of person sit number of person sit between R and F
between O and K. when counted from left of F.
v. Total number of person setting around the vi. Only five person sit between S and F.
circle is less than sixteen. Thus Case-II and vii. T and S are immediate neighbors.
Case-III is not possible. viii. More than two person sit between T and P.
vi. Three person sit between K and S. ix. At least two persons sit between Q and T.
vii. S does not sit adjacent to P. Thus Case-II is not possible.
viii. Four person sit between S and N which is
adjacent to D.
ix. One person sit between E and K but E is
not adjacent to P.
Page 127 of 1079

Solution (31-35) 40. A

31. B i. Three person sit between W and D.
32. D ii. T sits fifth to the left of D.
33. D iii. T and V are immediate neighbors.
34. C iv. Q sits fifth to the left of V.
35. C v. P is immediate neighbor of V and S.
i. D is Ninth to the left of E. vi. Not more than three person sit between sit
ii. B is an immediate neighbor of D and M. between W and S. Thus Case-II is not
iii. N is third to the left of D. possible.
iv. Only Five people sit between E and F when vii. Number of person sit between V and B
counted from left of E. when counted from right of V is equal to
v. Not more than thirteen people sit around the number of person sit between B and W
the circle. when counted from left of W.
vi. G is immediate right of F.
vii. The number of person sit between M and
U is equal to the number of person sit
between U and F. Thus Case- II is not
possible
Solution (41-45)
41. A
42. D
43. B
44. B
45. E
i. Three person sit between M and W.
Solution (36-40) ii. K sits fourth to the left of M.
36. D iii. Two person sit between K and H.
37. C iv. Only three person sit between H and W.
38. C
39. A
Page 128 of 1079

v. Total person setting around the table is 49. C

more than fourteen people. Thus Case-II is 50. B
not possible. i. Two person sit between M and N.
vi. Two person sit between P and W. ii. P sit fifth to the left of N.
vii. P does not sit immediate neighbor to M. iii. N is second left of H.
viii. The number of person siting between K iv. Z is fourth left of P and immediate neighbor of
and E is equal to the number of person H.
between E and M. v. Z is not immediate neighbor of N. Thus Case-
II is not possible.
vi. The number of person sit between Z and Q is
equal to the number of person sit between Q
and M.
vii. Q is exactly between P and D.
Solution (46-50)
46. D
47. A
48. D
Day Puzzle
Direction (1-5): Study the following information Sunday. U was born on any day before V but not born on
carefully and answer the below questions. Tuesday.
Seven persons namely – P, Q, R, S, T, U and 1) On which of the following day U was born?
V were born on different days from Monday to Sunday. A. Wednesday
All the persons were born in the same week. B. Saturday
One person was born between S and P. Two persons were C. Sunday
born between S and T, who was born on Saturday. R was D. Friday
born on any day after P but not born on Tuesday. Two E. None of these
persons were born between R and V, who was not born on 2) How many people were born after R?
A. Three
Page 129 of 1079
B. One A attends a class on Thursday. More than two persons

C. More than three attend classes between G and E. The number of persons
D. None attends classes between D and B is the same as the number
E. Two of persons attends classes between F and E. Only one
3) Who among the following person was born just person attends a class between A and B. E attends class
before S? neither on Sunday nor on Monday. D attends a class
A.Q before F. C attends a class immediately after E.
B.V 6) In which of the following combinations the first
C.R person attends a class two days before the second
D.P person?
E. None of these A.DB
4) Which of the following statement is/are true? B.GF
A.U was born just after Q C.AC
B. One person was born between R and P D. Both A and C
C.T was born three days after Q E. All of these
D.S was born just after V 7) Who among the following person attends the class
E. More than one statement is true on Wednesday?
5) Who among the following person was born on A. The one who attends immediately before A
Friday? B.D
A.P C.B
B.V D. The one who attends immediately after G
C.R E. None of those given as an option
D.U 8) How many persons attend the class before B?
E. None of these A.3
Direction (6-10): Study the information given below B.4
and answer the following questions. C.2
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are attending a class D.1
on different days of the week starting from Sunday to E. None of those given as an option
Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. 9) On which of the following day does E attend the
class?
Page 130 of 1079

A. Four days before A. D.P attends a class immediately before N

B. Thursday E. None is true
C. Two days after F. 12)How many persons attend a class between Q and
D. Saturday M?
E. None of these A.As many as between O and N.
10) Four among the following five are similar in such B. Three
a way to form a group, which one of the following C.As many as between R and the person attending class
doesn’t belong to a group? just after Q.
A.DG D. One
B.BF E. None of these
C.AE 13) Who attends a class immediately after S?
D.CD A.M
E.GB B. The one who attends a class on Friday
Direction (11-15): Answer the questions based on the C.O
information given below. D. Both A and B
Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S attend the E. Both B and C
swimming classes on different days from Sunday to 14) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
Saturday in a week but not necessarily in the same order. and hence form a group which among the following
One person attends a class between Q and the one who combinations does not belong to that group?
attends class on Thursday. P doesn’t attend class on A.Q- Monday
Tuesday. Three persons attend class between R and S, B.P- Friday
none of them attends class immediately before or after Q. C.S- Wednesday
The one who attends class immediately after R attends D.N- Tuesday
class two days before N. M attends class immediately E.R- Sunday
before P. 15) On which day does O attend a class?
11) Which of the following statements is true with A. Friday
respect to P? B. Tuesday
A.P attends a class on Tuesday C. Monday
B. Only one person attends a class between P and R D. Wednesday
C.P attends a class two days after S E. None of these
Page 131 of 1079

Direction (16-20): Answer the questions based on the D. Park

information given below. E. None of these
A person visits a different place viz. Beach, Hills, Mall, 19) Which of the following combination is correct from
Park, Temple, and Zoo on different days of a week starting the final arrangement?
from Monday to Sunday, but not necessarily in the same A. Tuesday – Mall
order. He doesn’t visit more than one place in a day and B. Sunday – Hills
one of the days is rest for him. C. Thursday – Park
Only three days are there between the visit to Mall and D. Friday – Zoo
Hills. He visits Temple three days before his rest day but E. None of these
neither adjacent to Mall nor Hills. He visits Park three 20) Which of the following place does he visit on
days after the visit to Beach. He doesn’t visit Zoo on Friday?
Tuesday. He visits Mall one of the days before the visit to A. Park
Park, which is not visited on Sunday. B. Mall
16) On which of the following day does he visit the C. Temple
Zoo? D. Zoo
A. Monday E. None of these
B. Wednesday Direction (21-25): Study the following information
C. Thursday carefully and answer the questions given below it.
D. Saturday Seven lectures are to be held in a week. There is only one
E. Friday lecture on each day of the week starting from Monday and
17) Which of the following day was the rest day? ending on Sunday.
A. Tuesday Chemistry is taught either on Wednesday or Saturday.
B. Wednesday Three lectures to be held between Chemistry and English.
C. Friday Two lectures are scheduled between English and
D. Sunday computer. The lecture on Physics is scheduled
E. Thursday immediately the next day of the lecture on Biology.
18) To which place does he visit on Monday? Psychology is scheduled to be held after Mathematics but
A. Beach not immediately after. The lecture on Psychology is not
B. Mall scheduled for Saturday.
C. Temple
Page 132 of 1079

21) Which of the following lecture is taught on C. Chemistry

Monday? D. Either A or B
A. Mathematics E. Either A or C
B. English Direction (26-30): Study the following information
C. Biology carefully to answer the given questions:
D. Computer A person watches seven different movies viz. Ram Leela,
E. None of these RAW, Kesari, Bharat, Golmaal Returns, Total Dhamaal
22) How many lectures are taught before English? and Mulk on seven different days from Monday to
A. One Sunday.
B. Two Total Dhamaal is watched on one of the days after Friday.
C. Three Only three movies are watched in between Total Dhamaal
D. Four and Kesari. RAW is watched immediately before Mulk.
E. None Only one movie is watched in between RAW and Ram
23) Biology was taught on which day? Leela. More than three movies are watched in between
A. Monday Golmaal Returns and Kesari. Bharat movie is not watched
B. Tuesday on Monday.
C. Wednesday 26) Which of the following movie is watched on
D. Friday Sunday?
E. None of these A. Golmaal Returns
24) How many lectures are there between Computer B. Bharat
and Physics? C.RAW
A. One D. Ram Leela
B. Two E. Mulk
C. Three 27) On which day Bharat movie is watched?
D. Four A. Thursday
E. None B. Saturday
25) Which of the following subject is taught C. Friday
immediately after Physics? D. Monday
A. Computer E. Tuesday
B. Biology
Page 133 of 1079

28) How many movies watched between Mulk and Bangalore. There is one day gap between Kanpur and
Ram Leela? Patna.
A.1 31) Which of the following place did Atul visit on
B.4 Monday?
C.3 A. Kanpur
D.2 B. Mumbai
E.5 C. Bangalore
29) On which day Kesari movie is watched? D. Kolkata
A. Monday E. Patna
B. Wednesday 32) How many places visited by Atul between Kanpur
C. Friday and Mumbai?
D. Sunday A.1
E. Tuesday B.2
30) Which of the combination is correct? C.3
A. Kesari-Sunday D.4
B. Mulk-Thursday E.5
C. Ram Leela-Tuesday 33) Four of the following are alike in a certain way.
D. Total Dhamaal-Wednesday Which of the following does not belong to the group?
E. Golmaal Returns-Monday A. Monday-Kanpur
Direction (31-35): Study the following information B. Wednesday- Kolkata
carefully and answer the below questions. C. Saturday-Chennai
Atul joins classes from Monday to Sunday of the same D. Thursday-Patna
week for different places viz. Delhi, Kanpur, Chennai, E. Sunday-Delhi
Kolkata, Bangalore, Mumbai and Patna. 34) Which of the following days did Atul visit
Atul visits Kolkata on Wednesday. There is one day gap Mumbai?
between the place Kolkata and Bangalore. And there is a A. Monday
three-day gap between the place Bangalore and Mumbai. B. Friday
Mumbai was visited immediately before Chennai but not C. Wednesday
on Monday. Kanpur was visited immediately after D. Saturday
E. Thursday
Page 134 of 1079

35) Which of the following is correct? A. One

A. Atul visited Bangalore on Wednesday B. Three
B. Atul visited Kolkata on Tuesday C. Four
C. Atul visited Patna on Sunday D. Two
D. Atul visited Kanpur on Monday E. None
E. Atul visited Chennai on Saturday 38) Saturday is related to computer science, Thursday
Direction (36-40): Study the following information is related to maths and Tuesday is related to social
carefully and answer the below questions. studies, in the same way, Friday is related to?
Jerry has six examinations namely Tamil, English, maths, A. Social Studies
science, social studies and computer science on Monday, B. English
Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday, but C. Science
not necessarily in the same order. There are only two D. None of these
language exams i.e. Tamil and English. E. Maths
Social studies exam was conducted immediately before a 39) How many examinations are conducted between
language exam. English exam was conducted before the maths and social studies exams?
Maths exam. Jerry has a Computer science exam A. Two
immediately after the Science exam. The number of days B. Three
before the Science exam and the number of days after the C. One
Maths exam were equal, but neither of the exams was on D. Four
Friday. Either the Tamil exam or English exam was E. None
conducted on Saturday. 40) when did the Tamil exam was conducted?
36) Which among the following examination is A. Friday
conducted on Wednesday? B. Monday
A. Science C. Thursday
B. Maths D. Saturday
C. English E. Tuesday
D. Social Direction (41-45): Study the following information
E. None of these carefully and answer the questions given below.
37) How many exams were conducted after Tamil
exam?
Page 135 of 1079

Six seminars-A, B, C, D, E and F are organized in the A. Only one seminar organized between E and B
week from Monday to Saturday but not necessarily in the B. Seminar A was organized on Friday
same order. C. Seminar C was organized on Thursday
Seminar D was organized before Thursday but after D. Seminar D was organized on one of the days before
Monday. Seminar E was organized on Saturday. Seminar seminar A
C was not organized on Monday. Seminar B was E. None of these
organized on the next day on seminar C. Seminar A was 45) Seminar F is related to Wednesday in a certain way
not organized Wednesday. Seminar A organized on one of based on the given arrangement. In the same way
the days before B and C but after F. seminar, C is related to Saturday. Which of the
41) How many seminars are organized between A and following days is D related to following the same
B? pattern?
A. One A. Tuesday
B. Two B. Monday
C. Four C. Friday
D. No one D. Thursday
E. None of these E. None of these
42) Which of the following seminar was organized on Direction (46-50): Study the following information
Wednesday? carefully and answer the questions given below.
A.C Seven persons K, L, M, N, O, P and Q attend the seminar
B.B on seven different days of the same week starts from
C.D Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in the same order.
D.A More than two persons are attending the seminar between
E. None of these L and M. Three persons are attending the seminar between
43) Which of the following combinations is correct? K and N, who attends the seminar one of the days after
A.A-Tuesday Thursday. Only one person attends the seminar between P
B.B-Thursday and O, who does not attend the seminar on the last day of
C.C-Wednesday the week. M attends the seminar one of the days after P.
D.F-Tuesday Q attends the seminar immediately before K.
E. None of these 46) Who among the following attends the seminar on
44) Which of the following statements is correct? Monday?
Page 136 of 1079

A.Q 49) If all the persons are made to attend the seminar in
B.P alphabetical order starts from Monday to Sunday.
C.O Then, how many of them are unchanged their original
D.L days?
E.K A. One
47) How many persons are attending the seminar B. Two
between O and Q? C. Three
A. None D. More than three
B. Two E. No one
C. Three 50) Who among the following attends the seminar
D. One immediately after the one who attends the seminar on
E. Four Friday?
48) If M is related to K and P is related to Q in a certain A.M
way. Then N is related to which of the following? B.O
A.M C.N
B.O D.K
C.L E.P
D.P
E. None of these
Day Puzzle – Answers and Explanation

Direction (1-5):
1. Answer: E
2. Answer: D
3. Answer: A
4. Answer: B
5. Answer: A
Explanation
Page 137 of 1079

We have:
1. Two persons were born between S and T, who was
born on Saturday.
2. One person was born between S and P.
3. That means, in case (1) P was born on Friday, in
case (2) P was born on Monday.
4. R was born on any day after P but not born on
Tuesday. Case (2a) & case (2b) are not valid as U was born on
5. Two persons were born between R and V, who any day before V but not born on Tuesday.
was not born on Sunday. Direction (6-10):
6. That means, in case (1) & case (2a) R was born on 6. Answer: E
Sunday, in case (2b) R was born on Friday. 7. Answer: A
7. Based on the above given information we have: 8. Answer: C
9. Answer: C
10. Answer: D
Explanation
8. Again, we have:
9. U was born on any day before V but not born on
Tuesday.
10. That means, in case (1) U was born on Monday,
case (2a) & case (2b) are not valid.
11. Based on the above given information we have 1. A attends class on Thursday.
thefinal arrangement as follows: 2. Only one person attends the class between A and
B.
Page 138 of 1079

3. From the above condition, there are two

possibilities.
8. D attends a class before F.

9. The number of persons attends classes between D
and B is same as the number of persons attends
classes between F and E.
4. C attends a class immediately after E.
10. From the above condition, case1a was dropped.
5. E attends a class neither on Sunday nor on Monday
Case1 shows the final arrangement.
6. More than two persons attend classes between G

Direction (11-15):
and E.
11. Answer : C
7. From the above condition, case2 was dropped and
12. Answer : C
case1 has one more possibility.
13. Answer : D
14. Answer : E
15. Answer : C
Explanation
Page 139 of 1079
1. Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S attend the

swimming classes on different days from Sunday
to Saturday in a week.
2. One person attends a class between Q and the one
who attends class on Thursday.
3. Three persons attend class between R and S, none
of them attends class immediately before or after
Q.
4. The one who attends a class immediately after R
attends class two days before N.
Direction (16-20):
16. Answer: D
17. Answer: E
18. Answer: C
19. Answer: B
20. Answer: A
Explanation
1. Only three days are there between the visit to Mall

5. M attends class immediately before P. and Hills.
6. P doesn’t attend a class on Tuesday. 2. He visits Temple three days before his rest day, but
7. So, the final arrangement becomes: neither adjacent to Mall nor Hills.
3. He visits Mall one of the days before the visit to
Park, which is not visited on Sunday.
4. He visits Park three days after the visit to Beach.
Page 140 of 1079

5. He doesn’t visit Zoo on Tuesday. Hence, cases 1 and 2

get eliminated.
Direction (21-25):
21. Answer: A
22. Answer: A
23. Answer: C
2. Two lectures are scheduled between English and
24. Answer: E
computer. The lecture on Physics is scheduled
25. Answer: A
immediately the next day of the lecture on
Explanation
Biology.
3. The lecture on Physics is scheduled immediately

1. Chemistry is taught either on Wednesday or the next day of the lecture on Biology.
Saturday. Three lectures to be held between
Chemistry and English.
4. Psychology is scheduled to be held after

Mathematics but not immediately after.
Page 141 of 1079
5. The lecture on Psychology is not scheduled for

Saturday.
Total Dhamaal is watched on one of the days after

6. So the final arrangement is, Friday.
Only three movies are watched in between Total
Dhamaal and Kesari. More than three movies are
watched in between Golmaal Returns and Kesari.
So that case 2 gets eliminated-
Direction (26-30): RAW is watched immediately before Mulk.

26.Answer: a Only one movie is watched in between RAW and Ram
27.Answer: c Leela.
28.Answer: d Bharat Movie is not watched on Monday.
29.Answer: e
30.Answer: b
Explanation
Page 142 of 1079

Mumbai was visited not on Monday.

Due to this case, 2 dropped.
Kanpur was visited immediately after Bangalore.
Direction (31-35):
There is one day gap between Kanpur and Patna.
31.Answer: C
32.Answer: B
33.Answer: A
34.Answer: B
35.Answer: E
Explanation
Direction (36-40):
36.Answer: B
37.Answer: E
38.Answer: C
39.Answer: C
40.Answer: D
Atul visits Kolkata on Wednesday. Explanation
There is one day gap between the place Kolkata and
Bangalore.
And there is a three-day gap between the place Bangalore
and Mumbai. Mumbai was visited immediately before
Chennai.
Page 143 of 1079

The number of days before the science exam and the

number of days after the maths exam were equal, but
neither of the exams was on Friday.
Social studies exam was conducted immediately before a
English exam was conducted before the Maths exam. language exam.
(case 1 is cancelled , no exam can be conducted before

Monday )
Jerry has Computer science exam immediately after
Science exam.(case 2 is cancelled , since maths exam is
conducted immediately after science exam)
Direction (41-45):
41.Answer: B
42.Answer: C
Either Tamil exam or English exam was conducted on 43.Answer: A
Saturday. 44.Answer: C
English exam was conducted before the maths exam. 45.Answer: C
Explanation
Page 144 of 1079

Seminar A was not organized Wednesday.

Seminar A organized on one of the day before B and C but
after F.
From the above condition Case 2(a) and Case 2(b) was
dropped.
So the final arrangement is
Seminar D was organized before Thursday but after

Monday.
Seminar E was organized on Saturday.
Now we have 2 Cases.
Direction (46-50):
46.Answer: D
47.Answer: C
48.Answer: A
49.Answer: E
50.Answer: B
Seminar C was not organized on Monday.
Explanation
Seminar B was organized on the next day on seminar C.
Now case 2 was derived from 2 Cases.
Page 145 of 1079

Three persons are attending the seminar between K

and N, who attends the seminar one of the days after
Thursday.
Q attends the seminar immediately before K.
More than two persons are attending the seminar between

L and M.
So, Case-1 will be dropped.
Only one person attends the seminar between P and O,

who does not attend the seminar on the last day of the
week.
M attends the seminar one of the days after P.
Month and Day Puzzle

Direction (1-5): Study the following information same order. Not more than one person visits the park on
carefully and answer the questions given below. the same day of the same month.
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are visiting H visits the park, five persons before D. G visits between
the park on 5th and 12th of May, June, August and H and D but neither on an odd date nor in the month
September of the same year, but not necessarily in the having 30 days. A visits two persons before G and three
persons after F. E visits the park before B and both visit
Page 146 of 1079

on the same date. C doesn’t visit the park in the month 5) Who among the following person visit the park two
having 30 days. persons after C?
1) Who among the following person visits the park A.H
on12th May? B.E
A.H C.F
B. The one who visits three persons after G. D.G
C.A E.A
D.The one who visits two persons before A. Direction (6-10): Study the following information
E.E carefully and answer the below questions.
2) How many persons visit the park between E and F? Nine persons- G, I, J, L, M, N, X, Y, and Z are receiving
A. As many persons visit between B and E. their PF money on different months- February, March,
B. Two and April on different dates 02, 17, and 25 in the year
C.As many persons visit between D and A. 2019. No two persons are receiving on the same date of
D. More than three the same month.
E. None M is receiving the PF amount on the odd-numbered date
3) Who among the following person visit the park of the month having an odd number of days. Only three
immediately before D? persons are receiving between M and G. L received two
A.The one who visits on September 5 persons before X who received on April 25th. The number
B.G of persons received PF before N is the same as after L.
C.E The one who received two persons before I, is receiving
D.The one who visits on August 5 immediately after N. X received adjacent to either J or Z.
E.C Z neither received on the same date as Y nor received on
4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way the same date as J.
and hence form a group. Find the one who doesn’t 6) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and
belong to that group? hence form a group. Who among the following does
A.C not belong to the group?
B.D A.Y
C.G B.N
D.F C. The one who received on the same date as N
E.E D.Z
Page 147 of 1079

E. The one who received on the same date as J E. No one

7) Which of the following statements is/are true? Direction (11-15): Study the following information
I). Y received on February 17th carefully and answer the questions given below.
II). Two persons received between G and J Eight persons B to I appear for a bank exam on four
III). L received immediately before X different dates viz. 9th, 13th, 22nd and 30th of two different
A. Both I and III months- May and June of the same year but not
B. Only III necessarily in the same order. No two persons appear in
C. All I, II and III the exam on the same date of the same month.
D. Only I G appears in the exam on a date which is the sum of H and
E. None of these B appears date but no two of them appear in the exam
8) Who among the following persons received an consecutively. E appears in the exam before I who does
amount on April 25th? not appear in the exam consecutively with H. C appears in
A. The one who received immediately after J the exam after D but not immediately after. F appears in
B. The one who received immediately before X the exam immediately before the one who appears four
C.G days before D.
D.Y 11) On which of the following days does E appear for
E.N the exam?
9) In which among the following Months and Dates A.22nd May
does L received the PF amount? B.30th June
A. March 25th C.9th June
B. February 17th D.22nd June
C. April 17th E.9th May
D. April 2nd 12) Which of the following combination is true?
E. None of the above A.I – 30th May
10) How many persons received the PF amount B.C – 30th May
between Z and I? C.H – 30th May
A. Two D.E – 9th June
B. Three E.B –13th June
C. One 13) Who among the following person appears in the
D. Four exam on 13th June?
Page 148 of 1079

A.H 16) Who among the following person was born on

B.B 16th October?
C.C A.J
D.I B.K
E.D C.N
14) How many days before I, F appears in the exam? D.I
A.2 E.O
B.3 17) On which of the following date does P was born?
C.1 A.16th September
D.4 B.13th October
E. None of these C.16th October
15) Who among the following person appears in the D.13th September
exam just after E? E.8th September
A.H 18) Which of the following number shows the sum of
B.I birth dates of I and K?
C.B A.38
D.C B.41
E.G C.36
Direction (16-20): Study the following information D.37
carefully and answer the questions given below. E. None of these
Eight persons viz. I, J, K, L, M, N, O, and P were born on 19) Which of the following pair were the eldest and the
four different dates viz. 8th, 13th, 16th, and 21st of two youngest among all?
different months viz. September and October of the same A.P, K
year, but not necessarily in the same order. No two B.M, K
persons were born on the same date of the same month. C.P, L
Both M and N were born on different even dates of the D.M, O
different months. P was born immediately before I. L was E. None of these
born in a month having less than 31 days but not before I. 20) How many persons were born after O?
K was born after O in the same month. J was born on a A. Four
prime numbered date but before N. B. Three more than the number of persons born after L.
Page 149 of 1079

C. One E.None of these

D. No one 23) On 20th February who attends the seminar?
E. Two less than the number of persons born before J. A.G
Direction (21-25): Study the following information B.C
carefully to answer the given question: C.A
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are attending D.B
the seminar on 6th, 11th and 20th of three months January, E.E
February and March but not necessarily in the same order. 24) Who attends the seminar in between A and C?
F attends the seminar on 11th February. Three persons A.H
attend the seminar in between F and C. One person attends B.D
the seminar in between C and A. D having a seminar on C.E
an odd numbered date after A. No seminar is conducted D.G
after C. As many persons attending a seminar in between E.None of these
F and D is the same as the persons attending a seminar in 25) Which pair is correct?
between F and B. Three persons having a seminar in A.6th January – B
between B and E. H does not have a seminar on 6th or B.20th March - E
20th of January. I does not have a seminar on 20th January. C.11th February – E
21) On which date and month does A attend the D.20th January – G
seminar? E.6th March – D
A.6th January Direction (26-30): Study the following information
B.6th February carefully and answer the questions given below.
C.6th March A competition for eight games viz. Halo, Minecraft,
D.11th March Pacman, Pokemon, PUBG, Skyrim, Supermario and
E.None of these Tetris were held on the 9th and 24th of April, May, June
22) How many persons attending the seminar in and July of the same year, but not necessarily in the same
between B and D? order. Not more than one game was held on the same date
A.Five of the same month.
B.Four Minecraft was held on an even date of the month having
C.Three 30 days and is immediately after Supermario. Only three
D.Two games were held between Supermario and Halo. Pokemon
Page 150 of 1079

was held three games after PUBG. Skyrim was held after D.PUBG
Pacman but before Tetris. Pacman was not held in the E.Halo
month having 31 days. 30) Which of the following game competition was held
26) In which of the following date does Skyrim was the last?
held? A.Pokemon
A.9th June B.Tetris
B.24th June C.Minecraft
C.9th May D.PUGB
D.9th July E.None of these
E. Cannot be determined Direction (31-35): Study the following information
27) Which of the following game was held on carefully and answer the following questions.
24th April? Ten persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y were born
A.Halo either on 8th or 27th in different months i.e. January,
B.Minecraft February, March, April and May of the same year but not
C.PUBG necessarily in the same order. No two persons were born
D.Pacman on the same date of the same month.
E.None of these P was born in the month having even days but not the least
28) How many games competition was held between number of days. Four people were born between P and W.
Halo and Minecraft? Three people were born between W and S. T was born in
A.As same as between Pacman and Minecraft the month having the least number of days. Two persons
B.As same as between Skyrim and Tetris were born in between T and Q. U and V were born in the
C. Five same month but not in March, U was older than V. Three
D. As same as between PUBG and Pokemon persons were born between U and R. X was not born in
E. None of these the month having the least or odd number of days.
29) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way 31) R was born in which of the following month?
and hence form a group. Find the one that doesn’t A. The month having an even number of days
belong to that group. B. January
A.Skyrim C. The month having the least number of days
B.Pokemon D. March
C.Tetris E. None of these
Page 151 of 1079

32) Who among the following pairs was born in April? Seven persons attend the seminar in three different months
A.RS March, May and September on three different dates 3,9
B.SP and 23 of the same year. Only one person attends the
C.PX seminar between G and M. As many persons attend the
D.TR seminar before G attends the seminar after M. Two
E.None of these persons attend the seminar between R and S. As many
33) How many persons were born in between Y and U? persons attend the seminar before R attends the seminar
A.4 after P. T attends the seminar immediately before P. No
B.6 person will attend the seminar immediately after M. K
C.3 does not attend the seminar on the 23rd of any month.
D.2 36) How many persons attend the seminar between K
E.5 and T?
34) Who among the following is the youngest among A.Two
all? B.Five
A.U C.Three
B.V D.Four
C.P E.None of these
D.Q 37) If R is related to 9, S is related to 23, T is related to
E.None of these which of the following?
35) Four of the following form a group following a A.3
certain pattern. Which among the following B.23
statements doesn’t belong to the group? C.9
A.UV D.Cannot be determined
B.YT E.None of these
C.RS 38) How many persons attend the seminar before K?
D.XU A.Two
E.QW B.More than four
Direction (36-40): Study the following information C.One
carefully and answer the questions given below: D.Three
E.Four
Page 152 of 1079

39) Who attends the seminar on September 9? B.Deepan

A.P C.Deepak
B.R D.Dhivya
C.S E.Dhana
D.T 42) Which of the following combination is true?
E.None of these A.Deva-April-27
40) Which of the following combination is true? B.Dhivya-May-27
A.M-May 3 C.Dora-june-10
B.G-May 23 D.Dhivya-May-10
C.R-September 9 E.Deepan-April-27
D.T-March 3 43) Four of the five are alike in a certain way thus form
E.K-March 9 a group. Find the one which does not belong to the
Direction (41-45): Study the following information group?
carefully and answer the questions below: A. Deva
Eight persons – Devi, Deva, Dhana, Dora, Dinesh, B. Deepak
Dhivya, Deepan and Deepak have their birthdays on C. Dinesh
10th and 27th of four different months March, April, May D. Dora
and June. All the above information is not necessarily in E. Deepan
the same order. 44) Which of the following statement is/are definitely
Devi has a birthday on 10th of a month which is true?
having 31days. Only one person has a birthday before A. Deva was born in April month
Deva. The number of persons between Devi and Deva is B. Deepak’s date of birth is 27-may
one less than the number of persons between Deva and C. Dora was born on 27-March
Deepak. Dhana and Dora have birthdays in the same D. Dinesh was born on may month
month having 30days. Dhivya has a birthday after E. None of these
Deepan. Only three persons have a birthday between Deva 45) If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical
and Dinesh. Dora's birthday is at the end of the month. order from March 10, then which of the following
41) Who among the following person has a birthday on person’s date of birth is May-27?
April 27? A. Dhivya
A.Devi B.Dhana
Page 153 of 1079

C.Dinesh 48) Who among the following attends the seminar

D.Devi immediately before R?
E.None of these A.K
Direction (46-50): Study the following information and B.M
answer the given questions: C.H
Eight persons namely, H, K, R, L, G, M, V and T attend D.T
the seminar in different months - January, March, April E.None of these
and June on two different dates 3rd and 8th of the same 49) How many persons attend the seminar before K?
year. All the information is not necessarily the same. A.None
L attends the seminar in a month which has 30 days but B.1
not on even number dates. M attends the seminar C.2
immediately after K. As many persons attend the seminar D.3
before H attend the seminar after V. Only one person E.None of these
attends the seminar between M and G. Three persons 50) Who among the following attends the seminar
attend the seminar between L and H. R attends the seminar exactly between M and V?
before T. R does not attend the seminar in April. A.L
46) How many persons attend the seminar between K B.T
and T? C.K
A.1 D.G
B.2 E. None of these
C.3 Answers
D.4 Direction (1-5):
E.None of these 1.Answer: D
47) If H is related to K, G is related to V, then in the 2.Answer: C
same way L is related to which of the following? 3.Answer: A
A.G 4.Answer: B
B.T 5.Answer: E
C.R Explanation
D.M
E.None of these
Page 154 of 1079

3. C doesn’t visit the park in the month having 30 days.

Hence case 2 gets eliminated.
1. H visits the park five persons before D.

2. G visits between H and D but neither on an odd
date nor in the month having 30 days.
Direction (6-10):
6.Answer: D
7.Answer: D
8.Answer: A
9.Answer: D
10.Answer: C
Explanation
3. A visits two persons before G and three persons
after F.
4. E visits the park before B and both visit on the
same date.
5. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
M is receiving the PF amount on the odd-numbered date

of the month having an odd number of days.
Only three persons are receiving between M and G.
L received two persons before X who received on April
25th.
From the above conditions, there are two possibilities.
Page 155 of 1079

13.Answer: E
14.Answer: B
15.Answer: B
Explanation
The number of persons received PF before N is the same

as after L.
The one who received two persons before I, is receiving
immediately after N.
From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated. G appears in the exam on a date which is the sum of H
date and B appears date but no two of them appear in the
exam consecutively.
Here we get four possibilities.
Z neither received on the same date as Y nor received on

the same date as J.
X received adjacent to either J or Z.
From the above conditions, case1 shows the final
arrangement.
F appears in the exam immediately before the one who

appears four days before D.
C appears in the exam after D but not immediately after.
Direction (11-15):
11.Answer: A
12.Answer: A
Page 156 of 1079

1. Both M and N were born on different even dates of the

different months.
Case (1) and case (2) get eliminated because C appears

in the exam after D but not immediately after.
E appears in the exam before I who does not appear in the
exam consecutively with H.
2. P was born immediately before I. L was born in a month

having less than 31 days but not before I.
We cannot fix the position of I in case (4). So this case

is eliminated.
Direction (16-20):
16.Answer: C
17.Answer: D
18.Answer: D 3. K was born after O in the same month. J was born on a
19.Answer: B prime numbered date but before N. Hence, case 2 gets
20.Answer: E eliminated.
Explanation
Page 157 of 1079

H does not have a seminar on 6th or 20th of January.

I does not have a seminar on 20th January.
Direction (26-30):
Direction (21-25):
26.Answer: C
21.Answer: C
27.Answer: D
22.Answer: A
28.Answer: B
23.Answer: E
29.Answer: E
24.Answer: B
30.Answer: B
2.Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation
F attends the seminar on 11th February. 1. Minecraft was held on an even numbered date of
Three persons attend the seminar in between F and C. the month having 30 days and is immediately after
One person attends the seminar in between C and A. Supermario. Only three games were held between
D having a seminar on an odd numbered date after A. Supermario and Halo.
No seminar is conducted after C.

So, that case 2 is eliminated-
As many persons attending a seminar in between F and D

is same as the number of persons attending a seminar in
between F and B.
Three persons having a seminar in between B and E.
Page 158 of 1079
2. Pokemon was held three games after PUBG. Skyrim

was held after Pacman but before Tetris. Pacman was not
held in the month having 31 days. Hence, case 1 and 1a
gets eliminated.
Direction (31-35):
31.Answer: D
32.Answer: C
33.Answer: E
34.Answer: B
From the given statements, P was born in the month
35.Answer: D
having even days but not the least number of days.
Explanation
Four people were born between P and W.
Three people were born between W and S.
T was born in the month having the least number of days.
Two persons were born in between T and Q.
U and V were born in the same month but not in March,
U was older than V.
Three persons were born between U and R.
Page 159 of 1079

X was not born in the month having the least or odd

number of days.
Case 2 will be eliminated as X cannot be placed.
Two persons attend the seminar between R and S.

As many persons attend the seminar before R attends the
seminar after P.
T attends the seminar immediately before P.
No person will attend the seminar immediately after M.
K does not attend the seminar on the 23rd of any month.
Direction (36-40):
36.Answer: C
37.Answer: B
38.Answer: C
39.Answer: D
40.Answer: E
Explanation
Case 1 will be dropped because One person attends the
Only one person attends the seminar between G and M.
seminar between M and G but No person will attend the
As many persons attend the seminar before G attends the
seminar immediately after M.
seminar after M.
Direction (41-45):
41.Answer: C
42.Answer: D
43.Answer: E
44.Answer: D
45.Answer: A
Explanation
Page 160 of 1079
Devi has a birthday on 10th of the month which is having

31days.
Only one person has birthday before Deva.
The number of persons between Devi and Deva is one less
than the number of persons between Deva and Deepak.
Direction (46-50):
46.Answer: (c)
47.Answer: (b)
48.Answer: (c)
49.Answer: (c)
50.Answer: (d)
Explanation
Only three persons have a birthday between Deva and

Dinesh.
Dora's birthday is at the end of the month.
So, case 2 gets cancelled here.
Dhana and Dora have birthdays in the same month having
30days. Dhivya has a birthday after Deepan.
L attends the seminar in a month which has 30 days but

not on even number dates. Three persons attend the
seminar between L and H.
Page 161 of 1079
As many persons attend the seminar before H attend the R does not attend the seminar in April.
seminar after V.
M attends the seminar immediately after K.

Case 1 will be dropped because R does not attend the
Only one person attends the seminar between M and G.
seminar in April.
R attends the seminar before T.
Box/Stack Puzzle
Directions (1-5): Study the following information box D. Box W is kept to the south-west of box D. Box Z
carefully and answer the below questions. is not kept to the south of box D.
Eight boxes i.e. B, D, G, L, N, T, W, and Z are kept in two 1)Which among the following boxes is kept at stack 1
stacks i.e. stack 1 and stack 2 from west to east but not of shelf 4?
necessarily in the same order. Each stack has equal a) W
number of boxes. Each stack has four shelves in such a b) B
way that the lowermost shelf is numbered as 1, the shelf c) G
immediately above the lowermost shelf is numbered as 2 d) L
and so on…till the topmost shelf is numbered as 4. e) None of these
Box B is kept two shelves below box T, both are not kept 2) Four of the following five are related to each other
in the same stack. The box which is placed just below box in a certain way and thus form a group, which among
B is kept west to box N. Two shelves are there between the following doesn’t belong to the group?
box W and box L. Box G is not kept in the same stack with a) B
Page 162 of 1079

b) G d) Both I and II
c) Z e) None of these
d) W Directions (6-10): Study the following information
e) N carefully and answer the below questions.
3) What among the following statements is true Ten boxes namely – A, B, C, D, E, P, Q, R, S, and T are
regarding box Z? kept in two stacks i.e. stack I and stack II from west to
a) Box Z is kept in shelf 2 each. but not necessarily in the same order. Each stack
b) Two shelves are there between box Z and box T has equal number of boxes. Each stack has five shelves in
c) Box Z is kept to the northeast of box B such a way that the lowermost shelf is numbered as 1, the
d) Box Z is kept in stack 1 shelf immediately above lowermost shelf is numbered as
e) All are true 2 and so on…till the topmost shelf is numbered as 5.
4) Which of the following combination of boxes are There is a gap of two shelves between Q and P, which is
kept in the same stack? kept on an even number shelf. T is kept immediate above
I. WZ P in the same stack. Both T and Q are not kept in the same
II. ND stack. T is kept to the west of D. E is kept two shelves
III. GW below R, which is kept immediat below to the stack of C.
a) Only I Both S and C are not kept in the same stack. Both B and S
b) Both I and III are kept at the same shelf . A and P are not kept in the
c) Only III same stack.
d) Only II 6) The number of boxes kept above P in the same stack
e) Both II and III is same as ____?
5) Which of the following statement is/are not true? I. The number of boxes kept below D in the same stack.
I. The number of boxes kept above box G in the same II. The number of shelves between R and E.
stack is same as the number of boxes kept below box Z III. The number of boxes below R in the same stack.
in the same stack. a) Only III
II. Box G is kept to the west of box Z. b) Both II and III
III. Two shelves are there between box L and box B. c) Only I
a) Both I and III d) Both I and II
b) Only III e) None of these
c) Only I
Page 163 of 1079

7) Four of the following five are related to each other a) Both I and III
in a certain way and thus form a group, which among b) Only I
the following doesn’t belong to group? c) Only III
a) AC d) Both I and II
b) TS e) None is true
c) ET Directions (11-15): Study the following information
d) DR carefully and answer the below questions.
e) SP Ten boxes namely – B, C, D, G, H, K, L, R, S, and T are
8) What is the position of box Q with respect to box D? kept in two different stacks i.e. stack I and stack II but not
a) Two shelves below necessary in the same order. Stack I is west of stack II.
b) Three shelves above Each stack has equal number of boxes. Each stack has five
c) Immediate south-west shelves in such a way that the lowermost shelf is
d) Two shelves above numbered as 1, the shelf immediately above lowermost
e) None of these shelf is numbered as 2 and so on…till the topmost shelf is
9) Which of the following combination of boxes are numbered as 5.
kept at the same shelf? Box B is kept three stacks above T, both are not kept in
I. PA the same stack. H is kept immediately above the stack of
II. CQ B. Box R is kept to the west of a box which is kept
III. TD immediate above the stack of C. Box C is not kept at the
a) Only I shelf 1. K is kept two shelves below S, both are not kept
b) Both I and III in the same stack. Neither box S nor box K is kept at the
c) Only III same shelf along with R. Box L is kept two shelves above
d) Only II the box G in the same stack.
e) Both II and III 11) Which of the following box is kept immediate
10) Which of the following statement is/are not true? below the stack of S?
I. Box P is kept north-east of S. I. The box kept to the east of K.
II. The number of boxes kept above R in the same II. The box kept to the north-west of D.
stack is same as the number of boxes kept below E in III. The box kept immediate above the stack of C.
the same stack. a) Only I
III. One shelf is there between D and C. b) Both II and III
Page 164 of 1079

c) Only II I. Two shelves are there between C and H.

d) Only III II. The number of shelves above R is same as the
e) None of these number of shelves below S.
12) The number of shelves above B is same as ____? III. One shelf is there between L and R.
I. The number of shelves below C. a) Both I and III
II. The number of shelves between D and G. b) Only I
III. The number of shelves between H and T. c) Only III
a) Both I and II d) Both I and II
b) Only III e) None of these
c) Both II and III Directions (16-20): Study the following information
d) Only I carefully and answer the below questions.
e) None Nine boxes namely –B, C, D, G, K, L, M, T, and U are
13) What is the position of box R with respect to box kept in three different stacks i.e. stack I, stack II and stack
K? III from west to east but not necessarily in the same order.
a) Two shelves below Each stack has equal number of boxes. Each stack has
b) Three shelves above three shelves in such a way that the lowermost shelf is
c) Immediate south-west numbered as 1, the shelf immediately above lowermost
d) Two shelves above shelf is numbered as 2 and the topmost shelf is numbered
e) None of these as 3.
14) Which of the following combination of boxes are Box B is kept in stack II at the shelf 1. Box T is kept two
kept at the same shelf? shelves above M, both are not kept in the same stack. A
I. RG box immediately above M’s stack is kept second to the
II. CD west of D. G is kept immediate west of box L, which is
III. SH kept immediately below the stack of U. Box K and box U
a) Both I and II are not kept at the same shelf.
b) Both I and III 16) Which of the following box is kept to the south-east
c) Only III of box U?
d) Only II I. The box kept to the north of B.
e) None of these II. The box kept second to the east of G.
15) Which of the following statement is/are true? III. The box kept immediate east of M.
Page 165 of 1079

a) Both II and III I. Box T is kept to the north-west of L.

b) Only II II. Box K is kept to the west of M.
c) Only I III. Box C is kept to the north of G.
d) Both I and III a) Only III
e)Only III b) Only I
17) Which of the following box is kept to the west of c) Both II and III
box D? d) Both I and II
a) B e) None of these
b) U Directions (21-25): Study the following information
c) M carefully and answer the below questions.
d) L Eight boxes namely – B, D, G, K, M, P, T, and Z are
e) C staked in two stacks based locker. Shelves of the locker
18) What is the position of box C with respect to box are marked 1 to 4 from bottom to top. There are two stacks
L? in locker i.e. stack 1 and stack 2 from west to east. Each
a) Two shelves below box has a different number of pens viz.- 9, 13, 12, 16, 18,
b) Three shelves above 21, 24, and 27 but not necessarily in the same order. Each
c) Immediate south-west stack has equal number of boxes.
d) Two shelves above Box D, which has 13 pens, is kept in the stack II of an even
e) None of these number shelf. The number of shelves below box D is same
19) Which of the following combination of boxes are as the number of shelves above box B, both are kept in a
kept at the same shelf? different stack. A box kept immediately above B’s stack
I. BM has 12 pens and is kept along with M at the same shelf.
II. CT Two shelves are there between box M and box P, which
III. UK has 27 pens. Both box M and box P are in different stacks.
a) Both II and III A box kept immediately above K’s stack is kept to the east
b) Only III of box Z. Two shelves are kept between box Z and box
c) Both I and II box T, which has 16 pens. Box G has twice the number
d) Only II of pens than box Z. Box G and the box which contains 18
e) None of these pens are kept in the same stack. The box which contains
20) Which of the following statement is/are true?
Page 166 of 1079

twice the number of pens than box M is kept to the west a) P – 24

of the box contains 21 pens. b) G – 21
21) Which of the following box is kept two shelves c) Z – 12
below the box which has 9 pens? d) B – 9
I. The box which has 24 pens. e) K - 13
II. The box kept to the immediate north of T. 25) Which of the following statement is/are true?
III. The box kept to the west of the box which has 24 I. The sum of the number of pens from box D and box
pens. K is a prime number.
a) Both II and III II. B is kept to the west of the box which has 21 pens.
b) Only II III. Box M is kept two places above the box which has
c) Both I and II 18 pens.
d) Both I and III a) Only III
e) None of these b) Only I
22) What is the sum of the number of pens does box B c) Only II
and box Z have? d) Both II and III
a) 30 e) None of these
b) 34 Directions (26-30): Study the following information
c) 27 carefully and answer the below questions.
d) 33 Ten boxes namely – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are
e) None of these kept one abovethe other in two stacked stack 1 and stack
23) What is the position of box T with respect to the 2 from west to east but not necessarily in the same order.
box which has 13 pens? Each stack has equal number of boxes. Each stack has five
a) Two shelves below shelves in such a way that the lowermost shelf is
b) Three shelves above numbered as 1, the shelf immediately above lowermost
c) Immediate south-west shelf is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost shelf is
d) Two shelves above numbered as 5.
e) None of these Box C is kept in the stack 1 three shelves below box I,
24) Four of the following five are related to each other both are kept in the same stack. The number of shelves
in a certain way and thus form a group, thus find the above I is same as the number of shelves below E, which
odd one out? is to the east of H. Two shelves are kept between box H
Page 167 of 1079

and box G, both are not kept in the same stack. Box B is 29) Four of the five are related to each other in a
kept to the east of box F. A box kept two shelves above certain way and thus form a group, thus find the odd
box B is kept to the east of D. Box I and box A are not one out?
kept in the same shelf. a) HB
26) Which of the following box is kept two shelves b) ID
below G? c) AE
I. The box kept two shelves above H d) EB
II. F. e) JG
III. The box kept at stack 1 of shelf 4. 30) Which of the following statement is/are not true?
a) Only I I. Box J is kept to the west of C.
b) Both I and III II. Box B is kept to the south of box J.
c) Both I and II III. The number of shelves above E is the same as the
d) Only II number of shelves below D.
e) None of these a) Only III
27) The number of shelves above G is same as ____? b) Only I
I. The number of shelves between E and F. c) Both I and III
II. The number of shelves below H. d) Both II and III
III. The number of shelves between A and H. e) None of these
a) Only I Direction (31-35): Study the following information
b) Both II and III carefully and answer the question below.
c) Only III Eight boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are arranged in four
d) Both I and III shelves which have two stacks A and B. Shelves are
e) None of these numbered 1-4 from bottom to top. Each stack contains
28) What is the position of box F with respect to box J? four boxes. Stack B is to the east of Stack A.
a) Two shelves below Box O is placed at prime number position in stack B but
b) Three shelves above not an even numbered shelf. Box S is placed either
c) Immediate north-west immediately above Box O or at a gap of one box from Box
d) Two shelves above O but both are kept at the different stacks. Box P is placed
e) None of these immediately below box M in the same stack. Box Q is
Page 168 of 1079

placed to the West of box R. Box N is placed east of Box e) MT

P but placed above box T. 35) Which box is placed 2nd to the above of box N in
31) How many boxes are placed between box T and the same stack?
box O in the same stack? a) R
a) Four b) O
b) Five c) Q
c) Two d) M
d) None e) S
e) One Direction (36-40) :Study the following information
32) Which box is placed immediately above box M in carefully and answer the following questions.
the same stack? Eight boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are arranged in four
a) P shelves which have two stacks A and B. Shelves are
b) S numbered 1-4 from bottom to top. Each stack contains
c) T four boxes. Stack A is to the east of Stack B.
d) Q Box K is placed north-west of box M, both the boxes are
e) None of these placed either at even numbered shelf or odd numbered
33) Four from the following five are related in a certain shelf. Box K is placed north of box L, which is placed west
way and hence form a group. Find the one which of box M. Only one box is placed between box M and box
doesn’t belong to that group. O both boxes are kept in the same stack. Box J is placed
a) Q in stack A and kept below box O on an even numbered
b) S shelf. Box J is placed south-east of box N. box J and box
c) T Q are not placed in the same stack.
d) P 36) How many boxes are placed between box N and
e) M box L in the same stack?
34) Which among the following pair of boxes placed on A.2
the same shelf? B.1
a) MN C.0
b) PT D.3
c) OM E.None of these
d) PO 37) Box K is in which direction with respect to box M?
Page 169 of 1079

A.North the bottommost box and box number 5 is the topmost box.
B.South Box number 1 of stack 1 is kept west of box number 1 of
C.North-west stack 2.
D.South-west C is kept third to the south of B, which is kept west of G.
E.None of these H, which is kept northeast of C, kept below G but not
38) Find the odd one out? immediately below. F is kept northwest of H, but not at
A.NP the topmost position. Box number of D and I is the same.
B.KO I and J are kept in the same stack. E is kept southeast of J.
C.LM J is kept at the even-numbered position.
D.QJ 41) Which among the following is true with respect to
E.NO box F?
39) Which of the following statement is true regarding a) Box F is kept immediately south of box G
box Q? b) Box J is kept east of box F
A.Box Q is placed at shelf number-2 c) Box F is kept at the even-numbered position
B.Only two boxes between Box Q and Box L d) Two boxes are kept between F and I, when both are
C.Box M is placed south of box Q kept in the same stack.
D.All of these e) None is true
E.None of these 42) Which among the following pair of boxes kept at
40) If another box X is placed in Stack B of shelf no- 3, the bottommost position?
then which among the following box is placed at the a) D, I
same shelf of Box X? b) C, J
A.Box J c) C, E
B.Box M d) C, A
C.Box O e) None of these
D.Box P 43) Which among the following box is box numbered 2
E.None of these of stack 1?
Direction (41-45): Answer the questions based on the a) C
information given below. b) H
Ten boxes A through J kept in two stacks i.e. Stack 1 and c) E
Stack 2. Each stack contains five boxes. Box number 1 is d) J
Page 170 of 1079

e) None of these 46) Which of the following boxes is kept at stack 2?

44) How many boxes are kept above box A with respect a) E
to the same stack in which box A kept? b) C
a) One c) A
b) Two d) F
c) None e) G
d) Three 47) Four of the following are alike in a certain way.
e) None of these Which of the following ones does not belong to the
45) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way group?
based on the given arrangement and so form a group. a) The box which is kept immediately above Box F in the
Which the one that does not belong to that group? same stack
a) B, A b) the box which is kept east of Box C
b) I, G c) H
c) F, H d) the box which is kept west of Box H
d) D, C e) D
e) J, E 48) Which of the following statements is/are true?
Directions (46-50): Study the following information I. Box H and Box D are kept at the adjacent shelves
carefully and answer the below questions II. Box G is kept at an odd numbered stack
Eight boxes –A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are arranged in III. Only one box is kept between E and C
two stacks- Stack1 and Stack2 from West to East. The a) Only I and III
lowermost shelf is numbered as one and the topmost shelf b) Only III
is numbered as four. All the information is not necessarily c) Only I and II
in the same order. d) Only II
Box A is kept at an even-numbered position. No box is e) None of these
kept west of Box A. Only one box is kept between E and 49) On which of the following shelf and stack does Box
A, both are kept at the same stack. Box C is kept either C kept?
immediately above or immediately below Box E. Box C a) Stack2, Shelf2
is kept west of Box F. Box G is kept at the southwest of b) Stack1, Shelf2
Box B. Box B is kept two shelves above box H. Box H c) Stack1, Shelf3
and box E are not kept on the same shelf. d) Stack1, Shelf1
Page 171 of 1079

e) Stack2, Shelf3 b) Box B

50) Which of the following boxes is kept immediately c) None
above box E? d) Box C
a) Box A e) Box G
Box/Stack Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

Directions (1-5): Shelf 1 L N W N
1.Answer: D
Again, we have:
2.Answer: A
• Box G is not kept in the same stack with box D.
3. Answer: C
• Box W is kept to the south west of box D. So, case
4. Answer: E
1 gets eliminated here.
5. Answer: A
• Box Z is not kept to the south of box D.
Common Explanation:
Case 2
We have:
Case 1
• Box B is kept two shelves below box T, both are
not kept in the same stack. Shelves Stack 1 Stack 2 Stack 1 Stack 2
• The box which is placed just below box B is kept
Shelf 4 W T L T
west to box N.
That means, box B is kept in stack 1. Shelf 3 G Z
• Two shelves are there between box W and box L.
Shelf 2 B B D
So, we have two possible cases i.e. case 1 and case
2 Shelf 1 L N W N
Based on the above-given information we have the final
Case 1 Case 2
arrangement as follows:
Shelves Stack 1 Stack 2 Stack 1 Stack 2 Case 2
Shelf 4 W T L T Shelves Stack 1 Stack 2
Shelf 3 Shelf 4 L T
Shelf 2 B B Shelf 3 G Z
Page 172 of 1079

Shelf 2 B D Shelf 1 Q
Shelf 1 W N Again, we have:

• E is kept two shelves below R, which is kept
Directions (6-10):
immediate below to the stack of C.
6.Answer: A
That means, in case (1) box E is kept in stack II of
7.Answer: B
shelf 2, in case (2) box E is kept in stack 1 of shelf
8. Answer: D
1.
9. Answer: E
• Both S and C are not kept in the same stack.
10. Answer: B
• Both B and S are kept at the same shelf.
Common Explanation:
• A and P are not kept in the same stack.
We have:
That means, in case (1) A is kept east of R, case
• There is a gap of two shelves between Q and P,
(2) is not valid.
which is kept on an even number shelf.
• T is kept immediate above P in the same stack.
• Both T and Q are not kept in the same stack.
• T is kept to the west of D.
CASE 1
That means, in case (1) box P is kept in stack 1 of
CASE 2
shelf 2, in case (2) box P is kept in stack 1 of shelf
4. Shelves Stack I Stack II Stack I Stack II
Shelf 5 C Q T D
CASE 1 CASE 2
Shelf 4 R A P C
Shelves Stack I Stack II Stack I Stack II
Shelf 3 T D A R
Shelf 5 Q T D
Shelf 2 P E S B
Shelf 4 P
Shelf 1 B S E Q
Shelf 3 T D
Case (2) is not valid as Box A and box P are not kept
Shelf 2 P
in the same stack.
Directions (11-15):
Page 173 of 1079

11.Answer: D Shelf 1 T T T
12.Answer: A
Again, we have:
13. Answer: E
• K is kept two shelves below S, both are not kept in
14. Answer: E
the same stack.
15. Answer: A
• Neither box S nor box K is kept at the same shelf
Common Explanation:
along with R.
We have:
That means, in case (1) box S is kept to the east of
• Box B is kept three stacks above box T, both are
B, in case (2a) box S is kept to the west of C, case
not kept in the same stack.
(2b) is not valid.
• H is kept immediate above the stack of B.
• Box L is kept two shelves above the box G in the
That means, in case (1) box B is kept in the stack
same stack.
I, in case (2) box B is kept in the stack II.
That means, in case (1) box L is kept to the east of
• Box R is kept to the west of a box which is kept
H, case (2a) is not valid.
immediate above the stack of C. Box C is not kept
at the shelf 1.
result as follows:
That means, in case (1) box R is kept immediate
below the stack of B, in case (2a) box R is kept to
the west of box B, in case (2b) box R is kept in the
stack I in shelf 3.
CASE 1 CASE 2a CASE 2b
CASE 1 CASE 2a CASE 2b
Shelves Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack

I II I II I II Shelves Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack
I II I II I II
Shelf 5 H H H
Shelf 5 H L H H
Shelf 4 B R B B
Shelf 4 B S R B B
Shelf 3 R C R
Shelf 3 R G S C R
Shelf 2 C C
Shelf 2 K C C
Page 174 of 1079

Shelf 1 D T T K T Shelf 1 M B M B
Case (2a) is not valid as Box L is kept two shelves above Again, we have:
the box G in the same stack, case (2b) is not valid as K • G is kept immediate west of box L, which is kept
is kept two shelves below S, both are not kept in the immediately below the stack of U.
same stack. That means, in case (2) G is kept immediately
Directions (16-20): above the stack of M, case (1) is not valid.
16.Answer: B • Box K and box U are not kept at the same shelf.
17.Answer: D Based on the above-given information we have the final
18. Answer: E arrangement as follows:
19. Answer: C CASE 2
20. Answer: A CASE 1
Common Explanation: Shelves Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack

We have: I II III I II III
• Box B is kept in stack II at the shelf 1.
Shelf 3 T C U T
• Box T is kept two shelves above M, both are not
kept in the same stack. Shelf 2 D G L D
• A box immediately above M’s stack is kept second
Shelf 1 M B M B K
to the west of D.
That means, in case (1) box T is kept in the stack Case (1) is not valid as G is kept immediately west of
II of the top shelf, in case (2) box T is kept in stack box L, which is kept immediately below the stack of U.
III of the top shelf. Directions (21-25):
Based on the above-given information we have: 21.Answer: C
CASE 1 CASE 2 22.Answer: A
23. Answer: E
Shelves Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack
24. Answer: C
I II III I II III
25. Answer: C
Shelf 3 T T Common Explanation:
We have:
Shelf 2 D D
• Box D, which has 13 pens, is kept in the stack II
of an even number shelf.
Page 175 of 1079
• The number of shelves below box D is same as the Based on the above-given information we have the final
number of shelves above box B, both are kept in a arrangement as follows:
different stack. Case 1
• A box kept immediately above B’s stack has 12
Shelves Stack I Stack II
pens and is kept along with M at the same shelf.
• Two shelves are there between box M and box P, Shelf 4 Z (12) M(9)
which has 27 pens. Case 2 gets eliminated here.
Shelf 3 B(18) K(21)
Both box M and box P are in different stacks.
Based on the above-given information we have: Shelf 2 G(24) D(13)
Case 1 Shelf 1 P (27) T(16)

Case 2
Directions (26-30):
Shelves Stack I Stack II Stack I Stack II
26.Answer: D
Shelf 4 12 M D(13) 27.Answer: D
28. Answer: E
Shelf 3 B
29. Answer: A
Shelf 2 D(13) 12 M 30. Answer: C
Common Explanation:
Shelf 1 P (27) B
We have:
Again, we have: • Box C is kept in the stack 1 three shelves below
• A box kept immediately above K’s stack is kept to box I, both are kept in the same stack.
the east of box Z. • The number of shelves above I is same as the
• Two shelves are kept between box Z and box T, number of shelves below E, which is to the east of
which has 16 pens. H.
• Box G has twice the number of pens than box Z. • Two shelves are kept between box H and G, both
• Box G and the box which contains 18 pens are kept are not kept in the same stack.
in the same stack. Based on the above-given information we have:
• The box which contains twice the number of pens CASE 1
than box M is kept to the west of the box contains
Shelves Stack 1 Stack 2
21 pens.
Page 176 of 1079

Shelf 5 G 35) Answer: A

Solution:
Shelf 4 I
Stack A B
Shelf 3
Box
Shelf 2 H E
4 Q R
Shelf 1 C
3 M O
Again, we have:
2 P N
• Box B is kept to the east of box F.
• A box kept two shelves above box B is kept to the 1 S T
east of D.
Explanation:
• Box I and box A are not kept in the same shelf.
Box O is placed at prime number position in stack B but
Based on the above give information we have the final
not an even numbered shelf.
Box S is placed either immediately above Box O or at a
CASE 1
gap of one box from Box O but both are kept at the
Shelves Stack 1 Stack 2 different stacks.
Here we get two possibilities.
Shelf 5 D G
Case(1) Case(2)
Shelf 4 I J
Stack A B A B
Shelf 3 F B
Box
Shelf 2 H E
4 S
Shelf 1 C A
3 O O
Direction (31-35):
2
31) Answer: E
32) Answer: D 1 S
33) Answer: C
34) Answer: C
Page 177 of 1079

Box P is placed immediately below box M in the same 38) Answer: E

stack. Box N is placed east of box P but placed above box 39) Answer: A
T. 40) Answer: C
Here we get two possibilities in case (1). Explanation
Case(1) Case(1a) Case(2) From the given statements,
Box K is placed north-west of box M, both the boxes are
Stack A B A B A B
placed either at even numbered shelf or odd numbered
Box shelf. Box K is placed north of box L, which is placed west
of box M. Only one box is placed between box M and box
4 S S
O both boxes are kept in the same stack.
3 M O M O M O
2 P N P N P N
1 T T S T
Box Q is placed in the west of box R.

Case(1) Case(1a) Case(2)
Box J is placed in stack A and kept below box O on an
Stack A B A B A B even numbered shelf. case 1 will be eliminated no place is
vacant for box J according to the statement.
Box
4 S S Q R
3 M O M O M O
2 P N P N P N
1 T T S T Box J is placed south-east of box N. box J and box Q are

not placed in the same stack.
We cannot fix the position of Q and R in case (1) and
So the final arrangement is-
Case (1a). So these cases are eliminated.
Direction (36-40):
36)Answer: A
37) Answer: C
Page 178 of 1079
Box Stack 1 Stack 2 Stack Stack 2

5No. B G 1
D/I D/I
4 F B G
3 H F
2 C H
Direction (41-45): 1 D/I D/I C
41. Answer: E • I and J are kept in the same stack. J is kept at the
42. Answer: C even-numbered position.
43. Answer: D • E is kept southeast of J.
44. Answer: B • So the final arrangement becomes:
45. Answer: D Case 1 Case 2
Solution: Box No. Stack 1 Stack 2 Stack 1 Stack 2
Case 2 5 B G I D
Box No. Stack 1 Stack 2 4 F B G
3 H F A
5 I D
2 C J H
4 B G
1 D/I D/I C E
3 F A Direction (46-50):
2 J H 46) Answer: d
1 C E 47) Answer: d
Explanation: 48) Answer: c
• C is kept third to the south of B, which is kept west 49) Answer: c
of G. 50) Answer: c
• H, which is kept northeast of C, kept below G but Box A is kept in an even-numbered position. No box is
not immediately below. kept west of Box A..
• F is kept northwest of H, but not at the topmost Only one box is kept between E and A, both are kept at
position. the same stack.
• Box number of D and I is the same. From the above conditions, there are two possibilities.
Case 1 Case 2 Case1 Case2
Page 179 of 1079

Stack1 Stack2 Stack1 Stack2 2 A E E
4 E A 1 C F
3 Box G is kept at the southwest of Box B.

Box B is kept two shelves above box H.
2 A E
Box H and box E are not kept on the same shelf.
1 From the above conditions, case2 and case3 are
eliminated. Case1 shows the final arrangement.
Box C is kept either immediately above or immediately
Case1 Case2 Case3
below Box E.
Box C is kept west of Box F. Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack
From the above conditions, there are three possibilities. 1 2 1 2 1 2
Case1 Case2 Case3
4 E B A B A B
Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack Stack
3 C F G D C F
1 2 1 2 1 2
2 A H E H E H
4 E A A
1 G D C F G D
3 C F C F
Profession/Designation Puzzle
Direction (1-5) Answer the question based on the just more experience than T (i.e. P is immediate senior
information given below: to T). Two people lie between T and S. U have more
Nine people namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and M are experience than M. U is not CEO. At least two persons
working in a same office but different designation have less experience than V. M is not Financial
namely Attender, Clerk, Stenographer, Financial Adviser. R has less experience than M. Only three
Adviser, Admin, Manager, Team Leader, Chairman people are more experienced than W. M is senior than
and CEO (Designations are in increasing V but both of them neither have least experienced nor
seniority/experience order. Attender being the least most experienced.
experienced while the CEO being the most 1) Q is in which of the following post?
experienced). Two person lie between P and W. P has a. Attender
Page 180 of 1079

b. CEO Direction (6-10) Answer the question based on the

c. Manager information given below:
d. Clerk Eight people working in a company at different
e. None of these posetions. The designation is in increasing order are
2) Which of the following is Team Leader? Office boy, Clerk, Trainee, Manager, Senior Manager,
a. M Team Leader, Chaerman and CEO. Three people
b. P ranked between H and G. E was ranked at
c. R immediately higher position than B. E is not chairman.
d. U F is not senior Manager. A and F both are neither
e. None of these Team Leader nor CEO. D is manager and was ranked
3) Which of the following is immediate senior to V? at higher position than H. C has lower position than D
a. Q but not immediate lower.
b. W 6) Which of the following is CEO?
c. T a. D
d. S b. E
e. None of these c. A
4) If U is related to S, M is relaed to V in the same way d. F
V is related to which of the following? e. None of these
a. U 7) F is on which of the following designation?
b. M a. Senior Manager
c. R b. Clerk
d. T c. Trainee
e. None of these d. CEO
5) Which of the following is true? e. None of these
a. S is a manager 8) Which of the following is true?
b. P is senior to R a. G is Chairman
c. Q is on lower most post b. C is Clerk
d. M is Jounior to V c. A is senior to F
e. None of these d. A is just jounior to H
e. None of these
Page 181 of 1079

9) If G is related to E, H is relaed to D in the same way a. CEO

C is related to which of the following? b. PO
a. F c. Clerk
b. D d. Manager
c. G e. None of these
d. B 13) If P is related to R, S is relaed to Q in the same way
e. None of these R is related to which of the following?
10) How many professionals are between F and A a. V
a. Four b. U
b. Three c. S
c. Two d. T
d. One e. None of these
e. None of these 14) Which of the following is true?
Direction (11-15) Answer the question based on the a. R is GM
information given below: b. U is above P
Seven person works in different designation such as c. S is on lower most post
MD, CEO, GM, AGM, Manager, PO and Clerk, Such d. V is top second post
that MD is being the topmost post and clerk being the e. None of these
bottom most post. V is above S but not immediate 15) Which of the following professional is just above
above. V is not MD. U is just below R. Two persons are T?
between V and P. P is above T. Q is not manager. a. S
Three person lie between S and R. S is not a manager. b. U
R is above S. T is neither PO nor Clerk. c. P
11) Which of the fllowing is MD? d. V
a. P e. None of these
b. U Direction (16-20) Answer the question based on the
c. S information given below:
d. Q Seven defferent professionals i.e. Doctor, Engineer,
e. None of these Teacher, Accountant, Dentist, Programmer and
12) Q is on which of the following designation? Dietician are from different cities i.e. Bhopal, Indore,
Page 182 of 1079

Goa, Mumbai, Aurangabad, Nagpur and Delhi. 19) Which of the following person is Accountant?
Mumbai, Nagpur and Aurangabad are in a. The person who belongs from Goa
Maharashtra. Bhopal and Indore is in MP. b. The person who belongs from Bhopal
Programmer is from the city of Maharashtra but none c. The person who belongs from Delhi
of that city starts with vowel. Dietician is from the d. The person who belongs from Mumbai
capital city of India. Dentist is not from Indore. e. None of these
Teacher and Dentist is from the city of MP. 20) Which of the following is from the city of MP?
Programmer is not from Mumbai. Doctor belongs a. Accountant
from one of the city of Maharasthra. Accountant is b. Teacher
from the city which starts with vowel letter but he is c. Dietician
not from Indore. d. Engineer
16) Who is from Goa? e. None of these
a. Teacher Direction (21-25) Answer the question based on the
b. Dentist information given below:
c. Engineer Eight professionals Cricketor, footballer, Lawyer,
d. Programmer Banker, doctor, Engineer, Politician and
e. None of these Programmerare are from three different city i.e. Pune,
17) Which of the following is not from the city of Nagpur and Bhopal. Each person belongs from one
Maharashtra? city. Not more than three persons are from same city.
a. Accountant Minimum two professionals belong from same city.
b. Programmer Banker and doctor are from different city. Doctor is
c. Dentist not from Nagpur. Lawyer is from the city of an
d. Doctor Engineer. Cricketer is not from Bhopal. Footballer is
e. None of these from pune with only one professional. Engineer and
18) Which of the following is true? Banker are from same city. Doctor and politician are
a. Doctor does not from Mumbai from same city.
b. Dentist is from Bhopal 21) Which of the following group is from Pune?
c. Programmer and Teacher are from same state a. Cricketer, Footballer
d. Dietition is from Nagpur b. Banker, Programer
e. None of these c. Banker, Lawyer
Page 183 of 1079

d. Doctor, Politician Eight professional Doctor, Lawyer, CA, CS, Engineer,

e. None of these Umpire, Crecketer and Referee living on an eight floor
22) Programmer belongs from which city? building (Ground floor is numbred one and topmost
a. Pune floor is numbred seven) but not necessary in the same
b. Bhopal order. Doctor lives above Cricketer. CS lives just
c. Either Bhopal or Pune below Lawyer. Engineer and CS live on adjacent floor.
d. Nagpur Umpire lives just above referee. Umpire does not live
e. None of these on 8th floor. There is gap of three floors between
23) Doctor is from Bhopal with which of the following Doctor and Cricketer and none of them live on 1st floor
professionals? or topmost floor. Umpire lives just above referee. Two
a. Banker and Lawyer persons live between Cricketer and Lawyer.
b. Engineer and Cricketer 26) Which of the following professionals lives on 8th
c. Politician and Lawyer floor?
d. Programmer and Politician a. Referee
e. None of these b. Engineer
24) Which of the following is from Nagpur? c. CA
a.Cricketer d. Lawyer
b. Politician e. None of these
c.Programmer 27) Which of the following lives just above Engineer?
d.Lawyer a. CS
e. None of these b.Doctor
25) Which of the following pair is from same city? c. Cricketer
a. Lawyer and Doctor d. Umpire
b. Engineer and Politician e. None of these
c. Cricketer and Banker 28) Doctor lives on which of the following floor?
d. Programmer and Engineer a. 2nd Floor
e. None of these b. 7th Floor
Direction (26-30) Answer the question based on the c. 3rd Floor
information given below: d. 4th Floor
e. None of these
Page 184 of 1079

29) How many professionals live between Lawyer and 31) Which of the following pair is from same state?
Referee? a. Engineer and Carpenter
a. Four b. Scientist and Pilot
b. One c. Architect and Doctor
c. Three d. Painter and Pilot
d. None e. None of these
e. None of these 32) Doctor is from Tamil Nadu with which of the
30) If CS and Umpire exchange their floor then who following profesional with which of the following
lives just above Umpire? professional?
a. Cricketer a. Scientist
b. Doctor b. Architect
c. Lawyer c. Pilot
d. CS d. Chemist
Direction (31-35) Answer the question based on the 33) Which of the following group is from Bihar?
information given below: a. Pilot and Engineer
Eight professionals i.e. Architects, Pilot, Engineer, b. Architect and Pilot
Scientist, Doctor, Carpenter, Chemist and Painter are c. Engineer and Scientist
from three different state i.e. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka d. Carpenter and Chemist
and Bihar. Not more than three professionals are from e. None of these
same state and minimum two professionals are from 34) Scientist belongs from which state?
the same state. a. Bihar or Tamil Nadu
Three persons are from Tamil Nadu and one of them b. Tamil Nadu
is Doctor. Pilot and Engineer are from different state. c. Bihar
Painter and Chemist are from different state. Scientist d. karnataka
and Engineer are from same state. Chemist and e. None of these
Carpenter are from same State. Engineer is from 35) Who is with Painter from same state?
Karnataka with two other professionals. Pilot and a. Pilot
Architect are from same state but not from Tamil b. Engineer
Nadu. c. Carpenter
Page 185 of 1079

d. Architect 38) How many professionals take rest between

e. None of these Chemist and Teacher?
Direction (36-40) Answer the question based on the a. Two
information given below: b. Four
Seven different professionals i.e. Lawyer, Teacher, c. Three
Engineer, Professor, Doctor, Chemist and Actor take d. One
rest on different days of a week starting from Sunday e. None of these
to Saturday but not in same order. Each professional 39) Who take rest just after Doctor?
takes rest only for one day. a. Engineer
The number of professional takes rest after Actor is b.Teacher
equal to the number of professional take rest before c. Actor
professor. Actor takes rest after professor. Lawyer d. Lawyer
does not take rest just before of after the Doctor takes e. None of these
rest. Lawyer does not take rest on 1st day or last day of 40) Which of the following statement is true?
the week. Not more than one professional take rest a. Doctor take rest on Thrusday
between Professor and Actor. Engineer takes rest after b. No one take rest after Chemist
Teacher. Chemist takes rest on Friday. Exactly one c. Professor take rest just before Chemist
professional takes rest between Chemist and Doctor. d. Two professionals take rest between Lawyer and
36) Who takes rest on the last day of the week? Engineer
a. Engineer e. None of these
b. Teacher Direction (41-45) Answer the question based on the
c. Lawyer information given below:
d. Doctor There are seven friends working in differint profession
e. None of these i.e. Engineer, Teacher, Lawyer, Doctor, Dietition,
37) Who take rest just before Doctor? Accountant and farmer. They all have different
a. Teacher amount of salary. Dietition takes less salary than
b. Actor Teacher but more than Accountant. The number of
c. Lawyer professional has salary more than Engineer is one less
d. Professor than the number of professionals has salary less than
e. None of these Dietition. Doctor have more salary than Engineer.
Page 186 of 1079

Accountant does not have least salary of all. Only two a. None
professionals take more salary than Teacher. Lawyer b. Five
takes salary just after the Teacher. c. Three
41) Which of the following has highest salary? d. Four
a. Teacher e. None of these
b. Doctor Direction (46-50) Answer the question based on the
c. Lawyer information given below:
d. Farmer Eight professionals i.e. Gymnast, Engineer, Footballer,
e. None of these Lawyer, Dentist, Doctor, Politician and Teacher are
42) Who has salary just less than Lawyer? living in eight differen floor but not necessary in the
a. Teacher same order. The lowermost floor of the building is
b. Engineer numbred one, the one above that is numbred two and
c. Dietition so on till the topmost floor is numbred eight. Neither
d. Accountant Gymnast nor Politician lives on the topmost floor or
e. None of these lowermost floor. Teacher lives on the floor immediate
43) Which of the following has least salary? above Doctor and none of them live on the topmost
a. Teacher floor or 5th floor. Engineer live on the floor above
b. Farmer footballer. Footballer doesnot live on fourth floor.
c. Lawyer Dentist lives on even numbred floor. Gymnast lives on
d. Engineer the floor above Politician. Only three persons live
e. None of these between Gymnast and Politician. Only one
44) How many professionals take more salary than Professional lives between Gymnast and Lawyer.
Accountant? 46) Which of the following lives on 4th floor?
a. Four a. Lawyer
b. Three b. Engineer
c. One c. Teacher
d.Five d. Politician
45) How many professionals take more salary than 47) How many professionals live between Teacher and
Accountant but less than Doctor? Footballer?
Page 187 of 1079

a.None a. Teacher
b. Four b.Engineer
c. One c. Politician
d. Three d. Lawyer
48) Teacher lives on which of the following floor? 50) Who lives just below Dietitian?
a. 5th Floor a. Gymnast
b. 7th Floor b. Engineer
c. 4th Floor c. Politician
d. 2th Floor d. Lawyer
49) Which of the following lives on the top Floor?
Profession/Designation Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

1. B VIII. At least two persons have less experience than
2. A V.
3. D IX. M is not Financial Adviser. Thus Case-II is not
4. C possible
5. B X. R has less experience than M.
Solution (1-5) Designation Case-I Case-II
I. Only three people are more experienced than CEO Q P
W. Chairman U T
II. Two persons lie between P and W. Team Leader M
III. P has just more experience than T (i.e. P is Manager W W
immediate senior to T). Admin S S
IV. Two people lie between T and S. Financial V
V. M is senior than V but both of them neither Adviser
have least experienced nor most experienced. Stenographer P
VI. U have more experience than M. Clerk T
VII. U is not CEO. Attender R
6. B
Page 188 of 1079
7. C Solution (11-15)
8. C I. Three person lie between S and R.
9. A II. R is above S.
10. D III. S is not a manager.
Solution (6-10) IV. U is just below R.
I. D is manager and was ranked at higher V. V is not MD.
position than H. VI. V is above S but not immediate above.
II. Three people ranked between H and G. VII. Two persons are between V and P.
III. E was randed at immediately higher position VIII. P is above T.
than B. IX. T is neither PO nor Clerk. Thus Case-II is not
IV. C has lower position than D but not immediate possible.
lower. X. Q is not manager.
V. E is not chairman. F is not senior Manager. Post Case-I Case-II
VI. A and F both are not Team Leader.
MD P
Post Case-I Case-II Case-III
CEO E E CEO R V/P
Chairman G B B
GM U R
Team E G
Leader AGM V U
Senior B A G
Manager T V/P
Manager
Manager D D D PO S
Trainee H F F
Clerk Q S
Clerk H C
Office Boy C H
11. A Solution (16-20)
12. C 16. C
13. B 17. C
14. E 18. B
15. D 19. E
Page 189 of 1079

20. B III. Engineer and Banker are from same city.

I. Programmer is not from Mumbai. IV. Doctor is not from Nagpur.
II. Programmer is from the city of Maharashtra V. Doctor and politician are from same city.
but none of that city starts with vowel. VI. Lawyer is from the city of an Engineer.
III. Accountant is from the city which starts with VII. Cricketer is not from Bhopal.
vowel letter but he is not from Indore. Professional City
IV. Doctor belongs from one of the city of
Cricketer Pune
Maharasthra.
Footballer Pune
V. Dietician is from the capital city of India.
VI. Dentist is not from Indore. Banker Nagpur
VII. Teacher and Dentist is from the city of MP.
Lawyer Nagpur
Profession City
Engineer Nagpur
Doctor Mumbai
Doctor Bhopal
Engineer Goa
Programmer Bhopal
Teacher Indore
Politician Bhopal
Accountant Aurangabad
Dentist Bhopal
26. C
Programmer Nagpur 27. A
Dietician Delhi 28. B

29. A
21. A
30. C
22. B
I. There is gap of three floors between Doctor
23. D
and Cricketer and none of them live on 1st floor
24. D
or topmost floor.
25. E
II. Doctor lives above Cricketer.
Solution (21-25)
III. Two persons live between Cricketer and
I. Footballer is from Pune with only one
Lawyer.
professional.
IV. CS lives just below Lawyer.
II. Banker and doctor are from different city.
Page 190 of 1079
V. Engineer and CS live on adjacent floor. Professional State

VI. Umpire lives just above referee.
Pilot Bihar
VII. Umpire lives just above referee.
VIII. Umpire does not live on 8th floor. Architect Bihar
oor No. Case-I Case-II
Scientist Karnataka
8 CA Umpire
7 Doctor Referee Engineer Karnataka
6 Lawyer Doctor Doctor Tamil Nadu

5 CS Lawyer
Chemist Tamil Nadu
4 Engineer CS
3 Cricketer Engineer Carpenter Tamil Nadu
2 Umpire Cricketer Painter Karnataka

1 Referee
36. A
31. E
37. D
32. D
38. B
33. B
39. C
34. D
40. E
35. B
I. Chemist takes rest on Friday.
I. Engineer is from Karnataka with two other
II. The number of professional takes rest after
professionals.
Actor is equal to the number of professional
II. Three persons are from Tamil Nadu and one of
take rest before professor.
them is Doctor.
III. Actor takes rest after professor.
III. Pilot and Architect are from same state but not
IV. Exactly one professional takes rest between
from Tamil Nadu.
Chemist and Doctor.
IV. Pilot and Engineer are from different state.
V. Lawyer does not take rest just before or after
V. Painter and Chemist are from different state.
the Doctor takes rest.
VI. Scientist and Engineer are from same state.
VI. Layer does not take rest on 1st day or last day
VII. Chemist and Carpenter are from same State.
of the week.
Page 191 of 1079

VII. Not more than one professional take rest IV. The number of professional has salary more
between Professor and Actor. Thus Case-II is than Engineer is one less than the number of
not possible. professionals has salary less than Dietition.
VIII. Engineer takes rest after Teacher. V. Doctor have more salary than Engineer.
Salary in Case-I Case-II Case-III
Day Case-I Case-II decreasin
Doctor Doctor Engineer
g order
Sunday Teacher Professor
Engineer Engineer
Monday Lawyer Lawyer
Teacher Teacher Teacher
Tuesday Professor
Lawyer Dietitian Dietitian
Wednesday Doctor Doctor
Dietitian Accounta
Thursday Actor nt
Friday Chemist Chemist Accounta Accounta

nt nt
Saturday Engineer Actor
Farmer Farmer
41. B
46. E
42. C
47. D
43. B
48. D
44. D
49. B
45. E
50. C
Solution (41-45)
Solution (46-50)
I. Only two professionals take more salary than
I. Only three persons live between Gymnast and
Teacher.
Politician.
II. Dietition take less salary than Teacher but
II. Gymnast lives on the floor above Politician.
more than Accountant.
III. Neither Gymnast nor Politician lives on the
III. Accountant does not have least salary of all.
topmost floor or lowermost floor.
IV. Only one Professional lives between Gymnast
and Lawyer.
Page 192 of 1079
V. Teacher lives on the floor immediate above 6 Footballer Gymnast Gymnast

Doctor and none of them live on the topmost
5 Lawyer
floor or 5th floor.
4 Dentist Teacher Lawyer
VI. Engineer live on the floor above footballer.
VII. Footballer does not live on fourth floor. 3 Politician Doctor
VIII. Dentist lives on even numbered floor. 2 Teacher Politician Politician
Floor Case-I Case-II Case-III
1 Doctor
8 Engineer
7 Gymnast
Year Puzzle
Direction (1-5): Study the following information to 2. What is the difference between the ages of Q and R?
answer the given questions: a) 20 years
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V born in seven different b) 27 years
years viz. 1973, 1984, 1989, 1993, 1995, 1999, 2005. (All c) 21 years
the ages of the given persons have been calculated on the d) 26 years
base year 2020 and all the persons are considered to be e) None of these
born on the same date of the same month). 3. Who among the following born in the year 1984?
P is 4 years younger than U. The difference between the a) P
ages of U and T is 6 years. The average of the ages of Q b) The one who was born immediate before P.
and T is twice the average of the ages of V and R (average c) S
of the ages are considered in a whole number). V is d) The one who was born just after T.
younger than R, and T is younger than Q. S is not the e) None of these
oldest. 4. What is the sum of the ages of V and P?
1. Who among the following is the youngest person? a) 47 years
a) P b) 37 years
b) Q c) 45 years
c) R d) 38 years
d) V e) None of these
e) T 5. How many persons are older than T?
Page 193 of 1079

a) Four b) Six, Five

b) Three c) Seven, Six
c) Two d) Five, Six
d) One e) None of these
e) None 8. What is the age difference between H and F?
Direction (6-10): Study the following information to a) 4yr
answer the given questions: b) 37yr
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H who were born c) 28yr
on the same date and same month of a different year i.e. d) 9yr
1950, 1954, 1962, 1971, 1978, 1982, 1995, and 1999 but e) None of these
not necessarily in the same order. 9. Who was born in 1971?
Note: Calculation done with respect to present year 2021 a) A
assuming month and date to be the same as that of the year b) G
of birth as next above. c) B
F was born after 1980 but was not born in 1995. The Sum d) H
of the present age of F and A is more than 87 but not more e) None of these
than 90. The difference between the present ages of both 10. Who is the fifth oldest person?
A and H is less than 9 years. E is the oldest person. B was a) A
born in an odd-numbered year but after H. B was not born b) H
in 1995. The Sum of the present age of D and G is 69yr. c) None of these
D is younger than G. d) B
6. What will be the age of G in 2025? e) G
a) 39yr Direction (11-15): Read the given information
b) 43yr carefully and answer the given questions.
c) 47yr Eight persons AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET, FU, GV, and HW
d) 46yr have Join company XYZ on the same date and month of a
e) None of these different year i.e. 1981, 1969, 1972, 1989, 2000, 1978,
7. How many persons were born before C and after A 1997, and 2005. Their year of joining is considered in the
respectively? same month of 2020.
a) Four, Five
Page 194 of 1079

There is eight years gap between the joining of ET and e) 25 year

DS. GV was joined in in a leap year. AP was joined in 15. How many years gap between the joining of CR
1981. BQ was joined 17 years before FU, who was joined and DS?
8 years after AP. HW was joined nine years after CR. ET a) 33 year
was joined earlier than GV. b) 16 year
11. In which year FU was joined? c) 36 year
a) 1969 d) None of these
b) 1989 e) 27 year
c) 2005 Directions (16-20): Study the following arrangement
d) 1981 carefully and answer the questions given below:
e) 1978 Five persons Pooja, Priya, Rashmi, Sidharth, and Tarun
12. What is the joining year of GV in 2020? were born in five consecutive years ending in 2020.
a) 15 year Sidharth was born in the even-number year. One person
b) 22 year was born between Tarun and Sidharth. Rashmi was born
c) 30 year after Pooja. Tarun was born immediately after Priya.
d) 20 year Rashmi was not born in the year 2019. Only one person
e) 39 year was born between Priya and Rashmi.
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way 16. Who among the following person was born in
and hence they form a group. Which one of the 2019?
following does not belong to that group? a) Priya
a) CR b) Pooja
b) HW c) Sidharth
c) DS d) Tarun
d) AP e) None of these
e) ET 17. How many persons are older than Sidharth?
14. By how many years BQ was joined before ET? a) One
a) 24 year b) Two
b) None of these c) three
c) 30 year d) None
d) 19 year e) More than three
Page 195 of 1079

18. Rashmi was born in which of the following year? The difference in the age of S and U is 2. Three persons
a) 2018 were born between S and V, who is not the youngest
b) 2020 person. P was born just before Q. R was born before T.
c) 2017 21. Who among the following person was born in
d) 2016 1990?
e) None of these a) Q
19. The number of persons born between Pooja and b) P
Priya is twice the number of persons born between ___ c) S
and ___? d) R
a) Sidharth and Tarun e) None of these
b) Priya and Sidharth
c) Rashmi and Priya 22. In which of the following year R was born?
d) All except b) a) 1971
e) Pooja and Sidharth b) 1985
20) Which of the following persons were born on an c) 1987
odd-numbered year? d) 1990
a) Pooja e) None of these
b) None of these 23. What is the age of Q in 2019?
c) Rashmi a) 12 years
d) Sidharth b) 20 years
e) Tarun c) 24 years
Directions (21-25): Read the following information d) 29 years
carefully and answer the questions given below: e) None of these
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V were born in seven 24. What is the difference between the age of S and T
different years viz. 1971, 1985, 1987, 1990, 1995, 1999, in 2027?
2007 but not necessarily in the same order. (All the ages a) 39 years
of the given persons have been calculated on the base year b) 29 years
2024 and all the persons are considered to be born on the c) 27 years
same date of the same month). d) 25 years
e) None of these
Page 196 of 1079

25. How many persons were born after V? c)2017

a) None d)2003
b) One e)2015
c) Two 29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
d) Three and hence form a group, which of the following does
e) More than three not belong to the group?
Directions (26-30): Study the following information a) A-21
carefully and answer the questions given below: b) B-17
Eight persons E, F, G, A, B, C, D, and H were born in c) C-11
different years i.e. 2000, 2003, 2004, 2005, 2010, 2012, d) G-19
2015, and 2017. They are born on the same date and the e) F-9
same month. The ages are calculated with the base year 30.Who among the following was born in the year
2021. B is one year younger than E and one year older 2010?
than G. F is younger than C. D is younger than F. A is a) G
older than C. F is older than H, who was not born in 2015. b) F
26.Who among the following is the oldest person? c) B
a) F d) C
b) D e) E
c) A Direction (31-35): Answer the questions based on the
d) G information given below.
e) None of these Nine different shopping apps viz. AJio, Amazon, eBay,
27. What is the present age of G (in years)? Flipkart, Jabong, Myntra, OLX, Paytm, and Snapdeal are
a) 9 listed best in different years from 2012 to 2020, but not
b) 11 necessarily in the same order. Not more than one app is
c) 18 listed the best in the same year.
d) 16 eBay is the best app in one of the leap years immediately
e) None of these after the year in which Flipkart is announced the best.
28. D was born in which of the following year? Only two years are there between the years in which
a)2000 Flipkart and Myntra are announced the best. OLX is the
b)2005 best app four years after AJio was announced the best and
Page 197 of 1079

both the apps are best in odd years. Snapdeal is announced D.eBay
the best two years before the year in which Jabong is E.No such app
announced the best. Paytm is the best app in an even year 35) Which of the following app is announced the best
before Amazon. exactly between Myntra and Snapdeal?
31) Which of the following app is announced the best A.Flipkart
in 2018? B.Paytm
A.Myntra C.eBay
B.Amazon D.OLX
C.Snapdeal E.None of these
D.Flipkart Direction (36-40): Study the following information and
E.Paytm answer the questions given below:
32) How many apps are announced the best between Six persons J, K, L, M, N, and O were born in six different
AJio and Amazon? years 1978, 1989, 1991, 1996, 2000, and 2002 but not
A.One necessarily in the same order. Age of each person is
B.Two calculated from the base year 2020. N’s age is multiple of
C.Three 3 but he is not the eldest. M was born in an even number
D.More than three year, but not in 2000. Two persons are born between M
E.None and J.L is younger than both K and O but not as much as
33) In which of the following year does Paytm was N. J is elder to L but not elder to K who is younger than
announced the best? O.
A.2013 36) Who among the following person is born between O
B.2014 and J?
C.2018 A.M
D.2016 B.N
E.2012 C.K
34) Which of the following app was announced the best D.L
three years before Paytm? E.none
A.Myntra 37) The person who was born in 1978 is how many
B.AJio years older than K?
C.Flipkart A.11
Page 198 of 1079

B.12 2019. Consider persons were born on the same date and
C.13 same month.
D.10 Only one person was born between L and S. Two persons
E.none were born between P and M. More than two persons were
38) Who among the following person is born born between K and B. As many persons were born before
immediately after L? S was born after R. L’s age is not an odd number. P was
A.M born immediately after V. K was born after B.
B.N 41) How many persons were born after B?
C.O A.One
D.K B.Two
E.J C.Three
39) Which among the following pair of persons born in D.Four
a leap year? E.None of these
A.M, K 42) What is the sum of the ages of V and K (in years)?
B.K, J A.80
C.J, L B.74
D.L, N C.62
E.O, N D.64
40) Who among the following persons are the second E.None of these
oldest person and second youngest person? 43) If R is related to B, P is related to K, in the same
A.O, L way, K is related to which of the following?
B.M, J A.No one
C.L, K B.P
D.M, N C.M
E.None of these D.V
carefully and answer the questions given below: 44) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
Eight persons were born in different years 1974, 1976, based on the above arrangement. Find which one does
1980, 1982, 1984, 1987, 1992, and 1996 but not not belongs to the group?
necessarily in the same order. Ages were calculated as on A.B
Page 199 of 1079

B.M 47) If G is related to F, B is related to C, in the same

C.K way, E is related to which of the following?
D.S A.A
E.L B.H
45) Which of the following person was born C.D
immediately after K? D.B
A.B E.None of these
B.V 48) Which of the following is true?
C.P A. B graduates after A
D.S B. As many persons graduate before D graduate after C
E.None of these C. Two persons graduate between G and F
Direction (46-50): Study the following information to D. More than one person graduates between F and B
answer the given questions: E. None is true
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are graduating in 49) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
different years 2001, 2003, 2005,2007, 2008, 2011, 2012, based on the group. Find the one which does not belong
and 2015 but not necessarily in the same order. to the group?
B graduates in even number year. E graduates A.C
immediately before F. Three persons graduate between B B.H
and G. B and D do not graduate consecutively. As many C.D
persons graduate before G graduate after C. Only one D.F
person graduates between D and F. A graduates after H, E.A
who does not graduate immediately before C. 50) If G is related to 2005, H is related to 2015, in the
46) How many persons graduate between D and H? same way, F is related to which of the following?
A.None A.2012
B.One B.2011
C.Two C.2008
D.Three D.2007
E.None of these E.None of these
Year Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

Direction (1-5): 1) Answer: D
Page 200 of 1079
2) Answer: D 7. V is younger than R.

3) Answer: C 8. S is not the oldest.
4) Answer: E 9. So, the final arrangement is:
5) Answer: A
Solution:
1. P is 4 years younger than U.
2. The difference between the ages of U and T is 6
years.
3. So, there can be two possible cases:
Direction (6-10):
6) Answer: C
7) Answer: D
4. T is younger than Q.
8) Answer: B
5. The average of the ages of Q and T is twice the
9) Answer: C
average of the ages of V and R (average of the ages
10) Answer: E
are considered in a whole number).
Solution:
6. So, from this case-2 will get eliminated as no such
1. From the given conditions, E is the oldest person.
combination is possible in case-2. Now, with case-
2. F was born after 1980 but was not born in 1995.
1
3. The Sum of the present age of F and A is more than
87 but not more than 90.
4. So, there will be two possible cases in which F is
either born in 1982 (then A is born in the
year1971) or in 1999(then A is born in the year
1954).
Case I
Page 201 of 1079

YEAR Age Person 1971 50 A

1950 71 E 1978 43 H
1954 67 1982 39 F
1962 59 1995 26
1971 50 A 1999 22 B
1978 43
1982 39 F Case II
1995 26 YEAR Age Person
1999 22 1950 71 E
1954 67 A
Case II 1962 59 H
YEAR Age Person 1971 50 B
1950 71 E 1978 43
1954 67 A 1982 39
1962 59 1995 26
1971 50 1999 22 F
1978 43
1982 39 Using the rest of the conditions, the Sum of the present
1995 26 age of D and G is 69yr.
1999 22 F D is younger than G.
As it is given that, the difference between the present ages So, from these statement case I will be eliminated.
of both A and H is less than 9 years. Now continuing with case II, G was born in the year 1978
B was born in an odd-numbered year but after H. and D in the year 1995, and C was born in the year 1982.
B was not born in 1995. Hence, we get our final solution.
Case I Case II
YEAR Age Person YEAR Age Person
1950 71 E 1950 71 E
1954 67 1954 67 A
1962 59 1962 59 H
Page 202 of 1079

1971 50 B
1978 43 G
1982 39 C
1995 26 D
1999 22 F
Directions (11-15):
11) Answer: B
12) Answer: D
13) Answer: B 5. There is eight years gap between when joining of
14) Answer: E ET and DS.
15) Answer: C 6. HW was joined nine years after CR
Solution: 7. ET was joined earlier than GV.
1. From the given condition, GV was joined in in a 8. So, the final arrangement is-
leap year. AP was joined in 1981.
2. Here we get 2 possibilities-
3. BQ joined 17 years before FU, who was joined 8

years after AP. Directions (16-20):
4. Here Case 1 is ruled out now. 16) Answer: A

17) Answer: B
Page 203 of 1079

18) Answer: C 2016 Pooja

19) Answer: D 2017 Rashmi
20) Answer: C 2018 Sidharth
Solution: 2019 Priya
Sidharth was born in an even year. 2020 Tarun
One person was born between Tarun and Sidharth.
Tarun was born immediately after Priya. Directions (21-25):
Year Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 21) Answer: B
Person Person Person 22) Answer: A
2016 Sidharth 23) Answer: C
2017 Priya Priya 24) Answer: E
2018 Tarun Sidharth Tarun 25) Answer: B
2019 Priya Solution:
2020 Tarun Sidharth From the given statements, the difference in the age of S
and U is 2. Three persons were born between S and V.
Only one person was born between Priya and Rashmi. Here, we get two possibilities i.e. Case 1 and Case 2.
Rashmi was born after Pooja. Years Age Case 1 Case 2
So, case 1 gets eliminated.
Year Case 2 Case 3 1971 53
Person Person
1985 39 S U
2016 Pooja Pooja
2017 Rashmi Priya 1987 37 U S
2018 Sidharth Tarun 1990 34

2019 Priya Rashmi
1995 29
2020 Tarun Sidharth
1999 25 V
Rashmi was not born in the year 2019. 2007 17 V

So, case 3 gets eliminated.
From the given statements, V is not the youngest person.
Case 2
Here, Case 2 is ruled out.
Year Person
P was born just before Q.
Page 204 of 1079
R was born before T. 2010 11

So, the final arrangement will be: - 2012 9
Case 1 2015 6
2017 4
Years Age Person
F is younger than C.
1971 53 R D is younger than F.
1985 39 S A is older than C.

F is older than H, means H was born in either 2015 or
1987 37 U
2017, H was not born in 2015.
1990 34 P So we have the final arrangement:
Years Age Persons
1995 29 Q
2000 21 A
1999 25 V 2003 18 E
2004 17 B
2007 17 T
2005 16 G
Directions (26-30): 2010 11 C
26) Answer: C 2012 9 F
27) Answer: D 2015 6 D
28) Answer: E
2017 4 H
29) Answer: D
Direction (31-35):
30) Answer: D
31. Answer: C
Solution:
32. Answer: D
From the given statements, B is one year younger than E
33. Answer: B
and one year older than G which means B was born in
34. Answer: E
2004, E was born in 2003, and G was born in 2005.
35. Answer: A
Years Age Persons
Explanation
2000 21
2003 18 E
2004 17 B
2005 16 G
Page 205 of 1079

1. eBay is the best app in one of the leap years Two persons are born between M and J.
immediately after the year in which Flipkart is Here we have three possibilities.
announced the best.
2. Only two years are there between the years in
which Flipkart and Myntra are announced the best.
3. OLX is the best app four years after AJio was

announced the best and both the apps are best in
odd years.
4. Snapdeal is announced the best two years before
the year in which Jabong is announced the best.
L is younger than both K and O but not as much as N.

J is elder to L but not elder to K who is younger than O.
3. Paytm is the best app in an even year before Amazon.
Hence case 2 and case 3 canceled. Case 1 shows the final
Hence, cases 1a and 2 get eliminated.
arrangements.
Direction (36-40):
36.Answer: C
37.Answer: C
38.Answer: B
39.Answer: C
40.Answer: A
Explanation
Here we have,
N’s age is multiple of 3 but he is not the eldest.
M was born in an even number year, but not in 2000. Direction (41-45):
Page 206 of 1079
41.Answer: E
42.Answer: D
43.Answer: A
44.Answer: E
45.Answer: D
Explanation
Case 1 will be dropped because the positions of P, M, and

V can’t be fixed.
Direction (46-50):
46.Answer: D
47.Answer: B
48.Answer: C
Only one person was born between L and S.
49.Answer: E
L’s age is not an odd number.
50.Answer: B
As many persons were born before S was born after R.
Explanation
Two persons were born between P and M. B graduates in even number year.
P was born immediately after V. Three persons graduate between B and G.
K was born after B. As many persons graduate before G graduate after C.
More than two persons were born between K and B.
Page 207 of 1079

A graduate after H, who does not graduate immediately

before C.
B and D do not graduate consecutively.

E graduates immediately before F.
Case 2 will be dropped because A graduates after H, who
Only one person graduates between D and F.
does not graduate immediately before C.
Month Puzzle
Directions (1-5): Answer the questions based on the e) None of these
information given below. 2) Who among the following person goes three months
Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are going to before F?
the park on different months January, March, April, May, a) The one who visits immediately before A
July, September, October and November of the same year b) H
but not necessarily in the same order. c) The one who visits immediately after B
Three persons go to the park between C and B, who d) G
doesn’t go in the month of 31 days. G goes to the park just e) None of these
after C. One person goes between G and the one, who goes 3) Which among the following combinations is
immediately after A. A goes to the park after C. No one definitely correct?
goes between D and F, who goes in the month of 30 days a) March- E
but not in April. E goes to the park before H. b) October- H
1) Who among the following person goes to the park in c) July- A
May? d) April- G
a) The one who visits immediately before E e) All are incorrect
b) C 4) Who among the following person goes to the park
c) The one who visits immediately before H two months after A?
d) G a) E
Page 208 of 1079
b) H 7) How many persons attend a seminar between K and

c) F the one who attends in November?
d) B A. Three
e) None of these B. Five
5) How many persons go between E and F? C. Two
a) Six D. One
b) Two E. None of these
c) Four 8) Who among the following attends the seminar in
d) Three January?
e) None of these A.K
Direction (6-10): Study the following information B.N
carefully and answer the below questions. C.P
Seven persons - J, K, L, M, N, O and P are attending the D.M
seminar on different months viz., January, April, June, E. None of these
August, October, November and December but not 9) When all of them are made to attend a seminar in
necessarily in the same order. alphabetical order from January to December, then
M attends the seminar in November. K attends the seminar the position of how many persons changed?
in the month which has 30 days. P attends the seminar A. Two
either immediately before M or immediately after M. B. Four
Three persons attend the seminar between P and N. Three C. Three
persons attend the seminar between L and O, who attends D. Five
after L. L attends the seminar in the month which has an E. None of these
even number of days. 10) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
6) How many persons attend the seminar between L thus form a group. Find the one which does not belong
and P? to the group?
A. Four A.K
B. Three B.J
C. Five C.O
D. One D.P
E. None of these E.N
Page 209 of 1079

Direction (11-15): Study the following information C. L

carefully and answer the below questions. D. The one who joins in June
Seven persons i.e. L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are joining a E. Q
company in different months viz., January, February, 14) Who among the following person joins after L but
March, April, June, July, and September but not before Q?
necessarily in the same order. A.M
P joins in the month which has 31 days. R joins three B.N
months after Q.O joins in the month neither adjacent to Q C.The one who joined in March
nor adjacent to P.As many persons join before P is same D.The one who joined in April
as after M.L joins just after N.R joins either immediate E. None of these
before M or immediate after M. 15) In a certain way, N is related to Q in the same way
11) How many persons join between N and the one who P is related to R then who among the following person
joins in June? is related to Q?
A.Two A.R
B.Three B.M
C.Four C.L
D.Five D. O
E.None E. None of these
12) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way Direction (16-20): Study the following information
and hence form a group. Who among the following one carefully and answer the below questions.
does not belong to the group? Six persons i.e. Adam, Aje, Ajith, Alan, Arun and Ashiq
A.NL were born in the same year of different months viz.,
B.PQ January, March, April, June, August and October but not
C.MR necessary in the same order.
D.QM Two persons were born between Ajith and Ashiq. Ajith
E.NO was born in a month which having 30 days. Two persons
13) The number of persons joins before L is one less were born between Aje and Alan, who was born in
than the number of persons joins after ____? adjacent month of Ajith. Neither Aje nor Ashiq was born
A. P in adjacent month of Arun. Arun was older than Adam.
B. The one who joins in July 16) Who was born in June month?
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A.Ajith E.None of these

B.Ashiq Direction (21-25): Study the following information
C.Adam carefully and answer the below questions.
D.Alan Six men- P, Q, R, S, T and U are closing their loans in
E.None of these different months- January, April, May, July, September
17) How many persons were born between Alan and and October in the same year. Their loans are Personal
Aje? loan, Jewellery Loan, Car loan, Bike loan, Business loan
A.Four and Housing loan. All the information is not necessarily
B.Two in the same order.
C.Three P has closed neither housing loan nor a bike loan. S has
D.One closed the Jewellery loan. The car loan is closed in
E.None of these January. The business loan is closed immediately before
18) Who was born just after Arun? the housing loan. T has closed his personal loan in May.
A.Aje Bike loan is closed in October. S has closed his loan
B.Adam neither in July nor in September. Only one person is
C.Ajith closing their loan between T and U. Q has closed his loan
D.Alan before the person who closed the business loan.
E.None of these 21) In which of the following month does the car loan
19) How many persons were born after Ajith? closed?
A.One A. July
B.Two B. January
C.Three C. April
D.Four D. September
E.None of these E. None of the above
20) Number of persons born before Alan was same as 22) Four of the following are alike in a certain way and
born after _____? hence form a group. Who among the following one
A.Ajith does not belong to the group?
B.Aje A.The one who closed his car loan
C.Arun B.The one who closed his personal loan
D.Ashiq C.P
Page 211 of 1079

D.The one who closed his Bike loan 30 days and born before Aisha who is younger to
E.The one who closed his Housing loan Avantiga. Aarushi is older to Aayushi and only younger
23) Which of the following statement is/are true? than one person. Avantiga who was younger to Aayushi,
A.R has closed a bike loan was born in a month having 30 days.
B.P has closed the loan in May 26) Who was born in March?
C.S has closed Housing loan A.Aarushi
D.U has closed his loan in January B.Avantiga
E. None is true C.Aditi
24) If the persons are arranged in alphabetical order D.Aashi
from January then the position of how many persons E.None of these
remain unchanged? 27) Aayushi is born just after _______?
A. None of these A.Aditi
B. One B.Aashi
C. Two C.Aarushi
D. Three D.Aisha
E. Four E.None of these
25) How many months are there between the loans 28) Who among the following was born in November?
closed by T and R? A.Aayushi
A.Five B.Aisha
B.Four C.Avantiga
C.Three D.Cannot be determined
D.Six E.None of these
E. One 29) How many persons were born between Aisha and
Direction (26-30): Study the following information Aarushi?
carefully and answer the below questions. A.Three
Six persons i.e. Aashi, Aarushi, Asyushi, Aditi, Aisha and B.One
Avantiga were born on 1994 in different months such viz., C.Four
March, April, July, September, November and December D.Two
but not in the same order. Aditi was born in the month E.None of these
which has 31 days. Aashi was born in the month having
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30) If Aashi was born in September how many 33) Who among following was born immediately
person/persons was/were born after Avantiga? before S?
A.Three A.R
B.One B.Q
C.Two C.T
D.Cannot be determined D.P
Direction (31-35): Study the following information 34) U was born in which of the following months?
carefully and answer the below questions. A.January
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U were born in different B.March
months of the same year viz., January, March, April, May, C.May
June and July but not necessary in the same order. D.August
S was born in one of the months which have 31 days. T E.None of these
was born after March. Two persons were born between T 35) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and P. More than one person was born between S and Q. and hence form a group. Which of the following one
T was born immediately after R. U was born in one of the that does not belong to the group?
months which have 31 days. Both U and S were born after A.T
Q. B.Q
31) Who among the following was the oldest person? C.S
A.U D.U
B.P E.P
C.Q Direction (36-40): Study the following information
D.S carefully to answer the given question:
E.None of these There are eight persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were
32) How many persons were born between U and R? born in the different months – March, April, May, June,
A. One July, August, September and October, but not necessarily
B. Two in the same order.
C. Three S was born in April. There were four persons born
D. Four between W and R. T was not born in the month having 31
E. None of these days. Only two persons were born after V. Three persons
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were born between P and Q, who was born after T. Three 40) W was born in which of the following month?
persons were born between U and W. A.March
36) Who among the following person was born in B.May
September? C.June
A.P D.July
B.T E.August
C.W Direction (41-45): Study the following information
D.U carefully and answer the questions given below.
E.R A vendor bought seven different Computers i.e. A, B, C,
37) Who among the following person was born in the D, E, F and G in seven different months of the same year
month of July? viz., March, April, May, June, July, August and
A.P September but not necessarily in the same order.
B.Q Computer A was bought in June. Only one Computer was
C.W bought between A and F. Two Computers were bought
D.T between D and E. The Computer E was bought just after
E.R B. Three Computers were bought between G and C.
38) How many persons were born between W and V? Computer C was bought after G.
A. One 41) When does the Computer G was bought?
B. Two A.April
C. Three B.March
D. Four C.May
E. None D.June
39) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way E.None of these
and hence they form a group. Which one of the 42) Which of the following statement is true?
following does not belong to that group? A. Computer F was bought in June
A.P B. Computer E was bought in March
B.W C. Computer D was bought in July
C.Q D. Computer C was bought in August
D.R E. All are true
E.T
Page 214 of 1079

43) How many Computers were bought between D and The one who likes Green, visits three months after P who
B? doesn’t like Yellow. The one who likes Pink visits in one
A. One of the month has 30 days but before U, who likes Red. The
B. Three number of persons visits between U and the one who likes
C. Two Green is the same as the number of persons visits between
D. Four R and the one who likes Brown. R visits two months after
E. None of these Q, who doesn’t like Blue.
44) Which of the following Computer is bought just 46) The one who likes Brown visits Red Fort in which
after A? of the following month?
A.F a) June
B.C b) September
C.E c) April
D.D d) January
E.None of these e) None of these
45) Number of Computer bought between B and A is 47) Which of the following statement is/are true?
as same as between? a) Two persons visit the Red Fort after the one who likes
A.F and G Green.
B.C and D b) R likes Pink.
C.E and A c) Three persons visit between T and the one who likes
D.C and E Green.
E.None of these d) One person visits the Red Fort before Q.
Directions (46-50): Study the following information e) All the above statements are not true.
carefully and answer the below questions. 48) How many persons were visited between Q and U?
Six persons namely – P, Q, R, S, T, and U visit Red Fort a) As many as visits after the one who likes Red.
in six different months viz.- January, April, June, August, b) As many as visits between the one who likes Blue and
September, and December. Each person likes different Q.
colors viz.- Red, Green, Blue, Yellow, Brown, and Pink. c) As many as visits before the one who likes Pink.
All the information is not necessary in the same order. d) As many as visits between P and the one who likes
Three persons visit between P and T, who likes neither Green
Brown nor Pink. The one who likes Yellow visits in June. e) None of these
Page 215 of 1079

49) Who among the following person likes Blue? 50) Who among the following person visits the Red
a) Q Fort just after R?
b) R a) The one who likes Blue
c) P b) P
d) U c) The one who likes Pink
e) None of these d) U
e) None of these
Month Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

Directions (1-5):
1) Answer: C
2) Answer: B
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: D
5) Answer: A
One person goes between G and the one, who goes

immediate after A.
A goes after C. Case-3 gets eliminated because no
place left for A.
Explanation:
Three persons go to the park between C and B,
who doesn’t visit in the month of 31 days.
G goes to the park just after C.
No one goes between D and F, who goes in the
month of 30 days but not in April.
E goes before H.
Page 216 of 1079

Case-1 gets eliminated since F goes in the month

of 30 days but not in April.
P attends the seminar either immediate before M or

immediate after M.
Three persons attend the seminar between P and N.
Direction (6-10):
6) Answer: D
7) Answer: A
8) Answer: B
9) Answer: D
10) Answer: A
Three persons attend the seminar between L and O, who
Explanation
attends after L.
L attends the seminar in the month which has an even
number of days.
So, case 1 and case 2a get eliminated.
M attends the seminar in November.

K attends the seminar in the month which has 30 days. So, the final arrangement is,
Page 217 of 1079

R joins three months after Q.

R joins either immediate before M or immediate after M.
Direction (11-15):
Case-3 gets eliminated because we have no place for Q.
11.Answer: B
12.Answer: E
13.Answer: D
14.Answer: C
15.Answer: D
Explanation
L joins just after N.

O joins in the month neither adjacent to Q nor adjacent to
P.
Case-1 and Case-2a gets eliminated because O joins in the
month neither adjacent to Q nor adjacent to P.
P joins in the month which has 31 days.

As many persons join before P is same as after M.
From the above condition, there are three possibilities.
So Final arrangement becomes,
Page 218 of 1079

Direction (16-20):
16.Answer: C
17.Answer: B
Two persons were born between Aje and Alan, who was
18.Answer: D
born in adjacent month of Ajith. Neither Aje nor Ashiq
19.Answer: C
was born in adjacent month of Arun. Arun was older than
20.Answer: B
Adam.
Explanation
Two persons were born between Ajith and Ashiq.

Ajith was born in a month having 30 days.
Page 219 of 1079

Bike loan is closed in October.

The car loan is closed in January.
Direction (21-25):
21.Answer: B
22.Answer: E
23.Answer: A
24.Answer: A
25.Answer: B
Explanation
S has closed the Jewellery loan.
S has closed his loan neither in July nor in September.
The business loan is closed immediately before the
housing loan.
T has closed his personal loan in May.

Only one person is closing their loan between T and U.
Page 220 of 1079

P has closed neither housing loan nor a bike loan.

Q has closed his loan before the person who closed the
business loan.
From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated.
Case2 shows the final arrangement.
Aarushi is older to Aayushi and only younger than one

Direction (26-30):
person.
26.Answer: C
27.Answer: C
28.Answer: D
29.Answer: A
30.Answer: B
Explanation
Aashi was born in the month having 30 days and born

before Aisha who is younger to Avantiga. So the option
for Aashi is September and November.
Page 221 of 1079

Direction (31-35):
31.Answer: C
Avantiga was younger to Aayushi and born in a month 32.Answer: B
having 30 days. 33.Answer: D
Aarushi is older to Aayushi. 34.Answer: B
Aditi was born in the month which has 31 days. 35.Answer: E
Explanation
Two persons were born between T and P. T is born

immediately after R.
So, the final arrangement is,
Page 222 of 1079

36.Answer: D
37.Answer: B
38.Answer: B
39.Answer: E
40.Answer: B
Explanation
S was born in April. There were four persons born
S was born in one of the months which have 31 days. between W and R. T was not born in the month having 31
T was born after March. U was born in one of the moths days.
which have 31 days.

Both U and S were born after Q.
More than one person was born between S and Q.
Only two persons were born after V.

Hence case 1 gets eliminated.
Three persons were born between P and Q, who was born
after T.
Three persons were born between U and W. Hence final

Direction (36-40): arrangement will be-
Page 223 of 1079

Direction (41-45): • Only one Computer was bought between A and F.
41.Answer: c
42.Answer: c
43.Answer: b
44.Answer: d
45.Answer: a
Explanation
• Two Computers were bought between D and E.
• The Computer A was bought on June.
• The Computer E was bought just after B.
Page 224 of 1079

• We cannot fix the position of B in case 1A and 49. Answer: E

Case 2A, So these cases are eliminated. 50. Answer: D
Common Explanation:
We have:
• The one who likes Yellow visits in June.
• The one who likes Green visits three months after
P, who doesn’t like Yellow.
That means, P visits Red Fort in September.
• Three persons visit between P and T, who likes
neither Brown nor Pink.
• The one who likes Pink visits in one of the month
has 30 days but before U, who likes Red.
That means, the one who likes Pink visits in April,
and U visits in August.
Based on the above given information we have:
• Three Computers were bought between G and C.

• Computer C was bought after G. We cannot fix the
position of G and C in case 1B, So this case is
eliminated. Now Case 2B is the final arrangement.
Again, we have:
• The number of persons visiting between U and the
Directions (46-50): one who likes Green is the same as the number of
46.Answer: B persons visiting between R and the one who likes
47.Answer: D Brown.
48. Answer: C • R visits two months after Q, who doesn’t like Blue.
Page 225 of 1079
That means, R likes Yellow and P likes Brown,

Since, Q doesn’t like Blue, thus T likes Blue.
Based on the above given information we have the final
Floor and Flat Puzzle

Direction (1-5): Study the following information (a) A
carefully and answer the questions given below: (b) B
Ten persons namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are (c) C
living on five different floors of a building. (d) D
Note 1: The ground floor is numbered as 1 and the top (e) None of these
floor is numbered as 5. There are two flats on each floor. Q2. How many floor gap is there between A and H?
Note 2: Flat-1 and flat-2 from west to east such that flat 2 (a) None
is in the east of Flat 1. (b) One
Note 3: Flat-1 of the second floor is exactly above flat-1 (c) Two
of the first floor and other flats are placed in the same way. (d) Three
E lives on the 2nd floor. There are two floors gap between (e) Can’t be determined
E and J and both do not live in the same numbered flat. I Q3. Who among the following person lives in the
lives just below the floor on which J lives. More than two south-west of J?
floors gap between B and G. Both H and G live on the (a) B
same floor. A lives just above the floor in which D lives (b) A
and in the North-east direction of G. F lives in the west of (c) D
I. Both C and D do not live in the same numbered flat. (d) I
Q1. Who among the following person lives on Flat-2 of (e) G
the 3rd floor?
Page 226 of 1079

Q4. Who among the following person lives just above floor in which G and Y live. Both G and Y live in the same
the floor on which E lives? flat number. I and Z live on the same floor. Y lives below
(a) B Z. V who lives on an even numbered floor and lives below
(b) G Z, both live in the same flat number. W lives above H and
(c) D both live in the same flat number. X does not live in flat
(d) A number 2. X and H neither live in the same flat number
(e) None of these nor on the same floor.
Q5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way Q6. Who among the following lives in flat-2 of the 4th
hence form a group, find the one which does not belong floor?
to that group? (a) I
(a) B-J (b) Z
(b) F-C (c) K
(c) C-A (d) V
(d) G-H (e) None of these
(e) E-D Q7. Who among the following lives with J on the same
Directions (6-10): Study the following information floor?
carefully and answer the questions given below: (a) X
Ten persons K, J, I, H, G, Z, Y, X, W and V are living in (b) Y
a five-storey building such that the ground floor is (c) V
numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 then the top floor is (d) W
numbered as 5. (e) None of these
Note 1:Each of the floors has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat- Q8. How many floors are there between X and I?
2. (a) Two
Note 2:Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of (b) One
floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. (c) Three
Note 3:Flat-1 is to the west of flat-2. (d) Four
J lives in an even flat and odd numbered floor. There is a (e) None
gap of two floors in which J and K live. Both K and J do Q9. Y lives on which of the following floor?
not live in the same flat number. G lives immediately (a) 4th floor
above K in the same flat number. There is a gap of one (b) 3rd floor
Page 227 of 1079

(c) 1st floor (c) X

(d) 2nd floor (d) V
(e) None of these (e) None of these
Q10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain Q12. Who lives in Flat P on the 3rd floor?
way and hence form a group, which among the (a) Z
following does not belong to that group? (b) U
(a) Z (c) T
(b) V (d) W
(c) H (e) None of these
(d) W Q13. Who lives with S on the same floor?
(e) G (a) Z
Directions (11-15): Study the following information (b) V
carefully and answer the questions given below: (c) S
Eight persons namely, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living (d) X
in a building of four floors. The ground floor is considered (e) None of these
as 1st floor and the floor above it as the 2nd floor and so on. Q14. Who among the following lives on the 1st floor?
Each floor consists of two flats i.e., (a) X,Z
Note1: Flat P and Flat Q. Flat P is in the west of flat Q. (b) Y,X
Note2: Only one person lives in each flat. Flat P of floor (c) Z,S
2 is immediately above Flat P of floor 1 and immediately (d) V,U
below the flat P of floor 3 and so on. (e) None of these
Z lives on an even numbered floor. Z’s flat is just above Q15. Who lives two floors below the floor on which W
the flat of Y such that they live in the same type of flat. X lives?
lives to the west of Y. There is one floor gap between W (a) V
and S. V lives to the east of W. U lives on the 3rd floor. (b) U
Both T and S live in different types of flats. (c) Z
Q11. Whose flat is just above T’s flat such that they (d) T
live in the same type of flat? (e) None of these
(a) S Directions (16-20): Study the following information
(b) W carefully and answer the questions given below:
Page 228 of 1079

Nine persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z lives in a (b) Two

building having three floors such that ground floor is (c) Five
numbered as 1 and floor immediately above it is numbered (d) Four
as 2 and so on up to the top floor as 3. Each floor consists (e) None
of three flats i.e., Flat-1, Flat-2 and Flat-3. Q18. Who lives in the 3rd flat on the 3rd floor?
Note1: Flat-1 of floor 2 is immediately above the flat-1 of (a) Y
floor 1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor 3 and in the (b) W
same way, flat-2 of floor 2 is immediately above flat-2 of (c) S
floor 1 and immediately below flat-2 of floor 3 and so on. (d) X
Note2: Also Flat-2 is in the east of flat-1 and flat-3 is in (e) None of these
the east of flat-2. Only one person lives in each flat. Q19. How many persons live below Y (considering all
Z lives on an even numbered flat of even numbered floor. the flats below Y’s floor)?
T lives on an odd numbered flat of even numbered floor. (a) One
S and T live on the same floor. Y and S live in the same (b) Three
flat number. W lives in the same flat number on which S (c) Six
lives. U lives on the same flat number on which Z lives. V (d) Four
lives below Z. U lives on the same floor on which V lives. (e) Two
R does not live in the same flat number in which V lives. Q20. Who lives immediately below R (if their flat
One person lives between Y and X (they live on the same numbers are the same)?
floor). V doesn’t live in the west of W. (a) X
Q16. Who lives immediately above V (if their flat (b) V
number is the same)? (c) Z
(a) X (d) W
(b) T (e) None of these
(c) S Directions (21-25): Study the following information
(d) R carefully and answer the questions given below:
(e) None of these Ten persons D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M are living in a five
Q17. How many persons live above W (considering all storey building such as ground floor is numbered as 1,
the flats above W’s floor)? above it is floor 2 then the topmost floor is numbered as
(a) Six 5.
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Note1: Each of the floors has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat- (e) None of these
2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 Q24. H lives on which of the following floor?
and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. Note2: (a) 1st floor
Flat-1 is in the west of flat-2. (b) 2nd floor
J lives in the west of D. Only one person lives between D (c) 3rd floor
and I in the same flat number. E lives on an odd number (d) 4th floor
floor. I lives above D. I lives above K in the same flat. L (e) 5th floor
lives immediately above K in the same flat number. Only Q25. Who among the following lives to the west of I?
two persons live between M and F in the same flat (a) J
number. Both H and G live on an even numbered floor. F (b) E
lives below H in the same flat number. H does not live (c) D
above J. (d) F
Q21. Who among the following lives in flat-1 on the 4th (e) None of these
floor? Directions (26-30): Study the following information
(a) I carefully and answer the questions given below:
(b) M Eight persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living
(c) H in a building of four floors. The ground floor is considered
(d) F as 1st floor and the floor above it as the 2nd floor and so on.
(e) None of these Each floor consists of two flats i.e., Flat 1 and Flat 2. Flat
Q22. Who among the following lives to the east of F? 1 is in the west of flat 2. Only one person lives in each flat.
(a) E Flat 1 of floor 2 is immediately above Flat 1 of floor 1 and
(b) G immediately below flat 1 of floor 3 and so on.
(c) D E lives on an odd numbered floor and even flat number. C
(d) L lives to the west of E. F live immediately above C’s flat.
(e) None of these Only one person lives between the floors on which D and
Q23. How many floors gap is there between J and E? E lives. D and C do not live in the same flat number. More
(a) One than one person lives between the floors on which F and
(b) Two G live. B and H live in the same flat number. A and H lives
(c) Three on the same floor.
(d) Four
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Q26. Who among the following lives just above E in the (d) More than three
same flat number? (e) None
(a) F Direction (31-35): Study the following information
(b) B carefully and answer the below questions.
(c) A Eight people are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W living in a
(d) D building which has four floors numbered as 1 to 4 from
(e) None of these bottom to top.
Q27. Who lives in Flat 2 of the 2nd floor? Note1: Each floor has two flat 1 and flat 2, where flat 2 is
(a) H to the east of flat 1 and the length of each flat is the same.
(b) D Note2: Only one person is living in each flat of the
(c) E building but not necessarily in the same order.
(d) C T lives on an even numbered floor but not in an even
(e) None of these numbered flat. Only one person lives between T and V
Q28. Who lives with G on the same floor? both are living on the same numbered flat. P lives
(a) F northwest of U who lives immediately below W. Neither
(b) A P nor W lives on the same floor. S lives two floors above
(c) D U. R lives one of the floors above T. Q doesn’t live on the
(d) H same floor of V.
(e) None of these 31) Who among the following person lives in the
Q29. Who among the following lives on the 1st floor? 4th floor?
(a) C, E A.R
(b) F, E B. The one who lives immediately above W
(c) A, D C.P
(d) G, D D.Q
(e) None of these E.None of the above
Q30. How many persons live between the floors on 32) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
which B and D live? and hence form a group. Who among the following one
(a) One does not belong to the group?
(b) Two A.V
(c) Three B.P
Page 231 of 1079

C.T Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are living in a four-

D.Q storey building such that the ground floor is numbered as
E.S 1 and continued so till the topmost floor is numbered as 4.
33) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with Note1: In the building, there are two groups of flats X and
respect to P? Y on each floor such that Flat X is to the east of Flat Y.
I). P lives west of S Note2: Floor number 2 of flat X is immediately above
II). P lives on an odd numbered floor floor number 1 of flat X and so on.
III). P lives on the same floor of T Two persons live between P and T, both of them live in
A.Only I and III the same flat. Only one person lives between Q and U,
B.Only III who lives east of P. V lives either immediately above or
C.Only I and II immediately below Q. One person lives between T and S,
D.Only II who lives west of V. R lives North-west of W. both Q and
E.None of these U live in the same flat.
34) On which of the following floor and flat does Q 36) Who among the following person lives west of W?
live? A. The one who lives immediately above S
A.Floor1, Flat1 B.P
B.Floor2, Flat1 C. The one who lives immediately below R
C.Floor3, Flat2 D.S
D.Floor4, Flat3 E. None of these
E.None of the above 37) R lives on which floor and in which flat
35) Who among the following pair of persons live on respectively?
the same floor? A.3rd floor, flat X
A.P, R B.2nd floor, Flat X
B.Q, S C.4th floor, Flat Y
C.T, W D.2nd floor, Flat Y
D.V, U E.3rd floor, Flat Y
E.None of the above 38) Who among the following person lives immediately
Direction (36-40): Study the following information above V?
carefully and answer the following questions. A.R
B. The one who lives west of Q
Page 232 of 1079

C.S 41) Who among the flowing person reaches the first
D. The one who lives east of P floor?
E. None of these A.G
39) Who among the following pair of persons live on B.L
the topmost floor? C.P
A.SR D.N
B.QW E.I
C.PS 42) H uses which of the following lift to reach which
D.UV floor?
E.PU A.Lift 2, 3rd floor
40) How many persons live between P and S? B.Lift 1, 5th floor
A.1 C.Lift 2, 1st floor
B.2 D.Lift 2, 5th floor
C. None E.Lift 1, 1st floor
D.3 43) Who among the following person doesn’t use lift 1?
E. None of these A.O
Direction (41-45): Study the following information B.G
carefully and answer the questions below: C.L
There are five floors in a building with two lifts viz. Lift D.J
1 and Lift 2. Ten persons viz. G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O and E.M
P use these two lifts to reach certain floors of the building. 44) On which of the following floor does K get down?
The lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and the floor above A.1st
is numbered as 2 and so on. B.2nd
Both P and L get down on different even-numbered floors C.3rd
from different lifts. G gets down on the floor immediately D.4th
above P but immediately below O and all the three uses E.5th
the same lift. H and J reach the same floor on different 45) How many floors are there between the floors on
lifts. K reaches the floor immediately above M but on which O and I get down?
different lifts. N neither uses lift 1 nor reaches the floor on A.Two
which M gets down. Both H and L use the same lift. B.One
Page 233 of 1079

C.Three A.H
D.None B.M
E.Cannot be determined C.P
Direction (46-50): Study the following information to D.Q
answer the given questions: E.None of these
There are 9 persons-R, K, T, H, S, Q, M, L and P are living 48) How many persons live above M in the same flat?
in a building with three floors (Numbered 1 to 3). The A.No one
lowermost floor is number 1 and the topmost floor is B.One
number 3. There are three flats on each floor from left to C.Two
right numbered 1 to 3. D.Cannot be determined
H lives on even numbered floor. Q lives immediately E.None of these
below H but not in the same flat. P lives to the west of Q. 49) Which of the following person lives in flat number
H and P live in a different flat. R lives immediately above 2 of floor numbered 3?
L in the same flat. S lives east of R. S and H lives in a A.R
different flat. T lives below K. T and Q do not live on the B.K
same floor. T does not live in an odd number flat. C.T
46) K lives on which of the following floor and flat D.S
number respectively? E.None of these
A.2, 3 50) Which of the following person lives between K and
B.3, 1 M?
C.3, 3 A. No one
D.3, 2 B.H
E.None of these C. Cannot be determined
47) Which of the following person is to the immediate D.Q
right of the one who lives immediately below T in the E. None of these
same flat?
Floor and Flat Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

Directions (1-5): 3-Answer: e
1-Answer: a 4-Answer: d
2-Answer: b 5-Answer: b
Page 234 of 1079
Explanation: 2 E D
From the given statements, E lives on the 2nd floor.
1 G H
There are two floors gap between E and J and both do not
live in the same numbered flat. Directions (6-10):
I lives just below the floor on which J lives. 6-Answer: b
So we have two possible cases i.e., Case 1 and Case 2. 7-Answer: a
Floors Case 1 Case 2 8-Answer: e
9-Answer: c
Flat 1 Flat 2 Flat 1 Flat 2
10-Answer: e
5 J J Explanation:
As per the information given, J lives in an even flat and
4 I/ I/ I/ I/
odd numbered floor. There is a gap of two floors in which
3 J and K live.
Both K and J do not live in the same flat number.
2 E E
G lives immediately above K in the same flat number.
1 There is a gap of one floor in which G and Y live.
Both G and Y live in the same flat number.
More than two floors gap between B and G.
I and Z live on the same floor.
Both H and G live on the same floor.
Y lives below Z.
A lives just above the floor in which D lives and in the
Floors Case 1 Case 2
North-east direction of G.
F lives in the west of I. Flat 1 Flat 2 Flat 1 Flat 2
Both C and D do not live in the same numbered flat.
5 J G
So Case gets eliminated. Hence the final arrangement will
be, 4 I/Z/ Z/I/ K
Floors Flat 1 Flat 2
3 G Y
5 B J
2 K I/Z/ Z/I/
4 F I
1 Y J
3 C A
Page 235 of 1079

V who lives on an even numbered floor and lives below V lives to the east of W.
Z, both lives in the same flat number. Here we have two possible cases i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.
Here Case 2 gets eliminated. Floors Case1 Case2
W lives above H and both live in the same flat number.
Flat P Flat Q Flat P Flat Q
X does not live in flat number 2.
X and H neither live in the same flat number nor on the 4 S Z W V
same floor.
3 X Y
Hence the final arrangement will be,
Floors Flat 1 Flat 2 2 W V S Z
5 X J 1 X Y
4 I Z U lives on 3rd floor.

Here Case 1 gets eliminated.
3 G W
Both T and S live in different types of flats. Hence the
2 K V final arrangement will be,
Floors Flat P Flat Q
1 Y H
4 W V
Directions (11-15):
11-Answer: d 3 U T
12-Answer: b
2 S Z
13-Answer: a
14-Answer: b 1 X Y
15-Answer: c
Explanation:
Directions (16-20):
As per the given information, Z lives on an even numbered
16-Answer: b
floor.
17-Answer: a
Z’s flat is just above the flat of Y such that they live in the
18-Answer: d
same type of flat.
19-Answer: c
X lives to the west of Y.
20-Answer: c
There is one floor gap between W and S.
EXPLANATION:
Page 236 of 1079

As per the information given,Z lives on an even numbered Directions (21-25):

flat of even numbered floor. 21-Answer: b
T lives on an odd numbered flat of even numbered floor. 22-Answer: e
S and T live on the same floor. 23-Answer: a
Y and S live in the same flat number. 24-Answer: b
W lives in the same flat number on which S lives. 25-Answer: b
Here we have two possible cases i.e., Case 1 and Case 2. EXPLANATION:
Flat/Floor Case 1 Case 2 As per the information given, J lives in the west of D.
s Only one person lives between D and I in the same flat
Flat Flat Flat Flat Flat Flat
number.
-1 -2 -3 -1 -2 -3
E lives on an odd number floor.
3 Y/W Y/W I lives above D.
Here we have three possible cases i.e., Case 1, Case 2 and
2 T Z S S Z T
Case 3.
1 W/Y W/Y Floor/flat Case1 Case 2 Case 3
U lives on the same floor on which V lives. Flat Flat Flat Flat Flat Flat
U lives on the same flat number on which Z lives. 1 2 1 2 1 2
V lives below Z.
5 I
R does not live in the same flat number in which V lives.
One person lives between Y and X (they live on the same 4 I
floor).
3 J D I
V doesn’t live in the west of W.
Here Case 1 gets eliminated. 2 J D
1 J D
Floor/flat Flat-1 Flat-2 Flat-3
3 Y R X
I lives above K in the same flat.
2 S Z T L lives immediately above K in the same flat number.
Here Case 2 and Case 3 get eliminated.
1 W U V
Page 237 of 1079

Only two persons live between M and F in the same flat Here we get two possible cases i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.
number. Floors/flats Case 1 Case 2
E lives on an odd number floor.
Flat 1 Flat 2 Flat 1 Flat 2
Both H and G lives on an even numbered floor.
F lives below H in the same flat number. 4 F
H does not live above J. Hence the final arrangement will
3 C E D
be,
Floor/flat Flat 1 Flat 2 2 F
5 E I 1 D C E
4 M G More than one person lives between the floors on which F

and G live. Here Case 2 gets eliminated.
3 J D
A and H lives on the same floor.
2 H L B and H live in the same flat number.
1 F K
Floors/flats Flat 1 Flat 2
Directions (26-30):
4 F B
26-Answer: b
27-Answer: a 3 C E
28-Answer: c
2 A H
29-Answer: d
30-Answer: d 1 G D
EXPLANATION:
Direction (31-35):
As per the information given, E lives on an odd numbered
31.Answer: A
floor and even flat number.
32.Answer: E
Only one person lives between the floors on which D and
33.Answer: C
E live.
34.Answer: A
C lives to the west of E.
35.Answer: C
D and C do not live in the same flat number.
Explanation
F lives immediately above C’s flat.
Page 238 of 1079

T lives on an even numbered floor but not in an even So Final arrangement becomes,
numbered flat.
Only one person lives between T and V both are living on
the same numbered flat.
Direction (36-40):
36.Answer: C
37.Answer: D
38.Answer: D
P lives northwest of U who lives immediately below W. 39.Answer: E
Neither P nor W lives on the same floor. 40.Answer: C
Explanation
From the given statements, two persons live between P
and T both of them live in the same flat.
Only one person lives between Q and U, who lives east of
P, both Q and U live in the same flat.
S lives two floors above U.

Q doesn’t live on the same floor of V.
R lives one of the floors above T.
Case-1 gets eliminated because R is lives above T.
Page 239 of 1079
45.Answer: A
Explanation
V lives either immediately above or immediately below

Q.
One person lives between T and S, who lives west of V.
R lives North-west of W, we cannot place R in case 2 so 1. Both P and L get down on different even numbered
case 2will be eliminated. floors from different lifts.
2. G gets down on the floor immediately above P but
immediately below O and all the three uses the same lift.
So the final arrangement is-
3. H and J reach the same floor on different lifts. K reaches

the floor immediately above M but on different lifts.
Direction (41-45):
41.Answer: E
42.Answer: D
43.Answer: C
44.Answer: B
Page 240 of 1079

4. N neither uses lift 1 nor reaches the floor on which M

gets down. Both H and L use the same lift. Hence, Case 1
gets eliminated.
H lives on even numbered floor. Q lives immediately

below H but not in the same flat. P lives to the west of Q.
H and P live in a different flat.
Direction (46-50):
46.Answer: c) R lives immediately above L in the same flat. S lives east
47.Answer: b) of R. S and H lives in a different flat. T lives below K. T
48.Answer: c) and Q do not live on the same floor. T does not live in odd
49.Answer: d) number flat
50.Answer: b)
Explanation
Case 1 and case 3 will be dropped because T does not live

in an odd number flat.
Floor Puzzle
Direction (1-4): Study the following information A is living on the odd-numbered floor but below the fourth
carefully and answer the below questions floor. Three floors are between A and D. The number of
Eight persons -A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are living in the person lives above D is the same as below E. G and D are
eight-floor storey building such that the lowermost floor living on adjacent floors. The one who lives immediately
is numbered as 1, the floor just above it is numbered as 2 above F is living four floors above C. H lives on neither
and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 8. All the floor 8 nor floor 5.
information is not necessarily in the same order. 1) Which of the following statement is/are true?
I). Three floors are between C and A
Page 241 of 1079
II). H lives on the third floor floor is numbered as 6. H lives on even-numbered floor
III). F lives two floors above E immediately above T. Two persons are living between
A. Both I and III T and K. L lives immediately above Q who lives below
B. Only III I. I lives above L. Then on which of the following floor
C. Both I and II does I live?
D. Both II and III A. First floor
E. None is true B. Second floor
2) Which of the following combination of the persons C. Third floor
is living on the adjacent floor? D. Fourth floor
A.DB E. Fifth floor
B.EA Direction (6-10): Study the following information
C.CG carefully and answer the below questions.
D.HF There are eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W live on
E.ED eight different floors of the building such that the
3) What is the position of G from the top of the lowermost floor is numbered as 1, floor just above it is
building? numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered
A. Second as 8. All the information is not necessarily in the same
B. First order.
C. Third S lives on an odd numbered floor but above floor number
D. Fourth 4. R lives two floors below the one who lives immediately
E. Fifth below U. More than three floors are between Q and V. The
4) How many persons live between G and B? number of persons lives above T is one more than the
A. 4 numbers of persons lives below S.W lives on the adjacent
B.3 floor of neither V nor T.U lives two floors above V.Q lives
C.1 immediately above S.
D.5 6) Who among the following person lives three floors
E.None of these above P?
5) Six persons are living on the six-storey building such A.The one who lives immediately above W
that the ground floor is numbered as 1 and the floor B.U
just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost C.The one who lives two floors below V
Page 242 of 1079

D.R C.Both I and II

E.None of these D.All I, II and III
7) What is the position of S from the top of the E.None of these
building? Direction (11-15): Study the following information
A.Third carefully and answer the below questions.
B.Fourth Seven employees are living in the building which contains
C.Sixth seven floors. The bottom floor is numbered as 1 and
D.Fifth immediate above floor as 2 and so on till the topmost floor
E.Second is numbered as 7.
8) How many floors are between W and R? G lives two floors above F. Not more than two persons
A.Same as between Q and P live above C. G lives adjacent floor of C. One person lives
B.Same as between T and U between D and B. B lives adjacent floor of G but not on
C.Three the top floor. The number of persons lives between B and
D.Same as between V and S. A is same as the number of persons live between E and G.
E.All of the above E doesn’t live in an even-numbered floor.
9) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way 11) Who lives two floors below E?
and hence form a group. Who among the following one A.B
does not belong to the group? B.A
A.Q C.C
B.W D.F
C.U E.None of these
D.R 12) How many persons live between C and F?
E.P A.One
10) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with B.Two
respect to T? C.Three
I). T lives on the lowermost floor D.Four
II). Only one floor between T and V E.None of these
III). T lives immediately below R 13) Number of persons lives above of A are same as
A.Both I and III number of persons lives below of _____?
B.Only III A.B
Page 243 of 1079

B.C 16) How many persons live between U and one who
C.D lives immediately below P?
D.F A.3
E.None of these B.4
14) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way C.2
and hence from the group. Who among the following D.5
one does not belongs to the group? E.None of these
A.D 17) Who lives on the sixth floor?
B.C A.S
C.G B.Q
D.E C.T
E.B D.P
15) Who lives immediately below B? E.None of these
A.A 18) Who lives exactly between R and U?
B.D A.S
C.G B.P
D.F C.Q
E.None of these D.T
carefully and answer the below questions. 19) Persons live between R and Q is one less than the
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are lives in eight- persons live between W and _____
floor building. The lowermost floor is numbered as 1, the A.V
immediate above floor is numbered as 2 and so on till the B.S
topmost floor is numbered as 8. All the information is not C.U
necessarily in the same order. T lives two floors above R. D.R
Both T and R are lives on the odd numbered floor. Two E.None of these
persons live between R and Q. Number of person’s lives 20) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
above U is the same as lives below P. U lives adjacent to and so form a group. Which is the one does not belong
the floor of both S and Q’s floor. As many persons lives to that group?
between S and W are the same as between T and V. A.S
Page 244 of 1079

B.P A.G
C.W B.E
D.T C.A
E.Q D.F
Direction (21-25): Study the following information E.C
carefully and answer the questions below 24) Which of the following statements is/are true?
There are seven floors in a multi-storey building. Persons A.E lives on4th floor.
i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on seven different floors. B.C lives on2nd floor.
The lowermost floor is numbered as 1, the floor just above C. Only one floor is there between B and E
it is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost floor which D. Both a) and b) are true
is numbered as 7. All the information is not necessarily in E. Both a) and c) are true
the same order. 25) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
F lives on the 5th floor. A lives immediately below E who and hence form a group find which one of the following
lives on an even-numbered floor. B lives immediately does not belong to that group?
above D. A lives above D. Only one floor is there between A.C
the floor in which F and G live. B.F
21) On which floor does G live? C.A
A.3rd floor D.D
B.4th floor E.G
C.2nd floor Direction (26-30): Study the following information
D.6th floor carefully and answer the below questions.
E.7th floor Seven SBI trainees stayed in their allotted rooms which
22) How many floors are there between C and D? are in seven floor building. Each floor contains single
A. Two room. The bottom-most floor is numbered as 1 and
B. Three immediate above floor as 2 and so on till the top most floor
C. Four is numbered as 7.
D. Five K stays two floors above M’s floor. M stays on an odd
E. None numbered floor. Two persons stay between K and I.
23) Who among the following lives immediately above Number of persons stays above N’s floor is as same as the
the floor of B? Number of persons stays below K’s floor. More than one
Page 245 of 1079

person stays between N and O. Number of person’s stays E.None of these

between L and J are one less than the number of persons 30) What is the floor number of I?
stays between O and I. L stay above J but not immediately A.2nd
above. B.4th
26) How many persons are staying between N and M? C.6th
A.3 D.5th
B.4 E.None of these
C.2 Direction (31-35): Study the following information
D.5 carefully and answer the below questions.
E.None of these Vacation tour of six cricketers - Virat, Rohit, Jadeja,
27) Who stays four floors above O? Chalal, Rahul and Hardik are staying in the hotel which
A.N contains seven floors. The bottom floor is numbered as 1
B.I and the immediate above floor is 2 and so on till the
C.M topmost floor is numbered as 7. All the information is not
D.J necessarily in the same order.
E.None of these The vacant floor is neither at the top nor at the bottom
28) Number of persons between M and J are one less floor. Jadeja doesn’t stay on the bottom floor. Virat stays
than the persons between K and _____? on the even numbered floor. Rohit stays three floors above
A.O Chalal’s floor. Chalal stays on the adjacent floor to Virat’s
B.I floor. The vacant floor is two floors below Hardik’s floor.
C.L Two floors are between Rahul and Jadeja’s floor, who stay
D.N below the Rahul floor.
E.None of these 31) How many persons are staying between Virat and
29) All the persons are arranged in alphabetical order Rahul?
from top to bottom then the positions of how many A.3
persons are remained unchanged? B.4
A.2 C.2
B.4 D.5
C.1 E.None of these
D.None 32) Who stays two floors above of Virat’s floor?
Page 246 of 1079

A.Hardik floors of a seven stories building but not necessarily in the

B.Rohit same order. The bottom-most floor is the 1st floor above
C.Chalal its 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is the seventh
D. None floor.
E.None of these Dipti lives on an even number floor. Only one person lives
33) Who stays immediate above of the vacant floor? between Dipti and Smriti. Smriti lives above Dipti. Three
A.Rohit persons live between Monika and Sakshi. Monika lives
B.Hardik below Sakshi. The number of persons lives below Monika
C.Virat is the same as the number of person lives above Taniya.
D.Rahul Taniya does not live on the top floor. Mithali lives above
E.None of these Richa. Monika lives below Mithali.
34) As many persons are between Rahul and Jadeja 36) Who among the following lives on the fourth floor?
are same as between Virat and _____? A.Mithali
A.Hardik B.Smriti
B.Rohit C.Taniya
C.Jadeja D.Dipti
D.Chalal E.None of these
E.None of these 37) How many persons live above of Mithali?
35) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way A.4
thus forms a group. Find the odd one which does not B.1
belongs to the group? C.2
A.Hardik – Rahul D.5
B.Jadeja – Virat E.None of these
C.Chalal – Virat 38) How many persons live between Richa and Dipti?
D.Rahul – Jadeja A.4
E.Jadeja – Rohit B.3
Direction (36-40): Study the following information C.2
carefully and answer the questions given below it. D.1
There are seven women namely Dipti, Mithali, Monika, E.None of these
Richa, Sakshi, Smriti, and Taniya live on seven different 39) Taniya lives on which floor?
Page 247 of 1079

A.Fourth A.T
B.Third B.L
C.Fifth C.N
D.Sixth D.U
40) The number of persons lives between Sakshi and 42) How many persons live between L and W?
Dipti is same as the number of persons lives between A.2
Richa and ____? B.1
A.Dipti C.3
B.Taniya D.None
C.Monika E.None of these
D.Mithali 43) Who among the following does not belong to the
E.None of these group to which others belong to?
Direction (41-45): Study the following information A.M
carefully and answer the below questions. B.O
Eight persons L, M, N, O, T, U, V and W are living on C.L
eight floors of a building such that the ground floor is D.T
numbered one and the immediate above floor is number E.W
two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 8. All the 44) Who among the following lives immediately above
information is not necessarily in the same order. the floor on which V lives?
There are as many persons live between L and O as A.N
between O and M. The number of persons living between B.W
N and W is more than three. L lives on an odd-numbered C.U
floor but not on the first floor. There is only one person D.T
living between V and U. Three persons live between T and E.None of these
O who lives below L. U lives on one of the floors below 45) Which of the following statements is true about W?
N. T does not live on an even-numbered floor. T does not A.W lives on an odd numbered floor
live on the lowermost floor. V lives above U. B.W lives three floors below L
41) Who among the following persons lives on the C.W lives immediately below U
topmost floor? D. W lives above O
Page 248 of 1079

E. None is true D.3

Direction (46-50): Study the following information E. More than three
carefully and answer the questions given below. 48) As many persons live above Q is same as the person
Eight persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S live on eight lives below ____?
floors of a building not necessarily in the same order. The A.L
floors are numbered such that the lowermost floor is B.P
numbered one; the floor just above it is numbered two and C.S
so on till the topmost floor is number eighth. D.R
R lives on third from the top of the building. Only one E.N
person lives between Q and R. S lives on an even- 49) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. M lives and hence forms a group. Which of the following does
immediately above S’s floor. P lives on the bottom-most not belong to the group?
floor. Only one person lives between O and L, who lives A.N
on one of the floors below R. N lives on one of the floors B.R
above L. C.L
46) Who lives on the 7th floor? D.Q
A.Q E.S
B.O 50) Which of the following pairs represent the persons
C.R living at the topmost and bottom-most floors
D.L respectively?
E.S A.Q, P
47) How many persons live between L and P? B.P, N
A. None C.P, Q
B.1 D.Q, N
C.2 E.N, P
Floor Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

Direction (1-4): 4. Answer: E
1. Answer: B Explanation
2. Answer: B
3. Answer: B
Page 249 of 1079
7. The one who lives immediately above F is living

1. A is living on the odd-numbered floor but below
four floors above C.
the fourth floor.
8. From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated.
2. Three floors are between A and D.
possibilities.
9. H lives on neither floor 8 nor floor 5.

10. From the above condition, case1a gets eliminated.
11. Case1 shows the final arrangement.
4. The number of person lives above D is the same as
below E.
5. G and D are living on adjacent floors.
6. From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
Page 250 of 1079

5.Answer: E 1. S lives on an odd numbered floor but above the
Explanation floor number 4.

2. Q lives immediately above S.
possibilities.
Direction (6-10):
6.Answer: A
7.Answer: E
8.Answer: E
9.Answer: C
10.Answer: D
4. The number of persons lives above T is one more
Explanation
than the number of person lives below S.
5. U lives two floors above V.
6. More than three floors are between Q and V.
Page 251 of 1079

7. Case-1 gets eliminated since U lives two floors Explanation

above V.
8. R lives two floors below the one who lives 1. Seven employees are living in the building which
immediately below U. contains seven floors.
9. Case-2a gets eliminated because we cannot fix R. 2. The bottom floor is numbered as 1 and immediate
10. W lives adjacent floor of neither V nor T. above floor as 2 and so on.
3. The top floor is numbered as 7.
4. G lives two floors above F.
5. Not more than two persons live above C.
6. G lives adjacent floor of C.
7. One person lives between D and B. B lives
adjacent floor of G but not on the top floor.
Direction (11-15):
11.Answer: C
12.Answer: B
13.Answer: D
14.Answer: C
15.Answer: D
Page 252 of 1079

8. As many persons live between B and A are the Direction (16-20):
same as many persons live between E and G. 16.Answer: D
9. E doesn’t live on an even numbered floor. 17.Answer: B
10. So, case 2 and case 3 get eliminated. 18.Answer: D

19.Answer: B
20.Answer: D
Explanation
11. So the final arrangement is,
1. T lives two floors above R.

2. Both T and R are lives on the odd-numbered floor.
Page 253 of 1079
3. Two persons live between R and Q.

4. U lives adjacent to the floor of both S and Q’s
floor.
5. Number of person’s lives above of U is the same Direction (21-25):

as lives below of P. 21. Answer: E
6. So, case 1 and case 3 get eliminated. 22. Answer: C
7. As many persons lives between S and W are the 23. Answer: C
same as between T and V. 24. Answer: E
25. Answer: A
Explanation
1. From the given statements, F lives on the 5th floor.
2. A lives immediately below E who lives on an even
numbered floor.
3. It means E lives either on the 2nd floor or 4th floor.
4. E living on the 6th floor is not possible since A
lives immediately below E. So we have two
possible cases i.e. case-1 and case-2:
Page 254 of 1079

Direction (26-30):
26.Answer: A
5. Only one floor is there between the floor in which 27.Answer: B
F and G live. Again we have another case i.e. case- 28.Answer: C
1a along with case-1 and case-2: 29.Answer: D
30.Answer:C
Explanation
6. B lives immediately above D.

7. A lives above D.
8. So case-1 and case-1a are eliminated.
9. Now the only person left is C and only floor left in
1. K stays two floors above M’s floor.
case-2 is 6th floor so C lives on 6th floor.
2. M stays on an odd numbered floor.
10. So the final arrangement is:
3. Two persons stay between K and I.
Page 255 of 1079

7. The number of person’s stays between L and J are

one less than the number of persons stays between
O and I.
8. L stay above J but not immediately above.
9. So, case 3 gets eliminated now.
4. The number of persons stays above N’s floor is as

same as the Number of persons stays below K’s
floor.
5. So, case 2 gets eliminated.
6. More than one person stays between N and O.
Direction (31-35):
31.Answer: C
Page 256 of 1079
32.Answer: B 4. The vacant floor is two floors below Hardik’s

33.Answer: D floor.
34.Answer: B 5. Two floors are between Rahul and Jadeja’s floor,
35.Answer: D who stay below the Rahul floor.
Explanation 6. The vacant floor is neither at the top nor at the
bottom floor. Jadeja doesn’t stay on the bottom
floor. So, case 2 and case 3 get eliminated.
1. Virat stays on the even numbered floor.

2. Rohit stays three floors above Chalal’s floor.
3. Chalal stays immediate to Virat’s floor.
Page 257 of 1079

Direction (36-40): 6. Monika lives below Sakshi.

36.Answer: B 7. The number of persons lives below Monika is the
37.Answer: B same as the number of person lives above Taniya.
38.Answer: E 8. Taniya does not live on the top floor.
39.Answer: C
40.Answer: D
Explanation
9. Mithali lives above Richa.
1. Dipti lives on an even number floor.

2. Only one person lives between Dipti and Smriti.
3. Smriti lives above Dipti.
4. Here, we have the following cases.
10. Monika lives below Mithali. Here, Case-1 is

eliminated.
5. Three persons live between Monika and Sakshi.
Page 258 of 1079

Hence, the Final solution is Case-2. L lives on an odd-numbered floor but not on the first floor.
Three persons live between T and O who lives below L.
T does not live on an even numbered floor.
There are as many persons live between L and O as
between O and M.
Direction (41-45):
41.Answer: C
42.Answer: A
43.Answer: E
44.Answer: D
45.Answer: B So, case 3 gets eliminated because no place left for M.
Explanation T doesn’t live on the lowermost floor. From the

statements, we get
Page 259 of 1079

48.Answer: A
49.Answer: C
50.Answer: E
Explanation
Case-2 gets eliminated because T does not live on the

lowermost floor.
U lives on one of the floors below N.
There is only one person living between V and U. R lives on the third floor from the top of the building. Only
The number of persons living between N and W is more one person lives between Q and R.
than three.
V lives above U.
From the statements, we get
S lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the topmost

floor. M lives immediately above S’s floor. P lives on the
Direction (46-50): bottom-most floor.
46.Answer: B
47.Answer: D
Page 260 of 1079
Only one person lives between O and L, who lives on one Since L and O cannot be placed, Case 1a gets cancelled
of the floors below R. and since N cannot be placed above L, Case 1b gets
So, case 1a gets eliminated. cancelled.
N lives on one of the floors above L. Hence case 2 will be the final arrangement.
So, Case 1b also gets eliminated.
Order and Ranking Puzzle (Higher Lesser Type)

Directions (1-3): Study the following information (a) One
carefully and answer the below questions. (b) Two
In the group of six friends are arranged in (c) Three
descending order based on their heights, X is taller than (d) Four
W. Only two persons are shorter than U. At least three (e) None of these
persons between Z and Y. X is shorter than V. Neither Y 3) If Z is shorter than U, then how many persons are
nor Z is the tallest. taller than Y?
1) Who is the second tallest person in the group? (a) 2
(a) V (b) 1
(b) Y (c) 3
(c) Z (d) 4
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
(e) Other than the given option Directions (4-6): Study the following information
2) How many persons are shorter than X? carefully and answer the below questions.
Page 261 of 1079

Five persons are listed based on their weights. Jose taught after English which is taught before French. At
is heavier than Lita, who is lighter than Sara. Nibn is least one subject taught before Science.
heavier than Anup who is lighter than Lita. At least two 7) Which of the following subject is taught at the last?
persons are weighted in between Nibn and Lita. Sara is (a) Social
not the second heaviest person. The third lightest person’s (b) French
weight is 57kg. (c) Maths
4) Who is the second heaviest person? (d) Science
(a) Jose (e) Other than the given option
(b) Lita 8) Which of the following subject is taught second after
(c) Nibn Science?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) Science
(e) None of these (b) Maths
5) If Anup is 12kg lighter than Sara, then what is the (c) French
possible weight of Lita? (d) Social
(a) 24kg (e) None of these
(b) 33kg 9) How many subjects are taught between French and
(c) 42kg Science?
(d) 51kg (a) None
(e) None of these (b) One
6)How many persons are heavier than Lita? (c) Two
(a) One (d) Three
(b) Two (e) None of these
(c) Three Directions (10-11): Study the following information
(d) Four carefully and answer the below questions.
(e) None of these Six cricket players are played IPL 2020 and listed
Directions (7-9): Study the following information in quick fifties (based on the number of balls) from top to
carefully and answer the below questions. bottom. Rahul takes fewer balls than Gayle, who takes
Five lectures of different subjects are taught in a school. more balls than Sharma. Two players between Gayle and
Science subject is taught before Social. Two lectures are Virat who is either second from Top or bottom. Only one
taught between Maths and Social. Only two subjects are player is between Pooran and Rahul who takes fewer balls
Page 262 of 1079

than both Sharma and Hardik. Not more than three players 13) Who has the highest accuracy in the English
between Rahul and Hardik. section?
10) Who among the following player is third from the (a) Jay
top in the list? (b) Max
(a) Sharma (c) Kai
(b) Hardik (d) Ali
(c) Rahul (e) None of these
(d) Pooran Directions (14-15): Study the following information
(e) None of these carefully and answer the below questions.
11) How many players are between Pooran and Gayle? Fives friends – Ahmed, Chris, Josh, Sam and Shaw
(a) None are having a different number of toffees. Shaw has more
(b) One toffees than Sam, who have more toffees than Chris.
(c) Two Ahmed has less toffees than Josh but more toffees than
(d) Three Shaw. Sam has 23 toffees which are 18 less than the one
(e) None of these who has the second-highest number of toffees.
Directions (12-13): Study the following information 14) What are the possible toffees does Shaw have?
carefully and answer the below questions. (a) 42
Group of five friends – Ali, Jay, Kai, Leo and Max (b) 22
have different accuracy in the English section listed from (c) 37
top to bottom. Kai has more accuracy than Jay. Leo has (d) Either a or b
less accuracy than Ali who has high accuracy than Jay. (e) Either a or c
Leo has less accuracy than Jay. Neither Kai nor Ali has 15) The sum of the toffees having by Josh and Sam are
the highest accuracy in the English section. 75, what is the difference between the toffees having by
12) What is the possible position of Ali from the Josh and Ahmed?
bottom? (a) 14
(a) Third (b) 11
(b) Second (c) 24
(c) Fourth (d) 9
(d) Either a or b (e) None of these
(e) Either a or c
Page 263 of 1079

Directions (16-18): Study the following information in between L and K who scored less than O. Only two
carefully and answer the below questions. persons are scored less mark than O. J scored less than N
Five persons A, B, C, D and E are arranged based but more than K. Neither N nor O is adjacent to M in the
on their heights. A is taller than B who is shorter than D. order. J scored 66 marks which is 12 marks more than K.
E is taller than C but shorter than B. D is not the tallest. 19) Who among the following one gets the third-
The second tallest and the second shortest person’s highest marks?
heights are 172cm and 154cm respectively. (a) N
16) Who is the second tallest person in the group? (b) L
(a) B (c) J
(b) E (d) O
(c) A (e) Other than the given option
(d) Cannot be determined 20) What is the possible mark scored by the one who
(e) Other than the given option gets the third-lowest marks?
17) How many persons are taller than the one whose (a) 68
possible height is 167cm? (b) 72
(a) One (c) 59
(b) Two (d) 48
(c) Three (e) Cannot be determined
(d) Four 21) The sum of the marks scored by K and N is 141,
(e) Cannot be determined and then what is the possible mark scored by L?
18) What is the possible height for B? (a) 93
(a) 173 cm (b) 45
(b) 145 cm (c) 62
(c) 162 cm (d) 88
(d) 157 cm (e) None of these
(e) Either c or d Directions (22-24): Study the following information
Directions (19-21): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
carefully and answer the below questions. IPL has released the top 6 teams of Fair play award
Six persons are arranged in the order based on their list based on the points get by the team out of 100. Two
mark from top to bottom. Two persons have scored marks teams have get points in between CSK and SRH. DC has
Page 264 of 1079

a point which is two less than SRH. RCB has more points Three persons are between S and T who is heavier than R.
than SRH which is not in the last position. MI has more Sum of the weights of 2nd, 4th & 6th heaviest persons’ are
points than RCB but less than both CSK and KKR. 190 kg and the ratio of their weights is 16:13:9
Difference between the points of DC and the team with respectively.
the highest points is 42. 25) Who is the third-heaviest person?
22) Which team has second from the top in the list? (a) Q
(a) KKR (b) T
(b) MI (c) R
(c) CSK (d) U
(d) DC (e) Other than the given option
(e) Other than the given option 26) What is the possible weight of R?
23) If the point of MI is 69 and the difference between (a) 65 Kg
the points of MI and SRH is 16, then what is the point (b) 75 Kg
of KKR? (c) 45 Kg
(a) 87 (d) 80 Kg
(b) 93 (e) Cannot be determined
(c) 79 27) What is the sum of the weights of P and T?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) 173 Kg
(e) None of these (b) 145 Kg
24) How many teams are between DC and CSK? (c) 162 Kg
(a) One (d) 157 Kg
(b) Two (e) None of these
(c) Three Directions (28-30): Study the following information
(d) Four carefully and answer the below questions.
(e) None of these Five different colour wallets have a different amount of
Directions (25-27): Study the following information money. The black wallet has more money than White
carefully and answer the below questions. coloured wallet. Blue wallet has less money than Red
Six persons are ordered based on their weights coloured wallet but it does not have the least money. The
from heaviest to lightest. Two persons are between Q and violet coloured wallet has half of the amount of money
P who is lighter than R. U is heavier than only one person. that red coloured wallet has. The white coloured wallet
Page 265 of 1079

has more money than red coloured wallet but it does not after G. Only one athlete is between I and J. I finish before
have a third-highest amount of money. G.
28) If the black wallet has Rs.1380, which is 300 more 31) Who among the following finish the race at last?
than Red wallet, then what is the amount that Violet (a) I
wallet has? (b) G
(a) 690 (c) H
(b) 540 (d) Cannot be determined
(c) 580 (e) Other than the given option
(d) Cannot be determined 32) How many athletes have finished the race between
(e) Other than the given option G and F?
29) How many wallets have less money than a violet (a) One
wallet? (b) Two
(a) One (c) Three
(b) Two (d) None
(c) Three (e) Cannot be determined
(d) None 33) If all the athletes are arranged in the alphabetical
(e) None of these order from top to bottom, how many athletes’
30) How many wallets are there between Blue and the positions remain unchanged?
wallet with the second-highest amount? (a) One
(a) One (b) Two
(b) Two (c) Three
(c) Three (d) Four
(d) None (e) Five
(e) None of these Directions (34-36): Study the following information
Directions (31-33): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
carefully and answer the below questions. Five persons are arranged based on their heights
Five athletes are listed based on their finishing and weights. Joe is taller than Anu who is lighter than Aji.
timing of 100m race. J finishes before F who is not the last Ben is taller than Sam but lighter than Anu. The second-
one to finish the race. G finishes before H who is not the heaviest person is the tallest. Aji is lighter and shorter than
second person from the top. At least two athletes finish
Page 266 of 1079

Sam. The shortest person is not the heaviest person. Anu 37) If the one who scored highest runs scored 3 runs
is taller than Ben. more than John, then what is the possible run scored
34) Who among the following one is the third-shortest by Mathew?
person? (a) 100
(a) Sam (b) 90
(b) Aji (c) 95
(c) Ben (d) Cannot be determined
(d) Anu (e) Other than the given option
(e) Other than the given option 38) If John scored second highest runs, then how many
35) Who is the lightest person? persons are there between Brave and Mathew?
(a) Aji (a) One
(b) Anu (b) Two
(c) Joe (c) Three
(d) Sam (d) Four
(e) Other than the given option (e) Cannot be determined
36) What is the sum of the persons shorter and heavier 39) Who scored the least runs?
than Anu? (a) Smith
(a) 2 (b) Mathew
(b) 4 (c) Brave
(c) 6 (d) Can’t be determined
(d) 5 (e) None of these
(e) None of these Directions (40-42): Study the following information
Directions (37-39): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions
carefully and answer the below questions. Six different brands of Television- LG, Sony, Hitachi, MI,
Top five cricket players are listed based on their Samsung, and TCL are arranged in descending order
runs from top to bottom. Mathew has scored more runs according to its lengths. There are two televisions in
than Vicky. Brave has scored less runs than John who between TCL and Hitachi. The length of Sony TV is more
scored is 98 runs. Smith has scored more runs than than MI but less than TCL. The length of LG is more than
Mathew. At least two players are between smith and Hitachi which length is more than only Samsung. The
Vicky who has not scored the least runs. length of LG is 75inches and MI is 50inches.
Page 267 of 1079

40) If the sum of the lengths of TCL and MI is 115 (c) 16 yrs
inches then what may be the length of TCL? (d) 18 yrs
A.45inches (e) Other than the given option
B.65 inches 44) How many persons are elder than V?
C.80 inches (a) One
D.85 inches (b) Two
E.None of these (c) Three
41) How many Televisions have more lengths than MI? (d) Four
A.1 (e) None of these
B.2 45) The sum of the ages of U and W is 95 yrs then what
C.3 is the age of W?
D.4 (a) 72 yrs
E.None (b) 45 yrs
42) What may be the length of Samsung TV? (c) 61 yrs
A.58 inches (d) 67 yrs
B.55 inches (e) None of these
C.54 inches 46) In a class, there are 45 students, Arjun got
D.50 inches 12th rank from the top, seven boys are in front of
E.None of the above Arjun. 20 girls are behind Arjun. No one is to fail in
Directions (43-45): Study the following information the class. Then how many boys are in the class?
carefully and answer the below questions. A.18
Six friends U, V, W, X, Y and Z are listed based B.21
on their ages. X is younger than Y who is elder than V. C.22
Only two persons are younger than X. U is younger than D.20
W but elder than V. More than two persons are between E.none
Y and Z. Y is not the eldest person. The second youngest Explanation
and third eldest person’s ages are 19 and 34 respectively. 47) Among five friends J, D, U, L and S each of them
43) What is the possible age of X? is of different heights, U is taller than only J. D is taller
(a) 38 yrs than U and L but not as tall as S. Who among them is
(b) 42 yrs the third-tallest?
Page 268 of 1079

a) J are 57 persons in the queue. Then how many persons

b) U are there between Manoj and Shaw?
c) D (a) 13
d) S (b) 7
e) L (c) 9
48) Among A, D, K, J and M each of them is in (d) 11
different weights, M is lighter than K. D is heavier than (e) None of these
only J. A is lighter than K. Who will be the second- 50) A certain number of employees sit in a row. A is
heaviest person? 14th from the left end and L is 7th from the right end. If
a) M there are 16 employees between A and L, then how
b) A many employees are there in the row?
c) K (a) 27
d) Cannot be determined (b) 37
e) None of these (c) 39
49) In a queue, Manoj is standing 16th from the front (d) 47
and Arun is standing 22nd from the last. While Shaw is (e) Other than the given option
standing exactly between Manoj and Arun and there
Order and Ranking – Answer and Explanation

Directions (1-3): 2) Answer: C
3) Answer: B
Directions (4-6):
1) Answer: D
Page 269 of 1079
4) Answer: A
5) Answer: D
6) Answer: C
Directions (7-9):
12)Answer: E
13) Answer: B
Directions (14-15):
7) Answer: B
8) Answer: D
9) Answer: C
Directions (10-11):
14) Answer: C
15) Answer: B
Directions (16-18):
10) Answer: C
11) Answer: D
Directions (12-13):
16) Answer: E
17) Answer: B
Page 270 of 1079
18) Answer: E
Directions (19-21):
24) Answer: C
Directions (25-27):
19) Answer: C
20) Answer: C
21) Answer: E
Directions (22-24):
25) Answer: C
26) Answer: B
27) Answer: B
Directions (28-30):
22) Answer: C
23) Answer: B
Page 271 of 1079

28) Answer: B 34) Answer: C

29) Answer: D 35) Answer: E
30) Answer: A 36) Answer: C
Directions (31-33): Directions (37-39):
31) Answer: C 37) Answer: D
32) Answer: A 38) Answer: A
Directions (34-36): Directions (40-42):
40) Answer: B
41) Answer: C
42) Answer: E
Directions (43-45):
Page 272 of 1079
48) Answer: D
43) Answer: E
44) Answer: D
45) Answer: C
46) Answer: B
Before Arjun --> 7 boys and four girls
After Arjun --> 45-12=33 students
33-20=13 boys behind Arjun
13+7+1=21 boys( 1 represent Arjun)
49) Answer: C
47) Answer: E
50) Answer: B
Random Puzzle
Direction: 1-5) Read the following information Trouser and T-shirt but not necessarily in same order.
carefully and answer the questions asked below. Each of these clothes are different brands among Armani,
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have different Adidas, Gucci, Nike, Park Avenue, Polo, Louis Phillipe
types of clothes among Shirt, Shoes, Tie, Socks, Cap, Belt, and Zara.
Page 273 of 1079
F has Armani Belt. B has a cloth of Polo brand. A and E d. E

have Trouser and Cap respectively. Neither G nor H has e. None of the above
Shoes. One person has Nike Shoes. One person has 5) Who among the following has Socks?
Adidas socks. Neither G nor C has a cloth of Adidas. D a. G
does not have socks. Neither B nor C has Tie. One person b. H
has a Louis Phillipe Shirt but not D or G. Neither E nor G c. D
has Zara cloth. No one has Park Avenue Cap. d. E
1) Who among the following has Gucci Cap? e. A
a. F Direction: Read the instructions carefully and answer
b. G the question below.
c. E Ten people are standing in a queue to get their name
d. H registered in the voter’s list. They are A, B, C, D, E, F, G,
e. None of the above H, I and J. Their professions are Teacher, Lawyer,
2) A has _______ Trouser. Student, Artist, Scientist, Doctor and Businessman. There
a. Nike are three teachers and two students.
b. Park Avenue A teacher is standing first in the queue while another
c. Armani teacher is standing at the very last. H is a Doctor and he is
d. Zara standing at the sixth position. There are four people
e. Polo between H and A. B is a teacher but he is neither at the
3) G has a Tie of which brand? first nor at the last. I is a scientist while D is a student who
a. Gucci is at eighth position. There are two people between D and
b. Nike I. The person who is a businessman is immediately before
c. Park Avenue D. B is immediately next to D. C is a lawyer and is
d. Polo standing at the second position. F is a businessman while
e. Zara J is a teacher. G is standing immediately after E, who is a
4) Who among the following has cloth of Louis Phillipe Student.
brand? 6) What is the position of G in the queue?
a. C a. Fourth
b. D b. Third
c. F c. Fifth
Page 274 of 1079

d. Sixth colleges I, II and III with at least two in each college. Each
e. Seventh of them has a favorite subject – English, History,
7) The person standing between C and G is ________. Geography, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and
a. Teacher Biology, not necessarily in the same order.
b. Student Devi’s favorite subject is Physics and studies in college II
c. Artist only with Mamatha. Hema doesn’t study in college I and
d. Businessman she likes English. Farhan studies in college III and doesn’t
e. Doctor like Mathematics. Those who like Geography and
8) Who is standing fifth from the last in the queue? Chemistry study in the same college. William likes
a. J Biology and doesn’t study in College I. Ravi doesn’t study
b. B with Hema. Ravi doesn’t like Chemistry. Mamatha
c. D doesn’t like History.
d. F 11) Which of the following groups of students in college
e. H III?
9) What is the profession of D? a. Farhan, Thanusha, Ravi
a. Teacher b. Farhan, William, Ravi
b. Student c. Farhan, Mamatha
c. Artist d. Data inadequate
d. Businessman e. Other than those given as options
e. Doctor 12) What is Thanusha’s favorite subject?
10) Who among the following is the Artist? a. Chemistry
a. J b. Biology
b. B c. Mathematics
c. G d. Geography
d. F e. Data inadequate
e. H 13) Which of the following group of students study in
Directions: 11-15 Study the following information and college I?
answer the below given questions. a. Thanusha, Hema
Mamatha, Thanusha, Devi, Farhan, Hema, Ravi and b. Hema, Ravi
William are seven students studying in three different c. Thanusha, Ravi
Page 275 of 1079

d. Hema, Farhan c. HR
e. Data inadequate d. Officer
14) What is Mamatha’s favorite subject? e. Manager
a. Geography 17) Who among the following joined after the
b. Chemistry Technician joined?
c. Mathematics a. Sales Executive
d. Data inadequate b. Assistant Manager
e. Other than those given as options c. HR
15) In which college do three of them study? d. Officer
a. I e. Manager
b. II 18) The HR lies in between the persons joining the
c. III company on?
d. II or III a. Tuesday and Thursday
e. Data inadequate b. Thursday and Saturday
Directions: 16-20 Study the following information c. Monday and Wednesday
carefully and answer the questions given below. d. Wednesday and Friday
Six persons X, Y, Z, M, N and P took up a job with a e. None of these
company from Monday to Saturday. Each of them joined 19) Who joined the company on Wednesday?
for different posts in different days. The posts are- HR, a. Y
Officer, Technician, Manager, Assistant Manager and b. Z
Sales Executive not in the same order. c. Y or Z
P joined as Manager on first day. Y joined as an Assistant d. None of these
Manager but neither on Wednesday nor on Friday. M e. Data inadequate
joined as a Technician on Thursday. Officer joined the 20) Who was the last person to join the company?
company on Wednesday. N joined as a HR on Tuesday. X a. N
joined as a Sales Executive. b. P
16) Who among the following joined after the c. X
Technician joined? d. Y
a. Sales Executive e. None of these
b. Assistant Manager
Page 276 of 1079

Directions: 21-25 Read the following information’s d. Anubhuti

and answer the questions that follow. e. Either Zara or Suzain
There are four boys – Rakesh, Bhuvi, Sachin and Rohit. 24) Who goes to beach?
They want to go out with four girls – Suzain, Zara, a. Mahima
Mahima and Anubhuti but not necessary in the same b. Zara
order. The pairs went to a movie, beach, park and circus. c. Suzain
They like different cars. viz Skoda, Honda, Volkswagen d. Anubhuti
and Tata. Rest of the information is as follows: e. Either Zara or Suzain
Bhuvi goes to park with his partner. Sachin goes to beach 25) Who likes Tata?
with his partner. Zara and Sachin likes Honda while a. Rohit
Suzain likes Volkswagen. Rakesh goes to movie with his b. Rakesh
partner. Rakesh’s partner likes Skoda. Rohit goes to circus c. Bhuvi
with Suzain. Anubhuti goes to park with her partner and d. Sachin
likes Tata. e. Either Bhuvi or Sachin
21) Who goes out with Rakesh? Directions: 26-30) Study the following information
a. Suzain carefully and answer the questions given below.
b. Mahima Eight classmates - Sumit, Shubham, Shiv, Shveta,
c. Zara Shiryansh, Sachin, Savan and Saket are playing eight
d. Can’t be determined different games - Ludo, Carrom, Crossword, Business,
e. None of these Chess, Snakes and Ladders, UNO and Bubble Shooter.
22) Who likes Volkswagen? Shiv is playing a game whose first letter starts with ‘B’.
a. Rohit Shriyansh is playing a game whose last letter is ‘M’.
b. Rakesh Shveta is playing Bubble Shooter. Sachin is playing a
c. Bhuvi game whose first letter starts with ‘C’. Sumit is playing
d. Sachin chess with his best friend. Shubham who is a neighbour of
e. Either Bhuvi or Sachin Savan is playing Snakes and Ladders. Savan is playing
23) Who goes to movie? Ludo. Saket is playing a game whose title is only of 3
a. Mahima Letters.
b. Zara 26) Who among the following is playing Bubble
c. Suzain Shooter?
Page 277 of 1079

a. Savan Direction: 31-35 Read the following information

b. Shveta carefully and answer the questions that follow:
c. Saket Four girls Navya, Kavitha, Appu, Divya and three boys
d. Shiv Praveen, Balu, Varun are from four different colleges I, II,
e. Sachin III, IV and everyone likes only one subject among
27) Who among the following is playing Business? Computers, Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Economics,
a. Shriyansh Sanskrit and Hindi. At least one person and at most two
b. Shveta persons are from the same college. Neither Appu nor
c. Shubham Varun is from the same college. Only Divya is from
d. Shiv college IV and likes Hindi. Navya likes Computers.
e. Sachin Praveen and Navya are from the same college but not from
28) Who is playing Snakes and Ladders? college I. No two girls are from the same college. Varun
a. Sumit likes Economics and is not from college II. Appu likes
b. Shubham neither Chemistry nor Maths. Kavitha likes Physics and is
c. Shiv not from college I. Balu likes Chemistry.
d. Saket 31) Who among the following is/are from college I?
e. Savan a. Appu
29) Who is playing Carrom? b. Balu
a. Sachin c. Navya
b. Savan d. Varun
c. Shveta e. Both 1 and 2
d. Shiv 32) Which of the following pairs is from college II?
e. Shriyansh a. Appu, Varun
30) Which of the following statement is incorrect? b. Balu, Appu
a. Sachin is playing Crossword. c. Praveen, Navya
b. Saket is playing UNO. d. Varun, Kavitha
c. Shveta is playing Bubble Shooter. e. Navya, Varun
d. Shriyansh is playing Chess. 33) Which subject does Appu likes?
e. Shiv is playing Business. a. Sanskrit
b. Physics
Page 278 of 1079

c. Computer 36) Which block was kept by R?

d. Maths a. Rectangle
e. Economics b. Square
34) Which college is Varun from? c. Circular
a. I d. Hexagon
b. II e. Triangle
c. III 37) Which block was kept immediately below the
d. IV triangular block?
e. Cannot be determined a. Rectangle
35) Praveen likes which subject? b. Square
a. Sanskrit c. Circle
b. Physics d. Hexagon
c. Computer e. Octagon
d. Maths 38) Which pair is an incorrect match?
e. Economics a. N-2
Directions: 36-40 Study the information carefully and b. P-1
answer the questions given below. c. Q-6
Six personsM, N, O, P, Q, and R were playing a game d. M-5
where they have to arrange six blocks of different shapes e. O-4
namely Circular, Hexagon, Rectangle, Square, Triangle 39) Which block was kept below the block kept by O?
and Octagon one above the other in the form of a stack. a. Rectangle
Each person put up a different shape which was positioned b. Square
from 1-6 where 1 is the bottom-most position. c. Circle
Only one person kept a block between M and the person d. Hexagon
who kept the rectangle block. M placed hexagon just e. Triangle
below Q. The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position. 40) At which position was circular block kept?
The circular block was kept by R just below M. The a. 1st
triangle was kept at an even position just above P, but not b. 2nd
on the top. The difference in the position of the square c. 3rd
block and the position at which N kept the block is 4. d. 4th
Page 279 of 1079

e. 6th 44) Four among the five are same in a certain way and
Direction: 41-45 Study the following information thus form a group. Which among the following does
carefully and answer the given questions. not belong to the group?
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H play eight a. E - Chess
different sports tennis, cricket, badminton, hockey, b. D - Volleyball
volleyball, football, basketball and chess, not necessarily c. C - Tennis
in the same order. d. F – basketball
Either F or E plays chess. Neither G nor B plays e. G – Football
basketball. B plays either football or badminton. G plays 45) Who plays basketball?
neither badminton nor tennis. A plays hockey. C plays a. E
either tennis or cricket. D and F plays volleyball and b. D
cricket. Neither D nor B plays cricket. c. B
41) Which of the following sport does B play? d. H
a. Chess e. Cannot be determined
b. Football Direction: 46-50 Read the following information and
c. Volleyball answer the questions given below.
d. Badminton Six kids – Aarav, Rahul, Vihaan, Ruhi, Pinki and Pari like
e. Cricket to eat different fruits – Apple, Mango, Banana, Grapes,
42) Who plays football? Strawberry and Cherry (not necessarily in the same order).
a. G They also like to watch different cartoons – Chota Bheem,
b. B Doraemon, Pokemon, Shiva, Barbie and Beyblade (also
c. C not necessarily in the same order).
d. E The one who likes Cherry also likes to watch Beyblade.
e. D Pinki likes to watch Chota Bheem but neither likes to eat
43) Which of the following sport does F play? Mango nor Strawberry. Aarav likes Grapes but doesn’t
a. Chess like to watch Doraemon. Ruhi doesn’t like Banana but
b. Football likes to watch Barbie. Pari neither likes Cherry nor Shiva.
c. Volleyball Rahul likes Banana but neither likes to watch Pokemon
d. Tennis nor Shiva. The one who doesn’t like Strawberry, likes to
e. Cricket watch Pokemon.
Page 280 of 1079

46) Which fruit does Pinki like? c. Vihaan

a. Apple d. Rahul
b. Strawberry e. Pari
c. Grapes 49) Who among the following likes Strawberry?
d. Banana a. Vihaan
e. Cherry b. Pinki
47) Which of the following combination is true? c. Pari
a. Aarav – Grapes – Doraemon d. Ruhi
b. Rahul – Apple – Shiva e. Rahul
c. Ruhi – Mango – Barbie 50) Which cartoon does Aarav like?
d. Pinki – Strawberry – Chota Bheem a. Chota Bheem
e. Pari – Mango – Pokemon b. Shiva
48) Who among the following likes Cherry? c. Doremon
a. Ruhi d. Pokemon
b. Pinki e. Barbie
Random Puzzle – Answer and Explanation

Answers D
1. c
E Cap
2. d
3. c F Belt Armani
4. a
G
5. b
Solutions 1-5 H
Persons Type of Brand of
4. Neither G nor H has Shoes. So, either D or C has Shoes.
Clothes Clothes
5. One person has Nike Shoes.
A Trouser 6. One person has Adidas socks.
7. D does not have socks. So, H must have Adidas socks.
B Polo
Persons Type of Brand of
C Clothes Clothes
Page 281 of 1079

A Trouser G Tie Park Avenue
B Polo H Sock Adidas
C Answers
6. a
D
7. b
E Cap 8. e
9. b
F Belt Armani
10. c
G Solutions 6-10
1) A teacher is standing first in the queue while another
H Sock Adidas
teacher is standing last.
8. One person has a Louis Phillipe Shirt but not D or G. 2) H is a Doctor and he is standing at the sixth position.
So, C must have Louis Phillipe Shirt. Also, D must have 3) There are four people between H and A.
Nike Shoes. Therefore, B must have Polo T-shirt. As there only four people standing after H in the queue,
9. Neither E nor G has Zara cloth. the only choice for A is the first position.
10. No one has Park Avenue Cap. 4) B is a teacher but he is neither at the first nor at the last.
The final table is, Position Person Profession
Persons Type of Brand of in the
Clothes Clothes queue
A Trouser Zara 1 A Teacher
B T-Shirt Polo 2
C Shirt Louis Phillipe 3
D Shoes Nike 4
E Cap Gucci 5
F Belt Armani 6 H Doctor
Page 282 of 1079

7 7 F Businessman
8 8 D Student
9 9 B Teacher
10 Not B Teacher 10 J Teacher
5) I is a scientist while D is a student who is at eighth 11) G is standing immediately after E, who is a Student.
position. (Now only two places are left – third and fourth. Since G
6) There are two people between D and I. is after E. Therefore E is at third and G is at fourth
Therefore, I will be at fifth position. position)
7) The person who is a businessman is immediately before Also, the only choice for profession of G is Artist.
D. Position Person Profession
8) B is immediately next to D. in the
Now from statement 4, we know that B is a teacher. queue
Therefore, B must be standing in the ninth position.
1 A Teacher
9) C is a lawyer and is standing at the second position.
10) F is a businessman while J is a teacher. 2 C Lawyer
Position Person Profession
3 E Student
in the
queue 4 G Artist
1 A Teacher 5 I Scientist
2 C Lawyer 6 H Doctor
3 7 F Businessman
4 8 D Student
5 I Scientist 9 B Teacher
6 H Doctor 10 J Teacher
Answers
Page 283 of 1079

11. e Farhan
12. a
Hema III English
13. c
14. c Ravi
15. c
William
Solutions 11-15
1) Devi’s favorite subject is Physics and studies in college 3) Farhan studies in college III and doesn’t like
II only with Mamatha. Mathematics.
Therefore, Devi and Mamatha only studies in college II. Student College Subject
Student College Subject
Mamatha II
Mamatha II
Thanusha
Thanusha
Devi II Physics
Devi II Physics
Farhan III
Farhan
Hema III English
Hema
Ravi
Ravi
William
William
4) William likes Biology and doesn’t study in College I.
2) Hema doesn’t study in college I and she likes English. Devi and Mamatha only studies in college II. So, William
Devi and Mamatha only studies in college II. So, Hema should study in college III.
should study in college III. Student College Subject
Student College Subject
Mamatha II
Mamatha II
Thanusha
Thanusha
Devi II Physics
Devi II Physics
Farhan III
Page 284 of 1079

Hema III English Devi II Physics
Ravi Farhan III
William III Biology Hema III English
5) Ravi doesn’t study with Hema. So, Ravi studies in Ravi I Geography
college I.
William III Biology
Given, at least two students in each college.
So, Thanusha also studies in college I. 8) Mamatha doesn’t like History. So, Mamatha likes
Student College Subject Mathematics.
Farhan likes History.
Mamatha II
The final arrangement will be as shown:
Thanusha I Student College Subject
Devi II Physics Mamatha II Mathematics
Farhan III Thanusha I Chemistry
Hema III English Devi II Physics
Ravi I Farhan III History
William III Biology Hema III English
6) Those who like Geography and Chemistry study in the Ravi I Geography
same college.
William III Biology
So, the only possibility is they should study in college I.
7) Ravi doesn’t like Chemistry. So, Ravi likes Geography Answers
and Thanusha likes Chemistry. 16. a
Student College Subject 17. a
18. c
Mamatha II
19. b
Thanusha I Chemistry 20. d
Solutions 16-20
Page 285 of 1079

1) P joined as Manager on first day. Monday P Manager

2) N joined as a HR on Tuesday.
Tuesday N HR
3) M joined as a Technician on Thursday.
4) Officer joined the company on Wednesday. Wednesday Z Officer
Day Person Post
Thursday M Technician
Monday P Manager
Friday X Sales Executive
Tuesday N HR
Saturday Y Assistant Manager
Wednesday Officer
Answers
Thursday M Technician 21. b
22. a
Friday
23. a
Saturday 24. b
25. c
5) Y joined as an Assistant Manager but neither on
Solutions 21-25
Wednesday nor on Friday.
1) Rohit goes to circus with Suzain.
Day Person Post
2) Bhuvi goes to park with his partner.
Monday P Manager 3) Zara and Sachin likes Honda while Suzain likes
Volkswagen.
Tuesday N HR
Boy Girl Car Place
Wednesday Officer
Rohit Suzain Volkswagen Circus
Thursday M Technician
Rakesh
Friday
Sachin Zara Honda
Saturday Y Assistant Manager
Bhuvi Park
6) X joined as a Sales Executive.
4) Rakesh goes to movie with his partner.
Day Person Post
5) Rakesh’s partner likes Skoda.
Page 286 of 1079

Boy Girl Car Place Shubham
Rohit Suzain Volkswagen Circus Shiv
Rakesh Skoda Movie Shveta Bubble

Shooter
Sachin Zara Honda
Shriyansh
Bhuvi Park
Sachin
6) Anubhuti goes to park with her partner and likes Tata.
7) Sachin goes to beach with his partner. Savan
(Since the only left person is Mahima thus Mahima will
Saket
be Rakesh’s partner.)
Boy Girl Car Place 2) Sumit is playing chess with his best friend.
Classmate Game
Rohit Suzain Volkswagen Circus
Sumit Chess
Rakesh Mahima Skoda Movie
Shubham
Sachin Zara Honda Beach
Shiv
Bhuvi Anubhuti Tata Park
Shveta Bubble
Answers
Shooter
26. b
27. d Shriyansh
28. b
Sachin
29. e
30. d Savan
Solutions 26-30
Saket
1) Shveta is playing Bubble Shooter.
Classmate Game 3) Shubham who is a neighbour of Savan is playing
Snakes and Ladders.
Sumit
Classmate Game
Page 287 of 1079

Sumit Chess Sachin Carrom /

Crossword
Shubham Snakes And
Ladders Savan
Shiv Saket
Shveta Bubble 5) Saket is playing a game whose title is only of 3 Letters.

Shooter (There is only one such game i.e. UNO.)
Classmate Game
Shriyansh
Sumit Chess
Sachin
Shubham Snakes And
Savan
Ladders
Saket
Shiv
4) Sachin is playing a game whose first letter starts with
Shveta Bubble
‘C’.
Shooter
(Games starting with ‘C’ are Carrom, Crossword and
Chess. Chess is played by Sumit. So, Sachin is playing Shriyansh
either Carrom or Crossword.)
Sachin Carrom /
Classmate Game
Crossword
Sumit Chess
Savan
Shubham Snakes And
Saket UNO
Ladders
6) Shiv is playing a game whose first letter starts with ‘B’.
Shiv
(Games starting with letter ‘B’ are Business and Bubble
Shveta Bubble Shooter. Shveta is playing Bubble Shooter. So, Shiv is
Shooter playing Business.)
Classmate Game
Shriyansh
Page 288 of 1079

Sumit Chess Savan Ludo
Shubham Snakes And Saket Uno

Ladders
8) Shriyansh is playing a game whose last letter is ‘M’.
Shiv Business (There are two games Carrom and Crossword. A game
whose last letter is ‘M’ is Carrom. Thus, Shriyansh is
Shveta Bubble
playing Carrom.)
Shooter
Classmate Game
Shriyansh
Sumit Chess
Sachin Carrom /
Shubham Snakes And
Crossword
Ladders
Savan
Shiv Business
Saket UNO
Shveta Bubble
7) Savan is playing Ludo. Shooter
Classmate Game
Shriyansh Carrom
Sumit Chess
Sachin Crossword
Shubham Snakes And
Savan Ludo
Ladders
Saket UNO
Shiv Business
Answers
Shveta Bubble
31. e
Shooter
32. c
Shriyansh 33. a
34. c
Sachin Carrom /
35. d
Crossword
Solutions 36-40
Page 289 of 1079

1) At least one person and at most two persons are from Varun
same college.
6) No two girls are from the same college.
2) Neither Appu nor Varun is from the same college.
7) Varun likes Economics and is not from college II.
3) Only Divya is from college IV and likes Hindi.
Person Subjects College
Navya Computer II/III
Navya
Kavitha
Kavitha
Appu
Appu
Divya Hindi IV
Divya Hindi IV
Praveen II/III
Praveen
Balu
Balu
Varun Economics I/III
Varun
8) Appu likes neither Chemistry nor Maths.
4) Navya likes Computers.
9) Kavitha likes Physics and is not from college I.
5) Praveen and Navya are from the same college but not
That means Appu is from college I as all girls are from
from college I.
different college, as Appu and Varun are from different
college that means Varun is from college III which implies
Navya Computer II/III both Navya and Praveen can’t be in college III. So,
Kavitha is from college III.
Kavitha
Appu
Navya Computer II
Divya Hindi IV
Kavitha Physics III
Praveen II/III
Appu Sanskrit I
Balu
Divya Hindi IV
Page 290 of 1079

Praveen II 4
Balu I 3 Rectangle
Varun Economics III 2
10) Balu likes Chemistry. 1

2) Only one person kept a block between M and the
Navya Computer II person who kept the rectangle block.
3) M who placed hexagon was followed by Q.
Kavitha Physics III
Case 1:
Appu Sanskrit I Position Shape Person
Divya Hindi IV 6
Praveen Maths II 5
Balu Chemistry I 4
Varun Economics III 3 Rectangle
Answers 2 Q
36. c
1 Hexagon M
37. e
38. e Case 2:
39. e Position Shape Person
40. d
6 Q
Solutions 36-40
1) The rectangle block was kept at 3rd position. 5 Hexagon M
Position Shape Person
4
6
3 Rectangle
5
2
Page 291 of 1079

1 6 Square Q
4) The circular block was kept by R just below M. 5 Hexagon M

(So, case 1 is invalid. Move ahead with case 2.)
4 Circular R
Position Shape Person
3 Rectangle O
6 Q
2 Triangle N
5 Hexagon M
1 Octagon P
4 Circular R
Answers
3 Rectangle
41. d
2 42. a
43. e
1
44. d
5) The triangle was kept at an even position just after P, 45. d
but not on the top. Solutions 41-45
Position Shape Person 1) A plays hockey.
2) Either F or E plays chess.
6 Q
3) D and F plays volleyball and cricket.
5 Hexagon M 4) Neither D nor B plays cricket. (So F plays cricket and
D plays Volleyball)
4 Circular R
Persons Sports
3 Rectangle
A Hockey
2 Triangle
B
1 P
C
6) The difference in the position of the square block and
D Volleyball
the position at which N kept the block is 4.
Position Shape Person E Chess
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F Cricket C Tennis
G D Volleyball
H E Chess
5) C plays either tennis or cricket. (But D plays cricket, F Cricket

so C plays Tennis)
G Football
6) G plays neither badminton nor tennis.
7) Neither G nor B plays basketball. (Hence, H plays H Basketball
basketball)
Answers
Persons Sports
46. a
A Hockey 47. e
48. c
B
49. d
C Tennis 50. b
Solutions 46-50
D Volleyball
1) The one who likes Cherry also likes to watch Beyblade.
E Chess 2) Pinki likes to watch Chota Bheem but neither likes to
eat Mango nor Strawberry.
F Cricket
(Possible options (fruits) left are Apple/Banana.)
G 3) Aarav likes Grapes but doesn’t like to watch
Doraemon.
H Basketball
(Possible options (cartoons) left are
8) B plays either football or badminton (G does not play Shiva/Pokemon/Barbie.)
Badminton. Hence, B plays badminton) Consider the following table:
Persons Sports KIDS FRUITS CARTOONS
A Hockey Aarav Grapes Shiva/Pokemon/Barbie
B Badminton Rahul
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Vihaan (Thus, Rahul likes to watch Doraemon.

Pinki likes an Apple.
Ruhi
Vihaan is the one who likes Cherry as well as likes to
Pinki Apple/Banana Chota Bheem watch Beyblade.)
KIDS FRUITS CARTOONS
Pari
Aarav Grapes Shiva
4) Ruhi doesn’t like Banana but likes to watch Barbie.
(Possible options left (fruits) are Rahul Banana Doraemon
Apple/Mango/Strawberry.)
Vihaan Cherry Beyblade
5) Pari neither likes Cherry nor Shiva.
(Possible options (cartoons) left are Pokemon/Doraemon. Ruhi Mango/Strawberry Barbie
Possible options (fruits) left are
Pinki Apple Chota Bheem
Apple/Mango/Strawberry/Banana.)
KID FRUITS CARTOONS Pari Mango/Strawberry Pokemon
S
7) The one who doesn’t like Strawberry, likes to watch
Aara Grapes Shiva/Pokemon Pokemon.
v (This means Pari likes Mango & Ruhi likes Strawberry.)
Thus, final table is as follows:
Rahu
l
Viha KIDS FRUITS CARTOONS

an
Aarav Grapes Shiva
Ruhi Apple/Mango/Strawberry Barbie
Rahul Banana Doraemon
Pinki Apple/Banana Chota Bheem
Vihaan Cherry Beyblade
Pari Apple/Mango/Strawberry/ Pokemon/Dorae
Ruhi Strawberry Barbie
Banana mon
Pinki Apple Chota Bheem
6) Rahul likes Banana but neither likes to watch Pokemon
nor Shiva.
Page 294 of 1079

Pari Mango Pokemon
Input Output
Directions: Answer the questions based on the e. None of the above
information given below. 3) How many odd numbers are there in the step II?
A number arrangement machine when given an input line a. Five
of words and numbers rearranges then following a b. Six
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration c. Eight
of an input rearrangement. d. Four
Input: 643 886 458 279 911 924 237 975 e. None of the above
Step I: 886 975 279 458 924 643 237 911 4) How many vowels are there in the last step?
Step II: 56 52 25 37 38 22 17 10 a. 2
Step III: 224 208 75 111 152 88 51 40 b. 4
Step IV: 8 10 12 3 8 16 6 4 c. 1
Step V: C D F H H J L P d. None
Step V is the output of the above input e. 3
Input: 557 366 253 918 667 844 158 479 5) What is the last step of the following input?
1) What is the 2nd last step of the following input? a. F G I L L L O L
a. 12 12 12 49 11 18 17 6 b. F I G L L L L O
b. 12 12 12 7 9 15 12 6 c. F G I L L L L O
c. 13 13 10 11 25 48 49 6 d. F G I L L O L L
d. 17 2 10 15 12 6 9 9 e. None of these
e. None of the above Directions: Answer the questions based on the
2) Which of the following numbers is third to the right information given below.
of sixth number from right end in step III? A Machine arranges the given input in the following way.
a. 39 The following is an illustration of an input rearrangement.
b. 192 Input: Equal 54 Sum 57 83 Out Town 25 79 Under
c. 129 Close 13
d. 96
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Step I: Close Equal 54 Sum 57 Out Town 25 79 Under 13 8) In step V what number or word will be at the 4th
83 position from right end?
Step II: Equal Close 54 Sum 57 Out Town 25 Under 13 a. 33
79 83 b. 31
Step III: Sum Equal Close 54 Out Town 25 Under 13 57 c. State
79 83 d. Hoodooing
Step IV: Town Sum Equal Close Out 25 Under 13 54 57 e. None of these
79 83 9) Which step number is the following output?
Step V: Under Town Sum Equal Close Out 13 25 54 57 Glass Association Hoodooing State 25 Country 23 Below
79 83 31 33 49 59
Step VI: Out Under Town Sum Equal Close 13 25 54 57 a. III
79 83 b. VI
Step VI is the last step of the given input. c. IV
Answer the question for the below input: d. V
Input: 49 Association 25 31 Glass 59 Country 23 State e. There is no such step
Hoodooing 33 Below 10) In step III if ‘25’ is related to ‘Glass’, ‘State’ is
6) How many elements are there between ‘Below’ and related to ‘31’ in a certain way ‘23’ would be related to
‘Hoodooing’ in step-IV? ‘?’ in same pattern?
a. None a. 49
b. Two b. Hoodooing
c. Three c. 33
d. More than three d. Association
7) Which of the following is the 5th element to the left Directions: Answer the questions based on the
of 23 in step V? information given below.
a. 49 Note: All the given numbers in input statement are of six
b. 33 digits
c. State Input: 198532 653984 783564 872675 243976
d. Glass Step 1: 235189 354689 357468 257768 237469
e. None of these Step 2: 257768 357468 235189 237469 354689
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Step 3: 302 232 141 133 221 14) What is the difference between the numbers which
Step 4: 151 116 282 266 442 is first from the left end and third from the right in step
Step 5: 49 64 144 196 100 2?
As per the rule followed in the above steps find out the a. 103323
appropriate steps for the given input and answer the b. 1221
questions. c. 221
Input: 275416 943568 769541 839672 483276 d. 22312
11) What is the difference between the numbers which e. 352
is second from the left and second from the right in the 15) Which of the following number is second from the
final step? left end in step 3?
a. 156 a. 233
b. 44 b. 221
c. 0 c. 111
d. 121 d. 132
e. 64 e. 362
12) What will be the output of step 1? Direction: 16-20) Read the following information
a. 237689 354689 571469 237468 257146 carefully and answer the given questions
b. 257146 354689 571469 237689 237468 Note: All the given numbers in input statement are of six-
c. 237468 257146 237689 354689 571469 digit
d. 257146 237689 354689 571469237468 Input: 926473 542879 645738 425391 825617 128354
e. None of the given option Step 1: 128354 645738 425391 542879 825617 926473
13) What is the sum of digits of the number which is in Step 2: 248135 468357 135924 579248 157268 379246
the middle in the last step? Step 3: 272 252 242 274 452 472
a. 9 Step 4: 56 40 32 112 80 112
b. 10 Step 5: 2 4 5 4 8 4
c. 12 As per the rule followed in the above steps find out the
d. 13 appropriate steps for the given input and answer the
e. 15 questions.
Input: 643785 723695 578436 927684 465793 387
16) What will be the output of step 2?
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a. 468357 246879 379248 357468 357946 357926 c. 4 7 6 7 8 5

b. 468357 246879 379248 357946 357468 357926 d. 4 7 5 6 7 8
c. 468357 246879 379248 357946 357926 357468 e. None of these
d. 468357 379248 357946 357926 357468 246879 Direction: Study the following information carefully
e. None of the given option and answer the questions given below. A number
17) What is the sum of numbers which is second from arrangement machine, when given a particular input,
the left in step 4 and the number which is second from rearranges it following a particular rule.
the right in step 5? The following is the illustration of the input and the steps
a. 22 of arrangement
b. 40 Input: 14 Pan 16 95 Pork Puma 64 81 Proved 27 Party
c. 13 STEP I: 59 Pan 16 Pork Puma 64 81 Proved 27 Party 41
d. 31 STEP II: 18 59 Pan Pork Puma 64 Proved 27 Party 41 61
e. 24 STEP III: 46 18 59 Pan Pork Puma Proved Party 41 61 72
18) Which number will appear more than once in the STEP IV: 46 18 59 Proved Pan Pork Puma Party 41 61 72
last step? STEP V: 46 18 59 Proved Party Pan Pork Puma 41 61 72
a. 4 STEP VI: 46 18 59 Proved Party Puma Pan Pork 41 61 72
b. 5 STEP VII: 46 18 59 Proved Party Puma Pork Pan 41 61
c. 6 72
d. 7 And step VII is the last step of the above input. As per the
e. 8 rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate
19) Which of the following number is third from the step for the given output.
right end in the first step? INPUT: 12 Beat Bet 15 37 75 Brisky But 47 Bigger 23
a. 387249 21) What is the total sum of all the numbers in step III?
b. 643785 a. 355
c. 723695 b. 379
d. 927684 c. 300
e. 465793 d. 308
20) What is the final step of the given input? e. 290
a. 4 7 8 7 6 5 22) Which of the following is step IV of the given
b. 4 7 8 6 7 5 input?
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a. 73 74 57 Brisky Beat But Bet Bigger 21 51 32 rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input
b. 74 73 57 Brisky Beat But Bet Bigger 21 32 51 and rearrangement.
c. 73 74 57 Brisky Beat Bet But Bigger 21 51 32 Input: 146 372 496 935 846 281
d. 73 74 57 Bigger Brisky Beat But Bet 21 32 51 Step I: 146 237 469 359 468 128
e. 74 73 57 Brisky Bigger Beat Bet But 21 51 32 Step II: 128 146 237 359 468 469
23) Which of the following represents the difference of Step III: 821 641 732 953 864 964
the last and the second last element in the V step? Step IV: 964 953 864 821 732 641
a. 19 Step V: 19 17 18 11 12 11
b. 16 Step VI: 20 18 19 12 13 12
c. 12 Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per rules
d. 15 followed in the above steps, find out in each of the given
e. 18 questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
24) Which element is fourth to the left of the one that Input for the question:
is second from extreme right in Step II? “529 614 835 679 241 931”
a. Bet 26) Which word is 2nd from the right end in step V of
b. 57 the given input?
c. Beat a. 12
d. Brisky b. 11
e. But c. 14
25) How many steps are required to complete the given d. 17
arrangement? e. None of the above
a. Six 27) What is the position of “853” in Step IV of the given
b. Eight input?
c. Seven a. 2nd from the right
d. Five b. 3rd from the left
e. None of these c. 3rd from the right
Directions: 26-30) Read the given information d. 4th from the right
carefully and answer the questions. e. There is no such number in Step IV
A three-digit number arrangement machine when given an
input line of digits rearranges them following a particular
Page 299 of 1079

28) Which is the sum of all the digits of the number, Step II: 35 39 19 28 49 24 85 29 36 66 58 45
which is at the extreme right end in step III of the given Step III: 39 36 35 29 28 24 19 45 49 58 66 85
input? Step IV: @ # @ # # # @ # # # # #
a. 18 And step IV is the last step of the rearrangement.
b. 21 As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the
c. 20 questions.
d. 22 Input for the questions:
e. None of the above 35 97 27 55 37 91 17 78 63 54 74 24
29) How many odd numbers are there in Step II of the 31) What is the sum of the number which is 3rd from
given input? left end in step II and the number which is 4th from
a. Two the right end of the step III?
b. Four a. 82
c. One b. 45
d. Three c. 72
e. None of the above d. 41
30) What is the sum of all the even numbers in the final e. None of the above
step of the given input? 32) If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order
a. 37 from left to right in step II then which of the following
b. 34 number will be 5th from the right end?
c. 39 a. 47
d. 30 b. 79
e. None of the above c. 55
Directions: 31-35) Study the given information d. 45
carefully and answer the questions based on it. e. 73
A number arrangement machine when given an input line 33) If ‘12 22 45 78 33 67 98 41’ is the first step of an
of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in input then what will be second step of the input?
each step. The following is an illustration of input and a. 33 41 12 22 54 78 67 89
rearrangement. b. 33 14 12 22 54 67 98 78
Input: 42 94 39 58 35 92 19 66 63 54 85 28 c. 33 41 12 22 54 87 76 89
Step I: 19 28 94 42 58 39 92 35 63 66 85 54 d. 33 14 21 22 45 75 87 64
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e. None of the above Input for the question:

34) In which of the following step do the numbers “73 “6439 9362 2541 6567 8382”
36 87” occur together in same order? 36) Which among the following number is the last
a. Step I number when counted from the right end in the
b. Step II penultimate step of the given input?
c. Step IV a. 1407
d. Step III b. 1401
e. Both in step I and step III c. 1601
35) If all the numbers of the step 3 is decreased by 1 d. 6438
then how many numbers are there which are divisible e. None of the above
by 3? 37) What is the sum of 3rd number from the left end
a. 6 of Step II and 4th number from the right end of step
b. 5 III of the given input?
c. 1 a. 5022
d. 2 b. 9846
e. 4 c. 5722
Directions: 36-40) Answer the questions based on the d. 6921
information given below. e. None of the above
A four-digit number arrangement machine when given an 38) Which number is 2nd from the left end in step IV
input line of numbers rearranges them following a of the given input?
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration a. 07
of input and rearrangement. b. 04
Input: 4369 3149 7342 9852 4324 c. 06
Step I: 4368 3148 7344 9854 4326 d. 12
Step II: 8643 8431 7443 9854 6432 e. None of the above
Step III: 1401 1202 1101 1701 1001 39) Which among the following is the last number from
Step IV: 06 05 03 09 02 the left in step I of the given input?
Step IV is the last step of the above input. As per rules a. 6566
followed in the above steps, find out in each of the given b. 8384
questions the appropriate steps for the given input. c. 4320
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d. 6438 a. Oto
e. None of the above b. Thw
40) What is the absolute difference of first and last c. Trf
number in the final step of the given input? d. Hcrm
a. 0 e. None of the above
b. 7 42) Which of the following elements are 3rd from the
c. 1 left end in step II and 4th from the right end in step IV
d. 6 respectively?
e. None of the above a. trf and 120
Directions: 41-45) Study the information given and b. hcram and 340
answer the questions based on it. c. Otoph and 120
When a word arrangement machine is given an input line d. hcram and 320
of words rearranges them following a particular logic at e. None of the above
each step. 43) What is the sum of the numbers which are 2nd
Below is the illustration of the same. from the left in step V and 6th from the left end in step
Input: Cream Album China Earth Asked Month Board IV?
Step I: Maerc Mubla Anihc Htrae Deksa Htnom Draob a. 150
Step II: Anihc Deksa Draob Htnom Htrae Maerc Mubla b. 120
Step III: Nhc Dks Drb Htnm Htr Mrc Mbl c. 90
Step IV: 42 76 08 112 144 39 156 d. 180
Step V: 06 13 08 04 09 12 12 e. None of the above
Step VI: 04 06 08 09 12 12 13 44) If last letter of each word in step III is replaced with
And step VI is the last step of the input. 2nd succeeding alphabet in English alphabetical series
As per the rules followed in the above input, find out, in than how many words are there which has at least one
each of the given questions, the approximate steps for the vowel?
given input: a. One
Input for the question: b. Three
After Fruit Eight State Photo March White c. Two
41) Which of the following word is 2nd from the left d. Four
end in step III? e. Five
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45) What is the average of the numbers which are 3rd, d. 331
4th and 6th in the last step from the left? e. None of the above
a. 20 47) Which of the following is the last step?
b. 9 a. @ # # @ @ # @
c. 3 b. @ # @ @ @ # @
d. 8 c. @ @ @ @ @ # @
e. 21 d. @ @ @ @ @ @ @
Directions: 46-50) Read the given information e. None of the above
carefully and answer the questions. 48) Which number is 4th to the right of 6th number
A three digits number arrangement machine when given from right end in step III?
an input line of numbers rearranges them following a a. 35
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration b. 22
of input and rearrangement. c. 14
Input: 652 734 823 243 134 214 412 d. 22
Step I: 256 347 238 234 134 124 124 e. 40
Step II: 17 25 19 11 7 6 6 49) Which number is exactly in the middle of step I?
Step III: 20 27 22 14 10 8 8 a. 345
Step IV: @ # @ @ @ @ @ b. 458
Step VI is the last step of the above input. As per rules c. 457
followed in the above steps, find out in each of the given d. 244
questions the appropriate steps for the given input. e. None of the above
Input: 534 342 967 442 257 745 458 50) What is the third step of the given input?
46) What is the sum of 2nd number from left end in a. 22 14 64 22 14 35 40
step II and 3rd number from right end in step I? b. 22 14 64 14 22 40 35
a. 224 c. 22 14 14 64 22 35 40
b. 268 d. 22 14 64 14 22 35 40
c. 298 e. None of these
Input Output – Answer and Explanation

Answers 2. d
1. b 3. d
Page 303 of 1079
4. a (i) Words and numbers are arranged simultaneously in the

5. d steps.
Solution 1-5 (ii) According to last letter of word. Words are arranged
In the given illustration, in step I, the numbers are alphabetically from the left end according to English
arranged according to the highest to lowest sum of digits alphabet,
of numbers from left to right. (iii) Numbers are arranged in descending order from the
In step II, the product of first and third digit is added to right end.
the middle digit. Thus,
In step III, even numbers are multiplied by 4 and odd Input: 49 Association 25 31 Glass 59 Country 23 State
numbers are multiplied by 3. Hoodooing 33 Below
In Step IV: sum of the digits is written. Step I: State 49 Association 25 31 Glass Country 23
In step V: numbers are written in an ascending order and Hoodooing 33 Below 59
replaced by the alphabets of that alphabetic position in Step II: Hoodooing State Association 25 31 Glass Country
English alphabetical series. 23 33 Below 49 59
Input: 557 366 253 918 667 844 158 47 Step III: Association Hoodooing State 25 31 Glass
Step I: 479 667 918 557 844 366 158 253 Country 23 Below 33 49 59
Step II: 43 48 73 40 36 24 13 11 Step IV: Glass Association Hoodooing State 25 Country
Step III: 129 192 219 160 144 96 39 33 23 Below 31 33 49 59
Step IV: 12 12 12 7 9 15 12 6 Step V: Below Glass Association Hoodooing State
Step V: F G I L L L L O Country 23 25 31 33 49 59
So, the last step is 12 12 12 7 9 15 12 6 Step VI: Country Below Glass Association Hoodooing
Answers State 23 25 31 33 49 59
6. d Step VI is the last step of the given input.
7. d Answers
8. b 11. c
9. c 12. b
10. c 13. a
Solution 6-10 14. c
The process used for the given input is as follows: 15. e
Solution 11-15
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Step 1: First arrange all the prime number digits and then If the number is odd, arrange the odd digits first and then
other digits in ascending order within the number. even digits in ascending order within the number
Step 2: Arrange the even numbers and then odd numbers Step 3: Take difference first and second digit, third and
in ascending order fourth digit, fifth and sixth digit for all given number
Step 3: Take difference first and second digit, third and Step 4: Multiply all three-digit and double it
fourth digit, fifth and sixth digit for all given number Step 5: Denote the number in single digit by adding digits
Step 4: If the number is even then divide the number by in the number
two if the number is odd multiply that number by 2. Now by applying the above rule
Step 5: Add all the digit of the given number and take the Input: 643785 723695 578436 927684 465793 387249
square of that number. Step 1: 578436 927684 387249 465793 643785 723695
Now by applying above rule Step 2: 468357 246879 379248 357946 357468 357926
Input: 275416 943568 769541 839672 483276 Step 3: 252 222 474 222 232 224
Step 1: 257146 354689 571469 237689 237468 Step 4: 40 16 224 16 24 32
Step 2: 237468 257146 237689 354689 571469 Step 5: 4 7 8 7 6 5
Step 3: 132 362 111 221 233 Answers
Step 4: 66 181 222 442 466 21. d
Step 5: 144 100 36 100 256 22. c
Answers 23. a
16. b 24. d
17. a 25. a
18. d Solution 21-25
19. e Number Arrangement: Numbers are arranged in an
20. a order of first highest number in left side and first lowest
Solution 16-20 number in right side along with their (digits) interchanged
The logic is as follows: positions and so on…
Step 1: First arrange the even numbers and then odd
numbers in ascending order Word Arrangement: After arranging all number words
Step 2: If the number is even, arrange the even digits first are arranged according to the number of alphabets in the
and then odd digits in ascending order within the number. word, if a word has same number of elements, then they
Page 305 of 1079

are arranged in reverse alphabetical order. Words having Step IV: 976 952 931 853 641 421
the highest number of alphabets are arranged first. Step V: 22 16 13 16 11 7
The same process is followed till all the numbers and Step VI: 23 17 14 17 12 8
words are rearranged accordingly. Answers
INPUT: 12 Beat Bet 15 37 75 Brisky But 47 Bigger 23 31. c
Step I: 57 Beat Bet 15 37 Brisky But 47 Bigger 23 21 32. a
Step II: 74 57 Beat Bet 37 Brisky But Bigger 23 21 51 33. c
Step III: 73 74 57 Beat Bet Brisky But Bigger 21 51 32 34. b
Step IV: 73 74 57 Brisky Beat Bet But Bigger 21 51 32 35. e
Step V: 73 74 57 Brisky Bigger Beat Bet But 21 51 32 Solution 31-35
Step VI: 73 74 57 Brisky Bigger Beat But Bet 21 51 32 In the first step the first two smallest numbers are written
Answers in ascending order from the left side of the input and then
26. b every two consecutive numbers interchange their places.
27. c In the second step the next two smallest numbers are
28. d written from the left side of the input and the other
29. d numbers’ digits are interchanged within the numbers.
30. b In the third step first, all the numbers which are smaller
Solution 26-30 than 40 are written in descending order from left to right
The rearrangement takes place in the following ways: side of the input and then numbers which are greater than
In Step I, digits of all the numbers are arranged in 40 are written in ascending order.
increasing order. In last step IV: If the product of the digits is an even
In Step II, numbers are arranged in increasing order. number then use symbol # and if the product of the digits
In Step III, all the numbers are written in reverse order. is odd number then use symbol @
In Step IV, numbers are arranged in decreasing order. Given input:
In Step V, digits of all the numbers are added. 35 97 27 55 37 91 17 78 63 54 74 24
In Step VI, 1 is added to all the numbers. Step I: 17 24 97 35 55 27 91 37 63 78 74 54
Input: 529 614 835 679 241 931 Step II: 27 35 17 24 79 55 19 73 36 87 47 45
Step I: 259 146 358 679 124 139 Step III: 36 35 27 24 19 17 45 47 55 73 79 87
Step II: 124 139 146 259 358 679 Step IV: # @ # # @ @ # # @ @ @ #
Step III: 421 931 641 952 853 976 Answers
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36. b In step II – Write all the words in dictionary order from

37. d left to right.
38. a In step III – Remove vowels from the words.
39. b In step IV – Multiply the place values of 1st and 3rd letter
40. e of the word.
Solution 36-40 In step V – Add all the digits with in the numbers
The rearrangement takes place in the following ways: In step VI – Write all the numbers in ascending order from
In Step I, all the odd number are decreased by 1 and all the left to write.
the even number are increased by 2. Input - After Fruit Eight State Photo March White
In Step II, all the digits within the number are arranged in Step I: Retfa Tiurf Thgie Etats Otohp Hcram Etihw
decreasing order. Step II: Etats Etihw Hcram Otohp Retfa Thgie Tiurf
In Step III, sum of first two digits of all the numbers are Step III: Tts Thw Hcrm Thp Rtf Thg Trf
written followed by the difference of next two digits of the Step IV: 380 460 144 320 108 140 120
numbers. Step V: 11 10 09 05 09 05 03
In Step IV, sum of all the digits within the number is Step VI: 03 05 05 09 09 10 11
written. Answers
Input: 6439 9362 2541 6567 8382 46. b
Step I: 6438 9364 2540 6566 8384 47. c
Step II: 8643 9643 5420 6665 8843 48. a
Step III: 1401 1501 902 1201 1601 49. d
Step IV: 06 07 11 04 08 50. d
Answers Solution 46-50
41. b The rearrangement takes place in the following ways:
42. d In Step I, the digits are arranged in increasing order from
43. a left to right.
44. b In Step II, the product of 1st and last digit is added to 2nd
45. d digit.
Solution 41-45 In Step III, 3 is added to prime numbers while 2 is added
In step I – All the words are written in reverse order. to composite numbers.
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In Step IV, even number is replaced by ‘@’ while odd Step II: 19 11 61 12 19 33 37
number is replaced by ‘#’. Step III: 22 14 64 14 22 35 40
Input: 534 342 967 442 257 745 458 Step IV: @ @ @ @ @ # @
Step I: 345 234 679 244 257 457 458
Coding Decoding
Directions: 1-5) Answer the following questions based d. @%6δ3©

on the information given below e. None of these
Letters in the first row, followed be their Digit/Symbol 3) What is the code of the word MZPJKH?
code in the next row: a. $#6δ%$
b. 5#8δ%5
O R T M D E I Q Z F H K A P J c. $%8δ%5
© 7 6 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @ 8 δ d. 5#6δ%5
e. None of these
Conditions:
4) What is the code of the word DFIQZH?
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a
a. 5$1$45
consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
b. 5$145#
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both
c. 5$14#5
are to be coded for the last letter.
d. 51$4#5
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a
e. None of these
vowel, both are to be coded as ‘⋆’.
5) What is the code of the word AMRPJQ?
1) What is the code of the word ADATRJ?
a. @7834@
a. @9@87@
b. @7843@
b. δ9@87δ
c. @378δ@
c. @9@67@
d. @8734@
d. δ9@67@
e. None of these
e. None of these
Directions: 6-10 Study the following information and
2) What is the code of the word PKPJMO?
answer the given questions:
a. ⋆%6δ3⋆
In alphabetical series A-Z each letter except vowels is
b. ⋆%863@
assigned a different number from 1-8 (for ex- B is coded
c. ⋆%8δ3⋆
Page 308 of 1079
as 1, C-2………. K-8) and again those numbers get c. 26%$8% 7841%

repeated (for ex- L-1, M-2……. so on). d. 26%$6% 7841%
Also, each vowel is assigned a different symbol viz. #, $, e. None of these
%, @, &. 9) What can be the code of ‘Strength of god’?
In coded language- a. 768%3586 4@ 5@3
“She is girl” is coded as - 76% #7 5#61 b. 786%3586 ** 5@3
“What did you like” is coded as - 26$8 3#3 4@& 1#8% c. 786%3586 @* 5@3
“It is Opinion” is coded as - #8 #7 @4#3#@3 d. 786%3856 4@ 5@3
(i) If both first and last letter of a word is vowel then the e. None of these
codes of both the vowels are interchanged. 10) What can be the code of ‘Living Together’?
(ii) If first letter of a word is vowel and last letter is a. 1#1#35 8@5%86%6
consonant then both are to be coded as *. b. 1#1#35 5@8%86%6
(If the word does not satisfy the conditions given above c. 1#1#35 8@5%68%6
then the letters of that word are to be coded as per the d. 1#1#53 8@5%86%6
directions given above) e. None of these
6) What can be the code of ‘Nothing perfect’? Directions: 11-15) Study the following information
a. 3@86#53 4%64%28 carefully and answer the questions given below it
b. 3@68#35 4%64%28 Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows:
c. 3@86#35 4%64%38 9 8 6 1 7 2 5 4 3
d. 3@86#35 4%64%28
S C F J L I O K H
e. None of these
7) What can be the code of ‘Exam was easy’? Following conditions are to be observed:
a. *3$* 2$7 *$7* (i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd they
b. *3$* 2$7 %$74 are to be coded as $ and @ respectively.
c. %3$2 2$7 *$7* (ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even they
d. *3$* 2$7 $74% are to be coded as # and ₤ respectively.
e. None of these (iii) If both first and last digit are odd than both are coded
8) What can be the code of ‘Create style’? as code for last digit.
a. 2#6$8% 7841% (iv) If both first and last digit are even than both are coded
b. 26%$8% 7814% as code for first digit.
Page 309 of 1079

11) What is the code for 15782? Directions: 16-20) Answer the following questions
a. #OCL₤ based on the information given below
b. #OLC₤ Letters in the first row, followed be their Digit/Symbol
c. #OLC# code in the next row:
d. ₤OLC₤ A B X J L P E G Z
e. None of these
@ # $ % ^ & * ! +
12) What is the code for 78629?
a. SCFSI Conditions:
b. SFCIS (i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a
c. SCFIS consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the
d. SICFS consonant
e. None of these (ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both
13) What is the code for 46358? are to be coded as ~.
a. KFOHK (iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a
b. KFHOK vowel, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
c. KHFOK (iv) If both the first and the last letters are vowel, both are
d. KOHFK to be coded as =.
e. None of these 16) What is the code for PLEGE?
14) What is the code for 19642? a. *^*!*
a. #KFS₤ b. *^**!
b. #FSK₤ c. *^!**
c. #SKF₤ d. **^!*
d. #SFK₤ e. None of these
e. None of these 17) What is the code for ALZGX?
15) What is the code for 81352? a. $+^!$
a. CJHOC b. $^!+$
b. CHOJC c. $^+!$
c. CJOHC d. $^+$!
d. COHJC e. None of these
e. None of these 18) What is the code for EZBGA?
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a. =+!#= 21) What is the code for 'IMUDW'?

b. =+#!= a. 5#5#$
c. =#+!= b. 55#$#
d. =+#=! c. 5#5$#
e. None of these d. 5#$5#
19) What is the code for XLGPB? e. None of these
a. ~^&!~ 22) What is the code for ‘DIMKUI’?
b. ~^!~& a. $~#8~4
c. ~^!&~ b. $~#48~
d. ~!^&~ c. $~8#4~
e. None of these d. $~#84~
20) What is the code for LGZBE? e. None of these
a. *!+*# 23) What is the code for ‘VUWDMG’?
b. *+!#* a. 2#&$#1
c. *!#+* b. 2&#$#1
d. *!+#* c. 2&##$1
e. None of these d. 2&#$1#
Directions: (20-25) Answer the following questions e. None of these
based on the information given below 24) What is the code for ‘IZWKUD’?
Letters in the first row, followed be their Digit/Symbol a. 5@#84$
code in the next row: b. 5#@84$
G Z D I M K V U W c. 5@#48$
d. 5@#8$4
1 @ $ 5 # 8 2 4 #
e. None of these
i) If there are more than four consonants in the word then 25) What is the code for ‘KZIDUI’?
all vowels in the word are to be coded as '&' . a. 8@~$~4
ii) If one or more vowels are present in the word more than b. 8@$~4~
once then those vowels are coded as ~ c. 8@~$4~
(iii) If total number of letters in the word is odd, then the d. 8~@$4~
middle letter is coded same as the first letter. e. None of these
Page 311 of 1079

Directions(26-30): Answer the following questions a. *$=$$

based on the information given below b. *@$=$
Letters in the first row, followed be their Digit/Symbol c. * $$=$
code in the next row: d. *@=$&
Letter/N A G Z 1 T P 4 5 F C 7 U 3 O e. None of these
umber 29) What would be the code of the element ‘GTPF5’?
a. *$<=+
Code @ * & ! $ ^ { + = ? } > \ <
b. *$>=+
(i) If more than two vowels are in the group, then code of c. *${=+
all the vowels will be $. d. *$}=+
(ii) If second element is even digit, then code of the first e. None of these
element will be same as the code of last element. 30) What would be the code of the element ‘C4UPG’?
(iii) If only one consonant is in the group, then code of the a. *{>^*
consonant will be same as the code of second last b. *{@^*
element. c. *{^^*
* More than one condition can be applied on a group of d. *{<^*
letters. e. None of these
26) What would be the code of the element ‘ZAP4F’? Directions: 31-35) Answer the following questions
a. &@^}= based on the information given below
b. &@^{= Letters in the first row, followed be their Digit/Symbol
c. &@<{= code in the next row:
d. &@>{= Letter i u a t g e s m nq f b c v y
e. None of these Coded
6 %& @$ # 4 = + * < > 1 ! 7
27) What would be the code of the element ‘14CO3’? Symbol/Number
a. !}?<\ Conditions:
b. \}?<\ (1) If the third alphabet is a vowel and the fourth alphabet
c. \{?<\ is a consonant then all the consonants should be changed
d. \ {<<\ to the code for that vowel.
e. None of these (2) If there are more than five consonants then the codes
28) What would be the code of the element ‘GUAFO’? of the second and the third letter have to be interchanged.
Page 312 of 1079

(3) If first and second last letter is consonant then the code d. #<<#1@6!#+44#
of both letters will be changed to code of first consonant e. None of these
31) What is the code for ‘Gymnasium’? Directions: 36-40) Answer the following questions
a. $=7+&46%= based on the information given below
b. $=7+&64%= Letters in the second row, followed be their Digit/Symbol
c. $=7+&4%6= code in the first row:
d. $=7+&46=%
e. None of these Num # 5 1 & * + = @ 7 3 % $ 9 ! >
bers /
32) What is the code for ‘Antman’?
Symb
a. &+@&=+
ols
b. &@+=&+
Lette Y A I R Z W J H E O S P U R T
c. &+@=&+
rs
d. &+=@&+
Code
e. None of these
33) What is the code for ‘Eyestag’? 1) If the fourth letter is vowel then it should be with its
a. ###&### immediate next letter.
b. ##&#### 2) The word which has both first and last letters are
c. ######& consonant, there codes should be interchanged.
d. #####&# 3) If the last letter of the given word is vowel, then coded
e. None of these as code of Second letter.
34) What is the code for ‘fusebam’? 4) If there are five or more than five consonants then code
a. <%4#>&= of last consonant should be changed to ~.
b. <%4#>=& More than one condition can be applied.
c. <%#4>&= 36) What is the code for AIRPORT?
d. <%4>#&= a. ~1!$35!
e. None of these b. 51$&3!<
35) What is the code for ‘Effectiveness’? c. ~1$!3!5
a. #<<#6@1!#+#44 d. 51&$3!>
b. #<<#1@6!#+#44 e. None of these
c. #<<#1@6+#!#44 37) What is the code for ZESTER?

a. !%7>7*
Page 313 of 1079
b. *7%>7* Conditions:
c. !7%>7* (1) If the second element is a prime number and the last
d. !7$>7* element is a symbol then prime number is coded as the
e. None of these code of the symbol.
38) What is the code for TAPSTER? (2) If there are no even numbers then the codes of the
a. !5$%>7~ third and the fourth elements have to be interchanged.
b. !5%$>7~ (3) If an odd number is immediately preceded by symbols
c. !$5%>7~ then the odd number is to be coded of symbol.
d. !5$%7>~ More than one condition can be applied.
e. None of these 41) What is the code for 8%4+@1?
39) What is the code for JERSEY? a. MLPBOO
a. #7!%#7 b. MPBLOO
b. #7!%7# c. MPLBOO
c. #7%!7# d. MPLPOOB
d. #!7%7# e. None of these
e. None of these 42) What is the code for 43*8$%?
40) What is the code for PAPERHASE? a. LRSMUP
a. $5$!!5@~5 b. LPSMPU
b. $5$!!@55~ c. LRSUMP
c. $5!!$@5~5 d. LPSMUP
d. $5$!!@5~5 e. None of these
e. None of these 43) What is the code for 6$3&5@?
Directions: 41-45) Answer the following questions a. NUUGGO
based on the information given below b. NUGUGO
Digit/Symbols in the first row, followed be their letters c. NUUGOG
code in the second row: d. NGGUUO
Number / e. None of these
5 7 6 3 @# + * 8 % 1 $ & 4 2
Symbols 44) What is the code for 7#+5*3?
Letter a. AVSSBB
T A N R O V B S MP C U G L X
Code b. AVBBSS
Page 314 of 1079

c. VABBSS a. XNSGM
d. BABSBS b. NXSGM
e. None of these c. NXMSG
45) What is the code for 5&86#$? d. XNGSM
a. TGNMVU e. None of these
b. GTMNVU 47) What is the code for 4&9>*8?
c. TGMNVU a. VVAAOQ
d. GTMNUV b. VVAAQO
e. None of these c. AAVVQO
Directions: 46-50) Answer the following questions d. AAVVOQ
based on the information given below e. None of these
Digit/Symbols in the first row, followed be their letters 48) What is the code for 25$#7@?
code in the second row: a. NGDCSM
Num $ 4 @ 9 % > 5 8 + * 2 7 < # & b. GNDCSM
bers / c. NGDMSC
Sym d. GNDCSM
bols e. None of these
49) What is the code for 7&48*5?
Lette D E M P X V N O B Q G S J C A
a. SAQOON
rs
b. SOOAQN
Code
c. SAOONQ
Conditions d. SAOOQN
(1) If there is any perfect square is given, then it should e. None of these
be replaced by the code for succeeded element. 50) What is the code for @9%2+?
(2) If even number is immediately preceded by symbol a. XXM~B
and succeeded by symbol then it should be coded as ~. b. MXX~B
(3) If odd number is preceded by even number then code c. MXXB~
of both should be interchanged. d. XXMB~
46) What is the code for 5%27@? e. None of these
Coding Decoding – Answer and Explanation

Page 315 of 1079
Answers Thus both letter ‘M’ and ‘H’ will be coded as 5.

1. c Thus MZPJKH will be coded as 5#8δ%5.
2. c Solution 4
3. b Given Digit/Symbol code:
4. c O R T MD E I Q Z F H K A P J
5. c © 7 6 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @8 δ
Solution 1 Given term: DFIQZH
Given Digit/Symbol code: Here both the first and the last letters are consonants. Thus
O R T MD E I Q Z F H K A P J rule (ii) is applicable
© 7 6 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @8 δ Thus both letter ‘D’ and ‘H’ will be coded as 5.
Given term: ADATRJ Thus DFIQZH will be coded as 5$14#5.
Here first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant. Solution 5
Thus rule (i) is applicable. Given Digit/Symbol code:
Thus both letter ‘A’ and ‘J’ will be coded as @. O R T MD E I Q Z F H K A P J
Thus ADATRJ will be coded as @9@67@. © 7 6 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @8 δ
Solution 2 Given term: AMRPJQ
Given Digit/Symbol code: Here first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant.
O R T MD E I Q Z F H K A P J Thus rule (i) is applicable.
© 7 6 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @8 δ Thus both letter ‘A’ and ‘Q’ will be coded as @.
Given term: PKPJMO Thus AMRPJQ will be coded as @378δ@.
Here first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel. Answers
Thus rule (iii) is applicable. 6. d
Thus PKPJMO will be coded as ⋆%8δ3⋆. 7. a
Solution 3 8. c
Given Digit/Symbol code: 9. b
O R T MD E I Q Z F H K A P J 10. a
© 7 6 3 9 2 1 4 # $ 5 % @8 δ Solution 6
Given term: MZPJKH In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except
Here both the first and the last letters are consonants. Thus vowel, is assigned a number from 1-8 So, B-1, C-2, D-3,
rule (ii) is applicable.
Page 316 of 1079

F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-1, M-2, N-3, P-4, Q-5, R-6, S- Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @,
7, T-8, V-1, W-2, X-3, Y-4, Z-5. &. So, for vowels the symbols are - A-$, E-%, I-#, O- @,
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, U-&.
&. So, for vowels the symbols are - A-$, E-%, I-#, O- @, Hence, the code of ‘Strength of god’ is 786%3586 ** 5@3
U-&. Solution 10
Hence, the code of ‘Nothing perfect’ is 3@86#35 In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except
4%64%28 vowel, is assigned a number from 1-8 So, B-1, C-2, D-3,
Solution 7 F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-1, M-2, N-3, P-4, Q-5, R-6, S-
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except 7, T-8, V-1, W-2, X-3, Y-4, Z-5.
vowel, is assigned a number from 1-8 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @,
F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-1, M-2, N-3, P-4, Q-5, R-6, S- &. So, for vowels the symbols are - A-$, E-%, I-#, O- @,
7, T-8, V-1, W-2, X-3, Y-4, Z-5. U-&.
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, Hence, the code of ‘Strength of god’ is 786%3586 ** 5@3
&. So, for vowels the symbols are - A-$, E-%, I-#, O- @, Answers
U-&. 11. b
The code will be- *3$* 2$7 *$7* 12. c
Solution 8 13. b
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except 14. d
vowel, is assigned a number from 1-8 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, 15. a
F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-1, M-2, N-3, P-4, Q-5, R-6, S- Solution 11
7, T-8, V-1, W-2, X-3, Y-4, Z-5. Given Digit Code:
Each vowel is assigned a different symbol as-%, #, $, @, 9 8 6 1 7 2 5 4 3
&. So, for vowels the symbols are - A-$, E-%, I-#, O- @,
U-&. S C F J L I O K H
Hence, the code of ‘Create style’ is 26%$8% 7841% Given number: 15782
Solution 9 The first digit is odd and the last digit is even so they are
In this new pattern coding decoding each letter, except to be coded as # and ₤ respectively.
vowel, is assigned a number from 1-8 So, B-1, C-2, D-3, Hence, the code for 15782 is #OLC₤
F-4, G-5, H-6, J-7, K-8, L-1, M-2, N-3, P-4, Q-5, R-6, S- Solution 12
7, T-8, V-1, W-2, X-3, Y-4, Z-5. Given Digit Code:
Page 317 of 1079

9 8 6 1 7 2 5 4 3 Given number: 81352

As both first and last digit are even than both are coded as
S C F J L I O K H
code for first digit.
Given number: 78629 Hence, the code for 81352 is CJHOC
As both first and last digits are odd hence both are coded Answers
as code for last digit. 16. a
Hence, the code for 78629 is SCFIS 17. c
Solution 13 18. b
Given Digit Code: 19. c
9 8 6 1 7 2 5 4 3 20. d
Solution 16
S C F J L I O K H
Given Digit/Symbol code:
Given number: 46358 A B X J L P E G Z
Both first and last digit are even than both are coded as
@ # $ % ^ & * ! +
code for first digit.
Hence. 46358 is coded as KFHOK. Given Word: PLEGE
Solution 14 Hence, the condition (iii) will follow.
Given Digit Code: So, the code for PLEGE is *^*!*
9 8 6 1 7 2 5 4 3 Solution 17
S C F J L I O K H
A B X J L P E G Z
Given number: 19642
@ # $ % ^ & * ! +
The first digit is odd and the last digit is even so they are
to be coded as # and ₤ respectively. Given Word: ALZGX
Hence, the code for 19642 is #SFK₤ Hence, the condition (i) will follow.
Solution 15 So, the code for ALZGX is $^+!$
Given Digit Code: Solution 18
9 8 6 1 7 2 5 4 3 Given Digit/Symbol code:

A B X J L P E G Z
S C F J L I O K H
Page 318 of 1079

@ # $ % ^ & * ! + 1 @ $ 5 # 8 2 4 #
Given Word: EZBGA Given Word: 'IMUDW'

Hence, the below condition (iv) will follow. The below condition will follow
So, the code for EZBGA is =+#!= (iii) If total number of letters in the word is odd, then the
Solution 19 middle letter is coded same as the first letter.
Given Digit/Symbol code: Hence, the code for IMUDW is 5#5$#
A B X J L P E G Z Solution 22
@ # $ % ^ & * ! +
G Z D I M K V U W
Given Word: XLGPB
1 @ $ 5 # 8 2 4 #
Hence, the below condition (ii) will follow.
Given Word: ‘DIMKUI’
So, the code for XLGPB is ~^!&~
The below condition will follow
Solution 20
ii) If one or more vowels are present in the word more than
once then those vowels are coded as ~
A B X J L P E G Z
Hence, the code for DIMKUI is $~#84~
@ # $ % ^ & * ! + Solution 23
Given Word: LGZBE
Hence, the below condition (iii) will follow. G Z D I M K V U W
So, the code for LGZBE is *!+#* 1 @ $ 5 # 8 2 4 #

Answers Given Word: ‘VUWDMG’
21. c The below condition will follow
22. d i) If there are more than four consonants in the word then
23. b all vowels in the word are to be coded as '&'.
24. a Hence, the code for VUWDMG is 2&#$#1.
25. c Solution 24
Solution 21 Given Digit/Symbol code:
G Z D I M K V U W
G Z D I M K V U W
1 @ $ 5 # 8 2 4 #
Page 319 of 1079

Given Word: ‘IZWKUD’ Code @ * & ! $ ^ { + = ? } > \ <

Hence, No condition will follow
Here we can see that, second element is even digit, than
Hence, the code for IZWKUD is 5@#84$
code of the first element will be same as the code of last
Solution 25
element. Condition (2) will be applied, so codes for 1 will
same as code for 3.
G Z D I M K V U W
The other condition (3) will also follow as only one
1 @ $ 5 # 8 2 4 # consonant is in the group; the code of the consonant will
Given Word: ‘KZIDUI’ be same as the code of second last element.
The below condition will follow The code of the element ‘14CO3’ is “\ {<<\”
ii) If one or more vowels are present in the word more than Solution 28
once then those vowels are coded as ~ Hence, Condition (1) will be applied in this question as
Hence, the code for KZIDUI is 8@~$4~. more than two vowels are in the group, the code of all the
Answers vowels will be $.
26. b Letter/N A G Z 1 T P 4 5 F C 7 U 3 O
27. d umber
28. c Code @ * & ! $ ^ { + = ? } > \ <

29. e
30. a The code of the element ‘GUAFO’ is “* $$=$”
Solution 26 Solution 29
Letter/N A G Z 1 T P 4 5 F C 7 U 3 O Letter/N A G Z 1 T P 4 5 F C 7 U 3 O
umber umber
Code @ * & ! $ ^ { + = ? } > \ < Code @ * & ! $ ^ { + = ? } > \ <
The code of the element ‘ZAP4F’ is ‘&@^ {=’ No condition is applied. So, the code of the element
No condition will be applied in this element ‘GTPF5’ is ‘*$^=+’ which is not given in the option
Solution 27 Solution 30
Letter/N A G Z 1 T P 4 5 F C 7 U 3 O Letter/N A G Z 1 T P 4 5 F C 7 U 3 O
umber umber
Code @ * & ! $ ^ { + = ? } > \ <
Page 320 of 1079

Here we can see that, second element is even digit, than So, the code for Antman is &+@=&+
code of the first element will be same as code for last Solution 33
element. Condition (2) will be applied, so codes for C will Given Digit/Symbol code:
same as code for G Letter i u a t g e s m nq f b c v y
The code of the element ‘‘C4UPG’’ is ‘*{>^*’ Coded
6 %& @$ # 4 = + * < > 1 ! 7
Answers Symbol/Number
31. a Given Word: Eyestag
32. c Hence, the below condition will follow
33. d If the third alphabet is a vowel and the fourth alphabet is
34. a a consonant then all the consonants should be changed to
35. b the code for that vowel.
Solution 31 So, the code for Eyestag is #####&#
Given Digit/Symbol code: Solution 34
Letter i u a t g e s m nq f b c v y Given Digit/Symbol code:
Coded Letter i u a t g e s m nq f b c v y
6 %&@$ # 4 = + * < > 1 ! 7
Symbol/Number Coded
6 %& @$ # 4 = + * < > 1 ! 7
Given Word: Gymnasium Symbol/Number
Hence, the below condition will follow Given Word: fusebam

If there are more than five consonants then the codes of Hence, no condition will follow
the second and the third letter have to be interchanged. So, the code for fusebam is <%4#>&=
So, the code for Gymnasium is $=7+&46%= Solution 35
Given Digit/Symbol code: Letter i u a t g e s m nq f b c v y
Coded
6 %& @$ # 4 = + * < > 1 ! 7
Symbol/Number
Letter i u a t g e s m nq f b c v y
Given Word: Effectiveness
Coded
6 %& @$ # 4 = + * < > 1 ! 7 Hence, the below condition will follow
Symbol/Number
If there are more than five consonants then the codes of
Given Word: Antman
the second and the third letter have to be interchanged.
Hence, no condition will follow
So, the code for Effectiveness is #<<#1@6!#+#44
Page 321 of 1079

Answers Hence, the below condition will follow

36. d 2) The words which have both first and last letter
37. c consonant, there codes should be interchanged.
38. a So, the code for ZESTER is !7%>7*
39. b Solution 38
40. d Given Digit/Symbol code:
Solution 36 Num # 5 1 & * + = @ 7 3 % $ 9 ! >
Given Digit/Symbol code: bers /
Num # 5 1 & * + = @ 7 3 % $ 9 ! > Sym
bers / bols
Sym
bols
rs
Lette Y A I R Z W J H E O S P U R T Code
rs
Given term: TAPSTER
Code
Hence, the below conditions will follow
Given term: AIRPORT 2) The words which have both first and last letter
Here No conditions are applied. consonant, there codes should be interchanged.
So, the code for AIRPORT is 51&$3!>. 4) If there is five or more than five consonant then code of
Solution 37 last consonant should be changed to ~.
Given Digit/Symbol code: So, the code for TAPSTER is !5$%>7~
Num # 5 1 & * + = @ 7 3 % $ 9 ! > Note: Conditions should be applied in the given order (for
bers / example, if 1st and 2nd conditions are applied, then apply
Sym the 1st condition first and then apply the second condition).
bols Solution 39
Nos / # 5 1 & * + = @ 7 3 % $ 9 ! >
rs Sym
Code bols
Given term: ZESTER
Page 322 of 1079

Lette Y A I R Z W J H E O S P U R T 45. c
rs
Solution 41
Code
Given term: JERSEY Number /
5 7 6 3 @# + * 8 % 1 $ & 4 2
Hence, the below condition will follow Symbols
2) The words which have both first and last letter Letter
consonant, there codes should be interchanged. Code
So, the code for JERSEY is #7!%7= Given term: 8%4+@1
Solution 40 Hence, the below conditions will follow
Given Digit/Symbol code: (3) If an odd number is immediately preceded by symbols
Nos / # 5 1 & * + = @ 7 3 % $ 9 ! > then the odd number is to be coded of symbol.
Sym
Hence, 8%4+@1 is coded as MPLBOO.
bols
Solution 42
Lette Y A I R Z W J H E O S P U R T Given Digit/Symbol code:
rs
Code
Number /
5 7 6 3 @ # + * 8 %1 $ & 4 2
Given term: PAPERHASE Symbols
Hence, the below conditions will follow Letter
2) 1) If the fourth letter is vowel than its code should be T A N R O V B S MP C U G L X
Code
changed with the immediate next letter. Given term: 43*8$%
3) If the last letter of the given word is vowel, then coded Hence, the below conditions will follow
as code of Second letter. (1) If the second element is a prime number and the last
4) If there is five or more than five consonant then code of element is a symbol then that prime number is to be used
last consonant should be changed to ~. as the code for the symbol.
So, the code for PAPERHASE is $5$!!@5~5 Hence, 43*8$% is coded as LPSMUP.
Answers Solution 43
41. c Given Digit/Symbol code:
42. d
Number /
43. a 5 7 6 3 @# + * 8 % 1 $ & 4 2
Symbols
44. b
Page 323 of 1079

Letter Answers
Code 46. b
Given term: 6$3&5@ 47. c
Hence, the below conditions will follow 48. a
(3) If an odd number is immediately preceded by symbols 49. d
then the odd number is to be coded of symbol. 50. b
Hence, 6$3&5@is coded as NUUGGO. Solution 46
Number /
5 7 6 3 @# + * 8 % 1 $ & 4 2
Symbols
Letter Num $ 4 @ 9 % > 5 8 + * 2 7 < # &
Code bers /
Sym
Given term: 7#+5*3 bols

(2) If there are no even numbers then the codes of the
rs
third and the fourth elements have to be interchanged.
Code
(3) If an odd number is immediately preceded by symbols
then the odd number is to be coded of symbol. Given term: 5%27@
Hence, 7#+5*3 is coded as AVBBSS. Hence, the following condition follows
Solution 45 (3) If odd number is preceded by even number then code
Given Digit/Symbol code: of both should be interchanged.
Number / Hence, 5%27@ is coded as NXSGM.

5 7 6 3 @# + * 8 % 1 $ & 4 2 Solution 47
Symbols
Letter Given Digit/Symbol code:
T A N R O V B S MP C U G L X Nos / $ 4 @ 9 % > 5 8 + * 2 7 < # &
Code
Sym
Given term: 5&86#$
bols
Hence, no condition will follow.
So, 5&86#$ is coded as TGMNVU.
Page 324 of 1079

Lett D E M P X V N O B Q G S J C A Sym
ers bols
Cod
e
rs
Given term: 4&9>*8 Code
(1) If there is any perfect square is given, then it should
Given term: 7&48*5
be replaced by the code for succeeded element.
(3) If odd number is preceded by even number then code
(1) If there is any perfect square is given, then it should
of both should be interchanged.
be replaced by the code for succeeded element.
Hence, 4&9>*8 is coded as AAVVQO.
Hence, 7&48*5 is coded as SAOOQN
Solution 48
Solution 50
Num $ 4 @ 9 % > 5 8 + * 2 7 < # &
Num $ 4 @ 9 % > 5 8 + * 2 7 < # &
bers /
bers /
Sym
Sym
bols
bols
rs
rs
Code
Code
Given term: 25$#7@
Given term: @9%2+
(3) If odd number is preceded by even number then code
If there is any perfect square is given, then it should be
of both should be interchanged.
replaced by the code for succeeded element.
Hence, 25$#7@ is coded as NGDCSM.
If even number is immediately preceded by symbol and
Solution 49
succeeded by symbol then it should be coded as ~.
Hence, @9%2+ is coded as MXX~B
Num $ 4 @ 9 % > 5 8 + * 2 7 < # &
bers /
Page 325 of 1079
Direction
Directions: 1-3) Answer the questions based on the Directions: 4-6 Study the following information
information given below. carefully and answer the question based on it.
Disha started walking from point P in east direction. After One morning after sunrise, Vikas starts from home (which
walking 3m he turns right from point Q and walks 5m. He is facing towards North) and goes 5 km straight out of the
then turns left from point R and walks for 4m. He then house and turns towards his right and goes 2 km. He turns
turns left from point S and walks for 9m. He then turns left again towards his right and goes 8 km again. Finally, he
from point T and walks for 10m and then turns left from turns again towards his left and goes 6 km and reaches a
point U and walks for 5m till point V. park. Vikas meets his friend Suresh in the Park and they
1) In which direction is point P with respect to V? both are standing in lawn with their backs towards each
a. South other. Vikas’s shadow falls exactly towards left hand side.
b. North-West 4) Which direction is Vikas’ home with respect to
c. North-East park?
d. West a. North
e. East b. South
2) What is the shortest distance between point P and c. north-west
point U? d. West
a. 7m e. Can’t be determined
b. 6m 5) Which direction is park with respect to his home?
c. 5m a. North
d. 8m b. South
e. None of the above c. South-east
3) In which direction is point T with respect to R? d. West
a. South e. Can’t be determined
b. North-West 6) What is the shortest distance between Vikas’s home
c. North-East and park?
d. West a. 8 km
e. East b. 7. 54 km
c. 7 km
Page 326 of 1079

d. 8. 54 km Kedarnath walks 15 m towards west. Then he turned left

e. 9 km and walks 20 m. Then he turns left and walks 5 m. Then
Direction: 7-9) Study the following information he turns right and walks 30 m. Finally, he turns right and
carefully and answer the given questions. walks 10 m.
1. Pole M is 24 m west of Pole N 10) If the last turn he takes was in the right direction,
2. Pole N is 5 m south of E. then what is his direction now he is towards?
3. Pole Y is 10 m south of Pole X a. East
4. Pole X is 12 m west of Pole E. b. West
7) What is the total distance between Pole M and Pole c. North
E? d. South
a. 17 m e. None of these
b. 19 m 11) If at the first point of taking the last turn, he turns
c. 22 m left and walks 10 m then again takes a left turn and
d. 29 m walks 15m, then how far is he from his starting
e. 34 m position?
8) Pole Y is in which direction with respect to Pole E? a. 35 m
a. North – East b. 10 m
b. South – East c. 15 m
c. South – West d. 30 m
d. North – West e. None of these
e. South 12) What is the direction of Kedarnath with respect to
9) What is the shortest distance between Pole M and his starting point?
Pole X? a. North
a. 12 m b. South West
b. 13 m c. South east
c. 15 m d. North east
d. 17 m e. None of these
e. 19 m Directions: 13-16) Answer the questions based on the
Direction: 10-12) Study the following information information given below:
carefully and answer the given questions.
Page 327 of 1079

A person starts walking from point A towards west. After b. North east
walking for 9m, he turns right at point H and walks for 4m c. North
to reach point G. At point G, he turns right to walk for 6m d. South west
to reach point B and turns left and walks for 5m to point e. None of the above
E. At point E, he turns right to walk from 8m to reach F Direction: 17-20) Study the information given below
and turns left and walks 3m to point D. At point D, he carefully and answer the questions that follow.
turns left to walk 10m to reach point C. Naksh goes 15 km north, and then he turned to his right
13) What is the direction of point C with respect to and went 8 km to reach School. He further turned to his
point G? right and went 15 km to reach Library. He now turned left
a. North west and went 8 km to reach Theatre. He further turned right
b. North east and went 10 km and reaches Workshop. Finally, he turned
c. North right and went 16 km to reach Hostel.
d. South west 17) Hostel is in which direction with respect to starting
e. None of the above point?
14) What is the shortest distance between the starting a. North East
point and the final point? b. North
a. 17m c. South
b. 15m d. East
c. 20m e. North West
d. 13m 18) Theatre is in which direction with respect to
e. None of the above School?
15) What is the total distance between B and A? a. South East
a. 7m b. North
b. 19m c. South
c. 8m d. East
d. 9m e. North West
e. None of the above 19) What is the shortest distance between Starting
16) What is the direction of point H with respect to point and School?
point D? a. 15 km
a. North west b. 17 km
Page 328 of 1079

c. 8 km c. S and Z, √72km
d. 16 km d. Z and T, √67km
e. 19 km e. T and S, √95km
20) Library is in which direction with respect to 23) If a person walks 6km towards the South from
Workshop? point T, takes a right turn and walks for another 3km,
a. South East he will be between which points?
b. North a. U and T
c. South b. Q and S
d. East c. S and Z
e. North West d. Z and W
Directions: 21-23 Study the information given below e. P and Q
carefully and answer the questions that follow. Directions: Study the following information to answer
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are nine houses. R is 2 km the given question.
South of Q. P is 2 km West of Q and S is 4 km East of Q. Amit goes to a new city. He follows Google maps to
T is 6 km North of S while W is 2 km South of S and U is explore the places of the new city. He wants to visit an
5 km West of T. X is situated just in middle of Q and R amusement park with his friend who lives in the same city.
while Z is just in middle of W and S. First of all, Amit wants to go to his friend's house and from
21) If a person walks 4km towards the East from point there they will be going to the amusement park.
Q, takes a left turn and walks for another 3km, it will In order to go to his friend’s house, Amit faces west and
be between which points? moves 60° towards his right and travels 4 km, then he
a. U and T moves 10 km to the South and turns 90° to his right and
b. T and S covers 20 km from the bus and finally, he reaches his
c. S and Z friend’s place. After meeting his friend, they both travel
d. Z and W 15 km to the North and turn 90° to their right and travel
e. Cannot be determined for the next 5 km to reach an amusement park.
22) If a person walks 8km towards North from point 24) In which direction is his friend's house is located
W, which of the following points would he cross and with respect to Amit’s starting location?
how far will he be from point P? a. South
a. S and X, √118km b. South-East
b. Z and S, √115km c. South-West
Page 329 of 1079

d. North-East Directions: 29-31) Study the information given below

e. North-West carefully and answer the questions that follow.
25) What is the total distance traveled by Amit in order A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in different places in the
to reach the amusement park from his starting point? school field facing north. A is exactly 8m to the right of
a. 74 Km D. B lies 3m ahead of D, with only one person in front of
b. 44 Km her, by a distance of 2m. E lies 11 m away from A in line
c. 54 Km with A and D. D is equidistant from B and E, but they are
d. 64 Km not in a line. F and C are 8m apart eachother, but C has no
e. None of these one in front of him.
26) How many turns did Amit take to reach 29) If C walks another 4m forward, how far will he be
amusement park? from D?
a. 5 a. 7m
b. 4 b. 6m
c. 6 c. 9m
d. 3 d. 8m
e. 7 e. Cannot be determined
27) In which direction end point is located with respect 30) If E moves left by 2m and then upward by 3m, then
to Amit’s Friend’s house? what is the longest distance between E and F?
a. South a. 7m
b. South-East b. 11m
c. South-West c. 9m
d. North-East d. 14m
e. North-West e. Cannot be determined
28) What is the shortest distance between end point 31) If A moves upward by 4m, and then backwards by
and Amit’s Friend’s house? 3m, what is the longest distance between A and F?
a. 5√5km a. 20m
b. 5√6km b. 11m
c. 5√7km c. 13m
d. 5√10km d. 12m
e. None of these e. 16m
Page 330 of 1079

Direction: 32-35) Study the information given below m west of Sam. Ali is 6 m south of Sam. Gita is 3 m west
carefully and answer the questions that follow. of Ali.
Anjum starts at a point P lying 5 km towards east from 35) Durga is in which direction with respect to Ali?
point X. Now she moves 10 km towards north and reaches a. East
Q. She then moves 10 km towards west to reach R, and b. South – East
finally she moves 25 km towards south to reach her c. North – East
destination S. d. West
32) What is the shortest distance between X and R? e. South – West
a. 13 km 36) What is the distance between Ravi and Ali?
b. 12 km a. 3 m
c. 15 km b. 2 m
d. 10 km c. 4 m
e. 5√5 km d. 6 m
33) In which direction is S with respect to X? e. 1 m
a. South 37) If Lucky is 9 meters towards the south of Seema
b. North then what is the distance between Gita and Lucky?
c. North-east a. 1 m
d. North-west b. 8 m
e. South-west c. 2 m
34) In what direction is point Q with respect to R? d. 6 m
a. North e. 3 m
b. East Directions: 38-40) Study the information given below
c. South carefully and answer the questions which follow.
d. North East Seven employees of 3 Sigma company live in Jaipur.
e. South East Sankalp is 8 km North of Mayank. Ramesh is 3 km West
Direction: 35-37) Study the given information of Suresh. Anil is just in the middle of Sankalp and
carefully and answer the following questions. Mayank. Rajesh is 4.5 km East of Sankalp. Mayank and
Ravi is 10 m to the south of Durga. Durga is 5 m to the Suresh are just 6 km and 1.5 km East of Vikas and Anil
east of Raj. Raj is 4 m to the north of Seema. Seema is 3 respectively.
38) Minimum distance between Sankalp and Vikas is?
Page 331 of 1079

a. 3 km d. 3 km
b. 7 km e. 12 km
c. 8 km 42) Village Q is located in which direction with respect
d. 10 km to the village O?
e. 6 km a. South – West
39) If someone goes from Vikas to Suresh via Mayank b. North – West
and Anil, how much distance he has to cover? c. North
a. 12 km d. South – East
b. 18.5 km e. South
c. 11.5 km 43) What is the distance between N and M?
d. 14 km a. 12 km
e. 7.5 km b. 14 km
40) Minimum distance between Suresh and Rajesh is? c. 10 km
a. 4 km d. 15 km
b. 5 km e. Cannot be determined
c. 8.5 km Direction: 44-46) Study the following information
d. 5.5 km carefully and answer the questions given below
e. Data insufficient Priya starts from point L and moves towards east direction
Direction: 41-43 Read the information carefully and for 8 km to reach point M and then she takes a left turn to
answer the questions asked below. reach point N which is at a distance of 2 km. After
M, N, O, P, Q and R are six villages located at a certain reaching N she again takes a left turn and reached point O
distance from one another. O is 17 km to the North East which is at a distance of 2 km. She again takes a left turn
of M and 8 km to the East of N. R is 10 km to the North and goes for 7 km to reach point P and then takes a right
of O. Q is 8 km to the West of R. P is 7 km to the South turn to reach point Q which is 6 km away. Point R is 4 km
of Q. Q, N and M are on a straight line. to the south of Q.
41) What is the distance between village P and village 44) The paths OP and LM intersects at S, then what is
N? the minimum distance between O and S?
a. 8 km a. 3 km
b. 10 km b. 4 km
c. 5 km c. 6 km
Page 332 of 1079

d. 2 km e. Southwest
e. 5 km 48) What is the direction of Metro Station with respect
45) What is the position of point Q with respect to L? to Toshiba’s Office?
a. 3 km South a. Northeast
b. 4 km East b. Northwest
c. 2 km West c. South
d. 6 km North d. East
e. 5 km South e. Southwest
46) Point T is 6 km to the west of point O, then what is 49) Restaurant is in which direction with respect to
the minimum distance between point R and point T. Toshiba’s home?
a. 5 km a. Northeast
b. 4 km b. Northwest
c. 11 km c. Southeast
d. 7 km d. East
e. 6 km e. Southwest
Direction: 47-50) Read the following information 50) What is the shortest distance between Home and
carefully and answer the questions that follow: Restaurant?
Toshiba starts from her home, goes 5 km ahead, takes a a. 3√5 km
right turn and goes 5 km to reach Metro Station. She turns b. 3√3 km
to her right and goes 8 km. She further takes a right turn c. 3√4 km
and goes 8 km to reach Restaurant. She now takes two d. 3√2 km
right turn and goes 10 km after each turn. She takes a final e. Cannot be determined
right turn and goes 5 km to reach office and is facing South Answers Answers
direction. 1. c
47) When Toshiba starts from her house she is facing 2. c
which direction? 3. c
a. North Solutions 1-3
b. West From the given statements we can draw the below figure
c. South
d. East
Page 333 of 1079

Answers
Answers 7. d
4. c 8. c
5. c 9. b
6. d Solutions 7-9
Solutions 4-6 1) Pole M is 24 m west of Pole N, which is 5 m south of
i) Vikas starts from home (which is facing towards North) E.
and goes 5 km 2) Pole Y is 10 m south of Pole X, which is 12 m west of
straight out of the house. Pole E.
ii) He turns towards his right means towards East and goes
2 km.
iii) He turns again towards his right means towards South
and goes 8 km again.
iv) Finally, he turns again towards his left and goes 6 km
and reaches a park.
Answers
v) Vikas meets his friend Suresh in the Park and they both
10. c
are standing in lawn with their backs towards each other.
11. a
vi) Vikas’s shadow falls exactly towards left hand side.
12. b
The movements of Vikas are shown below
Solutions 10-12
As per the given information,
Page 334 of 1079

Answers
13. b Answers
14. d 21. b
15. b 22. c
16. d 23. b
Solutions 13-16 Solutions 21-23
As per the given information, 1) P, Q, R, S, T, U, Z, W and X are nine houses.
2) R is 2 km South of Q. P is 2 km West of Q and S is 4
km east of Q.
3) T is 6 km North of S while W is 3 km South of S and U
is 5 km West of T.
4) X is situated just in middle of Q and R while Z is just
in middle of W and S.
Answers
17. c
18. a
19. b
20. e
Solutions 17-20
The figure according to the information given in the
Answers
question will be as follows:
24. c
Page 335 of 1079
25. c
26. a
27. d
28. d
Solutions 24-28
From the given information,
Answers
32. e
33. e
34. b
Solutions 32-34 The figure according to the information
Answers given in the question will be as follows:
29. c
30. b
31. d
Solutions 29-31
i) A is exactly 8m to the right of D.
ii) B lies 3m ahead of D, with only one person in front of
her, by a distance of 2m.
iii) D is equidistant from B and E, but they are not in a
line.Since B is front of D, E must lie 3m to the side of D.
Answers
iv) E lies 11 m away from A.By virtue of i) and iii), we
35. c
can determine that E lies to the other side of D than A.
36. b
v) F and C are 8m apart, but C has no one in front of
37. e
him.By virtue of ii), F can be determined to lie behind D,
Solutions 35-37
with C in front of B.
Page 336 of 1079

41. d
42. b
43. d
Solutions 41-43
Answers
38. d
39. c
40. b
Solutions 38-40
1) Seven employees of 3 Sigma company live in Jaipur.
Answers
2) Sankalp is 8 km North of Mayank. Ramesh is 3 km
44. d
West of Suresh.
45. e
3) Anil is just in the middle of Sankalp and Mayank. 46. c
4) Rajesh is 4.5 km East of Sankalp.
Solutions 44-46
5) Mayank and Suresh are just 6 km and 1.5 km East of
Vikas and Anil respectively.
question will be as follows
Answers
Page 337 of 1079

Answers
47. a
48. b
49. e
50. d
Solutions 47-50
We have drawn the figure according to the information
given in the question,
Blood Relation
Direction (1-2): Study the following information E. None of these

carefully and answer the questions given below: 3) If A is brother of B. S is father of B and L is mother
There are six persons in the family. V is the only daughter of A. K is sister of B, then how is B related to L?
of C. R is the mother-in-law of D. D has a daughter. F A. Can’t be determined
does not have any siblings and is not married. L is the B. Son
sister-in-law of V and is not married. C. Daughter
1) How is R related to C? D. Sister
A. Granddaughter E. Cousin
B. Daughter-in-law 4) A lady says to a man, “Your father is the father in
C. Mother law of my father’s only child.” How is the man related
D. Wife to the lady?
E. None of these A. Brother
2) How is F related to R? B. Brother – in - law
A. Sister C. Husband
B. Brother D. None of these
C. Grand-daughter E. Father
D. Son
Page 338 of 1079

Direction (5-7): Study the following information There are eight members of three generations are living in
carefully and answer the below questions. a family. M is the parent of R who is the only child of N.
There are eight members in the family with three S is the father in law of T who is the sister in law of Q. J
generations. Three couples are there in the family. S is the is the only son of L who is the mother of Q. N is the sister
father of W, who is the mother of D. E is the of Q.
granddaughter of L, who is the mother-in-law of M. C is 8) How is M related to S?
the brother-in-law of O who is the sister of W. D is the A. Son
brother of E, who is the daughter of W. B. Daughter
5) How is L related to W? C. Son-in-law
A. Father D. Daughter-in-law
B. Father-in-law E. Can’t be determined
C. Mother 9) How is L related to R?
D. Mother-in-law A. Paternal Grand-father
E. None of these B. Paternal Grand-mother
6) Four of the following are alike in a certain way so C. Maternal Grand-father
form a group, which of the following does not belong D. Maternal Grand-mother
to that group? E. Can’t be determined
A.S 10) How is R related to J?
B.M A. Nephew
C.C B. Niece
D.L C. Aunt
E.D D. Uncle
7) How is E related to O? E. Can’t be determined
A. Son Direction (11-13): Study the following information
B. Daughter carefully and answer the below questions.
C. Nephew In the family eight members in three generations. M is the
D. Niece father of K who is the brother-in-law of C. E is the
E. None of these grandson of O and nephew of K. D is the daughter of N
Direction (8-10): Study the following information and niece of B who is the daughter of O. N is the daughter-
carefully to answer the given question: in-law of M who is the husband of O.
Page 339 of 1079

11) Who is the father of E? 15) How C is related to G?

A.B A. Mother
B.C B. Father
C.K C. Son
D.D D. Daughter
12) If L is the father of C then how L is related to E? 16) How many male members are there in the family?
A. Father A.1
B. Grandfather B.3
C. Son C.2
D. Daughter D.4
13) How many male members are in the family? Direction (17-19): Study the following information
A.2 carefully and answer the below questions.
B.3 In the ten members' family, there are three married
C.4 couples. There may be single parents in the family. P is
D.5 the mother of L and D who was the sister-in-law of B. C
E. None of these is the granddaughter of E who is the wife of A. N is the
Direction (14-16): Study the following information brother-in-law of L and has only one sister. O is the son of
carefully to answer the given question: D and grandson of M who is the father-in-law of B. D and
Seven members are in a family. C is the parent of F who N are not married couples. B has only one child.
is the brother-in-law of B. A is the grandson of D who is 17) How was B related to E?
the father of G. E is the wife of F who is the father of A. A. Son
B is the sister of E. D doesn’t have any daughter. B. Son-in-law
14) Who among the following is the sister-in-law of G? C. Daughter
A.A D. Daughter-in-law
B.D E. None of these
C.C 18) How is M related to L?
D.E A. Father
E. None of these B. Mother
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C. Son D, G, M, N, O, P, Q, and S are family members related to

D. Daughter each other.
E. None of these M is the grandfather of D. S is the father of P, who is the
19) If N was married to J then how J was related to B? daughter of N. O is the only son of M. Q is the sister of O,
A. Brother who is the brother-in-law of S. G is the sister of S and wife
B. Sister of O.
C. Brother-in-law 22) How G related to N?
D. Sister-in-law A. Grandmother
E. None of these B. Mother
Direction (20-21): Study the following information C. Sister
carefully and answer the below questions D. Sister-in-law
A family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and E. None of these
G. G is the father-in-law of B who is the wife of E. A is 23) How D related to M?
the only son of B. There are two married couples, Each A. Grandson
couple has 2 kids. C is the grandmother of D. B. Either (a) or (C)
20) If F is Female, how is F is related to A? C. Granddaughter
A. Daughter D. Brother
B. Paternal aunt E. Son
C. Sister 24) Who is the mother of D?
D. Maternal aunt A.Q
E. Can’t be determined B.N
21) How is D related to G? C.G
A. Grand daughter D.O
B. Grand son E.S
C. Daughter 25) A family consists of six members, P is the daughter
D. Son of Q, L is the only son of R, S is the sibling of P, R is
E. Can’t be determined the brother-in-law of M. S is the children of R. There
Direction (22-24): Study the following information are equal numbers of male and female. Then how M is
carefully and answer the below questions. related to S?
A. Paternal Uncle
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B. Paternal aunt Direction (29-31): Study the following information

C. Maternal Uncle carefully and answer the questions given below it.
D. Maternal aunt There are nine members in a family of four generations. A
E. Can’t be determined is the father-in-law of N. S is the mother-in-law of K. R is
Direction (26-28): Study the following information the brother-in-law of N. D is the sister-in-law of T. E is
carefully and answer the below questions. the brother-in-law of A. N is the brother of D. N has only
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are family members related to one sibling. D is unmarried. A has no siblings. J is the son
each other. G is the father of A, who is the spouse of D. E of T. K is the sister of E.
is the sister of A. C is the son-in-law of A. B is the only 29) How is E related to R?
daughter of D. H is the grandson of G. A is the brother-in- A. Uncle
law of F, who is male. E is unmarried. B. Brother
26) How is D related to E? C. Father
A. Mother D. Grandfather
B. Daughter E. None of these
C. Sister 30) How is S related to T?
D. Sister-in-law A. Mother
E. None of these B. Aunt
27) Who is the granddaughter of G? C. Mother-in-law
A.C D. Grandmother
B.B E. None of these
C.H 31) How is D related to J?
D.D A. Sister
E.E B. Aunt
28) How is G related to D? C. Mother
A. Father D. Sister-in-law
B. Brother E. None of these
C. Father-in-law Direction (32-34): Read the following information
D. Sister carefully and answer the questions given below.
E. Mother Eight family members are living in the family. E is the
grandfather of B. N has only two children. C is the son in
Page 342 of 1079

law of D. M is an aunt of A, who is the sister in law of D. 35) How is N related to D?

A is not married. N is the mother of A .both M and N are A. Grandson
not siblings. G is not the daughter of N. B. Can’t be determined
32) What is the relation of N with respect to D? C. Granddaughter
A. Daughter in law D. Daughter
B. Sister E. None of these
C. Daughter 36) How is L related to O?
D. Sister in law A. Uncle
E. Mother in law B. Sister
33) How many married couples are there in the C. Aunt
family? D. Mother
A.3 E. None of these
B.2 37) If J is a female, how is J related to O?
C.4 A. Nephew
D.1 B. Cousin
E. None of these C. Brother
34) What is the relation of N with respect to B? D. Niece
A. Grandfather E. None of these
B. Grandmother Direction (38-39): Study the following information
C. Mother carefully and answer the questions given below:
D. Aunt Seven persons are in a family. H is the wife of Q and is
E. None of these. the sister in law of C, who is the only daughter of B. R is
Direction (35-37): Study the following information the grandfather of T. W and T are siblings. C is unmarried.
carefully and answer the below questions. Two married couples in a family.
In a family of eight persons, there is three generations and 38) How C is related to W?
two married couples. G is the grandfather of J. R and O A. Maternal aunt
are brothers – in – law to each other. L is the sister – in – B. Paternal aunt
law of G. D is the mother of U. U has two children. U is C. Maternal uncle
not married to G and O. N belongs to the third generation. D. Paternal uncle
D is one of the persons. E. None of these
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39) How B is related to T? D. Granddaughter

A. Cannot be determined E. None of these
B. Grandfather Direction (43-44): Study the following information to
C. Grandmother answer the given questions:
D. Grandson B has only two sons R and L. S is the sister in law of R. V
E. None of these is an aunt of H. K and H are not siblings. E has two
Direction (40-42): Study the following information granddaughters. There are three married couples in a
carefully and answer the given questions: family.
Eight persons are there in a family. There are three 43) How S is related to B?
married couples in the family. M is the brother in law of A. Grandson
R, who is the only son of B, who is the brother of P. S is B. Daughter in law
the sister in law of K. W is the only son of K. K is not C. Son in law
married to R. P is the sister in law of H. M does not have D. Mother in law
any siblings. E. None of these
40) How is W related to R?
A. Niece 44) If B is the father of L, then how E is related to V?
B. Nephew A. Mother
C. Aunt B. Father in law
D. Uncle C. Mother in law
E. None of these D. Daughter in law
41) How is H related to R? E. None of these
A. Brother Direction (45-47): Study the following information
B. Sister carefully and answer the questions below.
C. Sister in law In a family there are seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and
D. Mother G. There are two married couples in the family. A has two
E. None of these children and he is the son of E, who is the father-in-law of
42) How is B related to W? D. E’s only sister-in-law G, has only one sibling F. C is
A. Grandmother not the granddaughter of E. D has an equal number of
B. Grandfather children in both genders.
C. Grandson 45) How is B related to C?
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A. Cousin daughter in law of B. Q is unmarried. One of the persons

B. Daughter is R who has two children.
C. Sister 48) How is R related to L?
D. Brother A. Mother in law
E. Aunt B. Father in law
46) If H is married to G then how is H related to A? C. Son
A. Aunt D. Mother
B. Sister-in-law E. None of these
C. Uncle 49 ) How is M related to Q?
D. Mother A. Nephew
E. Father B. Niece
47) How many females are there in the family? C. Aunt
A. One D. Cannot be determined
B. Two E. Son
C. Three 50) If L is the brother of Q, then how is B related to
D. Four H?
E. Five A. Father in law
Direction (48-50): Study the following information to B. Mother
answer the given questions: C. Mother in law
Seven persons are in a family. There are three married D. Daughter
couples in the family. M is the only son of L. Z is the E. None of these
father of Q, who is the only sister in law of B. H is the
Blood Relation – Answer and Explanation
Direction (1-2):
1.Answer: D
2.Answer: C
Explanation
Page 345 of 1079

Direction (8-10):
8.Answer: C
3.Answer: A
9.Answer: D
Explanation
10. Answer: E
Explanation
4.Answer: C
Explanation
Direction (11-13):
11.Answer: B
12.Answer: B
13.Answer: C
Explanation
Direction (5-7):
5.Answer: C
6.Answer: D
7.Answer: D
Explanation
Direction (14-16):
14.Answer: D
Page 346 of 1079

15.Answer: A
16. Answer: D
Explanation
Direction (22-24):
Direction (17-19): 22.Answer: D
17.Answer: C 23.Answer: B
18.Answer: A 24.Answer: C
19.Answer: D 25.Answer: C
Explanation Explanation
Explanation
Direction (20-21):
20.Answer: B
21.Answer: A
Explanation
Direction (26-28):
Page 347 of 1079
26.Answer: D
D is the sister-in-law of E.
27.Answer: B
28.Answer: C
Explanation
Direction (35-37):
35.Answer: B
36.Answer: C
37.Answer: D
Explanation
Direction (29-31):
29.Answer: A
30.Answer: D
31.Answer: B
Explanation
Direction (38-39):
38.Answer: b)
39.Answer: c)
Explanation
Direction (32-34):
32.Answer: E
33.Answer: A
34.Answer: B
Explanation
Page 348 of 1079

Direction (40-42): Direction (45-47):

40. Answer: b) 45.Answer: C
41. Answer: D) 46.Answer: C
42.Answer: B) 47.Answer: D
Explanation
Direction (48-50):
Direction (43-44): 48.Answer: d
43.Answer: b) 49.Answer: a
44.Answer: c) 50.Answer: c
Explanation Explanation:
Inequality
Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, the M<H<V≥R>L=W>O=Q

relationship between different elements is shown in the Conclusions:
statements followed by two conclusions. Find the I. H>Q
conclusion which logically follows. II.M<W
1) Statements: a) If only conclusion I follow.
Page 349 of 1079

b) If only conclusion II follows. b) If only conclusion II follows.

c) If either conclusion I or II follows. c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
2) Statements: 5) Statements:
Y<J>I=U≥Q>T<S=K F=Y≤O=E≤J<I; L>Q≥A≥T=J
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I.J>T I.F<Q
II.U<K II.Q=F
a) If only conclusion I follow. a) If only conclusion I follow.
3) Statements: Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions,
L<K≥I>P=Q; L>S≥O=Y<W the relationship between different elements is shown in
Conclusions: the statements followed by three conclusions. Find the
I.Y≤L conclusion which logically follows.
II. Q<K 6) Statements:
a) If only conclusion I follows. H>F>T<R<E≥Q>W=O
b) If only conclusion II follows. Conclusions:
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. I.H>Q
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. II.T<W
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. III.O<E
4) Statements: a) None follows
G≤E<F=H≤A; D>Q≥X≥Z=A b) Only I follow
Conclusions: c) Only II follows
I.E<X d) Only III follows
II.Q≥F e) Only I& II follows
a) If only conclusion I follow. 7) Statements:
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W<A<D≥Q>P=S<B<O d) Only I and III follow

Conclusions: e) Either I or III follows
I.WS Q>G>F≥A; L<R<S=O>U>F
III.Q≥B Conclusions:
a) None follows I. O>G
b) Only I follow II.A<S
c) Only II follows III.R≥F
d) Only III follows a) None follows
e) Either I or III and II follows b) Only I follow
8) Statements: c) Only II follows
D>W>Q≥A; S<O<G=R; F>R>A d) Only I and III follow
Conclusions: e) Either I or III follows
I. O<Q Directions (11-15): In each of the following questions,
II. W>G the relationship between different elements is shown in
III. D>R the statements followed by two conclusions. Find the
a) None follows conclusion which logically follows.
b) Only I follow 11) Statements:
c) Only II follows A>D>X≥Q=R<H<S=P
d) Only III follows Conclusions:
e) Both I and II follow I. R<X
9) Statements: II. QF>G≥Q>Z; R<S=W<V<L≤Q a) If only conclusion I follow.
Conclusions: b) If only conclusion II follows.
I.R<F c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
II.X>W d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
III.L≤G e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
a) All follows 12) Statements:
b) Only I follow H<W<Q>A; E≥R≥S>A; R<M<O
c) Only II follows Conclusions:
Page 351 of 1079

I.A<O I.J<Q
II.W<R II.G>A
Q<L≤W<H; I>O=N>E≥H the relationship between different elements is shown in
Conclusions: the statements followed by five conclusions. Find the
I.W<O conclusion which logically follows.
II. L>E 16) Statements:
a) If only conclusion I follow. S>T>E>R<H<J≥Q>W=I
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. a) T>Q
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. b) R>I
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. c) E<W
14) Statements: d) J>I
T<E<G≤Q; W>J>I≥A; S>H>J<E e) None of the above
Conclusions: 17) Statements:
I.TF=E<H<A≤Q≥W>S
II.Q>H Conclusions:
a) If only conclusion I follow. a) G>A
b) If only conclusion II follows. b) Q>F
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. c) S<H
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. d) E≤Q
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. e) F>S
T<E<G≤Q; W>J>I≥A; S>H>J<E S>R≤Q<Y=I>O>P=G
Page 352 of 1079

a) S>I III.T≥L
b) R≤G a) None follows
c) QR c) Only II follows
e) Y>G d) Only III follows
19) Statements: e) Only I& III follows
A>B>S>D≤Q; L<M<N≥P>B 22) Statements:
Conclusions: M<E≥Q>F>G=U<O<W=S
a) L>B Conclusions:
b) D<N I.M>F
c) P≤Q II.G<S
d) L<D III.Q>O
e) A>M a) None follows
20) Statements: b) Only I follow
S<F<W=Q>H; R>P>D=Z>H c) Only II follows
Conclusions: d) Only III follows
a) R>Z e) Either I or III and II follows
b) Q>S 23) Statements:
c) H<W Q>R>W=Y≤T≤B≤D=V
d) P>H Conclusions:
e) All are true I. W<D
Directions (21-25): In each of the following questions, II. Q>Y
the relationship between different elements is shown in III. V=Y
the statements followed by three conclusions. Find the a) None follows
conclusion which logically follows. b) Only I follow
21) Statements: c) Only II follows
W<Q<R=T≥Y≥P=L>S≥G d) Only III follows
Conclusions: e) Either I or III and II follows
I.W<T 24) Statements:
II.R<S E<X<Z=J≥P; S>O<Q≤L=J
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Conclusions: b) If only conclusion II follows.

I.S<L c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
II.Q≤Z d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
III.L>E e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
a) None follows 27) Statements:
b) Only I follow V<B≤K<W>A<S≤T<J=O
c) Only II follows Conclusions:
d) Only II and III follow I.O>A
e) Either I or III follows II.V<S
25) Statements: a) If only conclusion I follow.
K<Q≤P=J<T; S>U>I≥O=W; O>N>T b) If only conclusion II follows.
Conclusions: c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
I.S>K d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
II.Q<N e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
III.W>J 28) Statements:
a) None follows M<X≤N<V=J>O≥G>I
b) Only I follow Conclusions:
c) Only II follows I. M<J
d) All I, II, and III follow II. V≥I
e) Either I or III follows a) If only conclusion I follow.
Directions (26-30): In each of the following questions, b) If only conclusion II follows.
the relationship between different elements is shown in c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
the statements followed by two conclusions. Find the d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
conclusion which logically follows. e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
S>G>V=X<Z≤H=QU; I<S≤P<V=M; E<R<Q=S
I. S>X I.W<M
II. VR
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. II.E<A
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. a) If only conclusion I follow.
30) Statements: b) If only conclusion II follows.
T<W<Q>U; I<S≤P<V=M; E<R<Q=S c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Conclusions: d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
I.Q<V e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
II.TJ; L>R>M≥Q≥S; A<O<R
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. I. L>E
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. II. O<Q
S>H≥Q>T; R>J<W=S; P≥O≥M=R N>T>D≥C=M; A<W<R≤H≤O=C
I. W≥Q I.R<M
II.JJ; L>R>M≥Q≥S; A<O<R E>D>J=P; W<J=Q; M<K<Q; V=M
Page 355 of 1079

Conclusions: d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

I.M>W e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
II.V<E 38) Statements:
a) If only conclusion I follow. S>E>Q>W=K≤X<Z<Y>J
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. I. W<Y
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. II.E>X
D>U>Y≥R; Q<R<T; M>S≥T=P; W<S=N R<G>K≤Q≤B>W>T≥S
I. R<N I.KQ II.B>S
D>U>Y≥R; Q<R<T; M>S≥T=P; W<S=N A<J≤B=C<F; Q>P>L=S>C
I. M>Y I.A<L
II.UB
Page 356 of 1079

d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. II. G>L

H>Y>U=O<I≤Q<N=J≤P T<J<L; Q>S>Y; N≤E≤Q; Y>I>L
I. UL
II.H>O II.J<S
G<F<J=O<V; Q≥I=U<V=Y W<H≤Q=I≥J=M≥P≥A=B
I. F<Y I.Q=A
II.U<O II. I>B
Y>G>J≥Q>H; S<J>L=P; W>L=S≤M the relationship between different elements is shown in
Conclusions: the statements followed by three conclusions. Find the
I.H<W conclusion which logically follows.
Page 357 of 1079


M>E<N<C<X≥H≥Q>O=K b) Only I follow
I.M>C d) Only III follows
II.X≥K e)Only II and III follow
III.E<O 49) Statements:
a) None follows V<D<I=Q≥S; T>W>P≥N=Q
c) Only II follows I.P>S
d) Only III follows II.V<W
e) Only I& III follows III.S=P
R<B≤S=G≤T=U≤V>Q>O b) Only I follow
I.R<G d) Only II and III follow
II.T>O e) Either I or III and II follows
III.B<V 50) Statements:
a) None follows L<E<C≤Q>S=I>H≥M>N
c) Only II follows I.LM
e) Either I or III and II follows III.S>N
H>J>K=O>P; F<G≤J=SS(D≥Q>P=S)àTrue

1)Answer: d III.Q≥B(Q>P=S<B)àFalse
I. H>Q(H<V≥R>L=W>O=Q)àFalse 8)Answer: a
II.M<W(M<H<V≥R>L=W)àFalse Conclusions:
Neither conclusion I nor II follows. I. O<Q(Q≥A<R=G>O)àFalse
2) Answer: a II. W>G(W>Q≥A<R=G)àFalse
I.J>T(J>I=U≥Q>T)àTrue III. D>R(D>W>Q≥A<R)àFalse
II.U<K(U≥Q>T<S=K)àFalse 9)Answer: a
Only conclusion I follow Conclusions:
3)Answer: b I.R<F(R<S=W<V<L≤Q≤G<F)àTrue
I. Y≤L(Y=O≤S<L)àFalse II.X>W(W<V<L≤Q≤G<F<X)àTrue
II. Q<K(K≥I>P=Q)àTrue III.L≤G(L≤Q≤G)àTrue
Only conclusion II follows 10)Answer: c
4)Answer: e Conclusions:
I.E<X(E<F=H≤A=Z≤X)àTrue I. O>G(O>U>F<G)àFalse
II.Q≥F(F=H≤A=Z≤X≤Q)àTrue II.A<S(S=O>U>F≥A)àTrue
Both conclusions I and II follow. III.R≥F(R<S=O>U>F)àFalse
5)Answer: c Directions (11-15):
I.F<Q(F=Y<O=E<J=T<A<Q)àTrue 11)Answer: b
II.Q=F(F=Y=O=E=J=T=A=Q)àTrue I. R<X(X≥Q=R)àFalse
Either conclusion I or II follows. II. Q<P(Q=R<H<S=P)àTrue
Directions (6-10): Only conclusion II follows.
6)Answer : d 12) Answer: a
Conclusions: I.A<O(A<S≤R<M<O)àTrue
I.H>Q(H>F>T<R<E≥Q)àFalse II.W<R(W<Q>A<S≤R)àFalse
II.T<W(T<R<E≥Q>W)àFalse Only conclusion I follow
III.O<E(E≥Q>W=O)àTrue 13) Answer: a
7)Answer: c I. W<O (W<H≤E<N=O)àTrue
Conclusions: II. L>E (L≤W<H≤E)àFalse
I.W<P(W<A<D≥Q>P)àFalse Only conclusion I follow
Page 359 of 1079

14)Answer: d Conclusions:
I.TJ>I)àFalse I. W<D(W=Y≤T≤B≤D)àTrue
II.Q>H (H>J<E<G≤Q)àFalse II. Q>Y(Q>R>W=Y)àTrue
Neither conclusion I nor II follows III. V=Y(Y≤T≤B≤D=V)àTrue
15)Answer: e 24)Answer: d
I.J<Q(J<E<G≤Q)àTrue Conclusions:
II.G>A(G>E>J>I≥A)àTrue I.S<L(S>O<Q≤L)àFalse
Both conclusions I and II follow. II.Q≤Z(Q≤L=J=Z)àTrue
Directions (16-20): III.L>E(L=J=Z>X>E)àTrue
16.Answer: d 25)Answer: d
d) J>I(J≥Q>W=I)àTrue Conclusions:
17.Answer: b I.S>K(K<Q≤P=J<T<N<O≤I<U<S)àTrue
b) Q>F(F=E<H<A≤Q)àTrue II.Q<N(Q≤P=J<T<N)àTrue
18.Answer: e III.W>J(W=O>N>T>J)àTrue
e) Y>G(Y=I>O>P=G)àTrue Directions (26-30):
19.Answer: b 26)Answer: e
b) D<N(N≥P>B>S>D)àTrue I. S>X(S>G>V=X)àTrue
20.Answer: e II. V<I(V=X<Z≤H=Q<I)àTrue
Directions (21-25): Both conclusions I and II follow.
21.Answer: e 27) Answer: a
Conclusions: I.O>A(A<S≤T<J=O)àTrue
I.W<T(W<Q<R=T)àTrue II.V<S(V<B≤K<W>A<S)àFalse
II.R<S(R=T≥Y≥P=L>S)àFalse Only conclusion I follow
III.T≥L(T≥Y≥P=L)àTrue 28)Answer: a
22)Answer: c I. M<J(M<X≤N<V=J)àTrue
Conclusions: II. V≥I(V=J>O≥G>I)àFalse
I.M>F(M<E≥Q>F)àFalse Only conclusion I follow
II.G<S(G=U<O<W=S)àTrue 29)Answer: a
III.Q>O(Q>F>G=U<O)àFalse I.W<M(W<Q=S≤P<V=M)àTrue
23)Answer: e II.I<E(E<R<Q=S>I)àFalse
Page 360 of 1079

Only conclusion I follow Both conclusions I and II follow.

30)Answer: e 37)Answer: d
I.Q<V(Q=S≤P<V)àTrue I. M>Y(Y≥R<T≤S<M)àFalse
II.T<P(T<W<Q=S≤P)àTrue II.U<P(U>Y≥R<T=P)àFalse
Both conclusions I and II follow. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Directions (31-35): 38)Answer: a
31)Answer: b I. W<Y(W=K≤X<Z<Y)àTrue
I. W≥Q(W=S>H≥Q)àFalse II.E>X(E>Q>W=K≤X)àFalse
II.J<P(P≥O≥M=R>J)àTrue Only conclusion I follow
Only conclusion II follows. 39) Answer: b
32) Answer: d I.K<B(K≤Q≤B)àFalse
I.J>R(R>M≥QJ)àFalse II.B>S(B>W>T≥S)àTrue
II.E<A(E<Q≤M<R>O>A)àFalse Only conclusion II follows
Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 40)Answer: e
33)Answer: a I. A<L(A<J≤B=C<S=L)àTrue
I. L>E(L>R>M≥Q>E)àTrue II. Q>B(Q>P>L=S>C=B)àTrue
II. O<Q(A<O<R>M≥Q)àFalse Both conclusions I and II follow
Only conclusion I follow Directions (41-45):
34)Answer: c 41)Answer: e
I.R<M(R<H<O=C=M)àTrue I. U<P(U=O<I≤Q<N=J≤P)àTrue
II.C=R (R=H=O=C)àTrue II.H>O(H>Y>U=O)àTrue
Either conclusion I or II follows. Both conclusions I and II follow.
35)Answer: b 42)Answer: a
I.M>W(M<K<Q=J>W)àFalse I. F<Y(F<J=O<V=Y)àTrue
II.V<E(V=M<K<Q=J<D<E)àTrue II.U<O(U<V>O)àFalse
Only conclusion II follows Only the conclusion I follow.
Directions (36-40): 43)Answer: b
36)Answer: e I.H<W(W>L=S<J≥Q>H)àFalse
I. R<N(R<T≤S=N)àTrue II. G>L(G>J>L)àTrue
II.D>Q(D>U>Y≥R>Q)àTrue Only conclusion II follows
Page 361 of 1079

44) Answer: e II.T>O(T=U≤V>Q>O)àFalse

I.Q>L(Q>S>Y>I>L)àTrue III.B<V(B≤S=G≤T=U≤V)àFalse
II.J<S(S>Y>I>L>J)àTrue 48)Answer: e
Both conclusions I and II follow. Conclusions:
45)Answer: c I. F<O(F<G≤J>K=O)àFalse
I. Q=A(Q=I=J=M=P=A)àTrue II. G<H(G≤J<H)àTrue
II. I>B(I>J=M>P>A=B)àTrue III. K<I(K<J=S<I)àTrue
Either conclusion I or II follows 49)Answer: e
Directions (46-50): Conclusions:
46)Answer: a I.P>S(P>N=Q>S)àTrue
Conclusions: II.V<W(V<D<I=Q=N≤P<W)àTrue
I.M>C(M>E<N<C)àFalse III.S=P(P=N=Q=S)àTrue
II.X≥K(X≥H≥Q>O=K)àFalse 50)Answer: d
III.E<O(E<N<C<X≥H≥Q>O)àFalse Conclusions:
47)Answer: b I.L<I(L<E<C≤Q>S=I)àFalse
Conclusions: II.Q>M(Q>S=I>H≥M)àTrue
I.R<G(R<B≤S=G)àTrue III.S>N(S=I>H≥M>N)àTrue
Syllogism
Directions (1-5): Answer the questions based on the c) Either I or II follows

information given below. d) Neither I nor II follows
1. Statements: e) Both I and II follow
All Biscuits are Cookie. 2. Statements:
Only a few Toffees are Cookie. No Pencil is Paint.
All Toffees are Candy. Only a few Paint is Acrylic.
Conclusion: All Acrylic are Nippon.
I. Some Candies are not Cookie. Conclusion:
II. No Biscuit is Toffee. I. Some Acrylic are Pencil.
a) Only I follows. II. Some Nippon are not Paint.
b) Only II follows a) Only I follows
Page 362 of 1079

b) Only II follows All Laptops are Computers.

c) Either I or II follows Some Computers are Desktop.
d) Neither I nor II follows Conclusion:
e) Both I and II follow I. Some Desktop are Tab.
3. Statements: II. No Tab is Desktop.
Some Tables are Desk. a) Only I follows
All Desk are Wood. b) Only II follows
Only a few Wood are Teak. c) Either I or II follows
Conclusion: d) Neither I nor II follows
I. Some Desk are Teak. e) Both I and II follow
II. Some Wood are Table. Directions (6-10): Answer the questions based on the
a) Only I follows information given below.
b) Only II follows 6. Statements:
c) Either I or II follows Only a few Mikes are Bike.
d) Neither I nor II follows All Mike are Nike.
e) Both I and II follow Some Bikes are Hike.
4. Statements: Conclusion:
Only Die are Chart. I. No Nike is Hike.
Only a few Die are Cubes. II. Some Bike are Nike.
No Cube is a Cylinder. a) Only I follow
Conclusion: b) Only II follows
I. Some Die can never be Cylinder. c) Either I or II follows
II. No Chart is Cubes. d) Neither I nor II follows
a) Only I follows e) Both I and II follow
c) Either I or II follows Only a few Tire are Wheel.
d) Neither I nor II follows Some Wheel are Circle.
e) Both I and II follow All Circle are Sphere.
5. Statements: Conclusion:
Only a few Tab are Laptop. I. Some Wheel are Sphere.
Page 363 of 1079

II. No Tire is Circle is a possibility. 10. Statements:

a) Only I follows No Bag is Belt.
b) Only II follows All Belt are Leather.
c) Either I or II follows Only a few Leather are Shoe.
d) Neither I nor II follows Conclusion:
e) Both I and II follow I. Some Bag are Shoe.
8. Statements: II. No Shoe is Bag.
Some Red are Blue. a) Only I follows
Only a few White are Red. b) Only II follows
All Red are Brown. c) Either I or II follows
Conclusion: d) Neither I nor II follows
I. Some Brown are White. e) Both I and II follow
II. All Red are Blue. Directions (11-15): Answer the questions based on the
a) Only I follows information given below.
c) Either I or II follows Some Soup are Spicy.
d) Neither I nor II follows All Spicy are Chilli.
e) Both I and II follow Only a few Chilli are Sauce.
9. Statements: No Sauce is Mayo.
Only Book are Note. Conclusion:
Only a few Book are File. I. No Spice is Mayo.
No File is Disk. II. Some Soup can be Sauce.
Conclusion: a) Only I follows
I. Some Note can be File. b) Only II follows
II. No Book is Disk. c) Either I or II follows
a) Only I follows d) Neither I nor II follows
b) Only II follows e) Both I and II follow
c) Either I or II follows 12. Statements:
d) Neither I nor II follows Only a few Pillar are Palace.
e) Both I and II follow All Palace are House.
Page 364 of 1079

No House is Hut. II. No Fox is Hen.

All Hut are Tent. a) Only I follows
I. No Pillar is Hut. c) Either I or II follows
II. All Tent can be Palace. d) Neither I nor II follows
c) Either I or II follows Only a few Lion are Tiger.
d) Neither I nor II follows Only a few Tiger are Cock.
e) Both I and II follow Some Cock are Red.
13. Statements: All Cock are Chicken.
All Pen are Stick. Conclusion:
Only a few Pen are Marker. I. Some Chicken are Tiger.
All Marker are Dark. II. Some Lion are Cock is a possibility.
Some Dark are Swallow. a) Only I follows
I. Some Stick are Dark. c) Either I or II follows
II. No Swallow is Pen. d) Neither I nor II follows
b) Only II follows Directions (16-20): Answer the questions based on the
c) Either I or II follows information given below.
d) Neither I nor II follows 16. Statements:
e) Both I and II follow Some Milk are Tea.
14. Statements: Only a few Tea are Ice.
Only a few Cow are Goat. All Tea are Coffee.
All Cow are Fox. Some Ice are Water.
Only a few Goat are Cat. Conclusion:
All Cat are Hen. I. Some Coffee are not Ice.
Conclusion: II. No Milk is Water is a possibility.
I. Some Hen are Fox. a) Only I follows
Page 365 of 1079


c) Either I or II follows Some Floor are Tile.
d) Neither I nor II follows No Tile is Granite.
e) Both I and II follow All Granite are Marble.
17. Statements: Only a few Marble are Mat.
NO Shoot is Root. Conclusion:
Some Root are Stem. I. Some Granite are Mat.
All Stem is Branch. II. No Floor is Marble.
Only a few Stem are Leaf. a) Only I follows
I. Some Root can never be Leaf. c) Either I or II follows
II. Some Stem can never be Shoot. d) Neither I nor II follows
c) Either I or II follows Only a few Fossil are Soil.
d) Neither I nor II follows Some Soil are Stone.
e) Both I and II follow All Stone are Rock.
18. Statements: Only a few Rock are Mount.
Only a few Gold are Yellow. Conclusion:
Some Yellow are Purple. I. All Fossil are Rock.
No Purple is Orange. II. No Rock is Fossil.
All Orange are Maroon. a) Only I follows
I. Some Gold can be Maroon. c) Either I or II follows
II. No Yellow is Orange. d) Neither I nor II follows
b) Only II follows Directions (21-25): Answer the questions based on the
c) Either I or II follows information given below.
d) Neither I nor II follows 21. Statements:
e) Both I and II follow All Square are Cube.
Page 366 of 1079

Some Square are Triangle. All Engineer are Astronaut.

Only a few Triangle are Circle. Conclusion:
All Circle are Sphere. I. No Engineer is Lawyer.
Conclusion: II. Some Doctor can be Astronaut.
I. Some Cube are Sphere. III. Some Tailor can be Astronaut.
II. No Square is Circle. a) Only I and II follow
III. All Triangle are Sphere. b) Only II and III follow
a) Only II follows c) Either II or III follows
b) Only II and III follow d) None follows
c) Either I or II follows e) All follow
d) None follows 24. Statements:
e) All follow No River is Falls.
22. Statements: All Falls are Dam.
Some Maths are Physics. Some Dam are Sea.
No Physics is Chemistry. Only a few Sea are Ocean.
All Maths are Problem. Conclusion:
All Chemistry are Biology. I. Some Falls can be Sea.
Conclusion: II. All Dam are River.
I. Some Problem are not Chemistry. III. No River is Ocean is a possibility.
II. No Maths is Biology is a possibility. a) Only III follows
III. All Physics are Biology. b) Only II and III follow
a) Only I and II follow c) Only I and III follow
c) Either I or III follows e) All follow
e) All follow Only a few Rock are Folk.
23. Statements: No Folk is Rap.
Only a few Tailor are Lawyer. All Rap are Jazz.
All Tailor are Doctor. Some Jazz are Pop.
No Lawyer is Engineer. Conclusion:
Page 367 of 1079

I. Some Rock are Rap. I. No Spoon is Mug.

II. All Folk can be Jazz. II. Some Thin are Cup.
III. Some Rap are Pop is a possibility. III. All plate can be Thin.
a) Only III follows a) Only III follows
b) Only II and III follow b) Only II and III follow
c) Only I and III follow c) Only I and III follow
d) None follows d) None follows
e) All follow e) All follow
Directions (26-30): Answer the questions based on the 28. Statements:
information given below. Some Motor are Bike.
26. Statements: All Bike are Car.
Only a few Shoots are Grass. Only a few Car are Bus.
No Pine is Shoot. No Bus is Train.
Some Pine are Tree. Conclusion:
All Tree are Tall. I. Some Bike are not Train is a possibility.
Conclusion: II. Some Bus are not Car.
I. Some Grass are Pine. III. No Motor is Bus.
II. No Shoot is Tree. a) Only I follows
III. Some Tall can never be Shoot. b) Only I and II follow
a) Only III follows c) Only I and III follow
c) Only I and III follow e) All follow
e) All follow Some Finger are Hand.
27. Statements: All Hand are Nail.
No Plate is Cup. Only a few Nail are Enamel.
Only a few Cup are Spoon. Some Elbow are Hand.
All Spoon are Thin. Conclusion:
No Mug is Thin. I. All Hand are Enamel.
Conclusion: II. Some Nail are Elbow.
Page 368 of 1079

III. No Finger is Enamel is a possibility. a) Only II follows

a) Only II follows b) Only II and III follow
b) Only II and III follow c) Only I and III follow
c) Only I and III follow d) None follows
d) None follows e) All follow
e) All follow 32. Statements:
30. Statements: Only Cloud are Sky.
Some Sun are Moon. Only a few Cloud are Strom.
No Moon is Earth. Some Strom are Star.
All Earth are Planet. Only a few Star are Stone.
Only a few Planet are Universe. Conclusion:
Conclusion: I. No Sky is Star.
I. No Universe is Moon. II. Some Cloud are not Stone.
II. Some Moon are Earth. III. All Strom are Stone is a possibility.
III. All Planet are Sun. a) Only I follows
a) Only II follows b) Only I and III follow
b) Only II and III follow c) Only I and III follow
Directions (31-35): Answer the questions based on the Only a few Network are LAN.
information given below. Some LAN are WAN.
31. Statements: Only a few WAN are VPN.
Only Fruit are Berry. No Wired is WAN.
No Fruit is Flower. Conclusion:
Only a few Flower are Seed. I. All WAN are Network.
Conclusion: II. Some LAN are not Wired.
I. Some Seed is Berry. III. No Network is VPN is a possibility.
II. Some Fruit are Seed is a possibility. a) Only II follows
III. All Berry are Flower is a possibility. b) Only III follows
Page 369 of 1079

c) Only II and III follow Directions (36-40): Answer the questions based on the
d) None follows information given below.
34. Statements: All Mirror are Glass.
Some Sugar are Sweet. Only a few Glass are Fibre.
All Sweet are Salt. No Fibre is Plastic.
Only a few Salt are Bitter. Conclusion:
Conclusion: I. No Mirror is Fibre.
I. No Sweet is Bitter. II. Some Glass are Plastic.
II. Some Salt are Sugar is a possibility. III. Some Fibre are Mirror.
III. All Bitter are Sugar. a) Only I follows
a) Only II follows b) Only III follows
b) Only III follows c) Either I or III follows
c) Only I and II follow d) None follows
35. Statements: Only Red are Pink.
Only Door are Shelf. No Grey is Red.
Only a few Door are Window. Some Blue are Grey.
No Window are Board. Only a few Blue are Cyan.
Some Board are Hook. Conclusion:
Conclusion: I. No Pink is Cyan.
I. No Shelf is Window. II. Some Blue are Red is a possibility.
II. Some Door are not Board. III. All Grey are Cyan.
III. All Hook are Door is a possibility. a) Only II follows
a) Only III follows b) Only I and II follow
b) Only I and II follow c) Only II and III follow
Page 370 of 1079

Some Syrup are Tonic. No Cell is Laptop.

All Tonic are Tab. Conclusion:
Only a few Tab are Capsule. I. Some Mobile are not Laptop.
Conclusion: II. No Phone is Cell.
I. All Syrup are Capsule. III. Some Mobile are Mike.
II. Some Tab are Syrup is a possibility. a) Only III follows
III. No Tonic is Capsule. b) Only I and III follow
a) Only II follows c) Only II and III follow
b) Only I and III follow d) None follows
c) Only II and III follow e) All follow
d) None follows Directions (41-45): Some statements are followed by
e) All follow some conclusions in each option. Choose the one which
39. Statements: satisfies the given statements.
Only Cheese are Cream. 41. Statements:
No Honey is Cheese. Only Jar are Flask.
Only a few Honey are Coco. Some Bowl are Jar.
All Coco are Chocolate. Only a few Bowl are Saucer.
Conclusion: Some Saucer are Bottle.
I. Some Chocolate can never be Cheese. a) Some Bottle is Flask is a possibility
II. No Cream is Coco. b) Some Jar are Saucer
III. All Honey are Chocolate is a possibility. c) All Bottle can be Bowl
a) Only II follows d) Some Flask are Bowl
b) Only I and III follow e) None follows or more than one follows
c) Only II and III follow 42. Statements:
d) None follows Some Summer are Autumn.
e) All follow Only a few Autumn are Spring.
40. Statements: All Spring are Winter.
Some Mike are Phone. All Winter are Cold.
All Phone are Mobile. a) Some Summer are not Winter
Some Mobile are Cell. b) Some Cold are Autumn
Page 371 of 1079

c) No Winter is Autumn c) All King are Black

d) All Cold are Spring d) Some King are Black
e) None follows or more than one follows e) None follows or more than one follows
43. Statements: Directions (46-50): Some statements are followed by
Some Gold are Silver. some conclusions in each option. Choose the one which
All Silver are Metal. satisfies the given statements.
Only a few Metal are Gem. 46. Statements:
All Gem are Diamond. Only a few Steam are Liquid.
a) Some Metal are not Diamond All Liquid are Ice.
b) Some Gold are Metal is a possibility No Ice is Gas.
c) No Silver is Gem Only Gas are Oxygen.
d) All Gem are Gold a) Some Steam are Oxygen
e) None follows or more than one follows b) No Liquid is Oxygen
44. Statements: c) All Gas are Steam
Only LED are TV. d) No Ice is Steam
Some LED are LCD. e) None follows or more than one follows
All LCD are Tube. 47. Statements:
Only a few Tube are Bolt. Some Wheat are Rice.
a) Some Tube are LED Only a few Rice are Cereal.
b) No LCD is Bolt All Corn are Cereal.
c) All TV can be Tube No Ghee is Corn.
d) No TV is Bolt is a possibility a) No Rice is Corn
e) None follows or more than one follows b) Some Wheat are Cereal
45. Statements: c) Some Cereal are not Ghee
All Jack are Red. d) All Rice are Ghee
Some Red are King. e) None follows or more than one follows
Only a few King are Spade. 48. Statements:
All Spade are Black. Some Wind are Power.
a) Some Jack are King Only Power are Volt.
b) No Red is Spade No Bulb is Power.
Page 372 of 1079

Only a few Bulb is Light. c) No Cycle is Cone

a) All Light are Power is a possibility d) All Cent are Cone
b) No Bulb is Volt is a possibility e) None follows or more than one follows
c) All Wind are Light is a possibility 50. Statements:
d) Some Wind are Volt is a possibility Only Pot are Mud.
e) None follows or more than one follows No Pot is Clay.
49. Statements: Only a few Clay are Sand.
Some Cone are Cube. Some Rock are Clay.
Only Cube are Ice. a) No Mud is Rock is a possibility
Only a few Cube are Cent. b) Some Sand are Pot
All Cent are Cycle. c) All Rock are Sand
a) No Cone is Ice d) All Sand are Pot is a possibility
b) Some Cube are Cycle is a possibility e) None follows or more than one follows
Syllogism – Answer and Explanation
1. Answer: a) Only I follows

Solution:
3. Answer: b) Only II follows

Solution:
2. Answer: d) Neither I nor II follows
Solution:
Page 373 of 1079

4. Answer: e) Both I and II follow

Solution:

Solution:
5. Answer: c) Either I or II follows
Solution:

Solution:

Solution:

Solution:

Solution:

Solution:
Solution:
Page 374 of 1079


13. Answer: a) Only I follows Solution:
Solution:

14. Answer: c) Either I or II follows Solution:
Solution:

Solution:
Solution:

Solution:

Solution:
Page 375 of 1079

25. Answer: b) Only II and III follow

21. Answer: d) None follows Solution:
Solution:
26. Answer: a) Only III follows

Solution:
22. Answer: a) Only I and II follow
Solution:
27. Answer: e) All follow

Solution:

Solution:

Solution:
24. Answer: c) Only I and III follows

Solution:
Page 376 of 1079

29. Answer: b) Only II and III follow 33. Answer: c) Only II and III follow
Solution: Solution:
34. Answer: d) None follows

Solution:
Solution:

Solution:
31. Answer: a) Only II follows

Solution:
36. Answer: c) Either I or III follow

Solution:

Solution:
37. Answer: b) Only I and II follow

Solution:
Page 377 of 1079

42. Answer: b) Some Cold are Autumn

Solution:

Solution:
43. Answer: e) None follows or more than one follows

Solution:

Solution:
44. Answer: a) Some Tube are LED

Solution:
40. Answer: b) Only I and III follow

Solution:
45. Answer: d) Some King are Black

Solution:
41. Answer: c) All Bottle can be Bowl

Solution:
46. Answer: b) No Liquid is Oxygen

Solution:
Page 378 of 1079

49. Answer: a) No Cone is Ice

Solution:
47. Answer: c) Some Cereal are not Ghee

Solution:
50. Answer: e) None follows or more than one follows
Solution:
48. Answer: c) All Wind are Light is a possibility

Solution:
Alpha Numeric Series
(Direction 1-5): Study the following information E) More Than Three

carefully and answer the given questions: 2) How many such symbols are there in the above
AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7 arrangement which are immediately followed by a
1) How many such numbers are there in the above symbol and also immediately preceded by a number?
arrangement which are immediately followed by and A) None
immediately preceded by a consonant? B) One
A) None C) Two
B) One D) Three
C) Two E) More Than Three
D) Three
Page 379 of 1079

3) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following 6) If all the numbers are dropped from the series,
series based on the above arrangement? which element will be eleventh from the left end of the
C64, D9%, KOJ, ? new arrangement?
A) 8&O A) P
B) 31P B) A
C) M32 C) &
D) 2P& D) G
E) &M# E) !
4) Which of the following element is 14th to the left of 7) How many such symbols are there in the given series
the one which is 6th from the right end of the given which are immediately followed by a number?
arrangement? A) None
A) ^ B) One
B) 9 C) Two
C) ! D) Three
D) F E) More Than Three
E) D 8) What is the sum of the place value of the letter which
5) How many such consonant are there in the above is 8th from the left end and the letter which is eleventh
arrangement which are immediately followed by a from the right end in English alphabets?
number but not immediately preceded by a A) 26
consonent? B) 28
A) One C) 30
B) Two D) 32
C) Three E) 34
D) None 9) Which of the following element is thirteenth to the
E) More Than Three right of Q?
(Direction 6-10): Study the following information A) *
carefully and answer the given questions: B) 5
@5CF#K2LOQ$792PA&G!HT%*5> C) T
D) %
E) H
Page 380 of 1079

10) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following B) U

series based on the above arrangement? C) !
KL2, Q7$, 2AP, ? D) F
A) GTH E) $
B) &!G 14) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following
C) GH! series based on the above arrangement?
D) H%T !@U, F!G, PF$, ?
E) !TH A) $G5
(Direction 11-15): Study the following information B) 5P8
carefully and answer the given questions: C) PF$
9DK@4!UFGP$58#^6&ULI%KM31* D) GUP
11) How many such numbers are there in the above E) P5G
arrangement which are immediately followed by and 15) If all the symbols are dropped from the series,
immediately preceded by a symbol? which element will be Fourteenth from the right end of
A) One the new arrangement?
B) Two A) !
C) None B) F
D) Three C) G
E) More Than Three D) 4
12) How many letters are there in between third letter E) U
from left end and eighth letter from the left end as per (Direction 16-20): Study the following information
alphabetical order? carefully and answer the given questions:
A) None
B) One 5BKL@UJ2!$MY#Z5CF3*O&19P<
C) Two 16) How many such vowels are there in the series
D) Three which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not
E) More Than Three immediately followed by a number?
13) Which of the following element is seventh to the left A) None
of the twelfth element from the right end? B) One
A) G C) Two
Page 381 of 1079

D) Three E) ZC#
E) More Than Three (Direction 21-25): Study the following information
17) Which of the following element is sixth to the right carefully and answer the given questions:
of the thirteenth element from the right end? DFJ#5K@MY!BCW&542*OLE^F59$
A) * 21) If all the numbers are dropped from the series,
B) O which element will be ninth from the right end of the
C) 3 new arrangement?
D) F A) &
E) & B) W
18) What is the square of the place value of the element C) B
which is twelfth to the right of Y? D) 2
A) 144 E) *
B) 256 22) How many letters are there in between sixth
C) 121 element from left end and eighth element from the
D) 169 right end as per English alphabetical order?
E) 225 A) None
19) Which of the following element is exactly at the B) One
middle of the Y and P? C) Two
A) F D) Three
B) O E) More Than Three
C) * 23) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following
D) 3 series based on the above arrangement?
E) & 5#@, YMB, WC5, ?
20) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following A) 52*
series based on the above arrangement? B) 2LO
LB@, J@2, $2M, ? C) 24O
A) Y$# D) ELF
B) #MZ E) 5&2
C) M!Y
D) #5Y
Page 382 of 1079

24) How many such letters are there in the series which C) Two
is immediately preceded as well as followed by a D) Three
number? E) More Than Three
A) None 28) How many such numbers are there in the above
B) One arrangement which are immediately followed by and
C) Two immediately preceded by a symbol?
D) Three A) One
E) More Than Three B) Two
25) Which of the following is the fifth symbol to the C) None
right of the eighteenth element from the right end? D) Three
A) * E) Four
B) ! 29) What is the sum of the place value of the element
C)@ which is 9th from the left end and the element which is
D) $ 13th from the right end?
E)% A) 25
(Direction 26-30): Study the following information B) 30
carefully and answer the given questions: C) 24
$92KM@2AE#JOV48&!QU*TP%E+ D) 20
26) Which of the following element is exactly at the E) 27
middle of the A and P?
A) 4 30) Which of the following element is 8th to the right
B) 8 of the 17th element from the right end?
C) & A) 4
D) ! B) &
E) U C) J
27) How many such vowels are there in the series D) !
which is immediately preceded by a letter but not E) 8
immediately followed by a number? (Direction 31-35): Study the following information
A) None carefully and answer the given questions:
B) One @AKLUV$5#28J4MPR79&%B*UF31
Page 383 of 1079

31) If all the numbers are dropped from the series then 35) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following
there will be how many elements in the new series? series based on the above arrangement?
A) 19 LVK, #85, MR4, ?
B) 18 A) *59
C) 17 B) &B9
D) 16 C) F%B
E) 15 D) 7&R
32) How many letters are there in the series which is E) BUF
immediately followed as well as immediately preceded (Direction 36-40): Study the following information
by a letter? carefully and answer the given questions:
A) Two 4C@AD^9J2MP*31EKY$7DF9!6L%
B) One 36) If all the numbers are dropped from the series,
C) Three which element will be 12th from the left end of the new
D) Five arrangement?
E) Four A) Y
33) Which of the following element will be 6th to the B) $
left of the 13th element from the right end of the series? C) K
A) J D) 7
B) # E) D
C) 5 37) Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence
D) U forms a group. Which of the following doesn't belong
E) $ to that group?
34) Which of the following is the 9th letter from the left A) AD
end in the given series? B) 2M
A) K C) 1E
B) R D) !6
C) J E) 7D
D) L 38) How many such vowels are there in the series
E) M which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not
immediately followed by a number?
Page 384 of 1079

A) None D) 120
B) One E) 101
C) Two 42) How many such symbols are there in the series
D) Three which is immediately followed by a number and
E) Four immediately preceded by a letter?
39) What is the place value of the letter which is A) One
opposite to the 11th element from the left end of the B) None
series? C) Two
A) 9 D) Three
B) 13 E) More Than Three
C) 11 43) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following
D) 12 series based on the above arrangement?
E) 14 KUL, A8E, OIV, ?
40) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following A) 293
series based on the above arrangement? B) M3>
AC@, J^9, *MP, ? C) Y9F
A) P1E D) MY2
B) YK$ E) K29
C) 3KE 44) Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence
D) K1E forms a group. Which of the following doesn't belong
E) 3$Y to that group?
(Direction 41-45): Study the following information A) 75
carefully and answer the given questions: B) LY
7KL!U@AE#84OV*IKM>239%YF5 C) U9
41) What will be the multiple of the place values of the D) A>
element which is 18th from the right end and the place E) #M
value of its opposite letter? 45) If all the vowels and symbols are dropped from the
A) 100 series then which is the 14th element from the right
B) 105 end of the series?
C) 110 A) 7
Page 385 of 1079

B) K 48) Which of the following element is at the middle of

C) M the @ and $?
D) L A) %
E) 5 B) U
(Direction 46-50): Study the following information C) 7
carefully and answer the given questions: D) K
MZ!AD4@31VWB#9U7L%KG*H28$>5 E) 9
46) How many letters are there in between the 5th 49) What will come in place of ‘__’ in the following
letter from the left end and 9th letter from the right series based on the above arrangement?
end of the series as per alphabetical order? 8H$, BV#, KLG, ?
A) 7 A) 3V@
B) 5 B) D!4
C) 6 C) @14
D) 9 D) BVW
E) 8 E) 9L7
47) How many such numbers are there in the series 50) If all the numbers are dropped from the series,
which is immediately preceded by a symbol? which element will be 18th from the right end of the
A) None new arrangement?
B) One A) Z
C) Two B) 7
D) Three C) !
E) More Than Three D)M
E) D
Alpha Numeric Series – Answers and Explanation
Answers (1-5): 5) E
1) B Solutions (1-5): The series given in this question is:
2) C AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7
3) E
4) D
Page 386 of 1079

1) In this question we have to find the numbers which are 4) AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7

immediately followed by and immediately preceded by a In this question the element which is 6th from the right
consonant. end is * and the element which is 14th to the left of * is F.
AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7 So, answer is F
As we can see in the above series only one number i.e. 4 Answer: (D) F
is immediately followed as well as preceded by the 5) In this question we have to find the consonants which
consonants (B4C). are immediately followed by a number but not
So, answer is ONE immediately preceded by a consonent.
Answer: (B) One AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7
2) In this question we have to find the symbols which are As we can see in the above series three consonants i.e. B,
immediately followed by a symbol and immediately F, L and P which are immediately followed by a number
preceded by a number. but not immediately preceded by a symbol i.e. AB4, DF9,
AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7 LO8 and MP3.
As we can see in the above series two symbols i.e.! and # So, answer is MORE THAN THREE
is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately Answer: (E) More than Three
preceded by a number (6!% and 8#&). Answers (6-10):
So, answer is TWO 6) B
Answer: (C) Two 7) D
3) In this question we have to complete the series on the 8) B
given pattern as: 9) A
AB4C@6!%DF9^JKLO8#&2MP3*1EY$7 10) C
C64, D9%, KOJ, ? Solutions (6-10): The series given in this question is:
As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take @5CF#K2LOQ$792PA&G!HT%*5>
an element say C then after a gap of an element we 6) In this question we have to drop all the numbers from
have to take 6 and then back to the immediate left of C the given series so the new series will look like:
which is 4 so the pair is C64, Similar pattern will follow @CF#KLOQ$PA&G!HT%*>
after the gap of the two element i.e. from D and so on. As we can see the 11th element from the left end of the
This way the question mark will be replaced by &M# new series is A
So, answer is &M# So, answer is A
Answer: (E) &M# Answer: (B) A
Page 387 of 1079

7) In this question we have to find the symbols which are This way the question mark will be replaced by GH!
immediately followed by a number and the series is: So, answer is GH!
@5CF#K2LOQ$792PA&G!HT%*5> Answer: (C) GH!
As we can see in the above series three symbols i.e. @, $ Answers (11-15):
and * which are immediately followed by a number i.e. 11) B
@5, $7 and *5 12) E
So, answer is THREE 13) D
Answer: (D) Three 14) B
8) In the given series: 15) E
@5CF#K2LOQ$792PA&G!HT%*5> Solutions (11-15): The series given in this question is:
The 8th letter from the left end is L and its place value is 9DK@4!UFGP$58#^6&ULI%KM31*
12 and 11th letter from the right end is P and its place value 11) In this question we have to find the numbers which are
is 16. immediately followed and immediately preceded by a
So the sum of the place values of both L and P is 28. symbol.
So, answer is 28. 9DK@4!UFGP$58#^6&ULI%KM31*
Answer: (B) 28 As we can see in the above series two numbers i.e. 4 and
9) In the given series: 6 which are immediately followed and immediately
@5CF#K2LOQ$792PA&G!HT%*5> preceded by a symbol i.e. @4! And ^6&
The 13th element to the right of Q is * So, answer is TWO
So, answer is *. Answer: (B) Two
Answer: (A) * 12) In this question we have to find number of letters
10) In this question we have to complete the series on the between the third letter from left end and eighth letter
given pattern as: from the right end of the series.
@5CF#K2LOQ$792PA&G!HT%*5> 9DK@4!UFGP$58#^6&ULI%KM31*
KL2, Q7$, 2AP, ? As we can see in the series the third letter from left end is
As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take K and the eighth letter from the right end is F. So there
an element say K then after a gap of an element we have are four letters between K and F as per alphabetical order
to take an element L and then back to the middle of K and i.e. G, H, I and J.
L which is 2 so the pair is K2L, Similar pattern will follow So, answer is FOUR
after the gap of an element i.e. from Q and so on. Answer: (E) More than three
Page 388 of 1079

13) In the given series: 19) D

9DK@4!UFGP$58#^6&ULI%KM31* 20) B
The twelfth element from the right end is ^ and the Solutions (16-20): The series given in this question is:
element which is seventh to the left of ^ is F 5BKL@UJ2!$MY#Z5CF3*O&19P<
So, answer is F 16) In this question we have to find the vowels which are
Answer: (D) F immediately preceded by a symbol but not immediately
14) In this question we have to complete the series on the followed by a number.
given pattern as: 5BKL@UJ2!$MY#Z5CF3*O&19P<
9DK@4!UFGP$58#^6&ULI%KM31* As we can see in the above series two vowels i.e. Uand O
!@U, F!G, PF$, ? which are immediately preceded by a symbol but not
As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take immediately followed by a number i.e. @UJ and *O&
an element say ! then after a reverse gap of an element we So, answer is TWO
have to take an element @ and then back to the immediate Answer: (C) Two
right of ! which is U so the pair is !@U, Similar pattern 17) In the given series:
will follow after the gap of an element i.e. from F and so 5BKL@UJ2!$MY#Z5CF3*O&19P<
on. The 13th element from the right end is # and the element
This way the question mark will be replaced by 5P8 which is sixth to the right of # is *
So, answer is 5P8 So, answer is *
Answer: (B) 5P8 Answer: (A) *
15) In this question we have to drop all the symbols from 18) In the given series:
the series and the new series will look like: 5BKL@UJ2!$MY#Z5CF3*O&19P<
9DK4UFGP586ULIKM31 The element which is 12th to the right of Y is P and its
As we can see in the new series the Fourteenth element place value is 16.
from the right end of the new series is U Square of 16 is 256.
So, Answer is U So, answer is 256
Answer: (E) U Answer: (B) 256
Answers (16-20): 18) In this question we have to find the middle element
16) C between Y and P in the given series:
17) A 5BKL@UJ2!$MY #Z5CF3*O&19 P<
18) B The middle element between Y and P is 3
Page 389 of 1079

So, answer is 3 22) In the given series:

Answer: (D) 3 DFJ#5K@MY!BCW&542*OLE^F59$
19) In this question we have to complete the series on the The sixth element from the left end is K and the eighth
given pattern as: element from the rigjht end is O.
5BKL@UJ2!$MY#Z5CF3*O&19P< Therefore, number of letters between K and O is Three
LB@, J@2, $2M, ? i.e. L, M and N.
As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take So, answer is THREE
an element say L then after a reverse gap of an element Answer: (D) Three
we have to take an element B and then back to the 23) In this question we have to complete the series on the
immediate right of L which is @ so the pair is LB@, given pattern as:
Similar pattern will follow after the gap of an element DFJ#5K@MY!BCW&542*OLE^F59$
from L which is J and so on. 5#@, YMB, WC5, ?
This way the question mark will be replaced by #MZ As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take
So, answer is #MZ an element say 5 then we take immediate left element of
Answer: (B) #MZ 5 and then a gap of an element to the right side of 5 which
Answers (21-25): is @ so the pair is 5#@, Similar pattern will follow after
21) B the gap of an element from @ which is Y and so on.
22) D This way the question mark will be replaced by 24O
23) C So, answer is 24O
24) A Answer: (C) 24O
25) D 24) In this question we have to find the letters which are
Solutions (21-25): The series given in this question is: immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by
DFJ#5K@MY!BCW&542*OLE^F59$ a number.
21) In this question we have to drop all the numbers from DFJ#5K@MY!BCW&542*OLE^F59$
the given series and the new series will look like: As we can see in the above series none of the letters is
DFJ#K@MY!BCW&*OLE^F$ immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by
As we can see in the new series the ninth element from the a number.
right end is W So, answer is None
So, answer is W Answer: (A) None
Answer: (B) W
Page 390 of 1079

25) In this question we have to find the fifth symbol to the immediately followed by a number i.e. AE#, JOV and
right of the eighteenth element from the right end of the QU*
series: So, answer is THREE
DFJ#5K@MY!BCW&542*OLE^F59$ Answer: (D) Three
As we can see in the above series the 18th element from 28) In this question we have to find the numbers which are
the right end is Y and the fifth symbol to the right of Y is immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by
$. a symbol.
So, answer is $ $92KM@2AE#JOV48&!QU*TP%E+
Answer: (D) $ As we can see in the above series there is no number which
Answers (26-30): is immediately preceded as well as immediately followed
26) B by a symbol.
27) D So, answer is NONE
28) C Answer: (C) None
29) E 29) In this question we have to find the sum of the place
30) D value of the 9th element from the left end and 13th element
Solutions (26-30): The series given in this question is: from the right end
$92KM@2AE#JOV48&!QU*TP%E+ $92KM@2AE#JOV48&!QU*TP%E+
26) In this question we have to find the element which is As we can see in the above series the 9th element from the
exactly at the middle of A and P. left end is E whose place value is 5 and 13th element from
$92KM@2A E#JOV48&!QU*T P%E+ the right end is V whose place value is 22.
As we can see in the above series the middle element of A Sum of the place value of E and V is 27
and P is 8. So, answer is 27
So, answer is 8 Answer: (E) 27
Answer: (B) 8 30) In the given series:
27) In this question we have to find the vowels which are $92KM@2AE#JOV48&!QU*TP%E+
immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately The 17th element from the right end is E and the 8th
followed by a number. element to the right of E is !
$92KM@2AE#JOV48&!QU*TP%E+ So, answer is !
As we can see in the above series three vowels i.e. E, U Answer: (D) !
and O which are immediately preceded by a letter but not Answers (31-35):
Page 391 of 1079

31) B The ninth letter from the left end is R (Here we do not
32) E consider all the elements as the question is asked only for
33) C the letter).
34) B So, answer is R
35) B Answer: (B) R
Solutions (31-35): The series given in this question is: 34) In this question we have to complete the series on the
@AKLUV$5#28J4MPR79&%B*UF31 given pattern as:
31) In this question we have to drop all the numbers from @AKLUV$5#28J4MPR79&%B*UF31
the given series and the new series will look like: LVK, #85, MR4 ?
@AKLUV$#JMPR&%B*UF As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take
In the above new series the total number of elements is 18 an element say L and then a gap of an element to the right
So, answer is 18 of L which is V and then back to the immediate left of L
Answer: (B) 18 which is K so the pair is LVK, Similar pattern will follow
32) In this question we have to find the letters which are after the gap of two element from V which is # and so on.
immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by This way the question mark will be replaced by &B9
a letter. So, answer is &B9
@AKLUV$5#28J4MPR79&%B*UF31 Answer: (B) &B9
As we can see in the above series four letter i.e. K, L, U Answers (36-40):
and P which are immediately preceded as well as 36) A
followed by a letter i.e. AKL, KLU, LUV and MPR. 37) D
So, answer is FOUR 38) B
Answer: (E) Four 39) C
33) In the given series: 40) D
@AKLUV$5#28J4MPR79&%B*UF31 Solutions (36-40): The series given in this question is:
The 13th element from the right end is M and the element 4C@AD^9J2MP*31EKY$7DF9!6L%
which is sixth to the left of M is 5. 36) In this question we have to drop all the numbers from
So, answer is 5 the given series and the new series will look like:
Answer: (C) 5 C@AD^JMP*EKY$DF!L%
34) In the given series: The 12th element from the left end of the new series is Y
@AKLUV$5#28J4MPR79&%B*UF31 So, answer is Y
Page 392 of 1079

Answer: (A) Y Answer: (C) 11

37) In this question we have to find odd one out. All the 40) In this question we have to complete the series on the
codes are given in a certain pattern as based on the given given pattern as:
series as: 4C@AD^9J2MP*31EKY$7DF9!6L%
4C@AD^9J2MP*31EKY$7DF9!6L% AC@, J^9, *MP, ?
The codes given in the options are: As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take
AD, 2M, 1E, 7D and !6 an element say A then we take a gap of an element to the
As we can see in the above series the terms that are in the left side of A which is C and then we take the last element
bolded form are following certain pattern which is, There which is in the middle of A and C i.e. @ so the pair is
is a gap of three elements in between every two codes AC@, Similar pattern will follow after the gap of three
except !6 which occurs after the gap of two elements after element from the right of A which is J and so on.
the code 7D. This way the question mark will be replaced by K1E
So, answer is !6 So, answer is K1E
Answer: (D) !6 Answer: (D) K1E
38) In this question we have to find the vowels which are Answers (41-45):
immediately preceded by a symbol but not immediately 41) C
followed by a number. 42) C
4C@AD^9J2MP*31EKY$7DF9!6L% 43) B
As we can see in the above series only one vowels i.e. A 44) D
which are immediately preceded by a symbol but not 45) A
immediately followed by a number i.e. @AD Solutions (41-45): The series given in this question is:
So, answer is ONE 7KL!U@AE#84OV*IKM>239%YF5
Answer: (B) One 41) In this question we have to find the multiple of place
39) In this question we have to find a place value of the value of the 18th element from the right end and the place
opposite letter of the 11th element from the left end of the value of its opposite letter.
series. 7KL!U@AE#84OV*IKM>239%YF5
4C@AD^9J2MP*31EKY$7DF9!6L% As we can see the 18th element of the above series is E
The 11th element from the left end of the above series is P whose place value is 5 and the opposite letter of E is V
and its opposite letter is K whose place value is 11. whose place value is 22. So, the multiple of the place value
So, answer is 11 of E and V is 110.
Page 393 of 1079

So, answer is 110 As we can see in the above series the terms that are in the
Answer: (C) 110 bolded form are following certain pattern which is, we
42) In this question we have to find the symbols which are consider a first and the last element of the series i.e. 75
immediately preceded by a letter and immediately then after a gap of an element from both the sides we take
followed by a number. third element from the left as well as from the right end of
7KL!U@AE#84OV*IKM>239%YF5 series i.e. LY and so on.
As we can see in the above series two symbols i.e. # and Based on the above pattern one code i.e. A> does not
> which are immediately preceded by a letter and follow that pattern.
immediately followed by a number i.e. E#8 and M>2 So, answer is A>
So, answer is TWO Answer: (D) A>
Answer: (C) Two 45) In this question we have to drop all the vowels and
43) In this question we have to complete the series on the symbols in the given series then the new series will look
given pattern as: like:
7KL!U@AE#84OV*IKM>239%YF5 7KL84VKM239YF5
KUL, A8E, OIV ? As we can see the 14th element from the right end of the
As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take new series is 7
an element say K and then a gap of two element to the So, answer is 7
right of K which is U and then back to the immediate right Answer: (A) 7
of K which is L so the pair is KUL, Similar pattern will Answers (46-50):
follow after the gap of an element to the right of U which 46) C
is A and so on. 47) D
This way the question mark will be replaced by M3> 48) C`
So, answer is &B9 49) B
Answer: (B) M3> 50) A
44) In this question we have to find odd one out. All the Solutions (46-50): The series given in this question is:
codes are given in a certain pattern as based on the given MZ!AD4@31VWB#9U7L%KG*H28$>5
series as: 46) In the given series:
7KL!U@AE#84OV*IKM>239%YF5 MZ!AD4@31VWB#9U7L%KG*H28$>5
The codes given in the options are: As per the question the fifth element from the left end is
75, LY, U9, A> and #M D and the ninth element from the right end is K. Number
Page 394 of 1079

of letters between D and K as per English alphabetical MZ!AD4@31VWB#9U7L%KG*H28$>5

series are Six i.e. E, F, G, H, I, J and K. 8H$, BV#, KLG, ?
So, the answer is 6 As we can see in the above series the pattern is, if we take
Answer: (C) 6 an element say 8 and then a gap of an element to the left
47) In this question we have to find the total numbers of 8 which is H and then back to the immediate right of 8
which is immediately preceded by a symbol which is $ so the pair is 8H$, Similar pattern will follow
MZ!AD4@31VWB#9U7L%KG*H28$>5 for the further codes.
As we can see there are three numbers i.e. 3, 9 and 5
which is immediately preceded by a symbol i.e. @3, #9 This way as per the given options the question mark will
and >5 be replaced by D!4
So, answer is THREE So, answer is &B9
Answer: (D) Three Answer: (B) D!4
48) In this question we have to find the element which is 50) In this question we have to drop all the numbers from
at the middle of the @ and $. the given series and the new series will look like:
MZ!AD4@31VWB#9U7L%KG*H28$>5 MZ!AD@VWB#UL%KG*H$>
As we can see in the above series the element which is at In the above new series, the 18th element from the right
the middle of the @ and $ is 7. end is Z.
So, answer is 7 So, answer is Z
Answer: (C) 7 Answer: (A) Z
49) In this question we have to complete the series on the
given pattern as:
Coding Decoding (1 mark)
Study the following information carefully and answer c) LPEBQ

the below questions. d) LQEAO
1) If DEVIL is coded as ABSFI then how “OTHER” is e) None of these
coded? 2) If TEACHER is coded as IVSXZVG then how
a) LQFBO “CROWD” is coded?
b) LQEBO a) XDLIW
Page 395 of 1079

b) WCLIX a) XGOZFSNDF
c) WDLIX b) XGPZSFNDF
d) XDILW c) XGOZSFMDF
e) None of these d) XGOZSFNDF
3) If WATER is coded as 12346 and STEAM is coded e) None of these
as 53427 then how “MASTER” is coded? 7) If MEMORY is coded as 383172 and NATION is
a) 725346 coded as 564915, then what is the code of
b) 725364 ROTATION?
c) 732546 a) 71464915
d) 724536 b) 71464195
e) None of these c) 71465915
4. In a certain code language, d) 71416495
“they have grown up‟ is written as “sit pit dip ra‟ , e) None of these
“grown up people‟ is written as “pit ra tik‟, 8) If FAITH is coded as 82731, HABIT is coded as
“they are up again‟ is written as “pit sit ja ka‟. 12573, and HEALTH is coded as 192431, then what is
How is “people‟ written in that code language? the code of BELIEF?
a) ra a) 597498
b) tik b) 549798
c) pit c) 594798
d) Can‟t be determined d) 594789
e) None of these e) None of these
5) If GEOMETRY is coded as VTPNGVSZ then what 9) If SMILE is coded as ELIMS then what is the code
is the code of “MOTION”? of “FAITH”?
a) LNUJML a) THIAF
b) LMUJML b) HTIAF
c) LNUHML c) IAFTH
d) LNUJNL d) TIFAH
6) If THERMAL is coded as KZLSDGS then what is 10) If BDFH is coded as YEUI then what is the code of
the code of “GEOGRAPHY”? GRCI?
Page 396 of 1079

a) TUXJ b) 46
b) TSXJ c) 72
c) USYJ d) 42
d) TYXK e) None of these
e) None of these 15) If “SUBJECT” is coded as QWZLCER, then what
11) If WAYIN is coded as TXVFK then what is the is the code of OPERATE?
code of LCUNT? a) MRBTYVE
a) IZRKQ b) MRCTYVC
b) IYRJQ c) MRCVYVE
c) IYRKQ d) MRCRYVC
d) IZRJQ e) None of these
e) None of these 16) If “SUBJECT” is coded as 3927518 and BROKE is
12) If COMPUTER is coded as PMOCRETU then 24605, then what is the code of JOKER?
what is the code of MOVEMENT? a) 76054
a) EVMOTNEM b) 76504
b) EVOTMNEM c) 70654
c) EVONMTEM d) 76405
d) EVOMTNEM e) None of these
e) None of these 17) If COME is coded as 2963 and STORY is coded
13) If SMART is coded as UKCPV then what is the 41978, then what is the code of MEMORY?
code of WONDER? a) 639768
a) YLPBGP b) 663978
b) YMSBGP c) 636798
c) YMPBGP d) 636978
d) YMPAGP e) None of these
e) None of these 18) If IMPERIA is coded as HNOFQJZ then what is
14) If each of the letters of the English alphabetical the code of DISCOVER?
series is coded as A = 2, B = 4, and so on what is the a) CJRDNXDS
total value of the word “MADE”? b) CKRDNWDS
a) 52 c) CJRNDWDS
Page 397 of 1079

d) CJRDNWDS 23) If MAGIC is coded KYGIC then what is the code

e) None of these of GREAT?
19) If CROWD is coded as DWORC then what is the a) EQEAT
code of SOCIAL? b) VPABT
a) LIACOS c) EPEAT
b) LAICOS d) EPDAT
c) LAIOCS e) None of these
d) LAOICS 24) If MANGO is coded QERKS then what is the code
e) None of these of GUAVA?
20) If SCARE is coded as 89265 and TEAM is coded as a) KZEYE
3527, then what is the code of STREAM? b) KYEZE
a) 863527 c) KYDZE
b) 836257 d) KYEYE
c) 836527 e) None of these
d) 865327 25) If TRACK is coded as RTAKC then what is the
e) None of these code of NETWORK?
21) If A = 1, BAT = 23, then what is the code of a) TNEWKOR
HEAVY? b) TENWKRO
a) 63 c) ENTWROK
b) 59 d) TENKWRO
d) 57 26) If DISPOSE is coded as FJUQQTG, then what is
e) None of these the code of REACTION?
22) If STEAM is coded as QVCCK then what is the a) TFCDVJQO
code of GREAT? b) TFDCVJQD
a) ETBCR c) TCFDVJQD
b) ETCDR d) TFCDVQJD
c) ESBCR e) None of these
d) EQCCR 27) If MAGICAL is coded as NBTJXBO then what is
e) None of these the code of DURATION?
Page 398 of 1079

a) EVJBGJLO 31) If COUNTRY is coded as FRXQWUB, then what

b) WVIYGJLO is the code of EXAMINE?
c) EVIBGJLO a) HADPLPH
d) WVIBGJLO b) HADPLQH
e) None of these c) HAFPLQH
28) If GAME is coded as 9276 and NOTE is coded as d) HADPKQH
4186 then, what is the code of MANGO? e) None of these
a) 74291 32) If NEWS is coded as WENS then what is the code
b) 72491 of MATE?
c) 72941 a) EAMT
d) 74292 b) TAME
e) None of these c) TAEM
29) If INDUS is coded as 81324 and TENNIS is coded d) TEAM
as 561184, then what is the code of STUDENT? e) None of these
a) 4253615 33) If DARE is coded as ZVWI then what is the code
b) 4523615 of TEAM?
c) 4526315 a) VNGZ
d) 4521365 b) VMGZ
e) None of these c) VNFZ
30) Below letters of English alphabetical series and d) VNGY
their codes are given then, find the code of e) None of these
ENTRANCE? 34) If MARCH is coded as PXUZK then what is the
Letter A B C D E G N R S T W code of SEPTEMBER?
a) VBRQHJEBU
Code % Z & @ Y ^ # V H $ >
b) VBSTHJEBU
a) Y#%V%#&Y c) VBSQIJEBU
b) Y#$%V#&Y d) VBSQHKEBU
c) Y#$V%#&Y e) None of these
d) Y#$V#%&Y 35) If ABCXYZ is coded as DEFUVW then what is the
e) None of these code of GHIRST?
Page 399 of 1079

a) KLMPQR a) QKPYGFCV
b) JKLOPQ b) QHPYGFCV
c) IJLOPQ c) QHPYGICV
d) JKLOQR d) QHPXGFCV
36) In a certain code language ‘725’ is coded as “there 40) If BUMPER is coded as SDNOPG, then what is the
are trees”, ‘273’ is coded as “trees are big”, and ‘426’ code of ANSWER?
is coded as “all are green”, then what is the code of a) QKPYGF
“trees”? b) QHPYGF
a) 7 c) QHPYGI
b) 2 d) QHPXGF
d) 5 41) If FLOWER is coded as REWOLF then, what is
e) None of these the code of FRUITS?
37) If LETTER is coded as 86 then what is the code of a) STIURF
BITTER? b) STUIRF
a) 80 c) TSIURF
b) 76 d) SITURF
d) 84 42) If HONESTY is coded as IPOFTUZ then, what is
e) None of these the code of TONY?
38) If HENCE is coded as ECNEH, then what is the a) ZDBC
code of WHICH? b) XBCD
a) HCIWH c) BCQD
b) CHIHW d) UPOZ
c) HCIHW e) None of these
d) HWICW 43) If MOTHER is coded as RJYCJM and BROTHER
e) None of these is coded as GMTOMZW then, what is the code of
39) If BANKING is coded as ZDLNGQE then, what is CHAPTER?
the code of SERVICES? a) HCFKWZW
Page 400 of 1079

b) HCFJYZW c) TOMEVI
c) HCGKYZW d) IOMEVT
d) HCFKYZW e) None of these
e) None of these 48) If A = 2, BAT = 26, then what is the code of BARE?
44) If DISPOSE is coded as EGTNPQF then, what is a) 28
the code of COUNTRY? b) 30
a) DMVLUPZ c) 36
b) DLVMUPZ d) 32
c) DMULVPZ e) None of these
d) DMVNUPZ 49) If HERMONY is code as SVINLMB, then what is
e) None of these the code of MEMORY?
45) If FISH is coded as @%&^, HARE is coded as a) NVNKIB
^$#!, and STONE is coded as &*>£!, then what is the b) NVNLIB
code of FAISHON? c) NVMLIB
a) @$%^&>£ d) NVNLJB
b) @$%&>^£ e) None of these
c) @%$&^>£ 50) If HARD is code as %@^$, TINY is coded as *>&!,
d) @$%&^>£ and METHOD is coded as #£*%?$, then what is the
e) None of these code of HERMONY?
46) If MOTHER is code as IVSGLN, then what is the a) %£#*?&!
code of FARMER? b) %£^#?&!
a) IVLIZU c) %£^#^&!
b) IVINZU d) %^£#?&!
c) IVNIZU e) None of these
d) IVNIYU 1. Answer: B
e) None of these Explanation:
47) If GROUND is code as ORGDNU, then what is the DEVIL à ABSFI
code of MOTIVE? D – 3 = A, E – 3, V – 3 = S, I – 3 = F, L – 3 = I
a) TVMEOI Thus, OTHER à LQEBO
b) TOEMVI 2. Answer: C
Page 401 of 1079

Explanation: 7.Answer: A
TEACHER àIVSXZVG Explanation:
àReverse letters in alphabetical series are written from We have:
right to left. Letter M E O R Y N A T I
For Example:- T à G
Code 3 8 1 7 2 5 6 4 9
Then, CROWD à WDLIX
3.Answer: A Thus, ROTATION à 71464915
Explanation: 8.Answer: C
Letter W A T E R S M Explanation:
Letter F A I T H B E L
Code 1 2 3 4 6 5 7
Code 8 2 7 3 1 5 9 4
Thus, MASTER à 725346
4. Answer: b Thus, BELIEF à 594798
5.Answer: A 9.Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation:
GEOMETRY àVTPNGVSZ SMILE à ELIMS
The paring of letters are taken from left to right and then Letters of the word are reversed.
for the first pair reverse alphabetical letters are written and Then, FAITH à HTIAF
interchange their position, again for next pair immediate 10.Answer: B
next letter of English alphabetical series are taken and the Explanation:
same sequence followed till the last pair. BDFH à YEUI
Thus, MOTION à LNUJML 1st and 3rd letters are replaced by the reverse letter and 2nd
6.Answer: D & 4th letters are replaced by the immediate next letter in
Explanation: alphabetical series.
THERMAL àKZLSDGS Thus, GRCI à TSXJ
The middle letter is replaced by the next letter and the 11.Answer: A
remaining letters are replaced by the previous letters in Explanation:
alphabetical order and are interchanged by 1st& 7th, 2nd& WAYIN à TXVFK
6th, & 3rd and 5th letter. Each letter is replaced by the third preceding letter in
Thus, GEOGRAPHY àXGOZSFNDF alphabetical series.
Page 402 of 1079

Thus, LCUNT à IZRKQ Code 3 9 2 7 5 1 8 4 6 0

12.Answer: D
Thus, JOKER à 76054
Explanation:
17.Answer: D
COMPUTER àPMOCRETU
Explanation:
Letter C O M E S T R Y
Code 2 9 6 3 4 1 7 8
Thus, MEMORY à 636978

Thus, MOVEMENT àEVOMTNEM 18.Answer: D
13.Answer: C Explanation:
Explanation:
Thus, DISCOVER à CJRDNWDS
Thus, WONDER àYMPBGP 19.Answer: B
14.Answer: B Explanation:
Explanation: Letters of the word are coded in reverse order, then
M (26) + A (2) + D (8) + E (10) = 46 SOCIAL à LAICOS
15.Answer: B 20.Answer: C
Letter S C A R E T M
Code 8 9 2 6 5 3 7
Thus, STREAM à 836527

Thus, OPERATE à MRCTYVC 21.Answer: E
16.Answer: A Explanation:
Explanation: HEAVY = 61 (sum of the place value of digits are taken)
Letter S U B J E C T R O K 22.Answer: E
Explanation:
Page 403 of 1079

MAGICAL àNBTJXBO (letters at an odd position are

replaced by opposite letter and letter at an even position
are replaced by the next letter in English alphabetical
series)
Thus, GREAT à ETCCR Thus, DURATION à WVIBGJLO
23.Answer: C 28.Answer: B
MAGIC à KYGIC (first two letters are replaced by the Letter G A M E N O T
second previous letter in alphabetical series and keep the
remaining three as it is.) Code 9 2 7 6 4 1 8
Thus, GREAT à EPEAT Thus, MANGO à 72491

24.Answer: B 29.Answer: B
MANGO àQERKS (all the letters are replaced by the Letter I N D U S T E
fourth next letter in English alphabetical series)
Thus, GUAVA à KYEZE Code 8 1 3 2 4 5 6
25.Answer: B Thus, STUDENT à 4523615

Explanation:
ENTRANCE à Y#$V%#&Y
31.Answer: B
Explanation:
NETWORK à TENWKRO
COUNTRY à FRXQWUB (each letter is changed to the
26.Answer: A
third next letter of english alphabetical series)
Explanation:
Thus, EXAMINE à HADPLQH
DISPOSE àFJUQQTG (odd position letters are changed
32.Answer: B
to the second next letter and even position letters are
Explanation:
changed to the next letter of English alphabetical series)
Thus, REACTION à TFCDVJQO
27.Answer: D
Explanation:
Page 404 of 1079
Thus, MATE à TAME 39.Answer: B

33.Answer: A Explanation:
Explanation: BANKING à ZDLNGQE (odd positioned letters are
DARE à ZVWI (1st and 4th letters are writing between replaced by the second preceding letter and the even
2nd and 3rd letter after interchanging their position, the positioned letters are replaced by the third next letter of
reverse letter of each letter is written.) english alphabetical series)
TEAM à VNGZ Thus, SERVICES à QHPYGFCV
34.Answer: E 40.Answer: E
MARCH à PXUZK (odd positioned letters are changed
to the third next letter and even positioned letters are
changed to the third previous letter of english alphabetical
series)
SEPTEMBER à VBSQHJEBU
35.Answer: B Thus, ANSWER à LCUUPG
Explanation: 41.Answer: A
ABCXYZ à DEFUVW ( first three letters are changed to Explanation:
the third next letters and last three letters are changed to FLOWER à REWOLF (letters of the word are written in
the third previous letter in alphabetical series.) the reverse order)
Thus, GHIRST à JKLOPQ Thus, FRUITS à STIURF
36.Answer: A 42.Answer: D
37.Answer: A Tonyà UPOZ (all the letters are changed to the next
Explanation: letters in alphabetical series)
LETTER à 86 (sum of the place value of the letters and 43.Answer: D
the total number of letters in the word) Explanation:
BITTER à 80 MOTHER à RJYCJM (odd positioned letters are
38.Answer: C changed to the fifth next letters and even positioned letters
Explanation: are changed to the fifth preceding letter in alphabetical
HENCE à ECNEH (Reverse all the letters) series)
Thus, WHICH à HCIHW Thus, CHAPTER à HCFKYZW

44.Answer: A
Page 405 of 1079
DISPOSE à EGTNPQF (odd positioned letters are 48.Answer: B
replaced by the next letter and even positioned letters are Explanation:
replaced by the second preceding letter of english BARE à 30 (sum of the place value of the letters and
alphabetical series) number of letters in the word)
Thus, COUNTRY à DMVLUPZ 49.Answer: B
45.Answer: D Explanation:
Explanation: HERMONY àSVINLMB (all the letters are replaced by
Letter F I S H A R E T O N their reverse letter in alphabetical series)
Thus, MEMORY à NVNLIB
Code @ % & ^ $ # ! * > £
50.Answer: B
Thus, FAISHON à @$%&^>£ Explanation:
46.Answer: C Letter H A R D T I N Y M E O
Explanation:
Code % @ ^ $ * > & ! # £ ?
MOTHER à IVSGLN (letters are written in reverse order
and then each letter is changed to its opposite letter in
alphabetical series) HERMONY à %£^#?&!
FARMER à IVNIZU
Alphabet Series (3 alphabet 5set)
(Direction 1-5): Study the following information D) 36

carefully and answer the given questions: E) 4
DOM AIR BAR CAN GEL 2) If the first and the last letter of each word are
1) What is the square of the place value of the letter interchange then how many meaningful words will
occurs between the first letter of the second word from form?
right and the second letter of the last word from left as A) None
per english alphabetical series? B) One
A) 16 C) Two
B) 9 D) Three
C) 25 E) More Than Three
Page 406 of 1079

3) If each consonant within each word is changed to its A) One

succeeding letter as per english alphabetical series B) None
then how many words will have more than one vowel? C) Two
A) None D) Three
B) One E) More Than Three
C) Three 7) What is the sum of place value of the first letter of
D) Two the second word from left and the second letter of the
E) More Than Three second word from right?
4) If each vowel is changed to its preceding vowel as A) 15
per english alphabetical series then how many B) 14
meaningful words will form? C) 17
A) One D) 16
B) Two E) 18
C) None 8) If all the words are written together without any
D) Three space then which of the following is third letter to the
E) More Than Three left of the tenth letter from right end?
5) If all the letters within the words are arranged in an A) T
alphabetical order then how many words remain B) B
unchanged? C) A
A) One D) N
B) Two E) H
C) Three 9) If each consonant within each word is changed to its
D) None succeeding letter as per english alphabetical order
E) More Than Three then how many words will have more than two vowels?
(Direction 6-10): Study the following information A) One
carefully and answer the given questions: B) Two
HAT BUN PUB HOT BAG C) None
6) If all the vowels in each word is changed to the next D) Three
vowel as per English alphabetical order then how E) More Than Three
many meaningful words will form?
Page 407 of 1079

10) If all the words are arranged as per the order of A) T

dictionary then the position of how many words will B) B
remain same? C) Y
A) Two D) O
B) One E) N
C) None 14) If all the words are written together without any
D) More Than Three space then which of the following is fifth letter to the
E) Three left of the 11th letter from the left end?
(Direction 11-15): Study the following information A) O
carefully and answer the given questions: B) T
SON ROT SAW BOY TIP C) R
11) If the first and the third letter of each word are D) B
interchange then how many meaningful words will E) S
form? 15) What is the difference between the place value of
A) None the third letter of the second word from left and the
B) One third letter of the middle word?
C) Two A) One
D) Three B) Seven
E) More Than Three C) Five
12) If all the consonants are changed to the next D) Three
consonant and each vowel is changed to its preceding E) Four
vowel then how many meaningful words will form? (Direction 16-20): Study the following information
A) One carefully and answer the given questions:
B) None PUP BIG JAM SIT RUN
C) Two 16) If the last letter of each word is changed to its
D) Three previous letter as per alphabetical order then how
E) Four many meaningful words will form?
13) Which of the following is the middle letter of the A) None
word formed by the first, second and third letter of the B) One
last, first and fourth word respectively? C) Two
Page 408 of 1079

D) Three 20) If the positions of the first and second letters of all
E) More Than Three the words are interchanged, how many words will
17) How many letters are there in between third letter form meaningful English words?
of the first word from left and the second letter of the A) One
last word from left as per alphabetical order? B) Two
A) Five C) Three
B) Two D) More Than Three
C) Six E) None
D) Four (Direction 21-25): Study the following information
E) Seven carefully and answer the given questions:
18) What is the sum of the square of the place value of LEG TUB HEN PIB AIR
the first letter of the second word from left and the 21) If the positions of the first and third letters of all
second letter of the second word from right as per the words are interchanged, how many words will
english alphabetical order? form meaningful English words?
A) 75 A) None
B) 95 B) One
C) 85 C) Two
D) 65 D) Three
E) 55 E) More Than Three
19) If all the words are written together and then all 22) How many letters are there in between the third
the letters are arranged in an alphabetical ordeŕ then letter of the first word from the left end and the third
which of the following will be the 11th letter from the letter of the middle word as per alphabetical order?
left end? A) Five
A) R B) Three
B) T C) Seven
C) M D) Four
D) U E) Six
E) S 23) If all the letters in each of the words are arranged
in a reverse alphabetical order (within the word), how
many words will remain unchanged?
Page 409 of 1079

A) One E) U
B) Two 27) If the positions of the first and third letters of all
C) None the words are interchanged, how many words will
D) Three form meaningful English words?
E) More Than Three A) One
24) If all the letters in each of the words are changed B) Two
to its preceding letter as per alphabetical order, how C) None
many meaningful words will form? D) Three
A) One E) More Than Three
B) None 28) If all the vowels of each word is changed to the next
C) Two vowel as per english alphabetical order, How many
D) Three meaningful words will form?
E) More Than Three A) None
25) What is the place value of the opposite letter of the B) Two
third letter of the second word from the right end? C) Three
A) 20 D) More Than Three
B) 22 E) One
C) 21 29) What is the sum of place value of the second letter
D) 25 of the second word from left and the third letter of the
E) 23 middle word?
(Direction 26-30): Study the following information A) 46
carefully and answer the given questions: B) 37
EYE CUT DAY RAW FOX C) 52
26) If all the words are written together without any D) 56
space then which will be the third letter to the left of E) 36
the 10th letter from the right? 30) If all the letters in each of the words are arranged
A) C in an alphabetical order (within the word), how many
B) Y words will remain unchanged?
C) E A) Three
D) T B) Two
Page 410 of 1079

C) None 34) What will be the third letter from left of the word
D) One formed by the third, second, third and third letter of
E) More Than Three the first, second, third and the last word respectively?
(Direction 31-35): Study the following information A) T
carefully and answer the given questions: B) P
LAP EAT FAR WIG POT C) R
31) If all the consonant are changed to its succeeding D) U
letter and all the vowels are changed to the previous E) A
letter within each word as per alphabetical order, how 35) What will be the multiple of the place value of the
many words will have two vowels? first letter of the middle word and third letter of the
A) None second word from right?
B) One A) 49
C) Two B) 35
D) Three C) 42
E) Four D) 56
32) If a letter 'S' is added to the starting of the each E) 40
word then how many meaningful words will form? (Direction 36-40): Study the following information
A) None carefully and answer the given questions:
B) One DAM WET CUP ZIP TWO
C) Two 36) What is the sum of place value of the second letter
D) Three of the second word from left and the third letter of the
E) Four middle word?
33) If all the letters within each word are arranged in A) 25
a reverse alphabetical order then how many B) 24
meaningful words will form? C) 23
A) One D) 22
B) Two E) 21
C) Three 37) If the positions of the first and second letters of all
D) More Than Three the words are interchanged, how many words will
E) None form meaningful English words?
Page 411 of 1079

A) One (Direction 41-45): Study the following information

B) Two carefully and answer the given questions:
C) Three ONE RUN SAT WON NUT
D) More Than Three 41) If each letter within each word is changed to the
E) None previous letter as per english alphabetical order then
38) How many letters are there in between third letter how many words have vowel?
of the first word from left and the second letter of the A) One
last word as per alphabetical order? B) Two
A) Seven C) Four
B) Nine D) None
C) Five E) Three
D) Three 42) If the positions of the first and third letters of all
E) Eleven the words are interchanged, how many words will
39) If each consonant within each word is changed to form meaningful English words?
its succeeding letter as per english alphabetical series A) One
then how many words will have more than one vowel? B) Two
A) Two C) None
B) One D) Three
C) Three E) More Than Three
D) More Than Three 43) If each consonant within each word is changed to
E) None its succeeding letter as per english alphabetical series
40) If the positions of the first and third letters of all then how many words will have more than one vowel?
the words are interchanged, how many words will A) All
form meaningful English words? B) None
A) Two C) One
B) None D) Two
C) One E) Three
D) Three 44) If all the vowels within each word is changed to the
E) More Than Three next vowel as per alphabetical order then how many
meaningful words will form?
Page 412 of 1079

A) Two B) Two
B) Three C) Three
C) More Than Three D) More Than Three
D) None E) None
E) One 48) If the positions of the first and third letters of all
45) If the position of the second and the third letter are the words are interchanged, how many words will
interchanged then now many meaningful words will form meaningful English words?
form? A) None
A) One B) One
B) None C) Two
C) Two D) Three
D) Three E) Four
E) More Than Three 49) If all the words are written together without any
(Direction 46-50): Study the following information space then which of the following will be sixth to the
carefully and answer the given questions: right of the 12th letter from the right end?
LIP EAR FAX PAN RIM A) A
46) If all the letter within each word is arranged in a B) N
reverse alphabetical order then how many words will C) X
remain unchanged? D) P
A) One E) F
B) Two 50) If each consonant within each word is changed to
C) Three its succeeding letter as per english alphabetical series
D) More Than Three then how many words will have more than one vowel?
E) None A) None
47) How many letters are there in between second B) One
letter of the first word from left and the third letter of C) Two
the last word as per alphabetical order? D) Three
A) One E) Four
Alphabet Series – Answers and Explanation:

Answers (1-5): 1) A
Page 413 of 1079
2) B 4) In this question we have to change all the vowels to the

3) C preceding vowel as per English alphabetical order, so the
4) A new series will look like this:
5) A DIM UER BUR CUN GAL
Solutions (1-5): The series given in this question is: As per the new series, there is only one meaningful word
DOM AIR BAR CAN GEL is made that is DIM.
1) In this question, the first letter of the second word from So, the answer is One
the right end is C and the second letter of the last word is Answer: A (one)
E and the letter occurs between C and E is D. 5) In this question we have to arrange all the letters within
Place value of D is 4 and the square of 4 is the words in an English alphabetical order, so the new
42 = 16 series will look like this:
So the answer is 16 DMO AIR ABR ACN EGL
Answer: A (16) As per new series there is only word i.e. AIR, which
2) In this question we have to interchange the first letter remains unchanged.
and the last letter of each word then the new series will So, the answer is One
look like this: Answer: A (One)
MOD RIA RAB NAC LEG Answers (6-10):
As per the new series, only One meaningful word i.e. 6) D
LEG will form 7) C
So, the answer is One 8) A
Answer: B (One) 9) B
3) In this question we have to change all the consonants to 10) A
the next letter as per English alphabetical order, so the new Solutions (6-10): The series given in this question is:
series will look like this: HAT BUN PUB HOT BAG
EON AIS CAS DAO HEM 6) In this question we have to change all the vowels to the
As per the new series, there are three words which have next vowels as per English alphabetical order, so the new
more than one vowel and they are EON AIS DAO series will look like this:
So the answer is Three HET BAN PAB HUT BEG
Answer: C (Three) As per this new series there are three meaningful words
will frame and they are BAN, HUT and BEG
Page 414 of 1079

So, answer is THREE BAG BUN HAT HOT PUB

Answer: (D) Three As per the new series, there are two words whose position
7) In this question we have to find the sum of the place will remain unchanged after the rearrangement and they
value of the first letter of the second word from the left are BUN and HOT
and second letter of the second word from the right as per So, answer is TWO
English alphabetical series Answer: (A) TWO
The first letter of the second word from the left end is B Answers (11-15):
and the place value of B is 2 and the letter which is second 11) C
of the second word from the right end is O and the place 12) A
value of O is 15 and the sum of both the place values is 17 13) D
So, answer is 17 14) B
Answer: (C) 17 15) D
8) In this question we have to write all the words together Solutions (11-15): The series given in this question is:
without leaving any space between them then the new SON ROT SAW BOY TIP
series will look like: 11) In this question we have to interchange the first and
HATBUNPUBHOTBAG third letter of each word and the new series will look like
So the tenth letter from the right end of the new series is this:
N and the letter which is third to the left of N is T. NOS TOR WAS YOB PIT
So, answer is T As per this new series there are two meaningful word are
Answer: (A) T formed and those are WAS and PIT
9) In this question we have to change all the consonants to So, answer is TWO
the next letter as per the English alphabetical series, so the Answer: (C) Two
new series will look like this: 12) In this question we have to change all the consonants
IAU CUO QUC IOU CAH to the next consonant and all the vowels to the previous
As per the new series, there are three words which have vowel as per the English alphabetical series, so the new
more than two vowel and they are IAU and IOU series will look like this:
So, answer is TWO TIP SIV TUX CIZ VEQ
Answer: (B) Two As per this new series there is one meaningful word which
10) In this question we have to arrange all the words as are framed and that is TIP
per the order of dictionary, so the new series will look like: So, answer is ONE
Page 415 of 1079

Answer: A (One) Answers (16-20):

13) In this question we have to look out for first, second 16) B
and third letter of the last, first and fourth word from the 17) D
left respectively using each letter only once and the letters 18) C
will be T, O and Y. 19) A
As per these words there is only one meaningful word 20) E
which can be framed and that is TOY and the letter which Solutions (16-20): The series given in this question is:
is at the middle of the word is O PUP BIG JAM SIT RUN
So, answer is O 16) In this question we have to change last letter of each
Answer: D (O) word to its preceding letter as per English alphabetical
14) In this question we have to write all the words together series and after this the new series will look like this:
without leaving any space between them then the new PUO BIF JAL SIS RUM
series will look like: As per the new series there will be one meaningful word
SONROTSAWBOYTIP getting framed and the word is RUM
As per the new series, the 11th letter from the left end of So, answer is RUM
the new series is O and the letter which is fifth to the left Answer: (B) One
of O is T. 17) In this question we have to find the number of letters
So, answer is T between third letter of the first word from the left and
Answer: (B) T second letter of the last word from the right according to
15) In this question we have to find the difference between alphabetical series
the place value of the third letter of the second word from Third letter of the first word from the left end is P and the
the left and third letter of the middle word as per English letter which is second of the last word from the right end
alphabetical series is U and the number of letters between P and U is Four
The third letter of the second word from the left end is T So, answer is Four
and the place value of T is 20 and the letter which is third Answer: (D) Four
of the middle word the right end is W and the place value 18) In this question we have to find the sum of the square
of W is 23 and the difference between both the place of the place value of the first letter of the second word
values is 3 from left and the second letter of the second word from
So, answer is 3 right as per English alphabetical order.
Answer: (D) Three
Page 416 of 1079

First letter of the second word from the left end is B and 21) In this question we have to interchange the first and
the place value of B is 2 and the second letter of the second third letter of each word and the new series will look like
word from the right end is I and the place value of I is 9. this:
Sum of the square of 2 and 9 is 85(4 + 81). GEL BUT NEH BIP RIA
So, answer is 85 As per this new series there are two meaningful words will
Answer: 85 form and they are GEL and BUT
19) In this question we have to write all the letters together So, answer is TWO
without any space and then arranged all the letters in an Answer: (C) Two
alphabetical order then the new series will look like this: 22) In this question we have to find the number of letters
ABGIIJMNPPRSTUU between third letter of the first word from the left and third
As per this new series, 11th letter from the left end is R. letter of the middle word according to alphabetical series.
So, answer is R Third letter of the first word from the left end is G and the
Answer: (A) R letter which is third of the middle word is N and the
20) In this question we have to interchange the first and number of letters between G and N is Six
second letter of each word and the new series will look So, answer is Six
like this: Answer: (E) Six
UPP IBG AJM IST URN 23) In this question we have to arrange all the letters
As per this new series there are no meaningful words will within each word as per the reverse alphabetical order and
form. after this the new series will look like this:
So, answer is NONE LGE UTB NHE PIB RIA
Answer: (E) None As per this new series, there are only one word which
Answers (21-25): remain unchanged after the rearrangement and that is PIB
21) C So, answer is ONE
22) E Answer: (A) One
23) A 24) In this question we have to change all the letters in
24) B each of the words to its preceding letter as per alphabetical
25) D order and after this the new series will look like this:
Solutions (21-25): The series given in this question is: KDF STA GDM OHA ZHQ
LEG TUB HEN PIB AIR As per this new series, there are no such meaningful words
will form.
Page 417 of 1079

So, answer is NONE As per this new series, there are two meaningful words
Answer: (B) None will form and they are EYE and WAR
25) In this question we have to find the place value of the So, answer is TWO
opposite letter of the third letter of the second word from Answer: (B) Two
the right end. 28) In this question we have to change all the vowels of
Third letter of the second word from the right end is B and each word to the next vowel as per English alphabetical
the opposite letter of B is Y, So the place value of Y is 25. order and the new series will look like this:
So, answer is 25 IYI CAT DEY REW FUX
Answer: (D) 25 As per this new series, there are only one meaningful word
Answers (26-30): will form and that is CAT
26) C So, answer is ONE
27) B Answer: (E) One
28) E 29) In this question we have to find the sum of place value
29) A of the second letter of the second word from left and the
30) D third letter of the middle word.
Solutions (26-30): The series given in this question is: Second letter of the second word from the left end is U
EYE CUT DAY RAW FOX and the place value of U is 21 and the third letter of the
26) In this question we have to write all the letters of each middle word is Y whose place value is 25, So the sum of
word without any space and after this the new series will 21 and 25 is 46
look like this: So, answer is 46
EYECUTDAYRAWFOX Answer: (A) 46
As per this new series, tenth letter from the right end is T 30) In this question we have to arrange all the letters
and third letter to the left of T is E within each word as per alphabetical order and after this
So, answer is E the new series will look like this:
Answer: (C) E EEY CTU ADY ARW FOX
27) In this question we have to interchange the first and As per this new series, there are only one word which will
third letter of each word and the new series will look like remain unchanged after the rearrangement.
this: So, answer is ONE
EYE TUC YAD WAR XOF Answer: (D) One
Answers (31-35):
Page 418 of 1079

31) A As per this new series, there are two meaningful words
32) E will form and they are TEA and WIG
33) B So, answer is TWO
34) C Answer: (B) Two
35) C 34) In this question we have to look out for first, second,
Solutions (31-35): The series given in this question is: third and again third letter of the first, second, third and
LAP EAT FAR WIG POT the last word from the left respectively using each letter
31) In this question we have to change each consonant of only once and the letters will be P, A, R and T
all the words with its next letter and each vowel of all the As per these words there is only one meaningful word
words is changed to its previous letter of the English which can be framed and that is PART and the letter
alphabetical series and after this the new series will look which is 3rd from the left end is R
like this: So, answer is R
MZQ DZU GZS XHH QNU Answer: (C) R
As per this new series, there are no words which have two 35) In this question we have to find the multiple of the
vowels place value of the first letter of the middle word and third
So, answer is NONE letter of the second word from the right end.
Answer: (A) None First letter of the middle word is F and the place value of
32) In this question we have to add a letter 'S' at the F is 6 and third letter of the second word from the right
starting of each word and after this the new series will look end is G and the place value of G is 7. So the multiple of
like this: the 6 and 7 is 42.
SLAP SEAT SFAR SWIG SPOT So, answer is 42
As per this new series, there are three meaningful words Answer: (C) 42
will form and they are SLAP, SEAT, SWIG and SPOT Answers (36-40):
So, answer is FOUR 36) E
Answer: (E) Four 37) E
33) In this question we have to arrange all the letters 38) B
within each word as per the reverse alphabetical order and 39) D
after this the new series will look like this: 40) C
PLA TEA RFA WIG TPO Solutions (36-40): The series given in this question is:
DAM WET CUP ZIP TWO
Page 419 of 1079

36) In this question we have to find the sum of place value As per new series, there are four words having more than
of the second letter of the second word from left and the one vowel and they are EAN, XEU, AIQ and UXO.
third letter of the middle word. So, answer is FOUR
Second letter of the second word from left end is E and Answer: (D) More than three
the place value of E is 5 and the third letter of the middle 40) In this question we have to interchange the first and
word is P and the place value of P is 16. third letter of each word and after this the new series will
Sum of 16 and 5 is 21 look like this:
So, answer is 21 MAD TEW PUC PIZ OWT
Answer: (E) 21 As per the new series, there will be only one meaningful
37) In this question we have to interchange the first and word getting framed and that is MAD.
second letter of each word and after this the new series So, answer is NONE
will look like this: Answer: (C) One
ADM EWT UCP IZP WTO Answers (41-45):
As per the new series, there will no meaningful words 41) D
getting framed. 42) B
So, answer is NONE 43) A
Answer: (E) None 44) A
38) In this question we have to find the number of letters 45) B
between third letter of the first word from the left and the Solutions (41-45): The series given in this question is:
second letter of the last word according to alphabetical ONE RUN SAT WON NUT
series. 41) In this question we have to change each letter within
Third letter of the first word from the left end is M and the each word to the previous letter as per English
letter which is second of the last word is W and the alphabetical order and the new series will look like:
number of letters between M and W is Nine NMD QTM RZS VNM MTS
So, answer is Nine As per the new series, there will no words which have any
Answer: (B) Nine vowel.
39) In this question we have to change all the consonants So, answer is NONE
to the next letter as per the English alphabetical series and Answer: (D) None
after this the new series will look like this:
EAN XEU DUQ AIQ UXO
Page 420 of 1079

42) In this question we have to interchange the first and As per the new series, there will be no meaningful words
third letter of each word and after this the new series will getting framed.
look like this: So, answer is NONE
ENO NUR TAS NOW TUN Answer: (B) None
As per the new series, there will be two meaningful words Answers (46-50):
getting framed and they are ENO and NOW. 46) E
So, answer is TWO 47) C
Answer: (B) Two 48) B
43) In this question we have to change all the consonants 49) D
to the next letter as per the English alphabetical series and 50) C
after this the new series will look like this: Solutions (46-50): The series given in this question is:
OOE SUO TAU XOO OUU LIP EAR FAX PAN RIM
As per new series, there are five words having more than 46) In this question we have to arrange all the letters in a
one vowel and they are OOE, SUO, TAU, XOO and reverse alphabetical order within the word and after this
OUU the new series will look like this:
So, answer is FIVE PLI REA XFA PNA RMI
Answer: (A) All As per new series, there are no words that remain
44) In this question we have to change all the vowels to unchanged after the rearrangement.
the next vowel as per the English alphabetical series and So, answer is NONE
after this the new series will look like this: Answer: (E) None
UNI RAN SET WUN NAT 47) In this question we have to find the number of letters
As per new series, two words will form meaningful between second letter of the first word from left and the
English words and they are RAN and SET. third letter of the last word as per alphabetical order.
So, answer is TWO Second letter of the first word from left end is I and the
Answer: (A) Two third letter of the last word is M and the numbers of letters
45) In this question we have to interchange the second and between I and M is Three i.e. J, K and L
third letter of each word and after this the new series will So, answer is THREE
look like this: Answer: (C) Three
OEN RNU STA WNO NTU
Page 421 of 1079

48) In this question we have to interchange the first and As per the new series the letter which is twelfth from the
third letter of each word and after this the new series will right end is E and the letter which is sixth to the right of E
look like this: is P.
PIL RAE XAF NAP MIR So, answer is P
As per the new series, there will be only one meaningful Answer: (D) P
word getting framed and that is NAP. 50) In this question we have to change all the consonants
So, answer is ONE to the next letter as per the English alphabetical series and
Answer: (B) One after this the new series will look like this:
49) In this question we have to write all the letters of MIQ EAS GAY QAO SIN
words without any space and after this the new series will As per new series, there are two words having more than
look like this: one vowel and they are EAS and QAO
LIPEARFAXPANRIM So, answer is TWO
Answer: (C) Two
Coding Decoding (5mark) (la sa ka)
Direction (1-5): Study the following information E. None of these

carefully to answer the given question: 2) What is the code for “near around” in the given
In a certain code language, coded language?
“Justice Criminal the office” is coded as “fd jr gt ws” A. db pm
“Hostages criminal live justice” is coded as “xv fd qx B. xv db
gt” C.pm ws
“Near office live criminal” is coded as “pm gt ws xv” D. qx db
“Around office the hostages” is coded as “db ws jr qx” E. None of these
1) What is the code for “hostages” in the given code 3) What is the possible code for “criminal of office” in
language? the given coded language?
A.gt A.ws fd db
B.ws B. jr qx fd
C. qx C.ws gt sz
D. db D.pm xv jr
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E. None of these E.lmn

4) What is the code for “justice” in the given coded 7) What is the code for “zebra”?
language? A.opq
A.gt B. Wow
B. fd C.uvw
C.ws D.jkl
D. jr E. None of these
E. None of these 8) What is the code for “window paper sheep”?
5) How many codes of the words are definitely found? A.ghi abc lmn
A. 7 B.ghi abc wow
B. 6 C.lmn jkl def
C. 5 D.def lmn wow
D. 9 E. None of these
E. None of these 9) What is the code for “gentle cattle spot”?
Direction (6-9): Study the following information A.abd ghi lmn
carefully and answer the below questions. B.rac wow ghi
‘Spot gentle post window sheep’ is coded as ‘abc rac C.uvw jkl lmn
uvw wow def’ D.uvw lmn rac
‘Cattle sheep gentle paper zebra’ is coded as ‘abc lmn E. None of these
ghi uvw opq’ Direction (10-13): Study the following information
‘Gentle mobile spot paper post’ is coded as ‘rac jkl ghi carefully and answer the below questions.
uvw def’ In a certain coded language,
‘Cattle window post sheep’ is coded as ‘def lmn wow “Always speak the truth” is written as “an ip at ek”,
abc’ “Always seek knowledge” is written as “it an ib”,
Note: All the codes are in three letter format “Knowledge for truth” is written as “is at it”,
6) What is the code for “post”? “Never seek violence” is written as “il ib as”
A.abc 10) What is the code for “always” in the given coded
B.def language?
C.rac A. ip
D.ghi B. an
Page 423 of 1079

C. ib 14) What is the code for ‘open’?

D. Cannot be determined A.ga
E. None of these B.ve
11) What does ‘at’ stands for in the given coded C. ja
language? D. be
A. for E.ve/be
B. speak 15) What does ‘ho’ stands for?
C. the A. place
D. truth B. order
E. None of these C. will
12) Which of the following is the code for “violence D. now
always seek”? E. Cannot be determined
A.il an ip 16) Which of the following will be the code for ’accept
B. as at an online order’?
C. as ip an A. ce ze ho
D. Cannot be determined B. ho pe ve
E. None of these C. ho ce xe
13) What is the code for “the seek”? D. xe be pe
A. ip ib E. Cannot be determined
B. ek ib Direction (17-20): Study the following information
C. it ek carefully and answer the questions given below it.
D. Either a or b In a certain code language
E. None of these ‘Little things make big day’ written as ‘qu cf ry wh ba’
Direction (14-16): Study the following information ‘Things to look forward’ written as ‘ps bt gi qu’
carefully and answer the below questions. ‘Big great look here’ written as ‘sk ry bt th’
In a certain code, ‘Great aim little forward’ written as ‘ba xl ps sk’
‘ho ja ye ga’ is written as ‘loss order now shop’ 17) What is the code for ‘look big’?
‘ga ve ja be’ is written as ‘now shop will open’ A. qu bt
‘ce ga ho ze’ is written as ‘place order now online’ B. qu ry
‘be pe ze ho’ is written as ‘offline order will place’ C.bt ry
Page 424 of 1079

D.bt ba C. zo
E. None of these D.ad
18) What can be the code for ‘come here’? E. vw
A. th fa 22) Which of the following may represent “people is
B. ps th nice”?
C. wh th A. xz ps vw
D. sk cf B. iy ad vw
E. bt th C.ps iy vw
19) What is the code for ‘day’? D.ad xz iy
A.cf E.km nl yn
B. wh 23) Which of the following could be code for ”km xz ps
C. ry “?
D.ba A. all is nice
E. Either ‘cf’ or ‘wh’ B. nice always good
20) What is the code for ‘great things’? C. friend are best
A.ps cf D. friend is good
B.sk qu E. none of these
C. qu ry 24) What could be code for “gf”?
D.gi sk A. good
E. None of these B. is
Direction (21-24): Study the following information C. friend
carefully and answer the below questions. D. always
In certain code language- E. are
“My friend is good” is written as “yn xz ad zo” Direction (25-29): In the certain code language
“All friend are nice” is written as “nl xz ps vw”, meanings of some words are as follows:
“Good people are best” is written as “iy zo ps km”, “Life of spices one” are written as “gi mo st zu”
“Best is always nice” is written as “km ad vw gf” “Journey from sweet one” are written as “il if ws zu”
21) What could be code for “friend”? “Life changes from together” are written as “gi if en
A. xz hr”
B.nl “Spices launch of day” are written as “vc mo st bz”
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25) Which of the following means “launch” in the given C. il mo

coded language? D. Cannot be determined
A.mo E. None of these
B.vc Direction (30-33): Study the following information
C.bz carefully and answer the questions given below:
D. Either a or b If,
E. Either b or c ‘Popularity demand influence spirit’ is coded as ‘ku xu
26) Which of the following means “One” in given gu tu’
coded language? ‘Over spirit years ago’ is coded as ‘tu lu mu su’
A.mo ‘Demand ago years time’ is coded as ‘su xu lu ru’
B.st ‘Craft popularity over ago’ is coded as ‘gu lu mu hu’
C.gi ‘People visit years influence’ is coded as ‘su du nu ku’
D. zu Note: All the codes are in two letter format
E. None of these 30) What is the code for ‘craft time demand’?
27) The sentence “which are together” are written as A.hu mu xu
“dy is hr” then what is the code for “change”? B.lu ru xu
A. en C.hu ru nu
B. if D.hu ru xu
C. gi E. None of these
D.hr 31) Which of the following word represents the following
E. None of these code ‘lu su gu mu’?
28) What is the word for the code “ws”? A. Times ago over popularity
A. journey B. years influence over popularity
B. from C. years ago over popularity
C. sweet D. people ago over popularity
D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
E. None of these 32) What can be the code for ‘visit influence spirit’?
29) What is the code for the words “Spices Sweet”? A. tu mu ku
A. mo ws B. du su lu
B. ws st C. du xu tu
Page 426 of 1079

D. tu nu ku B.si wz
E. None of these C. wz re
33) What is the code for ‘demand years over’? D.na ti
A. su nu xu E. None of these
B. xu tu mu 37) What does ‘pa’ stand for?
C. mu su xu A. and
D. nu ku du B. kinds
E. None of these C. warm
Direction (34-37): Study the following information D. Cannot be determined
carefully and answer the questions given below. E. None of these
In a certain code language Direction (38-42): Study the following information
“people are warm and kinds” is written as ‘la za ti sa pa’ carefully and answer the questions given below.
“they are always there” is written as ‘si re ka ti’ In a certain coding language,
“there never kinds of people” is written as ‘sa ka xy na za’ “Rising conflict Large Council” is written as “sue mte gde
“they are never mind” is written as ‘re wz na ti’ vke”
34) What is the code for ‘never’? “Better Round Peace Conflict” is written as “wae vke
A. wz mve gte”
B.na “Decision Fake Rising Better” is written as “jde wae gde
C.re rle”
D.pa “Large Escaped Fake price “is written as “mse sae mte
E. None of these rle”
35) What does ‘za’ stand for? 38) Which of the following can be the code as “mve sue
A. people rle mse”?
B. kinds A. Round Peace Escaped Fake
C. warm B. Decision fake price Council
D. Either a or b C. Council Peace Price Fake
E. None of these D. Price Council Fake Rising
36) Which of the following is definitely the code for E. Peace Council Fake Round
‘always mind’? 39) Which of the following is the code for “Fake” in
A. ka si this code language?
Page 427 of 1079

A.jde In a certain code language,

B.rle “Market slaughter manner rules” is coded as “kr mn
C.wae su tu”
D.mse “Rules connection functions market” is coded as “pr
E. cannot be determined hu tu su”
40) If “ Sachin bat Price is” is coded as “dse sae rje “Board manner follows functions” is coded as “mn hu
bne” and “Sehwag bowling is Peace” is coded as “hle vu pm”
sne jxe gte” then what is the code for “ Large Better “Authority market functions slaughter” is coded
Peace Price”? as “hu su kr ql”
A.wae mte gte sae 43) What is the code for ‘connection functions’?
B.rje mte sae hle A.hu pr
C.gte sae vke mte B.vu ql
D.sae mte sne jxe C.pr pm
E. None of these D.mn hu
41) Which of the following is the code for “Price” in E. None of these
this code Language? 44) What is the code for ‘authority rules’?
A. Sae A. tu kr
B.mse B. su ql
C.wae C. ql tu
D.mve D.hu mn
E. Either (a) or (b) E. None of these
42) How many distinct words and their respective 45) What can be the code for ‘market follows’?
codes can be determined? A.vu tu
A. Six B.kr ql
B. Seven C.vu mn
C. Eight D. su pm
D. Five E. None of these
E. None of these 46) What is the code for ‘slaughter connection’?
Direction (43-47): Study the following information A.pr su
carefully and answer the given questions: B.pm vu
Page 428 of 1079

C.hu pr A.ne
D.pr kr B. jk
E. None of these C. lf
47) Which of the following word represents ‘hu mn’? D.gs
A. follows board E. None of these
B. authority manner Direction (1-5):
C. connection follows 1.Answer: C
D. functions manner 2.Answer: A
E. None of these 3.Answer: C
Direction (48-50): Study the following information 4.Answer: B
carefully and answer the questions given below it. 5.Answer: E
In a certain coded language Explanation
“she earn income “ written as “mh jk gs” Justice-fd
“she tries to earn income “ written as “mh jk lf gs bn” Criminal-gt
“needs more income“ written as “jk ne bd” The-jr
“she tries best“ written as “ mh lf sd” Office-ws
48) What is the code for “best”? Hostages-qx
A. Cannot be determined Live-xv
B. lf Near-pm
C.mh Around-db
D.sd Direction (6-9):
E. None of these 6.Answer: B
49) What is the code for “to”? 7.Answer: A
A.mh 8.Answer: B
B.bn 9.Answer: D
C. jk Explanation
D. lf
E. None of these
50) If “needs” can be coded as “bd” what is the code
for “more”?
Page 429 of 1079

Direction (10-13):
10.Answer: B
11.Answer: D
12.Answer: D
13.Answer: D
Explanation
Direction (14-16):
14.Answer: B
15.Answer: B
16.Answer: C
Explanation
Page 430 of 1079

Direction (17-20):
17.Answer: C Direction (21-24):
18.Answer: A 21.Answer: A
19.Answer: E 22.Answer: B
20.Answer: B 23.Answer: C
Explanation 24.Answer: D
Explanation
Page 431 of 1079

Direction (30-33):
30.Answer: D
31.Answer: C
32.Answer: D
33.Answer: C
Explanation
Direction (25-29):
25.Answer: E
26.Answer: D
27.Answer: A
28.Answer: D
29.Answer: D
Explanation
Direction (34-37):
Page 432 of 1079

34.Answer:B
35.Answer:D
36.Answer: B
37.Answer:D
Explanation
Direction (43-47):
43.Answer: a)
44.Answer: c)
45.Answer: d)
46.Answer: d)
47.Answer: d)
Explanation
Market-su
Slaughter-kr
Manner-mn
Rules-tu
Direction (38-42):
Connection-pr
38.Answer: (C)
Functions-hu
39.Answer: (B)
Board/follows-vu/pm
40.Answer: (A)
Authority-ql
41.Answer: (E)
Direction (48-50):
42.Answer: B
48.Answer: D
Explanation
49.Answer: B
50.Answer: A
Explanation
Page 433 of 1079

Numerical Sequence (3number 5 set)
Directions (1-5): Answer the questions based on the many prime numbers are there in the final
information given below. arrangement?
513 256 974 381 638 a) One
1. If all the numbers are arranged in increasing order b) Two
from left to right, then which of the following number c) Three
is to the immediate left of the second-highest d) More than three
number? e) None
a) 381 3. If the first two digits are interchanged, then in how
b) 256 many numbers the sum of the second and the third
c) 974 digits is divisible by 4?
d) 513 a) One
e) 638 b) Three
2. If one is subtracted from the first digit and one is c) More than three
added to the last digit of each number, then how d) None
Page 434 of 1079

e) Two 7. If all the digits are arranged in descending order

4. If the sum of the digits of the number is subtracted within the number, then which of the following is the
from the number itself, then which among the third-least number?
following number is the a) 874
Second-highest number? b) 348
a) 256 c) 350
b) 974 d) 453
c) 638 e) 542
d) 513 8. If the first and the third digits are interchanged
e) 381 and all the numbers are arranged in ascending order
5. In which of the following number the product of from left to right, then which of the following number
the second and the third digit is the fourth-smallest? is second from the right end?
a) 513 a) 453
b) 638 b) 874
c) 381 c) 542
d) 256 d) 350
e) 974 e) 348
9. What will be the remainder if the sum of the digits
Directions (6-10): Answer the questions based on the of the lowest number is divided by the sum of the
information given below. digits of the second-lowest number?
348 542 874 350 453 a) 0
6. If two is added to the second digit of each of the b) 5
numbers, then what will be the difference between the c) 1
second-highest and the second-lowest numbers? d) 8
a) 194 e) 7
b) 105 10. What will be the difference between the second
c) 192 number from the right end and the first number from
d) 103 the left end, if all the numbers are arranged in
e) 100 ascending order with respect to their last digit from
left to right?
Page 435 of 1079

a) 524 c) 543
b) 194 d) 735
c) 192 e) Cannot be determined
d) 105 14. If all the digits of the numbers are arranged in
e) 526 decreasing order from right to left consecutively, how
many digits are repeated for the maximum number of
Directions (11-15): Answer the questions based on the times?
information given below. a) Two
324 912 543 218 735 b) Four
11. If two is added to the second digit of each of the c) Three
numbers, then how many numbers thus formed are d) Five
divisible by seven? e) More than five
a) None 15. If one is subtracted from the odd placed digits of
b) Three each of the numbers and all the numbers are
c) More than three arranged in ascending order from left to right, then
d) One which of the following number is second from the
e) Two right end?
12. If the sum of the last two digits of each number is a) 543
multiplied by three and then added by the b) 218
corresponding first digit of that number, then how c) 912
many resultant numbers will be an odd number? d) 735
a) Two e) 324
b) More than three
c) One Directions (16-20): Answer the questions based on the
d) None information given below.
e) Three 375 142 658 482 821
13. Which of the following number has the second- 16. If all the digits of each of the numbers are
smallest sum of all the digits of the number? arranged in increasing order from left to right within
a) 912 the number and then all the numbers are arranged in
b) 218
Page 436 of 1079

descending order from left to right, then which of the c) More than three
following number is fourth from the right end? d) None
a) 658 e) Two
b) 821 20. Which of the following number is third from the
c) 375 left end, if the second digit of all the numbers is added
d) 142 with one and then arranged in descending order from
e) 482 left to right?
17. What will be the product of the sum of all the a) 142
digits of the highest number and the sum of all the b) 821
digits of the second-lowest number? c) 482
a) 133 d) 658
b) 165 e) 375
c) 195 Directions (21-25): Answer the questions based on the
d) 105 information given below.
e) None of these 915 733 249 354 168
18. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending 21. What will be the result if the highest digit of the
order from right to left with odd numbers first lowest number is multiplied with the sum of the
followed by even numbers, then what will be the lowest and the highest digits of the highest number?
product of the digits of the number which is second a) 72
from the left end? b) 80
a) 15 c) 60
b) 11 d) 81
d) 64
e) 7 22. If the first and the second digits of all the numbers
19. If the position of second and third digits of each of are interchanged, then what will be the difference
the numbers is interchanged, then how many between the second-highest number and the fourth-
numbers thus formed will be divisible by 3? lowest number?
a) One a) 161
b) Three b) 105
Page 437 of 1079

c) 189 d) 7
d) 0 e) 9
e) None of these Directions(26-30): The following questions are based
on the three digits five numbers given below.
23. If 72 is subtracted from each of the given 545 644 784 527 898
numbers, then which of the following number has the 26) If the 1st and 3rd digit of each of the number are
second-highest sum of the digits of the number? multiplied then the resultant of which of the following
a) 168 numbers will be divisible by 5?
b) 354 a. 644
c) 733 b. 545 and 527
d) 915 c. 527 and 898
e) 249 d. 545
24. If in each number, all the prime digits are e. 644 and 784
changed to its immediate next number and all the 27) If 4 is added to the 1st digit of each number and
digits are arranged in increasing order within the then the positions of the 2nd and the 3rd digits are
number, then which of the following number is the interchanged, which of the following will be the
second-lowest number? highest number?
a) 915 a. 545
b) 168 b. 527
c) 249 c. 898
d) 733 d. 784
e) 354 e. 644
25. If all the digits of the numbers are arranged in 28) If 2 is subtracted from the 2nd digit of each
decreasing order with even digits first and then number and then the positions of the 1st and the 3rd
followed by the odd digits in a consecutive manner digit are interchanged, which of the following will be
from left to right, then which of the following digit is the lowest number?
tenth from the right end? a. 545
a) 3 b. 527
b) 2 c. 898
c) 4 d. 784
Page 438 of 1079

e. 644 32. What is the difference between the third digit of the
29) If in each number 1st and 3rd digits are number which is second from the left end and the first
interchanged, then how many even numbers are digit of the number that is first from the right end as
there? given in the series?
a. 1 a) 2
b. 2 b) 5
c. 3 c) 4
d. 4 d) 1
e. 5 e) 0
30) What will be the number obtained if 2nd digit of
the largest number is multiplied with 3rd digit of the 33. If ‘1’ is added to all the even digits and ‘2’ is
smallest number? subtracted from all odd digits then how many 3’s can
a. 64 be found in the above series?
b. 57 a) 7
c. 63 b) 2
d. 54 c) 5
e. 44 d) 6
Directions (31-35): Study the following information e) 4
carefully and answer the below questions-
567 987 243 559 727 34. If all the even digits are removed then what is the
31. If the above series is arranged in descending order sum of first three digits from the right end and last
then which among the following will be the third digit two digits from the left end as in the given series?
from the right end of the second number from the left a) 35
end? b) 27
a) 3 c) 33
b) 7 d) 38
c) 9 e) 42
d) 5
e) 2 35. What is the minimum difference between any two
numbers in the above given series?
Page 439 of 1079

a) 11 (c) 854
b) 9 (d) 647
c) 7 (e) 489
d) 8 39. If all the digits of each number are arranged in
e) 0 ascending order within the number then which of the
following numbers will be remain same?
Directions (36-40): Following questions are based on (a) 489
five numbers given below: (b) 647
854 647 489 851 673 (c) 851
36. In each number, if we add the first and the third (d) 673
digit then the resultant of how many numbers will be (e) 854
divisible by 3? 40. In each number, if 1 is subtracted from each even
(a) One digit then which of the following numbers will be the
(b) Two lowest?
(c) None (a) 647
(d) Three (b) 851
(e) Four (c) 489
37. In each number, if we subtract 1 from the first (d) 673
digit, then which of the following numbers will be the (e) 854
third lowest number?
(a) 647 Directions (41-45): Following questions are based on
(b) 854 five numbers given below:
(c) 673 536 487 353 441 397
(d) 851 41. What is the resultant if the second digit of the third-
(e) 489 highest number is added to the second digit of the
38. If the first two digits of each number are second-lowest number?
interchanged then which of the following will be the (a) 14
second highest number? (b) 11
(a) 851 (c) 15
(b) 673 (d) 13
Page 440 of 1079

(e) 17 (a) 397

42. If two is subtracted from first digits in each (b) 441
numbers, which of the following numbers will be the (c) 487
second lowest? (d) 536
(a) 441 (e) 353
(b) 397 Directions (46-50): Study the following information
(c) 353 carefully and answer the below questions-
(d) 536 324 489 176 294 595
(e) 487 46. If the entire digits in each number is added within
43. If all numbers are arranged in ascending order itself. Then, what is the difference between highest and
from the right to the left then what is the addition of lowest number?
the numbers which are second from the left end and a) 15
third from the right end? b) 12
(a) 754 c) 20
(b) 966 d) 18
(c) 928 e) None of these
(d) 732
(e) 687 47. If the digits in each numbers are arranged in
44. If in each number, 2 is subtracted from the first ascending order within the number. Then, what is
digit and then the first and the second digits are difference between highest and lowest number?
interchanged in each number then which of the a) 392
following will be the largest number? b) 362
(a) 397 c) 374
(b) 353 d) 382
(c) 487 e) None of these
(d) 536
(e) 441 48. What is the product of highest digit of the second
45. If the positions of the first and the third digits are highest number and lowest digit of the lowest number?
interchanged in each number then which of the a) 12
following will be the second-lowest number? b) 8
Page 441 of 1079

c) 9 e) 4
d) 10
e) None of these 50. Among the following numbers, how many numbers
are divisible by 3?
49. If the third digit of each number is decreased by 1, a) One
then how many numbers are divisible by 3? b) Two
a) 1 c) Three
b) 2 d) More Than Three
c) None e) None of These
d) 3
Numerical Sequence – Answer and Explanation

Directions (1-5): 3+8+1 = 12 --> 381 – 12 = 369
1.Answer: d) 513 6+3+8 = 17 --> 638 – 17 = 621
Explanation: 5.Answer: e) 974
513 256 974 381 638 Explanation:
256 381 513 638 974 513 --> 1*3 = 3
2.Answer: a) One 256 --> 5*6 = 30
Explanation: 974 --> 7*4 = 28
513 256 974 381 638 381 --> 8*1 = 8
414 157 875 282 539 638 --> 3*8 = 24
3.Answer: b) Three Directions (6-10):
Explanation: 6.Answer: c) 192
513 256 974 381 638 Explanation:
153 526 794 831 368 348 542 874 350 453
8 8 13 4 14 368 562 894 370 473
4.Answer: c) 638 562 – 370 = 192
Explanation: 7.Answer: d) 453
5+1+3 = 9 --> 513 – 9 = 504 Explanation:
2+5+6 = 13 --> 256 – 13 = 243 348 542 874 350 453
9+7+4 = 20 --> 974 – 20 = 954 843 542 874 530 543
Page 442 of 1079
8.Answer: b) 874 Explanation:

Explanation: 324 912 543 218 735
348 542 874 350 453 987554433322211
843 245 478 053 354 15.Answer: d) 735
053 245 354 478 843 Explanation:
9.Answer: e) 7 324 912 543 218 735
Explanation: 223 811 442 117 634
3+4+8 = 15 117 223 442 634 811
3+5+0 = 8 Directions (16-20):
10.Answer: a) 524 16.Answer: c) 375
348 542 874 350 453 375 142 658 482 821
350 542 453 874 348 357 124 568 248 128
Directions (11-15): 568 357 248 128 124
11.Answer: d) One 17.Answer: b) 165
324 912 543 218 735 375 142 658 482 821
344 932 563 238 755 11*15 = 165
12.Answer: e) Three 18.Answer: d) 64
324 --> 2+4 = 6*3 = 18+3 = 21 375 142 658 482 821
912 --> 1+2 = 3*3 = 9+9 = 18 658 482 142 821 375
543 --> 4+3 = 7*3 = 21+5 = 26 4*8*2 = 64
218 --> 1+8 = 9*3 = 27+2 = 29 19.Answer: a) One
735 --> 3+5 = 8*3 = 24+7 = 31 Explanation:
13.Answer: b) 218 375 142 658 482 821
Explanation: 357 124 685 428 812
324 912 543 218 735 20.Answer: c) 482
9 12 12 11 15 Explanation:
14.Answer: a) Two 375 142 658 482 821
Page 443 of 1079

385 152 668 492 831 28. e

831 668 492 385 152 29. b
Directions (21-25): 30. c
21.Answer: b) 80 Solution 26
Explanation: Given series: 545 644 784 527 898
915 733 249 354 168 on multiplying 1st and last digits:
8*(1+9) = 80 545: 5*5 = 25
Hence, Option B is correct. 644: 6*4 = 24
22.Answer: d) 0 784: 7*4 = 28
Explanation: 527: 5*7 = 35
915 733 249 354 168 898: 8*8 = 64
195 373 429 534 618 Here 35 and 25 are only divisible by 5.
Both are the same number. Hence answer is 527 and 545.
23.Answer: c) 733 Solution 27
Explanation: Given series: 545 644 784 527 898
915 733 249 354 168 Adding 4 to the 1st digit: 945 1044 1184 927 1298
843 661 177 282 096 interchanging the 2nd and the 3rd digit: 954 1404 1814
15 13 15 12 15 972 1928
24.Answer: a) 915 So, 1928 is highest number which came from 898.
Explanation: Solution 28
915 733 249 354 168 Given series: 545 644 784 527 898
916 844 349 464 168 Subtracting 2 from the 2nd digit: 525 624 764 507 878
169 448 349 446 168 interchanging the 1st and the 3rd digit: 525 426 467 705
25.Answer: e) 9 878
Explanation: So 426 is the lowest number, which came from 644.
915 733 249 354 168 Solution 29
864429975533311 Given series: 545 644 784 527 898
Answers: Interchanging the 1st and 3rd digits: 545 446 487 725 898
26. b hence 2 even number, which came from 644, 898
27. c Solution 30
Page 444 of 1079

Given series: 545 644 784 527 898 Total sum- 23+12= 35.
Largest no is in the series: 898 Answer: A (35)
Smallest no is in the series: 527
2nd digit of largest no: 9 35) Given number series is-
3rd digit of smallest no: 7 567 987 243 559 727
After multiplying this: 9*7 = 63 Here, we can clearly observe that minimal difference must
Answers (31-35): Given number series as follows- be between 567 and 559.
567 987 243 559 727 Difference- 567-559= 8.
Answer: D (8)
31) Arrange numbers in descending order from left end- SOLUTIONS (36-40)
987 727 567 559 243 36. D
Now, third digit from right end of the number which is 37. C
second from the left end- number is- 727. 38. B
Answer: B (7) 39. A
40. C
32) 567 987 243 559 727
Third digit of the number which is second from the left- 7 36. 854 647 489 851 673
First digit of the number which is first from right end- 7 8+4=12
Difference- 7-7 = 0 6+7=13
Answer: E (zero) 4+9=13
1+8=9
33) First, add ‘1’ to even digits and subtract ‘2’ from odd 6+3=9
digit- Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
375 795 351 337 535 37. 854 647 489 851 673
There are five 3s in the obtained series. After subtraction - 754 547 389 751 573
Answer: C (five) Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
38. 854 647 489 851 673
34) After eliminating even digits, first three digits from After interchange - 584 467 849 581 763
right end are- 7+7+9= 23 Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Last digits from left end- 5+7= 12 39. 854 647 489 851 673
Page 445 of 1079

After ascending order - 458 467 489 158 367 Answer: B (12)
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
40. 854 647 489 851 673 47) Arrange digits in ascending order within the number-
After subtraction – 753 537 379 751 573 234 489 167 249 559
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Now difference between the highest and lowest number-
41. D 559-167= 392
42. B Answer: A (392)
43. C
44. A 48) Highest digit of second highest number (489) is 9
45. E Smallest digit of lowest number (176) is 1
Answers (46-50): Given number series as follows- Product- 1 * 9= 9.
324 489 176 294 595 Answer: C (9)
46) When entire digits of every number is added- 49) If ‘1’ is subtracted by the third digit of every number-
3+2+4= 9 323 488 175 293 594
4+8+9= 21 Now, only number 594 is divisible by 3.
1+7+6= 14 Answer: A (one)
2+9+4= 15
5+9+5= 19 50) Only three numbers in the given series- 324, 489 and
Difference between highest and lowest number- 21-9 = 294 is divided by 3.
12. Answer: C (three)
Alphabetical Order (Forward and backward)
1) How many pairs of letters are there in the word c) Three

“APPROXIMATE” (both forward and backward d) None
direction)each of which has as many letters between e) More than three
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? 2) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
a) One “NAUGHTY” (both forward and backward direction)
b) Two
Page 446 of 1079

each of which has as many letters between them in the c) Both II and III
word as in the English alphabetical series? d) Both I and III
a) One e) All I, II and III
b) Two 5) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
c) Three “ALGORITHM” (both forward and backward
d) None direction)each of which has as many letters between
e) More than three them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
3) In each word given below find pairs of letters in the a) One
word (both forward and backward direction)each of b) Two
which has as many letters between them in the word as c) Three
in the English alphabetical series. Which of the d) Four
following has more than two such pairs? e) More than four
I. ENTRANCE 6) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
II. ENCHANT “EXERCISES” (both forward and backward
III. EMPIRE direction)each of which has as many letters between
a) Only I them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
b) Only II a) One
c) Only III b) Two
d) Both I and III c) Three
e) None of these d) None
4) In each word given below find pairs of letters in the e) More than three
word (both forward and backward direction) each of 7) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
which has as many letters between them in the word as “TARGET” (both forward and backward
in the English alphabetical series. Which of the direction)each of which has as many letters between
following has less than three such pairs? them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
I. FRUITFUL a) One
II. TRIGGER b) Two
III. OPTIMUM c) Three
a) Only II d) None
b) Only III e) More than three
Page 447 of 1079

8) How many pairs of letters are there in the word direction)each of which has as many letters between
“PERFECTION” (both forward and backward them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
direction)each of which has as many letters between a) One
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? b) Two
a) One c) Three
b) Two d) None
c) Three e) More than three
d) None 12) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
e) More than three “SERIOUS” (both forward and backward
“DELIBERATE” (both forward and backward them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
direction)each of which has as many letters between a) One
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? b) Two
a) One c) Three
b) Two d) None
c) Three e) More than three
d) None 13) In each word given below find pairs of letters in the
e) More than three word (both forward and backward direction) each of
10) How many pairs of letters are there in the word which has as many letters between them in the word as
“TANGENT” (both forward and backward in the English alphabetical series. Which of the
direction)each of which has as many letters between following has more than one such pairs?
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? I. DARKEST
a) One II. LIGHTEST
b) Two III. UNIFORM
c) Three a) Only II
d) None b) Only III
e) More than three c) Both II and III
11) How many pairs of letters are there in the word d) Both I and III
“REQUIRE” (both forward and backward e) All I, II and III
Page 448 of 1079

14) How many pairs of letters are there in the word e) All I, II and III
“LOCATION” (both forward and backward 17) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
direction)each of which has as many letters between “LAVISH” (both forward and backward direction)
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? each of which has as many letters between them in the
a) One word as in the English alphabetical series?
b) Two a) One
c) Three b) Two
d) None c) Three
e) More than three d) None
15) How many pairs of letters are there in the word e) More than three
“TERRIBLE” (both forward and backward direction) 18) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
each of which has as many letters between them in the “COMMEMORATION” (both forward and
word as in the English alphabetical series? backward direction)each of which has as many letters
a) One between them in the word as in the English
b) Two alphabetical series?
c) Three (a)Two
d) None (b)Four
e) More than three (c)More than Four
16) In each word given below find pairs of letters in the (d)Three
word (both forward and backward direction) each of (e)One
which has as many letters between them in the word as 19) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
in the English alphabetical series. Which of the “FORGOTTEN” (both forward and backward
following has less than three such pairs? direction) each of which has as many letters between
I. CRICKET them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
II. TENNIS (a)Two
III. HOCKEY (b)Four
a) Only I (c)More than Four
b) Only II (d)Three
c) Both II and III (e)One
d) Both I and II
Page 449 of 1079

20) How many pairs of letters are there in the word direction) each of which has as many letters between
“MISGUIDE” (both forward and backward direction) them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
each of which has as many letters between them in the (a)More than three
word as in the English alphabetical series? (b)Three
(a)Four (c)None
(b)Three (d)Two
(c)More than Five (e)One
(d)Two 24) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(e)One “ELABORATE” (both forward and backward
21) How many pairs of letters are there in the word direction) each of which has as many letters between
“MOBILISE” (both forward and backward direction) them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
each of which has as many letters between them in the (a)One
word as in the English alphabetical series? (b)More than Three
(a)More than three (c)None
(b)Three (d)Two
(c)None (e)Three
(d)Two 25) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(e)One “STARDOM” (both forward and backward direction)
22) How many pairs of letters are there in the word each of which has as many letters between them in the
“PHARMACEUTICAL” (both forward and word as in the English alphabetical series?
backward direction) each of which has as many letters (a)None
between them in the word as in the English (b)More than Three
alphabetical series? (c)One
(a)More than three (d)Two
(b)Three (e)Three
(c)None 26) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)Two “STATISTICS” (both forward and backward
(e)One direction)each of which has as many letters between
23) How many pairs of letters are there in the word them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
“CURATIVE” (both forward and backward (a)None
Page 450 of 1079

(b)Three (e) More than seven

(c)One 30) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)Two “SEMINAR” (both forward and backward direction)
(e)More than three each of which has as many letters between them in the
27) How many pairs of letters are there in the word word as in the English alphabetical series?
“QUESTIONS” (both forward and backward (a) One
direction) each of which has as many letters between (b) Two
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (c) None
(a)None (d) Three
(b)Three (e) More than three
(d)Two “CAPITAL” (both forward and backward direction)
(e)More than three each of which has as many letters between them in the
“ANSWERS” (both forward and backward direction) (a) One
each of which has as many letters between them in the (b) Two
word as in the English alphabetical series? (c) None
(a)None (d) Three
(b)Three (e) More than three
(d)Two “UNIVERSITY” (both forward and backward
(e)More than three direction)each of which has as many letters between
“CONSISTENT” (both forward and backward (a)Three
direction)each of which has as many letters between (b) One
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (c) None
(a) Four (d)Two
(b) Five (e)More than three
(c) Six 33) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d) Seven “ACCOUNTS” (both forward and backward
Page 451 of 1079

direction) each of which has as many letters between (b)Two

them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (c)Three
(a) Three (d)One
(b) Four (e)More than three
(c) Five 37) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)Two “COLLECTION” (both forward and backward
(e) None of these direction) each of which has as many letters between
“SHAMEFUL” (both forward and backward (a)None
(a)Three (d)One
(b) One (e)More than three
(c) None 38) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)Two “TRANSLATION” (both forward and backward
(e)More than three direction) each of which has as many letters between
“AMALGAMATE” (both forward and backward (a)None
(a)Three (d)One
(b) One (e)More than three
(c) None 39) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)Two “TREASURE” (both forward and backward
(e)More than three direction) each of which has as many letters between
“AUTOGRAPH” (both forward and backward (a)None
direction)each of which has as many letters between (b)One
(a)None (d)Four
Page 452 of 1079

(e)More than four direction)each of which has as many letters between

“EVIDENT” (both forward and backward direction) (a)None
each of which has as many letters between them in the (b)Two
word as in the English alphabetical series? (c)Three
(a)Two (d)One
(b)Three (e)More than three
(d)More than three “FORMAT” (both forward and backward direction)
(e)None each of which has as many letters between them in the
“PALPABLE” (both forward and backward (a)More than three
(a)None (d)One
(b)Two (e)None
(c)Three 45) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)One “GOVERNMENT” (both forward and backward
“ESCAPADE” (both forward and backward (a)None
(a)None (d)One
(b)Two (e)More than three
(c)Three 46) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(d)One “DISASTROUS” (both forward and backward
“PACKAGING” (both forward and backward (a)None
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(b)Two (d)One
(c)Three (e)More than three
(d)One 49) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(e)More than three “LABOUR” (both forward and backward direction)
47) How many pairs of letters are there in the word each of which has as many letters between them in the
“ALTERATION” (both forward and backward word as in the English alphabetical series?
direction)each of which has as many letters between (a)None
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (b)Two
(a)None (c)Three
(b)Two (d)One
(d)One 50) How many pairs of letters are there in the word
(e)More than three “SELECTION” (both forward and backward
"AMAZON” (both forward and backward them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
direction)each of which has as many letters between (a)None
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (b)Two
(a)None (c)Three
(b)Two (d)One
Alphabetical Order – Answer and Explanation

1. Answer: e Solution:
Solution:
3.Answer: b
Solution.
2.Answer: b
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8.Answer: e
4.Answer: e Solution:
Solution:
9.Answer: e
5.Answer: c Solution:
Solution:
10.Answer: d
11.Answer: a
6.Answer: b Solution:
Solution:
12.Answer: b
7.Answer: a
Solution:
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13.Answer: c
Solution:
14.Answer: a
Solution: 19.Answer: a
Solution:
15.Answer: a
Solution: 20.Answer: c
Solution:
16.Answer: e
Solution:
21.Answer: b
Solution:
17.Answer: A
Solution:
22.Answer: a
Solution:
18.Answer: c
Solution:
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Solution:
27.Answer: b
23.Answer: a Solution:
Solution:
28.Answer: e
24.Answer: b Solution:
Solution:
29.Answer: b
Solution:
25.Answer: e
Solution:
30.Answer: a
Solution:
26.Answer: d
Page 457 of 1079
31.Answer: b
Solution:
35.Answer: a
Solution:
32.Answer: e
Solution:
36.Answer: b
Solution:
33.Answer: a
Solution:
37.Answer: c
Solution:
34.Answer: a 38.Answer:e
Solution: Solution:
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39.Answer: b 44.Answer: d
Solution: Solution:
40.Answer: c 45.Answer: e
Solution: Solution:
41.Answer: d
46.Answer: c
Solution:
Solution:
42.Answer: e
Solution:
47.Answer: e
Solution:
43.Answer: b 48.Answer: d
Solution: Solution:
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50.Answer: d
Solution:
49.Answer:b
Solution:
Data Sufficiency
Direction (1-5): Each of the questions below consists of Statement1:Q sits second to the right of U who sits third
a question and two statements numbered I and II given to the left of S. Only one person sits between S and T.
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided Statement2: S sits second from either the left end or the
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question: right end. Only two persons are sitting between S and U.
1)A family consists of six members- A, B, C, D, E, and T sits third to the left of R who sits immediate right of S.
F. How F is related to D? a) The only Statement I sufficient
Statement1: B is the father-in-law of F who is the mother b) Only Statement II sufficient
of C. B is the spouse of D. c) Either I or II sufficient
Statement2: A is the son of D who is the grandmother of d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
C who is the daughter of F. A is unmarried. e) Both I and II together sufficient
a) Only Statement I sufficient 3) Five boxes- P, Q, R, S, and T are kept one above
b) Only Statement II sufficient another but not necessarily in the same order. Which
c) Either I or II sufficient of the followingbox kept immediately above S?
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient Statement1:Two boxes are kept between P and S which
e) Both I and II together sufficient is kept immediately above Box Q. Box T is kept
2) Six persons-P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a immediately above box R.
row(facing south) but not necessarily in the same Statement2:Three boxes are kept between P and Q which
order. Who among the following person sits at the is immediately below S. Only one box is kept between T
right end of the row? and S.
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a) Statement I sufficient provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the

b) Statement II sufficient question:
c) Either I or II sufficient 6)Five persons- A, B, C, D, and E are living in the five-
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient floor storey building but not necessarily in the same
e) both I and II together sufficient order. Who among the following person lives on the
4)What is the direction of point S with respect to point topmost floor?
M? Statement1: D lives immediately above C who lives on
Statement1: Point T is north of point M which is west of an odd-numbered floor. B lives one of the floors above A
point L which is north of point N. who lives immediately above E.
Statement2: Point P is south of point S and east of point Statement2: Two persons are living between B and A
N. Point T is west of point S. who lives immediately above E.
a) Statement I sufficient a) Only Statement I sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient b) Only Statement II sufficient
c) Either I or II sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
e) Both I and II together sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
5) The conclusion of “All Van can be Car” is definitely 7) Five persons – U, V, W, X, and Y bought a new
followed by which of the following statements? mobile on consecutive days from Monday to Friday
Statement1:Only a few van is a car; Some Car is Bike; but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the
All Bike is Truck following persons bought a mobile on Tuesday?
Statement2:Only Bike is Car; Some bike is Van; All van Statement1: X bought a mobile on Thursday. V bought
is Truck either immediately before or immediately after X. Only
a) Statement I sufficient one person bought between V and W, who bought before
b) Statement II sufficient V.
c) Either I or II sufficient Statement2: Y bought a mobile two persons before X
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient who bought immediately before W. V bought after U but
e) both I and II together sufficient not after W
Direction (6-10): Each of the questions below consists a) Statement I sufficient
of a question and two statements numbered I and II b) Statement II sufficient
given below it. You have to decide whether the data c) Either I or II sufficient
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d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient Statement2: Point X is west of point A which is south of
e) both I and II together sufficient Point C. Point L is south of Point X.
8) Five students, P, Q, R, S, and T are scored different a) Statement I sufficient
marks. Who among the following has scored the b) Statement II sufficient
highest mark? c) Either I or II sufficient
Statement1:Q scored more marks than R who scored less d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
mark than S. P scored more mark than T. e) Both I and II together sufficient
Statement2:Only two persons are scored between P and Direction (11-15): Each of the questions below consists
T. P is not the highest scorer. of a question and two statements numbered I and II
a) Statement I sufficient given below it. You have to decide whether the data
b) Statement II sufficient provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
c) Either I or II sufficient question:
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient 11)Six persons-P, Q, R, S, T, and U are attending the
e) Both I and II together sufficient exam one after other but not necessarily in the same
9)What is the code for "Yellow"? order. Who among the following persons attends
Statement1: "Red Blue Yellow" coded as "ad bd cd". immediately before T?
"Yellow Green orange" coded as "ed cd ld". "Green Blue" Statement1: Two persons are attending an exam between
coded as "bd ld" Q and R who attendS immediately before U.
Statement2: "Green Red Black" coded as "md ld vd". Statement2:Q attends immediately before S who attends
"Green Black Yellow" coded as "md ld fd". three persons before U. Only one person attends between
a) Statement I sufficient R and T.
b) Statement II sufficient a) Statement I sufficient
c) Either I or II sufficient b) Statement II sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
e) both I and II together sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
10)What is the direction of point X with respect to e) Both I and II together sufficient
point Y? 12)The Five boxes-Red, Green, Blue, Yellow, and
Statement1: Point Y is north of point R which is west of Orange are kept one above another but not necessarily
point M. Point Z is north-east of point R and north of point in the same order. Which of the following box kept at
M and east of point Y. the lowermost position?
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Statement1:The number of boxes kept above Green is a) Statement I sufficient

same as below Blue. The red box is kept two boxes above b) Statement II sufficient
the Orange box. c) Either I or II sufficient
Statement2: Yellow box is kept at topmost position. The d) Neither statement I nor statement IIsufficient
blue box is kept below the yellow box and red box. e) both I and II together sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient 15) Six persons-A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a row
b) Statement II sufficient but not necessarily in the same order. who among the
c) Either I or II sufficient following person sits second to the right of F?(Facing
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient North)
e) both I and II together sufficient Statement1:Two persons are sitting between C and E,
13) The conclusion “Some lily can never be Lotus” is neither of them is sitting at the end of the row. F sits
definitely follows by which of the following immediate left of B.
statements? Statement2: A sits immediate left of C. E sits third to the
Statement1: Some Rose is Lily; All Lily is Tulip; No right of C and the immediate left of D. B sits right of F.
Tulip is Lotus a) Only Statement I sufficient
Statement2: Only a few Rose is Lily; All lily is Tulip; b) Only Statement II sufficient
Some Lotus is Tulip c) Either I or II sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
c) Either I or II sufficient Direction (16-20): Each of the questions below consists
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient of a question and two statements numbered I and II
e) both I and II together sufficient given below it. You have to decide whether the data
14) In which direction is Coffee shop with respect to provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
Hospital? question:
Statement1: School is north to the College which is west 16)A family consists of six members – L, T, Q, I, J, and
to the Hospital. The coffee shop is west to School. F. How I is related to T?
Statement2: Coffee shop is north to the Dress shop and Statement1: L is the father of I who is the sibling of Q
west to the School. The college is south to the School and who is the brother-in-law of J.
west of the hospital. Hospital is southeast to the dress Statement2:J does not have a sibling. F is the mother-in-
shop. law of T and the spouse of L. F does not have a daughter.
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a) Only Statement I sufficient a) Statement I sufficient

b) Only Statement II sufficient b) Statement II sufficient
e) Both I and II together sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
17) There are five toys container- Car, Bus, Doll, 19)What is the code for "November"?
Teddy, and Bike are kept one above another but not Statement1: "May June July" coded as "xmfmgm".
necessarily in the same order. Which of the following "August September June" coded as "xmdm tm".
box kept at the lowermost position? "November July October" coded as "jmhmgm"
Statement1: Bus container is kept immediately above Car Statement2: "November October August" coded as
which is kept just above doll. The number of boxes kept "jmhmdm". "September May" coded as "tm fm".
above Teddy is same as below Bike which is kept above a) Statement I sufficient
the bus. b) Statement II sufficient
Statement2: Three boxes are kept between Bike and c) Either I or II sufficient
Teddy. Only one box is kept between Doll and Bus which d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
is kept immediately below the car. e) both I and II together sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient 20)Five persons- Kavi, Pavi, Jivi, Selvi, and Ravi are
b) Statement II sufficient sitting in the circular table facing towards the centre
c) Either I or II sufficient but not necessarily in the same order. Who among
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient them sits third to the left of Ravi?
e) both I and II together sufficient Statement1: Pavi sits second to the right of the one who
18) There are five persons-K, Y, V, G, and R belongs sits immediate left of Kavi. Only one person sits between
to different age groups. Who among the following Ravi and Pavi who is not an immediate neighbor of selvi.
person is the eldest one? Statement2: Two persons are sitting between Kavi and
Statement1:Y is elder than V but younger than K. Two Ravi who is not an immediate neighbor of Pavi.
persons are between K and G who is younger than V. a) Statement I sufficient
Statement2:Number of persons elder than Y is same as b) Statement II sufficient
younger than G who is not the youngest one. K is elder c) Either I or II sufficient
than V who is not younger than R. Y is elder than at least d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
two persons. e) both I and II together sufficient
Page 464 of 1079

Direction (21-25): Each of the questions below consists but not necessarily in the same order. Who among
of a question and two statements numbered I and II them sits immediate right of N?
given below it. You have to decide whether the data Statement1: M sits either immediate left or immediate
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the right of O. N does not sit adjacent to M.
question: Statement2: L sits opposite to O who sits either
21)What is the direction point H with respect to point immediate left or immediate right of N.
A? a) Statement I sufficient
Statement1: Point H is west of Point B and North of Point b) Statement II sufficient
V. Point G is exactly the middle of V and H. c) Either I or II sufficient
Statement2: Point M is southwest of G and west of A. d) Neither statement I not statement II sufficient
Point V is exactly between M and A e) both I and II together sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient 24) Six persons-V, M, Q, W, Y, and J are sitting in a
b) Statement II sufficient row but not necessarily in the same order. who among
c) Either I or II sufficient the following person sits immediate right of the person
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient who sits third from the right end?(Facing West)
e) Both I and II together sufficient Statement1:Q sits second to the right of the person who
22) The conclusion “Some pineapple is not a sits third to the left of J. J sits third from either left end or
cheesecake” is definitely follows by which of the right end. W sits either immediate right or immediate left
following statements? of J.
Statement1:Some Black forest is Pineapple; Some Statement2: Two persons are sitting between J and V. J
Pineapple is Coffeecake; No Coffee cake is Cheesecake sits second to the left of M who sits adjacent to W. Neither
Statement2:All Black forest is Pineapple; All Pineapple W nor Y sits end of the row.
is coffee cake; No Coffee cake is cheesecake a) Only Statement I sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient b) Only Statement II sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
c) Either I or II sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
e) both I and II together sufficient 25) Four persons- A, B, C, and D are bought different
23)Four persons- L, M, N, and O are sitting at the items- Laptop, Headphone, Mobile, and Charger one
corner of the square table facing towards the centre
Page 465 of 1079

after another but not necessarily in the same order. b) Statement II is sufficient
Who among them bought Charger? c) Either I or II is sufficient
Statement1: The mobile bought immediately after B who d) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
bought the item, two persons, before A. D bought the e) both I and II together are sufficient
headphones immediately after Charger. B doesn’t buya 27)What is the code for "Milk"?
charger. Statement1: "Milk Ghee Curd" coded as "acd ghd kld".
Statement2:Two things are bought between B and D who "Butter Paneer Curd" coded as "kld vhd fed". "Ghee
bought the item immediately after A. C bought Mobile. B Butter" coded as "acd vhd"
neither bought Charger nor headphones. Statement2: "Cream Ghee milk" coded as "kld vmd eld".
a) Statement I sufficient "Ghee butter curd" coded as "vmd hed jhd"."Butter Ghee"
b) Statement II sufficient coded as "hed vmd"
c) Either I or II sufficient a) Statement I sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient b) Statement II sufficient
e) both I and II together sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
Direction (26-30): Each of the questions below consists d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
of a question and two statements numbered I and II e) both I and II together sufficient
given below it. You have to decide whether the data 28)Six persons- H, I, J, K, L, and M are sitting at the
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the triangular table facing towards the center. Three of
question: them sit corner of the table and three of them sits side
26) There are five persons-Sofia, Victoria, Emma, of the table. Who among them sits third to the left of
Claire, and Maya are getting different amount of L?
salary. Whose salary is the highest? Statement1: L sits at the corner of the table. Only one
Statement1:Claire gets more salary than Emma who gets person sits between I and L. K sits immediate right of I
a low salary than Sofia. Maya gets more salary than and does not sit adjacent to L.
Victoria. Statement2: Two persons are sitting between I and M
Statement2: Emma gets more salary than Maya. Only who sits middle of the side. L sits immediate left of J who
two person gets between Maya and Claire. Sofia gets more does not sits adjacent to M.
salary than Maya who is not getting the lowest salary. a) Statement I sufficient
Emma gets less salary than Sofia. b) Statement II sufficient
a) Statement I is sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
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d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient given below it. You have to decide whether the data
e) both I and II together sufficient provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
29) Five persons- L, M, N, O, and P are celebrating question:
their birthday on different months January to May. 31) Six persons-A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a row
Who among them celebrated in February(it is not a but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the
leap year)? person sits second from the right end? (all of them are
Statement1: M celebrated immediately before the one facing north)
who celebrated two persons after P. L celebrated Statement1: Two persons are sitting between D and C. F
immediately before N sits second to the left of D. A and E are an immediate
Statement2:Only one person celebrated between L and P neighbor. E neither sits adjacent to C nor D.
who celebrated in a month having odd number of days but Statement2: B sits second to the left of A. C sits
not January. immediate right of E. Only two persons sit between B and
a) Statement I sufficient E. B sits exactly between D and F who has only one
b) Statement II sufficient neighbor.
c) Either I or II sufficient a) Only Statement I sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient b) Only Statement II sufficient
e) both I and II together sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
30)A family consists of six members- H, T, R, Q, X, and d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
Z. How many kids Q has? e) both I and II together sufficient
Statement1:R is the daughter-in-law of T who is the 32) There are five boxes- L, M, N, O, and P are kept
spouse of Q. Z is either brother-in-law or sister-in-law. one above another but not necessarily in the same
Statement2:H’s father’s wife’s daughter-in-law’s order. Which of th following box kept fourth from the
brother-in-law is Z. R is the daughter-in-law of Q. top?
a) Only Statement I sufficient Statement1: Only one box kept between N and P. Box N
b) Only Statement II sufficient kept immediately below M. Box L kept three boxes below
c) Either I or II sufficient Box O.
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient Statement2: Box M kept either second from top or
e) Both I and II together sufficient bottom. Two boxes are between M and P. Box N kept
Direction (31-35): Each of the questions below consists immediately above L.
of a question and two statements numbered I and II a) Statement I sufficient
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b) Statement II sufficient 35)What is the code for "May"?

c) Either I or II sufficient Statement1: "May June July" coded as "hy ij uv". "June
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient April August" coded as "ij ft hb". "August September"
e) both I and II together sufficient coded as "hb at"
33)What is the direction of point V with respect to Statement2: "May July September" coded as "hy uv at".
point H? "May August September" coded as “hy ft at".
Statement1: Point S is north of point H. Point M is west a) Statement I sufficient
of Point S. Point K is south of point V. b) Statement II sufficient
Statement2: Point L is east of Point V. Point H is west of c) Either I or II sufficient
point K. Point V is northeast of Point M. d) Neither statement I, not statement II sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient Direction (36-40): Each of the questions below consists
c) Either I or II sufficient of a question and two statements numbered I and II
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient given below it. You have to decide whether the data
e) Both I and II together sufficient provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
34) Five students- V, W, X, Y, and Z scored different question:
marks. Who among them has scored the highest mark? 36)Five persons- P, Q, R, S, and T are living in the five-
Statement1: Only one person scored more mark than W. floor storey building but not necessarily in the same
Two persons scored between W and Z. V scored more order. Floors are marked 1 to 5 from the bottom to top.
mark than X and less mark than Y. Who among the person lives on the Lowermost floor?
Statement2: The number of persons scored more mark Statement1: R lives on an even number floor. Only one
than W is the same as less mark than X. Neither W nor X person lives between R and S. Q lives immediately below
gets the highest mark. W scored more marks than V and S.
gets fewer marks than the only Y. V doesn’t get the least Statement2: T lives two floors above Q. Only two floors
marks. are between R and S. T lives immediately above S.
a) Statement I sufficient a) Only Statement I sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient b) Only Statement II sufficient
e) both I and II together sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
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37) Five persons-A, B, C, D, and E are joining a Statement2: Only one person sits between J and I. K sits
company on consecutive days from Monday to Friday immediate right of M. I and M are not immediate
but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the neighbors.
following person is joining on Friday? a) Statement I sufficient
Statement1: B is joining on Thursday. D joins the b) Statement II sufficient
adjacent day of B. A is joining two days before D. c) Either I or II sufficient
Statement2: D joins after C. Only two persons join after d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
D. C and E are not joining on an adjacent day. e) both I and II together sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient 40) Five persons- Ram, Ravi, Rajesh, Raja, and Ragu
b) Statement II sufficient have a different number of chocolates viz., 8, 9, 15, 18,
c) Either I or II sufficient and 21 but not necessarily in the same order. Who
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient among them has the highest number of chocolates?
e) both I and II together sufficient Statement1: Ram has chocolates that are not divisible by
38) The conclusion of “Some apple are not Mango” is three. The difference between Ravi and Rajesh is the same
sufficient by which of the following statements? as Ravi and Ragu.
Statement1: Only a few Apple is orange; All Orange is Statement2: Ragu has more chocolates than Ravi. Ravi
Grapes; No Grapes are Mango has twice the chocolate of Raja.
Statement2: Only a few Apple is Grapes; All Grapes are a) Statement I sufficient
Mango; Some Apple are Orange b) Statement II sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
c) Either I or II sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient Direction (41-45): Each of the questions below consists
e) both I and II together sufficient of a question and two statements numbered I and II
39)Five persons- I, J, K, L, and M are sitting at the given below it. You have to decide whether the data
circular table facing towards the center. Who among provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
them sits second to the left of K? question:
Statement1: I sit second to the left of J. M does not sit 41)Six persons- A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting at the
adjacent to I. K is an immediate neighbor of M. triangular table facing towards the center. Three of
them sit corner of the table and three of them sits at
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the middle side of the table. Who among them sits Statement2: U is the mother-in-law of Y and spouse of T.
second to the left of F? W is the father of E. O is the sister-in-law of Y who does
Statement1: A sits at the corner of the table. Two persons not have sibling.
are sitting between A and B. D is an immediate neighbor a) Only Statement I sufficient
of B. b) Only Statement II sufficient
Statement2: F sits immediate left of E who sits corner of c) Either I or II sufficient
the table. Only one person sits between E and D. d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient e) Both I and II together sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient 44)Six persons- L, M, N, O, P and Q are celebrating
c) Either I or II sufficient their birthday on different dates i.e. - 8, 9, 12, 15, 17,
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient and 19 of the same month but not necessarily in the
e) Both I and II together sufficient same order. Who among the following person
42) Five persons- P, Q, R, S, and T are celebrating their celebrates on 15th?
wedding anniversary on different months from June to Statement1: L celebrates even the number date. Only two
October. Who among them celebrated in September? persons are celebrating between L and Q. M celebrates
Statement1: S celebrates the month which has an even after Q.
number of days. Two persons celebrated between S and Statement2: N celebrates three dates before O. N
R. R celebrates immediately before T. celebrates on an even number date. The number of people
Statement2: The number of persons celebrates before T celebrates before N is the same as after Q.
is the same as after S. R celebrates immediately before T. a) Only Statement I sufficient
a) Statement I sufficient b) Only Statement II sufficient
b) Statement II sufficient c) Either I or II sufficient
c) Either I or II sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient e) both I and II together sufficient
e) both I and II together sufficient 45) Five chocolate boxes- Kit Kat, Perk, Munch, 5star,
43)A family consists of six members- T, Y, E, W, O, and Dairy Milk are kept one above another but not
and U. Who among them is the grandfather of E? necessarily in the same order. How many chocolates
Statement1: O is the only daughter of T who is the father are between Perk and 5 star?
of W. E is the daughter of Y who is daughter in law of U.
U is the spouse of T. U and Y are the same gender.
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Statement1: Munch kept immediately above Kit Kat. The II) In a certain language, ‘jolly time movie’ is coded as
number of boxes above Munch is the same as below 5 ‘ror tot wow’ and ‘calls police’ is coded as ‘qoq dod’.
Star. Perk kept above Dairy milk. a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
Statement2: Kit Kat kept two chocolates above Dairy the question
Milk. Perk kept immediately above Munch. Dairy milk b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
and Perk are not kept at the adjacent place. the question
a) Statement I sufficient c) If either the data in statement I or statement II is
b) Statement II sufficient sufficient to answer the question
c) Either I or II sufficient d) If both the data in statement I and statement II together
d) Neither statement I nor statement II sufficient are not sufficient to answer the question
e) both I and II together sufficient e) If both the data in statement I and statement II together
46) Five persons are going on a vacation from January are sufficient to answer the question
to May. Who goes in April? 48) Six persons are sitting around a circular table
I) Only one person goes between A and C. No one goes facing the center. Who sits opposite E?
on vacation after C but E goes immediately before C. I) B sits immediate right of A. Two persons sit between C
II) B goes on vacation after three persons. and E who is to the immediate left of A.
a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer II) D and C are adjacent to each other. F sits second to the
the question right of D and is an immediate neighbour of E. C is to the
b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer immediate right of D.
the question a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
c) If either the data in statement I or statement II is the question
sufficient to answer the question b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
d) If both the data in statement I and statement II together the question
are not sufficient to answer the question c) If either the data in statement I or statement II is
e) If both the data in statement I and statement II together sufficient to answer the question
are sufficient to answer the question d) If both the data in statement I and statement II together
47) What does “lol” mean in the coded language? are not sufficient to answer the question
I) In a certain language, ‘bluff goes straight’ is coded as e) If both the data in statement I and statement II together
‘kok lol hoh’ and ‘straight from heart’ is coded as ‘lol joj are sufficient to answer the question
uou’.
Page 471 of 1079

49) Seven persons L to R are sitting in a row facing 50) Eight persons sit in the straight line facing north.
north. Who sits at left end? Who sits 2nd to the left of O?
I) Three persons sit between L and M. No one sits to the I). N sits 3rd from the right end. O and P sits adjacent to
right of M. O and P are adjacent to each other. Neither O N. Q sits 2nd to the left of M who is 3rd from the left end.
nor P is an immediate neighbour of L. II). Two persons between Q and T who is immediate left
II) L sits exactly between P and Q who is to the immediate of O. R is immediate right of Q and 6th to the left of S.
left of N. More than two persons sit to the right of N. a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
the question b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
the question c) If either the data in statement I or statement II is
c) If either the data in statement I or statement II is sufficient to answer the question
sufficient to answer the question d) If both the data in statement I and statement II together
d) If both the data in statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question
are not sufficient to answer the question e) If both the data in statement I and statement II together
e) If both the data in statement I and statement II together are sufficient to answer the question
are sufficient to answer the question
Data Sufficiency – Answer and Explanation
1.Answer: A
Statement1:
From statement 1, We can find the relationship between
D and F.
Statement2:
From statement 2, We cannot find the relationship of F.
Page 472 of 1079

T
R
S
Q
We can find the answer from statement1
Statement2:
P
T
2.Answer: b R
Statement 1: S
Q
4.Answer: e
Statement1:

Statement 2:
Statement2:
From statement 2 we can find the answer.

3.Answer: c
Solution
Statement1:
P
Page 473 of 1079

After combining both statements, we get the answer B B

D A
C E
A D
E C
Statement2:
From statement 2, we can’t get the answer.
B A
5.Answer: d E
Statement1:
A B
E
7.Answer: b
Statement1:
Monday W
Tuesday
Statement2:
Wednesday V W
Thursday X X
Friday V
From statement1, we could not get the sufficient ing
answer
Statement2
Monday U
Tuesday Y
6.Answer: a
Wednesday V
Statement1:
Thursday X
From statement 1, We can find the answer. B lives on the
topmost floor. Friday W
Page 474 of 1079

From statement2, we can get the sufficient answer

8.Answer: D
Solution
Statement1:
Q>S>R
P>T
(Or) From the statement1, we could not find the direction.
S>Q>R Statement 2:
P>T
From the above condition, there are two possibilities. We
could not find the answer from statement1
Statement2:
P>_>_>T
T>_>_>P
We could not find the answer from statement2.
From both statements,
From the statement2, we could not find the direction.
Q>P>S>R>T
11.Answer: E
Or
Statement1:
S>P>Q>R>T
Q R
Thus, both I and II together not sufficient.
U
9.Answer: c
Solution
From the above statement1, “Yellow” is coded as “cd” R Q
From the above statement2, “Yellow” is coded as “fd” U
10.Answer: d From statement1, we have two possibilities. We could not

Statement 1: get the answer
Statement2:
Q
S
P
Page 475 of 1079

T/R Using Statement1 and Statement2 together

U Yellow
R/T Green
From statement2, we could not get the answer. Red
Statement I and II: Blue

Q Orange
S 13.Answer: a
P
R
U
T
Hence, both statements I and II together sufficient.
12.Answer: e
Statement 1:
From statement 1 we could not find the answer. There are
six possibilities
Red Green Red Blue
14.Answer: c
Green Red Blue Red Green Blue
Orang Orang Red Red
e e
Blue Orang Green Orang Blue Green
e e
Blue Green Orang Orang
e e
Statement 2
From statement 2 we cannot find the answer.
Yellow
Red
Blue
15.Answer: b
Page 476 of 1079
17.Answer: a
Solution
Statement1:
Bike
16.Answer: e
Bus
Statement1:
Car
From statement 1, there are two possibilities.
Doll
Teddy
Statement2:
Bike Teddy
Doll Doll
Car Car
Bus Bus
Teddy Bike
Statement2:
From statement 2, there are two possibilities, so we can’t
From statement 2, We cannot find the relationship
find the answer from statement2
between I and T.
18.Answer: b
Solution
Statement1:
K>Y>V>G>_
_>K>Y>V>G
From the above condition, there are two possibilities. We
From both the statements
could not find the answer from statement1
Page 477 of 1079

Statement2: 21.Answer: e
K>Y>V>G>R
From statement 2, We can find the elder one.
19.Answer: d
Solution
From the above statement1, “November” is coded as
either “jm” or “hm”.
From the above statement2, “November” is coded as
either “jm” or “hm”
So we can’t find the exact code for November.
20.Answer: e
22.Answer: c
23.Answer: d
From the above two statements,
Page 478 of 1079

C Mobile
A
D
From statement2, we could not get the sufficient answer
26.Answer: b
Solution
Statement1:
Claire>Sofia>Emma
Maya>Victoria
24.Answer: a From the above condition, We could not find the answer
from statement1
Statement2:
Claire>Sofia>Emma>Maya>Victoria
From statement 2, We can find that Claire gets the highest
salary.
27.Answer: a
Solution
From the above statement1, “Milk” is coded as “ghd”.
From the above statement2, “Milk” is coded as either
25.Answer: a “kld” or “eld”
Statement1: 28.Answer: A
B Laptop
C Mobile
A Charger
D Headphone
From statement1, we can get the sufficient answer 29.Answer: e

Statement2 Statement1:
B Laptop P
Page 479 of 1079

L
N
From statement1, we could not get the answer

Statement2 From statement 2 there are more possibilities, We cannot
L P find the answer.

31.Answer: b
P L Statement 1:

Using Both the statement,
January L
February N
March P
April M
From statement1 there are two possibilities.
May O Statement 2:
30.Answer: d
Statement1:
From statement2, we can get the arrangement.

32.Answer: a
From statement 1, We cannot find the answer. Solution
Statement2: Statement1:
O
Page 480 of 1079

M
N
L
P
Statement2:
O P
34.Answer: c
M N Solution
N L Statement1:
L M Y>W>V>X>Z
P O We can find the answer from statement1
We could not find the answer from statement2 Statement2:
33.Answer: e Y>W>V>X>Z
Statement1: Here we can find the answer from statement2.
35.Answer: e
Solution
From both statement1 and statement2, The Code for
“May” is “hy”
36.Answer: d
Statement1:
From statement 1, We could not get the answer.
Statement2: P/T P/T
S R
Q P/T
R S
P/T Q
Statement 1 and Statement2:
Statement2:
From statement 2, we could not get the answer.
Page 481 of 1079

T R Statement1
S P
Q T
P S
R Q
37.Answer: e
Statement1:
From statement1, we can get the answer.
Monday A
Statement2
Tuesday
Wednesday D A
Thursday B B
Friday D
Statement2
Monday C
From Statement2, we could not get the answer
Tuesday C
39.Answer: c
Wednesday D D
Statement1
Thursday
Friday
From both Statements
Monday A
Tuesday C
Wednesday D
Thursday B
Friday E From statement1 we can get the arrangement.
38.Answer: a Statement2
Explanation:
Page 482 of 1079

From statement2 we can get the arrangement.

Statement2
40.Answer: B
Statement1:
Ram 8 8
Ravi 18 18
Rajesh 15 21
Raja 9 9
Ragu 21 15
From statement1, we could not find the answer.
Statement2:
From both the Statement
Ram
Ravi 18
Rajesh
Raja 9
Ragu 21
From statement2, we can find that Ragu has the highest
number of chocolates.
41.Answer: e
Statement1
42.Answer: d
Statement1:
June S R
Page 483 of 1079

July T
August
September R S
October T
From statement1, we could not find the answer.
Statement2:
June S R
July S T
From statement2 we can find the answer.
August R
44.Answer: a
September T R S
Statement1:
October T
From statement 1, We can find the answer.
From statement2, we could not find the answer. 8 L
43.Answer: c
9
Statement1
12
15 Q
17
19 M
Statement2:
From statement 2, we can’t get the answer.
8 N
9
12 N
From statement1 we can find the answer.
Statement2 15 Q O
17
19 O Q
45.Answer: b
Solution
Statement1:
Page 484 of 1079
Munch Perk Perk

Kit Kat Munch 5 Star
Perk Kit Kat Dairy Milk
Dairy Milk 5 Star Munch
5 star Dairy Milk Kit Kat
From Statement1 we could not find the answer.
Statement2:
Perk
Munch
Kit Kat
So, either the data in statement I or statement II is
5 Star
sufficient to answer the question.
Dairy Milk
47.Answer: A
From Statement2 we can find the answer. Two
Explanation:
chocolates are between Perk and 5 star.
From statement I, it is clear that ‘straight’ is coded as ‘
46.Answer: C
lol’.
Explanation:
So, the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer
From statement I,
the question.
48.Answer: C
From statement I,
From statement II,

From statement II,
Page 485 of 1079

So, both the data in statement I and statement II together

are sufficient to answer the question
50.Answer: E
So, either the data in statement I or statement II is

sufficient to answer the question
49.Answer: E
On combining both the statements, we get
From statements I and II we get the solution.
Odd One Out
1) Choose the odd one out? d) VL-20

a) AK-100 e) YG-22
b) YP-81 4) Choose the odd one out?
c) OK-16 a) 121
d) TD-256 b) 473
e) PR-8 c) 495
2) Choose the odd one out? d) 384
a) 84 e) 462
b) 246 5) Choose the odd one out?
c) 336 a) ADKL
d) 972 b) BCDZ
e) 886 c) UAKE
3) Choose the odd one out? d) PRNJ
a) RS-17 e) ETKT
b) QV-15 6) Choose the odd one out?
c) MT-22 a) KJA
Page 486 of 1079
b) JAO b) VZAE
c) BAD c) KOPT
d) TED d) EIJM
e) EGF e) AEFJ
7) Choose the odd one out? 12) Choose the odd one out?
a) COB a) RSP
b) PEN b) TUR
c) ANT c) KLI
d) RAT d) HIG
e) JUG e) NOL
a) BYZ a) KATE
b) LOP b) RATE
c) ZAB c) TALK
d) IRT d) SEAT
e) JQR e) GATE
a) RQP a) ROOM- 17
b) NML b) CLOTH- 13
c) IHG c) GATE- 9
d) YXW d) MUSK-15
e) DCA e) MINT-23
a) GSRH a) 612
b) XEDY b) 513
c) YFEZ c) 135
d) KMLL d) 711
e) PJKQ e) 811
a) CGHL a) 31-104
Page 487 of 1079

b) 11-866 b) GRST
c) 61-42 c) CHKX
d) 79-145 d) UKLF
e) 42-156 e) PWXK
a) GIL a) ADK – 7
b) KMP b) RST- 23
c) RTX c) HML- 15
d) ACF d) BGH- 17
e) DFI e) DUN- 12
a) AFKPU a) 855
b) BGLQV b) 756
c) TXCHM c) 146
d) FKPUZ d) 954
e) DINSX e) 652
a) 313 a) PROOK
b) 567 b) NPMMM
c) 507 c) TVSSG
d) 581 d) DFCCW
e) 949 e) ACZZY
a) 654 a) BOY
b) 897 b) GIRL
c) 528 c) STUDENT
d) 776 d) TEACHER
e) 963 e) MASTER
a) BFGY a) 1516
Page 488 of 1079

b) 8417 b) 5525
c) 7904 c) 7749
d) 6309 d) 6530
e) 2949 e) 4311
a) FIX-3 a) DESTINY
b) FOX- 9 b) FANTESY
c) RISK- 9 c) BURDEN
d) MUST- 11 d) TENATE
e) BUT- 19 e) CREAMY
a) HURDLE a) 272
b) MURDER b) 210
c) STUDENT c) 306
d) GREATER d) 142
e) WOMEN e) 133
a) PQR a) 165-84
b) CDE b) 184-66
c) MNO c) 196-178
d) BDE d) 204-123
e) DEF e) 876-885
a) TDVGXJ a) 64,343
b) KGLJNM b) 1, 125
c) RBTEVH c) 6, 216
d) JHLKNN d) 8, 64
e) AJCMEP e) 125, 27
a) 4312 a) 6-69
Page 489 of 1079

b) 7-80 b) GHO
c) 8-91 c) RAS
d) 9-96 d) MHU
e) 5- 58 e) NIW
a) 53-34 a) TAHM
b) 61-36 b) APJG
c) 73-48 c) JKGN
d) 63-88 d) SBUA
e) 49-74 e) KEAO
a) 6-42 a) GREAT- 32
b) 8-72 b) BREAD – 13
c) 13-156 c) TRUTH- 49
d) 7-56 d) PRANK – 28
e) 16-272 e) HANKY – 47
a) Six-11 a) ACE
b) Seven-13 b) EGI
c) Nine-17 c) OQS
d) Four-7 d) IKM
e) Five-8 e) NPQ
a) 154 a) T7M
b) 572 b) Z6T
c) 652 c) M8E
d) 523 d) P9G
e) 981 e) P7K
41) Choose the odd one out? Direction (46-50): Study the following information
a) AKM carefully and answer the questions given below:
Page 490 of 1079

What come in the blank? d) CJK

46) MONKEW, NPOLFX, OQPMGY,_______? e) DKM
a) OQPLFZ 49) AB@2#5%FCKT5, A@2#5%FCKT5,
b) PRPMFA A@#5%FCKT5, A@#5FCKT5, _______?
c) QRPMFA a) A@5FCKT5
d) PRQNHZ b) A@#5FCKT
e) PQRMFZ c) A@#5FC%K
47) AM-144, CP-169, FT-196, ____? d) A@#5FCK5
a) IY-256 e) None of the above
b) JY-225 50) AABBBCCCC, CCCCDDDDDEEEEEE,
c) JY-256 EEEEEE_____________?
d) KZ-225 a) FFFFFFGGGGGG
e) GV-225 b) FFFFFFGGGGGG
48) AGH, BIJ, __?__, DMN, EOP. c) FFFFFGGGGGGG
a) CKM d) FFFFFFFGGGGGGGG
b) DMN e) FFFFFGGGGGGGGG
c) CKL
Odd One Out – Answer and Explanation
1.Answer: (e) Add the place value of the opposite letters of the given
Explanation: letters.
Square of the difference of the place value of opposite e.g.: R (9) + S (8) = 17
letters is taken 4.Answer: (d)
e.g.: A ( Z=26) ,K(P=16)- 26-10=10 à 102= 100 Explanation:
2.Answer: (e) Sum of the first and third digit is equal to second digit
Explanation: except (d).
All are divisible by 6 except 886. e.g.: 473 à 4+3=7
3.Answer: (c) 5.Answer: (e)
In all options no letter is repeated except (e).
Page 491 of 1079

6.Answer: (b) In all other groups, the second and fourth letters are each
Explanation: four steps ahead of first and third letters respectively,
In all option only one vowel is there except (b). while second and third letters are, consecutive.
7.Answer: (c) 12.Answer: (d)
In all options vowel is in middle except (c).
8.Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Logic:
13.Answer: (c)
Explanation:
All the options have two vowels and two consonants,
except (c).
14.Answer: (e)
Explanation:
9.Answer: (e)
Sum of the place value of 4th letter (from left end) and the
Explanation:
total number of letters within the word is taken.
In all other groups, the three letters are in reverse order.
e.g.: ROOM à (M=13)+4=17
10.Answer: (e)
15.Answer: (e)
Explanation:
Explanation: Sum of digits within the number is 9 in all
cases except (e).
16.Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In all options except (d), the second term is divisible by
the sum of the digits of the first term.
11.Answer: (d) For e.g.: In option (a) 1+3=4, 104 is divisible by 4.
Explanation: 17.Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Page 492 of 1079

First letter move 2 steps forward and second letter move 3 In all options except (e), repeated letters are placed at third
steps forward. and fourth position and last letter is opposite to first letter
18.Answer: (c) and second letter is two steps ahead of first letter.
In all options except (c) all letters are five steps forward Explanation:
to their previous letter. All except (c), the sum of place value of letters is even.
e.g.: AFKPU à A+5= F; F+5=K; K+5=P; P+5=U e.g.: BOY à 2+15+25=42.
19.Answer: (a) 26.Answer: (b)
Option (a) is a prime number. In all options except (b), last two digits are square of the
20.Answer: (d) difference of first two digits.
Explanation: e.g.: 1516 à 5-1 =4 à 42 à 16
All are divisible by 3, except (c). 27.Answer: (d)
21.Answer: (c) Explanation:
Explanation: In all options except (d), number is difference of place
All options expect (c), first and last alphabets are opposite value first two letters (from the left end).
to each other and second and third alphabets are in 28.Answer: (d)
consecutive order. Explanation:
22.Answer: (b) In all options except (d), all have only two vowels.
Explanation: 29.Answer: (d)
In all options except (b), the digital sum of letters is the Explanation:
number. Except d, in all cases letters are in the alphabetical order
e.g.: ADK à 1+4+1+1= 7 30.Answer: (b)
HML à 8+1+3+1+2= 15 Explanation:
23.Answer: (a) Pattern followed for alternate letters:
Explanation: e.g.: TDVGXJ à T+2=V; V+2=X; and D+3=G; G+3=J
In all options except (a), all are even numbers. 31.Answer: (e)
24.Answer: (e) Explanation: Last two digits are the multiplication of
Explanation: first and second digit
e.g.: 4312 à 4*3 =12
Page 493 of 1079

5525 à 5*5=25 61-36=25

32.Answer: (d) 73-48=25
Explanation: 88-63=25
There is no repeated letter except (d). 74-49=25
33.Answer: (c) Hence, option (a) is odd one.
a) 272 à 2+7+2 =11 Explanation:
b) 210 à 2+1+0= 3 Second number obtained by multiplying of first number
c) 306 à 3+0+6 = 9 with its succeeding number.
d) 142 à 1+4+2 =7 6*7=42
e) 133 à 1+3+3 =7 8*9=72
Except (c) all are prime numbers. 13*14=182
34.Answer: (b) 7*8=56
Explanation: 16*17=272
Sum of the digits of both side pairs are equal, except (b). Hence, option (c) is correct option.
35.Answer: (c) 39.Answer: (e)
All numbers are perfect cube except (c). Six (6) + 5 =11
36.Answer: (d) Seven (7) + 6=13
Explanation: Nine (9) +8 =17
6*11+3=69 Four (4) +3 =7
7*11+3=80 Five (5) + 4 =9
8*11+3=91 Hence, option (e) is correct choice.
9*11+3=102 40.Answer: (c)
5*11+3=58 Explanation:
Hence, option (d) is correct one. Difference of first two digits is equal to last digit.
37.Answer: (a) 154 à 5-1=4
Explanation: 572 à 7-5 =2
Difference between the two numbers is 25. 652 à 6-5 =1
53-34= 19 523 à 5-2=3
Page 494 of 1079

981 à 9-8=1 46.Answer: (d)

Hence, option (c) is correct choice. Explanation:
41.Answer: (a) All letters succeeding letters.
Explanation: 47.Answer: (b)
Sum of the place value of the first two letters is equal to Explanation:
the place value of third letter except (a). Number gets by square of the difference of the place value
e.g.: G (7) +H(8)= O(15) of the letters.
42.Answer: (d) First letter we get by adding two and next letter we get by
Explanation: adding three and so on,
Sum of the place value of first two letters is equal to sum And then first letter gets by adding three and next letter
of the place value of last two letters according to gets by adding four and so on.
alphabetical series. A(1)-M(13)= 12=(12*12)=144
E.g.: T(20)+A(1) = H(8) +M(13) =21 AM-144, à (A+2) (M+3) à CP
43.Answer: (b) CP-169 à (C+3) (P+4) à FT
Explanation: FT-196 à (F+4) (T+5) à JY
Sum of the place value of first, third and fifth letters 48.Answer: (c)
according to English alphabetical series. Explanation:
e.g.: GREAT à 7+5+20=32
44.Answer: (e)
Explanation:
49.Answer: d) A@#5FCK5
Explanation:
Every time drop the letter/number or symbol of prime
45.Answer: (e) number position.
Explanation: First drop the element at second position and then 4th
Difference of place value of letters is equal to number. position and then 7th position and last in 11th position.
e.g.: Z(26) –T(20) =6 50.Answer: d) FFFFFFFGGGGGGGG
Page 495 of 1079

Meaningful Words
Q1. If a meaningful word is formed by using the third, meaningful word is formed mark Y as your answer. If no
fifth, eighth and tenth letter (from the left end)of the word meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?
“INDIVIDUAL”, then which of the following will be the (a)M
third letter of the word thus formed from the left end. If (b)R
more than one such meaningful word is formed mark Y as (c)I
your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as (d)Y
your answer? (e)X
(a)D Q4. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
(b)L fourth, fifth and seventh letter (from the left end)of the
(c)X word “ADVANCED”, then which of the following will
(d)Y be the third letter of the meaningful word thus formed
(e)None of these from the right end. If more than one such meaningful word
Q2. If a meaningful word is formed by using the fifth, is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word
seventh, eighth and tenth letter (from the left end)of the is formed, mark X as your answer?
word “GOVERNMENT”, then which of the following (a)N
will be the last letter of the meaningful word thus formed (b)A
from the left end. If more than one such meaningful word (c) X
is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word (d)Y
is formed, mark X as your answer? (e)E
(a)M Q5. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using
(b)T the second, fifth, sixth and ninth letter (letters are used
(c)X once only) of the word “NUTRITION”?
(d)Y (a)None
(e)R (b) One
Q3. If a meaningful word is formed by using the third, (c) Two
fourth, fifth, sixth , seventh and ninth letter (from the left (d) More than three
end)of the word “TERMINATE”, then which of the (e) None of these
following will be the fourth letter of the meaningful word
thus formed from the right end. If more than one such
Page 496 of 1079
Q6. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using Q9. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
the first, fourth, sixth and eighth letter (letters are used fifth, seventh and tenth letter (from the left end) of the
once only) of the word “SELECTION”? word ‘PREVENTION”, then which of the following will
(a)None be the first letter of the word thus formed. If more than
(b) One one such word is formed mark Y as your answer. If no
(c) Two meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?
(d) More than three (a)R
(e) None of these (b)E
Q7. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, (c)T
sixth, seventh and ninth letter (from the left end)of the (d)Y
word “RANSOMWARE”, then which of the following (e)X
will be the second letter of the meaningful word thus Q10.If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
formed from the left end. If more than one such fifth, seventh and tenth letter (from the left end) of the
meaningful word is formed mark Y as your answer. If no word ‘EXPRESSIVE”, then which of the following will
meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer? be the third letter from the left end of the word thus
(a)W formed. If more than one such word is formed mark Y as
(b)A your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as
(c) X your answer?
(d)Y (a)X
(e)M (b)E
Q8. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using (c)S
the fourth, sixth, eighth and eleventh letter (letters are used (d)Y
once only) from the left end of the word (e) None of these
“UNESSENTIAL”? Q11.If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
(a)None second, fifth and seventh letter (from the left end) of the
(b) One word ‘MAJORITY”, then which of the following will be
(c) Two the first letter from the left end of the word thus formed.
(d) More than three If more than one such word is formed mark Y as your
(e) None of these answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your
answer?
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(a)R (c) X
(b)M (d)Y
(c)T (e)M
(d)Y Q15. If a meaningful word is formed by using the third,
(e)X fifth, sixth and seventh letter (from the left end)of the
Q12. How many meaningful English words can be formed word “PASSIVE”, then which of the following will be the
with the letters A,A,P,R,T using all the letters, and each second letter of the meaningful word thus formed from the
letter is used only once in each word? left end. If more than one such meaningful word is formed
(a) One mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed,
(b) Two mark X as your answer?
(c) Three (a)V
(d) None (b)I
(e) None of these (c) X
Q13. How many meaningful English words can be formed (d)Y
with the letters A,E,T,R using all the letters, and each (e)S
letter is used only once in each word? Q16. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
(a) One third, fifth and seventh letter (from the left end)of the word
(b) Two “TRAGEDY”, then which of the following will be the
(c) Three second letter of the meaningful word thus formed from the
(d) None left end. If more than one such meaningful word is formed
(e) None of these mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed,
Q14. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, mark X as your answer?
sixth, seventh and ninth letter (from the left end)of the (a)R
word “BRIGHTEST”, then which of the following will (b)A
be the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed (c) Z
from the left end. If more than one such meaningful word (d)Y
is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word (e)E
is formed, mark X as your answer? Q17. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
(a)W fifth, eighth and eleventh letter (from the left end)of the
(b)A word “DICITIONARY”, then which of the following
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will be the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed from the right end. If more than one such
formed from the right end. If more than one such meaningful word is formed mark Z as your answer. If no
meaningful word is formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?
meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer? (a)S
(a)N (b)X
(b)I (c) A
(c) X (d)L
(d)Y (e)Z
(e)Z Q21. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
Q18. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using third, fourth and fifth letter (from the left end)of the word
the second, seventh, eighth and ninth letter (letters are “MIGRANT”, then which of the following will be the
used once only) from the left end of the word third letter of the meaningful word thus formed from the
“ESSENTIAL”? right end. If more than one such meaningful word is
(a)None formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is
(b) One formed, mark X as your answer?
(c) Two (a)M
(d) More than three (b)G
(e) None of these (c) X
Q19. How many meaningful English words can be formed (d)R
with the letters I, R, N, A using all the letters and each (e)Z
letter is used only once in each word? Q22. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
(a) One sixth, and seventh letter (from the right end)of the word
(b) Two “MAGICAL”, then which of the following will be the
(c) Three second letter of the meaningful word thus formed . If more
(d) None than one such meaningful word is formed mark Z as your
(e) None of these answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your
Q20. If a meaningful word is formed by using the fourth, answer?
sixth, seventh and ninth letter (from the right end)of the (a)M
word “TRANSLATION”, then which of the following (b)A
will be the second letter of the meaningful word thus (c) X
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(d)L from the right end. If more than one such meaningful word
(e)Z is formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word
Q23 If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, is formed, mark X as your answer?
fourth and fifth letter (from the left end)of the word (a)O
“DIRECT”, then which of the following will be the first (b)I
letter of the meaningful word thus formed . If more than (c) X
one such meaningful word is formed mark Z as your (d)E
answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your (e)Z
answer? Q26. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
(a)C third, fifth and sixth letter (from the left end)of the word
(b)I “DROPPED”, then which of the following will be the
(c) X first letter of the meaningful word thus formed. If more
(d)E than one such meaningful word is formed mark Y as your
(e)Z answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your
Q24. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, answer?
fourth and sixth letter (from the left end)of the word (a)O
“RANDOM”, then which of the following will be the (b)P
second letter of the meaningful word thus formed from the (c) R
right end. If more than one such meaningful word is (d)Y
formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is (e)X
formed, mark X as your answer? Q27. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second,
(a)M fourth, fifth and seventh letter (from the left end)of the
(b)A word “PHYSICS”, then which of the following will be
(c) X the third letter of the meaningful word thus formed from
(d)D the left end. If more than one such meaningful word is
(e)Z formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is
Q25. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, formed, mark X as your answer?
fourth, sixth and eighth letter (from the left end)of the (a)H
word “MODELING”, then which of the following will (b)S
be the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed (c) I
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(d)Y (b) Two

(e)X (c) Three
Q28. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first, (d) None
fourth, sixth and seventh letter (from the left end)of the (e) None of these
word “BELIEVE”, then which of the following will be Q31. How many meaningful English words can be formed
the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed from with the letters L, T, E, Fusing all the letters, and each
the left end. If more than one such meaningful word is letter is used only once in each word?
formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is (a) One
formed, mark X as your answer? (b) Two
(a)V (c) Three
(b)I (d) None
(c) X (e) None of these
(d)Y Q32. How many meaningful English words can be formed
(e)B with the letters A, R, C, X using all the letters and each
Q29. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first, letter is used only once in each word?
second, fourth and sixth letter (from the left end)of the (a) One
word “DEPENDS”, then which of the following will be (b) Two
the first letter of the meaningful word thus formed . If (c) Three
more than one such meaningful word is formed mark Y as (d) None
your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as (e) None of these
your answer? Q33. How many meaningful English words can be formed
(a)Y with the letters B,R,E,A using all the letters, and each
(b)E letter is used only once in each word?
(c) X (a) One
(d)D (b) Two
(e)None of these (c) Three
Q30. How many meaningful English words can be formed (d) None
with the letters H, U, S, P using all the letters, and each (e) None of these
letter is used only once in each word?
(a) One
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Q34. How many meaningful English words can be formed Q37. How many meaningful English words can be formed
with the letters D,R,W,C,O using all the letters, and each with the letters L,P,A,Y using all the letters, and each
letter is used only once in each word? letter is used only once in each word?
(a) One (a) One
(b) Two (b) Two
(c) Three (c) Three
(d) None (d) None
(e) None of these (e) None of these
Q35. How many meaningful English words can be formed Q38. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
with the letters N, A, G, B using all the letters, and each second, fourth , seventh and eighth letter (from the right
letter is used only once in each word? end)of the word “EPIDEMIC”, then which of the
(a) One following will be the third letter of the meaningful word
(b) Two thus formed from the left end. If more than one such
(c) Three meaningful word is formed mark Y as your answer. If no
(d) None meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?
(e) None of these (a)E
Q36. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, (b)P
fourth, fifth, sixth and eighth letter (from the right end)of (c) C
the word “VIOLENCE”, then which of the following will (d)Y
be the fourth letter of the meaningful word thus formed (e)X
from the right end. If more than one such meaningful word Q39. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using
is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word the first, second, third and sixth letter (letters are used
is formed, mark X as your answer? once only) from the left end of the word “ROCKING”?
(a)O (a)None
(b)L (b) One
(c) V (c) Two
(d)Y (d) Four
(e)X (e) None of these
Q40. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using
the first, fourth, fifth , sixth and seventh letter (letters are
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used once only) from the left end of the word (a)N
“RAINBOW”? (b)E
(a)None (c) T
(b) One (d)Y
(c) Two (e)X
(d) More than three Q44. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
(e) None of these fifth , seventh and eighth letter (from the left end)of the
Q41. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using word “PENDEMIC”, then which of the following will be
the first, sixth and seventh letter (letters are used once the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed from
only) from the left end of the word “LOCKDOWN”? the right end. If more than one such meaningful word is
(a)None formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is
(b) One formed, mark X as your answer?
(c) Two (a)E
(d) Four (b)C
(e) None of these (c) Y
Q42. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using (d)P
the first, second, fourth and fifth letter (letters are used (e)X
once only) from the left end of the word “WETLAND”? Q45. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
(a)None third, fourth, fifth , seventh and eighth letter (from the left
(b) One end)of the word “STRICTLY”, then which of the
(c) Two following will be the fifth letter of the meaningful word
(d) More than three thus formed from the right end. If more than one such
(e) None of these meaningful word is formed mark Z as your answer. If no
Q43. If a meaningful word is formed by using the fifth , meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?
sixth, seventh and tenth letter (from the right end)of the (a)L
word “SCIENTIFIC”, then which of the following will (b)R
be the third letter of the meaningful word thus formed (c) Y
from the left end. If more than one such meaningful word (d)Z
is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word (e)X
is formed, mark X as your answer?
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Q46. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using (b)R

the third, fourth, sixth, seventh and eighth letter (letters are (c) A
used once only) from the left end of the word (d)Y
“MOVEMENT”? (e)X
(a)None Q49. If a meaningful word is formed by using the first,
(b) One third, fourth and fifth letter (from the left end)of the word
(c) Two “CRANE”, then which of the following will be the first
(d) More than three letter of the meaningful word thus formed from the right
(e) None of these end. If more than one such meaningful word is formed
Q47. How many meaningful words is/are formed by using mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed,
the first, third, fifth and seventh letter (letters are used mark X as your answer?
once only) from the left end of the word “MEMBERS”? (a)N
(a)None (b)C
(b) One (c) Y
(c) Two (d)A
(d) More than three (e)X
(e) None of these Q50. How many meaningful English words can be formed
Q48. If a meaningful word is formed by using the second, with the letters W,F,E using all the letters, and each letter
third, sixth, eighth and ninth letter (from the left end)of the is used only once in each word?
word “GRATITUDE”, then which of the following will (a) One
be the third letter of the meaningful word thus formed (b) Two
from the right end. If more than one such meaningful word (c) Three
is formed mark Y as your answer. If no meaningful word (d) None
is formed, mark X as your answer? (e) None of these
(a)T
Meaningful Words – Answer and Explanation

1.Answer.(c) Solution: Meaningful word formed is: Term
Solution: No meaningful word is formed by using letters 3.Answer.(d)
D, V, U, L Solution: Meaningful words formed are: Airmen,
2.Answer.(a) Marine and Remain
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4.Answer.(e) 18.Answer.(d)
Solution: Meaningful words formed is: Dean Solution: . Four meaningful words are formed: Sail, Lias,
5.Answer.(b) Ails and Sial
Solution: One meaningful word is formed : Unit 19.Answer. (b)
6.Answer.(b) Solution: . Meaningful words formed are: Rain, Arin
Solution: One meaningful word is formed: Toes 20.Answer.(e)
7.Answer.(b) Solution: Meaningful word formed is: Last, Salt, Slat
Solution: Meaningful words formed is: Warm 21.Answer.(d)
8.Answer.(c) Solution: Meaningful word formed is: Gram
Solution: Two meaningful words are formed : Lets and 22.Answer.(b)
Lest Solution: Meaningful word formed is: Lam
9.Answer.(d) 23.Answer.(b)
Solution: Meaningful words formed are RENT and Solution: Meaningful word formed is: Ice
TERN 24.Answer.(e)
10.Answer.(b) Solution: Meaningful words formed are: Dam, Mad
Solution: Meaningful word form is exes 25.Answer.(c) :No meaningful word found
11.Answer. (d) 26.Answer.(d)
Solution: Meaningful words formed are : Mart, Tram Solution: Meaningful word formed is: ROPE, PORE,
12.Answer. (a) REPO
Solution: Meaningful word formed is : Apart 27.Answer.(b)
13.Answer. (c) Solution: Meaningful word formed is: HISS
Solution: Meaningful word formed is : Tear, rate, Tare 28.Answer.(b)
14.Answer.(c): No meaningful word found. Solution: Meaningful word formed is: VIBE
15.Answer.(d) 29.Answer.(d)
Solution: Meaningful words formed is: Vise and Vies Solution: Meaningful word formed is: DEED
16.Answer.(c) 30.Answer. (a)
Solution: Meaningful words formed are: Year, Yare , Solution: Meaningful words formed is : PUSH
Eyra 31.Answer. (b)
17.Answer.(a) Solution: Meaningful words formed are : Left , Felt
Solution: Meaningful word formed is: Tiny 32.Answer. (d)
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33.Answer. (b) Solution: Two meaningful words are formed : Wale,

Solution: Meaningful words formed are : Bear, Bare Weal
34.Answer. (a) 43.Answer.(d)
Solution: Meaningful word formed is : Crowd Solution: Meaningful words formed are: SENT, TENS,
35.Answer. (a) NETS, NEST
Solution: Meaningful word formed is : BANG 44.Answer.(c)
36.Answer.(b) Solution: Meaningful words formed are: PICE, EPIC
Solution: Meaningful word formed is: CLOVE 45.Answer.(c)
37.Answer. (b) Solution:Meaningful word formed is: LYRICS
Solution: Meaningful words formed are : PLAY, PALY 46.Answer.(b)
38.Answer.(a) Solution: One meaningful word is formed : EVENT
Solution: Meaningful word formed is: PIECE 47.Answer.(a)
39.Answer.(b) 48.Answer.(d)
Solution: One meaningful word is formed : CORN Solution: Meaningful words formed are: RATED,
40.Answer.(b) TRADE, TREAD
Solution: One meaningful word is formed : BROWN 49.Answer.(c)
41.Answer.(c) Solution: Meaningful words formed are: ACNE, CANE
Solution: Two meaningful words are formed : Low, Owl 50.Answer. (a)
42.Answer.(c) Solution: Meaningful word formed is : FEW
IBPS CLERK Prelims 2020 (Aptitude)
S.No Topic Pages

1 Simplification 510
2 Approximation 518
3 Quadratic Equation 528
4 Missing number 544
5 Wrong number 555
6 Table DI 565
7 Pie DI 581
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8 Line DI 598
9 Bar DI 613
10 Caselets 628
11 Ages 646
12 Partnership 664
13 Simple & Compound Interest 681
14 Profit and Loss 697
15 Time Speed Distance 712
16 Boats Stream 727
17 Probability 742
18 Time & Work 756
19 Data Sufficiency 773
20 Quantity I & Quantity II 788
Simplification
1. 27 x 64 -12 = ? x 12 b) 1658
a) 143 c) 1738
b) 148 d) 1578
c) 153 e) 1718
d) 158 4. 60% of 465 + 40% of 670 = ?
e) 163 a) 537
2. 162 + 362 + 272= ? b) 547
a) 2291 c) 527
b) 2391 d) 517
c) 2371 e) 508
d) 2281 5. (?)2 + 83 = 382+ 29
e) 2381 a) 39
3. 39 x 35 + 9 x 27= ? b) 31
a) 1608 c) 29
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d) 41 d) 27
e) 37 e) 53
6. √961 + √1444 - √1521= ? 11. 35% of 140 – 18 = ? – 109
a) 30 a) 140
b) 31 b) 120
c) 32 c) 180
d) 36 d) 150
e) 33 e) None of these
7. (?)2 + 32 = 272 - 212 12. (2/5) × 350 + 650 = ? + (3/8) × 720
a) -12 a) 520
b) -11 b) 540
c) -13 c) 550
d) 16 d) 580
e) 18 e) 600
8. 35% of 240 + 25% of 84 + 77.77% of 36= ? 13. (60 × 5) – 24% of 1500 = ? – 260
a) 79 a) 100
b) 98 b) 200
c) 133 c) 400
d) 78 d) 450
e) 109 e) 300
9. (0.4)144 ÷ 0.01664 = (0.4)? 14. 16% of 500 + 262 = ? × 36
a) 16 a) 25
b) 8 b) 20
c) 19 c) 28
d) 10 d) 21
e) 12 e) 30
10. 183 x 11 =? +250 x 8 15. (4/7) × 630 + (5/9) × 360 – (1/5) × 300 = ?
a) 13 a) 500
b) 17 b) 300
c) 23 c) 450
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d) 400 d) 10284
e) 350 e) 9984
16. 40% of 1125 – 30 = ? + 24% of 500 21. 75% of 12.5% of 8/15 of? =180
a) 200 a) 3600
b) 270 b) 3450
c) 300 c) 3500
d) 280 d) 3350
e) 240 e) 3370
17. √676 + ? = 25/6 of 96 22. 9900 + 9999 - 999 + 9090 + 9=?
a) 253 a) 28889
b) 246 b) 28918
c) 276 c) 27999
d) 254 d) 29929
e) 284 e) 28898
18. 34/28 + 76/28 + 390/6 + 86/28 =? 23. (176+69) x (10 + 3.9 + 1.1 ) x (16)=?
a) 72 a) 71500
b) 77 b) 66600
c) 71 c) 69700
d) 78 d) 52700
e) 76 e) 58800
19. 9/20 of 128/72 of? = 200 24. 6/7 of 56% of 900 – 13.8 =?
a) 280 a) None
b) 260 b) 418.2
c) 240 c) 463.6
d) 250 d) 464.2
e) 285 e) 444.4
20. 3√13824* 3√ 4096* 3√17576 =? 25. 240 – 53 + 472 =?
a) 9804 a) 2694
b) 10004 b) 2464
c) 9804 c) 2766
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d) 2324 d) 12.4
e) 2456 e) 14.4
26. 16% of 222/9% of ? = 120 31. 39% of 600 – 14= ? x4
a) 3500 a) 32
b) 3000 b) 60
c) 3375 c) 55
d) 3150 d) 48
e) 3450 e) 64
27. 1908 ÷ 18 × 12 + 24 = ?2 32. (82 × 12) ÷ 16 + 152 = ?
a) 36 a) 400
b) 33 b) 350
c) 34 c) 540
d) 35 d) 200
e) 38 e) 250
28. 430% of 600 – 80% of 420 – 5.3% 0f 9000= ? 33. (4/7) × {(692 – 307)} = ? × 11
a) -1767 a) 19
b) 424 b) 18
c) 1767 c) 20
d) -424 d) 14
e) 972 e) 16
29. (6764 – 7455 + 2467) – (4273 + 2732 - 5314) = ? 34. (163 × 9) ÷ 162 = ? + (17 × 6)
a) 35 a) 29
b) 36 b) 32
c) 37 c) 42
d) 85 d) 25
e) 43 e) 35
30. 42/25 ÷ 3/10 × 9/7 ÷ 15/35 = ? 35. {(630 ÷ 9) + 80} ÷ 5 = ? ÷ 4
a) 16.8 a) 100
b) 18.2 b) 250
c) 15.3 c) 120
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d) 160 d) 80
e) 300 e) 140
36. (420 – 122) × 4 – 180 = ? × 12 41. √529 + ? = 53/7 of 105
a) 77 a) 553
b) 55 b) 563
c) 88 c) 571
d) 66 d) 547
e) 40 e) 501
37. (65 × 12) – 22% of 1500 = ? – 150 42. 26 x 26+ 24 = ? x 70
a) 600 a) 30
b) 250 b) 0
c) 400 c) -2
d) 200 d) 18
e) 300 e) 10
38. 35% of 400 + 202 = ? × 27 43. 172 - 332 + 242 = ?
a) 35 a) -108
b) 20 b) -224
c) 15 c) -298
d) 25 d) -168
e) 30 e) -218
39. (4/7) × 630 + (1/3) × 390 – (2/3) × 240 = ? 44. 12 x 34 - 16 x 21= ?
a) 300 a) 34
b) 280 b) 72
c) 250 c) 88
d) 240 d) 94
e) 330 e) 42
40. 40% of 900 – 164 = ? + 8% of 1200 45. 60% of 320 + 20% of 280 = ?
a) 100 a) 347
b) 120 b) 447
c) 150 c) 248
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d) 377 b) 13 89/420
e) 367 c) 131 98/420
46. [(115)2 ÷ 25 x 15] =? d) 13289/320
a) 7035 e) 13 49/520
b) 7305 49. 33/5 ÷52/3 x 81/2 ÷33/7=?
c) 7535 a) 65/35
d) 7735 b) 63/40
e) 7935 c) 17/24
47. 30% of 46% of 800=? d) 31/34
a) 134.20 e) 58/27
b) 125.10 50. 86533 - ? – 746 – 634 +546 = 69874
c) 111.10 a) 15452
d) 110.40 b) 16252
e) 101.20 c) 14425
48. 33/7+ 52/3+ 23/4+ 1 1/5= ? d) 14525
a) 1319/420 e) 15825
Simplification - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: A) = (0.6 x 465) + (0.4 x 670)
(27 x 64 -12 )/12 = ? = 279 + 268
= (1728 - 12)/12 = 698
= 1716/12 = 143 5. Answer: B)
2. Answer: D) (?)2 = 382+29 - 83
? = 162 + 362 + 272 (?)2 = 1444+29 - 512 = 903
= 256 + 1296 + 729 = 2281 ? = 31
3. Answer: A) 6. Answer: B)
? = 39 x 35 + 9 x 27 ? = √961 + √1444 - √1521
= 1365 + 243 = 31 + 38 + 39
= 1608 = 30
4. Answer: B) 7. Answer: E)
? = 60% of 465 + 40% of 670 (?)2 = 272 - 212- 32
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= 729- 441 - 32 14. Answer: B)

= 256 16% of 500 + 262 = ? × 36
? = 16 0.16 × 500 + 676 = ? × 36
8. Answer: B) ? = (80 + 676) ÷ 36 = 756/36= 21
35% = 7/20, 20% = 1/4, 77.77% = 7/9 15. Answer: A)
? = 35% of 240 + 25% of 84 + 77.77% of 36 (4/7) × 630 + (5/9) × 360 – (1/5) × 300 = ?
= (240) x (7/20) + (84/4) + (36) x (7/9) (4 × 90) + (5 × 40) – (1 × 60) = ?
= (12 x 7) + (21) + (7x4) = 133 ? = 360 + 200 – 60
9. Answer: D) ? = 500
(0.4)144 ÷ 0.01664 = (0.4)? 16. Answer: C)
(0.4)(1x144 - 2x64) = (0.41)? 40% of 1125 – 30 = ? + 24% of 500
? = (1x114 - 2x64 )/1 = 16 0.4 × 1125 – 30 = ? + 0.24 × 500
10. Answer: D) ? = 450 – 30 – 120
? = 183 x 11 + 250 x 16 ? = 300
= 2013 + 2000 = 13 17. Answer: B)
11. Answer: A) √676 + ? = 2 5/6 of 96
35% of 140 – 18 = ? – 109 ?= 17 x 96/6 - 26
0.35 × 140 – 18 = ? – 109 = 272 - 26 = 246
? = 31 + 109 18. Answer: A)
? = 140 34/28 + 76/28 + 390/6 + 86/28 =?
12. Answer: A) 196/28 +65 =?
(2/5) × 350 + 650 = ? + (3/8) × 720 7 + 65 = ?
(2 × 70) + 650 = ? + (3× 90) 72 =?
? = 790 – 270 19. Answer: D)
? = 520 9/20 of 128/72 of? = 200
13. Answer: B) ? =200*72*20/(9*128)
(60 × 5) – 24% of 1500 = ? – 260 ? = 250
300 – 0.24 × 1500 = ? – 260 20. Answer: E)
3
? = 300 – 360 + 260 √13824* 3√ 4096* 3√17576 =?
? = 200 = 24 x 16 x 26
Page 513 of 1079

= 9984 = 1272 + 24 = 1296

21. Answer: A) ? = 36
75% of 12.5% of 8/15 of? =180 28. Answer: C)
180*4*8*15/(3 x 8) = ? 430% of 600 – 80% of 420 – 5.3% 0f 9000= ?
3600 =? ? = 4.3 x 600- 0.8 x 420 – 0.053 x 9000
22. Answer: B) ? = 2580 – 336 – 477
9900 + 9999 - 999 + 9090 + 9=? ? = 1767
28998 – 999 =? 29. Answer: D)
27999 = ? (6764 – 7455 + 2467) – (4273 + 2732 - 5314) = ?
23. Answer: E) ? = 1776 – 1691
(176+69) x (10 + 3.9 + 1.1 ) x (16)=? ? = 85
? = 245 x 15 x 16 30. Answer: A)
? = 58800 42/25 ÷ 3/10 × 9/7 ÷ 15/35 = ?
24. Answer: B) ? = 42 x 10 x 9 x 35 / ( 25 x 3 x 7 x 15 )
6/7 of 56% of 900 – 13.8 =? ? = 16.8
( 6 x 0.8 x 900) – 13.8 = ? 31. Answer: C)
? = 432 – 13.8 39% of 600 – 14= ? x4
? = 418.2 0.39 × 600 – 14 = ? x4
25. Answer: D) ? = (234 – 14 )/4
240 – 53 + 472 =? ? = 220 /4 = 55
240-125+2209 =? 32. Answer: D)
2324 =? (82 × 12) ÷ 16 + 152 = ?
26. Answer: C) (64 × 12) ÷ 16 + 152 = ?
16% of 222/9% of ? = 120 ? = 48 + 152
16/100 x 200/900 x ? = 120 ? = 200
? = 120 x 900 x 100 / ( 16 x 200 ) 33. Answer: C)
? = 3375 (4/7) × {(692 – 307)} = ? × 11
27. Answer: A) (4/7) × 385 = ? × 11
1908 ÷ 18 × 12 + 24 = ?2 ? = 220 ÷ 11
?2 = 106 x 12 + 24 ? = 20
Page 514 of 1079

34. Answer: C) 40% of 900 – 164 = ? + 8% of 1200

(163 × 9) ÷ 162 = ? + (17 × 6) 0.40 × 900 – 164 = ? + 0.08 × 1200
? = (16 × 9) - 102 ? = 360 – 164 – 96
? = 42 ? = 100
35. Answer: C) 41. Answer: D)
{(630 ÷ 9) + 80} ÷ 5 = ? ÷ 4 √529 + ? = 5 3/7 of 105
(70 + 80) ÷ 5 = ? ÷ 4 ? = 38 x 105 /7 - √529
? = 30 × 4 = 38 x 15 - 23
? = 120 = 570 - 23 = 547
36. Answer: A) 42. Answer: E)
(420 – 122) × 4 – 180 = ? × 12 26 x 26 + 24 = ? x 70
(420– 144) × 4 – 180 = ? × 12 ? =( 676 + 24) /70
? = (1104 – 180) ÷ 12 = (700)/70
? = 924 / 12 = = 10
? = 77 43. Answer: B)
37. Answer: A) ? = 172 - 332 + 242
(65 × 12) – 22% of 1500 = ? – 150 = 289 - 1089+ 576 = -224
780 – 0.22 × 1500 = ? – 150 44. Answer: B)
? = 780 – 330 + 150 ? = 12 x 34 - 16 x 21
? = 600 = 408 - 336
38. Answer: B) = 72
35% of 400 + 202 = ? × 27 45. Answer: C)
0.35 × 400 + 400 = ? × 27 ? = 60% of 320 + 20% of 280
? = (140 + 400) ÷ 27 = 20 = (0.6 x 320 ) + (0.2 x 280)
39. Answer: E) = 192 + 56 = 248
(4/7) × 630 + (1/3) × 390 – (2/3) × 240 = ? 46. Answer: E)
(4 × 90) + (1 × 130) – (2 × 80) = ? [(115)2 ÷ 25 x 15]
? = 360 + 130 – 160 115 x 69 = ?
? = 330 7935 =?
40. Answer: A) 47. Answer: D)
Page 515 of 1079

30% of 46% of 800=? 49. Answer: B)

0.3 x 0.46 x 600 =? 33/5 ÷52/3 x 81/2 ÷33/7=?
110.40 =? ? = 18/5 x 3/17 x 17/2 x 7/24
48. Answer: A) ? = 63/40
33/7+ 52/3+ 23/4+ 1 1/5=? 50. Answer: E)
? = 3 + 5+ 2 + 1 + ( 180 + 280 + 315 + 84 )/420 86533 - ? – 746 – 634 +546 = 69874
? = 11 + (859 / 420 ) 86533 - 69874=?
13(19/420) = ? ? = 15825
Approximation
2
1. (16.15 ÷ 3.03) × 15.04 = ? × 15.69 c) 72
a) 20 d) 46
b) 80 e) 10
c) 150 5.64.23% of 24.78 / 0.02 = ?2 x 1.93
d) 320 a) 13
e) 240 b) 7
2. (329.89 ÷ 30.08) + 109.08 = ? × 4.05 c) 11
a) 5 d) 10
b) 65 e) 20
c) 30 6. √2325 - √363 - √403 = √?
d) 100 a) 64
e) 150 b) 36
3. 36.84% of 399.68 + 1336.87 = ? × 14.89 c) 81
a) 350 d) 25
b) 108 e) 9
c) 200 7.9.04 x 8.21 / 0.49 = ?2
d) 180 a) 4
e) 99 b) 12S
4. (167.98 + 312.29) ÷ 23.94 = ? × 1.87 c) 8
a) 158 d) 6
b) 94 e) 2
Page 516 of 1079

8.2/7 of601 ÷1/3 of 258 = ? 13. 60.18% of 239.94 ÷ 18.18 ÷ 3.98 = ?

a) 1 a) 3
b) 12 b) 5
c) 3 c) 9
d) 0 d) 11
e) 2 e) 2
9.(14.01)2÷ 3.89 – 7.86 x 6.01 = ? – 45.83 14. 30.18% of 200.11 + ∛4095.98 –4.052= ?
a) 21 a) 32
b) 47 b) 60
c) 26 c) 56
d) 32 d) 22
e) 37 e) 72
10. 34.86% of 420.14 + 24.83% of 300.18 = ? 15. (123.95 × 14.97) ÷ (6.11 × 5.15) = ?
a) 120 a) 42
b) 222 b) 56
c) 170 c) 36
d) 180 d) 62
e) 150 e) 48
11. ?2 × 11.14 = 164.89 × 14.93 16. 23.15 × 8.12 + (75.09)2 × 8.99 = ?
a) 16 a) 50809
b) 20 b) 59826
c) 10 c) 57609
d) 12 d) 56649
e) 15 e) 51629
12. 9.88 × 5.87 + 3.12 × 35.98 ÷ 11.96 = ? 17. 124.91% of 720.02 – 2/9 % of 6300.10 + 13.01 = ?
a)69 a) 661
b) 36 b) 901
c) 50 c) 861
d) 46 d) 641
e) 56 e) 741
Page 517 of 1079

18. 2835.034 ÷ 20.98 ÷ √24= ? 23. 79.92% of 359.94 + 30.15% of 599.98 = ?

a) 50 a) 488
b) 27 b) 468
c) 5 c) 518
d) 120 d) 528
e) 50 e) 498
19. 45.15% of 2390 + 14.19 × 400 ÷ 6.96 = ? 24. (3/7 of 230.98) × 23.97 ÷ 7.98 = ?
a) 1825.5 a) 297
b) 1975.5 b) 216
c) 1875.5 c) 278
d) 1925.5 d) 202
e) 1855.5 e) 252
20. 46.786 × 0.986 + 64.372 × 0.986 – 7.03 × 5.985 = ? 25. (√63.94 + 3.95)3 = 527.97 + ?
a) 75 a) 1300
b) 69 b) 1200
c) 86 c) 1500
d) 102 d) 1600
e) 72 e) 1700
21. 21.15 × 15.98 ÷ 5.96 + 24.14= ? 26. (17.89 ÷ 6.06 × 32.18) ÷ 7.82= ?
a) 40 a) 22
b) 80 b) 28
c) 70 c) 18
d) 60 d) 12
e) 50 e) 16
22. 38.98 - ? + 25.19 + (12.09)2 = 107.98 27. 6.962 × 11.932 = ?2 + 166.98
a) 100 a) 73
b) 90 b) 71
c) 80 c) 83
d) 70 d) 79
e) 120 e) 74
Page 518 of 1079

28. ∛728.98 × √25.06 – ? × 14.98 = 44.98 33. √483.89 – √255.99 + √421.14 = ?3

a) 3 a) 2
b) 6 b) 4
c) 9 c) 7
d) 0 d) 5
e) 11 e) 3
29. 71.92 × 32.96 ÷ 2.923 + 11.94 = ? 34. {54.93 – (45.96 – 27.88 ÷ 6.9 × 3.98)} = ?
a) 75 a) 45
b) 80 b) 35
c) 70 c) 40
d) 100 d) 30
e) 90 e) 25
30. √1935.99 + √255.94 + 400.21 × 30.15% = ? 35. 53.91 ÷ (2.93)2 × 14.98 – 76.97 = √?
a) 166 a) √11
b) 150 b) 169
c) 189 c) √13
d) 172 d) 121
e) 180 e) 100
31. 54.98% of (15.98 × 24.89) = ? + 59.86 36. ?2 × 14.95 = 60.19 × 63.93
a) 145 a) 16
b) 160 b) 20
c) 120 c) 10
d) 180 d) 12
e) 135 e) 15
32. 44.88% of 799.99 + 35.15% of 200.09 = ? 37. 11.98 × 4.91 + 3.98 × 26.98 ÷ 6.14= ?
a) 260 a) 40
b) 430 b) 78
c) 370 c) 50
d) 390 d) 46
e) 330 e) 56
Page 519 of 1079

38. 39.98% of 319.98 ÷ 15.98 ÷ 1.98 = ? 43. 39.98% of 699.94 + 64.95% of 899.98 = ?
a) 2 a) 865
b) 4 b) 895
c) 8 c) 905
d) 1 d) 965
e) 5 e) 935
39. 29.89% of 249.98 + ∛4095.98 –7.952= ? 44. (3/7 of 223.98) × 14.97 ÷ 3.98 = ?
a) 12 a) 360
b) 6 b) 420
c) 16 c) 450
d) 27 d) 510
e) 2 e) 480
40. (179.95 × 3.97) ÷ (6.14 × 4.95) = ? 45. (√48.94 + 3.93)3 = 831.17 + ?
a) 12 a) 600
b) 26 b) 1000
c) 36 c) 900
d) 24 d) 500
e) 48 e) 800
41. 15.95 × 23.98 ÷ 11.96 + 28.21 = ? 46. (15.89 ÷ 6.06 × 32.98) ÷ 7.94 = ?
a) 40 a) 22
b) 80 b) 28
c) 70 c) 18
d) 60 d) 11
e) 50 e) 16
42. 17.98 - ? + 21.99 + (10.9)2 = 129.98 47. 5.962 × 7.932 = (?)2 + 94.98
a) 11 a) 59
b) 13 b) 43
c) 8 c) 47
d) 31 d) 37
e) 21 e) 59
Page 520 of 1079

48. √575.98 × √24.96 – ? × 24.08 = 47.98 c) 45

a) 3 d) 36
b) 6 e) 42
c) 9 50. √1763.99 + √399.94 + 599.97 × 39.95% = ?
d) 1 a) 316
e) 11 b) 302
49. 71.92 × 24.96 ÷ 9.922 + 11.94 = ? c) 336
a) 25 d) 315
b) 30 e) 324
Approximation - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: B) 480 ÷ 24~ ? × 2
(16.152 ÷ 3.03) × 15.04 = ? × 15.69 ? ~ 20 ÷ 2
(162 ÷ 3) × 15~ ? × 16 ? ~ 10
? ~ (256 ÷ 3) × (15/16) 5. Answer: E)
? ~ 80 64.23% of 24.78 / 0.02 = ?2 x 1.93
2. Answer: C) 64 x 25 / ( 0.02 x 100 ) ~ ?2 x 2
(329.89 ÷ 30.08) + 109.08 = ? × 4.05 64 x 25 /(2 x 2) ~ ?2
(330 ÷ 30) + 109~ ? × 4 ?2 = 400
? ~ 120 ÷ 4 ? = 20
? ~ 30 6. Answer: C)
3. Answer: E) √2325 - √363 - √803 = √?
36.84% of 399.68 + 1336.87 = ? × 14.89 48 – 19 – 20 ~√?
37% of 400 + 1337~ ? × 15 ? ~ 92
? ~ (0.37 × 400 + 1337) ÷ 15 ? ~ 81
? ~ 99
? ~ 108 7. Answer: B)
4. Answer: E) 9.04 x 8.21 / 0.49 = ?2
(167.98 + 312.29) ÷ 23.94 = ? × 1.87 9 x 8 x 2 ~ ?2
(168 + 312) ÷ 24~ ? × 2 ?2~ 144
Page 521 of 1079

? ~12 60.18% of 239.94 ÷ 18.18 ÷ 3.98 = ?

8. Answer: E) 60% of 240 ÷18 ÷4 ~ ?
2/7 of601 ÷ 1/3 of 258 ~ ? 144 ÷18 ÷4 ~ ?
2/7 x 602 ÷ 1/3 x 258 ~ ? 8 ÷4~ ?
172 ÷ 86 ~ ? ?~ 2
?~2 14. Answer: B)
9. Answer: B) 30.18% of 200.11 + ∛4095.98 – 4.052= ?
(14.01)2÷ 3.89 – 7.86 x 6.01 = ? – 45.83 0.30 x 200 + ∛4096 –16 ~ ?
142÷ 4 – 8 x 6 ~? – 46 60 + 16 –16 ~ ?
196 ÷ 4 – 48 + 46 ~ ? 60 ~ ?
? ~ 47 15. Answer: D)
10. Answer:B) (123.95 × 14.97) ÷ (6.11 × 5.15) = ?
34.86% of 420.14 + 24.83% of 300.18 = ? (124 ×15) ÷ (6× 5) ~ ?
35% of 420 + 25% of 300 ~ ? 1860 ÷30 ~?
0.35×420 + 300 ×0.25~ ? 62 ~ ?
147 + 75 ~? 16. Answer: A)
222~ ? 23.15 × 8.12 + (75.09)2 × 8.99 = ?
11. Answer: E) 23 ×8 + 752 × 9 ~ ?
?2 × 11.14 = 164.89 × 14.93 184 + 5675 *9~ ?
?2 × 11 ~ 165 × 15 ? ~ 184 + 50625
?2 ~165 × 15 / 11 ? ~50809
2
? ~ 15 x 15 17. Answer: B)
? ~ 15 124.91% of 720.02 – 2/9 % of 6300.10 + 13.01 = ?
12. Answer: A) 125% of 720 –2/9% of 6300 + 13~ ?
9.88 × 5.87 + 3.12 × 35.98 ÷ 11.96 = ? ? ~ 900 – 14 + 13~901
10 ×6 + 3 × 36 ÷12~ ? 18. Answer: B)
10 × 6 + 3 × 3~ ? 2835.034 ÷ 20.98 ÷ √24 = ?
60 + 9 ~ ? 2835÷ 21÷ √25~ ?
?~ 69 2835÷ 21÷5~ ?
13. Answer: E) 135/5 ~ ?
Page 522 of 1079

? ~27
19. Answer: C) ? ~468
45.15% of 2390 + 14.19 × 400 ÷ 6.96 = ? 24. Answer: A)
45% of 2390 + 14×400 ÷7 ~ ? (3/7 of 230.98) × 23.97 ÷ 7.98 ~ ?
0.45 x 2390 + 2×400 ~ ? (3/7 of 231) ×24 ÷8 ~ ?
? ~ 1075.5 + 800 102 × 24 ÷8 ~ ?
∴ ? ~1875.5 297~ ?
20. Answer: B) 25. Answer: B)
46.786 × 0.986 + 64.372 × 0.986 – 7.03 × 5.985 = ? (√63.94 + 3.95)3 = 527.97 + ?
⇒ 47 × 1 + 64 × 1 – 7 × 6 ~ ? (√64 + 4)3 ~528 + ?
⇒ 47 + 64 – 42 ~ ? (8 + 4)3 -528 ~ ?
⇒ 111 – 42 ~ ? (12)3 - 528 ~ ?
⇒ 69 ~ ? 1728 - 528~ ?
21. Answer: B) ? ~1200
21.15 × 15.98 ÷ 5.96 + 24.14 = ? 26. Answer: D)
21 × 16 ÷ 6 + 24 ~ ? (17.89 ÷ 6.06 × 32.18) ÷ 7.82 = ?
7 ×8 + 24 ~ ? (18 ÷ 6 × 32) ÷ 8 ~ ?
56 + 24 ~ ? (3 × 32) ÷ 8 ~ ?
? ~80 12 ~ ?
22. Answer: A) 27. Answer: C)
38.98 - ? + 25.19 + (12.09)2 = 107.98 6.962 × 11.932 = ?2 + 166.98
39 - ? + 25 + 122 ~ 108 72 × 122 ~ ?2 + 167
39 - ? + 25 + 144~ 108 49 x 144 ~ ?2 + 167
208 -108~ ? 7056 - 167~?2
? ~ 100 6889 ~ ?2
23. Answer: B) ? ~83
79.92% of 359.94 + 30.15% of 599.98 = ? 28. Answer: D)
80% of360 + 30% of 600 ~ ? ∛728.98 × √25.06 – ? × 14.98 = 44.98
0.8 x 360 + 0.3 x 600 ~ ? ∛729 ×√25 – ?× 15 ~45
288 + 180 ~ ? 9 ×5 – ?× 15 ~45
Page 523 of 1079

45 – ?× 15 ~45 27 ~ ?3
45 - 45~ ?× 15 ?~3
0/15 ~ ? 34. Answer: A)
? ~0 {54.93 – (45.96 – 27.88 ÷ 6.9 × 3.98)} = ?
29. Answer: D) {55 – (46 –28 ÷7 ×4)} ~ ?
71.92 × 32.96 ÷ 2.923 + 11.94 = ? {55 – (46 –16)} ~ ?
72 × 33 ÷ 27 + 12 ~ ? {55 –30} ~ ?
8 x 11 + 12 ~ ? ? ~25
88 + 12 ~ ? 35. Answer: B)
? ~100 53.91 ÷ (2.93)2 × 14.98 – 76.97 = √?
30. Answer: E) 54 ÷ (3)2 × 15 – 77 ~ √?
√1935.99 + √255.94 + 400.21 × 30.15% = ? 54 ÷ 9 ×15 –77 ~√?
√1936 + √256 + 400 ×30% ~ ? 6 x 15 –77 ~√?
44 + 16 + 120 ~ ? 90 –77 ~√?
? ~180 13 ~√?
31. Answer: B) ? ~ 169
54.98% of (15.98 × 24.89) = ? + 59.86 36. Answer: A)
55% of (16 × 25) ~ ? + 60 ?2 × 14.95 = 60.19 × 63.93
55% of 400 ~ ? + 60 ?2 × 15 ~ 60 × 64
220 ~ ? + 60 ?2 ~60 × 64 / 15
? ~160 ?2 ~4 x 64
32. Answer: B) ?2 ~ 256
44.88% of 799.99 + 35.15% of 200.09 = ? ? ~ 16
45% of 800 + 35% of 200 ~ ? 37. Answer: B)
360 + 70 ~ ? 11.98 × 4.91 + 3.98 × 26.98 ÷ 6.14 = ?
? ~430 12 ×5 + 4 ×27 ÷ 6 ~ ?
33. Answer: E) 60 + 2 × 9~ ?
√483.89 – √255.99 + √421.14 = ?3 60 + 18 ~ ?
√484 – √256 + √421 ~ ?3 ? ~ 78
22 – 16 + 21 ~ ?3 38. Answer: B)
Page 524 of 1079

39.98% of 319.98 ÷ 15.98 ÷ 1.98 = ? 280 + 585 ~ ?

40% of 320 ÷16 ÷2 ~ ? ? ~865
128 ÷16 ÷2 ~ ? 44. Answer: A)
8 ÷2~ ? (3/7 of 223.98) × 14.97 ÷ 3.98 = ?
?~4 (3/7 of 224) × 15 ÷4 ~ ?
39. Answer: D) 96 × 15 ÷4 ~ ?
29.89% of 249.98 + ∛4095.98 – 7.952= ? 360~ ?
30% of 250 + ∛4096 –64 ~ ? 45. Answer: D)
75 + 16 –64 ~ ? (√48.94 + 3.93)3 = 831.17 + ?
27 ~ ? (√49 + 4)3 ~831 + ?
40. Answer: D) (7 + 4)3 ~831 + ?
(179.95 × 3.97) ÷ (6.14 × 4.95) = ? (11)3~831 + ?
(180 ×4) ÷ (6× 5) ~ ? 1331 - 831~ ?
720 ÷30~ ? ? ~500
24~ ? 46. Answer: D)
41. Answer: D) (15.89 ÷ 6.06 × 32.98) ÷ 7.94 = ?
15.95 × 23.98 ÷ 11.96 + 28.21 = ? (16 ÷ 6 × 33) ÷ 8 ~ ?
16 ×24 ÷12 + 28 ~ ? (88) ÷ 8 ~ ?
16 ×2 + 28 ~ ? ? ~ 11
32 + 28 ~ ? 47. Answer: C)
? ~ 60 5.962 × 7.932 = (?)2 + 94.98
42. Answer: D) 62 × 82 ~ (?)2 + 95
17.98 - ? + 21.99 + (10.9)2 = 129.98 36 ×64 = (?)2 + 95
18 - ? + 22 + (11)2 ~ 130 1225 ~ (?)2 + 95
40 - ? + 121 ~ 130 2304 - 95~ (?)2
161 - 130~ ? 2209 ~ (?)2
? ~31 ? ~47
43. Answer: A) 48. Answer: A)
39.98% of 699.94 + 64.95% of 899.98 = ? √575.98 × √24.96 – ? × 24.08 = 47.98
40% of 700 + 65% of 900 ~ ? √575 ×√25 – ?×24 ~48
Page 525 of 1079

24 ×5 – ?×24 ~48 1800 ÷100 + 12 ~ ?

120 – ?×24 ~48 18 + 12 ~ ?
120 –48~ ?×24 ? ~30
72~ ?×24 50. Answer: B)
? ~3 √1763.99 + √399.94 + 599.97 × 39.95% = ?
49. Answer: B) √1764 + √400 + 600 ×40% ~ ?
71.92 × 24.96 ÷ 9.922 + 11.94 = ? 42 + 20 + 240 ~?
72 ×25 ÷100 + 12 ~ ? ? ~302
Quatratic Equation
2
1. I. x - 5x + 6 = 0 e) x ≤ y
II. 2y2 -3y - 65 = 0 4. I. x2 – 17x + 60 = 0
a) x < y II. y2 – 23y + 120 = 0
b) x > y a) x > y
c) x ≤ y b) x < y
d) x ≥ y c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established d) x ≥ y
2. I) x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 e) x ≤ y
II. y2 +23y -24 = 0 Q5. I. x2 + x - 56 = 0
a) x > y II. y2 -3y -130 = 0
b) x ≥ y a) x > y
c) x < y b) x < y
d) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
determined d) x ≥ y
e) x ≤ y e) x ≤ y
3. I. 2x2 – 9x + 4 = 0 Q6. I. x2 - 16x + 55 = 0
II. y2 – 21y + 108 = 0 II. y2 - 15y + 56 = 0
a) x < y a) x > y
b) x > y b) x < y
c) x = y OR the relationship cannot be determined c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
d) x ≥ y d) x ≥ y
Page 526 of 1079

e) x ≤ y II. 10y2 + 23y + 12 = 0

7. I. 2x2 – 20x + 48 = 0 a) x < y
II. y2 – 30y + 224 = 0 b) x > y
a) x > y c) x ≤ y
b) x < y d) x ≥ y
c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
d) x ≥ y 12. I. x2 – 4x + 3 = 0
e) x ≤ y II.2y2+ 22y + 56 = 0
8. I. x2 + 13x – 198 = 0 a) x > y
II. y2 -32y +247 = 0 b) x < y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
c) x = y OR the relationship cannot be determined e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
d) x ≥ y 13. I.16x² + 20x + 6 = 0
e) x ≤ y II. 6y2 - 7y+ 2 = 0
9. I. 9x2 + 15x - 14 =0 a) x < y
II. 3y2 – 21y + 36 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 14. I.x² + 31x + 234 = 0
e) x ≤ y II. 6y2 + 19y + 15 = 0
10. I. 2x2 – 19x + 42 = 0 a) x > y
II. 3y2 – 49y + 200 = 0 b) x < y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 15. I. x2 - 15x + 56 = 0
e) x ≤ y II. 15y2 + 68y + 77 = 0
11. I. 2x2 + 19x + 45 = 0 a) x < y
Page 527 of 1079

b) x > y D. X ≤ Y
c) x ≤ y E. X = Y or relation cannot be established
d) x ≥ y 20. I. x² = 81
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y2 - 27y + 162 = 0
16. I. x2 + 33x + 270 = 0 a) x < y
II.y2+ 13y + 36 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
c) x ≤ y e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
d) x ≥ y 21. I. x2 - x - 2 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y2 - 7y + 10 = 0
17.I.x² = 4096 a) x < y
II. y = √4096 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 22. I. 8x2 – 40x + 48 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y² – 3 y + 2 =0
18. I.x² - 28x + 192 = 0 a) x < y
II.y² – 21y + 108 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 23. I. p = √625
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. q2 = 625
19. I. x² - 196 = 0 a) p < q
II.y-√196 = 0 b) p > q
A. X > Y c) p ≤ q
B. X < Y d) p ≥ q
C. X ≥ Y e) p = q or relationship cannot be established
Page 528 of 1079

24. I. 2x2 - 11x +15 = 0 a) X > Y

II. y2 + y - 30 = 0 b) X < Y
a) x < y c) X ≥ Y
b) x > y d) X ≤ Y
c) x ≤ y e) X = Y or relation cannot be established
d) x ≥ y 29. I. x² – 9x + 14 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. 3y² – 4 y + 1 = 0
25. I. x2 – 3025 = 0 a) X > Y
II. y - √625 = 30 b) X < Y
a) x < y c) X ≥ Y
b) x > y d) X ≤ Y
c) x ≤ y e) X = Y or relation cannot be established
d) x ≥ y 30. I. x2 + 13x + 14 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. 3y² – 4 y + 1 = 0
26.I. x2 - 9x +20 = 0 a) x < y
II. 10y2 + y – 24 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 31. I. I. x² – 20x + 99 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. 5y2 + 16y + 11 = 0
27. I. 2x² – 11x +14 = 0 a) x > y
II.5y² – 24y + 27 = 0 b) x < y
a) X > Y c) x ≤ y
b) X < Y d) x ≥ y
c) X ≥ Y e) x = y or relationship cannot be established
d) X ≤ Y 32. I. 4x² – 43 x + 105 = 0
e) X = Y or relation cannot be established II. 2y2 + 9y + 10 = 0
28 I. 2x² = 162 a) x < y
II.5y² – 30y + 45 = 0 b) x > y
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d) x ≥ y 37. I. x2 + 13x - 1014 =0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y2 + 43y+ 456 = 0
33. I. x = 3√6859 a) x < y
II. y2 = 361 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 38. I. x2 + 15x - 126 =0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y2 + 23y + 120 = 0
34.I.x² + 20x + 96 = 0 a) x < y
II.y² + 29y + 168 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 39. I.2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. 2y2 – 13y + 21 = 0
35. I. x2 - 15x + 56 = 0 a) x < y
II. y2 - 26y + 165 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 40.I. x2 + 4x + 3 = 0
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y2 + y – 12 = 0
36. I. x2 + 33x + 270 = 0 a) x < y
II.y2+ 13y + 36 = 0 b) x > y
a) x < y c) x ≤ y
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y 41. I. 2x2 -22x + 60 = 0
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II. y2 -3y = 130 a) x > y

a) x < y b) x < y
b) x > y c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
c) x ≤ y d) x ≥ y
d) x ≥ y e) x ≤ y
e) x = y or relationship cannot be established 46. I. x2 - 16x + 55 = 0
42. I) x2 – 3x = 2x-6 II. 7y2 - 15y + 8 = 0
II) y4 – 5y2 + 6 = 0 a) x > y
a) x > y b) x < y
b) x ≥ y c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
c) x < y d) x ≥ y
d) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be e) x ≤ y
determined 47. I. x2 – 20x = -96
e) x ≤ y II. y2 + y – 42 = 0
43. I. x2 – 9x + 8 = 0 a) x > y
II. 2y2 + 29y – 31 = 0 b) x < y
a) x < y c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
b) x > y d) x ≥ y
c) x = y OR the relationship cannot be determined e) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y 48. I. 2x2 + 13x – 99 = 0
e) x ≤ y II. 2y2 – 11y – 51 = 0
44. I. 2x2 – 17x + 30 = 0 a) x < y
II. 2y2 – 23y + 60 = 0 b) x > y
a) x > y c) x = y OR the relationship cannot be determined
b) x < y d) x ≥ y
c) x = y or the relationship cannot be established e) x ≤ y
d) x ≥ y 49. I. x2 + 7x – 8 = 0
e) x ≤ y II. 2y2 – 21y + 54 = 0
45. I. 2x2 – x – 28 = 0 a) x < y
II. y2 – 15y + 56 = 0 b) x > y
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c) x = y OR the relationship cannot be determined a) x < y

d) x ≥ y b) x > y
e) x ≤ y c) x = y OR the relationship cannot be determined
50. I. x2 – 19x + 84 = 0 d) x ≥ y
II. y2 + 14y + 45 = 0 e) x ≤ y
Quatratic Equation - Answers with Explanation
1: E) Hence, option A is correct.

I.x2 - 5x + 6 = 0 3: A)
x2 - 2x - 3x + 6 = 0 I. 2x2 – 9x + 4 = 0
x(x - 2) - 3(x - 2) = 0 2x2 – 8x – x + 4 = 0
(x - 3)(x - 2) =0 2x(x – 4) – 1(x – 4) = 0
x = 3,2 (x – 4)(2x – 1) = 0
II.2y2 -3y - 65 = 0 x = 1/2,4
2y2 -13y +10y + 65 = 0 II. y2 – 21y + 108 = 0
y(2y -13) +5(2y - 13) = 0 y2 – 12y – 9y + 108 = 0
(2y -13)(y + 5) = 0 y(y – 12) – 9(y – 12) = 0
y = 13/2, -5 (y – 12)(y – 9) = 0
Hence, x = y or relationship cannot be established y = + 12 or + 9
Hence, option E is correct. Hence, option A is correct.
2: A) 4: C)
I) x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 I. x2 – 17x + 60 = 0
x2 – 3x -2x + 6 = 0 x2 – 12x - 5x + 60 = 0
x(x – 3) -2(x-3) = 0 x(x – 12) - 5 (x – 12) = 0
(x – 2) (x – 3) = 0 (x – 12) (x - 5) = 0
x = 2, 3 x = 5, 12
II) y2 +23y -24 = 0 II. y2 – 23y + 120 = 0
(y + 24)(y -1) = 0 y2 – 15y – 8y + 120 = 0
y = -24, 1 (y – 15)5y – 8) = 0
Hence, x > y. y = 15, 8
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Hence, x = y or the relationship cannot be established (x – 4)(2x – 12) = 0

Hence, option C is correct. x = 4, 12/2
5: C) II. y2 – 30y + 224 = 0
I. x2 + x - 56 = 0 y2 – 14y – 16y + 224 = 0
x2 - 7x + 8x – 56 = 0 y(y – 14) – 16(y – 14) = 0
x(x - 7) + 8 (x - 7) = 0 (y – 14)(y – 16) = 0
(x - 7) (x + 8) = 0 y = 14, 16
x = 7, - 8 Hence, x < y.
II. y2 -3y -130 = 0 Hence, option B is correct
(y -13)(y + 10) = 0 8: A)
y = 13, -10 I. x2 + 13x – 198 = 0
Hence, x = y or the relationship cannot be established x2 + 22x – 9x – 198 = 0
Hence, option C is correct. x(x + 22) – 9(x + 22) = 0
6: C) (x + 22)(x – 9) = 0
I. x2 - 16x + 55 = 0 x = -22 or x = +9
x2 - 11x - 5x + 55 = 0 II. y2 -32y +247 = 0
x(x - 11) - 5(x - 11) = 0 (y -19)(y -13) = 0
(x - 5)(x - 11) = 0 y = 19, 13
x = 5, 11 Hence, x < y.
II.y2 - 15y + 56 = 0 Hence, option A is correct
y2 - 7y - 8y + 56 = 0 9: A)
y(y - 7) - 8(y - 7) = 0 I. 9x2 + 15x - 14 =0
(y - 7)(y - 8) = 0 x = +(21/9), -(6/9)
y = 7, 8 x = -(7/3), +(2/3)
Hence, x = y or the relationship cannot be established II. 3y2 – 21y + 36 = 0
Hence, option C is correct 3y2 – 12y – 9y + 36 = 0
7: B) 3y(y – 4) – 9(y – 4) = 0
I. 2x2 – 20x + 48 = 0 (y – 4)(3y – 9) = 0
2x2 – 8x – 12x + 48 = 0 y = + 4 or y = + 9/3
2x(x – 4) – 12(x – 4) = 0 So, we can observe that x < y.
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Hence, option A is correct. x = 1 or 3

10: A) II.2y2 + 22y + 56 = 0
I. 2x2 – 19x + 42 = 0 Y2+11y+28=0
2x2 – 12x – 7x + 42 = 0 Y2 + 4y +7y + 28 = 0
2x(x – 6) – 7(x – 6) = 0 y (y +4) +7 (y + 4) = 0
(x – 6)(2x – 7) = 0 (y +4) (y + 7) = 0
x = + 6 or x = + 7/2 y = - 4, y= - 7
II. 3y2 - 24y - 25y + 200=0 x>y
3y(y - 8) -25(y - 8) = 0 Hence, option A is correct
(y - 8)(3y-25)=0 13: A
y = 8, 25/3 I.16x² + 20x + 6 = 0
So, we can observe that x < y. 8x² + 10x + 3 = 0
Hence, option A is correct. 8x² + 6x +4x + 3 = 0
11: A 2x(4x + 3) +(4x + 3) = 0
I. 2x2 + 19x + 45 = 0 (4x + 3 ) ( 2x + 1) = 0
2x2 + 9x + 10x + 45 = 0 x = -3/4 = -0.75, x = -1/2 = -0.5
x (2x + 9) + 5 (2x + 9) = 0 II. 6y2 - 7y + 2 =0
(2x + 9) (x + 5) = 0 6y2 - 3y - 4y + 2 = 0
x = -9/2 = -4.5, x = -5 3y(2y - 1) - 2(2y - 1) = 0
II. 10y2 + 23y + 12 = 0 (2y - 1) (3y - 2) = 0
10y2 + 15y +8y + 12 = 0 y = 1/2, 2/3
5y(2y+3)+4(2y+3) = 0 Hence, option A is correct.
(5y+4)(2y+3) = 0 14: B
y = -(3/2), -(4/5) I.x² + 31x + 234 = 0
x<y x² + 13x +18x + 234 = 0
Hence, option A is correct x(x+13)+18(x+13) = 0
12: A (x+13)(x+18) = 0
I. x2 – 4x + 3 = 0 x = -13, -18
x2 – 3x – 1x + 3 = 0 II. 6y2 + 19y + 15 = 0
(x – 1)(x – 3) = 0 6y2 + 9y +10y + 15 = 0
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3y(2y+3)+5(2y+3) = 0 X = +64, -64

(3y+5)(2y+3) = 0 II.y = √4096
y = -5/3, -3/2 Y= 64
Hence, option B is correct. While comparing the values of x and y, x ≤ y
15: B Hence, option C is correct
I. x2 - 15x + 56 = 0 18: D
x2 - 7x - 8x + 56 = 0 I.x² - 28x + 192 = 0
x(x – 7) – 8(x -7) = 0 x² - 16x -12x + 192 = 0
(x-8)(x – 7) = 0 x(x-16)-12(x-16) = 0
x=7,x=8 (x-12)(x-16) = 0
II. 15y2 + 68y + 77 = 0 x = 12, 16
15y2 + 35y + 33y + 77 = 0 II.y² – 21y + 108 = 0
5y(3y + 7) + 11(3y + 7) = 0 y² – 12y – 9y + 108 = 0
(5y + 11) (3y + 7) = 0 (y – 9) (y - 12) = 0
Y = -11/5,-7/3 =-2.2,-2.33 y = 12, 9
Hence, option B is correct. While comparing the values of x and y, x ≥ y
16: A Hence, option D is correct
I. x2 + 33x + 270 = 0 19: D
x2 +15x + 18x +270 = 0 I.x² – 196= 0
x(x +15) + 18(x +15) = 0 x² = 14
(x +15) (x + 18) = 0 x = 14, -14
x = - 18, x = -15 II.y - √196 = 0
II.y2 + 13y + 36 = 0 y = √196
y2 + 9y +4y + 36 = 0 y = 14
y(y + 9) +4(y + 9) = 0 X≤Y
(y + 9) (y+4) = 0 Hence, option D is correct.
y = - 9, y= -4 20: C
So, x < y I.x² = 81
17: C x = 9, – 9
I.x2 = 4096 II. y2 - 27y + 162 = 0
Page 535 of 1079

Y2 - 18y – 9y + 162 = 0 x≥y

y(y-18)-9(y-18) = 0 Hence, option D is correct
(y – 18) (y - 9) = 0 23: D
y = 18, 9 I. p = √625
While comparing the values of x and y, x ≤ y p = 25
Hence, option C is correct II. q2 = 625
21: C q = +25 , -25
I. x2 - x - 2 = 0 p≥q
x2 + x - 2x - 2 = 0 Hence, option D is correct.
x (x + 1) -2 (x + 1) = 0 24: A
(x + 1 ) (x - 2 ) = 0 I. 2x2 - 11x +15 = 0
x = -1, 2 2x2 - 6x - 5x + 15 = 0
II. y2 - 7y + 10 = 0 2x(x - 3) - 5(x - 3) = 0
y2 – 5y - 2y + 10 = 0 (2x - 5) (x - 3) = 0
y (y - 5) – 2 (y - 5) = 0 x = 3, 5/2
(y - 2 ) (y - 5) = 0 II. y2 + y - 30 = 0
y = 2 , y= 5 y2 + 6y - 5y - 30 = 0
x≤y y (y + 6) -5 (y + 6) = 0
Hence, option C is correct (y - 5) (y + 6) = 0
22: D y = 5 , -6
I. 8x2 – 40x +48 = 0 x<y
8x2 - 16x -24x + 48=0 Hence, option A is correct.
8x ( x – 2) – 24 ( x – 2) = 0 25: C
(8x – 24) ( x - 2 ) = 0 I. x2 – 3025 = 0
x = 24/8, 2 = 3 , 2 x2 = 3025
II. y² – 3 y + 2 =0 x = + 55 , -55
y2 – y – 2y + 2 = 0 II. y - √625 = 30
y(y – 1) –2(y – 1) = 0 y = √ 625 + 30
(y – 1) (y – 2) = 0 y = 25 + 30
y = 1, 2 y = 55
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x≤y 28: E
Hence, option C is correct. I.2x² = 162
26: B x² = 81
I.x2 - 9x +20 = 0 x = 9, – 9
x2 - 9x - 20 = 0 II.5y² – 30y + 45 = 0
x2 – 4x – 5x - 20 = 0 5y² – 15y – 15y + 45 = 0
x(x – 4) – 5(x - 4) = 0 5y(y – 3) – 15(y - 3) = 0
(x– 5) (x - 4) = 0 (5y - 15) (y - 3) = 0
x= 4,5 y = 15/5, 3
II. 10y2 + y – 24 = 0 While comparing the values of x and y, one root value of
10y2 + 16y -15y -24 = 0 y lies between the root values of x
2y (5y + 8) – 3 (5y + 8) = 0 Hence, option E is correct.
(2y – 3) (5y + 8) = 0 29: A
y = 3/2 , -8/5 = 1.5 , -1.6 I. x² – 9x + 14 = 0
While comparing the values of x and y, x > y x2 – 7x – 2x + 14 = 0
Hence, option B is correct x(x – 7) –2(x – 7) = 0
27: E (x – 7) (x – 2) = 0
I.2x² – 11x +14 = 0 x=2,7
2x² – 7x – 4x + 14 = 0 II. 3y² – 4 y + 1 = 0
x(2x – 7) – 2(2x -7) = 0 3y2 – y – 3y + 1 = 0
(x – 2) (2x - 7) = 0 y(3y – 1) –(3y – 1) = 0
x = 7/2, 2 (y – 1) (3y – 1) = 0
II.5y² – 24y + 27 = 0 y = 1/3, 1
5y² – 15y – 9y + 27 = 0 x>y
5y(y – 3) - 9(y – 3) = 0 Hence, option A is correct.
(y – 3) (5y – 9) = 0 30: D
y = 3, 9/5 I. x2 - 15x + 14 = 0
While comparing the values of x and y, one root value of x2 - 14x – 1x + 14 = 0
y lies between the root values of x x (x - 14) – 1 (x - 14) = 0
Hence, option E is correct. x = 1 , 14
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II. 3y² – 4 y + 1 = 0 y = -5/2 , -2 = -2.5 , -2

3y2 – y – 3y + 1 = 0 x>y
y(3y – 1) –(3y – 1) = 0 Hence, option B is correct
(y – 1) (3y – 1) = 0 33: D
y = 1/3, 1 I. x = 3√6859
While comparing the values of x and y, x ≥ y x = 19
Hence, option D is correct II. y2 = 361
31: A y = +19 , -19
I. x² – 20x + 99 = 0 x≥y
x2 – 9x – 11x + 99 = 0 Hence, option D is correct.
x(x – 9) – 11(x – 9) = 0 34: E
(x – 11) (x – 9) = 0 I.x² + 20x + 96 = 0
x =11, 9 x² + 12x +8x + 96 = 0
II. 5y2 + 16y + 11 = 0 (x + 12) +8(x + 12) = 0
5y2 + 5y + 11y + 11 = 0 (x +8) (x + 12) = 0
5y (y + 1) + 11 (y + 1) = 0 x = -12 , x = -8
(5y + 11 ) (y + 1) = 0 II.y² + 29y + 168 = 0
y = -11/5, -1 = -2.2 , -1 y² + 6y +23y + 168 = 0
x> y y(y + 6) +23(y + 6) = 0
Hence, option A is correct (y + 23)(y + 6) = 0
32: B y = - 6 or y = -23
I. 4x² – 43 x + 105 = 0 So, x = y or relationship cannot be established
4x2– 28x – 15x + 105 = 0 35: A
4x(x – 7) –15(x – 7) = 0 I. x2 - 15x + 56 = 0
(x – 7) (4x – 15) = 0 x2 - 7x - 8x + 56 = 0
x = 7, 15/4 x(x – 7) – 8(x -7) = 0
II. 2y2 + 9y + 10 = 0 (x-8)(x – 7) = 0
2y2 + 4y + 5y + 10 = 0 x=7,x=8
2y (y + 2) + 5 (y+ 2) = 0 II. y2 - 26y + 165 = 0
(2y + 5) (y + 2) = 0 y2 – 11y-15y + 165 = 0
Page 538 of 1079

y(y – 11)-15(y - 11) = 0 x(x + 21) -6(x +21) =0

y = 11, y= 15 (x - 6) (x +21) =0
so, x < y x = -21, 6
36: A II. y2 + 23y + 120 = 0
I. x2 + 33x + 270 = 0 y2 + 15y +8y+ 120 = 0
x2 +15x + 18x +270 = 0 y(y + 15) +8(y+ 15) = 0
x(x +15) + 18(x +15) = 0 (y + 8) (y+ 15) = 0
(x +15) (x + 18) = 0 y = -15, -8
x = - 18, x = -15 So, x = y or relationship cannot be established
II.y2 + 13y + 36 = 0 39: A
y2 + 9y +4y + 36 = 0 I.2x2 – 9x +10 = 0
y(y + 9) +4(y + 9) = 0 2x2 – 5x – 4x +10 = 0
(y + 9) (y+4) = 0 x(2x – 5) – 2(2x - 5) = 0
y = - 9, y= -4 (2x – 5)(x - 2) = 0
So, x < y x = 5/2 or 2
37: E II. 2y2 – 13y + 21 = 0
I.x2 + I3x - 1014 = 0 2y2 – 6y - 7y + 21 = 0
x2 - 26x + 39x - 1014 =0 2y(y – 3)-7(y – 3) = 0
x(x – 26) + 39(x – 26) =0 (2y- 7) (y – 3) = 0
(x – 26) (x + 39) =0 Y = 3 (or) 7/2
x = 26, -39 So, x < y
II. y2 - 43y + 456 =0 40: E
y2 + 24y + 19y + 456 = 0 I.x2 + 4x + 3 = 0
y(y + 24) + 19(y + 24) = 0 x2 + x + 3x + 3 = 0
(y + 24) (y + 19) = 0 (x + 1) + 3(x + 1) = 0
y = -19, -24 (x + 1)(x +3) = 0
So, x = y or relationship cannot be established x = -1 or -3
38: E II.y2 + y – 12 = 0
I. x2 + 15x - 126 =0 y2 - 3y + 4y – 12 = 0
x2 + 21x -6x - 126 =0 y(y - 3) +4( y - 3) = 0
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(y - 3)( y + 4) = 0 t = 2, 3
y = -4 or 3 y = √2,√3
So, x = y or relationship cannot be established Hence, x > y.
41: E) Hence, option A is correct.
I. 2x2 -22x + 60 = 0 43: D)
2x2 - 10x –12x + 60 = 0 I. x2 – 9x + 8 = 0
2x(x – 5) –12(x + 5) = 0 x2 – 8x – x + 8 = 0
(x -5)(2x -12)= 0 x(x – 8) – 1(x – 8) = 0
x = 5, 12/2 (x – 8)(x – 1) = 0
II.y2 -3y = 130 x = 1,8
y2 -3y + 130 = 0 II. 2y2 + 29y – 31 = 0
y2 -13y +10y + 130 = 0 2y2 + 31y – 2y – 31 = 0
y(y -13) +10(y + 13) = 0 y(2y + 31) – (2y + 31) = 0
(y -13)(y + 10) = 0 (2y + 31)(y – 1) = 0
y = 13, -10 y = - 31/2 or y = + 1
Hence, x < y. Hence, x ≥ y.
Hence, option B is correct. Hence, option D is correct.
42: A) 44: C)
I) x2 – 3x = 2x-6 I. 2x2 – 17x + 30 = 0
x2 – 3x -2x+6 = 0 2x2 – 12x - 5x + 30 = 0
x(x – 3) -2(x-3) = 0 2x(x – 6) - 5 (x – 6) = 0
(x – 2) (x – 3) = 0 (x – 6) (2x - 5) = 0
x = 2, 3 x = 5/2, 6
II) y4 – 5y2 + 6 = 0 II. 2y2 – 23y + 60 = 0
Let y2 = t 2y2 – 15y – 8y + 60 = 0
y = √t y(2y – 15) – 4(2y – 15) = 0
t2 – 5t + 6 = 0 (2y – 15)(y – 4) = 0
t2 – 3t -2t + 6 = 0 y = 4, 15/2
t(t – 3) -2(t – 3) = 0 While comparing the values of x and y, one root value of
(t – 2) (t – 3) = 0 y lies between the root values of x
Page 540 of 1079

Hence, option C is correct. x2 – 20x + 96 = 0

45: B) x2 – 8x – 12x + 96 = 0
From I: x(x – 8) – 12(x – 8) = 0
x2 – x – 56 = 0 (x – 8)(x – 12) = 0
2x2 + 7x – 8x – 28 = 0 x = 8, 12
x(2x + 7) - 4 (2x + 7) = 0 II.y2 + y – 42 = 0
(2x + 7) (x – 4) = 0 y2 + 7y – 6y – 42 = 0
x = -7/2, 4 y(y + 7) – 6(y + 7) = 0
II.y2 – 15y + 56 = 0 (y + 7)(y – 6) = 0
y2 – 7y – 8y + 56 = 0 y = -7, 6
y(y – 7) – 8(y – 7) = 0 Hence, x > y.
(y – 8)(y – 7) = 0 Hence, option A is correct
y = 8, 7 48: C)
Hence, x < y. I. 2x2 + 13x – 99 = 0
Hence, option B is correct. 2x2 + 22y – 9y – 99 = 0
46: A) 2x(x + 11) – 9(y + 11) = 0
I. x2 - 16x + 55 = 0 (x + 11)(2x – 9) = 0
x2 - 11x - 5x + 55 = 0 x = -22 or x = +9
x(x - 11) - 5(x - 11) = 0 II. 2y2 – 11y – 51 = 0
(x - 5)(x - 11) = 0 2y2 – 17y + 6y – 51 = 0
x = 5, 11 y(2y – 17) + 3(2y – 17) = 0
II.7y2 - 15y + 8 = 0 (2y – 17)(y + 3) = 0
7y2 - 7y - 8y + 8 = 0 y = 17/2 or y = -3
7y(y - 1) - 8(y - 1) = 0 So, we can observe that no clear relationship cannot be
(y - 1)(7y - 8) = 0 determined between x and y.
y = 1, 8/7 49: A)
Hence, x > y. I. x2 + 7x – 8 = 0
Hence, option A is correct x2 + 8x – x – 8 = 0
47: A) x(x + 8) – 1(x + 8) = 0
I. x2 – 20x = - 96 (x + 8)(x – 1) = 0
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x = - 8 or x = + 1 x(x – 12) – 7(x – 12) = 0

II. 2y2 – 21y + 54 = 0 (x – 12)(x – 7) = 0
2y2 – 12y – 9y + 54 = 0 x = + 12 or x = + 7
2y(y – 6) – 9(y – 6) = 0 II. y2 + 14y + 45 = 0
(y – 6)(2y – 9) = 0 y2 + 9y + 5y + 45 = 0
y = + 6 or y = + 9/2 y(y + 9) + 5(y + 9) = 0
So, we can observe that x < y. (y + 9)(y + 5) = 0
50: B) y = - 9 or y = - 5
I. x2 – 19x + 84 = 0 So, we can observe that x > y.
x2 – 12x – 7x + 84 = 0
Missing Number
Directions (1-5): What will come in the place of e) 129
question mark? 4) 64, 48, 84, 231, 866.25,?
1) 123, 132, 168, 249, 393,? a) 4114.6875
a) 682 b) 621.3125
b) 673 c) 621.0125
c) 618 d) 623.125
d) 693 e) None of the above
e) 503 5) 91, 174, 282, 426,? , 876
2) 324, 336, 360, 408, 480,? a) 623
a) 529 b) 656
b) 544 c) 619
c) 539 d) 505
d) 576 e) 760
e) None of the above 6) 178, 185, 171, 192, 164,?
3) 214, 208, 196, 178, 154,? a) 192
a) 99 b) 160
b) 124 c) 174
c) 89 d) 199
d) 119 e) 194
Page 542 of 1079

7) 4000 800 400 80 ? 12. 472, 483, 496, ?, 528, 547

a) 62.25 a) 532
b) 61.75 b) 511
c) 31.25 c) 533
d) 125 d) 534
e) 40 e) 535
8) 217 ? 232 247 267 292 13. 81, 625, 2401, 6561, ?
A) 222 a) 14641
B) 237 b) 3025
C) 222 c) 3249
D) 232 d) 2916
E) 247 e) None of these
9) 16 64 512 ? 98304 14. 1672, ?, 1745, 1519, 1918, 1292
a) 12 a) 1558
b) 6144 b) 1448
c) 24 c) 1458
d) 32 d) 1646
e) 40 e) 1468
10) 10 ? 50 80 122 168 15. 42, 79, ?, 1861, 14883, 148825
a) 24 a) 524
b) 22 b) 448
c) 33 c) 311
d) 54 d) 464
e) 68 e) 564
11) 34 40 52 70 94 ? 16) 13, 52, 416, 4992, ?, 1597440
a) 196 a) 1020
b) 144 b) 1980
c) 124 c) 79872
d) 225 d) 1990
e) 179 e) 1120
Page 543 of 1079

17) 11, 28, 52, 83, 121, ? 22) 15, 18 , 13 , 20 , 11 , 22 , ?

a) 166 a) 23
b) 128 b) 22
c) 132 c) 35
d) 158 d) 20
e) 169 e) 17
18) 17, 117, 182, 220, 239, ? 23) 5, 16, 36, 162, 786, ?, 33186
a) 206 a) 650
b) 229 b) 346
c) 247 c) 745
d) 201 d) 542
e) 218 e) 4746
19) 18, 22, 30, 46, 78, ? 24) 5, 13, 21, 29, 18, ?, 6
a) 418 a) 13
b) 142 b) 12
c) 398 c) 17
d) 385 d) 9
e) 391 e) 5
20) 16, 40, 180, 1170, ?, 104422.5 25) 3820, 3812, 3796, 3732, 3348, ?
a) 3485 a) 3310
b) 3380 b) 2728
c) 3930 c) 110
d) 9945 d) 276
e) 3845 e) 334
21) 12, 49, 394 , 4731 , 75700 , ? 26) 25, 100, 225, 400, 625, ?
a) 1514005 a) 289
b) 12360 b) 900
c) 11250 c) 576
d) 11360 d) 400
e) 15320 e) 169
Page 544 of 1079

27) 36, 70, 206, 818, 4082, ? 32) 11, 17, 29, 47, 71, ?
a) 26147 a) 90
b) 21467 b) 98
c) 24482 c) 101
d) 21147 d) 102
e) 24617 e) 92
28)? 337, 481, 6313, 6889, 33889 33) 23, 40, 91, 176, 295, ?
a) 121 a) 448
b) 120 b) 498
c) 119 c) 483
d) 122 d) 576
e) 117 e) 550
29) 266, 410, 531, ?, 712, 776 34) 19, 31, 55, 91, 139, ?
a) 713 a) 274
b) 623 b) 199
c) 667 c) 175
d) 631 d) 184
e) 633 e) 239
30) 12, 54, 280, 2108, 18978, ? 35) 11, 79, 556, ?, 27277, 190945
a) 218251 a) 729
b) 18988 b) 731
c) 22567 c) 3896
d) 22789 d) 745
e) 21523 e) 746
31) 8, 44, 188, ?, 1088, 1988 36) -20, -64, -251, ?, - 7559, -52921
a) 398 a) -1261
b) 372 b) 2496
c) 343 c) -2596
d) 364 d) 2596
e) 512 e) -2498
Page 545 of 1079

37) 2, 37, 102, 327, ?, 6617 42) 30 46 64 84 106 (?)

a) 3958 a) 129
b) 1322 b) 119
c) 1566 c) 130
d) 1879 d) 112
e) 2878 e) 117
38) 2, 6, ?, 46, 152, 558 43) 60 30 120 20 160 (?)
a) 28 a) 18
b) 29 b) 22
c) 16 c) 57
d) 31 d) 16
39) 18, 78, 418, ?, 26658, 293278 44) 20 21 25 34 (?) 75
a) 22522 a) 50
b) 23762 b) 53
c) 2765 c) 63
d) 2523 d) 73
40) 7, 24.5, 73.5, 330.75, 1323, ? 45) 11 56 (?) 1413 7069 35350
a) 6565.5 a) 275
b) 4234.5 b) 212
c) 5372.5 c) 324
d) 7276.5 d) 368
e) 4782.5 e) 282
41) 7 20 36 55 77 (?) 46) 3, 11, 38, 138, 584, ?
a) 87 a) 2215
b) 102 b) 2320
c) 107 c) 2765
d) 100 d) 2314
e) None of these e) 2960
Page 546 of 1079

47) 40, 50, 112.5, 365.6, ? , 8158 49) 58, 79, 121, 184, 268, ?
a) 1765.5 a) 278
b) 1567.5 b) 298
c) 1553.9 c) 373
d) 1637.3 d) 363
e) 1588.3 e) 355
48) 16, 22, 30, 42, 62, ? 50) 108, 81, 0, -135, -324, ?
a) 98 a) -588
b) 99 b) -563
c) 66 c) 623
d) 77 d) -766
e) 102 e) -567
Missing Number - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: C -6 -12 -18 -24
123 132 168 249 -30
393 618 4) Answer: A
9 36 81 144 225 64*0.75 = 48
48*1.75= 84
32 62 92 122 152 84*2.75=231
2) Answer: D 231*3.75= 866.25
324 336 360 408 866.25*4.75= 4114.6875
480 576 5) Answer: C
12 24 48 72 91 174 282 426
96 619 876
1*12 2*12 4*12 6*12 83 108 144 193
8*12 257
3) Answer: B 25 36 49
214 208 196 178 64
154 124 6) Answer: D
Page 547 of 1079

178 185 171 192 52 + 18 = 70

164 199 70 + 24 = 94
+7 -14 +21 -28 94 + 30 = 124
+35 12. Answer: B
7) Answer: E Given series is,
4000/5 = 800 472 483 496 511
800/2 = 400 528 547
400/5 = 80 11 13 15 17 19
80/2 = 40 Difference is prime number series,
8) Answer: A 13. Answer: A
217 + 5 = 222 81 625 2401 6561
222 + 10 = 232 14641
232 + 15 = 247 92 252 492 812 1212
247 + 20 = 267 3 5 7 9 11
267 + 25 = 292 14. Answer: D
9) Answer: B 1672 1646 1745 1519
16 x 4= 64 1918 1292
64 x 8 = 512 -26 +99 -226 +399
512 x 12 = 6144 -626
6144 x 16 = 98304 52+1 102-1 152+1202-1 252+1
10) Answer: A 15. Answer: C
10 = 32 +1 42 79 311 1861
24 = 52 - 1 14883 148825
50 = 72 + 1 *2-5 *4-5 *6-5 *8-
80 = 92 - 1 5 *10-5
122 = 112 + 1 16) Answer: C
168 = 132 - 1 13 * 4 = 52
11) Answer: C 52 * 8 = 416
34 + 6 = 40 416 * 12 = 4992
40 + 12 = 52 4992 * 16 = 79872
Page 548 of 1079

79872 * 20 = 1597440 18 – 5 = 13
17) Answer: A 13 + 7 = 20
11 28 52 83 121 166 20 – 9 = 11
17 24 31 38 45 11 + 11 = 22
18) Answer: C 22 + 13 = 35
17 + 102+ 0 = 117 23) Answer: E
117 + 82+ 1 = 182 5*2 + 6 = 16
182 + 62+ 2 = 220 16*3 – 12 = 36
220 + 42+ 3 = 239 36*4 + 18 = 162
239 + 22+ 4 = 247 162*5 – 24 = 786
19) Answer: B 786*6 + 30 = 4746
18 + 4 = 22 4746*7 – 36 = 33186
22+ 8 = 30 24) Answer: B
30 + 16 = 46 First:
46 + 32 = 78 5 + 8 = 13
78 + 64 = 142 13 + 8 = 21
20) Answer: D 21 + 8 =29
16 * 2.5 = 40 Second:
40 * 4.5 = 180 18 - 6 = 12
180*6.5 =1170 12 – 6 = 6
1170*8.5 = 9945 25) Answer: D
9945*10.5 = 104422.5 3820 3812 3796 3732
21) Answer: A 3348 276
12 * 4 +1 = 49 -8 -16 -64 -384
49 * 8 + 2 = 394 - 3072
394 * 12 + 3 = 4731 x2 x4 x6 x8
4731 * 16 + 4 = 75700 26) Answer: B
75700 * 20 + 5 = 1514005 Given series is
22) Answer: C 25 100 225 400 625 900
15 +3 =18 52 102 152 202 252 302
Page 549 of 1079

27) Answer: C 8 + 62 = 44
36*2-2 = 70 44 + 122 = 188
70*3-4= 206 188 + 182 = 512
206*4-6=818 512 + 242 = 1088
818*5-8=4082 1088 + 302 = 1988
4082*6-10=24482 32) Answer: C
28) Answer:A 11 + (2 * 3) = 17
Given series is 17 + (4 * 3) = 29
121 337 481 6313 6889 29 + (6 * 3) = 47
33889 47 + (8 * 3) = 71
216 144 5832 576 71 + (10 * 3) = 101
27000 33) Answer: A
63 122 183 242 23 + (1 * 17) = 40
303 40 + (3 * 17) = 91
Therefore, 337- (216) =121 91 + (5 * 17) = 176
29) Answer: D 176 + (7 * 17) = 295
Given series is 295 + (9 * 17) = 448
266 410 531 631 34) Answer: B
712 776 19 + (12 * 1) = 31
144 121 100 81 31 + (12 * 2) = 55
64 55 + (12 * 3) = 91
122 112 102 92 82 91 + (12 * 4) = 139
Therefore 531+100= 631 139 + (12 * 5) = 199
12 * 3.5 + 12 = 54 11 * 7 + 2 = 79
54 * 5 + 10 = 280 79 * 7 + 3 = 556
280 * 7.5 + 8 = 2108 556 * 7 + 4 = 3896
2108 * 9 +6 = 18978 3896 * 7 + 5 = 27277
18978 * 11.5 + 4 = 218251 27277 * 7 + 6 = 190945
31) Answer: E 36) Answer: A
Page 550 of 1079

-20 x 3 - 4 = -64 7 + 13 = 20
-64 x 4 + 5 = -251 20 + 16 = 36
-251 x 5 - 6 = -1261 36 + 19 = 55
-1261 x 6 +7 = -7559 55 + 22 = 77
-7559 x 7 - 8 = -52921 77 + 25 = 102
2 x 1 +7 x 5 = 37 5² + 5 = 30
37 x 2 + 7 x 4 =102 6² + 10 = 46
102 x 3 + 7 x 3 = 327 7² + 15 = 64
327 x 4 + 7 x 2= 1322 8² + 20 = 84
1322 x 5 + 7 x 1 = 6617 9² + 25 = 106
38) Answer: C 10² + 30 = 130
2 x 4 -2 x 1 = 6 43) Answer: D
6 x 4 - 4 x 2 =16 60 ÷ 2 = 30
16 x 4 - 6 x 3 = 46 30 x 4 = 120
46 x 4 - 8 x 4= 152 120 ÷ 6 = 20
152 x 4 - 10 x 5 = 558 20 x 8 = 160
39) Answer: E 160 ÷ 10 = 16
18 x 3 + 24 = 78 44) Answer: A
78 x 5 +28 = 418 20 + 12= 21
418 x 7 + 32 = 2958 21 + 22= 25
2958 x 9 + 36 = 26658 25 + 32= 34
26658 x 11 + 40 = 293278 34 + 42= 50
40) Answer: D 50 + 52= 75
7 x 3.5 = 24.5 45) Answer: E
24.5 x 3 = 73.5 11 x 5 + 1 = 56
73.5 x 4.5=330.75 56 x 5 + 2 = 282
330.75 x 4=1323 282 x 5 + 3 = 1413
1323 x 5.5 = 7276.5 1413 x 5 + 4 = 7069
41) Answer: B 7069 x 5 + 5 = 35350
Page 551 of 1079

46) Answer: E 42 + (24 + 4) = 62

3 x 1 + (1 x 8) = 11 62 + (25 + 4) = 98
11 x 2 + (2 x 8) = 38 49) Answer: C
38 x 3 + (3 x 8) = 138 58 + 7 x 3 = 79
138 x 4 + (4 x 8) = 584 79 + 7 x 6 = 121
584 x 5 + (5 x 8) = 2960 121 + 7 x 9 = 184
47) Answer: C 184 + 7 x 12= 268
40 x 1.25 = 50 268 + 7 x 15 = 373
50 x 2.25 = 112.5 50) Answer: E
112.5 x 3.25 = 365.6 122 – 62 = 108
365.6 x 4.25 = 1553.9 152 - 122 = 81
1553.9 x 5.25 = 8158 182 - 182 = 0
48) Answer: A 212 - 242 = -135
16 + (21 + 4) = 22 242 - 302 = -324
22 + (22 + 4) = 30 272 - 362 = -567
30 + (23 + 4) = 42
Wrong Number
Find out the wrong number in the following number e) 121
series. 3. 8, 29, 92, 200, 848, 2549
1. 8, 24, 144, 1296, 1452, 233280 a) 29
a) 1452 b) 92
b) 24 c) 848
c) 144 d) 8
d) 233280 e) 200
e) 1296 4. 17, 33, 127, 755, 6031, 60299
2. 121, 127, 115, 133, 102, 139, 103 a) 127
a) 133 b) 17
b) 139 c) 6031
c) 102 d) 755
d) 127 e) 33
Page 552 of 1079
5. 252, 274, 308, 354, 378, 482 10) 4 18 204 364 87672 2630130
a) 308 a) 18
b) 274 b) 4
c) 378 c) 204
d) 252 d) 364
e) All are correct e) 87672
6) 10 14 41 57 182 283 561 11) 17 21 30 46 71 252
a) 14 a) 252
b) 57 b) 21
c) 182 c) 30
d) 283 d) 46
e) 41 e) 17
7)18 36 144 564 6912 69120 12) 8 27 3 38 -2 43
a) 36 a) 8
b) 564 b) 27
c) 6912 c) 38
d) 144 d) 3
e) 18 e) 47
8) 3 15 39 75 123 183 13) 10000 5000 1250 625 100
a) 183 78.125
b) 123 a) 5000
c) 75 b) 625
d) 39 c) 100
e) 3 d) 78
9)12 13 24 47 96 177 e) 10000
a) 177 14) 20 81 528 4000 57864 868065
b) 96 a) 20
c) 22 b) 528
d) 13 c) 81
e) 12 d) 4000
Page 553 of 1079

e) 868065 e) 4200
15) 12,133,259,401,546,717 20. 212, 244, 284, 340, 404, 532
a) 133 a) 212
b) 259 b) 532
c) 546 c) 244
d) 717 d) 404
e) 401 e) 284
16) 580, 517, 452, 385, 342, 245 21. 378, 405, 466, 773, 854, 2185
a) 452 a) 466
b) 342 b) 378
c) 580 c) 405
d) 517 d) 773
e) 245 e) 2185
17) 60, 129, 360, 1800, 12600 22. 14, 44, 152, 223, 704, 1424
a) 129 a) 1424
b) 225 b) 44
c) 787 c) 152
d) 3543 d) 14
e) 60 e) 223
18) 4, 8, 16, 125, 36, 343 23. 60, 16, 20, 45, 146.25, 621.5625
a) 8 a) 146.25
b) 343 b) 45
c) 4 c) 60
d) 125 d) 621.5625
e) 36 e) 16
19. 2800, 1400, 4200, 2000, 6300, 3150 24) 3, 9, 45, 261, 1557, 2333
a) 2800 a) 45
b) 2000 b) 9
c) 6300 c) 3
d) 1400 d) 2333
Page 554 of 1079

e) 261 e) 538
25) 12, 20, 36, 65, 92, 132 30) 24, 18, 31.5, 77, 324.84,1543
a) 12 a) 77
b) 132 b) 31.5
c) 36 c) 1543
d) 20 d) 18
e) 65 e) 24
26) 50, 62, 86, 134, 230, 304 31) 82, 95, 121, 173, 277,374
a) 230 a) 121
b) 304 b) 173
c) 134 c) 374
d) 86 d) 277
e) 62 e) 95
27) 11, 17, 37, 79, 88, 261 32) 21, 45, 117, 261, 501, 667
a) 11 a) 261
b) 88 b) 117
c) 37 c) 45
d) 79 d) 667
e) 261 e) 501
28) 11, 60, 223, 452, 795, 844 33) 24, 49, 99, 175, 294, 449
a) 223 a) 99
b) 11 b) 49
c) 60 c) 24
d) 452 d) 294
e) 795 e) 175
29) 98, 102, 38, 74, 529, -338 34) 200, 300, 1050, 1200, 43312.5
a) 98 a) 1200
b) 102 b) 1050
c) 74 c) 300
d) 59 d) 200
Page 555 of 1079

e) 43312 e) 337
35) 30, 35, 47, 86, 358, 2800 40) 1725 995 505 335 53 5
a) 47 a) 1725
b) 35 b) 505
c) 2800 c) 335
d) 358 d) 53
e) 30 e) 5
36) 65, 200, 471, 878, 1421, 1748 41) 39, 77, 221, 545, 1121, 2021
a) 200 a) 77
b) 65 b) 545
c) 878 c) 2021
d) 1748 d) 39
e) 1421 e) 1121
37) 14 30 54 86 102 174 42) 14, 70, 182, 350, 376, 854
a) 102 a) 182
b) 174 b) 350
c) 86 c) 376
d) 14 d) 14
e) 54 e) 854
38) 7 19.5 62 250 1268 43) 162, 155, 240, 289, 334, 367
a) 7 a) 162
b) 19.5 b) 240
c) 62 c) 289
d) 1268 d) 155
e) 250 e) 334
39) 90 180 25 270 33.75 337 44) 1700 1550 2000 2050 2075 2087.5
a) 180 a) 1700
b) 25 b) 1550
c) 270 c) 2050
d) 33.75 d) 2087.5
Page 556 of 1079

e) 2075 48) 280 285 293 305 318 339

45) 53760 2068 6720 1120 140 14 a) 339
a) 14 b) 280
b) 140 c) 305
c) 2068 d) 285
d) 1120 e) 318
e) 53760 49) 2, 6, 28, 174, 1108, 14010
46) 30 31 54 61 86 95 a) 28
a) 188 b) 14010
b) 88 c) 1108
c) 57 d) 174
d) 27 e) 2
e) 287 50) 36, 9, 9.5, 25.31, 82.26, 349.628
47) 8 7 9 34 205 3411 a) 82.26
a) 8 b) 9.5
b) 7 c) 349.628
c) 9 d) 25.31
d) 205 e) 36
e) None of these
Wrong Number - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: A 3. Answer: E
Given series is 8×3+5=29
8 24 144 1296 15552 233280 29×3+5=92
×3 x6 ×9 ×12 x15 92×3+5= 281
2. Answer: C 281×3+5 =848
Given series is 848x3+5=2549
121 127 115 133 4. Answer: B
109 139 103 18×2-3 = 33
+6 -12 +18 -24 +30 33×4-5= 127
-36 127×6-7= 755
Page 557 of 1079
755×8-9 =6031 47 + 7² = 96
6031×10-11 =60299 96 + 92= 177
5. Answer: C 10) Answer: D
Given series is 4 x 6– 6= 18
252 274 308 354 412 482 18 x 12 – 12 = 204
22 34 46 58 70 204 x 18 – 18 = 3654
12 12 12 12 3654 x 24 – 24 = 87672
6) Answer: D 87672 x 30 – 30 = 2630130
10 + 2² = 14 11) Answer: A
14 + 33= 41 17 + 4= 21
41+ 4² = 57 21 + 9 = 30
57+ 53= 182 30 + 16 = 46
182+ 6² = 281 46 + 25 = 71
281+ 73 = 561 71 + 36 = 107
7) Answer: B 12) Answer: B
18 x 2 = 36 8 + 25 = 33
36 x 4= 144 33 - 30 = 3
144 x 6 = 864 3 + 35 = 38
864 x 8 = 6912 38 - 40 = 2
6912 x 10 = 69120 2 + 45 = 47
8) Answer: E 13) Answer: C
183 – 6 x 10 = 123 10000/2 = 5000
123 – 6 x 8 = 75 5000/4 = 1250
75 – 6 x 6 = 39 1250/2 = 625
39 – 6 x 4 = 15 625/4 = 156
15 – 6 x 2 = 3 156/2 = 78
12 + 12= 13 (20 + 7) x 3 = 81
13 + 3² = 22 (81 + 7) x 6 = 528
22 + 52= 47 (528 + 7) x 9 = 4815
Page 558 of 1079

(4815 + 7) x 12 = 57864 20. Answer: D

(57864 + 7) x 15 = 868065 212 244 284 340 420
15) Answer: E 532
Given series is 32 40 56 80
12 133 259 395 112
546 717 8 16 24 32
+121 +126 +136 21. Answer: A
+151 +171 378 405 430 773
+5 +10 +15 854 2185
+20 27 25 343 81
16) Answer: B 1331
Given series is 33 52 73 92
580 517 452 385 113
316 245 22. Answer: E
-63 -65 -67 -69 14*2+42= 44
-71 44*2+43= 152
Successive prime number 152*2+42 = 320
17) Answer: A 320*2+43 = 704
60 120 360 1800 704*2+42 = 1424
12600 23. Answer: C
×2 ×3 ×5 ×7 64 16 20 45
18) Answer: A 146.25 621.5625
Given series is *0.25 *1.25 *2.25 *3.25
4 27 16 125 36 343 64 *4.25
22 33 42 53 62 73 82 24) Answer: D
19. Answer: B 3 + 61 = 9
2800 1400 4200 2100 9+ 62 = 45
6300 3150 45 + 63 = 261
÷2 *3 ÷2 *3 261+ 64 = 1557
÷2 1557 + 65 = 9333
Page 559 of 1079


12 +(4*2)= 20 24*0.75= 18
20 +(4*4)= 36 18*1.75= 31.5
36 +(4*6)= 60 31.5*2.75= 86.625
60+(4*8)= 92 86.625 *3.75= 324.84
92 +(4*10)= 132 324.84 * 4.75 = 1543
50 +12= 62 82 + 13 = 95
62 +24= 86 95 + 26 = 121
86 +48= 134 121 + 52 = 173
134 +96= 230 173 + 104 = 277
230 +192= 422 277 + 208 = 485
27) Answer: B 32) Answer: D
11+(2*3)=17 21 + 12 * 2 = 45
17+(4*5)=37 45 + 18 * 4 = 117
37+(6*7)=79 117 + 24 * 6 = 261
79+(8*9)=151 261 + 30 * 8 = 501
151+(10*11)=261 501 + 36 * 10 = 861
28) Answer: A 33) Answer: E
11 + 72 = 60 24 49 99 179 294 449
60 + 73 = 403 25 50 80 115 155
403 + 72 = 452 25 30 35 40
452 + 73 = 795 34) Answer: A
795 + 72 = 844 200 * 1.5 = 300
29) Answer: D 300 * 3.5 = 1050
98+22=102 1050 * 5.5 = 5775
102 – 43 = 38 5775 * 7.5 = 43312.5
38 + 62 = 74 35) Answer: C
74 – 83 = -438 30 + 11 + 4 = 35
-438 + 102 = -338 35 + 22 + 8 = 47
Page 560 of 1079

47 + 33 + 12 = 86 10³ - 5 = 995
86 + 44 + 16 = 358 8³ - 7 = 505
358 + 55 + 20 = 3503 6³ - 9 = 207
36) Answer: D 4³ - 11 = 53
65 + (45 * 3) + 0= 200 2³ - 13 = 5
200 + (45 * 6) + 1 = 471 41) Answer: D
471 + (45 * 9) + 2 = 878 Given series is
878 + (45 * 12) + 3 = 1421 41 77 221 545 1121
1421 + (45 * 15) + 4 = 2100 2021
37) Answer: A 36 144 324 576
3² + 5 = 14 900
5² + 5 = 30 62 122 182 242
7² + 5 = 54 302
9² + 5 = 86 42) Answer: C
11² + 5 = 126 14 + (8*7) = 70
13² + 5 = 174 70+ (16*7) = 182
38) Answer: E 182+ (24*7) = 350
7 x 1 + 1.5 =8.5 350 + (32*7) = 574
8.5 x 2 + 2.5 = 19.5 574 + (40*7) = 854
19.5 x 3+ 3.5 =62 43) Answer: D
62 x 4 + 4.5 = 252.5 162 + (3*11) =195
252.5 x 5 +5.5 =1268 195 + (5*9) = 240
39) Answer: B 240 + (7*7) = 289
90 x 2 =180 289 + (9*5) = 334
180/4 = 45 334 + (11*3) = 367
45 x 6 = 270 44) Answer: B
270/8 = 33.75 1700 + 200 = 1900
33.75 x 10 = 337 1900 + 100 = 2000
40) Answer: C 2000 + 50 = 2050
12³ - 3 = 1725 2050 + 25 = 2075
Page 561 of 1079

2075 + 12.5 = 2087.5 280 285 293 305 320

45) Answer: C 339
Given series is, 5 8 12 15
53760 26880 6720 1120 140 19
14 3 4 3
÷2 ÷4 ÷6 ÷8 4
÷10 49) Answer: C
46) Answer: A 2*2+2=6
30 31 54 59 86 6 * 4 + 4 = 28
95 28 * 6 + 6 = 174
52+5 62-5 72+5 82-5 92+5 102-5 174 * 8 + 8 = 1400
47) Answer: D 1400 * 10 + 10 = 14010
8 + 11 - 2 = 7 50) Answer: B
7 + 22 - 2 = 9 36 * 0.25 = 9
9 + 3³ - 2 = 34 9 * 1.25 = 11.25
34 + 44 - 2 = 288 11.25 * 2.25 = 25.31
288+ 55 - 2 = 3411 25.31 * 3.25 = 82.26
48) Answer: E 82.26 4.25 = 349.628
Table DI
Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
The following table shows the total number of crops (In quintal) produced by 5 different farmers in a certain year.
Page 562 of 1079

1) The total crops produced by Rakesh are B.156

approximately what percentage of total crops C.118
produced by Abinav? D.192
A.85 % E.None of these
B.72 % 4) Find the ratio between total mustard produced to
C.97 % that of total wheat produced by all the farmers?
D.58 % A.185 : 113
E.115 % B.397 : 284
2) Find the average crops produced by Ravi? C.229 : 175
A.574 D.52 : 17
B.612 E.None of these
C.656 5) Which farmer produced third lowest number of
D.738 crops?
E.None of these A.Ravi
3) Find the difference between the average of Rye B.Manoj
produced to that of Oats produced by all the given C.Rakesh
farmers together? D.Abinav
A.234 E.Naveen
The given table shows the number of employee works in five different companies and the ratio of the employees of
two different departments-IT and HR.
6) 60% of employees in IT department are female in A A. Find the total number of female employees in
and 40% of employees in HR departmentare male in company A.
Page 563 of 1079

A.1800 C.2600
B.1500 D.2700
C.2000 E.None of these
D.2400 9) The number of employees in IT department in
E.None of these company C and D together is approximately what
7) What is the difference between the total number of percent of the number of employees in HR department
employees in IT department in all the companies in company B and E together?
together and the total number of employees in HR A.224%
departments in all the companies together? B.113%
A.400 C.87%
B.500 D.90%
C.600 E.None of these
D.300 10) The total number of IT department employees in
E.None of these all the companies together is approximately what
8) If the ratio of the number of male to female percent of the total employees of all the companies
employees in all the companies together is 3:2, then together?
what is the difference between the total number of A. 52%
male and female employees in all the companies B. 48%
together? C. 44%
A.2400 D. 56%
The given table shows the marks scored by 5 studentsin 5 different subjects.
Page 564 of 1079

11) What is the difference between the total marks C.16:15

scored by Shon and Esai in all the subjects together? D.18:13
A.60 E.None of these
B.80 14) Total marks scored in Chemistry by all the
C.70 students together is approximately what percent more
D.90 than that of the total marks scored by Arul in all the
E.None of these subjects together?
12) What is the sum of the average of the marks scored A.25%
in English by all the students together and the average B.27%
of the marks scored in Hindi by all the students C.29%
together? D.31%
B.115 15) What is the difference between the average marks
C.120 scored by Divya and Bharathi in all the subjects
D.125 together?
E.None of these A.4
13) What is the ratio of the total marks scored in Maths B.10
by all the students together to the total marks scored C.8
in Physics by all the students together? D.2
A.15:13 E.None of these
B.17:11
Page 565 of 1079

The given table shows the number of employees in four different companies and the percentage of male, ratio of the
male to female employees in IT department. The companies have two different departments IT and HR.
16) What is the average number of male employees in C.53%

all the companies together? D.77%
A.1200 E.63%
B.1400 19) What is the difference between the male to female
C.1500 employees in HR department in all the companies
D.1300 together?
E.1100 A.1460
17) What is the ratio of the total number of male to B.1680
female in HR department employees in D? C.1720
A.4:3 D.Cannot be determine
B.6:1 E.None of these
C.7:2 20) What is the average number of female employees
D.8:3 in IT department in all the companies together?
E.None of these A.440
18) The number of male employees in IT department B.470
in C is approximately what percent of the total number C.460
of employees in HR department in D? D.480
A.43% E.None of these
B.50%
Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Page 566 of 1079
Following table shows the rate of different types of Pizza.
21) Find the ratio between the average prices of all A.68.47% more
type of regular size pizza to the average price of Veg B. 41.67% less
extravaganza all the size together? C.41.67% more
A.49: 111 D.25.6% more
B.7: 37 E.45.8% less
C.49: 81 24) Find the ratio between the average price of Spicy
D.51: 29 chicken and Margherita?
E.22: 111 A. 5: 7
22) If the rate of regular size double cheese Margherita B. 8: 5
and Peepy Paneer is increased by 10% and 20% C. 7: 13
respectively, find the total rate of these pizzas is what D. 12: 7
percentage of the price of large size Meatzaa? E.13: 9
A.68.2% 25) Find the sum of average price of all the pizzas?
B.58.4% A. 1678.26
C.25.6% B.1880.25
D. 38.5% C.1900.56
E.96.5% D. 1933.54
23) Average price of medium size Peppy Paneer and E.1866.67
veg extravaganza is what percentage more/less than
the price of regular size Meatzaa?
Following table shows the information about the employees who attended a function conducted by the company P.
Page 567 of 1079

26) Find the total number of non vegetarian employees B.36.85%

who attended the function? C. 42.92%
A. 7647 D.26.45%
B.7548 E.54.85%
C.7691 29) The ratio of male and female who like non – veg is
D.8759 2: 7 and 3: 4 in Production and Admin department
E.7892 respectively. Find the difference between the male and
27) Find the difference between the employees who female non – veg eaters in those departments?
attend the function from Production and Marketing A. 985
department together and the non – vegetarians from B.456
HR and Admin department together? C.520
A. 964 D.615
B. 998 E.632
C. 987 30) What is the ratio of employees who likes non – veg
D. 1258 in R & D and Marketing department?
E. 1126 A. 256: 257
28) Total number of vegetarian all the department B.447: 449
together is what percentage of number of employees in C. 557: 559
HR department? D. 637: 639
A. 56.4% E. 539: 830
Directions (31-35):Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given table shows the number of four different newspapers sales in five different cities.
Page 568 of 1079

31) What is the ratio of the numbers of The Hindu B.332

newspaper sold in Chennai, Kolkata and Delhi C.334
together to the number of Indian Express sold in D.336
Bangalore, Delhi and Mumbai together? E.338
A.79: 39 34) Which of the following newspaper is sold in
B.81: 40 minimum?
C.43: 17 A.Hindustan Times
D.83: 41 B.Times of India
E.None of these C.The Hindu
32) The total number of newspaper sold in Bangalore D.Indian Express
is approximately what percent more than that of the E.None of these
total number of newspaper sold in Mumbai? 35) What is the difference between the total number of
A.40% newspaper sold in Kolkata and Chennai in all the
B.43% newspaper together?
C.37% A.200
D.33% B.160
E.47% C.150
33) What is the average number of Hindustan Times D.100
sold in all the cities together? E.250
A.330
Directions (36-40):Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Page 569 of 1079

36) Find the difference between the total no of male to A.135 : 247
that of total no of female who are all learning B.148 : 255
Kuchipudi dance? C.151 : 309
A.110 D.218 : 329
C.136 39) Total no of students enrolled in School C and D
D.63 together is approximately what percentage of total no
E.None of these of students enrolled in School A and B together?
37) Total no of enrolled students who are all learning A.96 %
Kuchipudi dance in School B and C together is B.114 %
approximately what percentage more/less than the C.88 %
total no ofenrolled students who are all learning D.72 %
Kuchipudi dance in school D? E.90%
A.12 % more 40) Find the average no of enrolled students who are
B.6 % more all learning other than Kuchipudi dance in School A,
C.6 % less C and E?
D.12 % less A.356
E.None of these B.298
38) Find the ratio between the total no of students C.224
learning Kuchipudi in School A and B together to that D.382
of total no of students learning Kuchipudi in School D E.None of these
and E together?
Page 570 of 1079
Four students appeared in an examination having 200 questions. The table given below shows the percentage of
questions answered out of the total number of questions by each of the four students. It also shows the ratio of the
number of correct answers to the number of incorrect answers.
Note: For each correct answer the student is given 1 mark and for every incorrect answer 0.25 marks are deducted. No
marks are deducted for un - attempted questions.
41) Number of incorrect answers marked by Nikas is 43) What is the ratio of correct answers marked by
what percentage More/less than the number of Amit to the wrong answers marked by Nikas?
incorrect answers marked by Akash? A.2: 15
A.20% More B.3: 16
B.30% More C.15: 2
C.40% Less D.3: 2
D.20% Less E.4: 5
E.None of these 44) Who scored the 2nd highest marks?
42) What is the difference between the marks scored A.Amit
by Vikas and Akash? B.Nikas
A.20 C.Vikas
B.30 D.Akash and Amit
C.35 E.Akash
D.15 45) What is the score obtained by Amit?
E.25 A.110.25
B.120
Page 571 of 1079
C.125.75 E.105.75
D.107.50
Directions (46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
The following table shows the total number of articles sold by 5 different shops in 4 different days of a week.
46) Find the ratio between the total number of articles number of articles sold by shop B and C together on
sold by shop A on Monday and Tuesday together to Tuesday?
that of total number of articles sold by shop E on A.136 %
Wednesday and Thursday together? B.108 %
A.20: 23 C.152 %
B.11: 15 D.90 %
C.27: 31 E.None of these
D.33: 37 49) Find the difference between the total number of
E.None of these articles sold by shop B to that of shop D on all the given
47) Find the total number of articles sold by shop F on days together?
Monday, if the total number of articles sold by shop F A.100
on Monday is 25 % more than the average number of B.150
articles sold by shop C on all the given days together? C.50
A.190 D.200
C.230 50) Total number of articles sold by shop A, C and E
D.175 together on Wednesday is approximately what
E.None of these percentage less than total number of articles sold by
48) Total number of articles sold by shop A and B the same shops on Thursday?
together on Monday is what percentage of total A.25 %
Page 572 of 1079

B.3 % D.34 %
C.12 % E.40 %
Table DI - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: C 5) Answer: A
The total crops produced by Rakesh Total number of crops produced by Rakesh
= > 640 + 920 + 340 + 900 + 300 = 3100 = > 640 + 920 + 340 + 900 + 300 = 3100
The total crops produced by Abinav Total number of crops produced by Manoj
= > 200 + 1050 + 280 + 840 + 820 = 3190 = > 480 + 580 + 180 + 600 + 440 = 2280
Required % = (3100/3190)*100 = 97 % Total number of crops produced by Ravi
2) Answer: A = > 750 + 660 + 250 + 560 + 650 = 2870
The average crops produced by Ravi Total number of crops produced by Abinav
= > (750 + 660 + 250 + 560 + 650)/5 = > 200 + 1050 + 280 + 840 + 820 = 3190
= > 2870/5 = 574 Total number of crops produced by Naveen
3) Answer: D = > 260 + 760 + 320 + 720 + 630 = 2690
The average of Rye produced by all the given farmers Ravi has produced third lowest number of crops.
together Directions (6-10):
= > (640 + 480 + 750 + 200 + 260)/5
= > 2330/5
The average of Oats produced by all the given farmers
together
= > (340 + 180 + 250 + 280 + 320)/5
= > 1370/5
Required difference = (2330/5) – (1370/5)
= > 960/5 = 192 6) Answer: A
4) Answer: B Female employees in IT department=60/100 * 1400=840
Total mustard produced by all the farmers Female employees in HR department=1600 * 60/100=960
= > 920 + 580 + 660 + 1050 + 760 = 3970 Total number of female employees in A=840 + 960=1800
Total wheat produced by all the farmers 7) Answer: B
= > 300 + 440 + 650 + 820 + 630 = 2840 Total employees in IT department=1400 + 1500 + 2000 +
Required ratio = 3970 : 2840 = 397 : 284 500 + 1600=7000
Page 573 of 1079

Total employees in HR department=1600 + 1000 + 1200 Total marks scored by Esai=(60 + 20 + 30 + 20 + 90)=220
+ 1500 + 1200=6500 Required Difference=300 – 220=80
Required Difference=7000 – 6500=500 12) Answer: C
8) Answer: D Average in English=(70 + 90 + 40 + 60 + 20)/5=56
Male employee in A=3000 * 3/5=1800 Average in Hindi=(20 + 70 + 80 + 60 + 90)/5=64
Female employees in A=3000 * 2/5=1200 Required Sum=56 + 64=120
Male employee in B=2500 * 3/5=1500 13) Answer: B
Female employees in B=2500 * 2/5=1000 Total Marks in Maths=90 + 80 + 70 + 40 + 60=340
Male employee in C=3200 * 3/5=1920 Physics=0 + 40 + 60 + 90 + 30=220
Female employees in C=3200 * 2/5=1280 Required ratio=340:220
Male employee in D=2000 * 3/5=1200 =17:11
Female employees in D=2000 * 2/5=800 14) Answer: C
Male employee in E=2800 * 3/5=1680 Total marks in Chemistry=25 + 80 + 50 + 90 + 20=265
Female employees in E=2800 * 2/5=1120 Total marks scored by Arul=90 + 25 + 0 + 70 + 20=205
Total number of male employees =1800 + 1500 + 1920 + Required percentage= [(265 – 205)/205] * 100=29%
1200 + 1680=8100 15) Answer: A
Total number of female employees =1200 + 1000 + 1280 Total marks scored by Divya=(40 + 90 + 90 + 60 +
+ 800 + 1120=5400 60)/5=68
Required Difference=8100 – 5400=2700 Total marks scored by Bharathi=(80 + 80 + 40 + 90 +
9) Answer: B 70)/5=72
Required percentage=(2000 + 500)/(1000 + 1200) * 100 Required Difference=72 – 68=4
=114% Directions (16-20):
10) Answer: A
Total employees in IT department=1400 + 1500 + 2000 +
500 + 1600=7000
Total number of employees=3000 + 2500 + 3200 + 2000
+ 2800=13500
Required percentage= [(7000/13500)] * 100=52%
16) Answer: C
11) Answer: B
Average=(1200 + 1800 + 900 + 2100)/4
Total marks scored by Shon=(70 + 50 + 60 + 40 + 80)=300
=1500
Page 574 of 1079

HR male in D=2100 – 900=1200 Average price of medium size Peppy Paneer and veg
HR female in D=700 – 500=200 extravaganza
Required ratio=1200: 200 = (315 + 365)/2 = 340
= 6:1 Required percentage = [(340 – 240)/240] * 100 = 41.67%
18) Answer: A more
Required percentage=600/1400 * 100=42.85%~ 43% 24) Answer: D
19) Answer: B Required ratio = [(170 + 315 + 475)/3]: [(75 + 170 +
Total male employees=1200 + 1800 + 900 + 2100=6000 315)/3]
Total female employees=800 + 600 + 900 + 700=3000 = 12: 7
IT department male employees=800 + 900 + 600 + 25) Answer: E
900=3200 Average price of,
IT department female employees=600 + 300 + 480 + Margherita = (75 + 170 + 315)/3 = 186.67
500=1880 Double cheese Margherita = (120 + 255 + 410)/3 = 261.67
HR department male employees=6000 – 3200=2800 Peppy Paneer = (170 + 315 + 475)/3 = 320
HR department female employees=3000 – 1880=1120 Veg extravaganza = (205 + 365 + 540)/3 = 370
Difference=2800 – 1120=1680 Spicy chicken = (170 + 315 + 475)/3 = 320
20) Answer: B Meatzaa = (240 + 410 + 575)/3 = 408.33
Average = (600 + 300 + 480 + 500)/4=470 Required sum =
21) Answer: A 186.67 + 261.67 + 320 + 370 + 320 + 408.33 = 1866.67
Required ratio Directions (26-30):
= [(75 + 120 + 170 + 205 + 170 + 240)/6]: [(205 + 365 In production department,
+540)/3] Attended = 1200 – 108 = 1092
= 49: 111 Veg = 1092 * 25/100 = 273
22) Answer: B Non – veg = 1092 – 273 = 819
Rate of regular size double cheese Margherita = 120 In R & D,
After 10% increase = 120/100 *110 = 132 Attended = 1600 – 200 = 1400
Rate of regular size Peepy Paneer = 170 Veg = 1400 * 23/100 = 322
After 20% increase = 170/100 * 120 = 204 Non – veg = 1400 – 322 = 1078
Required % = [(132 + 204)/575] * 100 = 58.4% In Marketing,
Page 575 of 1079

Attended = 2400 – 400 = 2000 Required difference = (637 + 640) – (182 + 480) = 615
Veg = 2000 * 17/100 = 340 30) Answer: E
Non – veg = 2000 – 340 = 1660 Required ratio = 1078: 1660 = 539: 830
In HR, 31) Answer: D
Attended = 3600 – 300 = 3300 The Hindu in Chennai, Kolkata and Delhi = 480 + 530 +
Veg = 3300 * 10/100 = 330 650 = 1660
Non – veg = 3300 – 330 = 2970 Indian Express in Bangalore, Delhi and Mumbai = 190 +
In Admin, 250 + 380 = 820
Attended = 1500 – 100 = 1400 Required ratio = 1660: 820
Veg = 1400 * 20/100 = 280 =83: 41
Non – veg = 1400 – 280 = 1120 32) Answer: B
26) Answer: A Total number of newspaper sold in Bangalore = 720 + 640
Required average = (819 + 1078 + 1660 + 2970 + 1120) + 190 + 310 = 1860
= 7647 Total number of newspaper sold in Mumbai = 320 + 450
27) Answer: B + 380 + 150 = 1300
Required difference = (2970 + 1120) - (1092 + 2000) = Required percentage = (1860 – 1300)/1300 * 100 = 43%
998 33) Answer: B
28) Answer: C Total number of Hindustan Times = 260 + 310 + 280 +
Total number of vegetarian all the department together 150 + 660 = 1660
= 273 + 322 +340 + 330 + 280 = 1545 Average = 1660/5 =332
Required percentage = 1545/3600 * 100 = 42.92% 34) Answer: D
29) Answer: D Total number of sales in Hindustan Times = 260 + 310 +
In Production, 280 + 150 + 660 = 1660
Non - veg = 819 Total number of sales in Indian express = 540 + 190 + 250
Males = 819/9 * 2 = 182 + 380 + 140 = 1500
Females = 819/9 * 7 = 637 Total number of sales in Times of India = 220 + 640 + 520
In Admin, + 450 + 270 = 2100
Non - veg = 1120 Total number of sales in The Hindu = 480 + 720 + 650 +
Males = 1120/7 * 3 = 480 320 + 530 = 2700
Females = 1120/7 * 4 = 640 The Indian Express sold in minimum.
Page 576 of 1079

35) Answer: D Required % = [(441 – 414)/441]*100 = (27/441)*100 =

Number of newspaper sold in Kolkata = 530 + 270 + 140 6.12 % = 6 % less
+ 660 = 1600 38) Answer: B
Number of newspaper sold in Chennai = 480 + 220 + 540 The total no of students learning Kuchipudi in School A
+ 260 = 1500 and B together
Difference = 1600 – 1500 = 100 = > 560*(45/100) + 480*(40/100)
36) Answer:D = > 252 + 192 = 444
The total no of male who are all learning Kuchipudi dance The total no of students learning Kuchipudi in School D
= > 560*(45/100)*(1/3) + 480*(40/100)*(3/8) + and E together
370*(60/100)*(2/3) + 630*(70/100)*(5/9) + = > 630*(70/100) + 540*(60/100)
540*(60/100)*(5/12) = > 441 + 324 = 765
= > 84 + 72 + 148 + 245 + 135 Required ratio = 444: 765 = 148: 255
= > 684 39) Answer:A
The total no of female who are all learning Kuchipudi Total no of students enrolled in School C and D together
dance = > 370 + 630 = 1000
= > 560*(45/100)*(2/3) + 480*(40/100)*(5/8) + Total no of students enrolled in School A and B together
370*(60/100)*(1/3) + 630*(70/100)*(4/9) + = > 560 + 480 = 1040
540*(60/100)*(7/12) Required % = (1000/1040)*100 = 96.15 % = 96 %
= > 168 + 120 + 74+ 196 + 189 40) Answer:C
= >747 The average no of enrolled students who are all learning
Required difference = 747 – 684 = 63 other than Kuchipudi dance in School A, C and E
37) Answer:C = > [560*(55/100) + 370*(40/100) + 540*(40/100)]/3
Total no of enrolled students who are all learning = > (308 + 148 + 216)/3
Kuchipudi dance in School B and C together = > 672/3 = 224
= > 480*(40/100) + 370*(60/100) Directions (41-45):
= > 192 + 222 = 414
Total no of enrolled students who are all learning
Kuchipudi dance in School D
= > 630*(70/100)
= > 441
Page 577 of 1079

The total number of articles sold by shop A on Monday

and Tuesday together
= > 120 + 80 = 200
The total number of articles sold by shop E on Wednesday
and Thursday together
= > 120 + 110 = 230
Required ratio = 200: 230 = 20: 23
47) Answer: D
41) Answer: D
The total number of articles sold by shop F on Monday
Number of incorrect answers marked by Nikas = 16
= >[(180 + 140 + 100 + 140)/4]*(125/100)
the number of incorrect answers marked by Akash = 20
= >(560/4)*(5/4) = 175
Required percentage = (20-16) / 20 * 100
48) Answer: B
= 20 % Less
Total number of articles sold by shop A and B together on
42) Answer: A
Monday
Marks scored by Vikas = 85
= >120 + 150 = 270
Marks scored by Akash = 105
Total number of articles sold by shop B and C together on
Difference = 20
Tuesday
43) Answer: C
= >110 + 140 = 250
Correct answers marked by Amit = 120
Required % = (270/250)*100 = 108 %
Wrong answers marked by Nikas = 16
49) Answer: A
Ratio = 120/16 = 15: 2
The total number of articles sold by shop B on all the given
44) Answer: A
days together
Mark of,
= >150 + 110 + 160 + 130 = 550
Amit = 107.5
The total number of articles sold by shop D on all the
Akash = 105
given days together
Vikas = 85
= >90 + 170 + 90 + 100 = 450
Nikas = 120
Required difference = 550 – 450 = 100
Amit has 2nd highest mark.
50) Answer: C
45) Answer: D
Total number of articles sold by shop A, C and E together
Amit’s score = 120 – (0.25 * 50) = 107.50
on Wednesday
46) Answer: A
Page 578 of 1079
= > 140 + 100 + 120 = 360 = > 160 + 140 + 110 = 410
Total number of articles sold by shop A, C and E together Required % = [(410 – 360)/410]*100 = 12 %
on Thursday
Pie DI
Direction (1-5) Study the following graph carefully and answer the question.
Bar graph given below show the percentage distribution of laptops sold by five sellers. Total laptop sold by all the five
sellers is 4800.
E, 10%
D, 15% A, 37.50%
C, 25%
B, 12.50%
1. Laptop sold by sellers E and D together makes how e.1456

much central angle of the total? 3. Out of the total laptops sold by seller C, 30% is HP
a.120° laptop and rest is Dell laptops. Than what is the
b.30° difference between number of HP laptop sold by
c.60° sellers C and the total numbers of laptops sold by E?
d.45° a.142
e.90° b.160
2. Find the average numbers of laptops sold by sellers c.120
A, B, and D? d.125
a.1120 e.252
b.2520 4. Find the ratio of laptops sold by C and D to the
c.3220 laptops sold by A, B and E?
d.1040 a.1:2
Page 579 of 1079

b.2:3 a.600
c.2:5 b.230
d.5:7 c.420
e.5:4 d.360
5. Laptop sold by ‘D’ and ‘E’ together is how much e.850
more than laptop sold by ‘B’ and ‘C’ together?
Pie chart shows the distributions of total teacher of a college in different branch.
Total teacher of the college is 600.
Computer
18%
IT
12%
Civil
Mechanical
15%
30%
Electrical
25%
6. Numbers of teachers doing PhD from IT and Civil b.150

branch are 25% and 20% respectively of their c.165
respective branch. Then find the total numbers of d.120
teacher doing PhD from IT and Civil? e.124
a.25 8. What is the difference between the number of
b.10 teacher in mechanical branch and electrical branch?
c.12 a.20
d.15 b.45
e.36 c.30
7. In mechanical branch ratio of male and female d.56
teacher 3:2 and in computer branch ratio of male and e.80
female teacher is 5:4. Then find the total number 9. Total number of teacher in Civil and Electrical
female teacher in this two branch? together is what percent of the total number of teacher
a.94 in Computer and IT together?
Page 580 of 1079

a.145% a.4:3
b.133.333% b.2:1
c.33.33% c.5:5
d.14% d.3:4
e.145% e.1:1
10. Find the ratio between the total number of teacher
in electrical and civil branch together and the number
of teacher in mechanical branch?
Given below pie chart (1) shows the distribution of total number of candidates appear in the interview for four different
level of post i.e. Group A , Group B , Group C, and Group D. Pie chart (2) shows the distribution of number candidates
selected after interview in respective post.
Total number of candidates

appeared in the
interview =12000
20%
Group A
25% Group B
15% Group C
40%
Group D
Page 581 of 1079

Total number of candidates

selected after interview
=4000
Group A
25% 25%
Group B
15% Group C
35% Group D
11. Total number of candidates appeared for group A c.1133

and Group B post together is what percentage of the d.1252
number of candidates selected for Group C posts? e.1425
a.240 14. Find the ratio of the candidates appeared for
b.250 Group A post and the candidates selected for Group B
c.200 posts?
d.213 a.2:2
e.300 b.4:1
12. Number of candidates selected in interview for c.2:3
group D post is what percent of total number of d.5:4
candidates appeared in interview for group D post? e.3:4
a.27.33 15. What is the difference between the number of
b.12 candidates selected for Group D post and the number
c.56 of candidates appeared for Group A post?
d.33.33 a.1400
e.23 b.1202
13. Find the average (approx) number of candidates c.1450
selected for Group A, Group C and Group D posts? d.1230
a.1220 e.250
b.1852
Page 582 of 1079

Pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total number of people support different IPL team of a colony.
Total number of people in the colony is 3200
Percentage of supporter
MI CSK DC SRH RCB
20% 25%
15%
30%
10%
16.Find the difference of total supporter of DC and b.132°

RCB together to the supporter of CSK in the colony? c.144°
a.6 d.165°
b.9 e.182°
c.5 19. Total supporter of CSK and RCB together in the
d.2 colony is what percent of total supporter SRH and MI
e.0 together in the city?
17. Ratio of male and female supporter of MI is 3:2 and a.16.66
ratio of male and female supporter of SRH is 2:1. Then b.11.11
find total number of female supporter of MI and SRH c.25.12
in the colony? d.12.54
a.128 e.19
b.124 20. Find the difference between the total supporter of
c.136 MI and CSK together to the total supporter of SRH
d.480 and DC?
e.122 a.960
18. Find the central angle of total supporter of CSK b.920
and DC? c.520
a.148° d.695
Page 583 of 1079
e.213
Percentage distribution of students in different courses
Total students = 4000
Percentage distribution of
students
M.Sc M.tech MBA MBBS M.A
18%
36%
12%
10%
24%
21. What is the respective ratio between the number of d.225

students in MBA and the number of students in e.250
MBBS? 23. Find the average number of students of the course
a.2:3 M.sc, MBA, and MBBS?
b.2;1 a.452
c.2:5 b.436
d.8:7 c.773
e.5:6 d.269
22. Total number students in M.sc and M.A course e.362
together are approximately what percentage of total 24. What is the difference between the number of
student in M. tech? student in MBA and MBBS?
a.216 a.45
b.325 b.80
c.265 c.25
Page 584 of 1079
d.89 b.695
e.75 c.852
25. Out of the total students in M. tech course 40% is d.636
girls then find the number of boys in M. tech course? e.477
a.576
Pie charts shows that the percentage distribution of mobile sold by shop A and shop B of different companies. Total
mobile sold by shop A and shop B is 480 and 400 respectively.
Shop A
Samsung Nokia MI OnePlus
25% 30%
10%
35%
Shop B
Samsung Nokia MI OnePlus
20%
30%
33% 17%
26. Find the ratio between the number of Samsung a.2:3

mobile sold by shop A and number of OnePlus mobile b.2;1
sold by shop B? c.2:5
Page 585 of 1079

d.7:2 d.32
e.9:5 e.41
27. Nokia mobile sold by shop A is what percent of MI 29.Find the average number of Samsung, Nokia, and
mobile sold by shop B? MI mobile sold by shop A?
a.26.6 a.125
b.23.69 b.120
c.20.12 c.412
d.36.36 d.525
e.12.8 e.362
28. What is the difference between the total numbers 30. What is the total MI and Nokia mobile sold by both
of Samsung and Oneplus mobile sold by shop A and shop together?
the total number numbers of MI and Nokia mobile a.416
sold by shop B? b.452
a.63 c.362
b.85 d.525
c.64 e.123
Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of student in six different college
Total number of student is 7500
12% A
20%
B
18% C
15% D
E
25% 10%
F
31. Out of the total student at college A, 40% is girls a.4500

and in college B 60% is girls. Then find the total b.2300
number of girls student in this two college? c.1600
Page 586 of 1079

d.1300 e.26
e.1275 34. Total student of college A is what percent more or
32.What is approximate average number of students less than total number of students in college F?
in college C, D, and E together? a.40
a.1442 b.66.66
b.4521 c.33.33
c.1230 d.25
d.1325 e.20
e.1500 35. Find the difference between the total number of
33. Number of students in college F is what percentage student of college B and D together and the total
of the total number of students in college B and C number of student of college C and E together?
together? a.900
a.45 b.2023
b.36 c.450
c.48 d.652
d.56 e.253
A person win Rs 1600 from five different app .Pie charts shows the percentage distribution of amount win from different
app.
Gamezy Dream11 MPL Rummy Winzo
11%
22%
13%
20%
34%
36. Total amount win in Gamezy is approximately b.154

what per cent of the total amount win in MPL? c.132
a.163 d.142
Page 587 of 1079
e.110 39. The amount of win in MPL is approximately what

37. What is the difference between the amount win in per cent of the total amount win in Rummy and Winzo
Dream11 and the total amount win in Winzo and together?
Rummy together? a.33.33
a.162 b.83.33
b.140 c.56
c.120 d.32
d.160 e. 42
e.186 40. Total amount win in Dream11 is what percentage
38. What is the ratio of the total amount win in more than the total amount win in MPL?
Gamezy to the total amount win in Dream11? a.70
a.2:3 b.48
b.2;1 c.52
c.11:17 d.45
d.2:5 e.65
e.5:6
Percentage of students enrolls different games of school. Total number of student is 4800
Football Cricket Basketball Kabaddi Vollyball
18%
32%
13%
12%
25%
41. The number of students enroll in football is a.120

approximately what per cent of the total number of b.185.2
students enroll in volleyball and Kabaddi together? c.142.36
Page 588 of 1079

d.122 e.1020
e.103.22 44. Find the ratio between total students enroll in
42. If 25% of the students enroll in cricket are girls, football to the total student enroll in kabaddi and
what is the number of boys enroll in Cricket? cricket together?
a.302 a.2:3
b.500 b.16:19
c.420 c.11:17
d.900 d.2:5
e.600 e.5:6
43. What is difference between the total numbers of 45. Find the average of number of students enroll in
students enroll in football and cricket together and the cricket,basketball and Kabaddi together?
total number of students enroll in volleyball and a.800
basketball together? b.250
a.214 c.625
b.3620 d.260
c.1296 e.240
d.452
Percentage distribution of expenditure in different part in the month of May shows in pie charts (1) and for month of
July shows in Pie chart (2). In both month total expenditure is same i.e. 12000.
Chart 1
Rent Food Eletricity Education Internet
5%
20% 32%
18%
25%
Page 589 of 1079

Chart 2
Rent Food Eletricity Education Internet
14%
32%
12%
20%
22%
46. The total expenditure on electricity and education b.1402

in month of May is what percent of the total c.2820
expenditure on same thing in the month of July? d.3603
a.96 e.3636
b.45 49. Find ratio between the total expenditure on food
c.87 and education in July and the total expenditure on
d.55 internet and electricity in May?
e. 90 a.2:3
47. The expenditure on internet in month May is how b.34:23
much percent more or less than the expenditure on the c.11:17
education in the month of July by? d.2:5
a.66.33 e.5:6
b.33.33 50. Total expenditure on electricity and internet
c.25.33 increase how much more in July as compared to May?
d.58.33 a.1320
e.21.03 b.1420
48. Find the average expenditure on food in both the c.1303
month together? d.1420
a.2303 e.3203
Pie DI - Answers with Explanation

Page 590 of 1079
Solution (1-5) So seller B and C together (37.5%-25%) =12.5% more

Q1) Answer e laptop sold than seller D and E together.
Total laptop sold by sellers E and D 15% +10% =25% So seller B and C together sold 4800*12.5/100 = 600 more
We know that 100 % =360° laptop than D and E together.
So, 1% =360°/100 or, 25% =90° Solution (6-10)
Numbers of Laptop sold by seller E and D makes Q6) Answer e
90°centralangle. Total teacher in IT branch is 600*12/100 = 72
Q2) Answer d Out of the total teacher 25% is PhD holder, so total PhD
Total laptop (in percent) sold by A,B, and D is = holder in IT branch is 72*25/100 =18
37.50+12.50+15 =65% Total teacher in Civil branch is 600*15/100=90
So total numbers of laptop sold by these three sellers is Out of the total teacher 20% is PhD holder, so total PhD
=4800*65/100 =3120 holder in civil branch is
So the average number of laptop sold by these three seller =90*20/100 =18
is 3120/3 =1040 So total PhD holder these two branches is 18+18=36
Q3) Answer c Q7) Answer d
Total laptop sold by C is = 4800*25/100 =1200 Total teacher in mechanical branch is 600*30/100 =180
Hp laptop sold by C is = 1200*30/100 =360 Female teacher in mechanical branch is =180*2/5 =72
Total laptop sold by seller E is = 4800*10/100=480 Total teacher in computer branch is = 600*18/100 =108
So the required difference is 480-360=120 Female teacher in computer branch is =108*4/9 =48
Q4) Answer b So total female teacher these two branch is =72+48=120
Total laptop sold by seller C and D is = 25% +15% =40% Q8) Answer c
Total laptop sold by seller A,B and E is = 37.5+12.5+10% Difference of teacher (in percent) mechanical and
=60% electrical branch is = 30%-25% =5%
So the respective ratio is = So difference of teacher (in numbers) mechanical and
(4800*40/100):(4800*60/100) =2:3 electrical branch is
Q5) Answer a =600*5/100 =30
Total laptop (in percent) sold by seller D and E is = Q9) Answer b
(15%+10%)=25% Total teacher in civil and electrical branch is = 25%+15%
Total laptop (in percent) sold by seller B and C is = =40%
(12.5%+25%) =37.5% Total teacher in computer and IT is =18%+12% =30%
Page 591 of 1079

So required percentage = (40/30)*100 = 133.33% Total number of candidate appeared for Group A is
Q10) Answer a =12000*20/100 =2400
Total teacher (in percent) in electrical and civil is Total number of candidate selected for Group B is =
=25%+15%=40% 4000*15/100 =600
Total teacher in electrical and civil =600*40/100 =240 So respective ratio is = 2400:600 =4:1
Total teacher in mechanical =600*30/100=180 Q15) Answer a
So the respective ratio is 240:180 =4:3 Total number of candidate selected for Group D is =
Solution (11-15) 4000*25/100 =1000
Q11) Answer e Total number of candidate appeared for Group A is
Total candidates (in percent) appeared for Group A and =12000*20/100 =2400
Group B is = 20%+15% =35% So required difference is 2400-1000=1400
Total candidates appeared for Group A and Group B is = Solution (16-20)
12000*35/100 =4200 Q16) Answer e
Total candidates select for Group C is = 4000*35/100 Total supporter (in percent) of DC and RCB is 10%+20%
=1400 30%
So required percentage is =(4200/1400)*100 =300% Total supporter (in percent) of CSK is 30%
Q12) Answer d So the difference is 0.
Selected candidate for Group D is = 4000*25/100 =1000 Q17) Answer d
Appeared candidate for Group D is =12000*25/100 Total MI supporter is 3200*25/100 =800
=3000 Total female supporter of MI is 800*2/5 =320
So required percentage is (1000/3000)*100 =33.33% Total SRH supporter is 3200*15/100 =480
Q13) Answer c Total female supporter of SRH is 480*1/3 =160
Total candidate (in percent) selected for Group A, Group Total number of female supporter of MI and SRH in the
c and Group D is colony = 320+160 = 480
=25%+35%25% =85% Q18) Answer c
Total number of candidate selected for these group is = Total supporter of CSK and DC is 30%+10% =40%
4000*85/100 =3400 We know that 100% =360°
So required average is 3400/3 = 1133.33 ≅ 1133 So total central angle makes = (360°/100)*40 =144°
Q14) Answer b Q19) Answer b
Total supporter of CSK and RCB is 30%+20% =50%
Page 592 of 1079

Total supporter of RCB and MI is 20%+25% =45% Out of the total student 40% is girls
So required percentage is = (5/45)*100 = 11.11% So number of boys is 960*60/100=576
Q20) Answer a Solution (26-30)
Total supporter of MI and CSK is 25%+30% =55% Q26) Answer e
Total supporter of SRH and DC is 10%+15% =25% Total Samsung mobile sold by Shop A is
So the difference is 55%-25% =30% i.e. 3200*30/100 =480*30/100=144
=960 Total Oneplus mobile sold by Shop B is =400*20/100 =
Solution (21-25) 80
Q21) Answer e So respective ratio is 144:80 =9:5
Total MBA student is 4000*10/100 =400 Q27) Answer d
Total MBBS student is 4000*12/100=480 Total Nokia mobile sold by shop A is = 480*10/100 =48
So the respective ratio is 400:480 =5:6 Total MI mobile sold by shop B is =400*33/100 =132
Q22) Answer d So required percentage is =(48/132)*100 = 36.36%
Total M.sc and M.A student (in percent) is Q28) Answer c
=36%+18%=54% Total Samsung and Oneplus mobile (in percent) sold by
Total M.sc and M.A student is=4000*54/100 =2160 shop A is = 30%+25% = 55%
Total M.tech student is 4000*24/100 =960 Total Samsung and Oneplus mobile sold by shop A is
So required percentage is (2160/960)*100 =225% =480*55/100 =264
Q23) Answer c Total MI and Nokia mobile (in percent) sold by shop B is
Total student (in percent) in M.sc, MBA and MBBS is =17%+33% =50%
36%+10%+12% =58% Total MI and Nokia mobile sold by shop B is
Total student (in percent) in M.sc, MBA and MBBS is =400*50/100=200
=4000*58/100=2320 So the required difference is =264-200=64
So required average is 2320/3 =773 Q29) Answer b
Q24) Answer b Total Samsung, Nokia, and MI mobile sold by shop A is
Difference between MBBS and MBA student (in percent) =30%+10%+35%=75%
is 12%-10% =2% i.e. 480*75/100 =360
So required difference is =4000*2/100=80 So the average mobile sold by shop A is =360/3=120
Q25) Answer a Q30) Answer a
Total M.tech student is 4000*24/100 =960
Page 593 of 1079

Total MI and Nokia mobile sold shop A =35%+10%=45% Total number of student in college F is
i.e. 480*45/100 =216 =7500*12/100=900
Total MI and Nokia mobile sold shop B !"##$%### &##
So required percentage is = %##
× 100 = %## ∗
=33%+17%=50% i.e. 400*50/100 =200
100 = 66.66%
So total MI and Nokia mobile sold these two shop is
Q35) Answer a
=216+200=416
Total number of student (in percent) in B and D is
Solution (31-35)
=15%+25% =40%
Q31) Answer e
Total number of student (in percent) in C and E is =
Total number of student of college A is
10%+18%=28%
=7500*20/100=1500
So difference (in percent) =40%-28%=12%
Number of girls in college A is =1500*40/100=600
So difference is number is 7500*12/100=900
Total number of student in college B is
Solution (36-40)
=7500*15/100=1125
Q36) Answer e
Number of girls in college B is =1125*60/100=675
Total amount win in Gamezy is =1600*22/100 =352
So total number of girls in college is = 600+675 =1275
Total amount win in MPL is = 1600*20/100 = 320
Q32) Answer d
So required percentage is =(352/320)*100=110%
Total number of students (in percent) in college C, D and
Q37) Answer d
E is =10%+25%+18%=53%
The person win in Dream11 is 34% and total win in Winzo
So total number of student in these college is
and Rummy is 24%
=7500*53/100=3975
So difference is 34%-24%=10%
So the required average is = 3975/3 = 1325
So difference in amount is =1600*10/100=160
Q33) Answer c
Q38) Answer c
Total number of students in college F is =12%
Person win in Gamezy is 22% and in Dream11 is 34%
Total number of students in college C and B is
So the required ratio is 22:34 =11:17
=10%+15%=25%
Q39) Answer b
So required percentage is =(12/25)*100=48
Amount win in MPL is 20% i.e. 1600*20/100=320
Q34) Answer b
Total amount win Rummy and Winzo is 13%+11%=24%
Total number of student in college A is
i.e. 1600*24/100 =384
=7500*20/100=1500
So required percentage is (320/384)*100=83.33%
Q40) Answer a
Page 594 of 1079

Person win in dream11 is =1600*34/100=544 Total number of student(in percent) enroll in cricket,
Person win in MPL is =1600*20/100=320 basketball and Kabaddi is =25%+12%+13% =50%
So required percentage is = {(544-320)/320}*100 = 70% Total number of student enroll in cricket, basketball and
Solution (41-45) Kabaddi is =4800*50/100=2400
Q41) Answer e So the average is 2400/3=800
Total student enroll in football is 32% i.e. 4800*32/100 Solution (46-50)
=1536 Q46) Answer e
Total student in enroll in volleyball and kabbadi is Expenditure on electricity in May =12000*18/100=2160
13%+18%=31% i.e. 4800*31/100 =1488 Expenditure on electricity in July =12000*20/100=2400
So required is (1536/1488)*100=103.22% So required percentage is =(2160/2400)*100=90%
Q42) Answer d Q47) Answer d
Total student enroll in cricket 4800*25/100=1200 Expenditure on internet in May =12000*5/100=600
25% is girls so number of boys enroll in cricket is Expenditure on education in July =12000*12/100=1440
1200*75/100 =900 So required ratio (1440-600/1440)*100=58.33%
Q43) Answer c Q48) Answer c
Total student enroll in football and cricket together is Total expenditure on food in both month is 25%22%=47%
32%+25%=57% i.e.12000*47/100=5640
Total student enroll in volleyball and basketball together So the average expenditure on food is =5640/2=2820
is 18%+12%=30% Q49) Answer b
So difference of student (in percent) =57%-30%=27% Expenditure on food and education in July is
So difference in number of student enroll football and =22%+12%=34%
cricket together to enroll in volleyball and basketball Expenditure on electricity and internet in May is
together is =4800*27/100 =1296 =18%+5%=23%
Q44) Answer b So the respective ratio is 34:23
Total students enroll in football is 32% Q50) Answer a
Total students enroll in cricket and kabbadi together is Total expenditure on electricity and internet in July is
25%+13%=38% =20%+14%=34% i.e.12000*34/100=4080
So respective ratio is 32:38 =16:19 Total expenditure on electricity and internet in May is
Q45) Answer a =18%+5%=23%i.e. 12000*23/100=2760
Page 595 of 1079

So expenditure on electricity and internet in July (4080-

2760) =1320 more than in May.
Line DI
Line graphs shows number of vacancies of two organizations over the year.
12000
9200
10000
9600 8600
8000
8400 7500
8000
6400
7000 6600 7500
6000 IBPS
SBI
4000
2000
0
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019
1. What was the average vacancy on SBI in all the year e.30%
together? 3. What was the difference between the vacancy of
a.4252 IBPS in 2017 and the vacancy of SBI in 2015?
b.8250 a.2000
c.4520 b.2400
d.5620 c.3200
e.7940 d.2018
2. What was the approximate percentage increase in e.4500
vacancy of IBPS from 2016 to 2017? 4. In which year total vacancy in both organizations
a.25% was highest?
b.20% a.2019
c.33.33% b.2017
d.37.14% c.2015
Page 596 of 1079

d.2016 a.141:144
e.2018 b.130:123
5. Find the ratio between the number of vacancy in c.163:211
IBPS in 2019 and 2018 together and vacancy in SBI in d.219:179
2015 and 2016 together? e.201:203
Direction (6-10) Study the graph carefully and answer the question.
Line graph shows the number of question attempt and correct attempt by five students in a exam.
80
72 75
70
67 65 70 62
60 56
53 59
50
52
40 Total attempt
30 Correct attempt
20
10
0
P Q R S T
6. If for each correct attempt one get 2 marks and for 8. Total number of question attempt by T and S
each wrong attempt 1 mark deduct then what is the together is what percent of the total correct attempt by
total marks of P? Q and S together?
a.32 a.215%
b.65 b.122%
c.72 c.101.4%
d.85 d.236%
e.92 e.125%
7. What is the average (approx) of total number of 9. Find the ratio between total number of question
question attempt by Q, R and S? attempt by R and S together and the total correct
a.62 attempt by S and T together?
b.52 a.141:144
c.74 b.131:129
d.68 c.163:211
e.50 d.219:179
Page 597 of 1079
e.201:203 c.86
10. What is the total wrong attempt by all the students? d.45
a.33 e.41
b.56
Direction (11-15) Study the graphs carefully and answer the question.
Line graphs show the cost price and selling price of different items in a shop.
800
750
700
640
600 620
560 520 540
500
400 480 440 Cost price
400
300 320 Selling price
200
100
0
M N O P Q
11. What is the overall profit or loss percentage by a.54%
selling items O and P? b.48%
a.5% c.74.66%
b.7% d.32.21%
c.8% e.52.33%
d.10% 14. Find the ratio of total cost price item M, P and Q
e.2.5% together and the selling price of N and O together?
12. Find the difference between the average selling a.2:3
price of items M , N, and Q together and the average b.85:44
cost price of same items? c.65:69
a.12 d.65:23
b.18 e.21:23
c.39 15. What is the overall profit by selling items M, N and
d.36.3 P?
e.23.3 a.19.28%
13. Cost price of item O is what percent of the selling b.21%
price of item M? c.20%
Page 598 of 1079
d.12% e.8%
Direction (16-20) Study the graphs carefully and answer the question.
Line graph shows the number of viewers in Star sports1 and Star sports2 during five IPL match.
Star sports1 Starsports2
40000
36000 38000
30000 32000
32000 30000 28000 24000
22000
1st match 2nd match 3rd match 4th match 5th match
16. Find the ratio between total viewers (both channel) b.102%
of 1st match and the total viewers of 2nd match? c.113.33%
a.2:3 d.152%
b.85:44 e.178%
c.65:69 19. Find the difference between total number of
d.65:23 viewers on starsports1 and starsports2 in all the
e.12:11 matchs together?
17. Viewers of 3rd match on starsports1 are what a.32000
percent less than the viewers of 5th match on b.20000
starsports1? c.78000
a.20% d.96000
b.25% e.41000
c.10% 20. Total 1st match viewers is what percent of total 5th
d.12.5% match viewers?
e.2% a.128.57%
18. Average number viewers on starsports1 in 1st and b.120%
3rd match together is what percent of total viewers on c.142%
starsports2 in 2nd match? d.148%
a.114% e.120.23%
Page 599 of 1079
Line graph shows number of total students and number of girls of five different classes.
Total number of student Number of Girls

150
94 98
92 86 82
100
64
44 48 50
50 36
0
A B D E F
21. Find the ratio between total number of boys in A c.92%

and B together and total number of girls in E and F d.87%
together? e.88%
a.21:23 24. Find the average numberof students in all the class
b.31:35 A, B and D together?
c.25:71 a.32
d.42:65 b.91
e.49:57 c.42
22. Find the difference between total boys in A, B, and d.80
D together and total girls in B, E and F together? e.36
a.12 25. What is the difference between total number of
b.19 boys and the total number of girls in all the classes
c.24 together?
d.6 a.32
e.20 b.42
23. Number of boys in D is approximately what c.65
percent of number of girls in F? d.89
a.31% e.28
b.49%
Pie chart shows the number of students studying four different disciplines from two colleges.
Page 600 of 1079

400
350
300
250
200 A
150 B
100
50
0
Arts Commerce Science Management
26. What is the average number of students studying b.3:2

in college A? c.1:1
a.213 d.4:3
b.240 e.5:2
c.203 29. Total number of student studying commerce in
d.245 college A is what percent of the total student studying
e.265 in commerce in both colleges together?
27. Total Number of students studying Arts in both a.23.3%
colleges together is approximately what percent of the b.57.14%
total number of students studying science in both c.45.21%
colleges? d.32.3%
a.139.3% e.12.36%
b.123.3% 30. In college A out of the total student in mangemwnt,
c.121.2% ratio of male and female is 11:8 where is in B 40%
d.130.43% management student is female. Then find the total
e.129% female management student in both two colleges?
28. Find the ratio between total number of student a.264
study in Arts and science together in college A and the b.236
total number of student study in commerce and c.244
management together in college B? d.216
a.2:5 e.296
Direction (31-35) Study the graph carefully and answer the question
Page 601 of 1079

Line graph shows that total number of passengers in five stations of three different days of a week.
1000 940 920
920 860 900
800 800
800 850 840 750
700 720 710 740
600 650
400
200
0
I J K L M
Monday Sunday Friday
31. Number of passengers in station I on Monday is c.154:177

what percent of the total number of passengers in d.123:320
station L in all the days together? e.123:129
a.29% 34. What is the difference between the total number of
b.24% passengers on Monday in all the station together and
c.20.23% the total number of passengers on Sunday in all the
d.33.33% station together?
e.30.97% a.142
32. What is the average number of passenger in station b.180
K in all the days together? c.132
a.458 d.156
b.562 e.136
c.632 35. Total number of Passenger on Monday in station
d.810 M is what percent of total number of passenger on
e.742 others two days in station M?
33. Find the ratio between total number of passenger a.48.78%
in station M on Monday and Sunday together and the b.24%
total number of passenger in station I on Sunday and c.20.235
Friday together? d.33.33%
a.120:121 e.30.97%
b.142:147
Page 602 of 1079

Line graph shows the number of Government College and Private College in five different states.
Government college Private college

700
600
600
500 450
350 400 400
400
300
250 350
300
150 200
200
100
0
M N O P Q
36. What is the respective ratio of Government College a.62.35%

of state Q and O together and the Private College of b.33.33%
state M and O together? c.83.33%
a.2:7 d.50%
b.4:5 e.60%
c.1:2 39. What is the difference between total number
d.2:3 college of state P and total number college of state Q?
e.4:5 a.260
37. What is average number Private College in all the b.250
state together? c.270
a.123 d.280
b.425 e.290
c.362 40. Number of Government College in state M and P
d.420 together is what percent more or less of number of
e.198 Private college in state O?
38. Number of Government College in state N and P a.100%
together is what percent of total number of b.210%
Government College in state O and Q together? c.120%
Page 603 of 1079
d.140% e.150%
Line graph show the number of petrol and diesel car sales by a company in five different months.
160
140 140
130
120
120 110 110
100 100
90 Petrol
80 80
70
60 60 Diesel
40
20
0
July May June March Auguest
41. In which month difference between number of b.142

petrol car sold and number of diesel car sold is c.118
maximum? d.123
a.July e.142
b.June 44. Total car sale in month of July is what percent of
c.May the car sold in August?
d.June&July a.102%
e.March b.111.11%
42. What is approximate percentage increase in sales c.152%
of diesel car from May to June? d.92%
a.62.35% e.59%
b.33.33% 45. What is difference between total petrol car sale in
c.73.33% the month of May, June and July together and the total
d.83.33% diesel car sale in the month of June, July and August
e.60% together?
43. What is average petrol car sale in all the month a.80
together? b.60
a.112 c.20
Page 604 of 1079

d.30 e.120
Line graph shows the runs score by five different batsmen in two innings.
100
80
60
40
20
0 1st innings 2nd innings

A B D E G
46. Number of runs score by A in 1st innings is what b.120%

percent of total runs score by B in both innings? c.250%
a.17% d.142%
b.18% e.149%
c.21% 49. Find the ratio between the total runs score by D
d.23% and total runs score by G?
e.13.51% a.51:56
47. What is the average 2nd innings run by all the b.70:53
batsmen together? c.23:19
a.42 d.42:47
b.86 e.2:3
c.45 50. Find the difference between the total 1st innings
d.59.6 runs and total 2nd innings runs score by all batsmen
e.23 together?
48. What is the approximate percentage increase in a.6
number runs score by A from 1st innings to 2nd b.2
innings? c.4
a.142% d.8
Page 605 of 1079

e.7
Line DI - Answers with Explanation

Solution (1-5) Total vacancy on IBPS in 2019 and 2018 was
Q1) Answer e =6600+7500=14100
Total vacancy on SBI in all the year is Total vacancy on SBI in 2015+2016
=6400+8000+7500+9200+8600=39700 was=6400+8000=14400
So the average vacancy on SBI is =39700/5=7940 So respective ratio is =14100:14400=141:144
Q2) Answer d Solution (6-10)
IBPS vacancy in 2016 was 7000 and in 2017 was 9600. Q6) Answer e
So the vacancy increase in 2017 was 9600-7000=2600 Total number of question attempt by P is 67
So vacancy increase percentage is Total number of question correct attempt by P is 53
= (2600/7000)*100=37.14% Total number of question wrong attempt by P is 67-53=24
Q3) Answer c So total marks obatain by P is = (53*2)-(24*1)=92
IBPS vacancy in 2017 was 9600 and SBI vacncy in 2015 Q7) Answer d
was 6400. Total question attempt by Q, R and S is =72+56+75=203
So required difference is =9600-6400=3200 So average attempt by these three is
Q4) Answer b =203/3=67.66≅ 𝟔𝟖
Total vacancy in 2015 on both organization was Q8) Answer c
=8400+6400=14800 Total number of question attempt by T and S
Total vacancy in 2016 on both organization is=75+62=137
was=7000+8000=15000 Total number of correct attempt by Q and S is
Total vacancy in 2017 on both organization =65+70=135
was=9600+7500=17100 So required percentage is = (137/135)*100=101.4%
Total vacancy in 2018 on both organization Q9) Answer b
was=6600+9200=15800 Total number of question attempt by R and S is
Total vacancy in 2019 on both organization 56+75=131
was=8600+7500=16100 Total correct attempt by S and T is 70+59=129
So highest vacancy in 2017 So required ratio is =131:129
Q5) Answer a Q10) Answer a
Wrong attempt by P =67-53=14
Page 606 of 1079
Wrong attempt by Q=72-65=7 Total selling price of items M, N, and P

Wrong attempt by R=56-52=4 is=750+400+520=1670
Wrong attempt by S=75-70=5 Overall profit is 1670-1400=270
Wrong attempt by T=62-59=3 So profit percentage is = (270/1400)*100=19.28%
Total wrong attempt by all is =14+7+4+5+3=33 Solution (16-20)
Solution (11-15) Q16) Answer e
Q11) Answer e Total viewers in 1st match is =40000+32000=72000
Total cost price of items M and O is =640+560=1200 Total viewers in 2nd match is=36000+30000=66000
Total selling price of items M and O is =750+480=1230 So required ratio is =72000:66000=12:11
So overall profit is 1230-1200=30 Q17) Answer b
So profit percentage is =(30/1200)*100=2.5% Viewer in 3rd match on starsports1 is 28000
Q12) Answer d Viewer in 5th match on starsports1 is 32000
Total selling price of items M, N and Q is = So required percent is =(40000/32000)*100=25%
750+400+540=1690 Q18) Answer c
So average selling price is =1690/3=563.3 Total viewers in starsports1 in 1st and 3rd match is
Total cost price of items M, N and Q is =40000+28000=68000
=640+320+620=1580 So average viewer is =68000/2=34000
So average cost price is =1580/3=526.6 Total viewers in starsports2 in 2nd match is 30000
So required difference is 563.3-526.6=36.3 So required percentage is = (34000/30000)*100=113.33%
Q13) Answer c Q19) Answer b
Cost price of items O is 560 and selling price of items M Total viewers on starsports1is
is 750. =40000+36000+28000+30000+32000=166000
So required percentage is (560/750)*100=74.66% Total viewers on starsports2 is
Q14) Answer b =32000+30000+38000+22000+24000=146000
Total cost price of M, P and Q is =640+440+620=1700 So required difference is =166000-146000=20000
Total selling price of N and O is =400+480=880 Q20) Answer a
So required ratio is 1700:880=85:44 Total viewers in 1st match is =40000+32000=72000
Q15) Answer a Total viewers in 5th match is =24000+32000=56000
Total cost price of items M, N and P is So required percentage is
=640+320+440=1400 = (72000/56000)*100=128.57%
Page 607 of 1079

Solution (21-25) So the average student study in college A is =1060/4=265

Q21) Answer e Q27) Answer d
Total boys in class A is 92-44=48 Total arts student in both college is =280+320=600
Total boys in class B is 86-36=50 Total science student in both college is =240+180=460
Total boys in A and B is =48+50=98 So required percentage is =(600/460)*100=130.43%
Total girls in E and F is =64+50=114 Q28) Answer c
So required ratio is =98:114=49:57 Total arts and science studmt in college A is
Q22) Answer d =280+160=440
Total boys in class D is=94-48=46 Total commerce and management student in B
Total boys in class A, B, and D is =48+50+46=144 is=180+260=440
Total girls in class B, E and F is 36+64+50=150 So respective ratio is 1:1
So the required difference is =150-144=6 Q29) Answer b
Q23) Answer c Total commerce student in college A is 240
Total boys in D is =94-48=46 Total commerce student in college A and B is
Total girls in F is 50 240+180=420
So required percentage is =(46/50)*100=92% So required percentage is = (240/420)*100=57.14%
Q24) Answer b Q30) Answer a
Total student in class A, B and D is =92+86+94=272 Outof the total management student in college A, female
So average student in A, B and D is =272/3=90.66 (aprox is =380*8/19=160
91) Outof the total management student in college B, female
Q25) Answer a is =260*40/100=104
Total girs in all class is =44+36+48+64+50=242 So total female management student is =160+104=264
Total boys in A is =92-44=48, in B is =86-36=50, in D is Solution (31-35)
=94-48=46,in E is=98-64=34,in F is =82-50=32 Q31) Answer e
Total boys in all class is=48+50+46+34+32=210 Passenger in station I on Monday is 700
So required difference is =242-210=32 Passenger in station L in all the days
Solution (26-30) is=650+750+860=2260
Q26) Answer e So required percentage is = (700/2260)*100=30.97%
Total student study in college A is Q32) Answer d
=280+240+160+380=1060
Page 608 of 1079

Total passenger in station K in all days is Total government college in state N and P is
=710+800+920=2430 =150+350=500
So average passenger is =2430/3=810 Total government college in state Q and O is
Q33) Answer c =400+200=600
Total passenger in station M on Monday and Sunday is Required percentage is = (500/600)*100=83.33%
=740+800=1540 Q39) Answer b
Total passenger in station I on Sunday and Friday is Total college in state P is =400+350=750
=920+850=1770 Total college in state Q is =600+400=1000
So required ratio is =1540:1770=154:177 So required difference is =1000-750=250
Q34) Answer b Q40) Answer a
Total passenger in Monday is Total goverement college in state M and P is
=700+840+920+750+800=4010 =250+350=600
Total passenger in Sunday is Total private college in state O is =300
=920+720+800+650+740=3830 So required percentage is = {(600-300)/300}*100=100%
So difference is= 4010-3830=180 Solution (41-45)
Q35) Answer a Q41) Answer e
Total passenger in station M on Monday is 800 Total petrol and diesel car sales in July is=120+80=200
Total passenger in sation M on Friday and Sunday Total petrol and diesel car sales in May is=130+60=190
is=900+740=1640 Total petrol and diesel car sales in June is=110+90=200
So required percentage is = (800/1640)*100=48.78% Total petrol and diesel car sales in March
Solution (36-40) is=140+100=240
Q36) Answer e Total petrol and diesel car sales in August
Goverment College in Q and O is 400+200=600 is=110+70=180
Private college in M and O is =450+300=750 So maximum sales in March
So required ratio is =600:750=4:5 Q42) Answer d
Q37) Answer d Diesel car sale in May is 60 and in June is 110
Total Private College in all state is So sales increase 110-60=50
=450+350+300+400+600=2100 Percentage of sales increase is = (50/60)*100=83.33%
So average private college is =2100/5=420 Q43) Answer c
Q38) Answer c
Page 609 of 1079

Total petrol car sales in all the month is Q47) Answer d

=120+130+90+140+110=590 Total 2nd innings runs score by all the batsmen is
So average petrol car sales is=590/5=118 =70+56+72+66+34=298
Q44) Answer b So the average runs score by all the batsmen in 2nd innigis
Total car sales in July is =120+80=200 is =298/5=59.6
Total car sales in August is =110+70=180 Q48) Answer c
So required percentage is =(200/180)*100=111.11% Runs score by A in 1st innigis is 20 and 2nd innigis is 70.
Q45) Answer a So 50 runs increase in 2nd innigis
Total petrol car sale in July, May, and June is So percentage of increase runs is = (50/20)*100=250%
=130+90+120=340 Q49) Answer b
Total diesel car sale in June, July and August is Total runs score by D is =68+72=140
=110+80+70=260 Total runs score by G is =72+34=106
So required difference is =340-260=80 So required ratio is =140:106=70:53
Solution (46-50) Q50) Answer a
Q46) Answer e Total 1st innigis runs score by all the batsmen is
Runs score by A in 1st innigis is 20 =20+92+68+40+72=292
Runs score by B in 1st innigis and 2nd innigis Total 2nd innigis runs score by all the batsmen
is=92+56=148 is=70+56+72+66+34=298
So required percentage is = (20/148)*100=13.51% So the required difference is =298-292=6
Bar DI
Bar graph shows the production of different type of car in different year.
Page 610 of 1079

6000
5000
4000
A
3000
B
2000 C
1000
0
2017 2018 2019 2020
1. Find the ratio between total A type car produce in c.96%

2017 and 2018 together and total B type car produce d.81%
in 2019 and 2020 together? e.23%
a.101:103 4. Find the difference between the total A type car
b.97:84 production and B type production in all the year
c.29:73 together?
d.23:49 a.1200
e. 97:75 b.2600
2. What is the average production of total C type car c.2010
in all the year together? d.6300
a.5400 e.1482
b.4200 5. Out of total C type car produce in 2019, 40% is
c.2008 petrol car rest is diesel car. Then find the number of C
d.4000 type diesel car produce in 2019?
e.2500 a.1680
3. Total car production in 2019 is what percent b.1250
(approx) of the total car production is 2018? c.1369
a.52% d.4563
b.92% e.1463
Page 611 of 1079
Bar graph shows the total number of student and total girls student of five Schools.
1000
900
800
700
600
500 Total student
400 Number of girls
300
200
100
0
P Q R S T
6. Find the ratio between total number of boys in a.158%

school P and Q together and total number of girls in b.142%
school S and T together? c.120%
a.21:23 d.146%
b.12:19 e.147%
c.14:17 9. Find the ratio between difference of boys and girls
d.21:29 in class P and difference of boys and girls in class Q?
e.40:29 a.2:3
7. What is the difference between the average (approx) b.1:4
boys in school R, S, and T together and the average c.2:5
girls in school P, Q, and R together? d.9:2
a.12 e.1:7
b.17 10. Total boys in school T are what percent (approx)
c.19 more or less than the total boys in school R?
d.13 a.28%
e.21 b.42%
8. Total number of boys in P and S together is what c.20%
percent (approx) of total number of girls in Q and T d.46%
together? e.47%
Page 612 of 1079

An organization has 5 branchs. Each branch has 3600 employee. Bar graph shows the ratio between male and female
employee of each branch.
10
9
8
7
6
5 Female
4 Male
3
2
1
0
M N O P Q
11. Find the average female employee in all the a.158%

branches together? b.142%
a.2136 c.117%
b.2252 d.146%
c.2496 e.147%
d.2036 14. Find the difference between male employee in
e.1706 branch M and female employee in branch O?
12. Find the ratio between total female employee in a.514
branch M and N together and total male employee in b.560
branch O and P together? c.426
a.325:623 d.452
b.123:987 e.215
c.145:236 15. Total male in branch N is what percent of total
d.384:335 female in same branch?
e.147:963 a.50%
13. Total male employee in branch Q is what percent b.42%
of total female employee in branch N? c.20%
Page 613 of 1079

d.16% e.47%
Bar graph shows the total student in different strem of five colleges.
450
400
350
300
250 Science
200 Arts
150 Commerce
100
50
0
I J K L M
16. Find the difference between total science student in a.58%

all together and total arts student in all college b.31%
together? c.20%
a.72 d.46%
b.71 e.47%
c.65 19. What is average (approx) science student in college
d.56 together?
e.75 a.231
17. Find the ratio between total commerce student in b.313
college I and J together and total science student L and c.126
M together? d.456
a.45:69 e.632
b.12:36 20. Find the ratio between total commerce student in
c.45:69 college I, J and K together and total arts student of
d.70:59 college K, L and M together?
e.23:65 a.95:104
18. Commerce student in college K is what percent b.21:36
(approx) of arts and science student together in same c.96:35
college? d.98:74
Page 614 of 1079
e.94:38
Bar graph shows the marks score in three subject by five students.Total marks each subject is 50.
50
40
30
20
10
0
A B Math English
C Reasoning D E
21. Who score highest marks in all the subjects b.9

together? c.13
a.E d.19
b.D e.17
c.C 24. How much percent marks score by C in all the
d.B subjects together?
e.A a.58%
22. Find the ratio between the total marks in math and b.74%
English together of A and the total marks of reasoning c.20%
and English together of C? d.46%
a.12:36 e.47%
b.21:56 25. Marks in reasoning of E is what percent (approx)
c.35:98 of marks in math of D?
d.81:76 a.75%
e.69:78 b.52%
23. What is difference between marks in math of B and c.56%
D together and marks in reasoning of A and E d.89%
together? e.36%
a.8
Page 615 of 1079

Bar graphs show the Demand and Production of car in five months of a company.
10000
8000
6000
4000
2000
0
March April May June July
Demand Production
26. Find the ratio between the demand of car in month b.9632
of March and May together and the production of car c.6880
in month of June and July? d.4582
a.11:23 e.9632
b.23:98 29. Find the difference between total demand in the
c.21:37 month of May and June together and the total demand
d.23:27 in the month of March and April together?
e.15:19 a.2469
27. Demand of car in month of April is what percent b.2800
(approx) of demand of car in month of June and July c.1236
together? d.2143
a.58% e.2156
b.43% 30. What percent demand increase in the month June
c.78% from May?
d.44% a.42%
e.17% b.14%
28. Find the average of total production of car in all c.20%
the month together? d.46%
a.6353 e.47%
Bar graph shows the total visitors of two Park A and B of different days of week.
Page 616 of 1079

Sunday
Saturday
Friday Park B
Park A
Tuesday
Monday
0 100 200 300 400 500 600
31. Total male, female and children vistors on Sunday a.35:37

in park A are in ratio of 6:5:2.Than find the total male b.35:32
visit in park A on Sunday? c.33:34
a.256 d.3:1
b.236 e.2:3
c.482 34. Find the differcne between the total vistor in park
d.463 A and total visitors in park B in all the day together?
e.240 a.236
32. Total vistors on Sunday in both parks is what b.130
percent (approx) of total vistors on Saturday in both c.147
park A and park B? d.159
a.158% e.156
b.142% 35. What percent (approx) visitors increase in park B
c.120% on Sunday from Saturday?
d.121% a.129%
e.147% b.141%
33. Find the ratio between total vistors in park A on c.123%
Monday and Tuesday together and total vistor in park d.149%
B on same days? e.147%
Bar graph shows the total number student appeared in a exam and number of student fail in exam of five class.
Page 617 of 1079

100
80
60
40
20
0
A E
Total number of student O I fail
Number of student U
36. Total pass in class O is what percent (approx) more c.16

or less than total pass in A? d.17
a.15% e.29
b.42% 39. Find the difference between total number of
c.20% student in class A and O together and the total student
d.46% pass in the exam from class A and O together?
e.12% a.39
37. Find the ratio between total student pass in class A b.28
and E together and total student pass in class O and U c.48
together? d.51
a.45:69 e.21
b.36:87 40. Total student pass in the exam from class U is what
c12:67 percent (approx) of total student fail in the same class?
d.55:61 a.609%
e.23:97 b.642%
38. Find the average of the student fail in the exam in c.720%
all class together together? d.646%
a.11 e.947%
b.12
Bar graph shows total number of male and female in five building and the difference of male and female in the same
building. It also noted that in every building number of male is more than number of female.
Page 618 of 1079

600
500
400
300
200
100
0
E J O T Y
Total male and female Difference of male and female
41. In which building number of female is highest? c.60:31

a.Y d.4:1
b.T e.5:6
c.J 44. Total male in building O is what percent (approx)
d.E of total female in same building?
e.O a.101%
42. Find the difference between total male and total b.195%
female in all the building together? c.110%
a.480 d.130%
b.452 e.125%
c.632 45. Find the average female in the building E, J, T and
d.660 Y together?
e.478 a.157.5
43. Find the ratio beween total male in building E and b.165
J together and the total female in building T and Y? c.142
a.5:4 d.147
b.63:62 e.132
Bar graph show the number of three types books (P, Q, R) sold by five different shops (E, J, O, T, I).
Page 619 of 1079

50
45
40
35
30 P
25
Q
20
R
15
10
5
0
E J O T Y
46. Sales of which type books is highest in all the shop c.107:119
together? d.145:632
a.R&P e.123:213
b.Q&P 49. Total P and R type book sold in Shop J is what
c.P percent (approx) of total Q type book sale in same
d.R shop?
e.Q a.138%
47. Find the diiference between total books sale in shop b.115%
E and the total books sale in shop J? c.110%
a.21 d.196%
b.29 e.167%
c.42 50. What is average books sale in shop E and Y
d.23 together?
e.29 a.114
48. Find the ratio between total R type book sale in b.123
shop E, J and T together and the total Q type book sale c.148
in shop O,T and Y together? d.196
a.139:874 e.129
b.147:963
Bar DI - Answers with Explanation

Page 620 of 1079
Solution (1-5) Common explanation-

Q1) Answer e Class Total Total Total
Total A type car produce in 2017 and 2018 is student number Number
=5500+4200=9700 of girls of boys
Total B type car produce in 2019 and 2020 is P 860 420 860-42
=5000+2500=7500 =440
So required ratio is =9700:7500=97:75 Q 640 280 640-280
Q2) Answer d =360
Total C type car produce in all the year is R 720 360 720-360
=4800+3200+2800+5200=16000 =360
So required average is =16000/4=4000 S 540 260 540-260
Q3) Answer c =280
Total car produce in 2019 is T 780 320 780-320
=3600+5000+2800=11400 =460
Total car produce in 2018 is Q6) Answer e
=4200+4500+3200=11900 Total boys in class P and Q is =440+360=800
So required percentage is Total girls in class S and T is =260+320=580
= (114000/11900)*100 So required ratio is =800:580=40:29
=95.79%=96% Q7) Answer d
Q4) Answer b Total boys in class R, S, and T is
Total A type car produce is =360+280+460=1100
=5500+4200+3600+4800=18100 So average boys is 1100/3
Total B type car produce is Total girls in class P, Q and R is
=3500+4500+5000+2500=15500 =420+280+360=1060
So the diiference is =18100-15500=2600 So average is 1060/3
Q5) Answer a So required difference is
Total C type car produce is 2019 is 2800. = (1100/3) – (1060/3)=40/3=13.33 =13
Out of that 40% petrol car, so diesel car is 60% Q8) Answer c
Number of diesel car is 2800*60/100=1680 Total boys in class P and Q is =440+280=720
Solution (6-10) Total gilrs in class Q and T is=280+320=600
Page 621 of 1079

So required percentage is =1440+1600+2440+2250+800=8530

= (720/600)*100=120% So required average is 8530/5=1706
Q9) Answer b Q12) Answer d
Difference of boys and girls in class P is Total female in branch M and N is =1440+2400=3840
= 440-420=20 Toatl male in branch O and P is
Difference of boys and girls in class Q is =2000+1350=3350
= 360-280=80 So required ratio is 3840:3350=384:335
So required ratio is 20:80=1:4 Q13) Answer c
Q10) Answer a Total male in Q is 2800
Total boys in class T is =460 Total female in N is 2400
Total boys in class R is =360 So required percentage is
In class T 100 boys is more = (2800/2400)*100=116.6%=117%
So required percentage is Q14) Answer b
= (100/360)*100 Difference of total male in M and total female in O is
=27.77%=28% =2160-1600=560
Solution (11-15) Q15) Answer a
Common explanation- Required percentage is
Branch Male Female = {(2400-1200)/2400}*100=50%
M 3600*3/5 3600*2/5 Solution (16-20)
=2160 =1440 Q16) Answer e
N 3600*1/3 3600*2/3 Total science student in all college is
=1200 =2400 =300+275+400+250+340=1565
O 3600*5/9 3600*4/9 Total arts student in all college is
=2000 =1600 =360+240+420+340+280=1640
P 3600*3/8 3600*5/8 So required difference is =1640-1565=75
=1350 =2250 Q17) Answer d
Q 3600*7/9 3600*2/9 Total commerce student in college I and J is
=2800 =800 =280+420=700
Q11) Answer e Total science student in college L and M is

Total female in all branch is =250+340=590
Page 622 of 1079

So required ratio is =700:590=70:59 Total marks in math of B and D is =40+44=84

Q18) Answer c Total marks in reasoning of A and E is =38+33=71
Commerce student in college K is 250 So required difference is =84-71=13
Total arts and science in college K is =400+420=820 Q24) Answer b
Required percentage Total marks C get is =35+40+36=111
= (250/820)*100=30.48%=31 Total marks of all the subject together is =150
Q19) Answer b So c get = (111/150)*100=74%
Total science student in all college is Q25) Answer a
=300+275+400+250+340=1565 E get in reasoning is 33
So required average =1565/5=313 D get in math is 44
Q20) Answer a So required percentage is
Total commerce student student in college I, J and K is = (33/44)*100=75%
=280+420+250=950 Solution (26-30)
Total arts student in college K, L and M is Q26) Answer e
=420+340+280=1040 Total demand in March and May is
So required ratio is =950:1040=95:104 =7500+7500=12000
Solution (21-25) Total production in June and July is
Q21) Answer d =7000+8200=15200
Total marks A is =42+39+38=119 So required ratio is =12000:152000=15:19
Total marks B is =40+46+34=120 Q27) Answer d
Total marks C is =35+40+36=111 Demand in April is =6200
Total marks D is =44+32+41=117 Demand in June and July is =6400+7800=14200
Total marks E is =39+37+33=109 So required percentage is
So B get highest mark = (6200/14200)*100=43.66%=44%
Q22) Answer d Q28) Answer c
Total marks in math and English of A Total production in all the month is
=42+39=81 =8400+7200+5600+7000+8200=36400
Total mark in reasoning and English of C is =40+36=76 So the average is =36400/5=7280
Required ratio is =81:76 Q29) Answer b
Q23) Answer c Total demand in May and June is
Page 623 of 1079

=4500+6400=10900 Total visitors in Park A is

Total demand in March and April is =360+320+350+420+540=1990
=6200+7500=13700 So required difference is =2120-1990=130
So the difference is =13700-10900=2800 Q35) Answer a
Q30) Answer a Visitors in B on Sunday is 540
Demand in May is 4500 Class Total Number of Number of
Demand in June is 6400 student student student
Demand increase =6400-4500=1900 fail pass
So the required percentage is A 60 21 60-21=49
= (1900/4500)*100=42.22%=42% E 76 15 76-15=61
Solution (31-35) O 72 17 72-17=55
Q31) Answer e I 67 14 67-14=53
Total vistors in park A on Sunday is 520. U 78 11 78-11=67
Total number of male vist park A in Sunday is
Visitors in B on Saturday is 420
=520*6/13=240
So required percentage is
Q32) Answer d
= (540/420)*100=128.57%=129%
Total visitor in both park on Sunday is 520+540=1060
Solution (36-40)
Total number visitor in both park on Saturday is
Q36) Answer e
460+420=880
Total student pass in class O is 55
Total student pass in class A is49
= (1060/880)*100=120.45%=121%
In class O, (55-49)=14 student pass more than A.
Q33) Answer c
Total vistor in park A on Monday and Tuesday is
= (14/39)*100=35.89%=12.2%
=420+240=660
Q37) Answer d
Total vistor in park A on Monday and Tuesday is
Total student pass in class A and E is =49+61=110
=360+320=680
Total student pass in class O and U is
So required ratio is =660:680=33:34
=55+67=122
Q34) Answer b
So required ratio is 110:122=55:61
Total visitors in Park A is
Q38) Answer c
=420+240+480+460+520=2120
Total number of student fail in all class is
Page 624 of 1079

=21+15+17+14+11=78 =180+140+215+130+170=745
So the average student fail in all class is Total male in all the building is
=78/5=15.6= 16 =300+300+225+290+300=1405
Q39) Answer b So the required difference is =1415-835=660
Total student in class A and O is =60+72=132 Q43) Answer c
Total student pass in same class is =49+55=104 Total male in building E and J together is
So difference is =132-104=28 =300+300=600
Q40) Answer a Total femal in building T and Y is
Total student pass in class U is 67 =140+170=310
Total student fail in class U is 11 So required ratio is =600:300=2:1
So required percentage is = (67/11)*100=609% Q44) Answer b
Solution (41-45) Male in O is =225
Common explation- Female in O is =115
Total member in building E is (m) 480 So required percentage is
Difference of male and female is (f) 120 = (225/115)*100 =195%
m+f=480 and m-f=120 Q45) Answer a
By solving this equation we get m =300 f=180 Total female in building E, J, T and Y is
Like this way we can solve rest of building which can =180+140+140+170=630
givwn in table. So the average is =630/4=157.5
Buidling Male Male- Male Feamle Solution (46-50)
+Female Female Q46) Answer e
E 480 120 300 180 Total P type book sell in all the shop
J 440 160 300 140 =32+24+29+43+44=172
O 340 110 225 115 Total Q type book sell in all the shop
T 420 140 280 140 =42+45+31+47+41=206
Y 470 130 300 170 Total R type book sell in all the shop
Q41) Answer d =46+28+37+33+23=167
Number female is highest in building E. (from the table) So sells of Q type book is highest
Q42) Answer d Q47) Answer d

Total female in all the building is Total book sell in shop E is
Page 625 of 1079

=32+42+46=120 Q49) Answer b

Total book sell in shop J is In shop total P and R type book sell is =24+28=52
=24+45+28=97 Total Q type book sell is 45
So required difference is 120-97 =23 So required percentage is
Q48) Answer c = (52/45)*100=115.5%=115%
Total R type books sell in shop E, J and T is Q50) Answer a
=46+28+33=107 Total books sell in shop E is =32+42+46=120
Total Q type books sell in shop O, T and Y is Total books sell in shop Y is =44+41+23=108
= 31+47+41=119 So average books sell in this two shop is
So required ratio is =107:119 = (120+108)/2=228/2=114
Caselets
Directions (1-5): Read the information carefully and d) 3
answer the following questions e) More than three
The following passage given below shows the no. of 2) Find the ratio of sum of LED bulbs sold by shop
LED & fluorescent bulbs sold by different shops. A & C together to the fluorescent bulbs sold by shop
The ratio of number of fluorescent bulbs to LED bulbs B and D together?
sold by shop A is 10:3, number of fluorescent bulbs sold a) 4:5
by shop B is 33.33% more than LED bulbs sold by shop b) 3:4
A. Difference between fluorescent and LED bulbs sold c) 4:3
by shop C is60 (LED > Fluorescent), total bulbs sold by d) 2:5
shop C is 300 which is 40 more than that of shop A and e) 1:3
80 more than that of B, fluorescent bulbs sold by D is 3) If the total bulbs sold by shop D are equal to total
28.57% less than LED bulbs sold by Shop B. Average bulbs sold by shop E, then find the difference
no of bulbs sold by all the shops together is 250. between LED bulbs sold by shop D & fluorescent
1) In how many shops percentage of LED bulbs sold bulbs sold by shop E?
is more than 50%? a) 20
a) 1 b) 40
b) None c) 60
c) 2 d) 10
Page 626 of 1079
e) Can’t be determined 6) What is the ratio of the male to female employees

4) Find the average of LED bulbs sold by all the in sales department?
shops together? A.2:1
a) 100 B.7:3
b) 125 C.9:5
c) 150 D.5:2
d) 160 E.None of these
e) 175 7) The total number of female employees in all the
5) Number of fluorescent bulbs sold by shop B is departments together is approximately what percent
what percent more or less than number of LED of the total number of male employees in all the
bulbs sold by shop D? departments together?
a) 66.67% less A.40%
b) 27.27% more B.60%
c) 25% less C. 75%
d) 33.33% less D.50%
e) 50% more E.None of these
Directions (6-10): Read the following information 8) What is the difference between the number of
carefully and answer the given questions: male to female employees in HR department?
In a company there are 2000 employees and the A.40
company has three different departments-IT, HR and B.50
Sales. The number of employees in HR department is C.58
30% of the total number of employees in a company. If D.60
the ratio of the male to female employees in IT E.48
department is 5:3 and the number of female employees 9) What is the ratio of the total number of employees
in HR department is 90% of the female employees in IT in HR department to the total number of employees
department. The ratio of the number of employees in IT in IT department?
department to Sales department is 4:3. Number of male A.1:2
employees in Sales department is 80 less than that of the B.2:3
number of male employees in IT department. C.3:4
D.4:5
Page 627 of 1079

E.5:6 travelers in August and the ratio of national

10) What is the sum of the male employees in IT travelers to international travelers in October is 7 :
department and female employees in Sales 3, then find the difference between the total number
department? of national travelers to that of international
A.540 travelers in October?
B.560 A.524
C.630 B.550
D.680 C.576
E.720 D.592
Directions (11-15): Study the following information E.None of these
carefully and answer the given questions. The data 12) Out of the total number of national travelers
is related to the number of travelers (National + (male and female) in June and August together, the
International) handled by the travelers company in ratio of male national travelers to that of female
4 months in a certain year. national travelers is 16: 9. Find the total number of
There are national and international travelers. female national travelers in June and August
The total number of national travelers in June is 3/5th of together?
total number of travelers in July. Total number of A.450
travelers in July is 1250. The ratio of travelers in June B.480
to that of July is 4: 5. The total number of national C.510
travelers in June is 100 less than the total number of D.530
travelers in September. The number of international E.None of these
travelers in July is 36 % of total number of travelers in 13) The total number of international travelers in
July. The number of international travelers in August is July is approximately what percentage more/less
half of the national travelers in July. The number of than the total number of national travelers in
travelers in August is 225 % of total number of August?
international travelers in August. The ratio of total A.20 % more
number of national travelers to that of international B.10 % more
travelers in September is 11: 6. C.20 % less
11) If in the month of October, the total number of D.10 % less
travelers is 60 % more than the total number of E.15 % more
Page 628 of 1079

14) If the average number of national travelers in company C is 120% of the number of production of
May, June, July, August and September together is company C in 2016. The ratio of the number of
610, then find the ratio between the total number of production of company D and E is 6: 5. The total
national travelers in May to that of total number of number of production of all the five companies together
international travelers in September? in 2017 is 4010.
A.4: 3 2018: The total number of production of company A
B.3: 2 and B together is 1890 and the ratio of the number of
C.5: 6 production of company A and B is 4: 5. The number of
D.7: 5 production of company D in 2018 is 125% of the
E.None of these number of production of company D in 2017. The ratio
15) Total number of international travelers in June of the number of production of company D and E is 5:
is what percentage of total number of international 4. The number of production of company C is 50% more
travelers in August? than that of the number of production of company C in
A.62.5 % 2017.
B.58 % 16) The total number of production of company C in
C.71.5 % all the give years together is approximately what
D.75 % percent of the total number of production of
E.None of these company A in all the given years together?
Direction (16-20): Read the following information A.65%
carefully and answer the given questions: B.71%
In the number total production of five different C.77%
companies - A, B, C, D and E in three different years- D.83%
2016, 2017 and 2018. E.79%
2016: In 2016 the number production of company A is 17) What is the difference between the average
900. In the ratio of the number of production of number of production of all the 5 companies
company A, B, C, D and E are 9: 7: 5: 3: 4. together in 2018 and the average number of
2017: The number of production of company A is production of all the 5 companies together in 2017?
increased by 20% over the previous year and the A.107
number of production of company B is 200 increased B.113
by over the previous year. The number of production of C.117
Page 629 of 1079

D.123 Dhoni scored runs against different countries in three

E.None of these different years.
18) What is the ratio of the total number of Total runs scored in a year=Sri Lanka + England +
production of company D in all years together to the Others
total number of production of company E in all the 2012: The total runs scored in 2012 were 1200. The runs
years together? scored against England were 1/3rd of the runs against
A.137: 122 others in 2013. The average runs scored against Sri
B.143: 123 Lanka and England was 400.
C.139: 121 2013: The total runs scored against Sri Lanka and others
D.141: 131 was 800. The ratio of the total runs scored against others
E.None of these in 2012 to that of the total runs scored against others in
19) What is the difference between the total number 2013 is 4:3. The total runs scored against England in
of production in 2016 in all the companies together 2013 were equal to the total runs scored against England
and the total number production of company B in all in 2014.
the years together? 2014: The sum of the total runs scored against Sri Lanka
A.150 and England is equal to the total runs scored against
B.200 others. The total runs scored in 2014 were 1600. The
C.120 total runs scored against Sri Lanka were twice of the
D.180 runs scored against England in 2012.
E.None of these 21) The total runs scored against Sri Lanka in 2013
20) The number of production of company B in 2018 are what percentage of the total runs scored against
is approximately what percent of the number of Sri Lanka in 2014?
production of company E in 2017? A.200%
A.162% B.300%
B.172% C.500%
C.152% D.250%
D.142% E.450%
E.182% 22) What is the difference between the total runs
Directions (21-25): Refer the information given scored against Others in 2012 to the total runs
below and answer the questions given below. scored against Others in 2013?
Page 630 of 1079

A.120 number of balls in box A is 60 and the ratio of the

B.100 number of red, yellow, blue, black and white balls in
C.80 box A is 2:3:5:4:1. The number of red balls in box B is
D.200 25% more than that of the number of red balls in A.
E.150 number of yellow balls in box B is 6 more than that of
23) What was the total run scored in 2013? the number of yellow balls in A. Ratio of the number of
A.1200 blue balls in A to B is 5:6 and the ratio of the number of
B.1400 black and white balls in B is 4:3. Total number of balls
C.1600 in box B is 80. Total number of red and yellow balls in
D.1500 C is 33. Total number of black balls in C is 125% of the
E.None of these total number black balls in B. Ratio of the number of
24) What is the sum of runs scored against England red and yellow balls in C is 5:6 and the ratio of the
all the three years? number of black and white balls in C is 4:5. The number
A.1400 of blue balls in C is 50% of the number of blue balls in
B.1500 B.
C.1300 26) What is the difference between the total number
D.1100 of Blue balls in all the boxes together and the total
E.1000 number black balls in all the boxes together?
25) What is the ratio of total runs scored against Sri A.2
Lanka in 2012 to the runs scored against others in B.4
2014? C.6
A.7: 4 D.8
B.7: 3 E.9
C.7: 5 27) What is the total number of balls in all the boxes
D.8: 3 together?
Directions (26-30): Read the following information B. 220
carefully and answer the given questions: C.240
There are three boxes A, B and C contains five different D.210
color of balls-red, yellow, blue, black and white. Total E.230
Page 631 of 1079

28) The number of red balls in C is approximately department to number of employees in marketing
what percent of the total number of balls in C? department is 2:1. Number of male to female employees
A.13% works in HR department in the ratio of 7:3 and the ratio
B.15% of the number of female employees in HR department
C.17% to number of female employees in marketing
D.11% department is 2:1. 25% of the total number of
E. 9% employees works in HR department and 10% of the
29) What is the ratio of the total number of white total employees works in Sales department. Ratio of the
balls in all the boxes together to the total number of number of female employees works in IT department to
yellow balls in all boxes together? Finance department is 1:1. 10% of the total number of
A.5:7 employees in IT department is equal to the number of
B.3:5 female employees in sales department. Ratio of the
C.3:1 number of male to female employees in this company is
D.7:4 3:1.
E.None of these 31) What is the total number of male employees in
30) What is the difference between the sum of the red IT and Finance department together?
balls in A and B together and the number of white A.624
balls in C? B.644
A.5 C.664
B.9 D.654
C.8 E.None of these
D.7 32) Total number of employees in sales department
E.4 is approximately what percent of the total number
Directions (31-35): Read the following information of employees in marketing department?
carefully and answer the given questions: A.68%
The company has five different departments-IT, HR, B.73%
Sales, Marketing and Finance and the total number of C.77%
employees in company is 1600. 13.75% of the total D.81%
number of employees works in Marketing department E.None of these
and the ratio of the number of employees in IT
Page 632 of 1079

33) What is the ratio of the number of female boys which is 5/2 of the number of girls who passed
employees in IT department to number of male only in Maths. The number of girls who passed in both
employees in sales department? the papers is 32 % of the total number of the students
A.22:29 and the number of boys who passed in both the papers
B.23:31 is 130% of the number of girls who passed in both the
C.27:32 papers. None of the candidates failed in both the papers.
D.19:17 36) How many girls are there who passed only in
E.None of these physics paper?
34) What is the difference between the number of A.11
total employees in IT department and the number of B.8
male employees in Finance department? C.10
A.129 D.12
C.128 37) The number of boys who passed only in Maths is
D.144 what percentage of the total number of students who
E.None of these appeared in the examination?
35) Which department has maximum female A.3%
employees? B.3.4%
A.Sales C.5%
B.HR D.2.4%
C.Marketing E.None of these
D.Finance and IT 38) How many students passed in Physics?
E.Sales and Marketing A.453
The HR department has maximum females. B.385
Directions (36-40): Study the following information C.440
carefully and answer the questions given below: D.397
In an examination (Consisting two papers Maths and E.None of these
Physics). Total 500 students appeared in the exam. The 39) What is the ratio of the number of boys who
ratio of boys to girls is 3: 2. The number of boys who passed in Maths to the number of girls who passed
passed only in Physics is 25% of the total number of only in Physics?
Page 633 of 1079

A.55: 2 B.59%more
B.45: 4 C.15%less
C.45: 2 D.80%more
D.68: 3 E.20%less
E.None of these 42) The total expense in 2019 is approximately what
40) By what percentage the number of students percent of total expense in 2017?
passed in Physics exam is more or less than the A.150%
number of students passed in Maths exam? B.100%
A.9 %more C.75%
B.25 %less D.50%
C.7 %more E.25%
D.12 %less 43) Find the average of other expenses in all the
E.20%more given years together?
Directions (41-45): Study the following information A.15lakhs
carefully and answer the questions given below. B.20.5lakhs
In the year 2017, the salary expense of a company is 15 C.31.5lakhs
lakhs and the total number of employees is 100 and in D.40.5lakhs
the year 2018, the average salary of employees is E.None of these
Rs.7000 more than the previous year. The salary 44) Find the difference between the number of
expense in 2018 is 10% more than previous year. The employees in 2017 to that in the year 2019?
other expense in the year 2018 is 24 lakhs. The total A.10
expense in the year 2017 and 2018 is same. In the year B.15
2019, the number of employees is 10 less than the C.30
previous year. The average salary of employees in the D.35
year 2019 is Rs.24000 and other expense in the year E.40
2019 is Rs.45 lakhs. 45) Find the total average salary of employees in all
41) The total expenses in the year 2018 is the given years together?
approximately what percent more/less than the A.Rs.25000
other expenses in the year 2017? B.Rs.45000
A.45%less C.Rs.61000
Page 634 of 1079

D.Rs.75000 E.None of these

E.None of these 48) What is the sum of the educated female and
Directions (46-50): Study the following information educated male in the town A?
carefully and answer the questions given below: A.8960
Town A has 12000 people. The ratio of adults (man & B.7850
woman) to teenagers (boy & girl) is 7:5. Out of the total C.5400
number of adults the no. of women is 40%. And the ratio D.9700
of boy to girl is 3:2. In the town the number of educated E.None of these
female is 66(2/3) % of the sum of the total no. females 49) If 25% of the men of town A migrated to town B
(women & girls) and the no. of educated males (men & in search of job then what will be the sum of adults
boys) is 80% more than the no. of educated females in and teenagers in town A?
the town A. A.3200
46) What is the ratio of the educated female to B.1200
educated male in the town? C.5950
A.7:4 D.6890
B.8:5 E.None of these
C.6:5 50) What is the percentage of the total no. of
D.5:9 educated females out of the total population in the
E.None of these town A?
47) The no. of women in the town is what percent A.26(2/3) %
more or less than the no. of girls in the town? B.25(4/5) %
A.30% less C.29(3/2) %
B.40%more D.24(1/2) %
C.50% less E.None of these
D.20%more
Caselets - Answers with Explanation
Directions (1-5):
It is given that,
Page 635 of 1079

Total number of bulbs sold by shop C is 300 which is Shop LED Fluorescent Total
40 and 80 more than total bulbs sold by A,B bulbs bulbs
respectively, A 60 200 260
Therefore total bulbs sold by shop A =260, B 140 80 220
Total bulbs sold by shop B =220 C 180 120 300
Let no. of LED, Fluorescent bulbs sold by shop A is D 120 100 220
3x,10x 1) Answer: D
13x = 260 &#
Percentage of LED bulbs sold by shop A = '&# ×100 =
x=20
23.08%
Therefore, total LED bulbs sold by shop A is 3x =60. !(#
Percentage of LED bulbs sold by shop B = ''# ×100 =
Total fluorescent bulbs sold by Shop A = 10x = 200
Total fluorescent bulbs sold by Shop B = 133.33% of 63.63%
!)#
60 =80 Percentage of LED bulbs sold by shop C= *##
×100
Total LED bulbs sold by shop B = 220 -80 =140 =60%
Let, no of LED bulbs sold by shop C =y, !'#
Percentage of LED bulbs sold by shop D = ''# ×100 =
Therefore, no. of fluorescent bulbs sold by shop C = y-
54.54%
60
In 3 shops, percentage of LED bulbs sold is more than
y+ y-60 =300
50%
y =180
2) Answer: C
Total fluorescent bulbs sold by Shop C = 180 – 60 = 120
Required ratio = 240:180 = 4:3
Total LED bulbs sold by Shop C = 180
3) Answer:e
Fluorescent bulbs sold by shop D = (100-28.57)% of
There is no relationship between no. of LED bulbs and
140 =100
fluorescent bulbs sold by shop E,
Average number of bulbs sold by all the shops together
Therefore solution can’t be determined.
= 250
4) Answer: B
Total bulbs sold by all the shops together =250*4 =1000 &#+!(#+!)#+!'#
Required average = (
= 125
Total bulbs sold by shop D = 1000 – (260+220+300)
=220 5) Answer: D
!'#$)#
LED bulbs sold by Shop D = 220 – 100 = 120 Required percentage = !'#
×100 = 33.33% less
All the results are tabulated. Directions (6-10):
Page 636 of 1079

Total number of employees in HR department=30/100 Required ratio=600:800=3:4

* 2000=600 10) Answer: D
Remaining employees=2000 – 600=1400 Required sum=500 + 180=680
Total number of employees in IT department=4/7 * Directions (11-15):
1400=800 Total number of travelers in July = 1250
Number of female employees in IT department=3/8 * The total number of national travelers in June =
800=300 (3/5)*total number of travelers in July
Number of male employees in IT department=5/8 * = > (3/5)*1250 = 750
800=500 The ratio of travelers in June to that of July = 4: 5 (4x,
Number of female employees in HR department=300 * 5x)
90/100=270 5x = 1250
Number of male employees in HR department=600 – x = 250
270=330 Total number of travelers in June = 4x = 1000
Total number of employees in Sales department=3/7 * The total number of national travelers in June = 100 less
1400=600 than the total number of travelers in September
Number of male employees in sales department=500 – = > 750 = Total travelers in September – 100
80=420 Total number of travelers in September = 750 + 100 =
Number of female employees in sales department=600 850
– 420=180 The number of international travelers in July =
Directions (6-10): (36/100)*total number of travelers in July.
6) Answer: B The number of international travelers in July =
Required ratio=420:180 (36/100)*1250 = 450
=7:3 The number of national travelers in July = 1250 – 450
7) Answer: B = 800
Required percentage=(300 + 270 + 180)/(500 + 330 + The number of international travelers in August =
420) * 100 (1/2)*National travelers in July
=60% = > (1/2)*800 = 400
8) Answer: D The number of travelers in August = (225/100)*total
Required Difference=330 – 270=60 number of international travelers in August
9) Answer: C = > (225/100)*400 = 900
Page 637 of 1079

The number of national travelers in August = 900 – 400 The total number of national travelers (male and
= 500 female) in June and August together
The ratio of total number of national travelers to that of = > 750 + 500 = 1250
international travelers in September = 11: 6 (11x, 6x) The ratio of male national travelers to that of female
17x = 850 national travelers
x = 50 = > 16: 9 (16x, 9x)
The total number of national travelers in September = 25x = 1250
11x = 550 x = 50
The total number of international travelers in September The total number of female national travelers in June
= 6x = 300 and August together
= > 9x = 9*50 = 450
13) Answer: D
The total number of international travelers in July = 450
The total number of national travelers in August = 500
Required % = [(500 – 450)/500]*100 = 10 % less
14) Answer: B
The average number of national travelers in May, June,
11) Answer: C July, August and September together = 610
The total number of travelers in October = The total number of national travelers in May, June,
(160/100)*the total number of travelers in August July, August and September together = 610*5 = 3050
= > (160/100)*900 = 1440 The total number of national travelers in May
The ratio of national travelers to international travelers = > 3050 – (750 + 800 + 500 + 550) = 450
in October The total number of international travelers in September
= >7 : 3 (7x, 3x) = 300
10x = 1440 Required ratio = 450: 300 = 3: 2
x = 144 15) Answer: A
The difference between the total number of national Total number of international travelers in June = 250
travelers to that of international travelers in October Total number of international travelers in August = 400
= > 4x = 144*4 = 576 Required % = (250/400)*100 = 62.5 %
12) Answer: A Directions (16-20):
Page 638 of 1079

2016: Required ratio = 2055: 1830 = 137: 122

A=900 19) Answer: A
B=7/9*900=700 Difference = 2800 – 2650 = 150
C=5/9*900=500 20) Answer: A
D=3/9*900=300 Required percentage = 1050/650 * 100 = 161.5% =
E=4/9*900=400 162%
2017: Directions (21-25):
A=900*120/100=1080 2012:
B=700+200=900 The total runs scored in 2012 were 1200.
C=120/100*500=600 The average runs scored against Sri Lana and England
Remaining=4010-(1080+900+600)=1430 was 400 so the total runs scored against Sri Lanka and
D=6/11*1430=780 England was 800.
E=5/11*1430=650 The total runs scored against others = 1200 – 800 = 400
2018: 2013:
A=4/9*1890=840 The ratio of the total runs scored against Others in 2012
B=5/9*1890=1050 to that of the total runs scored against Others in 2013 is
C=150/100*600=900 4: 3.
D=125/100*780=975 So the total runs against others in 2013 = ¾ * 400 = 300
E=4/5*975=780 The total runs scored against Sri Lanka and Others =
800
The total runs scored against Sri Lanka = 800-300 = 500
The runs scored against England in 2012 were 1/3rd of
the runs against others in 2013 = 1/3*300 =100
2014:
The total runs scored in 2014 were 1600.
The sum of the total runs scored against Sri Lanka and
16) Answer: B
England is equal to the total runs scored against others.
Required percentage=2000/2820*100=71%
It means the total runs scored against Others were is half
17) Answer: A
i.e 800 runs and the sum of the total runs scored against
Difference = 4545/5 - 4010/5 = 909 – 802 = 107
Sri Lanka and England was 800.
18) Answer: A
Page 639 of 1079
The total runs scored against Sri Lanka were twice of Number of yellow balls in A=3/15 * 60=12
the runs scored against England in 2012. Number of blue balls in A=5/15 * 60=20
Score against Sri Lanka = 200 Number of black balls in A=4/15 * 60=16
Score against England = 600 Number of white balls in A=1/15 * 60=4
The total runs scored against England in 2013 were Number of red balls in B=8 * 125/100=10
equal to the total runs scored against England in 2014. Number of yellow balls in B=12 + 6=18
Score against England in 2013 = 600. Number of blue balls in B=6/5 * 20=24
Total number of balls in B=80
Number of black and white balls in B=80 – (10 + 18 +
24)
=28
Number of black balls in B=4/7 * 28=16
Number of white balls in B=3/7 * 28=12
Number of black balls in C=125/100 * 16=20
21) Answer: D
Number of white balls in C=5/4 * 20=25
Score against Sri Lanka
Number of blue balls in C=50/100 * 24=12
In 2013 = 500
Number of red balls in C=5/11 * 33=15
In 2014 = 200
Number of yellow balls in C=6/11 * 33=18
Percentage = 500/200 * 100 = 250%
Total number of balls in C=20 + 25 + 12 + 15 + 18=90
22) Answer: B
26) Answer: B
Difference = 400 – 300 = 100
Total number of blue balls=(20 + 24 + 12)=56
23) Answer: B
Total number of black balls=(16 + 16 + 20)=52
Total run in 2013 = 500 + 600 + 300 = 1400
Difference=56 – 52=4
24) Answer: C
27) Answer: E
The sum of runs scored against England = 100 + 600 +
Total=60 + 80 + 90=230
600 = 1300
28) Answer: C
25) Answer: E
Required ratio=15/90 * 100=17%
Required Ratio = 700/800 = 7: 8
29) Answer: E
Directions (26-30):
Required ratio=(4 + 12 + 25):(12 + 18 + 18)
Total number of balls in A=60
=41:48
Number of red balls in A=2/15 * 60=8
Page 640 of 1079

30) Answer: D 31) Answer: B

Difference=25 – (8 + 10) Required Sum=352 + 292=644
=7 32) Answer: B
Directions (31-35): Required percentage=160/220 * 100=73%
Total number of male employees=3/4 * 1600=1200 33) Answer: A
Total number of female employees=1/4 * 1600=400 Required ratio=88:116
HR: =22:29
Total employee=25/100 * 1600=400 34) Answer: E
Male employee=7/10 * 400=280 Difference=440 – 292=148
Female employee=3/10 * 400=120 35) Answer: B
Marketing: Number of females in,
Total employee=13.75/100 * 1600=220 IT = 88
Female employee=1/2 * 120=60 HR = 120
Male employee=220 – 60=160 Sales = 44
IT: Marketing = 60
Total employee=2/1 * 220=440 Finance = 88
Sales: Directions (36-40):
Total employee=10/100 * 1600=160 Total students in the college = 500
Female employee=440 * 10/100=44 No. of boys = 3/5 * 500 = 300
Male employee=160 – 44=116 No. of girls = 500 – 300 = 200
Finance: No. of boys passed only in Physics = 25/100 x 300 = 75
Total employee=1600 – (160 + 440 + 220 + 400)=380 No. of girls passed only in Maths = 2/5 x 75 = 30
Remaining female employee=400 – (44 + 60 + No. of girls passed in both papers = 32/100 x 500 = 160
120)=176 No. of boys passed in both papers = 130/100 x 160 =
Number of female employee in Finance=176/2=88 208
Male employee=380 – 88=292 No. of boys passed only in Maths = 300 – (208 + 75) =
IT: 17
Total employee=2/1 * 220=440 No. of girls passed only in Physics = 200 – (160 + 30)
Female employee=88 = 10
Male employee=440 – 88=352
Page 641 of 1079

In 2017, Salary expense of a company = 15 lakhs

Total employees = 100
Average salary of employee = Rs.1500000/100 =
Rs.15000
In 2018, Average salary of employee = Rs.7000 +
36) Answer: C average salary of employees in 2017 = 7000 + 15000 =
No. of girls passed only Physics = 200 – (160 + 30) = Rs.22000
10 Salary expense in 2018 = 110/100 * 15 = Rs.16.5 lakhs
37) Answer: B Other expense in 2018 = Rs.24 lakhs
No. of boys passed only Maths = 300 – (208 + 75) = 17 Total expense in 2018 = 16.5 + 24 = Rs.40.5 lakhs
Total number of students = 500 Total employees in 2018 = 1650000/22000 = 75
Percentage % = 17/500 x 100 = 3.4 % Total expense in 2017 = Total expense in 2018 =
38) Answer: A Rs.40.5 lakhs
So, total number of students passed in Physics = (75 + Other expense in 2017 = 40.5 – 15 = Rs.25.5 lakhs
10 + 160 + 208) = 453 In 2019, Average salary = Rs.24000
39) Answer: C Other expense = Rs.45 lakhs
No. of boys who passed only in Maths = 17 Number of employees in 2019 = 75 – 10 = 65
No. of boys passed in both papers = 130/100 x 160 = Salary expense in 2019 = 65 * 24000 = Rs.15.6 lakhs
208 Total expense in 2019 = 45 + 15.6 = 60.6 lakhs
Total no. of boys passed in maths = 225

No. of girls passed only in Physics = 10
So, ratio = 225/10 = 45:2
40) Answer: A
Total no. of students passed in Physics = 10 + 75 + 160
+ 208 = 453 41) Answer: B
Total no. of students passed in Maths = 30 + 17 + 160 Required percentage = (40.5 – 25.5)/25.5 * 100
+208 = 415 = 59%more
So, percentage % = (453 – 415)/415 x 100 = 9.15 % = 42) Answer: A
9% more approx. Required percentage = 60.6/40.5 * 100 = 150%
Directions (41-45): 43) Answer: C
Page 642 of 1079
Required average = (25.5 + 24 + 45)/3 = 31.5lakhs No. of educated males (man + boy) = 180/100 x 3200 =
44) Answer: D 5760
Required difference = 100 – 65 = 35 No. of uneducated males (man + boy) = 7200 – 5760 =
45) Answer: C 1440
Required average = 15000 + 22000 + 24000 = Rs.61000 46) Answer: D
Directions (46-50): Educated female/ Educated male = 3200/5760 = 5:9
Total population of the town = 12000 47) Answer: B
No. of adults (man + woman) = 7/12 x 12000 = 7000 Percentage % more = (2800 – 2000)/2000 x 100 =
No. of teenagers (boy+ girl) = 12000 – 7000 = 5000 40%more
No. of women = 40/100 x 7000 = 2800 48) Answer: A
No. of men = 7000 – 2800 = 4200 Educated (male + female) = 5760 + 3200 = 8960
No. of boys = 3/5 x 5000 = 3000 49) Answer: E
No. of girls = 5000 – 3000 = 2000 No. of men left in the town A after migration = 75/100
No. of educated females (woman + girl) = 66(2/3)% of x 4200 = 3150
(2800 + 2000) Sum of adults and teenagers in town A = 3150 + 2800
= 200/300 x 4800 = 3200 + 3000 + 2000= 10950
No. of uneducated females (woman + girl) = 4800 – 50) Answer: A
3200 = 1600 Percentage % of educated females out of total
population = 3200/12000 x 100 = 26(2/3) %
Ages
1) Rahul’s present age is 25% more than the present 2) After 8 years the average ages of Renu, Manu and
age of Anu and after 4 years Rahul’s age is 25% less Tinu is 43 years and ratio of the present ages of
than Sharu’s age that time. If the sum of the ages of Renu, Manu and Tinu is 8:12:15, then what is the
Rahul, Anu and Sharu is 64 years, then what is sum of the ages of Renu, Manu and Tinu four years
Rahul’s age after 10 years?(aprox) ago?
a) 20.5 years a) 88 years
b) 24.5 years b) 90 years
c) 30.5 years c) 93 years
d) 36.5 years d) 96 years
Page 643 of 1079
3) Ratio of the present ages of Divya to David is 3:2. 6) Sum of the ages of A and B five years hence is 60,
After 6 years David’s age will be 30 years. What will ratio between the age of A, 4 years ago and age of B,
be Divya’s age after 9 years? 4 years hence is 9:16, find the present age of B?
a) 51 years a) 22 years
b) 45 years b) 28 years
c) 39 years c) 24 years
d) 24 years d) 26 years
e) None of these e) 27 years
4) Ratio of the ages of A and B is 5:3 and the average 7) The present average age of three persons A,B and
ages of A and B is ------ years. If the ratio of the ages C is 40 years. The ratio of age of A and B, 5 years
of B to C is 2:3, then C’s age after 5 years is ------ ago is 4:7. The present age of C is 120% more than
years. that of A. Find present age of B
a) 24, 32 a) 40 years
b) 32, 41 b) 33 years
c) 48, 65 c) 26 years
d) 56, 68 d) 35 years
a) Only A e) None of these
b) Only A and B 8) Ratio of age of Vaani and Varun after 8 years
c) Only A, B and C from now is 10:9. Age of Varun after 17 years is 25%
d) Only A, B and D more than age of Vaani after 4 years. Find the
e) All A, B, C and D present age of father of Vaani who is 90% of sum of
5) If the difference between the age of P and Q is 4 ages of Vaani and Varun together?
years and the ratio between the age of P after 2 years a) 48 years
to the present age of Q is 5:4 then find age of Q after b) 54 years
2 years? c) 60 years
a) 30 d) 42 years
b) 28 e) None of these
c) 24 9) Mr.X has 4 sons, ages of them is in arithmetic
d) 26 progression, gap between each child is 2 years, after
e) 32 2 years 2nd youngest person got married, and age of
Page 644 of 1079

his wife at the time of marriage is 8 more than 50% 12) The average age of the family of 4 members after
of age of eldest son and average of them at the time 3 months is 36years, ratio of ages of eldest and 2ND
of marriage is 25.5, then find the age of youngest eldest 4 years before is 7:6, difference between the
son? ages of other two is 2 years, if the age of 2nd youngest
a) 28 years is 50% of age of 2nd eldest, then find the age of the
b) 26 years youngest among them?
c) 24 years a) 21 years
d) 22 years b) 24 years
e) 25 years c) 27 years
10) Rahul’s present age is four – third of the present d) 18 years
age of Bavi and Bavi’s present age is two-third of the e) 15 years
present age of Soni. If the average of the present ages 13) The ratio of ages of Kavi and Nivi 3 years ago is
of Rahul, Bavi and Soni is 46 years, then what is the 6:7, average age of Kavi, Sibi and Nivi 4 years hence
difference between the present ages of Rahul and is 32, then find the age of Sibi after 6 years?
Soni? a) 30 years
a) 4 years b) 35 years
b) 5 years c) 36 years
c) 7 years d) 39 years
d) 6 years e) Can’t be determined
e) 8 years 14) The Difference between the age of P and Q is 9
11) Ratio of present age of A and B respectively is years and age of Q is 25% more than that of P. The
5:4 and age of C is 50% more than A. If average age ratio of ages R to Q is 4:3.If age of S is 20 years more
of all three persons 2 years hence is 35 years then than R age and age of T is 6 more than twice the age
find the present age of C? of Q then Find the average age of P,Q,R,S,T.?
a) 45 years a) 63.4
b) 30 years b) 62.2
c) 60 years c) 64.4
d) 36 years d) 65.4
e) None of these e) 61.2
Page 645 of 1079

15) Present age of father is 75% more than present years hence is in the ratio of 2 : 5. And After 10 years,
age of son, 8 years hence age of father is 56.25% the sum of their ages is 56 years. Find the value of x?
more than age of son. Find the age of son 16 years a) 7
ago. b) 5
a) 6 years c) 4
b) 16 years d) 6
c) 8 years e) None of these
d) 12 years 19) Ratio of the ages of David to Rani after 2 years is
e) None of these 2:3 and the ratio of the ages of Rani to Kani 3 years
16) The ratio of the present ages of A, B and C is ago is 4:5. If the sum of the ages of David, Rani, Kani
5:4:7. The sum of the ages of A, B and C 8 years ago and Mani is 56 years, then what is the ratio of the
is 56 years. If the ratio of the ages of B to D after 12 ages of Mani to Rani after 3 years?
years is 2:3, then what is the present age of D? a) 3:4
a) 32 years b) 4:5
b) 36 years c) 3:1
c) 40 years d) 2:1
d) 48 years e) Cannot be determined
e) 56 years 20) The average age of Raju, Deepak and Chotu is
17) Ratio of the ages of Tarun to Arun is 5:4. After 4 30, that of Deepak, Raju and Golu is 32, that of
years the ages of Tarun is 25% less than the ages of Deepak, Chotu and Golu is 27 and that of Chotu,
Sharu. Sum of the ages of Tarun, Arun and Sharu is Golu and Raju is 28. What is the age of Raju?
64 years, what is the present age of Tarun? a) 34 years
d) 40 years e) 38 years
e) 35 years 21) The ages of A and B is in the ratio of 7:8. After 8
18) The ratio of present age of Amir and Abi is 4 : x. years the ratio of their ages will be 9:10. What is the
6 years ago, the age of Amir and the age of Abi, 5 sum of the ages of A and B, 7 years ago?
a) 40 years
Page 646 of 1079

d) 48 years d) 24 Years
e) None of these e) Cannot be determined
22) The present age of Shivani is 1/3rd of her 25) Ratio of present age of A and B is 4:5 and the
mother’s age, after 5 years mother’s age will be twice ratio of present age of A and C is 8:9. If the
the age of her son, her son celebrated 10th birthday difference between the age of A and C is 5 years, then
7 years before then find the age of shivani after 5 find the sum of ages of A, B and C after 7 years.
years. a) 152 years
d) 17 years e) None of these
e) 20 years 26) Rahul and Aditi got married 20 years ago and at
23) Present age of Vicky is 50% of combined present that time ratio of their ages was 5:4. Ratio of present
age of Rahul and Sonam, present age of Rahul is age of Rahul and Aditi is 7:6. After marriage they
25% of combined present age of Vicky and Sonam. had seven children including a triplet and a twin.
Find total age of all three 3 years ago if at present The ratio of present age of triplet, twin, sixth and
Vicky is 6 years elder than Rahul. seventh child is 4:3:2:1. Find the possible value of the
a) 45 years present total age of the family.
b) 36 years a)114
c) 54 years b) 201
d) 27 years c) 107
e) None of these d) 214
24) Present average age of A and B is 18 years. e) None of these
Present average age of A, B and C is 20 years. 27) The ratio of the ages of Ram to Anil is 4:5 and
Difference between present age of A and D is 12 the ratio of the present age of Anil to Manu is 3:4. If
years. Present average age of A, B, C and D is 24 the average ages of Ram, Anil and Manu together is
years. Find the present age of A. one year less than the present age of Tinu and Tinu
a) 22 years
Page 647 of 1079

is 12 years elder than Ram, then find the present age sum of the ages of Raghav and his daughter 4 years
of Manu? from now?
d) 56 years d) 41years
28) Age of three persons A,B,C are in the ratio of 31) Nine years ago, ratio of ages of Harsh and
4:5:6 and the ratio of age of A 4 years hence to the Nishant is 5 : 8. And Nishant age 9 years ago is same
age of C 2 years ago is 4:5, then find the age of B 3 as present age of Harsh. If Aman's present age is
years hence. 33.33% of present ages of Harsh and Nishant. Then
a) 23 years find the Aman's age 2 years hence?
b) 28 years a) 11 years
c) 38 years b) 25 years
d) 43 years c) 21 years
e) 18 years d) 18 years
29) Product of present age of A and B is 1584 years. e) None of these
Ratio of age of B and C after 4 years is 5:3 32) If the ratio of the ages of Arul to Bharathi is 4: 5
respectively. Find the present age of D which is 7 and after 8 years the ratio of the ages of Bharathi to
years younger than average of present age of A and Divya is 11: 16. If the sum of the ages of Arul,
C together and ratio of present age of B and A is 9:11 Bharathi and Divya is 85 years, then what is the
respectively. present age of Divya?
d) 35 years d) 56 years
𝟏 33) Ratio of the ages of A and B after 3 years is 3:2.C
30) The age of Raghav is 𝟗 𝟑 times that of his
‘s age after three years is 25% more than B’s age
daughter. 13 years ago, Raghav’s age was 5 times the
after three years. The average ages of A and C is 30
present age of his daughter now. What will be the
Page 648 of 1079

years. If the ratio of ages of C, D and E is 3:5:2, then 36) Ratio of the ages of A to B after 2 years is 4: 5
what is the average ages of D and E? and 2 years ago the ratio of the ages of A to C is 4: 5.
a) 32.5 years If the sum of the present ages of B and C is 75 years,
b) 28.5 years then what is the difference between the present age
c) 30.5 years of B and the sum of the present ages of A and C
d) 31.5 years together?
e) None of these a) 26 years
34) Ratio of the ages of A to B is 2:3 and the average b) 29 years
ages of C and D after 4 years is 28 years. Ratio of the c) 31 years
ages of D to E is 5:12 and the ratio of C to E after 12 d) 33 years
years is 2:3. If B is 8 years elder than C, then what is e) None of these
the difference between the sum of the ages of A and 37) Ratio of the ages of A to B is 4: 3 and D is 10 years
E together and the sum of the ages of B, C and D elder than C. If C is 25 years elder than B and D is
together? 20 years elder than A, then what is the average age
a) 10 years of A and B?
b) 12 years a) 35 years
c) 15 years b) 52.5 years
d) 18 years c) 59.5 years
e) 8 years d) 48.5 years
35) Ratio of the sum of the present age of A, B and C e) None of these
together to sum of the present age of D and E 38) Ratio of ages of A to B is 5: 6 and ratio of ages of
together is 5: 3. If after 4 years the ratio of the sum B to C after 7 years is 5: 4. If the average ages of A,
of the ages of A, B and C together to sum of the ages C and D is 43 years and the average of the present
of D and E together is 18: 11. What is the average ages of D and E is 40 years. Difference between the
ages of A, B, C, D and E together? ages of D and B is 4 years, and then find the present
a) 18.4 years age of E?
b) 19.2 years a) 20 years
c) 20.5 years b) 24 years
d) Cannot be determine c) 28 years
e) None of these d) 32 years
Page 649 of 1079

e) Cannot be determine (e) 32 years

39) Ratio of the ages of Malu to Shalu after 4 years 42) The ratio of present ages of B and A is 4 : 3 and
is 7: 4 and the ratio of the present age of Shalu to ratio of present ages of C and B is 7 : 6. If the
Anu is 1: 3. If the average of the ages of Malu and difference between the ages of A and C is 15, then
Anu is 30 years, then find the Shalu’s age 8 years find the sum of their ages.
ago? (a) 105 years
a) 4 years (b) 90 years
b) 6 years (c) 120 years
c) 8 years (d) 100 years
d) 12 years (e) 95 years
e) None of these 43) 5 years hence the sum of ages of A and B will
40) Ratio of the ages of Ram to Sam is 6: 5 and the be 14 years more than the sum of the present ages
ratio of the ages of Sam to Venu is 5: 8. If Renu’s age of B and C. 8 years ago the sum of A’s age and C’s
is 50% more than that of Ram’s age and the average age was 26 years, then what is the present age of A?
of the ages of Ram, Sam, Venu and Renu is 42 years a. 21 years
and Sam is 6 years older than Vinu, then find the b. 23 years
average of the ages of Vinu, Venu and Renu c. 20 years
together? d. 24 years
a) 30 years e. 25 years
b) 36 years 44) 7 year hence, the ratio of age of Deepak and
c) 45 years Chotu is 6:5. 6 years ago, Deepak’s age is equal to
d) 42 years the age of Chotu 6 year hence. Find the age of
e) 48 years Deepak 10 year hence.
41) Sanjay is 13 years older than Pooja. If 7 years a. 41 years
hence, the ratio between the ages of Sanjay and b. 74 years
Pooja will be 4 : 3, find the age of Pooja 5 years ago. c. 75 years
(a) 24 years d. 87 years
(b) 27 years e. 63 years
(c) 30 years 45) The ratio of P’s age 3 years ago and Q’s age
(d) 37 years after 5 years is 6:13. If at present, the ratio of their
Page 650 of 1079

ages is 11:20, then what is the ratio of P’s age 3 of Deepak and Chotu is 25 years. 6 years hence, the
year hence & Q’s age 6 year ago? average age of Deepak and Ganga would be 58
a. 2/5 years. What is present age of Deepak?
b. 2/3 a. 42 years
c. 3/4 b. 43 years
d. 7/2 c. 44 years
e. 2/9 d. 45 years
46) The present age of a father is 30 years more e. 46 years
than that of the son. If 5 years ago, the father’s age 49) Arvind’s age is 160% of what it was 3 years
was twice of his son’s age then after how many ago. After how many years, the present age of
years from today will the sum of their ages be 140 Arvind will be equal to 80% of age of Arvind’s age
years. that time?
a. 10 years a. 5 years
b. 15 years b. 2 years
c. 20 years c. 3 years
d. 25 years d. 4 years
e. 30 years e. None of these
47) Age of Ramu, Mohan and Sohan are in the 50) Three year ago, the ratio of the age of a son
ratio 2:3:5. After 5 years, Age of Sohan is 6 times and his father was 1:9. The present ratio of age of
the age of Ramu 5 year back. What is difference the son and his mother is 4:21. If his father was 6
between present ages of Mohan and Sohan? years older than his mother, then present age of his
a. 12 years mother is
b. 11 years a. 42 years
c. 10 years b. 45 years
d. 9 years c. 39 years
e. 8 years d. 48 years
48) 4 years ago, the average age of Deepak, Chotu e. 50 years
and Ganga was 33 years. The present average age
Ages - Answers with Explanation
Page 651 of 1079

1) Answer: C x=6
A + R + S = 64 B’s age = 6 * 3 = 18 years
A/R = 100/125 = 4/5 C’s age = 18 * 3/2 = 27
A = 4/5 R C’s age after 5 years = 27 + 5 = 32 years
(R + 4)/(S + 4) = 75/100 This is satisfied.
3S + 12 = 4R + 16 From option (B)
3S – 4R = 4 5x + 3x/2 = 32
3S = 4R + 4 8x = 64
A + R + S = 64 x=8
4/5 R + R + (4R + 4)/3 = 64 B’s age = 8 * 3 = 24 years
12R + 15R + 20R + 20 = 64 * 15 C’s age = 24 * 3/2 = 36
47R = 960 C’s age after 5 years = 36 + 5 = 41 years
R = 20.5 This satisfied.
Rahul’s age after 10 years = 20.5 + 10 = 30.5 years From option (C)
2) Answer: C 5x + 3x/2 = 48
8x + 8 + 12x + 8 + 15x + 8 = 43 * 3 8x = 96
35x = 105 x = 12
x=3 B’s age = 12 * 3 = 36 years
Renu = 8 * 3 = 24 years C’s age = 36 * 3/2 = 54
Manu = 12 * 3 = 36 years C’s age after 5 years = 54 + 5 = 59 years
Tinu = 15 * 3 = 45 years This is not satisfied.
Required sum = 24 + 36 + 45 – 12 = 93 years From option (D)
3) Answer: B 5x + 3x/2 = 56
David’s present age = 30 – 6 = 24 years 8x = 112
Divya’s present age = 24 * 3/2 = 36 years x = 14
Divya’s age after 9 years =36 + 9 = 45 years B’s age = 14 * 3 = 42 years
4) Answer: D C’s age = 42 * 3/2 = 63
From option (A) C’s age after 5 years = 63 + 5 = 68 years
5x + 3x/2 = 24 This is satisfied.
8x = 48 5) Answer :D
Page 652 of 1079

Let present age of P is P, Q is Q Let the age of Vaani and Varun after 8 years from now
P – Q =4 be 10a and 9a respectively
𝑃+2 5 According to the given statement
=
𝑄 4 9a + 9 = 1.25 x (10a – 4)
By solving the above we get, 9a + 9 = 12.5a – 5
P=28, Q=24 years 3.5a = 14
Age of Q after 2 years =24+2 =26 So, a = 4
6) Answer: B Present age of Vaani = 10 x 4 – 8 = 32 years
Let present age of A = a, present age of B =b Present age of Varun = 9 x 4 – 8 = 28 years
It is given that, a+5+b+5=60 Age of father of Vaani = 90% of (32 + 28)
a+b=50 Age of father = 54 years
It is also given that, 9) Answer: C
.$( %
/+(
= !& Let age of youngest son be ‘x’
16a-64= 9b+36 Age of other sons, x+2, x+4, x+6
16a-9b =100 Age of 2nd youngest person = x+2
By solving the above equations we get, a=22, b=28 Age of 2nd youngest person at the time of marriage =
Present age of B=28 years x+4
0+&
7) Answer: A Age of his wife at the time of marriage = +8
'
Let the age of A 5 years ago = 4a Average age of the couples = 25.5
Present age of A = 4a + 5 0+(+(
!"#
+))
$
=25.5
Let the age of B 5 years ago = 7a '
Present age of B = 7a + 5 x=24
Age of C = 2.2 x (4a + 5) = 8.8a + 11 Age of youngest person is 24 years.
Sum of ages of all three persons = 40 x 3 = 120 10) Answer: D
4a + 5 + 7a + 5 + 8.8a + 11 = 120 Rahul = 4/3 * Bavi
19.8a = 99 Rahul/Bavi = 4/3
a=5 Bavi = 2/3 * Soni
So present age of B = 7 x 5 + 5 = 40 years Bavi/Soni = 2/3
8) Answer: B Ratio of the ages of Rahul, Bavi and Soni = 8:6:9

8x + 6x + 9x = 46 * 3
Page 653 of 1079

23x = 46 * 3 From this equation, age of Sibi can’t be determined

x=6 14) Answer: A
Difference between the ages of Rahul and Soni = 6 Let P=4x, therefore Q = 125% of 4x=5x
years 5x-4x = 9
11) Answer: A x=9
Let the age of A and B be 10a and 8a respectively P= 36, Q =45
Age of C = 1.5 x 10a = 15a Ratio of R to Q= 4:3
According to question ("
Therefore age of R = *
(4) =60
10a + 8a + 15a + 2 x 3 = 35 x 3
Value of S= 60+20 =80
33a = 105 – 6 = 99
Value of T = 2(45)+6 =96
a=3 *&+("+&#+)#+%&
Required average = "
= 63.4
Present age of C = 15 x3 = 45 years
15) Answer: C
12) Answer: A
Let the present age of Son = 4a
Average age of the family after 3 months = 36
* Age of father = 1.75 x 4a = 7a
Present average age of the family = 36 - !' =35.75
According to question
Total present age of the family members = 4*35.75 = (7𝑎 + 8) 9
143 = @1 + B
4𝑎 + 8 16
Present age of eldest = 7x+4 112a + 128 = 100a + 200
Present age of 2nd eldest =6x+4 12a = 72
&0+(
Age of 2nd youngest = = 3x+2 a=6
'
Age of the youngest person = 3x+2-2 =3x Age of son 16 years ago = 4 x 6 – 16 = 8 years
Therefore, 7x+4+6x+4+3x+2+3x = 143 16) Answer: B
x=7 5x – 8 + 4x – 8 + 7x – 8 = 56
Age of the youngest person =3x =21 years x=5
13) Answer: E B’s age = 4 * 5 = 20 years
Present age of Kavi = 6x+3 B’s age after 12 years = 20 + 12 = 32 years
Present age of Nivi = 7x+3 D’s age after 12 years = 32 * 3/2 = 48 years
Average age of three persons 4 years hence= 32 D’s present age = 48 – 12 = 36 years
&0+*+40+*+567 89 :;/;+!' 17) Answer: A
*
=32
T + A + S = 64
Page 654 of 1079

T/A = 5/4 20) Answer: C

A = 4/5 T Solution:
(T + 4)/(S + 4) = 75/100 Let age of Raju = R, Deepak = D, Chotu = C, Golu = G
3S + 12 = 4T + 16 Then,
3S – 4T = 4 R + D + C = 90, D + R + G = 96, D+C+G
3S = 4T + 4 = 81, C + G + R = 84
A + T + S = 64 Adding all equation we get
4/5 T + T + (4T + 4)/3 = 64 3R + 3D + 3C + 3G = 351
12T + 15T + 20T + 20 = 64 * 15 R + D + C + G = 117
T = 20years Thus age of Raju = 117 – (D + C + G)
18) Answer: B = 117 – 81 = 36 years
The ratio of present age of Amir and Abi = 4 : x 21) Answer: E
6 years ago, the age of Amir and the age of Abi, 5 years 7x + 8/8x + 8 = 9/10
hence is in the ratio = 2 : 5 (2y, 5y) 72x + 72 = 70x + 80
Present age of Amir and Abi = 2y + 6, 5y – 5 2x = 8
After 10 years, the sum of their ages = 56 years x=4
Given, Present age of A = 7 * 4 = 28 years
2y + 6 + 5y – 5 + 20 = 56 Present age of B = 8 * 4 = 32 years
7y + 21 = 56 Required sum = 28 + 32 – 14 = 46 years
7y = 35 22) Answer: B
y=5 Let present age of mother = 3x, therefore present age of
Present age of Amir and Abi = 16 and 20 shivani =x
The ratio of present ages of Amir and Abi = 16 : 20 = 4 Her son celebrated 10th birthday 7 years before,
:5 therefore present age of her son =17 years
So, x = 5 Mother’s age after 5 years
19) Answer: E 3x+5 = 2(17+5)
Ratio of David to Rani after 2 years = 2:3 3x+5= 44
Ratio of the ages of Rani to Kani after 3 years = 4:5 x=13
David + Rani + Kani + Mani = 56 Present age of mother =39
We cannot find the answer. Present age of Shivani = 13
Page 655 of 1079

Age of Shivani after 5 years = 13+5 =18 years Sum of present ages of all three = 5 x (8 + 10 + 9) = 135
23) Answer: B years
According to question Sum of ages after 7 years = 135 + 3 x 7 = 135 + 21 =
𝑉 1 156 years
= … … … … … . (1)
𝑅 + 𝑆 2 26) Answer: D
𝑅 1
= … … … … … … . . (2) Let thepresent age of Rahul and Aditi be 7X and 6X
𝑉 + 𝑆 4
years respectively.
Multiply the equation 1 and 2 by 5 & 3 respectively
According to question,
So, ratio of their present ages Vicky, rahul and sonam=
7𝑋 − 20 5
5:3:7 =
6𝑋 − 20 4
2 unit = 6
28X – 80 = 30X – 100
1 unit = 3
2X = 20
Sum of present age = 15 x 3 = 45
X = 10
Sum of ages 3 years ago = 45 – 3 x 3 = 36 years
Present age of Rahul = 7 x 10 = 70 yrs
24) Answer: D
Present age of Aditi = 6 x 10 = 60 yrs
A + B = 2 x 18 = 36
For maximum value of Present total age of family
A + B + C = 20 x 3 = 60
Present age of triplets = 16 yrs
A + B + C + D = 4 x 24 = 96
Present age of twins = 12 yrs
Age of C = 60 – 36 = 24 years
Present age of sixth = 8 yrs
Age of D = 96 – 60 = 36 years
Present age of seventh = 4 yrs
Also,
Maximum present age of that family= 70 + 60 + 16 x 3
A – D = 12
+ 12 x 2 + 8 + 4 = 214
A = 12 + 36 = 48 Years
27) Answer: A
A can’t be 48 years because A + B = 36 years
Ratio of the ages of Ram, Anil and Manu = 12:15:20
So, D – A = 12
Present age of Tinu = (12x + 15x + 20x)/3 + 1 = 47x/3
A = 36 – 12 = 24 Years
+1
25) Answer: B
= (47x + 3)/3
Ratio of present age of A, B and C respectively = 8:10:9
[47x + 3/3] – 12x = 12
47x + 3 – 36x = 36
9 units – 8 units = 5
11x = 33
1 unit = 5
x=3
Page 656 of 1079
Manu = 20 * 3 = 60 years N = 3 years

28) Answer: C ')
Age of Raghav = *
𝑥 3 = 28 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
Present ages of A,B,C are 4x,5x,6x
Four years from now,
Age of A 4 years hence =4x+4
Age of Raghav = 28 + 4 = 32 years
Age of C 2 years ago = 6x-2
His daughter’s age = 3 + 4 = 7 years
(0+( (
&0$'
=" Required sum = 32 + 7 = 39 years
20x+20 = 24x-8 31) Answer: C
4x=28 Let the age of Harsh 9 years ago is = 5x
x=7 And the age of Nishant 9 years ago is = 8x
Present age of B = 5x = 35 So, according to the question,
Age of B 3 years hence = 35+3 =38 years =>8x = 5x + 9
29) Answer: E => 8x – 5x = 9
Let the present age of A and B respectively be 11a and => 3x = 9
9a => x = 3
11a x 9a = 1584 So, the present age of Harsh is = (5 × 3) + 9 = 24 years
a² = 16 And the present age of Nishant is = (8 × 3) + 9 = 33
a=4 years
Present age of A = 11 x 4 = 44 years Now, the present age of Aman is = 33.33% of (24 + 33)
Present age of B = 9 x 4 = 36 years = 1/3 × 57 = 19 years
Age of B after 4 years = 36 + 4 = 40 years So, Aman's age two year hence will be = 19 + 2 = 21
Present age of C = 40 x 3/5 – 4 = 20 years years
Present age of D = (44 + 20)/2 – 7 = 25 years Hence, the required answer is = 21 years.
30) Answer: A 32) Answer: B
Let the age of Raghav’s daughter be N years. Arul = 4x
! ') Bharathi = 5x
Raghav’s age = 9 * 𝑁 = *
𝑁
Bharathi ager after 8 years = 5x + 8
28 Divya age after 8 years = 16/11 * (5x + 8)
𝑁 − 13 = 5𝑁
3 4x + 5x + (16/11 * (5x + 8) – 8) = 85
28 44x + 55x + 80x + 128 – 88 = 85 * 11
𝑁 − 5𝑁 = 13
3 179x = 895
Page 657 of 1079

x=5 C = 28
Divya age after 8 years = 16/11 (5 * 5 + 8) = 48 years B = 28 + 8 = 36
Divya’s present age = 48 – 8 = 40 years A = 2/3 * 36 = 24
33) Answer: D D = 48 – 28 = 20
A’s age after 3 years = 3x A + E = 48 + 24 = 72
B’s age after 3 years = 2x B + C + D = 36 + 28 + 20 = 84
C’s age after 3 years = 2x * 125/100 = 2.5x Required difference = 84 – 72 = 12 years
(3x – 3 + 2.5x – 3) = 30 * 2 35) Answer: B
5.5x – 6 = 60 (5x + 12)/(3x + 8) = 18/11
5.5x = 66 54x + 144 = 55x + 132
x = 12 years x = 12
C’s age = 2.5 * 12 – 3 = 27 years Required average = (8 * 12)/5 = 19.2 years
D’s age = 5/3 * 27 = 45 36) Answer: B
E’s age = 2/3 * 27 = 18 (A + 2)/ (B + 2) = 4/5
Average age of D and E = (45 + 18)/2 = 31.5 years 5A + 10 = 4B + 8
34) Answer: B 5A – 4B = - 2 --------- (1)
A/B = 2/3 (A – 2)/(C – 2) = 4/5
B–C=8 4C – 8 = 5A – 10
C + 4 + D + 4 = 28 * 2 5A – 4C = 2 ------ (2)
C + D = 48 B + C = 75------ (3)
D/E = 5/12 (3) * 4 + (2)
C + 5E/12 = 48 5A + 4B = 302------------- (4)
12C + 5E = 48 * 12 (4) + (1)
(C + 12)/(E + 12) = 2/3 10A = 300
2E + 24 = 3C + 36 A = 30
2E – 3C = 12 150 – 4B = -2
12C + 5E = 576 4B = 152
13E = 624 B = 38
E = 48 years C = 37
96 – 12 = 3C Required difference = (30 + 37) – 38 = 29
Page 658 of 1079

37) Answer: B 7
3𝑥 + @ ∗ (𝑥 + 4) − 4B = 30 ∗ 2
D – C = 10 4
12x + 7x + 28 – 16 = 240
C – B = 25
19x = 228
D – A = 20
x = 12 years
C = D – 10
Shalu age 8 years ago = 12 – 8 = 4 years
D – 10 – B = 25
40) Answer: D
D – B = 35
Ram/Sam = 6/5
B = D – 35
Sam/Venu = 5/8
A = D – 20
< – '# ( Ratio of the ages of Ram, Sam and Venu = 6: 5: 8
< – *"
=*
Renu’s age = 6x * 150/100 = 9x
4D – 140 = 3D – 60
(6x + 5x + 8x + 9x) = 42 * 4
D = 80
28x = 168
A = 80 – 20 = 60
x = 6 years
B = 80 – 35 = 45
Sam age = 5 * 6 = 30 years
&# + ("
Required average = '
= 52.5 years Vinu = 30 – 6 = 24 years
38) Answer: E Venu = 8 * 6 = 48 years
Present age of A = 5x Renu = 9 * 6 = 54 years
Present age of B = 6x Required average = (54 + 48 + 24)/3 = 42 years
After 7 years B’s age = 6x + 7 41) Answer: B
C’s age after 7 years = (6x + 7) * 4/5 Let present age of Sanjay be ‘T’ years and present age
= (24x + 28)/5 of Pooja be ‘T – 13’ years.
A + C + D = 43 * 3 = 129 years ATQ
D + E = 40 * 2 = 80 years 𝑇+7 4
⇒ =
Difference of D and B = 4 years 𝑇 − 13 + 7 3
⇒ 3𝑇 + 21 = 4𝑇 − 24
We cannot find the answer.
⇒ 𝑇 = 45
39) Answer: A
Present age of Shalu = x So, required age of Pooja = 45 − 13 − 5 = 27 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
Present age of Anu = 3x 42) Answer: A
After 4 years Shalu age = x + 4 A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 7
Malu age after 4 year = 7/4 * (x + 4) So, A : B : C = 9 : 12 : 14
Page 659 of 1079

ATQ Solving both the equation we have

⇒ 14 − 9 = 15 P = 33 years and Q = 60 years
So, 5 units = 15 So,(P+3) / (Q-6) = 33+3/60-6
So, required sum = 35 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 = 15 × 7 = 105 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 = 36/54 = 2/3
According to the question Let, father be F and son be S
Present age of A & C F = S + 30 ---- i
A + C = 42 ------------ i Also, F – 5 = 2 x (S – 5)
After 5 year, sum of age of A & B will be 14 year more F – 2S = -5 ----- ii
than sum of B and C. On solving eq. i and ii
A + 5 + B + 5 = B + C + 14 S = 35 and F = 65, total age = 100
A – C = 4 ------------- ii Total age will be 140 after 20 years (in 20 years, both
On solving equation i and ii their ages will increase)
A = 23 years 47) Answer: C
44) Answer: C Age of Ramu = 2x, Mohan = 3x, Sohan = 5x
Let Deepak be D and Chotu be C Age of the Sohan after 5 year = 6 time age of Ramu 5
According to question year ago
(7 + D) / (7 + C) = 6/5 5x + 5 = 6 * (2x – 5)
35 + 5D = 42 + 6C 5x + 5 = 12x – 30
5D – 6C = 7 --------- i 7x = 35
D–6=C+6 x=5
D – C = 12 ----------- ii Difference between present ages of Mohan and Sohan
On solving i and ii = 5x – 3x = 2x = 2 x 5 = 10 years
D = 65 48) Answer: B
After 10 year = 65 + 10 = 75 years Sum of the present age of Deepak and Chotu = 25 x 2 =
45) Answer: B 50
(P – 3) / (Q + 5) = 6 / 13 Present age of Ganga = 111 – 50 = 61
So, 13P – 6Q = 69 -------- i Sum of present age of Deepak and Ganga = 58 x 2 – 12
P/Q = 11/20 = 104
20P – 11Q = 0 -------- ii Present age of Deepak = 104 – 61 = 43 years
Page 660 of 1079

49) Answer: B Let us consider, son be S, father be F and mother be M.

Let us consider the present age of Arvind= x A.T.Q.
3 year ago = (x – 3) (S-3)/(F-3) = 1/9
A.T.Q 9S – 27 = F - 3
x = 160% of (x-3) 9S – F = 24 --- i
5x = 8x - 24 and
x = 8 years S/M = 4/21 and F–M=6
Now,if S/(F – 6) = 4/21
80% of value = 8 years => 21S – 4F = -24 -- ii
So, 100% = 8 x 5/4 = 10years On solving equation i and ii
After 10 – 8 = 2 years, the condition will be satisfied. M = 42 years
50) Answer: A
Partnership
1) Sunil, Irfan and Ranbir started the business with a. Rs.21000
the investment in the ratio of 4:5:3. If after 8 months b. Rs.42000
Irfan left the business, at the end of year the sum of c. Rs.38000
the profit share of Sunil and Ranbir is Rs.4200, then d. Rs.33000
find the profit share of irfan? e. Rs.34000
a) Rs.1000 3) A & B invest RS.x and RS.x+800 respectively for
b) Rs.1500 same period. Profit share of A is 3200 out of total
c) Rs.1800 profit of 6800. Then find x ?
d) Rs.2000 a) Rs.5600
e) None of these b) Rs.7200
2) 19. A and B invested into a partnership with Rs. c) Rs.5200
24000 together for 8 months. 80% of amount d) Rs.6000
invested by A is equal to 4/7th of investment of B. If e) Rs.6400
A increase his investment by Rs. 4000 after 8 4) P, Q, R started a business by investing Rs.7500, x,
months and B continues with his initial amount, Rs.12000 for 8 months, 6 months, 10 months
then find profit share of B out of total profit of Rs. respectively. What is the difference between share of
76000 after a year of investment? profit of P and Q if the profit ratio of P: R is 1:2?
Page 661 of 1079
a) Rs.8000 a) 7
b) Rs.12000 b) 4
c) Rs.16000 c) 5
d) Can’t be determined d) 6
e) Rs.20000 e) 8
5) A and B together started to invest in a business 8) A, B and C started the business. A’s investment is
with Rs.1200 and Rs.1500 respectively. After 3 Rs.3500. At the end of year the ratio of the profit
months C joined the business with 50% more shares of A and B is 5:3. If the total profit of the
investment than A. If after one year the total profit business is Rs.4000 and the profit share of B is
is 27000 rupees, find the profit share of B. Rs.1200, then what is the initial investment of C?
a) Rs.10,000 a) Rs.2200
b) Rs.9,000 b) Rs.2400
c) Rs.8,000 c) Rs.2800
d) Rs.12,000 d) Rs.1800
6) A, B, C entered into a partnership with initial 9) A and B start a business by investing Rs.60 and
investments of Rs. 1650, Rs. 1150 and Rs. 950. After Rs.50 Respectively. After 6 months B withdraws half
6 months A withdraw Rs. 150 and C added Rs. 250 of his investment. After 2 more months A invests
more. The profit of all three together after 8 months 1/3’rd more of his initial investment and also C joins
is Rs. 9060, find profit share of C? with a capital of Rs.75. If at the end of the year they
a) Rs.2430 get a profit of Rs 3720 find the share of C.
b) Rs.2760 a)Rs.720
c) Rs.2230 b)Rs.1200
d) Rs.2530 c)Rs.560
e) None of these d)Rs.750
7) P and Q starts a business with the capital of e)Rs.850
Rs.12000, Rs.14000 respectively, after 4 months R 10) X started business with an investment of
joined with the capital of Rs.21000 and at the end of (x+4500), and after 3 months Y joined with him by
the year they shared profit in the ratio of 6:7:x, then investing ‘2x’, at the end the year they shared profit
find the value of x?
Page 662 of 1079

in the ratio of 56:57, then find the difference of their 13) A, B and C started the business with the
investment? investment in the ratio of 5:9:8. After 4 months A
a) Rs.5000 added Rs.4000 for his initial investment and after 4
b) Rs.4000 more months C added Rs.2000 for his initial
c) Rs.4500 investment. At the end of year the total profit of the
d) Rs.6000 business is Rs.7100 and the profit share of A is
e) Rs.5500 Rs.1900, then find initial investment of C?
11) Sukumar and Gokul entered into a partnership a) Rs.12000
by investing Rs.7500 and Rs.6000, they have agreed b) Rs.15000
to divide 30% of profit equally and the remaining c) Rs.16000
profit will be divided according to their investments, d) Rs.18000
if Gokul gets Rs.280 less than that of Sukumar, then e) None of these
find the total profit? 14) P, Q and R started a business by investing Rs. X,
a) Rs.2700 Rs. X + 25000 and Rs. X – 5000 respectively. After 6
b) Rs.3300 months, R invested Rs. 10000 more but P withdraw
c) Rs.2400 Rs. 5000. Find the value of X, if the share of Q and
d) Rs.3600 R is in the ratio of 8 : 3?
e) Rs.3900 a) 20000
12) A, B and C invested in a Business with initial b) 25000
investments of Rs. 3000, Rs. 2000 and Rs. 4000 c) 10000
respectively. They start invested together after K d) 15000
months B left the Business and after 1 year, total e) None of these
profit of all three together is Rs. 940. Find the value 15) Heena and Heema entered the business with the
of K if profit share of B is Rs. 100 investment of Rs.6000 and Rs.8000 respectively. The
a) 6 profit earned by Heena is Rs.1500 more than the
b) 9 profit share of Heema and the profit share of Heema
c) 7 is Rs.2500. The investment period of Heema is what
d) 4 percent of the investment period of Heena?
e) None of these a) 46.87%
b) 48.78%
Page 663 of 1079

c) 50.05% c) Rs.27270
d) 52.15% d) Can’t be determined
e) 44.24% e)none of the above
16) Agaliya, Akhil and Ambi started the business 19) P, Q, R, S are four partners in a business, P
with the investment of 3:4:2. At the end of the invested 1/4th of amount, Q invested 1/5th of the
business, they received the profit in the ratio of amount, R invested 1/3rd of the amount and the
6:10:3. Find the ratio of the periods of Agaliya, Akhil remaining amount is invested by S, then find the
and Ambi contributes their capital? ratio of investments of S,P,R,Q.
a) 2:5:3 a) 13:20:12:!5
b) 3:4:5 b) 13:20:15:!2
c) 4:5:3 c) 13:15:20:12
d) 3:5:4 d) 13:15:12:20
e) None of these e) 13:12:15:20
17) Abhi and Pragya started the business with the 20) A started the business with Rs. 2600 after 6
investment of Rs.8000 and Rs.16000 respectively. months B joined with Rs. 1800. At the end of 1 year,
After 4 months Abhi added 25% of his initial profit share of B is Rs. 775 includes 25% of profit for
investment. At the end of year the difference managing the business. Find the profit share of A
between the profit share of Abhi and Pragya is a) Rs. 925
Rs.4000, find total profit of the business? b) Rs. 975
a) Rs.14800 c) Rs. 875
b) Rs.15000 d) Rs. 675
c) Rs.15200 e) None of these
d) Rs.15800 21) A and B starting a business with initial
e) Rs.16000 investment in 16:15 respectively. After few months,
18) In a business P and R invested in the ratio of 2:3 C joins with 2/3 times investment of B, and B left the
also P and Q invested in the ratio of 1:4, total profit business. After 15 months, the profit share of A, B
earned by them is Rs.65650, then find the profit and C is in ratio of 48:15:20 respectively. Find the
share of R. period of investment of C.
a) Rs.15150 a) 10 months
b) Rs.18180 b) 6 months
Page 664 of 1079

c) 4 months of year the total profit of the business is Rs.5300, find

d) 9 months the profit share of B?
e) None of these a) Rs.2000
22) Three persons P, Q and R started a venture with b) Rs.2250
capitals in the ratio of 4:1:15. At the end of every c) Rs.2500
quarter P halves his capital, while Q doubles his d) Rs.2750
capital and R leaves his capital same as before. This e) None of these
process is repeated till the end of the year. If at the 25) Partners x,y,z invested Rs.8000, Rs.13000 and
end of the year Q’s share of profit is Rs 22000, what Rs.17000 in a business, after 4 months all of them
is the total profit? invested Rs.1000, and after another 4 months all of
a) Rs.121000 them withdraws 10% of their previous investments,
b) Rs.131000 at the end of the year difference between the profit
c) Rs.141000 share of x and z is Rs.2610, then find the total profit.
d) Rs.100000 a) Rs.11590
23) Rahul and Reena started the business with the c) Rs.11550
investment of Rs.4800 and Rs.5400 respectively and d) Rs.11990
after 4 months Rathina joined with the investment e) Rs.11050
of Rs.5100. At the end of year the total profit of the 26) A, B and C invested in a business in the ratio of
business is Rs.34000, then find the profit share of 5:6:3. 30% of the total profit given to A as a reward
Rathina? for managing the business, rest profit divided in
a) Rs.8500 ratio of their capital. If profit of A at the end of year
b) Rs.10200 is Rs. 400 more than profit of B and C together, then
c) Rs.5100 find total profit.
d) Rs.6800 a) Rs. 2000
e) None of these b) Rs. 2800
24) A and B started the business with the investment c) Rs. 3500
of Rs.4800 and Rs.6000 respectively. After 4 months d) Rs. 4000
C joined with the investment of Rs.5000. At the end e) None of these
Page 665 of 1079

27) A, B and C started the business with initial a) Rs.5000

investments in the ratio of 10: K: 12. After 4 months b) Rs.10000
A withdraw 50% of capital and C withdraw one- c) Rs.2500
third of capital, after another 4 months B left the d) Rs.3000
business. At the end of year, profit share of C is Rs. e) Rs.6000
3500 out of total profit of Rs.9000. Find the value of 30) A and B started the business with the investment
K. of Rs.7500 and Rs.7200 respectively and the ratio of
a) 12 the investment period of A and B is 6:5. At the end
b) 6 of business the total profit is Rs.13200 and they give
c) 8 one-fourth of the profit to charity and divided rest
d) 10 of them. What is the profit share received by A?
28) A started the business with the investment of Rs. b) Rs.4500
x and after 4 months B joined with the investment of c) Rs.5500
Rs. 6000. After 4 more months C joined with the d) Rs.3000
investment of Rs. (x - 2000). At the end of year the e) Rs.4800
total profit is Rs.7000 and the profit share of B is 31) A and B started the business and the sum of the
Rs.2000, find the value of x? investment of A and B is Rs.20000. After 6 months B
a) Rs.6000 added Rs.2000 to his initial investment. At the end of
b) Rs.8000 year the profit share ratio of A to B is 4:3 and the
c) Rs.5000 total profit of the business is Rs.7500, then what is
d) Rs.4000 the initial investment of A?
29) A and B started the business with the investment b) Rs.12000
of 5:4. After 5 months A withdrew 10% of his c) Rs.15000
investment. After more 5 months A added Rs.1000 d) Rs.18000
and B withdrew Rs.1000. At the end of year the total e) None of these
profit of the business is Rs.10450. If the difference 32) A, B and C started the business with the
between the profit share of A and B is Rs.1250, then investment of Rs. x, Rs. (x + 2000) and Rs. (2x – 1000)
find the initial investment of A. respectively. After 4 months D joined with the
Page 666 of 1079

investment is Rs. (x + 2000). After 4 more months A c) Rs.1000

added Rs. x with his initial investment. At the end of d) Rs.2000
year the total profit is Rs.5200 and A’s profit share e) None of these
if Rs.1200, then find the profit share of C? 35) A and B started the business with the investment
a) Rs.1200 of Rs. x and Rs. (x + 1500) respectively and after one
b) Rs.1500 year C joined with the investment of Rs. (x – 1000).
c) Rs.1800 At the end of three years the total profit is Rs. 7500
d) Rs.2000 and the difference between the profits share of A and
e) None of these C is Rs. 1500, and then find the value of x?
33) A, B and C started the business with the a) Rs. 3000
investment in the ratio of 5: 4: 3. After one year A b) Rs. 2500
added Rs. 2000 for his initial investment and after c) Rs. 2000
one more year B and C added Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 d) Rs. 3500
respectively for them initial investment. At the end e) None of these
of three years the difference between the profit share 36) Anu, Geeta and Greeda started the business with
of A and C is Rs.7200, and then find the total profit the investments of Rs. 4000, Rs. x and Rs. 2x
share of the business? respectively. After one year Soni joined with Rs. (x
a) Rs.30700 + 2000). At the end of two years the total profit of the
b) Rs.32800 business is Rs. 6600 and Soni’s profit share is
c) Rs.20800 Rs.1000. What is the initial investment of Greeda?
d) Rs.28400 a) Rs.9000
34) A and B started the business with the investment c) Rs.16000
of Rs. x and Rs. (x + 1000) respectively and after 4 d) Rs.20000
months C joined the business with the investment of e) None of these
Rs.(x – 500). At the end of year the total profit is 37) Naman and Harman starts a business together
Rs.12000 and the profit share of B is Rs.6000. Find with the investment in the ratio of x : y. If Naman
the value of x? invests only for 7 months and after 1-year profit
𝒙+𝒚
a) Rs.4000 share of Naman and Harman is 1:2, then find ?
𝒚
b) Rs.3000 !*
a) &
Page 667 of 1079
!* 40) A invested Rs. 40000 and B invested Rs. 50000

b) 4
!' in a business and ratio of the time in which they
c) 4
invested is 7 : 5. If difference between their profit is
!*
d) ) Rs. 1260, then find total profit.
!!
e) (a) Rs. 21260
4
38) Manish and Kirtimaan start a business. After 1 (b) Rs. 11760
year, profit share of Kirtimaan is Rs. 19,600 out of (c) Rs. 10500
the total profit of Rs. 41,650. Find the amount (d) Rs. 22260
invested by Manish, if Kirtimaan invested Rs. 24000 (e) Rs. 18060
more than Manish and for 4 months less than 41) Amar and Samar started a business by
Manish. investing in the ratio 6:5. After few months, Amar
a) Rs. 96,000 withdrew half of his investment. If at the end of the
b) Rs. 84,000 year the profit is distributed equally among Amar
c) Rs. 72,000 and Samar, then after how many months did Amar
d) Rs. 90,000 withdrew half his investment?
e) Rs. 75,000 a. 2
39) Pawan, Lokesh and Sunny starts a business by b. 4
investing Rs. 15000, Rs. 20000 and Rs. 30000. After c. 7
‘x’ months, Pawan increase his investment by 40% d. 8
and after ‘y’ moths from starting of the business, e. None of these
Sunny withdraws 20% of his investment. If after 1 42) Three friends A, B and C start a business. A
year, Pawan, Lokesh and Sunny share their profit in invest double the sum invested by B and C invest
the ratio of 39 : 40 : 54. Find the difference between 2/5 of investment of A. If the ratio of time duration
x and y. of investment of A, B and C are in the ratio 2:4:3
a) 4 and the share of C in the profit is Rs. 1200, then
b) 5 find the total profit?
c) 2 a. Rs.5100
d) 3 b. Rs.5200
e) 1 c. Rs.5300
Page 668 of 1079

d. Rs.5400 withdraws after four month of the investment and

e. Rs.5500 so on, with Q withdrawing exactly at the end of the
43) Three person A, B and C started a business year. What is the ratio of the lowest share of the
together by investing Rs.10000, Rs. 15000 and Rs. profit to the highest share?
30000. After 3 month, A withdraw ¼ of his a. 1:2
investment and B and C together reinvested Rs. b. 3:4
12000 in the ratio 3:7, what will be the A’s share of c. 3:7
profit after the end of one year if the total profit d. 2:1
earned is Rs. 19880? e. 3:8
a. Rs.2100 46) Ram and Shyam start a business in which Ram
b. Rs.2200 invest 24000 and Shyam invest 36000. 6 month
c. Rs.2600 after starting the business, Shyam withdraw
d. Rs.2500 20000Rs. from his investment. 3 month later,
e. Rs.2300 Mohan joins their business and invest 50000. At the
44) Kamla, Neha and Shivi invested in a business end of the year,the business make a profit of 12500
for 12 month, 10 month and 12 month respectively. Rs. What will be Mohan’s share in the profit?
The amount that neha invested was half of the a. Rs.2100
amount of kamla invested.The amount that Shivi b. Rs.2200
invested was thrice the amount of neha invested. If c. Rs.2300
at end of the year, Kamla received Rs. 3204 as her d. Rs.2500
share in the profit, what is Shivi share in the profit? e. Rs.2400
a. Rs.4801 47) A, B and C started a business by investing Rs.
b. Rs.4803 40000, Rs. 60000 and Rs. x respectively. At the end
c. Rs.4806 of 4 month, A contributed an additional capital
d. Rs.4802 equal to half of C’s initial capital. C left the
e. Rs.4807 business at the end of the 4th month while A and B
45) A invest in a business with five other friends M, invested for the whole year. If B’s share of 1st profit
N, O, P and Q. The share of their investment is in of Rs. 9200 was Rs. 3600, Find the value of x.
the ratio 12:10:9:7:5:3, where A’s is the highest. A a. Rs.32000
withdraws after second month of the investment. M b. Rs.80000
Page 669 of 1079

c. Rs.60000 investment. Find the share of A of total profit.

d. Rs.48000 a. Rs.10000
e. Rs.54000 b. Rs.11000
48) A, B and C started a business with a total c. Rs.12000
invested of Rs. 540000. A invest 80000 more than B. d. Rs.13000
B invest 40000 less than C. If the profit of B is e. Rs.8000
63000 then find the total profit. 50) A, B and C started a business with initial
a. Rs.245000 investment of Rs. x+500, Rs. x+200 and Rs.2x+100
b. Rs.243000 respectively. After one year, A, B and C made
c. Rs.240000 additional investment of Rs. 200, Rs. 250 and Rs.
d. Rs.237000 550 respectively. Find the value of x if the profit
e. None of these share of A, out of the total profit of Rs. 7020 after
49) A and B started a business. A invested Rs. two years is Rs. 2184?
24000 after 6 month A withdraw half of his a. Rs.700
investment. B invests Rs.30000. At the end of the b. Rs.750
year there was a total profit of Rs.16000. A manage c. Rs.800
the business so he take 40% of the profit as his d. Rs.850
salary remaining profit is divided on their e. Rs.900
Partnership - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: D B investment 7 unit à 2000 x 7 = 14000
Profit ratio of Sunil, Irfan and Ranbir = 4 * 12:5 * 8:3 Profit distribution ratio of A and B
* 12 (10000 x 8 + 14000 x 4) : (14000 x 12)
= 12:10:9 17: 21
Irfan’s profit share = 10/21 * 4200 = Rs.2000 B’s share of profit = 76000 x 21/38
2) Answer: B = Rs.42000
80% investment of A = 4/7 x investment of B 3) Answer: E
A/B = 5/7 Profit share of A = Rs.3200
12 unità 24000 Profit share of B = 6800 – 3200 = Rs.3600
1 unit à 2000 Profit ratio of A and B,
A investment 5 unit à 2000 x 5 = 10000 3200 : 3600
Page 670 of 1079
8:9 Ratio of their investments

Let investment period be ‘y’ (12000×12) : (14000×12) : (21000×8)
𝑥 (𝑦) 8 12 : 14: 14
=
(𝑥 + 800)𝑦 9 6: 7: 7
9x = 8x+6400 Therefore value of x=7
X= Rs.6400 8) Answer: E
4) Answer: D Profit share of A = 5/3 * 1200 = Rs.2000
Profit ratio of P and R is 1:2 Profit share of C = 4000 – 2000 – 1200 = Rs.800
Total investment of P = 7500*8 = Rs.60000 Ratio of the profit share of A and C = 2000:800 = 5:2
Total investment of Q = x*6 =6x Investment of C = 2/5 * 3500 = Rs.1400
Total investment of R = 12000*10 = Rs.120000 9) Answer: A
Profit ratio of P to R The ratio of the shares of A, B and C
&#### !
!'####
=' (60*8 + 80*4) : (50*6 + 25*6) : (75*4)
Therefore solution can’t be determined. (480+320) : (300+150) : (300)
5) Answer: A 800 : 450 : 300
Ratio of investment of A,B, and C = 1200: 1500: 1200 16 : 9 : 6
x 1.5 = 4:5:6 The share of C= (6/31)*3720 = Rs.720
Ratio of time period = 12: 12: 9 = 4:4:3 10) Answer: A
Ratio of profit = 4 x 4: 5 x 4: 6 x 3 = 8:10:9 Total investment made by X = (x+4500)×12
Profit share of B = 10 / (8 + 10 + 9) X 27000 = 10,000 Total investment made by Y = (2x)×9
Rupees Profit ratio,
6) Answer: A (𝑥 + 4500) ∗ 12 56
=
2𝑥 ∗ 9 57
Ratio of profit = (1650 x 6 + 1500 x 2): (1150 x 8):
19(x+4500) = 2x (14)
(950 x 6 + 1200 x 2)
19x+ (19×4500) =28x
= 129:92:81
x=9500
Profit share of C = [81 / (129 + 92 + 81)] x 9060 =
Investment of person X = x+4500 = Rs.14000
Rs.2430
Investment of person Y =2X = Rs.19000
7) Answer: A
Required difference = Rs.5000
Total investments made by P, Q, R is
11) Answer: D
(12000×12) , (14000×12), (21000×8)
Ratio of their investments
Page 671 of 1079
7500:6000 The share of P, Q and R

5:4 = > [X * 6 + (X - 5000) * 6] : [(X + 25000) * 12] : [(X
Profit should be shared as per the investment ratio. – 5000) * 6 + (X – 5000 + 10000) * 6]
Also 30% (15% & 15%) is shared equally. = > [6X + 6X - 30000]: [12X + 300000] : [6X – 30000
Let total profit be 100x. + 6X + 30000]
Profit to be shared as per investment ratio 70% of 100x = > [12X - 30000] : [12X + 300000] : [12x]
=70x According to the question,
" ( = > (12X + 300000) / 12X = (8/3)
%
(70x) - % (70x) = 280
! = >12X + 300000 = 32X
%
(70x) =280
= > 20X = 300000
x=36
= > X = 15000
Total profit 100x = Rs.3600
15) Answer: A
12) Answer: E
Profit share of Heema = Rs.2500
Ratio of profit = 3000 x 12: 2000 x K: 4000 x 12
Profit Share of Heena = 2500 + 1500 = 4000
= 18: K: 24
6000 * x:8000 * y = 4000:2500
3x/4y = 8/5
K/ (18 + K + 24) = 100/940
x/y = 32/15
94K = 10K + 420
Required percentage = 15/32 * 100 = 46.875%
84K = 420
16) Answer: C
K = 420/84
Required profit ratio = 6/3:10/4:3/2
K=5
= 24:30:18
13) Answer: C
= 4:5:3
Profit share ratio of A, B and C = (5x * 4 + (5x +
17) Answer: C
4000) * 8):(9x * 12):(8x * 8 + (8x + 2000) * 4)
Profit ratio of Abhi and Pragya = (8000 * 4 + 8000 *
= (60x + 32000):(108x):(96x + 8000)
125/100 * 8):16000 * 12
(60x + 32000)/(264x + 40000) = 1900/7100
= 112000:192000
501600x + 76000000 = 426000x + 227200000
= 7:12
75600x = 151200000
Total profit of the business = 19/5 * 4000 = Rs.15200
x = 2000
18) Answer: D
C’s investment = 8 * 2000 = Rs.16000
14) Answer: D
Page 672 of 1079
In this question, there is no information about the So period of investment of C = 15 – 5 = 10 months

investment period of P,Q and R, ratio of profit is based 22) Answer: A
on investment as well as time period. Therefore Let P, Q and R invested Rs 4X, X and 15X
solution can’t be determined. respectively.
19) Answer: C According to question,
Let us assume, total investments made by all the Ratio of the investment for 1 year by P, Q and R
person = 300x respectively is as follows:
Investment of P = 300x/4 = 75x @
4X x 3 + 2X x 3 + X x 3 + ' 𝑥 3 ∶ X x 3 + 2X x 3 +
Investment of Q = 300x/5 = 60x
4X x 3 + 8X x 3: 15X x 12
Investment of R = 300x/3 =100x ("@
= '
: 45X : 180X
Therefore investment of S = 300x – (75x+60x+100x)
= 45 : 90 : 360
= 65x
= 1: 2: 8
Ratio of investment of S, P, R and Q is
!!
65x: 75x: 100x: 60x Total profit = '
𝑥 22000 = Rs.121000
13: 15: 20: 12 23) Answer: A

20) Answer: B Profit ratio of Rahul, Reena and Rathina = 4800 *
Ratio of profit share = 2600 x 12: 1800 x 6 = 26:9 12:5400 * 12:5100 * 8
According to question = 24:27:17
25% of total profit + 75% of total profit x (9/35) = 775 Rathina’s profit share = 17/68 * 34000 = Rs.8500
Total profit / 4 + 27/140 x total profit = 775 24) Answer: B
Total profit = Rs. 1750 Profit ratio of A, B and C = 4800 * 12:6000 * 12:5000
Profit share of A = 75% of 1750 x 26/35 = Rs. 975 *8
21) Answer: A = 36:45:25
Ratio of profit of A, B and C = 16 ∗ 15: 15 ∗ 𝑡: 15 ∗ Profit share of B = 45/106 * 5300 = 2250
'
∗ (15 – 𝑡) 25) Answer: A
*
Investment made by partner x
= (8000*4) +(9000*4) + (8100*4)
16 ∗ 15 48
= = Rs.100400
15 ∗ 𝑡 15
16 48 Investment made by partner y
=
𝑡 15 = (13000*4) +(14000*4) + (12600*4)
t = 5 months
Page 673 of 1079
= Rs.158400 = 12x: 48000: (4x – 8000)

Investment made by partner z 48000/(16x + 40000) = 2000/7000
= (17000*4) +(18000*4) + (16200*4) 24000 * 7 = 16x + 40000
= Rs.204800 16x = 128000
Profit ratio of x,y,z x = 8000
=100400:158400:204800 29) Answer: A
=251: 396:512 Profit ratio of A and B = (5x * 5 + (5x * 90/100 * 5) +
'&!# ((5x * 90/100 + 1000) * 2)):(4x * 10 + (4x – 1000) *
Total profit = ("!'$'"!) × (251+396+512) = Rs.11590
2)
26) Answer: D
= (25x + 22.5x + 9x + 2000):(40x + 8x – 2000)
Let the total profit = 100a
= (56.5x + 2000):(48x – 2000)
30a given to A, rest 70a divided in ratio of 5:6:3
(8.5x + 4000)/104.5x = 1250/10450
Total profit of A = 30a + 5/14 x 70a = 55a
130625x = 88825x + 41800000
Total profit of B + C = 100 – 55a = 45a
x = 1000
A’s investment = 5 * 1000 = Rs.5000
55a – 45a = 400
30) Answer: C
a = 40
Profit ratio of A and B = 7500 * 6:7200 * 5
Total profit = 100a = 100 x 40 = Rs. 4000
= 5:4
27) Answer: A
Profit share of A = 5/9 * 75/100 * 13200 = Rs.5500
Profit ratio = (10 x 4 + 10 x 1/2 x 8): (K x 8): (12 x 4 +
31) Answer: B
12 x 2/3 x 8)
Investment of A = Rs. x
= 80: 8K: 112
Investment of B = Rs.20000 – x
= 10: K: 14
Profit ratio of A and B = (x * 12): ((20000 – x) * 6 +
(22000 – x) * 6))
14/ (10 + K + 14) = 3500/9000
= 12x: (120000 – 6x + 132000 – 6x)
14/ (24 + K) = 7/18
= 12x: (252000 – 12x)
252 = 168 + 7K
12x/ (252000 – 12x) = 4/3
K = 12
1008000 – 48x = 36x
28) Answer: B
x = 12000
Profit ratio of A, B and C = (x * 12): (6000 * 8): ((x –
32) Answer: B
2000) * 4)
Page 674 of 1079
Profit ratio of A, B, C and D = (x * 8 + (2x * 4)):((x + According to the question,

2000) * 12):((2x – 1000) * 12):(x + 2000) * 8 (3x – 2x + 2000) / (8x + 2500) = 1500 / 7500
= 16x: (12x + 24000): (24x – 12000): (8x + 16000) 5x + 10000 = 8x + 2500
16x/(60x + 28000) = 1200/5200 3x = 7500
180x + 84000 = 208x x = 2500
x = 3000 36) Answer: C
C’s profit share = (24 * 3000 – 12000)/(16 * 3000) * Profit ratio of Anu, Geeta, Greeda and Soni = (4000 *
1200 2):(x * 2):(2x * 2):(x + 2000) * 1
= Rs.1500 = 8000: 2x: 4x: (x + 2000)
33) Answer: A x + 2000 1000
=
Profit ratio of A, B and C = (5x * 1 + (5x + 2000) * 2): 7x + 10000 6600
33x + 66000 = 35x + 50000
(4x * 2 + (4x + 500) * 1): (3x * 2 + (3x + 1000) * 1)
2x = 16000
= (15x + 4000): (12x + 500): (9x + 1000)
x = 8000
(6x + 3000) = 7200
Greeda investment = 2 * 8000 = Rs.16000
6x = 4200
37) Answer: B
x = 700
ATQ
Total profit of the business = (36 * 700 + 5500)
Ratio of profit share of Naman and Harman =
= Rs.30700
𝑥×7 1
34) Answer: D =
𝑦 × 12 2
Profit ratio of A, B and C = (x * 12):(x + 1000) * 12:(x
7𝑥 = 6𝑦
– 500) * 8
𝑥 6
= 12x: (12x + 12000):(8x – 4000) =
𝑦 7
12𝑥 + 12000 6000 & !*
= So, required answer = 4 + 1 =
32𝑥 + 8000 12000 4
32x + 8000 = 24x + 24000 38) Answer: C

8x = 16000 Profit share of Manish = 41650 − 19600 =
x = Rs.2000 𝑅𝑠. 22050
35) Answer: B Let capital invested by Manish and Kirtimann be Rs. a
Profit ratio of A, B and C and Rs. (a + 24000) respectively.
= (x * 3):(x + 1500) * 3:(x – 1000) * 2 ATQ
= 3x: (3x + 4500): (2x – 2000)
Page 675 of 1079
𝑎 × 12 22050 !'&#
So, Required profit = ')$'" × (28 + 25)
⇒ =
(𝑎 + 24000) × 8 19600
1260
3𝑎 9 = × 53
⇒ = 3
2𝑎 + 48000 8
= 𝑅𝑠. 22260
⇒ 8𝑎 = 6𝑎 + 144000
41) Answer: D
⇒ 𝑎 = 72000
Let us assume that Amar withdrew half of his
So, capital invested by Manish = 𝑅𝑠. 72000
investment after ‘x’ month.
39) Answer: D
Weighted investment of a partner = (Investment) x
Ratio of profit share of Pawan, Lokesh and Sunny =
Time
140
= Z15000 × 𝑥 + 15000 × × (12 − 𝑥)[ Amar Samar
100
Profit 6x+3*(12-x) 5*12
∶ 20000 × 12
3𝑥+36 60
∶ Z30000 × 𝑦 3x+36 = 60
3x = 24
80
+ 30000 × × (12 − 𝑦)[ x = 8 months
100
= 15𝑥 + 21 × (12 − 𝑥) ∶ 240 ∶ 30𝑦 + 24 × (12 − 𝑦) Thus Amar withdrew half his investment after 8
= 252 − 6𝑥 ∶ 240 ∶ 6𝑦 + 288 month.
ATQ 42) Answer: B
⇒ 252 − 6𝑥 ∶ 240 ∶ 6𝑦 + 288 = 39 ∶ 40 ∶ 54 Let B invest Rs. x
252 − 6𝑥 39 A’s investment = 2x

⇒ =
240 40 C’s investment = 4/5 x
⇒ 252 − 6𝑥 = 234 Capital = 2𝑥*2:𝑥*4:4/5𝑥*3 = 5:5:3
⇒𝑥=3 Share of C = 1200
'(# (#
And, = 3/13 x Total profit = 1200 x 13 / 3
&A+')) "(
= Rs.5200
⇒ 54 = 𝑦 + 48
43) Answer: C
⇒𝑦=6
Amount invested by A in a year= (10000x3) +
So, required difference = 6 − 3 = 3
*
40) Answer: D (( × 10000 × 9)=Rs.97500
Ratio of profit share = 40000 × 7 ∶ 50000 × 5 Amount invested by B in a year= (15000x3) +

*
= 28 ∶ 25 (!# × 12000 + 15000)x9= Rs.212400
Page 676 of 1079
Amount invested by C in a year = (30000x3) + Investment in rupee month for Mohan = 3 x 50000 =
4 150000
(!# × 12000 + 30000)x9= Rs.435600
Profit ratio
Ratio of sharing of profit
288000 : 312000
= 97500 : 212400 : 435600
: 150000
= 325 : 708 : 1452
*'" 48 : 52
A’s share of profit = '()" × 19880 = 𝑅𝑠. 2600
: 25
44) Answer: C
Mohan’s share = 12500 x 25/125 = Rs.2500
Letkamla’s investment = x
47) Answer: B
neha’s investment = x/2
Profit sharing ratio between A,B and C at the end of 1st
Shivi’s investment = 3x/2
year
0
Ratio shares Kamla, Neha and Shivi = (𝑥*12):(' × [40000 x 4 + (40000 + x/2) x 8] : [60000 x 12] : [𝑥 x
*0
10):( ' × 12) 4]
= 12𝑥: 5𝑥: 18𝑥 [480000 + 4x] : [720000] : 4x
= 12:5:18 B’s share of 1st year profit

720000
Shivi share = 18/12 x 3204 = Rs.4806 × 9200 = 3600
480000 + 4𝑥 + 720000 + 4𝑥
45) Answer: C
720000/(1200000 + 8x) = 9/23
Ratio of no. of month of investment of A: M: N: O:
1840000 = 1200000 + 8x
P:Q = 2:4:6:8:10:12
𝑥 = Rs. 80000
Time weighted ratio of investment = 2x12:4x10 : 6x9 :
48) Answer: B
8x7 : 10x5 : 12x3
Let C invested = x
12 : 20 : 27 : 28 : 25 : 18
B investment = x – 40000
So, the lowest share to the highest share of the profit =
A investment = x – 40000 + 80000 = x + 40000
12 : 28 = 3 : 7
So,
46) Answer: D
x + 40000 + x – 40000 + x = 540000
Investment in rupee month for Ram = 12 x 24000 =
3x = 540000
288000
x = 180000
Investment in rupee month for Shyam = 6 x 36000 + 6
A B C
x 16000 = 312000
220000 140000
180000
Page 677 of 1079
11 : 7 : 9 Total share of A = 3600 + 6400 = Rs.10000

7 unità 63000 50) Answer: C
1 unit à 9000 Respective ratio of the profits of A, B and C
Total profit 27 unit à 9000 x 27 = Rs.243000 (x+500+x+500+200) : (x+200+x+200+250) :
49) Answer: A (2x+100+2x+100+550)
Total profit = 16000 =>(2x+1200) : (2x+650) : (4x+750)
40% of profit is given to A as a salary = 16000 x According to the question
40/100 = 6400 2𝑥 + 1200 2184
=
Remaining profit = 16000 – 6400 = 9600 8𝑥 + 2600 7020
(x+600)*3510 = (4x+1300)*1092
Ratio of share of profit A:B is
4368x – 3510x = 2106000 – 1419600
(24000 x 6 + 12000 x 6) : 30000 x 12
858x = 686400
3:5
𝑥 = Rs. 800
Profit of A = 9600 x 3/8 = 3600
Simple & Compound Interest

1. Manisha borrowed Rs.8000 from Mala for his D.3:2
education. What is the total amount returned at the E.3:5
end of 45 months at the rate of simple interest of 3. The difference between the Simple Interest and
20%? Compound Interest incurred on an amount of
A.Rs.12000 Rs.1200 in 2 years was Rs.5.88. Find the rate of
B.Rs.13000 interest.
C.Rs.14000 A.7%
D.Rs.15000 B.8%
E.None of these C.9%
2. When Mani invests Rs.a at 15% per annum for x D.10%
years and at 20% per annum for y years, both at E.None of these
simple interest gives an interest of Rs.1890 and 5040 4. The difference between the simple interest and
respectively. Find the ratio of x to y? compound interest compounded annually at the
A.1:2 same rate of interest on Rs.23000 at the end of 2
B.2:1 years is Rs.331.2. What is the percentage of rate of
C.2:3 interest per annum?
Page 678 of 1079
A.10% D.10.25%
B.12% E.None of these
C.15% 8. A person invested two equal amounts in two
D.18% different schemes. In the first scheme, the amount is
E.20% invested at 5% pa on simple interest for T years and
5. A certain sum amounts to Rs.2000 after 2 years the interest received is Rs 2000, while in second
and to Rs.2100 after 3 years on compound interest. scheme, the amount is invested at 10% pa for 2 years
What is the rate of interest? at compound interest and the interest received is Rs
A.7% 1050. Find the value of T.
B.8% A.8 years
C.10% B.5 years
D.5% C.10 years
E.None of these D.9 years
6. The CI on a certain sum for 2 years at 20% per E.None of these
annum is Rs.2240 more than simple interest on the 9. A person invested 1/4th of the sum of Rs. 25000 at
same sum for 2 years at 8% per annum. Find the a certain rate of simple interest and the rest at 4%
sum. rate of compound interest. If the total interest
A.Rs.10000 received for 2 years is Rs. 2155. What is the rate at
B.Rs.12000 which invested in SI?
C.Rs.8000 A.2%
D.Rs.12500 B.6%
E.Rs.16000 C.5%
7. Elango lends Rs.40000 to two of his friends in the D.7%
ratio of 5:3, if the rate he charged for his friend (who E.None of these
takes more money) is 8% and for other friend is 10. Pankaj invests an amount of Rs. 9535 at the rate
14%,then find the profit percentage he earned after of SI 4% per annum. For how many years did he
a year. invest the amount to double her sum?
A.10.5% A.24 years
B.10.75% B.25 years
C.10% C.30 years
Page 679 of 1079

D.27 years C.Rs. 5125

E.None of these D.Rs. 3500
11. Aditya deposited X amount in the bank for a E.None of these
period of 5 years in SI at the rate of 8% per annum 14. Rajesh invested Rs.27000 partially in a scheme
and he invested X amount in CI for 2 years at the M offering 13% simple interest and rest in scheme N
rate of 5% per annum. The amount which he got SI offering 10% compound interest compounded
after 5 years was Rs. 595 more than the amount annually. The amount invested in scheme N is how
which received in CI. Find the value of X. much percent less/more than the amount invested in
A.Rs. 2250 scheme M if the total interest earned by Rajesh after
B.Rs. 3000 three years is Rs.9822?
C.Rs. 1500 A.24.50%
D.Rs. 2000 B.22%
E.None of these C.20%
12. Ram lent Rs. 800 to a friend for 2 years and one- D.17.5%
fourth of this amount to another friend for 3 years. E.None of these
He received Rs. 275 totally as simple interest. What 15. A invested Rs 12000 at the SI rate of 15% for 3
was the rate of interest? years. If he invested in the scheme of compound
A.10% interest, then find the CI.
B.9.5% A.Rs. 4250.50
C.11.25% B.Rs. 6250.50
D.12% C.Rs. 4220.50
E.None of these D.Rs. 6500.50
13. Ram invested some money at compound interest E.None of these
for 2 years at rate of 10% pa. The amount which he 16. The compound interest on an amount at the end
got after 2 years invested it on SI at the rate of 5% of two years at the rate of 8% p.a. is Rs. 2808. What
for 4 years and got the amount which is Rs. 1331 is the amount?
more than the previous amount. Find the money A.Rs. 16675
invested. B.Rs. 16875
A.Rs. 4100 C.Rs. 17875
B.Rs. 5500 D.Rs. 18750
Page 680 of 1079

E.None of these annually. If the rate percent is 5% pa, what will be

17. If Rs.11750.4 amount is received for lending the total interest he get after 2 years?
Rs.x for 3 years at 20% per annum compound A.Rs.780
interest, find the value of x? B.Rs.943
A.Rs.6500 C.Rs.990
B.Rs.6800 D.Rs.790
C.Rs.7200 E.None of these
D.Rs.7800 21. Rekha invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme at
E.Rs.7500 the rate of 15% per annum for n years and Rathika
18. Arun invested Rs.5000 in a bank at Simple invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme at the rate of
interest for 2 years and receives an interest of 18% per annum for m years. If the interest received
Rs.500. What is the rate of interest? by Rekha is 1260 less than the interest received by
A.3% Rathika, then what is the difference between the
B.5% value of n and m?
C.7% A.1:2
D.9% B.3:2
E.None of these C.1:3
19. Anil invests Rs.24000 on simple interest scheme D.Cannot be determined
at the rate of x% per annum for 4 years and Divya E.None of these
invests Rs.16000 on simple interest scheme at the 22. Rakesh invested Rs.x in simple interest scheme
rate of x% per annum for 5 years. If the difference for 3 years at the rate of 15% per annum and after 3
between the interest received by Anil and Divya is years he received the interest amount is Rs.y. If
Rs.800, then find the value of x? Ramya invests Rs.(x + 2000) in simple interest
A.10% scheme for 2 years at the rate of 18% per annum and
B.12% after 2 years she received the interest amount is Rs.y.
C.18% Find the value of y?
D.20% A.Rs.3200
E.None of these B.Rs.2700
20. Raman invested an amount of Rs.9200 at C.Rs.3600
compound interest in a bank and he decided to pay D.Cannot be determined
Page 681 of 1079

E.None of these D.Rs.14,698

23. Ragu invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme at the E.None of these
rate of 15% per annum for 2 years and Rani invests 26. Ajay invested Rs. 56000 in two schemes A and B.
Rs.x in compound interest scheme in same rate of Amount invested in scheme A is 33.33% more than
interest for same time period. If the difference B. Ajay earn 8% per annum from A and 10% per
between the interest received by Ragu and Rani is annum from B in simple interest. Find total interest
Rs.270, find the value of x? earned by Ajay after four years.
A.Rs.12000 A.Rs. 18840
B.Rs.15000 B.Rs. 19740
C.Rs.18000 C.Rs. 19840
D.Rs.16000 D.Rs. 18740
24. A sum of Rs.x at 15% rate of simple interest and 27. Amar invested some amount at 15% rate of
the interest earned by after 3 years is Rs.3240. If the compound interest for two years. After 2 years he
same sum invests in compound interest scheme at invested 60% of compound interest again at 8% per
the rate of 12.5% per annum for 2 years, then what annum simple interest for Five years. The simple
is the compound interest earned after 2 years? interest received by him is Rs. 1170 then find the
A.Rs.1512.5 approx. initial investment of Amar?
B.Rs.1612.5 A.Rs. 15120
C.Rs.1812.5 B.Rs. 15116
D.Rs.1912.5 C.Rs. 15125
E.None of these D.Rs. 15220
25. Anu deposited Rs. 32000 in bank for 2 years, E.Rs 15216
earning 15% per annum simple interest. Anu also 28. A man invested Rs. 18000 in NIFTY and earning
invested 20,000 in stock market for 2 years, earning 15% per annum compounded annually. After two
12% per annum compounded annually. Find the years, he invested the whole amount what he have in
total interest earned by Anu in rupees? simple interest for 4 years at k% per annum and
A.Rs.14,688 simple interest earned Rs. 9522. Find the value of k?
B.Rs.14,678 A.15%
C.Rs.14,988 B.5%
Page 682 of 1079

C.12% A.634.5 rupees

D.10% B.652.5 rupees
E.None of these C.654.5 rupees
29. A sum of Rs.15000 invested under Simple D.554.5 rupees
interest at certain rate of interest gives amount to E.None of these
Rs.24000 after three years. What will be the 32. Find the compound interest for Rs.11000 at the
compound interest earned on Rs.11500 at same rate rate of 20% per annum for 1 year when the interest
for 1.5 years when interest is compounded half is compounded quarterly (approximately).
yearly? A.Rs.2370
A.Rs.3806.75 B.Rs.2470
B.Rs.3806.50 C.Rs.2570
C.Rs.3706.50 D.Rs.2270
D.Rs.3706.75 E.None of the above
E.None of these 33. A lent sum of Rs. 12000 in different rate of
30. A investing certain sum of money in Scheme X compound interest for 2 years, 15% p.a. for first
offering 12.5% per annum compound interest for year and 20% p.a. for second year. When same sum
three years. If the interest earned for 2nd year lent at simple interest for 2 years and received the
is Rs.936, find the total interest earned by A after 3 same interest, then find rate of interest for simple
years? interest.
A.Rs.3038 A.19%
B.Rs.2812 B.20%
C.Rs.2604 C.18%
D.Rs.2831 D.16%
31. A man invested Rs. 7700 in each of the two 34. A sum of money becomes Rs.13125 after 2 years
different schemes. Scheme X offering Compound and Rs.16406.25 after 3 years for the same interest
interest at 15% per annum for 2 years and Y rate, what is the difference between principal and
offering simple interest at 12% per annum for 2 interest earned through SI if the same sum and rate
years. Find difference between the interests of interest invest 2 years?
generated in two Schemes. A.Rs.2100
Page 683 of 1079

B.Rs.8400 38. Geetha invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme at

C.Rs.4200 the rate of 18% per annum for 3 years and Kanna
D.Rs.6300 invests Rs.(x – 2000) on compound interest scheme
E.Rs.5000 at the rate of 10% per annum for 3 years. If the
35. A person borrows Rs.8000 at 12.5% CI for 3 interest received by Geetha is 72% of the amount
years. At the each year he paid Rs.2000, how much invests by Kanna, find the compound interest
amount should he pay at the end the 3rd year to received by Kanna?
finish the settlement? A.Rs.1986
A.Rs.6906.375 B.Rs.2016
B.Rs.6906.725 C.Rs.1996
C.Rs.6609.375 D.Rs.2040
D.Rs.6609.725 E.None of these
E.Rs.6606.375 39. A sum of amount invests in compound interest
36. A certain amount earns simple interest of Rs. scheme at 20% per annum for 2 years. If the interest
2652 after 3 years. Had the interest been 5% more, is half yearly and the interest received from the CI
how much more interest would it have earned? scheme is Rs.1392.3, then find the sum?
A.456 A.Rs.3000
B.521 B.Rs.3600
C.365 C.Rs.4000
D.500 D.Rs.4500
E.Can’t be determined E.Rs.4800
37. A sum of money becomes 16 times in 8 years at 40. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2
compound interest and becomes 25 times in 10 years. years at 10% per annum is Rs 10500, then the simple
So find the rate of interest per annum? interest on the same sum at the same rate for 2 years
A.15% would be?
B.20% A.11500
C.25% B.12500
D.30% C.10000
E.10% D.10050
E.None of these
Page 684 of 1079

41. A person earned Rs 8400 as simple interest on an B.Rs. 89704

amount of RS 21000 in 8 years. What would be the C.Rs. 88704
compound interest accrued on the same amount at D.Rs. 88504
double the rate of interest after three years? E.None of these
(Compounded annually) 44. Difference between Compound Interest and
A.6597 Simple Interest on Rs.’P’ at 15% per annum after
B.4558 two years will be Rs.450. Find the Compound
C.4580 Interest on same sum at 10% per annum after 3
D.6951 years.
42. Rahul invests Rs.6600 on simple interest scheme B.5480
at the rate of R% per annum for (R – 10) years and C.6620
Renu invests Rs.(4000 + x) on compound interest D.7220
scheme at the rate of (R – 5)% per annum for 2 E.7580
years. If the interest received by Rahul after (R – 10) 45. Renu invests Rs.4500 in simple interest scheme
years is Rs.4950 and the interest received by Renu at the rate of 12% per annum for 5 years and Rahul
after 2 years is Rs.1260, then find the value of x.(R is invests Rs.4500 in compound interest scheme at the
a positive value) rate of 10% per annum for 2 years. What is the
A.Rs.2000 difference between the interest received by Renu
B.Rs.1800 and Rahul?
C.Rs.2400 A.Rs.1700
D.Rs.2800 B.Rs.1755
E.None of these C.Rs.1900
43. A, invested Rs. 1, 20,000 and B invested Rs. 1, D.Rs.2000
60,000 under Simple interest and compound interest E.Rs.1500
for 5 years and 2 years respectively. The ratio of rate 46. The rate of interest in a bank for first 2 years is
of interest under CI and SI is 3:2 respectively. Find 5% p.a, for next 3 years is 8% p.a, and for beyond 5
the total interest earned by A, if rate of interest years is 10% p.a. If a man gets Rs 1702 as a total
under CI is 12% per annum compounded annually. simple interest after 9 years, find how much money
A.Rs. 88604 he had deposited.
Page 685 of 1079

A.Rs.3500 C.Rs.7000
B.Rs.3000 D.Rs.7500
C.Rs.2500 E.Rs.8000
D.Rs.2300 49. If certain sum of money becomes 4 times in four
E.Rs.2700 years at compound interest, then in how many years
47. A man invests Rs.8000 in scheme A and B which will the amount become 64 times?
offers CI and SI for same interest, if difference A.12 years
between interests earned at the end of three years is B.8 years
Rs.359.424, then find the rate of interest? C.10 years
A.12% D.14 years
B.8% E.None of these
C.13% 50. A person invested sum of the amount at the rate
D.14% of 15 % SI per annum for two years and received
E.10% total amount of Rs. 65000. He invested same sum at
48. Mala has Rs.12000. If she invests certain amount the rate x % per annum compounded annually for
of money on compound interest scheme at the rate two years and he received interest Rs. 4500 less as
of 10% per annum for 2 years and she invests the compared to the Simple interest, then find the value
remaining amount on simple interest scheme at the of ‘x’?
rate of 12% per annum for 3 years. If she received A.10
the total interest from both schemes is Rs.3195, then B.15
find the amount invests on compound scheme? C.12
A.Rs.6000 D.20
B.Rs.6500 E.None of these
Simple & Compound Interest - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: C ax = 12600
SI = P * N * R/100 a * y * 20/100 = 5040
SI = 8000 * 20 * 45/1200 = Rs.6000 ay = 25200
Amount = 6000 + 8000 = Rs.14000 Required ratio = 12600/25200 = 1/2
(a * 15 * x/100) = 1890 P = Rs.1200, n = 2 and Rate = r%
Page 686 of 1079
[P(1 + r/100)n – P] – Pnr/100 = 5.88 7. Answer: D

=> [1200(1 + r/100)2 – 1200] – 1200 * 2 * r/100 = 5.88
=> r = 7% Person who charged 8% rate taken (40000) =
(OR) Rs.25000 from Elango.
Difference=Pr2/(100)2 Overall profit earned = sum of the interest earned
5.88=1200* r2/100*100
5.88*10000/1200= r2
r2=49 = 2000+2100
r=7% =Rs.4100
4. Answer: B
331.2 = 23000 * r * r/100 * 100 Profit percentage = ×100 = 10.25%
r2 = 144 8. Answer: A
r = 12% CI @ 10% per annum equivalent to
5. Answer: D
Sum = P
=
P(1 + r/100)2 = 2000 --- (i)
Now, 21% = 1050
P(1 + r/100)3 = 2100 ---(ii)
(ii)/(i) => P(1 + r/100)3 / P(1 + r/100)2 = 2100/2000
100% =
(1 + r/100) = 1.05
100 + r = 105
r=5 Now, T = = 8 years
Compound interest 1st part = 1/4 x 25000 = 6250 and 2nd part = 25000 –
6250 = 18750
Let the rate be R%
Principal for SI = 6250
SI for 2 years = (6250 x 2 x R)/100 = 125R
Principal for CI = 18750
CI for 2 years = 18750 ((1 + 4/100)2 -1) = 1530
P= Rs.8000 ATQ,
Page 687 of 1079

SI for 2 years + CI for 2 years = 2155 So, according to the question,

125R + 1530 = 2155 [(800 × 2 × r)/100 + (200 × 3 × r)/100] = 275
R = 625/125 = 5% 16r + 6r = 275
Hence, the rate of simple interest is 5% 22r = 275
10. Answer: B r = 12.5%
Let he invests the amount for = x years So, the required rate of interest is = 12.5%
So, according to the question, 13. Answer: B
9535 = 9535 × 4 × x/100 CI
x = 25 years Rate = 10%
Hence, the required answer = 25 years. Time = 2 yrs
11. Answer: D A = P(1 + R/100)2 = P(11/10)2 = 121P/100
Principal = X SI
SI: Rate = 5%
Time = 4 yrs
P1 = 121P/100
A = SI + P1 = P1RT/100 + P1 = 20/100 x 121P/100 +
121P/100
1331 + 121P/100 = 20/100 x 121P/100 + 121P/100
P = (1331 x 100 x 100)/(121 x 20)
P = 5500
Hence, principal amount is Rs. 5500
14. Answer: C
Let the amount invested by him in scheme M be = x
Then, the amount invested by him in scheme N = 27000
–x
12. Answer: E
We have given that,
Ram lent Rs. 800 for 2 years.
And remaining amount of 1/4 for 3 years = 800 × 1/4 =
= Rs.8937 – 0.331x
Rs. 200
Page 688 of 1079
Now, 0.39x +8937- 0.331x = 9822 = 5%

=> x = 15000 19. Answer: E
So, the required percentage = (15000 – 12000)/15000 × SI = P * N * R/100
100 = 20% Interest received by Anil = 24000 * x * 4/100
Hence, the required answer = 20% = 960x
15. Answer: B Interest received by Divya = 16000 * x * 5/100
P = 12000 = 800x
R = 15 % 960x – 800x = 800
T = 3 yrs x = 5%
CI = 12000 x (1 + 15/100)3-12000 =Rs. 6250.50 20. Answer: B
16. Answer: B Net % effect = (x + y + xy/100)%
Rate = 8/100 = 2/25 = (5 + 5 + (5 * 5)/100)%
Time = 2 years = 10.25%
Short cut: 10.25% of 9200 = Rs.943
P = 252 = 625 21. Answer: D
A = 25 + 2 = 272 = 729 x * 18 * m/100 – x * 15 * n/100 = 1260
CI = 729 – 625 = 104 18xm – 15xn = 126000
According to the question- We cannot find the answer
104’s= 2808 22. Answer: C
625’s = 2808/104 x 625 = 16875 (x * 3 * 15)/100 =((x + 2000) * 2 * 18)/100
So, the amount is Rs. 16875 45x = 36x + 72000
17. Answer: B x = 8000
CA = P * (1 + r/100)n y = 8000 * 3 * 15/100 = Rs.3600
11750.4 = x * (1 + 20/100)3 23. Answer: A
x = 6800 270 = x * 15 * 15/100 * 100
18. Answer: B x = 12000
Given that, SI = Rs.500, n = 2 years and P = Rs.5000 24. Answer: D
SI = Pnr/100 SI = P * N * R/100
r = (100 * SI)/(P * n) 3240 = 15 * x * 3/100
= (100 * 500)/(5000 * 2) x = 7200
Page 689 of 1079

CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P 29. Answer: B

CI = 7200 * (1 + 12.5/100)2 – 7200 Interest earned = 24000 – 15000 = Rs.9000
= Rs.1912.5 Rate of interest per annum = 9000/ (15000 x 3) x 100 =
25. Answer: A 20%
Total simple interest earned = (32000 x 2 x 15)/100 = Rate of interest when compounded half yearly = 10%
Rs.9600 Total amount of after 1.5 years = 11500 x 11/10 x 11/10
Total compound interest earned = 20,000[(1 + 12/100)² x 11/10 = 15306.5
- 1)] = Rs.5088 Required interest = 15306.5 – 11500 = Rs.3806.5
Total interest earned by Anu = 9600 + 5088 = Rs.14688 30. Answer: E
26. Answer: C Let the investment by A = 512a
Ratio of amount invested in A and B = 4:3 1st year interest = 512a x 1/8 =
Amount invested in A = 4/7 x 56000 = 32000
Amount invested in Scheme B = 3/7 x 56000 = 24000
Total interest earned = 32000 x 8% x 4 + 24000 x 10%
64a
x 4 = 10240 + 9600 = Rs. 19840
2nd year interest = 64a + 64a x 1/8 = 72a
27. Answer: B
3rd year interest = 72a + 72a x 1/8 = 81a
Let the amount invested in simple interest = a
Total interest = 217a
8% x 5 x a = 1170
72a = 936
a = 1170/40 x 100 = Rs. 2925
So, a = 13
Compound interest earned = 2925/60 x 100 = 4875
Total interest = 64a +72a +81a= 217 x 13 = Rs.2821
P x [(1 + 15/100)² - 1] = 4875
31. Answer: E
P = (4875 x 400) / 129 = 15116 (approx.)
Compound interest generated for 2 years
28. Answer: D
Total amount after compound interest = 18000(1 +
=
15/100)2
Simple interest generated for 2 years = 2 x 12% = 24%
= 18000 x 23/20 x 23/20 = 23805
Difference in interest = 7700 x (32.25% - 24%) =
635.25 rupees
23805 x k/100 x 4 = 9522
32. Answer: A
k = 10
Page 690 of 1079

Compound interest =
Interest earned through SI = =Rs.4200
= 11000 – 11000 Required difference = 8400 – 4200 =Rs.4200
= 13370.56875 – 11000 35. Answer: C
= Rs.2370.56875
=2370 approx. Amount after 1 year = 8000 = 9000
33. Answer: A At the end of 1st year, he paid Rs.2000
Compound interest earned = 12000 (1.15 x 1.20 – 1) = Remaining sum = 9000-2000 =Rs.7000
4560 rupees
Simple interest for 2 years us same as that of compound
Amount after 2nd year = 7000* = Rs.7875
interest on 12000 rupees.
At the end 2nd year, he paid Rs.2000
So, 4560 = 12000 x r x 2/ 100
Remaining sum = Rs.5875
Rate of interest = 19% p.a.
34. Answer: C
Amount after 3rd year = 5875 = Rs.6609.375
36. Answer: E
Amount (after 3 years) = = 16406.25
Here we don’t know the initial rate of interest
hence can’t be determined
Amount (after 2 years) = = 13125 37. Answer: C

16P = P * (1 + R/100)8 ----(1)
25P = P * (1 + R/100)10 -----(2)
(2)/(1)
(1 + R/100)10 – 8 = 25/16
(1 + R/100) = 5/4
100 + R = 125
Rate of interest R =25%
R = 25%
38. Answer: A
SI = P * R * N/100
P = 13125 CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P
P = Rs.8400 (x – 2000) * 72/100 = x * 18*3/100
4x – 8000 = 3x
Page 691 of 1079
x = 8000
CI received by Kanna = 6000 * (1 + 10/100)3 – 6000
= Rs.1986 For 2 years =
39. Answer: A
The interest is half yearly = 20/2 = 10%
For 3 years =
Half yearly time = 4 years
CI for 3 years = 33.1/100 x 21000
x * (1 + 10/100)4 – x = 1392.3
= 6951
0.4641x = 1392.3
(or)
x = 3000
CI = 21000(1+10/100)3 – 21000
40. Answer: C
CI = 21000(110/100)3 -21000
Compound Interest = Rs 10500
CI = (21000*1.331) - 21000
P*((1+10/100)2-1) = Rs 10500
CI = 27951 – 21000
P(1.21-1) = Rs 10500
CI = 6951
P= 10500/0.21
42. Answer: A
P = Rs 50,000
SI = P * N * R/100
SI = 50000*10*2/100
4950 = 6600 * R * (R – 10)/100
SI = Rs 10,000
R2 – 10R = 75
(Or)
R2 – 10R – 75 = 0
CI at 10% pa for 2 years =
R2–15R + 5R – 75 = 0
R(R – 15) + 5(R – 15) = 0
(R + 5)(R – 15) = 0
= 21%
R = -5, 15
21% = 10500
R = 15%
SI at 10% for 2 years is equivalent to 10 x 2 = 20%
1260 = (4000 + x) * (1 + 10/100)2 – (4000 + x)
20% = 10500/21 x 20 = 10000
5260 + x = 4840 + 1.21x
41. Answer: D
x = 2000
43. Answer: C
Rate = Rate of interest under CI = 12%
Now, interest for 3 year when the rate of interest is Rate of interest under SI = 2/3 x 12 = 8%
compounded annually Simple interest earned = 1, 20,000 x 8% x 5 = 48000
Page 692 of 1079
Compound interest earned = 1, 60,000 x (12 + 12 + 12 = > 100 unit = Rs.2300

x 12/100)% = 40704 47. Answer: A
Total interest earned by A = 48000 + 40704 = 88704
44. Answer: C
Difference between S I and C I for 2 years = P R2 /
Difference of CI and SI (for 3 years) =
(100)2
450 = P * 15 * 15 / (100)2
P = 20000 359.424 =
C I = P [(1 + R/ 100)] N – P R=12%
3
C I = 20000 [(1 + 10 / 100)] – 20000 48. Answer: D
C I = 20000 * (1331 / 1000) – 20000 Amount invests on compound interest scheme = x
C I = 26620 – 20000 Amount invests on simple interest scheme = 12000 – x
C I = 6620 CI received by Mala = x * (1 + 10/100)2 – x
45. Answer: B = 0.21x
SI received by Renu = 4500 * 12 * 5/100 = 2700 SI received by Mala = [(12000 – x) * 12 * 3]/100 = 9/25
2
CI received by Rahul = 4500 * (1 + 10/100) – 4500 = * (12000 – x)
945 0.21x + 4320 – 0.36x = 3195
Difference = 2700 – 945 =1755 x = Rs.7500
46. Answer: D 49. Answer: A
SI = (P * N * R)/100 P * (1 + R/100)4 = 4P
Let, the capital P=100 unit (1 + R/100)4 = 4
The simple interest for first 2 years = ((1 + R/100)4)3 = 43
(100*5*2)/100=10 unit P * (1 + R/100)12 = 64P
The simple interest for next 3 years = (100*8*3)/100 = n = 12 years
24 unit 50. Answer: A
The simple interest for next 4 years = (100*10*4)/100 Let us take the sum be x,
= 40 unit Given,
Total interest after 9 years = (10+24+40) unit = 74 unit x + (x*15*2)/100 = 65000
which is 1702 (130/100) * x = 65000
= > 74 unit = 1702 x = 65000 * (100/130) = Rs. 50000
Page 693 of 1079

S.I = 65000 - 50000 = Rs. 15000 (1 + x/100)2 = (121/100)2

C.I = 15000 - 4500 = Rs. 10500 1 + x/100 = 11/10
Total amount= 10500 + 50000 = Rs. 60500 (100 + x) / 100 = 11/10
50000 * (1 + x/100)2 = 60500 100 + x = 110
(1 + x/100)2 = 605/500 x = 10
Profit and Loss

1. A shopkeeper has three different mobiles Nokia, B.Rs.775
Samsung and Redmi and the total price of all the C.Rs.780
mobiles together is Rs.109000. The ratio of the cost D.Rs.800
price of Nokia to Samsung is 5:7 and the ratio of the E.Rs.825
cost price of Redmi to Nokia is 5:7. Find the cost 4. Raman buys a loudspeaker for Rs.3500. He has to
price of Nokia? give the dealer an extra of Rs.120 as delivery charge.
A.Rs.35000 Raman sells the loudspeaker for Rs.4800 to his
B.Rs.36000 friend. Find the profit percent of Raman.(approx..)
C.Rs.42000 A.33%
D.Rs.28000 B.48%
E.Rs.56000 C.58%
2. If a toy is sold at 10% discount, then the amount D.62%
gained is Rs.80, while if the discount given was 5%, E.72%
then the amount gained is 100. What is the marked 5. The cost price of 4 tables is equal to the cost price
price of the toy? of 8 chairs. Ratio of the cost price of one chair to the
A.Rs.200 cost price of 2 pen drive is 2:1. If the selling price of
B.Rs.400 17 pen drive is Rs.43010 while he gets the profit of
C.Rs.500 10%, then what is the sum of the cost price of 5 tables
D.Rs.700 and 10 chairs?
E.None of these A.Rs.184000
3. Find the cost price of the table when sold at Rs.930 B.Rs.192000
by shopkeeper and the shopkeeper gets the profit of C.Rs.202000
20%? D.Rs.178000
A.Rs.770 E.None of these
Page 694 of 1079
6. A shopkeeper sold same marked price of different 9. By selling a bag after providing a discount of 30%,
shirts and he announced an offer – if one buy three a gain of 15% is made. Find its cost price, if the
shirts then fourth shirt is sold at a discounted price marked price of the bag is Rs.345.
of Rs. 100 only. Arun took the offer and He left shop A.Rs.210
with 20 shirts after paying Rs. 20000. What is the B.Rs.340
marked price of a shirt? C.Rs.450
A.Rs.1300 D.Rs.560
B.Rs.1250 E.None of these
C.Rs.1360 10. Shopkeeper sold his product 20% above its cost
D.Rs.1400 price and gives 800grams instead of 1kg, then find
E.Rs.1500 the overall profit earned by the shopkeeper.
7. A man sold an article at 4/25th more than its cost A.33.33%
price, had he sold the same article at the profit of B.50%
40%, he would have earned Rs.210 more, then find C.60%
the discount offered, if the markedup percentage is D.66.67%
60%. E.40%
A.Rs.225 11. Karthick sold his bike to Khalid at a loss of 25%,
B.Rs.125 Khalid spend Rs.4000 to replace the engine and sold
C.Rs.150 it to Arun for Rs.28125 thereby making the profit of
D.Rs.175 12.5%, then find the actual cost price of the bike.
E.Rs.250 A.Rs.21000
8. A shopkeeper sold the doll at 10% loss on its cost B.Rs.22500
price and he allows the discount of 20% on marked C.Rs.28000
price of the doll. The selling price of the doll is what D.Rs.18000
percent less than the marked price of the doll? E.Rs.24000
A.10% 12. Dinesh marks up the price of his goods by 40%
B.15% and gives a discount of 25% to the customer. He also
C.20% uses an 800 gram weight instead of a 1 kilogram
D.22% weight. Find his final percentage profit.
E.18% A.30%
Page 695 of 1079

B.31.25% B.15%
C.33.33 % C.10%
D.27.25 % D.8%
E.None of these E.25%
13. A shopkeeper marks his article 50% above the 16. The air-conditioner marked at Rs. 20000. A
cost price and gives a discount of 20% on it. If he franchiser buys an air-conditioner and gets 10% and
later marked his article 75% above the cost price 20% successive discounts. He spends 10% of his CP
and gave a discount of 20% on it then earlier profit on transport. At what price (in rupees) should he sell
is what percent of the later profit? the air-conditioner to earn a profit of 10%?
A.25% A.Rs. 17424
B.20% B.Rs. 17826
C.40% C.Rs. 16528
D.50% D.Rs. 15782
14. A man sold a mobile for Rs. 15000 and incurred 17. A person sold an article at a profit of 37 ½ %. If
a loss. Had he sold the mobile for Rs. 21000, his gain he had sold it for Rs. 540 more, he would have gain
would have been equal to two times of the amount of 42%. What is the cost price?
loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the A.21000
mobile to gain 25 %? B.12500
A.Rs. 20500 C.12200
B.Rs. 21250 D.12300
C.Rs. 22000 E.12000
D.Rs. 23750 18. A merchant bought an article and marked it
E.None of these 133(1/3) % of the cost price. He sold that article at a
15. The shopkeeper marked the article at Rs. 6000 discount which is three-fourth less than the profit he
but due to festival offer, a certain discount is given earned which is Rs. 440. Find the cost price.
to all the customers while he made a profit of 20%. A.Rs. 1600
Find the percentage of discount given to all the B.Rs. 1650
customers, if the cost price of the article is Rs. 4000? C.Rs. 1250
A.20% D.Rs. 1500
Page 696 of 1079

E.Rs. 850 22. If an article is sold after allowed two successive

19. An insurance agent sold two policies, X and Y. discounts of x% and 20% and the profit earned after
Monthly premium of X is Rs. 150, and that on Y is selling the article is x%. If the ratio of the cost price
Rs. 26.5. If a person takes both, he gets a discount of to marked price of the article is 36:55 and the cost
Rs. 50 on policy X. In an office where everybody took price of the article is Rs.7200, then find the value of
at least one policy, 14 people took policy X, and 8 x?
people took policy Y, what is the minimum monthly A.10%
collection of the insurance agent? B.15%
A.Rs. 2064 C.20%
B.Rs. 1750 D.5%
C.Rs. 1834 E.None of these
D.Rs. 1912 23. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% on marked
E.None of these price of every shirt and when he sells 12 shirts he
20. Cost price of 42 articles is equal to the selling gives one shirt free. What is the approximate real
price of 30 articles. Find the profit or loss rate of discount offered by shopkeeper?
percentage. A.15%
A.60% B.17%
B.30% C.19%
C.70% D.21%
D.50% E.23%
E.40% 24. The marked price of the table is 25% more than
21. A bought two bicycle at Rs. 12800 for equal rate. its cost price. If the shopkeeper offers a discount of
He sold the first bicycle at a profit of 37(1/2) % and 10% on marked price of the table while he gets the
the second bicycle at a loss of 15%.Find the selling profit of Rs.300, then find the cost price of the table?
price of both the cycles. A.Rs.2400
A.Rs. 2500, Rs. 5660 B.Rs.2800
B.Rs. 16500, Rs. 5340 C.Rs.3000
C.Rs. 7600, Rs .5220 D.Rs.3200
D.Rs. 18600, Rs. 5440 E.None of these
E.Rs. 8800, Rs. 5440
Page 697 of 1079

25. A man buys two articles. The ratio of the cost E.Cannot be determined
price of the articles is 3:2. He sells the first article at 28. The marked price of the Pen is 20% more than
20% profit and the second article at 10% loss. If he its cost price. If the shopkeeper offers a discount of
gains overall Rs. 40, find the cost price of the first 10% on marked price of the Pen, then the selling
article. price of the Pen is what percent more than the cost
A.100 price of the Pen?
B.300 A.10%
C.400 B.11%
D.200 C.5%
E.500 D.7%
26. The cost price of the AC is 20% more than the E.None of these
cost price of the washing machine and the cost price 29. A shopkeeper marks his goods at 20% above the
of the refrigerator is 10% less than the cost price of cost price and then allows a discount of 12.5%. What
washing machine. If the selling price of AC is is his gain percent?
Rs.21000 which is Rs.3000 more than its cost price, A.7%
then what is the cost price of refrigerator? B.10%
A.Rs.13500 C.5%
B.Rs.14400 D.8%
D.Rs.12600 30. A shopkeeper sold at article at 20% loss after
E.None of these allowing a discount of 33.33%. If the shopkeeper
27. The selling price of the chair is 30% less than the would have been sold the article at marked price
selling price of the table. If the shopkeeper sold the then there is a profit of Rs. 150, then find the cost
table at 25% profit and chair at 12% profit and then price of article.
he gets the overall profit is Rs.1100. What is the cost A.Rs. 500
price of the table? B.Rs. 900
A.Rs.3000 C.Rs. 600
B.Rs.3200 D.Rs. 750
D.Rs.4000
Page 698 of 1079

31. A shopkeeper have 216 pencils, he sell some 34. A sold SD card to B at 20% loss and B sold it to
pencils at 25% and rest pencils at 15% loss, so there C at 50% profit and C again sold it to D at 15%
is a loss of 15% overall. Find the number of pencils profit. If difference between SP of A & CP of D is
sold at 15% loss? Rs.290, find the difference between CP of A & SP of
A.54 C?
B.108 A.380
C.162 B.285
D.58 C.240
E.None of these D.180
32. Bhuvan sells an article at 33.33% of profit to a E.190
customer. If Bhuvan bought the same at Rs. 200 less 35. Kathir marked up the pen drive 60% above the
and sell it Rs. 150 less so there is a profit of 62.5%. cost price& offers 25% discount while selling and
Find the selling price of article when sold at 20% earns a profit of Rs.120, if he marked up 40% above
profit? the cost price & 10% discount, then find the selling
A.Rs. 740 price of the pen drive.
B.Rs. 780 A.Rs.7650
C.Rs. 750 B.Rs.7560
D.Rs. 620 C.Rs.7250
E.None of these D.Rs.7520
33. A shopkeeper sold an article at 25% discount and E.Can’t be determined
secured a loss of Rs. 80. If marked price is increased 36. Riya buys two varieties of apple I and II. Cost
by 21.875%, then find profit percentage or loss price of Variety I is half of variety II. If Riya buys 40
percentage. The initial marked price of article is Rs. kg of variety I and 20 kg of variety II and sell all of
1280? them at a common price which is 10% less than cost
A.15% of Variety II apple. Find overall profit % of Riya.
B.7.5% A.25%
C.10% B.30%
D.12.5% C.35%
E.None of these D.28%
E.None of these
Page 699 of 1079

37. The cost price of AC is 50% more than the cost 40. Renuka purchased a laptop for Rs.10200 from
price of TV and the cost price of laptop is 25% less flipkart. If the flipkart sold the laptop at the profit
than the cost price of TV. If the shopkeeper sold the of 20% and the flipkart also offers 20% discount on
TV at Rs.24000 while he gets the profit of 20% and marked price of the laptop, then what is the
the shopkeeper gets the profit of AC and Laptop is difference between the cost and marked price of the
10% and 15% respectively, then what is the laptop?
difference between the selling price of AC and A.Rs.4250
laptop? B.Rs.4450
A.Rs.15550 C.Rs.4860
B.Rs.15500 D.Rs.4550
D.Rs.15250 41. By selling a mobile after offering the discount of
E.None of these 25%, a profit of 30% is made. Find the cost price of
38. The profit earned after selling the Toy for Rs.340 the mobile, if the marked price of the mobile is
is the same as loss incurred after selling the Toy for Rs.7800.
Rs.278. What is the selling price of the toy at 20% A.Rs.7000
profit? B.Rs.6500
A.Rs.370.8 C.Rs.5000
B.Rs.378.8 D.Rs.4500
C.Rs.376.8 E.None of these
D.Rs.380.8 42. The shopkeeper gives two successive discounts of
E.None of these 10% and 15% on the marked price of the laptop. If
39. A shopkeeper has 10 tables and the total price of the shopkeeper gets 20% profit from the given
10 tables is Rs.20000. If he sold 8 tables for Rs.24000, discount, then find the profit percentage?
then what was his profit percentage? A.7.14%
A.40% B.8.25%
B.50% C.9.18%
C.30% D.6.54%
D.60% E.10.5%
E.None of these
Page 700 of 1079

43. The sum of the cost price of mobile and laptop is 46. The cost price of four mobiles is equal to the cost
Rs.9900. If the shopkeeper sold the mobile at 10% price of 3 laptops. If the cost price of 5 laptops and 7
profit and laptop at 8% loss and he found that the mobiles is Rs.12300, then what is the cost of 12
loss incurred by selling laptop is equal to the profit mobiles and 7 laptops together?
earned by selling mobile, then find the cost price of A.Rs.19200
mobile? B.Rs.18800
A.Rs.4000 C.Rs.17900
B.Rs.4400 D.Rs.21000
D.Rs.5200 47. Mr. Sharma purchased a smart television for Rs
E.None of these 50000. Its price was marked up by 20%. He again
44. In a consignment 25% of goods are sold at 10% sold the television at a discount of 10% on the
loss and the remaining is sold at 25% profit. If there marked price. What is the profit percentage on the
is a total profit of Rs 650 then the total goods sold is. cost price?
A.4000 A.3%
B.3900 B.7%
C.4500 C.5%
D.5000 D.8%
45. The cost price of pen and pencil in the ratio of 48. If the marked price of the TV is 25% more than
5:3. If the cost price of Pen is Rs.12 more than the its cost price and the shopkeeper offer two successive
cost price of Pencil and the shopkeeper offers the discounts of 20% and 15% on marked price of the
discount of 10% on cost price of the Pencil, then find TV. If the selling price of the TV is Rs.13600, then
the selling price of the pencil? find the cost price of the TV?
A.Rs.16.2 A.Rs.12000
B.Rs.24.2 B.Rs.14000
C.Rs.22.2 C.Rs.16000
D.Rs.20.2 D.Rs.18000
E.Rs.18.2 E.Rs.20000
Page 701 of 1079

49. If the selling price of the mobile is Rs.31920 while 50. The marked price of the article is 25% more than
the shopkeeper gets the loss of 30% and the selling the cost price of the article. If the discount offered by
price of watch is Rs.23850 while the shopkeeper gets shopkeeper is 16 % and the sum of the marked and
the loss of 55%, then what is the difference between cost price of the article is Rs.5760, then find the
the shopkeeper should sold the mobile at 30% profit profit percentage of article.
and cost price of the watch? A.5%
A.Rs.4860 B.2%
B.Rs.6280 C.8%
C.Rs.5845 D.4%
D.Rs.6040 E.1%
E.None of these
Profit and Loss - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: A SP = Rs.4800
N + S + R = 109000 Gain % = (4800 – 3620)/3620 * 100
Ratio of the CP of Nokia and Samsung = 5:7 = 32.59% ≈ 33%
Ratio of the CP of Redmi and Nokia = 5:7 5) Answer: A
Ratio of the CP of Nokia, Samsung and Redmi = CP of 17 pen drive = 100/110 * 43010 = 39100
35:49:25 CP of one pen drive = 39100/17 = Rs.2300
CP of Nokia = 35/109 * 109000 CP of one Chair = 2/1 * (2300 * 2) = 9200
= 35000 CP of 8 Chair = 9200 * 8 = 73600
2) Answer: B CP of 4 tables = 73600
Marked price of the toy = x CP of one table = 73600/4 = 18400
(100 – 10)/100 * x – 80 = (100 – 5)/100 * x – 100 Required Sum = (5 * 18400) + (10 * 9200) = Rs.184000
=> x = Rs.400 6) Answer: A
3) Answer: B Let the marked price of shirt = a
CP of table = x According to question
x * 120/100 = 930 15 x a + 5 x 100 = 20000
x = 775 15a = 19500
4) Answer: A a = 1300
CP = 3500 + 120 = Rs.3620 7) Answer: D
Page 702 of 1079
Let cost price of the article =25x Selling price of 1000 grams = Rs.1200 (20% profit)
Selling price= 25x + (4/25) * (25x) =29x Selling price of 800 grams = Rs.1200 (sold 800 grams
Profit =4x instead of 1kg)
New selling price = 140% of 25x = 35x
New profit =10x Profit percentage = ×100 = 50%
Difference of the profit = Rs.210 11) Answer: C
10x-4x =210 Let cost price of the bike = 100x
6x=210 Karthick sold this bike at a loss of 25x, SP =75x
x= 35 Khalid spend Rs.4000,
CP =25x = Rs.875 Therefore, Cost price of the bike (for Khalid)
Marked price of the product = 160% of 875= Rs.1400 =75x+4000
SP of the product =35x = Rs.1225 Khalid sold this at the profit of 12.5%
Discount offered = 1400 -1225 = Rs.175 SP of the bike (Khalid) = 112.5% of (75x+4000)
8) Answer: C 112.5% of (75x+4000) = 28125
CP = x x= 280
SP = x * 90/100 = 9x/10 Therefore actual cost price of the bike =100x =
MP * 80/100 = x * 9/10 Rs.28000
MP = 9x/8 12) Answer: B
Required percentage = (9x/8 – 9x/10)/(9x/8) * 100 Profit percentage after giving discount
= 20%
9) Answer: A
=
CP = 100/(100 + Gain%) * (100 – Discount%)/100 *
Marked price
Overall profit percentage =
= 100/(100 + 15) * (100 – 30)/100 * 345
= 31.25%
= (100/115)* (70/100) * 345
13) Answer: D
= Rs.210
Let CP be Rs 100.
10) Answer: B
Then MP = 150
Let us assume,
Cost price of 1000gram = Rs.1000
SP = = 120
Cost price of 800 grams = Rs.800
Profit = 120 – 100 = 20
Page 703 of 1079
Again new MP = 175 Now, price after another 20% discount = 18000 –
20/100 of 18000
= 18000 – 3600 = Rs. 14400
SP = = 140
Now, price after 10% of transportation charges = 14400
Profit = 140 - 100 = 40
+ 10/100 × 14400
= 14400 + 1440 = Rs. 15840
Required Percentage = Now, price after 10% of profit = 15840 + 15840 x
14) Answer: B 10/100
Loss = C.P – 15000 = 15840 + 1584 = Rs.17424
Profit = 21000 – CP So, the selling price of the air-conditioner is = Rs. 17424
Profit = 2 * Loss 17) Answer: E
21000 – C.P = 2 * [C.P – 15000] Let the CP of article be 100x,
21000 – C.P = 2C.P – 30000 Then
3C.P = 51000 SP 1 = 100x * 137.5 /100 = 137.5x
C.P = 17000 SP 2 = 100x * 142/100 = 142x
Selling price = 17000 * (125/100) = Rs. 21250 Given that,
15) Answer: A 142x – 137.5x = 540
MP = 6000 x = 120
SP = 6000 x (100 – D %)/100 CP = 100 * 120 = 12000
Profit %= 20 % Short Trick:
CP = Rs. 4000 CP = (Difference in S.P/Difference in profit %) x 100
SP = 4000 * (120/100) = Rs. 4800 CP = [540/ (42 – 37.5)] x 100 = Rs. 12000
According to the question, 18) Answer: B
4800 = 6000 * (100 – D) % MP = 400/300 x CP
80 = 100 – D Profit = 440
Discount = 100 – 80 = 20 % Discount = (1- 3/4) x 440 = 110
16) Answer: A SP = (4/3 x CP) – 110
Price after 10% discount = 20000 – 10/100 of 20000 Profit = SP – CP
= 20000 –2000 = Rs. 18000 440 = (4/3 x CP) – 110 – CP
CP/3 = 550
Page 704 of 1079

CP = 550 x 3 = 1650 11000 * (100 – x)/100 * 80/100 = 7200 * (100 + x)/100

Hence, the CP is Rs. 1650 8800/7200 = (100 + x)/(100 – x)
19) Answer: D 720000 + 7200x = 880000 – 8800x
For the minimum amount, 8 people took both policies. x = 10%
So, the minimum amount is, 23) Answer: B
= (14 × 150) + (8 × 26.5) – (8 × 50) MP of one shirt = x
= 2100 + 212 –400 SP of shirt = 12x * 90/100 = 10.8x
= 2312 – 400 Real discount = ((12 + 1)x – 10.8x)/(12 + 1)x * 100
= Rs. 1912 = 17%
Hence, the required answer is = Rs. 1912. 24) Answer: A
20) Answer: E CP * 125/100 * 90/100 = CP + 300
Let, CP of 42 articles is Rs. 100 0.125CP = 300
SP of 30 articles = CP of 42 articles = 100 CP = Rs.2400
SP of 1 article = 100/30 25) Answer: B
And, SP of 42 articles = 42/30*100=140 Let the C.P of two articles are 3x and 2x
Profit% = (140 – 100)/100 x 100 = 40% = > 3x *20/100 – 2x*10/100 = 40
21) Answer: E = > x =100
Let the CP of 1st bicycle = 6400 CP of the first article = 3x = 300
And the CP of 2nd bicycle = 6400 26) Answer: A
SP of 1st bicycle, SP of AC = 21000
SP = CP x (100 + P)/100 CP of AC = 21000 – 3000 = 18000
Or, SP = 6400 x (100 + 75/2)/100 CP of Washing machine = 100/120 * 18000 = 15000
SP = 6400 x 275/200 = 8800 CP of refrigerator = 90/100 * 15000 = Rs.13500
CP of 2nd bicycle, 27) Answer: B
SP = 6400 x (100 – L)/100 SP of table = 100x
Or, SP = 6400 x 85/100 SP of chair = 100x * 70/100 = 70x
SP = Rs. 5440 CP of table = t
SP of 1st bicycle = Rs. 8800 CP of Chair = c
SP of 2nd bicycle = Rs. 5440 t * 125/100 = 100x
22) Answer: A t = 80x
Page 705 of 1079

c * 112/100 = 70x Number of pencils sold at 15% loss = 1/4 x 216 = 54

c = 62.5x 32) Answer: E
(100x + 70x) – (80x + 62.5x) = 1100 Let the cost price of article = 3a
x = 40 Selling price = 4a
CP of table = 80 * 40 = Rs.3200 According to question
28) Answer: E 162.5% of (3a – 200) = (4a – 150)
CP of the Pen = 5x 39a – 2600 = 32a – 1200
MP of the Pen = 5x * 120/100 = 6x 7a = 1400
SP of the Pen = 6x * 90/100 = 27x/5 a = 200
Required percentage = (27x/5 – 5x)/5x * 100 = 8% Cost price of article = 200 x 3 = 600
29) Answer: C Desired selling price = 600 x 1.2 = Rs. 720
Let, CP= 100, So, MP= 120 33) Answer: D
So, discount = 120*1/8 (12.5% =1/8)=15 Initial Selling price = 1280 x 3/4 = 960
SP= 120-15=105, gain = 105-100=5 Cost price of article = 960 + 80 = 1040
Required gain % = (5/100)*100 = 5% New marked price = 1280 + 1280 x 21.875% = Rs. 1560
30) Answer: D New selling price = 1560 x 3/4 = 1170
According to question, Required profit % = (1170 – 1040)/1040 x 100 = 12.5%
4/5 of Cost price = 2/3 of marked price 34) Answer: E
Cost price / marked price = 5/6 Let cost price of (SD Card) A =100x
If article sell at marked price Selling price of A = Cost price of B =80% of 100x =
6 unit – 5 unit = Rs. 150 80x
1 unit = Rs. 150 Selling price of B = Cost price of C = 150% of 80x =
Cost price of article = 5 x 150 = Rs. 750 120x
31) Answer: A Selling price of C = Cost price of D = 115% of 120x =
Let the number of pencils sold at 25% profit = a 138x
Number of pencils sold at 15% loss = b 138x- 80x =290
According to question 58x = 290
25% of a – 15% of b = 15% of (a + b) x=5
10% of a = 30% of b Difference between CP of A and SP of C
So, a/b = 3/1 = 138x – 100x
Page 706 of 1079

= 38x Difference = 33000 – 17250 = Rs.15750

= 38*5 38) Answer: A
= Rs.190 340 - CP = CP - 278
35) Answer: B CP = 309
Let actual cost price =100x SP of toy at the profit of 20% = 309 * 120/100 =
Marked price = 160x Rs.370.8
Selling price of the pen drive = 75% of 160x = 120x 39) Answer: B
Profit = 120x-100x =20x =120 CP of one table = 20000/10 = Rs.2000
x=60 SP of one table = 24000/8 = Rs.3000
Therefore cost price = 100x =Rs.6000 Required percentage = (3000 – 2000)/2000 * 100
New marked price of the pen drive = 140% of 6000 = =1000/2000 * 100
Rs.8400 = 50%
New selling price = 90% of 8400 = Rs.7560 40) Answer: A
36) Answer: C SP of laptop =Rs. 10200
Let the cost price Variety I apple = Rs. a per kg CP = 100/120 * 10200 = Rs. 8500
Cost price of variety II apples = Rs. 2a per kg MP * 80/100 = Rs. 10200
Total cost price = 40 x a + 20 x 2a = 80a MP = Rs. 12750
Total selling price = 60 x 1.8a = 108a Difference = 12750 – 8500 = Rs. 4250
Overall profit % = [(108a – 80a)/80a] x 100 = 35% 41) Answer: D
37) Answer: C Marked price = 7800
CP of TV = 4x Selling price = 7800 * 75/100 = 5850
CP of AC = 4x * 150/100 = 6x Cost price = 5850*100/130
CP of Laptop = 75/100 * 4x = 3x Cost price = Rs. 4500
SP of TV = 24000 (OR)
CP of TV = 24000 * 100/120 = 20000 Cost price = 100/(100 + P%) * (100 – Discount%)/100
x = 20000/4 = 5000 * MP
CP of AC = 6 * 5000 = 30000 = 100/(100 + 30) * (100 – 25)/100 * 7800
CP of Laptop = 3 * 5000 = 15000 = Rs.4500
SP of AC = 30000 * 110/100 = 33000 42) Answer: D
SP of Laptop = 15000 * 115/100 = 17250 MP of laptop = x
Page 707 of 1079

SP of laptop = x * 90/100 * 85/100 = 0.765x 46) Answer: A

Discount = x – 0.765x = 0.235x CP of a mobile = x
Profit = 0.235x * 20/100 = 0.047x CP of a laptop = y
CP = 0.765x – 0.047x = 0.718x 4x = 3y
Profit percentage = 0.047x/0.718x * 100 = 6.54% CP of 5 laptops = 5 * (4x/3) = 20x/3
43) Answer: B 20x/3 + 7x = 12300
CP of mobile = x 41x = 12300 * 3
CP of laptop = 9900 – x x = 900
SP of laptop = (9900 – x) * 92/100 CP of a laptop = 4 * 900/3 = 1200
SP of mobile = x * 110/100 Required sum = 12 * 900 + 7 * 1200
x * 10/100 = (9900 – x) * 8/100 = Rs.19200
10x = 79200 – 8x 47) Answer: D
x = 4400 Cost Price = 50000
44) Answer: A
Let the total goods = 400x Marked Price =
Ratio of goods 25% 75%
1 3 Selling price =
Profit = 54000 – 50000 = 4000
Required Percent =
48) Answer: C
Profit = 75x -10x = 65x CP of TV = 4x
Now, The difference 65x = 650(Total Profit) MP of the TV = 4x * 125/100 = 5x
x=650/65 5x * 80/100 * 85/100 = 13600
x = 4000
CP of TV = 4 * 4000 = 16000
45) Answer: A
49) Answer: B
5x – 3x = 12
CP of mobile = 31920 * 100/70 = Rs.45600
x=6
SP of mobile = 45600 * 130/100 = Rs.59280
CP of Pencil = 6 * 3 = Rs.18
CP of watch = 23850 * 100/45 = Rs.53000
SP of Pencil = 18 * 90/100 = Rs.16.2
Page 708 of 1079
Difference = 59280 – 53000 = Rs.6280 x = 2560

50) Answer: A MP of the article = 5 * 2560/4 = Rs.3200
Let assume, CP = x SP = 3200 * 84/100 = 2668
MP = x * 125/100 = 5x/4 Profit = 2668 - 2560 = Rs.128
5x/4 + x = 5760 Profit percentage = 128/2560 * 100 = 5%
9x = 5760 * 4
Time Speed Distance
1. A bus starts from point A with the speed of reaches station P late by 3 minutes. What is the
75km/hr, for every hour it changes its speed by distance between the two stations P and S (in Km).
+5km/hr, -10km/hr, +15km/hr and so on, after 5 A.100 km
hours it reaches point B. Find the time taken by a B.80 km
car to travel from point B to A at 60km/hr C.50 km
A.5hrs 45mins D.60 km
B.6hrs 15mins E.None of these
C.6hrs 45mins 4. The speed of Bus on Wednesday is 25 kmph faster
D.6hrs 30mins than that of Car on the same day. The distance
E.5hrs 15mins travelled by car is 250 km and bus is 300 km. If the
2. A car covers certain distance in 20 minutes, if the car takes 4 hours more than Bus, then find the speed
speed the car is reduced by 15km/hr then the same of the Bus?
distance is covered by 22.5minutes, then find the A.48 kmph
distance covered by the car. B.64 kmph
A.45km C.50 kmph
B.90km D.60 kmph
C.22.5km E.None of these
D.75km 5. In T hours a car covers 30 km less than the
E.180km distance covered by a bus in the same time. The
3. Ram, travelling in a car, covers a distance between speed of the car is 10 km/hr less than the speed of the
station P and S in 45minutes. If he reduces the speed bus. Find the value of T?
of his car by 5 kmph while returning from S to P, he A.3
Page 709 of 1079

B.4 C.1 hr 48 min

C.2 D.1 hr 30 min
D.5 E.None of these
E.None of these 9. Speed of the tractor and a bus are in the ratio 5:7.
6. Raj completes a certain journey by bike. If he The speed of the bus is 70% of the speed of the car
covered 45% of the journey at the speed of 22 1/2 which is 80 km/hr. Find the speed of the tractor?
km/hr, 24% of the distance at the speed of 12 km/hr A.20 km/hr
and the remaining of the distance at the speed of 15.5 B.35 km/hr
km/hr, then what will be the average speed? C.30 km/hr
A.16 2/3 Km/hr D.40 km/hr
B.25 km/hr E.None of these
C.18 km/hr 10. Ratio of the speed of bike and car is 3:4. If the
D.24 Km/hr bike covers 240 km in 4 hours, then what is the time
E.None of these taken by car covers 440 km?
7. Ratio of the speed of the car, bus and train are in A.4 hours
the ratio 3:2:4. Car takes 30 minutes more to cover B.4.8 hours
a distance of 180 km than the train. Find the ratio of C.5 hours
time taken by the car, bus and train to cover a D.5.5 hours
distance of 360 km. E.6 hours
A.4:2:1 11. A car travelling from Bihar to UP at the speed of
B.3:4:6 90 kmph and reached UP in half hour late. If the
C.4:6:3 speed of the car increased by 30 kmph and reached
D.4:3:6 UP on time, then find the distance between Bihar
E.1:3:2 and UP?
8. A car covers a distance of 180 km in 2 hrs and the A.180 km
speed of the train is 11(1/9) % more than the speed B.150 km
of the car. Find the time taken by train to cover the C.210 km
same distance covered by car. D.120 km
A.2 hr 12 min E.90 km
B.1 hr
Page 710 of 1079

12. The distance covered by car A and B in the ratio C.5

of 11:8 respectively. If car A covers the given D.4
distance at 55 kmph in 12 hours and car B covers the E.None of these
given distance in 8 hours, then find the speed of car 15. A person is travelling from Ajmer to Manali by
B? driving Bike at speed of 120 km/h without any halt.
A.40 kmph Has he taken 6 halts of 12 minutes each, then the
B.50 kmph total time taken to cover distance from Ajmer to
C.60 kmph Manali would have been 5 hours. Find the total
D.80 kmph distance from Ajmer to Manali in Km?
E.90 kmph A.450 km
13. Time taken by a car running at 30 km/h to cover B.456 km
a certain distance is 2 hour less than time taken by C.432 km
car to cover 10 km more than previous distance with D.336 km
speed of 24 km/h. find the time taken by car to cover E.None of these
35 km more than initial distance with speed of 12.5 16. If a car runs at 24km/hr it reaches its destination
km/h? by 10minutes late, if it runs at 72km/hr it reaches its
A.20 hours destination 10minutes earlier, then what is the
B.22 hours correct time for the journey.
C.18 hours A.20 mins
D.15 hours B.10 mins
E.None of these C.0.5 hr
14. A person travelling from P to Q at an average D.40 mins
speed of 68 km/h and reached at point Q in 3.5 E.24 mins
hours. If a person covers same distance with 17. A bike travels with a speed of 40 km/h, its speed
stoppage to its average speed reduced by 20.4 km/h is increased by 10 km/h after every 1.5 hours. Find
as compared to without stoppage speed, then find the time taken by bike to cover a distance of 300 km.
the number of stoppages if each stoppage is 36 A.29/7 hours
minutes. B.31/7 hours
A.12 C.36/7 hours
B.6 D.37/7 hours
Page 711 of 1079


18. Mala travelled one-fifth of the time walking at 21. Ratio of the speed of car to bike is 3:2 and the car
speed of 20 kmph, half of the time in a bus at 200 covers 480 km in 8 hours. If the time taken by bike
kmph and rest of the journey in a bike at 120 kmph. covers x km in 3 hours more than the time taken by
What is the average speed of Mala over entire the car covers the same distance, then find the value
journey? of x?
A.120 kmph A.320 km
B.130 kmph B.300 km
C.150 kmph C.360 km
D.140 kmph D.400 km
19. In 12 hours car A covers 36 km more distance 22. X ride with a certain speed takes 60 minutes
than car B covered in 18 hours. If the speed of car A more than Y to cover a distance of 156km. If X is
is 12 kmph more than the speed of car B, then how riding with twice of its speed then he takes 330
much distance car A covered in 40 hours? minutes less than Y to cover the same distance. Find
A.1200 km the speed of X?
B.1500 km A.20km/hr
C.1800 km B.12km/hr
D.1000 km C.24km/hr
E.900 km D.36km/hr
20. Tina has travel from Chennai to Bangalore in E.16km/hr
certain time. If she travelling at the speed of 60 23. Two scooters X and Y are running towards each
kmph and she reaches 48 minutes late and she other from two different places which are 135km
travelling at the speed of 96 kmph she reaches 15 apart, if the ratio of the time taken by the scooters to
minutes earlier. What is the distance between meet each other is 4:5, then find the difference of
Chennai and Bangalore? their speeds.
A.138 km A.9km/hr
B.148 km B.13.5km/hr
C.158 km C.18km/hr
D.168 km D.4.5km/hr
Page 712 of 1079

E.Can’t be determined 27. A covers a distance with car at a speed of 75

24. P started his car from point A at 9.00 am and km/hr in 4 hrs. He covers the same distance by
moves with the speed of 90 km/hr and reached to motorcycle in 6 hrs. By what percentage should he
point B at 1 pm. Another person Q started his car increase the speed of his motorcycle to cover the
from point A half an hour late from P and reached same distance in 4 hrs?
the point B with 2 pm. What is the ratio of speed of A.60%
P to Q? B.55%
A.7: 5 C.50%
B.5: 9 D.65%
C.9: 8 E.None of these
D.6: 5 28. If the ratio of the speed of car A to B is 5: 4 and
E.None of these the ratio of the speed of car B to C is 5: 3. If the time
25. Two stations A and B are 310 km apart on a taken by car A to cover 120 km in 4.8 hours, then
straight line. One train starts from A at 10 a.m. and what is the speed of car C?
travels towards B at 40 km/hr. Another train starts A.12 kmph
from B at 11 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed B.15 kmph
of 50 km/hr. At what time will they meet? C.18 kmph
A.3 pm D.9 kmph
B.1 pm E.None of these
C.2 pm 29. Two boys cover the same distance at the rate of
D.4 pm 8kmph and 10kmph respectively. Find the
E.None of these approximate distance travelled when one boy takes
26. A person covers a certain distance with a speed 10 minutes longer than the other.
of 42kmph in 20 mins. If he wants to cover the same A.6.67 km
distance in 25 min, what should be his speed? B.12 km
A.12.4kmph C.13.4 km
B.33.6kmph D.16 km
C.45.2kmph E.None of these
D.54.3kmph 30. The speed of car A and car B is 126 Km/hr and
E.None of these 90 Km/hr respectively. The time required by car B
Page 713 of 1079

is 2 hours more than that of car A. Find total What is the time taken by him to cover the distance
distance. with his usual speed?
A.630 Km A.2 2/3 hours
B.540 Km B.4 hours
C.810 Km C.5 2/3 hours
D.270 Km D.6 hours
31. A car travels from A to B at the speed of 60 kmph 34. A man travelled a certain distance by bus at a
then reached B at 6 am. If the car decreased the rate of 12kmph and walked back at the rate of 8
speed by 10 kmph, then reached B at 7 am, then what kmph. The whole journey took 5 hours. Find the
is the distance between A and B? distance he travelled.
A.150 km A.12km
B.180 km B.24km
C.240 km C.36km
D.210 km D.42km
32. Arav and Ravi starts travelling in same direction 35. Car A started from Chennai and travel towards
at 4 kmph and 7 kmph respectively. After 3 hours, Delhi at the speed of 30 kmph at 8 am and car B
Arav doubled his speed and Ravi reduced his speed travels Delhi towards Chennai at the speed of 40
by 2 kmph and reached the destination together. kmph at 9.30 am. If the distance between Chennai
How long the entire journey last? and Delhi is 255 km, then how far from Chennai will
A.2 hours both cars meet?
B.4 hours A.100 km
C.6 hours B.120 km
D.8 hours C.125 km
E.None of these D.115 km
33. Walking at two-fifth of his usual speed, a man E.None of these
covers certain distance in 4 hours more than the time 36. A bus takes 12 hours to go from Chennai to
he takes to cover the distance at his usual speed. Nagercoil. Bus go half of the time with speed of 90
kmph. Two-third of rest of time with speed of 80
Page 714 of 1079

kmph, rest with speed of 110kmph. What is the If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have taken
distance covered by bus? 40 minutes more. Find the distance covered by him.
A.950 km A.26km
B.1080 km B.37km
C.1450 km C.40 km
D.970 km D.15km
E.None of these E.63km
37. A cyclist moving on a square track of side 21 m 40. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 66
completes one round in 7 min. What is average speed kmph and including stoppages, it is 55kmph. For
of him? how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
A.12 meter per minute A.8 minutes
B.14 meter per minute B.10 minutes
C.16 meter per minute C.12 minutes
D.18 meter per minute D.15 minutes
E.10 meter per minute E.18 minutes
38. A man covers a distance of 240 Km by train with 41. A truck covers the first 65 km of its journey in 72
the speed of 48 Km/h, a distance of 60 Km by bus minutes and the remaining 25 km in 28 minutes.
with the speed of 12 Km/h and a distance of 20 Km Find the average speed of the truck?
by bicycle with the speed of 5 km/h to reach head A.60 km/hr
quarter of a bank from his home. Find the B.72 km/hr
approximate average speed of the man throughout C.54 km/hr
the journey. D.66 km/hr
A.25.15 Km/h E.None of these
B.22.85 Km/h 42. A thief has stolen a car and goes away at the
C.15.65 Km/h speed of 50 km/hr. The theft discovered after 15 min
D.21.25 Km/h and the owner sets off another car at the speed of 60
E.18.75 Km/h km/hr. When will the owner overtakes the thief?
39. A man covers a distance on a bike. Had he moved A.2 ¾ hours
3kmph faster he would have taken 40 minutes less. B.1 ½ hours
C.1 5/6 hours
Page 715 of 1079

D.2 4/5 hours 46. Ratio of the time taken by the train to bike covers
E.None of these the certain distance is 7: 5. If the sum of the speed of
43. Car A and B start from S and T towards T and S the train and bike is 180 kmph, then what is the
respectively. After passing each other they take 6 average speed of the bike and train to cover the same
hours 40 minutes and three hours 45 minutes to distance?
reach T and S respectively. If the speed of the car A A.87.5 kmph
is 60 kmph, then what is the speed of car B? B.77.5 kmph
A.80 kmph C.67.5 kmph
B.90 kmph D.57.5 kmph
C.100 kmph E.None of these
D.120 kmph 47. A man covered one-fourth of the distance by bus
E.None of these with a speed of 40 km/hr and the remaining distance
44. A man walks a certain distance and ride back in will be covered by bike with a speed of 60 km/hr.
7 ½ hours. He can walk both the ways in 9 ¼ hours. Find the total distance covered by the man, if the
How long will it take to ride both the ways? total time taken by him is 5 hours 15 mins?
A.7 (¼) hours A.220 km
B.5 (½) hours B.340 km
C.7 (5/8) hours C.280 km
D.6 (½) hours D.300 km
45. A person walks at 3 km/hr, then he covers a 48. A car travels Chennai to Bangalore at the speed
certain distance. If he walks at 8 km/hr in the same of 60 kmph and return from Bangalore to Chennai
time, then he covers 10 km more. How much at the speed of 80 kmph. If the whole journey the car
distance did he actually cover? takes 14 hours, then find the distance between
A.8 km Chennai and Bangalore?
B.6 km A.400 km
C.5 km B.420 km
D.7 km C.480 km
E.360 km
Page 716 of 1079

49. A car travel from Chennai to Bangalore at 8 am 50. A bus starts at bus stop and reaches a destination
at the speed of x kmph and reached Bangalore at 4 in 4 hours. If it travels first and second half at the
pm. If the car increases the speed at 40 kmph and speed of 40 km/hr and 50 km/hr respectively then
reached Bangalore at 2 pm, then what is the distance the approximate distance between bus stop and
between Chennai and Bangalore? destination is
A.960 km A.177.7 km
B.840 km B.154.2 km
C.1020 km C.163.5 km
D.900 km D.147.3 km
E.None of these E.None
Time Speed Distance - Answers with Explanation
1. Answer: B Dist =Speed x Time

Speed of the bus for the first hour = 75km/hr
Speed of the bus for the 2nd hour= 75+5= 80km/hr
Speed of the bus for the 3rd hour= 80-10 = 70km/hr
Speed of the bus for the 4th hour= 70+15= 85km/hr Again, distance =
Speed of the bus for the 5th hour= 85-20 = 65km/hr
Distance between point A and B = 75+70+80+65+85
=375km
Speed of the car = 60km/hr
Now,
Time taken = (375/60) = 6 hours 15 minutes
15S = 16S – 80
2. Answer: A
S = 80
Let distance to be covered is ‘x’ km
Speed of the car = ×60 = 3x Distance= = 60 km

4. Answer: C
Let the speed of the Bus be X kmph
3x-15 = ×60
x=45km
3. Answer: D
Page 717 of 1079

Car: bus: train

3: 2: 4
Let the speed of the car, bus and train be 3y, 2y and 4y
respectively.
Time taken by train to cover 180 km = 180/4y = 45/y
Time taken by car to cover 180 km = 180/3y = 60/y
But according to question,
60/y = 45/y + 1/2
X = 50 kmph (neglecting the negative value) Or, 60/y – 45/y = 1/2
Hence, the speed of the Bus = 50 kmph Or, y = 30
5. Answer: A So,
Let the speed of the bus and the car be Sb and Sc Speed of the car = 3 x 30 = 90 kmph
respectively, Speed of the bus = 2 x 30 = 60 kmph
ATQ, Speed of the train = 4 x 30 = 120 kmph
Sb – Sc = 10 Now,
In T hours distance covered by bus = SbT Time taken to cover 360 km by car = 360/90 = 4 hrs
In T hours distance covered by car = ScT Time taken to cover 360 km by bus = 360/60 = 6 hrs
SbT - ScT = 30 Time taken to cover 360 km by train = 360/120 = 3 hrs
T (Sb – Sc) = 30 So, ratio of time taken by car, bus and train = 4:6:3
T=3 8. Answer: C
The value of T = 3 hours Speed of the car = 180/2 = 90 km/hr
6. Answer: A Speed of the train = (1 + 100/900)x 90= 1000/900 x 90
Let us assume that the total distance = 100 km. = 100 km/hr
Time taken by train to cover 180 km is = 180/100 = 1
hours 48 minutes.
9. Answer: D
Speed of the bus = 70/100 x 80 = 56 km/hr
So, 7’s = 56
Hence, the required answer = 16 2/3 km/hr 5’s = 56/7 x 5 = 40 km/hr

So, speed of the tractor = 40 km/hr
7. Answer: C
Page 718 of 1079

10. Answer: D Time taken to cover same distance with stoppage =

Speed of bike = 240/4 = 60 kmph 238/47.6 = 5 hours
Speed of car = 60 * 4/3 = 80 kmph Stoppage time = 5 – 3.5 = 1.5 hours = 180 minutes
Required time = 440/80 = 5.5 hours Number of stoppages = 180/36 = 5
11. Answer: A 15. Answer: B
Distance = x Total halt time = 6 x 12 = 72 minutes = 1.2 hours
x/90 = y +(30/60) Travelling time = 5 – 1.2 = 3.8 hours
x/120 = y Required distance = 120 x 3.8 = 456 km
x/90 = (x+60)/120 16. Answer: A
4x= 3x + 180 Difference between time taken = 10 – (-10) =
X = 180 km 20minutes.
(OR)
Distance = (90 * 120 * 30/60)/30
= 180 km
12. Answer: C
Distance covered by car A = 55 * 12 = 660 km
D=12km
Distance covered by car B = 8/11 * 660 = 480 km
Time taken when it runs at 24km/hr
Speed of car B = 480/8 = 60 kmph
13. Answer: C
Let the initial distance covered by car = a km = 30minutes (10 minutes late)
According to question, Therefore actual time taken = 30-10 = 20minutes
(a + 10)/24 – a/30 = 2 17. Answer: E
5a + 50 – 4a = 2 x 120 Distance covered by bike in 1.5 hours = 40 x 1.5 = 60
a = 190 km km
Time taken by car to cover a + 35 km running at 12.5 Distance covered in 3 hours = 60 + 50 x 1.5 = 135 km
km/h Distance travelled in 4.5 hours = 135 + 60 x 1.5 = 225
(190 + 35)/ 12.5 = 18 hours km
14. Answer: C Rest of the distance covered by bike with speed of 70
Distance = 68 x 3.5 = 238 km/h km/h
Average speed with stoppage = 68 –20.4 = 47.6 km/h = (300 – 225)/70 = 15/14 hours
Page 719 of 1079

Total time = 4.5 + 15/14 = 39/7 hours x = 360 km

18. Answer: D 22. Answer: B
Total time = x Let speed of X =x km/hr, speed of Y=y km/hr
Total distance = (x * 1/5 * 20) + (200 * x/2) + (120 * (x
– x/5 – x/2))
= 4x + 100x + 36x
= 140x
Average speed = 140x/x = 140 kmph
19. Answer: A
Speed of car A = x
Speed of car B = y Add these equations,
12x – 18y = 36 X=12km/hr
2x – 3y = 6 -----(1) Y=13km/hr
x – y = 12 ----(2) Actual speed of X=12km/hr
y = 18 kmph 23. Answer: E
x = 18 + 12 = 30 kmph In this question, time taken by any of the scooters to
Required distance = 30 * 40 = 1200 km reach the destination is not given, or speed of any of the
20. Answer: D scooter is not given. Therefore solution can’t be
Usual speed = S determined.
Distance = D 24. Answer: C
D/60 - D/S = 48/60 Time taken by P = 1 pm – 9 am = 4 hrs
D/S – D/96 = 15/60 Distance = 90 x 4 = 360 km
D/60 – 48/60 = 15/60 + D/96 Time taken by Q = 2 pm – 9.30 am = 4.5 hrs
D/60 – D/96 = (15 + 48)/60 Speed of Q = 360/4.5 = 80 km/hr
D = 168 km So, ratio of speed of P to Q = 90/80 = 9: 8
Speed of car = 480/8 = 60 kmph They meet x hours after 10 a.m.
Speed of the bike = 2/3 * 60 = 40 kmph Distance covered by A in x hours = 40x km
x/40 – x/60 = 3 Distance covered by B in (x – 1) hours = 50 * (x – 1)
3x – 2x = 3 * 120 km
40x + 50 * (x – 1) = 310
Page 720 of 1079
40x + 50x – 50 = 310 31. Answer: E

90x = 360 Distance = Speed * Time
x=4 Time = t
They meet at 2 p.m. Distance = x
26. Answer: B 60 * t = (60 – 10) * (t + 1)
Distance = Speed * time = 42 * 20/60 = 14 km 60t = 50t + 50
Speed to cover 14km in 25 min = 14/(25/60) = t=5
33.6kmph Distance = 60 * 5 = 300 km
Distance = Speed x Time = 75 x 4 = 300 km Distance travelled by Arav in 3 hours = 4 * 3 = 12 hours
Speed of motorcycle = 300/ 6 = 50 km/hr Distance travelled by Ravi in 3 hours = 7 * 3 = 21 hours
Speed of the motorcycle to cover total distance in 4 hrs Distance between both = 21 – 12 = 9 km
= 300/4 = 75 km/hr New speed of Arav = 4 * 2 = 8 kmph
% of increase in speed = 25/50 x 100 = 50% New speed of Ravi = 7 – 2 = 5 kmph
28. Answer: A Relative speed = 8 – 5 = 3 kmph
Speed of car A = 120/4.8 = 25 kmph Total time = 3 + 9/3 = 6 hours
Speed of car B = 4/5 * 25 = 20 kmph 33. Answer: A
Speed of car C = 3/5 * 20 = 12 kmph s = d/t --- (i)
29. Answer: A 2s/5 = d/(t + 4) --- (ii)
Distance = x km On solving (i) and (ii), we get t = 2 2/3 hours
Time taken by first boy = x/8 hour 34. Answer: B
Time taken by second boy = x/10 hour Required distance = xy/(x + y) * t
x/8 – x/10 = 10/60 = [12 * 8/(12 + 8)] * 5
=> x = 6.67 km = 24km
Ratio of Speeds, A: B = 126: 90 = 7: 5 Car A travelled in one and half hours is = 30 + 15 = 45
Ratio of time, A: B = 5: 7 km
Difference between ratio of time = 7 – 5 = 2 (which is They meet each other after = (255 – 45)/(30 + 40) = 3
equal to given diff.) hours
Therefore, Distance = 126 × 5 = 90 × 7 = 630 Km Car A will travel for three hours is = 3 * 30 = 90 km
Page 721 of 1079

Required distance = 45 + 90 = 135 km 40. Answer: B

36. Answer: B Required answer = (Difference of speed / Speed without
Distance = Speed * Time stoppage) * 60
= ½ * 12 * 90 + (2/3 * ½ * 12 * 80) + (12 – 6 – 4) * 110 = (66-55)/66 * 60
= 6 * 90 + 4 * 80 + 2 * 110 = 10 minutes
= 1080 km 41. Answer: C
37. Answer: A Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time
The perimeter = 4 a = 4 * 21 = 84 m Total time = (72/60) + (28/60) = 100/60 = 5/3 hours
The average speed = 84/7 = 12 meter per minute Total distance = 65 + 25 = 90 km
38. Answer: B Average speed = 90 / (5/3) = (90 / 5) * 3
Time taken by the man to cover 240 Km by train = = > 54 km/hr
240/48 = 5 hours 42. Answer: B
Time taken by the man to cover 60 Km by bus = 60/12 Let the time taken by thief to cover a distance be x
= 5 hours The distance covered by thief and owner is same. So,
Time taken by the man to cover 20 Km by bicycle = Distance = Speed * Time
20/5 = 4 hours 50 * x = 60 * (x – 15/60)
We know that 50x = 60x – 15
Average speed = Total distance/Total time 10x = 15
= (240 + 60 + 20)/(5 + 5 + 4) x = 15/10 = 3/2 hours = 1 ½ hours
= 320/14 43. Answer: A
= 22.85 Km/h Let the speed of car B is x,
39. Answer: C 60/x = √(3 + (45/60))/(6 + (40/60))
Let the distance covered by the man be x km and speed 60/x = √(225/400)
of the bike be y km/hr 60/x = 15/20
Then, (x/y)-(x/(y+3)) =40/60 x = 80 kmph
2y(y+3)=9x………. (1) 44. Answer: E
And (x/(y-2))-x/y=40/60 W + R = 7 ½ = (15/2) hours
y (y-2) = 3x ………… (2) W + W = 37/4
After solving (1) and (2), we get y=12km/hr and x= 40 2W = 37/4
km W = (37/8) hours
Page 722 of 1079

R = (15/2) – (37/8) = (23/8) hours X = (21*120)/9

Time taken by the man to ride both the ways, X = 280 km
= > R + R = 2R = (23/8) * 2 = 23/4 48. Answer: C
= > 5 (¾) hours D/60 + D/80 = 14
45. Answer: B 4D + 3D = 14 * 240
Here the time is equal. So, D = 480 km
D / 3 = (D + 10) / 8 49. Answer: A
8D = 3D + 30 Distance = Speed * Time
5D = 30 Speed of the car = x
D=6 Total time to reached Bangalore = 8 hours
The distance covered by the person = 6 km D=x*8
46. Answer: A After increase the speed = x + 40
Distance = speed * time Time = 6 hours
Sum of the speed = 180 kmph D = (x + 40) * 6
Ratio of the time taken by train to bike = 7: 5 x * 8 = (x + 40) * 6
Ratio of the speed of train to bike = 5: 7 4x = 3x + 120
12x = 180 x= 120 kmph
x = 15 D = 120 * 8 = 960 km
Speed of the train = 5 * 15 = 75 kmph 50. Answer: A
Speed of the bike = 7 * 15 = 105 kmph Let the distance between bus stop and destination be
Average speed = 2 * 75 * 105/180 X.
= 87.5 kmph The total time taken by the bus to cover X = 4 hours
47. Answer: C Since X/2 by 40km/hr and remaining X/2 by 50km/hr
Total time taken by him = 5 hours 15 min = 5 15/60 = 5 Then by Time = distance/speed, we have
1/4 hours (X/2)/40 + (X/2)/50 = 4
T = D/S X/80 + X/100 = 4
(x/4)/40 + (3x/4)/60 = 5 1/4 5x/400+4x/400 = 4
x/40 + 3x/60 = (21/4)*4 5X + 4X = 1600
(3x + 6x)/120 = 21 9X = 1600
9x = 21*120
Page 723 of 1079

X = 1600/9 = 177.7
Hence 177.7 km is the required answer.
Boats Stream
1. Rajesh can row his boat at 30 kmph in still water. D.4 hours
If the speed of the stream is 15 kmph and he could E.None of these
row from Patna to Shimla and back to Patna in 60 4. A boy can row 6kmph in still water. If the river is
minutes, then find the distance between Patna and flowing at 3kmph, he will take 5 hours more to travel
Shimla? upstream than to travel downstream. Find the
A.11.25 km distance.
B.10.8 km A.10km
C.16.55 km B.15.5km
D.14.75 km C.22.5km
E.None of these D.25km
2. A man can row at 10kmph in still water and the E.None of these
stream rate is 5kmph. Find the distance travelled by 5. Ratio of speed of stream to that of downstream is
him after 10 minutes of travelling downstream. 2:11, a boat can cover 242km downstream and 63km
A.2.5km upstream in 15.5 hours, then find the time taken by
B.4km the boat to cover 154km upstream and 308km
C.4.5km downstream.
D.5.8km A.20 hours
E.None of these B.22 hours
3. The ratio of downstream speed to upstream speed C.25 hours
of a boat is 5:3. In still water the boat takes 6 hours D.24 hours
to travel 120 km, then in upstream how much more E.30 hours
time will it take to travel the same distance than in 6. A boatman can row his boat at 5kmph in still
still water? water. He takes 2.5 hours to row to a church and
A.2 hours back, when the water is running at 3kmph. Find the
B.3 hours distance travelled by him.
C.1 hours A.4km
Page 724 of 1079

B.8km A.119km
C.10km B.112 km
D.12km C.118 km
7. Ratio of speed of boats A to B is 3:4 and their sum E.None of these
is 42km/hr, if boat A can cover 105 km downstream 10. If Raghu rows 20km upstream in 2 hours and
in 5 hours, then find the ratio of upstream speeds of 32km downstream in 2 hours, then what is the speed
A and B. of the stream?
A.7:5 A.1kmph
B.6:5 B.2kmph
C.5:6 C.3kmph
D.5:7 D.4kmph
E.5:8 E.None of these
8. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 kmph and 11. A man can row 25 km upstream and 40 km
the speed of the current is 3 kmph. The distance downstream in 9 hours. Also, he can row 35 km
travelled by the boat from point A to point B upstream and 50 km downstream in 12 hours. Find
downstream is 24 km more than the distance the speed of the man in still water.
covered by the same boat from point B to point C A.7.5 kmph
upstream in the same time. How much time will the B.10 kmph
boat take to travel from point C to point B C.12 kmph
downstream? D.95 kmph
A.2 hours 40 min E.None of these
B.2 hours 45 min 12. The upstream speed is 56 km/hr. The speed of
C.2 hours 30 min Stillwater to that of stream is 67 : 11. Find the time
D.1 hours 40 min taken to cover 780 km downstream?
E.None of these A.12 hours
9. Suman can row a certain distance downstream in B.14 hours
4 hours and return the same distance in 8 hours. If C.16 hours
the stream flows at the rate of 7 km/hr, find the D.10 hours
distance covered in downstream. E.None of these
Page 725 of 1079

13. Speed of the boat is 16(2/3)% more than the less than the downstream speed. Find the speed of
speed of the car which moves 120 km at 5 hours. The the stream.
boat covers a distance of 124 km downstream in 4 A.9km/hr
hrs. Find the distance covered by the boat upstream B.12 km/hr
in 6 hrs. C.8.5 km/hr
A.120 km D.10 km/hr
B.160 km E.None of these
C.130 km 17. A man can row downstream a distance of 16 km
D.150 km more in 4 hours as compared to travelling upstream.
E.None of these What is the speed of the stream?
14. The ratio of the speed of boat in still water to the A.9km/hr
speed of the stream is 6:1. It takes 3 hours by boat to B.2 km/hr
cover 35 km downstream and 35 km upstream. Find C.1.5 km/hr
the upstream speed. D.1 km/hr
B.20 18. A man can row his boat 60km downstream in 6
C.30 hours. If the speed of the current is 4kmph, then at
D.25 what time he will cover 10km upstream?
E.None of these A.3 hours
15. The Speed of downstream is 13(1/3) % more the B.4 hours
speed of the boat. The boat covers a distance of 104 C.5 hours
km upstream in 2 hours. Then find the distance D.6 hours
covered by the boat in downstream in 2 hours? E.None of these
A.121 km 19. The ratio of the speed of boat in still water and
B.136 km speed of stream is 3:1. If the difference between the
C.130 km speed of boat and stream is 80 kmph and the boat
D.110 km goes from A to B and comes pack to A in 15 hours,
E.None of these find the distance between A and B?
16. A boat goes downstream and covers a distance of A.500 km
72 km in 2 hrs and the upstream speed is 66(2/3) % B.600 km
Page 726 of 1079

C.700 km If the speed of the boat in still water is 2 kmph, then

D.800 km find the distance between A and B.
E.900 km A.9 km
20. A boat rows 20km upstream and back to the B.4 km
initial place in 12.5 hours. The rate of the river is C.6 km
3kmph. What is the speed of the boat in still water? D.8 km
A.5kmph E.5 km
B.7kmph 24. Speed of boat in still water is 4 km/h more than
C.9kmph stream. If a boat covers a distance of 16 km and get
D.11kmph back to the initial point, it takes total of 4.5 hours.
E.None of these Find ratio of speed of boat in still water and speed of
21. The ratio of the speed of boat A and B is 2:3 and stream respectively?
the speed of the stream is 6 kmph. If boat B covers A.9:7
120 km downstream in 5 hours, then find the B.10:7
distance covered by boat A against steam in 8 hours? C.7:5
A.45 km D.13:9
B.50 km E.None of these
C.60 km 25. A boat can cover 396 km downstream and 90 km
D.68 km upstream in 22 hours and 180 km upstream and 330
E.None of these km downstream in 30 hours. Find the time taken by
22. The boat covers 120 km downstream in 8 hours boat to cover 493.5 km with speed of boat in still
and the boat covers 180 km upstream in 36 hours. water?
What is the speed of the stream? A.21 hours
A.5 kmph B.24.5 hours
B.8 kmph C.26.5 hours
C.4 kmph D.21.5 hours
D.6 kmph E.None of these
E.3 kmph 26. The downstream speed of boat is 15 km/h and
23. A steamer goes downstream from port A to port speed of boat in still water is 400% of speed of
B in 3 h. It covers the same distance upstream in 9 h. stream. If the upstream distance is 50 % more than
Page 727 of 1079

the downstream distance then find the total distance upstream. If the speed of the stream is 10 Km/hr,
(upstream+ downstream) travelled by boat in 28 then find the speed of boat in still water?
hours? A.24 km/hr
A.270 km B.28 km/hr
B.250 km C.16 km/hr
C.260 km D.20 km/hr
D.280 km E.None of these
E.None of these 30. Speed of boat in still water is 700% more than
27. Two boats x and y covers 168km downstream in speed of stream. A boat can cover 28km upstream
7hours, 12hours respectively, if stream speed is and 45km downstream in 45 minutes. Find speed of
1/5th of speed of boat x, then find the speed (in boat in still water in km/h.
km/hr) of boat y. A.84 km/h
A.12 km/hr B.72 km/h
B.14 km/hr C.96 km/h
C.10 km/hr D.36 km/h
D.16 km/hr E.None of these
E.8 km/hr 31. Sum of the speed of upstream and downstream is
28. Time taken by boat to travel 221 km downstream 24km/hr, boat can covers 240km downstream in 16
is 4 hour less than time taken to travel same distance hours, find the speed of the stream.
in upstream. Find the time taken in hours by boat to A.4km/hr
travel 578 km in downstream if speed of Stream is B.2.5km/hr
13 km/h less than speed of boat in still water? C.3 km/hr
A.13 hours D.Can’t be determined
B.26 hours E.None of these
C.34 hours 32. Ratio of the speed of downstream and upstream
D.17 hours of the boat is 4:3. If the speed of the stream is 5
E.None of these kmph, then what is distance covered by boat in still
29. A Boat takes 16 hours less to travel to 240 Km water in 8 hours?
downstream than to travel the same distance A.320 km
B.300 km
Page 728 of 1079

C.240 km E.90 kmph

D.280 km 36. A boy can row a boat at a speed of 10kmph in
E.350 km still water to some distance in upstream and back to
33. The speed of boat B is 40% less than the speed of the starting place in the river which flows at 5kmph.
boat A in still water. If boat A covers 468 km Find his average speed for total journey.
downstream in 12 hours and the speed of the current A.2.5kmph
is 9 kmph, then find the upstream speed of boat B? B.2kmph
A.12 kmph C.7.5kmph
B.15 kmph D.4kmph
C.9 kmph E.None of these
D.6 kmph 37. Find the upstream speed of a boat, if the ratio of
E.10 kmph boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 6:1. It
34. A boat can row at 40 kmph in still water. If the takes totally 4 hours by a boat to cover 98 km
river is flowing at 5 kmph, the boat takes 12 hours to downstream and 70 km upstream.
go against stream, in how much time, the boat will A.35 kmph
take to cover three-fourth of the distance with B.49 kmph
stream? C.98 kmph
A.7 hours D.70 kmph
B.8 hours E.None of these
C.6 hours 38. A boat can cover 60 km in 5 hours in still water.
D.9 hours How long will it take to cover the same distance in
E.5 hours upstream, if the speed of water is 1/6th of the speed
35. The difference between the speed of a car of boat?
increased by 25% and the usual speed of the car A.5
decreased by 30% is 44 kmph. Find the usual speed B.20
of the car? C.15
A.60 kmph D.12
B.80 kmph E.none of these
C.100 kmph 39. The speed of the boat in still water is 200% more
D.70 kmph than the speed of the stream. If the boat covers d km
Page 729 of 1079

along with stream in 6 hours and the same boat 42. A boatman can cover 168 km upstream and 240
covers the same distance against stream in 12 hours, km downstream in total of 13 hours. Find the
find the downstream speed of the boat? distance covered by the boatman in 8 hours by still
A.20 kmph water if speed of Boat in still water is 300% more
B.24 kmph than speed of stream.
C.32 kmph A.128 km
D.16 kmph B.140 km
E.Cannot be determined C.164 km
40. A motorboat goes 12 km upstream in 48 minutes. D.160 km
E.None of these
If the speed of the stream is of the speed of the 43. A boat covers 20 km along with stream in 10
boat in still water, then how much distance (in km) minutes and the same boat covers 40 km against
can the motorboat travel downstream in 40 stream in 60 minutes. What is the time taken by the
minutes? boat covers 240 km in still water?
A.17 km A.2 hours
B.14 km B.3 hours
C.19 km C.2.5 hours
D.31 km D.4 hours
E.None of these E.3.5 hours
41. A boat goes 140 km along with stream and 44. A boat covers 60 km along with stream and 30
returning covered only 102 km. If the time taken by km against stream in 6hours. The same boat covers
the boat against stream is 7 hours more than the time 50 km downstream and 80 km upstream in 10.5
taken by the boat along with stream and the speed of hours. What is the speed of the stream?
the stream is 4 kmph, then find the speed of the boat A.10 kmph
in still water? B.8 kmph
A.10 kmph C.6 kmph
B.16 kmph D.4 kmph
C.20 kmph E.5 kmph
D.24 kmph 45. A man rows to a place 56km distance and come
E.None of these back in 12 hrs. Due to problem in engine, efficiency
Page 730 of 1079

of boat is reduced by 25% when it returns. What is stream. If the difference the speed of the boat A
the actual speed of the boat? against stream and speed of boat B against stream is
A.7km/hr 8 kmph and the speed of the stream is 18 kmph, then
B.8km/hr find the speed of the boat B in still water?
C.4km/hr A.40 kmph
D.14km/hr B.42 kmph
E.Can’t be determined C.46 kmph
46. The speed of the stream is 40% less than the D.50 kmph
speed of the boat in still water. If the boat covers 320 E.48 kmph
km along with stream and the same boat covers 160 49. The boat covers certain distance along with
km against stream in 24 hours, then what is the sum stream in 6.6 hours and the same boat covers the
of the speed of boat along with stream and against same distance against stream in 15 hours. If the
stream? speed of the boat in still water is 18 kmph, then find
A.40 kmph the speed of the stream?
B.50 kmph A.7 kmph
C.60 kmph B.10 kmph
D.30 kmph C.12 kmph
E.None of these D.9 kmph
47. A motorboat can travel at 8 km/hr in still water. E.6 kmph
It travelled 84 km, downstream in a river and then 50. The time taken by the boat to row 120 km along
returned, taking altogether 28 hr. Find the rate of with stream is 2.5 hours and the time taken by same
the flow of river? boat to cover the same distance against stream is 5
A.3 km/hr hours, then find the speed of the boat in still water.
B.4 km/hr A.36 kmph
C.5 km/hr B.45 kmph
D.7 km/hr C.54 kmph
E.9 km/hr D.60 kmph
48. The speed of the boat A along with stream is E.28 kmph
12.5% more than the speed of the boat B along with
Page 731 of 1079

Boats Stream - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: A Therefore, speed of the boat 9x=18km/hr, speed of the
x/(30 + 15) + x/(30 – 15) = 60/60 stream v= 4km/hr
x + 3x = 45 Time taken = [154/(18-4)] + [308/(18+4)] = 25hours
x = 11.25 km 6. Answer: B
2. Answer: A Speed in still water = 5kmph
Downstream speed = 10 + 5 = 15kmph Stream speed = 3kmph
Distance travelled = 15 * 10/60 = 2.5km Downstream speed = 5 + 3 = 8kmph
3. Answer: A Upstream speed = 5 – 3 = 2kmph
Speed of the boat = 120/6 = 20 kmph x/8 + x/2 = 2.5
20 = (5x + 3x)/2 => x = 4km
x = 5 kmph Total distance = 4 * 2 = 8km
Speed of upstream = 3 * 5 = 15 kmph 7. Answer: D
Time taken by the boat covers 120 km against stream = Sum of the speeds of boat A and B = 42km/hr
120/15 = 8 hours 3x+4x=42
Required time = 8 – 6 = 2 hours 7x=42
4. Answer: C x=6
Distance = d km Speed of boat A =3x =18km/hr
d/(6 – 3) – d/(6 + 3) = 5 Boat A covers 105km downstream in 5 hours
=> d = 22.5km (105/5) = (18+speed of stream)
5. Answer: C Speed of stream =3km/hr
Let Downstream speed of the boat (u+v)= 11x Upstream speed of A = 18-3 =15km/hr
Speed of stream (v) =2x Upstream speed of B = 24-3 = 21km/hr
Therefore speed of the boat = 11x – 2x =9x Required ratio = 15:21= 5:7
(242/11x) + (63/7x) = 15.5 8. Answer: A
31/x = 15.5 Given speed of boat in still water = 15 kmph
x=2 Speed of current = 3 kmph
Page 732 of 1079

Downstream speed = X +Y
48 + 2X = 3X
X = 48 km
Required Time = 48/(15+3) After Solving equations (i) & (ii)
= 48/18 = 8/3 hours

We get the values of X and Y
= 2 hours 40 min Speed of man X = 7.5 kmph
9. Answer: B 12. Answer: D
Speed of the boat = a The speed of upstream = 56 km/hr
Speed of the stream = b = 7 km/hr The speed of Stillwater to that of stream = 67 : 11 (67x,
Downstream Speed = a + b = D/4 11x)
Or, D = 4(a + b)......(i) According to the question,
Upstream Speed = a – b = D/8 67x – 11x = 56
Or, D = 8(a – b)........(ii) 56x = 56
Solving the eq. (i) and (ii) we get, x=1
4(a + b) = 8(a – b) The speed of downstream = 67x + 11x = 78x = 78 km/hr
a + b = 2a – 2b Distance = 780 km
a = 3b = 3 x 7 = 21 km/hr Required time = 780 / 78 = 10 hrs
Distance covered downstream (D) = 4(21 + 7) = 4 x 28 13. Answer: D
= 112 km Speed of the boat = a km/hr = (1+ 50/300) x speed of
10. Answer: C the car
Upstream speed = 20/2 = 10kmph = 7/6 x 120/5
Downstream speed = 32/2 = 16kmph = 28 km/hr
Speed of stream = (16 – 10)/2 = 3kmph Speed of the stream = b km/hr
11. Answer: A ATQ,
Speed of man = X 28 + b = 124/4 = 31
Speed of stream = Y b = 3 km/h
Upstream speed = X - Y 28 – 3 = D/6

Page 733 of 1079
D = 25 x 6 = 150 km 17. Answer: B

14. Answer: B Speed of the boat = a km/hr
(Speed of the boat /Speed of the stream) = 6/1 (6y, y) Speed of the stream = b km/hr
(a + b) = (D + 16)/4 .....(i)
(a – b) = D/4 .....(ii)
4a + 4b = D + 16 .....(iii)
(5 + 7)/y = 3 4a – 4b = D ....(iv)
y = 12/3 = 4 Solving equation (iii) & (iv), we get
Upstream speed = 6y – y = 24 – 4 = 20 km/hr 8b = 16
15. Answer: B b = 2 km/hr
Speed of the boat = a km/hr 18. Answer: C
Speed of the stream = b km/hr DS = 60/6 = 10kmph
Downstream = a + b = (1 + 40/300)a = 340a/300 Speed of current = 4kmph
b = 340a/300 - a Speed of man in still water = 10 – 4 = 6kmph
b = 40a/300 US = 6 – 4 = 2kmph
Upstream = a – b = 104/2 = 52 Time taken to cover 10km upstream = 10/2 = 5 hours
a – 40a/300 = 52 19. Answer: D
260a/300 = 52 Speed of boat = 3/2 * 80 = 120 kmph
a = 60 km/hr Speed of stream = 1/2 * 80 = 40 kmph
b = 8 km/hr d/(120 + 40) + d/(120 – 40) = 15
Distance covered downstream = (60+ 8) = D/2 3d/160 = 15
D = 136 km d = 800 km
16. Answer: B 20. Answer: A
Speed of the boat = a Speed of river = 3kmph and Speed in still water = x
Speed of the stream = b kmph
Downstream Speed = a + b = 72/2 = 36 km/hr ......(i) Downstream speed = (x + 3) kmph
Upstream Speed = a – b = (1 – 200/300) x 36 = 12 Upstream speed = (x – 3) kmph
km/hr ........(ii) 20/(x + 3) + 20/(x – 3) = 12.5
Solving the eq. (i) and (ii) we get, => x = 5kmph
2a = 48 21. Answer: E
a = 24 km/hr and b = 12 km/hr.
Page 734 of 1079
Speed of boat A = 2x [16/ (a + 4 + a)] + [16/ (a + 4 – a)] = 4.5 hours

Speed of boat b = 3x 16/ (2a + 4) = 4.5 – 4
Speed of steam = 6 kmph 32 = 2a + 4
Downstream speed of boat B = 120/5 = 24 kmph So, a = 14
Speed of boat B = 24 – 6 = 18 kmph Speed of stream = 14 km/h
Speed of boat A = 18 * 2/3 = 12 kmph Speed of Boat = 14 + 4 = 18 km/h
Required distance = 8 * (12 – 6) = 48 km Required ratio = 18: 14 = 9: 7
Speed of the boat in still water = x Let speed of boat in still water = a km/h
Speed of the stream = y Speed of stream = b km/h
x + y = 120/8 = 15 kmph -----(1) According to question
x – y = 180/36 = 5 kmph ------(2) 396 / (a + b) + 90 / (a – b) = 22 …………………. (1)
From (2) and (1) 330 / (a + b) + 180 / (a – b) = 30 ………………… (2)
2x = 20 On solving we get, a = 21 km/h and b km/h= 12
x = 10 kmph Required time = 493.5/21 = 23.5 hours
y = 5 kmph 26. Answer: E
23. Answer: A Let speed of stream = a km/h
T(DS) : T(US) = 3: 9 = 1:3 Speed of boat in still water = 400% of a = 4a
So, S(DS) : S(US) = 3:1( the distance is same) Downstream speed = (4a + a) = 15
According to the question, Speed of the boat in still a=3
water = 2kmph Speed of stream = 3 km/h
So, (DS+US)/2 = 2 Speed of boat in still water = 4 x 3 = 12 km/h
=> (3x+1x)/2 = 2 Upstream speed = 12 – 3 = 9 km/h
=> x = 1 Let the downstream distance = Y km
=> S(DS) = 3 kmph According to question
So, Distance = Speed * Time = 3*3 = 9 km Y/15 + 150% (Y/9) = 28
24. Answer: A Y/15 + Y/6 = 28
Let speed of stream = a km/h (2Y + 5Y) = 28 X 30
Speed of boat = a + 4 7Y = 28 x 30
According to question, Y = 120 km
Page 735 of 1079

Total distance = 120 + 1.5 x 120 = 300 km [(x + 10) – (x – 10)] / [x2 – 100] = 16 * (1/240)
27. Answer: C (20 / [x2 – 100]) = 1/15
Let speed of boat x =5a x2 – 100 = 300
Therefore speed of stream = 5a/5 =a x2 = 400
Boat x covers 168km in 7hours x = 20
The speed of boat in still water = 20 km/hr
Downstream speed of boat x = 30. Answer: C
(5a+a) = 24 Let speed of stream = a km/h
6a =24 Speed of boat in still water = 8a km/h
Speed of the stream a=4 According to question
Speed of boat x = 5a =20km/hr 28/ (8a – a) + 45/ (8a + a) = 3/4

4/a + 5/a = 3/4
9/a = 3/4
Downstream speed of boat y =
a = 12
(y + 4) = 14
Speed of boat in still water = 96 km/h
Speed of boat y i.e y=10km/hr
31. Answer: C
28. Answer: C
Sum of the speed of upstream and downstream = (u-v)
Let the speed of boat = a km/h
+ (u+v)
Speed of stream = (a – 13) km/h
2u = 24km/hr
Speed of the boat u= 12km/hr
221 / (a + a – 13) = 221 / (a –a + 13) – 4
Boat can covers 240km downstream in 16 hours,
221 = (2a – 13) x 13
2a – 13 = 17
a = 15 = 12+v
Speed of boat in still water = 15 km/h 15 = 12+v
Speed of stream = 15 – 13 = 2 km/h v=3 km/hr
Required time = 578 / (15 + 2) = 34 hours 32. Answer: D
29. Answer: D Speed of stream = (4x – 3x)/2
Let the speed of boat in still water be x km/hr, 5 = x/2
According to the question, x = 10 kmph
[240 / (x – 10)] – [240 / (x + 10)] = 16 Speed of boat = (7 * 10)/2 = 35 kmph
Page 736 of 1079

Required distance = 35 * 8 = 280 km

33. Answer: C
Downstream Speed of boat A = 468/12 = 39 kmph
Speed of boat A in still water = 39 – 9 = 30 kmph
Speed of boat B in still water = 30 * 60/100 = 18 kmph
Upstream Speed of boat B = 18 – 9 = 9 kmph
34. Answer: A X=7
Speed of upstream = 40 – 5 = 35 kmph Upstream speed = 6X – X = 5X = 5 * 7 = 35 kmph
Distance = 35 * 12 = 420 km 38. Answer: E
Three-fourth of the distance = 420 * ¾ = 315 km The speed of boat in still water = 60/5 = 12kmph
Required time = 315/(40 + 5) = 7 hours The speed of water = 12/6 = 2kmph
35. Answer: B Required answer= 60/(12-2) = 6 hours
Usual speed of the car = x 39. Answer: E
x * 125/100 – x * 70/100 = 44 Distance = d
55x = 4400 Speed of stream = x
x = 80 kmph Speed of boat = x * 300/100 = 3x
36. Answer: C d/4x = 6
Ds = 10 + 5 = 15kmph and Us = 10 – 5 = 5kmph d/(3x – x) = 12
Let the distance travelled = d km We cannot find the answer.
Average speed = Total distance/Total time taken 40. Answer: B
= (d + d)/(d/15 + d/5)
= 7.5kmph
The speed of boat upstream = = 15 kmph
37. Answer: A
Boat’s speed : Stream’s speed = 6:1
Let the speed of the boat in still water and that of the
Upstream’s speed : Downstream’s speed = (6-1) : (6+1)
stream be 6X kmph and X kmph respectively.
= 5 : 7 = 15 : 21
Downstream’s speed = 21 kmph
Distance travelled by boat in 40 minutes downstream
=
= 14 km
Page 737 of 1079
41. Answer: A Speed of the stream = y

Speed of the boat = x 60/(x + y) + 30/(x – y) = 6
102/(x – 4) – 140/(x + 4) = 7 50/(x + y) + 80/(x – y) = 10.5
102x + 408 – 140x + 560 = 7x2 – 112 1/(x + y) = a
7x2 + 38x – 1080 = 0 1/(x – y) = b
x = 10kmph 60a + 30b = 6------(1)
42. Answer: E 50a + 80b = 10.5 ----(2)
Let speed of stream = a km/h From (1) and (2)
Speed of boat = 4 x a = 4a km/h 3300b = 330
According to question, b = 1/10
168/ (4a – a) + 240/ (4a + a) = 13 60a = 6 – 30 * 1/10
56/a + 48/a = 13 a = 1/20
a = 104/13 x + y = 20
a = 8 km/h x – y = 10
Speed of boat in still water = 8 x 4 = 32 km/h 2x = 30
Required distance = 32 x 8 = 256 km x = 15
y = 5 kmph
43. Answer: B 45. Answer: E
Speed of the boat = x In this question, there is no information is given about
Speed of the stream = y the relationship of speed of boat and stream. Therefore
20/(x + y) = 10/60 solution for this problem can’t be determined.
x + y = 120-----------(1) 46. Answer: B
40/(x – y) = 1 Let assume, speed of the boat = 100x
x – y = 40 -----(2) Speed of stream = 100x * 60/100 = 60x
From (1) and (2) Ratio of the speed of boat and stream = 100x:60x = 5:3
2x = 160 (320/(5y + 3y)) + (160/(5y – 3y)) = 24
x = 80 kmph (40 + 80)/y = 24
Required time = 240/80 = 3 hours y = 5 kmph
44. Answer: E Required sum = 8y + 2y = 10 * 5 = 50 kmph
Speed of the boat = x 47. Answer: B
Page 738 of 1079

Let rate of flow of water is x km/hr y = 46kmph

A.T.Q 49. Answer: A
Speed of the stream = x
Distance = d
d/(x + 18) = 6.6
By using options
d/(18 – x) = 15
We get x should be 4 km/hr
6.6 * (x + 18) = 15(18 – x)
48. Answer: C
6.6x + 118.8 = 270 – 15x
Ratio of the speed of boat A and B along with steam =
21.6x = 151.2
112.5:100 = 9:8
x = 7 kmph
Speed of stream = 18 kmph
50. Answer: A
Speed of boat A = x
Speed of the boat = x
Speed of boat B = y
Speed of the stream = y
Speed of the boat A against stream = x – 18
120/x + y = 2.5
Speed of boat B against stream = y – 18
120/(x – y) = 5
(x – 18) – (y – 18) = 8
2.5 * (x + y) = 5 * (x – y)
x–y=8
x + y = 2x – 2y
x=8+y
x = 3y
Speed of boat A along with stream = x + 18
120/(3y + y) = 2.5
Speed of boat B along with stream = y + 18
4y = 48
(8 + y + 18)/(y + 18) = 9/8
y = 12 kmph
9y + 162 = 208 + 8y
x = 3 * 12 = 36 kmph
Probability
1) A bag contains 3yellow, 5pink and 4 white balls. e) None of these
If two balls are drawn at random, then what is the 2) If two dice tossed, then what is the probability of
probability that balls are either yellow or pink? getting sum divisible by 5 exactly?
a) 13/66 a) 1/6
b) 2/11 b) 7/36
c) 1/5 c) 5/36
d) 7/33 d) 1/9
Page 739 of 1079
e) 1/18 d) 10/12
3) In how many ways word “ANOTHER” be e) None of these
arranged in that all vowels and consonants come 7) A box contains balls with numbers written 1 to
together? 100 on them. Find the probability of picking a ball
a) 288 that contains a number which is two digit number
b) 144 and a multiple of 3 but not 15?
c) 720 a) 8/25
d) 576 b) 4/15
e) None of these c) 7/15
4) In how many ways the word ‘Television’ can be d) 6/25
arranged, so that vowels never come together. e) None of these
a) 886,500 8) What is the probability of selecting the committee
b) 868,500 of 5 members from the group of 7men and 6women,
c) 865,600 the committee should have at most 2 women?
d) 885,600 )!
a) !(*
e) None of these )'
b) !(*
5) A bag contains 6 green balls, 4 pink balls and some
)*
yellow balls, if the probability of selecting 2 yellow c) !(*
)(
balls from the bag is 1/8, then find the number of d) !(*
yellow balls in the bag? e) None of the above
a) 7 9) In how many ways the letters of the word
b) 4 “SAMEER” can be arranged so that in first and last
c) 5 position there should always be a vowel.
d) 6 a) 48
e) 8 b) 72
6) Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the c) 96
probability of getting a sum less than 10. d) 24
a) 1/6 e) 120
b) 4/5 10) There are four types of coloured pencils in a bag:
c) 1/2 yellow, blue, black and green. Total number of
Page 740 of 1079

yellow and green pencil is 27. Probability of picking d. 2:7

a blue ball from the bag is 3/14 and that of picking a e. 3:5
black ball is 1/7. Find the probability of picking two 13) If two dice thrown simultaneously, then find the
green colour ball from the bag if yellow balls are probability of getting the sum on both dice should be
100% more than green balls. prime number less than 9?
a) 9/287 a) 15/36
b) 11/287 b) 14/36
c) 12/287 c) 13/36
d) 19/287 d) 12/36
11) There are six boxes numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 14) In how many ways the word ‘PROBATION’ can
and 6. Each box is to be filled with either a Black ball be arranged, so that two O’s in the word never
or a green ball in such a manner that at least one box comes together?
contains a black ball and all the boxes containing a) 114120
black balls are consecutively numbered. Find the b) 144120
total number of ways in which this can be done. c) 141120
a) 22 d) 141420
b) 21 e) None of these
c) 18 15) From a group of 8men and 4women, 6persons
d) 36 are to be selected to form a committee,so that at most
e) 30 3 men are there in the committee, in how many ways
12) A and B start a business by investing amounts it can be done?
in the ratio 2:3. After 6 months, A invest some a) 236
amount. By the end of a year, they divide profit in b) 248
the ratio 3:2. What is the ratio of the amount c) 252
invested by A initially and by the end of 6 months? d) 270
a. 2:3 e) 284
b. 1:3 16) Two dice thrown simultaneously, find the
c. 2:5 probability of the sum of the numbers appeared on
the face of the dice should be prime?
Page 741 of 1079

a) 7/12 𝟐𝟓
Green and the second being Red is 𝟏𝟕𝟕, then find the
b) 1/3
number of Blue balls in the bag.
c) 5/12
a) 14
d) 2/7
b) 12
e) 1/7
c) 10
17) There are three types of pens A, B and C in a
d) 15
drawer. The probability of picking a type B pen is
e) None of these
4/18, while that of type ‘A’ pen is 1/3. Find the total
20) A company has to recruit a certain number of
number of pens in the drawer if type B pens are 12
candidates for the post of Manager. 25 vacancies are
less than type ‘A’ pens in the drawer.
to be filled through this recruitment process, these
a) 108
out of 10 are reserved for the candidate who have
b) 72
done MBA course. A total of 50 candidates have
c) 54
applied for the post, out of which 15 have done MBA
d) 216
course. In how many ways can the recruitment
e) None of these
process be carried out?
18) A box contains x blue, 4 red and 5 green balls.
a) 35C15 x 15C10
One ball is taken randomly and the probability of
b) 35C15 x 15C15
getting a red ball is 1/4, and then finds the number
c)15C10x 15C10
of blue balls in the box?
d) 35C10x 15C10
a) 8
e) None of these
b) 6
21) A bag contains x + 3 black, 4 pink and 6violet
c) 7
colour balls. If two balls are taken random and the
d) 5
probability of getting both are pink colour balls is
e) 4
2/51, then find the difference between the number of
19) A bag contains balls of three colours – Red, green
black colour balls and violet colour balls?
and Blue. There are total 60 balls in the bag, out of
a) 3 balls
which 25 are green coloured balls. If two balls are
b) 4 balls
picked randomly one by one from the bag without
c) 1 ball
replacement, and the probability of the first being
d) 2 balls
e) None of these
Page 742 of 1079

22) A box contains 8 red balls and 6 yellow balls. b) 7/16

What is the probability of drawing two balls of the c) 1/16
same color? d) 1/4
a) 40/91 e) None of these
b) 41/91 26) In bag A, there are 4 pink balls, k yellow balls
c) 43/91 and 8 red balls. The probability of picking one
d) 42/91 yellow ball from bag A is 1/3. In bag B, (k-2) pink
e) None of these balls, (k+2) yellow balls and 2 red balls. If two balls
23) There are 8 girls and 10 boys in the group. If two drawn at random from bag B then find the
persons are selected at random from the group, then probability that both are of same colour.
what is the probability of that person are not boy? a) 5/13
a) 3/17 b) 7/13
b) 8/51 c) 8/13
c) 9/52 d) 9/17
d) 28/153 e) None of these
e) None of these 27) Rajesh goes to Temple A on every date which is
24) A box contains 4 pink balls, 6 grey balls, 4 brown multiple of 3 and goes to temple B on every date
balls. If three balls are drawn randomly from the which is multiple of 7, find the probability that he
bag, then what is the probability of all the balls being goes to either temple A or B in year 2020. (Start
same colour? counting from 1 Jan 2020)
a) 7/26 a) 174/365
b) 4/13 b) 174/366
c) 5/26 c) 159/365
d) 2/13 d) 159/366
e) 1/13 e) None of these
25) Two unbiased coins are taken. They are tossed 28) In a school, class 10th has two sections i.e. A and
together for 5 times. What is the probability that 𝟒
B. 25% of the students in section A and 44 𝟗 % of
both of them showed different outcomes in at least 4
student in section B are boys. If two students are
throws?
chosen at random one each from section A and
a) 5/16
section B as class monitor then find the probability
Page 743 of 1079

that there will be exactly one girl from chosen two 31) Two unbiased dices are rolled simultaneously.
students? Find the probability that the product of the numbers
!4 that appeared on the dice is a multiple of 8.
a) *&
"
!* a) *&
b) *&
(
!% b) *"
c) *&
"
'* c) '(
d) *&
*
e) None of these d) *"
29) A box contains the 3 red balls, 4 blue balls and x e) None of these
black balls. If two balls is drawn at random and 32) A box contains 8 blue balls and 8 yellow balls.
probability of both balls are red is 1/22, then find the There is an another box which contains 5 blue and 6
total number of balls in the box? yellow balls. One ball is to be drawn from either of
a) 10 the two boxes. What is the probability of drawing
b) 11 one blue ball?
c) 9 a) 21/44
d) 12 b) 28/47
e) 15 c) 11/23
30) In a survey, probability of a person who like d) 5/17
Quant is 17/20 and probability of a person who like e) None of these
reasoning is 9/20 and probability of a person who 33) A box contains 3 red balls, x black balls and 2
like both quant and reasoning is 2/5, then find the green balls. If two balls are drawn at random and
probability of a person who does not like any of the probability of that balls are red is 3/28, then what
them? is the total number of balls in the box?
a) 1/9 a) 6
b) 2/11 b) 7
c) 1/12 c) 8
d) 1/10 d) 10
e) None of these e) 9
Page 744 of 1079

34) A bag contains 2 red, 4 pink and 3 blue balls. If d) 5/91

three balls are drawn at random, then what is the e) None of these
probability of drawing exactly 2 pink? 38) In how many different ways can the letters of the
a) 2/7 word “MANIFESTO” be arranged in such a way
b) 5/14 that the vowels always come together?
c) 3/14 a) 9! * 3!
d) 3/7 b) 8! * 3!
e) 1/2 c) 8! * 4!
35) In how many different ways can the letters of the d) 9! * 4!
word “PURCHASE” be arranged in such a way that e) None of these
the vowels always come together? 39) A bag contains x red, 3 blue and 5 pink balls. If
a) 5040 two balls are drawn at random and the probability
b) 15120 of that balls are none of them is red is 14/33, then
c) 30240 find the value of x?
d) 10080 a) 3
e) None of these b) 4
36) There are 5 girls and 5 boys. If they want to sit c) 5
at different positions, then how many ways in which d) 2
girls and boys sit at alternate position? e) None of these
a) 43200 40) If two dice tossed, then what is the probability of
b) 86400 getting sum divisible by 4?
c) 63200 a) 1/3
d) 56800 b) ¼
e) None of these c) 2/3
37) A bag contains 5 red balls, 4 pink balls and 6 blue d) ¾
balls. If three balls are drawn at random, then what e) None of these
is the probability of that balls are red? 41) A box contains 4 red balls and 3 blue balls. Find
a) 2/91 the number of ways selecting 3 red balls and 2 blue
b) 3/91 balls?
c) 4/91 a) 16
Page 745 of 1079

b) 20 45) A bag contains 4 red balls, 2 yellow balls, 5 blue

c) 24 balls and 3 pink balls. If three balls are drawn at
d) 12 random, then what is the probability of that all the
e) None of these balls are blue?
42) A bag contains 5 apples, 2 Orange and 3 Banana. a) 1/91
If two fruits are drawn at random, then what is the b) 2/91
probability of that fruits such that one is apple and c) 3/182
other is orange? d) 5/182
a) 1/10 e) None of these
b) 1/9 46) If three boys and three girls in the row, then find
c) 2/9 the number of ways in which all boys sit together and
d) 1/5 all girls sit together?
e) 3/10 a) 36
43) A bag contains x red balls and 4 yellow balls and b) 72
3 blue balls. If two balls are drawn at randomly and c) 128
the probability of that ball is yellow is 1/11, find the d) 64
value of x? e) None of these
a) 4 47) The bag A contains x red balls, 2 yellow balls and
b) 5 4 blue balls and the probability of two balls are
c) 6 drawn at random that balls are blue is 1/6. Bag B
d) 3 contains x yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If three balls
e) None of these are drawn at random from bag B, then what is the
44) In how many ways a selection of 4 teachers probability of that balls are pink?
having at least 2 female can be selected from 6 male a) 1/7
and 4 female teachers? b) 5/28
a) 118 c) 3/14
b) 115 d) 1/4
d) 124 48) In how many different ways can the letters of the
e) None of these word ‘ASSEMBLY’ be arranged?
Page 746 of 1079

a) 20160 3 men are there in the committee, in how many ways

b) 10160 it can be done?
c) 6720 a) 336
d) 40320 b) 348
e) None of these c) 372
49) From a group of 9men and 4women, 6persons d) 360
are to be selected to form a committee,so that atmost e) 384
Probability - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: A Total letters in the above word = 6
Required probability = (3C2 + 5C2)/12C2 Therefore,
= 13/66 Number of chances (of vowels always comes together)
2) Answer: B &!"!
= '!'! = 21600
Number of events = (1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2), (4,1), (4, 6), (5,
Therefore,
5), (6, 4)
Total number of chances of vowels never comes
Required probability = 7/36
together
3) Answer: A
= total chance – chances of vowels always comes
Number of vowels = A, O, E = 3
together
Number of Consonants = N, T, H, R = 4
= 907200 – 21600
Number of ways = 3! * 4! * 2!
= 885,600
= 288
5) Answer: D
4) Answer: D
Let number of yellow balls in the bag is x.
The word ‘TELEVISION’ contains 10 letters i.e
Therefore total number of balls in the bag is (6+4+x) =
T,E,L,E,V,I,S,I,O,N
10+x
Total number of the chances that the letters can be !
Probability of selecting 2 yellow balls from the bag is )
!#!
arranged is '!'! = 907,200
0H' !
(!#+0)H'
=)
Total number of chances that vowels always comes
0(0$!) !
together, (!#+0)(%+0)
=)
Let us consider total vowels in the given word as single 8x2 – 8x = 90 + 19x + x2
letter 7x2– 27x – 90 = 0
i.e TLVSN(EEIIO)
Page 747 of 1079
7x2 – 42x + 15x – 90 = 0 When ‘A’ fixed in first position and ‘E’ in last the
7x(x – 6) + 15(x – 6) = 0 remaining letter ‘SMER’ can be arranged in 4! = 24
(7x + 15) (x – 6) = 0 ways
x = 6 and -15/7(negative value is eliminated) Second case:
By solving this equation we get, x=6 When ‘E’ fixed in first position and ‘A’ in last the
Number of yellow balls in the bag is 6. remaining letter ‘SMER’ can be arranged in 4! = 24
6) Answer: D ways.
Total outcomes = 6² = 36 Third case:
Sample space for getting a sum grater or equal to 10 When both ‘E’s are fixed in first and last position the
10 = (4, 6), (6, 4), (5, 5) remaining ‘SAMR’ can be arranged in 4! =24 ways.
11 = (5, 6), (6, 5) Required answer = 24+24+24 = 72
12 = (6, 6) 10) Answer: C
Required probability = 1 – 6/36 = 5/6 Probability of picking a blue ball = 3/14
7) Answer: D Probability of picking black ball = 1/7 = 2/14
Multiples of 3 from 1 to 100 = 33 Let total balls = 14a
2 digit number which are multiple of 3 = 30 (exclude Black balls = 2a
3, 6 and 9) Blue balls = 3a
Multiples of 15 from 1 to 100 = 6 Yellow + Green = 14a – (3a + 2a) = 9a
So multiples of 3 but not 15 = 30 – 6 = 24 9a = 27
Required probability = 24 / 100 = 6/25 So total balls in bag = 14a = 14 x 3 = 42
8) Answer: D Green balls = 1/3 x 27 = 9 balls
Probability of selecting at most 2 women Required probability = 9C2 / 42
C2 = 9 x 8 / 42 x 41 =
= selecting 2 women and 3 men (or) 1women 4men (or) 12/287
5 men 11) Answer: B
(&H'∗4H*)+(&H!∗4H()+(4H") "'"+'!#+'! )( Black balls = 1
Probability = !*H"
= !')4
=!(*
One black ball can be filled up in either of 6 box, so total
9) Answer: B
number of ways = 6
There are three vowels in “SAMEER”
Black balls = 2
A, E, & E
First case:
Page 748 of 1079

Can be filled up in either 1,2 or 2,3 or 3,4 or 4,5 or 5,6. %!

Total chances = '! = 181440
Because black balls should be place in consecutive )!'!
Chances of two letters always comes together = '!
=
number of boxes.
20160
Similarly take all possibilities of black balls
Two O’s never comes together = 181440 – 20160 =
Total number of ways = 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21
161280
12) Answer: D
15) Answer: C
Let the amounts invested by A and B in the beginning
At most 3 men are in the committee,
be 2x and 3x.
Number of men in the committee is less than or equal to
Let the amount by A after 6 months be y.
3.
A’s share by the end of the year will be proportional to
Number of chances of atmost 3 men in the committee
2𝑥 x 6 + y x 6 = 12x + 6y
= (8C3×4C3) + (8C2×4C4)
B’s share by the end of the year will be proportional to
)×4×& (×*×' )×4
3𝑥 x 12 = 36𝑥 = (!×'×*× !×'×* ) + (!×' ×1)
It has been given that = (56×4) + 28

(12𝑥 + 6𝑦) 3 = 252
=
36𝑥 2 16) Answer: C
𝑦 = 7𝑥 Prime numbers between 1 to 12
Ratio of the amount invested by A initially to the = 2, 3, 5,7,11
amount invested after 6 months = 2𝑥 ∶ 7𝑥 = 2: 7 Chances of sum of the numbers being prime
13) Answer: C = (1,1), (1,2), (1,4), (1,6), (2,1), (2,3), (2,5),
Total outcomes = 6² = 36 (3,2),(3,4),(4,1),(4,3), (5,2),(5,6),(6,1), (6,5)
2 = (1, 1) !" "
Probability = *& = !'
3 = (1, 2) (2, 1)
17) Answer: A
5 = (1, 4) (4, 1) (2, 3) (3, 2)
Let the total pens in the drawer = 18a
7 = (1, 6) (6, 1) (2, 5) (5, 2) (3, 4) (4, 3)
Total favorable events = 13
Number of type B pens = 4a
Required probability = 13/36
Number of type A pens = 6a
14) Answer: E
6a – 4a = 12
Chances of two letters never comes together
2a = 12
= total chance – chance of two letters always comes
a=6
together
Page 749 of 1079
Number of pens in the bag = 18 x 6 = 108 = 86/182

18) Answer: C = 43/91
4C1/(9 + x)C1 = 1/4 23) Answer: D
9 + x = 16 Required probability = 8C2/18C2
x=7 = 8 * 7/18 * 17
19) Answer: D = 28/153
Let Red color and Blue balls be R and B respectively. 24) Answer: E
Then, according to question, Probability of choosing the balls of same colour,
25 𝑅 25 Selected balls (or) selected balls (or) selected
𝑥 =
60 59 177 balls
&# 0 "%
R= !44 is pink is grey is brown
R = 20 balls (H*+&H*+(H* ((×*×')+(&×"×()+((×*×')
Probability = !(H*
= (!(×!*×!')
=
B = 60 – (20 +25) = 15 balls
1/13
20) Answer: A
25) Answer: E
Vacancies for MBA candidates = 10
When two coins are thrown together, possible outcomes
So, they can be chosen in 15C10 ways.
are
Remaining candidates = 50 – 15 =35
(H, H) (T, T) (T, H) (H, T)
So, they can be chosen in 35C15 ways.
Probability of same outcome = 2/4 = 1/2
Required number of ways = 35C15 x15C10
Probability of different outcome = 1/2
21) Answer: D
Probability of different outcomes in at least 4 throws =
4C2 / (x + 13)C2 = 2/51 5
C4 x (1/2)5 + 5C5 x (1/2)5 = 3/16
[(4 * 3) / (1 * 2)] / [(x + 13) (x + 12) / (1 * 2)] = 2/51
26) Answer: A
(12 * 51) / 2 = x2 + 13x + 12x + 156
306 = x2 + 25x + 156
k/ (12 + k) = 1/3
x2 + 25x - 150 = 0
3k = 12 + k
(x – 5) (x + 30) = 0
k=6
x = 5, -30 (negative value will be eliminated)
Pink balls in bag B = 4
Required difference = (5 + 3) – 6 = 2 balls
Yellow balls in bag B = 8
22) Answer: C
Red balls in bag B = 2
Required probability = 8C2 + 6C2/14C2
Page 750 of 1079

Required probability = (4 x 3 + 8 x 7 + 2 x 1) / (14 x 13) (x – 5) (x + 18) = 0

= 5/13 x=5
27) Answer: E Total number of balls = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12
Total number of days in year 2020 = 366 days 30) Answer: D
Multiple of 3 = 366/3 = 122 Probability of a person either like quant or reasoning =
Multiple of 7 = 366/7 = 52 multiples 17/20 + 9/20 – 2/5 = 9/10
Multiples of both 3 and 7 i.e. 21 = 366/21 = 17 Probability of a person who don’t like any of them = 1
Number of favourable events = 122 + 52 – 17 = 157 – 9/10 = 1/10
Required probability = 157/366 31) Answer: A
28) Answer: A Maximum possible product is 36 (6 x 6).
Let in section A B So, possible multiple of 8 less than 36 are 8, 16, 24, 32.
Total students 4X 9Y Thus possible outcomes for
No. of boys X 4Y (i) 8 = (2,4) (4,2)
No. of girls 3X 5Y (ii) 16 = (4,4)
Here we have two conditions (iii) 24 = (6,4) (4,6)
Condition I: when girl is chosen from section A and boy (iv) 32 = none
is from section B. "
Required Probability = *&
* ( !
= ( 𝑥 % = * 32) Answer: A
Condition II: when boy is chosen from section A and Probability of one box is = 1/2
girl is from section B. First box ball probability is = 1/2 × (8c1/16c1)
! " " = 1/2 × 8/16
= ( 𝑥 % = *&
! " !4 = 1/4
Required Probability = * + *&= *&
Second box ball probability is = 1/2 × (5c1/11c1)
29) Answer: D
= 1/2 × 5/11
3C2/(7 + x)C2 = 1/22
= 5/22
(7 + x) * (6 + x) = 22 * 6
Now, adding both values we get = 1/4 + 5/22
42 + 7x + 6x + x2 = 132
= (11 + 10)/44
x2 + 13x – 90 = 0
= 21/44
2
x + 18x – 5x – 90 = 0
33) Answer: C
x(x + 18) – 5(x + 18) = 0
3/28 = 3C2/(5 + x)C2
Page 751 of 1079

3/28 = (3 * 2)/[(5 + x) * (4 + x)] 33 * 4 = 56 + 8x + 7x + x2

56 = 20 + 5x + 4x + x2 x2 + 15x – 76 = 0
x2 + 9x – 36 = 0 x2 + 19x – 4x – 76 = 0
x2 + 12x – 3x – 36 = 0 x (x + 19) – 4(x + 19) = 0
x(x + 12) – 3(x + 12) = 0 x = 4, -19(negative value neglect)
(x – 3)(x + 12) = 0 40) Answer: B
x = 3, -12(negative value neglect) Possible event = ((1, 3), (2, 2), (2, 6), (3, 1), (3, 5), (4,
Total number of balls = 5 + 3 = 8 4), (5, 3), (6, 2), (6, 6))
34) Answer: B Required probability = 9/36 = 1/4
Required probability = 4C2 * 5C1/9C3 41) Answer: D
= 30/84 Required ways = 4C3 * 3C2
= 5/14 =4*3
35) Answer: E = 12
Total number of letters = 8 42) Answer: C
Total vowels = 3 "H! ∗ 'H!
Required probability = !#H'

Required ways = 6! * 3! = 4320
= 2/9
36) Answer: B
43) Answer: B
Total number of ways = 5! * 6C5 * 5! ! (H'
!!
= (0 + 4)H'
= 5! * 6 * 5!
= 86400 11 * 12 = (x + 7) * (x + 6)
37) Answer: A 132 = x2 + 6x + 7x + 42
Required probability = 5C3/15C3 x2 + 13x – 90 = 0
= 2/91 x2 + 18x – 5x – 90 = 0
38) Answer: E x(x + 18) – 5(x + 18) = 0
Total number of letters = 9 (x + 18)(x – 5) = 0
Total vowels = 4 x = 5, -18 (neg –ive value)
Required ways = 6! * 4! x=5
14/33 = 8C2/(8 + x)C2 Number of ways = 6C2 * 4C2 + 6C1 * 4C3 + 4C4
14/33 = (8 * 7)/(8 + x) * (7 + x) = 15 * 6 + 6 * 4 + 1
= 90 + 24 + 1
Page 752 of 1079
= 115 x = 3, -14(negative value neglect)

45) Answer: D Required probability = 5C3/8C3
Required probability = 5C3/(14C3) = 5/28
= (5 * 4 * 3)/(14 * 13 * 12) 48) Answer: A
= 5/182 Required ways = 8! / 2!
46) Answer: B = 20160
Required ways = 3! * 3! * 2! 49) Answer: c
= 72 At most 3 men are in the committee,
47) Answer: B Number of men in the committee is less than or equal to
( ∗ * ! 3.
(& + 0)∗ (" + 0)
= &
Number of chances of atmost 3 men in the committee
72 = 30 + 6x + 5x + x2
= (9C3×4C3) + (9C2×4C4)
x2 + 11x – 42 = 0
%×)×4 (×*×' %×)
x2 + 14x – 3x – 42 = 0 = (!×'×* × !×'×* ) + (!×' ×1)
(x – 3)(x + 14) = 0 = (84×4) + 36

= 372
Time & Work

1. Anu, Babu and Saran can complete the homework A.11 4/5
given by their class teacher in 6, 12 and 18 days B.10 3/5
respectively. In how many days will they together C.9 2/5
complete the same homework? D.11 2/5
A.3 3/11 E.None of these
B.4 1/5 3. A and B together can complete the work in 20 days
C.5 1/6 and B and C together can complete the work in 60
D.8 1/4 days and C alone complete the work in 120 days. In
E.None of these how many days A and C together can complete the
2. A and B can complete a work in 18 days and 15 work?
days respectively. They started working together but A.20 days
after 3 days B had to leave and A alone completed B.24 days
the remaining work. The remaining work will be C.30 days
completed in D.36 days
Page 753 of 1079
E.None of these leave the work, so that the wall would be finished in
4. A, B and C complete the work in 15 days, 12 days total 16 days?
and 10 days respectively. If A started the work and A.10
after 3 days B and C together joined with A, in how B.5
many days the whole work will be completed? C.20
A.5.4 days D.15
B.5.8 days E.None of these
C.6.2 days 8. If A completes 75% of a work in 12 days and B is
D.6.8 days 60% more efficient than A. Then, at what time B will
E.None of these complete the 45% of the total work.
5. A and B can complete the work in 8 days and 12 A.5/2 days
days respectively and C can destroy the work in 24 B.7/2 days
days. In how many days A, B and C together can C.3 days
complete the work? D.9/2 days
A.6 days E.4 days
B.8 days 9. Arun is thrice as good a workman as Bittu and
C.4 days therefore able to finish a job in 48 days less than
D.3 days Bittu, they together can do it in how many days?
6. A can do a work in 15 days, B can do it in 12 days B.12
but C can do (3/4)th of the work in 18 days. Find the C.26
time taken by all together to complete the work? D.8
A.121/15 days E.None of these
B.120/23 days 10. A and B together can complete a work in 32 days
C.120/19 days and C alone complete the work in 64 days. If the
D.114/25 days ratio of the efficiency of A to B is 1: 2, then in how
E.None of these many days A and C together can complete the work?
7. Anu and Bala can separately make a wall in 20 A.33 2/5 days
days and 30 days. How many days before will Bala B.38 2/5 days
C.40 2/5 days
Page 754 of 1079

D.36 2/5 days E.None of these

E.None of these 14. 10 men and 14 women can do 60% of the work
11. 250 boys can complete the whole work in 60 days, in 4(4/5) days. 8 men and 6 women complete 9/10
for the first 40 days all boys worked together and 50 part of the work in 14(4/10) days. Then in how many
boys left the work, for the next 10 days remaining days 8 men and 6 women will complete the total
boys worked, if the work is completed on time, then work?
how many boys are needed to complete the A.23(1/3) days
remaining work? B.16(1/4) days
A.50 C.22 days
B.60 D.21 days
C.100 E.16 days
D.120 15. Shyam can complete a work in 40 days where as
E.80 Ram is 60% more efficient than Shyam. If they work
12. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. B can do the together alternatively then in how many days they
same piece work in 18 days. C can do it in 42 days. will complete the total work if Shyam start first?
A worked for 10 days and handed over to B, who A.24 days
worked for 3 days and left the job for C. How many B.31days
days will C take to finish the work? C.22 days
A.18 days D.30 days
B.24 days E.22 days
C.17 days 16. 10 men and 10 women complete the working 10
D.21 days days. 12 men and 8 women complete the work in 9
E.None of these days. In how many days 2 men and 11 women will
13. (x - 6) person can do a work in x days and (x + 6) complete the total work?
person can do the same work in (x - 9) days. Then in A.9 days
how many days can (x + 2) person finish the work? B.11 days
A.14(4/5) days C.3 days
B.9(4/5) days D.4 days
C.10(4/5) days E.25 days
D.12(4/5) days
Page 755 of 1079

17. P is 3/2 times more efficient than Q. If both of more than B, in how many days B alone complete
them complete the total work in 4 days, in how days four-fifth of the work?
P alone complete the total work? A.115.2 days
A.6 3/5 days B.118.4 days
B.7 Days C.120.5 days
C.5 3/5 days D.122.4 days
D.6 2/3 days E.120.5 days
E.5 days 21. A alone complete the work in 12 days, B alone
18. A completes a work in 25 days and B complete it complete the work in 18 days and C alone complete
in 30 days. If both A and B worked for 5 days the work in x days. If A, B and C together started the
together and then A left the work, then in how many work, after 4 days A left the work and after 2 more
days B will complete the remaining work? days B left the work and the remaining work
A.42 days completed by C alone in 6 days. Find the value of x?
B.30 days A.42 days
C.35 days B.45 days
D.19 days C.48 days
E.40 days D.40 days
19. Anitha finishes her work in 25 minutes and E.None of these
Manisha finishes her work in 20 minutes. If they 22. A and B together can complete the work in 16
together can started the work, after 5 minutes days and the efficiency of A is 50% more than the
Anitha left the work. In how many more days will efficiency of C. B alone complete the work in 48 days.
Manisha finishes the remaining work? If C started the work, after 18 days left the work,
A.15 days then in how many days B alone complete the
B.18 days remaining work alone?
C.8 days A.12 days
D.11 days B.15 days
E.None of these C.18 days
20. A and B together can complete three-fourth of D.24 days
the work in 27 days. If the efficiency of A is 200% E.21 days
Page 756 of 1079

23. A and B together can complete the job in 72/11 26. A and B can complete a job in 16 days. A and B
days and B takes 15 days more than A to complete start the job together but after 8 days efficiency of B
the job alone. If B and C together can complete the is reduced by 25% so the work will be finished in two
same job in 8 days. Find the time taken by C to days more than the stipulated time. Find A is how
complete the 75% of same job alone? much % more efficient than B.
A.12 days A.25%
B.9 days B.20%
C.6 days C.33.33%
D.8 days D.37.5%
24. A and B together can write a book of 120 pages 27. Ragavan alone can complete the work in 30 days
in ‘k – 6’ days, while A can write 28 pages of same and Velavan and Ram together can complete the
book in 14 days and B can type the whole book alone same work in 24 days. Efficiency of Velavan is 50%
in 40 days, then find the value of k? more than the efficiency of Ram. In how many days
A.30 Ragavan and velavan together can complete the
B.24 work?
C.40 A.15(1/7) days
D.15 B.16(1/7) days
E.None of these C.17(1/7) days
25. A&B can do a piece of work in 60, 70 days D.18(1/7) days
respectively and worked for (x+2), (x+13) days. If E.19(1/7) days
10% of the work is pending which is completed by 28. A can complete the work in 20 days and B alone
C, find the time taken by D to complete the work, if complete the work in 30 days. If A and B started the
D takes (x+6) to complete the work. work, after 4 days A and B left the work and C alone
A.30 days complete the work remaining in 12 days. In how
B.20 days many days C alone complete the whole work?
C.25 days A.18 days
D.24 days B.24 days
E.28 days C.30 days
D.27 days
Page 757 of 1079

E.36 days C.24 days

29. The efficiency of A is 200% more than the D.30 days
efficiency of C and the efficiency of D is 25% less E.None of these
than the efficiency of C. If A and B together can 32. A can do a piece of work in x days while B takes
complete the work in 14 days and C and D together 12 days more than A to complete the work, efficiency
can complete the work in 36 days, in how many days of C is 10% less than that of B, A and B together can
B alone complete the work?
A.42 days complete the work in 14 days, find the time
B.45 days taken by A and C together to complete the work?
C.48 days A.12 days
D.40 days B.18 days
E.39 days C.15 days
30. A, B and C together can complete the work in 16 D.21 days
days. If A, B and C started the work together, after E.24 days
4 days A is left the work and then C and B together 33. A alone complete the work in x days and B alone
can complete the remaining work in 24 days. In how complete the work in (x – 5) days. Efficiency of B is
many days A alone complete the work? 50% more than the efficiency of A. In how many
A.32 days days A and B together can complete the work?
B.24 days A.8 days
C.30 days B.10 days
D.27 days C.6 days
E.36 days D.4 days
31. Efficiency of A to B is 2:1 and the efficiency of B E.7 days
to C is 2:3. If A, B and C works alternatively starts 34. A printing machine can print 120 books in a day.
with A, then B and C so on and they complete the If the printing machine is replaced with a new
work in 24 days. If A, B and D together can complete printing machine then the efficiency of the printing
the work in 8 days, in how many days D alone machine is decreased by 20%. In how many days,
complete the work? the printing machine can print 1152 books on new
A.18 days printing machine?
B.20 days A.12 days
Page 758 of 1079

B.15 days D.12 days

C.18 days E.24 days
D.9 days 38. Amala is twice as good a worker as Amrita and
E.20 days they together finish a job in 12 days. What is the
35. Sanu is twice efficient as Bala and Sen is thrice number of days taken by Amala alone to finish the
efficient as Bala. What is the ratio of number of days job?
taken by Sanu, Bala and Sen, when they work alone? A.6
A.3: 6: 2 B.12
B.2: 3: 6 C.14
C.3: 2: 6 D.18
D.6: 3: 2 E.None of these
E.None of these 39. A, B and C can complete the work in 32 days, 24
36. A and B together can complete the job in 36 days. days and 30 days respectively. If they started the
B and C together can complete the same job in 40 work together, B left 12 days before completion of
days. If A worked for 15 days and B worked for 20 the work and C left 6 days before completion of the
days, then remaining work is completed by C in 38 work and A finished the work. In how many days is
days. In how many days A alone can complete 60% the work completed?
of job? A.12
A.60 days B.14
B.12 days C.16
C.36 Days D.18
D.24 days E.20
E.None of these 40. A and B together can complete the work in 30
37. 8 men and 6 women together can complete the days. Efficiency of A is 50% more than the efficiency
work in 16 days and 10 men complete the same work of B. If B and C together can complete the work in
in 32 days. How many days will 8 women take to 33(1/3) days, in how many days A and C together can
complete the same work? complete the work?
A.15 days A.23(3/11) days
B.20 days B.24(3/11) days
C.18 days C.27(3/11) days
Page 759 of 1079

D.29(3/11) days E.Rs.2000

E.None of these 44. A, B and C together can complete three-fourth of
41. Ratio of efficiencies A, B and C is 3:6:4, all the work in 6 days, A and C together can complete
together started the work and worked for 3 days and two-fifth of the work in 4(4/5) days and B and C
completed 65% of work, find the time taken by A together complete 55% of the work in 6 days. In how
and C together to complete the work. many days C alone complete the work?
A.60/7 days A.20 days
B.54/7 days B.15 days
C.48/7 days C.24 days
D.65/7 days D.18 days
E.None of these E.12 days
42. Seeta, Geeta, Neeta can complete a job in 40 days, 45. A alone completed the work in 20 days.
60 days and 30 days respectively. Seeta and Neeta Efficiency of A is 200% more than the efficiency of
start the work and left after 14 days, remaining work B and the number of days takes by C to complete the
completed by Geeta alone. Find the time taken by work is double of the number of days taken by B to
Geeta to complete the remaining work. complete the same work. If A started the work and
A.13 days B and C help him on every third day, how many days
B.11 days required to complete the work?
C.9 days A.11(1/7) days
D.6 days B.13(1/7) days
E.None of these C.15(1/7) days
43. A can complete a piece of work in 18 days , B is D.17(1/7) days
25% less efficient than A. B started the work and E.None of these
worked for 6 days and left and remaining part of the 46. 30 men can complete a work in 35 days. If x men
work is completed by A. What is the share of B if the started the work and work for 25 days after 25 days
total wages is Rs.3000? 35 men join them and finished the remaining work
A.Rs.2250 in 10 days, find the value of x.
B.Rs.750 A.10
C.Rs.600 B.20
D.Rs.2400 C.30
Page 760 of 1079

D.40 E.8.25 days

E.50 49. A, B and C together can complete the work in
47. A alone completes the work in 30 days. Efficiency 11(1/13) days and C alone complete the same work
of B is 50% more than the efficiency of A. If A and in 48 days. If the efficiency of A is 50% more than B,
B together can starts the work, after 8 days A and B in how many days A and C together can complete
left the work, then C alone complete the remaining the work?
work in 4 days. If they gets the wages for the whole A.12 days
work is Rs.9000, then find the C’s wages share. B.16 days
A.Rs.3300 C.18 days
B.Rs.3600 D.20 days
D.Rs.3000 50. A and B together can complete the three – fourth
E.Rs.4200 of the work in 9 days, B and C together can complete
48. 4 men and 6 women together can complete the two-third of the work in 11(3/7) days and A and C
work in 5 days and 6 men and 4 women do the same together can complete 75% of the work in 10 days.
work in 4 days. In how many days 4 men and 2 In how many days A alone complete the work?
women together complete the work? A.12 days
A.6.25 days B.24 days
B.4.25 days C.20 days
C.12.25 days D.16 days
D.10.25 days E.None of these
Time & Work - Answers with Explanation
1) Answer: A
Anu, Babu and Saran can do the work in = xyz/(xy + yz
+ zx) (A + B)’s 1 day’s work =
= (6 * 12 * 18)/(6 * 12 + 12 * 18 + 18 * 6)
= 36/11 = 3 3/11 days
Work done by A and B in 3 days =
2) Answer: D
Page 761 of 1079

= > (8 + 10 + 5)/120
= > 23/120
Remaining Work =
A, B and C can complete the whole work in, = 120/23
Remaining work will be done by A
days
7) Answer: A
Bala leaves the work before x days of its completion.
in =
Anu’s 16 days’ work + Bala’s (16 – x) days’ work = 1
3) Answer: A
16/20 + (16 – x)/30 = 1
A + B together can complete the work = 20 days
=> x = 10 days
B + C together can complete the work = 60 days
8) Answer: D
C alone complete the work = 120 days
A complete 75% work in 12 days
B alone complete the work = 1/60 – 1/120 = 1/120
So, A will complete 100% work in = 12/75 x 100 = 16
A alone complete the work = 1/20 - 1/120
days
= 1/24
Thus, Efficiency of A = 1/16
A + C together can complete work = 1/24 + 1/120
Efficiency of B = 160/100 x 1/16 = 1/10
= 1/20
B will complete the total work in 10 days
4) Answer: C
Thus, 100% work in = 10 days
x/15 + (x – 3)/12 + (x – 3)/10 = 1
45% work in = 10/100 x 45 = 9/2 days.
4x + 5x – 15 + 6x – 18 = 60
9) Answer: A
15x = 93
Arun: Bittu
x = 6.2 days
Efficiency=3:1 & Time=1:3
5) Answer: A
Difference = (3x-x) = 48
Required time = 1/8 + 1/12 – 1/24
• 2x =48
= 3 + 2 – 1/24
• x =24
= 1/6
Arun’s=24 days & Bittu’s=72 days
6) Answer: B
LCM of 24 and 72 = 72
A’s one day work = 1/15
Arun = 3 units
B’s one day work = 1/12
Bittu = 1 units
C can do the whole work in, = 18*(4/3) = 24 days
Required number of days = 72/4 = 18 days
C’s one day work = 1/24
10) Answer: B
(A + B + C)’s one day work = (1/15) + (1/12) + (1/24)
Page 762 of 1079

Efficiency ratio of A and B = 2: 1 (x - 6) person can do the work in = x days

Total work = 3 * 32 = 96 (x - 6) * x = (x + 6) (x - 9)
A alone complete the work = 96/2 = 48 days x2 – 6x = x2– 9x + 6x - 54
B alone complete the work = 96/1 = 96 days 3x = 54
A + C = 1/96 + 1/64 x = 18
= (2 + 3)/192 Person days
= 5/192 12 18
Required time = 192/5 = 38 2/5 days 20 ?
11) Answer: C (12 * 18) = 20 * y
250 boys can complete the work in 60 days. y = 54 / 5 = 10 4/5 days
Therefore total work done = 250*60 = 15000 units 14) Answer: E
For the first 40days, 10 men and 14 women can do 60% of the work in = 24/5
No of units of work completed is 40*250 = 10000 units days.
Next 10 days, 10*200 =2000 units 10 men and 14 women can do 100% work in = 8 days.
Remaining work = (15000 – (10000+2000))= 3000 8 men and 6 women can do 9/10 part of the work in =
units 144/10 days.
To complete the remaining work on time, 10*x =3000 8 men and 6 women can do total work in = 144/10 x
x= 300 boys 10/9 = 16 days
Therefore additional of 100 boys needed to complete
the work on time.
12) Answer: D
A’s 1 day work = 1/30
A’s 10 day work = 1/3
B’s 3 day work = 1/6
Remaining work =
T = 16 days.
= 1/2
15) Answer: B
C’s 1 day work = 1/42
Efficiency of Shyam = 1/40
C can do 1/2 work in 42 x 1/2 = 21 days
Efficiency of Ram = 160/100 x 1/40 = 8/5 x 1/40 = 1/25
13) Answer: C
Page 763 of 1079

Ratio of efficiency of Shyam and Ram = 5:8

Ratio of days of Shyam and Ram = 40:25
Total work = 200 unit
1st day work = 5 x 1 = 5 unit.
2nd day work = 8 x 1 = 8 unit.
2 days work = 5 + 8 = 13 unit
2 x 15 days = 13 x 15 units
30 days = 195 units
Remaining work = 200 – 195 = 5 units 18) Answer: D
Shyam will do 200 units of work in 40 days Efficiency of A = 1/25
So he will do 5 units of work in = 40/200 x 5 = 1 day Efficiency of B = 1/30
Hence total time to complete the work = 31 days. (A+B) worked for 5 days = (1/25+1/30) x 5 = 11/30
16) Answer: E units.
Let the time be T days Remaining work left = 1- 11/30 = 19/30 units.
(10 men + 10 women) x 10 = (12 men + 8 women) x 9 B will complete the remaining work in = (19/30) ÷
2 men = 7 women (1/30) = 19 days
1 men = 7/2 women 19) Answer: D
10 men = 35 women 5/25 + (x + 5)/20 = 1
(10 men + 10 women) x 10 = (2 men + 11 women) x T (x + 5)/20 = 4/5
(35 + 10) women x 10 = (7 + 11) women x T x + 5 = 16
45 x 10 = 18 x T x = 11 days
T = 25 days 20) Answer: A
17) Answer: C Efficiency of A and B = 300:100 = 3:1
Let the efficiency of Q be q A and B together can complete the whole work = 4/3 *
And efficiency of P is 1+ (3/2) q = 5q/2 27 = 36 days
P + Q = 1/4 Time ratio of A and B = 1:3

1/x + 1/3x = 1/36
4/3x = 1/36
x = 48
B alone complete four-fifth of the work = 4/5 * 48 * 3
= 115.2 days
Page 764 of 1079
21) Answer: E Efficiency of B = 120/40 = 3 pages/day

4/12 + 6/18 + (6 + 6)/x = 1 According to question
12/x = 1 – 2/3 (2 + 3) x (k – 6) = 120
12/x = 1/3 K – 6 = 24
x = 36 K = 24 + 6 = 30
A + B = 1/16 It is given that,
A = 1/16 – 1/48 = 1/24 Work done by A and B
Efficiency of A and C = 150:100 = 3:2
Time ratio of A and C = 2:3
C alone complete the work = 3/2 * 24 = 36 days
C alone complete the work in 18 days is 18/36
Remaining work = 1 – 1/2 = 1/2 7x+14 +6x+78 = 378
B alone complete the 1/2 of the work = 24 days 13x = 286
23) Answer: B x=22
According to question Therefore D takes 22+6 =28 days to complete the work.
1/A + 1/B = 11/72 26. Answer: A
Also B = A + 15 After 8 days B worked with 75% efficiency
So, 1/A + 1/ (A + 15) = 11/72 According to question,
By hit and trail, put A = 9, it will satisfy the equation. (A + B) x 16 = (A + 0.75 x B) x 18 (work will be
B = 9 + 15 = 24 constant)
Also 8A + 8B = 9A + 6.75B
1/B + 1/C = 1/8 A = 1.25B
1/C = 1/8 – 1/24 So, A is 25% more efficient than B
1/C = 1/12 27. Answer: C
C = 12 days Ragavan alone can complete the work = 30 days
To complete 75% of job alone time taken by C = 75% Efficiency of velavan and Ram = 150:100 = 3:2
of 12 = 9 days Time ratio of velavan and ram = 2:3
24) Answer: A 1/2x + 1/3x = 1/24
Efficiency of A = 28/14 = 2 pages/day 5/6x = 1/24
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x = 20 Time ratio of A and B = 1:2

Velavan can complete the work = 2 * 20 = 40 days Time ratio of B and C = 3:2
Ragavan and Velavan together can complete the work Time ratio of A, B and C = 3:6:4
= 1/40 + 1/30 A, B and C alternatively complete the work = 24 days
= 7/120 A, B and C together can complete the work = 24/3 = 8
Required time = 120/7 = 17(1/7) days days
28. Answer: A 1/3x + 1/6x + 1/4x = 1/8
4/20 + 4/30 + 12/C = 1 (4 + 2 + 3)/12x = 1/8
12/C = 1 – 1/5 – 2/15 x = 6 days
12/C = 2/3 A alone complete the work = 3 * 6 = 18 days
C = 18 days B alone complete the work = 6 * 6 = 36 days
29. Answer: A D alone complete the work = 1/8 – 1/18 – 1/36
Efficiency of A and C = 300:100 = 3:1 = (9 – 4 – 2)/72
Time ratio of A and C = 1:3 = 1/24
Efficiency of C and D = 100:75 = 4:3 Required time = 24 days
Time ratio of C and D = 3:4 32. Answer: C
1/3x + 1/4x = 1/36 Let time taken by A to complete the work is ‘x’,
7/12x = 1/36 therefore B takes ‘x+12’
x = 21 It is given that,
C alone complete the work = 3 * 21 = 63 days
A alone complete the work = 1/3 * 63 = 21 days
B alone complete the work = 1/14 – 1/21 = 1/42 x = 24 days
30. Answer: A Therefore B takes 36 days to complete the work
A, B and C together can complete the work in 4 days = C is 10% less efficient than B, therefore C takes 40 days
4/16 = ¼ to complete the work.
Remaining work = 1 – ¼ = ¾ Work done by A and C together,
C and B together can complete the whole work = 4/3 *
24 = 32 days
A alone complete the work = 1/16 – 1/32 = 1/32
31. Answer: C Work is completed in 15 days when A and C worked
together.
Page 766 of 1079
33. Answer: C According to question

Efficiency ratio of A and B = 100:150 15A + 20B + 38C = 360
Time ratio of A and B = 3:2 15(A + B) + 5(B + C) + 33C = 360
3y = x 15 x 10 + 5 x 9 + 33C = 360
2y = x – 5 33C = 165
2y = 3y – 5 C=5
y=5 Efficiency of B = 9 – 5 = 4
A alone complete the work = 5 * 3 = 15 days Efficiency of A = 10 – 4 = 6
B alone complete the work = 2 * 5 = 10 days Required time = 60% of (360 /6)= 36 days
A and B together can complete the work = 1/15 + 1/10 37. Answer: B
= 5/30 10 men complete the work in 32 days
= 1/6 One man complete the work in = 1/320
A and B together can complete the work = 6 days 8 men complete the work = 8/320 = 1/40
34. Answer: A 6 women complete the work = 1/16 – 1/40 = 3/80
120 books printed in a day. 8 women complete the work = (8 * 3)/(80 * 6)
Efficiency of new machine and old machine = 80:100 = = 1/20
4:5 (OR)
New printing machine can print the number of books in (8 men+6 women)*16=10 men*32
a day = 4/5 * 120 = 96 8 men+6 women=10men*2
Required time = 1152/96 = 12 12 men=6 women
35. Answer: A 1 women=2 man
Efficiency ratio =>Sanu: Bala: Sen = 2: 1: 3 (4 women+6 women)*16=8 women*?
Days ratio =>Sanu: Bala: Sen = ½: 1: 1/3 10 women*16=8 women * ?
= 3: 6: 2 =20 days
36. Answer: C 38. Answer: D
A + B = 36 (Amala’s 1 day’s work): (Amrita’s 1 day’s work) = 2: 1
B + C = 40 (Amala + Amrita)’s 1 day’s work = 1/12
Let the total work = 360 Amala’s 1day’s work = 2/3 * 1/12 = 1/18
Efficiency of A + B = 360/36 = 10 units/day Amala takes 18 days to finish the job.
Efficiency of B + C = 9 units /day 39. Answer: C
Page 767 of 1079

x/32 + (x – 12)/24 + (x – 6)/30 = 1 Therefore A,C together can complete the work in 60/7
15x + 20x – 240 + 16x – 96 = 480 days
x = 16 42. Answer: B
40. Answer: C Let the total work be LCM of 40, 60 and 30 = 120 units
Efficiency ratio of A and B = 150:100 = 3:2 Efficiency of Seeta = 120/40 = 3 units
Time ratio of A and B = 2:3 Efficiency of Geeta = 120/60 = 2 units
1/2x + 1/3x = 1/30 Efficiency of Neeta = 120/30 = 4 units
5/6x = 1/30 Work done by Seeta and Neeta in 14 days = 14 x (3 +
1/x = 1/25 4) = 98 units
B alone complete the work = 25 * 3 = 75 days Remaining work = 120 – 98 = 22 units
A alone complete the work = 2 * 25 = 50 days Time taken by Geeta to complete the remaining work =
C alone complete the work = 3/100 – 1/75 = 5/300 = 22/2 = 11 days
1/60 43. Answer: B
A + C together can complete the work = 1/60 + 1/50 =
11/300
B can complete the work alone in ×100 = 24 days
Required time = 300/11 = 27(3/11) days
Work done by B for 6 days = 6(1/24) = ¼ = 25%
41. Answer: A Remaining 75% of work is done by A.
Ratio of efficiencies of A, B, C = 3:6:4 Therefore wages are given in the ratio of 75%:25% i.e
Ratio of time taken by A, B, C
3:1
=4:2:3 (LCM=12)
If all worked together for 3 days they completed 65% of
Therefore wages received by B = = Rs.750
work.
44. Answer: A
A + B + C together can complete the whole work = 4/3
* 6 = 8 days
x=5 A + C together can complete the whole work = 5/2 *
Therefore, time taken by A to complete the work is 4x 24/5 = 12 days
=20days, C =3x = 15days B alone complete the work = 1/8 - 1/12 = 1/24
B + C together can complete the whole work = 100/55
* 6 = 120/11
Work done by A and C together=
C alone complete the work = 11/120 – 1/24 = 6/120
Page 768 of 1079

Required time = 20 days = 16:24:20

45. Answer: D = 4:6:5
Time ratio of A and B = 1:3 C’s share=5/15* 9000=Rs.3000
B alone complete the work = 3/1 * 20 = 60 days 48. Answer: A
C alone complete the work = 60 * 2 = 120 days (4m + 6w) * 5 = 4 * (6m + 4w)
LCM of 20, 60, 120 = 120 20m + 30w = 24m + 16w
A = 120/20 = 6 units 4m = 14w
B = 120/60 = 2 units 20women complete the work in 5 days
C = 120/120 = 1 units One woman complete the work = 100 days
First three days = 18 + 2 + 1 = 21 units One man complete the work in 14/(100 * 4) = 200/7
After 15 days = 21 * 5 = 105 units days
Remaining work = 120 – 105 = 15 units Required time = 28/200 + 2/100 = 32/200 = 4/25
After 2 days A alone complete 12 units of work Required time = 6.25 days
Remaining work = 15 – 12 = 3 units 49. Answer: B
Required time = 15 + 2 + (3/21) = 17(1/7) days A + B + C together can complete the work = 13/144
46. Answer: B C alone complete the work = 1/48
M1 D 1 = M2 D 2 A + B complete the work = 13/144 – 1/48
30 x 35 = 25x + (x+35) x 10 = 13 – 3/144
x = 20 = 5/72
47. Answer: D Efficiency of A and B = 150:100 = 3:2
A alone complete the work = 30 days Time ratio of A and B = 2:3
Ratio of the efficiency of A and B = 100:150 = 2:3 1/2x + 1/3x = 5/72
Time ratio of A and B = 3:2 5/6x = 5/72
B alone complete the work = 2/3 * 30 = 20 days x = 12
A and B together can complete the work for 8 days = A alone complete the work = 12 * 2 = 24 days
8/30 + 8/20 A + C together can complete the work = 1/24 + 1/48
= (16 + 24)/60 = 2/3 = 1/16
Remaining work = 1/3 50. Answer: C
C alone complete the whole work = 3/1 * 4 = 12 days A + B complete whole work = 4/3 * 9 = 12 days
Wages ratio of A, B and C = 8/30:8/20:4/12
Page 769 of 1079

B and C together can complete the whole work = 3/2 * 2A + 2B + 2C = 1/12 + 7/120 + 3/40 = (10 + 7 + 9)/120
80/7 = 120/7 days A + B + C = 13/120
A and C together can complete the whole work = 100/75 A alone complete the work = 13/120 – 7/120 = 1/20
* 10 = 40/3 days
Data Sufficiency
In this question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:
A) Only I alone is sufficient B) Either I or II alone is sufficient. C) Both I and II together are
Sufficient D) Only II alone is sufficient. E) Both I and II together are not sufficient.
1. Find the cost price of the product? Statement I – Total amount received on the sum at
Statement I – There is 20% profit if the the end of two year at compound interest is 1440.
Product sells at 384. Statement II – Total simple interest receive at the
Statement II – There is 25% loss if the product sells end of three year is 600.
at 240. (a) Only Statement I alone.
a) Only Statement I alone. (b) Only Statement II alone.
b) Only Statement II alone. (c) Both Statements I and II together.
c) Both Statements I and II together. (d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. (e) Either Statement I or II.
e) Either Statement I or II. 4. Find the area of square?
2. What is average age of Priya and Rai? Statement I – Side of square is same as the radius of
Statement I – Ratio of age of Priya and Rai 5 years a circle whose perimeter is 88.
ago is 3:2. Statement II – Side of square is same as the length of
Statement II – Ratio of age of Rai and Priya 5 years rectangle whose perimeter is 88.
after is 4:5. a) Only Statement I alone.
a) Only Statement I alone. b) Only Statement II alone.
b) Only Statement II alone. c) Both Statements I and II together.
c) Both Statements I and II together. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. e) Either Statement I or II.
e) Either Statement I or II. 5. In how many hours A, B, and C can together
3. Find rate of interest on certain sum? complete the work?
Page 770 of 1079
Statement I – A alone completes the work in 6 hour. Statement I – 5 years ago age of A twice of present
A is 20% more efficient than B. age of B. B is 7 years younger than C.
Statement II – B is 25% more efficient than C. Statement II – After 10 years A will be 55 years old.
a) Only Statement I alone. a) Only Statement I alone.
b) Only Statement II alone. b) Only Statement II alone.
c) Both Statements I and II together. c) Both Statements I and II together.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
e) Either Statement I or II. e) Either Statement I or II.
6. What is the overall profit or loss for shopkeeper 9. What is the speed of the train?
by selling three items A, B, and C? Statement I – The train cross a 240m long bridge in
Statement I – Selling price of each items 2400. Ratio 48 sec.
of cost price of items A and B is 2:3. Statement II – The train cross a 220m long moving
Statement II – By selling items C there is loss of 10%. train in 24 sec.
7. Find the upstream speed of Boat? 10. Find the initial quantity of mixture?
Statement I – A boat with speed 8km/hr in still water Statement I – If 81 lit of water added in the mixture
travels 48 km in downstream in 4 hr. the ratio of milk and water will be 7:3.
Statement II – A boat with speed of 8km/hr in still Statement II – If 27 lit of milk added in the mixture
water travel 48 km upstream in 16 hr. the ratio of milk and water is 22:27.
8. Find the average age of A, B and C? 11. What is average age of E, J, O, T and Y?
Page 771 of 1079

Statement I – Average age of E, O and Y is 23. J is c) Both Statements I and II together.

6years elder then T. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
Statement II – Sum of ages of E and J is 42. E is e) Either Statement I or II.
4years elder then T 14. P, Q and R started a business at the end of year
a) Only Statement I alone. what is Q’s share?
b) Only Statement II alone. Statement I – P and Q started a business. Ratio of
c) Both Statements I and II together. their investing amount is 5:7.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. Statement II – R joined the business after 4 month
e) Either Statement I or II. with the amount 3200.
12. Find the perimeter of the rectangle? a) Only Statement I alone.
Statement I – Area of the rectangle is five times of a b) Only Statement II alone.
square whose side 4 units. Breadth is double of side c) Both Statements I and II together.
of square. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
Statement II – Breadth of the rectangle is one more e) Either Statement I or II.
than the radius of the circle whose perimeter is 44 15. What is total number of student in the class?
unit. Statement I – Ratio of number of boys and girls is
a) Only Statement I alone. 5:3.
b) Only Statement II alone. Statement II – Ratio of number boys and number of
c) Both Statements I and II together. difference of boys and girls is 5:2.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. a) Only Statement I alone.
e) Either Statement I or II. b) Only Statement II alone.
13. What is total marks A get in three subject Math, c) Both Statements I and II together.
English and Science? d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
Statement I – Marks in math 20% more than the e) Either Statement I or II.
marks in science and marks in English is 25% less 16. At what price the bag should be sold to earn 25%
than the marks of Math. profit?
Statement II – Ratio of marks in Science and English Statement I – shopkeeper sold it at Rs 900 and makes
is 10:9. 10% loss.
a) Only Statement I alone. Statement II – Cost price of the bag is 1000.
b) Only Statement II alone. a) Only Statement I alone.
Page 772 of 1079


c) Both Statements I and II together. b) Only Statement II alone.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. c) Both Statements I and II together.
e) Either Statement I or II. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
17. In how many days A and B complete the work if e) Either Statement I or II.
they work in alternative day? 20. What is length of the train?
Statement I –A complete the work in 15 days and Statement I – The train crosses a 240m long
ratio of efficiency of A and C is 4:5. platform in 48sec.
Statement II –Ratio of efficiency of B and C is 5:4. Statement II – The train crosses another 220m long
a) Only Statement I alone. train moving opposite direction in 20sec.
18. How much time will be taken to fill the tank if e) Either Statement I or II.
two pipes A and B fill the tank and pipe C empty 21. Find initial quantity of milk in the mixture?
open simultaneously? Statement I – Ratio of milk and water in the mixture
Statement I – A and B pipe fill the tank together in is 2:3.
8 hour when pipe C is closed. Statement II – some amount of mixture taken out
Statements II –B alone fill the tank in 12 hour. and 25lit water is added to the mixture then ratio of
a) Only Statement I alone. water and milk is 5:2.
19. What is the area of square? e) Either Statement I or II.
Statement I – Radius of a circle is 5unit less than the 22. Find the relation between A and D?
side of the square. Perimeter of the circle is 132unit. Statement I – A% of B is 450 and B% of C is 300.
Statement II – Side of the square is double of length Statement II – Ratio of C and D is 3:2.
of rectangle whose perimeter is 36unit. a) Only Statement I alone.
Page 773 of 1079


23. Find the age of A after 10 years? 26. X is how much percent of Z?
Statement I – Ratio of present age of A and B is 5:3 Statement I – 15% of X equal 48% of Y.
and ratio age of B and C is 5:4. Statement II – 20% of (Y+Z) = 35% of (Y-Z)
Statement II – Difference of present age of A and C a) Only Statement I alone.
is 13 year. b) Only Statement II alone.
a) Only Statement I alone. c) Both Statements I and II together.
b) Only Statement II alone. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
c) Both Statements I and II together. e) Either Statement I or II.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. 27. Find the distance between P and Q.
e) Either Statement I or II. Statement I – A car start journey from P at 6 A.M
24. What is the discount percentage given by the and arrived at Q in 10 A.M
shopkeeper? Statements II – A bus cover half of the distance of P
Statement I - Ratio between cost price and selling and Q in 3 hour with the speed of 40km/hr.
price is 8:9. a) Only Statement I alone.
Statement II – Cost price is 4/5 times of marked b) Only Statement II alone.
price. c) Both Statements I and II together.
a) Only Statement I alone. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
b) Only Statement II alone. e) Either Statement I or II.
c) Both Statements I and II together. 28. What is the difference between compound
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. interest and simple interest for two years on certain
e) Either Statement I or II. sum of money in certain rate of interest?
25. Find the cost price of the watch? Statement I – Simple interest is 1800 in 3years on
Statement I – The ratio between marked price and same sum of money and rate of interest.
selling price is 4:3. Statement II – In 5years with same rate of interest
Statement II – Shopkeeper makes a profit of 20%. the simple interest will be same as the sum of money.
Page 774 of 1079


e) Either Statement I or II. 32. What is value of X?
29. What is area of right circular cylinder? Statement I – X is 40% of A and 60% of B. Sum of
Statement I – Radius of the cylinder is same as the A and B is 100.
radius of a circle whose area is 154squnit. Statement II – Y is 20% less than the sum A and X.
Statement II – Ratio between height of the cylinder Difference of X and Y is 60.
and length of a rectangle whose perimeter is 84unit a) Only Statement I alone.
is 4:3. b) Only Statement II alone.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. 33. Some amount divided among A, B and C.What
(e) Either Statement I or II. is A’s share in the amount?
30. What is the value of Y? Statement I – A receives 20% more than B and C
Statement I – Y: Z: X=5:7:3 receives 25% more than A.
Statement II – 5Y-Z=18, 4X-2Y=2, Z-X=4. Statement II – Difference of amount of B and A is Rs
a) Only Statement I alone. 52.
31. What is the A’s share of profit? e) Either Statement I or II.
Statement I – A and B start a business with the 34. Who is youngest among A, B and C?
investment ratio is 7:5. Statement I – Average age of A and B is 39.
Statement II – A invest for 14 months where B invest Statement II – Average age of B and C is 44.5 and
for 18 month. Sum of age of A and C is 85.
Page 775 of 1079

c) Both Statements I and II together. Statement I – A alone can complete the same work
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. in 15 days.
e) Either Statement I or II. Statement II – B can alone complete the work in
35. What age of teacher? 20days. Ratio of efficiency of A and C is 5:4.
Statement I – Total student of the class is 18. a) Only Statement I alone.
Statement II – When the age of teacher is includes b) Only Statement II alone.
the average age increase by 4 years. c) Both Statements I and II together.
a) Only Statement I alone. d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
b) Only Statement II alone. e) Either Statement I or II.
c) Both Statements I and II together. 39. Find in how much time a train cross a post?
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. Statement I – The train crosses a 240m long
e) Either Statement I or II. platform in 30sec.
36. What is length of the train? Statement II –The train crosses another train
Statement I – The train crosses a platform in 20 sec. moving towards each other in 15 sec.
Statement II – The train crosses a pole in 8 sec. a) Only Statement I alone.
a) Only Statement I alone. b) Only Statement II alone.
e) Either Statement I or II. 40. Find the area of rectangle?
37. Find the multiply of X and Y? Statement I – Ratio between radius of a circle and
Statement I – 2X-Y=3, X+Y=3. length is 1:2. Diameter of circle is 8unit.
Statement II -5X-2Y=8 Statement II – Length of the rectangle is 4unit less
a) Only Statement I alone. than length of another rectangle and breadth is 2unit
b) Only Statement II alone. more than breadth of same rectangle. Area of other
c) Both Statements I and II together. rectangle is 60squnit.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. a) Only Statement I alone.
e) Either Statement I or II. b) Only Statement II alone.
38. How many day A, B, and C complete the work if c) Both Statements I and II together.
they work for alternative day? d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
Page 776 of 1079

e) Either Statement I or II. 44. What is the present age of ram?

41. What is the difference of X and Y? Statement I – Present age of Ram is half of the age
Statement I – 40% of X is 120 and 60% of Y is 120. of his father’s age five years ago
Statement II – Sum of X and Y is 500 and one third Statement II – Total age of his father and mother is
of X is equal half of Y. 135. Ram’s age is half of his mother present age
42. Find the total salary of A and B. 45. Find the rate of interest?
Statement I – A spends 85% of his salary and B Statement I – A sum of money became 1728 after two
spends 80% of his salary. year at same rate of interest in CI.
Statement II – Their saving is equal. Statement II – Simple interest of Rs.480 is obtained
a) Only Statement I alone. in 2yr on the principle of 1200 on same rate of
b) Only Statement II alone. interest.
c) Both Statements I and II together. a) Only Statement I alone.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. b) Only Statement II alone.
e) Either Statement I or II. c) Both Statements I and II together.
43. Find the total cost price of two articles E and V? d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
Statement I – The marked price of the article E and e) Either Statement I or II.
V is 3:5. The amount of discount of articles E and V 46. In how many hours F alone complete the work?
is in the ratio of 2:3. Statement I –Q alone cans complete the same work
Statement II – selling price of articles E is 250 and in 12 hour.
by selling articles E shopkeeper earn 25% profit. Statement II – F and Q can complete the work in 6.6
a) Only Statement I alone. hour.
Page 777 of 1079

e) Either Statement I or II. 49. Find the amount of profit or loss?

47. What is time taken by the boat to cover a 120 km Statement I – Shopkeeper marked the price 20%
distance in downstream? above than give discount of 25%.
Statement I – The boat covers 60km distance in Statement II – Ratio between marked price and
upstream in 10 hour. selling price is 4:3.
Statement II – Ratio between speed of boat and a) Only Statement I alone.
speed of current is 3:1. b) Only Statement II alone.
d) Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. 50. What is area of the circle?
e) Either Statement I or II. Statement I – Radius of the circle is one third of the
48. In how many days 10 boys do the work? side of a square whose area is 441sqm.
Statement I – 12 girls do the same work in 24 days. Statement II – Radius is equal to the breadth of a
Statement II – efficiency of boys and girls is 2:3. rectangle whose area is 84sqm.
Data Sufficiency - Answers with Explanation

Q1) Answer e To calculate the average age of priya and rai we have to
In Statement I, selling price and profit percentage is given know the age priya and rai.
so from statement 1 we can calculate the cost price of the In Statement I, Ratio of age of Priya and Rai 5 years ago
products. is given.
In Statement II, selling price and loss percentage is given, Let 5years ago age of Priya was 3a and age of Rai was 2a.
from that we can calculate the cost price of the product. But from Statement I we cannot calculate the actual age
So answer is Either Statement I or II. of Priya and Rai.
Q2) Answer c In Statement II, Ratio of age of Priya and Rai after 5year
is given. From that also we cannot calculate the exact age.
Page 778 of 1079
But from both the Statement we can say that (3a+10) :( To know the total hour taken by A, B, C together to
2a+10) = 5:4 eq (1) complete the work we have to know the hours taken by
If we solve eq (1) we get the value of a, from that we can each to do the same work alone.
calculate the age of Priya and Rai. From that we calculate From Statement I we know that A can do the work in 6
average age of Priya and Rai. hours. A is 20% more efficient than B. So we can get the
So answer is both Statement I and Statement II. efficiency ratio of A and B. From efficiency ratio we get
Q3) Answer c the time ratio because we know efficiency is inversely
Let the sum is P and rate of interest r proportional to time. From ratio of time taken by A and B
Statement I we can say that, we calculate the time taken by B to do the work alone. But
𝒓
=1440=P (1+𝟏𝟎𝟎) ^2 we cannot calculate time taken by C to do the work.
From this we can get a relation between P and r but cannot From Statement II we get only efficiency ratio of B and C.
calculate the value r. But from the Statement I we get the time taken by B to
From Statement II we can get, 600=P*3*r/100 complete the work and from Statement II we get
From this we can get another relation between P and r but efficiency ratio of B and C. So we can easily calculate the
not exact value of r. time taken by C to complete the work.
If we solve the relations we get from both Statements I So from Statements I and II we calculate the time taken by
and II we can get the value of r. A, B, and C to complete the whole work.
So answer is both Statement I and Statement II Q6) Answer d
Q4) Answer a To calculate the overall percentage we have to know the
To calculate the area of the square we need side of square. cost price and selling price of each product.
In Statement I – From Statement I we know the selling price of each item
We can calculate the radius of the circle from perimeter, i.e. 2400 and also know the ratio of cost price of items A
and from radius we can calculate the side. and B. But we cannot calculate the exact value.
In Statement II- From Statement II we know the loss percentage by selling
We cannot calculate the value length of rectangle because items C.
we do not know about breadth of rectangle so we cannot From both statements we can calculate only cost price
calculate the side. items C, others in unknown.
So answer is only Statement I. So answer is neither Statement I nor Statement II is
Q5) Answer c sufficient.

Q7) Answer e
Page 779 of 1079

From Statement I we can say {48/ (8+x)} = 4 [x is speed Q11) Answer c

of current] x= 4 upstream speed is 4km/hr. From Statement I –
From Statement II we can say {48/ (8-x)} =16 x=4km/hr Total age of E, O and Y is =23*3=69 and J-T=6 eq (1)
So answer is either Statement I and II We cannot calculate the age of E, J, O, T, and Y.
Q8) Answer c From Statement II we get E+J=42 eq (2) and E-T=4 eq
From Statement I we cannot get age of A, B, and C. (3), so we cannot calculate age of E, J, O, T and Y.
From Statement II we can get only age of A but not the But solving the equation we get from two statements we
age of B and C. get the age of E, J and T and sum of age of O and Y. Now
But from both statement we can calculate the age of A, B we can calculate the average age of E, J, O, T and Y.
and C. From that we can calculate average age of A.B and Q12) Answer a
C. To calculate the perimeter of a rectangle we have to
Q9) Answer d know the value of length and breadth of rectangle.
From Statement I we cannot calculate the speed of train From Statement I we can calculate the value of both length
because we don’t know the length of the train but we get and breadth.
a equation i.e. {(x+240)/S} = 48 where x is the length of Breadth is 4*2=8unit. And breadth*length=16*5=80 so
the train and S is the speed of the train. length =10
From Statement II we can no calculate the speed of train From Statement II we cannot calculate the value of length.
because we don’t know the others train direction. Only Statement I is sufficient.
So answer is neither I nor II Q13) Answer d
Q10) Answer c From Statement I
To find the initial quantity mixture we have know the Let the marks of Science is 100% so marks in math is
amount of milk and water. 120% and in English is 90%. So we cannot get the total
Let the amount milk is Xlt and amount of water is Ylt. marks.
𝑿 From Statement II –
From Statement I we can say that, 𝒀+𝟖𝟏 = 𝟕/𝟑 but cannot
Let the marks of science is 10a and marks of English is
calculate the excat value.
𝑿+𝟐𝟕 𝟐𝟐 9a. So we cannot get exact marks.
From Statement II I we can say that, 𝒀
= 𝟐𝟕, but
So answer is neither Statement I nor Statement II is
cannot calculate the exact value.
sufficient.
But after solving the above equation we can calculate the
Q14) Answer d
value of X and Y and from that we can
Calculate the initial quantity of mixture.
Page 780 of 1079
To know the Q’s share we have to know the total profit But we don’t know who start the work. So we cannot
at the end of year. calculate the time when they work on alternative day.
From Statement I we can only about invest ratio of A and Q18) Answer d
B. We can calculate in how much time pipe A can fill the
From Statement II we know about C’s investment and C’s tank alone. But from the two statements we cannot
time period. calculate in how much C empty the tank.
So from two statements we cannot calculate the Q’s share So answer is neither Statement I and II is sufficient.
of profit. Q19) Answer a
So answer is neither Statement I nor Statement II is To calculate the area of the square we have know the
sufficient. value of side.
Q15) Answer c From Statement I we can calculate side of square from the
From Statement I – radius of the circle which is calculate from
Let the number of boys is 5a and girls 3a. Total student is the perimeter of circle.
8a, but cannot calculate exact value. Statement I is sufficient.
From Statement II we can say boys: (boys-girls) =5:2 In Statement II we don’t know the value of breadth of the
(eq1) rectangle so we cannot calculate the length of
Statement II is not also sufficient, rectangle as well as side of the square.
If we put the value of boys and girls from the Statement I Statement II is not sufficient.
in (eq1) we can calculate the value of total boys. Q20) Answer d
Q16) Answer e From Statement I –
To calculate selling price when bag is sell in 25%, we have {(240+L)/S} =48 [L= length of train S= speed of the
to calculate cost price first. train] [value L and S is unknown] eq1
In Statement I we can see the selling price when bag is Statement I is not sufficient.
sold in 10% loss from that we can calculate the cost price. From Statement II
So Statement I is sufficient. {(220+L)/S+A}=20 [A= speed of another train] eq2
In Statement II cost price is given. So Statement II is also Statement II is not sufficient.
sufficient. In eq1 and eq2 there are three unknown variable. So we
Q17) Answer d cannot get the length of train.
From both statements we can calculate the time taken by Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
A and B alone to complete the work. Q21) Answer d
Page 781 of 1079

From Statement I But from both statements we get the marked price.
Let quantity of milk is 2a and water 3a. We cannot 8a=4/5(marked price)
calculate exact value. So we can calculate discount percentage.
From Statement II So both Statement I and II is sufficient.
We cannot calculate the quantity of milk because we don’t Q25) Answer d
know the amount mixture taken out. From Statement I –
Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient. Let, marked price is 4a and selling price =3a, so we cannot
Q22) Answer c calculate the cost price.
From Statement I we get the relation between A and C but Statement I is not sufficient
not get the relation between A and D. From Statement II we get only profit percentage, so
From Statement II we get the relation between C and D statement II is not sufficient.
but not the relation between A and D. From both statement we get cost price =100*3a/120
But from two statements together we get relation between =2.5a, so from this we cannot calculate exact cost price.
A and D. Neither Statement I nor II is sufficient.
So both Statement I and II is sufficient. Q26) Answer c
Q23) Answer c From Statement I we did not get any relation between X
From Statement I we get only the ratio of age of A, B and and Z. So Statement I is not sufficient.
C. So Statement I is not sufficient. From Statement II we get the relation between Y and Z.
From Statement II we get only difference of age of A and So Statement II is not sufficient.
C, so Statement II not sufficient. But from both Statements we get relation between X and
But from two statements we get the age of A and from Z from that we calculate the percentage.
that age of A after 10 years. So both Statement I and Statement II is together sufficient.
So Statement I and II is sufficient. Q27) Answer b
Q24) Answer c In Statement I we don’t know the speed of car so we
From information given in Statement I we get cost price cannot calculate the distance. So Statement I is not
is 8a and selling price 9a, but we don’t know about sufficient. In Statement II we know the speed of bus so we
discount percentage. So Statement I is not sufficient. can easily calculate the distance between P and Q. So
From Statement II we get the relation between cost price Statement II is sufficient.
and marked price but did not get the discount price. So Q28) Answer c
Statement II is not sufficient.
Page 782 of 1079

To know difference between CI and SI in two year we Q33) Answer c

have to know the sum of money and rate of interest. From Statement I we get the ratio of the amount of share
From Statement I we get a relation between sum and rate of A, B and C. But not the exact amount of share. So
of interest but don’t get the value. Statement I is not sufficient.
So Statement I is not sufficient. From Statement II get From Statement II we get only the difference of B and A
only the value of interest. So Statement II is not share. So Statement II is not sufficient.
sufficient.From both statements we can find the But from the both statements we get the A’s share.
difference Q34) Answer c
Q29) Answer d From Statement I we get only the total age of A and B.
To calculate the area of cylinder we have know the So Statement I is not sufficient.
radius and height of the cylinder. From Statement II we get only the sum of age B and C and
From Statement I we calculate radius of the cylinder but sum of age of C and A So Statement II is not sufficient.
not the height, so statement I is not sufficient. But from the two statements we get individuals age. So we
From Statement II we cannot calculate the radius and say who is youngest.
height of cylinder, so statement II is not sufficient. Statement I and Statement II together is sufficient.
So neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient. Q35) Answer c
Q30) Answer b From Statement I we did not get the age of teacher. So
From Statement I we did not get the value of Y but from Statement I is not sufficient.
Statement II we get the value Y. From Statement II is not sufficient. But from both
So only Statement II is sufficient. statement we get 18x=22(x+4)
Q31) Answer d From that we can get the age of teacher. So both Statement
From Statement I we get the investment ratio and from I and Statement II is sufficient.
Statement II we get time of investment. But from the Q36) Answer d
statement we don’t know about the total profit. So neither From Statement I we get (L+A)/S=20 [L=length of train
Statement I nor II is sufficient. A= length of platform]
Q32) Answer a So Statement I is not sufficient
From Statement I we get the value of X so Statement I is From Statement II we get L/S = 8 we cannot calculate
sufficient. value of L so Statement II is not sufficient.
From Statement II we did not get the value of X so Three is three unknown variable so Statement I and
Statement II is not sufficient. Statement II is not sufficient.
Page 783 of 1079

Q37) Answer a From each Statement I and Statement II we get the value
From Statement I we get the value of X and Y so we can of X and Y from that we calculate the difference. Either
get the value of multiply X and Y Statement I or II is sufficient.
Statement I is sufficient. Q42) Answer d
From Statement II we cannot calculate the value of X and From Statement I and Statement II we get the ratio of A
Y so Statement II is not sufficient. and B salary but not the exact value.
Q38) Answer d So neither Statement I not Statement II is sufficient.
They work in alternative day so we have to know who start Q43) Answer d
the work to get the total time take to complete the work. From Statement I –
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient. Let the marked price of E and V is 3a and 5a respectively.
Q39) Answer d Amount of discount in E and V is 2b and 3b respectively,
To know the time taken by train to cross the post we have selling price of E is 3a-2b and for V is 5a-3b.
to know length and speed of the train. So From Statement I we cannot calculate cost price.
From Statement I we get a relation between length and From Statement II we get cost price of E is
speed. i.e.L+240/S=30. But don’t know the exact value. 250*100/125=200 but we cannot calculate the cost price
So Statement I is not sufficient. of V.
In Statement II we do not know speed and length of So neither Statement I not Statement II is sufficient.
another train so Statement II is not sufficient. Q44) Answer c
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient. From Statement I-
Q40) Answer c Ram age =1/2[Ram’s father age -5] so Statement I is not
To calculate the area of rectangle we have to know the sufficient.
value of length and breadth. From Statement II-
From Statement I we calculate the length but not the Ram’s father age +Ram’s mother age =135 and ram age
breadth. So Statement I is not sufficient. =1/2 [mother age]
From Statement II we cannot calculate the value of length So Statement II is not sufficient.
and breadth so Statement II is not sufficient. But from both Statements I and II we can calculate the age
But if we use the value of length from Statement I than we of Ram.
can calculate the value of breadth from Statement II, so Q45) Answer b
both Statement I and II is sufficient. From Statement I we cannot calculate the rate of interest.
Q41) Answer e So Statement I is not sufficient.
Page 784 of 1079

From Statement II we can calculate the rate of interest so Both Statement I and II is together sufficient.
only statement II is sufficient. Q48) Answer c
Q46) Answer c From Statement I we get only the value of time taken by
From Statement I we know that in how many hours Q girls to complete the work. So Statement I is not sufficient.
complete the work and Statement II we know that in how From Statement II we get ratio of efficiency of boys and
many hour Q and F together complete the work. So either girls. So Statement II is not sufficient. But from both
Statement I or Statement II is not sufficient. But together Statement I and II we get the answer.
we can get the answer. Q49) Answer d
So both Statement I and Statement II is together sufficient. From the Statement I and Statement II we cannot
Q47) Answer c calculate the exact cost price, selling price and marked
To know time to cover the distance in downstream we price. So we cannot calculate the amount of profit or loss.
have to know the speed of the boat and speed of the Neither statement I nor II is sufficient.
current. From Statement I wee can get the value of Q50) Answer a
upstream i.e. speed of boat – speed of stream. But don’t From Statement I we can calculate the radius of the circle
know the exact value. So Statement I is not sufficient. from that we can calculate the area of the circle.
From Statement II, we get the ratio of speed of boat and Statement I is sufficient.
speed of stream but not exact value. Statement II is not Statement II is not sufficient because we cannot calculate
sufficient. But from two statements we get the exact value the value of radius of circle because breadth of rectangle
of speed of boat and speed current. in unknown.
Quantity I & Quantity II

Direction: - In the given questions, two quantities II ‘. You have to determine relationship between two
are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ another as ‘Quantity quantities and choose the appropriate option
1. X=Y%of 60+40% of 2Z, Y=75 and Z=30 e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
Quantity: I Value of X established
Quantity: II 56 2. What is volume of the cylinder?
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II Quantity: I 870cm^3
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: II The curved surface area of cylinder is
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II 264cm^2 and radius of the cylinder is 1 cm more
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I than height of the cylinder.
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
Page 785 of 1079
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II

c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be established
established 6.Quantity: I what will be the average of even
3. If we add 10 with the 45% of a number then numbers between 51 to 73?
number will be 37. Quantity: II what will be the average of odd number
Quantity: I find the two fifth of the number? between 50 to72?
Quantity: II find the 33.33% of the number? a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be established
established 7. Quantity: I A items sold in Rs 240 still make a
4. 64% of a number is 512. profit of 25%. Find the cost price of the items.
Quantity: I value of two fifth of 25% of the number Quantity: II Mark price of a item is 360. After giving
Quantity: II value one third of 33% of the number. a 10% discount there is still a profit of 20%. Find the
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II cost price.
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
established e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
5. Quantity: I cost price of a items is 360 and it was established
marked up by 25%, after that 16% discount is given. 8. X²-6X+5=0, Y²+4Y-32=0
What is the profit or loss percentage? Quantity: I Find the value of X.
Quantity: II 16.32% Quantity: II Find the value of Y.
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
Page 786 of 1079


9.Quantity: I the average of eleven students is 23. established
When the age of teacher is includes average age is 12.Quantity: I Area of a circle whose circumference
increase by 2 years. What is the age of teacher? is 132cm.
Quantity: II 41 Quantity: II Area of square whose perimeter is
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II 64cm.
10.Quantity: I find the probability of getting a established
multiple of 2 when one dice is thrown once. 13. Pipe A fill a tank in 15 hour and Pipe B fill the
Quantity: II find the probability of getting a prime same tank in 12 hour.
number when one dice in thrown once. Quantity: I pipe A and pipe B open together
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II simultaneously and after 2 hour pipe B is closed.
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Then find the total time taken to fill the full tank?
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II Quantity: II 12.5 hour
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
established c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
11.Quantity: I find the value of perimeter of a d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
rectangle whose area is 864sqm and ratio of length e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
and breadth is 3:2. established
Quantity: II find the perimeter of a square whose 14.Quantity: I what is CI on Rs.12400 at the rate of
area is 676sqm 15% per annum for 2 years?
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
Page 787 of 1079

Quantity: II what is SI on Rs. 14000 at rate of e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be

interest 12% per annum for 3 years? established
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II 17.Quantity: I if the length of a rectangle decreased
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II by 22% and the width is increased by 26%, what
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II percentage change occurs in the area?
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I Quantity: II If the length of a rectangle increased by
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be 24% and the width is decreased by 20%, what
established percentage change occurs in the area?
15. Quantity: I If the cost price of 30 items is equal a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
to selling price of 25 items then what is the profit or b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
loss percent? c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
Quantity: II if the cost price of 45 items is equal to d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
the selling price of 32 items then what is the profit or e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
loss percent? established
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II 18. B: C=4:5 C: D=3:2 C= 45
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: I Value of B
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II Quantity: II Value of D
16.Quantity: I A’s salary increase from 12500 to d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
14200. What is the percentage increase in A’s e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
salary? established
Quantity: II B’s salary increase from 11200 to 19.Quantity: I Find the area of a triangle in whose
14600. What is the percentage increase in B’s each side is 12 cm?
salary? Quantity: II Find the area of a triangle whose base
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II is 14 and height 16m?
Page 788 of 1079

d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I Quantity: II 21.5

e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
established b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
20.Quantity: I Amount obtain after three years on c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
Rs.3430 at 20% compound interest per annum? d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
Quantity: II 5927.04 e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II established
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II 23.Quantity: I A boat goes 48 km upstream in 16 hr.
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II speed of the boat is 10 km/hr. find the speed of
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I current?
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be Quantity: II A boat goes 60km downstream in 3 hr.
established speed of the boat is 12km/hr. find the speed of
21.Quantity: I In a mixture of milk and water of the current?
volume of 40 litres the ratio of milk and water is 5:3. a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
How much quantity of water should be added to b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
make the ratio 1:1? c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
Quantity: II In a mixture of milk and water of the d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
volume of 55 litters the ratio of water and milk is 5:6. e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
How much quantity of water should be added to established
make the ratio 1:1? 24. 7X²+16X-15=0, Y²-6Y-7=0
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II Quantity: I value of X.
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: II value of Y.
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
established d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
22. Quantity: I Average age of 60 boys of a class is e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
18. Age of 20 boys is 16 years and age another 20 established
boys is 20 years. Then find the average age of 25.Quantity: I Difference of CI and SI on sum of
another 20 boys. 2000 is 20 for 2 years, find the rate of interest?
Page 789 of 1079

Quantity: II 10% with Rs. 4000. Total profit at the end of the year is
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II 4400.
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: I find the difference of A and C’s share of
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II profit.
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I Quantity: II find the difference of B and C’s share of
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be profit.
established a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
26.Quantity: I two equal discount of 30 % and 25% b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
equal to single discount of? c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
Quantity: II two equal discount of 28% and 26% d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
equal to single discount of? e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II 29.Quantity: I the average of six numbers are 50. If
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II average of first three is 45 and last four are 54. Then
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I third number is?
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be Quantity: II 50
established a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
27.Quantity: I A’s monthly salary is 6000. B’s b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
monthly salary is 25% more than C’s salary whose c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
salary is 25% less than A’s salary, find the salary of d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
B? e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
Quantity: II 4200 established
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II 30. A boat goes 40 km downstream in 4 hours and 16
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II km upstream in same time.
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II Quantity: I find the speed of the boat.
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I Quantity: II 8m/hr.
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
established b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
28. A and B starts a business with amount Rs. 3600 c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
and Rs. 3200 respectively. After 6 months C joins d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
Page 790 of 1079


31.Quantity: I A train running at 72km/hr cross a d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
pole in 12 sec. find the length of train? e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
Quantity: II A train running at 54km/hr cross a established
240m platform in 36 sec. find the length of train? 34. 3X²-3X-6=0, Y²+5Y-66=0
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II Quantity: I Value of Y
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: II Value of X
32. Efficiency of P and Q to complete a work are in e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
the ratio of 4:3. Q takes 20 days more to complete established
the work. 35.Quantity: I By selling a items in Rs. 240 there is
Quantity: I In how many days they together profit of 16%. What is the cost price?
complete the work? Quantity: II After giving 20% discount on marked
Quantity: II 42 price 280 there is a profit of 10%. What is the cost
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II price?
33. The average age of marks obtained by 55 established
students of a class is 48. Ratio between boys and girls 36. Pipe A and B fill a tank alone in 15 hours and 12
in class in is 3:2. Average marks of boys are 46. hours respectively, where pipe C is empty the tank
Quantity: I find average marks of girls? in 20 hours.
Quantity: II 48.5 Quantity: I value of total time taken to fill the full
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II tank when pipe A and C is open.
Page 791 of 1079

Quantity: II value of total time taken to fill the full c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
tank when pipe B and C is open. d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II established
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II 40. Age of father is twice of his sons. Total Age of
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I mother and father is 95. Ratio of age of mother and
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be son is 9:5. What is the average age of family?
established Quantity: II 47
37.Quantity: I what is the difference of CI and SI on a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
sum of 1200 on 8% rate of interest in 2years? b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
Quantity: II 7.68 c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II established
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I 41.Quantity: I Two train of equal length cross each
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be in 12 sec when moving in opposite. Speeds of the
established trains are 50km/hr and 40km/hr. find the length of
38. X-Y=3200, 62.5%of X is equal to 75% of Y. any train?
Quantity: I value of X. Quantity: II Two train of equal length cross each in
Quantity: II value of Y. 44 sec when moving in same direction. Speeds of the
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II trains are 54km/hr and 36km/hr. find the length of
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II the train?
39.Quantity: I the value of 72% of two third of 400. e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
Quantity: II the value of 65% of one fifth of 360. established
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II 42. X²-4X-1152=0, Y²+5Y-1056=0
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: I Value of X
Page 792 of 1079

Quantity: II Value of Y 45.Quantity: I Find the volume of cone radius of 12

a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II cm and height 13 cm?
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II Quantity: II Find the volume of cylinder radius of 7
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II cm and height 12 cm?
43. A, B, C complete a work alone in 12days, 15days d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
and 20 days respectively. e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
Quantity: I in how many days A and B complete the established
two fifth of the work. 46.Quantity: I what is SI of 1200 on 10% per annum
Quantity: II in how many days A and C complete the for three years?
two third of the work. Quantity: II what is CI for 1120 on 10% per annum
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II for two years?
44. Ratio between present age of A and B is 5:3. Age established
of C is 27 years old. Ratio between present age of B 47.Quantity: I Total salary of A and B is 45000. A
and C is 5:3. spends 75% of his salary where B spends 80% of his
Quantity: I 20 years ago age of. A salary, their saving is equal. Find the salary of A.
Quantity: II age of B after 10 years. Quantity: II 18000.
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
established established
Page 793 of 1079

48. 6X²-11X-35=0, 2Y²+15Y+28=0 b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II

Quantity: I Value of Y c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
Quantity: II Value of X d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II established
c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II 50.Quantity: I A products buy in Rs. 260 than sell it
d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I in Rs. 240. What is loss percentage?
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be Quantity: II A products buy in Rs. 340 then sell it in
established Rs 310. What is loss percentage?
49. Quantity: I A man go market with some money. a) Quantity: I > Quantity: II
He spend 20% of his money to buy sweet, 10% of the b) Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II
remaining he buy some milk. Still he has Rs.720 left. c) Quantity: I < Quantity: II
What is total amount he has at first? d) Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I
Quantity: II 860. e) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be
Quantity I & Quantity II - Answers with Explanation

Q1) Answer a Let the number is N.
X= (75/100)*60 + (40/100)*60 [by putting the value of Y So (45N/100) +10=37 so, N=60
and Z] Quantity I - (2/5)*60=24 Quantity II -33.33% of 60 =20
X=45+24=69= Quantity I So, Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity II = 56 Q4) Answer c
So Quantity I > Quantity II Let the number is P
Q2) Answer c Or, (64/100)*P =512, P=800
According to the question 2*(22/7)*r*h=264 [r=radius of Quantity I – (2/5)*(25/100)*800=80
cylinder h=height of cylinder] Quantity II – (1/3)*(33/100)*800=88
Or, h (h+1) =42 [r=h+1] Quantity I <Quantity II
Or, h²+h-42=0 so h= -7, 6 Q5) Answer c
h = 6 r=7 so area π*r²*h=924=Quantity II Marked price of item is =360*125/100 =450
So, Quantity I < Quantity II Selling price of item is 450*84/100=378
Q3) Answer a So profit percentage is = (18/360)*100=5%=Quantity II
Page 794 of 1079
So, Quantity I < Quantity II Quantity I –

Q6) Answer a n(S) =6{1,2,3,4,5,6}
Sum of even number between 51 to 73 is = n (E) = {2, 4, 6}
52+54+56+58+60+62+64+66+68+70+72=682 P (E) =3/6=0.5 [Quantity I]
So the average is =682/11=62 [Quantity I] Quantity II-
Sum of odd number between 50 to 72 is = n(S)=6{1,2,3,4,5,6}
51+53+55+57+59+61+63+65+67+69+71=671 n(E)={2,3,5}
So the average is =671/11=61 [Quantity II] P(E)=3/6=0.5 [Quantity II]
Quantity I > Quantity II Quantity I = Quantity II
Q7) Answer c Q11) Answer a
Quantity I - Quantity I –
Cost price of item is =240*100/125=192 [Quantity I] Let the length of rectangle is 3a and breadth is 2a.
Quantity II- So, 6a^2=864 a^2=144 so a=12
Selling price of item is =360*90/100=324 Length = 36m and breadth=24m
So cost price is =324*100/120=270 [Quantity II] So perimeter is =2*(36+24) = 120m [Quantity I]
So, Quantity I < Quantity II Quantity II-
Q8) Answer e Side of the of square is 26m so perimeter is =26*4=104
X²-6X+5=0 [Quantity II]
Or, X²-5X-X+5=0, Quantity I > Quantity II
Or, (X-5) (X-1) =0 [X=5, 1] Q12) Answer a
Y²+4Y-32=0 Quantity I –
Similarly we solve this equation we get Y= [-8, 4] 2*π*r=132 [r= radius of circle]
After comparing the value of X and Y, we did not find any So r =21
relation. Area of circle = (22/7)*r^2=1386 [Quantity I]
Q9) Answer a Quantity II –
Total age of eleven student is =23*11=253 Side of square is 64/4=16
Total age of teacher and eleven student is =25*12=300 Area of square is = 16^2=256 [Quantity II]
So age of teacher is 300-253=47 [Quantity I] So, Quantity I > Quantity II
So, Quantity I > Quantity II Q13) Answer e
Q10) Answer e
Page 795 of 1079

Ratio of time taken by pipe A and B to fill the tank is Percentage of A’s salary increase = [(14200-
15:12=5:4 12500)/12500]*100 = 13.6% [Quantity I]
So efficiency of pipe A is 4 and pipe B is 5 Quantity II –
Total efficiency of pipe A and B is 9unit and total capacity Percentage of B’s salary increase = [(14600-
of tank is 60. 11200)/11200]*100 = 30.35% [Quantity II]
Now first two hour both pipe is open so 2*9 =18 unit fill Quantity I < Quantity II
up. Q17) Answer a
Rest 60-18=42 unit is fill up by A. so A needs to fill up We know net percentage change is = ±X±Y± (XY/100)
the tank is 42/4 + For increase, – For decrease.
So total time need to fill the tank is 2+42/4=12.5 [Quantity
I] Now in 1st case net change is = [-22+26+ {(-
So, Quantity I = Quantity II 22)*(+26)}/100] = -1.72% [Quantity I]
Q14) Answer c Now in 2nd case net change is = [24-20+ {(24)*(-
Quantity I – 20)}/100] = -0.8% [Quantity II]
Compound interest is =12400*[1+ (𝟏𝟓/𝟏𝟎𝟎)]² −
𝟏𝟐𝟒𝟎𝟎 = 𝟑𝟗𝟗𝟗 [Quantity I] So, Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity II- Q18) Answer a
Simple interest = 14000*3*12/100=5040 [Quantity II] B: C=4:5, C: D=3:2
So, Quantity I < Quantity II So, B: C: D=12:15:10 so, C=15a=45 so a=3
Q15) Answer c Value of B is =12*3=36 [Quantity I]
Quantity I – Value of D is=10*3=30 [Quantity II]
According to the question, 30CP=25SP or, CP/SP =25/30 So, Quantity I > Quantity II
So profit percentage is = (5/25)*100 =20% [Quantity I] Q19) Answer c
Quantity II – Quantity I –
According to the question, 45CP=32SP or, CP/SP =32/45 Each side is 12cm so triangle is equilateral, so area is
So profit percentage is = (13/32)*100=40.625% [Quantity (√3/4)*12²=36√3 =62.35 [Quantity I]
II] Quantity II-
So, Quantity I < Quantity II Area of triangle is =1/2*14*16=112 [Quantity II]
Q16) Answer c Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I – Q20) Answer e
Page 796 of 1079

Principle=3430 rate of interest=20% time= 3years Speed of boat +speed of current=60/3=20

Total amount =3430[1+ (20/100)] ^3 =5927.04 [Quantity Speed of boat is 12km/hr
I] Speed of current is 20-12=8km/hr [Quantity II]
So, Quantity I =Quantity II Quantity I < Quantity II
Q21) Answer a Q24) Answer e
Quantity I – 7X²+16X-15=0,
Amount of milk in the mixture is = 40*5/8=25 and water Or, 7X²+21X-5X-15=0,
is 40*3/8 =15 Or, (7X+3) (7X-5) =0 so, -3, 5/7
Let x lt water is added to the mixture so that amount of Y²-6Y-7=0
milk and water is same. By solving the equation same way Y=7,-1
Or, 25=15+x so, x=10 [Quantity I] So we cannot establish any relation.
Quantity II - Q25) Answer e
Amount of milk in the mixture is = 55*6/11=30 and water Quantity I –
is 55*5/11 =25 We know the difference of CI and SI in two years =
Let y lt water is added to the mixture so that amount of P[r/100] ^2
milk and water is same. P=principle =2000 r= rate on interest difference =20
Or, 30=25+y so, y=5 [Quantity II] Putting the value in the equation we get r=10% [Quantity
So, Quantity I > Quantity II I]
Q22) Answer c So, Quantity I = Quantity II
Total age of 60 boys is =60*18=1080 Q26) Answer a
Total age of another 20 boys is We know that equivalent discount of two successive
= {1080-(20*16)-(20*20)} = 360 discount x% and y% is
So the average age of another 20 boys is 360/20=18 = {x+y-xy/100}
Quantity I < Quantity II Quantity I –
Q23) Answer c Equivalent single discount = 30+25-30*25/100 =47.5%
Quantity I – [Quantity I]
Speed of boat -speed of current=48/16=3 Quantity II-
Speed of boat =10km/hr so speed of current is =10- Equivalent single discount = 28+26-28*26/100 = 46.72%
3=7km/hr [Quantity I] [Quantity II]
Quantity II- Quantity I > Quantity II
Page 797 of 1079

Q27) Answer a So, length =12*(72*5/18) = 240m [Quantity I]

C’s salary is =6000*75/100=4500 Quantity II-
B’s salary is =4500*125/100=5625 [Quantity I] (Length of train (l) +length of platform)/speed of train
So, Quantity I > Quantity II =time
Q28) Answer a (l+240)/ (54*5/18) =36 so, l=36*15-240=540-240=300
Ratio of their investment is [Quantity II]
=3600*12:3200*12:4000*12=9:8:5 So, Quantity I < Quantity II
Total profit 4400 Q32) Answer c
Quantity I – difference of A and C’s share is Efficiency of P and Q is 4:3.
=4200*4/22=800 Ratio of time to complete the work is 3:4, so we can say P
Quantity I – difference of B and C’s share is take 3a days and Q takes 4a days
=4200*3/22=600 According to the question, 4a-3a=20 or, a=20
So, Quantity I > Quantity II So, P complete the work alone in 60 days and Q complete
Q29) Answer a the work alone in 80 days
Sum of six number is =6*50=300 So P and Q complete the whole work is {(60*80)/
Sum of first three is=45*3=135 (60+80)} =240/7 =34.28 days. [Quantity I]
Sum of last four is=54*4=216 So, Quantity I < Quantity II
So third number is =216+135-300=51 [Quantity I] Q33) Answer a
So, Quantity I > Quantity II Total marks obtain by all the student of the class
Q30) Answer c is55*48=2640
Boat goes 40km on downstream in 4 hour. Total number of boys in the class is 55*3/5=33 and girls
Speed of boat + speed of stream=10 eq (1) is 55*2/5=22
Boat goes 16km on upstream in 4 hour. Total marks of boys is =33*46=1518
Speed of boat -speed of stream=4 eq (2) So total marks of girls is =2640-1518=1122
By solving eq1 and eq2 we get speed of boat is 7 km/hr So average marks of girls is =1122/22=51 [Quantity I]
[Quantity I] So, Quantity I > Quantity II
Quantity I < Quantity II Q34) Answer e
Q31) Answer c Or, 3X²-3X-6=0,
Quantity I – Or, 3X²-6X+3X-6=0,
Length of the train/speed of train = time Or, (3X-3) (3x+1) =0 so X=1,-1/3
Page 798 of 1079

Y²+5Y-66=0 Q38) Answer a

By solving same way we get Y= -11, +6 X-Y=3200
By comparing the value of X and Y we did not get any 75%of X=62.5%ofY
relationship. Or ¾ X =5/8 Y so, X/Y=6/5, let X=6a and Y=5a
Q35) Answer a 6a-5a=3200, a=3200
Quantity I – X=3200*6 [Quantity I]
Cost price of the product is =240*100/116 =206.89 Y=3200*5 Quantity II
Quantity II- So, Quantity I > Quantity II
Selling price of the product =280*80/100=224 Q39) Answer a
So the cost price is =224*100/110=203.63 Quantity I –
So, Quantity I > Quantity II (72/100)*(2/3)*400=72*8/3=192
Q36) Answer a Quantity II –
A take 15 hour and B take 12 hour to fill the tank and C (65/100)*(1/5)*360=13*36/5= 93.6
empty the tank in 20 hour. So, Quantity I > Quantity II
So the total capacity of the tank is 60 unit and efficiency Q40) Answer c
of A =4, B=5 and C= (-ve) 3 Let the age of mother is 9a and son age 5a.
Quantity I – According to the question father age is 5a*2=10a
When pipe A and pipe C is open, time taken to fill the tank 10a+9a=95 so, a=5
is 60/ (4-3) =60 hour [Quantity I] Total age of family is 24a=24*5=120
Quantity II- So average age of family is =120/3=40
When pipe B and C is open, total time taken to fill the tank So Quantity I<Quantity II
is =60/5-3 =30 hour Q41) Answer a
So Quantity I > Quantity II Quantity I –
Q37) Answer e {2*length of train(x)/sum of speed of two train}=12
Quantity I - Or, 2x=12*90*5/18, x=150
We know the difference of CI and SI in two years = Quantity II-
P[r/100] ^2 {2*length of train(y)/difference of speed of two train}=44
P=principle =1200 r= rate on interest difference =8 Or, 2y=44*18*5/18
So the difference is =1200[8/100] ^2=7.68 y=110
Quantity I = Quantity II So, Quantity I >Quantity II-
Page 799 of 1079

Q42) Answer e Volume of cone =1/3*π*r²*h=1/3*22/7*12²*13=1961.14

X²-4X-1152=0, [Quantity I]
Or, X²-36X+32-1152=0 Volume of cylinder=π*r²*h=22/7*7²*12=1848[Quantity
Or, (X-36) (X+32) =0 so, X=36,-32 II]
Y²+5Y-1056=0 So Quantity I > Quantity II
Or, Y²+35Y-30Y-1056=0 Q46) Answer a
Or, (Y+35) (Y-30) =0 So, Y= -35, 30 Quantity I –
From the value we did not establish any relationship SI=1200*10*3/100=360
between X and Y Quantity II-
Q43) Answer c CI=1120[1+10/100] ^2 – 1120 =235.2
A, B, C complete a work in 12days, 15days and 20 days So Quantity I > Quantity II
respectively so, total work is L.C.M of 12, 15, 20 is 60unit. Q47) Answer a
And efficiency of A, B and C is 5, 4, 3 respectively. Let the salary of A is x and the salary of B is 45000-x
So, Quantity I – Accorroding to the question,
Two fifth of work i.e. 60*2/5 =24 unit is complete by A Or, (25/100)*x= (20/100) (45000-x)
and B in 24/9 =2.66 days. Or, 9x=45000*4/9 or, x=20000
Quantity II – Quantity I > Quantity II
Two third of work i.e.60*2/3=40 unit is complete by A Q48) Answer a
and c in 40/8 = 5 days 6X²-11X-35=0,
So Quantity I < Quantity II Or, 6X²-21X-10X-35=0,
Q44) Answer e Or, (2X-7) (3X-5) =0 so, x=7/2, 5/3
Ratio of A, B and C is 25:15:9 2Y²+15Y+28=0
Let age of C is =9a or, 9a=27 a=3 Or, 2Y²+8Y+7Y+28=0
Age of A is =25*3=75, 20 years ago age of A is =75- Or, (Y+4) (2Y+7) =0 so, Y=-4,-7/2
20=55[Quantity I] Quantity I > Quantity II
Age of B is= 15*3=45, after 10 years age will be 45+10 Q49) Answer a
=55[Quantity II] Let the man have 100x money at first.
So, Quantity I = Quantity II He spends 20% in sweet so he left 80x money.
Out of the remaining he spends 10% in milk, so in milk he
Q45) Answer a
spends 8x money.
Page 800 of 1079

So total money spend by him is 28x Q50) Answer c

So he left 72x Quantity I –
72x=720, Loss percentage is = {(260-240)/260}*100=7.69%
x=10 Quantity II –
So at first the man have Rs.1000 Loss percentage is = {(340-310)/340}*100 = 8.82%
So, Quantity I > Quantity II Quantity I < Quantity II
IBPS CLERK Prelims 2020 (English Language)
S.No Topic Pages

1 Misplet Word 805
2 Single fillers 814
3 Double fillers 830
4 Error Spotting 847
5 Usage of words 858
6 Identifying correct sentence 873
7 Cloze test 900
8 Sentence Correction/ Improvement 917
9 Sentence Completion 936
10 Rearrange the word 953
11 Word replacement 968
12 Pick up the correct Starter /connector 981
13 Match the column 995
14 Sentence rearrangement 1021
15 Phrasal replacement 1035
16 Reading Comprehension 1050
17 Jumbled Sentence 1069
Page 801 of 1079

Misplet Word
Directions: In each question below, four words printed E. All are correct
in bold type are given. These are numbered (A), (B), 3. The Gauhati High Court has said that people declared
(C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold might as foriegners cannot be kept in jails that serve as
be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context detention centres, depriving them of basic human
of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate rights and human dignity.
or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is A. Foriegners
your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly B. Detention
spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence C. Depriving
then mark (E), i.e. 'All Correct', as your answer. D. Dignity
1. Chief Justice of India (CJI) Sharad A. Bobde pulled E. All are correct
up the Union government for mistreating the Supreme 4. Hearing a cluster of petitions filed on behalf of
Court for having a “junior officer" file an "evasive" persons lodged in Assam's six detention centres and
affidavit containing "unnecessary, nonsensical" their kin, the High Court refered to a Supreme Court
averments on petitions challenging the case involving 37 "Pakistani prisoners" while issuing
discriminatory and comunal coverage of the Tablighi the order on October 7.
Jamaat incident by some sections of the media. A. Cluster
A. Evasive B. Detention
B. Nonsensical C. Refered
C. Averments D. Prisoners
D. Comunal E. All are correct
E. All are correct. 5. A Supreme Court appointed pollution monitoring
2. As protesters threw stones and tried to breach body has directed Delhi and nieghbouring States to
baricades, police resorted to baton charges, fired tear implement air pollution control measures under “very
gas and used water cannons to disperse the crowds poor” and “severe” category air quality of the Graded
across the city heading to the secretriat. Response Action Plan (GRAP) from October 15,
A. Protestors including a ban on the use of diesel generators, except
B. Baricades for emergency activities.
C. Baton A. Monitoring
D. Cannons B. Nieghbouring
Page 802 of 1079

C. Generators D. Doubt
D. Emergency E. All are correct
E. All are correct 9. The new republic took some time to realise that
6. A same sex couple has moved the Delhi High Court nothing is changed by granting pasive legal rights to
seeking to declare that the Special Marrige Act ought people who are actively treated as unequal.
to apply to all couples regardless of their gender A. Republic
identity and sexual orientation. B. Granting
A. Seeking C. Pasive
B. Marrige D. Actively
C. Regardless E. All are correct
D. Orientation 10. Upper caste outrage at being robbed of an inheritance
E. All are correct is forced to adopt an oblicue dog whistle kind of
7. Kanta Prasad pulled down his mask every few minutes language that must, paradoxically, deny the
to reveal a nearly toothless smile, his eyes taking in relevance of caste and highlight the agency of the
with gratitude the crowds thronging his tiny food lower caste woman, albeit in biased ways.
stall, Baba ka Dhaba, that was forlurn and empty till A. Outrage
just a day ago, much as it had been through the last six B. Oblicue
months. C. Paradoxically
A. Toothless D. Relevance
B. Gratitude E. All are correct
C. Thronging 11. The caste rape itself is brushed aside without
D. Forlurn comment, and it is the responses to it that are
E. All are correct accussed of instigating a caste war.
8. That scientists who pioneered the revolutionary A. Brushed
CRISPRCas9 genne editing technology, the biggest B. Comment
game changer in biology in recent years, will win the C. Accussed
Nobel Prize was never in doubt. D. Instigating
A. Scientists E. All are correct
B. Revolutionary
C. Genne
Page 803 of 1079

12. That the terms of the government’s first set of MPC A. Entities
nomines would expire at the end of August was B. Established
known from the time it was constituted four ago. C. Controls
A. Government’s D. Equipement
B. Nomines E. All are correct
C. Known 16. As in the rules, all governments and government
D. Constituted agencies must have established effective controls over
E. All are correct disaster preparedness and managment and related
13. The CAG has the inescapable constitutional and expenses.
statutory mandate and responsibility to ensure public A. Agencies
accountibility, transparency, effective service B. Effective
delivery and good governance. C. Disaster
A. Inescapable D. Managment
B. Mandate E. All are correct
C. Accountibility 17. Though COVID19 is an unparalleled disaster, it may
D. Governance also provide an opportunity for scamsters to siphon
E. All are correct off public money where normal and prudensial
14. The management of a pandemic is not an exception financial regulations cannot be fully enforced and
to this; though in the expedeincy of saving lives and questions of inconsistencies are likely to be over
alleviating suffering, there can be reasonable looked.
exceptions to compliance with established rules and A. Unparalleled
standard operating procedures in procurement. B. Siphon
A. Pandemic C. Prudensial
B. Expedeincy D. Inconsistencies
C. Alleviating E. All are correct
D. Compliance 18. Generally accepted government auditing standards
E. All are correct require that an audit is planned and performed with
15. The government entities must have established and suficient, appropriate evidence to the audit findings
effective controls over expenses to purchase and conclusions based on the audit objectives and
equipement. scope.
Page 804 of 1079

A. Auditing E. All are correct

B. Suficient 22. While the surge in fresh projects investments was
C. Conclusions spread across all major sectors, the growth registered
D. Objectives in the manufacturing sector was very interesting, the
E. All are correct firm noted in its quarterly project monitoring report.
19. Though Ms. V.K. Sasikala is undergoing a jail term A. Surge
in a disproportionete assets case, one should B. Spread
remember that the case ended without any effective C. Manufacturing
warning for future corruption. D. Monitoring
A. Though E. All are correct
B. Disproportionete 23. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) has arrested
C. Remember a business analyst at a Chennai bank and a rice
D. Corruption merchant from Bengaluru for their alleged affilliation
E. All are correct to the Islamic state and for entering into a conspiracy
20. Public perception is that many politicians and a few "to radicalize and motivate Muslim youth of
others continue to acummulate assets that are Bengaluru" to join the banned terror outfit.
disproportionate to their known sources of income. A. Affilliation
A. Perception B. Conspiracy
B. Politicians C. Radicalize
C. Acummulate D. Banned
D. Disproportionate E. All are correct
E. All are correct 24. As the business of influencing is getting more serious
21. A carefully balanced approach needs to be taken by with bigger platforms like Netflix and Amazon
the international scientific comunnity to look into the turning to them for content, several influencers are
prospects, limitations and ethical issues when it comes talking about mental health issues due to the growing
to tinkering with the genomes of different organisms. scrutiny and criticism that come along with the
A. Balanced popularity.
B. Comunnity A. Influencing
C. Tinkering B. Platforms
D. Genomes C. Scrutiny
Page 805 of 1079

D. Popularity E. All are correct

E. All are correct 28. The Maharashtra government said the petitions filed
25. India’s manufacturing sector is now running at full in the Supreme Court for a CBI probe into the
steem despite disruptions caused by the pandemic and lynching of two sadhus at Palghar was an attempt to
the country wants to help the entire world in derive "political capital" of the incident that happened
COVID19 vaccine production efforts. during the pandemic lockup.
A. Manufacturing A. Probe
B. Steem B. Lynching
C. Despite C. Derive
D. Vaccine D. Lockup
E. All are correct E. All are correct
26. The Delhi High Court sought a response from the 29. The Hathras atrocity is weighing on the national
Union government on a petision by an interfaith conscience, or whatever is left of it. People have
couple seeking to do away with the provision of witnessed not just the most brutal face of social
inviting objection from public while applying for oppression, but a cynikal and brazen use of the state
marriage registration under the Special Marriage Act. machinery to support the oppressors.
A. Petision A. Atrocity
B. Interfaith B. Conscience
C. Provision C. Oppression
D. Applying D. Cynikal
27. Haryana Chief Secretary Vijai Vardhan has directed 30. Contrary to the prevailing argument that the
the Deputy Commisioners to achieve the goal of zero deepening of identity politics has led to
stubble burning and ensure the availability of crop fragmentation of social bases of mainstream parties
residue management machinery to small and and the emergence of various caste leaders who could
marginal farmers on a priority basis. sway their support base, Bihar presents a different
A. Commisioners case.
B. Stubble A. Contrary
C. Machinery B. Deepening
D. Marginal C. Fragmentation
Page 806 of 1079

D. Emergence 34. Freight rates for dry bulk and container ships,
E. All are correct carriers of most of the world’s raw materials and
31. Battling declining enrolment and rising number of finished goods, have plunged over the last six months
dropouts two years ago, the Government Girls’ in the latest sign the global economy is slowing
Senior Secondary School in remote Ramgarh tehsil of significntly.
Alwar district in Rajasthan has recorded a remarkeble A. Freight
98% pass result in Class XII this year. B. Carriers
A. Battling C. Plunged
B. Enrolment D. Significntly
C. Dropouts E. All are correct
D. Remarkeble 35. India has questioned the rush at the UN to declare
E. All are correct climate change an international security issue,
32. China will take steps to spur growth amid a trade war potentially giving the Security Council the right to
with the U.S., but there is limited room for aggressive take action on it, and pointed to the pitfells in the
stimulus in an economy ladan with massive debts and approach.
a property market prone to credit driven spikes. A. Rush
A. Spur B. Security
B. Stimulus C. Council
C. Ladan D. Pitfells
D. Prone E. All are correct
E. All are correct 36. Saras pushed to the edge by habitat degradation and
33. India is all set to sign a revamped extradision treaty human callosness, the world’s tallest flying bird now
with Australia that would enable both countries to seems to be getting a new lease of life in Uttar
exchange information on spies, terrorism and human Pradesh, where it enjoys the status of official State
trafficking. bird.
A. Revamped A. Degradation
B. Extradision B. Callosness
C. Spies C. Lease
D. Trafficking D. Status
Page 807 of 1079

37. With all the safety clearances, trials and tests in place, especially if the brusing tariff war with Washington
the railways is all set to launch the indegenously built escalates, intensifying pressure on Chinese jobs and
Train 18 with fares that are likely to be around 40 to threatening social stability.
50% higher than the Shatabdi Express. A. Deepening
A. Clearances B. Fanned
B. Launch C. Brusing
C. Indegenously D. Escalates
D. Express E. All are correct
E. All are correct 41. When we talk of Hamlet’s solidoquies we conjure up
38. Zimbabwe’s government has pleged to “thoroughly” the image of a lonely, desolate, wronged character
investigate allegations of abuse and rape levelled inveighing against the injustices of a world out of
against its security forces during a brutal crackdown joint.
to quell last week’s antigovernment protests. A. Solidoquies
A. Pleged B. Desolate
B. Allegations C. Inveighing
C. Against D. World
D. Quell E. All are correct
E. All are correct 42. Krill are shifting south towards Antarctica as the
39. A military base deep inside Saudi Arabia appears to oceans warm, disrupting stocks that are eaten by
be testing and possibly manufacturing balistic penguins and whales and caught by industrial
missiles, experts and satellite images suggest, trawllers.
evidence of the type of weapons it has long criticised A. Shifting
its archrival Iran of possessing. B. Disrupting
A. Appears C. Penguins
B. Balistic D. Trawllers
C. Weapons E. All are correct
D. Archival 43. An unprecedented number of restaurants run by
E. All are correct female chefs won plaudits in the new French edition
40. China’s deepening economic slowdown has fanned of the Michelin food guide, as the guardians of haute
market expectations of a big spending binge,
Page 808 of 1079

cuisine sought to address a glaring gender B. Confronted

imbalance. C. Reportedly
A. Unprecedented D. Rationale
B. Plaudits E. All are correct
C. Cuisine 47. As campaining for the Delhi Assembly election enters
D. Glaring the crucial last week, the Congress denied that it had
E. All are correct thrown in the towel by not being visible on the
44. Who among us does not yearn for the day when we campaign trail.
will finally quit our job and begin a new life in A. Campaining
retirement? Unleashed from a monotonous life. B. Crucial
A. Yearn C. Thrown
B. Finally D. Visible
C. Unleashed E. All are correct
D. Monotonous 48. BJP’s Hari Nagar candidate Tajinder Pal Singh Bagga
E. All are correct shot into prominence in 2011 when he physically
45. China saw auto sales contract in 2018 as pressure attacked noted lawyer Prashant Bhushan in the
from a crippling trade war with the U.S. and the latter’s chamber over his statement on holding of a
phacing out of tax cuts on smaller cars pummelled plebicite in Jammu and Kashmir.
business. A. Prominence
A. Contract B. Attacked
B. Crippling C. Chamber
C. Phacing D. Plebicite
D. Pummelled E. All are correct
E. All are correct 49. The puritenical Islamic doctrine of Wahhabism was
46. The commandor of the IndiGo flight on which incapable of taking roots in India because of diverse
standup comic Kunal Kamra allegedly confronted traditions in the Muslim community influenced by
journalist Arnab Goswami has reportedly written to the country's composite culture
the management questioning the rationale for the A. Puritenical
airline’s ban on Mr. Kamra B. Wahhabism
A. Commandor C. Diverse
Page 809 of 1079

D. Composite A. Sprowling
E. All are correct B. Migrated
50. Bird lovers went by boats in the sprowling waters of C. Wintering
Chilika and watched birds that had migrated to the D. Thousands
famous wintering ground after flying thousands of E. All are correct
miles.
Misplet Word - Answers with Explanation
1. The correct word is D - Communal. 23. The correct word is A - Affiliation

2. The correct word is B - Barricades. 24. The correct word is E – All are correct.
3. The correct word is A - Foreigners. 25. The correct word is B - Steam
4. The correct word is D - Referred. 26. The correct word is A - Petition
5. The correct word is B - Neighbouring. 27. The correct word is A – Commissioners
6. The correct word is B - Marriage. 28. The correct word is D - Lockdown
7. The correct word is D - Forlorn. 29. The correct word is C - Cynical
8. The correct word is C - Gene 30. The correct word is E – All are correct
9. The correct word is C - Passive 31. The correct word is D - Remarkable
10. The correct word is B - Oblique 32. The correct word is C - Laden
11. The correct word is C - Accused 33. The correct word is B - Extradition
12. The correct word is B – Nominees 34. The correct word is D - Significantly
13. The correct word is C- Accountability 35. The correct word is D - Pitfalls
14. The correct word is B – Expediency 36. The correct word is B - Callousness
15. The correct word is D - Equipment 37. The correct word is C - Indigenously
16. The correct word is D - Management 38. The correct word is A - Pledged
17. The correct word is C - Prudential 39. The correct word is B - Ballistic
18. The correct word is B - Sufficient 40. The correct word is C - Bruising
19. The correct word is B - Disproportionate 41. The correct word is A - Soliloquies
20. The correct word is C - Accumulate 42. The correct word is D - Trawlers
21. The correct word is B – Community. 43. The correct word is E – All are correct
22. The correct word is E – All are correct. 44. The correct word is E – All are correct
Page 810 of 1079

45. The correct word is C - Phasing 48. The correct word is D - Plebiscite
46. The correct word is A - Commander 49. The correct word is A - Puritanical
47. The correct word is A - Campaigning 50. The correct word is A - Sprawling
Single Fillers
Instructions: In each of the following sentences, there 3) Farmer outfits in Punjab collectively turned down the
is a blank space. Below each such sentence, there are invitation of the Central government to attend a
four options with one word each. Fill up the blank with meeting, ___________ for October 8, "to address the
the word that makes the sentence grammatically and concerns" surrounding the three agriculture sector
contextually correct. If none of the given words is your laws.
answer, choose option (e) as your answer choice. a. Slated
1) A 45 year old driver of a cluster bus was arrested five b. Slump
days after he allegedly killed a man while driving in an c. Replicating
__________ condition near Kashmere Gate metro d. Manic
station. e. Bemused
a. Munificence 4) A Christian organisation in Arunachal Pradesh has
b. Plausible _________ the authorities of Buddhist dominated
c. Gambit Tawang for the arrest of a pastor on charges of
d. Inebriated illegally constructing a church.
e. Foster a. Sleekness
2) Haryana Chief Secretary Vijai Vardhan has directed b. Squelchy
the Deputy Commissioners to achieve the goal of c. Slammed
zero __________ burning and ensure the availability d. Exalted
of crop residue management machinery to small and e. Pompous
marginal farmers on a priority basis. 5) The Maharashtra Cabinet sanctioned ₹523 crore for a
a. Shrug scheme called 'Nav Tejaswini' to ___________
b. Slew women self-help groups (SHGs) in the state.
c. Stringent a. Compatriot
d. Tedious b. Revitalise
e. Stubble c. Fandom
Page 811 of 1079
d. Glitterati 9) The slain terrorists were part of groups involved in

e. Subtlest planning and executing several terror attacks
6) People have witnessed not just the most brutal face of including civilian __________ and attacks on security
social oppression, but a cynical and ________ use of establishments.
the state machinery to support the oppressors. a. Perish
a. Toiling b. Atrocities
b. Strive c. Precincts
c. Prestidigitation d. Fusion
d. Brazen e. Enunciation
e. Overweening 10) The Orissa High Court has directed the State
7) Amid __________ floodwaters and a raging government and the State Endowment Commissioner
pandemic, Bihar is going to polls in the coming weeks to take a view “as __________as possible” with regard
- the first Indian state to do so since the COVID-19 to providing financial assistance or ration kits to the
outbreak started this year. priests (servitors) or in the alternative, for opening of
a. Receding the temples, “but not later than eight weeks”.
b. Factuality a. Plummiest
c. Disguise b. Arching
d. Genocidal c. Expeditiously
e. Squish d. Baritone
8) Despite the fact that the __________ of Mr. Kumar’s e. Scraping
image as the ‘Vikas Purush’ (development man) has 11) A British born Pakistani man who has been on death
petered out, the EBCs, the nonYadav OBCs and row over the 2002 killing of American journalist
Mahadalit voters we interacted with across the State Daniel Pearl will remain in jail for another three
unequivocally expressed that they will continue months despite his __________by a lower court
supporting him as ‘there is no better alternative’. earlier this year.
a. Scourging a. Oratory
b. Fad b. Acquittal
c. Sheen c. Charisma
d. Poker d. Befitting
e. Grace e. Sceptical
Page 812 of 1079

12) Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first intelligence (AI), in a way that would _________ on
time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by peoples' most cherished democratic freedoms.
COVID-19, ___________ the impact of conflict and a. Deracinate
climate change, which were already slowing down b. Equestrian
poverty reduction. c. Tincture
a. Exacerbating d. Elocution
b. Erudition e. Impinge
c. Exclusive 16) Chennai Super Kings squandered a good start and
d. Festering _________ in its chase, losing to Kolkata Knight
e. Savoury Riders by 10 runs at the Sheikh Zayed Stadium in Abu
13) President Donald Trump called off talks on a new Dhabi
stimulus plan to boost the pandemic _________ U.S. a. Legerdemain
economy until after the election. b. Outbound
a. Stevia c. Gullible
b. Hushed d. Intellect
c. Farrago e. Stumbled
d. Ravaged 17) Mumbai Indians bowling coach Shane Bond has
e. Drizzle revealed that star pacer Jasprit Bumrah took the new
14) Days after Sri Lanka identified a new COVID-19 ball and backed his yorkers with renewed _________
cluster, public health authorities, with the Army against Rajasthan Royals.
assisting them, are _________ tracing the source of a. Expletive
the recent infections. b. Pile
a. Truffle c. Vigour
b. Execrate d. Serendipitous
c. Frantically e. Furious
d. Impeccable 18) Cricket Australia’s broadcast partner Seven West
e. Despots Media has sought official ___________ in its bid to
15) Countries around the globe, including India, should secure a cut in its annual fees, reportedly dissatisfied
have proper regulations to ensure governments do not with the planned schedule for the year-end Test tour
use facial recognition or any other facet of artificial by India.
Page 813 of 1079

a. Arbitration d. Relented
b. Huckster e. Endurance
c. Dissemination 22) Bryant, 41, was travelling on Sunday with his 13-year
d. Felicitation old daughter Gianna and seven other passengers and
e. Despondency crew when their helicopter __________ into a rugged
19) Due to its accumulated debt of about ₹60,000 crore, hillside in thick fog in Calabasas, west of Los Angeles.
its financial position is in a very _________ condition a. Muzzle
and Air India is currently under a debt trap. b. Slammed
a. Exhilarated c. Captive
b. Fragile d. Defy
c. Acclimatised e. Captive
d. Earmark 23) The ED accused Wadhawan of playing a “very crucial
e. Expedition role” in “_________ transactions by way of money
20) The Union government signed a peace ________ with laundering”.
all four factions of NDFB and two other influential a. Expanse
regional outfits in an agreement aimed at ushering in b. Expletive
political and economic stability in the Bodo- c. Pitted
dominated regions of Assam by bringing an end to a d. Nefarious
decades-old armed movement for a separate state. e. Illicit
a. Accord 24) Matters came to a head in the early 1970s when the
b. Dwindling Supreme Court was called upon to decide whether the
c. Pitted Constitution was __________ in the hands of
d. Stiff Parliament.
e. Jittery a. Plasticine
21) Basketball legend Kobe Bryant’s death in a helicopter b. Dwindling
crash along with his teenage daughter sparked an c. Loggerheads
__________of grief across the world. d. Extinction
a. Expanse e. Legerdemain
b. Strenuous 25) The Mundra port waterfront development project has
c. Outpouring _________ an exemption from conducting public
Page 814 of 1079

hearing for its expansion works, which will be c. Impeccable

considered by the environment ministry’s expert d. Trapeze
appraisal committee (EAC) e. Predicament
a. Exhilarated 29) The Karnataka High Court on Tuesday directed the
b. Sought State government to _________ specific guidelines on
c. Prolific disposal of used masks by November 3, and give wide
d. Sculpting publicity to the new directives in the media.
e. Fugitive a. Devise
26) China will take steps to spur growth amid a trade war b. Exasperating
with the U.S., but there is limited room for aggressive c. Trampolining
stimulus in an economy ________with massive debts d. Blistering
and a property market prone to credit driven spikes. e. Prudential
a. Despondency 30) Punjab’s efforts to enact State amendments to override
b. Overwhelmed the effects of the Centre’s new agriculture laws
c. Laden epitomise the difficulties in managing the conflict
d. Tincture between liberalising the farm sector and protecting the
e. Demeanor small and marginal farmer from the ________ of the
27) DU has been grappling with a power _______ transition.
between the senior most functionaries appointing a. Farrago
different officials as Registrars of the varsity. b. Lethal
a. Devoid c. Unveil
b. Somersaults d. Agonies
c. Tussle e. Loath
d. Despots 31) Turkey has been _________ trouble everywhere from
e. Embracing Iraq, Syria to Libya and Azerbaijan.
28) The Delhi government on Friday launched a dedicated a. Hushed
EV policy portal for seamless __________ of b. Picturesque
incentives to vehicle buyers. c. Fomenting
a. Pile d. Bulwark
b. Disbursement e. Gullible
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32) Like Pakistan, Turkey is a pariah state at odds with a. Concoction

Russia over Syria and Armenia-Azerbaijan, with US b. Bode
for buying Russian weapons, with EU over migrant c. Gruelling
issues and with India over its uncalled _________ in d. Precincts
Jammu and Kashmir. e. Truffle
a. Fillip 36) While much of Washington is twisted in knots over
b. Erudition the upcoming election, there’s another _________
c. Interference already busy trying to figure out how to stage an
d. Festering inauguration for the to-be-determined next president
e. Equestrian during a pandemic.
33) The World Health Organization had earlier warned of a. Fad
an _________rise in infections threatening health b. Grace
systems’ ability to cope. c. Contingent
a. Deracinate d. Drizzle
b. Oratory e. Stevia
c. Curtail 37) The pandemic has _________ anything that the
d. Exponential country faced in recent history and is not showing any
e. Menacing signs of slowing down.
34) Populations weary of social isolation and economic a. Savoury
hardship have pushed back against fresh restrictions to b. Dwarfed
slow the ________ virus’ spread. c. Churned
a. Resurgent d. Genocidal
b. Arching e. Oxymoron
c. Assortment 38) Biden, in his speech in his home state of Delaware,
d. Plummiest blamed the policies of Trump for the deadly spread of
e. Paradox the virus that has had a _______ impact on the
35) The country is reeling from its worst post-war country’s economy.
recession after a _________ two-month national a. Yachting
lockdown prompted by one of Europe’s worst b. Sceptical
outbreaks. c. Scraping
Page 816 of 1079

d. Devastating Malkangiri district, detected and defused seven

e. Profusion improvised explosive devices on Tuesday.
39) Biden said he will go to every governor and urge them a. Perish
to ________ wearing masks in their states. b. Totalitarian
a. Mandate c. Reminiscent
b. Befitting d. Deployed
c. Refrain e. Mutiny
d. Toil 43) Footfairy, with the unfortunate _________ with tooth
e. Cajole fairy, is a rather straightforward story of a monstrous
40) Democratic Vice Presidential nominee Kamala Harris ‘fairy’ who takes away only the most beautiful feet it
called Donald Trump a “racist” and said his racism is finds.
a “pattern”, as she cited the President questioning the a. Predecessor
__________of his predecessor Barack Obama. b. Bemused
a. Glitterati c. Fatalities
b. Legitimacy d. Leveraged
c. Candid e. Rhyming
d. Baritone 44) With retailers and clothing units shutting shop, and
e. Bureaucrat millions of workers _________ to make ends meet,
41) The footage shows Stahl asking direct questions and nobody frankly knows the future of fashion.
__________ some of Trump’s answers on topics, a. Stigmatise
including health care and the government’s response b. Clientele
to the pandemic. c. Scrambling
a. Fandom d. Replicating
b. Rapprochement e. Discerning
c. Refuting 45) Delhi chief minister Arvind Kejriwal on Saturday said
d. Genome citizens across the country should get free Covid-19
e. Percussion vaccines, two days after the Bharatiya Janata Party
42) A major tragedy was averted when Border Security (BJP)’s promise for free vaccination against the
Force personnel _________ in Swabhiman Anchal, a disease in its Bihar election ________ kicked up a
hotbed of Left Wing Extremists in Odisha’s storm.
Page 817 of 1079

a. Tedious accused him of running away from the truth, which he

b. Hyperbole said has resulted in the loss of dignity and livelihoods
c. Chauffer of millions.
d. Manifesto a. Munificence
e. Squish b. Expediting
46) Indian Army has been on a high alert against Pakistani c. Dwindling
attempts to __________ terrorists or carry out Border d. Brazenly
Action Team (BAT) attacks by its special forces e. Jibe
against Indian positions on the Line of Control. 49) The Pakistan-Turkey growing __________ is
a. Slew development of a new found radical Islamic axis
b. Infiltrate seeking to upstage the established order led by Saudi
c. Chopper Arabia.
d. Fodder a. Equation
e. Scuttled b. Gambit
47) Pakistan has been trying to continue with its c. Substantial
__________ designs of pushing terrorists into the d. Overweening
Indian territory but such attempts are being foiled by e. Visceral
the Indian troops deployed in the front. 50) About 30% of India’s dead cattle and 4-% of goats
a. Temptation weren’t ________ and nearly nine million bovine
b. Menace hides were lost annually due to non-recovery.
c. Untoward a. Anecdotally
d. Nefarious b. Discerning
e. Glut c. Flayed
48) Congress leader Rahul Gandhi on Saturday took a d. Contrived
fresh ________ at Prime Minister Narendra Modi and e. Abounded
Single Fillers - Answers with Explanation

1. D Meaning: Munificence - Extremely liberal and generous
A 45 year old driver of a cluster bus was arrested five days of spirit, Plausible - Apparently reasonable or valid,
after he allegedly killed a man while driving in an Gambit - A tactic or manoeuvre intended to gain an
inebriated condition near Kashmere Gate metro station.
Page 818 of 1079
advantage, Inebriated - Stupefied or excited by a Meaning: Sleekness - The quality of being well-groomed
chemical substance, Foster - Promote the growth of and neatly tailored, Squelchy - Soft, Watery, Slammed -
2. E Strike violently, Exalted - Of high moral or intellectual
Haryana Chief Secretary Vijai Vardhan has directed the value; elevated in nature or style, Pompous - Having a
Deputy Commissioners to achieve the goal of zero feeling of superiority that shows itself in an overbearing
stubble burning and ensure the availability of crop residue attitude
management machinery to small and marginal farmers on 5. B
a priority basis. The Maharashtra Cabinet sanctioned ₹523 crore for a
Meaning: Shrug - Raise one’s shoulders to indicate lack scheme called 'Nav Tejaswini' to revitalize women self-
of knowledge, Slew - Turn sharply/ change direction help groups (SHGs) in the state.
abruptly, Tedious - Causing restlessness or weariness, Meaning: Compatriot - A person from a same country,
Stringent - Demanding strict attention to rules and Reviatalise - Give new life or vigour to, Subtlest -
procedures, Stubble - small pieces of stem or leaves that Working or spreading in a hidden and usually injurious
have been separated from the seeds way, Fandom - The fans or a sport or famous person,
3. A Glitterati - Fashionable famous or beautiful people
Farmer outfits in Punjab collectively turned down the 6. D
invitation of the Central government to attend a meeting, People have witnessed not just the most brutal face of
slated for October 8, "to address the concerns" social oppression, but a cynical and brazen use of the state
surrounding the three agriculture sector laws. machinery to support the oppressors.
Meaning: Slated - Designate or schedule, Slump - Fall or Meaning: Toiling - Doing unpleasant work, Strive -
sink heavily or suddenly, Replicating - , Manic - Affected Attempt by employing effort/to exert much effort or
with or marked by mania uncontrolled by reason, energy, Prestidigitation - A display of skill and
Replicating - To make an exact likeness of adroitness, Brazen - Unrestrained by convention or
something/someone, Bemused - Suffering from mental propriety, Overweening - Unrestrained/Arrogant with
confusion regard to feelings
4. C 7. A
A Christian organisation in Arunachal Pradesh has Amid receding floodwaters and a raging pandemic, Bihar
slammed the authorities of Buddhist dominated Tawang is going to polls in the coming weeks - the first Indian state
for the arrest of a pastor on charges of illegally to do so since the COVID-19 outbreak started this year.
constructing a church.
Page 819 of 1079

Meaning: Receding - A slow or gradual disappearance, The Orissa High Court has directed the State government
Disguise, - Make unrecognizable, Squish - Walk through and the State Endowment Commissioner to take a view
mud or wire, Factuality - The quality of being actual or “as expeditiously as possible” with regard to providing
based on fact, Genocidal - Inclined to killing of people on financial assistance or ration kits to the priests (servitors)
the basis or ethnicity, religion etc or in the alternative, for opening of the temples, “but not
8. C later than eight weeks”.
Despite the fact that the sheen of Mr. Kumar’s image as Meaning: Plummiest - Very desirable/affectedly mellow
the ‘Vikas Purush’ (development man) has petered out, and rich, Arching - Form/resemble an arch or curve,
the EBCs, the nonYadav OBCs and Mahadalit voters we Expeditiously - With efficiency; in an efficient manner,
interacted with across the State unequivocally expressed Baritone - A noise lower than tenor and higher than brass,
that they will continue supporting him as ‘there is no Scraping - A harsh noise/Scratch or cut repeatedly/Gather
better alternative’. together over time
Meaning: Scourging - Punish severely/cause extensive 11. B
destruction or ruin utterly, Sheen - The visual property of A British born Pakistani man who has been on death row
something that shines with reflected light, Poker - A card over the 2002 killing of American journalist Daniel Pearl
game/ A fire iron, Fad - An interest followed with will remain in jail for another three months despite his
exaggerated zeal, Grace - Elegance and beauty of acquittal by a lower court earlier this year.
movement or expression Meaning: Acquittal - a judgment of not guilty, Befitting
9. B - Appropriate to something, Sceptical - Denying or
The slain terrorists were part of groups involved in questioning, Oratory - Addressing an audience formally,
planning and executing several terror attacks including Charisma - An extraordinary power
civilian atrocities and attacks on security establishments. 12. A
Meaning: Perish - Pass from physical life and lose all Global extreme poverty is expected to rise for the first
bodily attributes, Atrocities - The quality of being time in 20 years because of the disruption caused by
shockingly cruel and inhumane, Fusion - The COVID-19, exacerbating the impact of conflict and
combination of two or more commercial companies, climate change, which were already slowing down
Precincts - A district of a city or town marked out for poverty reduction.
administrative purposes, Enunciation - The act of Meaning: Exacerbating - Making worse, Exclusive -
pronouncing words Tendency to associate with only a select group, Savoury
10. C - Delicious to eat/Morally wholesome or
Page 820 of 1079

acceptable/having a pungent taste, Erudition - Profound relating to or featuring horseback riding, Tincture - A
scholarly knowledge, Festering - Rotten and offensive to tinge or shade of colour/fill something, Elocution - An
the senses/becoming worse or more intense expert manner of speaking involving control of voice and
13. D gesture, Impinge - Have a negative effect on, esp. by
President Donald Trump called off talks on a new stimulus somehow restricting; infringe upon
plan to boost the pandemic ravaged U.S. economy until 16. E
after the election. Chennai Super Kings squandered a good start and
Meaning: Stevia - Any plant of the genus Stevia found in stumbled in its chase, losing to Kolkata Knight Riders by
Central and South America, Drizzle - Rain lightly, 10 runs at the Sheikh Zayed Stadium in Abu Dhabi
Ravaged - Cause extensive destruction or ruin utterly, Meaning: Outbound - That is going out or leaving,
Hushed - Become quiet or still/Wash by removing Gullible - Naïve and easily deceived or tricked,
particles, Farrago - A confused mixture of feelings, Legerdemain - A display of skill and adroitness, Intellect
objects - Knowledge and creative mind, Stumbled - Miss a step
14. C and fall or nearly fall
Days after Sri Lanka identified a new COVID-19 cluster, 17. C
public health authorities, with the Army assisting them, Mumbai Indians bowling coach Shane Bond has revealed
are frantically tracing the source of the recent infections. that star pacer Jasprit Bumrah took the new ball and
Meaning: Truffle - Creamy chocolate candy, Execrate - backed his yorkers with renewed vigour against Rajasthan
Curse or declare to be evil or threaten with divine Royals.
punishment, Frantically - In an uncontrolled manner , Meaning: Pile - A collection of objects laid on top of
Impeccable - Without fault or error/ not capable of sin, each other, Serendipitous - Lucky in making unexpected
Despots - A cruel and oppressive dictator and fortunate discoveries, Vigour - , Expletive - Obscene
15. E expression usually of surprise or anger, Furious - Marked
Countries around the globe, including India, should have by extreme and violent energy/anger
proper regulations to ensure governments do not use facial 18. A
recognition or any other facet of artificial intelligence Cricket Australia’s broadcast partner Seven West Media
(AI), in a way that would impinge on peoples' most has sought official arbitration in its bid to secure a cut in
cherished democratic freedoms. its annual fees, reportedly dissatisfied with the planned
Meaning: Deracinate - Remove or separate from a native schedule for the year-end Test tour by India.
environment or culture especially, Equestrian - Of or
Page 821 of 1079

Meaning: Arbitration - The hearing and determination of Basketball legend Kobe Bryant’s death in a helicopter
a dispute by an impartial referee agreed to by both parties, crash along with his teenage daughter sparked an
Dissemination - The property of being diffused, outpouring of grief across the world.
Huckster - A person who writes radio or TV Meaning: Expanse - A wide scope, Strenuous -
advertisements/ wrangle or sell or offer for sale from place Characterized by or performed with much energy or force,
to place, Felicitation - An expression of pleasure at the Outpouring - A sudden rapid flow (as of water),
success or good fortune of another, Despondency - Relented - Give in, as to influence or pressure,
Feeling downcast and disheartened and hopeless Endurance - A state of surviving or remaining alive
19. B 22. B
Due to its accumulated debt of about ₹60,000 crore, its Bryant, 41, was travelling on Sunday with his 13-year old
financial position is in a very devoid condition and Air daughter Gianna and seven other passengers and crew
India is currently under a debt trap. when their helicopter slammed into a rugged hillside in
Meaning: Exhilarated - Make joyful/fill with sublime thick fog in Calabasas, west of Los Angeles.
motion, Fragile - Easily broken, damaged or destroyed, Meaning: Muzzle - Prevent from speaking out,
Earmark - Give or assign a resource to a particular Veracity - The quality of being correct, true, or close to
person, Expedition - A journey organized for pleasure, the true value, Captive - A person who is confined or held
Acclimatised - Get used to a certain climate in the grip of a strong emotion, Defy - Resist or confront
20. A with resistance, Slammed - Strike violently
The Union government signed a peace accord with all 23. D
four factions of NDFB and two other influential regional The ED accused Wadhawan of playing a “very crucial
outfits in an agreement aimed at ushering in political and role” in “nefarious transactions by way of money
economic stability in the Bodo-dominated regions of laundering”.
Assam by bringing an end to a decades-old armed Meaning: Expletive - Obscene expression usually of
movement for a separate state. surprise or anger, Illicit - Forbidden by law, Expanse - A
Meaning: Accord - A written agreement between two wide scope, Nefarious - Extremely wicked, Pitted - Set
states or sovereigns, Dwindling - Gradually decreasing into opposition or rivalry/Irregular
until little remains, Pitted - Set into opposition or 24. A
rivalry/Irregular, Stiff - Not moving or operating freely, Matters came to a head in the early 1970s when the
Jittery - Being in a tense state Supreme Court was called upon to decide whether the
21. C Constitution was plasticine in the hands of Parliament.
Page 822 of 1079

Meaning: Plasticine - A synthetic material resembling DU has been grappling with a power tussle between the
clay but remaining soft; used as a substitute for clay or senior most functionaries appointing different officials as
wax in modeling, Loggerheads - Forbidden by law, Registrars of the varsity.
Legerdemain - A display of skill and adroitness, Meaning: Despondency - Feeling downcast and
Dwindling - Gradually decreasing until little remains, disheartened and hopeless, Overwhelmed – Become
Extinction - No longer in existence filled with uncontrollable emotion, Despots - A cruel and
25. B oppressive dictator, Devoid - Completely wanting or
The Mundra port waterfront development project has lacking, Embracing - To take up the cause, ideology,
sought an exemption from conducting public hearing for practice, method, of someone and us it
its expansion works, which will be considered by the 28. B
environment ministry’s expert appraisal committee The Delhi government on Friday launched a dedicated EV
(EAC) policy portal for seamless disbursement of incentives to
Meaning: Sought - looked for, Sculpting - Created by vehicle buyers.
shaping stone, wood or any other hard material, Fugitive Meaning: Disbursement - The act of spending or
– someone who flees from law, Exhilarated - Make disbursing money, Impeccable - Without fault or error/
joyful/fill with sublime motion, Prolific - Intellectually not capable of sin, Trapeze - A swing used by circus
productive acrobats, Pile - A large number, amount or extent,
26. C Predicament - An unpleasant situation
China will take steps to spur growth amid a trade war with 29. A
the U.S., but there is limited room for aggressive stimulus The Karnataka High Court on Tuesday directed the State
in an economy laden with massive debts and a property government to devise specific guidelines on disposal of
market prone to credit driven spikes. used masks by November 3, and give wide publicity to the
Meaning: Laden - Filled with a great quantity, Tincture new directives in the media.
- A tinge or shade of colour/fill something, Demeanor – Meaning: Devise - Come up with (an idea, plan,
behavior, Despondency - Feeling downcast and explanation, theory, or principle) after a mental effort,
disheartened and hopeless, Overwhelmed - Become Exasperating - Extremely annoying or displeasing,
filled with uncontrollable emotion Trampolining - Gymnastic apparatus consisting of a
27. C strong canvas sheet attached with springs to a metal frame;
used for tumbling, Blistering - Harsh or corrosive in tone,
Prudential – showing care and forethought in business,
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30. D senses/becoming worse or more intense, Equestrian - Of

Punjab’s efforts to enact State amendments to override the or relating to or composed of knights
effects of the Centre’s new agriculture laws epitomise the 33. D
difficulties in managing the conflict between liberalising The World Health Organization had earlier warned of an
the farm sector and protecting the small and marginal exponential rise in infections threatening health systems’
farmer from the agonies of the transition. ability to cope.
Meaning: Farrago - A confused mixture of feelings, Meaning: Oratory - Addressing an audience formally,
objects, Lethal - Of an instrument of certain death, Unveil Curtail - Place restrictions on, Exponential - Of or
- Make visible, Agonies - Intense feelings of suffering; involving exponents, menacing – suggesting the presence
acute mental or physical pain, Loath – reluctant of danger, Deracinate - Remove or separate from a native
31. C environment or culture especially
Turkey has been fomenting trouble everywhere from 34. A
Iraq, Syria to Libya and Azerbaijan. Populations weary of social isolation and economic
Meaning: Hushed - Become quiet or still/Wash by hardship have pushed back against fresh restrictions to
removing particles, Picturesque - Suggesting or suitable slow the resurgent virus’ spread.
for a picture, Fomenting - Intense feelings of suffering; Meaning: Resurgent - Rising again as to new life and
acute mental or physical pain, Bulwark - An embankment vigour, Arching - Form/resemble an arch or curve,
built around a space for defensive purposes, Gullible - Assortment - A collection containing a variety of sorts of
Naïve and easily deceived or tricked things, Plummiest - Very desirable/affectedly mellow
32. C and rich, Paradox - A self contradictory statement that at
Like Pakistan, Turkey is a pariah state at odds with Russia first seems true
over Syria and Armenia-Azerbaijan, with US for buying 35. C
Russian weapons, with EU over migrant issues and with The country is reeling from its worst post-war recession
India over its uncalled interference in Jammu and after a gruelling two-month national lockdown prompted
Kashmir. by one of Europe’s worst outbreaks.
Meaning: Filip - Anything that makes one feel Meaning: Concoction - The act of pronouncing words,
encouraged, Erudition - Profound scholarly knowledge, Bode - Having great beauty and splendor, Gruelling -
Interference - A policy of intervening in the affairs of Characterized by effort to the point of exhaustion;
other countries, Festering - Rotten and offensive to the especially physical effort, Precincts - A district of a city
Page 824 of 1079

or town marked out for administrative purposes, Truffle - quantity, Scraping - A harsh noise/Scratch or cut
Creamy chocolate candy repeatedly/Gather together over time, Sceptical - Denying
36. C or questioning
While much of Washington is twisted in knots over the 39. A
upcoming election, there’s another contingent already Biden said he will go to every governor and urge them to
busy trying to figure out how to stage an inauguration for mandate wearing masks in their states.
the to-be-determined next president during a pandemic. Meaning: Mandate - a document giving an official
Meaning: Fad - An interest followed with exaggerated instruction or command, Toil - Doing unpleasant work,
zeal, Grace - Elegance and beauty of movement or Cajole – to influence someone by flattering, Befitting -
expression, Contingent - A gathering of persons Appropriate to something, Refrain - Resist doing
representative of some larger group, Drizzle - Rain something
lightly, Stevia - Any plant of the genus Stevia found in 40. B
Central and South America Democratic Vice Presidential nominee Kamala Harris
37. B called Donald Trump a “racist” and said his racism is a
The pandemic has dwarfed anything that the country “pattern”, as she cited the President questioning the
faced in recent history and is not showing any signs of legitimacy of his predecessor Barack Obama.
slowing down. Meaning: Glitterati - Fashionable famous or beautiful
Meaning: Churned - To stir vigorously, Savoury - people, Legitimacy - The property of being genuine or
Delicious to eat/Morally wholesome or acceptable/having valid, not being a fake or forgery, Candid - Informal or
a pungent taste, Dwarfed - Make appear small by natural, Baritone - A noise lower than tenor and higher
comparison, Genocidal - Inclined to killing of people on than brass, Bureaucrat – Official in a government
the basis or ethnicity, religion etc, Oxymoron - A department
combination of contradictory words
38. D 41. C
Biden, in his speech in his home state of Delaware, The footage shows Stahl asking direct questions and
blamed the policies of Trump for the deadly spread of the refuting some of Trump’s answers on topics, including
virus that has had a devastating impact on the country’s health care and the government’s response to the
economy. pandemic.
Meaning: Yachting - Travel in a yacht, Devastating - Meaning: Fandom - The fans or a sport or famous person,
Sharply critical or damaging, Profusion – an abundant Rapprochement - The reestablishing of cordial relations,
Page 825 of 1079

Refuting - Prove to be false or incorrect, Genome - The With retailers and clothing units shutting shop, and
full DNA sequence of an organism, Orthodox – following millions of workers scrambling to make ends meet,
traditional, Percussion - Tapping a part of the body for nobody frankly knows the future of fashion.
diagnostic purposes Meaning: Stigmatise - Accuse or condemn someone
42. D openly, Clientele - Customers collectively, Scrambling -
A major tragedy was averted when Border Security Force To move hurriedly, Replicating - To make an exact
personnel deployed in Swabhiman Anchal, a hotbed of likeness of something/someone, Discerning - Customers
Left Wing Extremists in Odisha’s Malkangiri district, collectively
detected and defused seven improvised explosive devices 45. D
on Tuesday. Delhi chief minister Arvind Kejriwal on Saturday said
Meaning: Totalitarian - Characterized by a government citizens across the country should get free Covid-19
in which the political authority exercises centralized vaccines, two days after the Bharatiya Janata Party
control, Reminiscent - Serving to bring to mind, (BJP)’s promise for free vaccination against the disease in
Deployed - To distribute systematically or strategically, its Bihar election manifesto kicked up a storm.
Perish - Pass from physical life and lose all bodily Meaning: Tedious - Causing restlessness or weariness,
attributes, Mutiny - Engage in a conflict/argument against Hyperbole - Extravagant Exaggeration, Chauffer - A
authority person employed to drive a privately owned car,
43. E Manifesto - , Squish - Walk through mud or mire
Footfairy, with the unfortunate rhyming with tooth fairy, 46. B
is a rather straightforward story of a monstrous ‘fairy’ who Indian Army has been on a high alert against Pakistani
takes away only the most beautiful feet it finds. attempts to infiltrate terrorists or carry out Border Action
Meaning: Predecessor - The one who precedes you and Team (BAT) attacks by its special forces against Indian
indicates the approach of something or someone, positions on the Line of Control.
Bemused - Suffering from mental confusion, Fatalities - Meaning: Slew - Turn sharply/ change direction abruptly,
A death resulting from an accident, Leveraged – to use Infiltrate - Pass into or through by filtering or permeating,
something to maximum advantage, Rhyming - Having Chopper - An aircraft without wings that obtains its lift
corresponding sounds especially terminal sounds from the rotation of overhead blades, Fodder - Coarse
44. C food composed of entire plants or the leaves and stalks
(especially for livestock), Scuttled – Run hurriedly with
short steps
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47. D directed at a person like a missile and intended to have a

Pakistan has been trying to continue with its nefarious telling effect
designs of pushing terrorists into the Indian territory but 49. A
such attempts are being foiled by the Indian troops The Pakistan-Turkey growing equation is development of
deployed in the front. a new found radical Islamic axis seeking to upstage the
Meaning: Temptation - The act of influencing by exciting established order led by Saudi Arabia.
hope or desire, Menace - Something that is a source of Meaning: Equation - A state of being essentially equal or
danger, Untoward - Not keeping with accepted standards equivalent, Gambit - A tactic or manoeuvre intended to
of what is right, Nefarious -Extremely wicked , Glut - gain an advantage, Substantial - Fairly large,
Overeat or eat immodestly Overweening - Unrestrained/Arrogant with regard to
48. E feelings, Visceral – obtained through intuition,
Congress leader Rahul Gandhi on Saturday took a fresh 50. C
jibe at Prime Minister Narendra Modi and accused him of About 30% of India’s dead cattle and 4-% of goats weren’t
running away from the truth, which he said has resulted in flayed and nearly nine million bovine hides were lost
the loss of dignity and livelihoods of millions. annually due to non-recovery
Meaning: Munificence - Extremely liberal and generous Meaning: Anecdotally - A short, interesting or amusing
of spirit, Expediting - Speed up the progress of, account of a real incident, Discerning - Having or
Dwindling - Become smaller or lose substance, Brazenly revealing keen insight and good judgment, Flayed - Strip
– in bold and shameless way, Jibe - An aggressive remark the skin off, Contrived - Showing effects of planning or
manipulation, Abounded - Be abundant or plentiful
Double Fillers
In each of the following sentence, there are two blank Congress MLA ST Somashekar said that under the
spaces. Below the sentences, there are five options with coalition, development works seem to have hit a
a pair of words each. Fill up the sentences with the pair roadblock
of words that make the sentence grammatically and a) Surrounded, Failure
contextually correct. b) Ready, Technology
c) Organising, Feature
1. The ___________ in Karnataka saw turbulence yet d) Tumultuous, Step down
again as CM HD Kumaraswamy threatened to e) Special, Arrangement
__________ from the Chief Minister’s position after
Page 827 of 1079
2. The troubles of former union minister P Chidambaram approvals would be required, said a person _________
and his son Karti seem to be _________ with to the initial discussion.
_________ agencies finding more evidence against a) Increase, Vague
them. b) Proximity, Scrutiny
a) Fell, Arrested c) Scrutiny, Privy
b) Troubled, Covered d) Best, Level
c) Mounting, Probing e) Hope, Allow
d) Fallen, Exactly 6. Business optimism for the April- June quarter has
e) Accidently, Worked _________ to its record low, reflecting the plunge in
3. Shares of ZEE Entertainment Enterprises Ltd (ZEEL) business sentiment owing to the heightened
bounced back on Monday, after the business _________ around the impact of Covid-19.
_________ Essel Group’s management arrived at an a) Giving, Imposed
understanding with lenders, which are _________ b) Expecting,Attacking
pledged shares of the promoters c) Separated, Proposing
a) Expect, Validate d) Freed, Making
b) Asking, Featuring e) Slumped, Uncertainty
c) Propose, Release 7. Political leaders on Friday welcomed the _________
d) Conglomerate, Holding of the stringent Public Safety Act (PSA) imposed on
e) Filed, Hoping National Conference _________ and former chief
4. Actor Alia Bhatt has recently bought a 2,300- sqft minister of J&K Farooq Abdullah.
apartment in Juhu for a _________ Rs 13.11 crore — a) Changed, People
almost double the ready _________ rate (Rs 7.86 b) Fallen, Companies
crore) for the area. c) Affection, Government
a) Astonishing, Cool d) Revocation, Patron
b) Turbulence, Weather e) Work, Working
c) Decision, Accidental 8. The Calcutta high court directed the West Bengal
d) Trouble, Horror government on Friday to inform how it plans to
e) Whopping, Reckoner _________ an unutilised amount of over ~138 crore
5. Besides stepping up _________, Sebi could put a cap out of ~500 crore earmarked for compensating
on the purchase limit, beyond which additional investors _________ in the Saradha chit fund scam.
Page 828 of 1079

a) Disburse, Duped a) Attends, Fails

b) Falling, Reach b) Settle, Celebrate
c) Producing, Made c) Halted, Emphatic
d) Tentative Recorded d) Increases, Claims
e) Making, , Formed e) Submit, Form
9. As Friday ended, Brokers in Mumbai were still trying 12. The BSE and NSE suspended trading for 45 minutes
to calm the _________ nerves of their clients, who a little past 9.20 am after the Sensex and Nifty
much like their peers across the globe, have _________ in tandem with global markets as the
_________ a gut wrenching week for equities. coronavirus pandemic _________ recession fears.
a) Allowing, Applauding a) Troubling, Impossible
b) Working, Known b) Smaller, Training
c) Frayed, Endured c) Administer, Resignation
d) Examining, Alive d) Requested, Granted
e) Expecting, Disgraceful e) Plunged, Triggered
10. The Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has 13. In a dramatic turn of events amid political turmoil in
asked international airlines to consider _________ Madhya Pradesh, Congress heavyweight known for
ticket cancellation and reschedule charges or look at his close _________ to Gandhi family and one of the
providing any other _________, amid the coronavirus _________ of the Scindia royal family, Jyotiraditya
outbreak. Scindia, today joined the BJP in the presence of the
a) Product, Life party president J P Nadda who termed it a
b) Allow, Infection homecoming for the young leader.
c) Waiving, Incentive a) Finalized, Acknowledged
d) Vibrate, Allocation b) Problem, Feature
e) Function, Death c) Declined, Leader
11. Markets took investors on a gut-churning ride on d) Proximity, Scions
Friday, with trading being _________ for the first time e) Warned, Publication
in 12 years as benchmarks plunged over 10% in 14. The opposition parties in Andhra Pradesh are crying
opening trade, before staging an _________ _________ over the punitive clauses brought in by the
comeback powered by banking, finance and energy YS Jagan Reddy government to the Panchayat Raj Act
stocks through an _________ that empowers the government
Page 829 of 1079

to disqualify any candidate before or after the 17. As it works with Beijing to reduce tensions along the
elections. Line of Actual Control in Ladakh, New Delhi has
a) Technology, Technical decided on a four _________ disengagement
b) Foul, Ordinance approach: lower the public rhetoric, temporarily
c) Inclining, Propagandas suspend patrolling of buffer zones by either side,
d) Declining. Organizations mount sustained surveillance and _________ of
e) Protecting, Protests friction points, and keep adequate troops in depth
15. Will _________ in the BJP in Madhya Pradesh over areas until the process is completed.
the post of chief minister in the event of fall of Kamal a) Requiring, Paced
Nath government _________ to deepening political b) Indulge, Forming
turmoil in the state triggered by a “banner of revolt” c) Pronged, Reconnaissance
raised by some Congress MLAs against state d) Advent, Ensuring
leadership, bail it out? e) Grouping, Beginning
a) Presume, Hundreds 18. A day after a mix-up at the AIIMS mortuary led to
b) Horrendous, Mutilated bodies of two Covid patients being _________, the
c) Bickering, Owing hospital has suspended a staffer and terminated the
d) Allow, Million services of another worker for the _________.
e) Haunted, Warned a) Supported, Finish
16. After _________ remarks against the state b) Tactics, Made
government, the Allahabad High Court on Sunday c) Conclusion, Command
afternoon completed the hearing and reserved its order d) Protected, Decided
until 2 pm on Monday in the case of the Uttar Pradesh e) Swapped, Lapse
Government putting up _________ of reported anti- 19. Congress MP Jairam Ramesh cited difficulties in
CAA protesters with their photos, names, and _________ quorum for the meeting of the Standing
addresses across Lucknow. Committee on Science and Technology, Environment,
a) Including, Restriction Forests and Climate Change and _________
b) Requiring, Passion permission to hold virtual meetings.
c) Along with, Interest a) Mustering, Sought
d) Disparaging, Hoardings b) Police, Freedom
e) Presenting, Interaction c) Casted, Acknowledgement
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d) Hospital, Humiliation 23. In her _________ budget last July, finance minister
e) Offence, Endeavor Nirmala Sitharaman proposed to implement a series of
20. The West Bengal government will _________ a measures that would ‘_________technology to make
lockdown in containment zones across the state for compliance easier for taxpayers’.
seven days beginning 5 pm on Thursday to check the a) Process, Making
_________ inCovid-19 cases. b) Knowledge, Accusing
a) Mistakenly, Protected c) Supremo, Alternative
b) Impose, Surge d) Maiden, Leverage
c) Making, Instructed e) Distributing, Analyzing
d) Allowing, Inhibited 24. The Enforcement Directorate is _________ a series of
e) Academically, Foreign financial transactions involving the Popular Front of
21. While _________ the compulsory use of masks in India (PFI) as part of a widening probe into the alleged
public, Chouhan said that action will be taken against role of the outfit in _________ protests against the
the shopping malls and offices that are not keeping Citizenship (Amendment) Act.
sanitisers and not _________ distancing norms. a) Allowed, Beautiful
a) Reiterating, Enforcing b) Probing, Fanning
b) Analysis, Situations c) Eased, Importance
c) Support, Problem d) Unnecessary, Advanced
d) Disturbance, Advancement e) Structured, Finalized
e) Service, Proof 25. Assam government and Bodo representatives,
22. The _________ expansion of Chinese smartphone- including all _________ of National Democratic Front
makers in India has helped the country _________ the of Bodoland that has _________ a violent struggle,
US to become the second-largest smartphone market holds out prospects for peace with all sides reaffirming
in the world. faith in Assam’s territorial integrity.
a) Angry, Leading a) Celebrated, Astonishing
b) Purpose, Calculation b) Amazing, Promising
c) Aggressive, Dethrone c) Joined, Wonderful
d) Worrying, Following d) Returned, Left
e) Down, Instinct e) Factions, Waged
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26. With the European Parliament due to discuss a 29. A recommendation by the Finance Ministry to
resolution sharply critical of the Citizenship _________ the Dehradun-based Wildlife Institute of
(Amendment) Act on Wednesday, India is _________ India (WII) of its status as an autonomous body of the
up diplomacy in Brussels and Strasbourg to Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
_________ the move by hundreds of MEPs has triggered _________ among scientists at the
a) Ramping, Counter organisation.
b) Files, Revealing a) Section, Assumed
c) Work, Declaring b) Restructure, Watered
d) Requirements, Proving c) Overtook, Milestone
e) Requests, Gathering d) Divest, Anxiety
27. Punjab on Tuesday became the first State to e) Observing, Finalized
_________ reject the Centre’s three recent agriculture 30. After a _________ performance in CBSE results,
sector laws, with its Assembly on Tuesday Delhi government school students have set another
unanimously passing three Bills to _________ the _________ with 569 students qualifying in the
Union legislation. National Eligibilitycum-Entrance Test (NEET)
a) Analysis, Opposite a) Glorious, Affected
b) Celebration, Support b) Stellar, Benchmark
c) Protest, Bank c) Awarding, Troubled
d) Ruckus, Office d) Positive, Questioned
e) Formally, Negate e) Highest, Discussed
28. China’s military has said that it was in touch with New 31. Madhya Pradesh Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
Delhi over the _________ of its soldier by the Indian president Ramakant Pippal has _________ confidence
Army after he _________ across the Line of Actual that the party would _________a tough fight to the
Control (LAC) in Demchok sector. BJP and the Congress in the forthcoming by-election
a) Request, Attend and emerge as kingmaker.
b) Apprehension, Strayed a) Muted, Accompanied
c) Trouble, Integration b) Exuded, Pose
d) Organize, Relaunch c) Led, Organizing
e) Worry, Discount d) Allowed, Ionized
e) Made, Tumult
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32. Opposition from sections of Tamils has led to 35. Europe's worried leaders are _________ frantic
_________ Tamil film star Vijay Sethupathi measures to prevent the spread of the disease and
withdrawing from a _________ biopic on the Sri reduce the _________ rate.
Lankan bowling legend, Muttiah Muralitharan. a) Implementing, Mortality
a) Versatile, Planned b) Scolded, Party
b) Ordered, Difference c) Punched, Sense
c) Proud, Discriminate d) Lately, Occasion
d) Complained, Analysis e) Warned, Furnishing
e) Refuted, Structure 36. With _________ two weeks of campaigning
33. Innovation is a _________ and brings tangential remaining before voting day in the U.S. presidential
benefits through products and services that may not election, it appears that the Democratic challenger,
even have been its _________ purpose. former Vice President Joe Biden, is building a
a) Failed, Occasionally considerable lead over the _________, President
b) Affected, Attacking Donald Trump.
c) Led, Alluring a) Proposed, Qualified
d) Recombinant, Initial b) Scarcely, Incumbent
e) Altered, Measuring c) Ran, Worried
34. Advances in science when put to _________ use mean d) Force, Excited
more jobs, higher wages, shorter hours, more e) Installed, Humiliated
abundant crops, more leisure for recreation, for study, 37. With Republicans _________ to confirm a
for learning how to live without deadening _________ conservative Supreme Court nominee and Mr. Trump
which has been the burden of the common man for refusing to commit to a peaceful transition of power,
past ages. the stage may soon be set for a political showdown of
a) Feeling, Inclined _________ proportions that sees the election outcome
b) Discussion, Coward decided in court.
c) Initial, Towards a) Investigation, Creation
d) Disturbance, Chaos b) Work, Understanding
e) Practical, Drudgery c) Production, Result
d) Rushing, Biblical
e) Programming, Diagram
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38. M. Sivasankar _________ illness and got himself a) List, Evaluation

admitted to a hospital where his wife worked to avoid b) Transfer, Separated
questioning by the Customs in connection with the c) Consternation, Fraternity
_________ channel gold smuggling case. d) Sequence, Designed
a) Feigned, Diplomatic e) Relocation, Outlined
b) Nexus, Extension 42. Although Trump said that death rates have fallen
c) Implement, Facilitate drastically, medical professionals indicated that
d) Identity, Interpretation mortality is a _________ dictator, and the lead expert
e) Handle, Multiply in the field called for a national mask _________.
39. The commanders will also _________ on a slew of a) Compared, Reorganized
long-pending reform measures like cutting down on b) Success, Structure
ceremonial practices and non-military activities to c) Fallen, Replaced
ensure a _________ distribution of resources. d) Failure, Victory
a) Deliberate, Rational e) Lagging, Mandate
b) Reporting, Making 43. Doubling down on his assertion that the virus is going
c) Differentiating, Installing away, the _________ president is now telling voters
d) Helping, Arranging that the election is now a _________ between "a
e) Finishing, Turn out Trump super recovery and a Biden depression."
40. After months of _________ caused by the upset in the a) Enter, Allows
2016 Presidential elections, most _________ and b) Narrated, Facilitates
pollsters are coming around to project Donald Trump c) Incumbent, Choice
heading for a big defeat. d) Fabricated, Works
a) Intimidated, Discussions e) Converted, Enters
b) Hedging, Pundits 44. The Indian-American political _________ Fareed
c) Compared, Clothes Zakaria is among those who is predicting a Trump
d) Restructured, Labels defeat, saying it is unlikely voters will be susceptible
e) Presented, Composition to the snake oil being _________ by a clever salesman
41. Vice-president Mike Pence's chief of staffs and four for a second time.
other aides tested positive for the virus causing a) Controlled, Proposed
_________ in the pandemic healthcare _________. b) Hoarding, Handling
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c) Allotted, Marked e) Succeeded, Allowed

d) Lasting, Getting 48. Thackeray’s sharp comment comes after a _________
e) Pundit, Peddled with Maharashtra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari,
45. The _________ Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif attacked who questioned the chief minister’s stance on
Pakistan’s powerful military commanders and ‘Hindutva’ after he did not allow the_________ of
accused them of _________ in in politics and toppling religious places in the state.
governments, intensifying the pressure on Imran a) Standoff, Reopening
Khan's administration. b) Established, Joy
a) Leveled, Jolly c) Negotiated, Power
b) Supported, Faked d) Cope, Help
c) Relocated, Corrupted e) Revealed, Separate
d) Deposed, Meddling 49. In the last few months, the US has been _________ up
e) Examined, Disturbed attack on China over a range of contentious issues
46. Amazon had dragged Future to _________ after the including the border row with India, its military
Kishor Biyani group firm had agreed to sell _________ in the South China Sea and the way
_________ to billionaire Mukesh Ambani's Reliance. Beijing handled the anti-government protests in Hong
a) Encountering, Rival Kong.
b) Arbitration, Businesses a) Treasure, Denied
c) Make, Unwelcome b) Make, Happened
d) Arriving, Helping c) Declare, Cut
e) Establishment, Sitting d) Flip, Mandated
47. Launching a _________ attack on those who are e) Ramping, Assertiveness
questioning the Shiv Sena’s Hindutva, Maharashtra 50. Last week, as the Bihar Chief Minister and JD(U)
chief minister Uddhav Thackeray said Balasaheb chief lost his cool at a _________ crowd during a rally
Thackeray’s Hindutva is not “_________bells and in Saran, that’s the question many asked — and, in
utensil” during his Dussehra speech on Sunday. politically _________ Bihar, believed they had the
a) Teased, Obstructing answer to.
b) Influenced, Arranged a) Easy, Displayed
c) Disturbance, Founded b) Jeering, Astute
d) Blistering, Clanging c) Attack, Implicated
Page 835 of 1079

d) Responsive, Ordered e) Multiple, Featured
Double Fillers - Answers with Explanation
1. The correct answer is D – Tumultuous, Step down Meaning: Turbulence – A state of conflict or
Meaning: Tumultuous - Characterized by unrest, confusion, Astonishing – Extremely surprising,
disorder or insubordination Whopping - very large, Reckoner - An expert at
The tumultuous in Karnataka saw turbulence yet calculation
again as CM HD Kumaraswamy threatened to step Actor Alia Bhatt has recently bought a 2,300- sqft
down from the Chief Minister’s position after apartment in Juhu for a whopping Rs 13.11 crore —
Congress MLA ST Somashekar said that under the almost double the ready reckoner rate (Rs 7.86 crore)
coalition, development works seem to have hit a for the area.
roadblock 5. The correct answer is C – Scrutiny, Privy
2. The correct answer is C – Mounting, Probing Meaning: Vague – Unclear, Proximity – Nearness,
Meaning: Mounting - Go upward with gradual or Scrutiny - The act of examining something closely,
continuous progress, Probing - Diligent and thorough Privy - Hidden from general view or use
in inquiry or investigation Besides stepping up scrutiny, Sebi could put a cap on
The troubles of former union minister P Chidambaram the purchase limit, beyond which additional approvals
and his son Karti seem to be mounting with probing would be required, said a person privy to the initial
agencies finding more evidence against them. discussion.
3. The correct answer is D – Conglomerate, Holding 6. The correct answer is E – Slumped, Uncertainty
Meaning: Conglomerate - A group of diverse Meaning: Slumped - Fall heavily or suddenly; decline
companies under common ownership and run as a markedly, Uncertainty - The state of being unsure of
single organization something
Shares of ZEE Entertainment Enterprises Ltd (ZEEL) Business optimism for the April- June quarter has
bounced back on Monday, after the business slumped to its record low, reflecting the plunge in
conglomerate Essel Group’s management arrived at business sentiment owing to the heightened
an understanding with lenders, which are holding uncertainty around the impact of Covid-19.
pledged shares of the promoters 7. The correct answer is D – Revocation, Patron
4. The correct answer is E – Whopping, Reckoner
Page 836 of 1079

Meaning: Revocation - The state of being cancelled or remuneration) to employees as a means of increasing
annulled, Patron - Someone who supports or output
champions something The Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has
Political leaders on Friday welcomed the revocation asked international airlines to consider waiving ticket
of the stringent Public Safety Act (PSA) imposed on cancellation and reschedule charges or look at
National Conference patron and former chief minister providing any other incentive, amid the coronavirus
of J&K Farooq Abdullah. outbreak.
8. The correct answer is A – Disburse, Duped 11. The correct answer is C – Halted, Emphatic
Meaning: Disburse - Expend, as from a fund, Duped - Meaning: Halted - Cause to stop, Emphatic - Forceful
Fool or hoax, Tentative - Unsettled in mind or opinion and definite in expression or action
The Calcutta high court directed the West Bengal Markets took investors on a gut-churning ride on
government on Friday to inform how it plans to Friday, with trading being halted for the first time in
disburse an unutilised amount of over ~138 crore out 12 years as benchmarks plunged over 10% in opening
of ~500 crore earmarked for compensating investors trade, before staging an emphatic comeback powered
duped in the Saradha chit fund scam. by banking, finance and energy stocks
9. The correct answer is C – Frayed, Endured 12. The correct answer is E – Plunged, Triggered
Meaning: Disgraceful – Shockingly unacceptable, Meaning: Plunged - Thrust or throw into, Triggered -
Applauding – Show approval or praise by clapping, Put in motion, initiate
Frayed - Worn away or tattered along the edges, The BSE and NSE suspended trading for 45 minutes a
Endured - Put up with something or somebody little past 9.20 am after the Sensex and Nifty plunged
unpleasant in tandem with global markets as the coronavirus
As Friday ended, Brokers in Mumbai were still trying pandemic triggered recession fears.
to calm the frayed nerves of their clients, who much 13. The correct answer is D – Proximity, Scions
like their peers across the globe, have endured a gut Meaning: Proximity – The property of being
wrenching week for equities. close together, Scions - A descendant or heir
10. The correct answer is C – Waiving, Incentive In a dramatic turn of events amid political turmoil in
Meaning: Waiving - , Do without or cease to hold or Madhya Pradesh, Congress heavyweight known for
adhere to, Allocation - The act of distributing by his close proximity to Gandhi family and one of the
allotting or apportioning; distribution according to a scions of the Scindia royal family, Jyotiraditya
plan, Incentive - An additional payment (or other Scindia, today joined the BJP in the presence of the
Page 837 of 1079

party president J P Nadda who termed it a After disparaging remarks against the state
homecoming for the young leader. government, the Allahabad High Court on Sunday
14. The correct answer is B – Foul, Ordinance afternoon completed the hearing and reserved its order
Meaning: Foul - Offensively malodorous, Ordinance - until 2 pm on Monday in the case of the Uttar Pradesh
the act of conferring (or receiving) holy orders, Government putting up hoardings of reported anti-
Inclining – Be favorably towards something, CAA protesters with their photos, names, and
Propagandas – Information especially of a biased addresses across Lucknow.
nature 17. The correct answer is C – Pronged, Reconnaissance
The opposition parties in Andhra Pradesh are crying Meaning: Paced – To move or develop at a particular
foul over the punitive clauses brought in by the YS speed/rate, Advent – The arrival of a notable person or
Jagan Reddy government to the Panchayat Raj Act thing, Indulge – To allow oneself to enjoy the pleasure
through an ordinance that empowers the government of, Pronged - Resembling a fork; divided or separated
to disqualify any candidate before or after the into two branches, Reconnaissance - The act of
elections. scouting or exploring
15. The correct answer is C – Bickering, Owing As it works with Beijing to reduce tensions along the
Meaning: Presume – To believe something to be true Line of Actual Control in Ladakh, New Delhi has
based on its likeliness to something, Mutilated – To decided on a four pronged disengagement approach:
injure or disfigure, Horrendous – Extremely lower the public rhetoric, temporarily suspend
unpleasant or horrifying, bickering - Argue over petty patrolling of buffer zones by either side, mount
things, Owing - Owed as a debt sustained surveillance and reconnaissance of friction
Will bickering in the BJP in Madhya Pradesh over the points, and keep adequate troops in depth areas until
post of chief minister in the event of fall of Kamal the process is completed.
Nath government owing to deepening political turmoil 18. The correct answer is E – Swapped, Lapse
in the state triggered by a “banner of revolt” raised by Meaning: Tactics – An action or strategy carefully
some Congress MLAs against state leadership, bail it planned to achieve a specific end, Swapped -
out? Exchange or give (something) in exchange for, Lapse
16. The correct answer is D – Disparaging, Hoardings - A mistake resulting from inattention
Meaning: Disparaging - Expressive of low opinion, A day after a mix-up at the AIIMS mortuary led to
Hoardings - Large outdoor signboard bodies of two Covid patients being swapped, the
Page 838 of 1079

hospital has suspended a staffer and terminated the 22. The correct answer is C – Aggressive, Dethrone
services of another worker for the lapse. Meaning: Dethrone - Remove a monarch from the
19. The correct answer is A – Mustering, Sought throne, Instinct - Inborn pattern of behaviour often
Meaning: Offence – An illegal action, Casted – To responsive to specific stimuli
form or make something of something, Humiliation – The aggressive expansion of Chinese smartphone-
To make someone feel ashamed, Endeavor – An makers in India has helped the country dethrone the
attempt to achieve something, Mustering - Gather or US to become the second-largest smartphone market
bring together, Sought - That is looked for in the world.
Congress MP Jairam Ramesh cited difficulties in 23. The correct answer is D – Maiden, Leverage
mustering quorum for the meeting of the Standing Meaning: Accusing – Indicating a belief in
Committee on Science and Technology, Environment, someone’s guilt, Supremo – Of the highest authority
Forests and Climate Change and sought permission to or post, Maiden - Fresh, new, unused, Leverage - The
hold virtual meetings. mechanical advantage gained by being in a position to
20. The correct answer is B – Impose, Surge use a lever
Meaning: Impose - Compel to behave in a certain way, In her maiden budget last July, finance minister
Surge - Rise and move, as in waves or billows, Nirmala Sitharaman proposed to implement a series of
Inhibited – To prevent someone from doing something measures that would ‘leverage technology to make
by making nervous or embarrassed compliance easier for taxpayers’.
The West Bengal government will impose a lockdown 24. The correct answer is B – Probing, Fanning
in containment zones across the state for seven days Meaning: Probing - Diligent and thorough in inquiry
beginning 5 pm on Thursday to check the surge or investigation, Fanning - strike out
inCovid-19 cases. The Enforcement Directorate is probing a series of
21. The correct answer is A – Reiterating, Enforcing financial transactions involving the Popular Front of
Meaning: Reiterating - To say, state, or perform again, India (PFI) as part of a widening probe into the alleged
Enforcing - Ensure observance of laws and rules, role of the outfit in fanning protests against the
Advancement - The act of moving forward Citizenship (Amendment) Act.
While reiterating the compulsory use of masks in 25. The correct answer is E – Factions, Waged
public, Chouhan said that action will be taken against Meaning: Astonishing - Surprising greatly, Factions -
the shopping malls and offices that are not keeping Dissenting (especially dissenting with the
sanitisers and not enforcing distancing norms. majority opinion), Waged - Carry on
Page 839 of 1079

Assam government and Bodo representatives, Meaning: Watered – To encourage growing, Divest -
including all factions of National Democratic Front of Take away possessions, function, power or title
Bodoland that has waged a violent struggle, holds out A recommendation by the Finance Ministry to
prospects for peace with all sides reaffirming faith in overtook the Dehradun-based Wildlife Institute of
Assam’s territorial integrity. India (WII) of its status as an autonomous body of the
26. The correct answer is A – Ramping, Counter Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
Meaning: Ramping - Behave violently, as if in state of has triggered milestone among scientists at the
a great anger, Counter - Speak in response organisation.
With the European Parliament due to discuss a 30. The correct answer is B – Stellar, Benchmark
resolution sharply critical of the Citizenship Meaning: Glorious – Having a striking beauty or
(Amendment) Act on Wednesday, India is ramping splendor, Stellar - Indicating the most important
up diplomacy in Brussels and Strasbourg to counter performer or role, Benchmark - A standard by which
the move by hundreds of MEPs something can be measured or judged
27. The correct answer is E – Formally, Negate After a stellar performance in CBSE results, Delhi
Meaning: Ruckus – A noisy situation, Negate - Be in government school students have set another
contradiction with benchmark with 569 students qualifying in the
Punjab on Tuesday became the first State to formally National Eligibility cum-Entrance Test (NEET)
reject the Centre’s three recent agriculture sector laws, 31. The correct answer is B – Exuded, Pose
with its Assembly on Tuesday unanimously passing Meaning: Muted – Not loud, accompanied - to go with
three Bills to negate the Union legislation. someone, Accompanied - Having companions or an
28. The correct answer is B – Apprehension, Strayed escort, Exuded - , Make apparent by one's mood or
Meaning: Apprehension - Fearful expectation or behaviour, Tumult - A state of commotion and noise
anticipation, Strayed - Move about aimlessly or and confusion, Ionized - Converted totally or partly
without any destination, often in search of food or into ions
employment Madhya Pradesh Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)
China’s military has said that it was in touch with New president Ramakant Pippal has exuded confidence
Delhi over the apprehension of its soldier by the that the party would posea tough fight to the BJP and
Indian Army after he strayed across the Line of the Congress in the forthcoming by-election and
Actual Control (LAC) in Demchok sector. emerge as kingmaker.
29. The correct answer is C – Overtook, Milestone 32. The correct answer is A – Versatile, Planned
Page 840 of 1079

Meaning: Versatile - Having great diversity or variety, Europe's worried leaders are implementing frantic
Discriminate - Recognize or perceive the difference, measures to prevent the spread of the disease and
Refuted - Prove to be false or incorrect reduce the mortality rate.
Opposition from sections of Tamils has led to 36. The correct answer is B – Scarcely, Incumbent
versatile Tamil film star Vijay Sethupathi Meaning: Scarcely - Only a very short time before,
withdrawing from a planned biopic on the Sri Lankan Incumbent - Necessary (for someone) as a duty or
bowling legend, Muttiah Muralitharan. responsibility, Ran - Direct or control
33. The correct answer is D – Recombinant, Initial With scarcely two weeks of campaigning remaining
Meaning: Alluring – Extremely attractive or exciting, before voting day in the U.S. presidential election, it
Altered – To make changes, Recombinant - Of or appears that the Democratic challenger, former Vice
relating to recombinant DNA President Joe Biden, is building a considerable lead
Innovation is a recombinant and brings tangential over the incumbent, President Donald Trump.
benefits through products and services that may not 37. The correct answer is D – Rushing, Biblical
even have been its initial purpose. Meaning: Rushing - The act of moving hurriedly and
34. The correct answer is E – Practical, Drudgery in a careless manner, Biblical - Of or pertaining to or
Meaning: Chaos – Complete disorder or situation, contained in or in accordance with the Bible
Drudgery - Hard monotonous routine work With Republicans rushing to confirm a conservative
Advances in science when put to practical use mean Supreme Court nominee and Mr. Trump refusing to
more jobs, higher wages, shorter hours, more commit to a peaceful transition of power, the stage
abundant crops, more leisure for recreation, for study, may soon be set for a political showdown of biblical
for learning how to live without deadening drudgery proportions that sees the election outcome decided in
which has been the burden of the common man for court.
past ages. 38. The correct answer is A – Feigned, Diplomatic
35. The correct answer is A – Implementing, Mortality Meaning: Facilitate – to make something easy or
Meaning: Lately - Recently, Scolded – To behave possible, Interpretation – An explanation or a way of
angrily over a fault, Implementing - Ensure explanation, Feigned - Not genuine, Diplomatic -
observance of laws and rules, Mortality - The quality Relating to or characteristic of diplomacy, Nexus -
or state of being mortal, Punched - Deliver a quick The means of connection between things linked
blow to in series
Page 841 of 1079

M. Sivasankar feigned illness and got himself Vice-president Mike Pence's chief of staffs and four
admitted to a hospital where his wife worked to avoid other aides tested positive for the virus causing
questioning by the Customs in connection with the consternation in the pandemic healthcare fraternity.
diplomatic channel gold smuggling case. 42. The correct answer is E – Lagging, Mandate
39. The correct answer is A – Deliberate, Rational Meaning: Lagging - Hang (back) or fall (behind) in
Meaning: - Turn out – Someone or something movement, progress, development, etc., Mandate - a
eventually changing into something, Deliberate - document giving an official instruction or command
Carefully thought out in advance, Rational - Although Trump said that death rates have fallen
Consistent with or based on or using reason drastically, medical professionals indicated that
The commanders will also deliberate on a slew of mortality is a lagging dictator, and the lead expert in
long-pending reform measures like cutting down on the field called for a national mask mandate.
ceremonial practices and non-military activities to 43. The correct answer is C – Incumbent, Choice
ensure a rational distribution of resources. Meaning: Narrated – To deliver a commentary,
40. The correct answer is B – Hedging, Pundits Fabricated – Construct or manufacture from prepared
Meaning: Intimidated – To frighten or threaten components, Incumbent - Necessary (for someone) as
someone, Hedging - Avoid or try to avoid fulfilling, a duty or responsibility; morally binding
answering, or performing (duties, questions, or Doubling down on his assertion that the virus is going
issues), Pundits - An expert or critic in a particular away, the incumbent president is now telling voters
field who often presents their views to the media that the election is now a choice between "a Trump
After months of hedging caused by the upset in the super recovery and a Biden depression."
2016 Presidential elections, most pundits and 44. The correct answer is E – Pundit, Peddled
pollsters are coming around to project Donald Trump Meaning: Hoarding – A large board to display public
heading for a big defeat. advertisements in public places, Allotted – to give
41. The correct answer is C – Consternation, Fraternity something to someone, Pundit - Someone who has
Meaning: Consternation - Fear resulting from the been admitted to membership in a scholarly field,
awareness of danger, Fraternity - People engaged in a Peddled - Sell or offer for sale from place to place
particular occupation, Outlined - Showing clearly the The Indian-American political pundit Fareed Zakaria
outline, profile or boundary is among those who is predicting a Trump defeat,
saying it is unlikely voters will be susceptible to the
Page 842 of 1079

snake oil being peddled by a clever salesman for a Meaning: Standoff - The act of repulsing or repelling
second time. an attack; a successful defensive stand, Cope – to deal
45. The correct answer is D – Deposed, Meddling effectively with something
Meaning: Jolly – Happy and Cheerful, Deposed - Thackeray’s sharp comment comes after a standoff
Force to leave, Meddling - Intrusive in a meddling or with Maharashtra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari,
offensive manner who questioned the chief minister’s stance on
The deposed Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif attacked ‘Hindutva’ after he did not allow thereopening of
Pakistan’s powerful military commanders and religious places in the state.
accused them of meddling in in politics and toppling 49. The correct answer is E – Ramping, Assertiveness
governments, intensifying the pressure on Imran Meaning: Denied – Refusing for something, Flip – To
Khan's administration. move or push with a sudden quick movement,
46. The correct answer is B – Arbitration, Businesses Mandated - Assign under a mandate, Ramping -
Meaning: Arbitration - The act of deciding as an Behave violently, as if in state of a great anger,
arbiter; giving authoritative judgment, Rival - Be Assertiveness - Aggressive self-assurance; given to
equal to in quality or ability making bold assertions
Amazon had dragged Future to arbitration after the In the last few months, the US has been ramping up
Kishor Biyani group firm had agreed to sell attack on China over a range of contentious issues
businesses to billionaire Mukesh Ambani's Reliance. including the border row with India, its military
47. The correct answer is D – Blistering, Clanging assertiveness in the South China Sea and the way
Meaning: Obstructing - Hinder or prevent the progress Beijing handled the anti-government protests in Hong
or accomplishment of, Blistering - Harsh or corrosive Kong.
in tone, Clanging - Having a loud resonant metallic 50. The correct answer is B – Jeering, Astute
sound Meaning: Jeering - Abusing vocally; expressing
Launching a blistering attack on those who are contempt or ridicule, Astute - Marked by practical
questioning the Shiv Sena’s Hindutva, Maharashtra hardheaded intelligence, Implicated - Culpably
chief minister Uddhav Thackeray said Balasaheb involved
Thackeray’s Hindutva is not “clangingbells and Last week, as the Bihar Chief Minister and JD(U)
utensil” during his Dussehra speech on Sunday. chief lost his cool at a jeering crowd during a rally
48. The correct answer is A – Standoff, Reopening in Saran, that’s the question many asked — and, in
Page 843 of 1079

politically astute Bihar, believed they had the answer

to.
Error Spotting
Directions (1-10): The sentence is divided into four member state, including (C)/ Vietnam and the Philippines
parts. Find for any grammatical or contextual error in on the one hand, and China on the other. (D) /No error
the sentence. Mark that part as your answer. If the A) A
sentence is error free then mark “no error” as your B) B
answer. C) C
1) D) D
A) The automobile industry, the first E) No error
B) to feel the affect of an economic slowdown 5) When intellectuals can argue about (A)/ the sources of
C) has seen sales falling over Chinese conduct, peasants (B)/ with their common sense
D) the last two months (C)/ can point to answers lying in plain sight (D)/ No error
E) No error A) A
2) B) B
A) For people who admire C) C
B) the world’s oldest democracy D) D
C) the developments in the United States E) No error
D) have caused considerable concern. 6) The real challenge for Delhi in managing (A)/ its
E) No error expensive territorial dispute with Beijing, then (B)/ is to
3) redress the growing (C)/ error power imbalance with
A) The compulsion to unlock when infections have not China (D)/No error
peaked A) A
B) has already been placed the onus of remaining safe on B) B
people C) C
C) a significant section of whom have health D) D
D) vulnerabilities such as diabetes E) No error
E) No error. 7) The trajectory of fresh COVID-19 cases shows that (A)
4) Indonesia has consciously taken a (A)/ moderate tone / this was aggravated by the bungle response (B) / to the
on the territorial disputes (B)/ between its fellow ASEAN
Page 844 of 1079
concerns of migrant labor, exposing thousands of workers therefore only one of the parts other than the bold one
(C) / and their communities to infection (D)/ No error (E) is incorrect. You must choose the grammatically
A) A incorrect part as your answer. Choose e if you find out
B) B there is no error.
C) C 11) According to a communication by the a)/ ministry,
D) D it will be a bottom-up consultative b)/ process on the
E) No error branch level onwards c)/ which will involve discussions
8) at d)/ the branch level, state level and national level e)/
A) A good mission statement helps A.b
B) donors focus their philanthropic efforts B.c
C) avoiding the “peanut butter approach” C.d
D) where gifts are spreaded thinly over a wide area. D.e
E) No error E.No error
9) 12) It will also find solution for enhanced a)/ ease of living
A) Around the same time, the mechanization of spinning making banks most responsive b)/ to customers and
B) with weaving had revolutionized challenges before c)/ banks and their preparedness in areas
C) the textile industry in England such d)/ as cybersecurity and data analytics e)/
D) and the demand for American cotton soon became A.b
insatiable B.c
E) No error C.d
10) D.a
A) The differences in views between populists E.No error
B) and non-populists were even more pronounced 13) When asked if the industry has hit a)/ the rock bottom
C) than the differences between those in terms of sales, b)/ he said revival in the sense of
D) who place them on the ideological left and right. positive c)/ growth will start from third quarter of this d)/
E) No error fiscal, partly because of the low base effect e)/
Direction (11-15): In each of the questions given below A.c
a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts B.e
out of which one bold part is correct. There are no C.d
errors in three out of four remaining parts and D.a
Page 845 of 1079

E.No error there is a comprehensive resolution (c)/, without some

14) A leading newspaper commented that the a)/ top organ haircut to the lenders, as has (d)/ been speculated by few
of the world body's current composition b)/ does not seem sections of the media (e)/
to favour Islamabad as the c)/ Council discussing India's A.b
revocation of d)/ the special status to Jammu and B.c
Kashmir e)/ C.d
A.b D.e
B.c E.No error
C.d 17) An amount that an investor pays a)/for a stake in a
D.a startup or a new-age b)/company could include an
E.No error insurance c)/premium for certain rights like d)/
15) The Indian trade and business a)/ prowess in the liquidation preference and anti-dilution protection e)
OIC member states is b)/ relatively too large to be ignored A.b
c)/ by its trading partners none of whom d)/ is currently B.c
paying any heed to pleas e)/ C.a
A.b D.e
B.c E.No error
C.a 18) India’s merchandise exports contracted for a)/the first
D.e time in nine months in June signalling b)/that rising
E.No error protectionism and trade c)/ tensions between the US and
Direction (16-20): In each of the questions given below China d)/are impacting India trade prospects as well e)/
a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts A.b
out of which one bold part is correct. There are no B.e
errors in three out of four remaining parts and C.d
therefore only one of the parts other than the bold one D.a
is incorrect. You must choose the grammatically E.No error
incorrect part as your answer. Choose ‘E’ if you find 19) The release of cash flow from existed a)/accounts will
out there is no error. be used for servicing financial b)/and operational
16) DHFL wrote to stock exchanges that (a)/it was creditors, utilisation of c)/surplus cash and preference to
closely working with the stakeholders to (b)/ensure that
Page 846 of 1079

secured lenders d)/over unsecured lenders in case of a E.e

shortfall e) 22) To mitigate such risks for foreign banks, the a)/ loans
A.b would be given sovereign guarantees and being
B.e routed b)/ through Indian government agencies such as
C.d the c)/ Small Industries Development Bank of India, the
D.a first official said d)/ no error e)/
E.No error A.a
20) Shadow banks that lent heavy to a)/developers in B.b
recent years are among b)/the worst hit, as the recovery C.c
in c)/housing sales remains tepid amid a slowdown d)/in D.d
the nation’s economic growth e)/ E.e
A.b 23) In an interview, Rajan confirmed he hadn’t a)/ sought
B.c the position and cite the fact that b)/ central banking has
C.d become much more political c)/ in recent times as an
D.a explanation for why not d)/ no error e)/
E.No error A.a
Direction (21-25): Each of the following sentences are B.b
divided into parts, which are marked a, b, c and d. One C.c
of these parts may contain an error. Mark that part as D.d
your answer from the options given below and choose E.e
e if you find out there is no error. 24) He left India central bank after just a)/ one term amid
21) A spokesman for World Bank in India said heavy criticism from segments b)/ of the government for
the a)/ discussions with the government were in the offering opinions c)/ on matters unrelated to monetary
early b)/ stages, adding that farther rounds of policy d)/ no error e)/
consultations c)/ will help us define the contours of this A.a
collaboration d)/ no error e)/ B.b
A.a C.c
B.b D.d
C.c E.e
D.d
Page 847 of 1079

25) A company statement said at the end of a 28)

meeting a)/ of the board of directors here that A.By as they say about details, digging deep
shareholder b)/ nod will be sought at an annual general B.in the fund house’s numbers show
meeting c)/ for expanding the directorships to enable C.that stellar profits are only because of a
this d)/ no error e)/ D.regulatory ruling on commissions
A.a E.No error
B.b 29)
C.c A.The royalty rate is calculated by the firm and
D.d B.than used to arrive at a brand value that is
E.e C.equivalent to the net economic benefit that a licensor
Direction (26-30): In the question below, a sentence is D.would derive by licensing the brand in the open market
given divided into four parts, out of which one may E.No error
contain a grammatical error. From the options, choose 30)
the one that contains the error. In case the sentence is A.Defection is condemnable, especially if it is to
correct as it is, choose ‘No error’ as your answer. B.bring down one regime and form another but
26) C.politicians cannot be tied of to parties against their
A.The Bimal Jalan panel set up to review the economic D.will by not letting them leave even their legislative
B.capital framework of the Reserve Bank of India has positions
decided E.No error
C.to recommend transfer of excess reserves to the Direction (31-35): In each of the questions given below
government on a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts
D.a period of three to five years based on a pre-determined out of which one bold part is correct. There are no
formula errors in three out of four remaining parts and
E.No error therefore only one of the parts other than the bold one
27) is incorrect. You must choose the grammatically
A.The firm calculates the value of brands in its league incorrect part as your answer. Choose E if you find out
B.tables using the royalty relief approach which estimates there is no error.
C.like future sales that are attributable to a brand based 31) The bank consolidation exercise is going a)/ on as the
D.on the royalty rate that would be charged for its use objective is to bring the number b)/ of RRBs to 38, they
E.No error said, adding c)/ that some more consolidations will take
Page 848 of 1079

place d)/ as state governments have gave their go- A.b

ahead e)/ B.e
A.b C.d
B.e D.a
C.d E.No error
D.a 35) The union government is also exploring a)/ extending
E.No error soft loans to state power b)/ distribution companies to
32) The uncertainty forced the political a)/ class to deploy energy c)/ storage and battery solutions and
remain focused on the crisis b)/ in the power corridors create d)/ an utility scale market for the same e)/
than on the c)/ drought, acute drinking water shortage d)/ A.b
and other more press concerns of the state e)/ B.c
A.b C.a
B.c D.e
C.d E.No error
D.e Direction (36-40): In each of the questions given below
E.No error a sentence is given which is then divided into five parts
33) RIL will soon hire distributors to a)/ sell private-label out of which one bold part is correct. There are no
brands owned by its b)/ retail unit through errors in three out of four remaining parts and
neighbourhood c)/ store, as billionaire aims to boost therefore only one of the parts other than the bold one
the d)/ contribution of the company’s consumer is incorrect. You must choose the grammatically
business e)/ incorrect part as your answer. Choose e if you find out
A.b there is no error.
B.e 36) The two sides confirmed they had a)/ discussed
C.d increased Chinese imports of U.S. b)/ agricultural
D.a products, which have fallen c)/ dramatically this year, and
E.No error that d)/ they would meet again in Washington e)/
34) With the newly elected government a)/ articulated its A.b
vision for reliable b)/ and uninterrupted power supply B.c
to c)/ households in its second term, storage holds d)/ the C.d
key for providing on-demand electricity e)/ D.a
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E.No error their products, which they d)/ want to share with the core
37) Rising economic uncertainties, a)/ slowdown in committee e)/
fresh investments and b)/ stress in the non-bank A.b
lending c)/ space damp demand from d)/ both urban and B.e
rural consumers e)/ C.d
A.b D.a
B.c E.No error
C.d Direction (41-46): The sentences may contain multiple
D.e errors, find out which part of sentence has an error
E.No error and mark the option given below as (a), (b), (c) and (d).
38) The high insurance costs, rise in taxes and a)/ liquidity Choose E as an option if you find out that sentence has
crunch in the non-banking finance b)/ segment, no error.
tightening of lending c)/ norms have significantly 41) The move assume significance as concerns have A)/
affected d)/ the domestic sales in the last few months e)/ been raised by certain quarters about the restrictive
A.b clauses B)/ been imposed against domestic
B.e manufacturers and C)/ suppliers in tender documents
C.d for public procurement D)/ NO ERROR E)/
D.a A.A and B
E.No error B.C and D
39) The lenders have reservations a)/ about releasing a C.A and C
month’s salary b)/ for Jet Airways staff as sought c)/ by D.B and D
several worker unions, said another d)/ person aware of E.NO ERROR
the matter e)/ 42) Under the Public Procurement Order, it was A)/
A.b envisaged that all central departments controlled by
B.e B)/ the Government of India should ensure purchase
C.d C)/ preference be given to domestic suppliers in
D.c government procurement D)/ NO ERROR E)/
E.No error A.B and C
40) The companies have now communicated a)/ that they B.A and D
have sufficient data b)/ to show the superiority c)/ of C.A and C
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D.B and D D.B and D

E.NO ERROR E.NO ERROR
43) A national medical commission will be set A)/ up in 46) Most of the decline in employment have
place of MCI that could have responsibilities such B)/ A)/happened due to the fall in the number of
as approving and assessing medical colleges, conduct B)/worker in agriculture and a sharp fall in C)/ the
C)/ common MBBS entrance and regulating medical absolute number of female workers D)/NO ERROR
course fees D)/ NO ERROR E)/ E)/
A.B and C A.B and C
B.A and D B.A and D
C.A and B C.A and C
D.C and D D.B and D
E.NO ERROR E.NO ERROR
44) The fraternity is opposing the section stated A)/ Direction (47-50): Each of the following sentences are
that it will encourage quackery by providing licence to divided into parts, which are marked a, b, c and d. One
B)/ practice modern medicine as community health C)/ of these parts may contain an error. Mark that part as
providers for persons other than those possess degrees your answer from the options given below and choose
D)/ NO ERROR E)/ E if you find out there is no error.
A.B and C 47) This would ease the liquidity stress in the
B.A and D NBFC a)/ sector and increase the access to bank finance
C.A and B and b)/ in turn, would enable them to continue to
D.C and D play c)/ their role in meeting the finance requirements of
E.NO ERROR the economy d)/ no error e)/
45) This summer the bigger victim has been Chennai A.a
A)/ but almost all big cities in the country are equally B.b
at B)/ risk as India rapidly urbanize, demand for water C.c
C)/ is increasing and supply is struggling to keep up D.d
D)/ NO ERROR E)/ E.e
A.A and C 48) The housing finance company today a)/ said it’s
B.A and B proposed resolution plan seeks moratorium b)/ on
C.C and D
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repayments but lenders will have to c)/ take no haircuts on C.c

the principal amount of their loans d)/ no error e)/ D.d
A.a E.e
B.b 50) The government has kept the minimum of a)/ half of
C.c the recommended level and allowed states b)/ to fix their
D.d own wages, missing a historic opportunity c)/ to create a
E.e fair and standardized national labour market d)/ no
49) India Inc has turned in its much error e)/
disappointing a)/ quarterly numbers in at least three A.a
years b)/ and analysts warn hopes for any festive B.b
season c)/ cheer are likely to be dashed by a slowing C.c
economy d)/ no error e)/ D.d
A.a E.e
B.b
Error Spotting - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: B The compulsion to unlock when infections have not
The automobile industry, the first to feel the effect of an peaked has already placed the onus of remaining safe on
economic slowdown, has seen sales falling over the last people, a significant section of whom have health
two months. vulnerabilities such as diabetes.
Affect is usually a verb, and it means to impact or It simply refers àThe compulsion to unlock has placed
change. Effect is usually a noun; an effect is the result of the onus. of remaining safe on people.
a change. The compulsion to unlock has been placed the onus. of
Effect of an economic slowdown à Result of the remaining safe on people. (incorrect), it is in passive
slowdown (HAS+ BEEN + V3), but we need active form (HAS +
2) Answer: E V3),
For people who admire the world’s oldest democracy the It’s an active voice. So been is redundant here.
developments in the United States have caused 4) Answer: C
considerable concern. Indonesia has consciously taken a moderate tone on the
No error. territorial disputes between its fellow ASEAN member
3) Answer: B
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states, including Vietnam and the Philippines on the one The trajectory of fresh COVID-19 cases shows that this
hand, and China on the other. was aggravated by the bungled response to the concerns
States is the correct usage. The statement talks about many of migrant labor, exposing thousands of workers and their
States like Vietnam, Philippines, China communities to infection.
5) Answer: A BEFORE A NOUN(RESPONSE) WE NEED
Both while and when are used when two things happen ADJECTIVE(BUNGLED).
at the same time, but we tend to use while with two 8) Answer: D
continuous actions and when with two single actions A good mission statement helps donors focus their
(one after another). philanthropic efforts avoiding the “peanut butter
Right now, I’m recording a video while my husband is approach” where gifts are spread thinly over a wide area.
working. We have two continuous actions, I’m recording Three forms of spread -
and my husband is working. Base Form (Infinitive): Spread
when I get home, I take off my shoes. That’s also two
single actions. I get home and I take off my shoes. Past Simple: Spread
I picked up the phone when it rang. First, the phone rang,
and then immediately I picked up the phone. Past Participle: Spread
While intellectuals can argue about the sources of Chinese
So spreaded is incorrect.
conduct, peasants with their common sense can point to
9) Answer: B
answers lying in plain sight
Around the same time, the mechanization of spinning and
Action 1. intellectuals can argue about the sources
weaving had revolutionized the textile industry in
Action 2. peasants with their common sense can point to
England, and the demand for American cotton soon
answers
became insatiable.
Both action takes place at the same time. So, while is
With is incorrect usage. And is the best connector.
used.
Spinning and weaving are two different processes. So we
6) Answer: B
need and in between them.
The real challenge for Delhi in managing its expansive
10) Answer: D
territorial dispute with Beijing, then, is to redress the
The differences in views between populists and non-
growing power imbalance with China.
populists were even more pronounced than the differences
Expansive- widened, expensive – costly
between those who place themselves on the ideological
7) Answer: B
left and right.
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Place needs reflective pronoun (as object) after it. In part c in place of ‘farther’(distance, comparative form
Reflexive pronouns are words ending in -self or -selves of ‘far’) it should be ‘further’ (additional to what already
that are used when the subject and the object of a exists).
sentence are the same (e.g., I believe in myself, I hate 22) Answer: B
myself) In part b in place of ‘being’ it should be, ‘be’ (will/would
11) Answer: B + be + V3[passive voice])
In part c in place of ‘on’ it should be ‘from’ 23) Answer: B
12) Answer: A In part b in place of ‘cite’ it should be ‘cited’ (HAD+
In part b in place of ‘most’ it should be ‘more’ V3[CITED])
13) Answer: B 24) Answer: A
In part e in place of ‘low’ it should be ‘lower’ In part a in place of ‘India’ it should be
14) Answer: C ‘India’s’(possessive)
In part d in place of ‘discussing’ it should be ‘discusses’ 25) Answer: E
15) Answer: A No error
In part b in place of ‘in’ it should be ‘within’ 26) Answer: C
16) Answer: C In part c in place of ‘on’ it should be ‘over’
In part d in place of ‘some’ it should be ‘any’. 27) Answer: C
[NEGATIVE WORD (WITHOUT)+ ANY] In part c in place of ‘like’ it should be ‘likely’
17) Answer:E 28) Answer: B
No error In part b in place of ‘in’ it should be ‘into’ ( ‘into’ is used
18) Answer: B to give the sense of ‘from outside to inside’)
In part e in place of ‘India’ it should be ‘India’s’ 29) Answer: B
19) Answer:D In part b in place of ‘than’ it should be ‘then’ (‘than’ shows
In part a in place of ‘existed’ it should be ‘existing’ comparison, ‘then’ shows time)
20) Answer:D 30) Answer: C
In part a in place of ‘heavy’ it should be In part c in place of ‘of’ it should be ‘down’ (‘tie down’ –
‘heavily’ [VERB(LENT) + ADVERB(HEAVILY)] attach)
21) Answer: C 31) Answer: B
In part E in place of ‘gave’ it should be ‘given’[ HAVE +
V3]
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32) Answer: D NO ERROR

In part E in place of ‘press’ it should ‘pressing’ [ AFTER 43) Answer: A
‘MORE’ WE NEED ADJECTIVE] In part b) it should be will instead of could and in part c)
33) Answer: C it should be conducting in place of conduct
In part D in place of ‘store’ it should be ‘stores’ 44) Answer: B
34) Answer: A In part a) it should be stating instead of stated and in part
In part B in place of ‘articulated’ it should be ‘articulating’ d) it should be possessing in place of possess
No error In part a) it should be biggest instead of bigger and in part
36) Answer: A c) it should be urbanizes in place of urbanize
In part B in place of ‘increased’ it should be ‘increasing’ 46) Answer: C
[PRESENT PARTICIPLE(V+ING) SHOULD BE USED In part a) it should be has instead of have and in part c) it
IN THIS TYPE OF CASES] should be workers in place of worker
In part D in place of ‘damp’ it should ‘damped’(past In part d in place of ‘finance’ it should be ‘financing’
participle(v3), which acts as an adjective) [‘FINANCE’(VERB) = PROVIDE FUNDING, HERE
38) Answer: A WE NEED A SUBJECT, SO, THE GERUND FORM
In part B in place of ‘in’ it should be ‘across’ (FINANCING) SHOULD BE USED HERE]
In part C in place of ‘Airways’ it should be ‘Airways’ ’ In part b in place of ‘it’s’, it should be ‘its’[IT’S= IT IS/
40) Answer: E ITS= POSSESSIVE]
No error 49) Answer: A
41) Answer: C In part a in place of ‘much’ it should be ‘most’
In part a) it should be assumes instead of assume and in 50) Answer: A
part c) it should be being in place of been In part a in place of ‘of’ it should be ‘at’. [BEFORE
42) Answer: E ‘LEVEL’ WE SHOULD USE ‘AT’]
Usage of words
In the questions given below, a word is written on top word is used correctly. Mark your answer from
and thereafter there are three sentences with this word options.
used in them. Find the sentence/sentences where this 1. Convict
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(I) The old man was living as a convict, submitting as he (II) The company president made a wise decision to
should and doing no wrong. acceded to consumer pressure and lower the prices of his
(II) About a mile to the south is the convict prison for goods.
Scotland. (III) Perhaps the congressmen should acceding to the
(III) The judges and lawyers began to question the legality president’s demands so the budget crisis can be averted.
of his ordinances, and to doubt their competency to a. Both I and II
convicted royalist prisoners of treason. b. Both II and III
a. Only I c. Only I
b. Both I and II d. Only III
c. Only II e. None of these
d. Both I and III 4. Exhort
e. None of these (I) While I cannot force you to drive the speed limit, I
2. Usher exhort you to do so or else you might end up in jail.
(I) The bullfrogs trump to ushered in the night, and the (II) A good leader will exhorting people to achieve their
note of the whip-poor-will is borne on the rippling wind own forms of greatness rather than try to force them on a
from over the water. certain path.
(II) At length the day dawned which, according to the (III) In her monthly speech, the school counselor will
prophecies, was to ushering in the terrestrial paradise. exhort the students to plan for their futures so they will be
(III) The use of satin for undergarments started to become prepared for life.
popular in the 1940s, ushering in a new era of lingerie. a. Only II
a. Only II b. Both I and III
b. Both II and III c. Only III
c. Only III d. Only I
d. Both I and II e. None of these
e. None of these 5. Traitor
3. Accede (I) When Lydia’s ex betrayed her trust by telling everyone
(I) At your insistence and to avoid a prolonged argument, her deepest secret, she had no choice but to dump the
I will accede to your contract terms. traitor.
(II) The police apprehended the traitored to the throne
and tried him for treason.
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(III) Ally turned traitor when he sold important c. Both I and II

government secrets to the highest bidder. d. Both II and III
a. All are correct e. None of these
b. Both I and III 8. Thrash
c. Only III (I) Three shaggy-haired men thrashing tunelessly at their
d. Both I and II guitars.
e. None of these (II) Salmon thrash their tails and leap from the water.
6. Outpour (III) We still have to get together and thrashed out the
(I) One positive thing to come out of the ordeal was the details.
outpoured of support after the church made the graffiti a. Only I
public on Facebook b. Only III
(II) the biggest surprise of this year’s covid-19 public c. Only II
health crisis may be a sudden outpoured of love for tofu. d. Both I and II
(III) The news of his death produced an instant outpoured e. None of these
of grief. 9. Utter
a. Only I (I) This company treats its employees with uttered
b. All are correct contempt.
c. Both I and II (II) The meeting was a complete and utterous waste of
d. Both II and III time.
e. None of these (III) It's utter folly to go swimming in this cold weather.
7. Endure a. Both II and III
(I) That which was bitter to enduring may be sweet to b. All are correct
remember. c. Only III
(II) Death comes to all, but great achievements raise a d. Both I and II
monument which shall endure until the sun grows old. e. None of these
(III) The conditions of conquest are always easy. We have 10. Perturbed
but to toil awhile, endure awhile, believe always, and (I) I am deeply perturb by the alarming way the situation
never turn back. developing.
a. Only III (II) He apparently was not perturb by the prospect of a
b. All are correct policeman coming to call.
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(III) She seemed a little perturbed by these rumors. (I) The club members voted with one accord to raise the
a. Both I and II dues.
b. Only III (II) Such an act would not be in accord with our policy.
c. Only I (III) What he has just said does not accord with the views
d. Both I and III of the majority.
e. None of these a. Both I and III
11. Fragile b. Only I
(I) The oil spill caused terrible damage to the fragile c. All are correct
ecology of the coast. d. Only III
(II) The nurse was handling his fragile emotions very e. None of these
carefully. 14. Vigil
(III) Her father is now 86 and in fragilous health. (I) His parents kept vigilant beside his bed for weeks
a. Both I and II before he died.
b. Only I (II) Eva and Paul kept a constant vigiling by their
c. All are correct daughter's hospital bedside.
d. Only III (III) Protesters are holding a twenty-four hour vigil
e. None of these outside the socialist party headquarters.
12. Sedition a. Only III
(I) Trade Union leaders were charged with seditious. b. All are correct
(II) The clubs were suspected of being centres of c. Both I and II
seditioning. d. Only II
(III) The charges were preaching sedition in three e. None of these
published articles. 15. Menace
a. All are correct (I) A man who drives fast is a menaced to other people.
b. Both I and II (II) It's the only way to deal with the menace of drug
c. Only III dealing.
d. Both II and III (III) Shop owners are struggling to combat the menace of
e. None of these armed robbery.
13. Accord a. Both II and III
b. Only I
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c. Only II (II) And so, um, he was very cognizant of what he was
d. Both I and III doing and why he did it.
e. None of these (III) I'm cognizant of the fact that your client has tried to
16. Wage pay the debt.
(I) The government would not intervene in private-sector a. Both I and II
wage bargaining. b. Only III
(II) The employers and strikers had deadlocked over the c. All are correct
waged. d. Both II and III
(III) The minimum wage was set at ￡3.20 an hour. e. None of these
a. All are correct 19. Probe
b. Only II (I) The police probed into organized crime led to several
c. Both I and III arrests.
d. Only III (II) I don't want to probe too deeply into your personal
e. None of these affairs.
17. Rued (III) Arson probing after three die at home.
(I) He rueing the day that he rode the motorcycle because a. Only I
he fell off and broke his leg. b. Only II
(II) They never cursed the instrument or rued its long rule c. All are correct
over their lives. d. Only III
(III) Indeed, more than one ground commander rued the e. None of these
day the helicopter was invented. 20. Albeit
a. All are correct (I) Charles's letter was indeed published, albeiting in a
b. Only I somewhat abbreviated form.
c. Both II and III (II) It was a very entertaining, albeit fabricated, film.
d. Only III (III) A sense of identity and belonging is created albeit
e. None of these with the aid of alcohol or drugs that lowers our inhibitions.
18. Cognizant a. Only I
(I) Even the lengthy deliberations of the convention were b. Both II and III
cognizant of sound weather planning, namely, finishing c. Only II
before winter arrived. d. Both I and II
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e. None of these c. All are correct

21. Reluctance d. Only I
(I) I noticed a certain reluctant among the teachers. e. None of these
(II) She showed considerable reluctant to leave. 24. Strangle
(III) He showed great reluctanting to reveal his (I) The murderer did strangle the victim with his hands
whereabouts. leaving his fingerprints on her neck.
a. All are correct (II) Boa constrictors wrap their bodies around their
b. Both II and III victims tightly and strangle them to death by squeezing
c. Only I the throat
d. Both I and III (III) During the hanging, the rope had been placed on the
e. None of these neck of the supposed “witch” and she did strangled to
22. Render death.
(I) The conquered had to render tribute to the conqueror. a. Both I and II
(II) The sages of ancient times taught us to render good b. Only II
for evil. c. Only I
(III) It's a concept that is difficult to render into English. d. Both II and III
a. Only II e. None of these
b. Both I and II 25. Poach
c. Only III (I) After being caught hunting animals illegally, the party
d. All are correct was given a fine for poach and their guns were seized.
e. None of these (II) Mom chose to poach the egg in a small amount of
23. Evade water instead of frying it in bacon grease.
(I) He managed to evade capture because of the (III) The chef decided to poached the peaches by slowly
breakdown of a police computer. steaming them in white wine and fruit juice.
(II) Delegates accused them of trying to evade a. All are correct
responsibility for the failures of the past five years. b. Both I and III
(III) They left their villages to evade being press-ganged c. Only II
into the army. d. All are correct
a. Only II e. None of these
b. Only III 26. Slur
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(I) The drunk patron started to slurring and mumbled his (III) Because the experiment had been performed over a
words as he stumbled around the bar. hundred times, a great deal of credence was given to the
(II) Barely able to hold her eyes open, the sleepy woman results.
began to slur her words and overrun her syllables. a. Only I
(III) Toddlers often slurrous when they speak and run b. All are correct
their sentences into each other when they talk. c. Both I and III
a. Only II d. Only II
b. Both I and III e. None of these
c. All are correct 29. Choke
d. Both I and II (I) If food gets stuck in your windpipe, you will inevitably
e. None of these choking until it is removed.
27. Prone (II) If someone wrap their hands around your neck too
(I) Jack is proned to be quite talkative after he has tightly, you will choke.
consumed several beers. (III) With no air to breathe, the astronaut began to choke
(II) During allergy season, Cara is prones to having a when his visor cracked.
couple of asthma attacks each day. a. Both I and II
(III) College students are prone to homesickness during b. All are correct
their first week away from home. c. Only III
a. Both I and III d. Both II and III
b. Both II and III e. None of these
c. All are correct 30. Flurry
d. Only III (I) Even the kids knew that the small flurry of snow was
e. None of these not enough to get school called off.
28. Credence (II) As the flurrous of leaves drifted to the ground, it
(I) Since you have a history of lying, I find it difficult to would only be a short time before it covered the ground.
give credence to anything you tell me. (III) With the flurry of snow coming down harder, it
(II) Nobody in the courtroom gave any credencing to the became difficult to drive and to see the road.
drunk’s testimony. a. Only II
b. Both I and III
c. Both I and II
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d. Both II and III (I) Cara foolishly believed defaulting on her student loans
e. None of these would nullify her obligation to pay them and allow her to
31. Impugn spend her extra money on other things.
(I) The mayor leaked news of the arrest to the media to (II) Since the highest court in the land has said states
impugn his opponent’s character. cannot nullify gay marriages, many homosexuals have
(II) How dare you impugn the integrity of our local gotten married to celebrate the decision.
councilman simply because of a Twitter rumor! (III) The neighborhood has made an attempt to nullifying
(III) When the prosecutor tried to impugnous the the real estate developer’s plans by protesting outside of
defendant’s character, the defense lawyer jumped to his city hall.
feet and made an objection. a. Both II and III
a. Only III b. All are correct
b. All are correct c. Both I and II
c. Only I d. Only III
d. Both I and II e. None of these
e. None of these 34. Stride
32. Effigy (I) When the interviewers saw their next candidate stride
(I) Mitch’s psychiatrist suggested he burn a small effiging into the room with confidence they automatically
of his abusive father so he could let go of his rage. considered him a serious contender.
(II) After the quarterback made a fumble that cost his team (II) Belle watched Gaston stride around the room as if he
the big game, he saw his fans burn an effigous made in his owned it and was repulsed by his arrogance.
likeness. (III) The model adopted a quick stride that showed off her
(III) As soon as the citizens learned their brutal leader was long legs and exuded confidence as she walked the
dead, they burned an effigy of his image. runway.
a. Both I and II a. Both I and III
b. Only III b. Only I
c. All are correct c. Both I and II
d. Only II d. All are correct
33. Nullify 35. Enunciate
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(I) When Will was intoxicated, he was hard to (II) A wrestler is taught to grappled his opponent to
understand because he did not enunciating his achieve victory.
statements. (III) It might not be the best idea to grapple with someone
(II) The speech coach reminded the students to enunciate twice your size.
their words so people could comprehend what they were a. Only III
saying. b. All are correct
(III) As the teacher gave instructions, she was careful to c. Both I and III
enunciated each step of the process so her young students d. Both I and II
would not be confused. e. None of these
a. Both I and III 38. Nuance
b. All are correct (I) In order to learn about the birds, the scientists have to
c. Only I keep track of every nuanced which makes the birds
d. Only II different from one another.
e. None of these (II) Although I have not seen Helen in fifteen years, I can
36. Dissent still recall every nuances of her voice.
(I) More than likely, my father will dissenting with the (III) To solve the puzzle in the newspaper, you need to
idea I am old enough to set my own curfew. identify the nuance in the two seemingly identical
(II) The union is going to dissent with management’s pictures.
offer of a small pay increase. a. Only III
(III) It is a teacher’s job to challenge her students and to b. All are correct
urge them to dissent against theories that cannot be c. Both I and II
proven. d. Only I
a. Both II and III e. None of these
b. All are correct 39. Obdurate
c. Both I and II (I) Despite the defendant’s apology, the judge was
d. Only II obduratous and gave him a thirty-year sentence.
e. None of these (II) Because Janice was obdurate, she did not shed a
37. Grapple single tear while hearing the tragic story.
(I) With his wife out of town, he knew he would have to (III) Wise beyond his seven years, Henry knew his mother
grappled with the kids all week. was too obdurate to be affected by his tears.
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a. Both II and III (I) We all started to inflate our balloons and eventually
b. Both I and III one burst.
c. Only III (II) The principal effect of the demand for new houses was
d. All are correct to inflate prices
e. None of these (III) Auto accident cases inflate insurance premiums for
40. Congest every-one and cause endless delays in payments to the
(I) Congesting from an infection, the woman’s infected injured
lungs caused her to be admitted to the hospital. a. Only I
(II) An easy ten-minute stroll removed them from the b. Both II and III
congested downtown c. Both I and II
(III) When the man spoke, Tom had the feeling the dainty d. All are correct
nose must be a bit congested. e. None of these
a. Only II 43. Concede
b. Only I (I) Since he was trailing behind, the politician decided to
c. Both I and II concede the election to his
d. Both II and III (II) As my teacher stared at me, I had to concede I had not
e. None of these studied for the exam.
41. Agitate (III) Even though I hate to conceding with you, I have to
(I) The thought of questioning Toby agitatous him admit this trip is going much better than I expected
extremely a. Only III
(II) The women who worked in these mills had begun to b. All are correct
agitated for better conditions. c. Only I
(III) The Mahatma always obeyed the prison rules strIctly d. Both I and II
as well as his own rule not to agitate from prison. e. None of these
a. Only III 44. Immaculate
b. Both I and III (I) His immaculated garden was a reproach to all his less
c. All are correct organized neighbours.
d. Only I (II) That wild sky and those immaculate rivers come
e. None of these flooding, literally, across the border.
42. Inflate
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(III) Julie ambled happily down the long immaculated e. None of these
front lawn, bordered on each side by miniature fruit trees. 47. Grope
a. Only III (I) He groaned inwardly, and began to grope along his
b. All are correct side table, trying to find the receiver.
c. Both I and II (II) The trees that stood around us seemed to grope
d. Only II around, like evil spirits searching for souls.
e. None of these (III) I didn't turn on the light, but groped my way across
45. Embellish the room.
(I) He says the truth is sensational enough without anyone a. Only III
having to embellish it b. Both I and III
(II) Some of the hedgehogs embellishous their self- c. Only I
protection with an upward jerking movement. d. All are correct
(III) Ten volunteers hit embellish unitedly for an e. None of these
exceptional test 48. Immerse
a. Both I and III (I) The actor is a perfectionist who tries to immerse
b. Only I himself into all the characters he plays.
c. Both II and III (II) As part of her sociology thesis, Helen will immerse
d. All are correct herself in Japanese culture by living in Japan for six
e. None of these months
46. Stipple (III) Heather will immerses herself in her job to prove she
(I) The sphere was finely stipplous, pocked here and there deserves a promotion
with hatches or spiked with communication towers a. Only II
(II) The walls were stippled with some kind of wartime b. Only I
stucco that had the texture of dried oatmeal. c. Both I and II
(III) She tried to create the impression of strong sunlight d. Both II and III
by stippling the canvas in yellow and white. e. None of these
a. Both II and III 49. Foster
b. Both I and II (I) The professor hoped to foster a genuine interest in his
c. Only III students to pursue research.
d. All are correct
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(II) You should make sure to foster friendliness and (I) Fortunately, the baby fell back onto the soft carpet after
opening in your children trying to clamber up the steps.
(III) She hoped to foster a vegetable garden that could (II) When the inmate was unable to clamberd over the
sustain her family fence, he was quickly caught by guards.
a. Only III (III) The tiny kitten was cute as it tried to clamber up the
b. Both I and III couch
c. All are correct a. All are correct
d. Only I b. Only I
e. None of these c. Both I and II
50. Clamber d. Both I and III
e. None of these
Usage of words - Answers with Explanation

1. The correct answer is b – Both I and II (III) Perhaps the congressmen should accede to the
The corrected sentence is – president’s demands so the budget crisis can be averted.
(III) The judges and lawyers began to question the legality 4. The correct answer is b – Both I and III
of his ordinances, and to doubt their competency to The corrected sentence is -
convict royalist prisoners of treason. (II) A good leader will exhort people to achieve their own
2. The correct answer is c – Only III forms of greatness rather than try to force them on a
The corrected sentences are – certain path.
(I) The bullfrogs trump to usher in the night, and the note 5. The correct answer is b – Both I and III
of the whip-poor-will is borne on the rippling wind from The corrected sentence is –
over the water. (II) The police apprehended the traitor to the throne and
(II) At length the day dawned which, according to the tried him for treason.
prophecies, was to usher in the terrestrial paradise. 6. The correct answer is e – None of these
3. The correct answer is c – Only I The corrected sentences are –
The corrected sentences are – (I) One positive thing to come out of the ordeal was the
(II) The company president made a wise decision to outpouring of support after the church made the graffiti
accede to consumer pressure and lower the prices of his public on Facebook
goods. (II) The biggest surprise of this year’s covid-19 public
health crisis may be a sudden outpouring of love for tofu.
Page 866 of 1079
(III) The news of his death produced an instant outpouring The corrected sentences are –
of grief. (I) His parents kept vigil beside his bed for weeks before
7. The correct answer is d – Both II and III he died.
The corrected sentence is – (II) Eva and Paul kept a constant vigil by their daughter's
(I) That which was bitter to endure may be sweet to hospital bedside.
remember. 15. The correct answer is a – Both II and III
8. The correct answer is c – Only II The corrected sentence is –
The corrected sentences are – (I) A man who drives fast is a menace to other people.
(I) Three shaggy-haired men thrash tunelessly at their 16. The correct answer is c – Both I and III
guitars. The corrected sentence is –
(III) We still have to get together and thrash out the details. (II) The employers and strikers had deadlocked over the
9. The correct answer is c – Only III wage.
The corrected sentences are – 17. The correct answer is c – Both II and III
(I) This company treats its employees with utter contempt. The corrected sentence is –
(II) The meeting was a complete and utter waste of time. (I) He rued the day that he rode the motorcycle because he
10. The correct answer is b – Only III fell off and broke his leg.
The corrected sentences are – 18. The correct answer is c – All are correct
(I) I am deeply perturbed by the alarming way the 19. The correct answer is b – Only II
situation developing. The corrected sentences are –
(II) He apparently was not perturbed by the prospect of a (I) The police probe into organized crime led to several
policeman coming to call. arrests.
11. The correct answer is a – Both I and II (III) Arson probe after three die at home.
The corrected sentence is – 20. The correct answer is b – Both II and III
(III) Her father is now 86 and in fragile health. The corrected sentence is –
12. The correct answer is c – Only III (I) Charles's letter was indeed published, albeit in a
The corrected sentences are – somewhat abbreviated form.
(I) Trade Union leaders were charged with sedition. 21. The correct answer is e – None of these
(II) The clubs were suspected of being centres of sedition. The corrected sentences are –
13. The correct answer is c – All are correct (I) I noticed a certain reluctance among the teachers.
14. The correct answer is a – Only III (II) She showed considerable reluctance to leave.
Page 867 of 1079

(III) He showed great reluctance to reveal his (II) Nobody in the courtroom gave any credence to the
whereabouts. drunk’s testimony.
22. The correct answer is d – All are correct 29. The correct answer is d – Both II and III
23. The correct answer is c – All are correct The corrected sentence is –
24. The correct answer is a – Both I and II (I) If food gets stuck in your windpipe, you will inevitably
The corrected sentence is – choke until it is removed.
(III) During the hanging, the rope had been placed on the 30. The correct answer is b – Both I and III
neck of the supposed “witch” and she did strangle to The corrected sentence is –
death. (II) As the flurry of leaves drifted to the ground, it would
25. The correct answer is c – Only II only be a short time before it covered the ground.
The corrected sentences are – 31. The correct answer is d – Both I and II
(I) After being caught hunting animals illegally, the party The corrected sentence is –
was given a fine for poaching and their guns were seized. (III) When the prosecutor tried to impugn the defendant’s
(III) The chef decided to poach the peaches by slowly character, the defense lawyer jumped to his feet and made
steaming them in white wine and fruit juice. an objection.
26. The correct answer is a – Only II 32. The correct answer is b – Only III
The corrected sentences are – The corrected sentences are –
(I) The drunk patron started to slur and mumbled his (I) Mitch’s psychiatrist suggested he burn a small effigy
words as he stumbled around the bar. of his abusive father so he could let go of his rage.
(III) Toddlers often slur when they speak and run their (II) After the quarterback made a fumble that cost his team
sentences into each other when they talk. the big game, he saw his fans burn an effigy made in his
27. The correct answer is d – Only III likeness.
The corrected sentences are – 33. The correct answer is c – Both I and II
(I) Jack is prone to be quite talkative after he has The corrected sentence is –
consumed several beers. (III) The neighborhood has made an attempt to nullify the
(II) During allergy season, Cara is prone to having a real estate developer’s plans by protesting outside of city
couple of asthma attacks each day. hall.
28. The correct answer is c – Both I and III 34. The correct answer is d – All are correct
The corrected sentence is – 35. The correct answer is d – Only II
The corrected sentences are –
Page 868 of 1079

(I) When Will was intoxicated, he was hard to understand 41. The correct answer is a – Only III
because he did not enunciate his statements. The corrected sentences are –
(III) As the teacher gave instructions, she was careful to (I) The thought of questioning Toby agitated him
enunciate each step of the process so her young students extremely
would not be confused. (II) The women who worked in these mills had begun to
36. The correct answer is a – Both II and III agitate for better conditions.
The corrected sentence is – 42. The correct answer is d – All are correct
(I) More than likely, my father will dissent with the idea I 43. The correct answer is d – Both I and II
am old enough to set my own curfew. The corrected sentence is –
37. The correct answer is a – Only III (III) Even though I hate to concede with you, I have to
The corrected sentences are – admit this trip is going much better than I expected
(I) With his wife out of town, he knew he would have to 44. The correct answer is d – Only II
grapple with the kids all week. The corrected sentences are –
(II) A wrestler is taught to grapple his opponent to achieve (I) His immaculate garden was a reproach to all his less
victory. organized neighbours.
38. The correct answer is a – Only III (III) Julie ambled happily down the long immaculate front
The corrected sentences are – lawn, bordered on each side by miniature fruit trees.
(I) In order to learn about the birds, the scientists have to 45. The correct answer is a – Both I and III
keep track of every nuance which makes the birds The corrected sentence is –
different from one another. (II) Some of the hedgehogs embellish their self-protection
(II) Although I have not seen Helen in fifteen years, I can with an upward jerking movement.
still recall every nuance of her voice. 46. The correct answer is a – Both II and III
39. The correct answer is a – Both II and III The corrected sentence is –
The corrected sentence is – (I) The sphere was finely stippled, pocked here and there
(I) Despite the defendant’s apology, the judge was with hatches or spiked with communication towers
obdurate and gave him a thirty-year sentence. 47. The correct answer is d – All are correct
40. The correct answer is d – Both II and III 48. The correct answer is c – Both I and II
The corrected sentence is – The corrected sentence is –
(I) Congested from an infection, the woman’s infected (III) Heather will immerse herself in her job to prove she
lungs caused her to be admitted to the hospital. deserves a promotion
Page 869 of 1079

49. The correct answer is c – All are correct (II) When the inmate was unable to clamber over the
50. The correct answer is d – Both I and III fence, he was quickly caught by guards.
The corrected sentence is –
Identifying Correct Sentence

In each questions given below, there are four sentences (I) The pandemic has wreak havoc on the Indian economy
which may or may not be grammatically correct. Find and businesses are stumble towards insolvency and over-
the sentence/sentences which are grammatically burdened bankruptcy courts.
correct. Mark your answer from options. (II) As India’s government renege on compensating the
1. states for GST shortfalls, there are murmur of a sovereign
(I) President Trump represents the last primal shriek of default, constitutional crisis and breakdown of federalism.
retrograde white men afraid to lose their power. (III) This is obvious on health concerns alone. India’s
(II) Reforms based on the Committee’s recommendations count of corona infections still seems on a relentless
will have serious ramifications for every person who is upward path, signifying the failure of our flurry of
subjected to the criminal justice system. measures to contain the pandemic.
(III) When the Nepal-India dispute over the Himalayan (IV) Punjab farmers' bodies also lashed out at the Centre
territory of Limpiyadhura flaring up, opinion makers for suspend goods trains in the state that has affect supply
presented it as the doing of an upstart nation run by a of coal, fertilizer and other essential items.
renegade Prime Minister thumbed its nose at India, that f. Only II
too at Beijing's instigation. g. Both II and III
(IV) Farmers slam the BJP-led government at the Centre h. Only III
for bringing the "black laws" and expressed fear that these i. Both I and II
legislations would destroy the farming community and j. None of these
would only "benefit" big corporate houses. 3.
f. Only I (I) Data from India’s statistics ministry has put a figure on
g. Both I and II the gloom that has pervaded our economy since the
h. Only II COVID pandemic struck.
i. Both I and III (II) In this game of thrones, only Germany seems to has
j. None of these the sway to mediate a return to sanity.
2. (III) Republicans gather last week for their election pitch,
but the convention did not settled a rancorous debate
Page 870 of 1079
among activists and thinkers about what it means to be f. Only II

conservatives and where they fit in the political world g. Both I and III
today. h. Only III
(IV) Farmers' bodies protesting against three central farm i. Both I and IV
laws have expressed apprehension that the new laws j. None of these
would pave the way for the dismantling of the minimum 5.
support price system, leaving them at the "mercy" of big (I) The government is prepared to forsake its vaunted
corporate entities. fiscal conservatism and finds innovative ways to mobilise
f. Both I and II resources.
g. Both II and III (II) Among the real economy, every single industry and
h. Both I and IV services sector shrink with the solitary exception of
i. Only III agriculture, which grew 3.4% and outpaced the year
j. None of these earlier quarter’s 3% expansion.
4. (III) It is evident that the stringent COVID-19 lockdowns
(I) Ruling party spokesmen went to considerable lengths in force through the first-third of the quarter, and
to argue that the August 2019 decision was aimed at substantially in May, hollowed out demand.
ending an anomaly that had existed for long, and had (IV) After call out China for allege human rights
impeded Kashmir’s peace and progress. violations in Xinjiang, the Boris Johnson government on
(II) If further proof was need of India’s growing stature in Friday issued new guidance to British companies on
world chess and of the mind sport’s rising popularity in safely and ethically engaging with China, highlighting
the country, the online Chess Olympiad provide it in “national security concerns”.
emphatic fashion on Sunday. f. All are correct
(III) The incarceration of several senior political leaders g. Both I and III
for several months under various provisions of the law, h. Only III
including the Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, has, i. Both I and II
meanwhile, undermined faith in the Centre’s commitment j. None of these
to an early return to orderly political discourse. 6.
(IV) The railways has suspend the operation of freight (I) If the pandemic result in a prolonge retrenchment of
trains in the wake to blockade of some rail tracks by the workforce, the faultlines will deepens in India’s labour
farmers in protest against the three central farm laws. market.
Page 871 of 1079

(II) With revenues having cratered, funding from 8.

additional expenditure is through higher borrowings. (I) A sceptical journalist from Warsaw decide to travel to
(III) Consumption growth provide limited scope for a the village to checked the veracity of the Rabbi’s visionary
sharp recovery in the medium term without exogenous gift.
(and often unsustainable) triggers. (II) A visionary leader is generally understood as a big
(IV) The guidance sets out key issues digital and tech picture person, not bogged down by details, someone who
SMEs should considered as they weigh the benefits and is constantly envisaging a future different from the status
risks of commercial ventures, as well as signposting quo.
specialist sources of advice. (III) Global hunger have been in a regrettable rise in recent
f. Both I and IV years, and despite Asia’s economic clout, the continent —
g. All are correct home to more than half of the world’s undernourished—
h. Both I and II has not been spared.
i. Both II and III (IV) Soon after the Chhattisgarh government announced
j. None of these that paddy procurement in the state will started from
7. December 1 instead of November 1, the BJP alleged that
(I) Sustaining domination for a long period will difficult farmer organisations will suffered huge losses as the
in any sport, but even more so in chess as careers are harvesting has already started 15 days ago.
longer. f. Only I
(II) In many ways Mukherjee was the quintessential g. Only III
Congress man of the Indira Gandhi era. h. Only II
(III) The belief in a leader’s vision is impervious to facts i. Both I and II
that may contradict the contents of the vision. j. None of these
(IV) As pollution makes the pandemic worsed for people 9.
with co-morbidities, there is a host of things that you can (I) Give that the zone of tension in Ladakh has expanding,
do to keep yourself protected. the danger of a military escalation along the LAC has
f. Only III increased.
g. All are correct (II) The Indian position, articulate by External Affairs
h. Both I and II Minister S Jaishankar last month, is clear: The border
i. Both II and III issue cannot separated from the larger bilateral
j. None of these relationship.
Page 872 of 1079

(III) The Indian security establishment is showing f. Both I and II

willingness and ability to respond with alacrity to any g. Only III
further attempts by the PLA to change the situation on the h. Only I
ground. i. Both I and III
(IV) The Trump administration has also be strongly j. None of these
favouring a greater role for India in the Indo-Pacific in the 11.
backdrop from rising military assertiveness by China in (I) No country can take growth for granted and even
the region. taking account of the near infallibility of such a platitude,
f. Both II and III the continuing softness of India's growth in the past few
g. All are correct years has been extraordinarily humbling.
h. Only III (II) With a near-24% GDP drop this last quarter, ending
i. Both I and II this financial year in the 6-10% recession range is the most
j. None of these plausible prognosis.
10. (III) Given India's GDP is 60% reliants on domestic
(I) The Indian Army’s preemptive action on the night of expenditure, the economy felts the double whammy of
August 29-30 to prevented China for changing the status demand and supply shocks under lockdown.
quo on the southern bank of Pangong Tso, and Beijing's (IV) As the world await the result of the American
response to it, have heighten tensions on the Line of presidential election, India on Friday said the global
Actual Control in Ladakh. strategic partnership between the two countries have a
(II) Pranab has an ace troubleshooter for Congress, the very strong bipartisan supports in the US, suggesting that
knack for bipartisanship helped him buuld bridges with the bilateral ties will not be impacted by the poll outcome.
opposition parties. f. Both I and II
(III) From catching Indira Gandhi's eye in 1969 to bowing g. Only I
out as President of India, few like Pranab Mukherjee could h. All are correct
survive and flourish in the rough and tumble of national i. Only III
politics for five decades. j. None of these
(IV) The ties between India and the US has witnessed a 12.
major upswing in the last four years across the Trump (I) Swami Vivekananda rejecting the idea where a mind is
administration, particularly in areas of defence and crammed with facts before it knows how to think.
security.
Page 873 of 1079

(II) Education was the bedrock on which a nation is built (III) Coupled with steadfast focus on execution and
and it also determines the tensile strength of its institutional reforms, the Ease of Doing Business
foundations and sustainability of the structure. programme should catapult India into the league of
(III) Records of rights data of multiple decades as well as nations with a robust business ecosystem that attracts and
complete digitisation of cadastral maps has enabled better fosters the most innovative enterprises from across the
registration-mutation database, bringing down resolution world.
time of land disputes to less than a year. (IV) Trump, 74, has sought to portray as fraudulent the
(IV) Democratic presidential candidate Joe Biden take a slow counting of mail-in ballots, which surged in
narrow lead over President Donald Trump in the popularity due to fears of exposure to the coronavirus
battleground states of Georgia and Pennsylvania on through in-person voting.
Friday, edging closer from winning the White House in a f. Both I and III
nail-biting contest as a handful of undecided states g. Only I
continue to count votes. h. All are correct
f. All are correct i. Only III
g. Both I and II j. None of these
h. Only III 14.
i. Both II and III (I) RBO endeavour to keeps long term government bon
j. None of these yields low, to ensure smooth financing of higher fiscal
13. deficits.
(I) India's billion-plus people with immense economic (II) State governments remain was a fiscally precarious
diversity, the sheer size of some of the states and a lack of position, struggling from the loss of their own revenues
consistency in interpretations and implementations of and the absence of GST compensation cess - which will
myriad regulations have played a complex role in most probably leaded to their fiscal deficit also blowing
quashing past efforts to revolutionise a deeply entrenched up to ~4-5% of GDP.
business system. (III) Even with the current level of fiscal parsimony, the
(II) It is noteworthy to consider the context, achievements central fiscal deficit is likely to rise ~7.8% of GDP in
and challenges in addressing one of the most important FY21, owing to a drying up of revenues and growth
task of the business community and raising India's disappointment.
attractiveness for foreign investors. (IV) The saying ‘revenge was a dish, best served cold’,
and Greta Thunberg, the teenage environmental activist
Page 874 of 1079

seems to has done just that when she mocked United (II) The second wave of the pandemic seem to has set in,
States President Donald Trump, in his own words at his compelling State governments to intermittently impose
baseless allegations on voter fraud. lockdowns in several districts/localities while the
f. Only III nationwide lockdown.
g. All are correct (III) Data consumption is skyrocketing and consumers
h. Both I and II are demanding better services for which operators will
i. Only II need to buy expensive spectrum.
j. None of these (IV) The fire that break out at a factory in Uttar Pradesh's
15. Ghaziabad district on Friday morning continues to rage
(I) For utopian changed that we could only dream of despite the fire brigade's efforts to control it.
earlier, this pandemic has resetted the game of dice. f. All are correct
(II) Experts say China will definitely use its financial g. Only II
prowess to lure Bangladesh and increase its influence in h. Both I and III
South Asia. i. Only III
(III) After clashing with India over the LAC in the Galwan j. None of these
Valley China has also started to woo our closest allies and 17.
neighbours with its economic prowess. (I) Although the operator may still struggled to matched
(IV) As search for an effective vaccine against Covid-19 the competition from Reliance Jio and Airtel, the facility
continue, scientists in the UK will soon evaluating if the to pay the dues in a staggered form gives the beleaguered
painkiller drug aspirin can be a possible treatment for the operator a shot at survival.
viral infection that has killed millions across the world. (II) The Supreme Court’s decision to give telecom
f. Both II and III operators 10 years to clear dues related to adjusted gross
g. Only I revenue could bring some respite to debtladen telecom
h. Only II operators, especially Vodafone Idea.
i. Both I and III (III) While Republican candidate and incumbent President
j. None of these Donald Trump is seeking a return to office for a second
16. term, Democrat leader Joe Biden has campaigned
(I) Due to the prevailing uncertainties neither the aggressively to grab the White House seat.
government nor the RBI has come out with any precise (IV) As the world patiently awaiting the results of the
number with regard to India’s real GDP growth in FY21. closely fought election between Republican President
Page 875 of 1079

Donald Trump and his Democratic rival, Joe Biden, (I) Blame the Congress and allies for “shaming
Twitter hasn’t miss its opportunity on creating some democracy”, Amit Shah said the incident is a “blatant
hilarious memes around the situation. misuses of state power” against Republic TV and Arnab
f. All are correct Goswami.
g. Only I (II) President Donald Trump’s big win in Florida owes
h. Both II and III much to his strident denunciation of leftist governments in
i. Only III Latin America, which resonated loud and clear with
j. None of these conservative Hispanics in the southeastern state.
18. (III) In Florida, this demographic is led by Cubans who
(I) After an unprecedented campaign amid a resurgent loathed the communist government in Havana, into which
pandemic, polls have finally started to close in the United Trump adopted a hard line during his presidency and the
States. campaign for the White House.
(II) Twitter Inc and Facebook Inc suspended several (IV) With the economy in the doldrum and the treasury
recently created right-leaning news accounts posting empty, the government from the time had no option but to
information about voting in the hotly contested US overturned state control and allow market forces in.
election for violating their policies. f. Only I
(III) Union home minister Amit Shah on Wednesday took g. Only II
to Twitter to slam the arrest of journalist Arnab Goswami h. All are correct
in connection with a two-year-old case of abetment to i. Only III
suicide. j. None of these
(IV) The Indian economy is burdened with a legacy of 20.
populist and ideological policies confounded further by (I) Anti-racism protests that swepts America after the
convoluted and superfluous regulations. police killing of George Floyd in May did not persuaded
f. Both I and II Florida Latinos to vote for Biden
g. Only III (II) Biden was slow to campaign in Florida and slow to
h. All are correct react to Trump’s depiction of him as the face of the far left
i. Both II and III who would usher in socialism in the US.
j. None of these (III) The league stage of the Indian Premier League 2020
19. season has come to an end, with the focus set to divert
towards the playoffs immediately.
Page 876 of 1079

(IV) As the curtain came down into campaigning for the j. None of these
third and final phase of the Bihar Assembly elections, it 22.
marking the end of almost a month of bone-wearying (I) Tejashwi Yadav’s promise of a million govern-ment
effort by the principals in the contest jobs in Bihar, if elected to power, has brought back focus
f. Only I on a remarkable feature of India’s political economy, as
g. Both II and III well as social structures and aspirations.
h. Only II (II) Even after three decades of a relati-vely open
i. Both I and II economy, with a robust private sector, the first priority for
j. None of these young people — in terms of employment — is
21. government jobs.
(I) Pakistan prime minister Imran Khan was most worry (III) The private sector is seen as unstable where the turns
about Chinese reaction when India announced abrogation and twists of the business cycle and changing
of Article 370, which altered Jammu and Kashmir’s status requirements of employers can lead to retrenchment.
in August last year. (IV) Having suffered its weakest expansion in over six
(II) Pakistan abrogated many of the privileges associated years in the September quarter, India's economy probably
with erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir in the region, fared slightly better in the December quarter, before
include abolition of state subject law in 1974, and make suffering a relapse due to the impact of the corona virus
the home of Shias into a Sunni majority area. globally.
(III) It is interest to note that not so long ago, in 2017, f. Only II
Pakistan have dropped the idea of getting the project g. Both I and II
financed under CPEC framework as China had placed h. Only III
strict conditions including the ownership of the project. i. All are correct
(IV) A court in Kerala has orders legal action against a j. None of these
woman for compelling her minor daughter to raise fake 23.
sexual assault allegation against the child’s father and her (I) Except for a tiny sliver of the population in corporate
friend. jobs, the salaries in the private sector are not high and the
f. All are correct benefits non-existent.
g. Both II and III (II) Getting a government job is seen as a path of upward
h. Only I mobility and gives opportunities for power projection
i. Both I and III within one’s family and social circle.
Page 877 of 1079

(III) Americans by the millions flocked to the polls on becomes an encompassing imperative for all major
Tuesday amid a deadly pandemic in a mostly calm, players resulting in robust public- private partnerships.
orderly show of political determination and civic duty that f. Both I and II
belied deep tensions shaping one of the most polarizing g. Only II
presidential races in US history. h. Only I
(IV) The central bank earlier this month warned that the i. Both II and III
downside risks to global growth have increased as a result j. None of these
of the corona virus epidemic, the full effects of which are 25.
still uncertain and unfolding. (I) Spend more time online than before, more number of
f. Only II young have reported fell prey to cyberbullying on social
g. Only III media platforms during the pandemic.
h. All are correct (II) The Delhi government on Tuesday issued an order
i. Only I notifying that restaurants in Delhi will no longer have to
j. None of these acquire a licence from the tourism department in order to
24. function.
(I) The masks worn by many voters and the sight of (III) While the AAP has been assert that the health trade
boarded-up storefronts in major city centers were licence now comes under exclusive domain of the Food
reminders of two transformative issues defining the 2020 Safety and Standards Authority of India, which comes
election, with Covid-19 still ravaging parts of the country under the Centre, MCDs have maintain they are reviewing
after a summer of mass protests against racial injustice. the protocol.
(II) The FBI and the New York attorney general’s office (IV) Consider the current growth impetus which India is
opened investigations into torrents of anonymous pursue, there is a host of transformative initiatives which
robocalls urging people in several states to stay home. are slated to make India a leading digital economy
(III) A federal judge order the US Postal Service to globally, is not so distant a future.
conducts a sweep of some facilities across the country for f. All are correct
undelivered mail-in ballots and to ship them immediately g. Both I and III
to election offices to be counted. h. Only II
(IV) The grand vision of Digital India, pursue through i. All are correct
multiple yet converging technological programmes, has j. None of these
26.
Page 878 of 1079

(I) The Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC), (II) It is pertinence to note that despite getting relief in
which is build a road along Mumbai’s coast, has failed to AGR payment terms at this juncture, sponsor support,
deposit 90% of funds required for the conservation of sizeable tarriff hikes and prudent capex would remains
coastal and marine biodiversity as per specific conditions crucial to support the credit profile of telcos.
imposed under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) (III) Austria and Greece on Tuesday will become the latest
clearance issues for the project. European nations to impose spirit-crushing curbs to
(II) The Union environment ministry has listed six combat the coronavirus surge, with a deadly terrorist
conditions for Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation attack in Vienna ahead of a partial lockdown
(BMC) to comply with while giving it the final go-ahead compounding the misery.
for translocating two coral patches along the coastal road (IV) United States President Donald Trump's trip to India
alignment. was marks by a lot of spectacle and bonhomie.
(III) At the heart of the scholarship f. Both I and III
scam targeting minority students from poor families in g. Both II and III
Jharkhand will a nexus of middlemen, bank h. All are correct
correspondents, school staff in some cases and, of course, i. Only III
gullible parents — or unwitting victims. j. None of these
(IV) If you are family with contemporary Punjabi cinema, 28.
chances are you must have already appreciated (I) To curb the spike in Germany, Europe's biggest
blockbusters like Jatt & Juliet, Sardaarji and Punjab 1984. economy, Chancellor Angela Merkel appealed to citizens
f. Only II to help achieve a "turnaround" by respecting a new round
g. Both I and III of shutdowns from Monday until the end of the month.
h. All are correct (II) The frustration over the economic and social cost of
i. Both I and II lockdowns has leads to protests in many parts of the
j. None of these world, especially Europe, with some leading to violence
27. skirmishes, notably in Spain and Italy as well as the Czech
(I) The liability of Rs 1.5 lakh crore relate to capital Prague and the eastern German city of Dresden.
adjusted gross revenues (AGR) of telecom companies has (III) Despite incomplete results from several battleground
erode the benefits of tariff hike taken in December last states that could determine the outcome of the U.S.
year and pull back companies’ return on capital employed presidential race, President Donald Trump early on
(ROCE) to 4%-5%.
Page 879 of 1079

Wednesday proclaimed victory over Democratic i. Both II and III

challenger Joe Biden. j. None of these
(IV) Days after his visit to India, US President Donald 30.
Trump has not stops praising India, Prime Minister (I) In a sense, the more Trump was lampooned and vilified
Narendra Modi and the massive crowds that turn down to by his critics, the more his core base got solidified.
welcome him. (II) The tech-driven, social media bubble in which many
f. Only I of us lives haves created the possibility where we may
g. All are correct actually be carried away by only tracking those who
h. Both I and III reinforce our ideological beliefs above all else.
i. Only II (III) A demand recovery is much needed in the oil market,
j. None of these which is contending with a string of renewed lockdown
29. measures across Europe that further threaten the demand
(I) The PAGD claimed that “the real object of repeal of outlook.
the basic land laws and massive amendments to other laws (IV) The drubbing after Corona Virus erased the $78
is to pushed in and implement the agenda of effecting billion in gains that the 500 wealthiest people had amass
demographic change and disempowering the people of since the started of the year through last week, according
Jammu and Kashmir”. to the Bloomberg Billionaires Index.
(II) The statement asked as to how can Alienation of Land f. Only II
Act be termed as archaic when it prohibited transfer of g. Both I and III
land to a non state subjects thus protecting the interests of h. Both I and II
Permanent Residents of Jammu and Kashmir i. Both II and III
(III) In a sense, the more Trump was lampooned and j. None of these
vilified by his critics, the more his core base got solidified. 31.
(IV) The Dow Jones Industrial Average tumbles more (I) While predictions for a split Congress is fueling
than 12%, the biggest five- day slide to the depths of the optimism that there will be no major changes to taxes or
2008 financial crisis, in a rout that vaporize more than $6 regulations that have underpinned an equity bull market,
trillion from global stocks. it also raises the likelihood of any post-election virus aid
f. Both I and II package likely being smaller than initially expected.
g. All are correct
h. Only III
Page 880 of 1079

(II) General Naravane conveyed his gratitude for the (III) The Election Commission has already backed the
honour bestowed upon him and also discussed measures plea for the lifetime ban on convicted politicians from
to further enhance bilateral cooperation. entering the electoral fray.
(III) Insulting remarks make to a person belonging to (IV) Forces to flee their houses in the face of rampaging,
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes within four violent mobs, residents now facing the prospect of a future
walls of the house with no witnesses does not amounts to without any support including vital documents.
offence, the Supreme Court said on Thursday as it quash f. Both I and II
the charges under the SC/ST Act against a man who had g. Only III
allegedly abused a woman within her building. h. All are correct
(IV) The government has been focus significantly on i. Only II
promoting defence indigenization by taking a slew of j. None of these
reform initiatives including liberalizing FDI in defence 33.
sector. (I) Ginsburg showed over and over a steely resilience in
f. Only III the face of personal loss and serious health problems that
g. All are correct made the diminutive New Yorker a towering women’s
h. Only I rights champion and forceful presence at the court over 27
i. Both I and II years.
j. None of these (II) There was nothing “notorious” about this woman of
32. rectitude who wore a variety of lace collars on the bench
(I) India on Thursday described as "high condemnable" and often appeared in public in elegant gloves.
Pakistan's decision to transferred the management of the (III) BJP chief JP Nadda during a rally spoked about the
Kartarpur Sahib gurudwara from a Sikh body to a separate allegations being level against incumbent US President
trust, saying it run against the religious sentiments of the Donald Trump regarding the mismanagement of
Sikh community. coronavirus pandemic.
(II) A layer of haze lingers over the national capital and (IV) The predominant aura around any fort will the
its suburbs on Thursday morning, with raging farm fires quietude. Save the flutter of pigeons, the only sound is the
and a fallen in the wind speed and temperatures pushing echo of your own voice.
air quality to the worst levels in around a year. f. Both II and III
g. All are correct
h. Both I and II
Page 881 of 1079

i. Only III procurement of military equipment, and to step

j. None of these up information-sharing to counter terrorism.
34. (II) Jaishankar appreciated educational opportunities
(I) The Parliamentary panel sought to know from the provided by the Philippines to Indian students, and
executives of cab aggregators Uber and Ola whether they reaffirmed India’s assistance for development and
have become transport companies with their own fleet and capacity building in the Philippines.
if surge pricing was determined by gender, time and (III) The Supreme Court on Friday asks the Centre to
battery power left in passenger’s mobile. ensured that the smog in the national capital is removed at
(II) After the coronavirus break, the ratings for nearly all the earliest as it adjourned two petitions seeking urgent
sports plummeted with leagues forced to compete with measures on air pollution in Delhi for November 16.
one another for viewers. (IV) Factory activity in China contracted at the fastest
(III) India will use its vaccine production capacity to help paced ever in February, even worsed than during the
the world in fighting the Covid-19 crisis and New Delhi global financial crisis, highlighting the colossal damage
stands ready to help countries enhance their cold chain and from the corona virus outbreak on the world’s second-
storage capacities for delivery of vaccines largest economy.
(IV) The Indian trawlers, usually from Tamil Nadu, not f. Both I and III
only crossed the International Maritime Boundary Line to g. All are correct
fish in Sri Lanka’s resource- rich seas, but also used a h. Only I
destructive fishing method that virtually scooped out the i. Only II
sea- bed, adversely impacting fish production and marine j. None of these
biodiversity. 36.
f. Both I and III (I) The Supreme Court on Friday issued a noticed of
g. Only I contempted to the secretary of the Maharashtra assembly
h. Both I and II for writing a letter to Republic TV editor Arnab Goswami
i. All are correct on October 13 for breach the confidentiality of the
j. None of these proceedings of the House by approaching the top court
35. against the breach of privilege notice.
(I) India and the Philippines agree on Friday to (II) While the regular pollution sources in Delhi continue
enhanced bilateral defence engagement and to remain consistent throughout the year, bursting
maritime cooperation, especially in training and
Page 882 of 1079

crackers ahead of Diwali and the stubble burning in (IV) Stories of human courage and camaraderie that
neighbouring states add to Delhi’s pollution levels. shoned through amid orchestrated mayhem offer hope, but
(III) Chief of Defence Staff Gen Bipin Rawat said the what rankles is the completed breakdown of governance
situation along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in from top to bottom in the national capital.
eastern Ladakh remained tense and that India’s posturing f. Only III
has been “unambiguous”. g. All are correct
(IV) From resurface roads and planting palm trees along h. Both I and III
the streets to building a wall apparent to hide slums, the i. Both I and II
Gujarat government is pulling out all the stop to impress j. None of these
Mr. Trump. 38.
f. Both II and III (I) Beijing frequently blamed the shadowy group for incite
g. All are correct violence in the country’s far west, saying the group wants
h. Both I and II to create an independent state of East Turkestan in
i. Only II Xinjiang.
j. None of these (II) New Delhi reiterated Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s
37. commitment that India’s vaccine production and delivery
(I) The power ministry is sets to establish three capacity would be use to helped the humanity fight the
manufacturing hubs all over the country to produce Covid-19 pandemic.
critical energy and transmission equipment, which is (III) The government will soon take foreign diplomats
currently fully imported from other countries including based in New Delhi for a tour to vaccine development and
China diagnostic facilities in Pune, even as India has expressed
(II) While the Centre will asks states to bidded for its willingness for joint production of the Covid-19
manufacturing hubs for the mandatory items, it plans to vaccine in other countries
give budgetary grants for creation of common (IV) The U.S. is mere joining in the wave of electoral
infrastructure in these hubs including 24x7 water, power, insurrections that is upending the political order across the
roads and common testing facilities. world.
(III) Cyber attacks through activating embedded malware f. Only III
by country from where the power equipment was g. All are correct
imported can lead to crippling of Indian power grid in h. Both I and II
adverse times i. Only I
Page 883 of 1079

j. None of these (II) Given the significant relationship between air

39. pollution and respiratory infections, bursting of
(I) Emerging-market stocks are heading for its best firecrackers is not favourable ‘for the large cause of
weekly performance in five months after a turbulent week community health
dictate by the possible outcomes to the U.S. presidential (III) More US Secret Service agents have been sent to
election. Wilmington, Delaware, in anticipation of a potential Joe
(II) Delhi Health Minister Satyendar Jain on Friday Biden presidential win after the Democratic Party
tweeted and shared copies of official orders issued by his nominee was leading in the vote count against incumbent
department to increase capacity of beds at city President Donald Trump, a media report said on Friday.
government hospitals and 14 private facilities. (IV) Mobs and rulers masquerade as leaders cannot be
(III) Delhi Government has decided to augment the allow to dismantle a marvelously democratic experiment.
availability of beds for Covid patients in these Delhi f. Only II
government hospitals in addition to the already existing g. Only I
ones, this will be paramount in order to successfully h. Both I and II
combat the third wave. i. Both II and III
(IV) The fear of the police is as palpabled as the smell of j. None of these
smoke in the area; people recounts how unresponsive the 41.
forces were despite dozens of calls to 100. (I) The bolstering of security typically happen on election
f. Both II and III night, the official said, but USSS has played it
g. Both I and III “cautiously” as the agency does not wants seen as making
h. Only III a decision on the election.
i. All are correct (II) With an aims to ensure sufficient liquidity, markets
j. None of these regulator Sebi on Friday made it mandatory for debt
40. mutual fund schemes to hold at least 10 per cent of their
(I) US President Donald Trump is focus on feeding his ego net assets in liquid assets.
and have not show any interest in helping anyone except (III) In case the exposure in such liquid assets falls below
himself, whereas his Democratic rival Joe Biden cares the threshold mandated, the asset management companies
about the coronavirus pandemic and keeping “your family (AMCs) will have to ensure compliance with the
safe”, Barack Obama has said. requirement before making any further investment.
Page 884 of 1079

(IV) After the events, mounds of food are dumped in g. Both II and III
dustbins, unmindful of its value to the poor who goes h. Both I and II
hungry. i. All are correct
f. Only III j. None of these
g. Both I and III 43.
h. All are correct (I) The varsity on October 13 had conceded before the
i. Only I court that after the admissions were over the intake of
j. None of these disabled persons did not meet the five per cent quota
42. provided under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(I) Sebi noted that the LPCC has been permitted to enter (RPWD) Act.
into outsourcing agreements with existing clearing (II) Emergency corpus gives us peace of mind and comfort
corporations (CCs) for using their core and critical IT as we know that in case of any sudden requirement, we
support infrastructure or activities for running LPCC’s have a corpus to fall back on.
core activities — transaction process, clearing and (III) Post pandemic, the festive season was expect to cold
settlement — and related operations. for the real estate sector owing to the misplaced
(II) Union Home Minister Amit Shah Friday asked Chief perceptions about the way people behave in financially
Minister Mamata Banerjee to come out with a white paper tough times.
on the political killings in the state and wondered why the (IV) While many public- spirited people and non-
state government has not sent the statistics of crime to the governmental organisations collecta surplus food and
National Crime Record Bureau. distribute it to the poor, a more inclusive involvements of
(III) Alleging that there has been politicisation and society in this work is required.
criminalisation of government officers in the state, the f. Only III
union home minister said “In West Bengal there are three g. All are correct
laws – one for the nephew, one for minority appeasement h. Only I
and one for common people”. i. Both I and II
(IV) According to resident welfare association j. None of these
officials, when the violence subsided and the fires burnt 44.
out, gangs of men began looting every building that was (I) Lots of developers are offer discounts during this
deserted. festive season as they are optimistic about the sentiment
f. Only I
Page 885 of 1079

in the market, unlike last year when there were hardly any (III) In the overall security calculus, border confrontation,
discounts owing to the liquidity crunch. transgressions and unprovoked tactical military actions
(II) The GST rates without input credit had further spiralling into a larger conflict cannot be discounted
squeezed the developer community, and the developers (IV) Aslam, a scrap dealer salvage two bags worths of
restricted themselves to discounts to buyers sealing the belongings from his home where he lived with his wife
deal by giving them a waiver of GST, stamp duty, and and three small childrens
registration charges. f. Both I and III
(III) While the UPI market is dominate by Apps such as g. Only I
PhonePe and Google Pay, WhatsApp has entered the UPI h. Both II and III
market with its over 500 crore users. i. All are correct
(IV) A discern walk through any road could identified a j. None of these
number of killer potholes, dangerously uneven surfaces 46.
and dilapidated drains and slabs. (I) Constant friction with two of our nuclear armed
f. Only III neighbours, with whom India has fighting wars,
g. All are correct increasingly acting in collusion, poses an omnipresent
h. Both I and II danger of regional strategic instability with the potential
i. Only II for escalation threatening our territorial integrity and
j. None of these strategic cohesion
45. (II) Unabated proxy war in Jammu and Kashmir being
(I) The combination of WhatsApp and UPI can help local leashed from Pakistan, a vicious anti-India rhetoric on
organizations address some of the key challenges, social media and efforts to create social disharmony
including increasing rural participation in the digital within the country have taken the India-Pakistan relations
economy and delivering financial services to those who to a new low.
have never had access before. (III) Despite its internal instability, failing economy,
(II) The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) General Bipin international isolation and vitiated civil-military relations,
Rawat says on Friday that Chinese Army is face Pakistan will continue to profess that Kashmir is their
“unanticipated consequences of its misadventure in unfinished agenda.
Ladakh" and possibility of border confrontations leading (IV) The cost of our culpable lethargy was loss of precious
to a wider conflict can’t be ruled out. human lives, aparted from overburdening the fragile
healthcare system and the precarious exchequer.
Page 886 of 1079

f. Both II and III army officers by "snatching away" their pension and
g. Both I and II demanded immediate reversal of the decision.
h. Only III (II) Continuing his tirade against “Muslim Bangladeshi
i. All are correct immigrants” defining them as “Mughals”, Assam health
j. None of these minister Himanta Biswa Sarma here on Thursday said that
47. five years term was not enough for the BJP led alliance
(I) President Donald Trump is testing how far he can go government to drive out the modern “Mughals” who have
in using the trappings of presidential power to undermine succeeded in establishing a very deep root in past 70 years
confidence in this week’s election against Joe Biden, as in Assam.
the Democrat gained ground in tight contests in key (III) Asserting that BJP was commit to drive out “modern
battleground states — and then inched ahead in Georgia. Mughals” from the state, Mr Sarma who was supervise the
(II) The Republican president’s remarks deepened a sense construction of a new six lane bridge on Brahmaputra in
of anxiety in the U.S. as Americans enter their third full Guwahati, comes down heavily on All India United
day after the election without knowing who would serve Democratic Front (AIUDF) and accused them of patron of
as president for the next four years. these “Mughals”.
(III) The Republican president’s remarks deepened a (IV) The BJP is embolden to pursue its partisan agenda
sense of anxiety in the U.S. as Americans enter their third owing to the massive majority it enjoys in the Lok Sabha
full day after the election without knowing who would and the fact that Lok Sabha elections are four years away.
serve as president for the next four years. f. Only II
(IV) Narendra Modi’s image as a world statesman has g. Only I
taken a battering since his second term began. h. Both I and II
f. Only III i. Both II and III
g. Both I and III j. None of these
h. Only I 49.
i. All are correct (I) In a bid to improve the flow of credit to the unserved
j. None of these sector of the economy and to make funds affordable for
48. them, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Wednesday
(I) Congress chief spokesperson Randeep Surjewala said revised the guidelines for banks and NBFCs including
the Modi government is deliberately hurting the morale of housing finance companies to jointly lend to the priority
sector.
Page 887 of 1079

(II) The RBI Thursday urged the Supreme Court to lift its Kartarpur Sahib gurudwara from a Sikh body to a separate
interim order, which held that accounts not declared as trust, saying it runs against the religious sentiments of the
non-performing assets till August 31 this year are not to Sikh community.
be declared NPAs till further orders, saying it is “facing (II) Indian Army Chief Gen MM Naravane meets his
difficulty” due to the directive. Nepalese counterpart Gen Purna Chandra Thapa on
(III) Unable to dispose of 17 out of of the 19 sick public Thursday and discussed measures to further bolster the
sector undertakings (PSUs) which the NDA government existing bond of friendship and cooperation between the
had earmarked for time-bound closure back in 2018, the two armies.
Centre has decided to delink the land component from the (III) Farmers in Punjab and Haryana on Thursday put up
companies and transfer them to their parent ministries to road blockades at many places as part of a nationwide
expedite the process of doing away with such entities. 'chakka jam' agitation in protest against three central farm
(IV) Normally, common sense is sufficient to foretell an laws, and demanded that these be withdrawn.
impending calamity; it does not require a sixth sense. (IV) As the fires ebbed, and roads to one of areas worst
f. Only III affected by the riots, Shiv Vihar Phase 7, opened up, 25-
g. Both I and III year- old Arshi picks her way out of the rubble of what
h. All are correct is once her home in an area that is now a ghost town.
i. Only I f. All are correct
j. None of these g. Only I
50. h. Both I and II
(I) India on Thursday described as "highly condemnable" i. Both I and III
Pakistan's decision to transfer the management of the j. None of these
Identifying Correct Sentence - Answers with Explanation

1. The correct answer is b – Both I and II (IV) Farmers slammed the BJP-led government at the
The corrected sentence is – Centre for bringing the "black laws" and expressed fear
(III) When the Nepal-India dispute over the Himalayan that these legislations would destroy the farming
territory of Limpiyadhura flared up, opinion makers community and would only "benefit" big corporate
presented it as the doing of an upstart nation run by a houses.
renegade Prime Minister thumbing its nose at India, that 2. The correct answer is c – Only III
too at Beijing's instigation. The corrected sentences are –
Page 888 of 1079

(I) The pandemic has wreaked havoc on the Indian (II) Across the real economy, every single industry and
economy and businesses are stumbling towards services sector shrank with the solitary exception of
insolvency and over-burdened bankruptcy courts. agriculture, which grew 3.4% and outpaced the year
(II) As India’s government reneges on compensating the earlier quarter’s 3% expansion.
states for GST shortfalls, there are murmurs of a sovereign (IV) After calling out China for alleged human rights
default, constitutional crisis and breakdown of federalism. violations in Xinjiang, the Boris Johnson government on
(IV) Punjab farmers' bodies also lashed out at the Centre Friday issued new guidance to British companies on
for suspending goods trains in the state that has affected safely and ethically engaging with China, highlighting
supply of coal, fertiliser and other essential items. “national security concerns”.
3. The correct answer is c – Both I and IV 6. The correct answer is e – None of these
(II) In this game of thrones, only Germany seems to have (I) If the pandemic results in a prolonged retrenchment of
the sway to mediate a return to sanity. the workforce, the faultlines will deepen in India’s labour
(III) Republicans gathered last week for their election market.
pitch, but the convention did not settle a rancorous debate (II) With revenues having cratered, funding of additional
among activists and thinkers about what it means to be expenditure is through higher borrowings.
conservatives and where they fit in the political world (III) Consumption growth provides limited scope for a
today. sharp recovery over the medium term without exogenous
4. The correct answer is b – Both I and III (and often unsustainable) triggers.
The corrected sentence is - (IV) The guidance sets out key issues digital and tech
(II) If further proof was needed of India’s growing stature SMEs should consider as they weigh the benefits and risks
in world chess and of the mind sport’s rising popularity in of commercial ventures, as well as signposting specialist
the country, the online Chess Olympiad provided it in sources of advice.
emphatic fashion on Sunday. 7. The correct answer is d – Both II and III
(IV) The railways has suspended the operation of freight The corrected sentence is –
trains in the wake of blockade of some rail tracks by (I) Sustaining domination for a long period is difficult in
farmers in protest against the three central farm laws. any sport, but even more so in chess as careers are longer.
5. The correct answer is b – Both I and III (IV) As pollution makes the pandemic worse for people
The corrected sentence is – with co-morbidities, there are a host of things that you can
do to keep yourself protected.
Page 889 of 1079

8. The correct answer is c – Only II (I) The Indian Army’s preemptive action on the night of
The corrected sentences are – August 29-30 to prevent China from changing the status
(I) A sceptical journalist from Warsaw decides to travel to quo on the southern bank of Pangong Tso, and Beijing's
the village to check the veracity of the Rabbi’s visionary response to it, have heightened tensions on the Line of
gift. Actual Control in Ladakh.
(III) Global hunger has been on a regrettable rise in recent (II) Pranab was an ace troubleshooter for Congress, the
years, and despite Asia’s economic clout, the continent — knack for bipartisanship helped him buuld bridges with
home to more than half of the world’s undernourished— opposition parties.
has not been spared. (IV) The ties between India and the US have witnessed a
(IV) Soon after the Chhattisgarh government announced major upswing in the last four years under the Trump
that paddy procurement in the state will start from administration, particularly in areas of defence and
December 1 instead of November 1, the BJP alleged that security.
farmer organisations will suffer huge losses as the 11. The correct answer is a – Both I and II
harvesting has already started 15 days ago. The corrected sentence is –
9. The correct answer is c – Only III (III) Given India's GDP is 60% reliant on domestic
The corrected sentences are – expenditure, the economy felt the double whammy of
(I) Given that the zone of tension in Ladakh has demand and supply shocks under lockdown.
expanded, the danger of a military escalation along the (IV) As the world awaits the result of the American
LAC has increased. presidential election, India on Friday said the global
(II) The Indian position, articulated by External Affairs strategic partnership between the two countries have a
Minister S Jaishankar last month, is clear: The border very strong bipartisan support in the US, suggesting that
issue cannot be separated from the larger bilateral the bilateral ties will not be impacted by the poll outcome.
relationship. 12. The correct answer is c – Only III
(IV) The Trump administration has also been strongly The corrected sentences are –
favouring a greater role for India in the Indo-Pacific in the (I) Swami Vivekananda rejected the idea where a mind is
backdrop of rising military assertiveness by China in the crammed with facts before it knows how to think.
region. (II) Education is the bedrock on which a nation is built and
10. The correct answer is b – Only III it also determines the tensile strength of its foundations
The corrected sentences are – and sustainability of the structure.
Page 890 of 1079

(IV) Democratic presidential candidate Joe Biden took a 16. The correct answer is c – Both I and III
narrow lead over President Donald Trump in the The corrected sentence is –
battleground states of Georgia and Pennsylvania on (II) The second wave of the pandemic seems to have set
Friday, edging closer to winning the White House in a in, compelling State governments to intermittently impose
nail-biting contest as a handful of undecided states lockdowns in several districts/localities while the
continue to count votes. nationwide lockdown.
13. The correct answer is c – All are correct (IV) The fire that broke out at a factory in Uttar Pradesh's
14. The correct answer is a – Only III Ghaziabad district on Friday morning continues to rage
The corrected sentences are – despite the fire brigade's efforts to control it.
(I) RBO endeavours to keep long term government bon 17. The correct answer is c – Both II and III
yields low, to ensure smooth financing of higher fiscal The corrected sentence is –
deficits. (I) Although the operator may still struggle to match the
(II) State governments remain is a fiscally precarious competition from Reliance Jio and Airtel, the facility to
position, struggling from the loss of their own revenues pay the dues in a staggered form gives the beleaguered
and the absence of GST compensation cess - which will operator a shot at survival.
most probably lead to their fiscal deficit also blowing up (IV) As the world patiently awaits the results of the
to ~4-5% of GDP. closely fought election between Republican President
(IV) The saying ‘revenge is a dish, best served cold’, and Donald Trump and his Democratic rival, Joe Biden,
Greta Thunberg, the teenage environmental activist seems Twitter hasn’t missed its opportunity on creating some
to have done just that when she mocked United States hilarious memes around the situation.
President Donald Trump, in his own words at his baseless 18. The correct answer is c – All are correct
allegations on voter fraud. 19. The correct answer is b – Only II
15. The correct answer is a – Both II and III The corrected sentences are –
The corrected sentence is – (I) Blaming the Congress and allies for “shaming
(I) For utopian changes that we could only dream of democracy”, Amit Shah said the incident is a “blatant
earlier, this pandemic has reset the game of dice. misuse of state power” against Republic TV and Arnab
(IV) As search for an effective vaccine against Covid-19 Goswami.
continues, scientists in the UK will soon be evaluating if (III) In Florida, this demographic is led by Cubans who
the painkiller drug aspirin can be a possible treatment for loathe the communist government in Havana, against
the viral infection that has killed millions across the world.
Page 891 of 1079

which Trump adopted a hard line during his presidency sexual assault allegation against the child’s father and her
and the campaign for the White House. friend.
(IV) With the economy in the doldrums and the treasury 22. The correct answer is d – All are correct
empty, the government at the time had no option but to 23. The correct answer is c – All are correct
overturn state control and allow market forces in. 24. The correct answer is a – Both I and II
20. The correct answer is b – Both II and III The corrected sentence is –
The corrected sentence is – (III) A federal judge ordered the US Postal Service to
(I) Anti-racism protests that swept America after the conduct a sweep of some facilities across the country for
police killing of George Floyd in May did not persuade undelivered mail-in ballots and to ship them immediately
Florida Latinos to vote for Biden to election offices to be counted.
(IV) As the curtain came down on campaigning for the (IV) The grand vision of Digital India, pursued through
third and final phase of the Bihar Assembly elections, it multiple yet converging technological programmes, has
marked the end of almost a month of bone-wearying effort become an encompassing imperative for all major players
by the principals in the contest resulting in robust public- private partnerships.
21. The correct answer is e – None of these 25. The correct answer is c – Only II
(I) Pakistan prime minister Imran Khan was most worried (I) Spending more time online than before, more number
about Chinese reaction when India announced abrogation of young have reportedly fallen prey to cyberbullying on
of Article 370, which altered Jammu and Kashmir’s status social media platforms during the pandemic.
in August last year. (III) While the AAP has been asserting that the health
(II) Pakistan abrogated many of the privileges associated trade licence now comes under exclusive domain of the
with erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir in the region, Food Safety and Standards Authority of India, which
including abolition of state subject law in 1974, and comes under the Centre, MCDs have maintained they are
making the home of Shias into a Sunni majority area. reviewing the protocol.
(III) It is interesting to note that not so long ago, in 2017, (IV) Considering the current growth impetus which India
Pakistan had dropped the idea of getting the project is pursuing, there are a host of transformative initiatives
financed under CPEC framework as China had placed which are slated to make India a leading digital economy
strict conditions including the ownership of the project. globally, is not so distant a future.
(IV) A court in Kerala has ordered legal action against a 26. The correct answer is a – Only II
woman for compelling her minor daughter to raise fake The corrected sentences are –
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(I) The Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC), (II) The frustration over the economic and social cost of
which is building a road along Mumbai’s coast, has failed lockdowns has led to protests in many parts of the world,
to deposit 90% of funds required for the conservation of especially Europe, with some leading to violent
coastal and marine biodiversity as per specific conditions skirmishes, notably in Spain and Italy as well as the Czech
imposed under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) capital Prague and the eastern German city of Dresden.
clearance issued for the project. (IV) Days after his visit to India, US President Donald
(III) At the heart of the scholarship Trump has not stopped praising India, Prime Minister
scam targeting minority students from poor families in Narendra Modi and the massive crowds that turned up to
Jharkhand is a nexus of middlemen, bank correspondents, welcome him.
school staff in some cases and, of course, gullible parents 29. The correct answer is d – Both II and III
— or unwitting victims. The corrected sentence is –
(IV) If you are familiar with contemporary Punjabi (I) The PAGD claimed that “the real object of repeal of
cinema, chances are you must have already appreciated the basic land laws and massive amendments to other laws
blockbusters like Jatt & Juliet, Sardaarji and Punjab 1984. is to push in and implement the agenda of effecting
27. The correct answer is d – Only III demographic change and disempowering the people of
The corrected sentences are – Jammu and Kashmir”.
(I) The liability of Rs 1.5 lakh crore related to (IV) The Dow Jones Industrial Average tumbled more
adjusted gross revenues (AGR) of telecom companies has than 12%, the biggest five- day slide since the depths of
eroded the benefits of tariff hike taken in December last the 2008 financial crisis, in a rout that vaporized more than
year and pulled back companies’ return on capital $6 trillion from global stocks.
employed (ROCE) to 4%-5%. 30. The correct answer is b – Both I and III
(II) It is pertinent to note that despite getting relief in AGR The corrected sentence is –
payment terms at this juncture, sponsor support, sizeable (II) The tech-driven, social media bubble in which many
tarriff hikes and prudent capex would remain crucial to of us live has created the possibility where we may
support the credit profile of telcos. actually be carried away by only tracking those who
(IV) United States President Donald Trump's trip to India reinforce our ideological beliefs above all else.
was marked by a lot of spectacle and bonhomie. (IV) The drubbing after Corona Virus erased the $78
28. The correct answer is c – Both I and III billion in gains that the 500 wealthiest people had amassed
The corrected sentence is – since the start of the year through last week, according to
the Bloomberg Billionaires Index.
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31. The correct answer is d – Both I and II Donald Trump regarding the mismanagement of
The corrected sentence is – coronavirus pandemic.
(III) Insulting remarks made to a person belonging to (IV) The predominant aura around any fort is the quietude.
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes within four Save the flutter of pigeons, the only sound is the echo of
walls of the house with no witnesses does not amount to your own voice.
offence, the Supreme Court said on Thursday as it 34. The correct answer is d – All are correct
quashed the charges under the SC/ST Act against a man 35. The correct answer is d – Only II
who had allegedly abused a woman within her building. The corrected sentences are –
(IV) The government has been focusing significantly on (I) India and the Philippines agreed on Friday to
promoting defence indigenization by taking a slew of enhance bilateral defence engagement and
reform initiatives including liberalizing FDI in defence maritime cooperation, especially in training and
sector. procurement of military equipment, and to step
32. The correct answer is b – Only III up information-sharing to counter terrorism.
The corrected sentences are – (III) The Supreme Court on Friday asked the Centre to
(I) India on Thursday described as "highly condemnable" ensure that the smog in the national capital is removed at
Pakistan's decision to transfer the management of the the earliest as it adjourned two petitions seeking urgent
Kartarpur Sahib gurudwara from a Sikh body to a separate measures on air pollution in Delhi for November 16.
trust, saying it runs against the religious sentiments of the (IV) Factory activity in China contracted at the fastest
Sikh community. pace ever in February, even worse than during the global
(II) A layer of haze lingered over the national capital and financial crisis, highlighting the colossal damage from
its suburbs on Thursday morning, with raging farm fires the corona virus outbreak on the world’s second- largest
and a fall in the wind speed and temperatures pushing air economy.
quality to the worst levels in around a year. 36. The correct answer is a – Both II and III
(IV) Forced to flee their houses in the face of rampaging, The corrected sentence is –
violent mobs, residents now face the prospect of a future (I) The Supreme Court on Friday issued a notice of
without any support including vital documents. contempt to the secretary of the Maharashtra assembly for
33. The correct answer is c – Both I and II writing a letter to Republic TV editor Arnab Goswami on
The corrected sentence is – October 13 for breaching the confidentiality of the
(III) BJP chief JP Nadda during a rally spoke about the proceedings of the House by approaching the top court
allegations being leveled against incumbent US President against the breach of privilege notice.
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(IV) From resurfacing roads and planting palm trees along (IV) The U.S. is merely joining in the wave of electoral
the streets to building a wall apparently to hide slums, the insurrections that are upending the political order across
Gujarat government is pulling out all the stops to impress the world.
Mr. Trump. 39. The correct answer is a – Both II and III
37. The correct answer is a – Only III The corrected sentence is –
The corrected sentences are – (I) Emerging-market stocks are heading for their best
(I) The power ministry is set to establish three weekly performance in five months after a turbulent week
manufacturing hubs all over the country to produce dictated by the possible outcomes to the U.S. presidential
critical energy and transmission equipment, which is election.
currently fully imported from other countries including (IV) The fear of the police is as palpable as the smell of
China smoke in the area; people recount how unresponsive the
(II) While the Centre will ask states to bid for forces were despite dozens of calls to 100.
manufacturing hubs for the mandatory items, it plans to 40. The correct answer is d – Both II and III
give budgetary grants for creation of common The corrected sentence is –
infrastructure in these hubs including 24x7 water, power, (I) US President Donald Trump is focused on feeding his
roads and common testing facilities. ego and has not shown any interest in helping anyone
(IV) Stories of human courage and camaraderie that shone except himself, whereas his Democratic rival Joe Biden
through amid orchestrated mayhem offer hope, but what cares about the coronavirus pandemic and keeping “your
rankles is the complete breakdown of governance from family safe”, Barack Obama has said.
top to bottom in the national capital. (IV) Mobs and rulers masquerading as leaders cannot be
38. The correct answer is a – Only III allowed to dismantle a marvelously democratic
The corrected sentences are – experiment.
(I) Beijing frequently blames the shadowy group for 41. The correct answer is a – Only III
inciting violence in the country’s far west, saying the The corrected sentences are –
group wants to create an independent state of East (I) The bolstering of security typically happens on election
Turkestan in Xinjiang. night, the official said, but USSS has played it
(II) New Delhi reiterated Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s “cautiously” as the agency does not want seen as making
commitment that India’s vaccine production and delivery a decision on the election.
capacity would be used to help the humanity fight the (II) With an aim to ensure sufficient liquidity, markets
Covid-19 pandemic. regulator Sebi on Friday made it mandatory for debt
Page 895 of 1079

mutual fund schemes to hold at least 10 per cent of their (II) The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) General Bipin
net assets in liquid assets. Rawat said on Friday that Chinese Army is facing
(IV) After the events, mounds of food are dumped in “unanticipated consequences of its misadventure in
dustbins, unmindful of its value to the poor who go Ladakh" and possibility of border confrontations leading
hungry. to a wider conflict can’t be ruled out.
42. The correct answer is d – All are correct (IV) Aslam, a scrap dealer salvaged two bags worth of
43. The correct answer is d – Both I and II belongings from his home where he lived with his wife
The corrected sentence is – and three small children
(III) Post pandemic, the festive season was expected to be 46. The correct answer is a – Both II and III
cold for the real estate sector owing to the misplaced The corrected sentence is –
perceptions about the way people behave in financially (I) Constant friction with two of our nuclear armed
tough times. neighbours, with whom India has fought wars,
(IV) While many public- spirited people and non- increasingly acting in collusion, poses an omnipresent
governmental organisations collect surplus food and danger of regional strategic instability with the potential
distribute it to the poor, a more inclusive involvement of for escalation threatening our territorial integrity and
society in this work is required. strategic cohesion
44. The correct answer is d – Only II (IV) The cost of our culpable lethargy is loss of precious
The corrected sentences are – human lives, apart from overburdening the fragile
(I) Lots of developers are offering discounts during this healthcare system and the precarious exchequer.
festive season as they are optimistic about the sentiment 47. The correct answer is d – All are correct
in the market, unlike last year when there were hardly any 48. The correct answer is c – Both I and II
discounts owing to the liquidity crunch. The corrected sentence is –
(III) While the UPI market is dominated by Apps such as (III) Asserting that BJP was committed to drive out
PhonePe and Google Pay, WhatsApp has entered the UPI “modern Mughals” from the state, Mr Sarma who was
market with its over 500 crore users. supervising the construction of a new six lane bridge on
(IV) A discerning walk through any road could identify a Brahmaputra in Guwahati, came down heavily on All
number of killer potholes, dangerously uneven surfaces India United Democratic Front (AIUDF) and accused
and dilapidated drains and slabs. them of patron of these “Mughals”.
45. The correct answer is a – Both I and III
The corrected sentence is –
Page 896 of 1079

(IV) The BJP is emboldened to pursue its partisan agenda Thursday and discussed measures to further bolster the
owing to the massive majority it enjoys in the Lok Sabha existing bond of friendship and cooperation between the
and the fact that Lok Sabha elections are four years away. two armies.
49. The correct answer is c – All are correct (IV) As the fires ebbed, and roads to one of areas worst
50. The correct answer is d – Both I and III affected by the riots, Shiv Vihar Phase 7, opened up, 25-
The corrected sentence is – year- old Arshi picked her way out of the rubble of what
(II) Indian Army Chief Gen MM Naravane met his was once her home in an area that is now a ghost town.
Nepalese counterpart Gen Purna Chandra Thapa on
Cloze Test
Directions (1-5): In the following passage, some of the …… come back to you. This man’s impulsive actions
words have been left out, each of which is indicated by have not only landed him in prison but will also haunt him
a number. Find the suitable word from the options for the rest of his life. He himself killed the son that he
given against each number and fill up the blanks with was yearning for.
appropriate words to make the paragraph 1) Reading about a (1) …… incident in Badaun district of
meaningfully complete. Uttar Pradesh
Reading about a (1) …… incident in Badaun district of A. lambast
Uttar Pradesh, where a man slit open his wife’s belly in a B. shocking
(2) …… bid to ascertain the sex of the foetus, I was C. certain
instantly reminded of Karma- you get what you deserve. D. assuage
The man who had already fathered five daughters was (3) E. None of these
…… for a son. When the local priest told him that his 2) where a man slit open his wife’s belly in a (2) …… bid
wife, who was six to seven months pregnant was carrying to ascertain the sex of the foetus
a girl child this time as well, the man (4) …… for an A. desolate
abortion and when the woman refused to relent, he took a B. soothe
sickle and slit open his wife’s belly. Timely assistance by C. refrain
the woman’s brother saved her life, but the child (a ‘boy’ D. jeopardise
as revealed by the doctors attending to the woman) could E. None of these
not be saved and the woman’s uterus also suffered 3) The man who had already fathered five daughters was
irreparable harm rendering her medically unfit for future (3) …… for a son.
pregnancies. As they say, Life is a boomerang, your (5) A. rebut
Page 897 of 1079
B. castigate part of the anti-colonial struggle. The impact of

C. agitate colonialism,
D. desperate though it differed across countries, had on the whole been
E. None of these in the direction of (8) localism and unifying supra-local
4) When the local priest told him that his wife, who was economic structures through the introduction of market
six to seven months pregnant was carrying a girl child this relations. The struggle agains tcolonialism, consequently,
time as well, the man (4) …… for an abortion and when took the form of a national struggle in each instance in
the woman refused to relent, he took a sickle and slit open which people belonging to different tribes or linguistic
his wife’s belly. communities participated. And the colonial power in each
A. pontificate instance attempted to break this emerging national unity
B. exacerbate by(9)people.
C. precarious The modus operandi of this splitting was not just through
D. refute political manipulation as happened for instance in Angola,
E. None of these South Africa and a host of other countries; an important
5) As they say, Life is a boomerang, your (5) …… come part of this modus operand was through the (10) of a
back to you. historiograpy that just denied the existence of any
A. deeds overarching national consciousness. The national
B. imperil struggle, the national movement were given a tribal or
C. imbibe religious character, they were portrayed as being no more
D. laud than the movement of the dominant tribe or the dominant
E. None of these religious group for the achievement of narrow sectional
Direction (6-10): Read the paragraph thoroughly and ends. But the important point in this colonialism, while,
completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph. on the one hand, it objectively created the condition for
Fill the blanks with the following options to make the the coming into being of a national consciousness at a
coherent paragraph. supra-tribal, supra-local and suprareligious level, on the
The development of nationalism in the third world other hand it sought deliberately to subvert this very
countries, as is well known, followed a very different(6) consciousness by using the same forces which it had
from that in the advanced capitalist countries. In the latter objectively undermined.
it was a part of the process of the (7) of the bourgeois order 6)
in opposition to feudalism, while in the former it was a A) perception
Page 898 of 1079

B) trajectory Fill the blanks with the following options to make the
C) way coherent paragraph.
D) perspective Day Dreaming (11) a person to have some time with them
E) None of the above and cogitate over who they really are. In this time and age,
7) when people find it really hard to find out some time for
A) growing them, day dreaming allows a person to (12) himself from
B) develop all the work and think about the things that he really
C) emergence wishes to do in his life. Thus, sometime day dreaming
D) evolve provides you with the time to extract thoughts from your
E) None of the above inner self. Apart from this, day dreaming also (13) the
8) creativity of a person. When a person goes over the same
A) switch over thoughts again and again, they reach a stage where they
B) descend have thought things over and over and have reached the
C) transcending perfect stage. Thus, day dreaming is also necessary
D) traverse because they allow people to do things that they would not
E) None of the above do in normal situations.
9) To start with a person should not waste all his time and
A) divide energy on dreaming about things and never doing much to
B) correlating achieve them in reality. Thus, the first thing that needs to
C) concealing be censored is the time that you spend on day dreaming.
D) splitting Give only the (14) time and do not waste any. Secondly,
E) None of the above also censor the thoughts that move into your mind while
10) you are day dreaming. If you are dreaming about
A) nurturing something constructive, dream on and in a good way.
B) excelled However, if you are day dreaming about something that is
C) expelled (15) or destructive to you, divert your mind instantly to
D) hovered other thoughts or some other work. Day dreaming is not
E) None of the above bad as long as you know why you are doing it.
Direction (11-15): Read the paragraph thoroughly and 11)
completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph. A) leaves
Page 899 of 1079

B) allows Fill the blanks with the following options to make the
C) enhance coherent paragraph.
D) retrieves English Ivy betrays its poor reputation as a nuisance by its
E) None of the above unparalleled ability to provide shade. By seamlessly
12) covering the (16) of a building, it works as a natural
A) absorbing insulator, blocking the sun and decreasing air conditioning
B) neglect costs. This means big savings for both building tenants
C) extract and homeowners alike. And it can happen quickly, too.
D) elude Under the proper conditions, established English Ivy can
E) None of the above grow to cover an area of roughly 500 square feet per year.
13) Given that most homes have a roof measuring roughly
A) high 2000 square feet, ivy-friendly homeowners can rest
B) peaking assured that their roofs will be completely (17) in about
C) increases four years. When considering growth rates of newly
D) withstand planted ivy, just remember the old adage: First year, it
E) None of the above sleeps. Second year, it creeps. Third year, it leaps! For
14) English Ivy, this is especially true.
A) equivalent Now, detractors may take this (18) to remind readers
B) anticipated about how invasive English Ivy can be. For what ivy
C) approximate enthusiast hasn't been (19) about its ability to burrow
D) appropriate holes, fracture windows, and even deteriorate brick? But
E) None of the above be warned. Oftentimes, this suggestion is taken to the
15) comical extreme. Naysayers take a strange pleasure in
A) useless spinning yarns about a particularly malevolent strand of
B) trash ivy—one that slips in through the cracks on a hot summer
C) effectiveness night, silently strangling homeowners in their sleep.
D) worth full Admittedly, this can be a funny story to tell. But are we to
E) None of the above believe such a tale? The intelligent gardener will (20)
Direction (16-20): Read the paragraph thoroughly and dismiss such rubbish for what it is.
completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph. 16)
Page 900 of 1079

A) outer Direction (21-25): Read the paragraph thoroughly and

B) exterior completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph.
C) transparence Fill the blanks with the following options to make the
D) ambience coherent paragraph.
E) None of the above A few weeks ago, I ran into an old friend who is currently
17) one of the mandarins deciding India’s economic and
A) conceal financial policies. He asked, “And so, how is IIT doing?”
B) protect As one can only (21) in friendly banter at such gatherings,
C) covered I responded with, “Not so well actually. Your market-
D) hovered friendly policies have forcedus to raise the fee, so we have
E) None of the above 50% fewer PhD applicants this year. Not batting an eyelid,
18) he shot back: “Obviously. Your PhD students don’t have
A) advance any market value.” Taken aback, I shifted to a more
B) advantage serious tone and tried to start a discussion on the need for
C) opportunity research in these (22) times. But he had already walked
D) stance away. The last word on the imperatives of the ‘market’
E) None of the above had been spoken.
19) Actually, this view of higher education should not have
A) warning surprised me. Worthies who look at everythingas
B) betrayed consumer products (23) higher education as a‘non-merit’
C) expelled good. Non-merit goods are those whereonly the individual
D) cautioned benefits from acquiring them andnot the society as a
E) None of the above whole. Multilateral agencies like The World Bank have
20) too been pushing countries like India to stop subsidies to
A) quickly higher education.
B) sooner When Ron Brown, former US commerce secretary visited
C) fast India, a public meeting was organized at IITDelhi. At that
D) hardly meeting I asked him : “I understand that since the 19th
E) None of the above century all the way up to the 1970s,most land grant and
state universities in the US virtually provided free
Page 901 of 1079

education to state citizens. Was that good for the E) None of the above
economy, or should they have charged high fees in the 24)
early 20th century?” He replied, “It was great for the A) huge
economy. It was one of the best things that the US B) clustering
government did at that particular time in American history C) grouping
- building institutions of higher education which were D) masses
accessible to the (24)of the people. I think it is one of the E) None of the above
reasons why our economy grew and (25), one of the ways 25)
in which the US was able to close some of its social gaps. A) prospered
So people who lived in rural areas would have the same B) excelled
kind of access to higher education as people living in other C) expelled
parts of the country. It was one of the reasons for making D) hovered
America strong.” E) None of the above
21) Directions (26-30): In the following paragraph there
A) involving are five blanks. Find the best word that fit the blank
B) indulge from the given options.
C) derail Niigata is famous for its heavy snowfalls during the winter
D) rehearse month. When one ------(A)------- into the mountains of
E) None of the above Murakami during winter, thick snow ------(B)------- the
22) landscape The natural scenery appears ------(C)-------,
A) galvanized since the never-ending snowfall immediately covers ------
B) enhanced (D)------- left by human footprints with a fresh layer of
C) globalized snow. The buildings of Takane Village, their inhabitants
D) evolved themselves residing ------(E)------- deep layers of snow,
E) None of the above blend into these these beautiful winter scenes.
23) 26) Which of the following would fit the blank A?
A) differ A) enters
B) inculcate B) reaches
C) classify C) ventures
D) activate D) climbs
Page 902 of 1079

E) None of the above Identifying and mitigating water conflicts at the local,
27) Which of the following would fit the blank B? national and regional/trans-boundary levels. Conflicts are
A) shrouds expected to ________ (31) from water shortages and
B) falls declining water quality in many countries across the
C) covers region. Their mitigation demands that countries approach
D) Both A and C the management of surface and ground waters from a
E) All of the above more integrated perspective. USAID will provide
28) Which of the following would fit the blank C? ________ (32) to regional institutions that support trans-
A) immaculate boundary water management and build their capacity to
B) tempestuous engage in regional cooperation, conflict mitigation, and
C) inclement improved management of waters at the river basin level.
D) Both A and C Improve environmental management and economic
E) All of the above productivity of water resources; Because fresh water is a
29) Which of the following would fit the blank D? finite resource, its protection from pollution and
A) areas inefficient use are complementary solutions to its
B) blemishes conservation and to poverty________ (33). USAID, in
C) landscapes coordination with BRI partners, will support watershed-
D) Both A and C based approaches by national and local government to
E) None of the above protect fresh water supplies, and improve the productivity
30) Which of the following would fit the blank E? of water used in agriculture (more crop per drop). This
A) beside broad objective encompasses many of USAID’s ongoing
B) before programs in the Near East and Asia.
C) behind Improve access to, and effective use of, safe water and
D) beneath basic sanitation. Under this objective, USAID will work
E) None of the above with national governments, other donors, the private
Direction (31-35): Read the paragraph thoroughly and sector and NGOs to ________ (34) access to safe water
completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph. and basic sanitation across the ANE region. USAID will
Fill the blanks with the following options to make the focus its efforts on: improving access to financing for
coherent paragraph. expanding water and sanitation infrastructure, improving
the effectiveness of utility operations, working through
Page 903 of 1079

public-private partnerships to improve household hygiene B) privileged

and sanitation, and expanding sanitation services in the C) affluent
________ (35) pier-urban and urban areas in selected D) exotic
countries. E) None of the above
31) Direction (36-40): Read the paragraph thoroughly and
A) involve completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph.
B) emerge Fill the blanks with the following options to make the
C) built coherent paragraph.
D) begin Organizations today to some extent have realized
E) None of the above the (36) of the employee-work-life balance and its
32) importance in the efficiency of the employees. They can
A) aiding help facilitate work-life balance for their employees
B) action through work-life programs and training. In offices also,
C) support efforts are being made to provide friendly work
D) summon atmosphere for the employees by providing all sorts of
E) None of the above refreshments available for the employee.
33) The employees are given the (37) to have their own
A) decreasing ways of doing the work. They are given the assignments
B) emerging with deadlines and they can have their own schedule as far
C) reduction as they are meeting the deadlines. Some organizations
D) reduce have gone to the extent of involving the families of the
E) None of the above employees by (38) maternity leaves / paternity leaves and
34) various holiday packages and insurance schemes.
A) extending Organizations now focus on grooming their employees
B) exhort who are now not considered merely a work force but
C) narrow regarded as the 'Human Capital' of the organization.
D) expand Hence, the concept of ‘Work life balance’ is
E) None of the above becoming more and more relevant in a never-dynamic
35) working environment. The role played by the individual is
A) underserved as important as that of the organization in managing this
Page 904 of 1079

tumultuous see saw. One of the best (39) to this is by the 40)
use of one's emotional intelligence. A) soaring
Be sure to remember that striking a work-life B) amplifying
balance is a continuous process, rather than a one-shot C) alarming
deal. Work and home life should be balanced. If there is a D) climbed
tilt in the balance there are chances of (40) stress levels. E) None of the above
36) Direction (41-45): In the following passage, some of the
A) vital words have been left out, each of which is indicated by
B) importance a number. Find the suitable word from the options
C) prominent given against each number and fill up the blanks with
D) existence appropriate words to make the paragraph
E) None of the above meaningfully complete.
37) In Saudi Arabia, a landmark (41) …… allowing women
A) liberal over the age of 21 to receive passports and travel abroad
B) permissive without permission from a male guardian has begun. The
C) freedom reform comes after high-profile attempts by women to
D) permissions escape (42) ……guardianship abuse despite a string of
E) None of the above reforms by Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman,
38) including a landmark (43) ……last year that overturned
A) forming the world's only ban on women drivers.
B) initiate In other changes (44) ……earlier this month, Saudi
C) introducing women were also granted the right to officially register
D) started childbirth, marriage or divorce and to be recognized as a
E) None of the above guardian to children who are minors -- same as men.
39) The reform comes as the OPEC petroleum producer (45)
A) idea ……from low oil prices and seeks to boost employment
B) strategic opportunities for women -- currently facing chronic
C) planning joblessness.
D) approaches 41) In Saudi Arabia, a landmark (41) ……allowing
E) None of the above women over the age of 21 to receive passports and
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travel abroad without permission from a male as a guardian to children who are minors -- same as
guardian has begun. men.
A.Reform A.Unveiled
B.Opulence B.Upshot
C.Strenuously C.Obliteration
D.Arduous D.Bohemian
42) The reform comes after high-profile attempts by 45) The reform comes as the OPEC petroleum
women to escape (42) ……guardianship abuse despite producer (45) ……from low oil prices and seeks to
a string of reforms by Crown Prince Mohammed bin boost employment opportunities for women --
Salman, including a landmark decree last year that currently facing chronic joblessness.
overturned the world's only ban on women drivers. A.Detractor
A.Impede B.Furtively
B.Alleged C.Ascetic
C.Mend D.Reels
D.Marshaled E.None of these
E.None of these Direction (46-50): Read the paragraph thoroughly and
43) The reform comes after high-profile attempts by completely. There are five blanks in the paragraph.
women to escape alleged guardianship abuse despite a Fill the blanks with the following options to make the
string of reforms by Crown Prince Mohammed bin coherent paragraph.
Salman, including a landmark (43)……last year that Bringing literature into your mind (46) your thinking
overturned the world's only ban on women drivers. process. Literature expands your learning and helps you
A.Conscious in writing and understanding different phrases. Literary
B.Hegemony works are portrayals of the thinking patterns and social
C.Impotence norms prevalent in the society. They are a depiction of the
D.Dominion different facets of common man's life.
E.None of these Classical literary works (47) as a food for thought and a
44) In other changes (44) ……earlier this month, Saudi tonic for imagination and creativity. Exposing an
women were also granted the right to officially register individual to good literary works, is (48) to providing him
childbirth, marriage or divorce and to be recognized with the finest of educational opportunities. On the other
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hand, the lack of exposure to classic literary works is equal D) intrudes

to depriving an individual from an opportunity to grow as E) None of the above
an individual. 48)
Though languages form the building blocks of literature A) simultaneously
the study of literature cannot be (49) to only studying B) insistence
languages. A degree in language and literature is perhaps C) equivalent
unable to provide one, with everything that literature can D) covalent
offer. Literature is the foundation of life as it provides the E) None of the above
ability to (50) human relationships and demarcate what is 49)
right and what is wrong. Therefore, words are alive more A) warned
than ever before. B) betrayed
46) C) stopping
A) climbs D) restricted
B) elevates E) None of the above
C) emerges 50)
D) beholds A) connect
E) None of the above B) joining
47) C) collide
A) behaves D) conceal
B) acts E) None of the above
C) serve
Cloze Test - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: B offensive which fit here both grammatically and
In the given sentence, only ‘shocking’ makes it contextually
grammatically as well as contextually correct. Option C): is incorrect as certain means able to be firmly
Option A): is incorrect because lambast means criticize relied on to happen or be the case.
(someone or something) harshly which does not fit here. Option D): is incorrect as assuage means make (an
Option B): is the correct alternative among the following unpleasant feeling) less intense which does not fit here
as shocking means causing indignation or disgust; contextually.
2) Answer: A
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In the given sentence, only ‘desolate’ makes it Option A): is incorrect because pontificate means express
grammatically as well as contextually correct. one's opinions in a pompous and dogmatic way which
Option A): is the correct alternative among the following does not fit here.
as ‘desolate’ means feeling or showing great unhappiness Option B): is incorrect as exacerbate means make (a
or loneliness which fits here both grammatically and problem, bad situation, or negative feeling) worse which
contextually does not make any sense here.
Option B): is incorrect as soothe means gently calm (a Option C): is incorrect as ‘precarious’ does not fit here.
person or their feelings) which does not make any sense Option D): is incorrect as refute does not fit here
here. contextually.
Option C): is incorrect as refrain means stop oneself from 5) Answer: A
doing something. In the given sentence, only ‘deeds’ makes it
Option D): is incorrect as jeopardise does not fit here grammatically as well as contextually correct.
contextually. Option A is the correct alternative among the following as
3) Answer: D deeds means an action that is performed intentionally or
In the given sentence, only ‘desperate’ makes it consciously which perfectly fits in the blank both
grammatically as well as contextually correct. grammatically and contextually
Option A): is incorrect because rebut means claim or Option B is incorrect as imperil means put at risk of being
prove that (evidence or an accusation) is false which does harmed, injured, or destroyed which does not make any
not fit here. sense here.
Option B): is incorrect as castigate means reprimand Option C is incorrect because imbibe means drink
(someone) severely which does not make any sense here. (alcohol).
Option C): is incorrect as ‘agitate’ does not fit here. Option D is incorrect because laud means praise (a person
Option D): is the correct alternative among the following or their achievements) highly which is contextually
as ‘desperate’ means feeling or showing a hopeless sense wrong.
that a situation is so bad as to be impossible to deal with 6) Answer: B
which fit here both grammatically and contextually trajectory -the curved path of something that has been
4) Answer: E fired, hit or thrown intothe air
In the given sentence, only ‘insisted’ makes it The other options A , C & D are incorrect as these options
grammatically as well as contextually correct. do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
contextually.
Page 908 of 1079

7) Answer: C The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options

emergence -to become known do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options contextually.
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and 13) Answer: C
contextually. Increases - become or make greater in size, amount, or
8) Answer: C degree.
transcending -to be or go beyond the usual limits of The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options
something do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options contextually.
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and 14) Answer: D
contextually. Appropriate - suitable or proper in the circumstances.
9) Answer: D The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options
splitting - the action of dividing or being divided into do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
parts. contextually.
The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options 15) Answer: A
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and Useless - not fulfilling or not expected to achieve the
contextually. intended purpose or desired outcome.
10) Answer: A The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options
nurturing -to have a feeling, an idea, a plan, etc. for a long do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
time and encourage it to develop contextually.
The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options 16) Answer: B
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and exterior – forming, situated on, or relating to the outside
contextually. of something.
11) Answer: B The other options A , C & D are incorrect as these options
Allows - let (someone) have or do something. do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
The other options A , C & D are incorrect as these options contextually.
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and 17) Answer: C
contextually. covered - put something on top of or in front of
12) Answer: C (something), especially in order to protect or conceal it.
Extract - remove or take out, especially by effort or force.
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The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and
contextually. contextually.
18) Answer: C 23) Answer: C
Opportunity- a time or set of circumstances that makes it Classify - assign to a particular class or category.
possible to do something. The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options
The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and
do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and contextually.
contextually. 24) Answer: D
19) Answer: D Masses - a large number of people or objects crowded
Cautioned - say something as a warning. together.
The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options
Quickly- at a fast speed; rapidly. Prospered - flourish physically; grow strong and healthy.
The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options
Indulge -become involved in (an activity, typically one When one ventures into the mountains of Murakami
that is undesirable or disapproved of). during winter, thick snow covers the landscape.
The other options A , C & D are incorrect as these options Venture - A trip or a set amount of travelling; journey,
do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and adventure, campaign
contextually. The blank needs a verb which expresses the start of a
22) Answer: C journey. But post the blank preposition ‘into’ is there. So
Globalized- develop or be developed so as to make we need to choose the verb accordingly. Climb won’t take
international influence or operation possible. ‘into’ preposition after that. Hence it is rejected. Option A
and B are eliminated for the reason they will not fit the
blank contextually.
Page 910 of 1079

27) Answer: D The buildings of Takane Village, their inhabitants

When one ventures into the mountains of Murakami themselves residing beneath deep layers of snow,
during winter, thick snow covers/ shrouds the landscape. We need a word which conveys the meaning
Falls is contextually unfit. corresponding to under, below.
Shrouds - a thing that envelops or obscures something Beneath – underneath, below, under, lower down
The natural scenery appears immaculate. Emerge - move out of or away from something and
We need a word which glorifies about the beauty of the become visible.
nature. Option A fits for that reason. The other options A , C & D are incorrect as these options
Immaculate –clean, spotless, beautiful divine. do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
Both Options B and C express opposite of the required contextually.
expression. 32) Answer: C
Inclement – unpleasant, disagreeable Support - bear all or part of the weight of; hold up.
Tempestuous – stormy, turbulent, violent The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options
Emancipate - To set free from the power of another; do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
liberate, free, release contextually.
Since the never-ending snowfall immediately covers Reduction - the action or fact of making something
blemishes left by human footprints with a fresh layer of smaller or less in amount, degree, or size.
snow. The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options
Blemishes - To cause to become soiled or dirty; defiles do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
stains, befouls, besmirches. contextually.
The blank needs a word which can modify the part post 34) Answer: D
the blank. Post the blank “left by human footprints” Expand- become or make larger or more extensive.
convey something has to be done/left by the human The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options
footprints Option B correctly expresses that. But option A do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
and C are incorrect in terms of context. “Landscapes” and contextually.
“areas” are noun and will not fit the blank. 35) Answer: A
30) Answer: D underserved - inadequately provided with a service or
facility.
Page 911 of 1079

The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options
Importance - the state or fact of being of great In the given sentence, only ‘reform’ makes it
significance or value. grammatically as well as contextually correct.
The other options A , C & D are incorrect as these options Option A): is the correct alternative among the following
do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and as ‘reform’ fit here both grammatically and contextually
contextually. Option B): is incorrect as ‘opulence’ means great wealth
37) Answer: C or luxuriousness which does not make any sense here.
Freedom - the state of not being subject to or affected by Option C): is incorrect as ‘strenuously’ means in a way
(something undesirable). that requires great physical exertion.
The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options Option D): is incorrect as ‘arduous’ does not fit here
do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and contextually.
contextually. 42) Answer: B
38) Answer: C In the given sentence, only ‘alleged’ makes it
Introducing - bring into use or operation for the first time. grammatically as well as contextually correct.
The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options Option A): is incorrect because impede means delay or
do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and prevent (someone or something) by obstructing them
contextually. which does not fit here.
39) Answer: D Option B): is the correct alternative among the following
Approaches - come near or nearer to (someone or as ‘alleged’ which fit here both grammatically and
something) in distance or time. contextually
The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options Option C): is incorrect as ‘mend’ means repair (something
do not makes the sentence correct both grammatically and that is broken or damaged).
contextually. Option D): is incorrect as ‘marshaled’ does not fit here
40) Answer: A contextually.
Soaring - increasing rapidly above the usual level. 43) Answer: E
In the given sentence, only ‘decree’ makes it
grammatically as well as contextually correct.
Page 912 of 1079

Option A): is incorrect because ‘conscious’ does not fit Option C): is incorrect as ‘ascetic’ does not fit here.
here. Option D): is the correct alternative among the following
Option B): is incorrect as ‘hegemony’ does not make any as ‘reels’ fit here both grammatically and contextually
sense here. 46) Answer: B
Option C): is the incorrect as ‘impotence’ does not fit here. elevates – raise or lift (something) to a higher position.
Option D): is incorrect as dominion does not fit here The other options A, C & D are incorrect as these options
contextually. do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
44) Answer: A contextually.
In the given sentence, only ‘unveiled’ makes it 47) Answer: C
grammatically as well as contextually correct. Serve - perform duties or services for
Option A is the correct alternative among the following as The other options A, B & D are incorrect as these options
‘unveiled’ perfectly fits in the blank both grammatically do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
and contextually contextually.
Option B is incorrect as upshot means the final or eventual 48) Answer: C
outcome or conclusion of a discussion which does not Equivalent - equal in value, amount, function, meaning,
make any sense here. etc..
Option C is incorrect because ‘obliteration’ means the The other options A , B & D are incorrect as these options
action or fact of obliterating or being obliterated. do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
Option D is incorrect because ‘bohemian’ means a contextually.
socially unconventional person, especially one who is 49) Answer: D
involved in the arts which is contextually wrong. Restricted - limited in extent, number, scope, or action.
45) Answer: D The other options A , B & C are incorrect as these options
In the given sentence, only ‘reels’ makes it grammatically do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
as well as contextually correct. contextually.
Option A): is incorrect because detractor means a person 50) Answer: A
who disparages someone or something which does not fit connect - bring together or into contact so that a real or
here. notional link is established.
Option B): is incorrect as furtively means in a way that The other options D , B & C are incorrect as these options
attempts to avoid notice or attention which does not make do not make the sentence correct both grammatically and
any sense here. contextually.
Page 913 of 1079

Sentence Correction/ Improvement

Direction (1-5): From the options given below, select b) He is a moderate Democrat who lacks a history of harsh
the option which states the correct combination of partisanship or scandal. And he has long appealed to white
incorrect/correct sentences. working-class voters, who are part of his base.
1) c) It is going to be more difficult for the campaign to go
a) Our election-forecasting model now gives him just a after a man who really is a centrist, has been dealings with
one-in-ten chance of being re-elected in November but as people across the aisle and knows how to talk to people
his prospects for a legitimate victory have faded. who disagree with him.
b) Academics found dips in life satisfaction and other d) Early hopes for a quick rebound from the pandemic
measures of well-being in the United States and several have yielded to worries about its long-term impact on state
European countries, though the affects were mainly finances and the governor’s ambitious agenda.
limited to people who lost their jobs. A) both a and d are correct
c) Locally acquired cases were virtually stamped out a B) both a and c are incorrect
month ago, largely because of stay-at-home rules and the C) both a and b are incorrect
quarantining in bleak hotels of the few people still allowed D) both b and d are incorrect
into the country. E) all sentences are correct
d) He has had few public appearances and news 3)
conferences, which can provide the unscripted moments a) The virus’s human toll is therefore vast in terms of
opponents can use to shape the public perception of a deaths and dollars but given the correlation between GDP
candidate. per person and Gallup’s measures of well-being, it may
A) both a and d are correct have an enduring impact on the world’s quality of life too.
B) both a and c are incorrect b) The president, with every tweet, every insult, will move
C) both a and b are incorrect him out of favor with the demographic that he needs the
D) both b and d are incorrect most, which is the independent.
E) all sentences are correct c) Voters had mostly been open to paying for expand
2) services and priorities like affordable housing, but they
a) Adam Mayer found that among Europeans of similar seem to be turning wary of new taxes.
wealth and education, those which had recently become d) In the state as in the nation, the worst declines will be
unemployed and struggled to buy staple foods had the in the leisure and hospitality industries, while higher-wage
worst outlook on life.
Page 914 of 1079
areas like technology will be better off, a dynamic that will a) The period before the conventions is typically the time
make financial inequality worse. when candidates make the kind of mistakes their
A) both a and d are correct opponents can use to set the frame for the fall campaign.
B) both a and c are incorrect b) Even if the country avoids a second wave of infections
C) both a and b are incorrect in the fall, and a vaccine is made and distributed quickly,
D) both b and d are incorrect that won’t keep many businesses from failing.
E) all sentences are correct c) This time economic plunge has been more or less in line
4) with the nation, with resilience in tech and other
a) He has tried to portray his opponent as senile, corrupt professional jobs helping to balance out the steep losses in
and an ally of China, but none of those lines of attack has areas like trade and tourism.
resonated with the public, at least up to now. d) Astronomers have found that galaxies are gathered in
b) He has the obstacle of familiarity in trying to draw giant clouds called clusters and that these are connected to
attention to his attacks and his credibility has suffered over one another in filaments to form superclusters extending
the past four year, which might make him an imperfect across billions of light-years.
messenger A) both a and d are correct
c) California has always been a boom-and-bust economy, B) both a and c are incorrect
so while nobody was predicting a global pandemic that C) all sentences are correct
would tear through the service sector, the prospect of D) both b and d are incorrect
struggle was not unforeseen. E) both a and b are incorrect
d) Exactly how and how quickly the state should have
reopened, and who is to blame for the backslide, are Direction (6-9): In each of the following questions
unlikely to ever be resolved. three sentences are given about same topic, one or
A) both a and d are correct more sentence may or may not contain error. Identify
B) both a and c are incorrect the sentences which does not contain error and mark
C) both a and b are incorrect them as your answer.
D) both b and d are incorrect 6)
E) all sentences are correct A) The government will launch a technology solution next
5) month to enable detection of lost or stolen mobile phones
that were operating in the country, an official said.
Page 915 of 1079

B) The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) is A ) The Karnal police on Sunday claimed to have cracked
ready with the technology and the service was expected to the sensational murder of eminent doctor Rajiv Gupta by
be launched in August. the arrest of three persons.
C) The system is also expected to protect consumer B) The accused had been identified as Pawan, Raman and
interest and facilitate law enforcement authorities for Shiv Kumar, all residents of Karnal.
lawful interception. C) Congress Communication chief and Jind MLA
A.Only A and B Randeep Singh Surjewala condemned the government for
B.Only C “complete failure of law and order”.
C.Only B and C A.Only B
D.Only A and B B.Only A and B
E.All A, B and C C.Only A and C
7) D.Only B and C
A) A similar bill had lapsed following the dissolution of E.All A, B and C
the 16th Lok Sabha last month. It was passed by the lower 9)
house but was pending in Rajya Sabha. A) The 59-year-old said Bumrah is someone who not only
B) Sources in the government said that the Law Ministry contributes with wickets but can put the brakes on
proposal came before the Union Cabinet on June 24 where opposition’s scoring rate.
it was decided that it be held back for “further study”. B) “From a bowling perspective, it was all about Jasprit
C) There has been demands from various parties to extend Bumrah again. He really is the leader of the Indian attack.
similar facility to domestic migrants who are unable to C) He has a fantastic striking ability and we saw that
vote when elections are held in their native places as most against Sri Lanka.
cannot afford to travel or miss work. A.Only A and C
A.Only A and C B.Only B and C
B.Only B and C C.Only A
C.Only A and B D.Only A and B
D.Only A E.All A, B and C
E.All A, B and C Direction (10-14): In each of the following questions
8) three sentences are given about same topic, one or
more sentence may or may not contain error. Identify
Page 916 of 1079

the sentences which does not contain error and mark C.Only B and C
them as your answer. D.Only A
10) E.All A, B and C
A). With rebel MLA M.T.B. Nagaraj heading to Mumbai 12)
on Sunday after talks to mollify him appeared to have A). A major 7.3-magnitude earthquake hit the remote
failed, Congress leaders in Karnataka express confidence Maluku islands in eastern Indonesia on Sunday, sending
that he has gone to bring back another disgruntled MLA. panicked residents running into the streets.
B). Mr.Nagaraj and Mr.Sudhakar had submitted B). Officials were assessing the situation but there was no
resignation together to Speaker K.R. Ramesh Kumar on immediate reports of casualties, he told AFP.
July 10.6 C). “Electricity went off during the earthquake, but now
C). According to sources, Mr.Nagaraj headed to Mumbai it’s back to normal,” Subur said, adding that at least seven
to try to bring back Mr.Sudhakar. big aftershocks were felt after the initial quake.
A.Only B and C A.Only A and B
B.Only A and C B.Only B and C
C.Only B and A C.Only A and C
D.Only C D.Only B
E.All A, B and C E.All A, B and C
11) 13)
A). Stone pelting incidents in Jammu and Kashmir have A). Not mincing words to attack his co-promoter at
come down significantly from a high of over 2,600 in IndiGo, Rahul Bhatia’s IGE says, “Mr.Gangwal was
2016 to barely a few dozen in the first half of 2019, missing in action” during this difficult time and in fact
officials said on Sunday. attempted to de-risk himself and pushed for the business
B). The arrests of miscreants involved in stone pelting to be sold.
incidents also has come down from over 10,500 to just B). In the latest on the corporate war saga among the two
about a hundred. founders of IndiGo, Rahul Bhatia says he played the more
C). According to the Home Ministry statistics, there were significant role in taking massive financial risks as well as
2,653 incidents of stone pelting in 2016 for which 10,571 nurturing the airline in its nascent years with his company
miscreants were arrested by police. Inter Globe Enterprises’s established presence in the
A.Only A and B aviation sector.
B.Only A and C
Page 917 of 1079

C). Until IndiGo had a strong balance sheet to support is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage. Then,
itself seven years after it was set up, it was left to Rahul choose the most appropriate option.
Bhatia’s IGE Group, “to fend for IndiGo”, the IGE Group 15)
said in a press statement on Sunday. A.The Sebi consultation paper on business responsibility
A.Only A and B and sustainability reporting is welcome.
B.Only B and C B.Businesses is, of course, accountable to their
C.Only A and C shareholders.
D.Only B C.But, increasingly, consumers, employees and investors
E.All A, B and C also seeks sustainability,
2nd error: (’s) is not used with the words that ends with D. social responsibility and good governance in corporate
‘s’, hence, “Enterprises’s” should be replaced with performance.
“Enterprises’). a) A, D
14) b) C only
A). The death of 21 labourers in two near-consecutive c) D only
wall collapse mishaps has come us a wake-up call for the d) B, C
Pune civic body administration. e) C, D
B). With this, the PMC hopes to square the circle of 16)
labourer registrations, while at the same time ensuring a A. This will be the second consecutive decade when the
modicum of security for them. world will fail to meet its targets.
C). Mr.Abhyankar say a number of other factors B. Countries need to step up, individually and collectively,
complicate the issue of workers not registering with the and transition to development pathways that take for
labour office. account the critical role of nature.
A.Only A and C C. Failure to do so could undermine efforts to meet the
B.Only B and C Paris climate goals
C.Only C D. and the 2015 Sustainable Development Goals.
D.Only A and B a) A, B
E.All A, B and C b) A, C, D
Directions (15-17): In each question, there are four c) C only
sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. d) E only
Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that e) B only
Page 918 of 1079

17) A) To pursue a passion, find a cause that resonates to you.

A.The WWF’s biennial report finds a 68% decline in B) Maybe you feel the need to help others or solve the
animal population from 1970 and 2016. world’s problems.
B.The 2018 edition reported a 60% decline between 1970 C) Go out of your comfort zone.
and 2014. D) Seek out controversy and think about what you could
C.The UN report finds that countries will fails to meet a do to help.
single of the 20 targets they collectively set in E) All sentences are error free.
D.Japan in 2010 to slowing down the destruction of 20)
wildlife and ecosystems. A) Acid rain affects nearly everything.
a) A, B & D B) Plants, soil, trees, buildings and even statues can be
b) B, C & D transformed by the precipitation.
c) B & D C) The term acid rain was coined in 1852 by Scottish
d) B only chemist Robert Angus Smith.
e) D only D) Acid rain has been found to be very hard on trees.
Directions (18-20): In the following question, five E) All sentences are error free.
sentences are given. Find out the sentence/s that Directions (21-24): In each question, mark as your
has/have grammatical error. If all the sentences are answer the grammatically incorrect sentences.
correct, mark “no error” as your answer. 21)
18) (i) He was one of those people who pop up randomly and
A) The World Bank Group considers corruption a major change everything, and you can’t imagine any story of
challenge to its twin goals of ending extreme poverty by your life, lame as it might be, told without them.
2030 (ii) How to express the significance of the place and of
B) In addition to, reducing corruption is at the heart of the Len in particular without sounding ridiculous.
Sustainable Development Goals (iii) Len was one of the first person to notice something,
C) Corruption has a disproportionate impact on the poor anything, in me.
and most vulnerable (iv) My job was to entertain rich kids from the suburbs
D) Empirical studies have shown that the poor pay the while their parents went on vacation.
highest percentage of their income in bribes. a) (i)
E) All sentences are error free. b) (ii)
19) c) (iii)
Page 919 of 1079

d) (ii), (iii) e) None of these

e) (iv) 24)
22) (i) The number of students of our batch are going to take
(i) From that day on, Maryan never brought another part in the competition.
creature into the house. (ii) Devoid of any vegetation, Ladakh is a dessert.
(ii) He locked Stach in the cage since a period of eight (iii) Incessant rains wore away the green cover of the cliff.
weeks, for the eight years he himself had spent in jail. (iv) That’s what the poet thrives on.
(iii) The bird was never the same again after his release. a) (i) (ii)
(iv) All day long he stood on the roof of his cage with his b) (iii)(iv)
damaged wing hanging down, his head bent, not uttering c) (iii)
a sound. d) (iv)
a) (i) e) None of these
b) (ii) Direction (25): From the options given below, select the
c) (iii) option which states the correct combination of
d) (iv) incorrect/correct sentences.
e) (i), (iii) 25) I. The myth of India’s Tibet card were finally shattered
23) with the rare recognition of a secretive Indian military unit
(i) Mary looked at her papers layed out on the table and with Tibetan soldiers called Special Frontier Force (SFF).
advised her that since they were not together, and the child II. The public display of solidarity during the Tibetan
lived with her, it was her right to claim expenses. soldier’s funeral ceremony, killed in the front lines of
(ii) The woman’s eyes welled with tears and they began to deadly clashes with China on 29 August, has virtually
fall one right after the other. ‘revealed’ the secretive force raised by India through a lot
(iii) She made sure to leave blank the box that asked for of visibility to the event.
$3 to go to the presidential election campaign. III. Nyima Tenzin, a Tibetan soldier from the SSF was
(iv) She filled in exemptions, calculated total income, then given a funeral with full military honours, rapped in the
adjusted gross income. Tibetan flag and the Tricolour, in Ladakh.
a) (i) IV. The ceremony was telecast between India and
b) (ii) conveyed a solemn acknowledgment of the role ethnic
c) (iii) (iv) Tibetans, descendants of those who sought refuge in India
d) (iv)
Page 920 of 1079

after China invaded and occupied Tibet in 1950, have C. by the way
played in India’s elite SFF border units. D. probably
A. Only II and III are correct E. in contrast
B. Only I and II are correct 28)
C. Only I is incorrect I. On the 26th of June 1657 he was once more installed as
D. I, II, III and IV are incorrect Protector, this time, however, with regal ceremony
E. Only I, II and III are incorrect. II. With the simple formalities observed on the first
Direction(26-28) : In each of the following questions, occasion, the heralds proclaiming his accession in the
two statements and five connectors are given. Only one same manner as that of the kings.
of the connectors from those given can be used to A. because
combine the given two statements into one sentence B. owing to
without changing the meaning. Choose that connector C. from
as your answer. D. since
26) E. in contrast
I. Questions of affinity, and the details of geographical Direction(29-31): In each of the following questions,
distribution, were endowed with a real interest two statements and five connectors are given. Only one
II. With which any interest that had hitherto been taken of the connectors from those given can be used to
was a trifling pastime. combine the given two statements into one sentence
A. since without changing the meaning. Choose that connector
B. instead
as your answer.
C. between
29)
D. in comparison
I. After years of scepticism about the theory of global
E. because
warming, increasing scientific evidence shows that our
27)
planet is indeed heated up.
I. Without doubt, the national bourgeoisie tends to
II. Human-induced factors, such as carbon emissions and
vacillate, but we should
`dirty' industrial technology.
II. Make use of its positive side, uniting with it as well as
A. Instead of
struggling against it.
B. Nonetheless
A. nevertheless
C. On account of
B. in spite of
D. Since
Page 921 of 1079

E. Though a. Only (i) is correct,

30) b. Only (ii) is correct,
I. Levels of CO2 emissions have been falling since 1970. c. Only (iii) is correct,
II. Improved efficiency and increasing use of nuclear d. Both (i) and (ii) are correct,
power. e. Both (ii) and (iii) are correct
A. Since 33)
B. Nevertheless 1. This restaurant has some of the best chefs in the
C. Though town.
D. as a result of 2. Their service is excellent.
E. None of these (i)In addition to
31) (ii)moreover
I. Dean wondered if Jeff was not the saint she (iii)beside
thought, not deceased. a. Only (i) is correct
II. Bopping along somewhere west of Kansas, with b. Only (ii) is correct
several million bucks in his pocket. c. Only (iii) is correct
A. Since d. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
B. Because of e. None is correct.
C. Nevertheless Directions (34-35): Choose the best connector that can
D. Though be used to connect the two sentences given in the
E. Instead question.
Directions (32 to 33): Select the phrase/connector from 34)
the given options which can be used to form a single (a) The goals of the treatment are to foster the therapeutic
sentence from the sentences given below, implying the relationship, to provide a supportive and empathic setting
same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. (b) The child can come to better understand his/her
32) emotions/feelings.
1. Stella seems to be quite intelligent. A) Which
2. She often gets poor grades. B) Though
(i) whereas C) Where
(ii) otherwise D) But
(iii) nonetheless E) None of the above
Page 922 of 1079

35) A) when
(a) Many people are afraid to make decisions B) As
(b) The child can come to better understand his/her C) But
emotions/feelings. D) however
A) when E) None of the above
B) In spite of 38)
C) Which (a) A mass exodus of tech startups is expected this year.
D) While (b) An increasing number of young ventures shifts
E) None of the above overseas in search of investors and a better regulatory
Directions (36-40): Choose the best connector that can environment and facilities.
be used to connect the two sentences given in the A) when
question. B) As
36) C) If
(a) Most other industries have undergone tremendous D) Unless
changes over the last few decades, and have reaped the E) Although
benefits of process and product innovations. 39)
(b) The Engineering & Construction sector has been (a) Currently, gold hallmarking is voluntary in nature.
hesitant about fully embracing the latest technological (b) It will be made mandatory from June 2021.
opportunities. A) but
A) Due to B) Since
B) As a result C) whereas
C) While D) while
D) Similarly E) None of the above
E) None of the above 40)
37) (a) Google's plans to buy Motorola Mobility for $12.5
(a) Virus curbs were tightened in the Seoul region last billion might seem like a lot of money.
week. (b) The Web giant can easily afford it.
(b) With more than 300 cases reported two days in a row, A) However
authorities expanded coronavirus restrictions to the rest of B) As
the country. C) But
Page 923 of 1079

D) Due to the fact D) Option b only

E) None of the above E) None of the above
Directions (41-43): In the following question, two 43)
sentences are given and they are followed by the 1. These multinationals, including Nestle, Mondelez,
phrases. Select the phrase(s) from the given three McDonald's, CocaCola, PepsiCo, Kellogg, Mars and
options which can be used to connect the two sentences Ferrero, already had a mandate on responsible
to make a single sentence. advertising.
41) 2. It was largely restricted to mass advertising on
1. The microbes had ceased all noticeable activity. television and print.
2. When offered nutrients and other necessities of life a. Whereas it was largely restricted...
they became active again. b. While these multinationals …
a. But When offered nutrients... c. on the other hand it was largely restricted...
b. While the microbes had ceased … A) Option a and b
c. Whereas When offered nutrients... B) Option b only
A) Option a and b C) Options b and c
B) Option a only D) Option C only
C) Options b and c E) All of the above
D) Option C only Directions (44-48): Choose the best connector that can
E) None of the above be used to connect the two sentences given in the
42) question.
1. Fresh water is the lifeblood of our planet. 44) Last week, Twitter accused US President Donald
2. Freshwater ecosystems connect headwaters with Trump of making false claims in some of his posts.
oceans, land with water, and people with the resources The platform has come under fire for not removing
they need to thrive. corona virus misinformation.
a. Although fresh water is the... I) However
b. and freshwater ecosystems connect … II) Because
c. but also freshwater ecosystems connect ….. III) But
A) Option a and b IV) Even after
B) Option a only V) Although
C) Options b and c
Page 924 of 1079

A) Only I B) Only V C) I, V D) I, III, V IV) Unless

E) II, IV V) Though
45) Businesses will be reluctant to hire and spend on A) I, III B) I, V C) Only V D) Only IV
new projects. E) Only II
They repair their finances, particularly as Social 48) Our current policy is that if content is actually
distancing eats into demand and productivity. inciting violence, we should mitigate it.
I) when The right mitigation is to take that content down – not
II) As let people continue seeing it behind a flag.
III) But I) Because
IV) While II) As
V) Although III) Then
A) Only I B) Only V C) Only II D) I, II IV) However
E) III, IV V) Though
46) The rate of recoveries has no other way to go but A) I, V B) Only I C) Only IV D) Only
steadily upwards. III E) II
There is gross mismanagement of the health system. Direction (49-50): In the below question there are two
I) when sentences. Connect the two sentences using the possible
II) As connector. The connecting word can/cannot be a
III) If starter, but it should connect the two sentences
IV) Unless grammatically and meaningfully correct.
V) Although 49)
A) I, II B) I, IV C) Only IV D) III (i) Climate action is closely tied to the immediate task
E) IV, V of protecting jobs and livelihood.
47) OIL (Oil India Limited) has been running oil/gas (ii) It will become yet another casualty of COVID-19.
wells in Upper Assam for years. A) However
It appeared woefully short of expertise to contain the B) though
damage from the blowout and fire. C) unless
I) So D) If
II) As E) None of the above
III) If 50)
Page 925 of 1079

(i) Bank of America’s bold prediction was made after E) None of the above
gold prices initially dropped in March In the first sentence prediction by Bank of America is a
(ii) Investors sought cash to cover losses on riskier consequence of investors sought cash to cover losses on
assets riskier assets which is mentioned in sentence (ii).
A) Whereas Simply sentence (i) is the result of sentence (ii)
B) Despite We use as to connect a result with a cause: I went to bed
C) as at 9 pm as I had a plane to catch at 6 am. (reason and result
D) When meaning ‘because’)
Sentence Correction/ Improvement - Answers with Explanation

1) Answer: D Statement c is incorrect as ‘expand services’ should be
Statement a is incorrect. [ in this sentence ‘but as’ can’t replaced with ‘expanding services. [after preposition
be use, we should use only ‘as’] (V+ing) is used]
Statement b is incorrect as ‘affects’(verb) should be Statement d is correct.
replaced with effects (noun). [ after article (the) a noun 4) Answer: D
(effects) should be used] Statement a is correct.
Statement c is correct. Statement b is incorrect as ‘the past four year’ should be
Statement d is incorrect as ‘public perception’ should be replaced with ‘the past four years’.
replaced with public’s perception. Statement c is correct.
2) Answer: B Statement d is incorrect as ‘how quick’ should be
Statement a is incorrect as ‘those which had’ should be replaced with ‘how quickly’. [an adverb (quickly) is
replaced with ‘those who had’. needed to describe the verb (reopened)]
Statement b is correct. 5) Answer: C
Statement c is incorrect as ‘has been dealings’ should be All the statements are correct.
replaced with ‘has dealings’. 6) Answer: B
Statement d is correct. Here statement A is in present tense hence usage
3) Answer: A of were is grammatically wrong which should be replaced
Statement a is correct. with are
Statement b is incorrect as ‘move him out’ should be In statement B also usage of was is grammatically wrong
replaced with ‘move himself out’ [after verb reflexive because sentence is in present tense, hence it should be
pronouns (himself) are used as object] replaced with is
Page 926 of 1079


Here in sentence C has is given, but next demands are Here in sentence C, subject of the sentence is singular
given which is plural. Hence usage of has is hence usage of say is grammatically wrong which should
grammatically wrong which should be replaced with have be replaced with says
8) Answer: D 15) Answer: A
By indicates who performed the action and with indicates In part B “is” should be replaced with “are” as the subject
what is used to perform action. Hence here usage of by is “businesses” is plural.
grammatically wrong which should be replaced In part C, “seeks” should be replaced with “seek”.
with, with. Hence A and D are correct.
Here in statement A parallelism is the goal, means two In part B, “take for” should be replaced with “take into”
events happening at same time. Hence but should be as here “into” is the appropriate preposition.
replaced with but also Hence A, C, D are correct.
10) Answer: A 17) Answer: D
Here sentence A is in past tense, hence usage of express is In part A, “from” should be replaced with “between” as
grammatically wrong which should be replaced here we have two years “1970 and 2016”.
with expressed In part C, “fails” should be replaced with “fail” as after
11) Answer: B modal auxiliary “will” we should use base form of a verb.
Here in sentence B , the subject “arrests” is given which In part D, “slowing” should be replaced with “slow” as
is plural hence usage of has is grammatically wrong after “to” we need base form of verb.
which should be replaced with have Hence, only B is correct.
Was and were both are used in past tense only, but ‘was’ Sentence in option B has error in it.
is used when the subject is singular. Here in sentence B, In addition, reducing corruption is at the heart of the
we can see ‘reports’ is plural hence was should be Sustainable Development Goals.
replaced with were. Preposition ‘to’ is redundant in the sentence.
In sentence B clearly ‘two founders’ is mentioned hence To pursue a passion, find a cause that resonates with you.
usage of among is grammatically wrong which should be With is the correct preposition.
replaced with between;
Page 927 of 1079

resonates with - To evoke a feeling of shared emotion makes perfect sense in the sentence owing to being
or belief with someone wrapped in Tibetan flag and the Tricolor to give military
20) Answer: E honours. In sentence IV, again incorrect preposition is
All sentences are error free. used. It should have been ‘across’ before ‘India and
21) Answer: D conveyed…’. So, option D. is the right answer.
Here (ii) should end with a question mark and (iii) should 26) Answer: D.
have “one of the first persons” as after “one of the” we In the sentences I and II we see that two interests,
should use plural noun. (i) and (iv) are grammatically questions of affinity and geographical distribution are
correct. compared with other interest in the second sentence. Other
22) Answer: B options seem illogical to use in this context, since a
In (ii) - “for a period of eight weeks..” should be used as comparison is made between the two sentences.
to indicate a period of time we should use “for”. (i) ,(iii) The combined sentence will be “Questions of affinity, and
and (iv) are grammatically correct. the details of geographical distribution, were endowed
23) Answer: A with a real interest, in
In (i) use “laid” instead of “layed”. (ii) ,(iii) and (iv) are comparison with which any interest that had hitherto been
grammatically correct. taken was a trifling pastime.”
24) Answer: A So, the correct option is D.
Here (i) is is incorrect, “are” should be replaced with “is” 27) Answer: A.
according to the rule: THE NUMBER OF + PLURAL First let us understand the meaning of the sentences.
NOUN + SINGULAR VERB; and (ii) must have ‘desert’ Vacillate means difference of opinion. The sentences say
instead of ‘dessert’. (iii) and (iv) are grammatically that the national bourgeoisie may have different opinions,
correct. but we should use that to our advantage and see the
25) Answer: D. positive side. There are two contrasting sentences.
In sentence I, myth takes a plural verb ‘were’ where it is a Nevertheless means in spite of something we should do it.
single entity. It should have taken a single verb ‘was’. In So, we may be tempted to use option B, but in spite of
sentence II, it is difficult to spot the error. The error is the does not fit in a grammatical sense, so we use
incorrect use of preposition ‘in’ before ‘the front lines…’. nevertheless. We may also be tempted to use option E as
It should have been ‘on’ instead of that. In sentence III, the sentences are contrasting but it will not be contextually
‘rapped’ word is used which has different meaning and is correct.
contextually wrong. It should have used ‘wrapped’ which
Page 928 of 1079

The combined sentence is “Without doubt, the national shows that our planet is indeed heated up on account of
bourgeoisie tends to vacillate, but we should, human-induced factors, such as carbon emissions and
nevertheless, make use of its positive side, uniting with it `dirty' industrial technology.”
as well as struggling against it.” This makes option C the right answer
So, option A is the correct answer. 30) Answer: D.
28) Answer: E. Solution: Sentence I is referring to the falling of the levels
In the above sentences once more comparison is made of CO2 emissions. Sentence II backs it by giving the
between two traditions. But the comparison is opposite to factors which caused the falling of the levels of emissions.
the other, one ceremony is regal and the other is referring So, among the options, as a result of seems to be the only
to simple formalities, so it is logical we use in contrast to sensible connector to use for combining the two sentences.
connect the sentences. The options are illogical to use The combined sentence will be: “Levels of CO2 emissions
while have been falling since 1970 as a result of improved
connecting the sentences and will be vague. Another hint efficiency and increasing use of nuclear power.”
is that the second sentence starts with ‘with’ which So, option D is the correct answer.
generally comes after in contrast other than ‘to’ and goes 31) Answer: E.
with none other options. Solution: Sentence I and II gives the idea of two
The combined sentence is “On the 26th of June 1657 he contradictory sentences. The options that join
was once more installed as Protector, this time, however, contradictory sentences in the options are
with regal ceremony in contrast with the simple nevertheless, though and instead, but from the two
formalities observed on the first occasion, the heralds sentences it is clear that instead should be used and
proclaiming his accession in the same manner as that of it is the only sensible option. The combined
the kings.” sentence will be: “Dean wondered if Jeff was not the
So, the correct option is E. saint she thought, not deceased, instead bopping
29) Answer: C. along somewhere west of Kansas, with several
Solution: Sentence I is referring to an event which is million bucks in his pocket.”
global warming and sentence II is referring to the factors This makes option E the correct answer.
which caused it. So, among the answer alternatives only 32) Answer: C
sensible option is to use on account of. The combined Stella seems quite intelligent; nonetheless, she often gets
sentence will be: “After years of scepticism about the poor grades. (Nonetheless is used to connect two
theory of global warming, increasing scientific evidence contrasting ideas.)
Page 929 of 1079

33) Answer: B Virus curbs were tightened in the Seoul region last week
This restaurant has some of the best chefs in the town. but with more than 300 cases reported two days in a row,
Moreover, their service is excellent. authorities expanded coronavirus restrictions to the rest of
34) Answer: C the country.
The goals of the treatment are to foster the therapeutic First sentence talks about how virus spread was controlled
relationship, to provide a supportive and empathic setting in a particular region and the second sentence talks about
where the child can come to better understand his/her the expansion restrictions due to outbreak of virus in
emotions/feelings. various parts.
We use “where” as a conjunction meaning 'in the place So the best connector to connect the contradicting
that' or 'in situations that'. sentences is “but”.
Sentence (a) talks about the situation. 38) Answer: B
35) Answer: E A mass exodus of tech startups is expected this year as an
Many people are afraid to make decisions because they increasing number of young ventures shifts overseas in
may make a wrong one. search of investors and a better regulatory environment
None of the given option is correct. and facilities.
36) Answer: C As- used to connect the result of something with its
While most other industries have undergone tremendous reason.
changes over the last few decades, and have reaped the As a result of young ventures move to other places in
benefits of process and product innovations, the search of better options mass exodus is expected.
Engineering & Construction sector has been hesitant Result – Mass exodus
about fully embracing the latest technological Reason - an increasing number of young ventures shifts
opportunities. overseas in search of better options
The given sentences contradict each other. First sentence 39) Answer: E
says Most industries embrace innovations but Currently, gold hallmarking is voluntary in nature.
Construction sector has been hesitant. However, it will be made mandatory from June 2021.
So the connector to be used should show contrasting We use whereas to compare and contrast the features of
relationship between the sentences. different things.
Among the given options While is the only option to Tigers have stripy fur whereas leopards have spots.
connect contradicting sentences. So we cannot use whereas to connect these sentences.
Page 930 of 1079

Google's plans to buy Motorola Mobility for $12.5 billion Sentence (1) introduces fresh water and sentence (2)
might seem like a lot of money, but the Web giant can contains more information about the fresh water and its
easily afford it. uses. So ‘and’ is the best connector
First sentence tells Goolgle’s plan to invest in Motorola 43) Answer: B
might seem like a lot of money While these multinationals, including Unilever, Nestle,
the second sentence says The giant has a capability to Mondelez, McDonald's, CocaCola, PepsiCo, Kellogg,
afford it.. Mars and Ferrero, already had a mandate on responsible
The two sentences have opposing opinions. So “but” is the advertising, it was largely restricted to mass advertising
best connector on television and print.
41) Answer: A If you read carefully both the given sentences you come
The microbes had ceased all noticeable activity. But when to know both the sentences do not contradict each other.
offered nutrients and other necessities of life they became Instead they are dependent of each other. Sentence 1 tells
active again. Multinationals have responsibility when advertising their
Both statements contradict each other. It conveys à Even products. Sentence 2 tells “at the same time” mass
though the microbes had stopped all activities, they advertising by Multinationals have also been restricted.
became active when we provided nutrients to them. So options; a’ and ‘b’ are eliminated. Because ‘whereas’
‘But’ and ‘While’ can be used to contrast two things. and ‘On the other hand’ are used to show the
We use the conjunction ‘whereas’ to indicate a contrast difference/contrast between two things or facts.
between two facts or ideas. But we are not presented with Similarly Conjunction While has two usages.
two facts or ideas. Example - He works slowly and While - at the same time that something is happening. I
precisely whereas I tend to rush things and make mistakes. fell asleep while I was watching television..
In the example sentence First clause is independent of the While - to show the contrast between two things or facts.
second clause. While she didn’t study very heard, she still got good
The two sentences given in the question belong to the grades in her exams
same statement and dependent on each other but with the 44) Answer: B
contrasting relationship. So ‘whereas’ cannot be used. ‘Although’, is the correct connector.
42) Answer: D Last week, Twitter accused US President Donald Trump
Fresh water is the lifeblood of our planet, and freshwater of making false claims in some of his posts, although the
ecosystems connect headwaters with oceans, land with platform has come under fire for not removing
water, and people with the resources they need to thrive. coronavirus misinformation.
Page 931 of 1079

Although and though are used to show surprising But when there is gross mismanagement of the health
contrast. system we cannot expect the recovery case to go upward.
Reason=>Here, the second sentence is talking about the You will fail unless you study well. You tend to fail the
fact that Twitter itself is accused of giving exam when you don’t study well.
misinformation, in spite of this, it is accused Trump of 47) Answer: C
making false claims, it shows surprising contrast. Though OIL(Oil India Limited) has been running oil/gas
=> ‘However’ and ‘But’ are also used to connect wells in Upper Assam for years, it appeared woefully
contradictory sentences, but they don’t show surprising short of expertise to contain the damage from the blowout
contrast. and fire.
45) Answer: C One sentence contradicts another (surprising contrast).
Businesses will be reluctant to hire and spend on new OIL has been running oil/gas wells in Upper Assam for
projects as they repair their finances, particularly as social many years, in spite of this fact, it doesn’t have any
distancing eats into demand and productivity. knowledge in controlling the damage caused by blow
As- used to connect the result of something with its out and fire. Hence though is correct here.
reason. 48) Answer: D
Businesses will be reluctant to hire and spend on new Our current policy is that if content is actually inciting
projects. (result) violence, then the right mitigation is to take that content
They repair their finances, particularly as social distancing down – not let people continue seeing it behind a flag.
eats into demand and productivity. (reason) ‘IF-THEN’ are used in conditional sentences,
46) Answer: C If a content incites violence(condition), then that content
The rate of recoveries has no other way to go but steadily should be removed from any social media platform.
upwards, unless there is gross mismanagement of the 49) Answer: C
health system. Unless climate action is closely tied to the immediate task
unless - except if (used to introduce the case in which a of protecting jobs and livelihoods, it will become yet
statement being made is not true or valid). Unless means another casualty of COVID-19.
if not Unless - except if (used to introduce the case in which a
The rate of recoveries from COVID-19 has no other way statement being made is not true or valid). Unless you
to go but steadily upwards (the rate of recovery will study well, you will fail. You will pass except if you study
steadily go upward). well.
Page 932 of 1079

Options A and B are incorrect. Because both sentences do 50) Answer: C

not contradict each other. Both sentences interconnected Bank of America’s bold prediction was made after gold
with each other with first sentence states possible prices initially dropped in March as investors sought cash
occurrences of Climate action if it is not addressed and to cover losses on riskier assets.
Sentence ii follows the same with how it will impact.
Sentence Completion
Direction (1-5): In the mentioned questions, a 2) Nine straight months of contraction in passenger
paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct vehicle sales has also begun
sentence from the options. _______________________ and lay-offs at dealerships,
1) it was first encouraged as a voluntary contribution component suppliers and vehicle makers themselves
by business; six years ago it evolved into a co-option while the Federation of Automobile Dealers
_______________________ and now, corporate social Associations recently warned of more jobs being at
responsibility or CSR has become an imposition on risk, on top of about two lakh positions that have
India Inc. Key amendments to the relevant sections of already been shed, the Society of Indian Automobile
the Companies Act in the last session of Parliament Manufacturers admitted that the industry had laid off
have now made non-compliance with CSR norms a at least about 15,000 contract workers in the last three
jailable offence for key officers of the company, apart months.
from hefty fines up to ₹25 lakh on the company and ₹5 A.Experiencing a serious slowdown which is evident for
lakh on the officer in default. some time now
A.Of the corporate sector to promote inclusiveness in B.Bedeviling demand in the auto sectors that are well
society established
B.On partner corporates for social development and such C.Extracting a toll in terms of showroom closures
penal provisions D.Setting up capacity, especially of fossil-fuel powered
C.Of amendments on the CSR law even as a committee vehicles, has largely been overlooked
constituted by it E.To formulate policy interventions to address this
D.Of energies on the business rather than on social sectoral crisis or risk wider contagion.
spending 3) There were elaborate mentions of unitary schemes
E.By committee’s suggestion to offer a tax break for from the one nation one tax’ that is already in place, to
expenses on CSR a one nation, one poll plan that is in the making. Such
overarching plans are central to
Page 933 of 1079
_____________________ but if India is to be on a new 5) The STC’s rebellion also signals the growing friction
course for the better, it needs more than in the multi-national coalition Saudi Arabia has
grandstanding from the Red Fort. stitched together to fight the Houthis. The STC is
A.Gathering clouds of a crisis in the economy backed by the UAE, a crucial partner of Saudi Arabia
B.His vision and the speech reflected that thinking in its foreign policy adventures. They stayed together
C.Current slump in rural and urban demand and in propping up the military dictatorship of Abdel
investment slowdown Fattah el-Sisi in Egypt, in countering the spread and
D.Hope and optimism, now more than at any moment in influence of the Arab world, in opposing the Iran
recent past nuclear deal and on blockading Qatar but when it
E.Some length about the need for population control, comes to Yemen, the Saudis see the Hadi government
water conservation and plastic use regulation as allies who could stabilise and _________________,
4) The last time Kashmir was on the UNSC agenda was while the UAE, already frustrated by the coalition’s
in 1965 and Pakistan as a subject have not figured at failure to defeat the rebels and is staunchly opposed to
the UNSC but at the end of the consultations on the Islah party which has ties to the Brotherhood.
Friday, when China suggested that an informal A.Rebuild the whole country after the Houthis are
outcome be announced by Wronecka, this was backed defeated
by Britain. However, some other permanent members B.Want the south to be an independent entity, like it was
of the UNSC were ________________________ India till the Yemeni unification
and Pakistan sort out their differences over Kashmir C.Pushed Yemen into what the UN calls the worst
bilaterally, two people familiar with the developments humanitarian crisis
said. D.Meet their declared goal pushing back the Houthi rebels
A.Integrating Kashmir more closely with the rest of the from the capital
country also E.Talk with all stakeholders under the mediation of a
B.Backing China’s suggestion that an informal outcome willing UN to find a political settlement to the crisis.
be announced as Direction (6-10): In the mentioned questions, a
C.Reducing tensions through bilateral dialogue regarding paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct
the situation as sentence from the options.
D.Against this move and were of the view that 6) The landing has to be timed so that it maximises the
E.Leading to normalcy in Kashmir helped play a key role overlap with the sunlit days on that spot because the
that lander and the rover need solar energy to power them
Page 934 of 1079

and to keep the instruments warm; therefore, given a workers increased at a higher rate than the rest of the
landing spot that can be seen from the earth, the country after labour reforms but worker organisations
landing date has to ___________________ on that spot. __________________ is generally lax.
A.Determine the time of operation of the landing A.Pointed to the dire situation in job creation in recent
B.Coincide with the sixth phase of the moon as seen from years
the earth B.Should give a better picture of the impact of these rules
C.Launch a mission that would land on the moon C.Claim that the implementation of such stringent labour
D.Have touched the popular imagination is the current laws in most States
launch window D.Simplify and consolidate labour rules and laws under
E.Receives sunlight for days before being plunged in four codes
night E.Fix minimum wages below those set by the Centre
7) Affordable charging will make these vehicles and 9) The court’s decision to go into the issue, therefore,
commercial three-wheelers attractive because offers an opportunity to clarify India’s approach to the
operating costs are a fraction of petrol and diesel refugee question, which has __________________ but
equivalents, yet, longer range travel will require more is stridently hostile to the Rohingya.
than a charge-at-home facility, and this would A.Generally been favourable to vulnerable entrants
______________________ , retrofitted fuel outlets, B.Emerged as a substantial question of law in the context
new public charging stations, hotels, offices and so on. of the Rohingya
A.Have to be in the form of fast charging at parking lots C.Treated as refugees first before their cases can be
B.Has to be the setting up of lithium battery production examined in detail
and solar charging infrastructure D.Amounted to a perverse denial of the very existence of
C.Have an immediate impact on the pricing of electric refugees as a classa
vehicles and bring in more models, E.Should work with the world community on the
D.Take a sustained effort by the Centre, in partnership voluntary repatriation
with State governments 10) The stronger arguments offered include the
E.Leapfrog into an era of electric mobility and domestic following: One is that while dollar borrowings are
vehicle manufacturing cheaper in terms of interest costs, these could be offset
8) The Economic Survey highlighted the effect of by higher principal payments if the rupee falls against
labour reforms in Rajasthan, suggesting that the the dollar at the time of redemption and while a
growth rates of firms employing more than 100 sovereign bond will __________________
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A.Worsen the risks related to adverse exchange rate barracks and let the civilian leadership assume power
movements and shape the country’s future but Sudan’s military
B.Assume that foreign direct investment will not boom in not only refused to give up its powers but also
India in a world ________________
C.Fork out more since the rupee may have depreciated A.Guarantee a smooth transition from military to civilian
D.Sterilize the dollar inflows involved rule
E.Expand the set of investors who buy in Indian debt B.Found a balance between the military’s quest to retain
Direction (11-15): In the mentioned questions, a its privileges
paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct C.Massacred the protesters who challenged them
sentence from the options. D.Resisted by the powerful, deeply entrenched military
11) The committee has, however, taken a lenient view E.Convinced the generals they could not anymore amass
on the government launching an official digital absolute power, as they did under three-decade-long rule.
currency, asking it to keep an open mind on the 13) It is highly unlikely that the quantum of funds that
matter, as virtual currencies and its underlying the government is likely to receive from SEBI will
technology are still evolving, the group has proposed make much of a difference to the government’s overall
that _____________________________ and when fiscal situation, so the amendment to the SEBI Act
required seems to be clearly ____________________ rather than
A.The government may establish a standing committee to by financial considerations.
revisit the issues addressed in the report as A.Going ahead with its capital expenditure plans
B.The use of distributed-ledger technology in India can be B.Motivated by the desire to increase control over the
used by banks and other financial firms regulator
C.Has taken a lenient view on the government launching C.Investing in new technologies and other requirements
an official digital currency to upgrade market infrastructure
D.The government on virtual currencies has proposed D.Regulated the economy by consolidating all existing
banning of private cryptocurrencies in India powers under the Finance Ministry
E.Committee headed by finance secretary Subhash E.Subsuming them under the wings of the government
Chandra Garg has proposed a draft bill affecting their credibility
12) The military council then had an opportunity, like 14) Das said India won’t be as badly affected from the
the military in Tunisia after the fall of the dictator Zine U.S.-China trade war in the short term as other
El Abidine Ben Ali in January 2011, to return to the economies that ______________________ but if those
Page 936 of 1079

tensions are prolonged, they will have an adverse 16) Despite lacklustre company earnings and other
impact on India, especially on its exports, which fundamental issues, markets in the past have been
contracted in June for the first time in nine months. pushed up aggressively by the ample liquidity
A.Becomes a problem to absorb excess liquidity provided by central banks but without enough reforms
B.Included a plan to ease foreign direct investment rules to strengthen the fundamentals that can back lofty
for sectors ranging from aviation to media valuations, it may _____________________
C.Cannot boost the economy and there’s a need for more A.be only a matter of time before markets begin to lose
reforms with various stakeholders steam
D.Can be seen as a positive development on the one hand B.be easing its policy, any global liquidity tightening can
E.Are more plugged into global value chains affect foreign fund inflows
15) With the Supreme Court-led process of updating C.tilt towards populism as the government expands the
the National Register of Citizens in Assam nearing its size of its welfare projects instead of taking steps to revive
deadline of July 31, the complexities involved in the private investment
gargantuan exercise have dawned upon the executive D.unlikely to make much of a difference to the
and both the Central and State governments have government’s fiscal position
sought an extension but it remains to be seen whether E.lowers the chances of an interest rate cut by the Federal
the Court, which has Reserve, and the potential systemic risk posed by the
_________________________ when it hears the troubles
matter on July 23. 17) Four years ago, Greece was bearing the brunt of
A.Insisted on sticking to the timelines, would relent an international bailout, biting austerity measures and
B.Emerged of persons wrongfully left out of the list can a collapsing banking system while on the verge of
change __________________. That prospect is way behind, as
C.Slipped into the list will quell the general consensus is that the euro is destined to
D.Reverified during the process of disposal of claims succeed, for failure would be too costly.
E.Keeps holding out the prospect of unleashing a A.refusing to back the renaming of the former
nationwide NRC to detect and deport Yugoslavian state as Northern Macedonia.
Direction (16-24): In the mentioned questions, a B.difficult road ahead without overly adding to their woes.
paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct C.being ejected from Europe’s single currency zone
sentence from the options. D.tepid 2% rate as the population continues to be weighed
down by reforms
Page 937 of 1079

E.Europe’s centrists, who, arguably with the exception of representation system; and revisiting the Information
Spain have of late ceded ground to populist forces Technology Act, to strengthen social media
18) The government is unlikely to take the RSF report regulations.
seriously while expression of concern by foreign A.suffering from a wide gap between thought and action
countries or global bodies regarding human rights, in
religious violence or media freedom is routinely B.binding advice of a three-member High Court advisory
dismissed as external interference in India’s board on
sovereignty, the government C.reducing the number of phases in elections by raising
_____________________________ more
A.is concerned about its reputation in terms of business D.consulting constitutional experts and publishing a white
and investment paper for more deliberate
B.knows all too well that in a globalised world these E.proposed crowdfunding in the form of small donations
perceptions matter 20) In China’s case, this is subject to its success in
C.have not merely shown extreme intolerance towards avoiding the middle-income trap and in India’s, to
objective and critical reporting but also taken more consistent economic performance than the
unprecedented measures to restrict journalism experience of recent years; that said, one of the
D.to purge all manifestations of ‘anti-national’ thought challenges of the international system today, and for
from the national debate India in the UNSC, is that this profound impending
E.are particularly at the receiving end, and covering change is ____________________
sensitive but important topics of public interest A.dealing with global problems of climate change,
19) Some proposals that elaborated upon in detail disarmament, terrorism, trade, and development
throughout the years include B.activating the UNSC’s Military Staff Committee, which
_________________________________ security was never set into motion following the UN’s inception
forces; depoliticisation of constitutional appointments C.embracing the multilateral ethic is the best way forward
by appointing Commissioners through a broad-based D.anathema to hegemonic powers intent on carving out
collegium; state funding of political parties by means their exclusive spheres of influence
of a National Electoral Fund or on the basis of the E.largely unrecognised by the great powers and other
number of votes obtained; capping the expenditure of countries
political parties; giving the ECI powers to de-register 21) There is a theorem in economics on this called
recalcitrant political parties; inclusion of proportional Ricardian Equivalence, which says that when a
Page 938 of 1079

government tries to ________________________, 23) The malaise in the banking sector, the problems
people increase their savings since they figure that a faced by power producers, and the relentless and
higher deficit today would mean higher taxation _______________________ might have hurt employers
tomorrow. and thus workers’ interests much more than this
A.Holds an irresistible charm for policymakers and enabling retrenchment provision would ever do.
politicians A.Often arbitrary pursuit of tax claims
B.Stimulate an economy with debt-financed spending B.Rapacious greed for profits of capitalists
C.Illustrate the hurdles in the ease of doing business C.Resistance to this measure possibly comes in the way
D.Is out of sync with global fashion trends of creating formal-sector jobs
E.Have stagnated for want of cheap refinance or an over- D.Statutory protections for compensation on being
valued currency retrenched
22) The urge to exceed the fiscal deficit may be E.Higher limits for retrenchments without government
encouraged by the new-fangled Modern Monetary approval
Theory, which essentially says that fiscal spending 24) The inward-looking pocket of growth model needs
does not cause inflation nor higher interest rates at a to give way to the outward looking fountain of
time when three-fourth of the development model rather than focusing on a few big
______________________ and the nominal GDP magnets to attract and house enormous human and
growth rate exceeds the nominal risk-free long-term financial resources, we need several anchors to engage
interest rate. resources of different magnitudes, capable of
A.Sovereign debt in the developed world is fetching ________________________
negative yields A.Working with governments and bureaucrats more
B.Issues of ease of doing business, carry out meaningful closely to set performance targets
privatization B.Documenting traditional sustainable and scalable
C.Debt-service ratio puts it in an outlier group among peer business practices in India took us to remote corners
nations C.Setting off development cycles within and around the
D.Government debt was eventually held by the Reserve region
Bank of India, which is almost like monetizing the deficit D.Preliminary findings revealing that its growth is
E.Combined borrowing requirements of public sector anything but inclusive
entities E.Repeating itself in other existing and emerging pockets
of growth
Page 939 of 1079

Direction (25-28): In the mentioned questions, a A.Taken keeping in view the latest intelligence inputs of
paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct terror threats
sentence from the options. B.Pursuing a policy of undermining the mainstream
25) The Parliament had recently cleared amendments section in the State
to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code to enable C.Dealing directly with the challenge in Kashmir to
quick decision-making among creditors of bankrupt realise any misstep can be costly
companies and to reduce the time lost in litigation, D.Often questioning the patriotism of those seeking
while rescuing or liquidating such companies. It has meaningful information
also announced steps to _______________________ E.Usually tend to be miserly with information, and on
and the self-employed in terms of pensions. questions related to national security
A.Boost industry’s access to credit, including opening a 27) New regulation can certainly shake up the status
liquidity window for home financiers. quo, facilitating _________________________ and
B.Give relief to farmers by way of income support, and to removing vested interests, particularly in inter-State
traders, shop keepers and multi-State coach services but some of the other
C.Credit growth in key segments of the economy, amendments are less promising.
including automobile, retail, small businesses A.Zero tolerance enforcement of even small fines
D.Discuss priority areas “for the banking sector in the B.Promise that the amended Act will help reduce
coming months for accelerating gross domestic product dependence on personal vehicles
growth C.Transparent investment by any intending operator
E.Enhance the chances of small businesses to access D.Clean, comfortable and affordable services for all users,
credit including people with disabilities
26) By the very nature of the security apparatus, it is E.Operation of new-generation mobility services that use
impossible for Parliament, the media or the general mobile phone applications
public to access information that is not voluntarily 28) Satellite images show that about 4,200 sq km
provided by the executive; hence, it is imperative to of forests have been destroyed up to July 24 under the
accept the State government’s position that the new government while most nations tend to view their
decision on curtailment of the yatra season was _______________________, climate science data show
______________________, with specific targeting and that they play a larger environmental role.
given the prevailing security situation in the Kashmir A.Land and forests through the narrow prism of short-
Valley. term economic gain
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B.Hosts massive sinks of sequestered carbon, and the would indeed be a tragedy if the situation overshadows
forests the fate of Mr. Jadhav, just when
C.Valuable opportunity to seek higher funding for forest ______________________
protection A.India may have a stronger chance of trying to have the
D.Universal treasures, and the rights of indigenous trial overturned
communities to their lands B.After the International Court of Justice at The Hague
E.Tremendous momentum to save the Amazon forests ruled in favour of India
Direction (29-33): In the mentioned questions, a C.Foreign Ministry had offered a meeting between Mr.
paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct Jadhav and the Indian High Commission
sentence from the options. D.Unimpeded consular access that the ICJ had ordered
29) The Bill follows the Supreme Court’s E.Hopes had been raised by the international court verdict
recommendations in authorising the setting up of to help secure his freedom
special courts, appointment of a dedicated nodal 31) Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi had written to the
officer, and stipulating enhanced punishments; Prime Minister recently, highlighting the problem of
however, its scope is _____________________, paucity of judges, due to which he was unable to
dissemination of offensive material and fostering of a constitute enough Constitution Benches to decide
hostile environment but also provides for relief, legal important questions of law; however, a moot question
aid, compensation and rehabilitation. is whether the highest court should
A.More comprehensive as it not only criminalises acts of _____________________
lynching A.Also cut down on the time taken for disposal of cases
B.Act or series of acts of violence or aiding, abetting or B.Go into the correctness of every decision of every high
attempting an act of violence court
C.Legitimate jurisdiction to exercise their discretion C.Also increase access to justice to those living in far-
D.The principle of proportionality and have struck down flung areas of the country
laws D.Not be enough to liquidate the burgeoning docket
E.Evidence of political will by the State government E.Save the court’s time, including a reasonable restraint
30) The government’s ham-handed reaction to the on the duration of oral arguments
threats, of cancelling the Amarnath Yatra, pulling out 32) The FRA aims to only confirm tenure and access
tourists and pilgrims and raising security levels in the rights which in some sense the forest dwellers have
valley further, have only added to the narrative. It been exercising de facto but under severe restrictions
Page 941 of 1079

and control especially by the forest department; in Direction (34-37): In the mentioned questions, a
fact, it is the ____________________ and conservation paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct
laws that created the situation of historical injustice. sentence from the options.
A.Community forest rights through a clear process of 34) The regime-changing policy of the U.S. is very
submitting a claim much a part of Mr. Trump’s global strategy, but he is
B.Potential to strengthen the conservation regime across pursuing a path of reforming world leaders rather
India by recognising rights of forest dwellers than eliminating them. Bluster in words and peace in
C.Failure of the state to settle pre-existing rights under action has tempered the image of the President, though
existing forest his announcements of withdrawals from international
D.Provision of rights and authority to local communities treaties have been swift, he seems to be
and gram sabhas for conservation __________________________
E.Spirit with empathy for forest dwellers will be a A.Stopping an escalation in conflict during the India-
decisive step by India to achieve conservation justice Pakistan stand-off in 2019
33) Theoretically, cryptocurrency providers could B.Relying on his bureaucracy to soften the blows
issue an unlimited amount of their money but they’re C.Deviating from foreign policy priorities such as
competing against each other, so the competition countering China and Russia
forces them to restrict their supply to a minimal D.Paying attention to the consequences for the U.S. and
amount that ____________________. Thus the the world beyond 2020
discipline imposed by market competition can prevent E.Focussing on internal progress and peace abroad in
cryptocurrency providers from overissuing their unconventional ways
currencies. 35) The battle to pass broad, effective gun control
A.Would help maintain the value of their currency legislation, such as tougher background checks for gun
B.Being used for various nefarious activities is being buyers and the banning of certain gun technologies
discussed across the world and accessories such as bump stocks that exponentially
C.Has started creating a bunch of regulations that could raise the lethality of weapons, has
become stronger over time __________________________, 228-year-old love-
D.Could be the best way to go forward rather than putting affair with guns.
a blanket ban on cryptocurrencies A.Punctuated the past few decades of America’s
E.Can’t just build blockchain applications out of thin air unrelenting
Page 942 of 1079

B.Buttressed by the unregulated firepower of guns, then A.Competition enables innovation, and winners in a tech
America’s melting pot eco-system
C.Emboldened fringe elements within the gun-loving B.One can hope that the new funds in existing unicorns
fraternities to carry out mass attacks are used to create better technologies
D.Common-sense gun control reforms to curb the C.Interesting thing to see, however, is how the young
proliferation of deadly promoters manage another tsunami of capital
E.Witnessed lethal shootings resulting in mass fatalities D.Everyone wants to back such a winner
over the past weekend E.Size of annual deployment target of Softbank
36) Given the vacancies in subordinate courts across
the country, it also needs to be seen whether States will Direction (38-42): In the mentioned questions, a
hire additional judges or appoint FTCs from the paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct
current pool of judges; for instance, in the case of sentence from the options.
commercial courts, several States 38) It might be difficult to see the merit in this finding
____________________. Such a move could prove to if we take democracy to mean governance by the many
be problematic as it would increase substantially the and nothing more but as the courts have wisely
workload of the remaining judges. recognised, information often acts as a great leveller;
A.Need to take stock of the issues at the ground level therefore, for democracy to be valuable, citizens must
B.Ensure that its various components work efficiently and possess a right to freely express themselves. It ought to
without any hindrance follow then that it is only when citizens have a right to
C.Designate special judges from the current pool of know what the state is up to, where governance is
judges transparent, can their speech have genuine meaning;
D.Conduct audio and video recordings of the victims and only then ____________________
many of them did not have regular staff A.It was decided that public authorities ought to be
E.Deal with the mounting backlog has been a common mandated by law
practice B.Can they constructively participate in the veritable
37) With Softbank investing big money in a startup, its marketplace of ideas
chances of success, or at least the perception of it, goes C.Information that the law provides has redesigned the
up and _____________________ while this may be structure of India’s democratic governance
good for Softbank and other investors, it may not be D.A further appeal can be made to the office of the CIC or
the best result for the tech and startup eco-system. the State Information Commission
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E.Members must intervene without fear or favour to A.To increase resilience through planning
ensure that the law’s mandate is met B.To become the most populous in less than a decade
39) It’s interesting to note that despite all the troubles C.To mitigate the impact of flooding and avert disasters
the two countries have had, High Commissioners have that could have global consequences in an integrated
been able to return to their jobs since full diplomatic economy
relations were restored in 1976 in fact, even after the D.To prevent urban flooding
2001 Parliament attack, India and Pakistan managed E.To address its crippling cycles of drought and flood
to have their High Commissioners back in place by with redoubled vigour
March 2003. Diplomacy is a mechanism 41) The PM urged industrialists to set up shop, and
________________ while India and Pakistan have used film-makers to shoot in the Valley, and asked people
back channels in recent years, the presence of seasoned there to integrate with the global community. He even
diplomats in Delhi and Islamabad has always offered a catalogue of products and services that could
benefited the two countries. make the State attractive in the global market while
A.To mobilise the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation these are desirable objectives, the PM could start with
and send envoys to friendly capitals what is exclusively within his powers
B.That does not license Pakistan to interfere in what the __________________________ and restore statehood
MEA correctly at the earliest.
C.To ensure that channels of communication remain open A.Granted by the Constitution, or the gradual erosion of
D.To the mounting pressures on the Pakistani the concepts over decades
establishment to respond to India’s executive-legislative B.To suggest that J&K has been any worse than other
actions States in this respect
E.Continued to peddle the myth that they could C.To effect to call for fresh election
unilaterally alter the status quo D.Urgently for normalcy and integration with the Indian
40) The long-term trends for flood impact in India Union
have been one of declining loss of lives and cattle since E.To revoke its special status, and divide it into two Union
the decadal high of 1971-80, but rising absolute Territories
economic losses, though not as a share of GDP; 42) The party’s fulmination against the other Bill that
therefore it is important _____________________, prohibits interference in the freedom of matrimonial
especially in cities and towns which are expanding alliances in the name of honour and tradition was
steadily. equally bereft of substance, as it cited societal norms
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and _____________________. In effect, it was batting rock the city, affecting the economy and setting off an
for khap panchayats that seek to interdict inter-caste unprecedented political crisis.
marriages. A.Have allowed them to extradite suspects to places
A.Cultural practice to oppose the progressive law B.Have tried several tactics to rein in the protesters and
B.Life imprisonment for killing in the name of honour restore normalcy in the city
C.Rehabilitation measures for those displaced C.Ransacked the local legislative council building and
D.Come up with new ways of combating such hate crimes occupied parts of the airport
E.Have emerged as preponderant social evils D.Led to the cancellation of several flights
Direction (43-47): In the mentioned questions, a E.Have been a peaceful protest against an extradition Bill
paragraph is given. Fill the blank with the correct 45) Sport is expected to operate at a higher moral
sentence from the options. plane where the effort is honest and transparency
43) Retail inflation staying within the RBI’s comfort remains an abiding principle. It is a utopian ideal
range of 4% within a band of plus or minus 2% could leaning on pure performance, copious sweat and
encourage the central bank to ___________________ relentless training but ___________________, besides
considering the deceleration in industrial output seen match-fixing, there is another terrible offence:
in June owing to a slowdown in manufacturing and ingestion of performance-enhancing drugs.
mining output. A.Main objection pertained to the ‘where-abouts’ clause
A.Stimulate growth, which had fallen to its slowest pace B.It only lent credence to the allegations about conflict of
in nearly five years interest
B.Consider a further reduction in policy rates C.In a practical world greased with greed
C.See some improvement in the second half of this fiscal D.It is finally one with the willow-game subjecting itself
D.An upwardly revised 2.25% in June to universal drug-testing rules
E.Cut its repo rate four times so far this year amid benign E.It is a fallacy to stress that cricket is just a reflection of
inflation skill
44) Protests broke out in Hong Kong two months ago 46) MMTC offers the option to buy back these coins or
when local authorities proposed a Bill that would bars at the prevailing price thus offering investors
________________________ with which the city liquidity, then there are gold savings schemes offered
doesn’t have extradition treaties, including mainland by jewellers, where buyers make periodic deposits and
China. The Bill was suspended amid public anger, but ___________________
the protests, now entering the tenth week, continue to A.Held in the form of jewellery, coins and bars
Page 945 of 1079

B.Ask for delivery in the form of coins of different A.ahead of inflation and factory output data releases
denominations B.6.14 points, or 0.02 per cent, lower at 38,816.97 at 0945
C.Keep in storage for a maximum period of five years hours.
D.That your investments are in the red when have to exit C.while domestic institutional investors purchased shares
E.Use the sum to buy gold after a specified period to the tune
47) The current Budget session D.marginally higher ahead of the company’s quarterly
____________________, yet the high productivity results
during the session came without sufficient deliberation E.None of these
over crucial bills, several of which were rushed 49) Instead, he directed federal agencies to try to
through without vetting by parliamentary standing compile .............................
and select committees. A.abandoned his effort to insert a citizenship question
A.Sailed through with minimal disruption B.the information using existing databases
B.Advertised their points of view without recourse to C.effort by disputing his administration’s rationale for
debate demanding
C.Enacted despite a broad consensus due to the behaviour D.that effort, but the administration said that census
of a few naysayers deadlines
D.Facilitated an enhanced cross-party coordination over E.None of these
issues 50) Karnataka Legislative Assembly has listed
E.Minimised the importance of such committees over the only........................
last few years A.adjourned for the day as a mark of respect to the
Direction (48-50): In each of the following questions an departed souls.
incomplete sentence is given, from the options pick the B.away since February when the Assembly last met.
part which correctly fits in the blank so that it makes C."obituary reference" in the list of business for the day.
the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. D.their resignations for its next move against the coalition
48) Domestic equity benchmarks BSE Sensex and NSE government.
Nifty started on a choppy note E.None of these
Friday.............................................
Sentence Completion - Answers with Explanation

Page 946 of 1079
1) Answer: A Option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is the
The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of passage.
passage. 9) Answer: A
2) Answer: C Option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is the
The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
passage. 10) Answer: E
3) Answer: B Option (e) seems to be logical for the context and is the
The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
4) Answer: D The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is
The option (d) seems to be logical for the context and is the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
passage. 12) Answer: C
5) Answer: A The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is
The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
passage. 13) Answer: B
6) Answer:B The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is
Option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is the the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of passage.
passage. 14) Answer: E
7) Answer:A The option (e) seems to be logical for the context and is
Option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is the the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of passage.
8) Answer:C
Page 947 of 1079

The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is
the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
passage. passage.
passage. passage.
The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
The option (e) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
Page 948 of 1079

The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
30) Answer: E 37) Answer: D
The option (e) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (d) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
passage. passage.
The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. passage.
passage. passage.
Page 949 of 1079

The option (b) seems to be logical for the context and is 47) Answer: A
the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is
passage. the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of
44) Answer: A passage.
The option (a) seems to be logical for the context and is 48) Answer: A
the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of As the sentence explains about benchmarks of BSE and
passage. NSE Nifty start on Friday, Option A will fit here correctly
The option (c) seems to be logical for the context and is As the sentence says about compiling of
the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of something, Option B will fit here correctly which
passage. describes what is that compilation related to
The option (e) seems to be logical for the context and is As the sentence says about Karnataka Legislative
the correct part to complete the incomplete sentence of Assembly, Option C will fit here correctly, which
passage. describes how it is listed and where.
Word Rearrangement
Directions (1-13): In the below question a sentence is 2) Forests can also be cleared (A) through replanting trees
given with few words highlighted. Rearrange the in restored (B) areas or simply allowing the forest
highlighted words to make a coherent and meaningful ecosystem to return (C) over time. The goal of restoration
sentence. is to regenerate (D) the forest to its original state, before
1) Developing alternatives to deforest (A) can help it was cleared.
expand (B) the need for tree clearing. For example, the A) BACD
desire to decrease (C) the amount of land used for B) BADC
agriculture is an attractive reason to deforestation (D) an C) ABDC
area. D) ABCD
A) BADC E) No arrangement is required
B) ACDB 3) Everyone can do their part to limit (A) deforestation.
C) DCBA We can use (B) certified wood products, go paperless
D) ACBD whenever possible, curb (C) our consumption of products
E) No arrangement is required that buy (D) palm oil and plant a tree when possible.
Page 950 of 1079
A) CBAD D) ACDB
B) ADCB E) No arrangement is required
C) CDAB 7) The startup is building (A) the biotech to turn (B)
D) ABCD methane from waste or natural gas into monomers, which
E) No arrangement is required become (C) the developing (D) blocks of protein for
4) The Congo River flows (A) through (B) the equator various uses.
twice as it zigzags (C) from eastern Africa, across (D) the A) DCBA
Congo rainforest, all the way to the Atlantic Ocean B) ADBC
A) DCBA C) DBCA
B) CDAB D) ABDC
C) ABDC E) No arrangement is required
D) DBCA 8) Always consider (A) why someone wants (B) your
E) No arrangement is required information and if it is appropriate (C). There is no
5) Hackers and cyber scammers are clicking (A) reason someone would need your username & password
advantage of the coronavirus disease (COVID-19) to access (D) public information.
pandemic by malicious (B) fraudulent email and A) DCBA
WhatsApp messages that attempt to trick you into taking B) ACBC
(C) on sending (D) links or opening attachments. C) ABDC
A) BADC D) DBCA
B) ACDB E) No arrangement is required
C) DCBA 9) The first animal expected(A) showing symptoms
D) CDAB March 27, and all are doing well and started(B) to
E) No arrangement is required recover, said the zoo, which has been closed to the public
6) UN has implemented (A) a new email security control since March 16 outbreak(C) the surging coronavirus
called Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, amid(D) in New York.
and impersonation (B) to significantly Conformance (a) ADBC
(C) different types of diminish (D). (b) CBDA
A) ACBD (c) BADC
B) CDAB (d) ACBD
C) ABDC (e) BCDA
Page 951 of 1079

10) Even as the virus has overwhelmed(A) its growth in 13) The shift in cleaning airlines(A) comes at such
desperately(B) Italy and in China, where it first emerged, strange time, considering most businesses and other
hospitals in Spain and France are slowed(C) under the distancing(B) have increased their cleaning(C) and
load, and the U.S. and Britain are bracing for waves of safety protocols, as well as social protocol(D) practices.
buckling(D) ill people. (a) CADB
(a) CBAD (b) DACB
(b) ADCB (c) ACBD
(c) BCAD (d) BCAD
(d) CADB (e) DCBA
(e) DACB Directions (14-23): In the below question a sentence is
11) In January of 1985, property(A) were putting the given with few words highlighted. Rearrange the
finishing touches on an fountain(B) waterfall highlighted words to make a coherent and meaningful
impressive(C) located on the workers(D) adjacent to the sentence.
Williams Tower, or what was then known as the Transco 14) The report pointed out that when if the then key
Tower. employees of IL&FS found out that domain a) wouldn’t
(a) DCBA be in favour of the company b), they then either delayed
(b) BADC the publication c) of the rating on the public ratings d).
(c) ACDB A.dbca
(d) DBAC B.cdab
(e) No rearrangement required C.bdac
12) The 12-acre Discovery Green park non-profit park in D.abdc
the heart of bites(A) will be transformed into a E.No change required
entertainment(B) of light and art to drive through, snap 15) The government plans a) to provide b) up loans from
selfies, enjoy downtown(C) and support local and world- foreign institutions because banks were not in a position
renowned artists with baubles and wonderland(D). to source c) enough capital for the small business sector,
(a) BADC which is seen d) as critical to job creation.
(b) CBDA A.acbd
(c) DCBA B.acdb
(d) CDAB C.adbc
(e) ACDB D.bdac
Page 952 of 1079

E.No change required the changes d) also seek to ensure time-bound resolution
16) It, thus, noted a), the report added b), that various of cases.
potential strategies appears c) above were applied d) to A.adbc
ensure favourable ratings or to avoid a rating downgrade. B.cdab
A.adbc C.bdac
B.abdc D.abdc
C.cdab E.No change required
D.cbad 20) With such serious a) clarificatory b) problems
E.No change required coming up, it was only incumbent c) upon the
17) The spokesperson added that the forensic a) audit government to come up with such amendments which
report is based on partial b) and selective c) source are interpretative d) in nature.
material from IL&FS and demonstrates a limited A.bcad
d) understanding of the credit rating process. B.abdc
A.adcb C.adbc
B.bdac D.adcb
C.cdab E.No change required
D.abdc 21) The brokerages have attributed their decision
E.No change required to concerns a) that demand b) is unlikely to recover in
18) It should be noted that Nifty futures and the upcoming season, while regulatory competition
options contract a) for the July series b) expires in the c) and increased changes d) will continue to weigh on the
coming week and the aforementioned equities c) are stock.
likely to keep volatility in Indian factors d) high. A.adcb
A.bcda B.bdac
B.acdb C.abdc
C.bdac D.acbd
D.abdc E.No change required
E.No change required 22) The decision a) comes at a time when most
19) Not only do the amendments plug loopholes a) in the dealer partners b) are financially stressed and as the
IBC which some promoters b) had used to overall slowdown c) in the economy continues to keep
stall resolution c) of their bankrupt companies, but customers away from showrooms d).
Page 953 of 1079

A.acdb 25) He constituted (A) out that Delhi was still in the grip
B.bdac of Covid-19 decongest (B) and even a panel of the Delhi
C.cdab government, pointed (C) following the apex court orders
D.badc to pandemic (D) the jails, had also passed guidelines to
E.No change required release the prisoners on interim bails or emergency
23) Credit to non-banking financial companies paroles.
is adequate a) because investors have become A. ABCD
extremely wary b) and nervous c), and not because there B. BCAD
isn’t frozen d) liquidity. C. BDAC
A.acbd D. ADBC
B.dbca E. CDAB
C.adbc 26) The European Union plans to introduce produced (A)
D.bcad that could eventually make firms banning (B) for human
E.No change required rights abuses and environmental harm in their supply
Directions (24-30): In the below question a sentence is chain, while U.S. lawmakers have proposed responsible
given with few words highlighted. Rearrange the (C) imports of cocoa legislation (D) with child labour.
highlighted words to make a coherent and meaningful A. ABCD
sentence. B. ACDB
24) During 2021, anticipates (A) there are enough doses C. BDAC
of Covid-19 vaccines, UNICEF assuming (B) delivering D. ACBD
over one billion syringes to purchase (C) Covid-19 E. DCBA
vaccination efforts on top of the 620 million syringes that Direction (27-30): in each of the following questions a
it will support (D) for other vaccination programmes grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is
against other diseases such as measles, typhoid and more. given with four words given in bold in each. Which of
A. ACBD the following words should replace each other to form
B. BADC a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The
C. BDAC meaning can be different from the one in question.
D. ADBC 27) The availability of (A) ensured like lodging, food,
E. ABCD study material, (B) becoming, doubt clearing classes and
Page 954 of 1079

special teachers were (C) resources to help the students “forget and forgive” the (D) machinations that preceded
prepare to realise their dreams of (D) coaching a doctor. the vote.
A. ADCB A. BDAC
B. BCAD B. DCBA
C. CDAB C. ABDC
D. ADBC D. ACBD
E. ABCD E. ABCD
28) Mispronouncing Harris’s name has become (A) seen Direction (31-40): Certain words are highlighted in
practice for Republicans in recent times in what is (B) bold in each sentence. Rearrange the words to get
standard by many as an effort to (C) highlighting her by meaningful sentence.
(D) belittle her heritage - she’s the daughter of an Indian- 31) An contingency (A) processing capacity to cope with
origin mother and Jamaica-origin father. the additional(B) load may also lead to suspension(C)
A. CDBA of the banking facility unless adequate insufficient (D)
B. ABCD plan has been specified and tested beforehand
C. ACBD a) DBCA
D. ADBC b) CDAB
E. BADC c) ACBD
29) The private sector, through its technical (A) d) ABCD
challenges, sector-specific (B) devise and ability to e) BDAC
design unique, cutting-edge innovations, can (C) 32) The account holder is authorized(A) to operate the
knowledge effective long-term solutions to two of the attorney (B) through a third person, in addition(C) to
major (D) expertise government is faced with — lack of himself, by suitable authority for one-time basis and/or
technological solutions and large-scale monitoring. also for various functions through a power of account (D)
A. BDAC .
B. DCBA a) BCAD
C. ABDC b) CDAB
D. ACBD c) ADBC
E. ABCD d) ABCD
30) Many other (A) characters in the months-long e) ADCB
political (B) drama in Karnataka may not be (C) able to
Page 955 of 1079

33) To satisfy(A) his thirst for knowledge(B) and now treated scheme(D) drug users differently from
information(C) he can always turn (D) to books for sellers, manufacturers etc.
help. A) ADBC
a) BCAD B) CADB
b) CDAB C) CDAB
c) ACBD D) ABCD
d) ADBC E) BDAC
e) no rearrangement required 37) Indian and Chinese military commanders
34) The Delhi High Court, which took up diplomat(A) for another round of talks at the Chushul-
the demands(A) with the urgency that the Moldo point on the Chinese side of the Line of Actual
situation matter(B) on Wednesday, headed(C) itself a Control Monday, joined for the first time by the Indian
day later as a different bench incapacitated(D) by the met(B) who echoing(C) the China desk in the ministry of
Chief Justice D.N. Patel put the case off to April 13. external affairs, Naveen Srivastava – and heads(D) the
A) ADBC presence of a political commissar who has always been
B) CDAB present in the Chinese delegation.
C) ABCD A) ADBC
D) BADC B) ABCD
e) no rearrangement required C) ACBD
35) Through its new digital initiative and focus (A), Etsy D) BADC
India is announced (B) Indian-made goods E) BDAC
internationally, with a campaign (C) on Indians living 38) A serological survey report published(A) in the
abroad, the business promoting (D) on its India-specific Journal of Public Health by Oxford University,
Instagram page. revealed(B) that 36 per cent of the population in the city
A) ACBD of Karachi are believed to have been infected(C) to the
B) ADBC virus, which means 6 million people were exposed(D)
C) BCAD with Covid in Karachi itself.
D) CDAB A) ADCB
E) None of the above. B) ABDC
36) Additionally, the punishments(A) changed the C) ACBD
illicit(B) of amendment(C) and rehabilitation, which D) ADBC
Page 956 of 1079

E) ABCD brilliant satirical project, rather than being the (C)

39) Many scientists have compared (A) that connectivity because of a lone hoping desperately to (D) arguably
in the human brain is superior (B) higher assumed (C) to together a new word.
other animals, as a possible explanation for the A. ACBD
significantly (D) functioning of the 'human animal. B. DCBA
A) ABDC C. BCAD
B) ADBC D. ACDB
C) BCAD E. ABCD
D) CDBA 42) The clouds still (A) but along the distant horizon of
E) No Interchange is required. conifer-quilted hills, (B) drift there is more construction
40) Linda Davidoff defines emotion as a feeling that is (C) puffing the road, with brick-making factories (D)
behaviors (A) through physiological functions such as along smoke into the sky and gashes of red earth where
facial covering (B) faster heartbeat, and expressed (C) cranes have torn into the hillsides
such as aggression, crying, or expressions (D) the face A. ABCD
with hands. B. ACBD
A) ABDC C. ADBC
B) ADBC D. BCAD
C) BCAD E. BADC
D) CDAB
E) No Interchange is required. 43) The fact that machines now play better chess (A)
Direction(41-43) : in each of the following questions a useful even the greatest grandmasters or that DeepMind’s
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is AlphaGo (B) particular the world Go champion at his (C)
given with four words given in bold in each. Rearrange defeated speciality is interesting – and might even be (D)
the words to form a meaningful and grammatically than in other areas, such as pattern-matching.
correct sentence. The meaning can be different from A. DCBA
the one in question. B. ACBD
C. ACDB
41)Even what is (A) cobble the best coinage of recent D. CDAB
years-comedian Stephen Colbert's invaluable "truthiness" E. ABCD
– only worked (B) product it grew out of a serious and
Page 957 of 1079

Directions (44-50): In the below question a sentence is D) ADBC

given with four words bold. These words may E) No arrangement is required
exchange their position in order to make the sentence 47) The government on Friday announced the launch of
correct. Find the correct exchange from the options. an administers (A) information technology project
44) The RBI, as a temporary (A) measure, had scheduled ‘Sunidhi’ to digitise all provident fund and pension linked
(B) the borrowing limit for increased (C) banks under the (B) activities of the Coal Mines Provident Fund
marginal standing facility (MSF) scheme from 2 per cent Organisation (CMPFO). CMPFO, a statutory body under
to 3 per cent of their (D) Net Demand and Time the coal ministry, ambitious (C) different schemes of
Liabilities (NDTL) with effect from March 27, 2020. provident fund, pension and deposit related (D) insurance
A) ADBC for coal mine workers.
B) ABDC A) ACBD
C) ACBD B) ABDC
D) BCDA C) CDBA
E) No arrangement is required D) CDAB
45) SBI Cards and American Express have entered a E) No arrangement is required
powerful (A) partnership to offer a strategic (B) mix of 48) The 750 stadiums, being built at a cost of Rs105 crore
global benefits and privileges (C) exclusive (D) for in rural areas under the state government’s rural
discerning consumers in India. transformation energy (A) and ‘Tandarust Punjab
A) BADC Mission, will help youths constructive (B) their strategy
B) ABDC (C) in a channelize (D) manner, the CM said.
C) CDAB A) ABDC
D) ADBC B) ACDB
E) No arrangement is required C) CDBA
46) The third G20 Sherpa Meeting was held (A) under D) CDAB
Saudi Arabia's participation (B) with presidency (C) E) No arrangement is required
from G20 members, invited (D) countries, and 49) In 2019, The Union Cabinet decided to honour (A)
international and regional organizations. the tunnel as ‘Atal Tunnel’ to name (B) former Prime
A) BCDA Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee for his decision (C). The
B) ABDC contributions (D) was taken in 2000 when he was the
C) ACBD Prime Minister.
Page 958 of 1079

A) BADC A) BADC
B) ABDC B) ABDC
C) CDBA C) CDBA
D) ADBC D) ADBC
E) No arrangement is required E) No arrangement is required
50) If NSYNC singer Lance Bass can’t afford (A) the $20
million price tag (B) for a ride into space (C) now, he
should try again (D)in, say, a decade.
Word Rearrangement - Answers with Explanation

Across is movement from one side of an area, surface, or
1) Answer: C line to the other side. I drew a line ACROSS the paper.
Developing alternatives to deforestation can help Through is movement from one side of an enclosed space
decrease the need for tree clearing. For example, the to the other side.
desire to expand the amount of land used for agriculture Forest is an enclosed space, so we need to use “through”
is an attractive reason to deforest an area. for that.
2) Answer: B 5) Answer: D
Forests can also be restored, through replanting trees in Hackers and cyber scammers are taking (A) advantage of
cleared areas or simply allowing the forest ecosystem to the coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic by
regenerate over time. The goal of restoration is to return sending (B) fraudulent email and WhatsApp messages
the forest to its original state, before it was cleared. that attempt to trick you into clicking (C) on malicious
3) Answer: C (D) links or opening attachments.
Everyone can do their part to curb deforestation. We can 6) Answer: D
buy certified wood products, go paperless whenever UN has implemented (A) a new email security control
possible, limit our consumption of products that use palm called Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting,
oil and plant a tree when possible. and Conformance (B) to significantly diminish (C)
4) Answer: B different types of impersonation (D).
The Congo River zigzags across the equator twice as it 7) Answer: C
flows from eastern Africa, through the Congo rainforest, The startup is developing the biotech to turn methane
all the way to the Atlantic Ocean. from waste or natural gas into monomers, which become
the building blocks of protein for various uses.
Page 959 of 1079

8) Answer: E 13) Answer: B

Always consider (A) why someone wants (B) your After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be, “The
information and if it is appropriate (C). There is no shift in cleaning protocol comes at such strange time,
reason someone would need your username & password considering most businesses and other airlines have
to access (D) public information. increased their cleaning and safety protocols, as well as
9) Answer: C social distancing practices.”
After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be, “The 14) Answer: A
first animal started showing symptoms March 27, and all The report pointed out that when if the then key
are doing well and expected to recover, said the zoo, employees of IL&FS found out that ratings wouldn’t be in
which has been closed to the public since March 16 amid favour of the company, they then either delayed the
the surging coronavirus outbreak in New York.” publication of the rating on the public domain. (the part “
10) Answer: D wouldn’t be in favour of” is about the “ratings”)
After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be, “Even 15) Answer: A
as the virus has slowed its growth in overwhelmed Italy The government plans to source up loans from foreign
and in China, where it first emerged, hospitals in Spain institutions because Indian banks were not in a position to
and France are buckling under the load, and the U.S. and provide enough capital for the small business sector,
Britain are bracing for waves of desperately ill people.” which is seen as critical to job creation. (after ‘provide’
11) Answer: A we can’t use ‘up’; hence, it should be ‘source up’)
After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be, “In 16) Answer: D
January of 1985, workers were putting the finishing It, thus, appears, the report added, that various potential
touches on an impressive waterfall fountain located on strategies noted above were applied to ensure favourable
the property adjacent to the Williams Tower, or what was ratings or to avoid a rating downgrade. (after plural noun
then known as the Transco Tower.” (‘strategies’) we can’t use V5(‘appears’); hence, it should
12) Answer: D be ‘strategies noted above’)
After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be, “The 17) Answer: E
12-acre Discovery Green park non-profit park in the heart The spokesperson added that the forensic audit report is
of downtown will be transformed into a wonderland of based on partial and selective source material from IL&FS
light and art to drive through, snap selfies, enjoy bites and and demonstrates a limited understanding of the credit
support local and world-renowned artists with baubles and rating process.
entertainment.” 18) Answer: D
Page 960 of 1079

It should be noted that Nifty futures and options contract Solution: In the first blank, assuming which is in position
for the July series expires in the coming week and the B makes perfect sense as the author of the sentence is
aforementioned factors are likely to keep volatility in assuming that there are enough COVID-19 doses and
Indian equities high. (‘Indian factors’ has no sense in the UNICEF anticipates something. So, A-B becomes a pair.
context of the sentence; hence’ it should be ‘Indian Now if we interchange C and D, we allow the sentence to
equities’) make complete sense. The sentence after rearrangement
19) Answer: E will be: “During 2021, assuming there are enough doses
Not only do the amendments plug loopholes in the IBC of Covid-19 vaccines, UNICEF anticipates delivering
which some promoters had used to stall resolution of their over one billion syringes to support Covid-19 vaccination
bankrupt companies, but the changes also seek to ensure efforts on top of the 620 million syringes that it will
time-bound resolution of cases. purchase for other vaccination programmes against other
20) Answer: D diseases such as measles, typhoid and more.”
With such serious interpretative problems coming up, it So, option B is the correct answer
was only incumbent upon the government to come up with 25) Answer: E.
such amendments which are clarificatory in nature. Solution: First let us make sense of the sentence. We can
21) Answer: C understand by looking at it that Delhi is said be in the grip
The brokerages have attributed their decision to concerns of COVID-19 and apex court has received orders to
that demand is unlikely to recover in the upcoming season, reduce congestion of the jails. Now, if we interchange A,
while regulatory changes and increased competition will C and B, D the sentence makes complete sense now.
continue to weigh on the stock. Position B is easy to spot as pandemic is the word to be
22) Answer: E used after COVID-19, so B-d becomes a pair and A-C
The decision comes at a time when most dealer partners becomes a pair. The sentence after rearrangement will be
are financially stressed and as the overall slowdown in the “He pointed out that Delhi was still in the grip of Covid-
economy continues to keep customers away from 19 pandemic and even a panel of the Delhi government,
showrooms. constituted following the apex court orders to decongest
23) Answer: B the jails, had also passed guidelines to release the
Credit to non-banking financial companies is frozen prisoners on interim bails or emergency paroles.”
because investors have become extremely wary and So, option E is the right answer.
nervous, and not because there isn’t adequate liquidity 26) Answer: E.
24) Answer: B.
Page 961 of 1079

Solution: In the first blank legislation makes perfect practice for Republicans in recent times in what is seen by
sense. Also, if we read the sentence carefully, we can many as an effort to belittle her by highlighting her
decipher that in position B, the firms are said to become heritage - she’s the daughter of an Indian-origin mother
responsible for human right abuses. So, this makes A-D and Jamaica-origin father.”
and B-C, correct pairs for answer as interchanging them So, option E is the correct answer.
would render the sentence completely meaningful. The Answer: B.
sentence after rearrangement will be “The European Solution: In the first blank, expertise makes perfect sense,
Union plans to introduce legislation that could eventually so, A is swapped with D. Also, in blank B, knowledge
make firms responsible for human rights abuses and makes sense, so, the positions of B and C are swapped.
environmental harm in their supply chain, while U.S. The sentence after rearrangement should be “The private
lawmakers have proposed banning imports of cocoa sector, through its technical expertise, sector-specific
produced with child labour.” knowledge and ability to design unique, cutting-edge
So, option E is the right answer. innovations, can devise effective long-term solutions to
Answer: C. two of the major challenges government is faced with —
Solution: In the sentences we see that lodging, food, study lack of technological solutions and large-scale
material all are resources, so the word in position A makes monitoring.”
perfect sense. So, A should be swapped with C. Also, B in So, correct option is B.
place of D makes perfect sense. The sentence after 30) Answer: E
rearrangement will be “The availability of resources like The words are in correct place.
lodging, food, study material, coaching, doubt clearing 31) Answer : A
classes and special teachers were ensured to help the An insufficient processing capacity to cope with the
students prepare to realise their dreams of becoming a additional load may also lead to suspension of the banking
doctor.” facility unless adequate contingency plan has been
So, option C is the correct answer. specified and tested beforehand.
Answer: E. 32) Answer: E
Solution: In the first blank, it is easily seen that before The account holder is authorized to operate the account
practice the blank should have standard, so, A is swapped through a third person, in addition to himself, by suitable
with B. Also, belittle in position C makes perfect sense. authority for one-time basis and/or also for various
The sentence after rearrangement should be functions through a power of attorney.
“Mispronouncing Harris’s name has become standard 33) Answer: E
Page 962 of 1079

To satisfy his thirst for knowledge and information he the Line of Actual Control Monday, joined for the first
can always turn to books for help. time by the Indian diplomat who heads the China desk in
34) Answer: D the ministry of external affairs, Naveen Srivastava – and
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “the Delhi echoing the presence of a political commissar who has
High Court, which took up the matter with the urgency always been present in the Chinese delegation. ”
that the situation demands on Wednesday, incapacitated 38) Answer: B
itself a day later as a different bench headed by the Chief ‘Exposed’ takes ‘to’ preposition and ‘infected’ takes
Justice D.N. Patel put the case off to April 13.” ‘with’ preposition. So C-D will be the correct pair.
35) Answer: D After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be “A
Through its new digital initiative and campaign, Etsy serological survey report published in the Journal of
India is promoting Indian-made goods internationally, Public Health by Oxford University, revealed that 36 per
with a focus on Indians living abroad, the business cent of the population in the city of Karachi are believed
announced on its India-specific Instagram page. to have been exposed to the virus, which means 6 million
36) Answer: C people were infected with Covid in Karachi itself. ”
In the first bold position ‘amendment’ makes perfect 39) Answer: D
sense. So A-C will be a pair. This follows option C. The Many scientists have assumed that connectivity in the
other pair also makes the sentence grammatically and human brain is significantly higher compared to other
contextually correct. animals, as a possible explanation for the superior
After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be “ functioning of the 'human animal.
Additionally, the amendment changed the scheme of 40) Answer: D
punishments and rehabilitation, which now treated illicit Correct sentence is Linda Davidoff defines emotion as a
drug users differently from sellers, manufacturers etc.” feeling that is expressed through physiological functions
37) Answer: D such as facial expressions, faster heartbeat, and
In the first bold position we need a verb in the past form. behaviors such as aggression, crying, or covering the
‘Met’ fulfills that. So A-B will be a pair. This follows face with hands.
option D. The other pair also makes the sentence 41) Answer: B
grammatically and contextually correct. The first is hard to spot. For position B, it is only logical
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “Indian and that ‘because’ is used, so B-C is deciphered as one pair.
Chinese military commanders met for another round of Now, if we pair A-D, the sentence makes complete sense
talks at the Chushul-Moldo point on the Chinese side of now. After re-arrangement, the correct sentence will be
Page 963 of 1079

“Even what is arguably the best coinage of recent years- So, option A is the correct answer.
comedian Stephen Colbert's invaluable "truthiness" – only 44) Answer: C
worked because it grew out of a serious and brilliant Correct sentence is
satirical project, rather than being the product of a lone The RBI, as a temporary measure, had increased the
hoping desperately to cobble together a new word.” borrowing limit for scheduled banks under the marginal
So, option B, is correct. standing facility (MSF) scheme from 2 per cent to 3 per
42) Answer: E. cent of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL)
The first one is easy to spot. We know in general sense with effect from March 27, 2020.
clouds drift along. We can see that drift is used in position 45) Answer: A
B, which actually needs a connector ‘but’ used in position Correct sentence is
A. So, we got one pair A-B. C-D should also be SBI Cards and American Express have entered a strategic
interchanged to make perfect sense, as puffing is used partnership to offer a powerful mix of global benefits and
with smoke. After rearrangement, the sentence will be exclusive privileges for discerning consumers in India.
“The clouds still drift along the distant horizon of conifer- 46) Answer: C
quilted hills, but there is more construction along the road, Correct sentence is
with brick-making factories puffing smoke into the sky The third G20 Sherpa Meeting was held under Saudi
and gashes of red earth where cranes have torn into the Arabia's presidency, with participation from G20
hillsides.” members, invited countries, and international and
So, option E is correct regional organizations.
43) Answer: A. 47) Answer: D
For position A, a comparison is made between machines The government on Friday announced the launch of an
playing chess and he grandmasters, so ‘than’ in position ambitious information technology project ‘Sunidhi’ to
D seems to be a perfect fit for position A. Also, digitise all provident fund and pension related activities
interchanging B and C makes the sentence correct of the Coal Mines Provident Fund Organisation
grammatically and contextually. After rearrangement, the (CMPFO). CMPFO, a statutory body under the coal
sentence is “The fact that machines now play better chess ministry, administers different schemes of provident
than even the greatest grandmasters or that DeepMind’s fund, pension and deposit linked insurance for coal mine
AlphaGo defeated the world Go champion at his particular workers.
speciality is interesting – and might even be useful in other 48) Answer: D
areas, such as pattern-matching.”
Page 964 of 1079

The 750 stadiums, being built at a cost of Rs105 crore in In 2019, The Union Cabinet decided to name the tunnel
rural areas under the state government’s rural as ‘Atal Tunnel’ to honour former Prime Minister Atal
transformation strategy and ‘Tandarust Punjab Mission, Bihari Vajpayee for his
will help youths channelize their energy in a contributions. The decision was taken in 2000 when he
constructive manner, the CM said. was the Prime Minister.
49) Answer: A 50) Answer: E
No arrangement is required here.
Word Replacement
Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions a 3. The material (A) of the still visible arrangement (B)
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is in science texts implies a process(C) that, if it existed,
given with four words given in bold in each. Which of would deny revolutions(D)a function.
the following words should replace each other to form a) A-D
a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. b) C-D
1. This will enable(A) the government to abolish(B) the c) A-C, B-D
monopoly of any sector in the priority (C) of public d) A-B
services except these field (D) sectors. e) B-D
a) A-D 4. The causal targeted (A) - political interference, wilful
b) C-D defaults, explanations (B) lending and even fraudulent
c) A-C, B-D behaviours(C) by banks - have some grain of truth(D)
d) A-B in them.
e) B-D a) A-D
2. Some rhymes can be traced(A) to popular ballads, folk b) C-D
songs and games, events (B)satire, ancient proverbs, c) A-C, B-D
cries(C)of street vendors, real or legendary political (D). d) A-B
a) A-D e) B-D
b) C-D 5. For international (A) offering two-way quotes in the
c) A-C, B-D market-makers(B) markets, open positions(C) are far
d) A-B, C-D more common(D).
e) B-D a) A-B
b) C-D
Page 965 of 1079

c) A-C, B-D e) no rearrangement required

d) A-B, C-D 9. The proper controllers (A)of these functioning (B) of
e) B-D our body is very important(C) and most vital for
Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions a health(D) .
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is a) A-D
given with four words given in bold in each. Which of b) C-D
the following words should replace each other to form c) A-C, B-D
a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. d) A-B
6. I once hearing (A)to run a mile in seven minutes(B) e) B-D
after tried (C)some athletes could do it in four(D) . 10. The shrill(A)scream of man in clang (B) was
a) A-D audible(C) despite the agony (D)of the machinery.
b) C-D a) A-D
c) A-C b) C-D
d) A-B c) A-C, B-D
e) B-D d) A-B, C-D
7. It is an annual(A)ritual society (B) by politicians, e) B-D
administrators, media(C), religious leaders, and other Directions (11-15): In each of the following questions a
members of attended (D) grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is
a) A-D given with four words given in bold in each. Which of
b) C-D the following words should replace each other to form
c) A-C, B-D a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
d) A-B, C-D 11. Duryodhana did not like(A) that Pandavas should be
e) B-D loved(B) and respected(C)by the people(D) of
8. When I look back, I don’t remember(A) too much- of Hastinapur.
what I was thinking(B) , what was going(C)on in my a) A-D
head(D). b) C-D
a) A-D c) A-C, B-D
b) C-D d) A-B, C-D
c) A-C, B-D e) no rearrangement required
d) A-B, C-D
Page 966 of 1079

12. He desisting (A) that the code should include b) C-D

stipulations(B)on members not entering(C) the well of c) A-C, B-D
the House, and suggested (D) from sloganeering and d) A-B
unruly acts. e) B-D
a) A-D Directions (16-20): In each of the following questions a
b) C-D grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is
c) A-C given with four words given in bold in each. Which of
d) A-B the following words should replace each other to form
e) B-D a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
13. He has lost(A) the war and his suﬀering (B) is 16. For international (A) offering two-way quotes in the
crumbling, while Yemen is left with unimaginable(C) market-makers(B) markets, open positions(C) are far
human coalition (D). more common(D).
a) A-D a) A-B
b) C-D b) C-D
c) A-C, B-D c) A-C, B-D
d) A-B, C-D d) A-B, C-D
e) B-D e) B-D
14. The main recommendations include making CSR 17. These fruits(A) will make your clients(B) spend
expenditure tax deductible, allowing the carry-forward more time(C) with you and also add to your profits(D).
of unspent balance for a period of 3-5 years. a) A-D
a) A-D b) C-D
b) C-D c) A-C, B-D
c) A-C, B-D d) A-B, C-D
d) A-B, C-D e) no rearrangement required
e) no rearrangement required 18. Additionally, the punishments(A) changed the
15. The causal targeted (A) - political interference, wilful illicit(B) of amendment(C) and rehabilitation, which
defaults, explanations (B) lending and even fraudulent now treated scheme(D) drug users differently from
behaviours(C) by banks - have some grain of truth(D) sellers, manufacturers etc.
in them. A) A-D
a) A-D B) C-D
Page 967 of 1079

C) A-C, B-D 21. An important and effective tool in detecting and

D) A-B, C-D investigating corruption is documents (A) of
E) B-D information and analysis (B) of business defendants (C)
19. Indian and Chinese military commanders involved in corruption or related to entities (D).
diplomat(A) for another round of talks at the Chushul- A) A-D
Moldo point on the Chinese side of the Line of Actual B) A-B, D-C
Control Monday, joined for the first time by the Indian C) B-C
met(B) who echoing(C) the China desk in the ministry of D) A-C, B-D
external affairs, Naveen Srivastava – and heads(D) the E) No Interchange is required.
presence of a political commissar who has always been 22. Many scientists have compared (A) that connectivity
present in the Chinese delegation. in the human brain is superior (B) higher assumed (C) to
A) A-D other animals, as a possible explanation for the
B) C-D significantly (D) functioning of the 'human animal.
C) A-C, B-D A) A-D
D) A-B, C-D B) A-D, B-C
E) B-D C) B-C
20. A serological survey report published(A) in the D) A-C, B-D
Journal of Public Health by Oxford University, E) No Interchange is required.
revealed(B) that 36 per cent of the population in the city 23. Linda Davidoff defines emotion as a feeling that is
of Karachi are believed to have been infected(C) to the behaviors (A) through physiological functions such as
virus, which means 6 million people were exposed(D) facial covering (B) faster heartbeat, and expressed (C)
with Covid in Karachi itself. such as aggression, crying, or expressions (D) the face
A) A-D with hands.
B) C-D A) A-D
C) A-C, B-D B) A-D, B-C
D) A-B, C-D C) B-C
E) B-D D) A-C, B-D
Direction (21-25): Certain words are highlighted in E) No Interchange is required.
bold in each sentence. Interchange the possible words 24. The Narendra Modi government needs(A) to seize the
to get meaningful sentence. initiative and fast-forward long-pending reforms (B) so
Page 968 of 1079

as to boost overall growth(C), which remains president went for what he hoped would be a knockout
lacklustre(D) at about 5% of GDP. blow, accusing his opponent of being a weak man who
A) A-D would quit 2) to the left’s plans to dramatically expand
B) A-D, B-C government and cripple business. They imply only a
C) B-C modestly bigger state and attempt to deal with genuine
D) A-C, B-D problems facing America, including shoddy
E) No Interchange is required. infrastructure, climate change and the labor 3) of small
25. It is clear that knowledge (A) of risk perception can business. Long-term problems have intensify 4),
empower(B) more-effective risk communication(C) and including crumbling infrastructure and a patchy social
help people keep their concerns (D) in perspective. safety-net. The underlying energy 5) of business remains
A) A-D weak.
B) A-D, B-C 26. Joe Biden spent the evening punching 1) at Mr Trump
C) B-C for bringing the country to its knees.
D) A-C, B-D a) extracting
E) No Interchange is required. b) jabbing
Directions (26-30): In the following passage, certain c) enticing
words have been highlighted and numbered. For each d) magnetizing
highlighted four alternatives are provided that could e) none of these
replace the highlighted word to make the sentence 27. the president went for what he hoped would be a
both grammatically and contextually correct. Option knockout blow, accusing his opponent of being a weak
corresponding to that word will be your answer. If man who would quit 2) to the left’s plans
none of the given options could replace the highlighted a) succumb
word then choose option (E), i.e. ‘none of these’ as your b) avert
answer c) entrench
The two presidential contenders squared up this week in d) contend
the first debate before America votes on November 3rd. e) none of these
President Donald Trump set out to make it a brawl, even 28. They imply only a modestly bigger state and attempt
throwing a punch at the validity of the electoral process to deal with genuine problems facing America, including
itself. Joe Biden spent the evening punching 1) at Mr shoddy infrastructure, climate change and the labor 3) of
Trump for bringing the country to its knees. And the small business.
Page 969 of 1079

a) stupors d) A-B
b) truancies e) B-D
c) leisure 32. The account holder is authorized(A) to operate the
d) travails attorney(B) through a third person, in addition(C) to
e) none of these himself, by suitable authority for one-time basis and/or
29. Long-term problems have intensify 4), including also for various functions through a power of account (D)
crumbling infrastructure and a patchy social safety-net. .
a) burgeoned a) A-D
b) festered b) C-D
c) bloomed c) A-C, B-D
d) vaunted d) A-B, C-D
e) none of these e) B-D
30. The underlying energy 5) of business remains weak. 33. To satisfy(A) his thirst for knowledge(B) and
a) otiosity information(C) he can always turn(D) to books for
b) inertia help.
c) slouch a) A-D
d) dynamism b) C-D
e) none of these c) A-C, B-D
Directions (31-35): In each of the following questions a d) A-B, C-D
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is e) no rearrangement required
given with four words given in bold in each. Which of 34. To reach (A) such food items, it is believed that the
the following words should replace each other to form community(B) women hid the milk products(C) and
a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. hung them in pots at height, he could not easily hide (D).
31. An contingency(A)processing capacity to cope with a) A-D
the additional(B) load may also lead to suspension(C) b) C-D
of the banking facility unless adequate insufficient (D) c) A-C, B-D
plan has been specified and tested beforehand d) A-B
a) A-D e) B-D
b) C-D 35. The mandir (A)will be open for only the public (B)
c) A-C, B-D and closed(C) for the general priests (D).
Page 970 of 1079

a) A-D a) A-D
b) C-D b) C-D
c) A-C, B-D c) A-C
d) A-B, C-D d) A-B
e) B-D e) B-D
36. The group(A) of boys are called mandals(B) and they 39. Well arrived (A), with their perfect Colgate smiles,
go around different (C)localities to break(D)the handi. and hair in place(B), they appear the picture of
a) A-D confidence(C) which comes from having groomed (D).
b) C-D a) A-D
c) A-C, B-D b) C-D
d) A-B, C-D c) A-B
e) no rearrangement required d) A-B, C-D
Directions (37-41): In each of the following questions a e) B-D
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is 40. Simultaneously(A), the Indian elite discarded(B)
given with four words given in bold in each. Which of their synthetic sarees and kitsch being(C)furniture and a
the following words should replace each other to form market came into plastic(D).
a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. a) A-D
37. This polymorphism is selection(A) in non-human b) C-D
primates as well indicates(B)a long evolutionary history c) A-C, B-D
which, although obviously(C)not acting on PTC, might d) A-B, C-D
reflect evolutionary observed(D) for taste discrimination e) B-D
of other. 41. Grandparents were once the ensured(A)of family
a) A-D wisdom and values and keepers (B)that these were
b) C-D instilled(C)in the next generations(D).
c) A-C, B-D a) A-D
d) A-B b) C-D
e) B-D c) A-B
38. A price that is aggregate(A) by the seller or, for that d) A-B, C-D
matter, established(B)by anyone other than the e) B-D
determined(C) of consumers seems pernicious(D).
Page 971 of 1079

Direction (42-50): The followingsentences have four C.4-3

words given in bold. Amongst the given bold words D.1-4
which of the following must replace each other to make E.1-2
the sentence contextually correct and meaningful. 45. A (1) decorated wall is easily (2) blank with a fancy
clock or a movie poster, which is (3) perhaps why the
42. There is no (1) aplenty about whether an (2) term, ‘(4) struggling artist’ came into being.
issue such as surrogacy (3) fraught with bioethical A.2-4
issues (4) argument requires regulation: it does. The B.1-3
Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019, should have come a C.2-3
long time ago. D.1-4
A.2-4 E.1-2
B.1-3 46. The (1) amendments to the Act voted by Parliament
C.2-3 seek to (2) address some of these (3) operation, notably
D.1-4 in forming a National Transportation Policy and a
E.1-2 National Road Safety Board, providing for stiffer
43. The Indian government (1) split Article 370 and (2) penalties for violation of rules, and
moved a (3) separate bill to (4) abolished the state into orderly (4) challenges of new-generation mobility
two union territories of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh. services that use mobile phone applications.
A.2-4 A.2-4
B.1-3 B.1-3
C.4-3 C.4-3
D.1-4 D.1-4
E.1-2 E.1-2
44. Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi had written to the Prime 47. Whether it is an (1) accident or not is now a subject
Minister recently, (1) highlighting the problem of (2) matter of official (2) investigation, but India has had a
questions of judges, due to which he was unable to (3) history of rogue trucks (3) questioning those (4)
constitute enough Constitution Benches to decide silencing the system.
important (4) paucity of law. A.2-4
A.2-4 B.1-3
B.1-3 C.4-3
Page 972 of 1079

D.1-4 counting (3) attention and the gaps the

E.1-2 assessment (4) exposes.
48. It is true that the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights A.2-4
on Marriage) Bill, 2019, is a (1) diluted version of the Bill B.1-3
as it was originally (2) motion. Earlier, it did not (3) C.2-3
specify who could set the law in (4) conceived. D.1-4
A.2-4 50. The (1) majority of his (2) trust vote (3) victory is
B.1-3 that his government does not have an absolute (4) irony of
C.2-3 the total strength of the House.
D.1-4 A.2-4
E.1-2 B.1-3
49. Since the (1) majority of the world’s wild tigers live C.2-3
in India, there is global (2) exercise on the D.1-4
E.1-2
Word Replacement - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: B ‘legendary’ is an adjective, so, after it we need a
After rearrangement correct sentence will be, “This will noun(‘events’).
enable the government to abolish the monopoly of any 3. Answer: D
sector in the field of public services except these After rearrangement correct sentence will be ,“The
priority sectors....” arrangement of the still visible material in science texts
After an article(‘the’) we need a noun(‘field’). implies a process that, if it existed, would deny
‘priority sectors’ conveys the meaning of the sentence. revolutions a function.....”
2. Answer: E 4. Answer : D
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “Some After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “The causal
rhymes can be traced to popular ballads, folk songs explanations (B) - political interference, wilful defaults,
and games, political satire, ancient proverbs, cries of targeted (A) lending and even fraudulent behaviours(C)
street vendors, real or legendary events...” by banks - have some grain of truth(D) in them.....”
‘satire’ is noun, so, before it we need an 5. Answer: A
adjective(‘political’). After rearrangement correct sentence will be “For
market-makers(B) offering two-way quotes in the
Page 973 of 1079
international (A) markets, open positions(C) are far members not entering the well of the House, and
more common(D)..” desisting from sloganeering and unruly acts.”
6. Answer: C 13. Answer: E
After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “I once After rearrangement correct sentence will be “He has lost
tried to run a mile in seven minutes after hearing some the war and his coalition is crumbling, while Yemen is
athletes could do it in four....” left with unimaginable human suﬀering..”
7. Answer: E 14. Answer: E
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “It is an After rearrangement correct sentence will be “The main
annual ritual attended by politicians, administrators, recommendations include making CSR expenditure tax
media, religious leaders, and other members of society.” deductible, allowing the carry-forward of unspent
8. Answer: E balance for a period of 3-5 years..”
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “When I 15. Answer : D
look back, I don’t remember too much- of what I was After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “The causal
thinking, what was going on in my head.” explanations (A) - political interference, wilful defaults,
9. Answer: D targeted (B) lending and even fraudulent behaviours(C)
After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “The proper by banks - have some grain of truth(D) in them.....”
functioning of these controllers of our body is very 16. Answer: A
important and most vital for health....” After rearrangement correct sentence will be “For
10. Answer: E market-makers(A) offering two-way quotes in the
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “The shrill international (B) markets, open positions(C) are far
scream of man in agony was audible despite the clang of more common(D)..”
the machinery.” 17. Answer: E
11. Answer: E After rearrangement correct sentence will be “These
After rearrangement correct sentence will be fruits(A) will make your clients(B) spend more time(C)
“Duryodhana did not like that Pandavas should be loved with you and also add to your profits(D)....”
and respected by the people of Hastinapur...” 18. Answer: C
12. Answer : A In the first bold position ‘amendment’ makes perfect
After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “He sense. So A-C will be a pair. This follows option C. The
suggested that the code should include stipulations on other pair also makes the sentence grammatically and
contextually correct.
Page 974 of 1079

After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be “ and documents(B) of business entities(C) involved in
Additionally, the amendment changed the scheme of corruption or related to defendants(D).
punishments and rehabilitation, which now treated illicit 22. Answer: D
drug users differently from sellers, manufacturers etc.” Many scientists have assumed that connectivity in the
19. Answer: D human brain is significantly higher compared to other
In the first bold position we need a verb in the past form. animals, as a possible explanation for the superior
‘Met’ fulfills that. So A-B will be a pair. This follows functioning of the 'human animal.
option D. The other pair also makes the sentence 23. Answer: D
grammatically and contextually correct. Correct sentence is Linda Davidoff defines emotion as a
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “Indian and feeling that is expressed through physiological functions
Chinese military commanders met for another round of such as facial expressions, faster heartbeat, and
talks at the Chushul-Moldo point on the Chinese side of behaviors such as aggression, crying, or covering the
the Line of Actual Control Monday, joined for the first face with hands.
time by the Indian diplomat who heads the China desk in 24. Answer: E
the ministry of external affairs, Naveen Srivastava – and All the words are in correct place.
echoing the presence of a political commissar who has 25. Answer: E
always been present in the Chinese delegation. ” All the words are in correct place.
‘Exposed’ takes ‘to’ preposition and ‘infected’ takes In the given sentence, ‘jabbing’ should replace ‘punching’
‘with’ preposition. SoC-D will be the correct pair. to make the sentence both grammatically and contextually
After rearrangement, the correct sentence will be “A correct. You can refer to a sudden and unpleasant critical
serological survey report published in the Journal of remark as a jab.
Public Health by Oxford University, revealed that 36 per 27. Answer: A
cent of the population in the city of Karachi are believed In the given sentence, ‘succumb’ should replace ‘quit’ to
to have been exposed to the virus, which means 6 million make the sentence both grammatically and contextually
people were infected with Covid in Karachi itself. ” correct. Succumb means fail to resist pressure, temptation,
21. Answer: B or some other negative force.
An important and effective tool in detecting and 28. Answer: D
investigating corruption is analysis (A) of information
Page 975 of 1079

In the given sentence, ‘travails’ should replace ‘labor’ to After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “To hide
make the sentence both grammatically and contextually such food items, it is believed that the community women
correct. Travails means painful or laborious effort. hid the milk products and hung them in pots at height, he
29. Answer: B could not easily reach...”
In the given sentence, ‘festered’ should replace ‘intensify’ 35. Answer: E
to make the sentence both grammatically and contextually After rearrangement correct sentence will be “The mandir
correct. If a bad situation such as an argument festers, it will be open for only the priests and closed for the general
becomes worse because it is being ignored public..”
30. Answer: D 36. Answer: E
In the given sentence, ‘dynamism’ should replace After rearrangement correct sentence will be “The group
‘energy’ to make the sentence both grammatically and of boys are called mandals and they go around different
contextually correct. If you say that someone or something localities to break the handi.”
has dynamism, you are expressing approval of the fact that 37. Answer : A
they are full of energy or full of new and exciting ideas. After rearrangement the correct sentence will be , “This
31. Answer : A polymorphism is observed in non-human primates as well
After rearrangement correct sentence will be , “An indicates a long evolutionary history which, although
insufficient processing capacity to cope with the obviously not acting on PTC, might reflect evolutionary
additional load may also lead to suspension of the banking selection for taste discrimination of other.”
facility unless adequate contingency plan has been Other options does, B-D; C-D ;A-C, B-D ; A-B ----- not
specified and tested beforehand...” constitute the correct pair, as these pairs does not give
32. Answer: E grammatical and contextual meaning to the sentence.
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “The account 38. Answer: C
holder is authorized to operate the account through a third After rearrangement correct sentence will be “A price
person, in addition to himself, by suitable authority for that is determined by the seller or, for that matter,
one-time basis and/or also for various functions through a established by anyone other than the aggregate of
power of attorney...” consumers seems pernicious.”
33. Answer: E
The correct sentenceis “To satisfy his thirst for knowledge Other options does, A-D ;C-D ; A-B ; B-D----- not
and information he can always turn to books for help..” constitute the correct pair, as these pairs does not give
34. Answer : A grammatical and contextual meaning to the sentence.
Page 976 of 1079

39. Answer: A The correct form of the sentence is: The Indian
After rearrangement correct sentence will be “Well government abolished Article 370 and moved a separate
groomed, with their perfect Colgate smiles, and hair in bill to split the state into two union territories of Jammu,
place, they appear the picture of confidence which comes Kashmir and Ladakh.
from having arrived.” 44. Answer: A
Other options does, C-D ;A-B ;A-B, C-D ; B-D----- not The correct form of the sentence is: Chief Justice Ranjan
constitute the correct pair, as these pairs does not give Gogoi had written to the Prime Minister recently,
grammatical and contextual meaning to the sentence. highlighting the problem of paucity of judges, due to
40. Answer: B which he was unable to constitute
After rearrangement correct sentence will be enough Constitution Benches to decide
“Simultaneously, the Indian elite discarded their important questions of law.
synthetic sarees and kitsch plastic furniture and a market 45. Answer: E
came into being.” The correct form of the sentence is: A blank wall is
Other options does, A-B, C-D; A-D; A-C, B-D ;B-D----- easily decorated with a fancy clock or a movie poster,
not constitute the correct pair, as these pairs does not give which is perhaps why the term, ‘struggling artist’ came
grammatical and contextual meaning to the sentence. into being.
After rearrangement correct sentence will be The correct form of the sentence is: The amendments to
“Grandparents were once the keepers of family wisdom the Act voted by Parliament seek to address some of
and values and ensured that these were instilled in the next these challenges, notably in forming a National
generations.” Transportation Policy and a National Road Safety Board,
Other options does, A-D ; C-D ; A-B, C-D ; B-D----- not providing for stiffer penalties for violation of rules, and
constitute the correct pair, as these pairs does not give orderly operation of new-generation mobility services
grammatical and contextual meaning to the sentence. that use mobile phone applications.
42. Answer: D 47. Answer: C
The correct form of the sentence is: There is The correct form of the sentence is: Whether it is an
no argument about whether an issue such as surrogacy accident or not is now a subject matter of official
fraught with bioethical issues aplenty requires regulation: investigation, but India has had a history of rogue
it does. trucks silencing those questioning the system.
43. Answer: D 48. Answer: A
Page 977 of 1079

The correct form of the sentence is: It is true that the global attention on the counting exercise and the gaps
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, the assessment exposes.
2019, is a diluted version of the Bill as it was 50. Answer: D
originally conceived. Earlier, it did not specify who could The correct form of the sentence is: The irony of his trust
set the law in motion. vote victory is that his government does not have an
49. Answer: C absolute majority of the total strength of the House.
The correct form of the sentence is: Since the majority of
the world’s wild tigers live in India, there is
Sentence Connectors
Directions (1-5): In the following question given below (II) She looked at it.
two statements (I)&(II) are given. Connect them by A.While
using the word given below without changing the B.Meanwhile
intended meaning. C.But
1. (I) The teacher said the students that there will be no D.Moreover
homework for tomorrow. E.Though
(II) You must plant some trees. 4. (I) The doctor said that the patient was now safe.
A.Although (II) No one wishes to lose him.
B.But A.Moreover
C.Though B.Still
D.And C.Though
E.Instead D.Although
2. (I) We were waiting for the train to arrive. E.However
(II) We were playing word games among us. 5. (I) The abandoned kids were too young to be left alone.
A.Often (II) We decided to safeguard them.
B.Seldom A.Though
C.While B.Although
D.Meanwhile C.Hence
E.And D.However
3. (I) The child playing in the garden pointed out E.None of the above
something to his mother.
Page 978 of 1079
Directions (6-10): In the questions below, two 9. I. Cutting down on carbs and sweets will help you
statements are given which are grammatically and lose weight.
contextually correct and meaningful. Connect them by II. Doing more exercise will help you get rid of a some
choosing the word as given in options below without weight.
changing the intended meaning. The connectors may A.To begin with
or may not be at the start of the sentence. B.In the same way
6. I. Plenty of tourists visit the beach in summer. C.Furthermore
II. Selling hand-made toys is the main source of income D.Moreover
for locals. E.None of these
A.Accordingly 10. I. You’re not allowed to use your mobile phones
B.In contrast here.
C.However II. You have to switch it off when you’re in the church.
D.Hence A.Similarly
E.None of these B.Yet
7. I. You didn’t tell me you wanted to come to the C.Since
party. D.As a consequence
II. We won’t be taking you with us there. E.None of these
A.Thus Directions (11-15): In the questions below, two
B.Nonetheless statements are given which are grammatically and
C.Likewise contextually correct and meaningful. Connect them by
D.Although choosing the word as given in options below without
E.None of these changing the intended meaning. The connectors may
8. I. We’re going to witness some meteor showers in or may not be at the start of the sentence.
the next few weeks. 11. I) This Archie’s has the best collection in town.
II. The number of miraculous self-healings will rise. II) Their employees are quite rude.
A.On the contrary A.However
B.Therefore B.Therefore
C.Interestingly C.Since
D.Correspondingly D.Also
Page 979 of 1079

12. I) I was in so much pain I didn’t want to get up early. Directions (16-18): Select the phrase/connector from
II) I went to dance practice as usual. the given options which can be used in the beginning
A.Nevertheless (to start the sentence) to form a single sentence from
B.As a result the sentences given below, implying the same meaning
C.Therefore as expressed in the statement sentences.
D.To begin with 16. 1) This Complex has the best hotels in town.
E.None of these 2) Its workers are quite rude.
13. I. I’ve asked you a hundred times not to leave your (i) However
dirty shoes inside the house. (ii) Even though
II. You keep doing it. (iii) Apart
A.Also A.Only (i)
B.Yet B.Only (ii)
C.Besides C.Only (iii)
D.More importantly D.All three
14. I) Canada has the best language schools in the North 17. 1) Virat Kohli made a century.
American continent. 2) He was not well.
II) It has the worst weather. (i) Even though
A.Primarily (ii) However
B. On the other hand (iii) Although
C.Moreover A.Only (i)
D.Furthermore B.Only (ii)
E.None of these C.Only (iii)
15. I) Conner has skipped college on many occasions. D.Both (i) and (iii)
II) He’s failed his language test. E.All the three
A.However 18. 1) Managers’ salary has risen substantially.
B.As a consequence 2) Clerks’ pay has actually fallen.
C.In other words (i) Whereas
D.As a matter of fact (ii) On the one hand – On the other hand
E.None of these (iii) Despite
Page 980 of 1079

A.Only (i) Directions (21-25): In each of the questions given

B.Only (ii) below two statements are given followed by 3 options.
C.Only (iii) Find the alternative(s) that can act as a starter for the
D.Both (i) and (ii) given sentences and combine them into a single
E.All the three sentence keeping the meaning of the sentence same as
Directions (19-20): Select the phrase/connector from given in the question.
the given options which can be used in the beginning 21. I) Economists will also look for trends of consumption
(to start the sentence) to form a single sentence from and investment expenditure
the sentences given below, implying the same meaning II) They have remained sluggish till the September
as expressed in the statement sentences. quarter.
19. 1). He is bold. A.Either… or
2). He is smart. B.But
(i) Moreover C.Though
(ii) Therefore D.Both of which
(iii) Furthermore E.None of the above
A.Only (i) 22. I) The death toll in Italy, Europe's worst-hit country,
B.Only (ii) rose to 17 on Thursday
C.Only (iii) II) The number of people who tested positive for the
D.Both (i) and (iii) illness increased by more than 200 to 650.
E.All the above A.And
20. 1). This food is very tasty. B.For
2). That food is quite tasteless. C.But
(i) While D.In
(ii) Whereas E.None of the above
(iii) yet 23. I) The order dealt a blow to the industry
A.Only (i) II) It argued that adjusted gross revenue should only
B.Only (ii) include revenue from core telecom operations.
C.Both (i) and (iii) A.That
D.Both (i) and (ii) B.If
E.Both (ii) and (iii) C.Which
Page 981 of 1079

D.None of (iii) Slow progress on rooftop solar.…

E.None of the above A.Only (i) is correct,
24. I) Sama, another senior SoftBank executive who was B.Only (ii) is correct,
a rival of Misra’s C.Only (iii) is correct,
II) Samawas a target of this smear campaign, the Journal D.Both (i) and (ii) are correct,
reported. E.Both (ii) and (iii) are correct
A.But 27. (1) Antyodaya coaches are provided with bio-toilets
B.Also for zero discharge of effluents.
C.Whether (2) These coaches will have toilet occupation indication
D.Because lights provided at each end near the doorway with better
E.None of the above visibility from compartments, a first in general class.
25. I) The Vision Fund invests in private technology (i) Since Antyodaya coaches are…
companies (ii) Provided with bio-tiolets…
II) Misra’s efforts could raise questions of conflict of (iii) Although these coaches will…
interest. A.Only (i) is correct
A.Also B.Only (ii) is correct
B.For C.Only (iii) is correct
C.Even though D.Both (i) and (ii) are correct
D.From E.None is correct.
E.None of the above 28. (1) Mary arrived
Directions (26-30): Select the phrase/connector from (2) Alex left
the given options which can be used in the beginning (i) after
(to start the sentence) to form a single sentence from (ii) unless
the sentences given below, implying the same meaning (iii) since
as expressed in the statement sentences. A.Only (i)
26. (1) Grid-connected large-scale installations have B.Only (ii)
received maximum attention. C.Both (i) and (iii)
(2) There is slow progress on rooftop solar. D.Both (i) and (ii)
(i) While grid-connected … E.Both (ii) and (iii)
(ii) Receiving maximum attention, the……. 29. (1) You are very late
Page 982 of 1079

(2) We cannot start the lesson (II) The total number of corona virus infections in India
(i) unless crossed the 13 lakh-mark to reach 13,36,861 on Saturday.
(ii) so that (III) The CM to Lucknow to attend the funeral of
(iii) where as Governor Lalji Tandon earlier this week. tested positive
A.Only (i) for the disease.
B.Only (ii) (IV) Nearly 50,000 cases (48,916) on the second
C.Both (i) and (iii) consecutive day
D.Both (i) and (ii) A.(I) and (III)
E.Both (ii) and (iii) B.(II) and (IV)
30. (1). I start C.(III) and (IV)
(2). I must continue D.(I) and (II)
(i) hence E.None of the above
(ii) so 32. Of
(iii) once (I) The biggest percentage jumps in deaths.
A.Only (i) (II) and West Bengal and Bihar the fewest, data collected
B.Only (ii) by The Hindu showed
C.Only (iii) (III) The 12 states with the most active cases, Andhra
D.Both (i) and (iii) Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu have reported.
E.All the above (IV) in protocols being followed for recording covid-
Directions (31-32): In the questions below, four related deaths
statements are given which are grammatically and A.(I) and (III)
contextually correct and meaningful. Connect them by B.(II) and (IV)
choosing the word as given in options below without C.(III) and (IV)
changing the intended meaning. The connectors may D.(I) and (II)
or may not be at the start of the sentence. E.None of the above
31. With Directions (33-35): In each of the questions given
(I) Globally, 15,736,499 people have been infected and below two statements are given followed by 3 options.
638,577 have succumbed to the virus. As many as Find the alternative(s) that can act as a starter for the
8,986,470 recoveries have been reported so far. given sentences and combine them into a single
Page 983 of 1079

sentence keeping the meaning of the sentence same as the below given options which must imply the same
given in the question. meaning as in the question after connecting. The
33. I) The spread of the coronavirus increasingly dashes connector may appear anywhere in the sentence.
hopes of a swift rebound. 36. (i) Hannah had been a kept woman with no problems
II) The world economy may be heading for its worst since meeting Gio.
performance since the financial crisis more than a decade (ii) Katie had always struggled to find her path.
ago. A.instead
A.But B.nonetheless
B.Although C.whereas
C.As D.because
D.Meanwhile E.while
E.None of the above 37. (i) The engineers said the bridge was now safe.
34. I) Tokyo, Shanghai, Sydney, Singapore and Seoul (ii) No one wanted to risk crossing it.
were among the bourses that fell more than three percent. A.however
II) Jakarta was hammered more than four percent. B.unless
A.Even though C.before
B.While D.besides
C.Yet E.despite
D.Since Directions (38-40): In the following questions, two
E.None of the above sentences are given and they are followed by some
35. I) The midnight transfer of Justice Muralidhar isn’t words or phrases. Select the phrase(s) or word(s) from
shocking given the current dispensation. the given options which can be used to connect the two
II) It is certainly sad and shameful. sentences to make a single sentence.
A.Because 38. 1). India currently has a dozen public sector banks
B.So 2). IDBI, in which the government owns 47.11% while the
C.While state-owned insurance behemoth Life Insurance Corp
D.But owns a 51% stake.
E.None of the above A.Whereas
Directions (36-37): In the following questions two B.However
sentences are given. Select a phrase/connector from C.in addition to
Page 984 of 1079

D.But III) Since

E.None of the above A) Only III
39. 1). Raguram said the Indian banking industry survived B) Only I
through the global banking crisis when huge multi- C) II and III
national banks failed D) I and II
2). They were not in private hands. E) None of these
A.as 42. It was a holiday on Friday. Morgan went to work.
B.since I) In spite of
C.because II) As because
D.Both A and B III) Moreover
E.All of the above A) I and III
40. 1). Many leaders today send other people in their B) Only I
behalf, and they are the ones who get money and credit for C) II and III
these actions. D) I and II
2). Gandhi demonstrated humbleness by living in relative E) None of these
poverty voluntarily. 43. US policy-makers broadly understand this. It has
A.however not translated to action on the ground.
B.similarly I) Since
C.Despite of the fact II) While
D.On account of III) Moreover
E.All of the above A) I and III
Directions (41-45): In each of the questions given B) Only I
below two statements are given followed by 3 C) II and III
words/phrases. Find the alternative(s) that can act as D) Only II
a starter for the given sentences and combine them into E) None of these
a single sentence keeping the meaning of the sentence 44. The Metro arrived at the subway. The passengers
same as given in the question. rushed to board it.
41. I was late to the party. Everybody else was on time. I) Since
I) Although II) As soon as
II) Moreover III) For
Page 985 of 1079

A) I and III D) I and II

B) Only I E) No correction required
C) II and III 47. The Narendra Modi government adopted the
D) Only II “surgical strike” posture in 2016 to look valiant. The
E) None of these Narendra Modi government didn’t give thought to the
45. Martha didn’t like the food. I enjoyed it very much. larger picture.
I) In spite I) Without giving thought
II) No sooner II) Thought to the larger picture
III) Although III) Since Narendra Modi is
A) III only A) I and III
B) Only I B) Only I
C) II and III C) II and III
D) I and II D) I and II
E) None of these E) No correction required
Directions (46-50): In each of the questions given 48. Modiji is very busy. It’s not easy to take time out
below two statements are given followed by 3 options. for selfies with all stars.
Find the alternative(s) that can act as a starter for the I) That Modiji is as busy as
given sentences and combine them into a single II) Given that Modiji is so
sentence keeping the meaning of the sentence same as III) As it’s not easy to take
given in the question. A) I and III
46. Many ceasefire violations have occurred since B) Only I
2003. When Pakistan signed an agreement with India C) II and III
to not allow this, transgressions were sorted out by D) Only II
invoking this deal. E) No correction required
I) Though many ceasefire violations 49. Indian fighter jets crossed the LoC to hit targets
II) Since an agreement with India to not allow inside Pakistan in the Balakot attack in late February,
III) While transgressions were sorted for In response to the Pulwama attack on a CRPF convoy.
A) Only III The Balakot attack effectively put a seal of finality on
B) Only I a new tactical line regarding Pakistan.
C) II and III I) Since crossed the LoC to hit targets
Page 986 of 1079

II) In response to the Pulwama attack a week. It depends on the patient’s activity levels and
III) Nevertheless the Balakot attack in abilities.
A) I and III I) As the doctors generally recommend
B) Only I II) Although It Depending on the patient’s
C) II and III III) Depending on the patient’s activity levels
D) Only II A) III only
E) No correction required B) Only I
50. The doctors generally recommend 30 minutes of C) II and III
moderately intense aerobic exercise to patients, thrice D) I and II
E) No correction required
Sentence Connectors - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer:E Option A is the suitable connector for the 2 statements.
The teacher said the students that there will be no Option B is incorrect; it refers to the comparison between
homework for tomorrow instead,you must plant some two statements.
trees Option C is incorrect; it refers to the comparison between
2. Answer:C two statements.
While waiting for the train to arrive,we were playing word Option D is incorrect; it refers to the consequence in the
games among us concluding sentence due to the 1st sentence.
3. Answer:B 7. Answer: A
Meanwhile the child playing in the garden pointed out Option A is the suitable connector for the 2 statements.
something to his mother,who looked at it. Option B is incorrect; it shows two contradicting parts of
4. Answer:E a statement.
The doctor said that the patient was now safe, however no Option C is incorrect; it refers to the conclusion of the
one wishes to lose it. 2nd part of the statement as a result of the 1st part.
5. Answer:C Option D is incorrect; ‘although’ denotes the contrasting
The abandoned kids were too young to be left alone hence part of the sentence which is not in line with the 1st part.
we decided to safeguard them. 8. Answer: B
6. Answer: A Option B is the suitable connector for the 2 statements.
Accordingly is used 'in a way that is appropriate to the Option A is incorrect; It refers to the comparison between
particular circumstances'. two statements.
Page 987 of 1079
Option C is incorrect; ‘interestingly’ means in a way that Option D is incorrect; ‘To begin with’ is used to denote
arouses curiosity or interest. sequencing.
Option D is incorrect; ‘correspondingly’ means in an 13. Answer: B
analogous or equivalent way. Option B is the suitable connector for the 2 statements;
9. Answer: B shows two contradicting parts of a statement.
Option B is the suitable connector for the 2 statements. Option A is incorrect; ‘Also’ is used to show similarity.
Option A is incorrect; it is used when we are talking about Option C is incorrect; it is used to denote sequencing.
the 1st stage of a situation. Option D is incorrect; it is used to denote order of
Option C is incorrect; it means ‘in addition to’. importance.
Option D is incorrect; it means ‘as a further matter’. 14. Answer: B
10. Answer: A Option B is the suitable connector for the 2 statements;
Option A is the suitable connector for the 2 statements. shows two contradicting parts of a statement which is not
Option B is incorrect; It shows two contradicting parts of in line with the previous statement in that context.
a sentence. Option A is incorrect; ‘Primarily’ is used to denote order
Option C and D are both incorrect; both the connectors of importance.
mean ‘as a result of’. Option C is incorrect; it is used to denote sequencing.
11. Answer: A Option D is incorrect; it is used to denote sequencing.
Option A is the suitable connector for the 2 statements. It 15. Answer: B
refers to the comparison between two statements. Option B is the suitable connector for the 2 statements;
Option B is incorrect; ‘Therefore’ is used as a shows the result or consequence of the previous statement.
consequence of the previous part of the statement. Option A is incorrect; it shows two contrasting parts of a
Option C is incorrect; ‘Since’ is used to depict cause. statement.
Option D is incorrect; ‘Also’ is used to show similarity. Option C is incorrect; ‘In other words’ is used to show
12. Answer: A explanation in the next part of the sentence.
Option A is the suitable connector for the 2 statements; Option D is incorrect; ‘As a matter of fact’ is used to
shows two contrasting parts of a statement. denote emphasis.
Option B is incorrect; ‘As a result’ is used as a 16. Answer: A
consequence of the previous part of the statement. This Complex has the best hotels in town; however, its
Option C is incorrect; ‘Therefore’ is used as a workers are quite rude. “However” is used to introduce a
consequence of the previous part of the statement.
Page 988 of 1079

statement which is in contradiction to the previously said 22. Answer: A

statement The death toll in Italy, Europe's worst-hit country, rose to
17. Answer: D 17 on Thursday and the number of people who tested
Even though/Although – used for despite/in spite of. positive for the illness increased by more than 200 to 650.
Even though Virat Kohli was not well, he made a 23. Answer: C
century OR Virat Kholi made a century even though he The order dealt a blow to the industry, which argued that
was not well. adjusted gross revenue should only include revenue from
Although Virat Kohli was not well, he made a core telecom operations.
century OR Virat Kholi made a century although he was 24. Answer: B
not well. Sama, another senior SoftBank executive who was a rival
18. Answer: D of Misra’s, was also a target of this smear campaign, the
Whereas – used for comparing two things, people, Journal reported.
situations etc. and showing that there is an important 25. Answer: C
difference between them. Even though the Vision Fund invests in private
Managers’ salary has risen substantially whereas clerks’ technology companies, Misra’s efforts could raise
pay has actually fallen. questions of conflict of interest.
On the one hand managers’ salary has risen substantially; 26. Answer: A
on the other hand clerks’ pay has actually fallen. (i) While grid-connected large-scale installations have
19. Answer: D received maximum attention, there is slow progress on
Moreover and Furthermore – besides/in addition to – both rooftop solar.
are Conjunctive Adverbs. 27. Answer: B
He is bold; moreover, he is smart. OR He is bold; Provided with bio-toilets for zero discharge of effluents,
furthermore, he is smart. Antyodaya coaches will have toilet occupation indication
20. Answer: D lights provided at each end near the doorway with better
This food is very tasty whereas that food is quite tasteless. visibility from compartments, a first in general class.
This food is very tasty while that food is quite tasteless. 28. Answer: A
21. Answer: D Mary arrived after alex left
Economists will also look for trends of consumption and 29. Answer: B
investment expenditure, both of which have remained You are very late so that we cannot start the lesson
sluggish till the September quarter. 30. Answer: C
Page 989 of 1079

Once I start I must continue Hannah had been a kept woman with no problems since
31. Answer: B meeting Gio, whereas, Katie had always struggled to find
With nearly 50,000 cases (48,916) on the second her path.
consecutive day, the total number of coronavirus 37. Answer: A
infections in India crossed the 13 lakh-mark to reach 'However,' is usually closely related to the sentence which
13,36,861 on Saturday. precedes it. In most cases, it is more appropriate to use
32. Answer: A 'however' to form a compound sentence, and ‘however’
Of the 12 states with the most active cases, Andhra shows contrast. Here in this question, the usage of
Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu have reported the however is similar as whatever.
biggest percentage jumps in deaths. The engineers said the bridge was now safe, however, no
33. Answer: C one wanted to risk crossing it.
The world economy may be heading for its worst 38. Answer: C
performance since the financial crisis more than a decade India currently has a dozen public sector banks in
ago as the spread of the coronavirus increasingly dashes addition to IDBI, in which the government owns 47.11%
hopes of a swift rebound. while the state-owned insurance behemoth Life Insurance
34. Answer: B Corp owns a 51% stake. In addition to – besides.
Tokyo, Shanghai, Sydney, Singapore and Seoul were The given sentence says Government has control over
among the bourses that fell more than three dozen PSBs in addition to IDBI.
percent while Jakarta was hammered more than four 39. Answer: E
percent. All of the given options can be used to connect the two
35. Answer: D sentences.
The midnight transfer of Justice Muralidhar isn’t shocking Raguram said the Indian banking industry survived
given the current dispensation, but it is certainly sad and through the global banking crisis when huge multi-
shameful. national banks failed because they were not in private
36. Answer: C hands.
Whereas is a conjunction and comes at the beginning of a Raguram said the Indian banking industry survived
subordinate (dependent) clause. We use whereas to show through the global banking crisis when huge multi-
the difference between two things or facts. Here in this national banks failed as they were not in private hands.
question, whereas is used to show the difference between
Hannah and Katie.
Page 990 of 1079

Raguram said the Indian banking industry survived 44. Answer: D

through the global banking crisis when huge multi- As soon as the Metro arrived at the subway, the passengers
national banks failed since they were not in private hands. rushed to board it.
As/Since/Because are used to connect the sentences which Hence option D is the suitable choice.
has the result and the reason. 45.Answer: A
In the given sentence 1 is the result and sentence 2 is Although Martha didn’t like the food, I enjoyed it very
the reason for that result. much.
40. Answer: A Hence option A is the suitable choice.
Many leaders today send other people in their behalf, and 46. Answer: B
they are the ones who get money and credit for these Though many ceasefire violations have occurred since
actions. However, Gandhi demonstrated humbleness by 2003, when Pakistan signed an agreement with India to
living in relative poverty voluntarily. not allow this, transgressions were sorted out by invoking
However is the best connector. this deal. Hence option B is the suitable choice.
Sentences seek to convey “Many leaders used their power 47. Answer: B
in bad ways whereas Gandhi demonstrated humbleness”. Without giving thought to the larger picture, the Narendra
Despite doesn’t take preposition “of”. “Despite the fact” Modi government adopted the “surgical strike” posture in
is the correct phrase. Options B and D cannot be used to 2016 to look valiant.
connect. Hence option B is the suitable choice.
Although I was late to the party, everybody else was on Given that Modiji is so busy, it’s not easy to take time out
time. for selfies with all stars.
Hence option B is the suitable choice. Hence option D is the suitable choice.
In spite of the fact that it was a holiday on Friday, Morgan In response to the Pulwama attack on a CRPF convoy, the
went to work . Balakot attack in late February, in which Indian fighter
Hence option B is the suitable choice. jets crossed the LoC to hit targets inside Pakistan,
43. Answer: D effectively put a seal of finality on a new tactical line
While US policy-makers broadly understand this, it has regarding Pakistan.
not translated to action on the ground. Hence option D is the suitable choice.
Hence option D is the suitable choice. 50. Answer: A
Page 991 of 1079

Depending on the patient’s activity levels and abilities, the Hence option A is the suitable choice.
doctors generally recommend 30 minutes of moderately
intense aerobic exercise thrice a week.
Match the column

In the following questions two columns are given E.None of these
containing three Sentences/phrases each. In first 2.
column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the
second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F.
A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may
not connect with another sentence/phrase from the
second column to make a grammatically and
contextually correct sentence. Each question has five
options, four of which display the sequence(s) in
which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a A.A-D, B-F
grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If B.B-E, C-D
none of the options given forms a correct sentence C.A-E, C-F
after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as D.A-F, B-D
your answer. E.None of these
1. 3.
A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-D, C-F
D.A-F, B-E A.A-D, B-E
Page 992 of 1079

B.B-F, C-D D.A-F, B-D

C.B-E, C-F E.None of these
D.A-F, B-D Direction (6-10): In the following questions two
E.None of these columns are given containing three
4. Sentences/phrases each. In first column,
sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second
column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A
sentence/phrase from the first column may or may
which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a
grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If
A.A-D, B-E none of the options given forms a correct sentence
B.B-F, C-D after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as
C.B-E, C-F your answer.
D.A-F, B-D 6.
E.None of these A)Every morning, a four- D) but that barely
5. page digest of news told us translated to this

of a virus in faraway unpeopled landscape with
Wuhan, its 360-degree horizons.
B) Of course, there’s a E) a noiseless world where
special clarity in sailing there’s often no sign of
through human habitation.
C) And nearly all my F) as I by the fact that
fellow passengers seemed phone calls were almost
A.A-D, B-F as liberated impossible on the ship and
B.B-F, C-D the internet punitively
C.B-E, C-F slow.
Page 993 of 1079

A) A-E, B-D A)Many Icelanders will go D) where he got to know

B) B-F, C-D to the pool daily, the many different kinds
C) B-E, C-F of people who frequent
D) A-F, B-D them.
E) None of these B) Filming has taken E) either on their way to
7. Helgason to 100 pools or from work.
A)When tuktuks became D) used the three- around Iceland,
increasingly popular in Sri wheeled vehicles to take C) Schools will use the F) while the elderly can
Lanka in the early 2000s, their bun business on pools for teaching attend water aerobics
many bakers the road and sell to swimming, classes and enjoy a chat
distant neighbourhoods and a coffee afterwards.
and villages A) A-D, B-E
B) Just as an ice cream E) when mobile phones B) B-F, C-D
truck’s jingle alerts residents became popular. C) B-D, C-F
that it’s approaching, these D) A-F, B-E
mobile E) None of these
C) This was also around the F) bakers started 9.
time playing their mobile A)Soon enough, he was D) toiled as tirelessly
phone’s ringtone styling himself His Royal for the family, the farm
through a horn speaker Highness Prince Leonard and the country as
to let residents know the I of Hutt and handing out Prince Leonard did.
choonpaan truck was B) Prince Richard also E) regal titles to his
near. made sure that I visited family and supporters,
A) A-D, B-F Princess Shirley’s Sacred while defiantly
B) B-E, C-D Educational continuing to sell
C) A-E, C-F wheat across their
D) A-F, B-D newly founded
E) None of these international borders
8. with Australia.
Page 994 of 1079

C) Prince Richard F) Shrine, built to 11.

lamented that his mother honour his mother, COLUMN- I COLUMN-II
Shirley Casley, who
A) Promoting health D) which is sometimes
passed away in 2013.
and well-being is used interchangeably.
A) A-D, B-E among
B) B-F, C-D
B) Health promotion is E) the core competencies
C) B-D, C-F
more relevant today of primary care.
D) A-F, B-E
than ever in
E) None of these
10.
C) Health education and F) addressing public
A)She’s referring to D) foods that give the
health promotion are health problems.
umami, the savoury “fifth cuisine its unique
two terms
taste” flavour.
B) It’s found in soy, miso E) that is often
A) A-E, B-F, C-D
and other fermented associated with
B) A-F, B-D, C-E
Japanese dishes.
C) A-F, C-D
C) But Japan’s umami in F) grows in lush
D) A-E, B-F
fact has its roots in Ainu underwater forests
E) None of the above is correct match.
culture, in the kombu (a around Hokkaido’s
12.
type of edible kelp) that coastlines and has
COLUMN- I COLUMN-II
always been used in
traditional Ainu cuisine. A) Depression is D) and often causes
technically a mental persistent sadness,
A) A-D, B-E
B) B-F, C-D disorder, fatigue, and irritability.
C) B-D, C-F
D) A-F, B-E B) Depression can E) but it also affects your
E) None of these manifest in a wide range physical health and well-
Directions (11-15): Match the column. And the of symptoms being.
formed sentence must be correct grammatically as

well as contextually.
Page 995 of 1079

C) One of the early F) likely to be one of the COLUMN- I COLUMN-II

signs of depression symptoms of depression A)Effective demand D)to meet
in men. refers to the willingness
and ability
B) Keynes’ theory of E) to achieve full
A) A-D, B-F, C-E employment is employment due to
B) A-E, B-D unemployment
C) A-D, C-E
D) A-E, C-D, B-F C) The importance of F) of consumers to
E) None of the above is correct match. Keynes’ view is that purchase goods at
13. effective demand may different prices.
COLUMN- I COLUMN-II be insufficient
A)An abnormal return D)the estimated return A) A-D, B-F, C-E
describes the unusual based on an asset pricing B) C-E
profits generated by model. C) A-E, B-D, C-F

D) A-E, C-D, B-F
B)The investor's E)when measured E) None of the above is correct match.
portfolio returned 25% against the benchmark 15.
and had a beta of 1.25 index. COLUMN- I COLUMN-II
A)Some personalities D)that rival the profit

may not be suited for motive in importance
C)The anticipated rate F)given securities or
certain careers
of return is portfolios over a
B)Individuals who E) and therefore are likely
specified period.
make career choices to enter wrong careers.
A) A-F, C-D, B-E
from a point of
B) A-D, B-F,
ignorance
C) A-D, C-F, B-E
C)Careers have F)and lack of
D) A-E, C-D, B-F
intangible benefits information are likely to
E) None of the above is correct match.
undervalue the
14.
Page 996 of 1079
importance of their out economic stimulus fintech companies to help

careers. measures to cushion their reduce the average cost.
economies from
A) A-D, B-F, C-E C. Policymakers need to F.remittances through
B) B-D, C-F take this one step further formal channels for
C) A-E, B-D, C-F by also engaging in South Asian expatriates
D) A-E, C-D, B-F with limited
E) None of the above is correct match. documentation.
Directions. Q (16-18): In the following questions two a) B-F
columns are given containing three sentences/phrases b) A-E
each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and c) C-D
C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are d) A-E &C-D
D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column e) None of these
may or may not connect with another 17)
sentence/phrase from the second column to make a A.Monetary policy acted D.when uncertainty is
grammatically and contextually correct sentence. as the first line of extreme, prudent central
Each question has five options, four of which display defence after the banks should be guided by
the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be what they observe, and not
joined to form a grammatically and contextually by unreliable forecasts.
correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a B.With growth sliding E.RBI has demonstrated
correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. and inflation rising at the that its quiver also holds
“None of these” as your answer. same time, the policy arrows other than interest
16) challenge that rates to support the
A.Central banks in home D.banking channels to be economy.
countries should also look utilized for cross-selling C.RBI has not given a F.RBI faced could only be
to ease know-your- opportunities. numerical forecast of described as fiendishly
customerand regulatory inflation, but stated that complicated
requirements for a) C-D
B.Governments in the E. both traditional service b) A-E
region are actively rolling providers as well as c) B-F
Page 997 of 1079

d) B-D
e) None of these B.The Centre’s move E.with its messaging, the
18) with its GeM portal has controversy has only
A.As RBI comes towards D.that tends to overcome also predictably kindled underlined the
the end of its interest rate a long fight against an and amplified a government’s poor
reduction cycle, it will epidemic. gathering clamour communication on the
have to navigate border issue.
B.The flexibility of social E.that would suggest
norms could serve us workable ways to C.While it should be F.for the identification
better than heavy-handed restructure such loans. obvious that any speech and subsequent boycott of
application of laws that require no less than Chinese products
C.Instead of waiting with F.pushed the economy’s two clarifications has including on private e-
bated breath, we need to growth above its potential serious problems commerce platforms.
resist the fatigue and created a high-
inflation environment. A. A-D, B-F, C-E
a) C-D B. A-D, B-F
b) B-F C. B-F
c) A-F D. C-E, B-F
d) B-D E. None of these.
e) None of these 20.
Direction (19-20): Two columns are given in each A.India’s election to the D.over the value of the
question and each column has three parts of a U.N. Security Council as Indian crude basket,
sentence. Choose the most suitable pair, which makes a non-permanent member declined by about 3%.
a grammatically correct and contextually coherent is a significant diplomatic
statement.
19. B.The knife attack at a E.victory for the
A.In another round of D.have decided to halve park in Reading, a town country, which has
tit-for-tat manoeuvres, the strength of diplomatic west of London, which long pushing for
India, followed by missions in each other’s killed three reforms at global
Pakistan, capital. institutions.
Page 998 of 1079

C. Call it a day F. To avoid getting to the

C.Over the same period, F.person and injured point of an issue
the price of Brent crude three others, is yet a) A-D, B-F, C-E
oil futures, which another reminder of the b) A-F, B-D, C-E
contributes a fourth threat of lone wolf c) A-D
attacks the U.K. is d) B-D
facing. e) None of these
23.
A. A-E A. Cutting corners D. Go to sleep
B. A-E, B-F, C-D B. A dime a dozen E. Something common
C. A-E, B-F C. Hit the sack F. Doing something poorly
D. B-F in order to save time or
E. None of these money
Direction (21-25): Two columns are given below; a) A-F, B-E, C-D
Column I has three Idioms, Column II has the b) A-D, B-F, C-E
meanings of the idioms. Match the idioms with their c) C-F, B-E
meanings. d) A-D, C-F
21. e) None of these
A. Kick the bucket D. Noble birth 24.
B. Blue blood E. To die A.A blessing in disguise D. In danger
C. Swan song F. Happy expression B.Bite the bullet E. To be defeated
a) A-D, B-F C.On the ball F. A bad thing
b) A-E, B-D, C-F a) A-D, B-E, C-F
c) A-E, C-F b) A-F
d) A-E, B-D c) B-F
e) None of these d) A-D, B-E
22. e) None of these
A. Beat around the bush D.Good luck
B. Break a leg E. Stop working on 25.
something
Page 999 of 1079

A.To get bent out of D. Rebuke Someone c) B-E, A-D, C-F

shape d) A-F, C-E, B-D
B.Costs an arm and a leg E. To get upset e) No match
C.Give someone the cold F. Very expensive 28.
shoulder A. Thrifty D. Wastrel
a) A-F, B-E B. Nadir E. Lowest point
b) A-D, B-F, C-E C. Azure F. Bright blue
c) C-F a) A-D, B-F
d)A-E, B-F, b) A-F, B-E, C-D
e) None of these c) B-E, A-D, C-F
Direction (26-28): In each of the questions, two d) B-D, C-F
columns are given followed by five options. In both e) No match
the columns we have some words. Match the words In each of the following questions two columns are
of Column I with their synonyms from Column II. If given containing three sentences each. In the first
no match is found, mark “(e)” as your answer. column A, B and C and in the second column D, E
26. and F. A sentence in the first column may or may not
A. Abjure D. Beatific connect to the sentence in the second column. Identify
B. Abysmal E. Dreadful the correct matching pair and mark your answer
C. Blissful F. Renounce 29.
a) A-D, B-F
b) A-F, B-E, C-D
c) B-E, A-D, C-F
d) A-F, C-E
e) No match
27.
A. Horrendous D. Horrible A.B-D
B. Despondency E. Dejection B.C-E
C. Acrimonious F. Bitter C.A-F
a) A-D, B-E, C-F D.C-F
b) A-F, B-E, C-D E.None of these
Page 1000 of 1079

30.
A.B-D
B.A-C
A.B-E
C.C-F
B.A-E
D.A-F
C.C-F
E.None of these
D.B-D
33.
E.None of these
31.
A.B-E A.B-F
B.A-E B.C-D
C.C-D C.A-E
D.B-F D.C-E
32. In the following questions two columns are given
containing three Sentences/phrases each. In first
Page 1001 of 1079


none of the options given forms a correct sentence A.A-D, C-E
after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as B.A-E, C-D
your answer. C.B-E, C-F
34. D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
36.
A.B-D, C-E
B.A-E, C-D
C.B-E, C-F
A.A-D, C-F
D.A-F, B-E
B.B-E, C-D
E.None of these
C.B-E, A-F
37.
D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
35.
Page 1002 of 1079


A.B-F, C-E none of the options given forms a correct sentence
B.A-D, C-E after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as
C.B-D, C-F your answer.
D.A-E, B-F 39.
E.None of these
38.
A.A-D, B-F
B.B-F, C-D
A.B-F, C-D C.B-E, C-F
B.A-D, C-F D.A-F, B-D
C.B-D, C-E E.None of these
D.A-E, B-F 40.
E.None of these
In the following questions two columns are given
Page 1003 of 1079

A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
A.A-D, B-E
E.None of these
B.B-F, C-D
41.
C.B-D, C-F
D.A-F, B-E
E.None of these
43.
A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
42. A.A-D, B-F
B.B-E, C-D
C.A-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
Page 1004 of 1079


options, four of which display the sequence(s) in A.A-D, B-E
which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a B.B-F, C-D
grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If C.B-D, C-F
none of the options given forms a correct sentence D.A-F, B-E
after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as E.None of these
your answer. 46.
44.
A.A-D, B-F
B.B-E, C-D
C.A-E, C-F A.A-D, B-E
D.A-F, B-D B.B-F, C-D
E.None of these C.B-E, C-F

45. D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
47.
Page 1005 of 1079


none of the options given forms a correct sentence
A.A-D, B-E after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as
B.B-F, C-D your answer.
C.B-E, C-F 49.
D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
48.
A.A-D, B-F
B.B-E, C-D
C.A-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
A.A-D, B-F
50.
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
E.None of these
Page 1006 of 1079
A.A-D, B-E D.A-F, B-E

B.B-F, C-D E.None of these
C.B-D, C-F
Match the column - Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: C (B-F): This, along with pressure from the African Union
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and and foreign countries, appears to have convinced the
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after generals they could not anymore amass absolute power, as
matching will be they did under Mr. Bashir’s three-decade-long rule.
(B-D): As part of the Finance Bill introduced in Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not
Parliament, the Centre had proposed amendments to the make any meaningful sentence.
Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 that Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make
were seen as affecting SEBI’s financial autonomy. any meaningful sentence.
(C-F): To be specific, the amendments required that after Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not
25% of its surplus cash in any year is transferred to its make any meaningful sentence.
reserve fund, SEBI will have to transfer the remaining 3. Answer: D
75% to the government. From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched and
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
make any meaningful sentence. matching will be
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make (A-F): But it was a popular opinion strongly held by most
any meaningful sentence. RTI activists that a demand for progressive amendments
Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make could be used as a smokescreen by the establishment to
any meaningful sentence. usher in regressive changes.
2. Answer: A (B-D): The proposed amendments tabled in Parliament on
From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched and July 19, 2019 have been in the offing for some time now.
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after In the form of the Right to Information (Amendment) Bill,
matching will be 2019, they seek to amend Sections 13, 16, and 27 of the
(A-D): Ever since President Omar al-Bashir’s fall in April RTI Act which carefully links, and thereby equates, the
amid anti-regime protests, the military leaders who seized status of the Central Information Commissioners (CICs)
power and the protesters have been on a confrontational with the Election Commissioners and the State
path. Information Commissioners with the Chief Secretary in
Page 1007 of 1079

the States, so that they can function in an independent and Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not
effective manner. make any meaningful sentence.
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not 5. Answer: C
make any meaningful sentence. From the given options only B-E, C-F is matched and
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
any meaningful sentence. matching will be
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make (B-E): China reacted furiously on Monday to anti-
any meaningful sentence. government protesters vandalising the walls of its
4. Answer: B representative’s office in Hong Kong and defacing the
From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched and national emblem, branding their actions “absolutely
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after intolerable”.
matching will be (C-F): Thousands of masked pro-democracy
(B-F): The Bombay High Court last month handed down demonstrators briefly occupied the road outside the office
a judgment upholding the validity of Section 376E of the in the semi-autonomous city on Sunday and targeted the
Indian Penal Code, which authorises the award of either a building with eggs, projectiles, laser lights and graffiti in
life sentence or the death penalty to perpetrators upon a a stark rebuke to Beijing’s rule.
second rape conviction. Option A: (A-D, B-F) is incorrect because it does not
(C-D): Subsequent judgments of larger benches — such make any meaningful sentence.
as in the Modern Dental College case and the Aadhaar Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
case — have made it clear that where the question of rights any meaningful sentence.
violations is concerned, the proportionality test has to be Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not
more detailed, and has four prongs: first, there must be a make any meaningful sentence.
legitimate state aim being pursued by the provision; 6. Answer: C
second, there needs to be a rational nexus between the From the given options only C-F, B-E is matched and
impugned provision and the aim. make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not matching will be
make any meaningful sentence. (B-E): Of course, there’s a special clarity in sailing
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make through a noiseless world where there’s often no sign of
any meaningful sentence. human habitation.
Page 1008 of 1079

(C-F): And nearly all my fellow passengers seemed as From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and
liberated as I by the fact that phone calls were almost make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
impossible on the ship and the internet punitively slow. matching will be
Option A: A-E, B-D- is incorrect because it does not make (B-D): Filming has taken Helgason to 100 pools around
any meaningful sentence. Iceland, where he got to know the many different kinds of
Option B: B-F, C-D- is incorrect because it does not make people who frequent them.
any meaningful sentence. (C-F):. Schools will use the pools for teaching swimming,
Option D: A-F, B-D- is incorrect because it does not make while the elderly can attend water aerobics classes and
any meaningful sentence. enjoy a chat and a coffee afterwards.
7. Answer: A Option A: A-D, B-E- is incorrect because it does not make
From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched and any meaningful sentence.
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after Option B: B-F, C-D- is incorrect because it does not make
matching will be any meaningful sentence.
(A-D): When tuktuks became increasingly popular in Sri Option D: A-F, B-E- is incorrect because it does not make
Lanka in the early 2000s, many bakers used the three- any meaningful sentence.
wheeled vehicles to take their bun business on the road 9. Answer: B
and sell to distant neighbourhoods and villages. From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched and
(B-F): Just as an ice cream truck’s jingle alerts residents make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
that it’s approaching, these mobile bakers started playing matching will be
their mobile phone’s ringtone through a horn speaker to (B-F): Prince Richard also made sure that I visited
let residents know the choonpaan truck was near. Princess Shirley’s Sacred Educational Shrine, built to
Option C: A-E, C-F- is incorrect because it does not make honour his mother, Shirley Casley, who passed away in
any meaningful sentence. 2013.
Option B: B-E, C-D- is incorrect because it does not make (C-D): Prince Richard lamented that his mother toiled as
any meaningful sentence. tirelessly for the family, the farm and the country as Prince
Option D: A-F, B-D- is incorrect because it does not make Leonard did.
any meaningful sentence. Option A: A-D, B-E- is incorrect because it does not make
8. Answer: C any meaningful sentence.
Option C: B-D, C-F- is incorrect because it does not make
any meaningful sentence.
Page 1009 of 1079

Option D: A-F, B-E - is incorrect because it does not make Correct sentences are
any meaningful sentence. Depression is technically a mental disorder, but it also
10. Answer: C affects your physical health and well-being.
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and Depression can manifest in a wide range of symptoms and
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after often causes persistent sadness, fatigue, and irritability.
matching will be One of the early signs of depression or a depression
(B-D): It’s found in soy, miso and other fermented foods relapse is stronger feelings of irritability.
that give the cuisine its unique flavour. Irritability is more likely to be one of the symptoms of
(C-F): But Japan’s umami in fact has its roots in Ainu depression in men.
culture, in the kombu (a type of edible kelp) that grows in C and F cannot be linked as it cannot make a meaningful
lush underwater forests around Hokkaido’s coastlines and sentence.
has always been used in traditional Ainu cuisine. 13. Answer: A
Option A: A-D, B-E - is incorrect because it does not make Correct sentences are
any meaningful sentence. An abnormal return describes the unusual profits
Option B: B-F, C-D - is incorrect because it does not make generated by given securities or portfolios over a specified
any meaningful sentence. period.
Option D: A-F, B-E - is incorrect because it does not make The investor's portfolio returned 25% and had a beta of
any meaningful sentence. 1.25 when measured against the benchmark index.
11. Answer: D The anticipated rate of return is the estimated return based
Correct sentences are on an asset pricing model
Promoting health and well-being is among the core 14. Answer: B
competencies of primary care. Correct sentences are:
Health promotion is more relevant today than ever in Effective demand refers to the willingness and ability of
addressing public health problems. consumers to purchase goods at different prices.
Health education and health promotion are two terms Keynes’ theory of employment is a demand-deficient
which are sometimes used interchangeably. theory.
C-D match is incorrect grammatically. "are” is the correct The importance of Keynes’ view is that effective demand
verb in place of “is” in the D as the subject (Health may be insufficient to achieve full employment due to
education and health promotion) is plural. unemployment.
12. Answer: B Only C and E can be matched.
Page 1010 of 1079

15. Answer: D A-E is grammatically wrong as in E the phrase “which

Correct sentences are: has long pushing” is wrong, it should be “WHICH
Some personalities may not be suited for certain careers HAS LONG BEEN PUSHING”.
and therefore are likely to enter wrong careers. B-F is wrong as ‘THREE’ SHOULD BE FOLLOWED
Individuals who make career choices from a point of BY PLURAL NOYN [PEOPLE].
ignorance and lack of information are likely to C-E is wrong as ‘CONTRIBUTES’ should be followed
undervalue the importance of their careers. by ‘TO’.
Careers have intangible benefits that rival the profit 21. Answer: D
motive in importance Kick the bucket- To die
16) Correct answer – b) -Central banks in home Blue blood- Noble birth
countries should also look to ease know-your-customer Swan song- the final performance or activity of a person's
and regulatory requirements for both traditional service career.
providers as well as fintech companies to help reduce the Hence, (d) is the correct answer.
average cost. 22. Answer: B
17) Correct answer – c)With growth sliding and inflation Beat around the bush-To avoid getting to the point of an
rising at the same time, the policy challenge that RBI issue
faced could only be described as fiendishly complicated. Break a leg-Good luck
18) Correct answer – a) Instead of waiting with bated Call it a day-Stop working on something
breath, we need to resist the fatigue that tends to overcome Hence, (b) is the correct answer.
a long fight against an epidemic. 23. Answer: A
19. Answer: C Cutting corners-Doing something poorly in order to save
B-F is correct both grammatically and contextually. time or money
A-D is contextually correct but grammatically wrong as A dime a dozen-Something common
‘INDIA’[singular] should be followed by ‘HAS’. Hit the sack- Go to sleep
C-E is also grammatically wrong as in the phrase “any Hence, (a) is the correct answer.
speech that require” we need ‘REQUIRES[V5]’ 24. Answer: E
According to the rule-> A blessing in disguise-a good thing that seemed bad at
ANY + SINGULAR NOUN + V5 first
20. Answer: E Bite the bullet-To get something over with because it is
inevitable
Page 1011 of 1079

On the ball-indicating competence, alertness, or 30. Answer: B

intelligence A-E: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs on
Hence, (e) is the correct answer. Wednesday approved three new railway projects, with a
25. Answer: D combined investment of over ₹6,000 crore, giving a boost
To get bent out of shape-To get upset to rail connectivity in Uttar Pradesh and Assam.
Costs an arm and a leg-Very expensive 31. Answer: C
Give someone the cold shoulder-To ignore someone C-D: Several of Mr. Jadhav’s childhood friends, who live
Hence, (d) is the correct answer. in the Prithvi Vandan society in Lower Parel, greeted the
26. Answer: B verdict by releasing balloons in the air.
Abjure- Renounce 32. Answer: D
Abysmal- Dreadful A-F: A hijab-wearing, diminutive Malaysian wrestler
Blissful- Beatific known as “Phoenix” cuts an unusual figure in the ring, a
Hence, (b) is correct. female Muslim fighter taking on hulking opponents in a
27. Answer: A male-dominated world.
Horrendous- Horrible 33. Answer: A
Despondency- Dejection B-F: Twenty-four people have been arrested in
Acrimonious- Bitter connection with the July 17 clash over a land dispute in
Hence, (a) is correct. Sonbhadra, even as the death toll in the incident rose to 10
28. Answer: D with one more person succumbing to injuries, officials
Thrifty- using money and other resources carefully and said on July 18.
not wastefully. 34. Answer: D
Nadir- Lowest point From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched and
Azure-a bright blue colour. make a meaningful sentence.
Wastrel- a wasteful or good-for-nothing person. (A-F): On maturity at the end of 15 years, you get the
Hence, (d) is correct. choice to either close the account and withdraw the
29. Answer: A amount or extend maturity period in a block of 5 years –
B-D: Using computer modelling and optimisation with or without new deposits. If you continue your PPF
algorithms, the world’s best bat and maybe the most account without any fresh deposits, then you do not need
affordable could in the near future roll out from a lab to to inform the branch for such extensions as it will
the cricket ground. automatically be considered as extended.
Page 1012 of 1079

(B-D): The amount available for withdrawal must not (B-D): To simplify its offerings, the automaker on
exceed 50% of the available balance at the end of the 4th Tuesday limited variants of its Model X sport-utility
year immediately preceding the year or the amount at the vehicle and Model S sedan to "Long Range" and the more
end of preceding year, whichever is lower. expensive "Performance".
Option A: (A-D, C-F) is incorrect because it does not (C-E): In China, the world's largest market for electric
make any meaningful sentence. vehicles, Tesla's changes on Tuesday pushed the starting
Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not price of its Model X to 790,900 yuan ($115,068) and
make any meaningful sentence. Model S to 776,900 yuan.
Option C: (B-E) is incorrect because it does not make any Option B: (A-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not
meaningful sentence. make any meaningful sentence.
35. Answer: C Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make
From the given options only B-E, C-F is matched and any meaningful sentence.
make a meaningful sentence. Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make
(B-E): The bill was first presented in 2016 after any meaningful sentence.
consultation with transport ministers from 18 states along 37. Answer: D
with discussions with other standing committees. From the given options only A-E, B-F is matched and
(C-F): Sougata Roy, TMC MP said “I oppose this bill as make a meaningful sentence.
it takes away the power of states to provide rural (A-E): With the refocus on BharatNet, which is the
connectivity as a social service instead of profitable routes government’s project to lay down the high-speed optical
for operation of such services. fibre in villages, the streaming industry is likely to get a
Option A: (A-D, C-E) is incorrect because it does not big shot in the arm.
make any meaningful sentence. (B-F): Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman’s proposal to
Option B: (A-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not infuse more investment into the BharatNet project with
make any meaningful sentence. public-private partnership via USOF has brought cheers
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not to the music streaming industry.
make any meaningful sentence. Option A: (C-E) is incorrect because it does not make any
36. Answer: A meaningful sentence.
From the given options only B-D, C-E is matched and Option B: (A-D, C-E) is incorrect because it does not
make a meaningful sentence. make any meaningful sentence.
Page 1013 of 1079

Option C: (B-D, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make (C-F): Launched in 2018, NASA’s GOLD mission —
any meaningful sentence. short for Global-scale Observations of the Limb and
38. Answer: B Disk is now one of our key tools for ionosphere
From the given options only A-D, C-F is matched and observations, providing the first day-to-day weather
make a meaningful sentence. measurements of the region.
(A-D): Unfazed by a stock market sell-off that wiped $34 Option A: (A-D, B-F) is incorrect because it does not
billion from India’s benchmark equity index and make any meaningful sentence.
unabating jitters in the nation’s credit market, Aberdeen Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
Standard Investments Ltd. is looking to adding to its India any meaningful sentence.
equity holdings. Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not
(C-F): A tax proposed earlier this month on India’s super- make any meaningful sentence.
rich, which many overseas investors may struggle to 40. Answer: D
sidestep, triggered the sharpest weekly loss in the From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched and
benchmark equity index since mid-May. make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
Option A: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not matching will be
make any meaningful sentence. (A-F): A 15-month old baby who has spent her whole life
Option C: (B-D, C-E) is incorrect because it does not in immigration detention is being treated for the flu in
make any meaningful sentence. hospital, with her lawyer accusing the government of
Option D: (A-E, B-F) is incorrect because it does not make breaching its duty of care.
any meaningful sentence. (B-D): Freelance journalist and psychotherapist Rebekah
39. Answer: C Holt told BuzzFeed News she had tried to visit Tran and
From the given options only B-E, C-F is matched and Isabella on Wednesday, but contractor Serco – which runs
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after Australia’s onshore detention centres – had attempted to
matching will be stop her.
(B-E): This picture highlights Earth’s ionosphere, a Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not
region of the upper atmosphere that is mostly invisible to make any meaningful sentence.
our eyes — aside from aurora or airglow, if you’re in the Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
right place at the right time — but shines in ultraviolet, or any meaningful sentence.
UV, wavelengths of light. Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make
any meaningful sentence.
Page 1014 of 1079

41. Answer: B asked employees to volunteer for administrative work in

From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched and ICE field offices across the country, including processing
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after files that are part of a program forcing immigrants seeking
matching will be asylum to remain in Mexico as their cases are adjudicated,
(B-F): Bhatia’s statement is the first public mention that and supporting public document requests.
Project Dragonfly has been “terminated,” although Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not
Google said in response to questions from BuzzFeed make any meaningful sentence.
News that Karan’s comments did not reflect a new Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
development. any meaningful sentence.
(C-D): Leaked information about the project prompted a Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make
backlash from the company’s rank and file and it wasn’t any meaningful sentence.
the first instance of discord within Google over a 43. Answer: A
government contract. From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched and
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
make any meaningful sentence. matching will be
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make (A-D): In a wide-ranging interview with the BBC, Mr
any meaningful sentence. Stoltenberg says the Russian missiles - which he says are
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not in "clear violation of the treaty" - are nuclear capable,
make any meaningful sentence. mobile, very hard to detect, and able to reach European
42. Answer: C cities within a few minutes.
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and (B-F): While Nato has no plan to deploy nuclear land-
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after based missiles of its own in Europe, Mr.Stoltenberg said
matching will be the alliance would respond in a "measured, defensive
(B-D): As the US agency that processes applications for way" if Russia refused to come back into compliance by 2
legal immigration struggles with a backlog, its leaders August.
asked staffers to volunteer to help ICE on administrative Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not
tasks, including with a program keeping asylum-seekers make any meaningful sentence.
in Mexico. Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make
(C-F): The email to staffers, sent Wednesday by USCIS any meaningful sentence.
deputy Mark Koumans and obtained by BuzzFeed News,
Page 1015 of 1079

Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not (C-F): In a new research paper, the noted economist has
make any meaningful sentence. countered the arguments against his earlier research by
44. Answer: A arguing that even after a series of shocks hitting the
From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched and economy between 2011-2016, the GDP growth fell just
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after marginally to 6.9 per cent from 7.7 per cent.
matching will be Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not
(A-D): Boris Johnson has been sent a stark warning about make any meaningful sentence.
the scale of opposition to a no-deal Brexit, as MPs voted Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
by a significant majority to make it harder for him to any meaningful sentence.
suspend Parliament if he becomes prime minister next Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make
week. any meaningful sentence.
(B-F): Prorogation is a potential route for a Johnson 46. Answer: B
government to leave the EU without a deal, it would mean From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched and
suspending Commons sittings in order to stop MPs from make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
blocking no-deal. matching will be
Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not (B-F): Even in boring old hardware, Bitmain
make any meaningful sentence. Technologies Ltd. has a niche in bitcoin; SZ DJI
Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make Technology Co. dominates the market for drones and
any meaningful sentence. UBTech Robotics Ltd. makes an IronMan robot. Bitcoin,
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not drones and robots – that’s cool.
make any meaningful sentence. (C-D): The latest Indian unicorn, however, could hint that
45. Answer: C a new sector is developing. Icertis Inc., which makes
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and cloud-based contract-management software, just raised
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after $115 million, propelling it into the unicorn league,
matching will be Bloomberg News’s SarithaRai reported this week. While
(B-D): Standing firmly by his research which raised it’s dual-headquartered in Bellevue, Washington and
doubts over India’s GDP growth, former chief economic Pune, India, the company has more than two-thirds of its
advisor (CEA) Arvind Subramanian has yet again raised staff in India where the product is developed.
questions over consistency between projected growth and Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not
other macro indicators. make any meaningful sentence.
Page 1016 of 1079

Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make (C-F): Our study shows that more professionals are
any meaningful sentence. choosing to work abroad, helping them achieve their
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not ambitions and long-term financial goals, from improving
make any meaningful sentence. their job prospects and access to better education for their
47. Answer: D children to buying property or saving more for retirement.
From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched and Option A: (A-D, B-F) is incorrect because it does not
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after make any meaningful sentence.
matching will be Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
(A-F): Soon the Indian government will issue passports any meaningful sentence.
with advanced security mechanism! With an aim to check Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not
misuse of passports, the Indian government is mulling to make any meaningful sentence.
issue e-passports equipped with a chip. 49. Answer: A
(B-D): Muraleedharan said that the central government From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched and
has given its approval for procurement of electronic make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after
contactless inlays for manufacturing of e-passports to the matching will be
India Security Press (ISP) Nasik. (A-D): The London-based newspaper wrote that NSO
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not group had told buyers its technology can surreptitiously
make any meaningful sentence. scrape all of an individual’s data from the servers of
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make Apple, Google, Facebook, Amazon and Microsoft,
any meaningful sentence. according to people familiar with its sales pitch.
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make (B-F): In May, Facebook-owned WhatsApp said it had
any meaningful sentence. released an update to plug a security hole in its messaging
48. Answer: C app that allowed insertion of spyware that could be used
From the given options only B-E, C-F is matched and to spy on journalists, activists and others.
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does not
matching will be make any meaningful sentence.
(B-E): Interestingly, 32 per cent of those who moved to Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does not make
India said they are earning USD 100,000 (around Rs 69.5 any meaningful sentence.
lakh) or more per year, far above the global average of 18 Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does not
per cent. make any meaningful sentence.
Page 1017 of 1079

50. Answer: C Pakistan, Afghanistan, Nepal, Thailand and Cambodia, as

From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched and per the complaint filed by prosecuting attorneys Matthew
make a meaningful sentence. The correct answer after Bogdanos and Christopher Hirsch, both Manhattan
matching will be Assistant District Attorneys.
(B-D): Eight individuals, including SubhashKapoor who Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does not
achieved notoriety on allegations of antiques trafficking, make any meaningful sentence.
were charged in a Manhattan court last week in connection Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does not make
with the looting and trafficking of antiquities, a criminal any meaningful sentence.
complaint filed by the Manhattan District Attorney’s Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not make
office revealed. any meaningful sentence.
(C-F): Kapoor is allegedly the ring leader of a network
that trafficked in thousands of antiquities from India,
Sentence Rearrangement
Directions (1-5): A set of statements is given; all the b) B
statements are jumbled in random order. Rearrange c) C
the statements in the right order and answer the d) D
questions. e) E
A. Temperatures can dip below the freezing point during 2) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearranging?
the winter but for snow to fall, considerable amount of a) F
water vapour is required in the atmosphere. b) D
B. Hence, scientists theorize that cold air and moisture c) C
(water vapour) could have come from Europe and the d) A
United States of America, across the Atlantic. e) E
C. Sahara is dominantly arid. 3) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearranging?
D. As a result the local temperature dipped, creating the a) F
ideal conditions for a sudden snowfall. b) B
E. It experiences high average temperatures and low c) C
precipitation rates. d) D
1) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearranging? e) A
a) A 4) Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearranging?
Page 1018 of 1079
a) A 6) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearranging?

b) B a) A
c) C b) B
d) D c) C
e) F d) D
5) Which is the LAST sentence after rearranging? e) E
a) A 7) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearranging?
b) B a) B
c) F b) D
d) D c) C
e) E d) A
Directions (6-10): A set of statements is given, all the e) E
statements are jumbled in random order. Rearrange 8) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearranging?
the statements in the right order and answer the a) E
questions. b) B
A. Certainly the most common argument in favor of man's c) C
superiority over them that we can kill them more easily d) D
than they can kill us is the least satisfactory. e) A
B. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize 9) Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearranging?
that their society is more complex than people previously a) A
imagined. b) B
C. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care c) C
for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the d) D
community, as we do. e) E
D. Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the 10) Which is the LAST sentence after rearranging?
sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors have a) A
been common since Roman times. b) B
E. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a c) C
language but it is much more probable that they d) D
communicate with each other without needing words . e) E
Page 1019 of 1079

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, a (C) of knowledgebase and its

grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is (D) trade, commerce, investment, creation
given which is divided into four parts, namely (a). DCBA
(A),(B),(C) and (D) You have to arrange the four parts (b). CDAB
to make a contextually and grammatically meaningful (c). CDBA
sentence. If no such rearrangement is possible mark (d). DCAB
(e) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement required'. (e) No rearrangement is required
11) 14)
(A) in this early period a good memory (A) Poor, vulnerable parents, especially
(B) was a prerequisite for success and (B) women-headed families, have no option
(C) before it was ever written down (C) but to push their little ones in this hard
(D) poets like Homer memorized their Work (D) life in hostile conditions, with no human or labour
(a) DACB rights
(b) ABDC (a). DCBA
(c) CBDA (b). CDAB
(d) BCDA (c). CDBA
(e) No rearrangement is required (d). DCAB
12) (e) No rearrangement is required
(A) happen by motivating employees 15)
(B) management can ensure this doesn’t (A) Surely, if 380 million children are
(C) to cultivate meaningful (B) given a better life and elementary
(D) relationships with customers (C) education, India’s human capital
(a) ACBD (D) would be greatly enhanced
(b) CADB (a). DCBA
(c) DABC (b). CDAB
(d) BACD (c). CDBA
(e) No rearrangement is required (d). DCAB
(A) application are dependent Directions (16-20): A set of statements is given, all the
(B) on national security statements are jumbled in random order. Rearrange
Page 1020 of 1079

the statements in the right order and answer the b) B

questions. c) C
A. Most parents are not aware of what goes on when their d) D
kids go to sleep and how the brain works when we are e) A
asleep. 19) Which is the FOURTH sentence after
B. Younger kids need at least 9 hours of sleep every night rearranging?
and After school – activities can take away from sleep a) A
time for kids. b) B
C. Also parents with busy life styles stay up late and their c) C
kids do the same. d) D
D. Experts say that people (adults) need at least 6 hours of e) E
sleep every night but if they do not get enough sleep they 20) Which is the LAST sentence after rearranging?
will feel sleepy the whole day. a) A
E. Kids with little sleep have hard time sleeping at night b) B
and this will affect their daily routine and make them less c) C
active and productive trough the day in school. d) D
16) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearranging? e) E
a) A Directions (21-25): A set of statements is given, all the
b) B statements are jumbled in random order. Rearrange
c) C the statements in the right order and answer the
d) D questions.
e) E A. The brand value of IPL in 2018 was US$6.3 billion,
17) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearranging? according to Duff & Phelps.
a) B B. The Indian Premier League (IPL) is a professional
b) D Twenty20 cricket league in India contested during April
c) C and May of every year by 8 teams representing 8 cities of
d) A India.
e) E C. The league was founded by the Board of Control for
18) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearranging? Cricket in India (BCCI) in 2008, and is regarded as the
a) E
Page 1021 of 1079

brainchild of Lalit Modi, the founder and former d) D

commissioner of the league. e) E
D. The IPL is the most-attended cricket league in the 25) Which is the LAST sentence after rearranging?
world and in 2014 ranked sixth by average attendance a) A
among all sports leagues. b) B
E. In 2010, the IPL became the first sporting event in the c) C
world to be broadcast live on YouTube. d) D
21) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearranging? e) E
a) A Directions (26-30): A set of statements is given, all the
b) B statements are jumbled in random order. Rearrange
c) C the statements in the right order and answer the
d) D questions.
e) E A. The genetics of autism are complex and it is generally
22) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearranging? unclear which genes are responsible for it.
a) B B. Autism is strongly associated with agents that cause
b) D birth defects.
c) C C. Autism is a brain development disorder that impairs
d) A social interaction and communication and causes
e) E restricted and repetitive behavior, all starting before a
23) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearranging? child is three years old.
a) E D. Other proposed causes, such as childhood vaccines, are
b) B controversial and the vaccine hypotheses lack convincing
c) C scientific evidence.
d) D E. Autism affects many parts of the brain but how this
e) A occurs is also poorly understood.
24) Which is the FOURTH sentence after 26) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearranging?
rearranging? a) A
a) A b) B
b) B c) C
c) C d) D
Page 1022 of 1079

e) E to make a contextually and grammatically meaningful

27) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearranging? sentence. If no such rearrangement is possible mark
a) B (e) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement required'.
b) D 31)
c) C (A) “Passive smoking” or environmental tobacco smoke
d) A (ETS)
e) E (B) pollution can lead to all the harmful effects
28) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearranging? (C) of tobacco smoking seen in the smokers
a) E (D) in their non-smoking companions.
b) B (a) ADCB
c) C (b) BACD
d) D (c) CDBA
e) A (d) DABC
29) Which is the FOURTH sentence after (e) No rearrangement required
rearranging? 32)
a) A (A) if we measure the room temperature continuously
b) B (B) and plot its graph with time on X-axis and
c) C (C) temperature on the Y axis, we get a continuous
d) D (D) waveform, which is an analog signal
e) E (a) ADCB
30) Which is the LAST sentence after rearranging? (b) BACD
a) A (c) CDBA
b) B (d) DABC
c) C (e) No rearrangement required
d) D 33)
e) E (A) the purpose of this concept was,
Directions (31-35): In the following questions, a (B) however, defeated when the
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is (C) students with so called homework
given which is divided into four parts, namely (D) schools started overburdening
(A),(B),(C) and (D) You have to arrange the four parts (a) DACB
Page 1023 of 1079

(b) ABDC sentence. If no such rearrangement is possible mark

(c) CBDA (e) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement required'.
(d) BCDA 36)
(e) No rearrangement is required (A) the idea is to destroy the enemy’s
34) (B) productive capacity, and depending upon
(A) government, central government and (C) the economic foundation, that productive
(B) over twenty years ago the city (D) capacity is different in each case
(C) the private sector made a concerted (a) ADCB
(D) effort to shift the economy to include IT (b) BACD
(a) ACBD (c) CDBA
(b) CADB (d) DABC
(c) DABC (e) No rearrangement required
(d) BACD 37)
(e) No rearrangement is required (A) food product lead in expenditures for network
35) (B) and spot television advertisements,
(A) but also how it is governed and (C) and other forms of premium advertising
(B) how business is conducted (D) discount coupons, trading stamps, contests,
(C) changed not only the city’s economy (a) DACB
(D) this level of connectedness has (b) ABDC
(a) DCBA (c) CBDA
(b) CDAB (d) BCDA
(c) CDBA (e) No rearrangement is required
(d) DCAB 38)
(e) No rearrangement is required (A) habits of thinking and reflecting
Directions (36-40): In the following questions, a (B) if you are used to having your
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is (C) stimulation come in from outside,
given which is divided into four parts, namely (D) your mind never develops its own
(A),(B),(C) and (D) You have to arrange the four parts (a) DACB
to make a contextually and grammatically meaningful (b) ABDC
(c) CBDA
Page 1024 of 1079

(d) BCDA integrity. Electronic transactions are happening in closed

(e) No rearrangement is required group networks and Internet.
39) B. Moreover, money is worth what it is because we have
(A) tend to counter propose more often than skilled come to accept it.
negotiators C. Electronic commerce is one of the most important
(B) ranging from sales negotiators to purchase and aspects of Internet to emerge.
(C) research conducted across several negotiators D. The whole structure of traditional money is built on
(D) labour negotiators shows that average negotiators faith and so will electronic money have to be.
(a) DACB E. Cash transactions offer both privacy and anonymity as
(b) ABDC it does not contain information that can be used to identify
(c) CBDA the parties nor the transaction history.
(d) BCDA 41) Which is the FIRST sentence after rearranging?
(e) No rearrangement is required a) A
40) b) B
(A) on advertising investment that is common to c) C
(B) is not conductive to a long-term consistency in d) D
advertising direction e) E
(C) most traders who are attempting to scale up operations 42) Which is the SECOND sentence after rearranging?
(D) the inherent expectations of a high short-term return a) B
(a) DACB b) D
(b) ABDC c) C
(c) CBDA d) A
(d) BCDA e) E
(e) No rearrangement is required 43) Which is the THIRD sentence after rearranging?
Directions (41-45): A set of statements is given, all the a) E
statements are jumbled in random order. Rearrange b) B
the statements in the right order and answer the c) C
questions. d) D
A. To support e-commerce, we need effective payment e) A
systems and secure communication channels and data 44) Which is the LAST sentence after rearranging?
Page 1025 of 1079

a) A (A) a difference in the frequency of usage of counter

b) B (B) proposing between skilled and average negotiators
c) C (C) as effective one tends to think it would be
d) D (D) suggests that counter proposing may not be,
e) E (a) DACB
45) Which is the FOURTH sentence after (b) ABDC
rearranging? (c) CBDA
a) A (d) BCDA
b) D (e) No rearrangement is required
c) C 48)
d) B (A) tocqueville was far too shrewd an
e) E (B) observer to be uncritical about
Directions (46-50): In the following questions, a (C) the US, but his verdict
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is (D) was fundamentally positive
given which is divided into four parts, namely (a) ADCB
(A),(B),(C) and (D) You have to arrange the four parts (b) BACD
to make a contextually and grammatically meaningful (c) CDBA
sentence. If no such rearrangement is possible mark (d) DABC
(e) as your answer i.e. 'No rearrangement required'. (e) No rearrangement required
46)
(A) depending on the policy 49)
(B) of a bank, dealers may be (A) in the case of sports persons, there is room
(C) allowed to take intra-day (B) for some sympathy, but the apathy of the
(D) positions in order to make profit. (C) from international bodies, is unpardonable
(a) ADCB (D) administrators, which has even led to sanctions
(b) BACD (a) DACB
(c) CDBA (b) ABDC
(d) DABC (c) CBDA
(e) No rearrangement required (d) BCDA
Page 1026 of 1079

50) (a) DACB

(A) of ads that are being made (b) ABDC
(B) another reason could be the burgeoning (c) CBDA
(C) number of companies, which means an (d) BCDA
(D) exponential increase in the number (e) No rearrangement is required
Sentence Rearrangement - Answers with Explanation

Directions (1-5): D. Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the
The correct form of rearrangement is CEABD. sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors have
Sentence C introduces the topic by using the name been common since Roman times.
‘SAHARA. B. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize
Sentence E is the pair of C, as it starts with the that their society is more complex than people previously
pronoun ‘IT’ that refers to the noun (SAHARA). imagined.
Sentence A continues the idea of Sentence E, as it had C. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care
the same word (TEMPERATURES) as Sentence E. for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the
Sentence B gives the 1st part of the conclusion, and community, as we do.
Sentence D finally concludes the passage. E. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a
1) Answer: C language but it is much more probable that they
The correct form of rearrangement is CEABD. communicate with each other without needing words .
2) Answer: E A. Certainly the most common argument in favor of man's
The correct form of rearrangement is CEABD. superiority over them that we can kill them more easily
3) Answer: E than they can kill us is the least satisfactory.
The correct form of rearrangement is CEABD. 6) Answer: D
4) Answer: B The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA.
The correct form of rearrangement is CEABD. The passage is about Dolphins; statement D and B
5) Answer: D introduce the topic; C-E talk about the characteristics and
The correct form of rearrangement is CEABD. finally A concludes the passage.
Directions (6-10): 7) Answer: A
The passage is about Dolphins; statement D and B The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA.
introduce the topic; C-E talk about the characteristics and
finally A concludes the passage.
Page 1027 of 1079
The passage is about Dolphins; statement D and B The passage is about sleep needs; Statement D and B
introduce the topic; C-E talk about the characteristics and introduce the topic; C-E continue the topic with more
finally A concludes the passage. details; finally, A concludes the passage.
8) Answer: C Directions (16-20):
The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA. The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA.
The passage is about Dolphins; statement D and B D. Experts say that people (adults) need at least 6 hours of
introduce the topic; C-E talk about the characteristics and sleep every night but if they do not get enough sleep they
finally A concludes the passage. will feel sleepy the whole day.
9) Answer: E B. Younger kids need at least 9 hours of sleep every night
The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA. and After school – activities can take away from sleep
The passage is about Dolphins; statement D and B time for kids.
introduce the topic; C-E talk about the characteristics and C. Also parents with busy life styles stay up late and their
finally A concludes the passage. kids do the same.
10) Answer: A E. Kids with little sleep have hard time sleeping at night
The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA. and this will affect their daily routine and make them less
11) Answer: B active and productive trough the day in school.
The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will A. Most parents are not aware of what goes on when their
be “ABDC” kids go to sleep and how the brain works when we are
12) Answer: D asleep.
The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will 16) Answer: D
be “BACD” The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA.
13) Answer: D The passage is about sleep needs; Statement D and B
The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will introduce the topic; C-E continue the topic with more
be “DCAB” details; finally, A concludes the passage.
The sentence needs no arrangement The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA.
15) Answer: E The passage is about sleep needs; Statement D and B
The sentence needs no arrangement introduce the topic; C-E continue the topic with more
details; finally, A concludes the passage.
18) Answer: C
Page 1028 of 1079

The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA. The correct form of rearrangement is BCDEA
The passage is about sleep needs; Statement D and B The topic of the passage is Indian Premier League (IPL);
introduce the topic; C-E continue the topic with more statement B and C introduce the league; D-E-A describe
details; finally, A concludes the passage. the topic in detail.
The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA. The correct form of rearrangement is BCDEA
The passage is about sleep needs; Statement D and B The topic of the passage is Indian Premier League (IPL);
introduce the topic; C-E continue the topic with more statement B and C introduce the league; D-E-A describe
details; finally, A concludes the passage. the topic in detail.
The correct form of rearrangement is DBCEA. The correct form of rearrangement is BCDEA.
Directions (21-25): The topic of the passage is Indian Premier League (IPL);
The correct form of rearrangement is BCDEA statement B and C introduce the league; D-E-A describe
B. The Indian Premier League (IPL) is a professional the topic in detail.
Twenty20 cricket league in India contested during April 24) Answer: E
and May of every year by 8 teams representing 8 cities of The correct form of rearrangement is BCDEA.
India. The topic of the passage is Indian Premier League (IPL);
C. The league was founded by the Board of Control for statement B and C introduce the league; D-E-A describe
Cricket in India (BCCI) in 2008, and is regarded as the the topic in detail.
brainchild of Lalit Modi, the founder and former 25) Answer: A
commissioner of the league. The correct form of rearrangement is BCDEA
D. The IPL is the most-attended cricket league in the The topic of the passage is Indian Premier League (IPL);
world and in 2014 ranked sixth by average attendance statement B and C introduce the league; D-E-A describe
among all sports leagues. the topic in detail.
E. In 2010, the IPL became the first sporting event in the Directions (26-30):
world to be broadcast live on YouTube. The correct form of rearrangement is CAEBD.
A. The brand value of IPL in 2018 was US$6.3 billion, The passage is about Autism; Statement C and A
according to Duff & Phelps. introduce the topic of Autism, E-B-D continue the topic
by giving ideas about the effects and causes.
21) Answer: B
Page 1029 of 1079

C. Autism is a brain development disorder that impairs The correct form of rearrangement is CAEBD.
social interaction and communication and causes The passage is about Autism; Statement C and A
restricted and repetitive behavior, all starting before a introduce the topic of Autism, E-B-D continue the topic
child is three years old. by giving ideas about the effects and causes.
A. The genetics of autism are complex and it is generally 30) Answer: D
unclear which genes are responsible for it. The correct form of rearrangement is CAEBD.
E. Autism affects many parts of the brain but how this 31) Answer: E
occurs is also poorly understood. the sentence requires no rearrangement.
B. Autism is strongly associated with agents that cause 32) Answer: E
birth defects. the sentence requires no rearrangement.
D. Other proposed causes, such as childhood vaccines, are 33) Answer: B
controversial and the vaccine hypotheses lack convincing The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
scientific evidence. be “ABDC”
34) Answer: D
26) Answer: C The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
The correct form of rearrangement is CAEBD. be “BACD”
The passage is about Autism; Statement C and A 35) Answer: D
introduce the topic of Autism, E-B-D continue the topic The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
by giving ideas about the effects and causes. be “DCAB”
The correct form of rearrangement is CAEBD. the sentence requires no rearrangement.
The passage is about Autism; Statement C and A 37) Answer: B
introduce the topic of Autism, E-B-D continue the topic The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
by giving ideas about the effects and causes. be “ABDC”
The correct form of rearrangement is CAEBD. The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
The passage is about Autism; Statement C and A be “BCDA”
introduce the topic of Autism, E-B-D continue the topic 39) Answer: C
by giving ideas about the effects and causes. The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
29) Answer: B be “CBDA”
Page 1030 of 1079

40) Answer: A The correct form of rearrangement is EBDCA

The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will 43) Answer: D
be “DACB” The correct form of rearrangement is EBDCA
Directions (41-45): 44) Answer: A
The correct form of rearrangement is EBDCA The correct form of rearrangement is EBDCA
E. Cash transactions offer both privacy and anonymity as 45) Answer: C
it does not contain information that can be used to identify The correct form of rearrangement is EBDCA
the parties nor the transaction history. 46) Answer: E
B. Moreover, money is worth what it is because we have the sentence requires no rearrangement.
come to accept it. 47) Answer: B
D. The whole structure of traditional money is built on The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
faith and so will electronic money have to be. be “ABDC”
C. Electronic transactions are happening in closed group 48) Answer: E
networks and Internet. Electronic commerce is one of the the sentence requires no rearrangement.
most important aspects of Internet to emerge. 49) Answer: B
A. To support e-commerce, we need effective payment The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
systems and secure communication channels and data be “ABDC”
integrity. 50) Answer: D
41) Answer: E The correct rearrangement of the parts of statement will
The correct form of rearrangement is EBDCA be “BCDA”
42) Answer: A
Phrasal replacement
Directions (1-4): In each of the following questions, a c) nor be acquired
phrase has been highlighted. Find the exact d) even be acquired
replacement from the given options. If no e) No improvement
improvement is required, choose “E” as your answer 2) A bank merger helps your institution to scale up
1) Nearly every middle-market bank in the industry is quickly and gain a large number of new customers
looking to either acquire another bank and be acquired. instantly.
a) but be acquired a) scale up quickly
b) or be acquired b) to scaling up quickly
Page 1031 of 1079
c) to scaled up quickly a. Despite a solemn assurance to compensate the states for

d) to scale up quick any shortfall
e) No improvement b. Despite a solemn assurance to compensate the states for
3) While not a factor on the balance sheet, every bank any shortfalls
benefits from a merger or acquisition because of the c. Despite a solemn assurance to compensated the states
increase in talent at leadership’s disposal. for any shortfall
a) every bank benefit d. Both a and b
b) every banks benefits e. No improvement
c) every banking benefit 6) When the Centre decided to dip into the green cess
d) every bank benefiting on coal to compensate the states for GST shortfall, it
e) No improvement accepted the principle that the compensation cess is not
4) Failure to assess cultural fit is one reason why many the only source of funding the shortfall.
bank mergers a. When the Centre decide to dip into the green cess on
ultimately fails. coal to compensate
a) why many bank mergers ultimately failed b. When the Centre decided to dip into the green cess on
b) why many bank mergers ultimately fail coal to compensating
c) why many bank mergers ultimately failing c. When the Centre decided to dip on the green cess on
d) why much bank mergers ultimately fail coal to compensate
e) No improvement d. Both b and c
Directions (5-8): In each of the following questions, a e. No improvement
phrase has been highlighted . Find the exact 7) With electricity, indoor air pollution would being
replacement from the given options. If no even lower than in the case of natural gas or LPG, bottling
improvement is required, choose “E” as your answer cooking gas in cylinders and ferrying the cylinders across
5) Despite of a solemn assurance to compensate the the land is an energy- and emission-intensive activity.
states for any shortfall in their revenue on account of the a. With electricity, indoor air pollution would been even
transition to the new goods and services tax (GST) regime, lower
the Centre has now taken the stand that the states are b. With electricity, indoor air pollution would be even
welcome to borrow, whether from a special Reserve Bank lower
of India (RBI) window or from the market, to make good c. With electricity, indoor air pollution would be even
the revenue shortfall. lowered
Page 1032 of 1079

d. Both a and c 10) If smoke alarms and sprinkler systems, along with
e. No error local fire-fighting aids are available, loss of life can be
8) Simultaneously, utilities must improve its ability to eliminated.
bill and collect, and without this, the shift to electricity a) along with local fire-fighting aid
would further cripple the sector. b) along local fire-fighting aids
a. Simultaneously, utilities must improve there ability to c) with local fire-fighting aids
bill and collect d) and local fire-fighting aids
b. Simultaneously, utilities must improve their ability to e) no improvement
billing and collect 11) Evacuation systems for ICU patients needs to be part
c. Simultaneously, utilities must improve their ability to of the building design.
bill and collect a) needed to be part of the
d. Both b and c b) need to be part of the
e. No improvement c) need to be part of these
Directions (9-13): In each of the following questions, a d) to be part of the
phrase has been highlighted. Find the exact e) no improvement
replacement from the given options. If no 12) Shares should be sold to the retail public in search of
improvement is required, choose “E” as your answer a good investment opportunity and not to large investors,
9) This is clearly untenable, as Supreme Court of India whose funds should financed greenfield investment.
observed about a decade ago in the Uphaar cinema fire a) whose funds should financing greenfield investment
tragedy case in Delhi, pulling up authorities including the b) which funds should finance greenfield investment
Union Home Ministry for abdicating responsibility and c) whose funds should finance greenfield investment
passing the buck on to the management of the institution. d) both b and c
a) as the Supreme Court of India observed about a decade e) no improvement
ago 13) Freeing banks from government control would allow
b) as Supreme Court of India observes about a decade ago many desirable reforms for taking place.
c) as Supreme Court of India observing about a decade a) reforms to take place
ago b) reforms for take place
d) both a and c c) reforms in take place
e) no improvement d) reforms to taking place
e) no improvement
Page 1033 of 1079

Directions (14-17): In each of the following questions, E. no replacement required

a phrase has been highlighted. Find the exact 17) Agriculture too faces headwinds in the form of higher-
replacement from the given options. If no than-ideal rainfall in August in several key crop growing
improvement is required, choose “E” as your answer regional in western and central India and with the
14) All of this is taking place in a scenario of rapid impact of recent farm market ordinances yet to play out, it
climate change and steadily population growth—so we may be a while before the end of the tunnel is sighted.
can expect steeper droughts and more demand for water. A. in several key crop growing regions in western and
A. rapidly climate change and steadily population growth central India
B. rapid climate change and steady population growth B. in several key crop growing region in western and
C. rapid climate change and steadily population grow central India
D. Both A and B C. in several key crop growing regions on western and
E. no replacement required central India
15) The ozone layer in the stratosphere absorbs much of D. None of these
the incoming solar ultraviolet radiation and came into E. no replacement required
the wider general consciousness in the 1980s with the Direction (18-24): The following question consists of a
discovery that it was seasonally thinning sentence which is divided into three parts which
A. absorb much of the incoming solar ultraviolet radiation contain grammatical errors in one or more than one
B. absorbing much of the incoming solar ultraviolet part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part.
radiation If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the
C. absorbs many of the incoming solar ultraviolet correct alternative to replace those parts from the
radiation three options given below each question to make the
D. absorbs much of the income solar ultraviolet radiation sentence grammatically correct. If the given sentence
E. no replacement required is grammatically correct or does not require any
16) It is evident that the stringent COVID-19 lockdowns correction, choose (E), i.e “No correction required” as
in force through the first third of the quarter, and your answer.
substantially in May, hollows out demand. 18) Historians propose much reasons for the
A. have hollowed out demand astonishing success of the Company: the fracturing of
B. had hollowed out demand Mughal India into tiny, competing states; (a)/the military
C. hollowed out demand edge that Frederick the Great’s military innovations had
D. None of these given the European Companies; (b)/and particularly the
Page 1034 of 1079

innovations in European governance, taxation and with an invaluable ability (b)/to connect with people from
banking that allowed the Company to raise vast sums of different sections of society(c)/
ready money at a moment’s notice(c)/ a) in a tweet, called Mr. Jaitley a gifted orator
a) many reasons for the astonishing success of the b) dynamic parliamentarian, champion of public policy
Company c) for connect to
b) military innovations has given the European A.only a
Companies B.both a and b
c) to raise vast sum of ready money at a moment’s notice C.only c
A.only a D.both b and c
B.both a and b E.No correction required
C.only c 21) On Friday, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
D.both b and c said that the surcharge that was announced (a)/in the
E.No correction required Union Budget would not be applicable on foreign
19) After a two-year trial in domestic cricket, the portfolio investors (FPIs) but made no mention of AIFs,
International Cricket Council (ICC), (a)/in July (b)/many of whom are also structure as trusts and so
2019, approved player replacement in the case of would be subjected to the surcharge(c)/
concussion or suspected concussion (b)/in all format a) that the surcharges that was announced
of international and first class cricket worldwide(c)/ b) would not be applicable in
a) a two-years trial in domestic cricket c) many of whom are also structured
b) approved player replacement for the case of concussion A.only a
c) in all formats of B.both a and b
A.only a C.only c
B.both a and b D.both b and c
C.only c E.No correction required
D.both b and c 22) Why Amazon picked up stake in Future Coupons,
E.No correction required engaged in corporate gift cards, (a)/loyalty cards and
20) Gautam Adani, chairman, Adani Group, in a tweet, reward cards primarily for corporate and institutional
called Mr. Jaitley the gifted orator, (a)/dynamic customers, (b)/instead of its actual target Future Retail,
parliamentarian, champion in public policy and a man is not known(c)/
a) pick up stake in Future Coupons
Page 1035 of 1079

b) primarily to corporate and institutional customers C.only c

c) instead to its actual target D.both b and c
A.only a E.No correction required
B.both a and b Directions(25-29): In the following questions, some
C.only c part of the sentence is made bold. Which of the options
D.both b and c given below the sentence should replace the part made
E.No correction required bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If
23) Four MTR subway stations were closed around the sentence is correct as it is given then choose option
Kwun Tong, a densely populated area (a)/of the Chinese- E ‘No Correction required’ as the answer.
ruled city on the east of the Kowloon peninsula, but 25) Researchers from the Netherlands Cancer Institute
thousand packed (b)/the streets anyway, most carrying have discovered a couple new pair of salivary glands
umbrellas for the sun(c)/ hidden between the nasal cavity and throat.
a) stations was closed around Kwun Tong A. Couple pair of
b) but thousands packed B. New couple pair of
c) most carrying umbrellas against the sun C. New pair of
A.only a D. New pair couple of
B.both a and b E. No correction required
C.only c 26) As the glands have clinical relevance, they require
D.both b and c the name that allows unique identification in daily
E.No correction required clinical practice, writes the team.
24) They can continue to impose tariffs and quotas on A. Require a name
goods and services (a)/in order to limit imports and B. Might require the name
promote domestic producers who may otherwise (b)/be C. Requiring a name
affected adversely by imports that is lower in price or D. Required the name
better in quality(c)/ E. No correction required
a) to impose tariff and quotas on goods and services 27) An 11-month-long mobile monitoring of various
b) to limit imports and promoting domestic producers particulate air pollutants over a fixed 150-km road stretch
c) by imports that are lower in price in the city, comprising major, arterial and residential
A.only a roads, found large spatial variability along the study route
B.both a and b of all pollutant concentrations.
Page 1036 of 1079

A. Study route in all 30) Starting as early as Standard I, curriculum expecting

B. Study route at all move at a fast pace.
C. Studying route for all A. expectations move at a fast pace
D. Study route for all B. expecting to move at a fast pace
E. No corrections required C. expectations move with a fast pace
28) The study was conducting by the Centre for Study of D. expecting move with the fast pace
Science, Technology and Policy (CSTEP) with ILK Labs, E. No corrections required
University of Washington and University of Texas. 31) As the Americans leave Afghanistan after two decades
A. was conducted by of non-victory, the Taliban have made clear that they will
B. has conducting by not accept the interlude truce of “talks” with the Afghan
C. was conducting on government.
D. was conducting through A. the interim truce
E. No corrections required B. the intermission truce
29) Advocating the mobile monitoring in the country, C. the suspension truce
the researchers said, “Air-quality monitoring forms a D. the gap truce
critical component of various stages of air-quality E. No corrections required.
management”. 32) After the Soviets left, they imposed Islam on
A. Advocating for mobile monitoring Afghanistan and brutalised the population, especially
B. Advocating at mobile monitoring. women, and balefully influenced the Islamic state-in-
C. Advocating in mobile monitoring chrysalis, Pakistan, into an imitative error.
D. Advocating with mobile monitoring A. an imitative misdemeanour
E. No corrections requires B. an imitative wrong
C. an imitative violation
Directions (30-33): In the following questions, some D. an imitative trespass
part of the sentence is made bold. Which of the options E. No corrections required
given below the sentence should replace the part 33) Fertility had been declining in India for some time
underlined to make the sentence grammatically now.
correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then A. has been declining
choose option E ‘No Correction required’ as the B. have been declining
answer. C. should had been declining
Page 1037 of 1079

D. having been declining (d) Their is evidence of that the land revenue system in
E. No corrections required ancient India was based upon
Directions (34-38): Each of the following questions has (e) No correction
a sentence, part of which is made bold. Four phrases 36) I read the proof yesterday meticulously at home.
are given in the option. Choose the option which is (a) I read the proof yesterday meticulously at home.
correct grammatically. Make sure the sentence is (b) I read the proof meticulously at home yesterday
clear, exact and free from redundancy, ambiguity and (c) I read the proof at home meticulously yesterday
awkwardness. (d) I read yesterday the proof meticulously at home.
34) I had a good time talking to Lisa. There was a lot of (e) No correction
catching up to do. As for the movies, well, I didn’t really 37) Prime Minister Modi did well to call upon the
care for them because none of them were interesting. citizenry to not let their guard down, now that the
(a) As for the movies, well, I didn’t really cared for them worst might be behind us on the Covid front, especially
because none of them were interesting. as the festival season approaches, in which milling crowds
(b) I didn’t really care for it because none of the movies are an essential feature.
were interesting. (a) call off the citizenry to not let their guard down, now
(c) As for the movies, well, I didn’t really care for them that the worst might be behind us on.
therefore none of them were interesting. (b) called upon the citizenry to not let their guard down,
(d) As for the movies, well, I didn’t really care for them now that the worst might be behind us on.
because none of them was interesting. (c) call upon the citizenry to not let their guard down, now
(e) No correction that the worst might be behind we on.
35) There are evidences of that the land revenue (d) call upon the citizenry to not lets their guard down,
system in ancient India was based upon income from now that the worst might be behind us on.
land, thus rated according to the productivity and kind of (e) No correction
soil. 38) Rahul Mishra’s batting may be compared with the
(a) Their are evidences of that the land revenue system in sales of a useful book: they score fast right from the
ancient India was based upon beginning.
(b) There is evidences of that the land revenue system in (a) with the sales of a useful book: they score fast right
ancient India was based upon from the beginning.
(c) There are many pieces of evidence of the fact that the (b) to the sales of a useful book: they score fast right from
land revenue system in ancient India was based upon the beginning.
Page 1038 of 1079

(c) as the sales of a useful book: they score fast right from Fields have been regularly cultivate and produce
the beginning. grains, fruits, a nd flowers in great abundance, but due
(d) on the sales of a useful book: they score fast right from the variation in the distinct natural qualities, the crops
the beginning. also differ.
(e) No correction (a) Fields have been regularly cultivate and produce
Directions (39-43): Each of the following questions has grains, fruits, and flowers in great abundance, but as the
a sentence, part of which is made bold. Four sentences variation in the distinct natural qualities, the crops also
are given in the options. Choose the option which is differ.
grammatically correct. Make sure the sentence is (b) Fields were regularly cultivated and produced grains,
clear, exact and free from redundancy, ambiguity and fruits, and flowers in great abundance, but as the districts
awkwardness. vary in their natural qualities they differ also in their crops
39) For infrastructure to be created in such a fragile (c) The fields is been regularly cultivated and produced
ecological zone, a rigorous analysis of possible scenarios grains, fruits, and flowers in great abundant but the district
related to the impacts of climate change which was not vary in their natural qualities they differ also in it’s crops.
covered should be done as a part of the project, is (d) The the crops differs because of the natural quality of
proposed by the panel. the district and the fields cultivated and produced grains,
(a) Impacts of climate change, which were not covered as fruits, and flower as in abundance.
a part of the project, should be done, is proposed by the (e) none of the above
panel. 41) It is time for the world to work together to respond
(b) Climate changes and its impact which was not covered to this unilateral aggression and ensured that China
in the project, proposed by the panel. respects the norms that maintain global order.
(c) Changes in the climate change should be done that was (a) work together to respond to this unilateral aggression
not covered proposed the panel in the project. and ensure
(d) Project which are proposed by the panel to look at the (b) worked together to respond to this unilateral
impacts of the climate change which was not covered as a aggression and ensured
part of the project. (c) working together to respond to this unilateral
(e) none of the above aggression and ensured
40) The Huen-Tsang account of the Gupta Era bears (d) works together to respond to this unilateral aggression
testimony to the fact that almost in every part of Northern and ensured
India, from the borders of Afghanistan to those of Burma, (e) none of the above
Page 1039 of 1079

42) Processing centre or AMPC is capable of sorting 10 (e) None of the above
lakh mails per day compared to the first class and speed Directions (44-48): In the following questions, some
post mail of Delhi that has been handling more that 12 part of the sentence is bold. Which of the options given
smaller mailing sorting centres. below the sentence should replace the bold part to
(a) Which was earlier handled at more than 12 smaller make the sentence grammatically correct? If the
mailing sorting centres. sentence is correct as it is given then choose option E
(b) That has been handling more than 12 smaller mailing ‘No Correction required’.
sorting centers. 44) Proactive policies, including in the corporate world, to
(c) Where more than 12 smaller mailing sorting centers fully tap women’s underutilised potential may take to
have been handle. more women employing in all levels, better decision-
(d) In which 12 smaller mailing sorting centers was earlier making and greater prosperity.
handle I. could helped to more women working in
(e) none of the above II. can lead to more women working at
43) China continues to give fresh evidence every passing III. may leads to more women employing at
day that the brazenness of its transgression of the Line A. Both II and III
of Actual Control (LoAC) between India and China is B. Only II
not a stray aberration, but part of a cultivated pattern of C. Both I and II
behaviour. D. Both I and III
(a) to given fresh evidence every passing day that the E. No Correction Required
brazenness of its transgression of the Line of Actual 45) It is important to note that the bank account details
Control (LoAC) were part of the approval letter in the existing Act from
(b) to give fresh evidence every passing days that the FCRA division, so tracking bank accounts in these digital
brazenness of its transgression of the Line of Actual times has being done rather simply.
Control (LoAC) I. had been done rather with no trouble
(c) to give fresh evidence every passing day that the II. was done rather without a hitch
brazenness of it’s transgression of the Line of Actual III. was being done rather easily
Control (LoAC) A. Both I and II
(d) to give fresh evidence everything passing day that the B. Only II
brazenness of its transgression of the Line of Actual C. Only III
Control (LoAC) D. Both I and III
Page 1040 of 1079

E. No correction required B. Only II

46) Indians continue to watch compelling narratives in the C. Only III
comfort of their homes, often in the palms of their hands D. Both I and III
because cinema halls remain closed due to a lockdown. E. No correction required
I. over the palms of their hands Direction (49-50): Which of the following phrases (I),
II. in the palms of hands (II), and (III) given below each sentence CANNOT
III. at the palm of their hands replace the phrase printed in bold letters without
A. Both I and II altering the meaning of the sentence both
B. Both II and III grammatically and contextually? Choose the best
C. Both I and III option among the five given alternatives that reflect
D. Only II the incorrect use of phrase in the context of the
E. No correction required grammatically correct sentence. If all three phrases
47) The popularity of online streaming platform should are incorrect, choose (E) as the answer.
not take on the thrill of a director whose movie will be 49)The Andhra Pradesh government must focus
screened during the pandemic at such a heritage cinema. immediately on the medical needs of those who have
I. might not take away been grievously affected by the gas leak.
II. should not take on I) must pay attention to the medical needs
III. can’t take away II) should immediately focus on the medical needs
A. Both I and II III) must be serious about the medical needs
B. Both II and III A. Only (III)
C. Both I and III B. Only (II)
D. Only III C. Both (I) and (III)
E. No correction required D. Both (II) and (III)
48) New directors working on fresh ideas for the web E. All (I), (II) and (III)
might also have scripts that are better suited for be made 50) Several deaths took place as people tried to flee, and
in films mean for the big screen. the chemical rendered them unconscious.
I. be made into films mean I) as people tried to run away,
II. being made into films meant II) as people tried to fly,
III. been made on films meant III)despite of people trying to flee,
A. Both I and II A. Only (II)
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B. Only (III) E. All (I), (II) and (III)

C. Both (II) and (III) these
D. Both (I) and (III)
Phrasal replacement - Answers with Explanation

Answers: In c, ”compensated” is incorrect as after “to” we should
1) Answer: B use V1(base form).
In the bold phrase, “and’ should be replaced with “or” as Hence, a is the correct answer.
after “either” we should use “or”. 6) Answer: E
Hence (b) is correct. The bold phrase grammatically and contextually correct.
In the bold phrase, “to” should not ne used as after “help” In the sentence, “being” should be replaced with “be” as
we should use “bare infinitive” (“V1” without “to”). after modals we cannot use “being” or “been”.
Hence, (a) is correct. In a, “been” is incorrect.
3) Answer: E In c, “lowered” is incorrect as we need a comparative
The bold phrase is correct. After “every” we should use adjective before “than”.
“singular noun” and “singular verb (V5)”. Hence, b is the correct answer.
Hence, no improvement is needed. 8) Answer: C
4) Answer: B In the sentence, “its” should be replaced with “their” as
In the bold phrase, “fails” should be replaced with “fail” the noun “utilities” is in plural form.
as after the plural subject “many bank mergers”, we need In a, “there” is incorrect.
V1(base form). In b, “billing” is incorrect as after “to” V1(base form)
Hence, (b) is correct. should be used.
5) Answer: A Hence, c is the correct answer.
In the sentence, “of” should not be used after “despite”, 9) Answer: A
“Despite” is not followed by “of”. In the sentence, “the” should be used before the specific
In b, “shortfalls” is incorrect as after “any” we should use noun “supreme Court”; hence option A is correct.
singular noun. In option B and C “ observes” and “observing” are
incorrect as the tense is past.
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10) Answer: E In option A, “have” is wrong as we cannot use Perfect

The given sentence is correct, hence no improvement is tense here.
required. In option B, “had” is wrong as we cannot use Perfect tense
11) Answer: B here.
In the sentence, “need” (V1) should be used in place of 17) Answer: A
“needs”(V5) as the subject “Evacuation systems” is In the bold phrase, “regional” should be replaced with
plural, with a plural subject V1 should be used. “regions” as we need a plural noun after “several”.
Other options are grammatically incorrect. In option B, “region” is wrong as we need a plural noun.
12) Answer: C In option C, “On” is wrong as before place we should use
In the sentence, “financed”(V2) should be replaced with “in”.
“finance”(V1) as after modal auxiliary “should” we can 18) Answer: A
use only V1. Only a is incorrect as ‘much’ should be replaced with
Other options are grammatically incorrect. ‘many’ as reasons can be counted.
In the sentence, “for taking place” should be replaced with Only c is incorrect as ‘format’ should be replaced with
“to take place” as after “allow” we should use “to+V1”. ‘formats’
Other options are grammatically incorrect. 20) Answer: B
14) Answer: B a is incorrect as ‘the gifted orator’ should be replaced with
In the bold phrase, “steadily” should be replaced with ‘a gifted orator’.
“steady” as we need an adjective here. b is incorrect as ‘champion in public policy’ should be
In option A, “rapidly” is wrong as we need an adjective replaced with ‘champion of public policy’.
here. 21) Answer: C
In option C, “grow” is wrong as we need a noun here. Only c is incorrect as ‘structure’ should be replaced with
15) Answer: E ‘structured’.
The phrase is grammatically and contextually correct. 22) Answer: E
16) Answer: C The given statement is correct as it is and hence the answer
In the bold phrase, “hollows” should be replaced with is Option E.
“hollowed” as the tense of the sentence is Simple Past. [In 23) Answer: D
presence of past time, the tense should be simple past. b is incorrect as ‘thousand’ is incorrect here. It should be
‘thousands’.
Page 1043 of 1079

c is incorrect as ‘for’ should be replaced with ‘against’. 29) Answer: A

24) Answer: C The term advocating infers us possessiveness thus, for is
Only c is incorrect as ‘that is’ should be replaced with the perfect preposition to use in this context.
‘that are’. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
The use of pair and couple is repetitive as it infers similar This sentence wanted to highlight the hopes or a strong
meaning, thus grammatical error. belief that something will happen or be the case. In this
Therefore, option C is the correct answer. context expectation is the right form to use which is only
26) Answer: A present in option A and C. But in option C, with a fast pace
The sentence is in present perfect tense. Thus, option D is incorrect, since it cannot move along with the pace, so
gets eliminated as it is in past perfect tense and so, option at should be used here.
C on being past continuous tense. Option B uses might, Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
which implies that the objective of the sentence is still in 31) Answer: A
doubt, but as per the context of the sentence it is very clear Let us understand the meanings
with its objective, thus incorrect. Interim: the intervening time.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Intermission: a pause or break.
27) Answer: D Suspension: the action of suspending someone or
Options A and B uses incorrect preposition in, at something or the condition of being suspended.
respectively that infers different meaning to the sentence. Gap: a space or interval; a break in continuity.
The pointed inferred from that line show for something. Since, this context wanted us to infer the in between time,
Option C and D serves the purpose, but option C is but both interlude and intermission is contextually
incorrect grammatically studying is incorrect tense, thus incorrect. Again suspension and gap are meaningless and
incorrect. grammatically incorrect.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Use of was make the sentence past perfect, thus option B This sentence speaks about the deeds of certain
gets eliminated on being incorrect tense. Option C and D community and with regards to the context we need to
are grammatically incorrect since, for using improper choose from the option. Amongst all options only
preposition. misdemeanour means a minor wrongdoing is related with
Therefore, option A is the correct answer. the context.
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Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 37) Answer: C

33) Answer: A The bold phrase is correct. No correction is needed here.
Since, it is mentioned some time now in the end of the Option 9a) is incorrect as “call off” means to cancel.
sentence , we can not use past “had”, and the subject is Option (b) is incorrect as after “to” we should use the base
singular so we need “has” and also present perfect form of “call”. Option (c) is incorrect as after behind we
continuous tense. should use the objective pronoun “us”. Option (d) is
Therefore, option A is the correct answer. incorrect as “lets” can’t be used here.
‘None of’ should always be followed by singular verb. The above sentence intends to show how the two things -
Hence, option (a) is incorrect. Option (b) is Rahul’s batting and sales of a useful book are similar.
incorrect,”movies” is a plural subject so we can’t use “it”. Differences are not being pointed out. So compare should
Option (c) is incorrect. Therefore is used as a conjunction be followed by to, not with, as, on. The correct answer is
which means as a result. The correct answer is option (d). option (b).
Option (a) and (d) can be eliminated as the usage of There Option (b) is incorrect, ‘were’ will be used instead of
is incorrect. Their is a possessive adjective which ‘was’ and Option (c) is incorrect as the use of Change
indicates possession or ownership. There, indicts a place, doesn’t make sense and create an awkwardness. Option
refer to the existence of something or serve as an (d) is grammatically incorrect. The subject verb
exclamation. Option (b) is incorrect as the noun agreement is misused. The correct answer is option (a).
“evidences” is incorrect, it should be used in singular 40) Answer: B
form. Option (c) is correct as the word “evidence” is If we look at option (a) the use of tense is incorrect. It’s in
always used in singular form and can be used to give a past tense, (the use of produce and cultivate is incorrect)
plural sense by the use of “many pieces of”/lots of/much Option (c) is grammatically incorrect. (Tenses, difference
etc. between it and their) The use of abundant is incorrect.
36) Answer: B Option (d) is also incorrect as “differ” should be used after
It's a simple question yet confusing. Here we need to “crops”
follow the MPT Alphabetical rule where Adverb of 41) Answer: A
Manner is used first, Adverb of place is second and The bold part in the sentence is incorrect, here “ensured”
Adverb of Time is last. Hence, the correct answer is option should be replaced with “ensure” as after “to” we should
B. use the base form of a verb.
Page 1045 of 1079

Hence (a) is correct. in the palms of their hands because cinema halls remain
(b), (c) and (d) are incorrect. closed due to a lockdown. The correct usage is palms of
42) Answer: A their hands. If you have someone or something in the palm
Option (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect. The sentence doesn’t of your hand, you have control over them.
make sense. Awkwardness is there and the subject and 47) Answer: D
verb agreement is incorrectly placed. “should not take on” doesn’t make any sense in the
43) Answer: E context of the sentence, here we need “can’t” and “on”
The bold part in the sentence is grammatically and should also be replaced with “away”.
contextually correct. Explanation- The correct sentence will be: The popularity
44) Answer: B of online streaming platform can’t take away the thrill of
“may take to” doesn’t make any sense in the context of the a director whose movie will be screened during the
sentence. pandemic at such a heritage cinema. If you take something
The correct sentence would be: Proactive policies, away from someone, you remove it from them, so that
including in the corporate world, to fully tap women’s they no longer possess it or have it with them.
underutilised potential can lead to more women working 48) Answer: B
at all levels, better decision-making and greater “be”, “in” and “mean” are incorrect, after Preposition
prosperity. Can indicates that someone has the ability to “for” we need a Gerund “being”, “in” should be replaced
do something. with “into”, and in place of mean we need the past
45) Answer: C participle form of this “meant”.
“has being sone” is incorrect as after “has” we cannot use The correct sentence will be: New directors working on
“being”. In this place we need passive form of past fresh ideas for the web might also have scripts that are
continuous tense. better suited for being made into films meant for the big
No correction required. The correct sentence will be: It is screen.
important to note that the bank account details were part 49) Answer: B
of the approval letter in the existing Act from FCRA (I)and (III)can replace the phrase printed in bold.
division, so tracking bank accounts in these digital times Reason=> ‘pay attention to’ and ‘be serious about’
was being done rather easily. both give the same meaning and sense as ‘focus on’.
46) Answer: E (II)is wrong because an ADERRB(Immediately) should
The correct sentence will be: Indians continue to watch be placed after verb(focus). [correct=> focus
compelling narratives in the comfort of their homes, often immediately]
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50) Answer: C Reason: (II)=> ‘fly’ is wrong according to the meaning.

(I)can replace the phrase printed in bold. (III)=> ‘despite’ is never followed by ‘of’, and also the
Reason=> ‘run away’ and ‘flee’ are similar in meaning. use of ‘despite’ is wrong according to the meaning.
(II)and (III) are wrong.
Reading Comprehension
Directions (1-8) Read the given passage carefully and To start with, one of the best advantages of day dreaming
answer the questions that follow. is that they prove to be a stress buster and often a
Day dreaming is the process of dreaming visionary, wonderful way of relaxing the mind. Many a times, a
fantasy dreams, especially one of happy, pleasant person day dreams when they want to take a break from
thoughts, hopes or ambitions, imagined as coming to pass, everything that is in their present immediate surroundings.
and experienced while awake. Day dreaming is something In such a case, when they day dream, their mind takes a
that we all indulge in. While sitting in class, working in break and starts to imagine things that make them happy
office or while enjoying out with friends, our mind often or chirpy and also refresh them up. Thus, day dreaming is
veers away from our present surroundings and starts good because it provides the mind with a diversion that it
thinking about something that has not happened to us but very often needs.
we wish for it to happen. Generally, the day dreams are Day dreaming allows a person to decide his plan of action
gay, chirpy and positive. However, the possibility of for the future. Sometimes when a person is too much
having dreadful and negative day dreams cannot be willing to achieve something, he day dreams about how
completely neglected. he is going to achieve it. In such a case, his day dreams
Over the years, day dreaming has been considered to be a are filled with thoughts of his future plan of action that he
non-constructive, useless and lazy activity. It is is going to adopt to achieve his motive or aim.
considered to be a useless way of killing time that can As Neil Gaiman said, “You get ideas from daydreaming.
instead be used for some productive activity. The You get ideas from being bored. You get ideas all the time.
goodness of day dreaming also depends on the kinds of The only difference between writers and other people is
thoughts that you allow to come into your mind. More or we notice when we're doing it.” Do day dreaming. Get
less, day dreaming is often dismissed as something ideas. Notice them. And get down to work.
unconstructive and useless. However, recent studies and 1) According to the passage Day dreaming is?
researches done by different psychologists have proved a. process of dreaming visionary
that day dreaming is not always a useless activity. b. imagined as coming to pass
c. experienced while awake
Page 1047 of 1079
d. all the above III. Day dreaming is good because it provides the mind
e. none of the above with a diversion that it very often needs.
2) According to the passage which of the following is a. only I
considered as the best advantages of day dreaming? b. only II
a. they prove to be a stress buster c. only III
b. a wonderful way of relaxing the mind d. all the above
c. something unconstructive and useless e. none of the above
d. both a and b 5) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the
e. none of the above word neglected as given in the passage?
3) According to the passage which of the following is a. ignored
true? b. cherish
I. Day dreaming do not allow a person to decide his plan c. heed
of action for the future. d. regard
II. when a person is too much willing to achieve e. none of the above
something, he day dreams about how he is going to 6) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the
achieve it word unconstructive as given in the passage?
III. Over the years, day dreaming has been considered to a. helpful
be a non-constructive, useless and lazy activity. b. uncooperative
a. I & II c. fertile
b. II & III d. supportive
c. III & I e. none of the above
d. all the above 7) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
e. none of the above word chirpy as given in the passage?
4) According to the passage which of the following is a. happy
not true? b. merry
I. The possibility of having dreadful and negative day c. radiant
dreams can be completely neglected. d. sad
II. The goodness of day dreaming also depends on the e. none of the above
kinds of thoughts that you allow to come into your mind. 8) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
word filled as given in the passage?
Page 1048 of 1079

a. empty of the traditions of the world; the pertinent question is

b. occupy whether or not the astrology is to be believed?
c. furnish Can the position of sun with respect to the Earth over the
d. infuse years is capable of determining your fate – your past,
e. none of the above present or future? Can the position of stars play a relevant
Directions (9-18) Read the given passage carefully and role in determining what can happen to you in the next few
answer the questions that follow. days of your life? Can anything that is remotely not even
The word Zodiac has been derived from the Latin word connected to you be pivotal enough in determining the
“Zodiacus” which means “a circle of animals”. The term result of the major actions of your life? The answer is yes,
was so given because more than half of the Zodiac signs it may be the determining factor or it may not e so.
are represented by animals. The path of the sun over the There are so many people that astrology is nothing but a
celestial circle over the year has been divided into twelve fad. These people believe in actions and the outcome of it.
parts, each of 30 degrees, named as Zodiac signs. Not just They believe that your past, present and future is
the sun but the path of the moon and the other planets is determined by the person that you are and the way you
also recorded and analyzed. The practice of reading zodiac work. The sun, the stars, the Earth and the other planets
signs has been in practice ever since the time of Romans. do play any role in determining the fate of our actions or
The practice has been passed from generation to the course of our lives. These people believe that astrology
generation. However, a very big question that arises every is just a way of taking money off from people who are sad,
now and then is- Are Zodiac Signs true or is it just a fad depressed or looking for any form of comfort. According
to grab money out of people or comfort them with the to them, astrology is an art where a person tells you
lies. something that you do actually wish to listen and then, you
The zodiac signs and the astrology (the study of zodiac give them money for complying with your thoughts and
signs) is a study which connects the astrological or passing them as words.
celestial events to the events occurring in the life of a However, there are so many other people who do believe
person. The astrology is a part of so many different in Zodiac signs. The best way to find out about the truth
cultures in the world. The Chinese, the Indians, the of zodiac is to look into the traits of the 12 different zodiac
Mayans all believed that the life of people on Earth is in signs. Based on the study of zodiac, all kind of people in
some ways determined by the happenings of the extra the world are divided into the twelve zodiac signs. Based
terrestrial space. However, on further thought, the relevant on the study of astrology and the relative position of the
question is not whether or not the astrology has been a part sun and other planets at the time of your birth, every
Page 1049 of 1079

person is assigned a unique zodiac sign. All people a. eleven

belonging to a particular zodiac sign and born during the b. twenty
same particular period of time, will have some same c. thirteen
characters. d. twelve
All people born in May are the kind of people who get e. none of the above
easily angered. However, these people are also extremely 11) According to the passage every person is assigned
honest and creative. Similarly, people born in September a unique zodiac sign at the time of your birth based
are cool and calm and know how to deal patiently with on?
even the toughest of the situations. These people are also I. the study of astrology
faithful, loyal and helpful. People born in February love II. the relative position of the sun
peace and would do anything to keep it alive. However, III. the relative position of the other planets
these people are also quite dominating and love to dream a. only I
and aim high in life. People born in November are highly b. only II
determined and give everything to achieve anything that c. only III
they want to achieve. However, at times, these people can d. all the above
also be jealous and secretive. People born in December e. none of the above
are considered to have a very good sense of humor and are 12) According to the passage which of the following is
known to be vibrant. However, these people are also not true?
known to be quite selfish at times. I. People born in November are highly determined.
9) According to the passage “the life of people on Earth II. People born in December are considered to have a very
is in some ways determined by the happenings of the good sense of humor.
extra terrestrial space” is believed by? III. People born in January are known to be vibrant.
a. The Chinese a. I & II
b. The Indians b. II & III
c. The Mayans c. only II
d. all the above d. only III
e. none of the above e. none of the above
10) According to the passage based on the study of 13) According to the passage which of the following is
zodiac, all kind of people in the world are divided into true?
how many zodiac signs?
Page 1050 of 1079

I. All people born in May are the kind of people who get 17) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
easily angered. word depressed as given in the passage?
II. People born in September are cool and calm. a. miserable
III. People born in February love peace b. moody
a. I & II c. unhappy
b. II & III d. cheerful
c. I & III e. none of the above
d. all the above 18) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
e. none of the above word vibrant as given in the passage?
14) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the a. spiritless
word comfort as given in the passage? b. passionate
a. relief c. peppy
b. distress d. determined
c. depress e. none of the above
d. grief
e. none of the above Directions (19-28) Read the given passage carefully
15) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the and answer the questions that follow.
word connects as given in the passage? The Olympic Games are regarded as the world’s
a. disconnect foremost sports competition. The games are a major
b. link international sporting event featuring summer and winter
c. disassociate sports. Thousands of athletes from around the world
d. depart participate in a variety of competitions during Olympics
e. none of the above held every four years. From the very beginning for
16) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the ancient Greece and its neighboring countries, the
word capable as given in the passage? Olympics have developed into a worldwide,
a. incompetent commercially oriented event. The origin of Olympics can
b. inept be traced to the ancient Greeks who dedicated it to God
c. able Zeus.
d. useless In Greece the games were held on the plains of
e. none of the above Olympia every four years. The four-year period between
Page 1051 of 1079

the Olympic Games was called an Olympiad. The first many other sports were added, including other races,
Olympic game was recorded in 776 BC; that was about wrestling, boxing, pentathlon (five events, including the
3,000 years ago. Women were neither allowed to compete long jump, javelin throw, discus throw, foot race, and
in the games nor to watch them, because the games were wrestling), and equestrian events (events with horses and
dedicated to Zeus and were therefore meant for men. people, like chariot races and horse races).
The ancient Olympics did not have many events. In the In the year AD 394, the Olympic Games were banned by
first thirteen Olympic Games, there was only one event the Byzantine Emperor Theodosius II. Fifteen hundred
called sprint- a short run that was called the "stade". The years later a French educator and sportsman Pierre de
sprint event was about one hundred and eight meters in Frédy, Baron de Coubertin revived the Olympic Games.
length. The race was run by men who competed in the An all-male Olympic games were held in 1896, in Athens,
nude. A wreath of olive branches, called as kotinos in Greece. The first winter Olympics were held in 1924, in
Greek was placed on the winner's head. Chamonix, France.
The Crown Olive was the most coveted, and only, The tradition of the Olympic flame began during the
prize won at Olympia. The olive tree was considered as ancient Olympic Games, over 2700 years ago in Greece.
the sacred tree of Athens, Greece. The prize the winners A flame was lit for each Olympics, every four years, and
received included free food and lodging for life. Winners it burned throughout the games. The flame symbolized the
were lauded in poems, their figures set in sculpture, and death and rebirth of Greek heroes. During the games this
their achievements were known throughout Greece. To flame begins its Olympic Torch Relay by touring Greece.
put it simply, winning the Olympic Games made you a The flame is normally taken to the host country
hero in the eyes of the people. usually by an airplane. The flame is extinguished during
Nowadays different medals are designed for each new the closing ceremony. A new Olympic torch is designed
Olympics. Victory diplomas known as Certificates are for each of the games. The first torch relay took place at
also given to many top winners in each sport. Even the the 1936 games in Berlin, Germany.
presence of an individual during the Games was an The flag of the Olympic Games has been designed by
honour. All the famous people of the time attended the Baron de Coubertin in 1913-1914. The flag has five
Games. People from Italy, Sicily, Asia, Africa, and Spain interlocking rings in the colour of blue, yellow, black,
all made the long journey to Olympia. green, and red on a white background. The rings represent
For a period of 1,170 years, the Greeks held Olympics, the five parts of the world that were joined together in the
which continued to grow and change. They had generally Olympic movement: Africa, America, Asia, Australia and
two major events Equestrian and Pentathlon. Later on Europe. The Olympic flag was first used in the 1920
Page 1052 of 1079

Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. The Olympic flag III. The first winter Olympics were held in 1920, in
is paraded during the opening ceremony of each Olympic Chamonix, France.
Games. a. I & II
19) According to the passage how many years once the b. II & III
Olympic games is conducted? c. I & III
a. Every four years d. all the above
b. Every three years e. none of the above
c. Every five years 23) According to the passage which of the following is
d. Every six years true?
e. none of the above I. The Olympic flag was first used in the 1920 Olympic
20) According to the passage the origin of Olympics is Games in Berlin, Germany.
stated as? II. The tradition of the Olympic flame began during the
a. Italy ancient Olympic Games, over 2700 years ago in Greece.
b. Sicily III. The first Olympic game was recorded in 776 BC
c. Greece a. I & II
d. Asia b. II & III
e. Africa c. I & III
21) According to the passage the flag of the Olympic d. all the above
Games has been designed in? e. none of the above
a. 1920 - 1921 24) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the
b. 1896 - 1895 word foremost as given in the passage?
c. 1913 -1914 a. leading
d. 1924 - 1923 b. minor
e. none of the above c. inferior
22) According to the passage which of the following is d. lowest
not true? e. none of the above
I. For a period of 1,174 years, the Greeks held Olympics, 25) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the
which continued to grow and change. word dedicated as given in the passage?
II. The Crown Olive was the most coveted, and only, prize a. disloyal
won at Olympia. b. committed
Page 1053 of 1079

c. unfaithful exclusive terms but remain inherent in each other. What is

d. untrue ethical remains sustainable and vice versa.
e. none of the above Cutting trees and tinkering with natural resources,
26) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the unethical as it is, remains an inevitable fallout of
word banned as given in the passage? development, needed for human sustenance. But every
a. allowed now and then, catastrophes such as the flash floods in
b. admissible Uttarakhand in 2016 remind humans that what is unethical
c. prohibited is also unsustainable
d. acceptable Ethical practices and sustainability are the buzz-words of
e. none of the above the day. It hence becomes essential to unravel their true
27) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the meaning and in the process, attempt to formulate an
word sacred as given in the passage? equation between the two.
a. blessed ‘Ethical practices’ refer to the moralistic codes of conduct
b. dedicated and the just conventions which a human being, in his or
c. revered her social, professional and personal spheres must adhere
d. unholy to. These practices shape the true character of an
e. none of the above individual and enable to establish a context for an
28) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the individual’s worldly existence. ‘Sustainability’ refers to a
word extinguished as given in the passage? continuous process of well-being, a process which does
a. ignited not compromise upon anything but takes everything in its
b. removed stride, even the harshest of circumstances, in order to
c. annihilated endure the test of time.
d. eradicated These two concepts are inextricably intertwined –
e. none of the above sustainability cannot exist without ethical practices.
Directions (29-33) Read the given passage carefully Generally, in the present scenario, sustainability directly
and answer the questions that follow. motions towards an approach which ensures the
We would not want to kill the planet we live on. We would preservation of the environment, of nature, yet at the same
not want to exhaust all the natural resources. We would time, it ensures credible human development and
not want to leave a dead planet for our future generations. progress also. And ethical practices refer to the practices
Ethical practices and sustainability are not mutually that organizations and institutions must adopt in order to
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ensure sustainable development of the human race. For II. Ethical practices refer to the practices that
instance, it is alright to hope to gain the maximum profits organizations and institutions must adopt in order to
in a business venture, but if the blueprint of its success ensure sustainable development of the human race.
plan compromises upon the health of the planet, then the III. Sustainability directly motions towards an approach
approach may not really be worth it. The need in such which ensures the preservation of the environment, of
cases, then becomes, to go back to the drawing board and nature, yet at the same time, it ensures credible human
start from square one and develop innovative ideas which development and progress also
do not leave anybody or anything in the lurch! a. only I
29) According to the passage which of the following is b. only II
a continuous process of well-being, a process which c. only III
does not compromise upon anything but takes d. both II and III
everything in its stride, even the harshest of e. none of the above
circumstances, in order to endure the test of time? 32) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the
a. Ethical practices word mutually as given in the passage?
b. Sustainability a. cooperatively
c. compromises b. split
d. only a and b c. biased
e. none of the above d. differ
30) According to the passage which of the following e. none of the above
is/are referred to as unethical? 33) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
a. tinkering with natural resources word ensures as given in the passage?
b. cutting trees a. confirm
c. Imagination b. affirm
d. Both a and b c. verify
e. none of the above d. neglect
31) According to the passage which of the following is e. none of the above
not true? Directions (34-40) Read the given passage carefully
I. Ethical practices and sustainability are mutually and answer the questions that follow.
exclusive terms but remain inherent in each other. Speaking and Listening are two sides of the same coin.
Both form an integral part in the process of
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communication. Communication involves speaking and The problem, today, is that people prefer to live in their
listening simultaneously. However, there is a fine own comfortable cocoons and avoid things that challenge
distinction between the two processes of speaking and them. Nobody seems to have the time to listen intently to
listening. The process of speaking necessarily involves someone. To add to this, the growing culture of
repetition and reinforcement of what you already know, intolerance and taking offence easily that we see around
it remains a process which barely adds to the existing us ensures that we listen only to refute or reply rather than
knowledge of the speaker. On the other hand, the process understand. The art of listening, as a medium to gain
of listening results in the acquisition of new knowledge. knowledge and perspective, should, thus, be resuscitated.
The more you listen, the more knowledge you gain. 34) According to the passage which of the following are
Steven R. Covey rightly points out that “most people do considered as two sides of the same coin?
not listen with the intent to understand; they listen with the a. Speaking and learning
intent to reply.” This is what ails modern communication b. Listening and learning
between individuals, communities as well as countries. c. Communication and speaking
People tend to harbour the false belief that they know d. Speaking and listening
everything about everything, that whatever they speak is e. none of the above
the ultimate truth, and that listening and acknowledging 35) According to the passage Steven R. Covey insisted
others’ point of view will hurt their ego. By adopting such that?
an attitude, such people shut the doors to potential a. most people do not listen with the intent to understand
knowledge that might flow from others and lose out on b. People no longer indulge in the art of listening to gain
opportunities to grow. something
In the light of fierce competition that characterizes the c. they listen with the intent to reply
world of today, dialogue has given way to intense d. both a & b
arguments, conversation has given way to debates. People e. both a & c
no longer indulge in the art of listening to gain something 36) According to the passage the process of listening
but are always on the lookout for points that can help them results in ?
pin down their opponent and give them a sense of I. newer perspectives
achievement and victory. However, by not opening up II. the acquisition of new knowledge
their ears and being receptive to various opinions, they III. reply rather than understand
come out as losers and remain oblivious to newer a. only I
perspectives. b. only II
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c. only III b. involve

d. all the above c. disturb
e. none of the above d. dissatisfy
37) According to the passage which of the following is e. none of the above
not true? 40) Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
I. By adopting such an attitude, such people shut the doors word intolerance as given in the passage?
to potential knowledge that might flow from others and a. bias
lose out on opportunities to grow. b. partiality
II. People tend to harbour the true belief that they know c. one sided
everything about everything, that whatever they speak is d. openness
the ultimate truth, and that listening and acknowledging e. none of the above
others’ point of view will hurt their ego. Direction (41-45): Read the passage carefully and
III. The problem, today, is that people prefer to live in their answer the questions given below the passage.
own comfortable cocoons and avoid things that challenge In a cautious breakthrough, India and China have come to
them. an understanding about de-escalating tensions along the
a. only I LAC and begun withdrawing their troops from flashpoint
b. only II sites. The decision came after a two-hour-long negotiation
c. only III between India’s national security adviser Ajit Doval and
d. both II and III China’s foreign minister Wang Yi, and involves a step-by-
e. none of the above step process and creation of buffer zones. Such a zone has
38) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the already been created at PP-14 in the Galwan valley that
word repetition as given in the passage? saw bloody clashes between the two sides on June 15. The
a. reiterate PLA has reportedly removed its temporary structures at
b. rare PP-14 to pull back by about 1.5 km to its side of the LAC.
c. uncommon Similar arrangements are also underway in the Gogra Hot
d. irregular Springs area as part of phase-1 of the pullback. But getting
e. none of the above the Chinese to withdraw from the north bank of Pangong
39) Which of the following is similar in meaning to the Tso, where they have constructed massive infrastructure,
word indulge as given in the passage? will be more difficult. In fact, the buffer zones themselves
a. intensify deny Indian troops access to patrolling points they have
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traditionally traversed. Finally, with the Chinese presence All this clearly shows
in the Depsang Plains still to be taken up, the that___________________________________?
disengagement and de-induction process may take several a) China will relent on pressuring India along the LAC
months. b) China will not relent on pressuring India along the LOC
Of course, India has to be alert throughout this period c) India will not relent on pressuring China along the LAC
should the Chinese – who are masterful at deploying the d) China will not attack india any more
‘two steps forward, one step back’ strategy – again go e) None of these
back on their word to disengage. Besides, China this time 42) Fill the blank with information from the passage.
has made fresh claims over the entire Galwan valley and The Chinese, meanwhile, have their
continues to insist that it was in the right during the brutal own_________________?
clashes there. Beijing has also made large new territorial a) third generation fighter
claims in eastern Bhutan bordering India’s Arunachal b) second generation fighter
Pradesh – fulfilling which will require the Chinese to c) fifth generation fighter
acquire the latter too. d) sixth generation fighter
All this clearly shows that China will not relent on e) None of these
pressuring India along the LAC. New Delhi, therefore, has 43) Fill the blank with information from the passage.
to be prepared for a two front war as any conflict with Beijing has also made large new territorial claims in
Beijing will likely draw in Islamabad as well. We also ________________________?
need to bridge the vast power gap with China. India’s a) western Bhutan bordering India’s Arunachal Pradesh
obsession with populist politics – see editorial below for b) eastern Bhutan bordering India’s Arunachal Pradesh
one of myriad instances – doesn’t help here as it distracts c) southern Bhutan bordering India’s Arunachal Pradesh
from the real task of growing India’s economy and d) eastern Nepal bordering India’s Arunachal Pradesh
military might. It’s telling that India today is the world’s e) eastern Bhutan bordering India’s Assam
third largest military spender and second largest arms 44) Which of the following statements is/are true
importer, yet suffers from shortage of critical weapons according to the passage?
platforms. The Chinese, meanwhile, have their own fifth a) Arrangements are also underway in the Gogra Hot
generation fighter. It’s time to get serious if we intend to Springs area as part of phase-2 of the pullback.
successfully counter an expansionist China. b) Getting the Chinese to withdraw from the north bank of
41) Fill the blank with information from the passage. Pangong Tso, where they have constructed massive
infrastructure, will be more easy
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c) the buffer zones themselves deny Indian troops access has a ____________of quality requirements, including
to patrolling points they have traditionally traversed. absence of viruses, parasites and microscopic
d) All of these organisms, and control over levels of toxic substances.
e) None of these But in practice, municipal water fails these tests due to the
45) Which of the following is/are the antonym of the lack of accountability of the official agencies, and the
word “myriad” given in bold in the passage? absence of robust data in the public domain on quality
a) Paucity testing.
b) Dearth The Centres approach to the issue (A)/ rely on naming
c) Deficiency and shaming through a system of ranking,(B)/ but this
d) Both b and c is unlikely of yield results, (C)/ going by similar
e) All a, b, c attempts to benchmark other urban services(D)/.
Direction (46-50): Read the passage carefully and Making it legally binding on agencies to achieve standards
answer the questions given below the passage. and empowering consumers with rights is essential,
The report of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and because State governments would then take an integrated
Public Distribution red-flagging tap water quality in major view of housing, water supply, sanitation and waste
Indian cities comes as no surprise, given that many official management. A scientific approach to water management
water distribution agencies routinely advise consumers to is vital, considering that 21 cities — including many of
consume only boiled water. Going by the matrix of tests those found to have unclean tap water — could run out of
carried out by the Bureau of Indian Standards for the groundwater as early as 2020, as per a NITI Aayog report.
Ministry, Delhi has abysmal water quality, Chennai and Moreover, the Central Ground Water Board estimates that
Kolkata rank very low, and Mumbai is the only city with nearly a fifth of the urban local bodies are already facing
acceptable results. City water systems are normatively a water crisis due to excessive extraction, failed
required to comply with the national standard for drinking monsoons, and unplanned development. On the issue of
water, IS 10500:2012, but most obviously feel no regular testing, there is a case to entrust a separate agency
compulsion to do so. Their lack of initiative could be with the task in each State, rather than relying on the same
attributed partly to the expanding footprint of packaged agency that provides water to also perform this function.
drinking water, especially in populous cities, coupled with If data on water are made public on the same lines as air
the high dependence on groundwater in fast-growing quality, it would ratchet up pressure on governments to
urban clusters where State provision of piped water act. For too long, the response of water departments to the
systems does not exist. On paper, the Indian standard challenge has been to chlorinate the supply, as this
Page 1059 of 1079

removes pathogens, ignoring such aspects as appearance, c) II, V

smell and taste. It is time to move beyond this and make d) III, IV
tap water genuinely desirable. e) IV, V
46) Find a suitable for the passage. 49) Which of the following statements is/are not true
a) Quality on tap: On report of Ministry of Consumer according to the passage?
Affairs a) A scientific approach to water management is vital,
b) Water pollution considering that 21 cities — including many of those
c) Quality on tap: On report of WHO found to have unclean tap water — could run out of
d) All of the above groundwater as early as 2025
e) None of the above.
47) A sentence is given in bold in the passage. The b) The Central Ground Water Board
sentence is divided into four parts. Find the part/s that estimates that nearly a fourth of the
has/have any grammatical error. If the sentence is urban local bodies are already facing a
correct, mark “no error” as your answer. water crisis due to excessive extraction,
a) A, B, C failed monsoons, and unplanned
b) B, C development
c) B, D c) If data on water are made public on the same lines as
d) A, B air quality, it would ratchet up pressure on governments to
e) No error act.
48) A sentence is given with a blank in the passage. d) Both a and b
Below this question, you can see five words, two of e) Both b and c
them can fill the blank. Find the pair. 50) Which of the following words can not be the
I) Plethora synonym of the word “abysmal” given in bold in the

II) Abundance passage?
III) Paucity a) Awful
IV) Dearth b) Dreadful
v) Deficiency c) Atrocious
a) I, II d) Horrendous
b) I, III e) Superb
Reading Comprehension - Answers with Explanation

Page 1060 of 1079
From the lines, “Day dreaming is the process of dreaming Unconstructive - not having a useful or beneficial
visionary, fantasy dreams, especially one of happy, purpose; negative.
pleasant thoughts, hopes or ambitions, imagined as Other options A, C & D are antonyms of the given word.
coming to pass, and experienced while awake.” This 7) Answer: D
question can be answered. Chirpy - cheerful and lively.
2) Answer: D Other options A, B & C are synonyms of the given word.
From the lines, “To start with, one of the best advantages 8) Answer: A
of day dreaming is that they prove to be a stress buster and Filled - to become full or almost full.
often a wonderful way of relaxing the mind.” This Other options D, B & C are synonyms of the given
question can be answered. 9) Answer: D
3) Answer: B From the lines, “The Chinese, the Indians, the Mayans all
From the lines, “Day dreaming allows a person to decide believed that the life of people on Earth is in some ways
his plan of action for the future. determined by the happenings of the extra terrestrial
when a person is too much willing to achieve something, space..” this question can be answered.
he day dreams about how he is going to achieve it 10) Answer: D
Over the years, day dreaming has been considered to be a From the lines, “Based on the study of zodiac, all kind of
non-constructive, useless and lazy activity.” This question people in the world are divided into the twelve zodiac
can be answered. signs.” this question can be answered.
From the lines, “The possibility of having dreadful and From the lines, “Based on the study of astrology and the
negative day dreams cannot be completely neglected. relative position of the sun and other planets at the time of
The goodness of day dreaming also depends on the kinds your birth, every person is assigned a unique zodiac
of thoughts that you allow to come into your mind. sign...” this question can be answered.
Day dreaming is good because it provides the mind with a 12) Answer: D
diversion that it very often needs.” This question can be From the lines, “People born in November are highly
answered. determined
5) Answer: A People born in December are considered to have a very
neglected - not receiving proper attention; disregarded. good sense of humor and are known to be vibrant.” this
Other options B, C & D are antonyms of the given word. question can be answered.
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13) Answer: D From the lines, “The origin of Olympics can be traced to
From the lines, “All people born in May are the kind of the ancient Greeks who dedicated it to God Zeus.” this
people who get easily angered. question can be answered.
People born in September are cool and calm. 21) Answer: C
People born in February love peace.” this question can be From the lines, “The flag of the Olympic Games has been
answered. designed by Baron de Coubertin in 1913-1914.” this
14) Answer: A question can be answered.
comfort - a state of physical ease and freedom from pain 22) Answer: C
or constraint. From the lines, “The Crown Olive was the most coveted,
Other options B, C & D are antonyms of the given word. and only, prize won at Olympia.
15) Answer: B For a period of 1,170 years, the Greeks held Olympics,
connects - join together so as to provide access and which continued to grow and change
communication. The first winter Olympics were held in 1924, in
Other options A, C & D are antonyms of the given word. Chamonix, France.” this question can be answered.
capable - having the ability, fitness, or quality necessary From the lines, “The Olympic flag was first used in the
to do or achieve a specified thing. 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium
Other options A, B & D are antonyms of the given word. The tradition of the Olympic flame began during the
17) Answer: D ancient Olympic Games, over 2700 years ago in Greece.
depressed - in a state of unhappiness or despondency. The first Olympic game was recorded in 776 BC.” this
Other options A, B & C are synonyms of the given word. question can be answered.
Vibrant - full of energy and life. Foremost - most prominent in rank, importance, or
Other options D, B & C are synonyms of the given word. position.
19) Answer: A Other options B, C & D are antonyms of the given word.
From the lines, “Thousands of athletes from around the 25) Answer: B
world participate in a variety of competitions during Dedicated - devoted to a task or purpose.
Olympics held every four years.” this question can be Other options A, C & D are antonyms of the given word.
answered. 26) Answer: C
20) Answer: C Banned - officially or legally prohibit (something).
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Other options A, B & D are antonyms of the given word. development and progress also.” this question can be
27) Answer: D answered.
Sacred - regarded with great respect and reverence by a 32) Answer: A
particular religion, group, or individual. mutually–experienced or done by each of two or more
Other options A, B & C are synonyms of the given word. parties towards the other or others.
28) Answer: A Other options B, C & D are antonyms of the given word.
extinguished - put an end to; destroy. 33) Answer: D
Other options D, B & C are synonyms of the given word. ensures- make certain that (something) will occur or be
29) Answer: B the case.
From the lines, “‘Sustainability’ refers to a continuous Other options A, B & C are synonyms of the given word.
process of well-being, a process which does not 34) Answer: D
compromise upon anything but takes everything in its From the lines, “Speaking and Listening are two sides of
stride, even the harshest of circumstances, in order to the same coin.” this question can be answered.
endure the test of time.” this question can be answered. 35) Answer: E
30) Answer: D From the lines, “Steven R. Covey rightly points out that
From the lines, “Cutting trees and tinkering with natural “most people do not listen with the intent to understand;
resources, unethical as it is, remains an inevitable fallout they listen with the intent to reply.” This question can be
of development, needed for human sustenance.” this answered.
question can be answered. 36) Answer: B
31) Answer: A From the lines, “the process of listening results in the
From the lines, “Ethical practices and sustainability are acquisition of new knowledge.” This question can be
not mutually exclusive terms but remain inherent in each answered.
other. 37) Answer: B
Ethical practices refer to the practices that organizations From the lines, “People tend to harbour the false belief
and institutions must adopt in order to ensure sustainable that they know everything about everything, that whatever
development of the human race. they speak is the ultimate truth, and that listening and
Sustainability directly motions towards an approach acknowledging others’ point of view will hurt their ego..”
which ensures the preservation of the environment, of This question can be answered.
nature, yet at the same time, it ensures credible human 38) Answer: A
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Repetition - the action of repeating something that has withdraw from the north bank of Pangong Tso, where they
already been said or written. have constructed massive infrastructure, will be
Reiterate- say something again or a number of times, more difficult. In fact, the buffer zones themselves deny
typically for emphasis or clarity. Indian troops access to patrolling points they have
Other options B, C & D are antonyms of the given word. traditionally traversed.”
39) Answer: B Hence only (c) is true.
Indulge - become involved in 45) Answer: E
Other options A, C & D are antonyms of the given word. Myriad- Countless, large in quantity.
40) Answer: D “Paucity”, “Dearth”, “Deficiency” all are antonyms of the
Intolerance - unwillingness to accept views, beliefs, or given word.
behaviour that differ from one's own. Other options A, B & C are synonyms of the given word.
It is mentioned in the passage “All this clearly shows that Only option (a) reflects the main idea of the passage.
China will not relent on pressuring India along the There a lot of evidence of this,
LAC.” The first line of the passage says “The report of the
Hence (a) is correct. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
42) Answer: C Distribution red-flagging tap water quality in major Indian
It is mentioned in the passage “The Chinese, meanwhile, cities comes as no surprise, given that many official water
have their own fifth generation fighter.” distribution agencies routinely advise consumers to
Hence (c) is correct. consume only boiled water.”
43) Answer: B The last line of the passage says “It is time to move
It is mentioned in the passage “Beijing has also made large beyond this and make tap water genuinely desirable.”,
new territorial claims in eastern Bhutan bordering Other options fail to display the topic of the passage.
India’s Arunachal Pradesh – fulfilling which will 47) Answer: A
require the Chinese to acquire the latter too.” In part A, “centres” should be replaced with “centre’s” as
Hence (b) is correct. we need possessive noun here.
44) Answer: C In part B, “rely” should be replaced with “relies” as the
It is mentioned in the passage “Similar arrangements are subject “approach” is singular and after singular subject
also underway in the Gogra Hot Springs area as part of we need V5 (V+ s/es).
phase-1 of the pullback. But getting the Chinese to
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In part C, “of” should be replaced with “to” as after are already facing a water crisis due to excessive
“likely” we should use “to”. extraction, failed monsoons, and unplanned
48) Answer: A development. On the issue of regular testing, there is a
In the blank we have sense of “abundance” or “excess”. case to entrust a separate agency with the task in each
Plethora/ Abundance- Excess. State, rather than relying on the same agency that provides
Hence (a) is correct. water to also perform this function. If data on water are
Other words give opposite meaning. made public on the same lines as air quality, it would
49) Answer: D ratchet up pressure on governments to act.”.
It is mentioned in the passage: Hence, (a) and (b) are not true.
“A scientific approach to water management is vital, 50) Answer: E
considering that 21 cities — including many of those Abysmal- Extremely bad, awful, dreadful, atrocious,
found to have unclean tap water — could run out of horrendous.
groundwater as early as 2020, as per a NITI Aayog “superb” is the antonym of the word, hence it can not be
report. Moreover, the Central Ground Water Board the synonym.
estimates that nearly a fifth of the urban local bodies
Jumbled Sentence
Given below are six statements A, B, C, D, E and F, C. That he has chosen Europe for his first Covid-19-era
which when arranged in the correct order, form a visit outside the neighbourhood suggests that New
coherent and meaningful paragraph. Rearrange the Delhi has sensed the importance of this moment.
other statements in a proper sequence to form a
D. The European Union (EU) and the United Kingdom
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions (UK) are two political geographies that may be
that follow. experiencing this and are certainly at an inflection
1. point.
A. He explained Europe’s importance for India’s most E. While Covid-19 has disrupted societies, it has also
important imperatives — be it technology and the brought greater clarity for individuals and nations.
digital domain or becoming a green economy. F. At a recent event, external affairs minister, S
B. In this context, foreign secretary Harsh Vardhan Jaishankar, articulated why his ministry continued
Shringla’s visit to Paris, Berlin and London gains to invest time and energy in the relationship with
salience. Europe.
G. The region holds the promise of long-term capital,

innovation, markets and best practices.
Page 1065 of 1079

Q1.Which of the following will be the FIRST d. D

sentence after rearrangement?
e. E
a. A
Q5.Which of the following will be the FIFTH
b. C sentence after rearrangement?
c. B a. A
d. D b. C
e. E c. B
Q2.Which of the following will be the SECOND d. D

e. F
a. A
2.
b. C
A. In the past four years, the Paris Agreement has
c. B rested on European and Indian shoulders.
d. D B. India co-founded the International Solar Alliance

with France and the Coalition for Disaster Resilient
e. E Infrastructure with the UK.
Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD C. In London, he must create the ground for a bold
sentence after rearrangement? UK-India announcement at COP-26 with an
a. A emphasis on a financing a framework that can
catalyse green growth.
b. C
D. Post-Covid-19, we must build back green and build
c. B back better.
d. D E. It is time for Europe and India to shape a new global

green deal.
e. E
F. This EU+1 initiative should be on Shringla’s
Q4.Which of the following will be the FOURTH
agenda as he engages with Paris and Berlin.
G. These are critical legacies to be nurtured, more so
a. A
since the United States (US) will continue to go
b. C through an existential crisis, to some degree,
irrespective of what happens in early-November.
c. B
Page 1066 of 1079


e. E
a. A
c. B a. A
d. D b. C
e. E c. B

e. E
a. A
3.
b. C
A. Even as Europe invested in Chinese manufacturing
c. B zones, data from its banks, insurance and financial
firms found safe and efficient homes in India.
d. D
B. With the US expected to be preoccupied till the new
e. E administration settles in by early-summer 2021,
Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD New Delhi is doing well to engage with other major
sentence after rearrangement? Western democracies that, like India, are
contributors to stability in the international system.
a. A
C. Trust was the operative word. And this same word
b. C will define partnerships in the Fourth Industrial
Revolution.
c. B
D. As they assess the extremes of the American and
d. D
Chinese models, on technology norms, digital
e. E regulations and data privacy, India and various
shades of Europeans will find their positions more
Q4.Which of the following will be the SIXTH aligned.
E. Coming shortly after Jaishankar’s visit to Japan for
a. A the Quad talks and bilateral meetings, the foreign
secretary’s trip to the heart of Old Europe is an
b. C
important follow-up.
c. B
Page 1067 of 1079

F. Digital partnerships between India and EU and b. C

concurrently India and the UK are inevitable and
desirable. c. B

sentence after rearrangement? e. E
a. A Q5.Which of the following will be the FIRST
c. B a. A
d. D b. C
e. E c. B
Q2.Which of the following will be the THIRD d. D

a. A 4.
b. C A. At a macro-level though, two key problems may
c. B emerge.
d. D B. There have now been two versions of the Personal

Data Protection Bill, a report on non-personal data,
e. F and a variety of other proposals to regulate the
digital economy from telemedicine to e-commerce
Q3.Which of the following will be the FOURTH to drones.
C. India is simultaneously juggling fundamental
a. A questions such as the nature and categories of data,
b. C while moving steadfastly on building a regulatory
apparatus to govern these.
c. B
D. The first is of State overreach and the second is of
d. D multiple regulators.
e. E E. The evolution of data governance is in a state of
healthy flux right now.
sentence after rearrangement? F. India’s past experience — particularly with
industrial licensing and regulation of the financial
a. A
Page 1068 of 1079
sector — may be useful in informing the future of b. C

data governance.
c. B
Q1.Which of the following will be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement? d. D
a. A e. E
b. C Q5.Which of the following will be the FIFTH

c. B
a. A
d. E
b. C
e. F
c. B
Q2.Which of the following will be the SECOND
a. A e. E
b. C 5.
c. B A. This led to suppressing growth and innovation for

decades.
d. D
B. Both the Personal Data Protection Bill as well as
e. E the non-personal Data report contains various
clauses and suggestions that mandate compulsory
Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD data-sharing with the government.
C. The Industries (Development and Regulation) Act
a. A of 1951, gave the State a number of regulatory
b. C powers to dictate the output and prices of
industries.
c. B
D. We shouldn’t be surprised at this, considering
d. D India’s history with State entrenchments.
e. F E. How will the State decide on this remuneration?
Q4.Which of the following will be the FOURTH F. Almost 70 years later, the data regime is suggesting
sentence after rearrangement? mandatory sharing of data for businesses on a fair,
reasonable and non-discriminatory(FRAND)-
a. A
based remuneration.
Page 1069 of 1079

G. The same issues that existed with price controls b. C

under the industries Act are bound to affect the data
economy should we go down this route. c. B

a. A Q5.Which of the following will be the FIFTH
c. B a. A
d. D b. C
e. F c. F

a. A 6.
b. C A. But there had been both major and minor hiccups
c. B along the way.
d. D B. The 15 year-Lalu Prasad-era in Bihar was also

reflected in similar personalities and politics in
e. E other states, especially Uttar Pradesh (UP).
Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD C. That period coincided arguably with the peak of
sentence after rearrangement? caste and identity-related politics, involving the
implementation of the Mandal Commission
a. A recommendations, the violent protests thereafter,
b. C and searingly provocative anti-upper caste
campaign slogans.
c. B
D. The minor hiccups included brief interregnums of
d. D President’s Rule and short, interim governments in
a hung assembly.
e. E
E. The biggest was when he was forced to quit as chief
Q4.Which of the following will be the FOURTH
minister (CM) after a huge corruption scandal,
whereupon he ran the government via proxy from
a. A
Page 1070 of 1079
jail after installing his homemaker-spouse in his Q4.Which of the following will be the FOURTH
place. sentence after rearrangement?
F. Lalu Prasad or his wife Rabri Devi had been the a. A

head of government for almost all of the previous
15 years. b. C
Q1.Which of the following will be the FIRST c. B

a. A e. E
b. C Q5.Which of the following will be the FIFTH
c. B sentence after rearrangement?
d. D a. A
e. F b. C
Q2.Which of the following will be the SECOND c. B

a. A e. E
b. C 7.
c. B A. In the process, it also undid the seemingly
d. D unassailable norm of three decades, that of coalition
governments in Delhi.
e. E
B. Under the leadership of Narendra Modi, it has
Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD realised the long-cherished dream of becoming the
sentence after rearrangement? largest party in India.
a. A C. The roots of this national transition, as well as in

several state elections, relate to changing
b. C demographics, unfettered information, and an
c. B increasingly confident and aspirational India.
d. D D. The BJP has been growing at the national level for

decades.
e. E
Page 1071 of 1079

E. The effects of these were seen in both the past two c. B

general elections, where previously rock-solid
vote-banks based on identity could not hold. d. D
F. This is no small matter, and many will recall the e. E

conventional wisdom till recently that India would Q4.Which of the following will be the FIFTH
not see a single-party majority again in the sentence after rearrangement?
forseeable future.
a. A
G. Added to this is the astronomical popularity of the
PM, who connects to this new India like no one b. C
else.
c. B
d. D
e. E
a. A
b. C
c. B
a. A
d. D
b. C
e. E
c. B
Q2.Which of the following will be the THIRD
d. D
e. E
a. A
8.
b. C
A. The Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD)’s Tejashwi Yadav
c. B
has so far not been able to arouse the usual
d. D breathless adulation of Lutyens’ Delhi’s Left liberal
media for anyone with even a long shot at taking up
e. F cudgels against the BJP.
Q3.Which of the following will be the FOURTH B. In the meantime, the Congress has slipped
sentence after rearrangement? precipitously, and is now little more than a bit
a. F player in the state.
b. C C. Much has happened in Bihar over these last 15

years.
Page 1072 of 1079

D. No one can deny the improvement in governance a. A

from earlier days, when kidnappings in broad
daylight were considered almost a legitimate b. F
enterprise. c. B
E. And how Chirag Paswan’s Lok Janshakti Party d. D
(LJP) will fare after it has now whimsically gone
solo is something to be watched. e. E
F. While the NDA in Bihar had its own hiccup several Q4.Which of the following will be the SIXTH
years ago, it overcame that. sentence after rearrangement?
G. That could be because their frothy reportage, a. A

supporting a series of such contenders around the
b. C
nation as the next big thing, has repeatedly fallen
flat. c. B
e. E
a. A
c. B a. A
d. D b. C
e. E c. B
e. E
a. A
9.
b. C
A. The world has already experienced three
c. B coronavirus attacks in the 21st century, beginning
with Sars in 2002, Mers in 2016 and now Covid-19.
d. D
B. India has done exceptionally well by keeping CFR
e. E
at 1.54%.
Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD
C. As per the World Health Organization organogram,
there is a considerable disparity both in infection
Page 1073 of 1079
numbers and death rates among nations with the Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD
highest fatality rates recorded in Europe and the sentence after rearrangement?
Americas, and the least in Africa and the Indian
subcontinent. a. A
D. Among those who require hospitalization, only a b. C

small percentage develop critical symptoms and c. B
lose the battle.
d. D
E. While the first two have been far less infectious but
more lethal with fatality rates of 10% and 34% e. E
respectively, the Sars-CoV-2 has proved more
Q4.Which of the following will be the SIXTH
infectious, but much less lethal with a case fatality
rate (CFR) of 3%.
a. A
F. What is even more remarkable is the observed
heterogeneity in disease presentation with most b. C
infected people remaining asymptomatic or
presenting with mild symptoms. c. B

e. E
a. A
c. B a. A
d. D b. C
e. E c. B
Q2.Which of the following will be the SECOND d. F

e. E
a. A
10.
b. C
A. His visit has drawn up the predictable response in
c. B Nepal — of Indian interference in internal affairs
— and has also led to criticism of Mr Oli, who is
d. D being accused by his critics of now softening up to
India.
e. E
Page 1074 of 1079
B. Nepal’s politicians criticise it publicly, while c. B

seeking to cosy up to it privately.
d. F
C. It not only ensures that the Indian system is on top
of information and changing dynamics, but has e. E
been an instrument for action — as is the role of Q3.Which of the following will be the THIRD
any intelligence agency. sentence after rearrangement?
D. Two things are noteworthy here. One, R&AW has a. A
had a substantial role in the neighbourhood in
general and Nepal in particular. b. C
E. India-Nepal ties are back in the spotlight with the c. B

visit of the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW)
d. D
chief, Samant Goel, to Kathmandu last week.
e. E
F. Mr Goel met the Nepali Prime Minister, KP
Sharma Oli, who has espoused belligerent anti- Q4.Which of the following will be the FOURTH
Indian nationalism for domestic political ends. sentence after rearrangement?
G. The visit and Mr Oli’s willingness to meet Mr Goel a. A
confirms this
b. C
sentence after rearrangement? c. B
a. A d. D
b. E e. E
c. B Q5.Which of the following will be the FIFTH

d. D
a. A
e. F
b. C
sentence after rearrangement? c. B
a. A d. D
b. C e. E
Jumbled Sentence - Answers with Explanation

Page 1075 of 1079
1. The correct rearrangement is: EDBCFAG ground for a bold UK-India announcement at COP-
26 with an emphasis on a financing a framework
While Covid-19 has disrupted societies, it has also that can catalyse green growth. India co-founded
brought greater clarity for individuals and nations. the International Solar Alliance with France and the
The European Union (EU) and the United Kingdom Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure with
(UK) are two political geographies that may be the UK. These are critical legacies to be nurtured,
experiencing this and are certainly at an inflection more so since the United States (US) will continue
point. In this context, foreign secretary Harsh
to go through an existential crisis, to some degree,
Vardhan Shringla’s visit to Paris, Berlin and irrespective of what happens in early-November.
London gains salience. That he has chosen Europe
for his first Covid-19-era visit outside the a. D
neighbourhood suggests that New Delhi has sensed
the importance of this moment. b. A
At a recent event, external affairs minister, S c. E
Jaishankar, articulated why his ministry continued
to invest time and energy in the relationship with d. C
Europe. He explained Europe’s importance for
e. B
India’s most important imperatives — be it
technology and the digital domain or becoming a 3. The correct rearrangement is: ACFDBE
green economy. The region holds the promise of
long-term capital, innovation, markets and best Even as Europe invested in Chinese manufacturing
practices. zones, data from its banks, insurance and financial
firms found safe and efficient homes in India. Trust
a. E was the operative word. And this same word will
define partnerships in the Fourth Industrial
b. D
Revolution. Digital partnerships between India and
c. C EU and concurrently India and the UK are
inevitable and desirable. As they assess the
d. B extremes of the American and Chinese models, on
e. E technology norms, digital regulations and data
privacy, India and various shades of Europeans will
2. The correct rearrangement is: DAEFCBG find their positions more aligned.With the US
expected to be preoccupied till the new
Post-Covid-19, we must build back green and build administration settles in by early-summer 2021,
back better. In the past four years, the Paris New Delhi is doing well to engage with other major
Agreement has rested on European and Indian Western democracies that, like India, are
shoulders. It is time for Europe and India to shape contributors to stability in the international system.
a new global green deal. This EU+1 initiative Coming shortly after Jaishankar’s visit to Japan for
should be on Shringla’s agenda as he engages with the Quad talks and bilateral meetings, the foreign
Paris and Berlin. In London, he must create the
Page 1076 of 1079

secretary’s trip to the heart of Old Europe is an clauses and suggestions that mandate compulsory
important follow-up. data-sharing with the government. We shouldn’t be
surprised at this, considering India’s history with
a. B State entrenchments. The Industries (Development
b. E and Regulation) Act of 1951, gave the State a
number of regulatory powers to dictate the output
c. D and prices of industries. This led to suppressing
growth and innovation for decades. Almost 70
d. C
years later, the data regime is suggesting mandatory
e. A sharing of data for businesses on a fair, reasonable
and non-discriminatory(FRAND)-based
4. The correct rearrangement is: ECBADF remuneration. How will the State decide on this
remuneration? The same issues that existed with
The evolution of data governance is in a state of healthy
price controls under the industries Act are bound to
flux right now. India is simultaneously juggling
affect the data economy should we go down this
fundamental questions such as the nature and
route.
categories of data, while moving steadfastly on
building a regulatory apparatus to govern these. There a. C
have now been two versions of the Personal Data
Protection Bill, a report on non-personal data, and a b. D
variety of other proposals to regulate the digital
c. B
economy from telemedicine to e-commerce to drones.
At a macro-level though, two key problems may d. A
emerge. The first is of State overreach and the second
is of multiple regulators. India’s past experience — e. C
particularly with industrial licensing and regulation of 6. The correct rearrangement is: FAEDBCG
the financial sector — may be useful in informing the
future of data governance. Lalu Prasad or his wife Rabri Devi had been the
head of government for almost all of the previous
a. D 15 years. But there had been both major and minor
b. B hiccups along the way. The biggest was when he
was forced to quit as chief minister (CM) after a
c. C huge corruption scandal, whereupon he ran the
government via proxy from jail after installing his
d. A
homemaker-spouse in his place. The minor hiccups
e. D included brief interregnums of President’s Rule and
short, interim governments in a hung assembly. The
5. The correct rearrangement is: BDCAFEG 15 year-Lalu Prasad-era in Bihar was also reflected
in similar personalities and politics in other states,
Both the Personal Data Protection Bill as well as
especially Uttar Pradesh (UP). That period
the non-personal Data report contains various
Page 1077 of 1079
coincided arguably with the peak of caste and c. A

identity-related politics, involving the
implementation of the Mandal Commission d. B
recommendations, the violent protests thereafter, e. D
and searingly provocative anti-upper caste
campaign slogans. 8. The correct rearrangement is: CDFEBAG
a. E Much has happened in Bihar over these last 15

years. No one can deny the improvement in
b. A governance from earlier days, when kidnappings in
c. E broad daylight were considered almost a legitimate
enterprise. While the NDA in Bihar had its own
d. D hiccup several years ago, it overcame that. And
how Chirag Paswan’s Lok Janshakti Party (LJP)
e. C will fare after it has now whimsically gone solo is
7. The correct rearrangement is: DBAFCGE something to be watched. In the meantime, the
Congress has slipped precipitously, and is now little
The BJP has been growing at the national level for more than a bit player in the state. The Rashtriya
decades, and under the leadership of Narendra Janata Dal (RJD)’s Tejashwi Yadav has so far not
Modi, it has realised the long-cherished dream of been able to arouse the usual breathless adulation
becoming the largest party in India. In the process, of Lutyens’ Delhi’s Left liberal media for anyone
it also undid the seemingly unassailable norm of with even a long shot at taking up cudgels against
three decades, that of coalition governments in the BJP. That could be because their frothy
Delhi. This is no small matter, and many will recall reportage, supporting a series of such contenders
the conventional wisdom till recently that India around the nation as the next big thing, has
would not see a single-party majority again in the repeatedly fallen flat.
forseeable future.
The roots of this national transition, as well as in a. B
several state elections, relate to changing b. D
demographics, unfettered information, and an
increasingly confident and aspirational India. c. B
Added to this is the astronomical popularity of the
PM, who connects to this new India like no one d. A
else. The effects of these were seen in both the past e. C
two general elections, where previously rock-solid
vote-banks based on identity could not hold. 9. The correct rearrangement is: AECBFDHG
a. C The world has already experienced three

coronavirus attacks in the 21st century, beginning
b. A with Sars in 2002, Mers in 2016 and now Covid-19.
Page 1078 of 1079

While the first two have been far less infectious but India-Nepal ties are back in the spotlight with the
more lethal with fatality rates of 10% and 34% visit of the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW)
respectively, the Sars-CoV-2 has proved more chief, Samant Goel, to Kathmandu last week. Mr
infectious, but much less lethal with a case fatality Goel met the Nepali Prime Minister, KP Sharma
rate (CFR) of 3%. As per the World Health Oli, who has espoused belligerent anti-Indian
Organization organogram, there is a considerable nationalism for domestic political ends. His visit
disparity both in infection numbers and death rates has drawn up the predictable response in Nepal —
among nations with the highest fatality rates of Indian interference in internal affairs — and has
recorded in Europe and the Americas, and the least also led to criticism of Mr Oli, who is being accused
in Africa and the Indian subcontinent. by his critics of now softening up to India. Two
India has done exceptionally well by keeping CFR things are noteworthy here. One, R&AW has had a
at 1.54%. What is even more remarkable is the substantial role in the neighbourhood in general and
observed heterogeneity in disease presentation with Nepal in particular. It not only ensures that the
most infected people remaining asymptomatic or Indian system is on top of information and
presenting with mild symptoms. Among those who changing dynamics, but has been an instrument for
require hospitalization, only a small percentage action — as is the role of any intelligence agency.
develop critical symptoms and lose the battle. Nepal’s politicians criticise it publicly, while
seeking to cosy up to it privately. The visit and Mr
a. A Oli’s willingness to meet Mr Goel confirms this.
b. E a. B
c. B b. D
d. D c. A
e. D d. D
10. The correct rearrangement is: EFADCB e. B
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S.No Topic No. of Questions Pages

17 Order and Ranking Puzzle 50 263

S.No Topic No. of Questions Pages

S.No Topic No. of Questions Pages

Circle Seating Arrangement

D.L-R E. None of these

T is an immediate neighbour of S. W is not an immediate D.M – T

D.V C. The one who sits immediate right of F.

Circle Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

N sits second to the left of H.

R sits third to the left of K.

L sits on the immediate right of M.

T sits second to the left of S but T is not an immediate

Case 1 will be dropped because H and S are not immediate

A sits third right of G.

At least two persons are sitting between W and M.

Q sits third to the left of E.

S sits fourth to the right of V, who is not an immediate

3. X stands second to the left of the one who is fourth

3. P stands to the immediate left of the persons who is

1. P sits fourth to the left of the one, who sits to the

3. Q sits adjacent to Y. 38.Answer: B

Two persons are sitting between R and Y.

6. Only one person sits between T and S.

R sits immediate left of V, who is not an immediate

One person sits between Q and X who does not sit

D sits immediate left of A.

Hence, the final solution is Case-1(b).

Based on the above-given information we have:

adjacent to Govind. Again, we have:

to Kajal. doesn’t sit adjacent to Zeshan.

left of Leo. sits immediately left of Madhu.

Zeshan, case (2) is not valid. arrangement as follows:

Linear Seating Arrangement

c. Two e. None of these

d. T-V a. Immediate neighbor of F

d. U Sandhya and Priya. Sikha sits fourth from the right

d. Riti sit to the left of Jyoti d. V

Linear Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

vii. Surbhe sits to the left of Rubi but right of Soni

vi. Neither Rube nor Soni sit at the end.

Parallel Rows Seating Arrangement

between adjacent persons. In row-1 T, U, V, W, X and Y C.U

C.J Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member

19) E is related to W in the same way, F is related to Y. C.R

E.R C. The one who sits immediate right of Q

right of V. Either V or U sits at one extreme end. O sits B.V

Parallel Rows Seating Arrangement – Answer and Explanation

W sits second to the right of X.

Direction (11-15): Direction (16-20):

11. Answer: C 16. Answer: C

12. Answer: B 17. Answer: B

13. Answer: A 18. Answer: A

14. Answer: B 19. Answer: B

15. Answer: A 20. Answer: A

U sits third to the right of Z. Step-1

Either U or Z sits at extreme ends. U sits third to the right of X.

Three persons sit between Z and Y. Due to this case-2

P sits immediate left of N

F sits third from one of the ends.

From the above condition, case1 shows the final

Only two persons are sitting between F and K who sits

X sits behind Z who sits at the corner of the Row.