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Click Here For SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 - Bundle PDF Course Reasoning Day 1
Memory Based Paper – Reasoning Ability
IBPS PO MAINS Held on 4 th Feb 2021
SBI PO MAINS Held on 29th Jan 2021
IBPS RRB Officer Scale 1 Mains held on Jan 30th 2021
Detailed Question Analysis with our Mock Test:
IBPS PO Mains Held on February 4th 2021:
1) Data Sufficiency (2 statements based- Coding decoding, coded blood relation) - RRB PO Mains Set 5 – Q ( 25-
26), RRB PO Mains Set -6-Q (31-35), RRB PO M ains Set 9- Q (30-32), SBI PO Mains Set-2 Q (32-34), IBPS PO
M ains Set -2- Q(37-39)
2) Coded direction (bracket type) - covered - SBI PO Mains Set 6- Q (25-26), SBI PO Mains Set 7-Q (37-39),
3) Month with date based puzzle - covered - RRB PO Mains Set -3 Q (18-21)- Also in our express v ideo course -
Puzzle→ video 28 ( High level puzzle and seating arrangement)
4) Concentric square based seating - covered - RRB PO M ains Set -6 -Q (34-38), IBPS PO Mains Set 4- Q (25-26)
5) Input output- word and number mixed - covered - Express video course Reasoning Miscellaneous topics Mains),
Input output→ video no-5
6) Floor puzzle with two variable (7 floors) - covered - Express vi deo c ourse ( High l eve l p uzzle a n d se ating
arrangement) –Puzzle → video-19
7) Parallel row based (houses)-single variable - covered - SBI PO Mains Set 6- Q (41-44)
8) Selection based puzzle with conditions – Not covered –Given in m emory based PDF
SBI PO Mains Held on January 29th - 2021:
1) Box based puzzle (Eight boxes) – covered -RRB PO Mains Set 2- 2020 - Q (18-22),
2
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2) Parallel row based seating-– covered -SBI PO Mains set- 8 Q(41-43) dice b ase d (sin gle v ariabl e), I BPS PO
M ains Set -10 Q (31-34) (two variable)
3) Circular arrangement with age (blood relation) -covered -RRB PO Mains set 7- Q (9-13)
4) Year based puzzle- reverse type -covered -SBI PO Mains Set- 2- Q (18-21- (2 variable), IBPS PO M ains S et 8 -
Q (31-34)
5) Matrix and string based puzzle- covered -SBI PO M ains Set-5- Q (18-20)
6) Input output (word and number mixed) - covered -Express video course 2020 - Reasoning Miscellaneous topics
M ains, Input output→ video no-5
7) Coded Direction sense (bracket type) - covered -RRB PO Mains Set-3 Q(6-8),
8) Reverse syllogism – c overed - Express vi deo c ourse 2 0 20 - R easoning M iscella neous t opics M a ins,
Syllogism→video 3
9) Stair case based puzzle—Not covered (given in M emory based Paper)
RRB PO M ains Held on January 30th 2021:
1) Year based puzzle with two variable (fruit) - covered - RRB PO M ains Set 5- Q(1-5)
2) Unknown linear seating - covered -IBPS PO Mains Set-7-Q (41-42), IBPS PO Mains Set- 6- Q (40-41)
3) Box based puzzle (two variable) - covered –Bundle PDF course day-45
4) Circular seating with age - covered -RRB PO M ains Set-9-Q (25-29),
5) Day based puzzle-1 mark - covered -RRB PO Mains Set- 4- Q (20), SBI PO M ains Set-1- Q (35)
6) Blood relation (paragraph based) - covered - IBPS PO Mains Set 10- Q (14-16)
7) Data Sufficiency (2 statement based) - Covered - RRB PO Mains Set 5 – Q (25-26), RRB PO M ains S et - 6-Q
(31-35), RRB PO Mains Set 9- Q (30-32).
3

IBPS PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 4 th Feb 2021
Direction (1-5): Answer the questions b ased o n Based on their working e xperience a fo re ign
the information given below. Not C overed ( Will company XYZ g ives th e p r oject with c ertain
cover this model in upcoming mains mock test) conditions:
Six persons joined the ABC organization in 1. The project is given to those people
2017. All are joined on different dates of either having experience minimum of 3 years
the same or different month. Each of them after joining the ABC Organization
already has some working experience. One of (Calculate their experience on the
them joins on 18th July. following date 31st august 2020).
Less than two persons joined before E who has 2. The project is given to the persons who
an experience in even number. The number of joins the organization at first according to
persons joined before E is same as after the the month.
one whose experience is 13 years. B who does 3. If two persons join in the same month
not have experience in prime number, joined then give priority to the one who joins the
before the one whose experience is 16 years organization first according to date.
but after the one whose experience is 5 and 9 1) Which among the following is the order of the
years. The one whose experience is 5 years people who get the project?
joins before the one whose experience is 9 a) CEABF
years who joins on 24 th May. D has an b) BFACE
experience twice that of E’s Experience. The c) FCEBA
number of persons joins between the one d) FECBA
whose experience is 5 years and B is the same e) None of these
as between the one whose experience is 9
years and D who joins in the organization on 2) If the project is given according to th e o nly
27th September. A joins after C but before F. date of joining o f the p e ople th en h ow m a ny
The one who joins on 26th July joined before D persons remain unchanged in their positions?
but after B. The one whose experience is 10 a) None
years joined after the one who joined the b) 3
organization on 12th January which is not the c) 2
joining date of E. B does not join on 15 th d) 1
January. e) 4
4

3) Who among the following has maximum A%B means A is the husband of B
working experience as before the joining of this Along with the given two statements, three
organization? statements are given you have to decide whether
a) A the data provided along with the three
b) B statements are sufficient to answer the question.
c) C The statements given below can be u sed a long
d) E with the above tw o s tatements b ut c a nnot b e
e) None of these combined together. The statem ents a bove a r e
combined.
4) How many persons joined after F? 6) Statement I: T#R&Q&U, S?E!P,
a) 1 Statement II: V!U, T%I?A, S!Q
b) 2 How is P related to R?
c) 3 i: S?G%E, A!D#W
d) 4 ii: S?G%E, G&P
e) None of these iii: T#R%S,S?E!P
a) Only ii
5) If the company appointed a CEO who has an b) Only i
experience minimum of 10 years, then who will c) Either only i or only ii
be the CEO? d) Either only i or only iii
a) B e) Only iii
b) D
c) E 7) Statement I: M%R!D; V#D; V%H&U; M&I
d) Either a or b Statement II: I%Y!W
e) Either B or C What is K related to R?
I: Y?S%A
Direction ( 6 -7) : E ach o f th e q uestions b elow II: Y!Z#I, D%K
consists of a question and two statements III: K&V%H, K?P
numbered I and II g i ven b elow i t. ( Covered i n a) Only II
most number of Mains mock test) b) Only I
A#B means B is the father of A c) Either only I or only II
A?B means A is the daughter of B d) Either only II or only III
A&B means B is the son of A e) Only III
A!B means A is the mother of B
5

Direction (8-12): Study the given information and d) All I, II and III
answer the following questions. - Covered - IBPS e) None of these
PO Mains Set 4- Q (25-26), RRB PO Mains Set -
6 -Q (34-38), 9) How many persons sit between the o ne w ho
Eight persons sit around a square table such that faces K and Y when counted from the left of Y?
four of them sit at the middle of each side and a) Two
four of them sit at the corners. All of them face b) Three
outside. A boundary is made around the table c) One
with 6 inches gap between the table and a d) None
boundary around each side of the table. Four of e) Four
the persons sitting in the middle of the boundary
and four sit at the corner of the boundary. All the 10) What is the position of O with respect to th e
persons sitting around the boundary face inside. person who faces F?
Two persons sit between B and the one who a) Immediate right
faces Q. B faces inside. S sits immediate right of b) Second to the left
the one who faces B. Three persons sit between c) Immediate left
the one who sits immediate right of the one who d) Third to the right
faces S and V. E faces D who sits second to the e) None of these
left of V. E sits at the corner of the table and
adjacent to K. T sits third to the left of the one 11) Which of the following statement is true?
who faces K. Y sits on the boundary but not a) Three persons were sitting between F and W
adjacent to T. The person who faces L sits b) R sits immediate left of V
second to the right of Q. W faces R who sits c) S faces T
second to the left of O. One person sits between d) B sits immediate right of Y
F and E. F does not face V. G does not face T. e) None of these
C sits second to the left of G.
8) Which of the following statement is not true? 12) If Q is related to O, in the same manner, K i s
I. W sits at the inner table related to R then how is S related to?
II. V faces C a) F
III. K sits third to the right of G. b) D
a) Both I and II c) R
b) Both I and III d) Y
c) Only II e) None of these
6

Direction (13): Study th e following i nform ation alphabetical series was born in th e s econd h alf
carefully and answer the below questions - of the year i.e. June to December.
covered - SBI PO Mains Set 6 - Q ( 2 5 -26), SBI The person whose name has an even number o f
PO Mains Set 7-Q (37-39), letters was born in the month which h as a n o dd
A%B (10) →A is 25m North of B number of days and the person whose name has
A#B (12) → A is 27m South of B an odd number of letters was born in th e m onth
A@B (45) → A is 30mWest of B which has an even number of days.
A&B (18)→A is 3m East of B Four persons were born between Hina and Pearl.
Note: A#@B means A is southwest of B Two persons were born between Pearl and
R%@Q, Q&P(25), P%V(5), V@G(43), W#R(29), Vidhya. Deepak and Babita were born in the
W@T(38), T#G same month. The number of persons born
between Deepak and Pearl is the same as the
13) Which of the following statement is true? number of persons born between Vidhya and
a) W%@V Jignesh. The number of persons born before
b) R%&T Faizal is one more than the number of persons
c) T#P born after Teesta. Teesta was born immediately
d) Q#@G after Sampark. The number of persons between
e) G%T Pearl and Kiran is the same as the number of
persons between Teesta and Om. Raavanya
Direction (14-18): Study th e g iven i nform ation was born on an odd-numbered date.
and answer the following qu estions. C overed - 14) Who among the following was born in
Express video course - H igh l evel P uzzle a nd October?
seating arrangement– Puzzle → v ideo - M o n th I. Teesta
with date single variable II. Vidhya
Twelve persons were born in six months i.e. III. Sampark
January, March, June, August, September and a) Both I and III
October on two different dates i.e. 3 and 18 in b) Both I and II
the same year. c) Only I
The Persons w hose n ame s tarts with a l etter d) All I, II and III
which comes before ' M ' i n a lphabetical s e ries e) None of these
was born in th e firs t h alf o f th e y ear i .e. fr om
January to June. The person whose name starts 15) Which of the following is correctly matched?
with a letter which comes after 'M' in the a) October-3-Vidya
7

b) June-3- Raavanya e) None of these

c) September 18-Pearl
d) January-18-Deepak Direction (19-23): Numbers and words
e) March-3-Hina arrangement machine when given a n i nput line
of numbers and words rearranges them following
16) Number of persons w ho w ere b orn b e fore a particular rule in each step. The following is a n
Jignesh is two more than the number of persons illustration of input and rearrangement. - Covered
who were born after _____? - Express video course Reasoning
a) The one who was born on 3 March Miscellaneous topics M ains → Input o utput→
b) The one who was born on 3 June video no-5
c) The one who was born two persons before Input: Jailer 58 Abide 93 64 Fabric 19 Eighth
Teesta Hanged 35 86 Maiden
d) The one who was born immediately after Pearl Step I: ebida 92 Jailer 58 64 Fabric 19 Eighth
e) None of these Hanged 35 86 Maiden
Step II: highte 87 ebida 92 Jailer 58 64 Fabric 19
17) Which of the following is true? Hanged 35 Maiden
a) Three persons were born between Sampark Step III: ricfab 65 highte 87 ebida 92 Jailer 58 19
and Kiran Hanged 35 Maiden
b) Pearl was born on 3 September Step IV: gedhan 59 ricfab 65 highte 87 ebida 92
c) Jignesh was born immediately after Hina Jailer 19 35 Maiden
d) Babita was born on January Step V: lerjai 34 gedhan 59 ricfab 65 highte 87
e) All are correct ebida 92 19 Maiden
Step VI: denmai 18 lerjai 34 gedhan 59 ricfab 65
18) Who among th e following was b o rn a fter highte 87 ebida 92
Faizal? Step VI is the last step.
I. The one who was born immediately before Input: Unity 38 79 centre 62 invert 29 m ental 3 4
Deepak wakeup 69 outfit
II. The one who was born on 3 January 19) What is the difference between the fifth
III. Pearl element fr om the r i ght e nd i n s tep V a nd th e
a) Only II second number from the left end in step VI?
b) Both I and III a) 36
c) Only III b) 33
d) Both II and III c) 32
8

d) 45 e) trecen
e) None of the above
Direction (24-28): Study the following information
20) What is the position of “trecen” in step III? carefully and answer the below questions -
a) Second from the left end covered - E x press v ideo c our se - H i gh l evel
b) Eighth from the right end puzzle and seating arrangement –Puzzle →
c) Second from the right end video -Floor puzzle with two variable
d) Fourth from the left end Seven persons i.e. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are
e) None of the above living in a seven storey building with seven
different floors such that the ground floor is
21) How many words end with the v owel i n the numbered as 1, the floor just above the ground
last step? floor is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost
a) One floor is numbered as 7. They all go to different
b) Two countries i.e. Italy, China, London, Sri Lanka,
c) Four Austria, India and Japan. All the information is
d)Three not necessarily in the same order.
e) None of the above M neither goes to Sri Lanka nor lives just above
O’s floor. P lives below R. N goes to London and
22) How many elements are there between “ 6 8” lives on floor number 3. Three persons live
and “tutfio” in Step IV? between the one who goes to India and the one
a) One who goes to China. S is from Italy and lives on a
b) Three floor adjacent to Q’s floor. The one who goes to
c) Four India lives on an even-numbered floor. Two
d) None persons live between the floors on which the
e) Two person who goes to Japan and the person who
goes to Sri Lanka live. Q neither goes to Japan
23) Which among the following elements is third nor goes to Sri Lanka. O is from Japan and lives
to the right of the fourth element from the left end above the one who goes to China. O doesn’t live
in step V? on the topmost floor. The person who goes to
a) 63 London lives on a floor below the person who
b) tnveri goes to Sri Lanka and Japan. Q doesn’t live
c) ynitu adjacent to the one who belongs to Sri Lanka
d) 35 and Japan.
9

24) Which among the fo l lowing s tatem ents i s d) The one who lives just above the one who
true? goes to Japan
a) Three persons live between the one who goes e) None of the above
to Austria and Q
b) R lives on an even-numbered floor 28) Which among the following statement i s n ot
c) S lives just below the one who lives just below true?
N’s floor a) The one who goes to India lives on the 5 th
d) The one who goes to Japan lives above R floor
e) All are true b) O lives on an even-numbered floor
c) The one who goes to London lives on an odd-
25) Four of the following five are alike in a certain numbered floor
way and thus form a g r oup. W hich a m ong the d) No one lives above R
following doesn’t belong to the group? e) The one who goes to Italy lives on the
a) P- Sri Lanka bottommost floor
b) O- India
c) N-Austria Direction (29-33): Study the following information
d) Q-Japan carefully and answer the below q uestions – N ot
e) M- India covered (will give in 2021 mock test)
Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
26) Who amongst the following lives on a n o dd - working in three different departments which are
numbered floor? Production, Management and Finance at
a) The one who goes to India different posts i.e. manager and general
b) O manager. In the finance department, only a
c) The one who goes to Italy. manager post is available. They all have different
d) Q ages. The age of the one who is a general
e) None of the above manager is an odd number and the age of the
person who is a manager is an even number.
27) Who among the following lives o n th e floor The age of each person is less than 90 years.
5 th ? The age of all of them is in a whole number. All
a) The one who goes to Italy the information is not necessarily in the same
b) R order. Minimum one person and maximum of two
c) The one who goes to Japan persons are at each post of the given
department.
10

Note: If it is given that the person who is a e) F

general manager or manager works with A or the
one whose age is 65 then it indicates th at b oth 31) Which a m ong the fo llowing s tatem ent i s
the person works in the same department but not true?
necessarily at the same post. a) The one who is 24-year-old works in finance
A is a general manager and works with E. B is 31 department
years old and doesn’t work with A. The one b) A works in management department
whose age is 60 years old works with C. G is 53 c) G is a manager
years old and works with A. C neither works in d) Both (a) and (e)
management department nor works in production e) Sum of A and C age is less than 52
department. The age of D is equal to the sum of
the ages of B and G. The one who works with D 32) What is the sum of the ages o f th e p ersons
is 2 years older than A. F's age is less than H. who work in management department?
The difference between the ages of D and F is a) 120
48. F doesn’t work in management department. F b) 221
and D works in different departments. E’s age is c) 117
twice of C’s age. The difference between the d) 115
ages of C and H is 36. A’s age is less than 50. e) None of the above
29) Who among the following works in the
production department? 33) How many persons age is more than H?
a) The one who is 29 years old a) Four
b) The one who works with H b) One
c) The one who works with F at the same post c) Six
d) B d) Two
e) Both (a) and (c) e) Three
30) Four of the following five are alike in a certain Direction (34-36): Each of the q u estions b elow
way and thus form a g r oup. W hich a m ong the consists of a question and two statements
following doesn’t belong to the group? numbered I and II g i ven b elow i t. ( Covered i n
a) A maximum number of mocks).
b) G Statement1: In the code language 'first friend
c) B meet him' is coded as ' fg ty ki ad', 'hello can we
d) E
11

meet' is coded as 'gh jk ki cx'. 'also refer him 35) What is the code of ''true leader c an'' i n th e
friend' is coded as 'lm rk ad fg' given code language?
Statement2: 'We dont meet him' is coded as 'cx I: In the code language 'leader fights back' is
db ki ad'. 'true teacher can meet' is coded as 'tu coded as 'ar zx jn'.
lo jk ki'. 'assigning we can hello' is coded as 'ae II: In the code language 'survive leader true' is
cx jk gh'. coded as 'ar tu sq'
Along with the given two statements, three III: In the code language 'purpose of leader' is
statements are given. You have to decide coded as 'pr as ar'.
whether the data provided along w ith th e thr ee a) Only II
statements are sufficient to answer the question. b) Only III
The statements given below can be u sed a long c) Either only I or only II
with the above tw o s tatements b ut c a nnot b e d) Either only II or only III
combined together. The statem ents a bove a r e e) None of these
combined. 36) What is the code of ''right friend tr ue'' i n th e
34) What is th e c ode o f ' 'fir st m e e t a s signing given code language?
leader'' in the given code language? I: In the code language 'true friend right' is coded
I: In the code language 'leader faith can meet' is as 'tu fg ko'.
coded as 'ar ft jk ki'. II: In the code language 'leader friend teacher' is
II: In the code language 'language leader can coded as 'ar fg lo '
use' is coded as 'hj ar jk vc' III: In the code language 'true him right' is coded
III: In the code language 'leader can meet' is as 'tu ad ko'.
coded as 'ar jk ki'. a) Either only I or only III
a) Only III b) Only III
b) Only I c) Either only II or only III
c) Either only I or only II d) Either only I or only II
d) Either only I or only III e) None of these
e) Only II
12

Answer with Detail Explanation
Direction (1-5): • B who does not have experience in

Final Arrangement: prime number, joined before the one
whose experience is 16 years but after
the one whose experience is 5 and 9
years.
• The one whose experience is 5 years
joins before the one whose experience is
9 years who joins on 24th May.
• Less than two persons joined before E who

has an experience in even number.
• The number of persons joined before E is
same as after the one whose experience is 13
• The number of persons joins between
years.
the one whose experience is 5 years and
B is the same as between the one whose
experience is 9 years and D who joins in
the organization on 27th September.
• D has an experience twice that of E’s
Experience.
13

• A joins after C but before F.

Conditions:
• The one who joins on 26 th July joined
The project is given to those people having
before D but after B. Hence Case-2 gets
eliminated experience minimum of 3 years after joining the
ABC organization (Calculate their experience
on the following date 31st august 2020).
• Other than D, all persons getting the
project (since D joined in September s o
working experience can’t be 3 years)
The project is given to the persons who joins
the organization at first according to the
month.
• By comparing months the following
sequence is obtained.
• The one whose experience is 10 years C/E A B/F
joined after the one who joined the If two persons join in the same month then give
organization on 12th January which is not priority to the one who joins the organization
the joining date of E. first according to date.
• B does not join on 15th January. • By comparing Date and month the
following sequence is obtained.
CEABF
1) Answer: A
2) Answer: B
14

3) Answer: E
4) Answer: A
5) Answer: D
Direction (6-7):
6) Answer: A
From statement I and statement II and ii we get;
K is the daughter-in-law of R.
Direction (8-12):
Final Arrangement:
So, P is the brother in law of R.
7) Answer: D
From statements I and II and with ii we get:
Explanation:
Sol. From the given statements,
• Two persons sit between B and the one
who faces Q. B faces inside. S sits
immediate right of the one who faces B.
• Three persons sit between the one who
sits immediate right of the one who faces
K is the daughter-in-law of R
S and V. so we have four possible cases
from statements I and II and iii we get:
i.e. case-1, case-2, case-3 and case-4;
15

• The person who faces L sits second to the

right of Q. W faces R who sits second to
the left of O. so case-4 is eliminated.
• One person sits between F and E. F does
not face V. G does not face T. C sits
second to the left of G.
So final arrangement is
• E faces D who sits second to the left of V.

E sits at the corner of the table and
adjacent to K. So, case-1 and case-3 is
eliminated.
• T sits third to the left of the one who faces
K. Y sits on the boundary but not adjacent
to T.
8) Answer: C
9) Answer: C
10) Answer: C
11) Answer: E
12) Answer: D
16

13) Answer: E • Vidhya and Pearl were born after June

because the name starts with V and P.
Hina was born before June as the name
starts with 'H'.
Direction (14-18):
Final Arrangement:
• Deepak and Babita were born in the same

month. The number of persons born
between Deepak and Pearl is the same as
the number of persons born between
Vidhya and Jignesh.
• Four persons were born between Hina

and Pearl. Two persons were born
between Pearl and Vidhya.
17

• The number of persons born before Faizal 14) Answer: B

is one more than the number of persons 15) Answer: D
born after Teesta. 16) Answer: D
• Teesta was born immediately after 17) Answer: E
Sampark. The number of persons 18) Answer: C
between Pearl and Kiran is the same as
the number of persons between Teesta Direction (19-23):
and Om. Logic:
• Raavanya was born on an odd-numbered Words: Words are arranged in alphabetical order
date. from left to right.
If the word starts with a vowel: the first and l ast
letters of the word are interchanged.
If the word starts with a consonant: the position
of the first three letters and the position of the
last three letters are interchanged.
Numbers: Numbers are arranged in descending
order from left to right
If the number is even: add 1 to the number
If the number is odd: subtract 1 from the number
18

Input: Unity 38 79 centre 62 invert 29 mental 3 4 • N goes to London and lives on floor
wakeup 69 outfit number 3. Three persons live between
Step I: trecen 78 Unity 38 62 invert 29 mental 34 the one who goes to India and the one
wakeup 69 outfit who goes to China.
Step II: tnveri 68 trecen 78 Unity 38 62 29 mental • The one who goes to India lives on an
34 wakeup outfit even-numbered floor. So, here we have
Step III: talmen 63 tnveri 68 trecen 78 Unity 38 two possible cases i.e. case1 and case 2.
29 34 wakeup outfit • Two persons live between the floors on
Step IV: tutfio 39 talmen 63 tnveri 68 trecen 78 which the person who goes to Japan and
Unity 29 34 wakeup the person who goes to Sri Lanka live.
Step V: ynitu 35 tutfio 39 talmen 63 tnveri 68 • The person who goes to London lives on
trecen 78 29 wakeup a floor below the person who goes to Sri
Step VI: eupwak 28 ynitu 35 tutfio 39 talmen 63 Lanka and Japan.
tnveri 68 trecen 78
19) Answer: B
20) Answer: B
21) Answer: D
22) Answer: C
23) Answer: B
Direction (24-28):
Final arrangement:
• S is from Italy and lives on the floor

adjacent to Q’s floor.
• Q neither goes to Japan nor goes to Sri
Lanka.
• Q doesn’t live adjacent to the one who
belongs to Sri Lanka and Japan.
19

25) Answer: E
26) Answer: C
27) Answer: D
28) Answer: A
Direction (29-33):
Final Arrangement:
• A is a general manager and works with E.

So, here we have four possible cases.
• O is from Japan and lives above the one
• B is 31 years old and doesn’t work with A.
who goes to China.
• The one whose age is 60 years old works
• O doesn’t live on the topmost floor. From
with C. C neither works in management
these conditions case 2 gets eliminated. department nor works in production
• M neither goes to Sri Lanka nor lives just
department.
above O’s floor. P lives below R. So the
final arrangement is:
24) Answer: C
20

• G is 53 years old and works with A. So,

case 1 and case 3 get eliminated because
Minimum one person and maximum of
two persons are at each post of the given
department and the age of the one who is
a general manager is an odd number.
29) Answer: E
• The age of D is equal to the sum of the
30) Answer: C
ages of B and G which means D is 84
31) Answer: A
years old and at manager post ( manager
32) Answer: D
age is an even number).
33) Answer: B
• The difference between the ages of D and
F is 48. F doesn’t work in management
Direction (34-36):
department. F and D works in different
From statement I and II we have the following
departments. F's age is less than H.
code;
• The one who works with D is 2 years older

than A. A’s age is less than 50. So, case 2
gets eliminated here because both G and
E works with D and E’s age can’t be an 34) Answer: A
odd number and A’s age can’t be 51. In this case, only III gives the following code;
• E’s age is twice of C’s age. The difference leader-ar; so ''first meet assigning leader'' is
between the ages of C and H is 36. And coded as-ty ki ae ar
the final arrangement is:
21

35) Answer: E true-tu, right -ko

In this case, none of the given statements can From III we get codes-
give answer. true-tu, right-ko
so ''right friend true'' is coded as-ko fg tu
36) Answer: A
In this from I we get following code-
SBI PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 29th JAN 2021

Direction (1-5): Study the following i nfor mation birth year of a person who is born adjacent to Q
carefully a nd a nswer th e b elow q uestions. - is equal to the age of the person who is born
covered - SBI PO Mains Set- 2 - Q ( 1 8- 21- ( 2 immediately after W. The age difference between
variable), IBPS PO Mains Set 8 - Q (31-34) R and the one whose age is 20 is the same as
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are between Q and the one who is born adjacent to
born in different years but not necessarily in the Q. The age difference between V and U is one
same order. The ages of each person are less than the age difference between Q and S.
calculated from the base year 2020. The numbers of persons are born between P and
Note: If it is given that A’s age is equal to the last R is the same as between S and T. The age of P
two digits of the birth year of B, then the age of A is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of
will be in any sequence. For example: If B is born the person who was born two persons before P.
in 1992, A’s age is equal to the last two digits o f All persons ages are equal to the last two digits
the birth year o f B , th en the a g e o f A m a y b e of the birth year of some other persons except V
either 29 or 92 years. None of the persons w ere and Q.
born before 1970 and after 2015. 1) What is the age of P?
W was born in 2000. Only three persons are a) 19
born between W and T. The age of T is the last b) 27
two digits of the birth year of V. The difference c) 28
between the age of V and W is five years. V is d) 07
born two persons after the one whose age is 20 e) 38
years. Q is born two persons before the one who
is born immediately after S. Only two persons 2) Who among the following p erson w as b or n
are born between S and the one whose age is 18 immediately before V?
years. The sum of the ages of W and R is one a) U
less than the age of S. The last two digits of the b) The one who was born immediately after W
22

c) Q boxes are of different colors- Red, Green, Blue,

d) T Black, White, Pink, Yellow, and Orange. All the
e) The one who was born two persons after S information is not necessarily in the same order.
Only two boxes are kept between Box H and
3) What is the sum of the ages of V, U, and T? White color box. Box G is adjacent to Box H.
a) 95 Only one box is kept between G and the yellow
b) 83 color box. The yellow box is kept on three
c) 68 shelves above the box which is kept immediately
d) 72 below Green box. The black box is kept
e) 75 immediately above Blue box. H is neither Black
color nor Blue color. The number of boxes that
4) As many persons are born befor e Q i s s a me are kept above White is the same as below Red
as after__? box. The red box has only one adjacent box. Box
a) The one who was born in 2005 A has kept immediately below the box which is
b) The one who was born in 2000 kept three shelves above Box H. The number of
c) The one who was born in 2013 the boxes is kept above A is one less than below
d) S the Orange color box. The number of boxes is
e) P kept between Pink and Blue colored box is the
same as between E and B. The box which is
5) In which o f th e following y ear d o es Q w a s kept immediately above the Pink box is adjacent
born? to Box C. The number of boxes is kept between
a) 1970 E and Green box is the same as between B and
b) 1972 White box. Box D is kept below Box F.
c) 1975 6) Which of the following box is kept three -
d) 1985 position above the Blue box?
e) 1993 a) D
b) C
Direction (6-10): Study the following infor mation c) The box which is kept immediately below E
carefully and answer the below questions – d) The box which is kept immediately above H
covered - RRB PO Mains Set 2 - 2 020 - Q ( 1 8 - e) F
22),
Eight boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are kept 7) How many boxes are kept between the
one above another on the different shelves. The Orange box and Yellow box?
23

a) Three A@B(14m)→ A is 10m north of B

b) Two A#B(15m) → A is 19m south of B
c) Four A$B(10m) → A is 7m east of B
d) Five A%B(12m) → A is 14m west of B
e) None of these @%→north-west, #$ → Southeast
Z$M#H; H@R(12); Y#Z(5);R$O(15); O@P( 13);
8) Which of the following box is kept at th e s ixth Z%N(8); N#C$H; V#X(1); L%H(4); V$P(23);
position from the bottom? X%Y(1)
a) The box which is kept immediately below B 11) What is the direction of Y with respect to H?
b) A a) @%
c) The box which is kept immediately above G b) #$
d) F c) Can’t be determined
e) Both b and c d) #%
e) @$
9) Which of the following combination is true?
a) H-Black 12) What is the direction and shortest distance of
b) A-Pink C with respect to L?
c) D-Green a) C$L(25)
d) C-White b) L%C(27)
e) B-Blue c) C$L(30)
d) C%L(27)
10) If C is related to Green, A is related to Black e) None of the above
then w hich o f th e fo llowing b ox i s r e lat ed to
White? 13) What is the shortest distance between M and
a) The box which is kept immediately below D N?
b) Box F a) 21m
c) The box which is kept two shelves above G b) 22m
d) Box B c) 20m
e) Box H d) 19m
e) 18m
Direction (11-13): Study the following information
carefully and answer the below questions - Direction (14-18): Study the following information
covered in most number of mock test carefully a nd a nswer th e b elow q uestions. -
24

covered - Express video course 2020 - b) 12

Reasoning Miscellaneous topics M ains, Input c) 15
output→ video no-5 d) 14
Numbers and words arrangement machine when e) 16
given an input line of numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The 16) What is the output of “48524”?
following is an illustration of input and a) 1
rearrangement. b) 3
Input: 53218 crew kept 32174 73628 mode form c) 5
82746 23684 very d) 2
Step I: 23684 crew 32174 form 53218 kept e) 8
73628 mode 82746 very
Step II: 11842 drew 16087 gorm 26609 lept 17) What is the sum of the numbers in Step V?
36814 node 41373 wery a) 21
Step III: 952 dsew 697 gprm 329 lfpt 544 npde b) 22
423 wfry c) 17
Step IV: 16 dsfw 22 gpsm 14 lfqt 13 npee 09 d) 18
wfsy e) 20
Step V: 5 dsfx 0 gpsn 3 lfqu 2 npef 9 wfsz
Step V is the last step. 18) How many elements are between “5 21” a nd
Input: Line 35422 Turn 87342 63926 Wake Sand “Uvrn” in step III?
48524 73842 Pure a) Eight
14) What is the position of “ 9 21” fr om the r i ght b) Seven
end in step III? c) Six
a) Second d) Five
b) Third e) Four
c) Fourth
d) Fifth Direction (19-21): In e ach g roup o f q uestions
e) Sixth below are th r ee c o nclusions followed b y fi ve
statements. You have to choose the c orr ect s et
15) Which of the following element i s fourth fr o m of statements that logically s atisfies th e g iven
the right end in step IV? conclusion. – covered - E x press v ideo c our se
a) 13
25

2020 - Reasoning Miscellaneous to pics M ains, III. Only Red is Black; Some Red is Blue; No
Syllogism→video 3 Blue is Green
19) Conclusion: IV. Only Green is Black; All Red is Green; No
I. Some SBI is IBPS Green is Blue
II. No RBI is RRB V. Some Black is Blue; No Blue is Green; Only
III. All IBPS being SBI is a possibility Green is Red.
Statement: a) Both I and II follow
I. Only a few RRB is SBI; All SBI is IBPS; Some b) Both II and IV follows
IBPS is RBI c) None Follows
II. Some RBI is RRB; All RRB is IBPS; Only a d) All Follows
few IBPS is SBI e) Both III and V follows
III. Only a few IBPS is RRB; All RRB is SBI; No
SBI is RBI 21) Conclusion:
IV. No IBPS is RBI; All SBI is RBI; Only a few I. All Mobile being Laptop is not a possibility
RRB is IBPS II. Some Speaker being Laptop is a possibility
V. Some RRB is SBI; All RRB is IBPS; No IBPS III. Some speaker are charger
is RBI Statement:
a) Both I and II follow I. Only a few mobiles is Laptop; No Laptop is
b) Both II and IV follows Charger; All Charger is Speaker
c) None Follows II. Only a few Speaker is Charger; Some Charger
d) All Follows is Mobile; All Mobile is Laptop
e) Both III and V follows III. No Speaker is Charger; All Charger is Mobile;
No Mobile is Laptop
20) Conclusion: IV. No speaker is Laptop; All Laptop is Charger;
I. Some Red is Green No Charger is Mobile
II. Some Black is not a Blue V. Some Charger is Mobile; All Mobile is Laptop;
III. All Green being Red is not a possibility No Laptop is Speaker
Statement: a) Both I and II follow
I. Some Red is Blue; All Blue is Black; No Black b) Both II and IV follows
is Green c) None Follows
II. Only a few Red is Blue; All Blue is Green; d) All Follows
Only Green is Black e) Both III and V follows
26

Direction (22-25): Study the following information c) The number of persons sitting between N and
carefully and answer the below questions. P is the same as between P and O. M sits
The question given below can be answered adjacent to O.
using one of the statements given in the option. d) N sits third to the left of the one who sits
22) Six persons- A, B, C, D, E, and F are s itting second to the right of L. Only three persons are
at the Circular table fa cing th e c entre b ut n ot sitting between L and M.
necessarily in the same order. W ho a m ong the e) None of the above.
person sits immediate right of C?
a) D sits second to the left of the one who sits 24) Six persons- I, J, K, L, M, and N are living i n
immediate right of B. Only one person sits the six storey building but not necessarily i n th e
between B and C. same order. The lowermost floor is numbered as
b) A sits second to the left of B who sits one and the topmost floor i s n umbered a s s ix.
immediate left of E. C and F are adjacent to each How many persons are living between L and M?
other. a) No one lives between N and I who lives two
c) F sits third to the right of the one who sits floors above K. The number of floors above N is
second to the left of C. Only one person sits the same as below I.
between C and A. b) M lives two floors below N who lives three
d) No one sits between C and E. Only two floors above K. J lives immediately above L who
persons are sitting between E and A. A sits lives above N.
adjacent to D. c) The number of persons who live above J is the
e) None of the above. same as below K who lives two floors below I. L
lives above M.
23) Six persons- L, M, N, O, P and Q ar e s itting d) Only three floors above between J and M. N
in the linear row facing the north but not lives below J. I live above K. Only one floor
necessarily in the same order. How many between L and I.
persons are sitting to the right of N? e) None of the above.
a) L sits second to the left of the one who sits
immediate right of P. Only two persons are sitting 25) Six persons- P, Q, R, S, T, and U are born in
between Q and N. different months- January, April, May, June, July,
b) The number of persons sits to the left of N is and November in the same year but not
the same as to the right of M who sits immediate necessarily in the same order. How many
right of O. persons are born before P?
27

a) The one who is born two persons before P is immediate left of the one who has 15 chocolates.
born immediately before S. Only two persons are X sits second to the right of the one who sits
born between S and T. adjacent to the person having 11 chocolates. P
b) Q is born three months before S. The number and X are sitting diagonally opposite to each
of persons born between Q and S is the same as other. P has only one neighbor who has 10
between R and T who was born after P. chocolates. The number of persons is sitting
c) The number of persons born before P is the between R and X is the same as between the
same as after U who is born two persons before one who has 22 chocolates and the one who has
R. 4 chocolates. The one who has 22 chocolates
d) P is born in a month having an odd number of sits immediate right of T. T does not sit adjacent
days, two persons before T. Only two persons to S. O sits opposite to the one who sits
are born between T and S who is born before P. immediate left of Z who sits third to the right of R.
e) None of the above. S sits adjacent to O. W sits immediate left of Q
who has an odd number of chocolates. Y has 6
Direction (26-30): Study the following information chocolates, does not sit at end of the row. S has
carefully and answer the below questions -– the chocolates twice that of V who has an even
covered - SBI PO Mains s e t- 8 Q( 4 1-43) d ice number of chocolates. Z has one chocolate more
based (single variable), IBPS PO Mains S e t - 1 0 than S. The difference between the number of
Q (31-34) (two variable) chocolates of P and T is equal to the number of
Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, chocolates of O. W has ten chocolates more
and Z are sitting in two parallel rows. Each row than Z and two chocolates less than R. None of
contains six persons are facing each other. The them has the same number of chocolates. X has
persons who are sitting in row1 faces south and the prime number of chocolates more than U but
those who are sitting in row 2 facing north but not less than R.
necessarily in the same order. They are having a Conditions:
different number of chocolates. They are playing the dice game. Two persons
Note: The persons who are sitting in row -1 are rolling the dice at the same time.
having an even number of chocolates and those I) If two persons are getting an even number,
who are sitting in row-2 having an odd number of then their chocolate will be added to the person
chocolates. who sits second to the left of them.
Only three persons are sitting between R and the II) If two persons are getting an odd number,
one who has 15 chocolates who sits to the right then their chocolates will be subtracted from the
of R. S sits opposite to the one who sits person who sits immediate right from them
28

III) If one person gets an even number and

another one gets an odd number then their 29) If the persons who are s itting s econd fr om
chocolates will be twice. the left end of each row are rolling the dice, b o th
26) The person who sits second to the right o f Q are getting an odd number, then what is the
and third to the left of O are rolling the dice, On e difference between chocolate of the person w ho
of them gets number 5 and another one gets th e sits immediate right of each of them?
number which is equal to the number of a) 7
chocolate of V. Then how many chocolates does b) 6
the person have who sits third to the left of O? c) 8
a) 30 d) 9
b) 10 e) 5
c) 8
d) 22 30) Who among the following person sits second
e) 24 to the right of the one who s its o pposite to the
person who has twice of the chocolates of Y?
27) If the persons w ho a re s itting in th e r ight a) The one who sits immediate left of W
corner of each row are rolling the dice, they g e t b) The one who has 19 chocolates
an even number. Then w hat i s the s u m o f th e c) The one who has 17 chocolates
chocolate of the persons who sits second to th e d) The one who has 15 chocolates
left of each of them? e) The one who sits second to the right of R
a) 80
b) 60 Direction (31-35): Study the following information
c) 75 carefully and answer the below q uestions Not
d) 65 covered (will give in upcoming test)
e) 70 Ten persons- Aahana, Tejas, Sophia, Omar,
Indhu, Elena, Ruby, Balan, Pravin, and Fazil are
28) What is the sum of the chocolate of O, S , Q, standing in two staircases viz., Staircase-1 and
and W? Staircase-2. Each staircase has five steps viz.,
a) 55 the lowermost step is numbered as one and the
b) 32 topmost step is numbered as five. Staircase-1 is
c) 50 to the west of Staircase-2. All the information is
d) 35 not necessarily in the same order.
e) 40
29

Note: If th e p erson's n a me i s s tarting w ith a 33) Who among the following person s tands o n
vowel, th ey a r e s tanding a t a n e ven n um ber the same step as Pravin?
position and if the person’s name count is e ven, a) Tejas
they are standing at an odd number staircase. b) The one who stands immediately above Indhu
Pravin is standing above the step of the one who c) The one who stand three steps above Aahana
stands immediately below Fazil. Only one person d) The one who stands two steps below Balan
stands between the one who stands immediately e) Sophia
above Indhu and immediately above Elena. The
number of steps above Fazil is the same as 34) Four of the following a r e alike i n a c e rtain
below Sophia. The number of persons standing way. Which of the following one does not belong
between Indhu and Ruby is the same as to the group?
between Sophia and Elena. Balan stands above a) Fazil
the one who stands immediately below Elena. b) The one who stands east of Aahana
Aahana does not stand below the one who c) The one who stands north of Balan
stands immediately above Balan. d) The one who stands south of Omar
31) How many persons are standing above e) Tejas
Balan?
a) Four 35) Which of the following statement is/are true?
b) Six I. Indhu and Elena stands at the different
c) Eight staircase
d) Two II. Tejas stands one of the steps above Pravin
e) None III. Omar stands below Ruby
a) Both I and III
32) Who a mong th e following p erson s tands b) Only III
immediately below Elena? c) Both I and II
a) Fazil d) Only II
b) The one who stands on the same step as e) All I, II, and III
Pravin
c) The one who stands on the same step as Direction (36-39): Study the following information
Sophia carefully and answer the below questions-
d) Balan covered - SBI PO Mains Set-5- Q (18-20)
e) Ruby There is a 5x5 matrix which can help to measure
the weight of the person using the different color
30

of cards. The row of the matrix is denoted by 1 to B) If the odd number is followed by a square
5 from top to bottom then the column of the value then subtract both the numbers(ignore
matrix is denoted as @, #, $, & and? , from left to negativity)
right. C) If Even number is followed by square value
Row 1 contains numbers that are consecutive then add both the number
prime numbers Starting from “7”. D) If an odd number(except 3) is followed by a
Row 2 contains numbers which are consecutive cube value then multiply both the numbers unit
cube value starting from “1” digit.
Row 3 contains a number which is consecutive E) If an even number is followed by cube value
multiple values of 12 starting from 24. then all the digits within the number to be added
Row 4 contains numbers which are consecutive then add both the numbers.
square value starting from the square of “4” 36) What is the outcome of the following string?
Row 5 contains a number which is consecutive 3#1&4?
multiple values of 11 starting from 33. a)64
The matrix helps in producing signals which is a b) 61
string of numbers. There are five different color c) 60
cards. Based on the outcome of the string the d) 63
color card will be come out. e) None of these
Condition:
I)If the weight of the person is below 30, the red 37) Which of the following color c ard w ill b e a n
card is come out from the machine outcome of the following string?
II) If the weight of the person is 31-60, the blue 3&4#2?
card is come out from the machine a) White
III) If the weight of the person is 61-90, the green b) Red
card is come out from the machine c) Blue
IV) If the weight of the person is More than 91, d) Green
the White card is come out from the machine e) None of these
For Outcome of the String:
A) If the even number is followed by Prime 38) If the Blue color is an outcome of th e s tring,
number then multiply both tenth places of then fill the following condition?
number. 2#4$ __
a) 1@
b) 5&
31

c) 1# adjacent to A’s spouse. A’s age is twice that of

d) 4@ E’s age. C’s spouse's age is 29. There are 10
e) None of these years age difference between C and B. No one's
age is more than fifty.
39) What will be the resultant of the sum o f b oth 40) What is the age of D’s spouse (in years)?
the strings? a) 35
I. 1@2$2# b) 29
II. 3@1$2? c) 20
a) 82 d) 40
b) 52 e) None of the above
c) 55
d) 58 41) Who among the following person sits
e) None of these opposite to B?
a) A
Direction (40-44): Study the following information b) The one who sits immediate left of D
carefully and answer the below questions c) D’s spouse
covered - RRB PO Mains set 7- Q (9-13) d) The one whose age is 40
Three married couples- A, B, C, D, E, and F are e) The one who sits second to the right of A
sitting at the circular table facing the centre but
not necessarily in the same order. They are of 42) What is the sum of the age of D and A’s
different age persons. The couples are not sitting spouse?
together. a) 65
D sits second to the left of the one who sits b) 61
opposite to a person whose age is 40. Only one c) 70
person sits between D and the one whose age is d) 73
32. E sits immediate right of the one who is the e) 75
wife of A. E is a female member who sits
opposite to the one who sits second to the left of 43) Four of the following a r e alike i n a c e rtain
the one whose age is 32. F sits immediate right way. Which of the following one does not belong
of the one who sits second to the right of A. The to the group?
husband’s age is more than the wife’s age. F is a) C
not a spouse of C. There is five years age b) A
difference between B and B’s wife. C does not sit c) The one who sits immediate right of C
32

d) The one who sits second to the right of B III. Only one person sits between D and F w hen
e) The one who sits immediate left of D counted to the right of D.
a) Both I and III
44) Which of the following statement is/are true? b) Only III
I. A’s age is 40 c) Both I and II
II. B is the spouse of E d) Only II
e) All I, II, and III
Direction (1-5): From the above condition, there are two

Final arrangement possibilities.
Common Explanation
We have,
Again we have,
• W was born in 2000.
• Q is born two persons before the one who
• Only three persons are born between W
is born immediately after S.
and T.
• Only two persons are born between S and
• The age of T is the last two digits of the
the one whose age is 18 years old.
birth year of V.
• The sum of the age of W and R is one
• The difference between the age of V and
less than the age of S.
W is five years.
• The last two digits of the birth year of a
• V is born two persons after the one whose
person who is born adjacent to Q is equal
age is 20 years.
33

to the age of the person who is born

immediately after W.
• None of the persons were born before
1970 and after 2015.
Again we have,
• The number of persons born between P
and R is the same as between S and T.
• The age of P is equal to the last two digits
of the birth year of the person who was
Again we have,
born two persons before P.
• The age difference between R and the
• All persons ages are equal to the last two
one whose age is 20 is the same as
between Q and the one who is born digits of the birth year of some other
persons except V and Q.
adjacent to Q.
From the above condition, case2 and cas1a get
• The age difference between V and U is
eliminated. case1 shows the final arrangement.
one less than the age difference between
Q and S.
From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
1) Answer: B
34

2) Answer: B
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: A
5) Answer: B
Direction (6-10):
Final Arrangement
Again we have,
• The black box is kept immediately above
the Blue box.
• H is neither Black color nor Blue color.
• The number of boxes that are kept above
White is the same as below Red box.
• T
Common Explanation
he red box has only one adjacent box.
We have,
• B
• Only two boxes are kept between Box H
ox A has kept immediately below the box
and White color box.
which is kept three shelves above Box H.
• Box G is adjacent to Box H.
• Only one box is kept between G and the
yellow color box.
• The yellow box is kept on three shelves
above the box which is kept immediately
below Green box.
From the above condition, there are four
possibilities.
35

Again we have,
• The number of the boxes is kept above A
is one less than below the Orange color
box.
From the above condition, case2a gets
eliminated.
Again we have,
• The number of boxes kept between E and
Green box is the same as between B and
White box.
• Box D is kept below Box F.
Again we have,
From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated.
• The number of boxes is kept between
Case3 shows the final arrangement.
Pink and Blue colored box is the same as
between E and B.
• The box which is kept immediately above
the Pink box is adjacent to Box C.
6) Answer: D
36

7) Answer: B in alphabetical order from the left end

8) Answer: E alternatively starting with the number.
9) Answer: B Step2: The numbers are divided by two and the
10) Answer: E first letter of all the words from the left end is
changed to the next successive letter in
Direction (11-13): alphabetical order.
A@B(14m)→ A is 10m north of B→14-4=10 Step3: In number, the first and the fourth digit
A#B(15m) → A is 19m south of B→15+4=19 from the left end is added (if it is two-digit added
A$B(10m) → A is 7m east of B→10-3=7 within digit) then placed at middle and second
A%B(12m) → A is 14m west of B→12+2=14 and third digit from the left end is added and
From the above condition, we have subtracted - placed at first and the fifth number remains
4, -3 from the new sequence of questions and same. For Ex:17711→(1+1=2)
we have added 4, 3 to the new sequence of the →7+7=14→1+4=5→521
question. the second letter in the words from the left end is
11) Answer: B changed to the next successive letter in
12) Answer: C alphabetical order.
13) Answer: A Step4: In number, all numbers are added and the
third letter in a word from the left end is changed
to the next successive letter in alphabetical
order.
Step5: The difference between the first and
second digit and the fourth letter from the left end
is changed to the next successive letter in
alphabetical order.
Input: Line 35422 Turn 87342 63926 Wake Sand
48524 73842 Pure
Step I: 35422 Line 48524 Pure 63926 Sand
73842 Turn 87342 Wake
Step II: 17711 Mine 24262 Qure 31963 Tand
Direction (14-18): 36921 Uurn43671 xake
Logic: Step III: 521 mjne 682 qvre 193 Tbnd 651 Uvrn
Step1: The numbers are arranged in ascending 921 xbke
order from the left end and Words are arranged
37

Step IV: 08 mjoe 16 qvse 13 Tbod 12 Uvsn 12

xble
Step V: 8 mjof 5 qvsf 2 tboe 1 uvso 1 xblf
14) Answer: A
15) Answer: B
16) Answer: C
17) Answer: C
18) Answer: C
Direction (19-21):
19) Answer: E
21) Answer: A
20) Answer: B
Direction (22-25):
22) Answer: C
38

Direction (26-30):
Final Arrangement
23) Answer: D
Common Explanation
We have,
• Only three persons are sitting between R
24) Answer: B
and one who has 15 chocolates who sits
to the right of R.
• S sits opposite to the one who sits
immediate left of the one who has 15
chocolates.
From the above condition, there are two
possibilities.
25) Answer: D
Again we have,
39

• X sits second to the right of the one who • S sits adjacent to O.

sits adjacent to the person having 11 • W sits immediate left of Q who has an odd
chocolates. number of chocolates.
• P and X are sitting diagonally opposite to
each other.
• P has only one neighbor who has 10
chocolates.
possibilities.
Again we have
• Y has 6 chocolates, does not sit at end of
the row.
• S has the chocolates twice that of V who
has an even number of chocolates.
• Z has one chocolate more than S.
Again we have,
eliminated.
• The number of persons sitting between R
and X is the same as between the one
who has 22 chocolates and the one who
has 4 chocolates.
• The one who has 22 chocolates sits
immediate right of T.
• T does not sit adjacent to S.
• O sits opposite to the one who immediate
left of Z who sits third to the right of R.
40

26) Answer: C
Condition III applied, the Number of chocolates is
increased twice.
27) Answer: B
The condition I applied, number of chocolates
added to the person who sits second to the left of
them
28) Answer: C
29) Answer: B
Condition II applied, number of chocolates
subtracted from the person who sits immediate
Again we have, right of them
• The difference between the number of
chocolate of P and T is equal to the 30) Answer: D
number of chocolates of O.
• W has ten chocolates more than Z and Direction (31-35):
two chocolates less than R. Final Arrangement
• X has a prime number of chocolates more
than U but less than R.
• None of them has the same number of
chocolates.
We have,
• Pravin is standing above the step of the
one who stands immediately below Fazil.
• Only one person stands between the one
who stands immediately above Indhu and
immediately above Elena.
41


possibilities.
Again we have,
Again we have,
• Aahana does not stand below the one
• The number of steps above Fazil is the
who stands immediately above Balan.
same as below Sophia.
From the above condition, case3 gets
case1 shows the final arrangement.
eliminated.
Again we have, 31) Answer: A

• The number of persons standing between 32) Answer: C
Indhu and Ruby is the same as between 33) Answer: B
Sophia and Elena. 34) Answer: D
• Balan stands above the one who stands 35) Answer: B
immediately below Elena.
Direction (36-39):
36) Answer: B
42

@ # $ & ? @ # $ & ?
1 7 11 13 17 19 1 7 11 13 17 19
2 1 8 27 64 125 2 1 8 27 64 125
3 24 36 48 60 72 3 24 36 48 60 72
4 16 25 36 49 64 4 16 25 36 49 64
5 33 44 55 66 77 5 33 44 55 66 77
36 followed by 17 8 is followed by 36, condition C follows
Condition A applied→3*1=3 8+36=44
3 is followed by 64 Blue card come out means outcome is 31-60
Condition B applied→61 we have to check the result one by one in each
Condition III follows green card will be come out option.
of a machine if 44 is followed by 16→ condition C follows
44+16=60
37) Answer: B Condition II follows Blue card will come out
@ # $ & ?
1 7 11 13 17 19 39) Answer: A
2 1 8 27 64 125 @ # $ & ?
3 24 36 48 60 72 1 7 11 13 17 19
4 16 25 36 49 64 2 1 8 27 64 125
5 33 44 55 66 77 3 24 36 48 60 72
60 is followed by 25 4 16 25 36 49 64
Condition C applied 5 33 44 55 66 77
60+25=85 I. 1@2$2#
85 followed by 125 7 is followed by 27, condition D follows
Condition D applied 7*7=49 49 is followed by 8, condition D follows
5*5=25 9*8=72
The condition I follow red card will come out II. 3@1$2?
24 is followed by 13 conditions A follows
38) Answer: D 2*1=2
2 is followed by125 condition E follows
2+8(1+2+5)=10
43

72+10=82
Direction (40-44):
Final Arrangement
Again we have,
• E sits immediate right of the one who is
the wife of A.
• E is a female member who sits opposite to
the one who sits second to the left of the
one whose age is 32.
• F sits immediate right of the one who sits
second to the right of A.
possibilities.
We have,
• D sits second to the left of the one who
sits opposite to a person whose age is 40.
• Only one person sits between D and the
one whose age is 32.
possibilities.
Again we have,
44

• The husband’s age is more than the wife’s • No one’s age is more than fifty.
age. From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated.
• F is not a spouse of C. Case2 shows the final arrangement.
eliminated.
40) Answer: A
Again we have, 41) Answer: C
• There is five years age difference 42) Answer: B
between B and B’s wife. 43) Answer: D
• C does not sit adjacent to A’s spouse. 44) Answer: E
• A’s age is twice that of E’s age.
• C’s spouse's age is 29.
• There are 10 years age difference
between C and B.
RRB PO MAINS MEMORY BASED QUESTION

HELD on Jan 30 th 2021
Direction (1-5): Study the following i nfor mation Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are
carefully and answer the below questions - sitting at the circular table facing the centre but
covered - RRB PO Mains Set-9-Q (25-29), not necessarily in the same order. They all have
45

different ages and the age of all the persons is

less than 50. 3) Who among the following person sits opposite
G sits third to the right of the one who sits to the one whose age is 29?
immediate left of the one whose age is 36. Two a) The one who sits second to the left of D
persons are sitting between G and F. D sits b) C
adjacent to the one who sits second to the right c) A
of A. A sits immediate left of F. The one whose d) The one whose age is 35
age is 20 sits opposite to the one who sits e) The one whose age is 15
second to the left of E. Neither F nor G is 20
years old. H sits third to the left of the one whose 4) If G is related to 30 and A is related to 2 2 i n a
age is 15 years. Neither E nor A is 15 years old. certain way. Then who a m ong the fo llowing i s
B sits second to the left of C. The age of D is related to 15?
twice the age of the one who sits immediate right a) E
of G. The age difference between E and D is the b) The one who sits opposite to F
same as between D and A. The age of G is five c) C
years more than the one who sits immediate left d) The one who sits third to the left of D
of G. The age of F is one year less than the one e) None of the above
who sits immediate right of H. One of the
persons sitting at the table is 22 years old. 5) Four of the following five are alike in a c e rtain
1) Which of the following combination is true? way thus forms a group. Find the one which does
a) F-36 not belong to the group?
b) E-15 a) E
c) D-30 b) The one who sits second to the right of C
d) C-20 c) The one who sits immediate right of H
e) B-22 d) The one who sits immediate left of D
e) A
2) How many persons are sitting between D a nd
E? Direction (6-8): Study the following i nfor mation
a) One carefully and answer the below qu estions.
b) Two (Covered in maximum mock test)
c) Three Six persons- L, M, N, O, P, and Q have different
d) Four heights. Only one person is between the one
e) Either b or d whose height is 159 cm and L. The height of P is
46

156 cm. M is taller than L. The number of people Certain persons are sitting in a straight line and
between N and L is the same as between L and all of them are facing towards north. Not more
Q. The number of persons who are taller than N than 23 persons are there in the row. D sits
is the same as shorter than P. The height of L is fourth from the right end and is fifth to the right of
10cm more than Q whose height is 3cm more E. Only two persons sit between E and I. J sits
than P. No one height is more than 181cm. sixth to the left of I and is second to the right of F.
6) What may be the height of M, If th e h eight o f The number of persons between I and E is one
N is divisible by five? less than the number of persons between H and
a) 175 cm F. K sits third to the left of H and the number of
b) 172 cm persons to the left of K is one less than the
c) 176 cm number of persons to the right of G who doesn’t
d) 177 cm sit adjacent to D.
e) None of the above. 9) How many persons are there in the row?
a) 23
7) How many persons are taller than L? b) 22
a) One c) 20
b) Two d) 21
c) Three e) 19
d) Four
e) None 10) Who among the following person sits
second to the left of D?
8) What is the average h eight o f N , P , a nd Q? a) G
(Consider Question 6) b) E
a) 163cm c) I
b) 151cm d) J
c) 161.22cm e) Unknown
d) 163.33cm 11) How many persons are there between H and
e) None of the above E?
a) Six
Direction (9-11): Answer the questions based o n b) Eight
the information given below. - Covered - IB P S c) Ten
PO Mains Set-7-Q (41-42), IBPS PO Mains S et - d) Four
6- Q (40-41) e) None
47

d) Sister
Direction (12-14) :Study the following information e) Son
carefully and answer the below questions -
covered - IBPS PO Mains Set 10- Q (14-16) Direction (15-19): Study the following information
A family consists of nine members and two carefully and answer the below questions. -
married couples. P is the sister-in-law of the one covered - RRB PO Mains Set 5- Q(1-5)
who is the daughter of F. N is the father-in-law of Seven persons namely – Apurva, Pihu, Bittu,
the one who is the brother of L. U is the only Moni, Rajat, Sinku, and Sanju were born in
daughter of S. T’s mother is the daughter-in-law different years viz.- 1966, 1971, 1970, 1979,
of H. G is the daughter of H’s spouse. G and L 1983, 1985, and 1988. Each person likes to drink
are siblings both are of the same gender but not different things viz.- Frooti, Thumbs-Up, Coffee,
the same gender of N. F is the mother of L and Pepsi, Tea, Coca-Cola, and Sprite. All the above
grandmother of S’s kid. T is the kid of N’s only information is not necessarily in the same order.
daughter. The age of each person is calculated from the
12) Who among the following is the grandmother base year 2020.
of T? At least one person was born between the one
a) G who likes Coffee and Pihu, who neither likes
b) The one who is the mother-in-law of P Frooti nor Sprite. The age of the person who
c) H likes Coffee is a multiple of 7 and was born after
d) The one who is Spouse of F Pihu, whose age is an even number. Two
e) N persons were born between Pihu and Apurva,
who like Coca-Cola. Sanju neither likes Coffee
13) Find the odd one out? nor Thumbs-up but was born after Apurva. The
a) The one who is the spouse of F number of persons born after Sanuj is the same
b) The one who is the spouse of P as the number of persons born before the one
c) The one who is the son-in-law of N who likes Frooti. The number of persons born
d) T between Rajat and the one who likes Coca-Cola
e) The one who is the sibling of S is one more than the number of persons born
between Bittu and the one who likes Sprite. Rajat
14) How T is related to G? does not like Sprite. Rajat was born in a leap
a) Brother year but neither likes Frooti nor born before Bittu.
b) Niece At least two persons were born between Sinku
c) Nephew and the one who likes Thumps-Up. Sinku was
48

born before the one who likes Sprite. The a) Four persons were born before the one who
number of persons born between Moni and the likes Tea.
one who likes Tea is two less than Apurva and b) Rajat likes Thumbs-up and was born in 1988.
the one who likes Pepsi. c) Apurva was born just before Moni.
15) Who among the following person likes d) Two persons were born between Pihu and the
Coffee? one who likes Coca-Cola.
a) Sanju e) All of the above statements are true.
b) The one who was born just after the one who
likes Frooti. 19) Who among the following p erson w as b orn
c) Bittu just after Moni?
d) Both B and C a) The one who likes Tea.
e) None of these b) Rajat
c) The one who was born in 1979
16) How many persons were born after Rajat? d) The one who likes Coffee
a) As many as between Pihu and the one who e) None of these
likes Coffee
b) As many as between Sanju and the one who Direction (20-22): In each of the following
likes Sprite questions, th e r elationship b etween d ifferent
c) Two elements is shown in the statements followed b y
d) More than three three conclusions. F ind th e c onclusion w hich
e) None of these. logically follows. Covered in maximum mock test
20) Statements:
17) Which of the following c o mbination i s n o t S≥M>T>N=P; E<T<H<L; F≥O>V=L
true? Conclusions:
a) Sinku – Frooti I.P<O
b) Rajat – Thumbs-up II.S>V
c) Moni – Sprite III.H>M
d) Pihu –Pepsi a) None follows
e) None of these b) Only I follow
c) Only II follows
18) Which of the following statement i s/are n ot d) Only III follows
true? e) Both I and II follows
49

21) Statements: going to picnic between Q a n d V ? - C over ed -

R≥L<N<T<D; W<X≤Y<C<E; D>Z≥A=B<C RRB PO Mains Set- 4 - Q ( 2 0 ), S BI P O M a ins
Conclusions: Set-1- Q (35)
I.R≤B a) Two
II.N<Y b) Three
III.W>Z c) Four
a) None follows d) None
b) Only I follow e) One
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows 24) In which of the following more than two
e) Either I or III and II follows meaningful words can b e fo rm ed b y u sing the
following letters?
22) Statements: I. A, S, T, E
G≥H>S=M>L=N; Y≤T<V<U<R<O; I>K=J>R=L II. T, D, N, E
Conclusions: III. P, L, S, O
I. H>U a) Only I
II. M>O b) Only II
III. S>Y c) Both I and II
a) None follows d) Only III
b) Only I follow e) All I, II, and III
c) Only II follows
d) Only III follows 25) If the second letter of all the wor ds fr om th e
e) Both I and III follow right end are taken and changed to the next
second successive letter in alphabetical o r der.
23) Seven persons-P, Q, R, S, T , U , a nd V a r e Which of the following has more than one v owel
going to picnic o n d iffer ent d ays o f th e w eek thus formed?
starting from Sunday to Saturday but not I. Bank, Blow, Cash
necessarily in the s ame o r der. R i s g oing tw o II. Draw, Ford, Hurt
days before the o n e w ho i s g oing th ree d ays III. Mass, Mode, Once
after S. Q is the only person who goes befor e S . a) Only I
The number of persons g oing b e fore P i s o n e b) Both II and III
more than after U. V goes before T . U d oes n o t c) Only III
go adjacent day o f R . H ow m a ny p ersons a r e d) All I, II, and III
50

e) None 26) Which of th e following b o x k ept a t th e 6 th

position from the bottom?
Direction (26-30): Study the following information a) Box M
carefully and answer the below questions - b) The box which is kept two boxes above S
covered - Bundle PDF course day-45 c) The box which is kept immediately below R
Eight boxes – L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are kept d) The box which is kept immediately above the
one above another in the stack. The lowermost Green box
position is numbered as one and the topmost e) Box N
position is numbered as eight. The boxes are of
different colors- Red, Green, Blue, Violet, Gray, 27) How many boxes are k ept b elow th e Gr ay
Pink, Yellow, and Orange. All the information is color box?
not necessarily in the same order. a) Three
Only three boxes are kept between Q and pink b) Two
color box. Box N is kept two boxes below the box c) Four
which is immediately above the Pink color box. d) Five
Only one box is kept between the violet color box e) None of these
and N. Box R is kept two boxes above the yellow
color box. Only three boxes are kept between L 28) What is the position of th e Gr een b ox fr om
and Yellow color box which is adjacent to the the top?
pink color box. Box L is neither Violet nor red in a) Third
color. Box Q is kept above box L. The number of b) Eighth
boxes kept below R is the same as the above c) Sixth
orange color box. Box M is kept two boxes above d) Fifth
the box which is kept immediately below S. The e) Fourth
number of boxes that kept between the Gray and
Green colored box is one less than the box 29) Which of the following combination is false?
between O and P. S is kept above Q. The gray a) M-Red
color box is kept below the orange color box. The b) P-Pink
number of boxes kept above the Blue box is the c) S-Green
same as below Box P. The number of boxes d) O-Gray
between the Blue and Green colored box is the e) Q-Orange
same as between Red color box and Q.
51

30) Four of the following are alike a c e rtain w ay numbered I and II given b elow i t. Y ou h ave to
and hence form a group. Who among the decide whether the data provided in the
following does not belong to the group? statements are sufficient to answer the question:
a) The box which is kept immediately below S - Covered - RRB PO Mains S et 5 – Q ( 2 5 - 26),
b) Box M RRB PO Mains Set -6-Q (31-35), RRB PO Mains
c) The box which is kept two boxes above P Set 9- Q (30-32),
d) Box O 33) Six persons-L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in
e) Green colored box a row but not necessarily in the same order. Who
among the following person sits second from th e
31) In a certain code language, “Program is left end of the row? (facing south)
super” is coded as “217 693 472”, “Super A r t” i s Statement1: Q sits third to the left of the one who
coded as “ 6 9 3 2 38” , “ He l earns p r ogram” i s sits second to the right of L. Only two persons
coded as “217 479 624”, then what is the sum o f are sitting between Q and M. Only one person
the code for “Program Art”? sits between L and N.
a) 696 Statement2: Only two persons are sitting
b) 689 between M and Q. M sits immediate right of the
c) 1103 one who sits second to the left of O who sits
d) 910 either left or right end.
e) 455 a) Only Statement I is sufficient
b) Only Statement II is sufficient
32) T is 15m north of M. H is 9m south G w hich c) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient
is 15m east of M.L is 20m west of H. V is north of d) Neither statement I nor statement II is
O and 5m east of S which is 5m north o f L . O i s sufficient
west of H. Then what is direction and distance o f e) Both statements I and II sufficient
V with respect to T?
a) 14m, north 34) There are six boxes- A, B, C, D, E, and F are
b) 19m, south kept one above another in a stack but not
c) 19m, north necessarily in the same order. How many b oxes
d) 24m, south are kept above E?
e) 24m, north Statement1:Box F is kept two boxes below the
box which is kept three boxes above A. Only two
Direction (33-35): Each of the q u estions b elow boxes are kept between F and C which is kept
consists of a question and two statements
52

below A. Box B is kept immediately above Box D, 35) What is the direction of point L w ith r e spect
neither of the boxes kept adjacent to C. to point X?
Statement2: Box E is kept three boxes below the Statement1: Point S is north of Point M which is
box which is kept immediately above F. Box E is west of Point G. Point P is east of Point X. Point
kept neither top nor bottom of the stack. Only two L is North of point V.
boxes are kept between C and F. Neither B nor Statement2: Point V is exactly the middle of Point
D is kept below F. M and G. Point L is east of Point S. Point X is
a) Only Statement I is sufficient neither south nor south-east of Point M. Point P
b) Only Statement II is sufficient is south of point G.
c) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient a) Only Statement I is sufficient
d) Neither statement I nor statement II is b) Only Statement II is sufficient
sufficient c) Either statement I or statement II is sufficient
e) Both statements I and II are sufficient d) Neither statement I nor statement II is
sufficient
e) Both statements I and II are sufficient
Direction (1-5): From the above condition, there are two

Final Arrangement possibilities.
We have,
• G sits third to the right of the one who sits Again we have,
immediate left of the one whose age is 36. • D sits adjacent to the one who sits second
• Two persons are sitting between G and F. to the right of A.
53

• A sits immediate left of F.

• The one whose age is 20 sits opposite to
the one who sits second to the left of E.
• Neither F nor G is 20 years old.
possibilities.
Again we have,
• The age of D is twice the age of the one
who sits immediate right of G.
• The age difference between E and D is
the same as between D and A.
• The age of G is five years more than the
one who sits immediate left of G.
• The age of F is one year less than the one
who sits immediate right of H.
• One of the persons sitting at the table is
22 years old.
Again we have,
• H sits third to the left of the one whose
age is 15 years.
• Neither E nor A is 15 years old.
• B sits second to the left of C.
eliminated.
1) Answer: C
2) Answer: E
3) Answer: E
4) Answer: A
5) Answer: B
54

Direction (6-8): 3. K sits third to the left of H and the number

of persons to the left of K is one less than
the number of persons to the right of G
who doesn’t sit adjacent to D. Hence,
cases 1 and 2 get eliminated.
6) Answer: B
9) Answer: D
172 cm is the answer because there is a
10) Answer: C
possibility of N’s height is- 175 cm, M is shorter
11) Answer: B
than N. So M’s height is 172 cm.
7) Answer: B
Direction (12-14) :
8) Answer: D
Direction (9-11):
1. D sits fourth from the right end and is fifth

to the right of E. Only two persons sit
between E and I.
2. J sits sixth to the left of I and is second to

the right of F. The number of persons
between I and E is one less than the 12) Answer: B
number of persons between H and F. 13) Answer: E
14) Answer: C
Direction (15-19):
55

• Sanju neither likes Coffee nor Thumbs-up

but was born after Apurva.
• The number of persons born after Sanju is
the same as the number of persons born
before the one who likes Frooti.
• The number of persons born between
Rajat and the one who likes Coca-Cola is
one more than the number of persons
born between Bittu and the one who likes
Sprite.
• Rajat does not like Sprite.
• Rajat was born in a leap year but neither
We have: likes Frooti nor born before Bittu.
• The age of the person who likes Coffee is Based on the above given information we have:
a multiple of 7 and was born after Pihu,
whose age is an even number.
• At least one person was born between the
one who likes Coffee and Pihu, who
neither likes Frooti nor Sprite.
Two persons were born between Pihu and
Apurva, who like Coca-Cola.
Based on the above given information we have:
Case (2) is not valid as Rajat was born in a l eap

year but neither likes Frooti nor born before Bittu.
Again, we have:
• At least two persons were born between
Sinku and the one who likes Thumps-Up.
• Sinku was born before the one who likes
Sprite.
• The number of persons born between
Moni and the one who likes Tea is two
Again, we have:
56

less than Apurva and the one who likes Conclusions:

Pepsi. I.R≤B(R≥L<N<T<D>Z≥A=B)→False
Since, Sanju doesn’t like Thumbs-Up. II.N<Y(N<T<D>Z≥A=B<C>Y)→False
Based on the above given information we have III.W>Z (W<X≤Y<C>B=A≤Z)→False
the final arrangement as follows:
22) Answer: E
Conclusions:
I. H>U(H>S=M>L=R>U)→True
II. M>O(M>L=R<O)→False
III. S>Y(S=M>L=R>U>V>T≥Y)→True
23) Answer: C
Case (3) is not valid as the n umber o f p e rsons

born between Moni and the one who likes Tea i s
two l ess th an A pur va a nd th e o ne w ho likes
Pepsi.
15) Answer: D
16) Answer: B
17) Answer: E
18) Answer: A 24) Answer: A
19) Answer: A I. East, Seat, Teas, Sate
II. Dent, Tend
Direction (20-22): III. Slop, lops
20) Answer: B
Conclusions: 25) Answer: C
I.P<O(P=N<T<H<L=V<O)→True I. Bank, Blow, Cash→nos→pqu
II.S>V(S≥M>T<H<L=V)→False II. Draw, Ford, Hurt→arr→ctt
III.H>M(M>T<H)→False III. Mass, Mode, Once→sdc→ufe
21) Answer: A Direction (26-30):
57

Final Arrangement Again we have,

• Box R is kept two boxes above the yellow
color box.
• Only three boxes are kept between L and
Yellow color box which is adjacent to the
pink color box.
• Box L is neither Violet nor red in color.
• Box Q is kept above box L.
• The number of boxes kept below R is the
same as the above orange color box.
eliminated. In case1 we can’t place the orange
We have,
color box.
• Only three boxes are kept between Q and
pink color box.
• Box N is kept two boxes below the box
which is immediately above the Pink color
box.
• Only one box is kept between the violet
color box and N.
From the above condition, there are four
possibilities.
Again we have,
• Box M is kept two boxes above the box
which is kept immediately below S.
• The number of boxes kept between the
Gray and Green colored boxes is one less
than the box between O and P.
• S is kept above Q.
• The gray color box is kept below the
orange color box.
58

From the above condition, case2a and case-2 27) Answer: A

gets eliminated. 28) Answer: E
29) Answer: C
30) Answer: E
31) Answer: E
217+238=455
32) Answer: B
Again we have,
• The number of boxes kept above the Blue
box is the same as below Box P.
• The number of boxes between Blue and
Green colored boxes is the same as
between Red color box and Q.
Direction (33-35):
33) Answer: B
Statement 1:
26) Answer: D
59


possibilities.
Statement 2:
From statement 2 we can find the answer.
34) Answer: C
Statement 1
Statement 2
B
D
F
A
E
C
Statement 2
Both Statement 1 and statement 2
B/D
B/D
F
A
E
C
35) Answer: E
Statement1:
60

SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 Reasoning Day – 1
Direction (1-5): Study the following i nfor mation between V and the one who likes Brinjal. W is
carefully and answer the below questions (based not the youngest person.
on RRB PO Mains 2021) 1) What is the age of the one who likes Potato?
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are a) 19
born in different years- 1982, 1985, 1988, 1989, b) 25
1993, 1996, 1999, and 2002. They like different c) 28
Vegetables- Carrot, Brinjal, Cucumber, d) 22
Capsicum, Peas, Mushroom, Pumpkin, and e) 33
Potato. All the information is not necessarily in
the same order. 2) In which of the following year does the person
Note: Consider the birth date of each p er son a s who likes Cucumber was born?
1 s t January and the age of each person is a) 2002
calculated from the base year 2021. b) 1999
The one who likes Pumpkin is born three years c) 1989
before U. The age of U is an even number. P is d) 1982
born two persons before the one who born three e) 1985
persons after the one who likes Peas. P is not
born in the odd number year. P does not like 3) What is the sum o f th e a ge o f th e o ne w ho
Pumpkin. The one who likes Mushroom was likes Peas, Pumpkin, and Carrot?
born immediately before the one who was born a) 94
three persons after the one who likes Peas. S is b) 80
born seven years before Q whose age is square c) 74
value. The number of persons born before T is d) 100
the same as after the one who likes Brinjal. The e) 86
one who likes Brinjal is born three years after the
one who likes Cucumber. Only six years 4) Which of the following combination is true?
difference between the one who likes Carrot and a) P-Capsicum
the one who likes Capsicum. The one who likes b) 1989-Potato
Carrot does not younger than the one who likes c) U- Brinjal
Peas. The number of persons born between W d) 2002-W
and the one who likes Potato is the same as e) Peas- 1988
61

5) Which of the following statement is true? 8) If R is married to A, then how A i s r elated to

a) The one who is born immediately before P H?
likes Carrot a) Brother-in-law
b) S likes Mushroom b) Brother-in-law’s spouse
c) Only three persons are elder than the one who c) Sister-in-law
likes Potato d) Sister-in-law’s spouse
d) U is born in 2002 e) Can’t be determined
e) W is the eldest person
Direction (9-10): Study the following infor mation
Direction (6-8): Study the following i nfor mation carefully and answer the below questions (based
carefully and answer the below questions (based on IBPS RRB Clerk Mains 2021)
on IBPS RRB Clerk Mains 2021) In a family of three-generation has seven
In a family of three-generation has eight members and two married couples. L is the
members and two married couples. E is the only sister-in-law of Q and vice versa. E is the only
daughter of L. V is the only son of O. S has three son of V. G is the grandmother of E and is not a
kids. R has only one brother. L is the father-in- mother of Q. P is the father of V who has only
law of K’s father. V has only one sibling. H is the one sibling. M is the mother-in-law of V. L is not
brother-in-law of O and vice versa. V is the a mother of E.
grandchildren of S. 9) Find the odd one out?
6) How R is related to K? a) L’s father
a) Uncle b) V’s sibling
b) Aunty c) P’s Spouse
c) Brother d) V’s spouse
d) Father e) L
e) Can’t be determined.
10) Who among the following person is the
7) How many female members are in the family? spouse of Q?
a) Three a) V
b) Four b) The one who is the only son of P
c) Two c) The one who is the only brother of L
d) Five d) The one who is the father of E
e) More than five e) All of the above
62

Direction (11-15): Study the following information sits immediate right of S. N and S are not
carefully and answer the below questions (based immediate neighbors. More than one person sits
on SBI Clerk Mains 2019) between the one who faces X and W
Sixteen persons K to Z are sitting in three S does not sit at any ends.
parallel rows viz. row-1, row-2, and row-3 such 11) Who among the following person sits exactly
that row-2 is to the north of row-3 and row-1 is to between W and the one who sits opposite to S?
the north of row-2. 4 persons are sitting in row-1 a) O
where 8 persons are sitting in row-2 and 4 b) The one who sits second to the right of V
persons are sitting in the row-3. Persons sitting c) L
in row-3 faces north. Persons sitting in row-1 d) The one who sits immediate right of Z
face south. The first 4 persons sitting from west e) N
to east in row-2 face north and the last four
persons sitting from west to east in row-2 face 12) Who among the following persons are facing
south. south direction?
Note: All the persons sitting i n r ow1 a nd r o w 3 I) M
are facing the persons sitting in row 2. II) L
M sits opposite to the one who sits third to the III) Q
left of Q. Q sits second to the right of Y and vice a) Only (I) and (II)
versa. The number of persons sits to the left of Y b) Only (I)
is the same as to the right of U. U and M are c) Only (II) and (III)
facing the opposite direction. X sits north-west of d) Only (II)
Y but does not sit at the end of the row. Only e) All (I), (II), and (III)
three persons are sitting between V and Z who
faces the same direction of Y. V neither faces M 13) Who among the following persons are seated
nor X. The one who faces T sits second to the north-east of the one who sits immediate right o f
right of W who faces the same direction as Z. X V?
does not sit opposite to T. W does not sit a) The one who sits immediate left of X
adjacent to T. T does not sit at the end of the b) The one who sits second to the right of Y
row. The number of persons sitting between O c) No one
and W is the same as between M and K. The d) The one who sits second to the left of S
number of persons sits to the left of O is the e) The one who sits opposite to P
same as to the right of the one who sits second
to the right of R. The one who sits opposite to L 14) What is the position of O with respect to Y?
63

a) Fourth to the right floors between M and L is the same as between

b) Second to the left R and the one who scored 77 runs. O lives one
c) Second to the right of the floors above N. Q doesn’t score 77 runs. O
d) Third to the left does not live on the adjacent floor of L. R scored
e) Fifth to the left less runs than N and more runs than O. O
scored twice the run of L and lives on an odd-
15) Four of the following a r e alike i n a c e rtain numbered floor. P scored half of the runs scored
way. Which of the following one does not belong by R. The difference between the scores of L
to the group? and P is one less than the difference between
a) NO the scores of O and Q. Q scores more runs than
b) MX the one who lives on the seventh floor. One of
c) TL the members scored 89 runs.
d) WS 16) Which of the following statement is/are true?
e) RQ I. M scored more runs than N
II. R lives on an odd number floor
Direction (16-20): Study the following information III. Only three floors are between O and the o n e
carefully and answer the below questions. who scored 64 runs
(Based on SBI Clerk Mains 2020) a) Only I and III
Seven persons-L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are living b) Only III
in the seven storey building. The lowermost floor c) Only I and II
is numbered as one and the topmost floor is d) Only II
numbered as seven. They are playing a cricket e) None of the statement is false
match and scored different runs. All the
information is not necessarily in the same order. 17) How many floors are ther e b etween Q a n d
Q lives two floors below the one who scored a the one who scored 77 runs?
half-century. Atleast two persons live below Q. a) Four
Only two persons are living between the one who b) Five
scored half-century and L. The number of floors c) Two
above L is one more than below the one who d) Three
scored the runs in square value. No one scored e) None of the above
more than 90 runs. M lives three floors above the
one who lives immediately above P. P and L are 18) Who among the following lives th ree floor s
not living on the adjacent floor. The number of above the one who scored 32 runs?
64

a) L d) Sixth
b) The one who lives on the seventh floor e) None of the above
c) The one who scored 50 runs
d) M 20) What is the sum of the scores of the one who
e) The one who scored 58 runs lives on the fifth, third and seventh floor?
a) 146
19) What is the position of R from the b ottom o f b) 171
the building? c) 172
a) Seventh d) 224
b) Fifth e) 107
c) Third
Click Here to Get the Detailed Video Solution for the above given Questions
Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions
Answer Key with Explanation
Direction (1-5):
1) Answer: C
2) Answer: B
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: A
5) Answer: B
Final Arrangement
We have,
65

• The one who likes Pumpkin is born three

years before U.
• The age of U is an even number.
possibilities.
Again we have,
• The one who likes Mushroom was born
immediately before the one who was born
three persons after the one who likes
Peas.
Again we have, • S is born seven years before Q whose
• P is born two persons before the one who age is square value.
born three persons after the one who likes Since there is no place for Q in case 2a, so it
Peas. gets eliminated.
• P does not born in the odd number year.
• P does not like Pumpkin.
possibilities.
Again we have,
66

• The number of persons born before T is

the same as after the one who likes
Brinjal.
• The one who likes Brinjal is born three
years after the one who likes Cucumber.
Direction (6-8):
6) Answer: A
7) Answer: A
Again we have, 8) Answer: C
• Only six years difference between the one
who likes Carrot and the one who likes
Capsicum.
• The one who likes Carrot is not younger
than the one who likes Peas.
• The number of persons born between W
and the one who likes Potato is the same
as between V and the one who likes
Brinjal. W is not the youngest person.
Since the one who likes Carrot is not younger
than the one who likes Peas, So Case-2 gets Direction (9-10)
eliminated. 9) Answer: A
10) Answer: E
67

Direction (11-15):
11) Answer: D Again we have,
12) Answer: A • The number of persons sits to the left of Y
13) Answer: C is the same as to the right of U.
14) Answer: A • U and M are facing the opposite direction.
15) Answer: D • X sits north-west of Y but does not sit at

the end of the row.
Final Arrangement From the above condition, there are three

possibilities.
We have,
• M sits opposite to the one who sits third to
the left of Q.
• Q sits second to the right of Y and vice
versa.
possibilities.
68

Again we have,
• Only three persons are sitting between V
Again we have,
and Z who face the same direction of Y.
• The one who faces T sits second to the
• V neither faces M nor X.
right of W who faces the same direction
as Z.
eliminated.
• T does not sit at the end of the row.
• X does not sit opposite to T.
• W does not sit adjacent to T.
69

Direction (16-20):
16) Answer: E
17) Answer: D
18) Answer: E
19) Answer: C
20) Answer: C
Final Arrangement
Again we have,
• The number of persons sitting between O
and W is the same as between M and K.
• The number of persons sits to the left of O
is the same as to the right of the one who
sits second to the right of R.
We have,
• The one who sits opposite to L sits
• Q lives two floors below the one who
immediate right of S.
scored a half-century.
• N and S are not immediate neighbors.
• Atleast two persons live below Q.
• More than one person sits between the
• Only two persons are living between the
one who faces X and W
one who scored half-century and L.
• S does not sit at any ends.
possibilities.
case1 shows the final arrangement.
Again we have, 70

• The number of floors above L is one more

than below the one who scored the runs in
square value.
• No one scored more than 90 runs.
Again we have,
• R scored less runs than N and more runs
than O.
• O scored twice the run of L and lives on
an odd-numbered floor.
Again we have, • P scored half of the runs scored by R.
• M lives three floors above the one who • The difference between the scores of L
lives immediately above P. and P is one less than the difference
• P and L are not living on the adjacent between the scores of O and Q.
floor. • Q scores more runs than the one who
• The number of floors between M and L is lives on the seventh floor.
the same as between R and the one who • One of the members scored 89 runs.
scored 77 runs. From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated.
• O lives one of the floors above N. Q case1 shows the final arrangement.
doesn’t score 77 runs
• O does not live on the adjacent floor of L.
71

72

SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 – Bundle PDF Course: Quants – Day-1/50 (Eng)
1

Click Here For SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 - Bundle PDF Course Quants Day 1
Memory Based Paper – Quantitative Aptitude
IBPS PO MAINS Held on 4 th Feb 2021
SBI PO MAINS Held on 29th Jan 2021
IBPS RRB Officer Scale 1 Mains held on Jan 30th 2021
IBPS RRB Office Assistant Mains Held on 20th Feb 2021
SBI PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 29th Jan 2021
Direction (01 – 02): Read the following

information carefully and answer the q u estions 2) Find the value of (A² + 3B + 5C – 4D).
based on it. a) - 20
A sequence of numbers is given to you as b) - 10
below: c) - 18
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 124 d) - 30
Where, A = P² - Q e) None of these
B – A = (P + 1) ² + Q
C – B = (P + 2) ² + Q Direction (03 – 04): Read the following
D – C = (P + 3)² + Q information carefully and answer the q u estions
P = HCF of L and M, wher e L a nd M a r e c o – based on it.
primes A college conducts two exams – theory and
Q = Smaller root of K² - 2K – 8 = 0 practical. The maximum mark for the theoretical
1) How many numbers are divisible by 3, i n th e exam is 240 and that of the practical exam is
given sequence? 180. The weighted % of the theoretical exam is
a) 2 60% and of practical exam is 40%.
b) 4 Total maximum marks = maximum marks of
c) 3 written exam + maximum marks of the practical
d) 6 exam
e) None of these 2

Total maximum weighted score = weighted % x Direction (05 – 07): Read the following
maximum marks of theoretical exam + weighted information carefully and answer the q u estions
% x maximum marks of Practical exam based on it.
Total obtained weighted score = weighted % x A milkman has X litres of a mixture of milk and
marked obtained in theoretical exam + weighted water in the ratio of 5:1 respectively. He sells
% x marks obtained in Practical exam. mixture to three shopkeepers A, B and C in the
It is also known that, P and Q both get a same order. The table given below shows how
weighted score of 156 and Q gets 165 marks in the milkman deals with three shopkeepers.
the practical exam. R gets 150 marks in the
practical exam. S gets 210 marks in the
theoretical exam and 75% marks in the practical
exam.
3) If R got 195 weighted s c ores i n the e x am,
find the respective ratio of the obtained score by
R and Q in the written exam?
a) 6:5
b) 4:3
c) 2:3
Interpretation of table: Milkman sold 120 litres to
d) 3:2
shopkeeper A, and then he added 80 litres of
e) None of these
milk and 0 litres of water so the amount of
mixture with shopkeeper becomes 560 litres.
4) if S scored (50/7)% more marks in the written
Milkman deals in the same manner with
exam and R scored 1 80 m a rks i n th e w ritten
shopkeepers B and C.
exam, then find the difference between the
5) Find the value of ‘X’?
weighted score of Q an d S i s h ow m uch % o f
a) 540 litres
the maximum weighted score of the exam?
b) 480 litres
a) 10.54%
c) 420 litres
b) 9.72%
d) 600 litres
c) 9.32%
e) None of these
d) 8.72%
6) If the amount of milk l eft with m ilkman j ust
e) None of these
before selling to shopkeeper C i s 5 2 5% m o re
than that of water, find the value of M.
a) 420 litres
b) 560 litres 3

c) 580 litres
d) 620 litres
5%
e) None of these 20%
7) If the difference between m ilk a nd w ater i n

final mixture is 567 litres, then find the v alue o f
8.5R. Use data from previous question if 50% 25%
required?
a) 992.5 litres
b) 872.5 litres
c) 902.5 litres A B C D
d) 882.5 litres
8) In Next month, D takes 10 hours classes and
e) None of these
he will use 3 hour s o ut o f 1 0 h ours a s o f th e
previous month. If the number of basic c lasses
taken by D next m o nth i s twice o f a dvanced
information carefully and answer the q u estions
classes taken by D ne xt m o nth, then fi nd the
based on it.
difference between basic classes and advanced
There are four trainers A, B, C and D those take
classes by D?
classes in a month of three types basic class (1
a) 1
hour), Regular Class (2 hours) and Advanced
b) 2
class (3 hours). No trainer can leave the class
c) 4
before the time and no one can take the class
d) 3
for extra time. D doesn’t take any regular class.
e) None of these
He will take either basic or Advance. The pie
chart given below shows the % distribution of
9) If A takes twice basic classes than advanced
total hours class taken by all the four trainers.
classes, then find the total n u mber o f c lasses
Total hours of the class are 60 hours.
taken by A?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 9
e) None of these
4

10) B and C ta ke a ll th ree ty pes o f c lasses, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and
basic classes taken by B are equal to the Saturday.
regular classes taken by B. C takes four regular • Total orders which were not delivered on these
classes in the month and the number of six days are 225
advanced classes taken by B and C is the • Orders cannot be returned on the same day, it
same. Find the difference between the minimum has to be returned next day of delivery. No
and the maximum number of basic classes order is returned on Sunday of Week III.
taken by C? 11) Find the total number of orders returned o n
a) 8 Wednesday and Thursday together?
b) 9 a) 217
c) 12 b) 197
d) 11 c) 227
e) None of these d) 237
e) None of these
information carefully and answer the q u estions 12) If the number of orders delivered o n F r iday
based on it. is 40 more than the actual, then find the number
The line graph given below shows the delivery of orders returned on Saturday?
of orders received on Sunday of week II and a) 40
returns of orders on the following days. b) 50
35% c) 45
30%
30% d) 39
24%
25% e) None of these
20%
20% 16% 15% 15%
15% 12% 13) If the retur n p ercentage o f T uesday a nd
10% 10%
8%
10%
5%
Thursday are interchanged, then find th e total
5% number o f o r ders r e turned o n T u esday a n d
0%
Thursday together?
a) 422
b) 442
Delivered Return
c) 332
The following facts are also known: d) 432
• Total orders received on Sunday of week II, it e) None of these
will be delivered on next 6 days: Monday,
5

14) Orders returned on Saturday is • In the Match between B and C, B gets 6 points
approximately how much % of orders delivered in this match and team C scored one more goal
on Tuesday? than team B. One player from team B scores a
a) 13.33% goal from outside D.
b) 8.33% 15) Find the sum o f th e m aximum n umber o f
c) 6.667% goals scored by a single player of each team.
d) 16.666% a) 15
e) None of these b) 9
c) 13
Direction (15 – 16): Read the following d) 12
information carefully and answer the q u estions e) None of these
based on it.
There is a football tournament between three 16) If the rank 3 team received prize m oney o f
teams A, B and C. the following facts are Rs. 60000 and ratio of prize money to 1 s t : 2 n d :
known: 3 r d ranking team is 8:5:3, then find which o f th e
• Each team gets 2 points for scoring a goal to following combination is correct?
the opponent team. I.A, Rs. 1 Lakhs
• Each team get 1 extra point for scoring a goal II. C, Rs. 1.6 Lakhs
from outside D (It is a position in football III. B, Rs. 1.6 lakhs
ground) IV. C, Rs. 1 Lakhs
• Each team gets a penalty of 1 point if it is V. B, Rs. 1 Lakhs
conceded any goal. The goal conceded means a) I, II and III
the goal is scored by the opponent team. b) II and III
• Only three players from each team scored the c) III, IV
goal. d) IV and V
• In the Match between A and B, B gets 4 points e) None of these
and is the winner of the game. A scored 2 goals
in this game and no player scored the goal from Direction ( 1 7 – 1 8 ): In e ach o f th e following
outside D questions three statements I, II and III are given
• In the Match between A and C, C has 0 points to you. Find which of th e following s tatement
in this match. Only one player from A scored a is/are sufficient to answer the question.
goal from outside D. A scored 4 points in this 17) Find the cost price of the article?
match.
6

Statement I: An article is marked up by T% and Statement II: At the end of the partnership, the
sold at a discount of 20% and profit earned is total profit earned by them is Rs. 700 and the
44% profit share of Q is Rs. 100
Statement II: If the discount is 40%, then the Statement III: Profit share of P and R is in the
profit is Rs. 16 ratio of 1:2
Statement III: If there is no discount offered, a) Only I and II
then the selling price is Rs. 160 more than the b) Only I and III
cost price of the article. c) Only II and III
a) Only I and II d) Either I and II or I and III
b) Only I and III e) None of these
c) Only II and III
d) All three required to answer 19) If a, b, c and d are positive i ntegers, then
e) Combination of any two statements find the correct relation between quantity I a n d
II.
18) P, Q and R entered i nto a p a rtner ship b y Quantity I: a- b / a- a = ab x c
investing a c e rtain a m ount fo r 1 2 m onths , T Quantity II: (a³ x b³) / (a x b²) = (b³ x d 4) / (b x d)
month and 12 –T months respectively. Find th e a) Quantity I > Quantity II
value of T? b) Quantity I < Quantity II
Statement I: Q invested 50% more amount than c) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
P and R invested twice the amount of Q. d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
e) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Directions (1-2): Value of D = (1 + 3)² - 2 + 12 = 26

HCF of two co – primes is always 1. So value of So, the given sequence is 18, 3, 5, 12, 26 and
P=1 124
K² - 2K – 8 = 0 1) Answer: C
(K + 2)(K – 4) = 0 There are three numbers 18, 3 and 12 which
K = - 2, 4 are divisible by 3.
So value of Q = - 2 Hence answer is option C
Value of A = (1)² - (-2) = 3
Value of B = (1 + 1)² - 2 + 3 = 5 2) Answer: A
Value of C = (1 + 2)² - 2 + 5 = 12
7

We already calculated the values of A, B, C and Maximum weighted score of exam = 60% of 240
D. + 40% of 180 = 216
So required value = (3² + 3 x 5 + 5 x 12 – 4 x Required % = (189 – 168)/216 x 100 = 9.7222%
26) = - 20 Hence answer is option B
Hence answer is option A Directions (5-7):
Initial ratio of milk and water = 5:1
3) Answer: D 120 litres given to A, the ratio of milk and water
It is given that the weighted % of the theoretical will be the same 5:1. Now 80 litres of milk and 0
exam is 60% and of the practical exam is 40%. litres of water added then amount left with
Total weighted score of R in exam = 195 milkman is 560 litres.
Marks of R in Practical exam = 150 So, X – 120 + 80 + 0 = 560
So, 195 = 60% x marks obtained by R in written X = 600 litres
exam + 40% x 150 Initial amount mixture = 600 litres
Marks obtained by R in written exam = (195 – Initial amount of Milk = 600 x 5/6 = 500 litres
60)/60 x 100 = 225 marks Initial amount of water = 600 – 500 = 100 litres
Total weighted score of Q in exam = 156 Amount of milk left after given to A and then 80
Marks obtained by R in practical exam = 165 litres milk added = 5/6 (600 – 120) + 80 = 480
So, 156 = 60% x marks obtained by Q in written litres
exam + 40% of 165 Amount of water left after given to A = 1/6 x
Marks obtained by Q in written exam = 90/60 x (600 – 120) = 80 litres
100 = 150 5) Answer: D
Required ratio = 225:150 = 3:2 Ratio of milk and water after given to A = 480:80
Hence answer is option D = 6:1
Required value of X = 600 litres
4) Answer: B Hence answer is option D
S gets 210 marks in the theoretical exam and
75% marks in the practical exam. 6) Answer: C
So, weighted score of S = 60% of (210 + 50/7% We already know the amount of mixture left with
x 210) + 40% x (75% of 180) = 135 + 54 = 189 milkman after selling to A = 560 litres, in which
R scored 180 marks in the written exam and ratio of milk and water is 6:1 respectively.
150 marks in the practical exam After giving Y litres to shopkeeper B, ratio of
So, weighted score of R = 60% of 180 + 40% x milk and water will not change and remains 6:1.
150 = 168 Amount of milk left with milkman just before
8

selling to shopkeeper C is 525% more than that Then possible case is, 4 basic classes (4 x 1) +
of water 2 advance classes (3 x 2) = 10 hours.
Now, He can’t take more than two advanced classes.
(6a + 80)/ (a + 10) = 625% = 25/4 If he takes 3 advanced classes, that means a
24a + 320 = 25a + 250 total of 9 hours. So he needs to take 6 basic
So, a = 70 classes. Total hour classes become 15 hours
So value of Y = 560 – (6 x 70 + 70) = 70 which is not possible.
Required value of M = 560 – 70 + 80 + 10 = 580 So required difference = 4 – 2 = 2
Hence answer is option C Hence answer is option B
7) Answer: E 9) Answer: C
Ratio of milk and water just before selling Total class hours of A = 20% of 60 = 12 hours
mixture to shopkeeper C is 25:4 and value of M Basic classes = 2 x advance classes
= 580 litres So, basic classes x 1 + 2 x regular classes + 3 x
After of mixture left after selling to C = 580 – 87 advance classes = 12
= 493 2 x advance classes x 1 + 2 x regular classes +
Amount of milk left = 493/29 x 25 = 425 litres 3 x advance classes = 12
Amount of water left = 493 – 425 = 68 litres 5 x advance classes + 2 x regular classes = 12
Now, (425 + 3R) – (68 + R) = 567 The above distributions are not possible,
2R = 210 So, only integral solution of this equation is,
So, R = 210/2 = 105 litres Advance classes = 2 and regular classes = 1
Required value = 8.5 x 105 = 892.5 litres So total number of classes taken by A = 4 + 1 +
Hence answer is option E 2=7
Hence answer is option C
8) Answer: B
Total number of hour classes taken by D in 10) Answer: B
previous month = 5% of 60 = 3 hours Total class hour of B = 25% of 60 = 15 hours
He uses 3 hours out of 10 hours classes. D can Total class hour of C = 50% of 60 = 30 hours
take either basic or advanced classes. Let, the number of basic classes taken by B =
If D takes 3 hours of basic classes in the regular classes taken by B = a
previous month, he is left with 7 hours in the Number of advance classes taken by B =
next month. Also basic class is twice of Number of advance classes take by C = b
advanced classes. Number of Basic classes taken by C = c
So, a x 1 + 2 x a + 3 x b = 15 hours
9

3a + 3b = 15
Or, a + b = 5…………. (1)
Also, c x 1 + 4 x 2 + b x 3 = 30
So, c + 3b = 22…………… (2)
For minimum value of c, b should be maximum.
Maximum value of b, from equation 1, is 4
So minimum value of c = 22 – 3 x 4 = 10
For maximum value of c, b should be minimum
which is 1.
So maximum value of c = 22 – 3 x 1 = 19
Required difference = 19 – 10 = 9 11) Answer: E
Hence answer is option B Number of orders returned on (Wednesday +
Thursday) = 54 + 162 = 216
Directions (11 – 14): Hence answer is option E
Total number of orders which are not delivered
= 225 12) Answer: A
Total number of orders to be delivered = orders Now, total number of orders delivered on Friday
delivered + not delivered = 360 + 40 = 400
% of orders which was delivered = (16% + 12% Number of orders now returned on Saturday =
+ 24% + 20% + 8% + 15%) = 95% 10% of 400 = 40
So, % of orders not delivered = 5% Hence answer is option A
So, 5% of total orders received = 225
Total number of orders received = 4500 13) Answer: D
So number of orders delivered on Monday = Now, number of orders returned on Tuesday =
16% of 4500 = 720 720 x 15% = 108
Number of orders returned on Tuesday = 30% Number of orders returned on Thursday = 30%
of number of orders delivered on Tuesday = of 1080 = 324
30% of 720 = 216 Total number of orders returned = 108 + 324 =
Similarly can find the data of all days 432
Hence answer is option D
14) Answer: C
Orders returned on Saturday = 36
Orders delivered on Tuesday = 540
10

Required % = 36/540 x 100 = 6.6667% Number of goals scored by D = 6 + 1 = 7 goals

Directions (15 – 16):

Match between A and B
A scored 2 goals and B scored 4 points in this
match and there is no goal from outside D. That
means B scored 6 points and 2 penalty points.
Score of B = 3 goals x 2 points – 2 goals x 1
point = 4 points (3 goals)
Score of A = 2 goals x 2 points – 3 goals x 1
15) Answer: A
point = 1 points (2 goals)
According to the question,
Match between A and C:
It is known that only three-player scored the
C scored 0 points in this match, which means
goal from a team. For the maximum number of
earning points and penalty points are the same
goals by a player, rest two-player should score
for C. In other words, goals conceded by C are
the minimum number of goals.
twice of goal scored by C.
For team A – Scored 4 goals. 2 player score 1
Only one player from A scored a goal from
goal each and 1 player scored 2 goals
outside D. A scored 4 points in this match.
For team B – Scored 9 goals. The maximum
If C scored 1 goal, so goal conceded by C is 2
number of goals by a player is 7
(goal scored by A).
For team C – Scored 8 goals. The maximum
Points of A is 4 and scored 2 goals out of which
number of goals by a player is 6
1 is from outside D.
Required sum = 2 + 7 + 6 = 15 goals
Score of D = 2 x 1 + 3 x 1 – 1 x 1 = 4 points
Hence answer is option A
(possible)
Match between B and C
16) Answer: C
Let the number of goals scored by B = a
Points scored by A = 5 points (3 rd)
So, number of goals scored by C = (a + 1)
Points scored by B = 10 points (1 st)
Points of B in this match = 6 points (1 goal
Points scored by C = 8 points (2 nd)
outside D)
Money received by A = Rs. 60000
So, 2( a - 1) +1 x3-1 (a + 1) = 6
Money received by B = 8/3 x 60000 = Rs.
2a + 1 – a – 1 = 6
160000
So, a = 6
Money received by C = 5/3 x 60000 = Rs.
So number of goals scored by B = 6 goals
100000
11

Hence answer is option C If no discount offered, then SP is Rs. 160 more

than CP
17) Answer: E So, 100a – (60a – 16) = 160
On combining I and II, 40a = 144
Let cost price of the article = 100a So, value of a = 3.6
Selling price of the article = 144% of 100a = Cost price of article = 3.6 x 60 – 16 = Rs. 200
144a Hence answer is option E
Marked price of the article = 144a/80 x 100 =
180a 18) Answer: D
So marked up % = T = 80% On combining I and III,
If the discount is 40%, then the profit is Rs. 16, Ratio of money invested by P and Q = 2:3
so Ratio of money invested by R and Q = 2:1
Now selling price = 180a x 60% = 108a So, the ratio of investment of P, Q and R = 2:3:6
So, (108a – 100a) = 16 Ratio of profit share = (2 x 12): (3 x T): [6 x (12 –
Value of a = 2 T)] = 8: T: (24 – 2T)
Cost price of article = 100 x 2 = Rs. 200 Ratio of profit share of P and R is 1:2
This combination is sufficient to answer the So, 8/ (24 – 2T) = 1/2
question. 16 = 24 – 2T
On combining I and III, So the value of T = 4
Let cost price of article = 100a This combination is sufficient to answer
Selling price of article = 144% of 100a = 144a On combining I and II,
Marked price of the article = 144a/80 x 100 = Ratio of money invested by P and Q = 2:3
180a Ratio of money invested by R and Q = 2:1
So marked up % = T = 80% So, ratio of investment of P, Q and R = 2:3:6
If there is no discount then the selling price is Ratio of profit share = (2 x 12): (3 x T): [6 x (12 –
Rs. 160 more than the cost price of the article. T)] = 8: T: (24 – 2T)
(180a – 100a) = 160 Ratio of profit of Q out of total profit = 100/700 =
Value of a = 2 1/7
Cost price of article = Rs. 200 So, T / (8 + T + 24 – 2T) = 1/7
On combing II and III, 7T = 32 – T
Let MRP = 100a 8T = 32
If discount is 40%, then selling price = 60a T=4
Cost price of article = 60a – 16 This combination is sufficient to answer the
question
12

On combining (II and III), we cannot answer the So, value of d = (b4/b) 1/3 = b
question because we don’t know any If a = 1 then b = 1
information about the investment. Value of d = 1
Either I and III or I and II Value of c = 1
Hence answer is option D In this possibility Quantity I = Quantity 2
If a = 4 then b = 2
19) Answer: C Value of d = 2
Quantity I: Value of c = 1
a- b / a - a = a b x c In this possibility Quantity I < Quantity 2
So, c = a (a – 2b) If a = 9, b = 3
Quantity II: Value of d = 3
(a³ x b³) / (a x b²) = (b³ x d 4) / (b x d) Value of c = 9³ = 729
So, d³ = (a²/b) In this possibility Quantity I > Quantity II
So, d = (a²/b) 1/3 So we can’t infer any relation
Value of d must be a perfect cube, so put a = b² Hence answer is option C
RRB PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 30th Jan 2021

Distribution of Number of
Boys
based on it.
The pie chart given below shows the % or
10%
degree distribution of the number of boys in five
25%
450
different colleges. The table given below shows
the average number of boys and girls together
540
in these five colleges, % of the number boys 5760
belongs to Delhi out of total students in a

particular college and % of number of girls
A B C D E
belongs to outside Delhi out of the total number
of girls in that college.
13

b) 46%
c) 48%
d) 49%
e) 45%
4) Find the average n umber o f s tudents w ho

belongs to Delhi in college C?
a) 1936
b) 1826
c) 1996
d) 1926
1) Find the difference between th e n um ber o f e) None of these
boys who belongs to outside Delhi from college
E and number of girls belongs to outside D elhi 5) Total number of girls who belongs to Delhi i n
from college E? all colleges together is approximately how much
a) 64 % of the total number of boys w ho b elongs to
b) 104 outside Delhi in all colleges together?
c) 94 a) 62.3%
d) 84 b) 63.3%
e) None of these c) 65.3%
d) 67.3%
2) Find the total number of boys in college A i s e) 68.3%
approximately how much % mor e o r l ess than
the total number o f s tudents w ho b elongs to Direction (06 – 10): Read the following
outside Delhi in college C? information carefully and answer the q u estions
a) 8.5% based on it.
b) 7.9% Five companies manufactured three types of
c) 7.4% products – Laptops, Desktops and LEDs. Some
d) 7.1% of the products manufactured by the company
e) 9.5% are defective. The bar graph given below shows
3) Find n umber o f s tudents who b elongs to the % of non – defective Laptops and Desktops
Delhi in college D is approximately how much % out of the total number of non – defective
of total number of students in college D? products manufactured by a particular company
a) 47% and % of defective products out of the total
14

number of products manufactured by the d) 51%

company. Number of Non – defective LEDs e) 49%
manufactured by company A, B, C, E and D
was 1848, 2880, 4320, 1517 and 3744 8) Find the total number of defective items
respectively. manufactured by all companies together?
Total number of products manufactured = a) 19474
Defective products manufactured + Non b) 19274
Defective products manufactured c) 19374
60% d) 18374
50%
50%
48% e) 18274
42%
40% 36% 37.50% 37.50%
30% 30% 32%28% 30%
30% 25% 26% 9) Total number o f N on – D efective L a ptops
22%
20%
18%
manufactured by all companies together is h ow
10% much % of total number Non – Defective
0% Desktops manufactured by all companies
A B C D E
together?
% of Non - Defective Laptops
% of Non - Defective Desktops
a) 110.6%
% of Defective Products b) 110.2%
c) 107.9%
6) Find the difference between th e n um ber o f
d) 108.6%
Non – defective Laptops manufactured by
e) 108.2%
company C and Company D?
a) 2082
10) Find total number of products manufactured
b) 2062
by all companies together?
c) 2092
a) 68410
d) 2072
b) 67410
e) None of these
c) 68310
d) 67310
7) Number of Non – defective Desktops
e) None of these
manufactured by company D is a pproximately
how much % of the number of non – d e fective
Laptops manufactured by company E?
based on it.
a) 52%
Three are three types of buses Normal (A and
b) 50%
B), Luxury (P and Q) and Volvo (M). Each bus
c) 53%
15

has two classes – Sleeper and General class. 33.33% of seats in general c lasses o f n o rmal
The ratio of number of Seats in Sleeper class buses are occupied by fe male p assengers. If
and general class of bus A is in 3:2 and the the price of one male passenger is R s. 6 9 a nd
number of seats in a general class of bus B is of female passengers Rs. 24, then find the total
57(1/7)% more than the sleeper class of same revenue generated by normal buses if the
Bus. Number of seats in the sleeper class of buses are fully occupied?
Bus P is 25 less than that of Bus B. Number of a) Rs. 40920
seats in the General class and the Sleeper b) Rs. 40720
class of Bus P is the same. Number of seats in c) Rs. 40820
the general class of bus Q is 50% of seats in d) Rs. 40520
the sleeper class of the same Bus. Ratio of the e) None of these
number of seats in the sleeper class of Bus B
and that of Bus Q is in the ratio of 5:12 13) If there is another bus N, having seats 6 5%
respectively. Ratio of the number of seats in the more than that of bus M, and the ratio of
General class and Sleeper class of Bus M is in number of seats in sleeper class and in general
the ratio of 65:39 respectively. Total seats in class in bus N is 6:7 respectively. Find the
Sleeper class and general class of bus Q and M number of seats in general class of bus N.
together is 615 and 535 respectively. Total a) 472
number of seats in the sleeper class of buses A b) 462
and B together is 415. c) 492
11) If 45% of seats in Sleeper class and 60% o f d) 482
seats of the general class of bus Q is o ccupied e) None of these
by male passengers and the rest seats are
occupied by female passengers, th en fi nd the 14) Find the average n umber o f s e ats i n th e
total number of female p a ssenger s i n B us Q. general class of all buses together?
(Only one person is allowed to sit on one seat). a) 234
a) 325 b) 214
b) 295 c) 204
c) 315 d) 244
d) 335 e) None of these
e) None of these
15) Find the difference between the n um ber o f
12) If 40% of seats in sleeper c lass o f n o rmal seats in the sleeper class of bus A and bus M?
buses in o ccupied b y m ale p assengers a nd a) 55
16

b) 65 e) None of these
c) 85
d) 45 20) 12, 28, (?), 400, 1870, 10375
e) None of these a) 92
b) 100
16) Find the total number o f s eats i n b us B i s c) 324
how much % more or less than that of bus P? d) 128
a) 50% e) None of these
b) 66.66%
c) 75% 21) 161, 224, 294, (?), 447, 532
d) 25% a) 397
e) None of these b) 367
c) 369
Direction (17 – 21): Find the value of the d) 389
question mark (?) in the following given number e) None of these
series.
17) 128, 245, (?), 520, 766, 787 Direction ( 2 2 – 2 5 ): In e ach o f th e following
a) 453 questions two statements I and II a r e g iven to
b) 493 you, find which of th e following s tatement( s)
c) 443 is/are sufficient to answer the question.
d) 343 22) 7ab5 is a four-digit number, find the value of
e) None of these (a²/b + 8)
Statement I: ab is exactly divisible by 12.
18) 1098, 1104, 1084, (?), 1054, 1164 Statement II: The number is exactly divisible b y
a) 1126 25. value of a is not 1.
b) 1096 a) Only I is sufficient to answer the question
c) 1136 b) Only II is sufficient to answer the question
d) 1146 c) Both statements together are sufficient to
e) None of these answer the question
19) 191, 192, 189, 198, 171, 252, (?) d) Either I or II is sufficient to answer the
a) 19 question
b) 90 e) Both statements together are not sufficient to
c) 191 answer the question
d) 9
17

23) Two vessels A and B c o ntain m i xtures o f e) Both statements together are not sufficient to
milk and water in the ratio of 5:7 and 8:9 answer the question
respectively. Find the quantity of water in vessel
A. 25) Rakshit bought two articles A and B at Rs. P
Statement I: if 28.56% of the mixture from and Rs. Q respectively and spent Rs. 100 e ach
vessel A is removed and mixed with vessel B, for maintenance of the articles. Find the value of
then the amount of water in vessel B becomes (P + Q).
271 ml. Statement I: When Rakshit sold article A at 25%
Statement II: The amount of milk in vessel B is profit and article B at 30% profit then there is an
85 ml more than the amount of milk in vessel A. overall profit of 27.7272…% on the overall
a) Only I is sufficient to answer the question transaction.
b) Only II is sufficient to answer the question Statement II: When Rakshit sold article A at
c) Both statements together are sufficient to 10% profit article B at 120% profit, so there is
answer the question an overall profit of 70% on the overall
d) Either I or II is sufficient to answer the transaction.
question a) Only I is sufficient to answer the question
e) Both statements together are not sufficient to b) Only II is sufficient to answer the question
answer the question c) Both statements together are sufficient to
answer the question
24) Length of train X is twice of train Y. Find the d) Either I or II is sufficient to answer the
speed of train Y , if train X can cross the tr ain Y question
in 30 seconds w hile r unning i n the o p posite e) Both statements together are not sufficient to
direction. answer the question
Statement I: Train X and Train Y can cross the
pole in 45 seconds and 18 seconds 26) Cost price o f a n a r ticle i s R s. P a nd i t i s
respectively. marked up Rs. 240 above its cost price and sold
Statement II: Train X can cross the platform of after discount of 20%. P rofit % o n s elling the
length 2700 meters in 90 seconds. article is Q%. Find w hich o f th e v alue(s) c a n
a) Only I is sufficient to answer the question satisfy the pair (P, Q).
b) Only II is sufficient to answer the question I. 160, 100
c) Both statements together is sufficient to II. 260, 700/13
answer the question III. 100, 162
d) Either I or II is sufficient to answer the IV. 360, 33.33%
question a) I and II only
18

b) I, II and IV only to the height of 18 cm. There is another v essel

c) IV only in shape of cube whose to tal s u rface a r ea i s
d) I, II, III and IV 512 cm² is completely immersed in the tr iangle
e) None of these shape vessel. Find the ratio of new height up to
lem on j uice i s filled a nd i nitial h eight u p to
27) Number of boys in a class is 3 6 m o re th an lemon juice is filled.
the number of girls in a class. While the ratio o f a) 13:11
average amount contributed for farewell party of b) 13:9
girl and boy is 1:2 respectively. F ind the to tal c) 12:11
number of students in the class, if the a v erage d) 13:7
amount contributed by all students is 83.33% o f e) None of these
average amount contributed by boys.
a) 108 30) A train can cross a platform in 97.2 seconds
b) 96 and a person on bicycle is running with speed of
c) 120 15 km/h in same direction as that of tr ain i n 5 4
d) 136 seconds. Find the time taken by another person
e) None of these to cross the platform whose s pe ed i s twice o f
the person on bicycle and length of platfor m i s
28) Number of articles sold by shopkeeper A i s same as that of train?
35 more than 80% of number of articles sold b y a) 14.86 seconds
shopkeeper B. Ratio of number of articles s old b) 11.62 seconds
by shopkeeper A and C is 5:8 respectively a nd c) 11.92 seconds
shopkeeper C sold 7 0 a r ticles m o re th an the d) 13.43 seconds
shopkeeper B. if shopkeeper C sold each article e) None of these
at Rs. 275, then find total revenue generated by
article C. 31) Speed of boat in still w ater i s 3 40% m o re
a) Rs. 20625 than the speed o f s tream. A b oat c an t r avel
b) Rs. 32625 upstream distance of 612 km in 12 hours. F ind
c) Rs. 33000 the difference between the time taken by boat to
d) Rs. 34000 travel downstream distance in 7 hours and
e) None of these distance travelled b y b oat i n s till w ater i n 1 3
hours.
29) A vessel i n th e s hape o f tr iangle h aving a) 391 km
base area of 64 cm² is filled with lemon Juice up b) 261 km
19

c) 281 km d) Rs. 185800

d) 291 km e) None of these
e) None of these
34) Ratio of efficiency of P and Q is in th e r a tio
32) A mixture of milk and w ater i n th e r atio o f of 7:5. P started the work alone and c om pletes
3:1. 80 ml of mixture is removed a nd r e placed 70% of the work in 2D days and remaining work
by water and then 100 ml of mixture is removed completed by Q in (D + 4.8) days. Find approx.
and replaced by water so, the amount o f w ater difference between the ti me ta ken b y P a nd Q
in the final mixture b ecom es 2 20 m l. find th e to complete the work alone?
initial quantity of milk in the mixture? a) 28.4 days
a) 200 ml b) 27.4 days
b) 600 ml c) 29.4 days
c) 400 ml d) 29.8 days
d) 300 ml e) 27.8 days
e) None of these 35) Ramesh starting a business w ith a n i nitial
investment of Rs. M, after 2 months R iya j oins
33) P invested R s. K fo r 2 y e ars @ 5 0 % p e r him. After another 2 months, Ramesh withdraws
annum earning compound interest. He then lent 25% of the initial c apital a n d Riya w ithdraws
the interest received by him after 2 years to B. B 37.5% of the i nitial c apital a fter 5 m o nths o f
invested the money for 3 years at 40% pe r joining the business, leaving an amount which is
annum compound interest. After 3 years, B 60% of the initial investment of Ramesh. A t the
gives (K + 115800) to C and rest of the amount end of the year, if the total profit e a rned i s R s.
he invested i n th e b ank, th en i s h e e a rning 58740, then find the profit share of Ramesh?
simple interest for 4 years at 20% per annum i s a) Rs. 33000
Rs. 24000. Find the amount given to C? b) Rs. 44000
a) Rs. 176800 c) Rs. 66000
b) Rs. 175800 d) Rs. Rs. 25740
c) Rs. 165800 e) None of these
Directions (1-5): % of boys in college B out of total number of

boys in all colleges together = 54/360 x 100 =
15%
20

% of boys from college D out of total number of

boys in all colleges together = 45/360 x 100 =
12.5%
So, 100% = 25% + 15% + 5760 + 12.5% + 10%
37.5% of total boys = 5760
So total number of boys in all colleges together
= 5760/37.5 x 100 = 15360
Number of boys in college A = 25% of 15360 =
3840
Total number of students in college A = 2530 x
2 = 5060
Number of girls in college A = 5060 – 3840 =
1220
Number of boys who belongs to Delhi = 35% of
3840 = 1344 1) Answer: E
Number of boys belongs to outside Delhi = 3840 According to the question,
– 1344 = 2496 Number of boys who belongs to outside Delhi
Number of girls who belongs to outside Delhi = from college E = 1056
40% of 1220 = 488 Number of girls belongs to outside Delhi from
Number of girls who belongs to Delhi = 1220 – college E = 982
488 = 732 Required difference = 1056 – 982 = 74
Similarly, we can find the data for all colleges Hence answer is option E
2) Answer: C
Total number of boys in college A = 3840
Total number of students who belongs to
outside Delhi from college C = 3168 + 980 =
4148
Required ratio = (4148 – 3840)/4148 x 100 =
7.4%
3) Answer: A
21

Total number of students who belongs to Delhi So, number of Non defective products
in college D = 480 + 1274 = 1754 manufactured by the company = 1848/22 x 100
Total number of students in college D = 3740 = 8400
Required % = 1754/3740 x 100 = 47% Number of defective products manufactured =
Hence answer is option A 30% of total products manufactured
So, number of non – defective products
4) Answer: D manufactured = 70% of total products
Number of students who belongs to Delhi from manufactured
college C = 2592 70% of total products manufactured = 8400
Number of students who belongs to Delhi from So total products manufactured by the company
college C = 1260 = 8400/70 x 100 = 12000
Required average = (2592 + 1260)/2 = 1926 Number of defective products manufactured =
Hence answer is option D 30% of 12000 = 3600
Number of Non – Defective Laptops
5) Answer: B Manufactured = 30% of 8400 = 2520
Total number of girls who belongs to Delhi in all Number of Non – Defective Desktops
colleges together = 5895 Manufactured = 48% of 8400 = 4032
Total number of boys who belongs to outside Similarly we can find the data for all companies.
Delhi in all colleges together = 9312
Required % = 5895/9312 x 100 = 63.3%
Hence answer is option B
Directions (6-10):
For Company A,
Number of Non – Defective Laptops and
Desktops manufactured by the company = (30%
+ 48%) of the total number of non – defective
products manufactured by company = 78% of
non – defective products
So, non – defective LEDs manufactured by the
company = 22% of non-defective
So, 22% of non – defective = 1848
6) Answer: E
22

According to the question, Hence answer is option A

Number of Non – defective Laptops
manufactured by company C = 2400 Directions (11-16):
Number of Non – defective Laptops Let the number of seats in sleeper class and
manufactured by company D = 4914 general class of bus A is 3a and 2a
Required difference = 4914 – 2400 = 2514 respectively.
Hence answer is option E Let the number of seats in sleeper class of bus
B = 35b
7) Answer: B So number of seats in general class of bus B =
Number of Non – Defective Desktops 11/7 x 35b = 55b
manufactured by company D = 3042 Number of seats in sleeper class of bus P =
Number of non – defective Laptops general class of bus P = 35b – 25
manufactured by company E = 6068 Number of seats in sleeper class of bus Q =
Required % = 3042/6068 x 100 = 50% 12/5 x 35b = 84b
Hence answer is option B Number of buses in general class of bus Q =
50% of 84b = 42b
8) Answer: C Let the number of seats in general class and
Total number of defective items manufactured sleeper class of bus M is in ratio of 65c and 39c
by all companies together = 3600 + 4050 + respectively.
5760 + 3300+ 2664 = 19374 Now, 84b + 39c = 615…………. (1)
Also, 42b + 65c = 535………… (2)
9) Answer: B Apply, 2 x equation (2) – equation (1), we get
Total number of Non – Defective Laptops (130c – 39c) = 2 x 535 – 615 =
manufactured by all companies together = 2520 So, value of c = 455/91 = 5
+ 2304 + 2400 + 4914 + 6068 = 18206 On putting value of c in equation 2, we get
Total number Non – Defective Desktops 42b = 535 - 325
manufactured = 4032 + 2016 + 2880 + 3042 + So, value of b = 5
4551 = 16521 Number of seats in sleeper classes of buses A
Required % = 18206/16521 x 100 = 110.2% and B together = 415
Hence answer is option B Number of seats in sleeper class of bus B = 35
x 5 = 175
10) Answer: A So the number of seats in the sleeper class of
Required sum = 12000 + 11250 + 15360 + bus A = 415 – 175 = 240
15000 + 14800 = 68410
23

So the number of seats in the general class of Number of male passengers in general class of
bus A = 2/3 x 240 = 160 normal buses = 2/3 of 435 = 290
Now, we can find the data related to the number Total revenue generated = 69 x (166 + 290) +
of seats of all buses. 24 x (249 + 145) = 31464 + 9456 = Rs. 40920
13) Answer: B
Number of seats in bus N = 165% of 520 = 858
Number of seats in general class of bus N =
7/13 x 858 = 462
Hence answer is option B
14) Answer: E
Required average = (160 + 275 + 150 + 210 +
325)/5 = 1120/5 = 224
Hence answer is option E
11) Answer: C
15) Answer: D
According to the question,
Required difference = 240 – 195 = 45
Number of female passengers in sleeper class
of bus Q = 420 x 55% = 231
Number of female passengers in General class
16) Answer: A
of bus Q = 210 x 40% = 84
Total number of seats in bus B = 450
Total number of female passengers in bus Q =
Total number of seats in bus P = 300
231 + 84 = 315
Required % change = (450 – 300)/300 x 100 =
50%
12) Answer: A
Number of male passengers in sleeper class of
17) Answer: C
normal buses = 40% of (240 + 175) = 40% of
415 = 166
Number of female passengers in sleeper class
of normal buses = 60% of 415 = 249
Number of female passengers in general class
of normal buses = 1/3 of (160 + 275) = 1/3 of
435 = 145 24

18) Answer: A Hence answer is option C

1098 + (2 x 3) = 1104
1104 – (4 x 5) = 1084 22) Answer: C
1084 + (6 x 7) = 1126 Statement I: ab is exactly divisible by 12.
1126 – (8 x 9) = 1054 So, the value of ab could be 12, 24, 36, 48, 60,
1054 + (10 x 11) = 1164 72, 84 and 96
Hence answer is option A This statement alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
19) Answer: D Statement II: The number is exactly divisible by
191 + 30 = 192 25. value of a is not 1.
192 – 31 = 189 So the value of b can be 2 or 7
189 + 3² = 198 This statement alone is not sufficient to answer
198 - 3³ = 171 the question.
171 + 34 = 252 From statement I and II:
252 – 35 = 9 Value of ab should be 72.
Hence answer is option D Value of a = 7 and b = 2
Required value = (7² / 2 + 8) = 32.5
20) Answer: B Hence answer is option C
12 x 1.5 + 10 = 28
28 x 2.5 + 30 = 100 23) Answer: C
100 x 3.5 + 50 = 400 Let the quantity of milk and water in vessel A
400 x 4.5 + 70 = 1870 and vessel B is 5a, 7a and 8b, 9b respectively.
1870 x 5.5 + 90 = 10375 Statement I: if 28.56% of the mixture from
Hence answer is option B vessel A is removed and mixed with vessel B,
then the amount of water in vessel B becomes
21) Answer: C 271 ml.
Logic = number + (consecutive prime number 7a x 2/7 + 9b = 271
starting from 61 + consecutive natural number 2a + 9b = 271……………. (1)
starting from 2) This statement alone is not sufficient to answer
161 + (61 + 2) = 224 the question
224 + (67 + 3) = 294 Statement II: The amount of milk in vessel B is
294 + (71 + 4) = 369 85 ml more than the amount of milk in vessel A.
369 + (73 + 5) = 447 8b – 5a = 85……………… (2)
447 + (79 + 6) = 532
25

This statement alone is not sufficient to answer So, (2a + 2700) = speed of train X x
the question 90…………… (4)
On combining both statements, This statement alone is not sufficient to answer
2a + 9b = 271…………… (1) the question
8b – 5a = 85…………… (2) On combining both statements,
On solving both equations From equation 2,
(45b + 16b) = 271 x 5 + 85 Speed of train X = 2a/45
61b = 1525 From equation 4,
So, the value of b = 25 (2a + 2700) = speed of train X x 90
And the value of a = 23 So, (2a + 2700) = 2a/45 x 90
So quantity of water in vessel A = 7 x 23 = 161 Value of a = 2700/2 = 1350
ml So length of train Y = 1350 meters
Both statements are required to answer. Put in equation 3,
Hence answer is option C 1350 = speed of train Y x 18
Speed of train Y = 1350/18 = 75 m/s
24) Answer: C Hence answer is option C
The length of train X and train Y is ‘2a’ and ‘a’
meters respectively. 25) Answer: E
Now, (2a + a) = sum of speed of trains x 30 Statement I:
So, a = 10 x sum of the speed of Cost price of articles for Rakshit after
trains…………….. (1) maintenance be (P + 100) and (Q + 100)
Statement I: Train X and Train Y can cross the respectively.
pole in 45 seconds and 18 seconds respectively So, (P + 100) x 1.25 + (Q + 100) x 1.3 = (P + Q
2a = speed of train X x 45………………… (2) + 200) x 281/220
Also, a = speed of train Y x 18………….. (3) 275P + 27500 + 286Q + 28600 = 281P + 281Q
On dividing both equations + 56200
2/1 = (speed of train X x 45) / (speed of train Y x 5Q – 6P = 100
18) This statement alone is not sufficient to answer
Speed of train X/ Speed of train Y = 4/5 the question.
This statement alone is not sufficient to answer Statement II:
the question By allegation,
Statement II: Train X can cross the platform of 10% 120%
length 2700 meters in 90 seconds.
70%
26

50% 60% Required profit % = (480 – 360)/360 x 100 =

Ratio of cost price = 5:6 33.33%
(P + 100)/ (Q + 100) = 5/6 This option will satisfy the value.
6P + 600 = 5Q + 500 So, I, II and IV will satisfied the given pair
5Q – 6P = 100 Hence answer is option B
This statement alone is not sufficient to answer
the question. 27) Answer: A
Let the number of girls in class = a
26) Answer: B So number of boys = (a + 36)
I. 160, 100 Let the average amount contributed by each girl
Cost price of article = 160 = Rs. b
Marked price of article = 160 + 240 = 400 So average amount contributed by each boy =
Selling price of article = 80% of 400 = 320 2b
Required profit % = (320 – 160)/160 x 100 = Average amount contributed by a student = 5/6
100% x 2b = 5b/3
This option will satisfy the value. So, a x b + (a + 36) x 2b = (a + a + 36) x 5b/3
II. 260, 700/13 3a + 6a + 216 = 10a + 180
Cost price of article = 260 So, value of a = 216 – 180 = 36
Marked price of article = 260 + 240 = 500 Total number of students in class = 36 + (36 +
Selling price of article = 80% of 500 = 400 36) = 108
Required profit % = (400 – 260)/260 x 100 = Hence answer is option A
(700/13) %
This option will satisfy the value. 28) Answer: C
III. 100, 162 Let the number of articles sold by shopkeeper B
Cost price of article = 100 =a
Marked price of article = 100 + 240 = 340 Number of articles sold by A = 35 + 0.8a
Selling price of article = 80% of 340 = 272 Number of articles sold by C = 8/5 x (35 + 0.8a)
Required profit % = (272 – 100)/100 x 100 = Now,
172% 8/5 x (35 + 0.8a) – a = 70
This option will not satisfy the value. 280 + 6.4a – 5a = 350
IV. 360, 33.33 1.4a = 70
Cost price of article = 360 So, value of a = 50
Marked price of article = 360 + 240 = 600 Number of article sold by C = 8/5 x (35 + 0.8 x
Selling price of article = 80% of 600 = 480 50) = 120
27

Total revenue generated by C = 120 x 275 = So, (4.4a – a) = 51

Rs. 33000 3.4a = 51
Hence answer is option C So, value of a = 15
Speed of boat in still water = 15 x 4.4 = 66 km/h
29) Answer: B Downstream speed of Boat = 66 + 15 = 81 km/h
Total surface area of cube = 512 cm² Required difference = (66 x 13) – (81 x 7) = 291
Increment in the height of lemon juice level = km
512/64 = 8 cm Hence answer is option D
New height of lemon Juice level = 18 + 8 = 26
cm 32) Answer: D
Required ratio = 26:18 = 13:9 Total quantity of mixture is same. So amount of
Hence answer is option B milk in final mixture = (4a – 220) ml
Now,
30) Answer: E 3a x (1 – 80/4a) x (1 – 100/4a) = (4a – 220)
Let the length of train and speed of train is a 3a x (a – 20) x (a –25) / (a x a) = 4a – 220
meters and b km/h respectively. 3 x (a² - 45a + 500) = 4a² - 220a
So, (a + a) = b x 5/18 x 97.2 3a² - 135a + 1500 = 4a² - 220a
So, 2a = 27b a² - 85a – 1500 = 0
So, a = 27b/2…………….. (1) (a – 100)(a + 15) = 0
Also, a = (b – 15) x 5/18 x 54 Possible value of a = 100
Put value of a in equation 1 So amount of milk in mixture initially = 3 x 100 =
27b/2 = (b – 15) x 5/18 x 54 300 ml
9b = 10b – 150 Hence answer is option D
So, b = 150 km/h
And value of a = 27/2 x 150 = 2025 meters 33) Answer: B
Required time = 2025/ (2 x 15) x (18/5) = 18.75 Amount of interest earned by P = K x (1.5² - 1) =
seconds 1.25K
Hence answer is option E Total money with B after earning compound
interest = 1.25K x 1.4 x 1.4 x 1.4 = 3.43K
31) Answer: D Money left with B after given to C = 3.43K – (K +
Let speed of stream = a km/h 115800) = (2.43K – 115800)
So, speed of boat in still water = 440% of a = Simple interest received by B = 20% x 4 x
4.4a (2.43K – 115800)
Upstream speed of boat = 612/ 12 = 51 km/h So, 20% x 4 x (2.43K – 115800) = 24000
28

2.43K = 145800 Hence answer is option B

So, value of K = 145800/2.43 = 60000
So, amount given to C = (60000 + 115800) = 35) Answer: A
175800 According to the question,
Hence answer is option B Riya withdraws 37.5% of capital after 5 months,
so she left with 62.5% of capital which is same
34) Answer: B as 60% of initial capital of Ramesh
According to the question, So, 5/8 x Riya initial investment = 3/5 x Ramesh
(7 x 2D / 70%) = [5 x (D + 4.8)] / 30% initial Capital
6D = 5D + 24 Ratio of Ramesh and Riya’s initial investment =
D = 24 25:24
Time taken by P to complete the work alone= (2 So, ratio of profit = (25 x 4 + 3/4 x 25 x 8): (24 x
x 24/70) x 100 = 68.6 days 5 + 5/8 x 24 x 5) = 50:39
Time taken by Q to complete the work alone = So profit share of Ramesh = [50 / (50 + 39)] x
(24 + 4.8)/30 x 100 = 96 days 58740 = Rs. 33000
Required difference = 96 – 68.6 = 27.4 days Hence answer is option A
IBPS PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 4 th Feb 2021
Direction (1 – 3): Read the following information 1) Find the time taken by train to cover the
carefully and answer the questions based on it. distance from station S1 to station S2 on day 2?
A train is going from station S1 to S2 via Station a) 30 hours
S3 and S4 on Day 1 and Day 2. The average b) 16 hours
speed of train on day 1 and day 2 is 150 km/h c) 24 hours
and 187.5 km/h and the time taken by train to d) 32 hours
go from S1 to S3 on day 1 is 3 hours less than e) Can’t be determined
day 2. Time taken by train to go from S3 to S4
on both the days is same. Time taken by train to 2) Find the d iffer ence b e tween th e d istance
go from S4 to S2 on day 2 is 9 hours less than from station S1 to S3 and distance from statio n
that on day 1. The distance between S4 and S2 S4 to S2?
is 66.66% more than the distance between S1 a) 720 km
and S3. The distance between S3 and S4 is b) 480 km
10% less than the distance between S4 and S2. c) 630 km
d) 640 km
29

e) None of these 4) In Mumbai, the number of m a le s tudents i s

how much % more/less than the number of
3) On day 1, the speed of train between stations female students?
S4 and S2 and between stations S 3 a nd S 4 i s a) 143.82%
in the ratio of 2:3 and the ti me ta ken to c over b) 142.82%
the distance from S3 to S4 is 6 hours less th an c) 145.82%
the time taken to travel from s tation S 4 to S 2. d) 144.82%
Find the speed of the train while travelling fr om e) None of these
S4 to S2?
a) 80 km/h 5) Find the total number of students belongs to
b) 120 km/h Calcutta?
c) 40 km/h a) 4800
d) 60 km/h b) 5000
e) None of these c) 4500
d) 5200
Direction (4 – 9): Read the following information e) None of these
carefully and answer the questions based on it.
The following table gives partial information 6) Find the difference b e tween th e to tal m ale
about the number of students pursuing Masters students belongs to D elhi a nd th e n umber o f
from the Indian Institute of Management, male engineers belongs to Bangalore?
Ahmedabad (IIM A). Students are categorized a) 776
as engineers and non – engineers based on b) 786
their graduation background. c) 754
Total students = total male students + total d) 766
female students e) None of these
7) For Bangalore, engineering female s tudents

pursuing masters i n two b r anches M ar keting
and Finance. The difference between the
number of females pursuing masters in
Marketing and Finance is 132. T he n umber o f
females pursuing masters in F inance i s 2 00%
more than the number of male n on e ngineer s.
30

Find the total number of students who b elongs number of boys in stream B is 50% of the sum
to Bangalore? of the total number of students in stream A.
a) 4800 10) If the number of girl students in stream B i s
b) 6000 360 and the total number of students in s tream
c) 5400 B is 90 less than twice the number o f s tudents
d) 6400 in stream A, then fi nd th e n um ber o f b oys i n
e) None of these stream B?
a) 150
8) For Assam, if the d ifference b etween to tal b) 180
male students and female students is 3300, find c) 120
the number of female non – engineers in d) 200
Assam? e) None of these
a) 1950
b) 1650 11) Find th e differ ence b e tween th e s um o f
c) 3300 200% of the number of b oys i n s tr eam A a nd
d) 1750 girls in stream A and the number of girls in
e) None of these stream B?
a) 120
9) Find the difference between th e n um ber o f b) 240
male engineers and the number of female c) 180
engineers in Delhi? d) 150
a) 1622 e) Can’t be determined
b) 1672
c) 1632 12) Find the value of (X – Y), where
d) 1682 X = 300% of the number of boys in s tream A +
e) None of these number of boys in stream B
Y = number of girls i n s tream A + n u m ber o f
Direction (10 – 12): Read the following girls in stream B
information carefully and answer the q u estions a) 330
based on it. b) 450
In a college, there are two streams, A and B. c) 320
The number of girls in stream B is 90 more than d) 230
thrice the number of girls in stream A and the e) Can’t be determined
31

Directions (13 – 15): Read the following Note: Number of brown chocolates in
information carefully and answer the q u estions companies B and D is 3040 and 3520
based on it. respectively.
The following given pie charts give information 13) Find the ratio of the to tal n u mber o f w hite
about the percentage distribution of the total Chocolates and the total number of Brown
number of chocolates manufactured by the four chocolates m anufactured b y a ll c om panies
different companies and % distribution of white together respectively?
chocolates manufactured by the four a) 4:7
companies. b) 6:7
Total number of chocolates manufactured = c) 5:4
Brown chocolates + White chocolates. d) 9:7
e) None of these
% Distribution of total
number of chocolates
14) Find the central angle that c or responds t o
manufactured
brown chocolates related to company C, if d a ta
of all companies related to b r own c hocolates
(P + arranged in a pie chart?
1.2P% 12)%
a) 137.850
(2P -
b) 129.600
14%)
c)129.750
(P/2 +
8)% d)136.850
A B C D
e) None of these
15) Find the number of brown chocolates

% Distribution of number of manufactured b y c o mpany A i s a pprox. h ow
White Chocolates much % more or less than the number of brown
Manufactured
chocolates manufactured by company C?
(5Q/3)% a) 12.9%
(10Q/3)% b) 13.7%
2(Q + c) 12.7%
2)%
Q% d) 12.5%
e) 13.2%
A B C D
32

Direction (16 – 21): Read the following b) 180%

information carefully and answer the q u estions c) 275%
based on it. d) 75%
The line graph given below shows the % of e) None of these
managers in a company out of the total number
of employees in that company and the table is 17) In company A, if the difference between th e
given below shows the number of female number of managers and the number o f n o n –
managers in a company. managers is 196, then find the number o f m ale
35% managers in that company?
30%
30%
a) 36
25% b) 56
25%
20% c) 46
20% 18%
15% d) 42
15% 12% e) None of these
10%
5% 18) Ratio of male managers and female
0%
managers in c o mpany F i s 5 :3 r espectively,
A B C D E F
then find the number of non – manager
% of Managers out of total employees
employees in company F?
a) 630
b) 560
c) 420
d) 660
e) None of these
19) If the number of employees other than

managers in company D i s 5 74, th en find th e
number of male managers in company D?
16) If the number of male managers in company
a) 46
C is 144 and the number of females in company
b) 44
C is 360, then find the number of male
c) 36
employees other than managers is how much %
d) 56
more than the number of male managers in that
e) None of these
company?
a) 225% 33

20) Number of male managers in company E i s a) Only I

‘K’ more than the number of female m a nagers b) II and III only
in company E. Find the to tal e mployees i n E , c) I and III only
where K = 75% of the number of female d) I and II only
managers in the company? e) I, II and III
a) 875
b) 625 23) A number series given below as I. A second
c) 725 number series as II having fir st te rm s ame a s
d) 825 the wrong term of the series I. Find 3 r d te rm o f
e) None of these series II?
Series I. 3, 7, 22, 95, 479, 2879
21) In company B , th e n umber o f fe males i s a) 541
60% of total employees and the number of b) 571
female employees other th an the m a nager i s c) 561
40% of the number of employees other than the d) 551
manager. Find th e n um ber o f e mployees i n e) None of these
company B other than the manager?
a) 340 Direction (24 – 25): In the following question two
b) 320 number series I and II are given to you. In e ach
c) 360 number series, there is a wrong te r m. Y ou a r e
d) 400 expected to find the logic of the series and
e) None of these identify the wrong term then answer the
question accordingly.
22) A Number series is given to you as below: Series I. 18, 20, 25, 35, 52, 78, 114
701, 349, 173, 85, 41, 19, 8, 2.5 Series II. 80, 320, 1 120, 3 360, 8 400, 1 6400,
X is the nth term of the given series and Y is the 25200
(n + 1) th term of the same series. 24) In series II, if N is the wrong term, then find
Find which of the following statement is/are true which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
in the context of the given number series. I. (N/400) is a prime number
I. X = 2Y + 3 II. (N + 500) is a perfect square
II. Difference between the first term and second III. When N is divided by 27, the remainder is a
term is twice the difference between the second prime number
and third term and so on. a) I only
III. Y = 3X + 2 b) I and II only
34

c) III only b) 8 years

d) I, II and III c) 16 years
e) None of these d) 10 years
e) None of these
25) If N is the wrong Number i n s eries I, th en
find what minimum number must be added to N Direction ( 2 8 – 2 9 ): In e ach o f th e following
to make it perfect square? questions three statements I, II and III are given
a) 14 to you. You have to decide which statem ent(s)
b) 8 is/are sufficient to answer the question.
c) 9 28) Scheme ‘A’ offers an R% rate of interest o n
d) 11 compound interest. Find the value of R?
e) None of these Statement I: If the interest received on 2P/5
sum of money invested for 11 years at 0.25R%
26) There a r e s om e g reen b alls, s om e b lue interest on SI is half of amount P invested in
balls and 7 red balls in the bag. The probability scheme A for 2 years.
of picking one green ball is 1/7 more than that of Statement II: If X is invested in scheme A for 2
picking one red ball. The probability o f p icking years and amounts to Rs. 3600. If Rs. 16X/25 is
one blue ball is 9/35 more than that of the invested at (R – 10) % on CI for 2 years, it
probability of picking one red ball. Find the to tal amounts to Rs. 1936.
number of blue balls in the bag? Statement III: Difference between interests on
a) 16 Rs. Q invested in Scheme A for two years and
b) 14 three years is Rs. 1152.
c) 12 a) Only I
d) 18 b) Only I or II
e) None of these c) Only I or III
d) Any two statements are required
27) Samantha born 4 years after the m a rriage e) None of the statement is sufficient to answer
of their parents, Samantha’s mother i s 4 y ear s
younger than S amantha’s father. A t p r esent 29) An article i s m a rked u p a t a c e r tain r a te
Samantha is 20 years younger than his mother. above the cost price. Find the ma rked p rice o f
After 4 years ratio of ages of h e r p arents i s i n the article (i.e) Rs. K.
7:8. How many y ears b efore h is p a rents g o t Statement I. K is marked at 80% above cost
married? price.
a) 12 years
35

Statement II: The cost price of the article is Rs. Match R: II-IV
P. If the shopkeeper gives a discount of 4%, a) Match P and R only
then he makes a profit of 8%. If he sells the b) Match P only
article at the marked price, then profit is Rs. 28 c) Match R only
Statement III: The cost price of the Pen is Rs. c) Match Q only
Q. Shopkeeper makes a profit of Rs. 56, if he e) Match Q and R only
gives a discount of 22.22%
a) II or (I + III) 31) If the height of X is greater than R adius o f
b) Only II Y, then find w hich o f th e following m a tch i s
c) Combination of any two statements true?
d)Only III a) I – V only, II-IV, III-IV only
e) Any of the statements alone is not sufficient b) I – V or I – VI, II – IV or II – V, III – IV or III – V
to answer the question. or III - VI
c) I – V or I – VI, II – IV, III – IV or III – V or III -
Direction (30 – 31): There are 6 quantities given VI
to you, three in each box, B ox 1 and Box 2. Find d) I – VI, II – IV or II – V, III – IV or III – V or III -
the perfect m atch b etween th e q uantities o f VI
boxes according to the situation given to you. e) None of these
Box 1:
I. The volume of the toy is 1232 cm³, cone Direction (32 – 34): A p e rson i s g oing m ar ket
consists of cone X, surmounted by a from his home with a speed of P km/h and i n Q
hemisphere. hours. After reaching the market, he purchases
II. Volume of cylinder Y is 1848 cm³ a cylindrical j ar o f a c e rtain h eight h aving a
III. A circle is inscribed in a square S. capacity equal to 83259 c u bic c m . T her e i s a
Box 2: conical vessel whose capacity i s 1 /27 th o f th e
IV. Radius = 14 cm cylindrical jar and the height o f th e c o ne i s 1 4
V. Radius = 7 cm cm. The height of the c onical v essel i s 3 00%
VI. Circumference of circle = 44 cm more than the cylinder.
32) Find the ratio of the radius of the cylindrical
30) If the difference between the height of Y and jar to the radius of the conical vessel.
the side of S is greater than 20 cm, find which of a) 6:1
the following given match(s) is/are true. b) 3:2
Match P: II-VI c) 4:3
Match Q: II – V d) 5:2
36

e) None of these more than the time taken by a person to r e ach

the market, then find the value of Q.
33) If the distance between home and market is a) 6 hours
numerically equal to seven m or e than 1 /3 r d o f b) 3 hours
the square root of 1/11 th of the capacity of c) 9 hours
cylindrical j ar a nd s peed o f p erson i s 3 00% d) 12 hours
more than the time taken by a person to r e ach e) None of these
the market, then find the value of P.
a) 40 km/h 35) The product of two positive integers i s 6 16.
b) 18 km/h If the ratio of difference o f their c u bes to th e
c) 36 km/h cube of their difference is 157:3, then find 5 0%
d) 12 km/h of the sum of two numbers.
e) None of these a) 50
b) 75
34) If the distance between home and market is c) 12.5
numerically equal to the seven more th an 1 /3 rd d) 25
of the square root of 1 /11 th o f th e c apacity o f e) None of these
cylindrical j ar a nd s peed o f p erson i s 3 00%
Directions (1 – 3): Distance between S4 and S2 is 66.66% more

Average Speed of train on day 1 = 150 km/h than distance between S1 and S3. Distance
Average Speed of train on day 2 = 187.5 km/h between S3 and S4 is 10% less than distance
Let the time taken by train to go from S1 to S3 between S4 and S2
on day 1 = a hours So ratio of distance from (S1 to S3), (S3 to S4)
So, time taken by train to go from S1 to S3 on and (S4 to S2) = 6:9:10
day 2 = (a + 3) hours We know, average speed = total distance/total
Let the time taken by train to go from S3 to S4 time
on day 1 = day 2 = b hours Distance travelled in both the days is same, so
Let the time taken by train to go from S4 to S2 150 x (a + b + c) = 187.5 x (a + 3 + b + c – 9)
on day 1 = c hours 4 x (a + b + c) = 5 x (a + b + c – 6)
So, time taken by train from S4 to S2 on day 2 = 4 x (a + b + c) = 5 x (a + b + c) – 30
(c – 9) hours So, (a + b + c) = 30
37

So time is taken by train to travel the distance Difference of time = 6 hours

from S1 to S2 on day 1 = 30 hours So time is taken by train to go from S4 to S2 =
1) Answer: C 15 hours
According to the question, Total distance travelled by train = 150 x 30 =
Time taken by train to go from S1 to S2 on day 4500 km
2 = (a + 3 + b + c – 9) Distance between S4 and S2 = 10/25 x 4500 =
= (a + b + c) – 6 1800 km
= 30 – 6 = 24 hours Required speed = 1800/15 = 120 km/h
Hence answer is option C Hence answer is option B
2) Answer: A 4) Answer: D
We already know, For Mumbai,
The ratio of the distance from (S1 to S3), (S3 to Let the total number of students studying in IIM
S4) and (S4 to S2) = 6:9:10 A from Mumbai = 100a
Time is taken by train to travel the distance from Number of engineers = 88% of 100a = 88a
S1 to S2 on day 1 = 30 hours Number of non-engineers = 100a – 88a = 12a
Average speed on day 1 = 150 km/h Number of male engineers = 75% of 88a = 3/4 x
So, total distance = 150 x 30 = 4500 km 88a = 66a
Distance between S1 and S3 = [6/ (6 + 9 + 10)] Number of female engineers = 88a – 66a = 22a
x 4500 = 1080 Number of male non engineers = 41.667% of
Distance between S4 and S2 = [10/ (6 + 9 + 12a = 5/12 x 12a = 5a
10)] x 4500 = 1800 Number of female non engineers = 12a – 5a =
Required difference = 1800 – 1080 = 720 km 7a
Hence answer is option A Total number of male students = (66a + 5a) =
71a
3) Answer: B Total number of female students = (22a + 7a) =
According to the question, 29a
The speed of the train between stations S4 and Required % of change = (71a – 29a)/29a x 100
S2 and between stations S3 and S4 is in the = 144.82%
ratio of 2:3. Hence answer is option D
The ratio of the distance from (S1 to S3), (S3 to
S4) and (S4 to S2) = 6:9:10 5) Answer: C
So the ratio of time taken from (S4 to S2) and According to the question,
(S3 to S4) = 10/2: 9/3 = 5:3 Let the total Population = 100a
38

Number of engineers = 78% of 100a = 78a Number of male engineers belongs to

Number of non-engineers = 100a – 78a = 22a Bangalore = 3588
Number of male engineers = 1896 Required difference = 3588 – 2832 = 756
Number of female engineers = 78a – 1896 Hence answer is option E
Number of male non engineers = 40% of 22a =
8.8a 7) Answer: B
Number of female non engineers = 22a – 8.8a = For Bangalore,
13.2a Let total population = 100a
Total number of female = 2208 Number of engineers = 92a
So, 78a – 1896 + 13.2a = 2208 Number of non-engineers = 100a – 92a = 8a
91.2a = 2208 + 1896 Number of male engineers = 3558
So, a = 4104/91.2 = 45 Number of female engineers = 92a – 3588
So total number of students belongs to Calcutta Number of male non - engineers = 62.5% of 8a
= 100a = 4500 = 5a
Hence answer is option C Number of female non engineers = 8a – 5a = 3a
Number of females pursuing masters in Finance
6) Answer: E = 300% of 5a = 15a
For Delhi, Number of females pursuing masters in
Let total population of Delhi = 100a Marketing = (92a – 3588) – 15a = 77a – 3588
Number of engineers = 68% of 100a = 68a Now,
Number of non-engineers = 100a – 68a = 32a (77a – 3588) – 15a = 132
Number of male engineers = 2448 62a = 3588 + 132 = 3720
Number of female engineers = 68a – 2448 So, a = 3720/62 = 60
Number of non – engineers male = 25% of 32a So, total students belongs to Bangalore = 100a
= 8a = 100 x 60 = 6000
Number of non-engineers female = 32a – 8a = Hence answer is option B
24a
Total number of females = 1968 8) Answer: B
So, 68a – 2448 + 24a = 1968 For Assam,
92a = 4416 Let the total population = 320a
So, a = 48 Number of engineers = 80% of 320 = 256a
So, total number of male students = 2448 + 8a Number of non – engineers = 320a – 256a =
= 2832 64a
39

Number of male engineers = 68.75% of 256a = Hence answer is option C

176a
Number of female engineers = 256a – 176a = 10) Answer: A
80a According to the question,
Number of male non engineers = 37.5% of 64a Number of girls in stream B = 360
= 24a The number of girls in stream B is 90 more than
Number of female non engineers = 64a – 24a = thrice the number of girls in stream A
40a So, 3 x number of girls in stream A + 90 = 360
Now, So, number of girls in stream A = 270/3 = 90
(176a + 24a) – (80a + 40a) = 3300 Total number of students in stream B is 90 less
80a = 3300 than twice the number of students in stream A.
So, a = 3300/80 = 330/8 2 x (boys in A + Girls in A) – 90 = (boys in B +
So number of female non-engineers = 40a = 40 girls in B)
x 330/8 = 1650 2 x (boys in A + 90) – 90 = (boys in B + 360)
Hence answer is option B 2 x boys in A – boys in B = 270…….. (1)
Number of boys in stream B is 50% of the sum
9) Answer: C of the total number of students in stream A.
For Delhi, So, boys in B = 1/2 x (boys in A + 90)
Let total population of Delhi = 100a Boys in A – 2 x boys in B = - 90………. (2)
Number of engineers = 68% of 100a = 68a On solving both equations,
Number of non-engineers = 100a – 68a = 32a 3 x boys in B = 270 + 180
Number of male engineers = 2448 Boys in B = 450/3 = 150
Number of female engineers = 68a – 2448 Hence answer is option A
Number of non – engineers male = 25% of 32a
= 8a 11) Answer: D
Number of non-engineers female = 32a – 8a = Let the number of boys and girls in stream A is
24a ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively.
Total number of females = 1968 So number of boys in stream B = (a + b)/2
So, 68a – 2448 + 24a = 1968 Number of girls in stream B = (3b + 90)
92a = 4416 Total number of students in stream B is 90 less
So, a = 48 than twice the number of students in stream A.
So, number of female engineers = 68a – 2448 = 2 x (a + b) – 90 = (3b + 90) + (a + b)/2
816 4a + 4b – 180 = 6b + 180 + a + b
Required difference = 2448 – 816 = 1632 3a – 3b = 360
40

(a – b) = 120 Let total number of Chocolates and total

We need to calculate = 2 x a + b – (3b + 90) = number of white chocolates manufactured by all
2(a – b) – 90 companies together is 100a and 100b
So required value = 2 x 120 – 90 = 150 respectively
Hence answer is option D Total number of brown chocolates in company
B = 3040
12) Answer: A (P/2 + 8)% of 100a - (2Q + 4) % of 100b= 3040
Let the number of boys and girls in stream A is 18a – 28b = 3040……. (1)
‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Total number of brown chocolates in company
So number of boys in stream B = (a + b)/2 D = 3520
Number of girls in stream B = (3b + 90) (1.2P)% - (10Q/3) % = 3520
Total number of students in stream B is 90 less 24a – 40b = 3520…….. (2)
than twice the number of students in stream A. On solving both equations we get
2 x (a + b) – 90 = (3b + 90) + (a + b)/2 Value of a = 480 and b = 200
4a + 4b – 180 = 6b + 180 + a + b Total number of chocolates manufactured =
3a – 3b = 360 100a = 48000
(a – b) = 120 Total number of white chocolates manufactured
We need to calculate = [3a + (a + b)/2] –[b + 3b 100b = 20000
+ 90] Now we can find the data for all companies,
= (7a – 7b – 180)/2 calculated in the table below:
=7/2 x (a – b) – 90
= 7/2 x 120 – 90
= 330
Directions (13 – 15):

According to the given information,
(P + 12 + P/2 + 8 + 2P – 14 + 1.2P)% = 100%
4.7P = 94 13) Answer: E
P = 20 According to the question,
Similarly, (5Q/3 + 2Q + 4 + Q + 10Q/3) % = Total number of white chocolates = 20000
100% Total number of brown chocolates = 28000
8Q = 96 Required ratio = 20000: 28000 = 5:7
Q = 12 Hence answer is option E
41

14) Answer: B Number of managers in company = 25% of total

Total number of brown chocolates = 28000 employees in a company
Brown chocolates manufactured by company C Number of non-managers in company = 75% of
= (10080/28000) x 3600 = 129.600 total employees in a company
Hence answer is option B Now,
(75% - 25%) of total employees in company =
15) Answer: C 196
Number of brown chocolates manufactured by So, total employees in the company = 196/50 x
company A = 11360 100 = 392
Number of brown chocolates manufactured by Number of managers in company = 25% of 392
company C = 10080 = 98
Required % change = [(11360 – 10080)/10080] So, number of male managers in company = 98
x 100 = 12.7% – 52 = 46
Hence answer is option C Hence answer is option C
16) Answer: E 18) Answer: B

For company C, Number of female managers in the company =
Number of male managers = 144 90
Number of female managers = 36 So, number of male managers in company = 5/3
Total managers in company = 20% of total x 90 = 150
employees in a company Total managers in company = (90 + 150) = 240
So, total employees in the company = (144 + Number of managers in company = 30% of total
36)/20 x 100 = 900 employees
Number of female employees = 360 Number of non – managers = 70% of total
Number of male employees = 900 – 360 = 540 employees
Number of male employees other than manager So, number of non – managers in company =
= 540 – 144 = 396 240/30 x 70 = 560
Required % change = (396 – 144)/144 x 100 = Hence answer is option B
175%
Hence answer is option E 19) Answer: A
Number of managers in company D = 18% of
17) Answer: C total employees
For company A, Number of non – managers = 82% of total
employees
42

So, total employees in the company = 574/82 x 22) Answer: D

100 = 700 Statement I:
Number of managers = 18% of 700 = 126 The given series is
Number of male managers = 126 – 80 = 46 701, 349, 173, 85, 41, 19, 8, 2.5
Hence answer is option A If X = 701 and Y = 349
Then 701 = 2 x 349 + 3 (follow)
20) Answer: D If X = 349 and Y = 173
Number of female managers in company E = 36 Then, 349 = 2 x 173 + 3 = 349
So, number of male managers in company E = Check for other terms also, it will follow the
36 + 75% of 36 = 63 same pattern.
Total managers in company = 63 + 36 = 99 This statement is true
So, total employees in company E = 99/12 x Statement II:
100 = 825 Difference between the first term and second
Hence answer is option D term is twice the difference between the second
and third term and so on.
21) Answer: A So, the difference between the first term and the
Let the total number of employees in the second term = 352
company B= 100a Difference between second term and third term
Number of female = 60% of 100a = 60a = 349 – 173 = 176
Number of male = 40a So, 2 x 176 = 352 (follow)
Number of managers = 15% of 100a = 15a If the first term is 349,
Number of non – managers = 100a – 15a = 85a Difference between first term and second term =
Number of female other than manager = 40% of 349 – 173 = 176
85a = 34a Difference between second term and third term
So number of female managers = 60a – 34a = = 173 – 85 = 88
26a 2 x 88 = 176 (follow)
So, 26a = 104 If first term is 173
So value of a = 104/26 = 4 Difference between first term and second term =
So number of employees in company = 100a = 173 – 85 = 88
400 Difference between second term and third term
Number of employees other than manager = = 85 – 41 = 44
85% of 400 = 340 2 x 44 = 88 (follow)
Hence answer is option A If first term is 85,
43

Difference between first term and second term = Series II:

85 – 41 = 44 22 x 2 + 1 = 45
Difference between second term and third term 45 x 3 + 2 = 137
= 41 – 19 = 22 137 x 4 + 3 = 551
2 x 22 = 44 (follow) Hence answer is option D
If first term is 41
Difference between first term and second term = 24) Answer: D
41 – 19 = 22 Series II:
Difference between second term and third term 80 x 4 = 320
= 19 – 8 = 11 320 x 3.5 = 1120
2 x 11 = 22 (follow) 1120 x 3 = 3360
If first term is 19, 3360 x 2.5 = 8400
Difference between first term and second term = 8400 x 2 = 16800
19 – 8 = 11 16800 x 1.5 = 25200
Difference between second term and third term So the value of N = 16400
= 8 – 2.5 = 5.5 Statement I. value of (N/400) = 16400/400 = 41
2 x 5.5 = 11 (follow) (Prime number)
This statement is true. This statement is true
Statement III: Statement II: (N + 500) = (16400 + 500) =
X = 701, Y = 349 16900 = (130)²
Y = 3X + 2, will not follow, because Y is always This statement is true
less than X. Statement III: (N/27) = 16400/27 = 27 x 607 +
This statement is not true 11
Only I and II are true. Remainder is 11, so this statement is true.
Hence answer is option D All statements are true.
23) Answer: D
Series I:
3x2+1=7
7 x 3 + 2 = 23
23 x 4 + 3 = 95
95 x 5 + 4 = 479
479 x 6 + 5 = 2879
Wrong term is 22
44

25) Answer: E 27) Answer: B

Series I: According to the question,
18 20 25 35 52 78 115 At present Samantha is 20 years younger than
his mother. That means when Samantha was
2 5 10 17 26 37 just born, the age of her mother was 20 years
and her father was 24 years.
3 5 7 9 11 The age of parents at the time of marriage was
20 years and 16 years respectively.
Value of N = 114 The ratio of ages of parents after 4 years is in
114 + 7 = 121 the ratio of 7:8. That means the ages of their
Hence answer is option E parents after 4 years will be 28 years and 32
years.
26) Answer: A So the present age of her parents is 24 years
Let the number of green balls and blue balls in and 28 years respectively.
the bag is ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Present age of Samantha = 24 – 20= 4 years
According to the question, So her parents married before 8 years
a/total balls – 7/total balls = 1/7 Hence answer is option B
7a – 49 = total balls …………. (1)
Also, 28) Answer: B
b/total balls – 7/total balls = 9/35 Statement I:
35b – 245 = 9 x total balls ……………. (2) According to the given statement,
On comparing both equations Simple interest earned = 2P/5 x R/400 x 11 =
63a – 441 = 35b – 245 0.011PR
63a – 35b = 196 Compound interest earned on P = P x [(1 +
9a – 5b = 28………….. (3) R/100)² - 1]
Also, total balls = (a + b + 7) Now,
So, 7a – 49 = a + b + 7 P x [(1 + R/100)² - 1] = 0.011PR x 2
6a – b = 56…………….. (4) 2R + R²/100= 2.2 R
On solving 3 and 4, we get R²/100 = 0.2R
7b = 112 So R = 20%
So, b = 16 This statement is sufficient to answer the
Number of blue balls in the bag = 16 question.
Hence answer is option A Statement II:
45

X is invested in scheme A for 2 years and Mark up % is 80%

amounts to Rs. 3600. So Q/K = 5/9
Rs. 16X/25 is invested at (R – 10) % on CI for 2 Discount is 22.222%
years, it amounts to Rs. 1936 So ratio of SP/K = 7/9
So, 3600 = X [(100 + R)/100]²……………. (1) So, CP: SP: MRP = 5:7:9
Also, 1936 = 16X/25 [(100 + R – Profit is Rs. 70
10)/100]²……………. (2) So 2 units = Rs. 56
On diving both equations 1 unit = 28
3600/1936 = 25/16 x (100 + R) ² / (90 + R) ² So required value of K = 28 x 9 = Rs. 252
60/44 = 5/4 x (100 + R)/ (90 + R) This combination of the statement is sufficient to
1100 + 11R = 1080 + 12R answer the questions.
R = 20% Statement II alone or statement (I + III) is
This statement is alone sufficient to answer the sufficient to answer the question.
question. Hence answer is option A
Statement III:
We don’t know about the value of Q. So we 30) Answer: C
can’t calculate R. Volume of cylinder = 1848 cm³
This statement is not sufficient to answer the 22/7 x r² x height = 1848
question In quantity VI, circumference = 44 cm
Hence answer is option B So radius = 7 cm
If radius = 14 cm
29) Answer: A Then side of square = 2 x 14 = 28 cm
Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the Then height of cylinder = (7/22 x 1848)/ (14 x
question. 14) = 3 cm
Statement II: So the difference between the height and side
108% of P = 96% of K of the square is more than 20. This will satisfy
P/K = 8/9 the condition
If he sells the article at the marked price then If radius = 7 cm
profit is Rs. 28 Side of square = 14 cm
Then, (9 – 8) units = 28 Then height of cylinder = (7/22 x 1848)/ (7 x 7)
Then value of K = 28 x 9 = Rs. 252 = 12 cm
This statement is sufficient to answer the So the difference between the height and side
question. of the square is less than 20. This will not
On combining (I + III), satisfy the condition.
46

So the correct match is II-IV. 33) Answer: D

Hence answer is option C Distance between home and market = 7 + 1/3 x
(1/11 x 83259)1/2 = 36
31) Answer: C Speed of person = 4 x time taken
The volume of toy = 1232 cm³ So 36 = time x 4 x time taken
If radius = 7 cm Time = 3 hours = Q
1/3 x 22/7 x 7 x 7 x height of cone + 2/3 x 22/7 x Numerical value of P = 4 x 3 = 12 km/h
7³ = 1232 Hence answer is option D
22/7 x 7² x (1/3) x (height of cone + 14) = 1232
Height of cone = 10 cm 34) Answer: B
If radius = 14 cm, then the height of the cone The required value of Q = 3 hours
becomes negative Hence answer is option B
35) Answer: D
32) Answer: A Let the two numbers be ‘a’ and ‘b’
According to the question, So, a x b = 616
Volume of cylinder = 22/7 x (radius of cylinder) ² Also, (a³ - b³) / (a – b) ³ = 157/3
x height of cylinder = (a² + a x b + b²) / (a² + b² - 2ab)
Volume of cone = 1/3 x 22/7 x (radius of cone) ² Put a² + b² = K
x height of cone So, (K + 616)/ (K – 2 x 616) = 157/3
Now, So, value of K = 1268
27 x 1/3 x 22/7 x (radius of cone) ² x 4 x height Value of a² + b² = 1268
of cylinder = 22/7 x (radius of cylinder) ² x height Or a² + b² + 2ab = 1268 + 2ab
of cylinder (a + b) ² = 1268 + 2 x 616 = 2500
Radius of cone/radius of cylinder = 1/6 So, value of (a + b) = 50
Required ratio = 6:1 Required value = 50% of 50 = 25
Hence answer is option A Hence answer is option D
RRB Office Assistant MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 20th Feb 2021
1) Ani and Bindu sold a Radio both marked the gives a successive d iscount o f 3 0% a nd 6 % .
same price on the Radio. Ani gives a Which of the following is true?
successive discount of 20% and 16% and Bindu a) Ani makes profit of 32.8% 47

b) Bindu offers better discount than Ani the number of people lives in b uilding A . In F ,
c) Selling price of Radio by Ani is equal to the there are 10 flats in which 2 people live in e ach
selling price of Radio by Bindu flat, 10 flats in which 3 people live in each flat, 5
d) Bindu makes a loss flats in which 4 people live in each fl at a nd th e
e) Ani offers better discount than Bindu remaining flat there is one person live i n e a ch
flat. Find the number of flat in building F?
2) A, B and C is a positive number in which A = a) 51
B 2 /C. If B is 20% increased and C is 60% b) 48
increased, then which of the following op tion i s c) 96
true? d) 68
a) A is unchanged e) 75
b) A is 10% increased
c) A is 10% decreased 4) Find the average number of females in
d) A is 15% increased building B, C and E?
e) Cannot be determine a) 60
b) 40
Directions (3-8): Study the following information c) 30
carefully and answer the questions given below. d) 50
The given table shows the sum of the number of e) 35
males and females and the ratio of the number
of males to females in five different buildings in 5) Number of males in February in A is equal to
January. the average number of ma les i n J a nuar y i n B
and C and the number of females in February in
A is 5 more than the number of males in
February in that building. Find the total of
number of people in February in A?
a) 130
b) 140
c) 135
d) 145
e) 150
3) There is another building F in which the 6) Number of females in D is what percent more
number of people who live i s 2 0% m or e than or less than the number of female in E?
48

a) 10% then find the sum Rounak invested i n s c heme

b) 20% B?
c) 15% a) 1500
d) 25% b) 2000
e) 30% c) 3000
d) 2500
7) In February, 20% of the male of building C i s e) None of these
left and no new person comes to live in building
C. If the ratio of male and female in February i n 10) Navya spends one-fourth o f h e r s alary o n
C is 4:5, then find the number of the female l eft EMI and 2/5 of the remaining o n m o nthly b ills
in C in February? and the rest is divided between her mother a nd
a) 10 father in the ratio of 3:2. If the difference
b) 20 between the EMI and the amount o f m o ther i s
c) 15 Rs.840, then find the salary of the Navya?
d) 25 a) Rs.40000
e) None of these b) Rs.50000
c) Rs.42000
8) Ratio of the number of people w ho live i n E d) Rs.45000
and G is 21:24 and the number of males in G i s e) Rs.48000
2/3 of the number of females in G, then find th e
number of males in G? Directions (1 1-16): W hat a pproximate v alue
a) 45 should come in the place of (?) in the following
b) 48 questions.
c) 52 11) 448/3 + 11.99 * 4.01 = ?
d) 56 a) 197
e) 60 b) 203
c) 188
9) Rounak invested in two schemes. Scheme A d) 217
(gives 10% per annum at simple i nterest) a nd e) 192
scheme B (gives 1 0 % p er a nnum c om pound
interest). In Scheme B Rounak invested Rs.500 12) 144.031 + 1449.01 + 39.06 = ?
more than that of in schem e A . A fter 2 y ear s, a) 1620
amount received from scheme B is Rs.620 b) 1626
more than the amount received from scheme A, c) 1632
49

d) 1645 started the work and after 9 days there is only 5

e) 1651 km of the project is completed. Find the number
of workers required to complete th e p r oject o n
13) 14.998 * 6.02 * ? = 1979 time?
a) 22 a) 210
b) 25 b) 190
c) 28 c) 90
d) 33 d) 110
e) 18 e) None of these
14) √? * 8.01 + 4.99% of 239 = 52 Directions (18-23): Study the following

a) 20 information carefully and answer the q u estions
b) 25 given below.
c) 30 Burger and pizza are sold by two companies A
d) 35 and B on Monday and Sunday. The number of
e) 40 burgers sold by A on Monday is 20% more than
the number of pizzas sold by A on Monday. The
15) (41.99 + 98.05)/(12.01 – 4.99) = ? number of burgers sold by A on Monday is
a) 15 equal to the number of burgers sold by B on
b) 20 Monday. The number of pizzas sold by B on
c) 25 Monday is half of the number of burgers sold by
d) 30 B on Monday.
e) 40 Number of burgers sold by A on Sunday is
equal to the number of pizzas sold by B on
16) (80% of 501 – 40.09)/6.01 = ? Sunday. Number of pizzas sold by A on Sunday
a) 40 is 40 more than the number of burgers sold by
b) 45 A on Sunday. Average number of pizzas sold by
c) 50 A and B on Monday is 120 and average number
d) 55 of pizzas sold by A and B on Sunday is 84.
e) 60 18) Number of burgers sold by A on S unday i s
what % of the number o f p izzas s old b y A o n
17) For a construction of a 12 k m r o ad p roject Monday?
there are 100 number o f w orkers, th e p roject a) 33.33%
should be completed in 15 d ays. 1 00 w orker s b) 42.67%
50

c) 38.18% a) Number of burgers sold by A on Sunday is

d) 47.19% 80% of the number of pizzas sold by A on
e) 55.55% Sunday.
b) Number of burgers sold by B on Monday is
19) Find the difference between the n um ber o f equal to the number of pizzas sold by B on
pizzas sold by A on Monday and the number o f Sunday
pizzas sold by B on Monday? c) Sum of the number of burgers sold by A and
a) 60 B on Monday is equal to 360
b) 80 d) Number of pizzas sold by B on Sunday is 6
c) 45 more than the number of burgers sold by B on
d) 55 Monday
20) Had the number o f b u rgers s old b y B o n 23) Number of veg burgers sold by A on
Sunday is 50% of the number of pizzas sold b y Sunday is 40% of the n u mber o f v eg b u rgers
B on Sunday, then find the ratio of th e n um ber sold by A on Monday. If the number of non -veg
of burgers s old b y B o n M onday a nd th at o f burgers sold by A on Sunday i s 2 8 m o re th an
Sunday? the number of veg burgers s old A o n S unday,
a) 45:8 then find the number of veg bur gers s old b y A
b) 40:7 on Monday and Sunday together?
c) 23:4 a) 58
d) 11:2 b) 61
e) None of these c) 63
d) 53
21) Find the sum of burgers and pizzas sold b y e) None of these
A on Monday?
a) 360 24) A, B and C started the business, the
b) 272 investment of B is twice the investment of A and
c) 276 investment of C is equal to the sum of
d) 330 investment of A and B, the investment time of B
e) None of these is twice of the investment time of A, the
investment time of C is 6 m o nth l ess th an th e
22) Based on the given data which of the investment time of B. If the profit of the r a tio o f
following is true?
51

B and C is 8:3, then find for how ma ny m onths c) 901

did A invest? d) 992
a) 3 e) 776
b) 4
c) 5 29) 10, 6, 3.5, 5, 16, 120, 1904
d) 6 a) 6
e) Cannot be determined b) 1904
c) 16
Directions (25-29): Find out the wrong n um ber d) 5
in the following number series. e) 120
25) 56, 70, 50, 64, 44, 60, 38
a) 60 30) Ram has a watch whose cost price is
b) 38 Rs.900, he marked his w atch a t c e rtain p rice
c) 70 and give a certain discount. If the p r ofit % a n d
d) 64 the discount % of th e w atch i s e qual a nd th e
e) 50 marked price of the watch is Rs.1100, then find
the profit of the watch?
26) 6, 17, 49, 149, 446, 1337, 4010 a) 90
a) 149 b) 110
b) 1337 c) 130
c) 49 d) 100
d) 4010 e) 80
e) 446
31) There are three Jars A, B and C of the
27) 5, 16, 29, 46, 63, 88, 117 same capacity. A is filled wi th half of its
a) 29 capacity, B is filled with 1/3 of its capacity and C
b) 117 is empty. If the liquid fr om A a nd B i s d ivided
c) 63 between A, B and C equally, then find the
d) 46 portion of Jar C is filled?
e) 88 a) 1/6
b) 5/16
28) 1000, 992, 965, 901, 776, 556, 217 c) 2/9
a) 217 d) 5/6
b) 556 e) 5/18
52

Directions (32-37): Study the fol lowing 33) Ratio of the number of males and females in
information carefully and answer the q u estions B is 8:7. If 2/5 of the female live in a rent house,
given below. then find the percentage o f m ales i n B l ive i n
The given bar graph shows the total number of rent house out of the total s urveyed p eople i n
people surveyed in five cities A, B, C, D and E B?
and the number of people who lived in their own a) 18%
houses. b) 20%
700 c) 22%
d) 27%
600
e) 36%
500
Total people
34) People live in that own house in C are living
400 surveyed
in flat and villa. The ratio of people l ive i n flats
300 Number of
and villa in C among the people live in their own
people live in
200 own house house is 17:1 and the ratio of people live in villa
and banglow in C among the p eople live th eir
100
own house is 3:2, then find the number of
0 people live in a villa in C among the people live
A B C D E
in that own house?
Note: Total people surveyed = Number of a) 12
people live in their own house + Number of
b) 10
people live in the rent house
c) 18
32) People live in a rent house in F i s e qual to
d) 15
the sum of 2/3 of people live in rent in D and 3/8 e) 22
of people live in rent in E. If th e p eople live i n
their own house in F is 10% more than the 35) Number of people who live in a r e nt h ouse
people who live in rent in F, then find the in D is how m u ch p er centage m or e than th e
number of people surveyed in F? numbers of people live in a rent house in A?
a) 592
a) 68.12%
b) 584 b) 71.42%
c) 588 c) 51.89%
d) 612 c) 42.76%
e) 605 e) 82.12%
53

36) Among people surveyed i n B , 1 00 p eople and breadth is reduced by 2 feet, area becomes
live in municipal zone and the rest is live i n th e unchanged. Find the area of the floor?
residential, c ommer cial z one a nd i ndustrial a) 150
zone, the number of people who live in the b) 172
residential zone is 60 more than the n umber o f c) 220
people who live in the commercial z o ne, th en d) 180
find the maximum possible n umber o f p eople e) 160
live in the residential zone? (Note: At least o n e
person live in each zone) 39) Difference between the unit place a n d tens
a) 219 place of a two digit number is 5. If the number is
b) 279 multiplied by 4 and decreased b y 3 i t s d igit i s
c) 281 interchanged, find the two digit number?
d) 288 a) 16
e) 198 b) 61
c) 49
37) People live in a rented house in A i n w hich d) 27
15% people live in kuccha house and the e) 38
remaining l ive i n th e p ucca h ouse. F ind th e
difference between the number o f p eople w ho 40) Age of A 6 years ago is equal of B 18 year s
live in their own house in A and th e n umber o f ago. Age of A 18 years ago is equal to the
people who live in rent in pucca house in A? present age of C. If D is 8 years o lder th an C ,
a) 141 then find how much B is older or y ounger th an
b) 94 D?
c) 125 a) 22 years elder
d) 137 b) 22 years younger
e) 152 c) 18 years older
d) 18 years younger
38) Length of floor is 3 feet more than b r eadth e) Cannot be determine
of floor. Even after length is increased by 3 fe e t
1) Answer: B SP of radio sold by Ani = 100x * 80/100 *

Marked price of Radio = 100x 84/100 = 67.2x
54

SP of radio sold by Bindu = 100x * 70/100 * Required average = (35 + 65 + 50)/3

94/100 = 65.8x = 50
Compare the selling price of radio sold by Bindu
and Ani, Bindu offers better discount than Ani. 5) Answer: C
Number of male in February in A = (75 + 55)/2 =
2) Answer: C 65
A = 120B * 120B/16000C Number of female in February in A = 65 + 5 =
A = 144B2/160C 70
A = 9B2/10 Required total = 65 + 70 = 135
Therefore, A is decreased by 10%
6) Answer: B
Directions (3-8): Required percentage = (50 – 40)/50 * 100
= 20%
7) Answer: A
Number of male after left in C = 55 – (20/100 *
55) = 44
Final Number of female in C = 5/4 * 44 = 55
Number of female left in C = 65 – 55 = 10
8) Answer: B
Ratio of Number of male and female in G = 2:3
3) Answer: A Number of male in G = 2/5 * (24/21 * 105) = 48
Number of person live in F = 120/100 * 80 = 96
10 flats in which 2 people live in each flat = 10 * 9) Answer: B
2 = 20 Amount invested in scheme A = x
10 flats in which 3 people live in each flat = 10 * Amount invested in scheme B = x + 500
3 = 30 Amount received from scheme A = x + (x * 10 *
5 flats in which 4 people live in each flat = 4 * 5 2)/100 = 1.2x
= 20 Amount received from scheme B = (x + 500) *
Remaining people = 96 – 20 – 30 – 20 = 26 (1 + 10/100)2
Total number of flat = 10 + 10 + 5 + 26 = 51 = 1.21x + 605
1.21x + 605 – 1.2x = 620
4) Answer: D x = 1500
55

Amount invested in scheme B = 1500 + 500 = 20 = ?

Rs.2000
16) Answer: E
10) Answer: C (80% of 501 – 40.09)/6.01 = ?
Salary of Navya = x 360/6 = ?
EMI = 1/4 * x = x/4 ? = 60
Monthly bills = (x – x/4) * 2/5 = 3x/10
Mother = (x – x/4) * 3/5 * 3/5 = 27x/100 17) Answer: D
27x/100 – x/4 = 840 100 * 9/5 = ((100 + x) * (15 – 9)/(12 – 5))
2x = 84000 210 = 100 + x
x = 42000 x = 110
11) Answer: A Directions (18-23):

448/3 + 11.99 * 4.01 = ? Number of pizzas sold by A on Monday = 5x
149 + 48 = ? Number of burgers sold by A on Monday = 5x *
? = 197 120/100 = 6x
Number of burger sold by B on Monday = 6x
12) Answer: C Number of pizza sold by B on Monday = 6x/2 =
144.031 + 1449.01 + 39.06 = ? 3x
? = 1632 Number of burger sold by A on Sunday = y
Number of pizza sold by B on Sunday = y
13) Answer: A Number of pizza sold by A on Sunday = y + 40
14.998 * 6.02 * ? = 1979 Number of pizza sold by A and B on Monday =
90 * ? = 1980 120 * 2 = 240
? = 22 Number of pizza sold by A and B on Sunday =
84 * 2 = 168
14) Answer: B 5x + 3x =240
√? * 8.01 + 4.99% of 239 = 52 x = 30
√? * 8 + 12 = 52 Number of pizzas sold by A on Monday = 5 * 30
√? = 5 = 150
? = 25 Number of burgers sold by A on Monday = 5x *
120/100 = 6 * 30 = 180
15) Answer: B Number of burgers sold by B on Monday = 6 *
(41.99 + 98.05)/(12.01 – 4.99) = ? 30 = 180
56

Number of pizzas sold by B on Monday = 6x/2 = Required total = 45 + 18 = 63

3 * 30 = 90
2y + 40 = 168 24) Answer: B
y = 64 Investment of A = x
Number of burger sold by A on Sunday = 64 Investment of B = 2x
Number of pizza sold by B on Sunday = 64 Investment of C = x + 2x = 3x
Number of pizza sold by A on Sunday = 64 + 40 Investment period of A = y
= 104 Investment period of B = 2y
18) Answer: B Investment period of C = 2y – 6
Required percentage = 64/150 * 100 (2x * 2y)/3x * (2y – 6) = 8/3
= 42.67% y = 4y – 12
y=4
19) Answer: A Investment period of A = 4 months
Required difference = 150 – 90 = 60
25) Answer: A
20) Answer: A Alternative number difference is 6
Number of burger sold by B on Sunday = 64/2 = 56 – 6 = 50
32 50 – 6 = 44
Required ratio = 180:32 44 – 6 = 38
= 45:8 70 – 6 = 64
64 – 6 = 58
21) Answer: D
Required sum = 150 + 180 = 330 26) Answer: C
6 * 3 – 1 = 17
22) Answer: C 17 * 3 – 1 = 50
50 * 3 – 1 = 149
23) Answer: C 149 * 3 – 1 = 446
Number of veg burgers sold in A on Sunday = x 446 * 3 – 1 = 1337
Number of non-veg burgers sold in A in Sunday 1337 * 3 – 1 = 4010
= x + 28
x + x + 28 = 64 27) Answer: C
x = 18 5 + 11 = 16
Number of veg burgers sold by A on Monday = 16 + 13 = 29
100/40 * 18 = 45 29 + 17 = 46
57

46 + 19 = 65 32) Answer: C
65 + 23 = 88 Number of people live in rent in F = 2/3 * (660 –
88 + 29 = 117 420) + 3/8 * (480 – 160)
28) Answer: B = 280
1000 – 23 = 992 Number of people live in own house in F =
992 – 33 = 965 110/100 * 280 = 308
965 – 43 = 901 Total number of people surveyed in F = 308 +
901 - 53 = 776 280 = 588
776 – 63 = 560
560 – 73 = 217 33) Answer: A
Number of female in rent house in B = 7/15 *
29) Answer: A 600 * 2/5 = 112
10 * 0.5 – 0.5 = 4.5 Number of male live in rent house in B = (600 –
4.5 * 1 – 1 = 3.5 380) – 112 = 108
3.5 * 2 – 2 = 5 Required percentage = 108/600 * 100
5 * 4 – 4 = 16 = 18%
16 * 8 – 8 = 120
120 * 16 – 16 = 1904 34) Answer: D
Number of people live in flats, villa and banglow
30) Answer: A in C among people live in own house = 51:3:2
1100 * (100 – x)/100 = 900 * (100 + x)/100 Number of people live in a villa in C among
1100 – 11x = 900 + 9x people who live in their own house = 3/56 *
20x = 200 (280)
x = 10 = 15
Profit of the watch = 10/100 * 900 = 90
35) Answer: B
31) Answer: E Required percentage = ((660 – 420) – (400 –
Total capacity = x 260))/(400 – 260) * 100
A = x/2 = 71.42%
B = x/3
C = (x/2 + x/3)/3 36) Answer: B
=5x/18 Number of people live in residential, commercial
C is filled 5/18 of portion and industrial zone = 600 – 100 = 500
Number of people live in commercial zone = x
58

Number of people live in residential zone = x + Length = 15

60 Area = 12 * 15 = 180
If the number of person live in industrial zone is
2, x + x + 60 + 2 = 500 39) Answer: A
x = 219 From option,
So, the number of people live in residential zone 16 * 4 = 64, interchange = 61
= 219 + 60 = 279 (maximum possible) Difference = 64 – 61 = 3
37) Answer: A 40) Answer: A

Number of people live in a rent house in A living A – 6 = B – 18
in Pucca house = 85/100 * (400 – 260) = 119 A – B = -12 -----(1)
Difference = 260 – 119 = 141 A – 18 = C
D–C=8
38) Answer: D A – 18 = D – 8
Breath = b A – D = 10 -----(2)
Length = b + 3 From (1) and (2)
(b + 3) * b = (b + 3 + 3) * (b – 2) -B + D = -22
b2 + 3b = b2 – 2b + 6b – 12 B – D = 22 years
b = 12 B is 22 years older than D
59

SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 Quantitative Aptitude Day – 1
Direction (01 – 05): Read the following i nform ation c a refully a nd a nswer th e q uestions b ased o n
it.(based on RRB PO mains 2020)
The given bar graph shows the percentage of the Laptops, Desktops and Macs sold by company A, B
and C out of the products manufactured by the companies.
1) If the n u mber o f l aptops m a nufactur ed b y the company A is what percentage of the

company A, B and C is in the ratio of 4:3:6. T he company B. (A manufactured highest number o f
average number of laptops sold by all the Macs and C manufactured the lowest number o f
companies is 1980, then find the number of Macs)
laptops manufactured by company C? a) 69.23%
a) 6480 b) 133.33%
b) 3240 c) 144.44%
c) 4320 d) 125%
d) 6380 e) None of these
e) None of these
3) If the number of Macs m anufactured b y th e
2) The difference between the number o f M acs company A and B is 40% more than the number
manufactured by company A and B is th e s am e of Laptops manufactured by the company A a nd
as that of the company B and C. If the number of B. The average number of Macs sold by
Macs sold by c ompany B a nd C i s th e s am e, company A and B together i s K m o re th an the
then find the number of Macs manufactured b y average number of laptops sold b y c ompany A
60

and B together. Then find the number of Laptops Direction (06 – 10): Read the following
unsold by company B. Where, K = 800 + 1 1 .5% information carefully and answer the q u estions
of the number of laptops manufactured by based on it. (based on RRB PO mains 2020)
company A. The given pie chart shows the % distribution of
a) 1200 the number of boys in five different schools. The
b) 4000 given table shows the average number of boys
c) 3500 and girls together in five different schools, %
d) 2800 boys in Science stream out of the total boys in a
e) Can’t be determined particular School and % of the number of girls in
commerce stream out of the total number of girls
4) If the number of desktops sold by company B in that School. Consider, there are only two
is 1728 and the number of Desktops streams in the School – Science and Commerce.
manufactured by company B is 11.11% less than
the number o f d esktops s old b y c ompany C .
Find the number of desktops m a nufactur ed b y
company C?
a) 3240
b) 4050
c) 2880
d) 3600
e) None of these
5) If the sum of the desktops sold by company A

and B is 2586 and the sum of the desktops s old
by company A and C is 3930. If th e n u mber o f
desktops sold by company C is 87.5% more than
that of company B, then find the number of
desktops manufactured by company C?
a) 4200
b) 2560
c) 1536
d) 1050 6) Find the n umber o f s tudents i n c o mmerce
e) None of these stream of school R is h ow m u ch% o f th e to tal

number of students in school T?
61

a) 114.18% d) 25%
b) 112.4% e) 28%
c) 111.08%
d) 113.18% 10) Find the difference between th e n um ber o f
e) None of these boys in the commerce stream and the number of
girls in th e s cience s tream i n a ll the s c hools
7) If the monthly tuition fees of a science stream together?
student is Rs. 224 and a commerce stream a) 1788
student is Rs. 202. Then find th e to tal r e venue b) 1748
generated by school P in a month? (Consider a ll c) 1678
students deposited their monthly fees) d) 1658
a) Rs. 622876 e) None of these
b) Rs. 621576
c) Rs. 623576 Direction (11 – 15): Read the following
d) Rs. 622574 information carefully and answer the q u estions
e) None of these based on it. (based on RRB PO mains 2020)
There are three buses A, B and C, some of the
8) Find the difference b e tween th e n um ber o f seats occupied by male passengers and the rest
boys in the Commerce stream o f s chool Q a n d by female passengers. Each seat in the bus has
the number o f g irls i n the S cience s tream o f been categorized into two types– Reserved
school S? (RSV) seat and non-Reserved (NRSV) seat.
a) 710 Each seat in the bus is either Red colour or
b) 510 Black colour. Only one passenger can sit in one
c) 620 seat and no seat in any bus is vacant.
d) 640 Bus A: The ratio of the number of red seats and
e) None of these number of non-reserved seats is 12:5
respectively. The number of male passengers on
9) Find the total number of gi rls in science RSV seats is 140% more than the number of
stream in all the schools together is females on NRSV seats. There are totally 80
approximately what percentage of the total passengers on RSV Seats out of this 20 are
number of students in all the schools together? female passengers.
a) 24% The average number of male passengers on
b) 21% NRSV seats and female passengers on RSV
c) 22% seats taken together is 17.5.
62

Bus B: The total seat in Bus B is thrice the total females sitting o n n on-reser ved s eats i s 3 :5.
seats in Bus A and the total number of male Find the number of females sitting on Red
passengers is 40 more than the female coloured reserved seats?
passengers. The total number of NRSV seats is a) 40
50% of the red colour seats. The total number of b) 60
male passengers sit on reserved seats is 75% of c) 80
the total male passengers. The number of d) 25
female passengers sits on NRSV seats is e) None of these
22.22% less than the number of female
passengers sits on RSV seats. 13) Find the difference between the total number
Bus C:Number of female passengers sits on of male passengers and female p assengers i n
NRSV seats is 60% more than that of in bus A. all three buses together?
Total reserved seats are 150% more than that of a) 240
in bus A . There are 120 male passenger sits on b) 170
reserved seats and the total c) 290
number of non-reserved seats is 120 more than d) 240
that of in Bus B. Respective ratio of the reserved e) None of these
seats and red seats is 5:7 respectively.
11) Find the total n u mber o f m ales s itting o n 14) If there is another bus D, then the number o f
non-reserved seats in bus A a n d B to gether i s seats in bus D is 37.5% more than that of b us B
approximately w hat % o f th e to tal n um ber o f and the number o f r e d s eats i n b u s D i s 3 22.
females sitting on reserved seats in bus B and C Find the average number of black colour seats in
together? bus A, C and D together?
a) 34% a) 129
b) 32% b) 139
c) 38% c) 109
d) 36% d) 119
e) 40% e) None of these
12) In Bus C, the n u mber o f m ales s itting o n 15) Find the total number of red colour s eats i n
black colour seats is 50% more than the number all buses together is approximately how much %
of females sitting on black colour se ats a nd th e more than that of black colour seats?
ratio of the number of females s itting o n b lack a) 100%
coloured non-reserved se ats to th e n umber o f b) 103%
63

c) 104% 18) 24, 25, 26, 28, 34, (?)

d) 101% a) 48
e) 105% b) 58
c) 62
Directions (16 – 20): What value should come i n d) 68
the place of (?) in the following number e) None of these
series?(based on RRB PO mains 2020)
16) 20000, 4000, 1600, 960, (?), 768 19) 48, 44, 94, 221, (?), 1520
a) 768 a) 962
b) 684 b) 852
c) 840 c) 552
d) 900 d) 452
e) None of these e) None of these
17) 93, 138, (?), 252, 321, 398 20) 229, 245, 281, (?), 445, 589
a) 211 a) 345
b) 181 b) 335
c) 171 c) 325
d) 191 d) 375
64


Directions (1-5): A = 13x
Tabulate the Data for further Convenience, The required % = 13x/9x * 100 = 144.44%
Hence, the answer is option C
3) Answer: D
Let, the number of Laptops manufactured by the
company A and B is 100a and 100b respectively.
1) Answer: A The number of Macs manufactured by company
Let, the number of laptops manufactured by A and B is 140a and 140b respectively.
company A, B and C is 40a, 30a and 60a Now according to the question,
respectively. (45% x 140a + 50% of 140b)/2 – (40% x 100a +
Number of laptops sold by company A = 40% of 30% x 100b)/2 = 800 + 11.5% of 100a
40a = 16a 63a + 70b – 40a – 30b = 1600 + 23a
Number of laptops sold by company B = 30% of 23a + 40b = 1600 + 23a
30a = 9a 40b = 1600
Number of laptops sold by company C = 50% of So, the value of b = 40
60a = 30a Number of laptops manufactured by company B
The total number of laptops sold by all the = 100b
companies= 1980 x 3 = 5940 Number of laptops sold by company B = 30b
Now, 16a + 9a + 30a= 5940 Number of laptops unsold by company B= 100b
So, the value of a = 5940/55 = 108 – 30b = 70b
The number of Laptops manufactured by = 70 x 40 = 2800
company C = 60a = 60 x 108 = 6480 Hence, the answer is option D
Hence, the answer is option A

4) Answer: B
2) Answer: C The number of desktops sold by company B =
According to the Question, 1728
A– B=B –C The total number of desktops manufactured by
A + C = 2B ------- (1) company B
Also, 50% of B = 90% of C = 1728/60 * 100
B/C = 9x/5x--------- (2) = 2880
From (1) and (2), The number of desktops sold by company C =
A + 5x = 2*9x 9/8 x 2880 = 3240

65

So, the number of desktops manufactured by Number of boys in school P = 15% of 10240 =
company C = 3240/80 x 100 = 4050 1536
Hence, the answer is option B Total number of students in P = 2 x 1490 = 2980
Number of girls in P = 2980 – 1536 = 1444
5) Answer: E Number of boys in Science Stream = 37.5% x
According to the question, 1536 = 576
Sum of the Desktops sold by company (A + B) = Number of boys in Commerce Stream = 1536 –
2586 ----- (1) 576 = 960
Sum of the Desktops sold by company (A + C) = Number of girls in Commerce Stream = 75% of
3930 ----- (2) 1444 = 1083
From (1) and (2), Number of girls in Science stream = 1444 – 1083
Desktops sold by company C – Desktops sold by = 361
company B Similarly, we can find the data for all the schools
= 1344
Also, Desktops sold by company C = 187.5% of
desktop sold by the company B
So, 187.5 of the desktops sold by the company B
– 100 of the desktop sold by company B =
1344*100
Desktops sold by the company B = 1344/87.5 x
100 = 1536
Desktops sold by the company C = 187.5% of
1536 = 2880
Desktops manufactured by the company C = 6) Answer: B
2880/80 x 100 = 3600 According to the Question,
Hence, the answer is option E The total number of students in school T = 2500
The total number of commerce students in
Directions (06 – 10): school R = 1400 + 1410 = 2810
Number of boys in School S = 100% - (15% + Required % = 2810/2500 * 100 = 112.4%
25% + 31.25% + 10%) Hence, the answer is option B
1920 = 18.75% of total number of boys
Total number of boys in all the schools together 7) Answer: D
= 1920/18.75 x 100 = 10240 The total number of students in science stream
in school P = 576 + 361
66

= 937
The total number of students in commerce Directions (11 – 15):
stream in school P Bus A:
= 960 + 1083 = 2043 Total passengers on RSV seats = 80
The total revenue generated by school P = 937 x Number of female passengers on RSV seats =
224 + 2043 x 202 20
= Rs. 622574 So, the number of male passengers on RSV
Hence, the answer is option D seats = 80 – 20 = 60
Number of Male passengers on RSV seats is
8) Answer: E 140% more than the number of females on
The number of boys in Commerce stream of NRSV seats.
school Q = 1408 So, number of female passengers on NRSV
The number of girls in the Science stream of seats = 60/240 x 100 = 25
school S = 798 So, Male passengers on NRSV seats + female
Required difference = 1408 – 798 = 610 passengers on RSV seats = 17.5 x 2 = 35
Hence, the answer is option E So, male passengers on NRSV seats = 35 – 20
= 15
9) Answer: C The total male passengers = Males (RSV) +
The total number of girls in science stream in all Females (NRSV) = 60 + 15 = 75
the schools together The total number of female passengers = 20 +
= 4046 25 = 45
The total number of students in all the schools The total number of passengers or total seats in
together Bus A = 75 + 45 = 120
= 18280 The ratio of number of red seats and number of
Required % = 4046/18280 x 100 = 22% non-reserved seats is 12:5.
Hence, the answer is option C The total number of non – reserved seats = 25 +
15 = 40
10) Answer: E Number of red colour seats = 12/5 x 40 = 96
The number of boys in Commerce stream = Number of black colour seats = 120 – 96 = 24
5824 Bus B:
The number of girls in the Science stream = The total seats in Bus B = 3 x 120 = 360
4046 Male passengers = 40 + female passengers
Required difference = 5824 – 4046 = 1778 So, Female passengers + Female passengers +
Hence, the answer is option E 40 = 360
67

Female passengers = 320/2 = 160

Male passengers = 360 – 160 = 200
The respective ratio of female passengers sits
on NSRV seats and RSV seats = 7:9.
So, the number of female passengers sits on
NRSV seats = 7/ (7 + 9) = 7/16 x 160 = 70
Number of female passengers sits on RSV seats
= 160 – 70 = 90
11) Answer: C
Number of male passengers sits on RSV seats =
Total number of males sitting on non-reserved
75% of 200 = 150
seats in bus A and B together = 15 + 50 = 65
Number of males sits in NRSV seats = 200 – 150
Total number of females sitting in reserved seats
= 50
in bus A and C together = 90 + 80 = 170
Number of NRSV seats is 50% of red colour
Required % = 65/170 x 100 = 38%
seats.
Hence, the answer is option C
Number of NRSV seats = 70 + 50 = 120
So, number of red colour seats = 2 x 120 = 240
12) Answer: A
Number of black colour seats = 360 – 240 = 120
Total number of black colour seats = 160
Bus C:
Number of females sitting on black colour seats
Number of female passengers on NRSV seats =
= 2/5 x 160 = 64
160% x 25 = 40
Number of females Sitting on Red colour seats =
The total number of reserved seats = 250% of 80
120 – 64 = 56
= 200
Number of females sitting on non – reserved
Male passengers sits on reserved seats = 120
seats = 40
Females sits in reserved seats = 200 – 120 = 80
Number of females sitting on black colour non -
Number of non – reserved seats = 120 + 120 =
reserved seats = 3/5 x 40 = 24
240
So, females sitting on red colour non-reserved
Number of male passengers sits on non –
seats = 40 – 24 = 16
reserved seats = 240 – 40 = 200
Number of females sitting on red colour reserved
Number of red colour seats = 7/5 x 200 = 280
seats = 56 – 16 = 40
Total number of seats in bus = 200 + 240 = 440
Hence, the answer is option A
Number of black colour seats = 440 – 280 = 160
Now tabulate all the calculated data for further
13) Answer: E
convenience.
The total number of male passengers = 75 + 200
+ 320 = 595 68

The total number of female passengers = 45 + 7 x 11 + 16 = 93

160 + 120 = 325 9 x 13 + 21 = 138
Required difference = 595 – 325 = 270 11 x 15 + 26 = 191
Hence, the answer is option E 13 x 17 + 31 = 252
15 x 19 + 36 = 321
14) Answer: D 17 x 21 + 41 = 398
The total number of seats in bus D = 137.5% of Hence, the answer is option D
360 = 495
Number of red colour seats in bus D = 322 18) Answer: B
So, the number of black colour seats in bus D = 24 + 0! = 25
495 – 322 = 173 25 + 1! = 26
Required average = (24 + 160 + 173)/3 = 119 26 + 2! = 28
Hence, the answer is option D 28 + 3! = 34
34 + 4! = 58
15) Answer: B Hence, the answer is option B
The number of red colour seats in all buses
together = 96 + 240 + 280 = 616 19) Answer: C
The number of black colour seats in all buses 48 x 0.5 + 20 = 44
together = 24 + 120 + 160 = 304 44 x 1 + 50 = 94
Required % = (616 – 304)/304 x 100 = 103% 94 x 1.5 + 80 = 221
Hence, the answer is option B 221 x 2 + 110 = 552
552 x 2.5 + 140 = 1520
16) Answer: A Hence, the answer is option C
20000 x 20% = 4000
4000 x 40% = 1600 20) Answer: A
1600 x 60% = 960 229 + 4² = 245
960 x 80% = 768 245 + 6² = 281
768 x 100% = 768 281 + 8² = 345
Hence, the answer is option A 345 + 10² = 445
445 + 12² = 589
17) Answer: D Hence, the answer is option A
69

70

SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 – Bundle PDF Course: English – Day-1/50
1

English Language
Directions (1-5): In each of the questions below, three Bengal Assembly Election 2021, West Bengal chief
sentences are divided into five parts which may or (a)/ minister Mamata Banerjee targeted PM Narendra
m ay not c ontain error. You are required to find out the Modi and said: (b)/ “The industrial growth has been
pair of erroneous parts from the given options. stopped in the country but the growth of beard is still
1. on.” The chief minister added: (c)/ “Something is

I) Chief Justice Bobde, who read out the judgment, wrong with his brain. It seems his screw is loose.
said the court found no reason to stall the sale of Sometimes he calls himself (d)/ Swami Vivekananda
electoral bonds now. (a)/ The judgment came on an and Rabindranath Tagore while on the other hand, he
urgent application moved by NGO Association for renames stadiums on his name.” (e)
Democratic Reforms, represented by (b)/ advocate A. I-c, II-b, III-c

Prashant Bhushan, to stay the sale scheduled B. I-a, II-b, III-d
between April 1 to 10. The NGO, (c)/ also represented C. I-c, II-a, III-b
by advocate Neha Rathi, voiced serious D. I-b, II-a, III-e
apprehensions that sale of electoral bonds before E. None of the above
Assembly elections would (d)/ “further increase illegal

and illicit funding of political parties through shell 2.
companies”.(e) I) A brigade commander-level meeting between India
II) The woman in the Karnataka CD row has filed a and Pakistan was held on Friday at one of the sectors
complaint against former minister Ramesh (a)/ along the Line of Control (LoC). The meeting was
Jarkiholi(a)/ with the Bengaluru police commissioner held to take forward the understanding reached
by her advocate, alleging that she fears for her safety. between the two sides to abide with (b)/ the 2003
(b)/ The complaint was registered at Cubbon Park ceasefire agreement last month. In a discussion
police station. The advocate said that the woman has between the Director Generals of Military Operations
sought protection and justice. (c)/ "The CD woman (DGMOs) of India and Pakistan last month, the two
said I need protection and justice. We, through FB sides (c)/ decided to implement the ceasefire
[Facebook], said we'll give her legal help. (d)/ She agreement of 2003 to maintain peace at the borders.
wrote a complaint and we got it. We have given it to "After the DGMO understanding, a brigade
[the] commissioner and need action," the advocate commander-level flag meeting was held between
said. (e) Indian and Pakistan Army at Poonch Rawalakot
Crossing Point (d)/ on Mar 26 to discuss
III) A day before the first-phase polling in the West implementation mechanism as per the
2

understanding," the Indian Army said. (e) I) India is in the midst of a second wave of the Covid-
19 pandemic. Considering the duration from the

II) "Maritime and air transport are two central activities present level of daily (a)/new cases to the peak India
to global trade and mobility and play a vital role in saw last year, the country is expected to reach the
global supply chains (a)/ and the provision of high in the second half of April. The second wave, (b)/
humanitarian aid. They also play a key role in global which could last for the end of May, could see an
socio-economic recovery. (b)/ It is estimated that 4 addition of 25 lakh cases if trends till March 23 are
lakh seafarers are currently stranded onboard taken into consideration. (c)/ These projections are
commercial vehicles, (c)/ unable to be repatriated, part of findings of a State Bank of India (SBI) research
while a similar number are unable to join the ships to report titled ‘The second wave (d)/ of infections: The
replace them,” (d)/ the WHO said in a joint statement beginning of the end’ by Chief Economic Advisor
issued with four other international organizations. (e) Soumya Kanti Ghosh. (e)
III) The coronavirus pandemic has triggered II) A district-wise analysis in the report revealed that
devastated consequences for human life and the cases have again started rising in the top 15 districts
global economy. (a)/ Maritime and air transport are of India (a)/, mostly urban, while the spread in rural
two essential activities that underpin global trade and districts is almost stable. It says that cases are large
mobility and are key to a sustainable socio-economic (b)/localised and concentrated and while Rajasthan,
recovery. (b)/ More than 80 per cent of global trade by Gujarat, Kerala, Uttarakhand, Haryana have (c)/
volume is moved by maritime transport. The global (c)/ vaccinated more than 20 per cent of their elderly
economy depends on the world’s 2 million seafarers population, other states with a higher elderly
who operate the global fleet of merchant ships. (d)/ population (>60 years) like (d)/ Punjab, Tamil Nadu,
Seafarers have been severely impacted by the travel Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and West Bengal have
restrictions imposed during the pandemic. (e) vaccinated a lesser percentage. (e)
A. I-c, II-b, III-c
B. I-a, II-b, III-d III) At least four people were killed in the Bangladeshi
C. I-b, II-b, III-a city of Chittagong on Friday after police fired rubber
D. I-b, II-a, III-e bullets at (a)/ protesters during a demonstration

E. None of the above against the visit of Indian Prime Minister Narendra
Modi, a police official said. "We had to (b)/ fire teargas
and rubber bullets to disperse them as they entered a

3. police station and carried out extensive vandalism,"
3

Rafiqul Islam, (c)/ the police official told Reuters, creation of a (c)/ new body dedicated to space
referring to protesters. Protests against Modi's visit research within the structure of the DRDO, top
were also flared out the capital Dhaka, (d)/ where government sources told India Today. (d)/ A space
dozens of people, including two journalists, were research agency was created under the DRDO in
injured in clashes with police, witnesses said. (e) addition to the Military Defence Space Agency to
A. I-c, II-a, III-c develop military capabilities in space. (e)
B. I-a, II-b, III-d
C. I-b, II-b, III-a III) In March 2019, India had conducted an Anti-
D. I-c, II-b, III-d Satellite Test to demonstrate its capability to shoot
E. None of the above down satellites in space. (a)/ With this missile test,
India had joined an elite club of four nations capable
4. of doing the same. (b)/ The test also helped India
I) Two trains collided north of the city of Sohag in develop deterrence capability against adversaries who
Egypt on Friday. In a statement, the Egyptian health may want to attack Indian (c)/ satellites to cripple
ministry (a)/ said a rescue operation has been systems in times of war. In addition to the creation of
launched and authorities are on the scene. As many agencies for space and cyber warfare, the
36 (b)/ ambulances have been dispatched to the site. Government of India (d)/ has also laid emphasis on a
Casualties are being taken to (c)/ hospitals, the Special Operations Division that can operate both
statement from the health ministry went on to say. inside and outside the country. (e)
Officials have confirmed the deaths of 32 passengers, A. I-c, II-a, III-c
(d)/ according to a report by Bloomberg. Egyptian B. I-b, II-c, III-d

media outlets peg the number of injured persons at C. I-b, II-b, III-a
66. (e) D. I-c, II-b, III-d

E. None of the above
II) India is working to expand its military capabilities in
space. For this purpose, the Defence Research and

Development Organisation (DRDO) has (a)/ 5.
developed new sensors and satellites along with I) Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Friday received a
ground stations to aid defence forces in space. Efforts warm welcome from the Indian community in the
have been made to increase the country's (b)/ Sonargaon Hotel in Bangladesh's Dhaka (a)/. PM
capabilities in space through the installation of Modi is in Bangladesh for two days on his first foreign
sensors and satellites. This being possible due to the visit since the coronavirus outbreak. (b)/ Speaking to
4

India Today TV after meeting PM Modi, the carries Yamuna river water to Delhi from these two
exhilarated crowd chanted, "Bharat mataki jai. (c)/We states. (e)

love India, we love Modi!" Meera Menon from Kerala, A. I-c, II-a, III-c
who has been residing in Dhaka for the past (d)/ ten B. I-a, II-b, III-d
years said it was her dream come true moment. "What C. I-b, II-c, III-a
a personality. I am so happy," she said. (e) D. I-a, II-b, III-a
E. None of the above
II) An IFS officer was arrested on Friday for allegedly

abetting the suicide of a woman colleague, a Range Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions,
Forest officer, (a)/ who shooted herself with a service four words are highlighted in bold, and five options are
weapon in Maharashtra's Amravati district. The IFS given below. You are required to find out the correct
officer was arrested from (b)/ Nagpur railway station pair of synonyms for the highlighted words from the
when he was about to board a train to his place in given options.

Bengaluru, police said. (c)/ The police arrested Vinod 6. Sonia Gandhi was invited to join the celebrations in
Shivkumar, deputy conservator of forest, Gugamal Dhaka by Sheikh Hasina but couldn’t travel due to
Wildlife Division of Melghat Tiger Reserve (MTR) in Covid-19 related diminutions. In a video message,
Chikhaldara, (d)/ from Nagpur Railway station in the Gandhi lauded Bangladesh’s effort on various fronts
morning hours, said Amravati superintendent of police and said, “Over the past five decades, Bangladesh’s
(rural) Dr Hari Balaji N on Friday. (e) conspicuous achievements in social development,
community participation, eco growth and other areas
III) The Supreme Court on Friday ordered the has been very stirring and has received global
governments of Punjab and Haryana, and the Bhakra laurels.”
Beas Management Board (BBMB) to maintain (a)/ A. Fetter, astounding, poignant, accolade.
status quo on water supply to Delhi. The Supreme B. Stricture, ethos, impactful, fame.
Court extended the status quo ordered on (b)/ C. Proscription, epochal, dainty, redound.
Thursday till the next hearing, which would happen D. Latitude, miraculous, doughty, quintessential.
after the Holi holidays. “Water supply to Delhi should E. None of the above
not be reduced,” (c)/ the Supreme Court bench

headed by Chief Justice of India SA Bobde said. The Q7. The Centre had m ooted in the top court that
Supreme Court, thus, put the decision of Punjab, Maharashtra has the legislative com petence for
Haryana and (d)/ the BBMC to reduce the water granting reservation to Marathas and its decision is
supply to Delhi by one-fourth for repair in a canal that Constitutional as the 102nd amendment does not
5

denude a state of the power to blazon its list of B. Distortions, contributing, skyrocket, resemblance
socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC). C. Epoch, volunteering, accumulate, distortion
A. Canvassed, capability, imbecile, flagrant D. Fluxes, vandalize, mount, correlation
B. Languid, endowment, denigrate, exhilarate E. None of the above
C. Bandied, puissance, remotion, enunciate

D. Agitated, volition, despise, acquit 10. In theory, a legislature is the most sacred space
E. None of the above in a democracy. It is the ultimate body of the
expression of popular will. It is a space for colloquy,

8. “A home away from home, spawn a space that was for debate, for careful scrutiny of laws, and for law-
comfortable yet nurtured creativity. Designing the making. And despite being on different sides, it is a
office with a huge outdoor space was an interesting space for the government and the Opposition to brawl
challenge for me. The ease and comfort to attend each other — on issues, but within the norms of
virtual meetings as well as creatively brainstorming for parliamentary conduct.

future projects at his office at Red Chillies office was A. Hallowed, symposium, affray, ethos
my topmost transcendence for him,” she added. B. Indict, deliberation, ruckus, ambit
A. Conduce, snuffed, facile, moorings C. Spurious, argument, ruction, obfuscation
B. Impede, fostered, rapture, gaiety D. Venerated, whopping, broil, compliance
C. Quench, barred, primacy, mirth E. None of the above

D. Effectuate, incubated, contrivance, superiority
E. None of the above Directions (11-14): In each of the following questions
One word is highlighted in bold, and using that

9. New m utations of the coronavirus have spread in highlighted word four sentences are framed , in four
India, particularly in Maharashtra and Punjab. The two sentences three will be synonyms for the highlighted
states have recorded some of the c increase in cases word and one is an antonym for the word. You are
over the last month, with Maharashtra bestowing more required to find an antonym for the highlighted word.
than half the new cases recorded across the country 11. Churlish
daily. Health authorities have held off on concluding A. The comedian’s jokes were so boorish that the only
that the variants are responsible for the surge, but persons left in the audience were those who were too
experts believe a congruous is likely, given what the drunk to be insulted.
world knows about Sars-CoV-2 mutations. B. The sullen student refused to follow the teacher’s
instructions.
A. Era, mustering, accelerate, scrutiny C. The couth young lady handled herself well at the
6

formal dinner. contradicted his religious beliefs.
D. Despite having an acrimonious relationship with my B. In her novel, the author contrasted two characters -
boss, he respects my quality and punctuality of work. one provincial woman from a small town and the
E. None of the above other, a bubbly girl from a big city.
C. The hotel waiter hates to deal with customers who

12. Cantankerous complain about picayune issues.
A. My mother becomes bilious if you try to talk to her D. In order to be a well-rounded person, Lokesh
while she is watching her favorite serial. enrolled in a catholic range of hobbies including
B. If Radha were a bit more am icable, people would painting, singing and cooking.
not be afraid to approach her. E. None of the above

C. When the staff learned their payments would be
delayed, they displayed their splenetic natures by Directions (15-22): Read the following passage
breaking the company owner’s door. carefully and answer the questions given below it.
D. Someone with a bad day may have a surly attitude Some of the words highlighted to locate you to answer
if people around them are too loud. the following questions.

E. None of the above The NPA crisis has been long in making and its
genesis can be traced to events that happened in the
13. Recalcitrant past couple of decades especially the onset of the

A. From her obsequious behavior, it was obvious Rani economic and financial market boom in the mid-
was smitten with her husband. 2000s. In confluence with global trends, Indian
B. The obstreperous boys were asked to leave the economy entered the exuberant phase with economic
cinema hall. growth surging to the 9%-10% range. The irrational
C. Because the contumacious girl refused to obey the exuberance of the Indian economy and the financial
principal’s instructions, she was suspended from markets found its expression in the investment plans
college. of the private non-financial corporate sector in India
D. It didn’t take long for the army to discharge the especially the manufacturing sector. India’s
recusant who stubbornly did not follow the rules of his Investment – GDP ratio (nominal terms) moved up
captain. from 26% in FY04 to 35% in FY08. This was financed

E. None of the above by the inception of the biggest credit boom in the
history of India – both non-food credit and credit to the
14. Parochial Industry segments doubling in a short span of three

A. The sectarian priest would not obey any laws that year from FY05 to FY08.
7

Overall corporate indebtedness increased much financing costs from FY10 onwards ensured that the
further as they were beneficiaries of the sharp surge in debt servicing ability of the Indian corporate sector
capital inflows reaching the level of around 9% of the declined _______________ (i) from FY13 onwards.
GDP in FY08. To summarize, the corporate sector However, this precipitous decline in debt servicing
leveraged itself to the hilt to take advantage of the capability of the Indian corporate sector didn’t
perceived growth advantages afforded by a rapidly translate into formal NPAs in the Indian financial
growing economy. However, the boom came to an system as the financial institutions resorted to
end in FY08 as the anticipated global credit overruns restructuring and “Ever greening” of stressed assets to
in FY08 led to a change in the growth expectations. postpone the reckoning of higher NPAs. However,
Concomitantly, companies were coming to terms with Asset Quality Review (AQR) exercise by RBI from
the fact that fresh investments in India were 2016 onwards laid bare the true nature of the
significantly more expensive than bubble due to the delinquency state of the Indian financial system. There
cost and time bubble in securing land and is significantly more to the NPA story that casually
environmental clearances. The situation was further meets the eye as the relative performance of various
exacerbated by the significant increase in financing segments (as measured by size, type of lending
costs for the companies from FY11 onwards as the institution, region etc.) is divergent in nature. The
RBI switched from massive monetary easing post the interplay of the exogenous factor of contrasting NPA
global financial crisis to significant tightening to bring performance and the endogenous response of the
down the inflation from double-digit levels. Financing Banking sector to limit the future impact through
costs soared as the repo rate almost doubled from the portfolio allocations is leading to significant changes in
low of 4.75% in September 2009 to a high of 8.5% in the industry. These cyclical changes (temporary) may
December 2011. become structural (long lasting) if the NPA story
In parallel, there was significant rupee depreciation as continues to play out along the trends that we have
average rates increased from an average level of low- seen in the previous financial year for a few more
40s in around FY08 to mid-50s by FY12 and mid-60s years.
by FY16. A depreciation of the order of more than RBI's guideline on increasing the NPA recognition
50% over a span of a few years had a significant time to 180 days from currently 90 days for banks and
impact on the debt servicing ability of the over- 120 days for NBFCs aims at giving a much needed
extended corporate sector.The double whammy of boost to the MSME sector post the launch of GST. It
adverse headwinds of rising costs, higher expenses, couples with the recent budget announcement on tax-
margin compression from FY08 onwards and sharp relief for the MSME sector. While the new RBI
increase in guideline aims at supporting credit access to the
8

MSME sector, many are unclear about the exact
benefit of this guideline to MSME borrowers and the 16. What is the reason behind the exacerbated
banks. Transunion CIBIL has attempted to ascertain situation of increase in financing costs for the
the benefit of the guideline by identifying who are the companies from FY11?
impacted MSME borrowers. Though, RBI definition to A. Tightening to bring down the inflation from double-
classify MSME is based on GST registration till 31st digit levels the RBI switched from great monetary
Jan 2018 and aggregate credit exposure not easing after the global financial crisis.
exceeding Rs 25 crores. The study is based only on B. Corporate sector leveraged itself to the hilt to take
the credit exposure criteria with an assumption that all advantage of the perceived growth advantages
the eligible MSME borrowers are GST registered by afforded by a rapidly growing economy.
31st Jan 2018. C. India’s Investment – GDP ratio moved up from 26%
in FY04 to 35% in FY08.
15. Which of the following is not true as per the above D. Financing costs soared up as the repo rate was
passage? almost doubled.
1. Corporate indebtedness increased much further as E. None of the above

they were beneficiaries of the sharp surge in capital
inflows reaching the level of around 9% of the GDP in 17. Why was there the significant rupee depreciation
FY08. as context to the passage?

2. Companies were coming to terms with the fact that I. Because the repo rate was almost doubled from the
fresh investments in India were significantly less low of 4.75% in September 2009 to a high of 8.5% in
expensive than anticipated due to cost and time December 2011.

overruns in securing land and environmental II. Because more than 50% over a span of a few years
clearances. had a significant impact on the debt servicing ability of

3. There was significant rupee depreciation as the over-extended corporate sector.
average rates increased from an average level of low- III. Because average rates increased from an average
40s in around FY08 to mid-50s by FY12 and mid-60s level of low-40s in around FY08 to mid-50s by FY12
by FY16. and mid-60s by FY16.
A. Only 1 A. Only 1
B. Only 2 B. Only 3
C. Only 3 C. Both 2 and 3
D. Both 1 and 2 D. All of the above

E. Both 2 and 3 E. None of the above
9

A. precipitously
18. Why there is steep decline in debt servicing B. vigorously

capability of the Indian corporate sector not able to C. tortuously
translate into formal NPAs in the Indian financial D. juxtapose
system? E. anomalously
A. Credit Bureaus have facilitated the transfer of NPAs
to all consumer lenders by institutionalizing the 21. Which of the following groups of words is used in
process of information sharing. order to make highlighted words grammatically

B. The credit quality of a loan portfolio by analyzing correct?
bad rates in a loan pool where the loans share the This was financed by the inception of the biggest
same acquisition period. credit boom in the history of India – both non-food
C. To postpone the summation of higher NPAs the credit and credit to the Industry segments doubling in
financial institutions turned to restructuring and a short span of three year from FY05 to FY08.
evergreening of stressed assets. A. segments doubled from a short span of three years
D. NPAs are observing deterioration in these trends from FY05 to FY08.

and public sector banks are observing improvement in B. segment doubling in a short span of three year from
these trends. FY05 to FY08.
E. None of the above C. segments doubled in a short span of three year

from FY05 to FY08.
19. What is/are the reason to increase the NPA D. segment doubled in a short span of three years
recognition time to 180 days from currently 90 days from FY05 to FY08.
for banks and 120 days forNBFCs? E. No correction required
A. To boost the MSME sector post the launch of GST.

B. It aims at supporting credit access to the MSME 22. Some words are highlighted in bold which may or
sector. m ay not be in their correct place, you are required to
C. By identifying who are the impacted MSME arrange them properly in order to make sentences
borrowers. grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.
D. All of the above The boom came to an end in FY08 as the anticipated
E. None of the above (a) of the global credit overruns (b) in FY08 led to a
change in the growth expectations. Concomitantly,
20. Which of the following words will be suitable for companies were coming to terms with the fact that
blank (i)? fresh investments in India were significantly more
10

expensive than bursting (c) due to cost and time B. Only (b-d)
bubble (d) in securing land and environmental C. (a-c) and (b-d)

clearances. D. (a-d) and (b-c)
A. Only (a-c) E. No interchange required

1. Answer- A Part c after correction- “The industrial growth has
Erroneous parts are I-c, II-b, III-c stopped in the country but the growth of beard is still
In I-c: - here, between April 1 to 10 is incorrect on.” The chief minister added:
because between is always followed by conjunction
and. 2. Answer- C
Part c after correction- advocates Prashant Erroneous parts are I-b, II-b, III-a
Bhushan, to stay the sale scheduled between April 1 In I-b: - ‘abide with’ is incorrect here; ‘abide by’ is
and 10. The NGO, correct phrasal expression

In II-b: - here, “by” will be replaced by “through” Part b after correction- along the Line of Control
because the work is done using a particular system, (LoC). The meeting was held to take forward
service, or person. the understanding reached between the two sides to

Part b after correction- with the Bengaluru police abide by
commissioner through her advocate, alleging that

she fears for her safety. In II-b: - we never use humanity aid; we always use
“Humanitarian aid”
In III-c: - here, “has been” will be replaced by only Part b after correction- and the provision of
“has” because the statement is active; we don’t humanitarian aid. They also play a key role in global
need passive here. socio-economic recovery 11


In III-a: - “devastated” is replaced by “devastating”. Part c after correction- capabilities in space through
Part an after correction- The coronavirus pandemic the installation of sensors and satellites. This has
has triggered devastating consequences for human been possible due to the creation of a
life and the global economy. In III-d= before the Government of India, the will be
used because it is an specific body and according to

3. Answer-D the article rule the will be used before specific
Erroneous parts are I-c, II-b, III-d things.
In I-c: - “for” will be replaced by “until” the sentence Part d after correction- satellites to cripple systems
states up to the end of M ay and until indicates when in times of war. In addition to the creation of
something will happen, begin or end. agencies for space and cyber warfare, Government
Part c after correction- which could last until the end of India
of May, could see an addition of 25 lakh cases if
trends till March 23 are taken into consideration.

In II-b: - “large” will be replaced by “largely” because 5. Answer- D
we need an adverb here. The erroneous parts are- I-a, II-b, III-a
Part b after correction- mostly urban, while the In I-a= “in” will be replaced by “at” because first we
spread in rural districts is almost stable. It says that use at for smaller places then w e use in for larger
cases are largely places.

In III-d: - flared out is incorrect , the correct term is Part a after correction- Prime Minister NarendraModi
flared in. on Friday received a warm welcome from the Indian
Part d after correction- the police official told community at the Sonargaon Hotel in Bangladesh's
Reuters, referring to protesters. Protests against Dhaka
Modi's visit were also flared in the capital Dhaka, In II-b= “shooted” will be replaced by “shot”
Part b after correction- who shot herself with a
4. Answer- B service weapon in Maharashtra's Amravati district.
The erroneous parts are- I-b, II-c, III-d The IFS officer was arrested from
In I-b= “as many as” will be used in order to make In III-a= “ordering” will be replaced by “ordered”
the statement correct. Part a after correction- The Supreme Court on

Part b after correction- said a rescue operation has Friday ordered the governments of Punjab and
been launched and authorities are on the scene. As Haryana, and the Bhakra Beas Management Board
many 36 as (BBMB) to maintain

In II-c= “this being” will be replaced by “has been”
12

6. Answer- A Competence means the physical or mental power to
Diminutions means - the act, process, or an instance do something

of becoming gradually less (as in size or Synonyms- puissance, capability, endowment
importance): the act, process, or an instance of
diminishing. Denude- strip (something) of its covering,

Synonyms- fetter, stricture, proscription, latitude, possessions, or assets.
restrictions Synonyms- remotion
Conspicuous means- easily seen or noticed; readily Blazon - to make known openly or publicly
visible or observable, attracting special attention, as Synonyms- declare, enunciate, announce

by outstanding qualities or eccentricities. Languid- dejected
Synonyms- astounding, miraculous Volition- determination
Denigrate- defame, despise, insult

Stirring means- having the power to affect the Imbecile- fool, rustic
feelings or sympathies
Synonyms- impressive, poignant 8. Answer- D
Spawn- to be the cause of (a situation, action, or
Laurels means- public acknowledgment or state of mind)

admiration for an achievement Synonyms- Effectuate, conduce
Synonyms- recognition, accolade
Nurtured- to help the growth or development of

Redound- contribute Synonyms- incubated, fostered, advanced, and
Ethos- culture, civilization, tradition cultivated

Epochal- essential, important, quintessential
Doughty- brave, intrepid, gallant Brainstorming- as in inspiration
Synonyms- contrivance, creativity, fantasy

7. Answer- C
Mooted - to talk about (an issue) usually from Transcendence- the fact or state of being above
various points of view and for the purpose of arriving others in rank or importance
at a decision or opinion Synonyms- superiority, priority, primacy
Synonyms- canvassed, bandied, agitated
13

Impede and quench are antonyms for the word Synonyms- symposium
spawn
Facile- effortless, simplistic Brawl- a rough and often noisy fight usually involving
Moorings- support, fix several people
Rapture- happiness, gaiety, mirth Synonyms- affray, ruckus, ruction, broil
9. Answer- B Norms- the code of good conduct for an individual or
Mutations- as in variations , a significant change group

Synonyms- distortions, variants Synonyms- ethos, ethics, morals
Spurious- fake
Bestowing- to make a present of
Synonyms- contributing, volunteering, 11. Answer- C
Correct antonym for the word Churlish is couth

Surge- as in jump, skyrocket Churlish - having or showing crudely insensitive or
Synonyms- accelerate, skyrocket, accumulate, and impolite manners

mount Synonyms- boorish, acrimonious, sullen
Antonym- Couth
Congruity- a point which two or more things share in

common 12. Answer- B
Synonyms- resemblance, correlation Correct antonym for the word Cantankerous is
am icable
Epoch- period of time, era Cantankerous - having or showing a habitually bad
Mustering- collecting, gathering temper

Scrutiny- observation, analysis Synonyms- bilious, surly, splenetic
Antonym- amicable
10. Answer- A
Sacred- of, relating to, or used in the practice or 13. Answer- A
worship services of a religion Correct antonym for the word Recalcitrant is

Synonyms- hallowed, sacrosanct, sanctified obsequious
Recalcitrant – given to resisting authority or
Colloquy- an exchange of views for the purpose of another's control

exploring a subject or deciding an issue Synonyms- contumacious, obstreperous, recusant
14

Antonym- obsequious As clearly mentioned in the paragraph - there was
significant rupee depreciation as average rates

14. Answer- D increased from an average level of low-40s in
Correct antonym for the word Parochial is catholic around FY08 to mid-50s by FY12 and mid-60s by
Parochial means not broad or open in views or FY16.

opinions
Synonyms- picayune, provincial, sectarian 18. Answer- C
Antonym- catholic It is clearly mentioned in the third paragraph-

However, this precipitous decline in debt servicing
15. Answer- D capability of the Indian corporate sector didn’t

Statements 1 and 2 are not true statements as per translate into formal NPAs in the Indian financial
the passage system as the financial institutions resorted to
Statement 1 states about - Overall corporate restructuring and “evergreening” of stressed assets
indebtedness increased much further as they were to postpone the reckoning of higher NPAs.
beneficiaries of the sharp surge in capital inflows

reaching the level of around 9% of the GDP in FY08. 19. Answer- D
Statement 2 states about- companies were coming As mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage-
to terms with the fact that fresh investments in India RBI's guideline on increasing the NPA recognition
were significantly more expensive than anticipated time to 180 days from currently 90 days for banks
due to cost and time overruns in securing land and and 120 days for NBFCs aims at giving much
environmental clearances. needed boost to the MSME sector post the launch of
GST. It couples with the recent budget
16. Answer- A announcement on tax-relief for the MSME sector.

It is given in the second paragraph - The situation While the new RBI guideline aims at supporting
was further exacerbated by the significant increase credit access to the MSME sector, many are unclear
in financing costs for the companies from FY11 about the exact benefit of this guideline to MSME
onwards as the RBI switched from massive borrowers and the banks. Transunion CIBIL has
monetary easing post the global financial crisis to attempted to ascertain the benefit of the guideline by
significant tightening to bring down the inflation from identifying who are the impacted MSME borrowers.
double-digit levels. Though, RBI definition to classify MSME is based on
GST registration till 31st Jan 2018 and aggregate

17. Answer- B credit exposure not exceeding Rs 25 crores.
15

20. Answer- A 22. Answer- C

The word which is suitable for the blank is The correct rearrangement is (a-c) and (b-d)
precipitously which means dangerously high or The boom came to an end in FY08 as the bursting
steep of the global credit bubble in FY08 led to a change

Vigorously= passionately, earnestly, zeal in the growth expectations. Concomitantly,
Tortuously= complex, complicated companies were coming to terms with the fact that
Juxtapose= comparison fresh investments in India were significantly more

Anomalously= unequal expensive than anticipated due to cost and time
overruns in securing land and environmental

21. Answer- D clearances.
This was financed by the inception of the biggest
credit boom in the history of India – both non-food

credit and credit to the Industry segment doubled in
a short span of three years from FY05 to FY08.
16

SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 – Bundle PDF Course: Current Affairs – Day-1/50(Eng)
1

Current Affairs
1. The government has extended the deadline to (b) Sunil Mehta

file ITR for individuals to Jan 10, 2021. The late (c) G.K Pillai
filing fees are only Rs 1,000 for those with (d) Sanjiv Puri
taxable income up to Rs 5 lakh and those (e) R S Sharma
required to file returns under the _____________
proviso of Section 139(1) of the Income-tax Act. 4. The BPR&D released the Data on Police
(a) 7th Organizations in Jan ‘21. Generally, who
(b) 8th released the Data on Police Organization as of
(c) 9th 01.01.2019?
(d) 10th (a) Amit Shah
(e) 11th (b) Rajnath Singh
(c) Narendra Modi
2. The Central government has recently (d) Jitendra Singh
launched INSACOG to monitor the genomic (e) Ramnath Kovind
variations in the SARS-CoV-2 on a regular basis 5. . Home Minister Amit Shah recently has
through a multi-laboratory network. INSACOG released the National Police K-9 Journal in New
was formed under the leadership of which Delhi. It is a biannual Journal released every
among the following? year in which two months?
(a)Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), (a) April and December
New Delhi. (b) January and July
(b) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (c) March and November
(CSIR), New Delhi (d)April and October
(c) NITI Aayog, New Delhi (e) June and October
(d) Serum Institute of India, Maharashtra
(e)National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), 6. Union Cabinet has approved the Multi-Modal
New Delhi. Logistics Hub & Multi-Modal Transport Hub
(MMTH) at Greater Noida. The Proposal for the
3. On the recommendation of which committee, construction was made by whom?
the Department of Commerce has notified the (a) NITI Aayog
rates of Remission of Duties and Taxes on (b) Invest India
Exported Products (RoDTEP) to all export (c) DPIIT
goods? (d) NRDC
(a) Kasthuri Rangan (e) CSIR 2

7. Bharat Electronics Limited has signed a 10. The foundation stone of Light House projects
contract with the Indian Navy for the initial supply under Global Housing Technology Challenge
of Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of (GHTC) at six sites across six States, has been
Radiation Dazzlers in New Delhi. How many laid by ___________.
Laser dazzlers were contracted to supply (a) Ramnath Govind
initially? (b) Narendra Modi
(a) 24 (c) Amit shah
(b) 20 (d) Hardeep Singh puri
(c) 21 (e)Ravi Shankar Prasad
(d) 30
(e) 22 11. India begins its two-year tenure as a non-
permanent member of the United Nations
8. Prime Minister has inaugurated the National Security Council (UNSC). Presently, How many
Metrology Conclave 2021 through video total non-permanent members are in the UNSC?
conferencing. What is the theme of National (a) 15
Metrology Conclave 2021? (b) 10
(a)Meteorology for the Inclusive Growth of the (c) 25
Nation (d) 20
(b) Metrology and Climatic Changes (e) 12
(c) Inclusive growth is in Metrology
(d) Growth of atmosphere in Metrology 12. India Post expects to make the Post Office
(e) Metrology and Weather Savings Bank interoperable with other bank
accounts by April 2021. Who is the Secretary of
9. Dr. Harsh Vardhan digitally inaugurated the the Department of Posts?
7th NHM National Summit on Good, Replicable (a) Akshay Kumar Jain
Practices through a video conference. He has (b) Prathiksha Patel
launched the Operational guidelines for which of (c) Arun Kumar Sharma
the following diseases? (d) Pradipta Kumar Bisoi
(a) TB & HIV (e) Pradeep Kumar Patil
(b) TB & Leprosy
(c) Anemia & Pneumonia 13. After consultation with the 4 Chief Justice of
(d) Leprosy & HIV India, Chief Justices/ Judges of High Courts
(e)HIV & Anemia have been transferred as per clause (1) of Article
3

222 of the Constitution of India. Who has the (b) Ahmadabad

authorization to transfer the Justices/ Judges of (c) Chennai
High Courts? (d) Mumbai
(a) President (e) Kolkata
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister 17. The Journalist Day was observed on January
(d) Supreme court Chief Judge 6 in memory of late journalist Balshastri
(e) Home Minister Jambhekar. This day was observed by the
people of which of the following states?
14. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of (a) Maharashtra
India (FSSAI) has capped the amount of trans (b) West Bengal
fatty acids (TFA) in oils and fats to ____________ (c) Gujarat
for 2021. (d) Odisha
(a) 2% (e) Haryana
(b) 2.5%
(c) 3% 18. A Bank announced the launch of a video
(d) 1.5% KYC account opening facility for savings bank
(e) 3.5% accounts. This bank has already launched a
mobile banking application “I-Quick”, which
15. The 51st International Film Festival of India allows its customers to avail themselves a
(IFFI) has opened in January ’21. ‘Another multiple ranges of services. Name the Bank.
Round’ was the opening movie of the festival. (a) ICICI Bank
This movie belongs to ______ (b) Yes Bank
(a) Norway (c) Canara bank
(b) South Korea (d) IDBI Bank
(c) Denmark (e) RBL Bank
(d) North Korea
(e) England 19. World Bank has signed a $105 million project
to improve waterways in West Bengal. The
16. Bajaj Auto has become the first two-wheeler Project will facilitate passenger and freight
company in the world to cross a market movement across which of the following river in
capitalization of Rs 1 lakh crore. Where is the West Bengal?
headquarters of Bajaj Auto located? (a) Hooghly
(a) Pune (b) Damodar
4

(c) Jamuna
(d) Mahananda 23. Prime Minister Narendra Modi held a video
(e) Padma teleconference with his German counterpart
Federal Chancellor Angela Merkel. This year
20. The All India Gem and Jewellery Domestic marks ____anniversary of setting up bilateral
Council (GJC) has been appointed __________ relations between India and Germany.
as the vice-chairman of the apex body. (a) 75
(a) Ashish Pethe (b) 55
(b) Sukumar Sen (c) 80
(c) C.R.Chaudhary (d) 85
(d) Saiyam Mehra (e) 70
(e) Om Prakash Rawat
24. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
21. The Centre has decided to form a committee recorded the year 2020 as _______ warmest year
to protect the language, culture and land of since 1901.
Ladakh and ensure citizen’s participation in the (a) 5th
Union Territory’s development. The Committee (b) 8th
was headed by whom? (c) 11th
(a) Hardeep Singh Puri (d) 7th
(b) G Kishan Reddy (e) 10th
(c) Amit Shah
(d) Jitendra Singh 25. A new approach for surveying using satellite
(e) Prahlad Joshi imagery and artificial intelligence (AI) could help
in solving some of the present challenges in the
22. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has conservation of the species. This Survey is going
inaugurated the New Rewari-New Madar section to be implemented for which of the following
of the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor species?
(WDFC). What is the total distance covered (a) Asiatic Lion
(approximately) by the project? (b) White Tiger
(a) 306 Km (c) Chimpanzee
(b) 300 Km (d) African elephants
(c) 305 Km (e) One-horned Rhino
(d) 301 Km
(e) 310 Km
5

26. SBI Mutual Fund has acquired an additional (b) Food based Company
86,993 shares in CSB Bank Ltd (formerly The (c) Mineral based Company
Catholic Syrian Bank Ltd), which raised its stake (d) Medicines based Company
in the bank to ______ from 4.96% earlier. (e) Hardware Company
(a) 5.01%
(b) 5.00% 30. BEML has received orders from MoD to
(c) 5.05% supply the High-Mobility Vehicles to Indian Army
(d) 5.10% within 1 year. Which BEML Plant has received
(e) 5.03% the order?
(a) Mysore Complex
27. TRIFED & Akhil Bhartiya Vanvasi Kalyan (b) Vignyan Industries Limited
Ashram signed a Memorandum of (c) Bangalore Complex
Understanding (MoU) to establish TRIFOOD (d) Palakkad Complex
Parks in how many districts of Madhya Pradesh? (e) Kolar Gold Fields (KGF) Complex
(a) 10
(b) 11 31. Delhi Government Department of Art,
(c) 6 Culture, and Language has set up a Tamil
(d) 3 Academy in Delhi. The Delhi government has
(e) 5 appointed __________ as the vice Chairman of
the academy.
28. Admiral Karambir Singh, the Chief of the (a) P Chidambaram
Naval Staff has visited _________, Indian Navy’s (b) N Raja
forward operating base at Okha, Gujarat. (c) R Mani
(a) INS Sinduvir (d) G Jawahar
(b) INS Darshak
(c) INS Dwarka 32. The National Capital Region Transport
(d) INS Dhruv Corporation (NCRTC) would use indigenously
(e) INS Shivalik designed ballastless tracks for the country’s first
RRTS. RRTS stands for:
29. ‘LUKOSIN’ Developer and Senior scientist (a) Regional Rapid Transport System
Hemant Kumar Pandey has been honoured with (b) Regional Rapid Transit System
DRDO’s ‘Scientist of the Year Award’. LUKOSIN (c) Regional Rapid Tracking System
is _____________ based company. (d) Regional Rapid Turn System
(a) Cosmetics Company (e) Regional Rapid Turning System
6

36. The World Bank has projected ___________%

33. Dr. Raghu Ram Pillarisetti has been economic growth rate for Bangladesh for the FY
honoured with ‘OBE-Officer of the Most Excellent 2020-21.
Order of the British Empire’ in Queen Elizabeth (a) 1.9 %
II’s 2021 New Year’s Honours list. Dr. Raghu (b) 1.5 %
Ram is a founder and CEO of _____________ (c) 1.3 %
(a) Ushalakshmi Breast Cancer Foundation (d) 2.0 %
(b) Poorna sudha cancer Foundation (e) 1.6 %
(c) Shri Shankara cancer Foundation
(d) Shyam Oncology Foundation 37.Alex Ellis was appointed as a new British high
(e) Karunakare foundation commissioner to India. Alex Ellis succeeded
whom for this post?
34. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (a) Sir Richard Stagg
(KVIC) has signed an MoU with Indo-Tibetan (b) Sir Rob Young
Border Police for the supply of 1,72, 000 cotton (c) Sir Dominic Asquith
durries every year. Who is the chairman of (d) Sir Philip Barton
KVIC? (e) Sir James Bevan
(a)Vinoth Kumar Sharma
(b) Vijay Kumar Saxena 38. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided
(c)Varun Kumar Sharma to introduce the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI)
(d)Vinai Kumar Saxena system for all payment transactions of value 50
(e) ViduyutKumar Sharma crore and above undertaken by entities (non-
individuals) via RTGS and NEFT. How Many
35. Lt Gen Shantanu Dayal has been named the digits do LEI consist of?
new Deputy Chief of Army Staff. Lt Gen Dayal is (a) 10
the Corps Commander of the ________ based 4 (b) 20
Corps. (c) 15
(a) Kanpur (d) 9
(b) Solapur (e) 11
(c) Jabalpur
(d) Sonepur 39. The CCEA has approved a modified scheme
(e) Tejpur to enhance ethanol distillation capacity in the
country for producing 1G ethanol from
7

feedstocks. India will need about 1,000 crore (a) 18

liters of ethanol for doping in petrol by ________. (b) 20
(a) 2030 (c) 27
(b) 2035 (d) 15
(c) 2040 (e) 22
(d) 2022
(e) 2025 43. Dr. Harsh Vardhan released a Book titled
“Metrology for Inclusive Growth of India”. This
40. The Cabinet Approved the Export of the book was edited by whom?
Akash Missile System and Created a Committee (a) Rasana Atreya
for faster approval of Exports worth $5 billion by (b) Varsha Naik
2024. Akash is a_______________ Missile. (c) D.K. Aswaland
(a) Air-to-air (d) Harika Bantupalli
(b) Air-to-surface (e) Tara Khandelwal
(c) Antitank
(d) Surface-to-air 44. John Fulton (F) Reid, former New Zealand
(e) surface-to-surface cricketer passed away recently. The name of
New Zealand national cricket team is nicknamed
41. The PM gave away annual PMAY -Urban as_________.
Awards-2019 for excellence in six categories for (a) Red cap
the implementation of PMAY-U. Which state has (b) Blue cap
awarded in the Best Performing State category (c) Purple cap
for the implementation of PMAY-U? (d) Black cap
(a) Uttar Pradesh (e) White cap
(b) Bihar
(c) Andhra Pradesh 45. What is the Interest Rates for Small Savings
(d) Madhya Pradesh Schemes for PPF according to the recently
(e) Arunachal Pradesh announced interest rate for Q4 2020-21?
(a) 7.0%
42. RBI Launched Jan 2021 Round of (b) 6.9%
“Consumer Confidence Survey” & “Inflation (c) 7.2%
Expectations Survey of Households”. How many (d) 7.5%
cities are covered in the Inflation Expectations (e) 7.1%
Survey of Households?
8

46. Harmony Foundation hosted the Mother (c) TEAM UP

Teresa Memorial Awards. This award was given (d) TEAM WILL
to which of the following field? (e) TEAM LABS
(a) Social Justice
(b) Art & Culture 50. The Japanese firm Sumitomo Forestry and
(c) Sports Kyoto University have joined the forces in the
(d)Journalist aim of developing a wooden satellite. Japan has
(e)Business decided to launch the first wood-based satellite
by which year?
47.A person referred as “Lone Wolf” has (a) 2025
replaced Ambani as Asia’s richest person, Name (b) 2022
the Person who is one of the fastest in history to (c) 2028
achieve the feat. (d) 2023
(a) Colin Huang (e) 2030
(b) Goh Cheng Liang
(c) Zhang Zhidong 51. Government has extended Income Tax
(d) Jack Ma Returns Filing Date To which date?
(e) Zhong Shanshan A) January 11
B) January 12
48. Which among the following bank in January C) January 10
’21 has announced the launch of banking D) January 15
services on messaging platform whatsApp? E) January 18
(a) Bank of India
(b) Punjab National Bank 52. Veteran broadcaster Indira Joseph Venniyor
(c) Indian bank who passed away was a renowned ____.
(d) Bank of Baroda A) Director
(e) Canara bank B) Producer
C) Actor
49. Indian student Harsh Dalal’s startup has built D) Broadcaster
120-employee business across eight cities and E) Singer
won the recognition in Singapore for his start up.
What was the name of his Startup? 53. Government has extended deadline for
(a) TEAM WIN FASTag till which date?
(b) TEAM START A) February 11
9

B) February 13 B) Yes
C) February 17 C) ICICI
D) February 18 D) SBI
E) February 15 E) DBS
54. Which state assembly has passed a Bill to 58. Union Cabinet has approved a Multi-Modal
abolish all government-run Madrassas? Logistics Hub & Multi-Modal Transport Hub
A) Bihar (MMTH) at ______.
B) Assam A) Indore
C) Haryana B) Noida
D) Kerala C) Chandigarh
E) Madhya Pradesh D) Bhopal
E) Surat
55. Which state is organizing Exhibition Raag -
Bhopali being organized to promote Zari- 59. India’s First Testbed for Autonomous
Zardozi? Navigation Systems has been launched at which
A) Nagaland institution?
B) Assam A) IIT Roorkee
C) Madhya Pradesh B) IIT Bombay
D) Bihar C) IIT Delhi
E) Chhattisgarh D) IIT Hyderabad
E) IIT Madras
56. Navy and which organization has conducted
a maiden trial of 1st indigenous air-droppable 60. Which institution has developed a plaque
container? therapy successfully used on eye cancer patients
A) BEL in AIIMS?
B) BHEL A) BHEL
C) BDL B) BDL
D) DRDO C) BARC
E) ISRO D) ISRO
E) DRDO
57. Which bank has introduced a one-stop
integrated travel marketplace Travel Now? 61. Who among the following has been conferred
A) Axis with Eminent Engineer Award ?
10

A) Naren Singh 65. Dr. Harsh Vardhan has digitally inaugurated

B) VK Paul the ______ NHM National Summit on Good,
C) Suresh Mehta Replicable Practices through a video conference.
D) Ramesh Chand A) 3rd
E) VK Yadav B) 4th
C) 7th
62. Mother Teresa Memorial Awards For Social D) 5th
Justice 2020 Announced. This is the ____year of E) 6th
the award.
A) 12th 66. Global family Day 2020 is observed on which
B) 14th of the following date?
C) 16th A) January 3
D) 15th B) January 15
E) 13rd C) January 4
D) January 5
63. ISRO chairman K Sivan has received a E) January 1
_______ year extension as Department of Space
secretary. 67. Who among the following has recently
A) 3 launched the Global PravasiRishta portal &
B) 2.5 mobile App to connect with Indian Diaspora
C) 1.5 across the world?
D) 1 A) Anurag Thakur
E) 2 B) Prahlad Patel
C) V.Muraleedharan
64. Which city will host the much-awaited D) S.Jaishankar
Tansen Music Festival? E) NarendraModi
A) Mumbai
B) Gwalior 68. PM Modi has laid the foundation stone of
C) Indore Light House projects (LHPs) across ___ states
D) Chandigarh via video conference.
E) Jaipur A) 4
B) 8
C) 7
D) 6
11

E) 5 E) Madhya Pradesh
69. Indian Army Chief MM Naravane receives 73. Petroleum Minister has launched missed call
Guard of Honour at Army Headquarters of which facility for LPG consumers in which city?
country? A) Chandigarh
A) Israel B) Delhi
B) France C) Kolkata
C) South Korea D) Bhubaneswar
D) Nepal E) Indore
E) Bhutan
74. Who among the following has inaugurated
70. Prime Minister has laid the Foundation stone the Virtual Agri-hackathon 2020?
of AIIMS in which state recently? A) Prahlad Patel
A) Chhattisgarh B) NitinGadkari
B) Haryana C) Venkiah Naidu
C) Bihar D) NarendraModi
D) Gujarat E) NS Tomar
E) Madhya Pradesh
75. India is all set to begin its ______year tenure
71. DRDO has recently celebrated its ____ as a non-permanent member in UNSC.
Foundation Day of its establishment on January A) 6
01, 2021. B) 1
A) 58th C) 2
B) 60th D) 3
C) 61st E) 4
D) 62nd
E) 63rd 76. Which country has recently changed the
words of its national anthem?
72. PM Modi has inaugurated a permanent A) France
campus of IIM Sambalpur in which state? B) Australia
A) Chhattisgarh C) England
B) Haryana D) Malaysia
C) Odisha E) Singapore
D) Bihar
12

77. Who among the following has launched the 81. State-owned ______announced the extension
IAF e-Governance (e-Office) portal? of its festival bonanza offer till March.
A) Rajnath Singh A) HDFC
B) Anurag Thakur B) ICICI
C) Prahlad Patel C) SBI
D) RKS Bhadauria D) BOB
E) NarendraModi E) PNB
78. India and ADB have signed USD _____ 82. Post Office Savings Bank be apt
million loan to augment electricity generation interconnected with other banks by which
capacity in Assam. month?
A) 260 A) August
B) 245 B) April
C) 231 C) March
D) 250 D) June
E) 247 E) July
79. Which state has launched a Crop Relief 83. RuPay partners with which Bank to introduce
Scheme - KisanFasalRahatYojana? ‘RuPayPoS’?
A) Karnataka A) Axis
B) Chhattisgarh B) ICICI
C) Kerala C) SBI
D) Jharkhand D) RBL
E) Assam E) HDFC
80. Chief of Naval Staff recently visited INS 84. IFSCA has become an associate member of
Dwarka in which state? the global lobby group _____.
A) Madhya Pradesh A) UNICEF
B) Karnataka B) UNESCO
C) Gujarat C) WB
D) Kerala D) IMF
E) Maharashtra E) IOSCO
13

85. P Ravi Kumar appointed as Chief Secretary 89. Who among the following has been
of which state? appointed Deputy Election Commissioner?
A) Chhattisgarh A) Naveen Gupta
B) Telangana B) Sumit Singh
C) Karnataka C) UmeshSinha
D) Gujarat D) Manoj Kumar
E) Kerala E) Anand Raj
86. Who among the following has taken over the 90. Which state government has promoted 3 IPS
charge of new Chairman & CEO of Railway Officers recently?
Board? A) Haryana
A) AnandVarma B) Punjab
B) Sumeet Sharma C) Kerala
C) Manoj Kumar D) Chhattisgarh
D) Surender Singh E) Madhya Pradesh
E) Vishesh Singh
91. DRDO's 'Scientist of the Year' award has
87. Soma Mondal has taken over from Anil been won by whom?
Kumar Chaudhary as Chairman of which A) SushilGupte
organization? B) AnandTiwary
A) HPCL C) Hemant Kumar Pandey
B) ONGC D) Manoj Kumar
C) BDL E) SurenderPrakash
D) SAIL
E) BHEL 92. GST collections for December has been
highest ever at Rs ______ lakh crore.
88. Narendra 'Bull' Kumar who passed away was A) 1.05
a famous ______. B) 1.10
A) Actor C) 1.30
B) Director D) 1.24
C) Writer E) 1.15
D) Singer
E) Mountaineer 93. J&K UT Administration has signed anMoU
with which organization?
14

A) ONGC B) Writer
B) BHEL C) Director
C) HPCL D) Musician
D) NAFED E) Dancer
E) NAREDCO
98. Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium
94. ADB and India have signed a _____million (INSACOG) has been launched under the
loan to support project preparation to expand leadership of ______.
horticulture in Himachal Pradesh. A) MoH&FW
A) 14 B) AIIMS
B) 13 C) CSIR
C) 10 D) ICMR
D) 11 E) NCDC
E) 12
99. Drug regulator has given final approval for
95. John Fulton Reid who died at the Age of 64 Covid-19 vaccines of which of the following?
played for which country? A) Sputnik V
A) England B) SII
B) New Zealand C) Cipla
C) West Indies D) Pfizer
D) Australia E) Ranbaxy
E) South Africa
100. Which organization has released data on
96. World Braille Day Observed is observed on Police Organizations?
which date? A) RPF
A) January 1 B) CRPF
B) January 14 C) CISF
C) January 4 D) BPRD
D) January 15 E) NitiAayog
E) January 12
101. Who among the following has released the
97. ShantanuMohapatra who died at 84 in inaugural issue of ‘National Police K-9 Journal’?
Bhubaneshwar was an eminent ____. A) Anurag Thakur
A) Actor B) Prahlad Patel
15

C) Amit Shah C) Brazil

D) NarendraModi D) France
E) Venkiah Naidu E) Germany
102. RBI has recently introduced the Digital 106. Which company has signed a contract with
Payments Index with the base year as _____. Indian Navy for Initial Supply of indigenously
A) 2019 developed Laser Dazzlers?
B) 2018 A) ISRO
C) 2017 B) BEL
D) 2016 C) DRDO
E) 2015 D) BDL
E) GRSE
103. Government has extended the benefit of the
RoDTEP scheme to all export goods to boost 107. Which country will be a co-chair of a
exports based on the recommendation of ______ regional forum to conserve wildlife habitats - Asia
committee. Protected Areas Partnership (APAP)?
A) Ramesh Chand A) Thailand
B) VK Paul B) China
C) V Srinivasan C) Russia
D) GK Pillai D) India
E) Suresh Mathur E) Qatar
104. The government of which state has 108. Who among the following has inaugurated
Permitted all shops to remain open for 24x7? the National Metrology Conclave 2021?
A) Telangana A) Amit Shah
B) Andhra Pradesh B) Prahlad Patel
C) West Bengal C) NarendraModi
D) Kerala D) Harsh Vardhan
E) Karnataka E) Anurag Thakur
105. ISRO to launch the first satellite developed 109. Leon Mendonca has become India's ______
entirely by which country’s space agency? chess Grandmaster.
A) US A) 63rd
B) Japan B) 64th
16

C) 65th D) NitinGadkari
D) 66th E) NarendraModi
E) 67th
114. India has recently begun its
110. Buta Singh who passed away recently _______Scientific Expedition to Antarctica.
belonged to which political party? A) 36th
A) CPI B) 37th
B) JDU C) 40th
C) Congress D) 39th
D) BJP E) 38th
E) BJD
115. FSSAI has slashed the limit for trans fat
111. National Bird Day is observed on which of levels in foods to ______ per cent for 2021.
the following date? A) 2.5
A) January 1 B) 3
B) January 3 C) 2
C) January 5 D) 4
D) January 9 E) 3.5
E) January 7
116. Which edition of the International Film
112. Which division of the Indian Railways will Festival of India (IFFI) will open on 16th
start a train service connecting international January?
airport? A) 47th
A) Western B) 48th
B) South Central C) 49th
C) Northern D) 51st
D) South Western E) 52nd
E) Eastern
117. The government of which state has set up a
113. Who among the following will inaugurate the Tamil Academy to promote the language?
Kochi-Mangaluru natural gas pipeline? A) Chhattisgarh
A) Venkiah Naidu B) Uttar Pradesh
B) Anurag Thakur C) Delhi
C) Prahlad Patel D) Punjab
17

E) Haryana D) Naresh Mehta

E) Anand Raj
118. Justice S Muralidhar has taken Oath as
Chief Justice of which High Court? 122. Digital channels of PrasarBharati have
A) Punjab registered more than ______ percent growth in
B) Madras 2020, with Pakistan being the second highest
C) Mumbai digital audience for Doordarshan (DD) and All
D) Haryana India Radio (AIR).
E) Odisha A) 50
B) 80
119. Department for Promotion of Industry and C) 100
Internal Trade is organizing _________ - a D) 90
marathon of focused sector-specific webinars for E) 70
promoting Quality and Productivity in Indian
Industry from Jan 4 to March 2. 123. US Congress passes 'MalalaYousafzai
A) Udyog Scholarship Act' for women of which country?
B) AayatNiryat A) Turkmenistan
C) UdyogManthan B) Kazakhstan
D) UdyogUday C) Uzbekistan
E) UdyogUjjala D) Pakistan
E) Afghanistan
120. The Petroleum Minister has inaugurated the
Migrant Worker Cell in which city? 124. A 5-day national folk dance festival will be
A) Chennai organized in _______ by the Ministry of Culture.
B) Delhi A) Delhi
C) Chandigarh B) Indore
D) Surat C) Chennai
E) Indore D) Chandigarh
E) Jammu
121. Who among the following has taken oath as
new chief justice of J&K and Ladakh high court? 125. India has sent relief materials to which
A) Raj Gupta country for its cyclone affected people?
B) Pankaj Mittal A) Sri Lanka
C) Suresh Singh B) Madagascar
18

C) Fiji E) St. Knits and Keeves

D) Mauritius
1. Answer: A B) If you have spent Rs 2 lakh or more on

The government extended the deadline to foreign travel on self or any other person in the
file income tax return (ITR) for individuals by 10 relevant financial year; and
days to January 10, 2021.Prior to that, the C) If you have paid an electricity bill of Rs 1 lakh
deadline was December 31, 2020. This is the or more in the relevant FY.
third time that the government has extended the
deadline to file ITR first from the normal
deadline of July 31 to November 30, 2020, and
then to December 31, 2020. 2. Answer: E
The last date for filing ITR has been extended The Central government has formed a genomic
for those taxpayers whose filings using ITR-1 surveillance consortium for laboratory and
and ITR-4 forms are not required to be audited. epidemiological surveillance of circulating
Further, this year, if the ITR was not filed by the strains of the SARS-CoV-2 in India.
earlier deadline December 31, then the penalty The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomic Consortia
or late filing fees levied for filing a belated ITR (INSACOG) has been launched. Coordinated by
would have been twice that payable the the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) along
previous year. with MoH&FW, ICMR, and CSIR, the strategy
It is to be noted that late filing fees or penalty and roadmap of the National SARS CoV2
are only Rs 1,000 for those with taxable income Genome Sequencing Consortium (INSACOG)
up to Rs 5 lakh and those required to file returns have been prepared.
under the seventh proviso of Section 139(1) of The genomic surveillance consortium,
the Income-tax Act. INSACOG, has been formed under the
leadership of the National Centre for Disease
Under this newly inserted seventh proviso of Control (NCDC), New Delhi.
section 139 of the Income-tax Act, ITR filing is
mandatory in the following cases: 3. Answer: C
A) If you have deposited Rs 1 crore or more in The Government has decided to extend the
one or more current accounts maintained with a benefit of the scheme for the Remission of
bank or co-operative bank; Duties and Taxes on Exported Products
(RoDTEP) to all export goods to boost exports. 19

The RoDTEP rates were notified shortly by the The Union Cabinet also approved a proposal to
Department of Commerce, based on the set up industrial corridor nodes at
recommendation of a committee chaired by Krishnapatnam and Tumakuru under CBIC.
former Commerce and Home Secretary Dr. G.K. The proposals have a total estimated cost of Rs
Pillai 7,725 crore. The Union Cabinet has approved
proposals of the Department of Promotion of
4. Answer: A Industry & Internal Trade (DPIIT) for
The Bureau of Police Research & Development construction of various tank infrastructure
(BPR&D) released Data on Police components, which includes: Krishnapatnam
Organizations. The BPR&D has been publishing Industrial Area in Andhra Pradesh (estimated
the Data on Police Organizations (DoPO), cost of the project of Rs. 2,139.44
annually, since the year 1986. crore)Tumakuru Industrial Area in Karnataka
(estimated cost of Rs. 1,701.81 crore)Multi-
DoPO as of 01.01.2019 was released by the Modal Logistics Hub (MMLH) and Multi-Modal
Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah, on 29th Transport Hub (MMTH) at Greater Noida in
January 2020. This is for the first time in the Uttar Pradesh (estimated cost of Rs. 3,883.80
history of BPR&D that DoPO for a particular crore)
year has been released during the year itself.
7. Answer: B
5. Answer: D Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) has signed a
Home Minister Amit Shah released the contract with the Indian Navy for initially
inaugural issue of the National Police K-9 supplying 20 Light Amplification by Stimulated
Journal in New Delhi. Emission of Radiation Dazzlers (Laser
It is the first such publication in the country on Dazzlers) in New Delhi.
the subject of Police Service K9s, Police Dogs.
The journal comprises different sections in Hindi The BEL had earlier this month won the
and English. contract beating global Original Equipment
It is a biannual journal that will be released in Manufacturers (OEMs) in the global category.
April and October every year. These would be manufactured by BEL, Pune
plant. Laser dazzler technology was developed
6. Answer: C by Defence Research and Development
The government approved a multi-modal Organization (DRDO).
logistics and transport hub (MMTH) at Greater
Noida in Uttar Pradesh.
20

8. Answer: A The projects are being undertaken under the

Prime Minister inaugurated National Metrology Global Housing Technology Challenge (GHTC).
Conclave 2021 through video conferencing.
National Metrology Conclave 2021 was 11. Answer: B
organised by the Council of Scientific and Solution: India will begin its two-year tenure as
Industrial Research National Physical a non-permanent member of the United Nations
Laboratory, New Delhi. Security Council (UNSC). India will sit in the 15-
Science and Technology Minister Dr. Harsh nation UNSC for the 2021-22 term as a non-
Vardhan and Director General, CSIR, Shekhar permanent member — the eighth time that the
Mande and Principal Scientific Adviser to the country has had a seat on the powerful
Central Government, Professor K horseshoe table. On January 1, India, Norway,
VijayRaghavan was also present on the Kenya, Ireland and Mexico will join non-
occasion. The theme of 2021: Meteorology for permanent members Estonia, Niger, Saint
the Inclusive Growth of the Nation. Vincent and the Grenadines, Tunisia and
Vietnam and the five permanent members
9. Answer: B China, France, Russia, U.K. and the U.S.
HarshVardhan, Union Minister of Health and
Family Welfare digitally inaugurated the 7th 12. Answer: D
National Summit on Good, Replicable Practices India Post expects to make the Post Office
through a video conference. Savings Bank interoperable with other bank
Vardhan also launched New Health accounts by April 2021.
Management Information System (HMIS) along Department of Posts Secretary Pradipta Kumar
with the Operational Guidelines for TB services Bisoi said that The postal department during the
at AB-HWCs and the Operational Guidelines lockdown was at the frontline to deliver
2020 on Active Case Detection and Regular essential parcels when rail, road and air traffic
Surveillance for Leprosy. While the first one was were grounded and continues to enhance
held in 2013 at Srinagar. capacity as trains are not fully operational yet.
10. Answer: B 13. Answer: A

On 1st January Prime Minister Narendra Modi The President of India in the exercise of the
laid the foundation stone of Light House power conferred by clause (1) of Article 222 of
projects (LHPs) under the Global Housing the Constitution of India, and after consultation
Technology Challenge (GHTC)- at six sites with the 4 Chief Justice of India, transferred the
across six States, through video conference. Chief Justices/ Judges of High Courts. Recently
21

4 Chief Justices and 6 judges of High Courts Bajaj Auto has become the first two-wheeler
are transferred by President after the company in the world to cross a market
consultation with the Chief /justice of India. capitalization of Rs 1 lakh crore, making it the
most valuable two-wheeler maker. Bajaj Auto is
14. Answer: C India’s largest exporter of two-wheelers and
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of three-wheelers.
India (FSSAI) has capped the amount of trans Headquarters: Pune, Maharashtra
fatty acids (TFA) in oils and fats to 3% for 2021 Managing Directors: Rajiv Bajaj
and 2% by 2022 from the current permissible
limit of 5%. 17. Answer: A
The step to reduce trans-fat came after the The Journalist Day is observed by the
World Health Organization (WHO) called for the Maharashtra state government on 6th January
global elimination of Trans fats by 2023. every year. This day was celebrated in memory
Chairperson: Rita Teaotia. of late journalist Balshastri Jambhekar.
Primary Tag: National
Secondary Tag: In-depth
18. Answer: D
IDBI Bank announced the launch of a video
15. Answer: C KYC account opening (VAO) facility for savings
Denmark’s Oscar nominee ‘Another Round’ was bank accounts.
opening movie at 51st IFFI in Goa. IDBI Bank has already launched its mobile
The 51st International Film Festival of India banking application “I-Quick”, which allows its
(IFFI) opened with the Indian premiere of the customers to avail themselves a range of
movie ‘Another Round’ by Thomas Vinterberg. services such as funds transfer, bill payment,
The movie starring Cannes Best Actor Award mobile/DTH recharge, and an account view
winner Mads Mikkelsen is among a star- across savings, current account, fixed/recurring
studded lineup of movies being showcased at deposits, loans and Demat.
IFFI.
The movie is also Denmark’s official entry to the 19. Answer: A
Oscars. The Japanese film bagged Silver Lion The Government of India and the Government
for Best Director at Venice International Film of West Bengal and the World Bank signed a
Festival. $105 million project to improve the inland water
transport infrastructure in Kolkata, West Bengal.
16. Answer: A
22

The $105 million loan from the International 22. Answer: A

Bank for Reconstruction and Development Prime Minister Narendra Modi has inaugurated
(IBRD), has a maturity of 17 years, including a the 306-km New Rewari-New Madar section of
grace period of 7 years. the Western Dedicated Freight Corridor
The West Bengal Inland Water Transport, (WDFC).
Logistics and Spatial Development Project will The Rewari-Madar section is situated in
facilitate passenger and freight movement Haryana, approximately 79km in Mahendragarh
across the Hooghly River. and Rewari districts and Rajasthan
approximately 227km, in Jaipur, Ajmer, Sikar,
20. Answer: D Nagaur and Alwar districts.
The All India Gem and Jewellery Domestic
Council (GJC), the national apex body of the 23. Answer: E
gems and jewellery industry, has announced Prime Minister Narendra Modi held a video-
the appointment of Ashish Pethe as chairman teleconference with his German counterpart
and Saiyam Mehra as vice chairman for two Federal Chancellor Angela Merkel.
years. This year marks the 70th anniversary of setting
up bilateral relations between India and
Germany and the 20th anniversary of the
21. Answer: B Strategic Partnership, the two leaders agreed to
The Centre has decided to form a committee to hold the sixth Inter-Governmental Consultations
protect the language, culture and land of at an early date in 2021 and to set an ambitious
Ladakh and ensure citizen’s participation in the agenda for the same.
Union Territory’s development.
The Committee would be headed by the 24. Answer: B
Minister of State for Home G Kishan Reddy and The year 2020 was the eighth warmest year on
will include elected representatives from record since nation-wide records commenced in
Ladakh, Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development 1901, the India Meteorological Department
Council, central government, and the Ladakh (IMD).
administration. However, the past year was substantially lower
Union Home Minister Amit Shah met a 10- than the highest warming recorded in 2016. As
member delegation from Ladakh who per the IMD, the five warmest years on record in
expressed their views about the need to protect order were 2016, 2009, 2017, 2010 and 2015.
Ladakh’s unique cultural identity.
25. Answer: D
23

A new approach for surveying African elephants Produces (MFPs) collected by Tribal Forest
using satellite imagery and artificial intelligence Gatherers
(AI) could help in solving some of the present
challenges in the conservation of the species. 28. Answer: C
The survey method was developed by an Admiral Karambir Singh, the Chief of the Naval
international team of researchers led by the Staff (CNS) visited INS Dwarka, Indian Navy’s
University of Oxford. forward operating base at Okha, Gujarat, on
New Year’s Eve.
26. Answer: A
SBI Mutual Fund has acquired an additional 29. Answer: D
86,993 shares in CSB Bank Ltd (formerly The ‘LUKOSIN’ Developer and Senior scientist
Catholic Syrian Bank Ltd), which consequently Hemant Kumar Pandey has been honoured with
raised its stake in the bank to 5.01% from DRDO’s ‘Scientist of the Year Award’ for his
4.96% earlier. The acquisition was made contribution in developing several herbal
through open market purchase. medicines, including the popular drug Lukoskin
It is currently the oldest private sector bank in meant for the treatment of leucoderma.
Kerala. In 1969 it became a Scheduled Bank,
as it was included in the Second Schedule of 30. Answer: D
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. BEML Ltd (previously known as Bharat Earth
Movers Limited) has received orders worth ~
27. Answer: E INR 758 crores from the Ministry of Defense
TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing (MoD) for supplying high-mobility vehicles to the
Development Federation of India Limited) under Indian army.
the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) & Akhil
Bhartiya Vanvasi Kalyan Ashram signed a The equipment would be manufactured at
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to BEML’s Palakkad Plant in Kerala and will be
establish TRIFOOD Parks in 5 districts in supplied to the Indian Army in a period of 1
Madhya Pradesh. year.
The agreement was signed by Pravir Krishna, The vehicles will play a vital role in the logistics
Managing Director (MD), TRIFED & Yogesh management of the army.
Bapat, and General Secretary of Akhil Bhartiya
Vanvasi Ashram. The main aim of TRIFOOD is (e) R Rakesh
to enhance the income of tribal through optimal 31. Answer: B
utilization of value addition to Minor Forest
24

Delhi Government Department of Art, Culture, Excellent Order of the British Empire’ in Queen
and Language has set up a Tamil Academy to Elizabeth II’s 2021 New Year’s Honours list.
promote the language and culture of the
southern state of Tamil Nadu. This second highest ranking Order of the British
The Delhi government has appointed a former Empire award (excluding a knighthood/ dame
municipal councilor and current member of hood) conferred to him in recognition of his
Delhi Tamil Sangam N Raja as the vice- outstanding services to Breast Cancer care and
chairman of the academy. Surgical Education in India and UK/India
relations. The award was instituted in 1917 by
King George V.
32. Answer: B
The National Capital Region Transport
Corporation (NCRTC) will use indigenously 34. Answer:D
designed ballastless tracks for the country’s first Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS). signed MoU with Indo-Tibetan Border Police,
As RRTS technology supports high-speed trains ITBP for the supply of 1,72,000 cotton durries
therefore these tracks will be suitable for high- every year.
speed trains running up to 180 kmph and The total value of these durries is eight crore 74
require low maintenance. lakh. The development comes after Home
Track slabs will first be used on the 17-km-long Minister Amit Shah gave instructions to the
Sahibabad-Duhai priority section of the Delhi- paramilitary forces to encourage local products
Ghaziabad Meerut RRTS corridor. to support the AtmaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
The section will be operational by 2023; while KVIC Chairman Vinai Kumar Saxena termed
the entire 82-km-long corridor will be completed the development as “historic” saying this would
by 2025.Tracks will be manufactured not only encourage the use of Swadeshi
indigenously in a unit, currently being products in our forces but also create large-
constructed in Meerut. scale additional employment for Khadi artisans.
33. Answer: A 35. Answer: E

India’s Dr. Raghu Ram Pillarisetti (54 years old), Lt Gen Shantanu Dayal has been named the
Director and Consultant Breast Surgeon, KIMS- new DCOAS. Lt Gen Dayal is the Corps
USHALAKSHMI Centre for Breast Diseases has Commander of the Tejpur based 4 Corps.
been honoured with ‘OBE-Officer of the Most
25

He takes place of Lt Gen SS Hasabnis who Review on diplomacy, development and

superannuated on December 31 as soon as his defense.
replacement arrives. Lt Gen Taranjit Singh, the He succeeded Sir Philip Barton.
first Army officer to join as the Additional
Secretary in the Department of Military Affairs 38. Answer: B
(DMA) under the Ministry of Defence. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to
introduce the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) system
36. Answer: E for all payment transactions of value ₹50 crore
The World Bank has projected an economic and above undertaken by entities (non-
growth rate of 1.6 percent for Bangladesh for individuals) via RTGS and NEFT.
the FY 2020-21. In its latest report on Global Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) and
Economic Prospects released, the Bank has National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) are
noted that the world economy is likely to grow the Centralized Payment Systems operated by
by 4 percent in 2021. RBI.
This report points out that in Bangladesh, which This will come into effect from April 01, 2021
had been one of the fastest growing emerging
market and developing economies prior to the 39. Answer: A
pandemic, growth is estimated to have The CCEA has approved a modified scheme to
decelerated to 2% in FY 2019/20. enhance ethanol distillation capacity in the
The World Bank has estimated India’s GDP country for producing 1st Generation, 1G
(Gross Domestic Product) growth to be in the ethanol from feedstocks such as cereals like
range of 7.5 to 12.5 per cent during FY 2021-22 rice, wheat, barley, corn and sorghum and
(FY 22). For the fiscal year 2020-21 ending on sugarcane, sugar beet etc.
Wednesday, GDP contraction is estimated at An interest subvention of Rs 4,573 crore will
8.5 per cent as against a growth of 4 per cent also be provided for the production of ethanol,
during FY 2019-20. which can be used for doping in petrol. India will
need about 1,000 crore liters of ethanol for
37. Answer: D doping in petrol by 2030 to cut dependency on
Alex Ellis, a British strategic expert, has taken imports for meeting oil needs. The nation
charge as the new UK High Commissioner to currently has a capacity of 684 crore liters.
India.
The 53-year-old civil servant has been serving
as Deputy National Security Adviser in the UK 40. Answer: D
Cabinet Office for the government’s Integrated
26

The Union Cabinet also gave its approval to the consumption in the three-month ahead as well
sale of Akash surface-to-air missile systems to as one-year ahead periods. The 18 cities are
friendly foreign countries. Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar,
It created a high-powered Committee Chandigarh, Chennai, Delhi, Guwahati,
comprising Defence Minister (Rajnath Singh), Hyderabad, Jaipur, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai,
External Affairs Minister (Subrahmanyam Nagpur, Patna, Raipur, Ranchi and
Jaishankar) and National Security Advisor-NSA Thiruvananthapuram.
(Ajit Kumar Doval) to provide faster approvals
for export of such platforms.
Notably, the Government of India targets 43. Answer: C
defence exports worth $5 billion by 2024. Dr. Harsh Vardhan released a Book titled
Akash is a Surface to Air Missile with a range of “Metrology for Inclusive Growth of India”, edited
25 Kms. The missile was inducted in 2014 in by Dr. D.K. Aswaland contributed by CSIR-
IAF and in 2015 in Indian Army. NPL’s Scientists. This book signifies the role of
metrology for inclusive growth in India and
41. Answer: A describes various metrological applications. He
The PM gave away annual “Pradhan Mantri also released a “Thesaurus of NPL” on the
Awas Yojana (Urban) Awards-2019” for occasion.
excellence in six categories for the
implementation of PMAY-U. Best Performing 44. Answer: D
State-Uttar Pradesh (UP) followed by Madhya John Fulton(F) Reid, former New Zealand
Pradesh (MP) and Andhra Pradesh (AP) cricketer passed away at the age of 64 after a
long illness at Christchurch, City in the South
42. Answer: A Island, New Zealand.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the The Left-handed batsman was born on March 3,
January 2021 round of household surveys 1956 in Auckland, City in the North Island, New
namely “Inflation Expectations Survey of Zealand. He served as the New Zealand Test
Households (IESH)” and “Consumer captain. The name of New Zealand national
Confidence Survey (CCS)” to represent inflation cricket team is nicknamed as Blackcap.
expectations and consumer confidence.
This survey covers 6000 households across 18 45. Answer: E
cities by capturing subjective assessments i.e. The finance ministry notified that the interest
qualitative and quantitative responses on price rates on small savings schemes including
movements and inflation as per the individual’s Public Provident Fund (PPF) and National
27

Savings Certificate (NSC) for 4th quarter of person; he is one of the fastest in history to
2020-21 ( January 1 to March 31, 2021) will achieve the feat.
remain unchanged from those notified for the Zhong Shanshan is Chinese billionaire whose
third quarter (October 1-December 31, 2020). net worth is 78.2 billion USD, which is attributed
Scheme Interest Rate to the listing of Beijing Wantai Biological
Public Provident Fund 7.1% Pharmacy Enterprises Co and Nongu Spring
National Savings 6.8% Co, a bottled water firm.
Certificate
Savings Deposit 4% 48. Answer: D
Five-year Senior 7.4% (Paid Quarterely) Bank of Baroda offers WhatsApp banking
Citizens Savings services, to activate the banking facility on
Scheme WhatsApp, need to save WhatsApp number
Sukanya Samriddhi 7.6% 8433 888 777 of Bank of Baroda (BoB) in phone
Yojana book. The bank would be offering these
Term deposits of 1-5 5.5 – 6.7% (Paid services on Whats App- balance inquiry, mini
years Quarterely) statement, cheque status inquiry, cheque book
5 – year recurring 5.8% request, blocking of a debit card, information on
Deposit Bank’s product and services, register/apply for
Kisan Vikas Patra 6.9% digital products, etc.
46. Answer: A 49. Answer: E
Harmony Foundation hosted the Mother Teresa A 19-year-old Indian student in Singapore is
Memorial Awards for Social Justice. The keeping his options open on a startup named
Awards in its 16th year is the only award “TEAMLABS” he has built with four applications
endorsed by Sister Prema, the Superior in his teenage while schooling.
General of the Missionaries of Charity, the While keeping up with his schooling for a
organization started by Mother Teresa. The diploma in business administration at Singapore
theme for awards was, Celebrating Compassion Polytechnic, Harsh Dalal, as CEO, has built
in Times of Covid. 120-employee Team Labs’ business across

eight cities.
47. Answer: E
Solution: Zhong Shanshan, referred to as “Lone 50. Answer: D
Wolf”, has replaced Ambani as Asia’s richest

28

The first ever wooden satellite could be 53. Answer: E

launched from Japan in 2023. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
The Japanese firm Sumitomo Forestry and has extended the deadline for FASTags for all
Kyoto University have joined forces in the aim of vehicles in India till February 15, 2021.
developing a wooden satellite that would burn Earlier, the National Highways Authority of India
up more readily as its lifespan ends, without (NHAI) had announced to completely do away
leaving debris or waste behind. with cash transactions for paying toll charges
from January 1.
51. Answer: C The new deadline for FASTags to be made
The government extended the deadline to file mandatory to cross a toll plaza has been set on
income tax return (ITR) for individuals by 10 February 15, 2021.
days to January 10, 2021. The compulsory use of FASTags will help
Prior to that the deadline was December 31, vehicles pass through the toll plazas swiftly,
2020 preventing long queues.
This is the third time that the government has
extended the deadline to file ITR first from the 54. Answer: B
normal deadline of July 31 to November 30, The Assam Legislative Assembly passed the
2020, and then to December 31, 2020. repeal provincialisation of Madrassa Bill, 2020
The last date for filing ITR has been extended to abolish all government-run Madrassas in the
for those taxpayers whose filings using ITR-1 state and convert them to general schools.
and ITR-4 forms are not required to be audited. The new act will come into effect from April 1,
2021. The Bill was tabled in the assembly by
52. Answer: D the state government on December 28, 2020.
Indira Joseph Venniyor, Renowned Assam, the state government has decided to
broadcaster, All India Radio Veterean, and the make 'education secular' and 198 high
first English news announcer of Travancore madrasas and 542 other madrasas in the state
Radio, passed away. She was 94. will operate as any other general educational
She was the wife of well-known literary scholar institute and will not give admission to students
and art critic the late E.M.J. Venniyoor. for theological studies.
She is a lover of music and performing arts, she
encouraged budding professionals in the fields. 55. Answer: C
Madhya Pradesh Government is Organizing an
exhibition called Raag-Bhopali is being
29

organized to promote Zari-Zardozi crafts of SAHAYAK-NG is an advanced version of

Bhopal. SAHAYAK Mk I.
The exhibition is being organised till 30 The newly developed GPS aided air dropped
December in GauharMahal, Bhopal. Chief container is having the capability to carry a
Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan while payload that weighs up to 50 kilograms and can
inaugurating the exhibition on that fading art of be dropped from heavy aircraft.
Zari-Zardozi will be revived. SAHAYAK-NG container was developed by two
Different kinds of zari work DRDO laboratories i.e. NSTL, Visakhapatnam
Zardozi: This is a heavy and more elaborate and ADRDE, Agra along with Avantel for GPS
embroidery work which uses varieties of gold integration.
threads, spangles, beads and gota.
It is used to embellish wedding outfits, heavy 57. Answer: E
coats, cushions, curtains etc. DBS Bank India introduced a one-stop travel
Kamdani : This is a lighter needlework which is marketplace within the digibank app.
done on lighter material like scarves, veils, and Named as Travel Now, the platform enables
caps. customers to browse and book flights, bus
Mina Work: This is thus called owing to its tickets and hotels across hundreds of
resemblance with enamel work. The embroidery destinations both within and outside of India.
is done in gold. With the help of this new platform customers will
now be able opt for travel insurance, offered by
56. Answer: D Bharti AXA General Insurance, with an
Defence Research and Development automated claims process for flight cancellation,
Organisation (DRDO) along with the Indian and flight departure and arrival delays of more
Navy conducted the successful maiden test trial than 60 minutes.
of 'SAHAYAK-NG' India's first indigenously
designed and developed Air Dropped Container 58. Answer: B
from IL 38SD aircraft (Indian Navy) off the coast The government approved a multi-modal
of Goa. logistics and transport hub (MMTH) at Greater
The trial was conducted by the Indian Navy to Noida in Uttar Pradesh.
enhance its operational logistics capabilities and For a view to making India a strong player in the
provide critical engineering stores to ships that global value chain. The Union Cabinet also
are deployed more than 2000 kilometers from approved a proposal to set up industrial corridor
the coast. nodes at Krishnapatnam and Tumakuru under
CBIC.
30

The proposals have a total estimated cost of Rs The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre in
7,725 crore and an estimated employment Mumbai has developed an eye cancer therapy
generation of more than 2.8 lakh persons in the form of the first indigenous Ruthenium
The Union Cabinet has approved proposals of 106 Plaque for the treatment of ocular tumours.
Department of Promotion of Industry & Internal The handling of plaque is very convenient for
Trade (DPIIT) for construction of of various surgeons and it has been acknowledged to be
trunk infrastructure components, which at par with international standards.
includes: About Ocular Tumours:
Krishnapatnam Industrial Area in Andhra Ocular tumors are tumors inside the eye.
Pradesh (estimated cost of the project of Rs. They are collections of cells that grow and
2,139.44 crore) multiply abnormally and form masses.
They can be benign or malignant. In adults the
59. Answer: D most common type is metastatic, from another
Union Minister of Education Ramesh part of the body (lung, breast, prostate, etc).
PokhriyalNishank virtually laid the foundation About Ruthenium-106:
stone of 'TiHAN-IIT Hyderabad, India's first Ruthenium-106 is a radioactive form of the rare
Testbed for Autonomous Navigation Systems heavy metal ruthenium, which is a "platinum
(Terrestrial and Aerial) at IIT Hyderabad. group" metal similar to platinum.
The Department of Science and Technology
(DST), Government of India, has sanctioned Rs. 61. Answer: E
135 crores to IIT Hyderabad under the National Shri V.K. Yadav, Chairman & CEO, Railway
Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Board, Ministry of Railways has been conferred
Systems (NM-ICPS) to set up a Technology with the prestigious Eminent Engineer Award for
Innovation Hub on Autonomous Navigation and the Year 2020
Data Acquisition Systems. The award is given by the Institution of
The Technology Innovation Hub on Engineering and Technology (IET) for his
Autonomous Navigation Systems for Unmanned outstanding contribution towards modernization
Aerial Vehicles and Remotely Operated and reforms over Indian Railways.
Vehicles at IIT Hyderabad, known as 'TiHAN Every year the Institution of Engineering and
Foundation' has been incorporated as a Technology, Delhi Local Network celebrates
Section-8 company by the institute in June Engineers’ Day on the 15th of September to
2020. commemorate the birth anniversary of Bharat
Ratna Sir M Visvesvaraya.
60. Answer: C
31

On this occasion, besides technical activities, CristianFracassi and Alessandro Romaioli (Italy)
the Institution also presents the Eminent CEO and Founder of ISINNOVA along with his
Engineer’s Award to distinguished Engineering teammate and engineer Alessandro Romaioli
personalities for their outstanding services in built prototypes on Isinnova's 3D printers, to
the field of Engineering and technology. create the parts of the use-and-throw valves for
ventilators which were desperately needed in
62. Answer: C Italy and provided it to them for free helped
On December 27, 2020, Harmony Foundation many patients survive the terrors of this
hosted the Mother Teresa Memorial Awards for pandemic.
Social Justice. Sanjay Pandey, IPS (DG Home Guards,
The Awards in its 16th year is the only award Maharashtra) went beyond the call of duty as a
endorsed by Sister Prema, the Superior police officer to open the first relief camp in the
General of the Missionaries of Charity, the Mumbai city suburbs for migrant workers whose
organization started by Mother Teresa. livelihood were disrupted by the lockdown to
The theme for this year's awards was, contain the pandemic.
Celebrating Compassion In Times OfCovid VikasKhanna (Manhattan, USA) heart still
Dr Anthony Fauci (USA) is the Director of the moves to serve the lonely and underprivileged
National Institute of Allergy and Infectious here in India.
Diseases, USA. He and his task force were
among the first ones to realize the seriousness 63. Answer: D
of this pandemic. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
Fr Fabio Stevenazzi (Milan, Italy) decision to has approved the extension of tenure of K
return to medical practice in order to help those Sivan, secretary, Department of Space and
infected with COVID 19 has thrust him to be the chairman, Space Commission, for a period of
modern day example of St Charles Borromeo one-year beyond January 14, 2021, that is up to
who in 1576 during the Great Plague that hit the January 14, 2022.
city of Milan and cut the population by half, Sivan is also Chairman of Indian Space
stayed behind to nurse the sick and renovate Research Organisation (ISRO).
hospitals. Sivan joined Isro in 1982 and was inducted into
DrPradeep Kumar (Chennai) took it upon the PSLV Project.
himself to give a befitting burial to his colleague He took over as Isro chairman in January 2018.
with the help of two ward boys, at a cemetery in Under his chairmanship, the space agency
the city in the middle of the night. launched various important projects, including
Chandrayaan 2, the second mission to the
32

moon, on July 22 last year and currently 2020 on Active Case Detection and Regular
working on the human spaceflight mission. Surveillance for Leprosy.
He was the chief architect of 6D trajectory Main Objective : to recognize, showcase and
simulation software, SITARA, which is the document various best practices and
backbone of the real-time and non-real-time innovations in public healthcare system
trajectory simulations of all Isro launch vehicles.
66. Answer: E
64. Answer: B Global Family Day is an annual celebration
In Madhya Pradesh, the much-awaited Tansen observed on January 1st of every year.
Music Festival began in Gwalior with strict People all over the world find no time to spend
COVID-19 guidelines in place. In the inaugural with their family.
ceremony renowned santoor player The reason varies from person to person due to
PtSatishVyas was conferred upon the their work, living atmosphere, and so on.
prestigious TansenSamman. This Day is celebrated as the global day of
Bhopal-based institution Abhinav Kala Parishad peace and sharing in the United States.
was honoured with Raja MansinghTomar Spending time with the family members has
award. reasonably reduced in recent years.
The inaugural day events started with cross- The Day aims in promoting peace and sharing.
cultural offerings of Harikatha, Milad and Assembly’s declaration made in 1997 started
shehnaivadan at Tansen’ssamadhisthal in with the theme “One Day of Peace” which was
Hazira. then observed on the first day of every year to
The festival will conclude on December 30 at welcome the New Year.
Behat village, the birthplace of the music
maestro Tansen. 67. Answer: C
Minister of State for External Affairs V.
65. Answer: C Muraleedharan launched the Global
Dr. Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister of Health PravasiRishta portal and mobile App, to connect
and Family Welfare digitally inaugurated the 7th with Indian Diaspora across the world.
National Summit on Good, Replicable Practices About the Portal :
through a video conference. The portal will act as a dynamic communication
Dr. Vardhan also launched New Health platform between our pravasis, the Ministry of
Management Information System (HMIS) along External Affairs and missions abroad and will
with the Operational Guidelines for TB services help in engaging Indian diaspora more
at AB-HWCs and the Operational Guidelines intensively.
33

The portal will also assist the Indian overseas The project will comprise around 1000 houses
during any crisis management and will also lend at each location along with allied infrastructure
a helping hand. facilities.
The portal will also contain useful information It will mainly aim to deliver ready to live houses
for the Indian diaspora such as information on at a fastened pace within twelve months.
passport, visa, and other consular services. It The Chief Ministers of all six states took part in
will also have the details about various events the foundation laying ceremony.
that are organized by the missions and the It has been conceptualised by the Union
invites will be sent to diaspora members for Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
greater participation. The LightHouse Projects will showcase the best
The dynamic nature of the portal and the app use of new-age alternate global technologies,
will also allow the ministry to take useful processes and materials in the construction
opinions of the Indian diaspora on policy issues, sector at such a large scale for the first time in
conducting surveys, sharing e-newsletters, etc. the country.
PravasiBharatiya Divas (PBD) is celebrated on These houses will be more economical,
9th January every year to mark the contribution sustainable, durable and of high quality in
of the Overseas Indian Community in the comparison to the conventional brick and mortar
development of India. construction.
68. Answer: D 69. Answer: C

On 1st January Prime Minister NarendraModi Chief of Army Staff General MM Naravane has
laid the foundation stone of Light House received a Guard of Honour at Republic of
projects (LHPs) under Global Housing Korea Army Headquarters at Gyeryong, South
Technology Challenge (GHTC)- at six sites Korea.
across six States, through video conference. He called on General Nam Yeong shin, Chief of
The projects are being undertaken under the Staff of Korean Army and discussed issues of
Global Housing Technology Challenge (GHTC). bilateral defence cooperation.
The LightHouse Projects will be undertaken at The Army chief visited the Demilitarized Zone
Rajkot in Gujarat, Lucknow in Uttar Pradesh, (DMZ) near the border with North Korea.
Indore in Madhya Pradesh, Ranchi in General Naravane visited the 30th Armoured
Jharkhand, Chennai in Tamil Nadu and Agartala Brigade and DMZ.
in Tripura. During his three day visit, he met senior military
and civilian leadership of the Republic of Korea
34

and discussed avenues for enhancing defence DRDO is working in multiple cutting edge
relations between the two countries. military technology areas, which include
aeronautics, armaments, combat vehicles,
70. Answer: D electronics, instrumentation, engineering
Prime Minister NarendraModi laid the systems, missiles, materials, naval systems,
foundation stone of All India Institute of Medical advanced computing, simulation, cyber, life
Sciences (AIIMS) at Rajkot in Gujarat through sciences and other technologies for defence.
video conferencing.
Gujarat Governor AcharyaDevvrat, Union 72. Answer: C
Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan and Union Prime Minister NarendraModi will lay the
Minister of State for Health Ashwini Kumar foundation stone of the permanent campus of
Choubey were also present on the occasion. the Indian Institute of Management (IIM),
AIIMS will play a big role in ensuring the Sambalpur, on January 2 via video-
modern health care facility reaches to the last conferencing.
mile in the State. Odisha Governor GaneshiLal and Odisha Chief
Under AIIMS project, 201 acres of land has Minister Naveen Patnaik along with Union
been allotted near Rajkot. Ministers Ramesh Pokhriyal 'Nishank',
It will be built at an estimated cost of Rs 1,195 DharmendraPradhan and Pratap Chandra
crore and is expected to be completed by mid of Sarangi will also be present on the occasion.
2022. The ceremony will be virtually attended by more
The state-of-the-art 750-bed hospital will also than 5,000 invitees, including officials, industry
have a 30-bed AAYUSH block. leaders, academicians and students, alumni
It will have 125 MBBS seats and 60 nursing and faculty of IIM, Sambalpur.
seats. The institute also outscored all other IIMs in
terms of highest gender diversity with 49 per
71. Answer: E cent girl students in the MBA batch of 2019-21
The DRDO observed the 63rd Foundation Day and 43 per cent in the 2020-22 MBA batch.
of its establishment on January 01, 2021. The proposed campus of IIM Sambalpur will be
DRDO was established in 1958 with just 10 equipped with State-of-the-art infrastructure with
laboratories to enhance the research work in energy efficient green features as per GRIHA
the Defence sector. standards.
It was tasked with designing and developing It will be a green campus with maximum usage
cutting edge defence technologies for Indian of renewable energy.
Armed Forces.
35

The project is scheduled to be completed by Virtual Agri-hackathonAtmanirbharKrishi

April 2022. inaugurated To make Agriculture profitable and
attract youth towards agriculture are challenges
73. Answer: D of the Agri-hackathon
Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers’
and Steel DharmendraPradhan launched the Welfare ShriNarendra Singh Tomar said Agri-
missed call facility for LPG consumers in Startups can help improve the lot of farmers
Bhubaneswar. Building Smart India with Self-Reliant
Indian Oil LPG customers can now give a Agriculture.
missed call to 8454955555 for refill booking for The application of the hackathon was made live
all India and for new connection for on mygov.in and will remain open till 20
Bhubaneswar city. January, 2021.
The Minister also rolled out the second phase of The hackathon will happen in 3 elimination
the world class octane 100 premium grade rounds and the final 24 winners will get a cash
petrol, under the brand XP 100. prize of INR 1,00,000 along with incubation
The Petroleum Minister said that while about 13 support, tech & business mentoring and various
crore people were given LPG connection other benefits.
between 1955 and 2014, now it is about to The hackathon will accept innovations & ideas
reach 30 crore, representing a quantum jump on farm mechanization, precision agriculture,
there by empowering Indian women. supply chain & food technology, waste to
Rolling out the Indian Oil's branded XP 100 to wealth, green energy, etc.
seven more cities including Bhubaneswar, Narendra Singh Tomar said “In the light of
MrPradhan said it epitomizes the Prime Prime Minister’s vision to introduce new-age
Minister's vision of Purvoday. technology and innovations in agriculture, the
"In the line Modi’s vision for a Digital India, the Agri India Hackathon is being organised.
missed call facility will play a crucial role in It is a proud moment for all of us where young
making LPG more easily accessible to the minds will discuss, collaborate, and create
consumers. some of the best ideas & solutions which will
The Petroleum Ministry has always strived to guide us for years to come.
improve customer convenience and this facility Agriculture is the backbone of our country and
by IndianOil will play a crucial role in making plans are afoot to strengthen this backbone with
LPG more easily accessible. youth engagement, employment generation,
74. Answer: E technology & digitization".
36

75. Answer: C
India will begin its two-year tenure as a non- 77. Answer: D
permanent member of the United Nations Indian Air Force Chief, Air Marshal R K S
Security Council (UNSC). Bhadauria launched the IAF e-Governance (e-
India will sit in the 15-nation UNSC for the 2021- Office) portal in New Delhi.
22 term as a non-permanent member — the Bhadauria launched the portal at Vayu Bhawan
eighth time that the country has had a seat on The launch of the portal is part of Digital India
the powerful horseshoe table. and e-governance initiative that will transform
On January 1, India, Norway, Kenya, Ireland the entire Indian Air Force into a paperless
and Mexico will join non-permanent members office workflow.
Estonia, Niger, Saint Vincent and the It marks a major shift from the current method of
Grenadines, Tunisia and Vietnam and the five correspondence, filing and documentation to a
permanent members China, France, Russia, digital one.
U.K. and the U.S. The platform will ensure enhanced
India will be UNSC President in August 2021 transparency, improved efficiency, increased
and will preside over the council again for a accountability, assured data integrity and rapidly
month in 2022. accessible archives along with a major
reduction in the use of paper.
76. Answer: B This project started in April and was to be
On new year eve, Australia has changed one completed by January 1, 2021
word in its national anthem to reflect “the spirit
of unity” and the country’s Indigenous 78. Answer: C
population. India and Asian Development Bank (ADB) have
Prime Minister of Australia Scott Morrison signed a USD 231 million loan to augment
announced that the second line of the anthem, electricity generation capacity in the State of
Advance Australia Fair, has been changed from Assam through construction of a 120 Mega
For we are young and free to For we are one Watts hydroelectric power plant that will
and free. enhance availability of electricity for
Minister for Indigenous Australians Ken Wyatt, households.
who is also the first Indigenous Australian This is the third tranche loan for the ongoing
elected to the federal Parliament’s lower house, Assam Power Sector Investment Programme
has given his support to the change. that was approved by the ADB Board in July
He said that the one-word change was small in 2014.
nature but significant in purpose.
37

The programme, including its two previous The CNS was briefed by the Flag Officer
tranches, focuses on enhancing capacity and Commanding Gujarat, Daman and Diu on
efficiency of the energy generation and maritime operations and security aspects
distribution systems in Assam to improve relevant to Gujarat, Daman & Diu (GD&D)
electricity service to end users. Naval Area.
He also took stock of coastal surveillance
79. Answer: D initiatives by GD&D Area and interacted with
Jharkhand is set to replace the Prime Minister’s personnel from Naval Station Okha and other
insurance scheme for farmers with its own crop units.
relief scheme - KisanFasalRahatYojana. Appreciating the quality work put in by the
To be launched on December 29, the scheme station, he encouraged the personnel to keep
will take three months to come into effect. up the good work as INS Dwarka enters its
What is Jharkhand’s KisanFasalRahatYojana? golden jubilee year.
It is a compensation scheme aimed at providing The CNS also wished all personnel and families
security cover to Jharkhand farmers in case of at GD&D Area the very best for the new year.
crop damage due to natural calamity.
It will cover both land owning and landless 81. Answer: E
farmers. The Department of Agriculture, Animal State-owned Punjab National Bank NSE 0.92 %
Husbandry and Co-operative will be the (PNB) announced the extension of its festival
implementing agency and it will work in bonanza offer till March.
association with a project management unit, The promotional scheme has now been
which will be a consultancy firm that will take rechristened as ''PNB NEW YEAR BONANZA-
care of technical requirements. 2021'', the bank said in a statement.
Food safety, crop diversification, rapid "Under the PNB New Year Bonanza 2021
development in agriculture and paving the way (during the offer period from January 1 to March
for competition, are among the aims of the 31, 2021), PNB will offer a full waiver of upfront
scheme. It is not an insurance scheme where or processing fees and documentation charges
premiums are paid. on all fresh housing loans, takeover housing
loans, car loans, and property loans," it said.
80. Answer: C About PNB:
Admiral Karambir Singh, the Chief of the Naval
Staff (CNS) visited INS Dwarka, Indian Navy’s 82. Answer: B
forward operating base at Okha, Gujarat, on India Post expects to make the Post Office
new year’s eve. Savings Bank interoperable with other bank
38

accounts by April and will focus on enhancing This unique phenomena will proliferate digital
digitisation of all services in 2021, a senior payments acceptance among millions of
official of the department said. underserved Indian MSMEs.
Department of Posts Secretary Pradipta Kumar
Bisoi said that The postal department during the 84. Answer: E
lockdown was at the frontline to deliver International Financial Services Centres
essential parcels when rail, road and air traffic Authority (IFSCA) has become an associate
were grounded and continues to enhance member of the International Organization of
capacity as trains are not fully operational yet. Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
The IOSCO works closely with the G20 nations
83. Answer: D and the Financial Stability Board (FSB), in
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) setting up the standards for strengthening the
announced that RuPay has partnered with RBL securities markets.
Bank to launch an innovative payment solution The IOSCO Objectives and Principles of
for Indian merchants – RuPayPoS in Securities Regulation have been endorsed by
association with PayNearby. FSB as one of the key standards for sound
The RuPayPoS will transform smartphones into financial systems.
merchant Point of Sale (PoS) terminals for the The membership of IOSCO will provide the
retailers. IFSCA a platform to exchange information at
Merchants will now be able to accept the global level, and even at the regional level,
contactless payments of up to INR 5000 on areas of common interests.
through a simple tap and pay mechanism on his With this new membership, IFSCA will get the
NFC enabled mobile phones. platform to exchange information at the global
Customers using RuPay cards or have level and regional level on areas of common
tokenized their RuPay Cards, can carry out interests and help to learn from the experiences
contactless payments for their regular and best practices of the regulators of other well
purchases. established financial centres.
The introduction of RuPayPoS to digitally
empower merchants by turning their 85. Answer: C
smartphones into a PoS machine Senior IAS officer P Ravi Kumar has been
RuPayPoS will provide cost effective appointed as Karnataka’s 38th chief secretary.
acceptance infrastructure to retailers at no He will replace TM Vijay Bhaskar who will
additional capital cost. superannuate on December 31 2020.
About P. Ravi Kumar:
39

He is 1984-batch IAS officer Ravi Kumar is public sector enterprise, National Aluminium
currently additional chief secretary (ACS) and Company Limited (NALCO).
was earlier Karnataka Chief Minister BS She replaces Anil Kumar Chaudhary, who
Yediyurappa’s ACS. superannuated on 31 December 2020.
Ravi Kumar is the second senior most IAS Under her leadership, the company launched
officer of Karnataka cadre after Bhaskar. niche branded products like NEX (Structural)
and SAIL SeQR (TMT bars), a company.
86. Answer: B
Suneet Sharma has been appointed as the new 88. Answer: E
Chairman & Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Ace mountaineer Colonel Narendra 'Bull'
Railway Board (Ministry of Railways) and ex- Kumar, 87, who helped India secure the
officio Principal Secretary to Government of Siachen Glacier, passed away.
India. He earned the nickname 'Bull' for relentlessly
Prior to this, Suneet Sharma worked as General charging into everything he did.
Manager, Eastern Railway. India had launched 'Operation Meghdoot' in
He took over in his new role with effect from April 1984 to gain total control of the
January 01, 2021. strategically-located glacier as well as nearby
Suneet Sharma joined the Indian Railways in passes following Col Kumar's ground report
1979 as a Special Class Apprentice while he about Pakistani activities.
was studying engineering at IIT Kanpur.
He was Chief Workshop Manager, Parel 89. Answer: C
workshop in Mumbai where he was instrumental Umesh Sinha has been appointed as the deputy
in manufacturing narrow gauge locomotives for election commissioner in the Election
hill railways. Commission of India, according to a Personnel
He also restored an old steam narrow gauge Ministry order.
locomotive for the heritage Matheran line near Sinha, a 1986-batch IAS officer (retired) of the
Mumbai. Uttar Pradesh cadre, is at present the secretary
general in the commission.
87. Answer: D The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
Soma Mondal has taken over as Chairman of has approved extension in the term of
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) with reemployment of Sinha as deputy election
effect from January 01, 2021. commissioner on contract basis for a period of
Before joining SAIL as a Director, Mondal was six months beyond December 31, 2020, that is
the Director (Commercial) at fellow Central up to June 30, 2021, it said.
40

Sinha is a part of a committee set up by the Organisation's (DRDO) lab Defence Institute of
Election Commission to look into the issue of Bio-Energy Research (DIBER) at Pithoragarh in
revising the election expenditure of candidates Uttarakhand for the past 25 years.
during campaigning. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh had recently
facilitated the scientist at an event here with the
90. Answer: B prestigious award that comprises a certificate
The Punjab Government has promoted three and cash prize of Rs 2 lakh.
Additional Director Generals of Police (ADGPs)
to the rank of DGP. 92. Answer: E
ADGPs SanjeevKalra, B K Uppal, and Parag Goods and Services Tax collections for
Jain, who are IPS officers, have been promoted December Rs 1.15 lakh crore, the highest ever
to the rank of Director General of Police (DGP) since the implementation of the nationwide tax
from January 1. in July 2017.
Parag Jain, IPS, who is presently on central The previous monthly GST collection record
deputation with cabinet secretariat, New Delhi was just short of Rs 1.14 lakh crore in April
would be entitled only to the notional benefits 2019.
and the actual benefits would be admissible as The revenues for the month of December 2020
and when he would join his duty in the state are 12 percent higher than the GST revenues in
government. the same month in 2019.
It is mentioned here that SanjeevKalra is ADGP In November 2020, the GST collection had
railways at Patiala and BK Uppal is holding crossed Rs 1 lakh croremark.
charge of state vigilance bureau chief. This has been due to the combined effects of
the rapid economic recovery and the nationwide
91. Answer: C drive against the GST evaders and fake bills
‘LUKOSIN’ Developer and Senior scientist along with many systemic changes introduced
Hemant Kumar Pandey has been honoured with recently, which have led to improved
DRDO's 'Scientist of the Year Award' for his compliance.
contribution in developing several herbal
medicines, including the popular drug Lukoskin 93. Answer: D
meant for treatment of leucoderma. In Jammu and Kashmir, the Union Territory
A recipient of several prestigious awards for his Administration signed a historic Memorandum
contribution in the field of herbal medicine, of Understanding (MoU) with National
Pandey has been undertaking research at the Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation
Defence Research and Development
41

of India Ltd. (NAFED), an apex organization of The PRF project aims to ensure implementation
marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce. readiness with prior testing of new production
The MoU with NAFED is seen as a game technologies and marketing systems so that the
changer for the Horticulture sector in Jammu ensuing project is cost-effective and gets
and Kashmir. completed in a timely manner to enhance farm
High Density plantation of Apple, Walnut, profitability.
Cherry, Flowers etc has potential to increase
the income of farmers by 3 to 4 times. 95. Answer: B
After signing of the MoU, NAFED to cover 5500 On December 28, 2020, John Fulton Reid, New
Hectares at a cost of Rs.1700 Crore in the next Zealand cricketer passed away. He was 64.
five years with major focus on Apple, Walnut, The left-handed batsman, who made his Test
Cherry, Pear and other significant horticulture debut against Pakistan in 1979, played 19 Tests
produce. NAFED will also set up 20 Farmer- and 25 ODIs for his country, mostly batting at
Producer Organizations, one in each district, in No 3.
the next three months. He finished his Test career with a noteworthy
The NAFED will set up three cold storage average of 46.28, scoring six hundreds. He
clusters, one each in North Kashmir, South compiled his highest Test score of 180 against
Kashmir and Kathua at a cost of Rs.500 Crore, Sri Lanka in Colombo in 1984.
besides ensuring Geographical Indications tags Reid was one of the key members of the
(GI Tags) for all premium/niche horticulture successful New Zealand side in the 1980s, and
produce, branding and marketing of fruit crops is fondly remembered for his crucial hand of 108
like Apple, Walnut, Cherry, Olive, Litchi etc. and his stand of 224 with Martin Crowe versus
Australia at the Gabba in 1985.
94. Answer: C He served as the chief executive of Auckland
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Cricket,
Government of India on 30th December 2020 And then he was appointed the cricket
signed a $10 million project readiness financing operations manager and high performance
(PRF). manager of New Zealand Cricket.
Mainly to help finance piloting activities, and Reid also played a leading role in the
design and capacity building for an ensuing establishment of the National High Performance
project that aims to expand horticulture Centre at Lincoln.
production and farm household income in the
hill state of Himachal Pradesh. 96. Answer: C
42

World Braille Day is observed every year on 4

January to celebrate the importance of braille, a 98. Answer: E
form of communication and written language for The Central government has formed a genomic
people who are blind and visually challenged. surveillance consortium for laboratory and
The day commemorates the birth anniversary of epidemiological surveillance of circulating
Louis Braille, the man who invented braille in strains of the SARS-CoV-2 in India.
the year 1809. The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomic Consortia
Aim of the day : The day aims to raise (INSACOG) has been launched. Coordinated by
awareness about braille language and other the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) along
forms of communication, As many with MoH&FW, ICMR, and CSIR , the strategy
establishments such as banks, restaurants, and roadmap of the National SARS CoV2
hospitals still don't offer braille versions of their Genome Sequencing Consortium (INSACOG)
printed materials, the day serves as a reminder has been prepared.
of the importance of accessibility and The genomic surveillance consortium,
independence for people who are visually INSACOG, has been formed under the
impaired. leadership of the National Centre for Disease
Control (NCDC), New Delhi.
97. Answer: D Aim : To monitor the genomic variations in the
Legendary Odia music director SARS-CoV-2 on a regular basis through a multi-
ShantanuMohapatra died in Bhubaneswar on laboratory network. This vital research
December 30 .He was 84 years old. consortium will also assist in developing
Born at Baripada in Mayurbhanj district in 1936. potential vaccines in the future.
ShantanuMohapatra was the first Odia music
director to work with acclaimed singers and 99. Answer: B
music composers of the Hindi film industry. The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
These included LataMangeshkar (Surjyamukhi), has formally announced the final approval for
Mohd Rafi (Arundhati), Manna Dey Oxford-AstraZeneca and Bharat Biotech
(Surjyamukhi), UshaMangeskar (Arundhati) and vaccines against the coronavirus disease
other artists like Suresh Wadekar, (Covid-19) for emergency use.
AnuradhaPaudwal, UshaUthup, Kavita CDSCO (Central Drugs Standard Control
Krishnamurthy, etc. Organisation) accepts the subject expert
He composed the first modern lullaby in AIR, committee reform rations on Serum and Bharat
first qawali, first bhangra tune, and first fusion Biotech Covid vaccines.
and jumping note. About Covishield :
43

The subject expert committee (SEC) under It is the first such publication in the country on
CDSCO had recommended Oxford- the subject of Police Service K9s, Police Dogs.
AstraZeneca’s vaccine, which is being This is a unique initiative that will further enrich
manufactured by the Serum Institute of India the subjects related to Police Service Dog, K-9,
(SII) as Covishield, for emergency use and PSK teams in the country.
Covaxin for restricted use. The event was attended by Home Secretary
Ajay Bhalla, Directors General of Central Armed
100. Answer: D Police Forces and senior ranking Police Officers
The Bureau of Police Research & Development of the Forces, while CAPF personnel from all
(BPR&D) released Data on Police over the country attended through virtual
Organizations. conference.
The BPR&D has been publishing the Data on
Police Organizations (DoPO), annually, since 102. Answer: B
the year 1986. The Reserve Bank of India has constructed a
Do PO as on 01.01.2019 was released by the composite Digital Payments Index (DPI) to
Union Home Minister ShriAmit Shah, on 29th capture the extent of digitisation of payments
January, 2020. across the country.
This is for the first time in the history of BPR&D The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters
that DoPO for a particular year has been that enable measurement of deepening and
released during the year itself. penetration of digital payments in the country
The number of people getting police protection over different time periods.
across India stood at 19,467 in 2019 and These parameters are
21,300 in 2018 a reduction of 1,833 (or 8.7 Payment Enablers (weight 25%),
percent). Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors
The number of police personnel put on (10%),
protection duty in 2018 and 2019 for ministers, Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors
MPs, MLAs, judges, bureaucrats, etc., (15%),
outnumbered their sanctioned strength for the Payment Performance (45%) and
job by around 35 percent. Consumer Centricity (5%).
The RBI-DPI has been constructed with March
101. Answer: C 2018 as the base period, i.e. DPI score for
Home Minister Amit Shah released the March 2018 is set at 100. The DPI for March
inaugural issue of the National Police K-9 2019 and March 2020 work out to 153.47 and
Journal in New Delhi.
44

207.84 respectively, indicating appreciable The permission is subject to the establishments

growth. which employ ten or more people.
RBI-DPI shall be published on RBI’s website on The state government also mandated that no
a semi-annual basis from March 2021 onwards employee will be made to work more than eight
with a lag of 4 months. hours and in case of overtime the working hours
The base period for RBI-DPI is March 2018. should exceed ten hours a day and 48 hours in
This means that the DPI score for March 2018 a week.
is set at 100.
105. Answer: C
103. Answer: D The Indian Space Research Organisation
Government has decided to extend the benefit (ISRO) is set to launch Amazonia-1, the first
of the scheme for Remission of Duties and satellite to have been developed completely in
Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) to all Brazil by the National Institute for Space
export goods to boost exports. Research (INPE), the Latin American nation's
The scheme will refund to exporters the apex space research body.
embedded Central, State and local taxes that Emirates SkyCargo, the freight division of
were so far not being given rebate or refunded. Emirates airline, has executed a cargo charter
The refund will be credited in the exporter's to transport Amazonia-1 from Sao Jose dos
ledger account with Customs and used to pay Campos, Brazil to Chennai. This is the first time
Basic Customs duty on imported goods. that Emirates SkyCargo has transported a
The RoDTEP rates will be notified shortly by the space satellite from South America.
Department of Commerce, based on the The satellite is due to be sent to space in
recommendation of a Committee chaired by February 2021 from the SatishDhawan Space
former Commerce and Home Secretary Dr. G.K. Centre on the East coast of India.
Pillai India and Brazil signed a Framework
Agreement for cooperation in the field of outer
104. Answer: E space in January 2004. Apart from this, an
All shops and commercial establishments agreement on the programme of cooperation
employing ten or more people in Karnataka are between the two space agencies was also
now allowed to operate on a 24x7 basis, the signed. Under this, Brazil received data from
state government. ISRO's remote sensing satellite ResourceSAT-
The move is aimed at generating employment 1.
and accelerating economic growth.
106. Answer: B
45

Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) has signed a chaired by IUCN Asia and co-chaired by an
contract with Indian Navy for initially supplying APAP nation member.
20 Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of India will substitute South Korea which held this
Radiation Dazlers (Laser Dazzlers) in New place for 3 years until November, 2020.
Delhi. Currently there are 21 members from 17
The BEL had earlier this month won the international locations.
contract beating global Original Equipment
Manufacturers (OEMs) in the global category. 108. Answer: C
These would be manufactured by BEL, Pune Prime Minister inaugurates National Metrology
plant. Conclave 2021 through video conferencing.
Laser dazzler technology was developed by National Metrology Conclave 2021 was
Defence Research and Development organised by the Council of Scientific and
Organisation (DRDO). Industrial Research-National Physical
This unique product is indigenously designed Laboratory, New Delhi.
and developed for the first time for the Armed Science and Technology Minister Dr. Harsh
Forces. Vardhan and Director General, CSIR,
ShekharMande and Principal Scientific Adviser
107. Answer: D to the Central Government, Professor K
India has been chosen as the IUCN-supported VijayRaghavanwere also present on the
Asia Protected Areas Partnership (APAP) for 3 occasion.
years and it could, on this capability, help Theme of 2021 : Meteorology for the Inclusive
different Asian nations in managing their Growth of the Nation.
protected areas. He also The National Atomic Time Scale
About APAP : generates Indian Standard Time with an
The APAP is a regional platform to assist accuracy of 2.8 nanosecond.
governments and different stakeholders to BhartiyaNirdeshakDravya aims at supporting
collaborate for more practical administration of testing and calibration of laboratories for quality
protected areas (PA) within the region. assurance, at par with international standards.
The APAP presently consists of 21 members
from 17 nations together with China, Japan, 109. Answer: E
South Korea, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Goa’s 14-year-old Leon Mendonca has become
Bangladesh. India’s 67th chess GrandMaster (GM) by
The APAP, formally launched at the IUCN winning the third and final norm at a tournament
World Parks Congress in Australia in 2014, is in Italy.
46

Mendonca, who achieved the feat at 14 years, 9 Railways, Commerce and Sports, among other
months and 17 days, is the second GM from the departments.
Coastal State. He subsequently held many positions including
The All India Chess Federation (AICF) those of the Union home minister and Union
acknowledged the development. Leon is the agriculture minister.
second Indian to become GM this year after G. He was the chairperson of the National
Akash. Commission For Scheduled Caste from 2007 to
He achieved his first GM norm at the Rigo 2010.
Chess GM Round Robin in October while the He also authored a collection of articles on
second came at the first Saturday in Budapest Punjabi literature and Sikh history and wrote a
in November. His final GM norm came at the book Punjabi Speaking State: A Critical
Vergani Cup in Italy that ended on December Analysis.
30.
GM is a title awarded by FIDE ( International 111. Answer: C
Chess Federation ). It is the highest title a chess In 2002, Born Free USA in coordination with the
player can obtain apart from World Champion. Avian Welfare Coalition launched the first
annual National Bird Day to promote avian
110. Answer: C awareness.
Former Union minister, ex-MP from Rajasthan Nature lovers, bird lovers, and bird watchers
and Congress leader Buta Singh passed away. across the country annually recognize National
He was 86. Bird Day on January 5th.
About ButaSingh : According to Born Free USA, nearly 12 percent
Born in 1934 in Punjab's Jalandhar, Buta Singh of the world’s almost 10,000 bird species are in
joined the Congress under Jawaharlal Nehru's danger of extinction.
leadership and was close to Indira Gandhi and
Rajiv Gandhi, both. 112. Answer: D
Mr Singh was first elected to the Parliament in Indian Railways' South Western Railway zone
1962. will start operating train services from Bengaluru
He also served as the Home Minister in the city station to the newly built KIA, Devanahalli
Rajiv Gandhi government from 1986 to 1989, Railway halt station.
National President of Scheduled Caste According to South Western Railway, three
Commission, governor for West Bengal and pairs of DEMU services would be introduced
Bihar, and Union minister for Agriculture, from the Bengaluru area to the Kempegowda
International Airport (KIAD) Halt Station from
47

January 4.The new railway halt station is bound

to benefit thousands of commuters daily 114. Answer: C
India launched the 40th Scientific Expedition to
113. Answer: E Antarctica.
Prime Minister NarendraModi will dedicate the This Indian expedition marks four decades of
Kochi - Mangaluru Natural Gas Pipeline to the the country's scientific endeavour to the
nation through video conference. southern white continent.
The ‘futuristic project’, PM Modi said, will The 40th expedition journey will be flagged off
positively impact many people. from Goa with 43 members onboard.
Modi said that it is a landmark day in India’s The chartered ice-class vessel MV
quest for UrjaAatmanirbharta. VasiliyGolovnin will make this journey and will
He said, this is a futuristic project that will reach Antarctica in 30 days.
positively impact many people. After leaving behind a team of 40 members, it
The event marks an important milestone would return to India in April.
towards the creation of One Nation One Gas On return, it will also bring back the winter team
Grid. of the preceding trip.
The 450 kilometre long pipeline has been built
by GAIL (India) Limited. 115. Answer: B
It has a transportation capacity of 12 Million The Food Safety and Standards Authority of
Metric Standard Cubic Metres per day. India (FSSAI) has capped the amount of trans
It will carry natural gas from the Liquefied fatty acids (TFA) in oils and fats to 3% for 2021
Natural Gas (LNG) Regasification Terminal at and 2% by 2022 from the current permissible
Kochi, Kerala to Mangaluru, Karnataka, while limit of 5%.
passing through Ernakulam, Thrissur, Palakkad, This Regulation through an amendment to the
Malappuram, Kozhikode, Kannur and Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and
Kasaragod districts. Restriction on Sales) Regulations.
The total cost of the project was about Rs.3000 The revised regulation applies to edible refined
crore and its construction created over 12 lakh oils, vanaspati (partially hydrogenated oils),
man-days of employment. margarine, bakery shortenings, and other
Kerala Chief Minister PinarayiVijayan, mediums of cooking such as vegetable fat
Karnataka Chief Minister BS Yediyoorappa and spreads and mixed fat spreads.
Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas India first passed the TFA limit of 10% in oils
DharmendraPradhan will participate in the and fats in 2011.
inaugural function.
48

116. Answer: D On January 04, Justice S Muralidhar took oath

The 51st International Film Festival of India as the 32nd Chief Justice of Orissa High Court.
(IFFI) will open on 16th January, with the Indian Governor of OdishaProf.GaneshiLal
premiere of the movie ‘Another Round’ by administered the oath of office at Raj Bhawan in
Thomas Vinterberg. Bhubaneswar in a simple ceremony.
The movie starring Cannes Best Actor Award Justice S Muralidhar succeeds Justice
winner MadsMikkelsen is among a star-studded Mohammad Rafiq as the new chief justice of the
line up of movies being showcased at IFFI. The Orissa High Court.
movie is also Denmark’s official entry to the S Muralidhar was appointed as an Additional
Oscars. Judge of Delhi High Court on May 29, 2006,
The festival will also witness the World Premier and as Permanent Judge on August 29, 2007.
of ‘Mehrunisa’. The film by Sandeep Kumar will Later, he was transferred to Punjab and
premier mid-fest. Haryana High Court on March 6, 2020.
117. Answer: C 119. Answer: C

Delhi Government Department of Art, Culture, Department for Promotion of Industry and
and Language has set up a Tamil Academy to Internal Trade is organizing UdyogManthan - a
Promote the language and culture of the marathon of focused sector-specific webinars
southern state of Tamil Nadu. for promoting Quality and Productivity in Indian
The Delhi government has appointed former Industry.
municipal councillor and current member of It got underway Jan 4 and will go on till 2nd of
Delhi Tamil Sangam N Raja as the vice- March.
chairman of the academy. Commerce and Industry Minister PiyushGoyal
The Department of Art, Culture and Language will chair the session.
of the Delhi government has decided that the The webinar series comprising 45 sessions will
new academy will introduce various awards to cover various major sectors in manufacturing
promote and reward the good works of people and services. Each webinar will be a two-hour
in Tamil language and culture. session involving discussions led by sectoral
The government will also provide language and industry experts in a particular sector.
courses through this academy. Participants will include representatives from
It will also celebrate and organise cultural industry, testing and standardization bodies.
festivals for the people of Tamil Nadu. 120. Answer: D
Union Minister DharmendraPradhan has
118. Answer: E inaugurated a migrant worker cell of Surat
49

Municipal Corporation (SMC) at Udhna based Digital channels of PrasarBharati have

iLab in Surat. registered more than 100 percent growth in
Mr. Pradhan said that the migrant workers cell 2020, with Pakistan being the second highest
with linkage with the city livelihood centre will digital audience for Doordarshan (DD) and All
help extend all kinds of assistance and India Radio (AIR).
government-led benefits to them. The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Migrant workers' Cell has been created by Surat stated the channels across Doordarshan and
Municipal Corporation for the first time in the Akashvani clocked over a billion digital views
Country under the ‘National Urban Livelihood and over six billion digital watch minutes in the
Mission Scheme’. year.
The city has a presence of over 15 lakh migrant During 2020, Pakistan accounted for the second
workers. highest digital audience for DD and AIR content
He said that this cell will do a detailed mapping after domestic audience.
of migrant workers and classify them according During 2020, PrasarBharati's mobile application
to their skill. 'NewsOnAir' added more than 2.5 million users
This will help in connecting ‘Shramshakti’ to with the platform registering over 300 million
relevant industries and boost their livelihood views.
and also ensure their dignity. PrasarBharati Archives and DD Kisan have
been steady digital performers featuring in top
121. Answer: B 10.
On January 04, 2021, Lieutenant Governor
ManojSinha administered the oath of office to 123. Answer: D
Justice PankajMithal as the new chief justice of The US Congress has passed the
the common high court for the Union Territory of MalalaYousafzai Scholarship Act which will
Jammu & Kashmir and Union Territory of expand the number of scholarships available to
Ladakh. Pakistani women to receive higher education
Chief justice Mithal has been appointed in view under a merit and needs-based programme.
of the retirement of chief justice Gita Mittal The bill was passed by the United States
recently. Senate by a voice vote on January 1.
Chief Justice Mithal was administered the oath The bill now heads to the White House for US
of office by Lieutenant Governor of J&k, President Donald Trump to sign into law.
ManojSinha. About the bill :
The bill requires the US Agency for International
122. Answer: C Development to award at least 50 percent of
50

scholarships under a Pakistan-based higher the country. Encourage them and ensure that
education scholarship programme to Pakistani arts forms are showcased to the people. It’s a
women, from 2020 to 2022, across a range of way to preserve the great cultural traditions of
academic disciplines and in accordance with India.
existing eligibility criteria. This Festival was inaugurated by Former
The bill also requires USAID to consult with and Deputy CM, Kevinder Gupta, S D Singh Jamwal
leverage investments by the Pakistani private and senior Journalist SohailKazmi was also
sector and Pakistani diaspora in the United Present.
States to improve and expand access to
education programmes in Pakistan. 125. Answer: C
India has sent over six tons of relief material to
124. Answer: E Fiji for its cyclone-affected people, reflecting its
North Zone Cultural Centre, Patiala (Ministry of close ties with the island nation in the South
Culture, Govt. of India) and Jammu & Kashmir Pacific.
Academy of Art, Culture & Languages, Jammu Fiji was hit by cyclone Yasa on December 17
is jointly organizing National Folk Dance and 18 that caused extensive damage and
Festival from December 26-28. destruction of critical infrastructure.
The festival is of five days and for three days it Disaster Risk Reduction and Management is an
will be organised at Abhinav Theatre, Jammu. important pillar of India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans’
Artists from Jammu and Kashmir, Gujarat, Initiative announced by Prime Minister Narendra
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Punjab, Modi in November 2019.
Assam, Tripura, Maharashtra, Telangana and The Ministry of External Affairs said, India
Haryana, will participate in it. remains committed to extend full support to
The festival is part of our efforts to bring Fiji’s efforts to restore livelihoods of the affected
together tribal artists from different regions of communities and to build resilient infrastructure.
51

SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 – Bundle PDF Course: Computer – Day-1/50 (Eng)
1

1. Which one of the following is an international

communications standard for sending voice, video 5. _________ is a memory management technique in
and data over digital telephone lines? which each job is divided into several segments of
a) DSL different sizes, one for each module that contains

b) ISDN pieces that perform related functions?
c) Leased line a) Segmentation
d) Broadband b) Fragmentation
e) None of These c) Memory Allocation
d) Paging
2. Which of the following is true about Java? e) None of these

a) It is an OOP language
b) It is Platform Independent 6. Which one of the following Testing is done by
c) It provides more security Developers?
d) It was designed by Sun Microsystems. a) Grey box
e) All the above b) White box
c) Black box
3. Which one of the following is the unit of Storage d) Mutation
containing record? e) None of these

a) Hash
b) Bucket 7. Grey box Testing is done by ______?
c) Block a) Tester
d) De- Block b) Developer
e) None of These c) Customer
d) All of these
4. ____ is used to find physical address for a given IP e) None of these
address and ___ is used to find IP address for a given

physical address? 8. Which one of the testing is used to test basic
a) RARP, ARP needs of an application?
b) ARP, RARP a) Retesting
c) ICMP, IGMP b) Prototype

d) IGMP, ICMP c) Adhoc
e) None of these d) Smoke
2

e) None of these c) Partial allocation

d) Circular wait
9. Which one of the following is a specific character e) None of these
string that constitutes a reference to a resource?

a) Browser 13. Which of the following shortcut key is used for
b) Domain print preview?
c) Hyperlink a) Ctrl + K
d) URL b) Ctrl + F
e) None of these c) Ctrl + F12
d) Ctrl + F2
10. ____ is a numeric address whose binary bit are e) None of these
supported by ( . )
a) Ipv4 14. The process of transferring documents, graphics,
b) Ipv6 and other objects from your computer to a server on
c) ICMP the Internet is called _________
d) IGMP a) Downloading
e) None of these b) Buffering
c) Streaming
11. _______ is used to specify the intersecting of row d) Uploading
and column of the letter and number on worksheet? e) None of these
a) Mixed address
b) Absolute address 15. Which one is on the right end of the task bar
c) Cell address consists of clock date and time , icons of certain
d) Relative address programs, computer setting sound and icons of

e) None of these removable disk?
a) Start button
12. At least one resource must be held in a non- b) Middle button
shareable mode. Otherwise, the processes would not c) Notification area
be prevented from using the resource when d) Gadgets
necessary is known as ________? e) None of these

a) Non preemptive
b) Mutual exclusion
3

16. Which one of the following commands is used to d) Circular wait

cancel previously granted or denied permissions? e) None of these
a) Commit
b) Rollback 19. Each process must be waiting for a resource

c) Revoke which is being held by another process, which in turn
d) Grant is waiting for the first process to release the resource.
e) None of These then it is called as____?

a) Non preemptive
17. Which operators is used to combine the column b) Mutual exclusion
name? c) Partial allocation

a) II d) Circular wait
b) * e) None of these
c) =
d) – 20. Always make sure the lower limit is lesser than
e) None of these the upper limit value is known as _____?
a) In condition
18. Which one is not a Necessary conditions for b) Like condition
deadlock ? c) Isnull condition

a) Non preemptive d) Between and condition
b) Preemptive e) None of these
c) Partial allocation
Answer With Explanation:
1. Answer: B It is an OOP language.
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) It is Platform Independent.

It is an international communications standard for It provides more security.
sending voice, video and data over digital telephone It was designed by Sun Microsystems.
lines.
3. Answer: B
2. Answer: E Bucket
Java ➢ Unit of storage containing records.
4

➢ Bucket is a disk block or contiguous block . ➢ Translucent testing.

➢ Bucket contains multiple records.
8. Answer: D
4. Answer: B Smoke testing

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find Smoke testing is used to test basic needs of an
physical address for a given IP address and Reverse application.
Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is used to find Othername of Smoke testing

IP address for a given physical address. ➢ Skim testing
➢ Confidence testing
5. Answer: A ➢ Limited testing

Segmentation ➢ Dry-run testing
Segmentation is a memory management technique in ➢ Sanity testing

which each job is divided into several segments of
different sizes, one for each module that contains 9. Answer: D
pieces that perform related functions. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a specific
character string that constitutes a reference to a
6. Answer: B resource.
White box
White box Testing is done by Developers. 10. Answer: A

Other name for White box Testing Ipv4 is a numeric address whose binary bit are
➢ Transparent Testing supported by ( . )

➢ Structural Testing IP address -> 32bit
➢ Unit Testing
➢ Design based Testing 11. Answer: C
➢ Code based Testing Cell address is used to specify the intersecting of row
➢ Open box Testing and column of the letter and number on worksheet.
7. Answer: D 12. Answer: B

Grey box Mutual exclusion
Grey box Testing is done by Developer ,Tester and At least one resource must be held in a non-
Customer. shareable mode. Otherwise, the processes would not
Other name for Grey box Testing be prevented from using the resource when
5

necessary. Only one process can use the resource at

any given instant of time 18. Answer: B
Necessary conditions for deadlock are
13. Answer: D ➢ Non preemptive

Print preview ➢ circular wait
➢ Ctrl + F2 ➢ Mutual exclusion
➢ partial allocation
14. Answer: D
uploading 19. Answer: D
The process of transferring documents, graphics, and Circular wait

other objects from your computer to a server on the Each process must be waiting for a resource which is
Internet is called uploading being held by another process, which in turn is

waiting for the first process to release the resource.
15. Answer: C
Notification area 20. Answer: D
It is on the right end of the task bar consists of clock Between and condition
date and time , icons of certain programs, computer Always make sure the lower limit is lesser than the
setting sound and icons of removable disk. upper limit value is known as Between and condition.
Example
16. Answer: C Select * from emp
Revoke Where deptno between 30 and 40.

Cancel previously granted or denied permissions.
17. Answer: A
Concatenation Operator
Concatenation Operator (or) II operators is used to
combine the column name.

Combine the column name by using I
6

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SBI Clerk & IBPS RRB PO Mains 2021 – Bundle PDF Course: Reasoning – Day-1/50 (Eng)

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Memory Based Paper – Reasoning Ability

IBPS PO MAINS Held on 4 th Feb 2021

SBI PO MAINS Held on 29th Jan 2021

IBPS RRB Officer Scale 1 Mains held on Jan 30th 2021

Detailed Question Analysis with our Mock Test:

IBPS PO Mains Held on February 4th 2021:

Puzzle→ video 28 ( High level puzzle and seating arrangement)

Input output→ video no-5

arrangement) –Puzzle → video-19

SBI PO Mains Held on January 29th - 2021:

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9) Stair case based puzzle—Not covered (given in M emory based Paper)

RRB PO M ains Held on January 30th 2021:

4) Circular seating with age - covered -RRB PO M ains Set-9-Q (25-29),

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IBPS PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 4 th Feb 2021

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b) June-3- Raavanya e) None of these

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Note: If it is given that the person who is a e) F

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Answer with Detail Explanation

Direction (1-5): • B who does not have experience in

• Less than two persons joined before E who

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• A joins after C but before F.

• The one whose experience is 10 years C/E A B/F

the joining date of E. first according to date.

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So, P is the brother in law of R.

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• The person who faces L sits second to the

• E faces D who sits second to the left of V.

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13) Answer: E • Vidhya and Pearl were born after June

• Deepak and Babita were born in the same

• Four persons were born between Hina

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• The number of persons born before Faizal 14) Answer: B

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• S is from Italy and lives on the floor

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• A is a general manager and works with E.

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• G is 53 years old and works with A. So,

• The one who works with D is 2 years older

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35) Answer: E true-tu, right -ko

SBI PO MAINS Memory based Paper Held on 29th JAN 2021

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c) Q boxes are of different colors- Red, Green, Blue,

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a) Three A@B(14m)→ A is 10m north of B

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covered - Express video course 2020 - b) 12