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OPHTHALMOLOGY
Review of
OPHTHALMOLOGY
Quick Text Review & MCQs
Sixth Edition
AK Khurana
MS FAICO CTO (London)
Senior Professor and Head
Regional Institute of Ophthalmology
Postgraduate Institute of Medical Sciences
Rohtak, Haryana, India
Aruj K Khurana
DNB (Sankara Nethralaya, Chennai) FICO
Department of Ophthalmology
Himalayan Institute of Medical Sciences
Jolly Grant, Dehradun (UK), India
Bhawna Khurana
MS DNB FICO
Department of Ophthalmology
All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
Rishikesh (UK), India
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© 2015, AK Khurana
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Printed at
Dedicated to
My parents and teachers for their blessings
My students for their encouragement
My children for their patience
&
My wife for her understanding
PREFACE
Sixth edition of Review of Ophthalmology has been thoroughly revised and updated with recent advances
in each aspect to keep abreast with newer concepts and principles of investigative modalities, treatment
modalities and surgical procedures evolved over the period. However, the main layout and organisation of
the book has not been changed. Twenty chapters of the book have been arranged.
Quick Text Review provides a quick reference to the main aspects of Ophthalmology in an orderly and
easily reproducible manner. Though a quick review, the subject in this heading has been covered in depth
and extensively including the recent advances. The important text on which MCQs are based has been
highlighted with under rule.
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) arranged in twenty chapters matching the text review. Most of the
MCQs are single best response type, baring a few extra edge questions. While framing the thought-provoking
MCQs, Particular care has been taken to include all those important MCQs which have repeatedly appeared
in various postgraduate medical entrance tests held in the last ten years up to 2014. Answers to the MCQs
have been given at the bottom of each page to facilitate easy reading.
Key features of sixth edition
■ Main feature of this book is that it is based on the Khurana’s Comprehensive Ophthalmology, a textbook,
which is used by most of the students during their graduation course.
■ Provides a means for quick text revision and self-assessment to the medical students preparing for
competitive postgraduate entrance examinations.
■ Quick review of the text given in Section I provides an opportunity for preparing for the viva questions
commonly asked in clinical/practical examinations and various interviews.
■ Includes description of femtosecond laser and its role in cataract and corneal surgery.
■ Community ophthalmology chapter has been updated in view of the objectives under Vision 2020, National
Program for Control of Blindness in India, during 12th five year plan (2012-2017).
■ Chapter on Clinical Methods in Ophthalmology includes uses of recently introduced sophisticated
equipment
■ Important feature of the sixth edition of the book is the active role of two young ophthalmologists, Aruj
K Khurana, trained at Sankara Nethralaya, Chennai and Bhawna Khurana, trained at Guru Nanak Eye
Centre, Maulana Azad Medical College, New Delhi, who have virtually revamped the text.
It is my great pleasure to convey my gratitude to all those, whose blessings and contribution has made
this venture possible. I shall remain ever indebted to my parents and teachers for their unending blessings.
I wish to express my deep sense of gratitude to Sr Prof CS Dhull, Director, PGIMS and Sr Prof SS Sangwan,
Vice-Chancellor, University of Health Sciences, Rohtak, Haryana, for providing a working environment. I
owe a lot of my students who have been a constant source of inspiration and encouragement. The sincere
help rendered by Dr Shweta Goel needs to be acknowledged.
My wife Dr Indu Khurana and my daughter Arushi Khurana, the main forces behind me, need special
mention for their endless love, patience and sacrifices.
I thank Shri Jitendar P Vij (Group Chairman), Mr Ankit Vij (Group President) and Mr Tarun Duneja
(Director–Publishing) of M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd, New Delhi, India, for their
enthusiastic cooperation and accomplishing the task in a splendid manner.
Sincere efforts have been made to verify the correctness of text and the answers to the MCQs. However, in
spite of the best efforts, ventures of this kind are not likely to be free from human errors, some inaccuracies,
ambiguities and typographic mistakes. Therefore, a feedback from the users will be of utmost help in
improving future editions of the book. Endeavour of this kind shall be highly appreciated and duly
acknowledged.
AK Khurana
CONTENTS
Preface vii
1
Anatomy, Development and Physiology of Eye
PHYSIOLOGY OF VISION
PHYSIOLOGY OF EYE
Initiation, processing and transmission of
PHYSIOLOGY OF TEAR FILM visual impulse
(See page 75)
Sensory nerve endings for visual sensation are rods
PHYSIOLOGY OF CORNEA and cones. Each eye contains about 120 million rods
and 6 million cones and only 1.5 million ganglion
Corneal transparency is the result of:
cells.
• Peculiar arrangement of corneal lamellae (lattice
theory) Visual pigments (in rods rhodopsin with spectrum
• Avascularity of cornea of 500 nm and in cones erythrolabe with spectrum
• Relative dehydration maintained by epithelial and 565 nm, chlorolabe with spectrum 535 nm, and
endothelial barriers and active bicarbonate pump cyanolabe with spectrum 440 nm), absorb light
of the endothelium and trigger receptor potential which unlike other
• Swelling pressure of stroma receptor systems leads to hyperpolarization of the
• Corneal crystallines (water soluble proteins of cells and not the depolarization. This phenomenon
keratocyte) of conversion of light energy into nerve impulse is
called phototransduction.
Corneal metabolism. Epithelium is metabolically
more active than endothelium: Receptor potential generated in the photo-
• Glucose and other solutes are derived from receptors is transmitted by electronic conduction
aqueous humour and perilimbal capillaries to other retinal cells up to ganglion cell. Ganglion
• Oxygen is derived from the air through tear film cells, however, transmit by action potential to the
• Respiratory quotient of cornea is 1. LGB cells.
6 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
Parvocelluar system of visual pathway consisting regions which are not separated by definite borders.
of P ganglion cells and other P cells transmit Contrast sensitivity is decreased in:
information about colour and fine details of vision. • Glaucoma
• Refractive errors
Magnocellular system consisting of M ganglion
• Diabetes
cells and other M cells is concerned with contrast
• Optic nerve diseases
and motion.
• Cataractous changes.
Visual perceptions Measurement of contrast sensitivity: In clinical
1. The light sense: It is the awareness of the light. The practice, the contrast sensitivity can be measured
minimum brightness required to evoke a sensation by using any of the following charts with letters or
of light is called the light minimum. The rods are stripes represented in various shades of gray:
more sensitive to low illumination than the cones. • Arden gratings
Dark adaptation is the ability of the eye to adapt • Cambridge low-contrast gratings
itself to decreasing illumination. Dark adaptation is • Pelli-Robson contrast sensitivity chart which
delayed in: consists of low contrast letters with same size
• Vitamin A deficiency • The Visitach chart, and
• Glaucoma • Functional acuity contrast test (FACT).
• Pigmentary retinal dystrophy. 4. Colour sense vision: It is the ability of the eye
2. The form sense: It is the ability to discriminate to discriminate between different colours. It is
between the shapes of the objects. Cones play major a function of the cones. There are three primary
role in this faculty, therefore form sense is most colours—red, green and blue. All other colours
acute at the fovea where cones are most densely are produced by mixture of these primary colours
packed and highly differentiated. Visual acuity (Young Helmholtz’s trichromatic theory).
recorded by Snellen’s test chart is the measure of Note: Colour vision involves opponent colour
form sense. cells and difference between rods and cones is
3. Sense of contrast: It is the ability of the eye to all (intensity, number and colour) except signal
perceive slight changes in the luminance between transduction.
Anatomy, Development and Physiology of Eye 7
1 : B 2 : A 3 : C 4 : B 5 : A 6 : C 8 : C 9 : D 10 : B 11 : B 12 : C 13 : A
7:A
8 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
14. The youngest lens fibres are present in: 22. The definitive colour of the iris depends upon the:
A. Central core of the lens nucleus A. Anterior limiting layer
B. Outer layer of the nucleus B. Stroma
C. Deeper layer of the cortex C. Anterior pigmented epithelium
D. Superficial layer of the cortex D. Posterior pigmented epithelium
23. Circulus iridis major is formed by the anastomosis
15. Schwalbe’s line forming part of the angle of
of:
anterior chamber is the prominent end of:
A. Long posterior ciliary arteries with short posterior
A. Sclera ciliary arteries
B. Descemet’s membrane of cornea B. Anterior ciliary arteries with short posterior
C. Anterior limit of trabecular meshwork ciliary arteries
D. Posterior limit of trabecular meshwork C. Long posterior ciliary arteries with anterior ciliary
arteries
16. In a normal adult person the depth of anterior D. Long posterior arteries with anterior conjunctival
chamber in the centre is about: arteries
A. 2.5 mm
B. 3 mm 24. Layer of non-pigmented epithelium of the ciliary
body is the forward continuation of the:
C. 3.5 mm
A. Pigment epithelium of the retina
D. 4 mm
B. Sensory retina
17. Is a sweat gland: C. Internal limiting membrane of the retina
A. Gland of Moll D. Bruch’s membrane of the choroid
B. Gland of Zeis 25. The number of ciliary processes is about:
C. Mebomian gland A. 20–30
D. All of the above B. 50–60
C. 70–80
18. The layer of the cornea once destroyed does not D. 90–100
regenerate is:
A. Epithelium 26. All of the following are true about circulus
B. Bowman’s membrane arteriosus minor except:
A. It receives contribution from anterior ciliary
C. Descemet’s membrane
arteries and long posterior ciliary arteries
D. All of the above
B. It is an arterial and venous plexus
19. All of the following are true about corneal endo C. It lies near the pupillary margin
thelium except: D. It is the seat of formation of aqueous humour
A. Cell density is about 3000 cells/mm2 at birth 27. The strongest attachment of the vitreous body to
B. Corneal decompensation occurs when cell count the surrounding structures is at the level of:
is decreased by 50 percent A. Vitreous base
C. Endothelial cells contain active pump mechanism B. Optic disc
D. Endothelium is best examined by specular C. Posterior surface of the lens
microscopy D. Foveal region
20. Adult size of the cornea is attained by the age of: 28. Diameter of the optic disc is:
A. 2 years A. 1.5 mm
B. 3 years B. 2.5 mm
C. 5 years C. 3.5 mm
D. 9 years D. 5 mm
21. Sclera is weakest at the level of: 29. Diameter of the macula lutea is:
A. Macula A. 1.5 mm
B. Equator B. 3.5 mm
C. Insertion of extraocular muscles C. 4.5 mm
D. Ora serrata D. 5.5 mm
14 : D 15 : B 16 : A 17 : A 18 : B 19 : B 22 : A 23 : C 24 : B 25 : C 26 : D 27 : A
20 : A 21 : C 28 : A 29 : D
Anatomy, Development and Physiology of Eye 9
30. Diameter of fovea centralis is: 39. The posterior end of which muscle insertion lies
A. 0.5 mm near the macula ?
B. 1.0 mm A. Inferior oblique
C 1.5 mm B. Superior oblique
D. 2.5 mm C. Superior rectus
D. Inferior rectus
31. Henle’s layer refers to the thickened outer
plexiform layer in the region of: 40. The nerve which has the longest intracranial
A. Foveola course is:
B. Foveal region A. Fourth cranial nerve
C. Parafoveal region B. Third cranial nerve
D. Paramacular region C. Sixth cranial nerve
D. Fifth cranial nerve
32. Major retinal vessels are present in:
A. Between the vitreous and internal limiting 41. Glands of Zeis are:
membrane A. Modified sebaceous glands
B. The nerve fibre layer B. Modified sweat glands
C. The inner plexiform layer C. Modified lacrimal glands
D. The inner nuclear layer D. Modified meibomian glands
33. Optic nerve consists of axons of: 42. Ducts of the main lacrimal gland open in:
A. Ganglion cells A. Superior fornix
B. Bipolar cells B. Inferior fornix
C. Rods and cones C. Both of the above
D. All of the above D. None of the above
34. Optic nerve fibres once cut, do not regenerate 43. Accessory lacrimal glands of Krause are present
because they are not covered by: in the:
A. Myelin sheath A. Upper fornix
B. Neurilemma B. Lower fornix
C. Both of the above C. Both of the above
D. None of the above D. None of the above
35. Neurons of first order for visual sensations are: 44. Length of the nasolacrimal duct is about:
A. Rods and cones A. 8–12 mm
B. Bipolar cells B. 22–34 mm
C. Ganglion cells C. 12–18 mm
D. None of the above D. 18–21 mm
36. Neurones of third order for visual sensations lie 45. Nasolacrimal duct opens into:
in: A. Superior meatus
A. Layer of bipolar cells B. Middle meatus
B. Layer of ganglion cells C. Inferior meatus
C. Lateral geniculate body D. Maxillary sinus
D. Visual cortex
46. Nasolacrimal duct is directed:
37. The longest extraocular muscle is: A. Downwards, slightly outwards and backwards
A. Superior oblique B. Downwards, slightly inwards and backwards
B. Inferior oblique C. Downwards, slightly outwards and forwards
C. Superior rectus D. Downwards, slightly inwards and forwards
D. Inferior rectus
47. In the nasolacrimal duct, valve of Hasner is present
38. The shortest extraocular muscle is: at its:
A. Superior oblique A. Upper end
B. Inferior oblique B. Lower end
C. Superior rectus C. Middle
D. Inferior rectus D. None of the above
30 : C 31 : B 32 : B 33 : A 34 : B 35 : B 39 : A 40 : A 41 : A 42 : C 43 : C 44 : C
36 : C 37 : A 38 : B 45 : C 46 : A 47 : B
10 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
48. Thinnest wall of the orbit is: 57. ‘Safe zone’ of the eye ball is:
A. Medial wall A. At the limbus
B. Floor B. 3-4 mm behind the limbus
C. Roof C. 8-9 mm behind the limbus
D. Lateral wall D. 12 mm behind the limbus
E. 1 mm behind the limbus
49. Thickest wall of the orbit is:
A. Medial wall 58. Yoke muscle for right superior rectus is:
B. Lateral wall A. Left superior rectus
C. Roof B. Left inferior oblique
D. Floor C. Left inferior rectus
D. Left superior oblique
50. The volume of the orbit is about:
59. The short posterior ciliary arteries are about in
A. 30 cc number:
B. 40 cc A. 10
C. 50 cc B. 20
D. 60 cc C. 30
D. 40
51. All of the following ocular structures are derived
E. 45
from the surface ectoderm except:
A. Crystalline lens 60. The canal of Schlemm possesses the following
B. Substantia propria of the cornea anatomic characteristics except:
C. Conjunctival and corneal epithelium A. Contains red cells
D. Lacrimal glands B. Contains aqueous
C. Lined by endothelium
52. Crystalline lens is derived embryologically from D. Contains partitions resembling the dural venous
the: sinuses
A. Surface ectoderm
B. Neuroectoderm 61. Muscle in the lid attached to posterior tarsal
C. Surface ectoderm and mesoderm margin is:
D. Neuroectoderm and mesoderm A. Levator palpebrae superioris
B. Superior oblique
53. Definitive or secondary vitreous is embryologically C. Muller’s muscle
derived mostly from: D. Superior rectus
A. Neuroectoderm
62. Which of the following extraocular muscle has
B. Mesoderm sympathetic innervation:
C. Surface ectoderm A. Levator palpebrae superioris
D. Surface ectoderm and mesoderm B. Muller’s muscle
54. Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles are derived C. Superior rectus
embryologically from the: D. Inferior rectus
A. Surface ectoderm 63. Most sensitive part of eye is:
B. Mesoderm A. Fovea centralis
C. Neuroectoderm B. Macula lutea
D. All of the above C. Blind spot
D. Temporal retina
55. All of the following ocular structures are derived
embryologically from the neuroectoderm except: 64. Volume of the vitreous is:
A. Epithelial layers of ciliary body and iris A. 2 mL
B. Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles B. 3 mL
C. Optic nerve C. 4 mL
D. Optic nerve sheaths D. 7 mL
56. Normal A: V ratio of retinal blood vessels is: 65. Avascular coat in eye is:
A. 1 : 2 A. Sclera
B. 2 : 3 B. Cornea
C. 3 : 2 C. Retina
D. 3 : 4 D. Choroid
48 : A 49 : B 50 : A 51 : B 52 : A 53 : A 57 : C 58 : B 59 : B 60 : A 61 : C 62 : B
54 : C 55 : D 56 : B 63 : A 64 : C 65 : B
Anatomy, Development and Physiology of Eye 11
66. Which continues to grow in the lifetime: EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
A. Cornea
B. Iris 69. Corneal endothelial cell count is done by:
C. Lens A. Specular microscopy
D. Retina B. Keratometry
67. Which part of orbicularis oculi is known as Horner’s C. Gonioscopy
muscle: D. Slit lamp
A. Orbital
70. Anterior chamber depth:
B. Lacrimal
C. Temporal A. Increases with age
D. Muller’s muscle B. Is lesser in women
C. Is lesser in myopes
68. All visual reflexes are developed by: D. Has hardly any effect on anterior chamber
A. 1 year volume
B. 2 year
C. 5 year
D. 10 year
66 : C 67 : B 68 : A 69 : A 70 : B
CHAPTER
2
Clinical Methods in Ophthalmology
• Anterior dislocation of lens in the anterior chamber • Head injury (pontine haemorrhage)
• Posterior perforation of the globe • Senile rigid miotic pupil
• Buphthalmos. • During sleep
Hyphaema
• Argyll-Robertson pupil
• Poisonings
• Ocular injuries – Alcohol
• Post-operative – Barbiturates
• Herpes-zoster iritis – Organophosphorus compounds
• Gonococcal iritis – Morphine
• Intraocular tumour – Carbolic acid
• Spontaneous (from rubeosis iridis). • Hyperpyrexia.
Hypopyon Mydriasis
• Corneal ulcer • Topical sympathomimetic drugs such as adrenaline
• Iridocyclitis and phenylephrine
• Retinoblastoma (pseudohypopyon) • Topical parasympatholytic drugs such as atropine,
• Endophthalmitis homatropine, cyclopentolate, tropicamide
• Panophthalmitis. • Acute congestive glaucoma (vertically oval, large,
IRIS immobile pupil)
• Absolute glaucoma
Nodules on the iris surface
• Optic atrophy
• Granulomatous uveitis (Koeppe’s and Busacca’s • Retinal detachment
nodules) • Internal ophthalmoplegia
• Melanoma of the iris • Third nerve paralysis
• Tuberculoma • Belladona poisoning
• Gumma. • Coma
Rubeosis iridis (Neovascularization of iris) • Sympathetic stimulation
• Diabetes mellitus – Aortic aneurysm
• Central retinal vein occlusion – Cervical rib
• Chronic iridocyclitis – Irritative lesions in neck
• Sickle-cell retinopathy – Mediastinal sarcoma, lymphosarcoma,
• Retinoblastoma. Hodgkin’s disease and pulmonary carcinoma
– Emotional excitement
Iridodonesis • Severe anaemia
• Dislocation of lens • Adie’s tonic pupil is larger than its fellow.
• Aphakia Leukocoria (white reflex in pupillary area)
• Hypermature shrunken cataract
• Buphthalmos. • Congenital cataract
• Retinoblastoma
PUPIL • Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
• Retrolental fibroplasia
Normal pupil • Toxocara endophthalmitis
• Diameter 3 to 4 mm • Coat’s disease.
• In infancy pupil is smaller than at birth
Marcus Gunn Pupil
• Myopes have larger pupil than hypermetropes.
(In swinging flash light test, the pupil on the diseased
Miosis side dilates on transferring light to it)
• Effect of miotic drugs (Parasympathomimetic • Optic neuritis
drugs, e.g. pilocarpine) • Optic atrophy
• Effect of systemic morphine • Retinal detachment
• Iridocyclitis (narrow, irregular non-reacting pupil) • Central retinal artery occlusion
• Horner’s syndrome • Ischemic central retinal vein occlusion.
Clinical Methods in Ophthalmology 15
LENS • Eale’s disease
• Old CRVO
Subluxation of lens
• Trauma Sub-retinal neovascular membrane
• Marfan’s syndrome (superotemporal) • Wet ARMD
• Homocystinuria (inferonasal) • Presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome
• Weil-Marchesani syndrome. (POHS)
• Angiod streaks
RETINA • Choroidal naevus
Cherry red spot • Choroidal rupture
• Central retinal artery occlusion • High myopia
• Commotio retinae (Berlin’s oedema) • Inappropriate photocoagulation
• Taysach’s disease • Optic disc drusen.
• Niemann-Pick’s disease Bull’s eye maculopathy
• Gaucher’s disease • Chloroquine toxicity
• Sialidosis • Cone dystrophy
• Gangliosidosis • Benign concentric annular macular dystrophy
• Metachromatic leukodystrophy
• Batten’s disease
• Multiple sulphates deficiency
• Bardet-Biedl syndrome
• Rarely in krabbe’s disease
• Occasionally Leber’s Amaurosis.
Macular oedema Neovascularization of retina
• Trauma • Diabetic retinopathy
• Intraocular operations • Eale’s disease.
• Uveitis • Sickle-cell retinopathy
• Diabetic maculopathy. • Central retinal vein occlusion.
Superficial retinal haemorrhages Proliferative retinopathy
• Hypertensive retinopathy • Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
• Diabetic retinopathy • Sickle-cell retinopathy
• Central retinal vein occlusion • Eale’s disease
• Anaemic retinopathy • Ocular trauma.
• Leukaemic retinopathy
Salt and pepper appearance of fundus
• Retinopathy of AIDS.
• Prenatal rubella
Soft exudates (Cotton wool spots) on the retina • Prenatal influenza
They are due to disturbance in axoplasmic flow • Varicella
• Hypertensive retinopathy • Mumps
• Retinopathy of toxaemia of pregnancy • Congenital syphilis.
• Diabetic retinopathy Arterial pulsations at the disc
• Anaemic retinopathy
• Visible arterial pulsations are always pathological
• DLE, PAN and Scleroderma, SLE
• True pulse waves are seen in:
• Leukaemic retinopathy
– Aortic regurgitation
• Retinopathy of AIDS
– Aneurysm
• Eale’s disease
– Exophthalmic goitre
• Rarely CMV retinitis in AIDS.
• Pressure pulse is seen in:
Hard exudates on the retina – Glaucoma
They are lipid deposits in retina – Orbital tumours.
• Diabetic retinopathy Venous pulsations at the disc
• Hypertensive retinopathy
• Visible in 10-20% of normal people
• Coat’s disease
• Absent in papilledema.
• Circinate retinopathy.
16 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
• Yellow-green filter is used to receive the fluorescent • VER assesses the functional state of the visual
light (510-530 nm) for photography. system beyond the retinal ganglion cells
• Hyperfluorescence is seen in: • Flash VER is based on light perception while
– Atrophy of retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) pattern reversal VER is based on form sense and
– Detachment of RPE thus gives a rough estimate of the visual acuity
– Central serous retinopathy • Clinically VER is used to:
– Cystoid macular oedema – Assess visual acuity in infants and mentally
– Leakage of dye from neovascularization retarded individuals
– Drusens – Confirm malingering
– Papilloedema – Confirm optic nerve diseases like retrobulbar
• Hypofluorescence is seen in: neuritis.
– Retinal haemorrhages
– Choroidremia Ultrasonography
– Central retinal artery occlusion. • Ophthalmic ultrasound is based upon pulse-echo
Electroretinography (ERG) and technique empolying frequencies in the range of
electro-oculography (EOG) 10 MHz
• Normal ERG consists of: • A-Scan (Time amplitude) produces unidimensional
– a-wave is a negative wave possibly arising from image echoes plotted as spikes. The distance
the rods and cones between the two echo spikes provides an indirect
– b-wave is a large positive wave which is generated measurement of tissue such as eyeball length,
by Muller’s cells, but represents the activity of anterior chamber depth and lens thickness
bipolar cells • B-scan (intensity modulation) produces two-
– c-wave is a positive wave representing metabolic dimensional dotted section of the eyeball
activity of pigment epithelium. • Uses of ultrasound are:
ERG: 3 waves (Pneumonic: RMP) – Biometric studies using A-scan to calculate
R: Rods and cones power of the intraocular lens to be implanted
M: Mullers cells (glial cell) – Assessment of the posterior segment in the
P: Retinal Pigment presence of opaque media
• ERG is abnormal in patients with: – Study of intraocular and intraorbital tumours
– Retinitis pigmentosa and other tapetoretinal – Ultrasonographic pachymetry (measurement
degenerations of corneal thickness).
– Central retinal artery occlusion
– Total retinal detachment Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
• ERG is normal in diseases involving ganglion cells • OCT gives cross-sectional images of biological
and higher visual pathways, such as optic atrophy tissues within less than 10µ axial resolution and
• EOG is based on the resting potential of the eye transverse resolution in 20µ
which exists between the cornea (+ve) and back • Specially useful in retinal disorders, where it is akin
of the eye (-ve) to in vivo histopathology of retina
• EOG is abnormal in diseases such as retinitis
• Based on interferometry and low-coherence light
pigmentosa, vitamin A deficiency, retinal
in near infrared range
detachment
• Colour coding: Red yellow colours represent areas
• EOG is more sensitive than ERG in diagnosis of
of maximal optical reflection and back scattering.
retinitis pigmentosa
• The ratio the voltage (i.e. light peak divided by dark Blue-black colours represent area of minimal
trough) is known as the Arden ratio. In practice, signals
the measurement is similar to the eye movement • Clinical applications include: Posterior segment
recordings. OCT-macular disorder, optic disc disorders
especially glaucomatous damage, anterior
Visually evoked response (VER) segment OCT-angle evaluation, pachymetry, pre
• VER refers to electroencephalography (EEG) and post LASIK information, IOL and implant
recorded at the occipital cortex imaging.
Clinical Methods in Ophthalmology 19
1. All of the following are causes of sudden painless B. Pattern visual evoked potential
loss of vision except: C. Preferential looking behaviour
A. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Optokinetic nystagmus
B. Optic atrophy
C. Optic neuritis 7. In microcornea, diameter of cornea is less than:
D. Retinal detachment A. 9 mm
B. 10 mm
2. Sudden, transient and painless loss of vision may C. 11 mm
be complained by the patients with all of the D. 8 mm
following diseases except:
8. Corneal diameter is increased in:
A. Carotid transient ischaemic attacks
B. Papilloedema A. Megalocornea
C. Papillitis B. Keratoglobus
D. Migraine C. Keratoconus
D. All of the above
3. All of the following may be associated with night-
blindness except: 9. Diseased and devitalized epithelial cells of the
conjunctiva and cornea are stained with:
A. Pathological myopia
B. Retinitis pigmentosa A. Fluorescein dye
C. Retinitis punctata albescens B. Rose Bengal dye
D. Retinitis proliferans C. Alcian blue dye
D. All of the above
4. Flashes of light before the eyes (photopsia) is a
feature of: 10. Corneal sensations are decreased in all of the
following conditions except:
A. Impending retinal detachment
B. Vitreous traction of the retina A. Recurrent corneal erosion syndrome
C. Retinitis B. Herpetic keratitis
D. All of the above C. Neuroparalytic keratitis
D. Leprosy
5. Snellen’s test types are based on the fact that
two distant points can be visible as separate only 11. The aqueous flare is best demonstrated by:
when they subtend at the nodal point of the eye A. Biomicroscope
an angle of: B. Keratoscope
A. 1 minute C. Pentoscope
B. 3 minute D. Ophthalmoscope
C. 5 minute 12. Photostress test is positive in:
D. 2 minute A. Central serous retinopathy
6. Assessment of the visual acuity in children below B. Optic neuritis
2 years of age can be made by the following tests, C. Ethambutol toxicity
except: D. Central retinal artery occlusion
A. Landolt’s charts E. All of the above
1 : B 2 : C 3 : D 4 : D 5 : A 6:A 7 : B 8 : D 9 : B 10 : A 11 : A 12 : A
20 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
13. Indentation tonometer is based on the funda 21. The normal extent of temporal field of vision for
mental fact that a plunger with indent: white colour is about:
A. More in soft eye A. 60°
B. More in hard eye B. 80°
C. Equal in soft and hard eye C. 90°
D. None of the above D. 110°
14. All of the following conditions can be diagnosed 22. In colour perimetry the smallest field of vision is
on distant direct ophthalmoscopy except: with:
A. Opacities in the refractive media A. Green object
B. A hole in the iris B. Blue object
C. A detached retina C. Yellow object
D. A hole in the macula D. Red object
23. Campimetry (Scotometry) is performed in the
15. All of the following are characteristics of the image
visual field area of:
formed on direct ophthalmoscopy, except that it
A. 50°
is: B. 30°
A. Erect C. 60°
B. Real D. 90°
C. Fifteen times magnified in emmetropes
D. More magnified in myopes than emmetropes 24. Dark adaptation is delayed in all of the following
conditions except:
16. In indirect ophthalmoscopy the examining eye is A. Pigmentary retinal dystrophy
made: B. Vitamin A deficiency
A. Myopic C. Primary open-angle glaucoma
B. Hypermetropic D. Heredomacular degeneration
C. Emmetropic 25. In electroretinogram (ERG) the b-wave represents
D. None of the above the activity of:
A. Rods and cones
17. All of the following are characteristics of the image
B. Bipolar cells
formed on indirect ophthalmoscopy except that C. Ganglion cells
it is: D. All of the above
A. Virtual
B. Inverted 26. In diagnosis of retinitis pigmentosa ERG is:
C. Magnified A. More sensitive than the EOG
D. Formed between the convex lens and the B. Less sensitive than the EOG
observer C. Equally sensitive as EOG
D. None of the above
18. Biomicroscopic examination of the fundus is
performed with the help of: 27. Visually-evoked response (VER) is useful in the
diagnosis of all of the following except:
A. –58.6 D Hruby lens
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. +78 D small diameter lens
B. Retrobulbar neuritis
C. Both of the above
C. Visual potential in eyes with opaque media
D. None of the above
D. Optic atrophy
19. Small opacities in the media of the eye are best 28. For biometric studies of the eyeball best pulse
detected by: echo technique on ultrasonography is:
A. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy A. A Scan
B. Direct ophthalmoscopy B. B Scan
C. Indirect ophthalmoscopy C. C Scan
D. All of the above D. All of the above
20. Diameter of the optic disc is: 29. Kayser-Fleischer ring is pathognomonic of:
A. 1.5 mm A. Keratoconus
B. 5.5 mm B. Wilson’s disease
C. 2.5 mm C. Lowe’s syndrome
D. 3.5 mm D. All of the above
13 : A 14 : D 15 : B 16 : A 17 : A 18 : C 21 : C 22 : A 23 : B 24 : D 25 : B 26 : B
19 : A 20 : A 27 : A 28 : A 29 : B
Clinical Methods in Ophthalmology 21
30. Roth’s spots are seen in: C. Glaucoma
A. Diabetic retinopathy D. Retrolental fibroplasia
B Chorioretinitis
C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 40. Angiography is the investigation of choice in:
D. Retinoblastoma A. Posterior vitreous detachment
B. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
31. Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex is seen in: C. Retinoschisis
A. Papilloedema D. Central serous retinopathy
B. Papillitis
C. Retinoblastoma 41. Periphery of retina is best visualised with:
D. Retinitis pigmentosa A. Retinoscopy
B. USG
32. Thickness of cornea is best measured by: C. Direct ophthalmoscopy
A. Keratometer D. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
B. Pachymeter
C. Optometer 42. Campimetry is used to measure:
D. Pentoscope A. Squint
B. Angle of deviation
33. Landolt’s broken ring test is used for testing: C. Pattern of retina
A. Form sense D. Field charting
B. Contrast sense
C. Central field 43. The electroretinogram may assist in the diagnosis
D. Scotopic vision of all of the following, except:
A. Bilateral disease
34. White pupillary reflex is seen in:
B. Progression of retinal disease
A. Retinoblastoma
C. Clinically unsuspected disease in familial
B. Complete retinal detachment
degenerations
C. Endophthalmitis D. Complications of glaucoma
D. All of the above E. Differentiation between peripheral and central
35. The image in indirect ophthalmoscopy is: retinal disease
A. Erect, virtual, magnified 44. Anomaloscope is used to detect:
B. Erect, real, magnified A. Squint
C. Inverted, real, magnified B. Retinopathy
D. Inverted, virtual, normal C. Congenital glaucoma
36. Examination of vitreous is best done by: D. Colour blindness
A. Direct ophthalmoscope 45. Best diagnostic test for Best disease is:
B. Indirect ophthalmoscope A. Dark adaptation
C. Slit-lamp with contact lens B. ERG
D. Oblique illumination C. EOG
D. Gonioscopy
37. In retinal artery angiogram, the dye is injected
through the: 46. Snellen’s chart is used to test:
A. Peripheral veins A. Vision
B. Aorta B. Refraction
C. Retinal artery C. Presbyopia
D. Colour blindness
D. Retinal vein
47. Retinoscopy is used for visualising the:
38. The distance used in distant direct ophthalmoscopy A. Whole retina
is: B. Only the peripheral part of the retina
A. 10 cm C. Detecting errors of refraction
B. 15 cm D. None
C. 25 cm
48. Magnification of direct ophthalmoscopy is:
D. 100 cm
A. Five
39. Amaurotic cat’s eye is not seen in: B. Ten
A. Cataract C. Fifteen
B. Cyclitic membrane D. Thirty
30 : C 31 : C 32 : B 33 : A 34 : D 35 : C 40 : D 41 : D 42 : D 43 : D 44 : D 45 : C
36 : B 37 : A 38 : C 39 : C 46 : A 47 : C 48 : C
22 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
49. Amsler’s grid is used in: 58. Axial resolution in optical coherence tomography
A. Detecting colour vision is about:
B. Retinal function test A. 10 µ
C. Maculopathy B. 30 µ
D. Refractive errors C. 100 µ
D. 300 µ
50. Not true about macular function test is:
A. Two-point discrimination 59. Optical coherence tomography is most useful in
B. Maddox rod disorders of:
C. Laser interferometry A. Macula
D. Retinogram B. Crystalline lens
C. Refractive errors
51. All are seen in increased intracranial tension
D. Intraocular tumours
except:
A. Macular oedema 60. Area of fundus seen with direct ophthalmoscope
B. Papilloedema is
C. Normal vision A. 1 DD
D. Afferent pupillary defect B. 2 DD
C. 3 DD
52. Which of the following is used for treatment of
D. 4 DD
myopia:
A. Nd: YAG laser
B. Excimer laser EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
C. Argon laser
D. Holmium laser 61. Indocyanine green angiography (ICG Angiography)
is most useful in detecting:
53. Visual acuity test is a test of: A. Occult choroidal neovascularization (Occult
A. Light sense CNV)
B. Colour sense B. Classic choroidal neovascularization (Classic
C. Contrast sense CNV)
D. Form sense C. Angioid streaks with choroidal neovascularization
54. Hutchinson’s pupils: (CNV)
A. Seen in syphilis D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
B. Unilateral constricted pupil
C. Irregular pupil 62. A wave in ERG is due to activity of:
D. None of the above A. Pigmented epithelium
B. Rods and cones
55. In retinoscopy for refractive error at 1m we add C. Ganglion cell
–1D. If done at a distance of 66 cm, the addition D. Bipolar cell
factor will be:
A. –2D 63. Arden index is related to:
B. –1.5 D A. ERG (Electroretinogram)
C. –0.5 D B. EOG (Electroculogram)
D. –5 D C. VER (Visual evoked response)
D. Perimetry
56. Shallow anterior chamber is seen in all except:
64. Perimetry is a test to assess the:
A. Old age A. Visual acuity
B. Steroid induced cataract B. Intraocular pressure
C. Hypermetropia C. Visual field
D. Angle-closure glaucoma D. Depth of the anterior chamber
57. Optical coherence tomography is akin to in 65. Sudden painful loss of vision is seen in:
vivo: A. Angle closure glaucoma
A. Histopathology B. Central retinal artery occlusion
B. Ultrasonic biomicroscopy C. Acute uveitis
C. Confocal microscopy D. Endopthalmitis
D. Roentgen examination E. Retinal detachment
49 : C 50 : D 51 : D 52 : B 53 : D 54 : D 58 : A 59 : A 60. B 61 : A 62 : B 63 : B
55 : B 56 : B 57 : A 64 : C 65 : A, C and D
CHAPTER
3
Optics and Refraction
• At birth, eye is hypermetropic by +2 to +3 D and • All disadvantages of aphakic glasses are eliminated
usually becomes emmetropic by the age of 5 to 7 by intraocular lens use
years. • Average weight of an IOL in air is 15 mg and in
aqueous humour is 5 mg
HYPERMETROPIA • Power of an IOL in air is more (+ 60D) than that in
Hypermetropia (long sightedness) is of following the aqueous humour (+20D)
types: • Equivalent power of an anterior chamber IOL is
• Axial hypermetropia due to decreased axial length about +3D less than that of the posterior chamber
of the eye ball is the most common cause. One mm IOL
decrease in axial length causes three dioptres of • Further details of IOL (See page 42).
hypermetropia.
Surgical treatment of hypermetropia:
• Curvatural hypermetropia occurs due to flattening
of the cornea. One mm increase in the radius • Hyperopic LASIK is effective in correcting
of curvature of cornea causes six dioptres of hypermetropia up to +4D
hypermetropia. • Other corneal procedures includes hyperopic
• Index hypermetropia occurs due to increase in the PRK, Holmium laser thermoplasty and conductive
refractive index of the cortex of the crystalline lens keratoplasty (CK)
as seen in early cortical cataract and in diabetics • Lens based procedures include phakic refractive
• Positional hypermetropia results due to backward lenses (PRL) or implantable collamer lenses (ICL)
displacement of the lens. for hyperopia of between >4D to 10D and refractive
lens exchange (RLE) for high hyper-metropia
Components of hypermetropia
especially in the presbyopic age.
• Latent hypermetropia. It is corrected by the ciliary
tone. It is detected when refraction is carried out MYOPIA
after abolishing the ciliary tone with atropine.
• Axial myopia. One mm increase in axial length
• Manifest hypermetropia. It consists of two
produces myopia of 3 D.
components.
• Curvatural myopia. One mm decrease in radius of
– Facultative hypermetropia. It can be overcome
by an effort of accommodation. curvature of cornea produces myopia of 6 D.
– Absolute hypermetropia. It cannot be overcome • Congenital myopia. Present since birth, usually
by an effort of accommodation. unilateral, usually the error is of about 8–10 D
• Fundus changes in hypermetropes, in hyper which mostly remains constant.
metropia pseudopapilledema may be seen. • Simple or developmental myopia. It is the
commonest type of myopia. It does not progress
Optical changes in aphakia after adolescence and the error usually does not
• Eye becomes highly hypermetropic exceed -6 to -8 D.
• Total power of eye is reduced from +60 D to +44 D • Pathological (degenerative) myopia. It results
• Anterior focal point becomes 23.2 mm in front of from a rapid axial growth of eyeball (posterior
the cornea to equator) which is strongly linked with
• Posterior focal point is 31 mm behind the cornea heredity since it is familial and more common in
• Loss of accommodation. certain races (Chinese, Jews, Japanese). Fundus
Disadvantages of aphakic glasses examination may reveal/patches of chorioretinal
• Produce image magnification by 25 to 30 percent degeneration, and Foster-Fuch’s spot (dark
• Pincushion distortion due to spherical aberration circular area due to intrachoroidal haemorrhage
is the most frequently noticed problem at the macula).
• Limited field of vision Complications of pathological myopia
• Roving ring scotoma (Jack in the box phenomenon)
• Complicated cataract
• Chromatic aberration.
• Choroidal haemorrhage
Intraocular lens in aphakia • Tears and haemorrhages in the retina
• Exact power is calculated by biometry using • Vitreous haemorrhage
keratometer and A-scan ultrasound • Retinal detachment
• Standard power of +20 D of posterior chamber IOL • Diseases associated with myopia are micro
is equivalent to +10 DS spectacles phthalmos, congenital glaucoma, microcornea,
Optics and Refraction 25
retrolental fibroplasia, Marfan’s syndrome, • Against-the-rule astigmatism. It is just reverse
Turner’s syndrome, and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. of with-the-rule astigmatism, i.e. here in the
Surgical treatment of myopia
horizontal meridian is more curved than the
vertical.
• Radial keratotomy. Multiple radial incisions are • Oblique astigmatism. Here in the two principal
given in the periphery of cornea (leaving central meridia are at right angle to each other but these
4 mm optical zone) in order to flatten the curvature are not the horizontal and vertical, e.g. these may
of cornea (Not done nowadays). be 45° and 135°.
• Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK). In it reshaping • Bioblique astigmatism. In this condition the two
of the cornea is done with excimer laser. (Not principal meridia are not at right angle to each
preferred presently except in patients with thin other e.g. these may be 30° and 100°.
corneas).
• Laser assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) Depending upon the type of refractive error
is presently the preferred surgical technique • Simple astigmatism. Here in the rays of light are
for correcting myopia of up to -8D. In it, the focused on the retina in one meridian and either
midstromal tissue is ablated with excimer laser in front (simple myopic astigmatism) or behind
after raising a 130-160 micron thick flap of anterior (simple hypermetropic astigmatism) the retina in
corneal tissue. the other meridian.
Customized (C) LASIK based on the wavefront • Compound astigmatism. In this type light rays are
technology is useful in correcting the aberrations. focused in both the principal meridia either in
Epi (E) LASIK is done without stromal flap. front (compound myopic astigmatism) or behind
• Femto-LASIK, also known as ‘All Laser LASIK’ or (compound hypermetropic astigmatism) the
‘ No blade LASIK’, involves making of corneal flap retina.
with the help of femtosecond laser. • Mixed astigmatism. Here the light rays are focused
• Refractive Lenticule Extracion (ReLEx) is a in front of the retina in one meridian and behind
technique for myopia correction in which a the retina in the other meridian. Thus, eye is
lenticule of corneal stroma is extracted with the myopic in one meridian and hypermetropic in the
help of femtosecond laser. The technique is now other. Such patients have comparatively less visual
named SMILE (samll incision lenticule extraction) symptoms as circle of least diffusion is formed on
• Phakic intraocular lenses (PRL) also knows
the retina.
as implantable collamer lenses (ICL) is being
performed in myopia of > -8D. Irregular astigmatism
• Refractive lens exchange (RLE) i.e. removal of • It is seen in patients with irregular corneal scars
clear crystalline lens by extracapsular cataract and keratoconus. In it there are multiple meridia
extraction (preferably by phacoemulsification) which admit no geometrical analysis.
with IOL implantation of appropriate power is • It can be best treated by rigid gas permeable
being recommended for surgical treatment of contact lens which replaces the anterior surface
myopia of >12D. of cornea for refraction.
• Orthokeratology a non-surgical reversible method • Penetrating keratoplasty is indicated in extensive
of molding the cornea with overnight wear unique corneal scarring.
rigid gas permeable contact lenses, is also being
considered for correction of myopia upto -5D. It can ANISOMETROPIA
be used even in the patients below 18 year of age. In this refractive condition, degree of error is
unequal in two eyes.
ASTIGMATISM • Simple anisometropia. One eye is emmetropic and
Depending upon the axis and the angle between the the other either myopic or hypermetropic.
two principal meridia • Compound anisometropia. Both eyes are either
• With-the-rule astigmatism, wherein the vertical hypermetropic (compound hypermetropic
meridian is more curved than the horizontal anisometropia) or myopic (compound myopic
and the two principal meridia are at right angle anisometropia) but error in one eye is higher than
to each other. Thus, correction of with-the-rule the other.
astigmatism will require a concave cylinder at 180 • Mixed anisometropia. One eye is myopic and the
± 20° or a convex cylinder at 90 ± 20°. other hypermetropic.
26 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
1. Crystalline lens absorbs light rays shorter than: 7. The posterior focal point of the reduced eye
A. 295 nm situated on the retina is how many millimetre
B. 350 nm behind the anterior surface of cornea:
C. 390 nm A. 22.9 mm
D. 490 nm B. 24.4 mm
2. The prism produces displacement of the objects C. 23 mm
seen through it towards the: D. 21 mm
A. Apex 8. The optical axis of the eye meets the retina at a
B. Base point which:
C. Sideways A. Coincides with the fovea centralis
D. None of the above B. Is nasal to the fovea centralis
3. The critical angle refers to the angle of incidence C. Is temporal to the fovea centralis
in the denser medium, corresponding to which D. Is nasal to optic disc
angle of refraction in the rarer medium is: 9. Visual axis of the eye meets the retina at a point
A. Less than 90° which:
B. 90° A. Coincides with the fovea centralis
C. More than 90° B. Is nasal to fovea centralis
D. Equal to angle of incidence C. Is nasal to optic disc
4. The refractive power of an emmetropic eye is D. Is temporal to fovea centralis
about: 10. At birth eye is usually:
A. +50D A. Hypermetropic
B. +55D B. Myopic
C. +60D C. Emmetropic
D. +65D D. Aniseikonic
5. In the media of the eye, highest refractive index 11. The most common type of refractive error is:
is of the: A. Hypermetropia
A. Cornea B. Myopia
B. Aqueous humour C. Astigmatism
C. Lens D. None of the above
D. Vitreous humour
12. One millimeter decrease in axial length of the
6. The anterior focal length of the schematic eye is: eyeball leads to hypermetropia of:
A. 15.7 mm A. 6 dioptres
B. 17.2 mm B. 2 dioptres
C. 13 mm C. 3 dioptres
D. None of the above D. 4 dioptres
1 : B 2 : A 3 : B 4 : C 5 : C 6:B 7 : B 8 : B 9 : A 10 : A 11 : C 12 : C
Optics and Refraction 29
13. One millimeter increase in the radius of curvature 21. In Against-the-rule astigmatism:
of cornea leads to hypermetropia of: A. Vertical meridian is more curved than the
A. 3 dioptres horizontal
B. 4 dioptres B. Horizontal meridian is more curved than the
C. 5 dioptres vertical
D. 6 dioptres C. Both meridia are equally curved
14. In an aphakic eye the anterior focal point from the D. None of the above
anterior surface of cornea is about: 22. Radial keratotomy corrects myopia by causing:
A. 15 mm A. Steepening of cornea
B. 21 mm B. Flattening of cornea
C. 23 mm
C. Shortening of cornea
D. 31 mm
D. Pin-hole effect
15. In an aphakic eye posterior focal point from the
23. Range of accommodation is the distance between:
back of cornea is about:
A. Far point and near point of the eye
A. 23 mm
B. 25 mm B. The eyes and the near point
C. 31 mm C. The eyes and the far point
D. 21 mm D. The retina and the near point
16. The standard power of an intraocular lens 24. Causes of premature presbyopia include all of the
implanted in the posterior chamber is: following except:
A. 18 dioptres A. General debility
B. 20 dioptres B. Primary open-angle glaucoma
C. 23 dioptres C. Uncorrected myopia
D. 25 dioptres D. Premature sclerosis of the lens
17. An aphake wearing aphakic glasses will most 25. During accommodation, there occurs decrease in
commonly notice: the radius of curvature of the:
A. Pincushion distortion A. Anterior surface of the lens
B. Spherical aberration B. Posterior surface of the lens
C. Barrel distortion C. Both surfaces of the lens
D. Chromatic aberration D. None of the above
18. Sturm’s conoid refers to configuration of the rays 26. Near point of the eye varies with:
refracted through: A. The age of the patient
A. Concave spherical surface B. The static refraction of the eye
B. Convex spherical surface C. Both of the above
C. Toric surface D. None of the above
D. Irregular surface
27. Far point of the eye varies with:
19. Because of circle of least diffusion, the distant
A. The age of the patient
vision is comparatively good in:
B. The static refraction of the eye
A. Simple myopic astigmatism
C. Both of the above
B. Compound myopic astigmatism
D. None of the above
C. Mixed astigmatism
D. Compound hypermetropic astigmatism 28. Bilateral paralysis of accommodation can occur in
20. A difference in the size of two retinal images which patients with:
can be well tolerated is: A. Diabetes
A. 2 percent B. Syphilis
B. 3 percent C. Diphtheria
C. 5 percent D. All of the above
D. 10 percent E. None of the above
13 : D 14 : C 15 :C 16 : B 17 : A 18 : C 21 : B 22 : B 23 : A 24 : C 25 : C 26 : C
19 : C 20 : C 27 : B 28 : D
30 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
29. During retinoscopy with a plane mirror from a 37. Soft contact lenses are made of:
distance of 1 M, no movement of pupillary red A. Polymethyl methacrylate
reflex with the movement of the mirror indicates: B. Hydroxymethyl methacrylate
A. Emmetropia C. Glass
B. Myopia of 1 D D. Silicone
C. Hypermetropia of less than 1 D E. All of the above
D. All of the above
38. Consistency of the gas permeable contact lenses
30. The end point of streak retinoscopy is: is:
A. Neurtalization of the red reflex A. Hard
B. Streak disappears and the pupil appears B. Soft
completely light or dark C. Semisoft
C. Just reversal of the red reflex D. None of the above
D. All of the above
39. Contact lens is best used in:
31. The fastest acting cycloplegic drug is: A. High myopia
A. Atropine B. Irregular astigmatism
B. Tropicamide C. Aphakia
C. Cyclopentolate D. Regular astigmatism
D. Homatropine
40. Excessive accommodation causes:
32. All of the following are true about auto
A. Hypermetropia
refractometry except:
A. Quick procedure B. Myopia
B. Gives information about spherical and cylindrical C. Pseudomyopia
error D. Pseudohypermetropia
C. Measures interpupillary distance 41. Haemorrhage at macular spot in high myopia is
D. Subjective verification of refraction is not called:
required A. Lacquer’s lines
33. While performing duochrome test, if the patient B. Foster-Fuchs fleck
reports that he sees red letters more clear than C. Dalen-Fuchs nodules
green, it indicates that he is slightly: D. Berlin’s oedema
A. Myopic
42. Over correction is preferable in:
B. Hypermetropic
A. Myopia
C. Presbyopic
B. Presbyopia
D. None of the above
C. Hypermetropia
34. While performing subjective verification of D. Aphakia
refraction, the cross cylinder is used to check:
A. Axis of the cylinder to be prescribed 43. Kappa angle is the angle between the:
B. Power of the cylinder to be prescribed A. Pupillary axis and visual axis
C. Both of the above B. Visual axis and optical axis
D. None of the above C. Centre of eyeball rotation and line of fixation
D. None of the above is correct
35. The principle of the stenopaeic slit test is based
on: 44. Alpha angle is the angle between the:
A. Astigmatic fan A. Pupillary axis and optical axis
B. The circle of least diffusion B. Visual axis and optical axis
C. Pin-hole phenomenon C. Centre of eyeball rotation and line of fixation
D. Sturm’s conoid D. None of the above is correct
36. Preferably presbyopia should be: 45. Unit of light emitted from a surface is:
A. Fully corrected A. Lambert
B. Under corrected B. Candella
C. Over corrected C. Lux
D. None of the above D. Lumen
29 : B 30 : B 31 : B 32 : D 33 : A 34 : C 37 : B 38 : A 39 : B 40 : C 41 : B 42 : C
35 : C 36 : B 43 : A 44 : A 45 : D
Optics and Refraction 31
46. Astigmatism is considered to be: 55. The power of reduced eye is:
A. Spherical abberation A. 17 D
B. Curvatural ametropia B. 45 D
C. Axial ametropia C. 59 D
D. Index ametropia D. 66 D
48. The term anisometropia indicates: 57. A female patient wants LASIK surgery for her eye.
A. Refractive error She asks for your opinion. All the following things
B. Long vision are suitable for performing LASIK surgery except:
C. Short vision A. Myopia of 4 diopters
D. Ageing process B. Age of 15 years
C. Stable refraction for 1 year
49. Facultative hypermetropes manage to see because D. Corneal thickness of 600 microns
of:
58. Accommodation is maximum at the age of:
A. Wrinkling of eye
A. 25 years
B. Ciliary muscle contraction
B. 5 years
C. Accommodation
C. 14 years
D. Use of cycloplegics
D. 30 years
50. Constantly changing refractive error is seen in:
59. Image formed by a prism is:
A. Traumatic cataract A. Virtual, erect and displaced towards its apex
B. Diabetic cataract B. Real, erect and displaced towards its base
C. Morgagnian cataract C. Real, inverted and displaced towards its apex
D. Intumescent cataract D. Virtual, inverted and displaced towards its base
51. Maximum refractive power is due to the: 60. Presently surgical treatment of choise in a 22 year
A. Anterior surface of lens male with - 10D myopia is:
B. Posterior surface of lens A. Phakic refractive lens
C. Anterior surface of cornea B. Refractive lens exchange
D. Posterior surface of cornea C. Wavefront guided LASIK
D. LASIK with femtosecond laser
52. The most accepted method for treatment of a
myopic with refractive error of 2D is: 61. Visual axis is:
A. Spectacles A. Center of cornea to retina
B. Contact lens B. Object to fovea
C. Radial keratotomy C. Center of lens to cornea
D. Excimer laser D. None
53. Which is the most common complication of high 62. Foster’s fusch’s spots are seen in:
myopia: A. Hypermetropiea
A. Glaucoma B. Myopia
B. Cataract C. Astigmatism
C. Haemorrhage D. None
D. Retinal detachment
63. Jack in box scotoma is seen after correction of
54. Lattice degeneration is seen in: Aphakia by:
A. Myopia A. IOL
B. Hypermetropia B. Spectacles
C. Aphakia C. Contact Lens
D. Presbyopia D. None
46 : A 47 : D 48 : A 49 : C 50 : D 51 : C 55 : C 56 : B 57 : B 58 : B 59 : A 60 : A
52 : A 53 : D 54 : A 61 : B 62 : B 63 : B
32 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
64. Accommodation is due to: 68. On performing refraction using a plane mirror on
A. Relaxation of ciliary muscles a patient who has a refractive error of -3D sphere
B. Contraction of ciliary muscles with -2D cylinder at 90 degree from a distance of
C. Contraction of dilator pupillae 1 metre under no cycloplegia, the reflex would be
D. None seen to move:
A. With the movement in the horizontal axis and
65. Objective assessment of the refractive state of the
against the movement in the vertical axis
eye is termed:
B. With the movement in both the axes
A. Retinoscopy
C. Against the movement in both the axes
B. Gonioscopy
D. With the movement in the vertical axis and
C. Ophthalmoscopy
against the movement in horizontal axis.
D. Keratoscopy
69. A lady want LASIK surgery for her daughter. She
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS asks for your opinion. All the following things are
suitable for performing LASIK surgery except:
66. Which component of the eye has maximum A Myopia of 4 Diopters
refractive Index: B. Age of 15 years
A. Anterior surface of the lens C. Stable refraction for 1 year
B. Posterior surface of the lens D. Corneal thickness of 600 microns
C. Centre of the lens
D. Cornea 70. Best corrected Visual Acuity is 6/18 of a patient
with a corneal scar which improves with pin hole
67. A 55-years-old male with a limbal scar presents to to 6/9. Best explanation is:
the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective A. Spherical aberration
vision for near and far. Clinical examination B. Myopic astigmatism
reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, C. Irregular astigmatism
iridodonesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision D. Cataract
of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis: 71. Maximum refraction takes place between:
A. Aphakia A. Air tear film
B. Pseudophakia B. Tear film and cornea
C. Hypermetropia C. Cornea and aqueous
D. Posterior dislocation of lens D. Aqueous lens
64 : B 65 : A 66 : C 67 : A 68 : C 69 : B 70 : C 71 : A
CHAPTER
4
Diseases of Conjunctiva
1. Epidemics of conjunctivitis are known to occur 7. Trachoma inclusion bodies in conjunctival smear
with: are detected by:
A. Bacterial infections A. Giemsa stain
B. Viral infections B. Iodine stain
C. None of the above C. Immunofluorescent staining
D. Both of the above D. All of the above
6. Pathognomic features of trachoma follicle are: 12. Incubation period of gonococcal ophthalmia
A. Presence of Leber’s cells neonatorum is:
B. Areas of necrosis A. 24 hours
C. Both of the above B. 5-7 days
D. None of the above C. 7-10 days
D. None of the above
1 : D 2 : A 3 : C 4 : A 5 : A 6 : C 7 : D 8 : A 9 : A 10 : D 11 : A 12 : D
Diseases of Conjunctiva 39
13. Intense itching is pathognomic feature of: 22. Follicle formation may be seen in all of the
A. Spring catarrh following except:
B. Trachoma A. Trachoma
C. Follicular conjunctivitis B. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
D. Angular conjunctivitis C. Inclusion conjunctivitis
E. All of the above D. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
14. Spring catarrh may be associated with: 23. Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen with:
A. Anterior subcapsular cataract
A. Adenovirus
B. Keratoconus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Interstitial keratitis
D. All of the above C. Pneumococcus
D. Haemophilus
15. Associations of atopic keratoconjunctivitis include
all except: 24. Pseudomembranous conjunctivitis is caused by:
A. Keratoconus A. Gonococcus
B. Atopic cataract B. Staphylococcus
C. Atopic dermatitis C. Streptococcus
D. Interstitial keratitis D. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
16. Giant papillary conjunctivitis occurs as an allergic 25. Conjunctivitis in newborn is commonly caused by:
response to all except: A. Streptococcus
A. Contact lens B. Gonococcus
B. Intraocular lens C. Pseudomonas
C. Prosthesis
D. Chlamydia
D. Nylon sutures
26. Unilateral conjunctivitis is commonly seen in:
17. All are true about phlyctenular conjunctivitis
A. Blepharitis
except:
A. It is type-IV cell mediated hypersensitivity B. Vernal conjunctivitis
B. Allergens are endogenous as well as exogenous C. Dacryocystitis
C. Incidence is higher in girls than boys D. Trachoma
D. Nodular lesion usually occurs near the limbus
27. Ligneous conjunctivitis is caused by:
18. Ophthalmia nodosa occurs due to: A. Purulent conjunctivitis
A. Leprotic conjunctivitis B. Membranous conjunctivitis
B. Syphilitic conjunctivitis C. Angular conjunctivitis
C. Sarcoidosis conjunctivitis D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
D. Irritation by hair of caterpillar E. Any of the above
E. All of the above
28. Horner Tranta’s spots are seen in:
19. All are known to cause conjunctival xerosis except: A. Vernal conjunctivitis
A. Trachoma
B. Phylectenular conjunctivitis
B. Membranous conjunctivitis
C. Angular conjunctivitis
C. Angular conjunctivitis
D. Ocular pemphigoid D. Follicular conjunctivitis
20. All are known to produce parenchymatous 29. H.P. inclusion bodies in trachoma are seen to
conjunctival xerosis except: be:
A. Vitamin A deficiency A. Extracellular
B. Diphtheric membranous conjunctivitis B. Intracytoplasmic
C. Trachoma C. Intranuclear
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. None
21. Goldenhar syndrome is associated with which
prominent ocular manifestation: 30. Pathognomonic feature of trachoma is:
A. Microcornea A. Bulbar papillae
B. Megalocornea B. Palpebral papillae
C. Sclerocornea C. Bulbar follicles
D. Epibulbar dermoids D. Palpebral follicles
13 : E 14 : B 15 : D 16 : B 17 : B 18 : D 22 : B 23 : A 24 : C 25 : D 26 : C 27 : B
19 : C 20 : A 21 : D 28 : A 29 : B 30 : C
40 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
31. “Safe strategy” has been developed for the control 40. Follicles of a diameter of 5 mm are typically seen
of: in:
A. Conjunctivitis A. Pharyngoconjunctival fever
B. Trachoma B. Trachoma
C. Refractive error C. Drug induced follicular conjunctivitis
D. Ocular trauma D. Ophthalmia neonatorum
32. Subconjunctival haemorrhage can occur in all 41. Tetracycline ointment for mass prophylaxis:
conditions except: A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
A. Passive venous congestion
C. 1%
B. Pertusis
D. 5%
C. Trauma
D. High intraocular tension 42. Spring catarrah is:
A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
33. Unilateral chronic conjunctivitis may be associated B. Type II
with C. Type III
A. Habit of smoking D. Type IV
B. Use of uniocular microscope
C. Foreign body retained is the fornix 43. Complication of vernal kerato conjunctivitis:
D. Unilateral aphakia A. Cataract
B. Keratoconus
34. Trachoma in a newborn cannot produce follicular C. Retinal detachment
reaction because: D. Vitreous hemorrhage
A. Antibodies are transfered from mother 44. Treatment of vernal keratoconjunctivitis includes
B. Adenoid layer is devoid of lymphoid tissue all except:
C. Immunity is not developed A. Steroids
D. Incubation period is one year B. Chromoglycate
C. Olopatadine
35. Conjunctival ulceration may suggest:
D. Antibiotics
A. Embedded foreign body
B. Tuberculosis 45. The histology of pterygium includes:
C. Syphillis A. Elastotic degeneration
D. Any of the above. B. Epithelial inclusion bodies
C. Precancerous changes
36. Commonest congenital tumour of conjunctiva is: D. Squamous metaplasia of the epithelium
A. Epibulbar dermoid
B. Benign melenoma 46. Subconjunctival cyst is seen in:
C. Papilloma A. Toxoplasmosis
D. Capillary haemangioma B. Cysticercosis
C. Leishmaniasis
37. Inclusion body conjunctivitis true is all except: D. Chaga’s disease.
A. Self limiting
B. Present only in infants EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
C. Occurs while passage from birth canal
D. Caused by chlamydia 47. In the grading of trachoma, trachomatous
inflammation-follicular is defined as the presence
38. Pathognomonic of trachoma is: of:
A. Bulbar papillae A. 5 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
B. Palphebral papillae B. 3 or more follicles in the lower tarsal conjunctiva
C. Bulbar follicles C. 5 or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
D. Palpebral follicles D. 3 or more follicles in the upper tarsal conjunctiva
39. All are seen in stage III trachoma except: 48. Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by:
A. Tarsal epitheliofibrosis A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Trachomatous pannus B. Chlamydia psittaci
C. Herbert’s pits C. Herpes
D. Disappearance of Bowman’s membrane D. Gonorrhea
31 : B 32 : D 33 : C 34 : B 35 : D 36 : A 40 : B 41 : A 42 :A 43 : B 44 : D 45 : A
37 : B 38 : C 39 : B 46 : B 47 : C 48 : A
Diseases of Conjunctiva 41
49. Features of vernal conjunctivitis are: D. Allergic conjunctivitis
A. Shield ulcer E. Molluscus contagiosum
B. Horner-Tranta’s spots
54. Pterygium all are true except:
C. Papillary hypertrophy
A. Arise from any part of conjunctiva
D. Herbert pits
B. Can cause astigmatism
E. Pannus
C. Surgery is treatment of choice
50. Features of vernal keratoconjunctivitis are: D. UV exposure is risk factor
A. Papillary hypertrophy E. Stromal defect seen
B. Shield’s ulcer F. A connective tissue degeneration
C. Herbert’s pits 55. Stocker’s line is seen in:
D. Trantra’s spot A. Pinguencula
E. Ropy discharge B. Pterygium
51. Topical sodium cromoglycate is used in treatment C. Congenital Ocular Melanosis
of: D. Conjunctival epithelial melanosis
A. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis 56. Neonatal conjunctivitis is caused by all except:
B. Vernal catarrh A. Gonococcus
C. Subconjunctival haemorrhage B. Chlamydia
D. Trachoma C. Aspergillus
52. A Malnourished child from a poor socioeconomic D. Pseudomonas
status, residing in overcrowded and dirty areas 57. A patient complains of pain in both eys with
present with a nodule around the limbus with congestion. Blurring of vision, photophobia and
hyperemia of surrounding conjunctiva in his mucopurulent discharge since one day. Many cases
left eye. He is also observed to have axillary and have been reported from the same community. The
cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following causative agent is probably:
is the most likely diagnosis: A. Adenovirus
A. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis B. Enterovirus 70
B. Foreign body granuloma C. Herpes simplex
C. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis D. Hemophilus
D. Episcleritis
58. All are features of Trachoma stage III, except:
53. Follicular conjunctivitis are found in all except: A. Herbert’s pits
A. Herpes simplex conjunctivitis B. Pannus
B. Drug induced C. Necrosis in scar
C. Adult inclusion conjunctivitis D. Scar on tarsal conjunctiva
5
Diseases of Cornea
1. The organism which can invade the intact corneal 8. Viral infections usually cause:
epithelium and produce purulent corneal ulcer is: A. Conjunctivitis
A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Kerato conjunctivitis
B. Pseudomonas pyocyanea C. Keratitis
C. Pneumococcus D. Blepharo conjunctivitis
D. Streptococcus haemolyticus
9. Is not the clinical presentation of herpes simplex
2. Hypopyon ulcer may be produced by:
keratitis:
A. Pneumococcus
A. Diffuse stromal necrotic keratitis
B. Pseudomonas
C. Gonococcus B. Punctate epithelial keratitis
D. All of the above C. Disciform keratitis
D. Nummular keratitis
3. Ulcus serpens is caused by:
A. Pneumococcus 10. Ocular complications in herpes zoster ophthal
B. Pseudomonas micus usually appear:
C. Gonococcus A. At the subsidence of skin eruptions
D. All of the above B. Simultaneous with cutaneous lesions
4. All are the causes of a non-healing corneal ulcer C. Two days after the skin eruptions
except: D. During stage of erythematous skin lesions
A. Raised intraocular pressure 11. Secondary glaucoma in early stage of herpes
B. Associated iridocyclitis zoster ophthalmicus occurs due to:
C. Chronic dacryocystitis
A. Trabeculitis
D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Iridocyclitis
5. Marginal catarrhal corneal ulcer is caused by: C. Haemorrhagic hypopyon
A. Staphylococcus D. Hypersecretion of aqueous humour
B. Moraxella E. All of the above
C. Haemophilus
D. All of the above 12. Systemic acyclovir in herpes zoster is useful:
A. When started immediately after the onset of rash
6. Satellite lesions in the cornea may be seen in:
B. For post-herpetic neuralgia
A. Fungal corneal ulcer
C. For ocular lesions only
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
D. All of the above
C. Viral corneal ulcer
D. None of the above 13. Systemic corticosteroids in herpes zoster ophthal
7. Immune ring in the cornea is a feature of: micus are indicated when associated with:
A. Bacterial corneal ulcer A. Facial nerve palsy
B. Fungal corneal ulcer B. Optic neuritis
C. Ring ulcer of the cornea C. Post-herpetic neuralgia
D. Disciform keratitis D. All of the above
1 : A 2 :D 3 : A 4 : B 5 : D 6 : A
8 : B 9 : D 10 :A 11 : A 12 : A 13 : B
7:B
Diseases of Cornea 49
14. The nerve which is most frequently involved in 23. Hutchinson’s triad includes all except:
herpes zoster ophthalmicus is: A. Interstitial keratitis
A. Frontal nerve B. Hutchinson’s teeth
B. Nasociliary nerve C. Vestibular deafness
C. Lacrimal nerve D. Flat nose bridge
D. Facial nerve
24. Interstitial keratitis may be associated with:
15. Hutchinson’s rule in relation to herpes zoster A. Congenital syphilis
ophthalmicus: B. Malaria
A. Implies that ocular involvement is infrequent if C. Sarcoidosis
the side or tip of the nose presents vesicles D. All of the above
B. Is based on involvement of nasociliary nerve 25. Commonest causative organism of corneal ulcer
C. Is 100 percent predictor of ocular involvement is:
D. All of the above A. Pneumococcus
16. Radial keratoneuritis is a feature of: B. Staphylococcus
A. Acanthamoeba keratitis C. Streptococcus
B. Herpes zoster keratitis D. Fungi
C. Neuroparalytic keratitis 26. Metabolically active corneal layer is:
D. All of the above A. Epithelium
17. Exposure keratitis is not associated with: B. Stroma
A. 7th nerve paralysis C. Descemet’s membrane
B. 5th nerve paralysis D. None of the above
C. Symblepharon 27. Fascicular ulcer is seen in:
D. Ectropion A. Phlyctenular keratitis
18. All are features of rosacea keratitis except: B. Rosacea keratitis
A. Corneal vascularisation C. Riboflavin deficiency
B. Associated blepharoconjunctivitis D. All of the above
C. Central superficial ulcer 28. Corneal dystrophy asso ciated with acid
D. Progresses to involve the whole cornea mucopolysaccharidosis is:
19. All are true for Mooren’s ulcer except: A. Lattice
A. Peripheral ulcerative keratitis B. Granular
C. Macular
B. Advancing edge is undermined
D. Peripheral
C. Perforation is common
D. Floor of ulcer is quickly vascularised 29. All of the following result in loss of corneal
20. Photo-ophthalmia results from exposure to: sensations except:
A. Ultraviolet rays A. Acute congestive glaucoma
B. Infrared rays B. Dendritic ulcer
C. b-irradiation C. Absolute glaucoma
D. All of the above D. Exposure keratitis
21. In photophthalmia site of lesions is: 30. The earliest symptom to occur in corneal ulcer is:
A. Cornea A. Pain
B. Retina B. Photophobia
C. Optic nerve C. Loss of sensation
D. All of the above D. Diminished vision
22. Filamentary keratitis may occur: 31. Corneal reflex is lost in the disease of:
A. In trachoma A. Ophthalmic nerve
B. In kerato conjunctivitis sicca B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Following cataract surgery C. Supra orbital nerve
D. All of the above D. Motor nucleus of 5th cranial nerve
14 : A 15 :B 16 : A 17 : B 18 : C 19 : C 23 : D 24 : D 25 : A 26 : A 27 : A 28 : C
20 : A 21 : A 22 : D 29 : D 30 : A 31 : A
50 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
32 : C 33 : B 34 : C 35 : C 36 : B 37 : C 41 : D 42 : D 43 : A 44 : D 45 : A 46 : A
38 : B 39 : C 40 : D 47 : C 48 : B 49 : A
Diseases of Cornea 51
50. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is a predicator of: C. SLE
A. Leukemia D. DLE
B. Lymphoma
C. HIV 60. Following corneal transplantation, most common
D. All of the above infection occur:
A. Staph epidermidis
51. All are true about keratoconus except: B. Streptococcus
A. Increased curvature of cornea C. Klebsiella
B. Astigmatism D. Pseudomonas
C. K.F. ring cornea
D. Thick cornea 61. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the
following except:
52. Thinning of cornea occurs in:
A. Keratoconus
A. Megalocornea
B. Herpes simplex keratitis
B. Bullous keratopathy
C. Leprosy
C. Endothelial dystrophy
D. Neurofibromatosis
D. Keratoconus
53. Treatment of choice for photopthalmia is: 62. A 28-year-old male complains of glare in both
A. Irrigation with antibiotics eyes. The cornea shows whorl like opacities of
B. Irrigation with local anaesthesia the epithelium. He also gave a history of long
C. Irrigation with saline term treatment with amiodarone. The most likely
D. Patching the eye diagnosis is:
A. Terrain’s marginal degeneration
54. Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty is indicated B. Cornea verticillata
in: C. Band shaped keratophathy
A. Disease of deeper cornea e.g. endothelial damage D. Arcus juvenalis
B. Full thickness corneal opacities
C. Bullous keratopathy 63. Dellen is:
D. Superficial corneal opacities A. Localized thinning of peripheral cornea
B. Raised lesions in corneo limbal junction
55. Recurrent corneal erosion seen in: C. Age related macular degeneration
A. Corneal dystrophy d. Marginal keratitis
B. Keratoglobus
C. Keratoconus
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
D. Peutz-anaomalies
56. Posterior polymorphous dystrophy 64. True about anatomy of adult cornea:
A. Causes corectopia A. Horizontal diameter is 12 mm
B. Is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion B. Horizontal diameter is 10 mm
C. Causes blindness in over 90% of sufferers C. In megalocornea diameter is >12 mm
D. Can be treated with lamellar corneal grafts D. In microcornea diameter <10 mm
E. Vertical diameter> Horizontal diameter
57. To prevent keratoconus what is used:
A. Antibiotics 65. True about cornea:
B. Cycloplegics A. Power is 43 D
C. Glasses B. Majority of refraction occur at air-tear interface
D. None C. With the rule astigmatism is present because
58. Interstitial keratitis is seen in all except: vertical meridian more sleep than horizontal
A. Syphilis meridian
B. Acanthamoeba D. Spherical structure
C. Chlamydia trachomatis E. Refractive index 1.334.
D. HSV 66. Corneal transparency is maintained by all except:
E. HZV
A. Relative dehydration
59. Band shaped keratopathy seen in: B. Increased mitotic figures in centre of cornea
A. JRA C. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
B. RA D. Uniform spacing of collagen fibrils
6
Diseases of Sclera
1 : B 2 : C 3 : A 4 : D 5 : D 6 : B 9 : A 10 : B 11 : D 12 : C 13 : B 14 : C
7 : D 8:D
CHAPTER
7
Diseases of Uveal Tract
1 : B 2 : D 3 : C 4 : C 5 : A 6:B 7 : D 8 : A 9 : D 10 : A 11 : B
Diseases of Uveal Tract 63
12. A healed patch of chorioretinitis gives rise to: 21. The following features of panophthalmitis
A. Negative scotoma differentiate it from endophthalmitis except:
B. Positive scotoma A. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber
C. Both of the above B. Proptosis
D. None of the above C. Limited and painful ocular movements
D. Complete loss of vision
13. ‘Snow ball’ opacities near the ora-serrata are
pathognomonic of: 22. In a patient with suspected tubercular anterior
A. Fungal endophthalmitis uveitis the diagnosis is confirmed by:
B. Pars planitis A. Positive Mantoux test
C. Diabetic retinopathy B. Associated findings suggestive of old systemic
D. Anterior choroiditis tuberculosis
C. A positive response to isoniazid test
14. Sign of activity in chronic iridocyclitis is: D. All of the above
A. Aqueous cells
23. ‘Iris-pearls’ are seen in:
B. Aqueous flare
A. Syphilis
C. Pigmented KPs
B. Leprosy
D. All of the above
C. Sarcoidosis
15. The pathognomonic sign of acute iridocyclitis is: D. Tuberculosis
A. Small pupil 24. Heerfordt’s disease is characterised by all of the
B. Aqueous flare following except:
C. Keratic precipitates A. Unilateral non-granulomatous panuveitis
D. All of the above B. Painful enlargement of parotid glands
16. ‘Puff-balls’ opacities in the vitreous are C. Cranial nerve palsies
pathognomonic of: D. Skin rashes, fever and malaise
A. Fungal endophthalmitis 25. Behcet’s disease is characterised by all of the
B. Pars planitis following except:
C. Exudative retinopathy of Coats A. Unilateral granulomatous uveitis
D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis B. Recurrent hypopyon
C. Aphthous ulceration
17. In bacterial endophthalmitis systemic steroids
D. Genital ulcerations
should be
A. Started immediately 26. All of the following are true for Vogt-Koyanagi-
B. Started after 12–24 hours of intensive antibiotic Harada syndrome except:
therapy A. More common in Japanese people, who are
C. Deferred usually positive for HLA-B27
D. Given after 7 days of intensive antibiotic therapy B. Ocular features are; Chronic granulomatous
anterior uveitis, posterior uveitis and exudative
18. The cell type most typically seen in the Keratic retinal detachment
precipitates of non-granulomatous uveitis is: C. Cutaneous lesions are alopecia, poliosis and
A. Polymorphonuclear cells vitiligo
B. Lymphocytes D. Neurological lesions include, meningism,
C. Plasma cells encephalopathy, tinnitis, vertigo and deafness
D. Epitheloid cells
27. Reiter’s syndrome is typically characterised by:
19. Iritis roseata is seen in: A. Urethritis, conjunctivitis and iridocyclitis
A. Leprosy B. Arthritis, conjunctivitis and iridocyclitis
B. Syphilis C. Urethritis, arthritis and conjunctivitis with or
C. Tuberculosis without iridocyclitis
D. Sarcoidosis D. All of the above
20. Heterochromia iridis is a feature of: 28. Recurrent toxoplasmic retinochoroiditis, all are
A. Malignant melanoma of iris true except:
B. Sympathetic paralysis A. Manifests at an average age of 25 years
C. Glaucomatocyclitis crisis B. The infestation is acquired by eating the under-
D. Siderosis bulbi cooked meat of intermediate host containing cyst
E. All of the above of the parasite
12 : A 13 : B 14 : A 15 :C 16 : A 17 : B 21 : A 22 : C 23 : B 24 : A 25 : A 26 : A
18 : B 19 : B 20 : E 27 : C 28 : B
64 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
C. Typical lesion is a patch of focal necrotizing 36. Malignant melanoma of the choroid of following
retinochoroiditis adjacent to a pigmented scar histological features has got the best prognosis:
D. There may be associated iritis A. Epitheloid cell melanoma
B. Spindie - A melanoma
29. All of the following are true for the acquired
C. Spindle - B melanoma
cytomegalo inclusion disease except:
D. Mixed cell melanoma
A. It occurs only in immunosuppressed patients
B. The infection is acquired from the infected cervix 37. Malignant melanoma of the choroid with
of the partner during sexual intercourse following histopathological features has got the
C. Typical lesion is acute necrotizing retinitis worst prognosis:
D. Exudative retinal detachment may occur A. Epitheloid cell melanoma
30. Granulomatous uveitis with involvement of B. Spindle - A melanoma
parotid gland is seen in: C. Spindle - B melanoma
A. Tuberculosis D. Mixed cell melanoma
B. Syphilis 38. The most common histopathological type of
C. Mumps malignant melanoma of choroid is:
D. Sarcoidosis A. Spindle - A cell
31. All of the following are true for colloid bodies B. Spindle-B cell
(drusens) except: C. Epitheloid cell
A. Are hyaline excrescences of Bruch’s membrane D. Mixed cell
B. Are secreted by pigment epithelial cells
39. Essential atrophy of the choroid is due to inborn
C. Are usually associated with marked loss of
error of metabolism of which amino acid?
vision
D. Are a percursor of disciform maci degeneration A. Cystine
in some eyes B. Cysteine
C. Arginine
32. In clinical aniridia all of the following are true D. Ornithine
except: E. Lysine
A. Iris is completely absent
40. The earliest symptom of sympathetic ophthalmitis
B. Usually familial condition
is:
C. May be associated with congenital glaucoma
D. Ciliary processes may be visible A. Pain
B. Decreased distant vision
33. Typical coloboma of iris occurs: C. Photophobia
A. Inferonasally D. Diplopia
B. Superonasally
41. The most earliest sign of anterior uveitis is:
C. Inferotemporally
D. Superotemporally A. Aqueous flare
B. Keratic precipitates
34. Malignant melanoma of conjunctiva is usually of: C. Constriction of pupil
A. Spindle A type D. Raised intraocular pressure
B. Spindle B type
C. Mixed cell type 42. Separation of rods and cones due to exudative
D. Epitheloid cell type choroiditis causes:
E. All of the above A. Photopsia
B. Micropsia
35. Malignant change in a choroidal nevus is evidenced C. Macropsia
by: D. Metamorphopsia
A. Increased pigmentation or height of the nevus
B. Appearance of orange patches of lipofusin over 43. Commonest cause of endogenous uveitis in India
the surface is:
C. Appearance of serous detachment in the area of A. Tuberculosis
nevus B. Leprosy
D. All of the above C. Syphilis
E. None of the above D. Diabetes mellitus
29 : B 30 : D 31 : C 32 : A 33 : A 34 : E 36 : B 37 : A 38 : D 39 : D 40 : C 41 : A
35 : D 42 : B 43 : A
Diseases of Uveal Tract 65
44. The most frequent bacterial agent causing non- C. TORCH agent test
granulomatous uveitis is: D. USG abdomen
A. Staphylococcus E. ELISA for HIV
B. Streptococcus 53. Uveitis is caused by all except:
C. Pneumococcus A. T.B.
D. Influenza bacillus B. Staphylococcus
E. None of the above C. Streptococcus
D. Klebsiella
45. Peripheral anterior synechiae after an attack of acute
congestive glaucoma occur earliest in the: 54. Photopsia occurs in:
A. Lower part A. Iritis
B. Upper part B. Choroiditis
C. Lower and inner part C. Cyclitis
D. Lower and outer part D. Scleritis
E. Medial part
55. ‘Snow banking’ is typically seen in:
46. In complete albinism the colour of iris is: A. Pars planitis
A. White B. Endophthalmitis
B. Black C. Coat’s disease
C. Pink D. Eales’ disease
D. Blue
E. Green 56. May masquerade as uveitis:
A. Choroidal detachment
47. Iris bombe occurs is: B. Retinal detachment
A. Ring synechiae
C. Age related macular degeneration
B. Anterior synechiae
D. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Posterior synechiae
D. All 57. Commonest cause of fungal uveitis is:
A. Candida
48. Drug of choice for acute iridocyclitis is:
A. Steroids B. Aspergillus
B. Acetazolamide C. Fusarium
C. Atropine D. Mucor mycosis
D. Antibiotics 58. All are causes of white-dot syndrome except:
49. The correct statement regarding the duration after A. Fuch’s heterochromic uveitis
which sympathetic ophthalmitis develops is: B. VKH syndrome
A. 3 wks–12 wks after trauma C. HIV retinopathy
B. Within 1 week of trauma D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
C. After 2 months of trauma 59. Most common cause of anterior uveitis associated
D. Typically at 10 days after trauma with arthritis:
50. One of the most common complication of A . Ankylosing spondylitis
iridocyclitis is: B. Rheumatoid arthritis
A. Scleritis C. Syphilis
B. Secondary glaucoma D. Tuberculosis
C. Band-shaped keratopathy
60. 1st sign of anterior uveitis:
D. Corneal ulcer
A. Keratic precipitate
51. First sign of sympathetic ophthalmitis is: B. Aqueous flare
A. Keratic precipitates C. Hypopyon
B. Miosis D. Miosis
C. Aqueous flare
61. Keratic precipitates are on which layer of
D. Retrolental flare
cornea:
52. The investigations of anterior uveitis for a 25 years A. Epithelium
old boy are all except: B. Endothelium
A. HLA-B27 C. Stroma
B. X-ray sacroiliac joint D. Bowman’s membrane
44 : B 45 : B 46 : C 47 : A 48 : C 49 : A 53 : D 54 : B 55 : A 56 : B 57 : A 58 : D
50 : B 51 : D 52 : D 59 : A 60 : B 61 : B
66 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
62. Which of the following indicates activity of ant 70. Signs of uveitis:
uveitis: A. Generalized conjunctival congestion
A. Cells in anterior chamber B. Circumciliary congestion
B. Circumcorneal congestion C. Cells and flare in aqueous
C. Keratic precipitate D. Keratic precipitate
D. Corneal edema
71. A 25 year old lady presents with severe sudden
63. True about heterochromic uveitis: onset of pain, corneal congestion, photophobia
A. Involves posterior surface of iris and deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The
B. Involves anterior part of iris left eye is normal. X-ray pelvis shows sacroilitis.
C. Involves posterior chamber The diagnosis is:
D. Posterior synechiae A. Anterior uveitis
B. Posterior uveitis
64. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada (VKH) syndrome is: C. Intermediate uveitis
A. Chronic granulomatous uveitis D. Scleritis
B. Chronic non-granulomatous uveitis
C. Acute purulent uveitis 72. In patients with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision
D. None due to posterior segment involvement can occur
because of:
65. Histological changes in lens induced uveitis
A. Visual floaters
include:
B. Inflammatory disc edema
A. Ghost cells
C. Exudative retinal detachment
B. Giant cell reaction D. CME
C. Amyloid in the Cornea
D. Vasculitis 73. Mutton for keratic precipitate and Busacca’s
nodules is seen in:
66. Drug used in LUMINATE program for non- A. Granulomatous uveitis
infectious uveitis is: B. Non-granulomatous uveitis
A. Cyclosporine C. Posterior uveitis
B. Voclosporin D. Choroiditis
C. Methotrexate
D. Infliximab 74. Uveal effusion syndrome may be associated with
all of the following except:
A. Myopia
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
B. Ciliochoroidal detachment
67. Granulomatous uvetis is seen in: C. Structural defect in Sclera
A. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada disease D. Nanophthalmos
B. Fuch’s disease 75. In heterochromic cyclitis:
C. Bechet’s syndrome A. 60% of patients develop glaucoma
D. Sarcoidosis B. Show a good response when treated with steroids
E. Psoariasis C. Lens implantation following cataract surgery is
contraindicated
68. A 10 year boy present with b/l hronic uveitis. Which
D. Hyphaema during cataract surgery is due to iris
investigation should be ordered:
neovascularization
A. Hemogram
B. X-ray of sacroiliac joint 76. A young patient presents to the ophthalmic
C. HIV rest outpatient department with gradual blurring
D. Mantoux test of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination
reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and
69. The investigation of anterior uveitis of a young aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior
boy are: subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were
A. HLA B 27 observed. The most likely diagnosis is:
B. X-ray of sacroiliac joint A. Intermediate Uveitis (Pars plants)
C. TORCH agents B. Heerford’s disease
D. ELISA for HIV C. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch’s
E. USG abdomen D. Subacute Iridocyclitis
62 : A 63 : B 64 : A 65 : B 66 : B 70 : B, C and D 71 : A 72 : C 73 : A 74 : A
67 : A and D 68 : D 69 : A and B 75 : D 76 : C
Diseases of Uveal Tract 67
77. Which of the following drug is currently used C. Macular degeneration
for the prophylaxis of non infectious uveitis in D. Fuch’s uveitis
LUMINATE program:
A. Cyclosporine 79. The use of highly active anti-retroviral therapy
B. Vaclosporine (HAART) is associated with the development
C. Methotrexate of:
D. Infliximib A. Keratitis
78. Amsler’s sign is seen in: B. Uveititis
A. Posner-Schlossman syndrome C. Retinitis
B. Pars planitis D. Optic neuritis
77 : B 78 : D 79 : D
CHAPTER
8
Diseases of Lens
ACQUIRED CATARACTS
3. Hypocalcaemic cataract may be associated
with parathyroid tetany.
I. Senile cataract (age-related cataract)
4. Sunflower cataract may be associated with
• It is the most common form of cataract. inborn error of copper metabolism (Wilson’s
• Senile cataract is an age change. Factors affecting its disease).
onset and maturation include: Heredity, exposure
to ultraviolet radiations from sunlight, diet, and 5. Cataract may be seen in Lowe’s (oculocerebral-
dehydrational crisis in childhood. renal) syndrome; an inborn error of amino acid
• The main biochemical features of cortical senile metabolism. Other ocular features are microphakia,
cataract are decreased levels of total proteins, posterior lentiglobus and glaucoma.
amino acids and potassium associated with III. Complicated cataract
increased concentration of sodium and marked • It may occur secondary to uveitis, retinitis
hydration of the lens. While nuclear cataract pigmentosa, myopic chorioretinal degeneration
is accompanied by a significant increase in and long standing retinal detachment.
water insoluble proteins which give brown • Posterior subcapsular cataract is typically
colour to nucleus. Intensification of age-related characterised by polychromatic lustre and bread-
nuclear sclerosis associated with dehydration and crumb appearance.
compaction of nucleus resulting in hard cataract.
• In a fully developed cataract, glutathione, ascorbic IV. Toxic cataracts
acid and riboflavin are deficient or absent. These 1. Corticosteroid-induced cataract: Posterior sub
are the principal agents mediating the auto- capsular opacities may be associated with the use
oxidative system of the lens. of topical as well as systemic steroids.
• Cuneiform cataract accounts for 70 percent cases, 2. Miotics-induced cataract: Anterior subcapsular
cupuliform cataract for 5 percent cases and Nuclear granular cataract may be associated with the use
cataract for 25 percent cases of senile cataract. of long acting miotics such as echothiophate and
• Monoocular diplopia or polyopia (incipient stage) demecarium bromide.
occurs in cuneiform cataract. 3. Other causes of toxic cataracts are chlorpromazine,
• Cupuliform (posterior subcapsular) cataract lies amiodarone, gold (used for treatment of
right in the pathway of axial rays, and thus, causes rheumatoid arthritis, and busulphan (used for
an early loss of vision. treatment of chronic myeloid leucaemia).
• Second sight or myopic shift is seen in nuclear V. Radiational cataract
cataract.
1. Infra-red (heat) cataract. It typically occurs as
II. Metabolic cataracts discoid posterior subcapsular opacities in workers
1. Diabetic cataract: The true diabetic cataract, of glass industry, hence the name ‘glass-blower’s
usually occuring in young adults is characterised by cataract’.
acute onset, often bilateral, ‘snow-flake opacities’. 2. Irradiation cataract: It may follow exposure to
Accumulation of ‘Sorbitol’ due to NADPH+ X-rays, γ-rays or neutron.
dependent aldose reductase pathway is primarily 3. Ultraviolet radiation has been linked with senile
responsible for development of true diabetic cataract.
cataract. Fluctuating refractive error is a feature of • Most common type of radiational cataract is
diabetic cataract. posterior subcapsular cataract (PSC).
2. Galactosaemic cataract (oil droplet cataract) VI. Electric cataract
is associated with inborn error of galactose It may occur following passage of powerful electric
metabolism due to deficiency of galactose-1- current through the body. Punctate subcapsular
phosphate uridyltransferase (GPUT). A related opacities which mature rapidly.
disorder occurs due to deficiency of galactokinase
VII. Syndermatotic cataract
causing lamellar cataract. Accumulation of
‘dulcitol’ is primarily responsible for development It is associated with skin disorders like atopic
of galactosaemic cataract. Development of cataract dermatitis, scleroderma and keratosis.
70 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
VIII. Traumatic cataract – Rollable IOLs are ultrathin lenses for implan
Traumatic cataract is flower rosette shaped cataract. tation through microincision (1 mm) after
phakonit technique.
IX. Miscellaneous cataract
• Primary IOL implantation refers to the use of
• Christmas tree cataract is seen in myotonic IOL during surgery for cataract, while secondary
dystrophy IOL is implanted to correct aphakia in previously
• Shield cataract occurs in atopic keratoconjunctivitis operated eye.
• Neurofibromatosis (NF2) is associated with • Calculation of IOL power is done by SRK formula:
posterior subcapsular cataract. P = A – 2.5 L – 0.9 K; where P = IOL power in diopters.
Management of cataract in adults A = specific constant of IOL, L = axial length of
Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE) with eyeball in mm and K = average keratometric
posterior chamber IOL is the treatment of choice. reading.
• Incidence of post-operative complications such
as endophthalmitis, cystoid macular oedema DISPLACEMENTS OF LENS
and retinal detachment is comparatively low • On distant direct ophthalmoscopy, edge of the clear
with extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE) as subluxated lens is seen dark due to total internal
compared to intracapsular cataract extraction reflection of the light.
(ICCE). • Anterior dislocation (in anterior chamber): Clear
• Phacoemulsification is a technique of ECCE. lens is seen as an oil drop in the aqueous.
Surgical steps include a 3.2 mm clear corneal • Posterior dislocation (in vitreous humor): lens may
volvular incision, continuous cur vilinear be floating in the vitreous (lens nutans) or fixed to
capsulorrehexis, hydrodissection, emulsification the retina (lens fixata).
and aspiration of nucleous using ultrasonic • Simple ectopia lentis: Displacement is bilaterally
phacoprob e. The phaco ne e dle vibrates
symmetrical and usually upwards. Autosomal
longitudinally at an ultrasonic speed of 40,000
dominant inheritance.
times per second.
• Ectopia lentis et pupillae: Displacement of
• Femtosecond laser assisted cataract surgery
(FLACS) is the most advanced technique of MICS. lens is associated with slit-shaped pupil. Other
• Manual small incision cataract surgery (SICS) associations may be cataract, glaucoma and retinal
is a low-cost alternative to phacoemulsification detachment.
which offers the advantages of sutureless cataract • Ectopia lentis with systemic anomalies include:
surgery with the added advantages of having wider Marfan’s syndrome: Lens is subluxated upward
applicability and an easier learning curve. and temporally in both eyes.
• Homocystinuria: Lens is subluxated downward.
Intraocular lens implantation is the best method
• Well-Marchesani syndrome: Characterised by
for correction of aphakia.
spherophakia and anterior subluxation of lens.
• Anterior chamber IOLs: These lie entirely in front
• Ehlers–Danlos syndrome. Subluxated lens may
of the iris and are supported in the angle. These
are not much popular due to comparatively higher be associated with blue sclera, keratoconus and
incidence of bullous keratopathy. Commonly used angioid streakes.
IOL is Kelman multiflex lens. • Consecutive or spontaneous displacements as seen in
• Iris supported lenses: These are fixed on the iris with hypermature cataract, buphthalmos, high myopia,
the help of sutures, loops or claws. These are also intraocular tumours, and chronic cyclitis.
not popular due to higher rate of complications.
• Posterior chamber lenses: These lie behind the iris CONGENITAL ANOMALIES OF LENS
and may be supported by ciliary sulcus or capsular • Coloboma of the lens: A notch usually seen in the
bag. These are very popular and are available in inferior quadrant of the equator. Occurs due to
modified C-loop and other designs. defective development of the suspensory ligament
Three types of PClOLs available are: in that part.
– Rigid IOLs are made of PMMA • Anterior lenticonus: Cone-shaped anterior axial
– Foldable IOLs are made of silicone, acrylic bulge. May occur in Alport’s syndrome.
or hydrogel for implantation through a small • Posterior lenticonus: Posterior axial bulge may
(3.2 mm) incision. occur in Lowe’s syndrome.
Diseases of Lens 71
• Micro-spherophakia: A small spherical lens may • Zonular or lamellar cataract is the commonest
occur as an isolated finding or as a feature of Well congenital cataract causing visual impairment
Marchesani’s or Marfan’s syndrome. (otherwise blue dot cataract is the commonest
• Microphakia is a small lens which occur in Lowe’s congenital cataract).
syndrome. • Most common postoperative complication of extra
• L entiglobus : Generalized hemi-spherical capsular cataract extraction is posterior capsule
deformity. thickening.
• The best method to decide about the immaturity
SOME SALIENT POINTS and maturity of senile cataract is distant direct
ophthalmoscopy.
• The lens is incapable of becoming inflamed due to • The visual loss in posterior polar cataract is much
the capsule. more than the anterior polar cataract, because the
• The most common manifestation of develop former is close to the nodal point of the eye.
mental cataract is punctate cataract (blue dot • Cryoextraction is the safest method for intra
cataract). capsular technique in intumescent cataract.
• Presenile cataract occurs in patients with atopic • Cupuliform or posterior cortical cataract seldom
dermatitis (stellate opacities mostly posterior), matures.
dsytrophica myotonia (christmas tree cataract), • Down syndrome. Ocular features include: Kerato
and GPUT and GK enzyme deficiency. conus, bruschfield spot, and blue dot cataract.
72 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
1 : A 2 : B 3 : A 4 : A 5 : D 6 : C 8 : A 9 : D 10 : B 11 : B 12 : D 13 : A
7:A
Diseases of Lens 73
14. Anterior lenticonus may be associated with: 23. Lens capsule is thinnest at the:
A. Alport’s syndrome A. Central anteriorly
B. Lowe’s syndrome B. Laterally
C. Marfan’s syndrome C. Superior pole of the lens
D. Homocystinuria D. Posterior pole of the lens
15. During IOL implantation, corneal endothelial 24. Cataract brunescens result due to deposition of:
damage can be prevented by use of: A. Melanin
A. Methyl cellulose B. Copper
B. Sodium hyaluronate C. Iron
C. Chondroitin sulfate D. Silver
D. All of the above E. Gold
22. A mature uniocular cataract in a 3-year-old child: 31. The commonest type of cataract in adults is:
A. Will require refraction A. Nuclear cataract
B. May be absorbed B. Cortical cataract
C. Should be removed C. Morgagnian cataract
D. Should be left as such D. None of the above
14 : A 15 :D 16 : E 17 : D 18 : A 19 : B 23 : D 24 : A 25 : A 26 : B 27 : C 28 : E
20 : A 21 : B 22 : C 29 : A 30 : E 31 : B
74 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
32. The commonest side effect of lens implant surgery 41. Christmas tree cataract is seen in:
is: A. Down’s syndrome
A. Vitreous haemorrhage B. Rubella
B. Glaucoma C. Myotonic dystrophy
C. Iridocyclitis D. Diabetes
D. Panophthalmitis 42. All are the advantages of leaving the capsule
behind in cataract surgery except:
33. Most common type of cataract following radiation A. Prevents cystoid macular edema
is: B. Decreases endothelial damage
A. Posterior subcapsular C. Progressively improves vision
B. Anterior subcapsular D. Decreases chance of retinal detachment
C. Tear-drop cataract E. Decreases chance of endophthalmitis
D. Diffuse cataract
43. Cataract is caused by all except:
34. Lens has a respiratory quotient of: A. Ultraviolet radiation
A. 1 B. MRI
B. 0.6 C. Infrared radiation
C. 0.7 D. Microwave radiation
E. Ionizing radiation
D. 0.9
44. In preoperative assessment of cataract patient
35. Causes of early onset of cataract are all except: following is to be done:
A. Diabetes mellitus A. Axial length of cornea
B. Smoking B. Corneal thickness
C. Trauma C. Thickness of the lens
D. Recurrent episodes of diarrhoea D. Corneal curvature
36. Cataract is responsible for what percentage of 45. Modern IQL is not made up of:
blindness in India: A. Acrylic acid
A. 62% B. PMMA
B. 55% C. Silicon
C. 80% D. Glass
D. 75% 46. Second sight phenomenon is seen in:
A. Nuclear cataract
37. Most common complication of extracapsular
B. Cortical cataract
cataract surgery is:
C. Senile cataract
A. Retinal detachment D. Iridocyclitis
B. Opacification of posterior capsule
C. Vitreous haemorrhage 47. A child has got a congenital cataract involving the
D. Bullous keratopathy visual axis which was detected by the parents right
at birth. This child should be operated:
38. Dislocation of lens is seen in: A. Immediately
A. Retinoblastoma B. At 2 months of age
B. Medulloblastoma C. At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal
C. Neuroblastoma sized
D. None of the above D. After 4 years when entire ocular and orbital
growth becomes normal
39. In a patient, highest visual morbidity is seen in: 48. Best site for IOL implant is:
A. Nuclear cataract A. Endocapsular
B. Intumescent cataract B. Scleral fixation
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract C. Anterior chamber
D. Anterior subcapsular cataract D. Iris claw implant
40. Commonest type of cataract is: 49. Congenital morgagnian cataract is a feature of:
A. Blue dot A. Rubella cataract
B. Zonular B. Lowe’s syndrome
C. Cupuliform C. Hereditory cataract
D. Cuneiform D. Galactosemic cataract
32 : C 33 : A 34 : A 35 : B 36 : A 37 : B 41 : C 42 : C 43 : B 44 : D 45 : D 46 : A
38 : A 39 : C 40 : A 47 : A 48 : A 49 : A
Diseases of Lens 75
50. IOL preferred in children in: 58. Which of the following is the most important
A. Foldable acrylic lens factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis
B. Foldable silicon lens in cataract surgery?
C. Three piece PMMA lens A. Preoperative preparation with povidone iodine
D. Single piece PMMA lens B. One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery
C. Trimming of eyelashes
51. The capsule of the crystalline lens is thinnest at: D. Use of intravitreal antibiotics
A. Anterior pole
B. Posterior pole 59. A patient presents to the emergency department
with uniocular diplopia. Examination with
C. Equator
oblique illumination shows golden crescent while
D. None
examination with co-axil illumination show a dark
52. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from: crescent line. Which of the following is the most
A. Blood vessels likely diagnosis:
B. Connective tissue A. Lenticonus
C. Aqueous and vitreous B. Coloboma
D. Zonules C. Microspherophakia
D. Ectopia lentis
53. The major function of major intrinsic protein-26 60. In Mafan’s syndrome lens dislocation is commonly
(MIP-26) is: seen:
A. Glucose transport in lens A. Upwards
B. Transport of water in lens B. Downwards
C. Diffusion barrier C. Supero-temporally
D. Capsule of lens D. Nasally
54. Most common type of congenital cataract is: 61. Which of the following is the only reversible
cataract:
A. Capsular
A. Senile cataract
B. Zonular B. Cataract in galactosemia
C. Coralliform C. Congenital cataract
D. Blue dot D. None
55. In Cataract, spectacles are advised for following 62. Minimum vision loss with which cataract:
number of weeks after operation: A. Blue dot cataract
A. 6 weeks B. Zonular cataract
B. 10 weeks C. Anterior polar cataract
C. 12 weeks D. Posterior polar cataract
D. 14 weeks 63. In preoperative assessment of cataract patient
following is to be done:
56. Which laser is used in the management of after A. Axial length of eyeball
cataracts: B. Corneal thickness
A. Argon C. Keratometry
B. Krypton D. Thickness of the lens
C. Nd-YAG E. Corneal curvature
D. Excimer
64. Modern IOL is:
A. Acrylic acid
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS B. PMMA
C. PML
57. An infant present with bilateral white pupillary D. Silicon
reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of E. Glass
opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus
with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely 65. Complications of cataract surgery:
diagnosis is: A. Endophthalmitis
A. Cataracto Centralis Pulverulenta B. Optic neuropathy
B. Lamellar cataract C. Retinal detachment
C. Coronary cataract D. Vitreous loss
D. Posterior polar cataract E. Lagophthalmos
50 : A 51 : B 52 : C 53 : B 54 : D 55: A 58 : A 59 : D 60 : C 61 : B 62 : A
56 : C 57 : B 63 : A, C and E 64 : A, B and D 65 : A, C and D
76 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
66 : A 67 : A, C, D 68 : A>B>C>D 69 : B 70 : A
CHAPTER
9
Glaucoma
• Trabeculotomy is required when corneal clouding • Tubular vision with a temporal island of vision
prevents visualization of angle for goniotomy. • Advanced field loss with a temporal island of vision
• Combined trabeculotomy and trabeculectomy (with only
antifibrotic treatment) is nowadays the preferred • Complete loss of vision.
sugery with better results. Ocular associations
PRIMARY OPEN-ANGLE GLAUCOMA (POAG) High myopia, Fuchs’ endothelial dystrophy, retinitis
Predisposing and risk factors
pigmentosa, central retinal vein occlusion and
primary retinal detachment.
1. Heredity: POAG has a polygenic inheritance. The Diagnosis
approximate risk of getting disease in siblings is 10
percent and in offspring is about 4 percent. 1. Established POAG: IOP more than 23 mmHg
associated with definite disc cupping and visual
2. Age: Affects 1 in 100 of population over 40 years
field defects.
of age. Risk increases in 50–70 years of age.
2. Glaucoma suspect or ocular hypertension. IOP
3. High myopes are more predisposed than the
more than 23 mmHg with no disc changes or visual
emmetropes.
field defects. These cases should be treated as cases
4. Other risk factors include thyrotoxicosis, of POAG under following circumstances:
diabetes mellitus, and cigarette smoking. • Significant diurnal variation (more than 8 mmHg)
Signs
• Significantly positive water drinking provocative
test (more than 8 mmHg)
1. IOP changes: Initially there is exaggeration of • More than 0.2 asymmetry of cup-disc ratio in two
the normal diurnal variation. A difference of more eyes
than 6 mmHg is suspicious and over 8 is diagnostic • Splinter haemorrhages over or near the disc
(normal below 5). In later stages IOP is permanently • Family history of glaucoma
raised and ranges between 30 and 45 mmHg. • IOP constantly more than 30 mmHg
2. Optic disc changes: Normal cup/disc ratio is 0.3. • Diabetic and highly myopic patients.
Asymmetry of more than 0.2 between two eyes and/ 3. Low tension glaucoma (LTG) or normal tension
or notching of the neural rim is suspicious. Marked glaucoma: IOP less than 21 mmHg with typical disc
cupping (0.7 to 0.9) may occur in advanced cases. and/or visual field defects.
• Nasal shift of blood vessels at the disc with
Treatment
appearance of being broken at the margin
(Bayoneting sign) I. Medical therapy
• NRR thinning/notching a. Topical treatment is the treatment of choice for
• Laminar dot sign POAG in both eyes
• Increased pallor (area of disc lacking small vessels) • Topical prostaglandin analogues are the first drugs
• Haemorrhages on the disc or disc margin
of choice (increase uveoscleral aqueous outflow)
• Glaucomatous optic atrophy (white and deeply
(latanoprost, bimatoprost, travoprost)
excavated disc) is the end result.
• Topical beta blockers decrease aqueous secretion
3. Visual field defects: These run parallel to the from ciliary epithelium and are of second choice.
optic disc changes and progress in the following • Alpha agonists, non-selective, e.g. epinephrine and
sequence: dipivefrine, increase uveoscleral aqueous outflow.
• Baring of blind spot (earliest field defect) Selective alpha 2 agonists, e.g. apraclonidine and
• Paracentral scotoma between 10 and 20 degrees of brimonidine decrease aqueous outflow.
visual field (Bjerrum’s area). It is the earliest clinical • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. dorzolamide,
significant field defect. acetazolamide and brinzolamide decrease
• Seidel’s sign (sickle-shaped extension of blind spot) aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3.
• Arcuate or Bjerrum’s scotoma • Cholinomimetics, e.g. pilocarpine, physostigmine,
• Ring or double arcuate scotoma carbachol,echothiophate increase aqueous
• Roenne’s central nasal step outflow by opening of trabecular meshwork due
• Peripheral nasal step of Roenne’s to ciliary muscle contraction.
Glaucoma 79
b. Systemic therapy consists of carbonic anhydrase • Emotional stress
inhibitors (acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, metha • Use of mydriatics (atropine).
zolamide), and hyperosmotic agents, e.g. mannitol
Clinical stages/Classifications
and glycerol which reduce the vitreous volume.
New classification (2006) of PAC disease is as
II. Argon or diode laser trabeculoplasty below:
When treatment with antiglaucoma medications
fails, laser trabeculoplasty is indicated. 1. Primary angle closure suspect (PACS) is
diagnosed when gonioscopy reveals iridotrabecular
III. Surgery (filtration surgery) contact in >270° angle and no peripheral anterior
Most common surgery is trabeculectomy. synechia with normal IOP, optic disc and visual
Note: POAG is a bilateral condition. Treatment of fields. Impression: the angle is at risk.
fellow eye is the same. 2. Primary angle closure (PAC) is characterized by:
• > 270° iridotrabecular contact on gonioscopy
PRIMARY ANGLE-CLOSURE GLAUCOMA (PACG)
• IOP elevated and/or PAS present
Prevalence • Optic disc and visual fields normal.
There is a great ethnic variability in the prevalence Impression: Angle is abnormal either in function
of PACG. The ratio of POAG versus PACG reported (elevated IOP) and/or in structure (PAS +ve)
for different ethnic groups is as below:
Acute primary angle closure: Sudden rise in IOP
Ethnic group POAG : PACG
occurs due to total angle closure.
• European, African and
Hispanics 5 : 1 Surgical treatment is required after medical control
• Urban Chinese 1 : 2 of IOP
• Mongolians 1 : 3 • Peripheral iridectomy/laser iridotomy—when
• Indians 1 : 1 peripheral anterior synechiae (PAS) are formed
in less than 50 percent of the angle of anterior
Clinical features
chamber
A. Symptoms • Filtration surgery (e.g. Trabeculectomy)—when
• Severe pain, PAS are formed in more than 50 percent of the
• Associated with nausea and vomiting and
angle
• Colored halos seen.
• Peripheral iridectomy/laser iridotomy should also
B. Signs
be considered for the fellow eye.
• Pupil semidilated, vertically oval, fixed and non
reactive to bright light and 3. Primary angle closure glaucoma (PACG) is
• IOP increased. labeled when:
Etiology • Iridotrabecular contact is seen in >270° angle on
Predisposing factors gonioscopy
• PAS are formed
• Hypermetropic eyes with shallow anterior chamber
• IOP is elevated
• Eyes in which iris-lens diaphragm is placed
• Optic disc and visual fields show typical glauco
anteriorly
matous damage.
• Eyes with narrow angle of anterior chamber due
to small eyeball, relative large crystalline lens or PACG may develop as a sequelae to subacute
bigger size of the ciliary body or actue PAC or due to gradual and progressive
• Plateau iris configuration (creeping) synechial angle closure.
• Sex; Male : Female is 1 : 3 Absolute glaucoma—In this end stage, the eye is
• Nervous personality with unstable vasomotor painful, completely blind, and IOP is very high.
system
• Positive family history SECONDARY GLAUCOMAS
• Usually fifth or sixth decade of life.
1. Lens-induced glaucomas
Precipitating factors for acute PAC
• Phacomorphic : IOP is raised due to secondary angle
• Dim illumination closure and/or pupil block by lens intumescence
80 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
or, anterior subluxation or dislocation of lens or 5. Glaucoma associated with intraocular tumours
spherophakia. Intraocular tumours such as retinoblastoma and
• Phacolytic: An acute secondary open-angle malignant melanoma may raise IOP by one or more
glaucoma due to clogging of trabecular meshwork of the following mechanisms:
by macrophages laden with lens proteins in a • Trabecular block by tumour cells
patient with hypermature cataract. • Neovascularization of the angle
• Lens particle glaucoma: It occurs due to trabecular • Venous stasis following obstruction to vortex veins.
blockage by the lens particles.
6. Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
• Phacoanaphylactic: It occurs due to sensitisation of
(Glaucoma capsulare)
eye or its fellow to lens proteins. IOP is raised due
to clogging of trabeculae by inflammatory material. • Pseudoexfoliative syndrome (PES) refers to
amyloid like deposits on pupillary border, anterior
2. Glaucomas due to uveitis lens surface, posterior surface of iris, zonules and
• Non-specific hypertensive uveitis: IOP is raised ciliary processes.
due to clogging by inflammatory material and • 70 percent cases of PES are associated with raised
associated trabeculitis. IOP (secondary open-angle glaucoma).
• Specific hypertensive uveitis syndromes: These • Other features and treatment are similar to POAG.
include: Fuchs’ uveitis syndrome and glauc- 7. Glaucoma in aphakia
omatocyclitic crisis.
It implies association of glaucoma with aphakia.
• Post-inflammatory glaucoma: It may result from
annular synechiae, occlusiopupillae, angle closure Causes
following iris bombe formation or angle closure due • Raised IOP due to postoperative hyphaema,
to organisation of the inflammatory debris. inflammation, vitreous filling the anterior chamber
3. Pigmentary glaucoma • Angle closure due to flat anterior chamber
• Pupil block with or without angle closure
• About 35 percent of patients with pigment dis • Undiagnosed pre-existing POAG
persion syndrome develop pigmentary glaucoma. • Steroid-induced glaucoma
• Bilateral condition, typically affecting young • Epithelial ingrowth
myopic males. • Aphakic malignant glaucoma.
• Glaucomatous features are similar to POAG
with associated pigment deposition on corneal 8. Steroid-induced glaucoma
endothelium (Krukenberg’s spindle), trabecular • Roughly, 5 percent of general population is high
meshwork, iris, lens and zonules. steroid responder (develop marked rise of IOP after
about 6 weeks of steroid therapy), 35 percent are
4. Neovascular glaucoma
moderate and 60 percent are non-responders
• Rubeosis iridis • Pathogenesis: Probably mucopolysaccharides are
• It results due to formation of a neovascular deposited in the trabecular meshwork
membrane involving angle of the anterior chamber. • Features are similar to POAG.
• Usually, stimulus to new vessel formation is
Management
retinal ischaemia as seen in diabetic retinopathy,
CRVO, Eales’ disease. Other rare causes are • Can be prevented by judicious use of steroids
chronic uveitis, intraocular tumours, old retinal • IOP may normalise in 98 percent of cases within
detachment, “CRAO”(known as 100 day glaucoma) 10 days to 4 weeks of discontinuation of steroids
and retinopathy of prematurity • Medical therapy with 0.5% timolol maleate is
• Neovascularisation begins at pupil and spreads effective during normalization period
centrifugally • Filtration surgery is required in intractable cases.
9. Ciliary block glaucoma (Malignant glaucoma)
Management includes: Panretinal photo
coagulation to prevent stimulus to new vessel Also known as ciliovitreal block or aqueous mis
formation direction syndrome.
• Glaucoma implant (e.g. Molteno tube) operation • It can occur as a complication of any intraocular
• Cyclocryotherapy. operation.
Glaucoma 81
• Classically, it occurs following peripheral iridectomy • Congenital anomaly most commonly associated
or filtration operation for primary narrow-angle with buphthalmos is facial haemangiomas.
glaucoma. • refers to heavy pigment
• Pathogenesis involves ciliolenticular or ciliovitreal deposition in a line above Schwalbe’s line in the
block. angle of anterior chamber (a feature of exfoliative
Clinical Features glaucoma).
• Vogt’s triad includes glaukomflecken (anterior
• Persistent flat anterior chamber with negative
subcapsular lenticular opacity), patches of iris
Seidel’s test
atrophy and slightly dilated nonreacting pupil
• Markedly raised IOP
• May be phakic, aphakic or pseudophakic (due to sphincter atrophy); seen in the eye
• Vortex veins seen in malignant melanoma. which has suffered an attack of acute congestive
glaucoma.
Management • Pilocarpine and other miotics are contraindicated
1. Medical therapy (is useful in about 50 percent in inflammatory glaucoma, malignant glaucoma
cases): and glaucoma due to spherophakia.
a. Atropine eye drops • Most preferred site for filtering operation is superior
b. Acetazolamide 250 mg TDS nasal quadrant.
c. 0.5% Timolol maleate eye drops BD • Pilocarpine in angle closure glaucoma should be
2. Surgical therapy: Anterior vitrectomy and used after control of IOP by aqueous suppressant
injection of air in the anterior chamber. and hyperosmotic agents.
Note: YAG laser hyaloidotomy is also used as a • Argon laser trabeculoplasty is only the adjuvant to
treatment modalities. medical therapy of primary open-angle glaucoma.
10. Glaucoma associated with intraocular
• Miotics are not useful in a buphthalmos, aphakic
haemorrhage glaucoma, glaucomatocyclitic crisis, glaucoma
inversus and in epidemic dropsy glaucoma.
• Haemolytic glaucoma: Acute open-angle glaucoma
• Secondary glaucoma after perforation of the cornea
which occurs due to obstruction of the trabecular
is due to blockage of the drainage angle by anterior
meshwork by macrophages laden with lysed RBC
synechiae.
debris after hyphaema.
• Ghost cell glaucoma: It occurs in aphakic eyes • In acute-congestive glaucoma, the choice of surgery
with vitreous haemorrhage. RBCs converted into between peripheral iridectomy and filtering
Khaki coloured ghost cells block the trabecular operation is decided by gonioscopic examination.
meshwork. • Single most important test in diagnosing POAG and
• Red cell glaucoma: Caused by blockage of trabecular response to treatment is visual field testing.
meshwork by RBCs following massive hyphaema. • Earliest and most constant symptom in infantile
• Haemosiderotic glaucoma: It occurs due to sclerotic glaucoma is lacrimation.
changes in trabecular meshwork induced by iron • Latanoprost: PGF2alpha.
from the haemoglobin. – Uses: Uveoscleral pathway (only drug)
– DOC of open angle glaucoma.
11. Glaucoma associated with iridocorneal-
– Most potent antiglaucoma.
endothelial (ICE) syndromes
– DOC of low tension glaucoma.
• ICE syndromes include progressive iris atrophy, • Safest antiglaucoma/drug of choice in children is
corneal edema, Chandler’s syndrome and Cogan- dorzolamide.
Reese syndrome.
• Antiglaucoma drugs causing blepherocon
• IOP is raised due to endothelial membrane lining
junctivitis
the trabecular meshwork.
– Latanoprost (clinically significant and most
Histopathology: Collagen deposit on posterior common)
surface of Descemet’s membrane. – Timolol
– Dipiverfrine
MISCELLANEOUS POINTS • Increased IOP in glaucoma damages retinal
• Commonest hazard following surgery of narrow ganglion cells (RGC).
angle glaucoma is malignant glaucoma. • Nasal field first to be damaged and temporal last.
82 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
• Diffused iris melanoma causes intractable • Inverse glaucoma: Pilocarpine causes paradoxical
secondary glaucoma. rise in IOP.
• In epidemic dropsy, wide angle glaucoma is • Well–Marchesani syndrome is associated with
associated with raised levels of histamine , spherophakia
prostaglandin and proteins (hypersecretary
Mnemonic (5S)
glaucoma)
• Fincham’s test is used to differentiate the halos of Short
PACG and immature cataract, in this stenopaeic Stubby finger
slit is passed across the pupil, glaucomatous halos Stupid
remains intact while halos due to cataract are Spherophakia
broken into segments. Subluxation.
Glaucoma 83
1. Normal aqueous production rate is about: 7. Retinal nerve fibres most sensitive to glaucomatous
A. 2 l/min damage are:
B. 2.3 µl/min A. Superior and inferior arcuate fibres
C. 2.6 µl/min B. Macular fibres
D. 2.9 µl/min C. Superior radiating fibres
2. Trabecular (conventional) outflow of aqueous D. Inferior radiating fibres
humour accounts for: 8. Incidence of primary open-angle glaucoma in
A. 90 percent
population over 40 years of age is about:
B. 80 percent
A. 1 in 100
C. 70 percent
B. 1 in 200
D. 60 percent
C. 1 in 500
3. Incidence of congenital glaucoma is: D. 1 in 1000
A. 1 in 1000 births
B. 1 in 5000 births 9. Sickle-shaped extension of blind spot is known
C. 1 in 10,000 births as:
D. 1 in 34,000 births A. Bjerrum’s sign
B. Seidel’s sign
4. In normal diurnal variation, intraocular pressure
C. Down’s sign
is:
D. Baring of blind spot
A. Highest on awakening and lowest during evening
B. Lowest during morning and highest during 10. Ocular associations of primary open-angle
evening glaucoma include all except:
C. Highest in the morning and evening
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Lowest in the morning and evening
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
5. Normal diurnal variation of intraocular pressure C. Retinal detachment
is: D. Retinitis pigmentosa
A. 0-2 mm of Hg
11. Vogt’s triad is indicative of:
B. 2-3 mm of Hg
C. 3-6 mm of Hg A. Past attack of herpes zoster ophthalmicus
D. 6-8 mm of Hg B. Past attack of acute-angle closure glaucoma
C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
6. In indentation tonometry: D. Past attack of acute iridocyclitis
A. Plunger indents a hard eye more than a soft eye
B. Lower scale readings are obtained in high 12. Glaukomflecken is a feature of:
intraocular pressure A. Acute narrow-angle glaucoma
C. Low scleral rigidity gives high reading of B. Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma
intraocular pressure C. Juvenile glaucoma
D. All of the above D. Phacolytic glaucoma
1 : B 2 : A 3 : C 4 : A 5 : C 6 : B 7 : A 8 : A 9 : B 10 : B 11 : B 12 : A
84 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
13. In the incidence of primary angle closure 21. The most characteristic visual field change in
glaucoma, male to female ratio is: primary open-angle glaucoma is:
A. 1:1 A. Nerve fibre bundle defect
B. 1:2 B. Enlargement of blind spot
C. 1:3 C. Generalised constriction of field
D. 1:4 D. Sector-shaped defects
22. All of the following are true about pigmentary
14. The earliest clinically significant field defect in glaucoma except:
primary open-angle glaucoma is: A. It occurs more often in young myopic men
A. Paracentral scotoma B. Iris transillumination defects are noted
B. Baring of blind spot C. It is associated with Krukenberg’s spindle
C. Seidel’s scotoma D. The intensity of pigment deposit in the angle is
D. Isopter contraction related to iris colour
15. All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except: 23. Epinephrine:
A. Intraocular tumour A. Reduces aqueous production
B. Reduces outflow facility
B. Central retinal vein occlusion
C. Reduces aqueous production and increases
C. Diabetic retinopathy
outflow facility
D. Central serous retinopathy D. Increases aqueous production and reduces
16. Krukenberg’s spindle seen in patients with outflow facility
pigmentary glaucoma refers to deposition of 24. Treatment of malignant glaucoma is:
pigment on: A. Pilocarpine
A. Trabecular meshwork (gonioscopic sign) B. Cyclocryotherapy
B. Back of cornea C. Vitreous aspiration
C. Anterior surface of the lens D. Trabeculectomy
D. All of the above 25. Neovascular glaucoma may be associated with all
of the following except:
17. In Fincham’s test:
A. Diabetes
A. Glaucomatous halo remains intact B. Hypertension
B. Halo due to immature cataract does not break C. Central retinal vein occlusion
into segments D. Intraocular tumours
C. Halo due to mucopurulent conjunctivitis is
broken into segments 26. Primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with
D. All of the above all of the following except:
A. Diabetes mellitus
18. All are the features of an acute attack of primary B. Myopia
narrow-angle glaucoma except: C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Pars planitis
A. Intraocular pressure is raised up to 940-70 mm
of Hg 27. Cupping of the disc is not a feature of:
B. Eye is red, painful and tender A. Buphthalmos
C. Disc shows glaucomatous cupping B. Chronic simple glaucoma
D. Fellow eye also shows shallow anterior chamber C. Acute congestive glaucoma
D. Megalocornea
19. In Indian population ratio of POAG : PACG is:
A. 4:1 28. Inverse glaucoma occurs in:
B. 2:1 A. Spherophakia
C. 1:1 B. Lenticonus
C. Subluxated lens
D. 1:2 .
D. All of the above
20. All of the following can precipitate the attack of 29. Lowe’s syndrome is characterized by all except:
narrow angle except: A. Glaucoma
A. Prolonged prone position B. Albuminuria
B. Mydriatics C. Glycosuria
C. Prolonged work in bright light D. Oligoammonuria
D. Emotional upsets E. Retinal detachment
13 : D 14 : A 15 : D 16 : B 17 : A 18 : C 21 : A 22 : D 23 : C 24 : C 25 : B 26 : D
19 : C 20 : C 27 : D 28 : A 29 : E
Glaucoma 85
30. All the following can be seen in Axenfeld’s 39. The most reliable provocative test for angle-
anomaly, except: closure glaucoma is:
A. Posterior embryotoxon A. Homatropine mydriatic test
B. Iris synechiae to Schwalbe’s line B. Mydriatic-miotic test
C. Ectopia of the lens C. Water drinking test
D. Glaucoma D. Dark room test
31. All the following are true concerning Rieger’s 40. Which of the following types of senile cataract is
syndrome except: the most notorious to produce glaucoma:
A. Autosomal recessive inheritance
A. Incipient cataract
B. Glaucoma
B. Lamellar cataract
C. The possible presence of facial, dental and
osseous defects C. Hypermature Morgagnian cataract
D. The spectrum of Axenfeld’s anomaly and marked D. Intumescent cataract
abnormal development of the iris mesoderm. 41. All of the following anatomical changes will
32. In chronic simple glaucoma the most common field predispose to primary-angle-closure glaucoma
defect is: except:
A. Arcuate field defect A. Small cornea
B. Baring of blind spot B. Flat cornea
C. Bjerrum scotoma C. Anterior chamber shallow
D. Siedel’s sign D. Short axial length of eyeball
33. Treatment of malignant glaucoma includes all 42. Argon laser trabeculoplasty is used in:
except: A. Closed-angle glaucoma
A. Topical atropine B. Primary open-angle glaucoma
B. Topical pilocarpine C. Neovascular glaucoma
C. IV mannitol D. Aphakic glaucoma
D. Vitreous aspiration
43. In buphthalmos, lens is:
34. The earliest change in glaucoma is:
A. Anteroposterior flat
A. Papilloedema
B. Small
B. Hazy cornea
C. Large
C. Baring of the blind spot
D. Sickle scotoma D. None of the above
35. Neovascular glaucoma can occur in all except: 44. First sign seen in open-angle glaucoma is:
A. Diabetes mellitus A. Arcuate scotoma
B. Hypertension B. Extension above blind spot
C. CRAO C. Roene’s nasal step
D. CRVO D. Siedel’s scotoma
36. Coloured haloes are found in all except: 45. Congenital glaucoma presents as:
A. Pigmentary glaucoma A. Microphthalmos
B. Acute-angle-closure glaucoma B. Photophobia
C. Cataract C. Leucocoria (white reflex)
D. Uveitis D. Pain
37. Secondary glaucoma following corneal perforation 46. In a hypertensive patient with glaucoma which of
is due to: the following is not used:
A. Central anterior synechiae formation
A. Dipivefrine
B. Peripheral anterior synechiae
B. Alpha blocker
C. Intraocular haemorrhage
D. Angle recession C. Alpha agonist
D. Laser trabeculoplasty
38. In haemolytic glaucoma the mechanisms are all
except: 47. Schwalbe’s ring corresponds to:
A. Siderosis of trabeculae A. Corneal endothelium
B. Deposition of haemosiderin B. Descemet’s membrane
C. RBC clogging the trabeculae C. Schlemm’s canal
D. Inflammation D. Ciliary body
30 : C 31 : A 32 : B 33 : B 34 : C 35 : B 39 : D 40 : D 41 : B 42 : B 43 : A 44 : B
36 : D 37 : B 38 : D 45 : B 46 : A 47 : B
86 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
52. Which of the following is primary glaucoma: 59. Treatment option for glaucoma includes all except:
A. Juvenile glaucoma A. Trabeculectomy
B. Steriod induced glaucoma B. Trabeculotomy
C. Pigmentary glaucoma C. Vitrectomy
D. Congenital glaucoma D. Viscoanulostomy
E. Infantile glaucoma E. Iridectomy
53. In POAG (primary open angle glaucoma) which is 60. False statement about depth of anterior chamber:
not seen: A. Less in women than men
A. Horizontal cupping B. Correspondent to volume of anterior chamber
B. Bayonetting sign (crossing of vessels) C. Increase with age
C. Macular oedema D. More in myopes
D. Dot sign E. Less in hypermetropes
54. A patient presents with H/o evening halos and
occasional headache for some months. His 61. Glaucomflecken is:
examination shows normal IOP but shallow AC. A. Acute uvetis due to glaucoma
He is in which stage of glaucoma: B. Lens opacity due to glaucoma
A. Acute C. Retinal detachment due to glaucoma
B. Absolute D. Corneal opacity due to glaucoma
10
Diseases of Vitreous
1 : A 2 : C 3 : B 4 : A 5 : B 6 : B
8 : C 9 : D 10 : E 11 : A 12 :C 13 : B
7:D
90 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
14. A 25-year-old male presents with painless sudden EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
loss of vision. Ocular and systemic examination
is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis. 15. Persistent primary hyperplastic vitreous (PHPV)
is associated with:
A. Retinal detachment
A. Patau syndrome
B. Eale’s disease B. Edward syndrome
C. Glaucoma C. Trisomy 14
D. Cataract D. Downs syndrome
14 : B 15 : A
CHAPTER
11
Diseases of Retina
• Arterioles become narrow and blood column Arterial reflex changes. Changes in normal reflex,
within the retinal vessels is segmented (Cattle- which is sharp and thin due to blood column under
track appearance). the transparent wall, include:
• Resuscitation time of the human retina following • Diffuse and loss bright reflex is seen due to
retinal ischaemia is 1½ hours. thickening of vessel wall.
Branch retinal artery occlusion (BRAO) • Copper wiring, i.e. reddish brown reflex occurs due
to progressive sclerosis and hyalinization.
• Occurs following lodgement of embolus at a • Silver wiring, i.e. opaque white reflex, occurs
bifurcation.
ultimately due to continued sclerosis.
• Retina distal to the occlusion becomes oedematous
with narrowing of arterioles. Superficial retinal haemorrhages, flame shaped,
• Later on involved area is atrophied leading to occur scattered, more around posterior pole.
permanent sectorial field defect.
Hard exudates, i.e. yellow waxy spots occur due to
Retinal vein occlusion lipid deposits. They are more seen on posterior pole
• Predisposing factors are hypertension, diabetes and may be arranged as macular fan or star.
mellitus, open-angle glaucoma, polycythemia, and Cotton wool spots, fluffy lesions, represent areas of
periphlebitis. infract in nerve fiber layer.
• Non-ischaemic central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
is most common variety (75%), characterised by Acute changes of hypertension
mild to moderate visual loss. About 15% cases of Acute hypertensive retinopathy changes includes
nonischaemic CRVO are converted to ischaemic • Marked arteriolar narrowing due to spasm
CRVO in 4 months and about 30% in 3 years. • Superficial retinal haemorrhages, flame shaped,
• Ischaemic central retinal vein occlusion is arranged in clusters.
characterised by much more marked signs and Keith Wegner grading of hypertensive retinopathy
symptoms than non-ischaemic CRVO.
• Fundus changes include tortuous and engorged Grade I: Mild generalized narrowing of arterioles
veins, scattered retinal haemorrhages, cotton wool Grade II: Marked generalized narrowing plus focal
spots, and unilateral disc changes (Blood and constriction of arterioles with deflection of the vein
thunder fundus appearance) at arteriovenous crossing (Salu’s sign)
• Complications. Rubeosis iridis and neovascular Grade III: Grade II changes plus copper wiring of
glaucoma (NVG) occurs in more than 50 percent arterioles, Bonnet sign, Gunn sign, Salu’s sign along
cases within 3 months, vitreous haemorrhage, and with haemorrhages, cotton wool spots and hard
proliferative retinopathy. exudates.
• Differential diagnosis of CRVO, most important,
Grade IV: Grade III changes plus silver wiring and
is ocular ischemic syndrome. Veins are dilated in
papilledema.
both, but veins are tortuous in CRVO.
• Branch retinal vein occlusion: the superotemporal Retinopathy in toxaemia of pregnancy
branch is the most commonly affected (33%). • Earliest changes consist of narrowing of nasal
arterioles followed by generalised narrowing.
HYPERTENSIVE RETINOPATHY • Advent of hypoxic changes (cotton wool spots,
Chronic hypertensive retinopathy haemorrhages and retinal oedema) should be
Generalized narrowing of arterioles which may be considered an indication for termination of
mild or moderate. pregnancy.
Focal arteriolar narrowing is seen as area of
localized vasoconstriction on the disc or within. DIABETIC RETINOPATHY
1. Congenital anomalies of the optic disc include all 7. Risk factors for development of diabetic retino
except: pathy include:
A. Coloboma A. Duration of diabetes
B. Drusen B. Heredity
C. Hypoplasia C. Pregnancy
D. Medullated nerve fibres D. All of the above
1 : D 2 : B 3 : B 4 : D 5 : B 6:D 7 : D 8 : D 9 : C 10 : D 11 : C 12 : A
102 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
30 : C 31 : B 32 : D 33 : C 34 : C 35 : C 39 : D 40 : B 41 : B 42 : B 43 : B 44 : B
36 : B 37 : A 38 : B 45 : D 46 : B 47 : D
104 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
48 : C 49 : B 50 : C 51 : A 52 : B 53 : D 57 : A 58 : B 59 : D 60 : D 61 : B 62 : A
54 : C 55 : B 56 : A 63 : C 64 : A
Diseases of Retina 105
65. Pseudo-rosettes are seen in: EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Ophthalmic nodosa 75. Soft exudates are found in:
C. Phakolytic glaucoma A. DM
D. Trachoma
B. HTN
66. Knudson’s hypothesis is applied for: C. Toxemia
A. Glaucoma D. Coat’s disease
B. Retinoblastoma E. All
C. Cataract
D. Melanoma 76. Hard exudates not seen in:
A. Hypertension
67. True about fovea centralis: B. DM
A. Cones present
C. Toxemia of pregnancy
B. Visual acquity lowest
D. SLE
C. Optic nerve passes
D. Rods present E. Coat’s disease
E. Visual acquity highest 77. Hard exudates are seen in all except:
68. Broadest neuroretinal rim is seen in: A. Diabetic retinopathy
A. Sup role B. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Inf pole C. Eale’s disease
C. Nasal pole D. Retinal artery macroaneurysm
D. Temporal lobe E. Choroidal neovascularisation
69. Cherry red spot is seen in: 78. Cherry red spot found in:
A. Eale’s disease A. Gangliosidosis
B. Retinitis pigmentosa B. Retinopathy of prematurity
C. Central retinal artery thrombosis
C. Tay–Sach’s disease
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. Gaucher’s disease
70. All of the following take part in the pathogenesis E. Retinal detachment
of macular edema in diabetic retinopathy except:
A. Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunction 79. Features of non-proliferative DR is all except:
B. Oxidative stress A. Neovascularisation
C. VEGF B. Soft exudate
D. Increased protein kinase-C C. Hard exudate
D. Vitreous detachment
71. Vitreous haemorrhage in diabetic retinopathy
E. Cotton-wool spot
A. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Prolifertive diabetic retinopathy 80. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by:
C. Both A. Hard exudates
D. None B. Neovascularisation
72. Grid laser photocoagulation is indicated in: C. Glaucoma
A. Ischaemic maculopathy D. Cataract
B. Clinical significant macular oedema E. Retinal detachment
C. Macular hole
D. Proliferative diabetes retinopathy 81. Treatment of diabetic retinopathy
A. Phocoemulsification
73. Panretinal photocoagulation is indicated in: B. Retina laser photocoagulation
A. Macular edema C. LASIK
B. Retinal breaks D. Pars plana vitrectomy
C. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
D. Tractional retinal detachment 82. Treatment of diabetic retinopathy neovascula
74. In retinal detachment: risation is/are:
A. Effusion of fluid into the suprachoroidal space A. Retinal laser photocoagulation
B. Retinoschisis B. Pars plana vitrectomy
C. Separation of sensory retina from pigment C. Phacoemulsion
epithelium D. Anti VEGE ab
D. None of the above E. LASIK
83. Which of the following agents is not used in 91. A young adults presents with night blindness
the treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema/ and tubular vision. On examination, intraocular
Retinopathy: pressure was obser ved to be 18 mm and
A. Ruboxistaurim the anterior segment was unremarkable.
B. Pyridazinones Fundoscopy showed attenuation of arterioles
C. Benfotiamine and waxy pallor of the optic disc with bony
D. Tamoxifen corpuscles like spicules of pigmentation in mid
peripheral retina. Ring scotomas were observed
84. All of the following may be used to differentiate
central retinal venous occlusion (CRVO) from on perimetry. Which of the following is the most
ocular ischemic syndrome due to carotidartery likely diagnosis:
stenosis, except: A. Pigmentary retinal dystrophy
A. Dilated retinal vein B. Primary open angle glaucoma
B. Tortuous retinal vein C. Lattice degeneration of retina
C. Retinal artery pressure D. Diabetic retinopathy.
D. Ophthalmodynamometry 92. A 70-year-old man presents with deterioration
85. Commonest type of retinal detachment: of vision 3 weeks after cataract extraction
A. Rheugmatogenous and IOL implantation. Slit lamp examination
B. Choroidal haemorrhage shows honeycomb maculopathy and fluorescin
C. Exudative a n g i o g r a p h y ( FA ) s h o w s ‘ f l o w e r p e t a l ’
D. Tractional hyperfluorescence. The most likely diagnosis
is:
86. Retinal detachment seen in: A. Age related macular degeneration (ARMD)
A. Myopia B. Central serous retinopathy (CSR)
B. Hypermetropia C. Macular dystrophy
C. Eale’s disease D. Cystoid macular edema
D. Cataract extraction
E. Nd:YAG photocoagulation 93. Bull’s eye lesion seen with:
A. Chloroquine
87. Cause of exudative retinal detachment are: B. Dapsone
A. Scleritis C. Rifampicin
B. Toxaemia of pregnancy D. Ethambutol
C. Dysthyroid eye disease E. Gold
D. Central serous retinopathy
E. Sickle cell retinopathy 94. A patient with clinically significant diabetic
macular edema with non progressive diabetic
88. Causes of exudative retinal detachment: retinopathy was treated with non-progressive
A. Central retinal artery occlusion diabetic retinopathy was treated with Macular
B. Hypertensive retinopathy grid photocoagulation. The patient still has vitreo
C. Harada’s syndrome macular traction. What is the preferred treatment?
D. Coat’s disease A. Intravitreal bevacizumab
89. RD is diagnosed by: B. Pars plana vitrectomy
A. +90 D C. Repeat macular grid photocoagulation
B. Hurby lens D. Augmented macular photocoagulation
C. 3 mirror contact lens
95. Mizuo-phenomenon is seen in:
D. Direct ophthalmoscopy
E. Indirect ophthalmoscopy A. Fundus albipathicus
B. Fundus flavimaculatus
90. A patient presented with sudden onset of floater C. Oguchi’s disease
and perception of falling of a curtain (veil) in front D. Choroideremia
of the eye which one of the following is the most
appropriate diagnosis: 96. Which retinal layer is most radioresistant:
A. Retinal detachment A. RPE
B. Eale’s disease B. Layer of rods and cones
C. Vitreous haemorrhage C. Bipolar cell layer
D. Glaucoma D. Ganglion cell layer
83 : D 84 : A 85 : A 86 : A, C and D 87 : A, B and D
91 : A 92 : D 93 : A 94 : B 95 : C 96 : B
88 : C and D 89 : A, B, C, D and E 90 : A
Diseases of Retina 107
97. ‘Sea-Fan’ retina is seen in: C. Sub-retinal neovascularization
A. CRAO D. Anterior chamber angle malformation
B. SLE
105. Vortex Vein invasion is commonly seen in:
C. Sickle cell disease
A. Retinoblastoma
D. Gaucher’s disease.
B. Malignant melanoma
98. Central retinal artery occlusion is known to be C. Optic nerve glioma
associated with: D. Medullo-epithelioma
A. Panophthalmitis
106. All of them are true except:
B. Diabetic retinopathy
A. Retiniblastomas are hereditry 40%, non-
C. CMV retinitis
D. Orbital mucormycosis. hereditary 60%
B. Retiniblastomas are B/L 30%, U/L 70%
99. Lamina cribrosa is absent in: C. Retiniblastomas are familial 6%, non-familial
A. Morning glory syndrome 94%
B. Nanophthalmia D. All are true.
C. Colobama of retina
D. Optic nerve agenesis 107. Which is the only phacomatosis to be inherited on
an autosomal recessive basis:
100. A young patient presents to the ophthalmology A. Ataxia-telangiectasia
clinic with loss of central vision. There is no obvious B. Sturge-Weber syndrome
family history. ERG and EOG were observed to be C. von Hippel lindau syndrome
normal which of the following is the most likely D. Neurofibromatosis
diagnosis:
A. Stargardt’s disease 108. Which of these features is a classic radiologic
B. Best’s vitelliform dystrophy feature of optic nerve glioma:
C. Retinitis pigmentosa A. Tram-track appearance of optic nerve
D. Cone-rod dystrophy B. Kingking of optic nerve
C. Multiple cystic spaces in optic nerve
101. A young patient presents to the ophthalmology D. Adjacent bony erosion
clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but
EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the 109. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except:
most likely diagnosis: A. Refsum’s disease
A. Stargardt’s disease B. Hallervorden Spatz Syndrome
B. Best’s vitelliform dystrophy C. NARP
C. Retinitis pigmentosa D. Abetalipoprofeinemia
D. Cone-rod dystrophy
110. Bergmeister papilla are present on the:
102. A young patient present with significant loss A. Anterior corneal surface
of central vision and a normal ERG. There is no B. Near the optic disc
obvious family history of similar presentation. C. Anterior lens surface
The most likely diagnosis: D. Posterior lens surface
A. Best’s disease
B. Stargardt’s disease 111. Which of the following is not an ophthalmic
C. Retinitis pigmentosa emergency:
D. Cone-rod dystrophy A. Macular hole
103. Von Recklinghausen disease is associated with: B. Retinal Detachment
A. Glaucoma C. CRAO
B. Optic nerve glioma D. Acute primary angle closure glaucoma
C. Neurofibroma of the lids 112. Marfan’s syndrome associated with a/e:
D. All of them
A. Retinal detachment
104. Von Recklinghausen disease is associated with: B. Viteroius hemorrhage
A. Glaucoma C. Ectopic lentis
B. Choroidal hemangioma D. Roth spots
12
Neuro-ophthalmology
• Tumour of cerebellum, midbrain and parieto- 2. Consecutive optic atrophy: It occurs following
occipital region produce papilloedema more destruction of the ganglion cells secondary to
rapidly. degenerative or inflammatory lesions of the
• Tumour of medulla rarely produce papilloedema. choroid and retina. Its common causes are retinitis
• Foster kennedy syndrome characterized by pressure pigmentosa, diffuse chorioretinitis, pathological
optic atrophy on the side of lesion and papilloedema myopia and occlusion of central retinal artery.
on the otherside is a feature of olfactory groove Its ophthalmoscopic features include: yellow
meningioma and frontal lobe tumours. waxy colour, not so sharply defined margins and
• Pathogenesis of papilloedema involves attenuation of vessels.
Due to disturbance of pressure gradient across 3. Postneuritic optic atrophy: It develops as a
the lamina cribosa sequel to long-standing papilloedema or papillitis.
↓ The disc looks dirty white in colour, its edges are
Stasis of Axoplamic in prelaminar area blurred, physiological cup is obliterated, lamina
↓ cribrosa is not visible, vessels are attenuated and
Axonal swelling perivascular sheathing is often present.
↓
Venous congestion 4. Glaucomatous optic atrophy: It results due
↓ to the effect of raised intraocular pressure. It is
Extra-cellular edema characterised by deep and wide cupping of the
optic disc and nasal shift of the vessels.
Clinical features
• Vision is normal initially 5. Vascular (ischaemic) optic atrophy: It results
• Typically, there is recurring brief episodes from the conditions producing disc ischaemia
(transient) of visual obscuration (Amaurosis fugax) (other than glaucoma) such as: central retinal artery
• Initially there is enlargement of blind spot and occlusion, giant cell arteritis, severe haemorrhage,
progressive contraction of the visual field. severe anaemia and quinine poisoning. Its
• Thus, characteristically there is gradually ophthalmoscopic features are pallor associated
progressive painless loss of vision. with marked vascular attenuation.
Ophthalmoscopic findings Note:
• Blurring of optic disc margin in papilloedema first • Pallor of the disc in optic atrophy is not due to
of all involves nasal margins, followed by superior atrophy of the nerve fibres but due to loss of
and inferior margin and lastly temporal margin. vascularity.
• Venous engorgement and venous congestion • Pallor of the disc can not be correlated with the
• Loss of venous pulsations amount of visual loss.
• There is filling of physiological cup with gradual
obliteration of physiological cup SYMPTOMATIC DISTURBANCES OF THE VISION
• Paton’s lines: Radial retinal lines cascading from
Night blindness (Nyctalopia)
the optic disc.
Its common causes are: vitamin A deficiency, tape-
OPTIC ATROPHY to-retinal degenerations (e.g. retinitis pigmentosa),
1. Primary optic atrophy: It results from lesions congenital high myopia, and Oguchi’s disease.
proximal to the optic disc without antecedent Day blindness (Hamarlopia)
papilloedema. Its common causes are multiple
sclerosis, idiopathic retrobulbar neuritis, Leber’s Its causes are central corneal and central lenticular
and other hereditary optic atrophy, pituitary opacities and congenital deficiency of cones.
tumours, toxic amblyopia, tabes dorsalis and Colour blindness
trauma to the optic nerve.
Ophthalmoscopically, disc is chalky white in a. Congenital colour blindness:
colour, margins are well defined, lamina cribrosa It is an inherited condition affecting males more
is visible, retinal vessels and surrounding retina are (3-4%) than females (0.4%). It may be of following
normal. types:
Neuro-ophthalmology 111
i. Anomalous trichromatic colour vision: In this • Papilloedema
one of the primary colour i.e., red, green or blue is • Giant cell arteritis
defective and the condition is called protano malous, • Raynaud’s disease
deuteranomalous or tritanomalous, respectively. • Migraine
• Prodromal symptom of central retinal artery or
ii. Dichromatic colour vision: Here faculty to
carotid artery occlusion
percieve one of the three primary colours viz. red,
• Hypertensive retinopathy
green or blue is completely absent and the condition
• Venous stasis retinopathy.
is called protanopia, deuteranopia or tritanopia
respectively.
MISCELLANEOUS POINTS
iii. Blue cone Monochromatism (BCM): Here • Suprageniculate lesions of visual pathway usually
only hues of blue colour can be appreciated. It is produce visual field defects with macular sparing.
very rare condition. • Optic nerve lesions produce negative scotomas
iv. Achromatopsia: It refers to total colour blindness. whereas macular lesions cause positive scotoma.
It is an extremely rare condition occurring due to • Chromophobe adenoma is the most common
congenital absence of the cones. Therefore, it is primary intracranial tumour producing neuro
associated with day blindness and nystagmus. ophthalmological features.
• Gaze evoked amaurosis is seen in optic nerve
b. Acquired colour blindness sheath meningioma.
It may follow damage to macula or optic nerve, • Horner’s syndrome (lack of sympathetic inner
where red, green discrimination is particularly vation) is characterized by miosis, mild ptosis,
affected. Acquired blue colour defect may occur in mild enophthalmos, anhydrosis of the face on
old age due to increased sclerosis of the crystalline the affected side. Loss of cilio-spinal reflex and
lens. heterochromia (ipsilateral iris is of light colour).
Tests to confirm diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome
Tests for colour vision
are: dilation lag, and cocaine test (normal pupil
• Pseudoisochromatic charts dilates while Horner’s pupil does not dilate with
– Ishihara plates mainly to screen congenital topical cocaine).
protan and deuterons (i.e., red and green • The swelling of the optic disc in papillitis rarely
defects) exceeds 2-3D.
– Hardy- Rand- Rittler plates. • Scintilating scotoma is a feature of migraine.
• Edridge-Green lantern test • Unilateral central scotoma is the earliest symptom
• City university test. of compression of optic nerve.
• Fansworth Munsell 100 hue test (most sensitive) • Hippus (alternate rhythmatic dilation and constric
• Fansworth D 15 hue discrimination test tion of pupils) is a feature of multiple sclerosis.
• Nagel’s anomaloscope • Er ythropsia (red coloured vision) may be
• Holmgren’s wool test experienced by some patients after cataract
Note: Currently, there is no treatment for colour extraction.
blindness. • Pupil sparing, third nerve paralysis suggests a
Amaurosis medical cause (diabetes or hypertension). While
in surgical causes (aneurysm, tumour) pupil is also
A complete loss of sight in one or both eyes, in
invovled.
the absence of ophthalmoscopic or other marked
• The two most common ocular signs of myasthenia
objective signs.
gravis are ptosis and extraocular muscle weakness
Amaurosis fugax (paralytic squint).
A sudden, temporary (lasting 2-5 minutes) and • Neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease) may be
painless monocular visual loss occurring due to a associated with sudden bilateral blindness.
transient failure of retinal circulation. • Papillitis and retrobulbar neuritis : Painful ocular
movement is more common in retrobulbar neuritis
Common causes than papillitis and fundus is normal in retrobulbar
• Carotid transient ischaemic attacks (TIA) neuritis while papillitis has characteristic fundus
• Embolization of retinal circulation abnormalities.
112 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
1 : D 2 : B 3 : B 4 : D 5 : C 6:A 7 : A 8 : C 9 : A 10 : B 11 : C 12 : A
13 : A
Neuro-ophthalmology 113
14. Basic lesion in tobacco amblyopia is: C. Olfactory groove
A. Degeneration of ganglion cells especially of D. Orbital surface of frontal lobe
macular region
22. In optic atrophy pallor of the disc is an index of:
B. Degeneration of foveal cones
A. Degeneration of optic nerve fibres
C. Ischaemia of optic nerve fibres
B. Loss of vascularty of the disc
D. All of the above
C. Demyelination of the optic nerve fibres
15. Typical field defect observed in anterior ischaemic D. All of the above
optic neuropathy is: 23. Congenital colour blindness is transmitted as:
A. Altitudinal hemianopia A. Recessive disorder
B. Paracentral scotoma B. Autosomal dominant
C. Homonymous hemianopia C. Sex-linked disorder
D. Baring of the blind spot D. All of the above
16. Tumours most common to cause early papilledema 24. Acquired blue blindness is a feature of:
arise from: A. Increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens
A. Cerebellum B. Disease of optic nerve
B. Mid brain C. Disease of macula
C. Parieto-occipital region D. All of the above
D. All of the above
25. Amaurosis fugax may occur in all of the following
17. Occlusion of short posterior ciliary arteries may conditions except:
cause: A. Papilloedema
A. Ischaemic optic neuropathy B. Papillitis
B. Posterior segment ischaemia C. Giant cell arteritis
D. Raynaud’s disease
C. Anterior segment ischaemia
D. All of the above 26. Spiral field defect is a feature of:
A. Amblyopia exanopsia
18. Pseudo-Foster-Kennedy syndrome is characterised
B. Hysterical amblyopia
by all except:
C. Malingering
A. It is associated with raised intracranial pressure
D. Toxic amblyopia
B. The culprit tumour causes optic atrophy on one
side and papilloedema on the other side 27. In uraemic amaurosis the pupils are:
C. It may be associated with pseudotumour cerebri A. Constricted
D. It needs to be differentiated from tumours arising B. Dilated and don’t react to light
from the orbital surface of frontal lobe C. Normal
D. Dilated but react to light
19. All of the following signs may be appreciated in a
patient with early papilloedema except: 28. In optic neuritis the best investigation to be done
A. Obscuration of superior, inferior and nasal disc includes:
A. Goldman perimetery
margins
B. Keratoscopy
B. Absence of spontaneous venous pulsation
C. Ophthalmoscopy
C. Mild hyperaemia of the disc
D. Opthalmodynamometery
D. Obliteration of physiological cup of the optic disc
29. Normal visual acuity of 6/6 is achieved by the age
20. The most important factor on which development of:
of papilloedema depends in intracranial tumours A. 2 years
is: B. 3 years
A. Site of tumour C. 5 years
B. Size of tumour D. 7 years
C. Nature of tumour
D. Rate of growth of tumour 30. In fundus, first sign of raised intracranial pressure
is:
21. Tumours arising from all of the following structures A. Filling of physiological cup
can induce papilloedema except: B. Blurring of nasal disc
A. Medulla oblongata C. Dilatation of vessels
B. Cerebrum D. None of the above
14 : A 15 : A 16 : D 17 : A 18 : B 19 : D 22 : B 23 : C 24 : A 25 : B 26 : B 27 : D
20 : A 21 : A 28 : A 29 : A 30 : C
114 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
31. M o n o c u l a r d i p l o p i a w i t h h o m o ny m o u s C. Ptosis
hemianopia originates in the: D. Loss of light reflex
A. Geniculate body
B. Calcarine cortex 40. Bitemporal hemianopia can be due to:
C. Parietal lobe A. Third ventricle tumour
D. Temporal lobe B. Meningioma of sella diaphragmatica
E. Tip of occipital lobe C. Calcarine cortex infarction
D. Aneurysm of basilar artery
32. Pupillary reflex is lost in:
A. Optic neuritis 41. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in:
B. Glaucoma A. Pituitary adenoma
C. Iridocyclitis B. Optic nerve damage
D. Adie’s pupil C. Post-chiasmic damage
D. All of the above
33. Features of papilloedema include all except:
A. May be due to intracranial haemorrhage 42. Pituitary tumour causes:
B. Disc becomes elevated A. Binasal hemianopia
C. Cotton wool spots may be seen B. Homonymous hemianopia
D. Vision is impaired C. Monocular blindness
D. Bitemporal hemianopia
34. Which is incorrect of papilloedema:
A. Disc edema 43. Psychogenic complaints are all except:
B. Transient blurring of vision A. Haloes around light
C. Sudden painless loss of vision B. Tired eyes
D. Vascular engorgement C. Periodic bluring of vision
35. Functional assessment of optic nerve is by: D. Constant blinking
A. Angiography 44. Most common type of colour blindness is:
B. Fundoscopy A. Protanopes
C. Perimetry B. Deuteranopes
D. CT Scan C. Tritanopes
36. Defect in amblyopia lies in: D. None
A. Lateral geniculate body
45. In pupillary reflex nerve tested is:
B. Afferent pupillary reflex
C. Rods and cones A. 2nd
D. Retina B. 3rd
C. Both 2nd and 3rd
37. Pupil that responds to convergence but light reflex D. 4th
is absent:
46. In optic atrophy, the optic disc appears to pale is
A. Adies pupil
index of:
B. Argyl Robertson pupil
C. Hutchison pupil A. Atrophy of the nerve fibre
D. Wernicke’s pupil B. Loss of vasculature
C. Gliosis
38. Macula is D. All of the above
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic tract 47. In case of anisocoria when 1% pilocarpine is
C. Periodic bluring of vision instilled into the eye with abnormally dilated
D. Constant blinking pupil, pupil remains dilated. Cause of anisocoria
may be:
39. An optic nerve injury may result in all of the A. Adies pupil
following except: B. Pharmacological blockage
A. Loss of vision in that eye C. Uncal herniation
B. Dilatation of pupil D. Diabetic III cranial nerve palsy
31 : B 32 : D 33 : D 34 : C 35 : C 36 : A 40 : B 41 : C 42 : D 43 : A 44 : A 45 : C
37 : B 38 : D 39 : C 46: B 47: B
Neuro-ophthalmology 115
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS C. Stasis of axoplasmic transport
D. Swelling of the axon
48. Headache with bitemporal hemianopia with 6/6
50. A young man with blurring of vision in right eye,
vision is seen in:
followed by left eye after 3 months, showing disc
A. Optic neuritis
hyperemia, edema, circumpapillary telangiectasia
B. Trauma
with normal pupillary response with centrocecal
C. Chiasmal lesion
scotoma on perimetry, the cause is:
D. Bilateral cavernous lesion
A. Typical optic neuritis
49. All statements are true about papilloedema except: B. Acute papilledema
A. Collection of extra-cellular fluid C. Toxic optic neuropathy
B. Disruption of neurofilament D. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
48 : C 49 : B 50 : D
CHAPTER
13
Disorders of Ocular Motility
Superior oblique Intorsion Depression, I. Versions: Eye movements in which both eyes
Abduction move in the same direction are called versions.
Inferior oblique Extorsion Elevation, These include:
Abduction • Saccades are rapid conjugate eye movements.
Note: Mnemonic to remember actions of muscles: These are of two types, voluntary saccades and
RAD (Recti are Adductors except lateral rectus) reflex saccades (involuntary or reflective)
• Smooth pursuit (following eye movements): These
Nerve supply of extraocular muscles are voluntary and slow conjugate eye movements.
All EOMs are supplied by 3rd nerve, except the • Vestibulocular reflex (VOR)
lateral rectus by 6th nerve and superior oblique by • Optokinetic movement, these are slow reflexive
4th nerve. (involuntary) conjugate movements.
Synergists, antagonists and yoke muscles II. Vergences: These are slow and disconjugate eye
1. Synergists: These muscles have the similar movements in which the eye moves in opposite
primary action in the same eye, e.g. superior directions. These includes:
rectus and inferior oblique of the same eye act as • Convergence
synergistic elevators. • Divergence
Disorders of Ocular Motility 117
Note: Mnemonic to remember: Grade III—Stereopsis: It consists of the ability to
perceive the third dimension (depth perception).
For saccades is FIF
F—Fast eye movement SQUINT
I—Involuntary
F—Frontal lobe (opposite) Definition and classification
For pursuit is SVP A misalignment of the visual axes of the two eyes
S—Slow eye movements is called squint or strabismus. Broadly it can be
V—Voluntary classified as below:
P—Parito-occipital lobe (same) I. Apparent squint or pseudostrabismus
Laws governing ocular movements II. Latent squint (Heterophoria)
III. Manifest squint (Heterotropia)
1. Hering’s law of equal innervation: According
1. Concomitant squint
to it, an equal and simultaneous innervation flows
2. Incomitant squint
from the brain to a pair of yoke muscles during
conjugate movements. For example, during Estimation of angle of deviation
dextroversion right lateral rectus and left medial • Hirschberg corneal reflex test. Roughly, the angle
rectus receive equal innervation. of squint is 15° and 45° when the corneal light
2. Sherrington’s law of reciprocal innervation: reflex falls on the border of pupil and limbus,
According to it, during eye movements an increased respectively.
flow of innervation to the contracting muscle is • The prism and cover test (Prism bar cover test, i.e.
accompanied by a decreased flow of innervation PBCT): This will measure the amount of deviation
to the antagonist muscle. For example, during in prism dioptres. Both heterophoria as well as
dextroversion an increased flow to right LR and the heterotropia can be measured by this test.
left MR is accompanied by decreased flow to right • Krimsky corneal reflex test: The power of prism
MR and left LR. required to centre the light reflex in the squinting
eye equals the amount of squint in prism
BINOCULAR SINGLE VISION dioptres.
It is a conditioned reflex which is not present since • Maddox-rod test: The Maddox rod converts the
birth but is acquired during first 6 months and is point light image into a line. Thus, the patient will
completed during first few years. see a point light with one eye and a red line with the
other. Due to disimilar images of the eyes, fusion
Prerequisites for development of
binocular single vision
is broken and heterophoria becomes manifest.
The number on Maddox tangent scale where the
1. Straight eyes starting from the neonatal period red line falls will be the amount of heterophoria in
with precise co-ordination for all directions of gaze degrees.
(motor mechanism). • Maddox wing test: By it the amount of phoria for
2. Reasonably clear vision in both eyes so that similar near (at a distance of 33 cm) can be measured. It
images are presented to each retina (sensory is also based on the basic principle of dissociation
mechanism). of fusion by dissimilar objects.
3. Ability of visual cortex to promote binocular single • Measurement of deviation with synoptophore: Both
vision (mental process). objective and subjective angle of squint can be
Grades of binocular single vision measured accurately with synoptophore.
Grade I—Simultaneous perception: It is the power
to see two dissimilar objects simultaneously. For PSEUDOSTRABISMUS
example, when a picture of a bird is projected on 1. Pseudoesotropia or apparent convergent squint
to the right eye and that of a cage on to the left may be associated with a prominent epicanthal
eye; an individual with presence of simultaneous fold and negative angle kappa.
perception will see the bird in the cage. 2. Pseudoexotropia or apparent divergent squint may
Grade II—Fusion: It consists of the power to be associated with hypertelorism, (a condition of
superimpose two incomplete but similar images to wide separation of the two eyes) and positive angle
form one complete image. kappa.
118 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
1. The muscle which makes an angle of about 51° C. Measurement of fusional reserve
with the optical axis is: D. Measurement of near point of convergence
A. Superior rectus
8. In heterophoria prism is used:
B. Superior oblique
A. With apex towards the direction of phoria in
C. Inferior rectus
glasses for treatment
D. Lateral rectus
B. With apex towards the direction of phoria for
2. The muscle which makes an angle of about 23° exercises only
with the optical axis is: C. For exercises mainly in hyperphoria
A. Superior oblique D . To detect grade III of binocular vision
B. Superior rectus 9. Conjugate fixation reflex is established by the age of:
C. Inferior oblique A. 3 weeks
D. Medial rectus B. 6 weeks
3. Which of the following is not true for binocular C. 3 months
single vision ? D. 6 months
A. Provides stereoscopic vision 10. An object located in the Panum’s area stimulates:
B. Is present since birth A. Fusion
C. Is the cause of diplopia in paralytic squint B. Confusion
D. Fusion is its second grade C. Diplopia
4. Pseudoesotropia is associated with: D. Stereopsis
A. Hypertelorism 11. Strabismic amblyopia is more common in patients
B. Positive angle kappa with:
C. Negative angle kappa A. Intermittent squint
D. None of the above B. Alternate squint
C. Constant squint
5. Pseudoexotropia is associated with:
D. Latent squint
A. Prominent epicanthal fold
B. Positive angle kappa 12. Which of the following tests helps to differentiate
C. Negative angle kappa between concomitant squint and paralytic squint?
D. None of the above A. Cover-uncover test
B. Direct cover test
6. Asthenopic symptoms are most marked with:
C. Alternate cover test
A. Cyclophoria
D. None of the above
B. Hyperphoria
C. Esophoria 13. All of the following lesions causing paralysis of
D. Exophoria extraocular muscles produce diplopia except:
A. Nuclear lesions
7. All of the following are employed to evaluate a B. Lesions of nerve trunks
case of heterophoria except: C. Lesions of neuromuscular junction
A. Maddox-rod test D. Lesions of supranuclear pathways
B. Alternate cover test E. None of the above
1 : B 2 : B 3 : B 4 : C 5 : B 6 : A 8 : A 9 : B 10 : D 11 : C 12 : C 13 : D
7:B
122 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
14. In paralytic convergent squint diplopia is: 23. In ‘A’-Esotropia the amount of deviation:
A. Homonymous A. Increases in upward gaze and decreases in down
B. Heteronymous gaze
C. Both of the above B. Decreases in upward gaze and increases in down
D. None of the above gaze
C. Increases in upward as well as downward gaze
15. The commonest cause of unilateral internuclear
D. Decreases in upward as well as downward gaze
ophthalmoplegia is:
A. Diabetes mellitus 24. In ‘V’-Exotropia amount of deviation:
B. Hypertension A. Increases in upward gaze and decreases in down
C. Multiple sclerosis gaze
D. Lead toxicity B. Decreases in upward gaze and increases in down
gaze
16. The common cause of bilateral internuclear
C. Increases in upward as well as downward gaze
ophthalmoplegia is:
D. Decreases in upward as well as downward gaze
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Lead toxicity 25. In caloric test left jerk nystagmus occurs when:
C. Diphtheria A. Cold water is poured in right ear
D. Diabetes mellitus B. Hot water is poured in right ear
C. Cold water is poured in left ear
17. Onset of stereopsis occurs at the age of:
D. All of the above
A. 3 to 5 months
B. 1 to 2 years 26. Secondary deviation of the eye is based on the
C. 5 years following law:
D. 7 years A. Hering’s
B. Listing’s
18. Uniocular diplopia occurs in all of the following
C. Donder’s
except:
D. Sherrington’s
A. Paralysis of inferior oblique
B. Keratoconus 27. Uncrossed diplopia is seen with:
C. Iridodialysis A. Esotropia
D. Incipient cataract B. Exotropia
C. Exophoria
19. A point that falls on horopter excites:
D. Esophoria
A. Corresponding retinal points
B. Crossed diplopia 28. All are features of paralytic squint except:
C. Confusion A. Unequal fixation
D. Stereopsis B. Vertigo
C. Amblyopia
20. Convergence insufficiency is associated with all of
D. Abnormal head position
the following except:
A. Increase in accommodation 29. Amplitude of accommodative convergence is:
B. General debility A. Altered by weak cycloplegics
C. Refractive errors B. Altered by lenses and prisms
D. Wide interpupillary distance C. Decreased in older people
D. Altered by orthoptics
21. All of the following may be present in Duane’s
retraction syndrome except: 30. Large angle Kappa gives rise to:
A. Limitation of abduction A. Pseudo squint
B. Narrowing of palpebral aperture in abduction B. Manifest squint
C. Suppression C. Latent squint
D. Head turn D. Periodic squint
22. Brown’s syndrome simulates paresis of: 31. Most uncommon type of latent strabismus is:
A. Inferior oblique A. Esophoria
B. Superior oblique B. Exophoria
C. Superior rectus C. Hyperphoria
D. Inferior rectus D. Cyclophoria
14 : B 15 : A 16 : A 17 : A 18 : A 19 : A 23 : A 24 : A 25 : A 26 : A 27 : A 28 : C
20 : A 21 : B 22 : A 29 : A 30 : A 31 : D
Disorders of Ocular Motility 123
32. In unilateral past pointing nystagmus the site of C. Rotatory
lesion is: D. Can be of any type
A. Cerebellar hemisphere
B. Lateral semicircular canal 40. Down beat nystagmus could be due to:
C. Flocculo-nodular lobe A. Cerebellar lesion
D. Superior semicircular canal B. Arnold-Chiari malformation
C. All of the above
33. Secondary deviation of the eye is an example of D. None of the above
the following law:
A. Herring’s 41. Downward and lateral gaze is action of:
B. Listing’s A. Inferior oblique
C. Sherrington’s B. Medial rectus
D. Donder’s C. Superior oblique
34. Action of right superior oblique muscle is: D. Lateral rectus
A. Dextrodepression
42. Elevators of eye:
B. Dextroelevation
A. SR and IO
C. Laevoelevation
D. Laevodepression B. IO and SO
C. IR and S
35. The best treatment for correction of 15° non- D. SO SR
accommodative esotropia in a 5-year-old child is:
A. Order refraction testing under atropine and full 43. Yolk muscle pair is:
correction A. Rt MR and Rt LR
B. Synoptophore exercise B. Rt MR and Lt LR
C. Surgical alignment C. Rt SO and Lt IO
D. Occlusion patching D. Rt SR and Lt SR
36. In right-sided sixth nerve palsy all of the following 44. Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history,
are seen except: development history till date all normal. Corneal
A. Convergent squint reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal
B. Right-sided abduction loss except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis:
C. Diplopia on dextroversion A. Pseudostrabismus
D. Head turned to left B. Accommodative squint
C. Exophoria
37. For a new-born baby with squint surgery should D. Esophoria
be done at:
A. 3-4 years 45. Which of the following best defines the “Saccade”:
B. Immediately A. Voluntary slow eye movements
C. 10-12 years B. Involuntary slow eye movement
D. 18-21 years C. Abrupt, involuntary slow eye movements
D. Abrupt, involuntary rapid eye movements
38. Hirschberg test is used to detect:
46. A patient has a right homonymous hemianopia
A. Squint
with saccadic pursuit movements and defective
B. Field defects
C. Glaucoma optokinetic nystagmus. The lesion is most likely
D. Optic atrophy to be in the :
A. Frontial lobe
39. Miners nystagmus is of which type: B. Occipital lobe
A. Lateral C. Parietal lobe
B. Vertical D. Temporal lobe
32 : A 33 : A 34 : A 35 : C 36 : D 37 : A 40 : C 41 : C 42 : A 43 : B 44 : A 45 : D
38 : A 39 : C 46 : C
124 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
14
Diseases of Eyelids
• Epilation is easy but temporary method, as • Out rolling or outward turning of the lid margin.
recurrences occur within 3–6 weeks. • Epiphora is the main symptom in ectropion.
• Electrolysis: A current of 2 mA is passed for 10 1. Congenital ectropion is very rare, but may be
seconds into the lash root. Recurrences are not rare. seen in Down’s syndrome and blepharophimosis
• Cryoepilation: The cryoprobe with –20°C is syndrome.
applied for 20–25 seconds. It is the best method
for segmental trichiasis. Its main disadvantage is 2. Involutional (senile) ectropion
depigmentation of the skin. • Most common variety, involves the lower lid.
• Argon laser destruction is effective but may need • Occurs due to following age-related changes:
to be repeated. – Senile laxity of the lid tissues
– Loss of the tone of orbicularis muscle
ENTROPION – Weakness of medial and lateral canthal tendons.
An inward turning of lid margin. 3. Cicatricial ectropion. Occurs due to skin
1. Congenital entropion scarring as in thermal burns, chemical burns,
A rare condition seen since birth. Lower lid lacerating injuries and skin ulcers.
retractors not well developed. 4. Paralytic ectropion. Occurs in facial nerve palsy
2. Cicatricial entropion in lower lid.
Common variety, more frequently involves the SYMBLEPHARON
upper lid
• Causes—scarring of palpebral conjunctiva • Adhesions of the lids with the eyeball
in trachoma (most common), membranous • Caus es: Chemical burns, thermal burns,
conjunctivitis, chemical burns, pemphigus and membranous conjunctivitis, ocular pemphigus,
Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
• Types: Anterior, posterior and total.
3. Involutional (senile) entropion
Common variety, affects the lower lid in elderly. ANKYLOBLEPHARON
Etiological factors • Refers to adhesions between upper and lower lid
• Weakening or dehiscence of capsulopalpebral margins.
fascia (lower lid retractors). • Usually associated with symblepharon.
• Degeneration of palpebral connective tissue
allowing preseptal fibres to override the pretarsal LAGOPHTHALMOS
fibres. • Inability to voluntarily close the eye-lids
• Horizontal laxity of the lid. • Causes: Orbicularis paralysis, severe ectropion,
Management symblepharon, marked proptosis, overcorrection
• Tucking or plication of inferior lid retractors (Jones, of ptosis and comatosed patient.
Reech and Wobing operation)
• Modified Wheeler’s operation BLEPHAROSPASM
• Weiss operation • Essential (spontaneous) blepharospasm is a rare
• Bick’s procedure idiopathic condition occurring in elderly patients
Diseases of Eyelids 127
• Reflex blepharospasm occurs in conditions of Causes of bilateral ptosis
chronic ocular irritations • Myasthenia gravis
• Treatment: Eliminate the cause of reflex blepharo • Myotonic dystrophy
spasm • Kearns-sayre syndrome.
– Botulinum toxin injection into the orbicularis
Causes of pseudoptosis
muscle.
– Facial denervation in severe cases. • Microphthalmos
• Anophthalmos
PTOSIS • Enophthalmos
• Phthisis bulbi.
Drooping of the upper lid more than the normal
(2 mm). Evaluation of ptosis
I. Degree of ptosis
Congenital myogenic ptosis
• Mild: 2 mm
• Congenital weakness of levator palpebrae supe • Moderate: 3 mm
rioris (LPS) muscle. • Severe: 4 mm or more.
• It is the most common congenital anomaly of the
II. Levator function by Burke’s method
lid.
• Normal: 15 mm
• It is characterized by dropping of one or both
• Good: 8 mm or more
lids at birth, with diminished or absent lid crease
• Fair: 5–7 mm
and lid lag on downgaze due to tethering effect of
• Poor: 4 mm or less.
abnormal muscle. It may occur in following forms:
– Simple congenital ptosis: Not associated with III. MRD 1
other anomaly Marginal reflex distance-b/w upper lid margin and
– Congenital ptosis with superior rectus weakness. light reflex in primary gaze, normal is 4- 4.5 mm.
– Blepharohimosis syndrome: Congenital ptosis, IV. Vertical fissure height:
blepharophimosis, telecanthus and epicanthus Male-: 7-10 mm
inversus. Female-: 8-12mm
– Congenital synkinetic ptosis (Marcus Gunn-
winking Ptosis): Retraction of ptotic lid with jaw V. Special tests
movement like chewing, i.e., with stimulation of • Tensilon (edrophonium) test for suspected
ipsilateral pterygoid muscle. myasthenia
• Phenylepherine test for suspected Horner’s
Note: Marcus-Gunn Jaw-Winking syndrome occurs
syndrome.
due to nuclear or infra-nuclear connection between
IIIrd and Vth nerve. Treatment
4. Hordeolum internum is a suppurative inflammation 10. Which of the following types of entropion is not
of the: known:
A. Gland of Zeis A. Spastic entropion
B. Gland of Moll B. Paralytic entropion
C. Meibomian gland
C. Cicatricial entropion
D. All of the above
D. Involutional entropion
5. Of the following conditions most painful is: 11. Senile ptosis is:
A. Stye A. Neurogenic
B. Hordeolum internum
B. Myogenic
C. Ulcerative blepharitis
C. Aponeurotic
D. Inflammation of gland of Moll
D. Mechanical
6. In a chalazion with multiple recurrences at the
same site the incision and currettage should be: 12. Severe ptosis in a new born should be operated
A. Followed by cauterisation with carbolic acid at the age of:
B. Preceded by cryotherapy A. 1 year
C. Preceded by intralesional injection of triam B. 3 years
cinolone C. 5 years
D. Replaced by excision biopsy D. Earliest possible
1 : C 2 : B 3 : A 4 : C 5 : B 6:D 7 : A 8 : C 9 : B 10 : B 11 : C 12 : D
130 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
13. All of the following are pre-cancerous conditions C. Weak Muller’s muscle
of the lids except: D. Multiple failed surgeries
A. Naevi
23. All are complications of chronic staphylo-coccal
B. Solar keratosis
blepharoconjunctivitis except:
C. Xeroderma pigmentosa
A. Chalazion
D. Carcinoma-in-situ
B. Marginal conjunctivitis
14. The commonest malignant tumour of the lids is: C. Follicular conjunctivitis
A. Basal-cell carcinoma D. Phylectenular conjunctivitis
B. Squamous cell carcinoma 24. Fasanella Servat operation is specifically indicated
C. Adenocarcinoma in:
D. Melanocarcinoma A. Congenital ptosis
15. The most common site of basal cell carcinoma of B. Steroid induced ptosis
the lids is: C. Myasthenia gravis
A. Upper lid D. Horner’s syndrome
B. Lower lid 25. The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors
C. Medial canthus is indicated in:
D. Lateral canthus A. Senile ectropion
16. Sebaceous cell carcinoma of the lids arises from: B. Senile entropion
A. Meibomian gland C. Cicatricial entropion
B. Sebaceous gland of eyebrows D. Paralytic entropion
C. Caruncle
D. All of the above EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
17. Epiphora in a patient with seventh nerve palsy is 26. A recurrent chalazion should be subjected
most likely due to: to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the
A. Eversion of lower punctum possibility of:
B. Lateral lower lid ectropion A. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Failure of lacrimal pump system B. Sebaceous cell carcinoma
D. All of the above
C. Malignant melanoma
18. Ptosis with lid lag is seen in: D. Basal cell carcinoma
A. Traumatic ptosis
27. Fusion of palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva is:
B. Myogenic ptosis
A. Symblepharon
C. Synkinesis
D. Congenital ptosis B. Trichiasis
C. Ectropion
19. Tylosis refers to: D. Tylosis
A. Hypertrophy and drooping of eyelid
B. Inversion of eyelid 28. Eyelid drooping in/are seen in:
C. Senile eversion of eyelid A. Damage to edinger-westphal nucleus
D. Distortion of cilia B. Damage to motor part of facial nerve
C. Damage to sympathetic nerve supply
20. The commonest fungal lesion of the eyelid is: D. Damage to motor root of occulomotor nerve
A. Candida
E. Damage to lacrimal nerve
B. Aspergillosis
C. Sporothrix 29. A patient with ptosis presents with retraction of
D. None ptotic eye lid on chewing. This represents:
A. Marcus gunn Jaw winking syndrome
21. Epilation is not indicated in:
A. Ulcerative blepharitis B. Third nerve misdirection syndrome
B. Phthiriasis C. Abducent palsy
C. Trichiasis D. Occulomotor palsy
D. Madarosis 30. S shaped eyelid is seen in:
22. Sling surgery should be avoided in cases of ptosis A. Plexiform neurofibroma
with: B. Hemangioma
A. Very poor levator action C. Arterio venious fistula
B. Poor Bell’s phenomenon D. Varix
13 : A 14 : A 15 : B 16 : D 17 : C 18 : D 23 : A 24 : D 25 : B 26 : B 27 : A
19 : A 20 : A 21 : D 22 : B 28 : C and D 29 : A 30 : A
CHAPTER
15
Diseases of Lacrimal Apparatus
• Value less than 10 seconds imply an unstable tear • Wrong technique of performing regurgitation test
film • Encysted mucocele.
• Low values indicate mucin deficiency/disturbance. • Crocodile tears are seen in abnormal VII nerve
2. Schirmer-I-test regeneration.
• It measures total tear secretion (production)
• It is performed with 5 × 35 mm strip of Whatman DISORDERS OF LACRIMAL SAC AND LACRIMAL
41 filter paper GLAND
• Normal value: 15 mm or above/5 minutes
• Values between 5 and 10 mm: Mild to moderate DACRYOCYSTITIS
dry eye Congenital dacryocystitis
• Value less than 5 mm: Severe dry eye
As many as 30 percent of newborn infants are
• Low values are suggestive of aqueous deficiency
believed to have closure of nasolacrimal duct at birth;
dry eye (kerato-conjunctivitis sicca).
mostly due to membraneous occlusion at its lower
3. Rose Bengal staining end, near the valve of Hasner. Watering develops
• Stains devitalized cells after 7 days of birth followed by mucopurulent
• Irritating–so use xylocaine discharge. Regurgitation test becomes positive.
• Three staining patterns are described:
– C-pattern: Fine punctate stain in interpalpebral Treatment
area (suggests mild dry eye). • Massage over the lacrimal sac area and topical
– B-pattern: Extensive staining (moderate dry eye) antibiotics constitute the treatment of congenital
– A pattern: Confluent staining of conjunctiva and NLD block, up to 6 months of age. This conservative
cornea (severe dry eye). treatment cures obstruction in about 90 percent of
THE WATERING EYE the infants.
1. Hyperlacrimation, i.e. more formation of tears • Probing of NLD with Bowman’s probe should be
is of two types: performed, in case the condition is not cured by
• Primary hyperlacrimation occurs due to direct the age of 6 months (some surgeon wait up to 9
stimulation of the lacrimal gland as in early stages months). In most instances a single probing will
of lacrimal gland tumours and cysts and due to the relieve the obstruction. In case of failure, it may
effect of strong parasympathomimetic drugs. be repeated after an interval of 3–4 weeks.
• Reflex hyperlacrimation results from stimulation • Balloon catheter dilation may be carried out where
of sensory branches of fifth nerve due to irritation repeated probing is a failure.
of cornea or conjunctiva. • Intubation with silicone tube may be tried when
a. Physiological cause of epiphora is lacrimal above treatment is a failure.
pump failure due to lower lid laxity or weakness • Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) operation: Optimum
of orbicularis muscle. age is 4 years.
b. Mechanical obstruction in lacrimal passages.
Adult dacryocystitis (Acquired dacrocystitis)
2. Epiphora refers to watering due to decreased
drainage of tears either due to blockage of lacrimal Chronic dacryocystitis
passage or due to lacrimal pump failure (atonia of • It is more common than the acute dacryocystitis.
sac). • The disease is predominantly seen in females
• The commonest cause of epiphora in a newborn (80%).
is membrane at the lower end of NLD • Dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR) operation is the
• The commonest site of obstruction in epiphora treatment of choice.
occurring in an adult is junction of the sac and the • Dacryocystectomy (DCT) is indicated when DCR
NLD is contraindicated.
• For evaluation of functional (physiological) obstruc
tion due to lacrimal pump failure dacryoscintigraphy SWELLINGS OF THE LACRIMAL GLAND
or radionucleotide dacryocystography is used and
it is the most sensitive method for evaluation. Mickulicz’s syndrome
Causes of false negative regurgitation test It is characterised by bilaterally symmetrical
• Internal fistula enlargement of the lacrimal and salivary glands
Diseases of Lacrimal Apparatus 133
associated with a variety of systemic diseases. Benign mixed tumour
These include: leukaemias, lymphosarcomas, It is also known as pleomorphic adenoma and
benign lymphoid hyperplasia, Hodgkin’s disease, occurs predominantly in young adult males. It is the
sarcoidosis and tuberculosis. commonest tumour of the lacrimal gland. Clinically
• Dacryops. It is a cystic swelling, which occurs due to it presents as a slowly progressive painless swelling
retention of lacrimal secretions following blockage in the upper-outer quadrant of the orbit. The eyeball
of the lacrimal ducts. may be proptosed with a down and in displacement.
• Lymphoid tumours and inflammatory pseudo It is locally invasive and may infiltrate its own
tumors constitute approximately 50% of cases. pseudocapsule to involve the adjacent periosteum.
• Benign epithelial tumours include benign mixed Histologically, it is characterised by presence of
tumours which account for 25 percent cases. pleomorphic myxomatous tissue, just like benign
• Malignant epithelial tumours constitute 25% of mixed tumour of salivary gland. Its treatment
cases and include: Malignant mixed tumour, consists of complete surgical removal with the
adenoid cystic carcinoma, mucoepidermoid capsule. Recurrences are very common following
carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. incomplete removal.
134 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
1. Innermost stratum of tear film is: 8. All of the following are features of Sjogren’s
A. Mucus layer syndrome except:
B. Aqueous layer A. It is an autoimmune chronic inflammatory
C. Oily layer disease
D. None of the above B. Typically occurs in women after the menopause
2. Thickest layer of tear film is: C. In primar y Sjogren’s syndrome, kerato
A. Mucus layer conjunctivitis sicca is associated with rheumatoid
B. Aqueous layer arthritis
C. Oily layer D. In secondary Sjogren’s syndrome, dry eye and/
D. None of the above or xerostomia (dry mouth) is associated with
rheumatoid arthritis
3. The antibacterial substance present in the tears
is: 9. Tear film break-up-time is the time:
A. Lysozyme A. Between the last blink and the appearance of first
B. Betalysin dry spot on the cornea
C. Lactoferrin
B. Taken for appearance of dry spot between two
D. All of the above
blinks
4. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca refers to: C. Taken by successive blinks to break the tear film
A. Aqueous tear deficiency dry eye D. Taken for disappearance of dry spots on the
B. Mucin deficiency dry eye cornea
C. Lipid deficiency dry eye
D. All types of dry eye 10. Tear lysozyme levels are decreased in:
A. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
5. Normal values of tear film break up time range
B. Stevens Johnson syndrome
from:
C. Ocular pemphigoid
A. 5 to 10 seconds
D. All of the above
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 15 to 20 seconds 11. Positive fluorescein dye disappearance test
D. 15 to 30 seconds indicates that watering eye is due to:
6. Schirmer-I test measures: A. Atonia of the sac
A. Total tear secretions B. Mechanical obstruction in the lacrimal passages
B. Basal tear secretions C. Both of the above
C. Reflex tear secretions D. None of the above
D. All of the above 12. Most common site of congenital blockage in the
7. Normal values of Schirmer-I test are: nasolacrimal duct is:
A. 5 mm A. At the upper end
B. 10 mm B. In the middle
C. 15 mm C. At the lower end
D. 15 mm or above D. Whole of the duct
1 : A 2 : B 3 : D 4 : A 5 : D 6 : A 8 : C 9 : A 10 : A 11 : C 12 : C
7:D
Diseases of Lacrimal Apparatus 135
13. Optimum age for performing dacryocystor 20. Crocodile tears are seen in:
hinostomy operation in a child with congenital A. Frey’s syndrome
dacryocystitis is: B. Conjunctivitis
A. 2 years C. Lacrimal tumour
B. 4 years D. Abnormal VIIth nerve regeneration
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
14. In dacr yoc ystorhinostomy operation the
communication of the sac is established with: 21. Treatment of nasolacrimal duct obstruction:
A. Middle meatus A. Syringing
B. Superior meatus B. Probing
C. Inferior meatus C. DCR
D. All of the above D. Dacryocystectomy
15. Functional efficiency of lacrimal drainage system E. Antibiotic
may be assessed by:
22. Initial treatment of congenital dacryocystitis:
A. Lacrimal syringing
A. Massaging
B. Subtraction macrodacryocystography
B. Probing
C. Radionucleotide dacryocystography
C. DCR
D. All of the above
D. Ointment
16. Most common site of obstruction in chronic E. No treatment required
dacryocystitis in adults is:
A. At upper end of nasolacrimal duct 23. A 60 year old man presented with watering
B. At lower end of nasolacrimal duct from his left eye since 1 year. Syringing revealed
C. In the lacrimal sac a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular
D. In the common canaliculus examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis
of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmations
17. Normal pH of tears is:
of the diagnosis would be by:
A. 5.7
A. Dacryoscintigraphy
B. 6.7
B. Dacryocystography
C. 7.5
C. Pressure syringing
D. 7.9
D. Canaliculus irrigation test
18. Tears are produced in the new born after:
A. 1 Week 24. Unilateral lacrimal gland destruction may be
B. 2 Weeks caused by:
C. 3 Weeks A. Inferior orbital fissure fracture
D. 4 Weeks B. Fracture of roof of orbit
C. Fracture of lateral wall
19. A 3 month old infant was brought with complaints D. Fracture of sphenoid
of profuse lacrimation. On pressure pus exudes
from the puncta. The best line of management is: 25. Length of naso lacrimal duct is:
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy A. 10 mm
B. Syringing B. 11 mm
C. Massaging of sac with antibiotics C. 12 mm
D. Syringing and probing D. 9 mm
13 : B 14 : A 15 : C 16 : A 17 : C 18 : A 20 : D 21 : A, B, C, D and E 22 : A 23 : A 24 : B
19 : D 25 : C
CHAPTER
16
Diseases of Orbit
Lid lag (von Graefe’s sign), i.e. when globe is • Extension of infection from neighbouring structures
moved downward, the upper lid lags behind. (most common-ethmoiditis especially in children)
Enroth’s sign—Fullness of eyelids due to puffy is the commonest mode of orbital infections.
oedematous swelling. • Characteristic features are marked swelling
of lids conjunctival chemosis, proptosis and
Gifford’s sign—Difficulty in eversion of upper lid.
limitation of ocular movements. Important
Stellwag’s sign—Infrequent blinking blinding complications are: central retinal artery
Ocular motility defects occlusion, optic neuritis and corneal ulceration.
• The most common ocular motility defect is • Orbital apex syndrome is characterised by a triad
a unilateral elevator palsy caused by fibrotic of: (i) ophthalmoplegia due to paresis of third,
contraction of the inferior rectus muscle followed fourth and sixth cranial nerves, (ii) anaesthesia
by failure of abduction due to contracture of medial in the region of supply of ophthalmic division of
rectus muscle. Sequence of involvement of muscle fifth nerve and (iii) amaurosis due to involvement
is: IR, MR, SR and LR. of optic nerve.
• Enlargement of extraocular muscles without
enlargement of tendons is the hallmark of thyroid CAVERNOUS SINUS THROMBOSIS
ophthalmopathy (seen on CT scan or MRI orbit) . • Cavernous sinus thrombosis starts initially as
Note: Mnemonic ‘I AM So Lucky’ a unilateral condition, which soon becomes
IR-MR-SR-LR bilateral in more than 50 percent of cases due to
intercavernous communication.
External ophthalmology • Paralysis of opposite lateral rectus muscle is often
Thyroid ophthalmopathy can cause vertical the first sign of involvement of contralateral
diplopia due to paralysis of vertical acting muscles cavernous sinus.
like inferior oblique.
Clinical features
Exophthalmos is the second most common sign, as • Generalized: Abrupt onset of fever with chills and
a rule both eyes are symmetrically affected; but it rigor.
is frequent to find one eye being more prominent
• Lo calized (o cular) features: Chemosis of
than the other. Even unilateral proptosis is not
conjunctiva, ipsilateral ophthalmoplegia ( 3rd-
uncommon.
Ptosis, absent direct and consensual papillary
Werner classification of ocular changes in Graves light refex in ipsilateral side, 4th and 6th nerve
disease palsy), diplopia (lateral gaze is involved earliest)
Six classes depicted by Mnemonic “NO SPECS’’ and corneal anesthesia occurs due to involvement
Class 0: No signs or symptoms of ophthalmic division of 5th cranial nerve- loss of
Class 1: Only signs corneal reflex.
Class 2: Soft tissue involvement (sign and • Oedema in mastoid region is a pathognomonic
symptoms) sign.
Class 3: Proptosis • Vision loss is not an early feature.
Class 4: Extraocular muscle involvement • Magnetic resonance venography (angiography) is
Class 5: Corneal involvement the investigation of choice.
Class 6: Sight loss (optic nerve compression)
• Rapidly developing, acute inflammatory type of
proptosis seen in cavernous sinus thrombosis
ORBITAL CELLULITIS AND INTRAORBITAL
needs to be differentiated from orbital cellulitis
ABSCESS
and panophthalmitis.
• Suppurative inflammation of the fat and cellular
tissues of the orbit.
CAROTID-CAVERNOUS FISTULA
• It may result from penetrating injury especially
when associated with retention of intraorbital Carotid-cavernous fistula is an acquired abnormal
f o re i g n b o d y , f o l l ow i n g o p e rat i o n s l i ke communication between the carotid arterial system
evisceration, enucleation, dacryocystectomy and and the venous cavernous sinus. There are two type
orbitotomy. of carotid-cavernous fistula:
Diseases of Orbit 139
i. High-flow fistula medial displacement of the eyeball. Malignant
These are secondary to trauma or iatrogenic and tumours of lacrimal gland are: adenoid cystic
present acutely with pain, proptosis (often pulsatile carcinoma, pleomorphic adenocarcinoma, and
exophthalmos). Chemosis, congestion, bruit, mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
ophthalmoplegia (III-VI nerve palsies), headache, • Optic nerve glioma may present either as a solitary
and objective pulsatile tinnitus. The classical triad tumour or as a part of von Recklinghausen’s
of presentation is proptosis, chemosis, and bruit. It neurofibromatosis (55%). It is characterised
presents within days or weeks following trauma. by early visual loss associated with a gradual,
painless,unilateral axial proptosis occurring
ii. Low- flow fistula
in a child usually between 4 and 8 years of age
These develop spontaneously in elder women, (female > male) . CT scan typically shows fusiform
during pregnancy or in those with hyperplastic enlargment of optic nerve along with enlargement
tissue. These typically present slowly with less of optic canal.
pronounced symptoms. • Primary intraorbital meningiomas produce
Investigations visual loss associated with limitation of ocular
movements, optic disc oedema or atrophy, and
• Selective carotid angiography using digital
a slowly progressive unilateral proptosis. The
subtraction technique is the investigation of choice
presence of opticociliary shunt is pathognomonic
and essential if the treatment is contemplated.
of an optic nerve sheath meningioma.
• Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) are also
• Lymphomas. Orbits are involved more commonly
used commonly.
by non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas (Most common
Treatment malignant orbital tumour in adults) .
A carotid-cavernous fistula requires a definitive • Hand-Schuller-Christian disease is characterised
treatment, which currently involves endovascular by a triad of proptosis, diabetes insipidus and bony
technique. The fistula can usually be occluded with defects in the skull.
a balloon or coil without sacrifice of the carotid.
SECONDARY ORBITAL TUMORS
• Three factors responsible for producing enoph • Mucoceles of paranasal sinuses affecting the orbit
thalmos in blow-out fracture are: (a) Escape of most commonly occur in frontal sinus. The most
orbital fats into the maxillary sinus; (b) Backward common cause of intermittent proptosis is orbital
traction on the globe by entrapped inferior rectus varices.
muscle and (c) Enlargement of the orbital cavity • Most common cause of pulsating proptosis is
from displacement of fragments. caroticocavernous fistula.
• Common roentgen findings are: Fragmentation and • Most common primary tumour of the orbital cavity
irregularity of the orbital floor, depression of bony presenting as proptosis is cavernous haemangioma.
fragments, proptosis, diplopia (muscle restriction • Rhabdomyosarcoma of the orbit is the commonest
can be confirmed with forced duction test) and primary malignant tumour of childhood.
hanging drop opacity (tear drop sign) of the • Commonest histological type of rhabdomyo-
superior maxillary antrum from orbital contents sarcoma of the orbit is embryonal type.
herniating through the floor. • Paralysis of opposite lateral rectus muscle is often the
Treatment first sign of involvement of contralateral cavernous
Fracture involving half or more orbital floor with sinus.
entrapment of orbital content and persistent • Earliest clinical feature of orbital extension of the
diplopia in the primary position should be repaired basal cell carcinoma of the eyelid is diplopia.
within 2 weeks by using synthetic material such as • Carotid angiography is the investigation of choice
silicon, Teflon or supramid. in caroticocavernous fistula. The first sign of
cavernous sinus thrombosis is restriction of ocular
SOME SALIENT POINTS movements.
• First sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis is restriction
• Most common and most virulent fungal disease
involving the orbit is caused by Mucor (Mucor- of ocular movements.
mycosis) and Rhizopus organism of the • Most common cause of unilateral proptosis in
class Phycomycetes (phycomycosis). Orbital children is orbital cellulitis
mucormycosis occur most often in patients with • Most common cause of unilateral proptosis in adults
diabetic ketoacidosis. is thyroid ophthalmopathy.
Diseases of Orbit 141
4. Intraorbital calcification in a patient with proptosis 10. Ocular Graves disease is associated with:
is observed in all except: A. Hyperthyroidism
A. Retinoblastoma B. Hypothyroidism
B. Orbital varix C. Euthyroid state
C. Hydatid cyst D. All of the above
D. Pseudotumour 11. Dalrymple’s sign of ocular Graves’ disease refers
5. Dehiscence of bone can be seen as X-rays findings to:
in a patient with proptosis in all except: A. Retraction of the upper lid
A. Mucocele B. Lid lag
B. Neurofibroma C. Proptosis
C. Lacrimal gland tumour D. All of the above combinedly
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma 12. The most common ocular motility defect noted
6. Orbital lesions of childhood include all of the in ocular Graves’ disease is due to involvement
following except: of:
A. Lymphangioma A. Inferior rectus
B. Secondary orbital meningioma B. Medial rectus
C. Cavernous haemangioma C. Superior oblique
D. Neurofibroma D. Inferior oblique
1 : D 2 : B 3 : D 4 : D 5 : D 6:B 7 : D 8 : A 9 : A 10 : D 11 : A 12 : A
142 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
13. The walls of the orbit which are removed in the 21. Cause of lid retraction include:
two wall decompression for proptosis of thyroid A. Graves’ ophthalmopathy
ophthalmopathy include part of: B. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
A. Orbital floor and medial wall C. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Orbital floor and lateral wall D. Hydrocephalus
C. Orbital roof and medial wall E. All of the above
D. Medial and lateral walls
22. Secondary tumour may spread to the orbit by all
14. All of the following are the features of orbital apex of the following except:
syndrome except: A. Direct spread from the lids
B. Via blood stream
A. Ophthalmoplegia
C. Via lymphatic channels
B. Enophthalmos
D. Directly from the cranial cavity
C. Ophthalmic nerve anaesthesia
D. Amaurosis 23. The most common tumour that spreads into the
orbit from the intracranial cavity is:
15. Most often the first sign of involvement of A. Astrocytoma
opposite side in cavernous sinus thrombosis is: B. Pituitary adenoma
A. Paralysis of opposite lateral rectus muscle C. Sphenoid wing-meningioma
B. Proptosis of the opposite side D. Neurofibroma
C. Paralysis of opposite 3rd nerve
D. Paralysis of opposite 4th nerve 24. One of the early symptoms of orbital involvement
E. All of the above by basal cell carcinoma of the lid is:
A. Diplopia
16. Simultaneous thrombosis of both the cavernous B. Defective vision
sinuses usually occurs in: C. Proptosis
A. Diseases of the sphenoid sinuses D. Severe pain
B. Septic wounds of the face 25. Intraorbital abscess formation occurs most
C. Pyogenic meningitis commonly in which quadrant of the orbit?
D. Patients with cerebral abscess A. Superotemporal
B. Superonasal
17. The most common mucocele of the paranasal
C. Inferonasal
sinuses involving the orbit arises from:
D. Inferotemporal
A. Frontal sinus
B. Ethmoidal sinus 26. T h e m o s t c o m m o n c a u s e o f p u l s a t i n g
C. Maxillary sinus exophthalmos is:
D. Sphenoidal sinus A. Orbital varices
B. Neurofibromatosis
18. The most commonly seen primary orbital tumour C. Cavernous haemangioma
in children is: D. Caroticocavernous fistula
A. Rhabdomyosarcoma
27. The most common cause of intermittent
B. Glioma of optic nerve
exophthalmos is:
C. Optic nerve sheath meningioma
A. Orbital varices
D. Retinoblastoma
B. Cavernous haemangioma
19. Ophthalmoscopic sign pathognomonic of optic C. Lymphangioma
nerve sheath meningioma is: D. Carotico-cavernous fistula
A. Papilloedema
28. The most common benign tumour of the orbit is:
B. Optic atrophy A. Optic nerve glioma
C. Opticociliary shunt B. Meningioma
D. All of the above C. Benign-mixed tumour
20. The diagnostic triad of exophthalmos, diabetes D. Haemangioma
insipidus and bone lesions is characteristic of: 29. Optical media are clear in:
A. Hand-Schuller Christian disease A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Letterer-Sieve disease B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Fibrous dysplasia C. Both of the above
D. Osteoporosis D. None of the above
13 : A 14 : B 15 : A 16 : A 17 : A 18 : A 21 : E 22 : C 23 : C 24 : A 25 : B 26 : D
19 : C 20 : A 27 : A 28 : D 29 : C
Diseases of Orbit 143
30. Superior orbital fissure syndrome is frequently 38. Which of the following tumours present with
caused by: proptosis:
A. Carotid aneurysms A. Neuroblastoma
B. Meningioma B. Nephroblastoma
C. Arachnoiditis C. Germ cell tumour
D. All of the above D. Medulloblastoma
E. Meningioma
31. All of the following structures are located in the
lateral wall of the cavernous sinus except: 39. A patient presented with unilateral proptosis,
A. Abducent nerve which was compressible and increases on ending
B. Oculomotor nerve forward. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows
C. Trochlear nerve a retro-orbital mass with enhancement. The likely
D. Ophthalmic nerve diagnosis is:
32. Contracted socket occurs because of all the A. AV malformations
following except: B. Orbital encephalocoecle
A. Chronic low grade infection C. Orbital varix
B. Chronic mechanical irritation D. Neurofibromatosis
C. Irradiation 40. Thyroid ophthalmopathy a/w:
D. Loss of fatty tissue during surgery of enucleation A. External ophthalmoplegia
33. A man presents 6 hrs after head injury complaining B. Internal ophthalmoplegia
of mild proptosis and scleral hyperemia: C. Proptosis
A. Pneumo-orbit D. Large extra-ocular muscle
B. Caroticocavernous fistula E. Lid lag
C. Retro-orbital hematoma
41. A 19 years old young girl with previous history of
D. Orbital cellulitis
repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic
34. Blow-out fracture of orbit is characterized by all use of nasal decongestants, presented with abrupt
except: onset of fever with chills and rigor, diplopia on
A. Diplopia lateral gaze, moderate proptosis and chemosis. On
B. ‘Tear drop” sign examination optic disc is congested. Most likely
C. Positive forced duction test diagnosis is:
D. Exophthalmos A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Orbital cellulitis
35. “Blow-out” fracture of orbit involves:
C. Acute ethmoidal sinusitis
A. Floor
D. Orbital apex syndrome
B. Medial wall
C. All of the above 42. A young man following RTA presented with
D. None of the above proptosis and pain in right eye after four days.
36. All of the following signs could result from On examination there is bruise on forehead and
infection within the right cavernous sinus, except: right eye. What is the diagnosis:
A. Loss of pupillary light reflex A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Loss of corneal blink reflex B. Internal carotid artery aneurysm
C. Ptosis C. Carotico-cavernous fistula
D. Right ophthalmoplegia D. Fracture of sphenoid
43. A young adult presents with proptosis and pain
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS in eye after 4 days of trauma to eye. Chemosis,
conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle
37. Commonest cause for bilateral proptosis in palsy with inability to move eye are seen.
children is: Investigation of choice:
A. Cavernous hamangioma A. MRI
B. Chloroma B. Digital subtraction angiography
C. Fibrous histiocyloma C. CT
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma D. MR angiography
44. Blow out fracture of the orbit, most commonly 46. Which of the following signs is classic for CT
leads to fracture of: scanning in Graves ophthalmopathy:
A. Posteromedial floor of orbit A. Nodular muscle enlargement
B. Medial wall of orbit B. Solitary muscle enlargement
C. Fusiform muscle enlargement with sparing of
C. Lateral wall of orbit
tendoms
D. Roof of orbit D. Kinking of extraocular muscles.
45. Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit: 47. Vascular congestion over insertions of the rectus
muscles (particularly lateral rectus) is seen in:
A. Blow on back of head
A. Lymphoma
B. Blow on parietal bone B. Hemangioma
C. Blow on the forehead C. Graves ophthalmopathy
D. Blow on the upper jaw D. Trauma
44 : A 45 : A 46 : C 47 : C
CHAPTER
17
Ocular Injuries
Penetrating and perforating injuries Mechanism: Copper ions from the alloy are
Modes of damage include: dissociated electrolytically and deposited under
• Mechanical effects. Uncomplicated/complicated the membranous structures of the eye. Unlike iron
eyewall wound ions these do not enter into a chemical combination
• Intraocular infections. Purulent uveitis/endo with the proteins of the cells and thus produce no
pthalmitis and panophthalmitis. degenerative changes.
• Traumatic iridocyclitis
• Sympathetic ophthalmitis. Clinical manifestations include:
1. Kayser-Fleischer ring: It is a golden brown ring
Intraocular foreign bodies
which occurs due to deposition of copper under
Common foreign bodies peripheral parts of the Descemet’s membrane of
Chips of iron and steel (90%), particles of glass, stone, the cornea.
lead pellets, copper percussion caps, aluminium, 2. Sun-flower cataract: It is produced by deposition
plastic and wood. of copper under the posterior capsule of the lens.
It is brilliant golden green in colour and arranged
Reactions of the foreign body
like the petals of a sun-flower.
a. Inorganic foreign body 3. Retina: It may show deposition of golden plaques
1. No reaction: Inert substances, glass, some plastics, at the posterior pole which reflect the light with a
porcelain, gold, silver, platinum, titanium and metallic sheen.
stone.
2. Local irritative reaction leading to encapsulation of b. Organic foreign bodies
the foreign body: Occurs with lead and aluminium The organic foreign bodies such as wood and other
particles. vegetative materials produce a proliferative reaction
3. Suppurative reaction is excited by pure copper, characterised by the formation of giant cells.
zinc, nickel and mercury particles. Caterpillar hair produces ophthalmia nodosum
4. Specific reactions are produced by iron and copper which is characterised by a severe granulomatous
alloys (most toxic) iridocyclitis with nodule formation.
Siderosis bulbi
It refers to the degenerative changes produced SYMPATHETIC OPHTHALMITIS
by an iron foreign body. These usually occur after It is a serious bilateral granulomatous panuveitis,
6 months to 2 years of the injury. which follows a penetrating ocular trauma. The
Mechanism. The iron particle undergoes electrolytic injured eye is called exciting eye and the fellow
dissociation by the current of rest and its ions are normal eye which also develops uveitis is called
disseminated throughout the eye. These ions sympathizing eye.
combine with the intracellular proteins and produce
degenerative changes. In this process, the epithelial Predisposing factors
structures of the eye are most affected. 1. It, almost always, follows a perforating wound.
Clinical manifestations include: 2. Wounds in the ciliary region (the so-called
1. The anterior epithelium and capsule of the lens dangerous zone) are more prone to it.
are involved first of all. Here, the rusty deposits 3. Wounds with incarceration of the iris, ciliary body
are arranged radially in a ring. Eventually, the lens or lens capsule are more vulnerable.
becomes cataractous. 4. It is more common in children than in adults.
2. Iris: It is first stained greenish and later on turns 5. It does not occur when actual suppuration
reddish-brown. develops in the injured eye.
3. Retina develops pigmentary degeneration which
resembles retinitis pigmentosa. Pathology
4. Secondary open-angle type of glaucoma occurs due Dalen-Fuch’s nodules are formed due to proliferation
to degenerative changes in the trabecular mesh- of the pigment epithelium (of the iris, ciliary body
work. and choroid) associated with invasion by the
Chalcosis lymphocytes and epitheloid cells. Retina shows
It refers to the specific changes produced by the perivascular cellular infiltration (sympathetic
alloy of copper in the eye. perivasculitis).
Ocular Injuries 147
Clinical features Radiational injuries
Sympathizing (sound) eye: It is usually involved after 1. Ultraviolet radiations may cause (i) photo- ophthal
4–8 weeks of injury in the other eye. Sympathetic mia and (ii) may be responsible for senile cataract.
ophthalmitis almost always manifests as acute 2. Infra-red radiations may cause solar macular burns
plastic iritis. Rarely it may manifest as neuroretinitis 3. Ionizing radiational injuries are caused following
or choroiditis. radiotherapy to the tumours in the vicinity of
• Sensitivity to light (photophobia) and transient the eyes. The common ocular lesions include
indistinctness of near objects (due to weakening (i) radiation keratoconjunctivitis; (ii) radiation
of accommodation) are the earliest symptoms. dermatitis of lid and (iii) radiation cataract.
Prophylaxis
MISCELLANEOUS POINTS
Early excision of the injured eye is the best prophy
laxis when there is no chance of saving useful vision. • Common sites of rupture of the globe are the
Meticulous repair and use of steroids, where eye limbus, the equator and especially under the rectus
can be salvaged. muscles, where the sclera in thinnest.
• Indication of early surgical intervention in
NON-MECHANICAL INSURIES traumatic cataract is secondary glaucoma.
• Prolapsed iris in perforating trauma should
CHEMICAL AND RADIATIONAL INJURIES preferably be abscissed and not reposited because
Alkali burns it will carry intraocular infection.
• In general, alkali burns are much more dangerous • Foreign bodies are the most common cause of eye
than acid burns. injury.
• Alkalies dissociate and saponify fatty acids of • A piece of glass in the anterior chamber is
the cell membrane and, therefore, destroy the exceptionally difficult to see because its trans-
structure of cell membrane of the tissues. parency and refractive index differ little from the
• The strong acids cause instant coagulation of all surrounding media.
the proteins which then act as barrier and prevent • Intraocular foreign body of iron causes maximum
deeper penetration of the acids into the tissues. damage to the eye.
148 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
1 : B 2 : D 3 : D 4 : B 5 : A 6:B 7 : D 8 : B 9 : B 10 : A 11 : A 12 : A
Ocular Injuries 149
13. Perforating injuries with retained intraocular 20. All of the following are true about sympathetic
foreign body are more serious than those without ophthalmitis except:
because of: A. It is a bilateral disease
A. More chances of infection B. Pathological features are of non-granulomatous
B. Deleterious effects of foreign bodies panuveitis
C. More chances of sympathetic ophthalmitis C. Clinically manifests as non-granulomatous
D. All of the above iridocyclitis
D. The non-injured eye developing uveitis is called
14. All of the following intraocular foreign bodies sympathizing eye
produce suppurative reaction except: 21. Regarding occurrence of sympathetic ophthal
A. Pure zinc mitis, all of the following are true except:
B. Mercury A. It almost always follows a perforating wound
C. Copper alloys B. Wounds in the ciliary region are more prone to it
D. Nickel C. More common in adults than in children
D. Less common when actual suppuration develops
15. The earliest clinical manifestation of siderosis
in the injured eye
bulbi is:
A. Rusty deposits in the anterior subcapsular cells 22. Clinically in the non-injured eye, sympathetic
of the lens ophthalmitis may manifest as:
B. Discolouration of iris A. Acute plastic iridocyclitis
C. Deposits in Descemet’s membrane of cornea B. Neuroretinitis
D. Pigmentary changes in retina C. Choroiditis
D. All of the above
16. In siderosis bulbi the electrolytically dissociated 23. In sympathetic ophthalmitis, Dalen-Fuch’s nodules
iron ions: are formed on the:
A. Are deposited under the membranous structures A. Iris
of the eye B. Ciliary body
B. Combine with intraocular proteins and produce C. Choroid
degenerative changes D. All of the above
C. Produce local irritative reaction at the site where
24. The most serious alkali burns of the eye are
deposited
produced by:
D. All of the above
A. Strong liquid ammonia
17. In chalcosis bulbi the electrolytically dissociated B. Caustic soda
ions of copper are: C. Lime
D. None of the above
A. Deposited under the membraneous structures
of the eye 25. All of the following are true of chemical burns of
B. Combine with intracellular proteins and produce the eye except:
degenerative changes A. Acid burns are more serious than the alkali burns
C. Produce irritative reaction at the local site B. Alkalies combine with lipids of cells to form
D. All of the above soluble compounds, which produce a condition
of softening and gelatinisation
18. Clinical manifestations of chalcosis include all of C. Acids cause instant coagulation of all the proteins
the following except: D. Symblepharon is a distressing sequelae
A. Kayser-Fleischer ring 26. In rosette-shaped cataract the suture act as
B. Sunflower cataract backbone in:
C. Greenish discolouration of iris A. Early-rosette cataract
D. Deposition of golden plaque at the posterior pole B. Late-rosette cataract
of the retina C. Both of the above
19. The most toxic intraocular foreign body is a D. None of the above
particle of: 27. Orange-skin cornea results due to:
A. Copper A. Chalcosis
B. Iron B. Siderosis
C. Tantalum C. Ammonia burn
D. Aluminium D. Mustard gas
13 : B 14 : C 15 : A 16 : B 17 : A 18 : C 20 : B 21 : C 22 : D 23 : C 24 : A 25 : A
19 : A 26 : A 27 : D
150 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
28. Most common site for the lodgement of intraocular 35. A 20-year-old man complains of difficulty in
foreign body is: reading the newspaper with his right eye, three
A. Vitreous weeks after sustaining a gun shot injury to his left
B. Posterior chamber eye. The most likely diagnosis is:
C. Lens A. Macular edema
D. Anterior chamber B. Sympathetic ophthalmia
C. Optic nerve avulsion
29. Best method of detection of retained glass D. Delayed vitreous haemorrhage
intraocular foreign body is:
A. CT scan 36. Vossius ring is seen in:
A. Cornea
B. Radiography
B. Lens
C. Ultrasonography
C. Vitreous
D. Tonography
D. Retina
30. Commotio retinae is seen in:
37. Dangerous area of eye:
A. Concussion injury A. Ciliary body
B. Retinopathy of AIDS B. Optic nerve
C. Central vein thrombosis C. Sclera
D. Central artery thrombosis D. Choroid
31. Ruptured globe is suspected if there is:
A. Proptosis
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
B. Subluxation of lens 38. Traumatic eye lesion can causes:
C. Blow-out fracture A. Vitreous haemorrhage
D. Chemosis, haemorrhage, decreased IOP B. Corneal opacity
C. Exudative retinal detachment
32. The incidence of retained intraocular foreign D. Glaucoma
bodies is maximum with injuries due to: E. Cataract
A. Bow and arrow
B. Chisel and hammer 39. A boy gets hit by a tennis ball in the eye following
C. Air-gun pellet which he has complaints of decreased vision.
D. Glass Which of the following tells that blunt injury is
due to the ball?
33. All are seen in blunt injury of the eye except: A. Optic neuritis
A. Hyphema B. Pars planitis
B. Iridocyclitis C. Vitreous base detachment
C. Double perforation D. Equatorial edema
D. Retinal detachment
40. Common feature between sympathetic ophthalmitis
34. Traumatic dislocation of lens is best diagnosed by: and Vogt-Kanayagi-Harada syndrome:
A. Direct ophthalmoscopy A. Autoimmune etiology
B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy B. Injury
C. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy C. Uveitis
D. Slit-lamp examination D. Vitiligo
28 : A 29 : A 30 : A 31 : D 32 : B 33 : C 35 : B 36 : B 37 : A 38 : A, B, C, D and E
34 : D 39 : C 40 : A and C
CHAPTER
Type of laser Wave lenghth Atomic environment Effects produced Clinical uses
(nanometer) used
Argon 514 Argon gas Photocoagulation Diabetic retinopathy
Krypton 714 Krypton gas Photocoagulation Peripheral retinal vascular
abnormalities such as Eales’
disease, proliferative sickle
cell disease, Coat’s disease and
retinopathy of prematurity
Diode 800 Diode crystal Photocoagulation Intraocular tumours such as
retinoblastoma, malignant
haemangioma
nd-YAG 1064 A liquid dye, or a solid Photodisruption Capsulotomy iridotomy
compound of yttrium-
aluminium garnet and
neodymium
Excimer 193 Helium and flourine gas Photoablation Refractive corneal surgery
(LASIK)
Phototherapeutic
Keratectomy (PTK)
Femtosecond 1053 Neodymium-glass Photodisruption Femto-LASIK
Femto- cataract surgery
1 : A 2 : B 3 : C 4 : A 5 : D 6:B 7 : B 8 : A 9 : D 10 : B 11 : C 12 : D
156 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
13. Laser photocoagulation is useful in all of the 20. Main disadvantage of cocaine as local anaesthetic
following macular disorders except: was:
A. Exudative age-related macular degeneration A. Causes dry eyes
B. Central serous retinopathy B. Follicular conjunctivitis
C. Focal type of diabetic maculopathy C. Intraocular penetration
D. Aphakic cystoid macular oedema D. Epithelial erosions
14. Excimer laser is used in the correction of: 21. Combination of pilocarpine and epinephrine use
A. Myopia in glaucoma treatment may inhibit:
B. Hypermetropia A. Pigmented pupillary cyst
C. Astigmatism B. Retinal detachment
D. All of the above C. Vitreous haemorrhage
D. Iridocyclitis
15. Pilocarpine is not used in young adults as it causes:
A. Myopia 22. Type of laser used for capsulotomy is:
B. Cystic blebs of iris A. C02
B. Ruby
C. Fatigue reaction
C. Nd:YAG
D. Allergy with circumcorneal congestion
D. Argon
16. Drugs used in treatment of herpes simplex
23. YAG laser is used in the treatment of:
keratitis include all except:
A. Retinal detachment
A. Idoxuridine 0.1%
B. Diabetic retinopathy
B. 5-Fluorouracil C. Open-angle glaucoma
C. Adenosine arabinoside D. After cataract
D. Cytosine arabinoside
E. Pimarcin 24. Argon laser is used in all except:
A. Retinal detachment
17. In atropine instillation, all are seen except: B. Retinitis pigmentosa
A. Dilated pupil C. Retinal vein occlusion
B. Paralysis of accommodation D. Eales’ disease
C. Increased water content to tear
D. Decreased water content to tear 25. Excimer laser is used in:
A. Glaucoma
18. Near vision is not affected with: B. Cataract
A. Atropine C. Uveitis
B. Adrenaline D. Diabetic retinopathy
C. Homatropine E. None of the above
D. Pilocarpine
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
19. In a patient predisposed to glaucoma, the drug
contraindicated is: 26. Wavelength of ND: Yag laser:
A. Pilocarpine A. 1040 nm
B. Ecothiopate B. 1040 mm
C. Timolol C. 1040 cm
D. None of the above D. 1040 m
13 : D 14 : D 15 : A 16 : E 17 : D 18 : B 20 : D 21 : A 22 : C 23 : D 24 : B 25 : E
19 : D 26 : A
CHAPTER
19
Systemic Ophthalmology
• Papilloedema Vitamins
• Ocular palsies with diplopia Vitamin A
• Nystagmus • Papilloedema
• Optic neuritis and atrophy • Retinal haemorrhages
• Retinal vasculitis • Loss of eyebrows and eyelashes
• Scotomas • Nystagmus
• Migraine • Diplopia and blurring of vision.
• Mydriasis
• Cyloplegia Vitamin D
• Macular oedema. • Band-shaped keratopathy.
Corticosteroids Antirheumatic agents
• Cataract (posterior subcapsular) • Salicylates: Nystagmus, retinal haemorrhages,
• Local immune suppression causing susceptibility cortical blindness (rare)
to viral (herpes simplex), bacterial and fungal • Indomethacin: Corneal deposits
infection • Phenylbutazone: Retinal haemorrhages.
• Steroid-induced glaucoma.
Antibiotics
MISCELLANEOUS POINTS
• Chloramphenicol: Optic neuritis and optic atrophy • Most common ocular involvement in sarcoidosis
is iritis.
• Streptomycin: Optic neuritis
• The most common ocular finding in AIDS patients
• Tetracycline: Pseudotumor cerebri, transient
is iritis and the most common fundus finding is
myopia.
cotton wool spots.
Antimalarial • The commonest ocular finding in anaemia is pallor
Chloroquine of conjunctiva.
• Diabetes is the most common cause of cotton wool
• Macular changes (Bull’s eye maculopathy)
spots.
• Central scotomas
• Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of
• Pigmentary degeneration of the retina
posterior uveitis.
• Chloroquine keratopathy
• The major cause of blindness in leprosy is iritis
• Ocular palsies • The most common ocular manifestation of
• Ptosis multiple sclerosis is retrobulbar neuritis.
• Electroretinographic depression. • Ocular signs in SLE are marginal corneal
Amoebicides degeneration, episcleritis, scleritis, retinal
• Diiodohydroxy quinoline: Subacute myelo-optic haemorrhages and cotton-wool retinal exudates.
neuropathy (SMON), optic atrophy. • Pupillary abnormalities in tabes dorsalis include
spinal miosis, anisocoria and argyll-robertson
Chemotherapeutic agents pupil.
• Sulfonamides: Stevens-Johnson syndrome • Most commonly involved cranial nerve in fracture
• Ethambutol: Optic neuritis and atrophy base of the skull is facial nerve.
• Isoniazid: Optic neuritis and optic atrophy. • The commonest ocular sign of hypothyroidism is
cataract.
Heavy metals
• Dalrymple’s sign is the commonest lid sign of
• Gold salts: Deposits in the cornea and conjunctiva Graves’ ophthalmopathy.
• Lead: Optic atrophy, papilledema, ocular palsies. • The commonest feature of Waardenburg’s
Chelating agents syndrome is lateral displacement of both medial
• Penicillamine: Ocular pemphigoid, ocular neuritis, canthi and lacrimal puncta.
ocular myasthenia. • The commonest ocular infection associated with
AIDS is CMV retinitis.
Oral hypoglycemic agents • Ocular complications associated with pregnancy
• Chloropropamide: Transient change in refractive are worsening of diabetic retinopathy, ptosis,
error, diplopia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome. central serous retinopathy, ophthalmoplegia.
Systemic Ophthalmology 161
1 : D 2 : C 3 : A 4 : A 5 : B 6:C 7 : D 8 : A 9 : D 10 : A 11 : A 12 : C
13 : A
162 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
14 : C 15 : A 16 : B 17 : C 18 : D 19 : B 23 : A 24 : D 25 : A 26 : C 27 : B 28 : A
20 : D 21 : B 22 : B 29 : D 30 : A
Systemic Ophthalmology 163
31. Basilar insufficiency shows: 40. All are seen in albinism except:
A. Ptosis A. Nystagmus
B. Blurred vision B. Glaucoma
C. Diplopia C. Photophobia
D. VI nerve weakness D. Refractive error
32. In uraemic amaurosis the pupils are: 41. Bowen’s disease is characterized by all except:
A. Constricted A. Predilection for the limbus
B. Dilated and do not react to light B. Poikilocytosis
C. Dilated but react to light C. Presence of monster cell
D. Normal D. Being incapable of metastasizing
33. Diabetes mellitus can cause the following in the 42. Essential atrophy of choroid is due to inborn error
eye except: of metabolism of amino acid:
A. Cystine
A. Cataract
B. Cysteine
B. Retinopathy
C. Arginine
C. Anterior ischemic neuropathy
D. Ornithine E Lysine
D. Neuroparalytic keratitis
43. Which of the following is the most common ocular
34. The presence of Kayser-Fleischer ring is patho complication with renal transplantation:
gnomonic of: A. Cataract
A. Keratoconus B. Glaucoma
B. Lowe’s syndrome C. Cytomegalo virus retinitis
C. Wilson’s disease D. Candida keratomycosis
D. Albinism E. Candida endophthalmitis
35. Roth’s spots in the fundus are seen in: 44. Pepper salt fundus is seen in:
A. Diabetes A. CMV retinitis
B. Chorioretinitis B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Bacterial endocarditis C. Rubella
D. Retinoblastoma D. Measles
36. In Weber’s syndrome there is: 45. In mumps the most common eye lesion is:
A. 3rd nerve palsy A. Dacryoadenitis
B. 4th nerve palsy B. Uveitis
C. 5th nerve C. Membranous conjunctivitis
D. 7th nerve D. Chorioretinitis
37. Muscle mostly affected in thyroid ophthalmopathy 46. Ptosis with orbicularis oculi palsy is seen in:
is: A. Eaton Lambert syndrome
B. Myasthenia gravis
A. Lateral rectus
C. Polymyositis
B. Inferior rectus
D. Motor neuron disease
C. Superior rectus
D. Medial rectus 47. Most common cranial nerve involved in ophthalmo
plegic migraine is:
38. Dalen Fuch lesion is seen in: A. II nerve
A. Purulent keratitis B. III nerve
B. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis C. V nerve
C. Retinoblastoma D. VI nerve
D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
48. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically
39. “Rubeosis Iridis” is most commonly seen in: caused by:
A. Diabetes mellitus A. Cytomegalo virus
B. Central retinal vein occlusion B. Toxoplasma gondi
C. Trauma C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Central retinal artery occlusion D. All of the above
31 : A 32 : C 33 : D 34 : C 35 : C 36 : A 40 : B 41 : B 42 : D 43 : C 44 : C 45 : A
37 : B 38 : D 39 : B 46 : B 47 : B 48 : A
164 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
49. The most common condition of inherited 55. In Waardenburg’s syndrome, following are seen
blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal except:
anomaly is: A. Widening of the eyebrow
A. Retinopathy of prematurity B. Short palpebral fissure
C. Interstital keratitis
B. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
D. Heterochromia iridis
C. Retinitis pigmentosa
D. Retinal detachment EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS
50. Toxic amblyopia is produced by:
56. Xerophthalmia is caused by:
A. INH A. Vit C deficiency
B. Rifampicin B. Small bowel resection
C. Ethambutol C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Pyrazinamide D. Chronic alcoholism
E. Glomerulonephritis
51. Contraindications of topical steroids are:
57. Vit A deficiency produces:
A. Dendritic ulcer
A. Bitots spots
B. Disciform keratitis
B. Trantas spots
C. Anterior uveitis C. Keratomalacia
D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma D. Xerophthalmia
E. Color blindness
52. Which drug causes bull’s eye macula:
A. Phenytoin 58. Ocular manifestation of HIV are all except:
B. Chloroquine A. Predispose to viral, bacterial and fungal function
B. Kaposi sarcoma
C. Steroids
C. CMV retinitis
D. Ethambutal D. Cotton wool spot
53. Most common adverse effect on eye in oral E. Intraocular lymphoma
contraceptive usage is: 59. Ocular manifestations in AIDS:
A. Colour blindness A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Ring scotoma B. Retinitis
C. Optic neuritis C. Lymphoma
D. Nystagmus D. Tuberculosis
E. Herpes
54. Drug not deposited in cornea:
60. Eye involvement is seen in:
A. Gold
A. Seropositive polyarticular JRA late onset
B. Chloroquine B. Seronegative pauciarticular JRA late onset
C. Amiodarone C. Seronegative polyarticular JRA early onset
D. Antimony D. Seronegative pauciarticular JRA early onset
49 : B 50 : B 51 : A 52 : B 53 : C 54 : D 55 : C 56 : B, C and D 57 : A, C and D
58 : None 59 : A, B, C, D and E 60 : D
CHAPTER
20
Community Ophthalmology
Normal vision 1 Less than 6/18 to 6/60 Refractive errors (0.7%) + aphakia (5.6%) 6.3
3 Less than 3/60 (FC at 3 m) to 1/60 (FC at Complications of cataract surgery 3.0
1m) or visual field between 5° and 10° Corneal opacity including trachoma 6.5
Blindness 4 Less than 1/60 (FC at 1 m) to light Posterior segment disorders (DR, 0.1% + 3.0
perception or visual field less than 5° ARMD 0.7% + others 2.2%)
5 No light perception NPCB Survey (2001-02)
Cataract 62.6
Avoidable blindness includes both preventable
Refractive errors 19.7
blindness (e.g. xerophthalmia blindness) and
curable blindness (e.g. cataract blindness). Glaucoma 5.8
Posterior segment disorders 4.7
MAGNITUDE OF BLINDNESS Surgical complications 1.2
• The prevalence of blindness in developing Corneal blindness 0.9
countries ranges from 0.5 to 2 percent or higher, Others 5.0
while the representative figures in developed WHO-NPCB Survey (1986-89)
countries are 0.05 to 0.3 per cent. Cataract 80.1
• The prevalence of blindness reported from India Refractive errors 7.35
is 1.49 percent (WHO-NPCB 1986-89) and 1.1%
Glaucoma 1.7
(NPCB, 2001-2002).
Trachoma 0.39
CAUSES OF BLINDNESS Aphakic blindness 4.67
1. WHO definition of blindness is a visual acuity in 6. The school health surveys are quite useful in early
the better eye equal to or less than: detection of mainly:
A. 3/60 A. Refractive errors
B. 4/60 B. Amblyopia
C. 5/60 C. Colour vision defects
D. 6/60 D. All of the above
2. In the ninth revision of the international 7. Most common cause of blindness (as per WHO-
classification of diseases, ‘Visual impairment’ is a NPCB Survey, 1989) in India out of the following
visual acuity in the better eye of: is:
A. 6/18 A. Aphakic blindness
B. 6/36 B. Glaucoma
C. 6/60 C. Trachoma
D. 3/60 D. Vitamin A deficiency
3. WHO definition of blindness in addition to visual
8. Commonest cause of blindness in India:
acuity of less than 3/60 (Snellen’s) also includes
a visual field in the better eye equal to or less A. Vitamin A deficiency
than: B. Cataract
A. 5° C. Trauma
B. 10° D. Trachoma
C. 15°
D. 3° 9. Lowest incidence of trachoma is seen in:
A. Punjab
4. As per WHO-NPCB (1986-89) survey, all of the B. Rajasthan
following are true about causes of blindness in C. Uttar Pradesh
India except: D. Orissa
A. Cataract 55%
B. Refractive errors 7.35% 10. Cataract blindness is:
C. Glaucoma 1.7% A. Preventable
D. Trachoma 0.39% B. Curable
5. All of the following are true about prevention of C. Avoidable
vitamin A deficiency by supplements except: D. Curable and avoidable
A. Dose in children over 1 year is 2 lac IU orally
11. Blindness in a child is most commonly due to:
B. Dose in infants less than 6 month (not being
breast fed is 50 thousand IV orally) A. Keratomalacia
C. Dose in first trimester of pregnancy is 1 lac IU B. Congenital cataract
D. Under CSSM Programme first dose (1 lac IU) is C. Glaucoma
given at 9 months of age along with measles D. Injuries
1 : B 2 : C 3 : A 4 : B 5 : C 6 : D 7 : C 8 : A 9 : A 10 : B 11 : A
168 Review of OPHTHALMOLOGY
12. The commonest cause of low vision in India is: B. Epidemic conjunctivitis
A. Uncorrected refractive error C. Cataract
B. Cataract D. Ibcgicercuasus
C. Glaucoma
D. Squint 16. Under the WHO “Vision 2020’ program, the “SAFE”
strategy is adopted for which of the following
13. All of the following are given global prominence
diseases:
in the VISION 2020 goal, expect:
A. Refractive errors A. Trachoma
B. Cataract B. Glaucoma
C. Trachoma C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Glaucoma D. Onchocerciasis.
EXTRA EDGE QUESTIONS 17. On SAFE strategy false is:
14. Most common cause of blindness in children in A. Screening
India except: B. Antibiotics
A. Malnutrition C. Facial hygiene
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum D. Environmental modification
C. Glaucoma 18. All of the following are causes of night blindness
D. Congenital dacryocystitis
except:
15. All of the following conditions are immediate A. Oguchi’s disease
priorities in the WHO’s “vision -2020: The right to B. Gyrate atrophy
sight” except: C. Choroideremia
A. Trachoma D. Devics disease
12 : C 13 : D 14 : D 15 : B 16 : A 17 : A 18 : D