Pretest Fire - Police Personal PDF

SYNTHESIS 2 (LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION)
(PRE – TEST)
NAME:____________________________ YR. & SEC._______________

SUBJECT: POLICE PER AND REC MANAGEMENT DATE:_____________
INSTRUCTION: ENCIRCLE THE LETTER THAT CORRESPONDS TO THE CORRECT ANSWER FOR
EACH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. USE PENCIL ONLY.
01. Administrative offenses by the omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an
act or duty, which it was the peace officer’s legal obligation to perform.
A. Incompetence B. Dishonesty C. Oppression D. Neglect of Duty/Misfeasance
02. Administrative offenses by the import of an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction
domination, or excessive use of authority.
03. Administrative offenses by the concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact
relevant to one’s office, or one connected with the performance of his duties.
04. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol B. records C. investigation D. traffic
05. Any members of the PNP may opt to retire from the PNP service upon accumulation of at
least:
A. 25 years of satisfactory service
B. 15 years of satisfactory service
C. 30 years of satisfactory service
D. 20 years of satisfactory service
06. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10 years is called;
A. annual plan B. long-term plan C. strategic plan D. Midterm plan
07. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:
A. Regional Appellate Board B. National Appellate Board
C. National Police Commission D. People’s Law Enforcement Board
08. Grave misconduct is incurred by any member of the PNP who shall:
A. Refuse to report to duty
B. Make false report or entry in the police blotter
C. Deface of destroy any office paper
D. Taking undue advantage of subordinate09
09. In the PNP Application Processing System, it is the process of removing
undesirable/unqualified applicants?
A. Selection B. Recruitment C. Training D. Appraisal
10. It exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
A. NBI B. DILG C. AFP D. COMELEC
11. It exercises supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP B. Bureau of Prisons C. DILG D. Provincial Government
12. It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive
identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records D. Fingerprint Records
13. Constitutional Provision which provides” The state shall establish and maintain one police
force which is national in scope and civilian in charter.”
A. ART. V, Section 12 B. ART.XV1, Section 6 C. ART. XV1, Section 16. D. ART.12, Section 7
14. It refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of the protection
of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order.
A. Recruitment B. Employment C. Deployment D. Reenlistment
15. It means the orderly and organized physical movement of element or units of the PNP
assigned to their respective jurisdiction.
A. Recruitment B. Employment C. Deployment D. Reenlistment
16. The required number of days when a member of the PNP may be considered as Absent
without Official Leave (AWOL) who will be dismissed immediately from the service.
A. Continuous absent of thirty (30 ) days C. Continuous absent of fifteen (15 ) days
B. Continuous absent of ten (10 ) days D. Continuous absent of thirty (20 ) days
17. The Police Community Relation Month.
A. April B. May C. June D. July
18. The Crime Prevention Month.
A. August B. September C. October D. November
19. The Fire Prevention Month.
A. March B. April C. May D. June
20. It is the PNP division which coordinates and binds together all other functional division of a
police department.
A. Record Division C. Warrant and Subpoena Division
B. Investigation Division D. Intelligence Division
21. Following are the basic police function, except;
A. Arrest of offender C. Prevention of Crime
B. Maintenance of Peace in Order D. Legislation
22. In what branch of the government does the PNP belongs;
A. Legislative B. Judiciary C. Executive D. DILG
23. Staff of the commander is considered to be his______.
A. Superior Officer B. Extension C. Alter Ego D. Reserve Force
24. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National
Police.
A. OWWA B. DND C. NAPOLCOM D. DFA
25. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers
of the PNP.
A. DILG B. NAPOLCOM C. PLEB D. IAS
26. It is recognized as the best method of filing
A. Pigeon Hole B. Retrieval operation C. Management D. Chain of custody
27. Doctor of Medicine, member of the Bar, Chaplain, shall be appointed to the initial rank for
lateral entry
A. POLICE INSPECTOR B.POLICE LIEUTENANT C. POLICE CAPTAIN D. MAJOR
28. C, PNP have the power to impose suspension or forfeiture of pay or combination thereof
for a period not exceeding_____.
A. Sixty (60) days B. Fifteen (15 ) days C. Thirty (30) days D. One Hundred Eighty (180) days
29. Chief of Police has the power to impose susp3nsionnor forfeiture of pay or combination
thereof for a period not exceeding_____.
A. Sixty (60) days B. Fifteen (15 ) days C. Thirty (30) days D. One Hundred Eighty (180) days
30. Forum shopping means;
A. Panic Buying B. Grocery Items C. Venue D. Multiple Filling of Complain
31. It refers to an act or offense not involving moral turpitudes
A. Index Crime B, Non- Index Crime C. Major Crime D. Minor Offense
32. PLEB means_____.
A. Police Law Enforcement Board C. Public Law Enforcement Board
B. Personal Law Enforcement Board D. People’s Law Enforcement Board
33. The jurisdiction to hear and decide criminal complaint against earring police personnel.
A. Internal Affair Service (IAS) B. PLEB C. Regular Court D. NAPOLCOM
34. One of the criteria for promotion which refers to the overall length of service in the present
rank.
A. Government service record
B. Period of permanency in the rank
C. Time-in-Grade
D. Length of service in the PNP
35. Police personnel may be effectively distributed according to any of the following
classification, EXCEPT
A. By time B. By function C. By area D. By gender
36. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible
evidence of an award:
A. Medal B. Awards C. Decorations D. Ribbons
37. The following are act which constitute grave dishonesty except one.
A. Make a false report
B. Deliberate false testimony
C. Destroy, conceal physical evidence
D. Use of government papers
38. The function of management which covers hiring, firing, and training.
A. Staffing B. Directing C. Planning D. Organizing
39. This office is in charge of supervising all matters pertaining to supply.
A. Office of the finance
B. Office of the logistic manager
C. Office of the communication officer
D. Officer of the operation manager
40. This report shall serve as the investigation report of the officer who investigated an
accident.
A. Miscellaneous Records B. Identification Record C. Technical Report D. Accident Report
41. This report shall be used as the second and succeeding pages of all kinds of report.
A. Continuation Report B. Identification Record C. Technical Report D. Accident Report
42. Status of a case when it is no longer being investigated and it is not assigned to an
investigator.
A. Follow-up Case. B. Closed Case C. Cleared Case D. For Record only.
43. Status of a case when one or more persons are arrested, charged with the commission of
the offense and turned over to the fiscal or court prosecution.
A. Follow-up Case. B. Closed Case C. Cleared Case D. For Record only
44. It described the method of operation of a criminal, classified and filed in such a way as to
aid in identifying the crime as one committed by a known criminal.
A Police Line Up B. Modus Operandi C. Finger Print D. Prisoner’s Record
45., Administrative record of a police officer showing the history of each police officer, both
prior and subsequent to joining the force is indispensable.
A. Assignment B. Memoranda C. Correspondence files D. Personnel Records
46. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
A. 15 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 20 years
47. What plans require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police
organization?
A. Extra departmental plan B. Management plan
C. Operational plan D. Tactical plan
48. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial B. multiple cover C. natural D. covers within a cover
49. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG B. DSWD C. Women’s Desk D. Homicide Division
50. Which of the following agency administers the PNP Entrance and Promotional
Examinations?
A. Civil Service Commission
B. Commission on Appointment
C. National Police Commission
D. Professional Regulations Commission
51. Within how many days after receipt of the motion of appeal shall the Board decide?
A. Fifteen (15) days B. Twenty days C. Sixty (60) days D. Thirty (30) days
52. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director B. Chief of Police C. Provincial Director D. Chief PNP
53. In the preceding question, what particular form authority is more dominant to his style?
A. traditional authority B. legal – rational authority
C. charismatic authority D. delegation of authority
54. Which of the following is not true about objectives?
A. it is critical in planning and evaluating performance
B. needed before a plan can be develop
C. specific ways to accomplish a task
D. based on the general desire outcomes
55. The process of attracting police candidates who have maximum qualifications to be eligible
for selections procedure
A. Selection B. Screening C. Recruitment D. Management
56. Functions of police personnel management of determining the most qualified police
applicant for a given position in the police organization.
A. Police Placement B. Police Appraisal C. Police Screening D. Police Recruitment
57. Functions of police personnel management of making police officer adjusted and
knowledgeable in a new job and/or working environment.
58. The recruitment and selection of applicants who will be appointed in the police service is
the responsibility of ________.
A. Directorate for Training C. Directorate for Finance
B. Directorate for Operation D. Directorate for Personnel and Record Management
59. Functions of police personnel management of encouraging police applicant from outside an
organization to seek employment in an organization.
60. Functions of police personnel management of processing or measuring the performance of
people in achieving goals and objectives, also known as Performance Evaluation system.
61. It is an art of preparing, organizing and directing the effort of members of police force in
order that they may achieve the accomplishment of the police purpose.
A. Police Personnel Planning C. Police Personnel Management
B. Police Compensation D. Police Personnel Administration
62. They are responsible for the widest dissemination of vacancies in their respective areas, the
evaluation of the applicant qualifications and the selection of the most qualified applicants to
be recommended for appointment to the police service.
A. Police Training Division C. Selection and Recruitment Division
B. Screening Committee D. Police Placement Committee
63. PNP recruitment procedure of testing or determining of whether or not the applicant
possesses the require coordination, strength and speed of movement necessary in the police
service.
A. Physical Agility Test (PAT) C. Physical, Medical and Dental Examination (PMDE)
B. Psychiatric Examination D. Psychological Examination
64. Will serve as the chairman of all the police regional office screening committee.
A. Senior NAPOLCOM Official
B. Deputy regional director for operation
C. Deputy regional director for administration
D. Chief regional directorial staff
65. Will serve as the vice- chairman of all the police regional office screening committee.
A. Senior NAPOLCOM Official
B. Deputy regional director for operation
C. Deputy regional director for administration
D. Chief regional directorial staff
66. This would the great impact on how to explain would the superior explain any wrong acts
made by his men on the field even he was not around when the event took occur:
A. Command responsibility B. Span of control
C. Unity of command D. Chain of command
67. It particularly implies a duty as well as its breach and the fact can never be found in the
absence of a duty.
A. Nonfeasance B. Misfeasance C. Malfeasance D. neglect of duty
68. Giving direction of employees toward in line with their work is an example of:
A. Police supervision B. Supervision C. Leadership D. Staffing
69. The following are the divisions of the DPRM except:
A. Recruitment and selection division
B. Personnel Transaction Division
C. PNP program management office
D. Benefits and Pension Administration Division
70. This is the specific and the measurable ways of the accomplishing the goals of the
organization.
A. goal B. mission C. objectives D. philosophy
71. Which of the following statements is not true about the Organization?
A. Command officers had complete power over subordinates
B. Predominated by with its hierarchy of authoritative management
C. communication flowed upward
D. Downward
72. The PNP organizational structure is composed of the central office or the National
Headquarters, which housed the office of the following, except?
A. PNP chief B. Deputy Chief for Administration
C. Regional Director D. Deputy Chief for Operation
73. It is the order of authority in the PNP organization.
A. Unity of command B. Chain of command
C. Span of control D. Hierarchy
74. It is the technique of organizing and handling people at work in all levels and types of
management.
A. personnel administration B. police supervision
C. personnel management D. police planning
75. All but one is the essential elements of a formal organization.
A. goals B. objectives C. values D. none of these
76. To determine a supervisor’s span of control, what has to be taken into consideration?
A. number of supervisors who gives him order
B. number of supervisors whom he reports
C. the functions for which he assumes full responsibility
D. number of subordinates who directly reports to him
77. It is closely related to the principle of span of control in which the tasks were divided among
the officers of various units but still the presence of one superior always exists. The Statement
is referring to:
A. span of control B. unity of command
C. delegation of authority D. command responsibility
78. He is a qualified officer who shall coordinate across the department lines on their records
activities and shall have the responsibility and control of all the records holding of the agency in
her possession and custody.
A. Investigator B. Record Custodian C. Intelligence Officer D. Patrol Officer
79. What do you call that report on the laboratory examination on the physical evidence
gathered in order to supplement the findings of the investigator?
A. Technical Report B. Progress Report C. Final Report D. Initial Report
80. The report which contains the list of the prisoners in custody which indicates the status and
disposition thereof.
A. Arrest Report B. Booking Report C. Prisoner’s Property Report D. Police Report
81. What do you call that report which contains all the information regarding the property
taken from the prisoner and accomplish in duplicate.
A. Arrest Report B. Booking Report C. Prisoner’s Property Report D. Police Report
82. Types of report which reflects all information regarding complaints and reports received by
the police from citizens and other agencies or actions taken by the police.
A. Case Records B. Initial Report C. Complaint Sheet D. Progress Report
83. What do you call that investigation report regarding accident which includes vehicular
accident and damage to property?
A. Accident Report B. Progress Report C. Final Report D. Initial Report
84. The records which provide identification of criminals which includes names, physical
characteristics and in some cases photograph.
A. Finger print record B. Criminal Specialty
C. Booking Records D. Identification Records.
85. Records which is very essential in administering personnel matters and designed to aid in
assignment, promotion, and disciplinary action of personnel.
A. Miscellaneous Records B. Administrative Record C. Arrest D. Booking Records
86. A plan that determines the quality and quantity of efforts and accomplishment
A. Intermediate plan B. Strategic plan
C. OPLAN D. Police operational planning
87. A police rank of Lieutenant General who is one of the heads in the directorial staffs is
represented by the insignia;
A. 4 stars B. 2 stars
C. 3 stars D. 1 star
88. As a dispatcher, you are task to follow certain courses of action that may be reflected on the
duty manual. The statement is referring to:
A. field procedures B. tactical procedures
C. procedural plan D. headquarters procedures
89. This plan will assist in coordinating community effort, in promoting public support and in
combating organized crimes.
A. management plan B. tactical plan
C. operational plan D. extra-departmental plan
90. A leader that takes a hands-off passive approach in dealing with the subordinates.
A. autocratic B. democratic
C. free-rein D. charismatic
91. It refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can be accomplished on time with
available allocated resources.
A. Intermediate plan B. Strategic plan
C. OPLAN D. Police operational planning
92. Refers to those police officers whose ranks ranges from Patrolman to Executive Master
Sergeant
A. ordinary police officers B. commissioned officers
C. Non-commissioned officers D. none of these
93. The command responsibility will include improper performance of the act which might be
lawfully done. It is primarily referring to misfeasance. What if an act was also lawfully done but
should not be done.
A. Nonfeasance B. omission
C. malfeasance D. misconduct
94. Why is it that every group of personnel must have only one supervisor?
A. to ensure command of the group
B. to avoid confusion of authority
C. to protect the supervisor
D. all of them
95. In the PNP organization, it establishes definite lines of authority that makes the order not
more sophisticated and then opens the channels of the direct line of communication.
A. Unity of command B. Chain of command
C. Span of control D. Hierarchy
96. An officer who is in dominion of the department district or bureau.
A. line officer B. commanding officer
C. superior officer D. ranking officer
97. Non-commissioned and Commissioned officers do not have the same authorities and
responsibilities because of its pyramid shaped with a single line authority. The statement is
referring to:
A Hierarchy B. Span of control
C. Chain of command D. Unity of command
98. Kind of promotion granted to police officers meeting the mandatory requirements for
promotion.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion D. Posthumous Promotion
99. Kind of promotion granted to police officers who have exhibited acts of conspicuous
courage and gallantry at the risk of his /her life above and beyond the call of duty.
100. Kind of promotion granted to police officers designated to any key position whose rank is
lower than that which is required for such position shall, after six (6) months of occupying the
same, be entitled to a rank adjustment corresponding to the position.
X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-AME032003-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-
(SGD) ANTONINO M. ESTEBAN

P/LT (RET.)
LL.B, MSCA, RCRIM
SYNTHESIS 3 (CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION)
(PRE - TEST)
NAME:____________________________ YR. & SEC._______________

SUBJECT: FIRE TECH AND ARSON INVESTIGATION DATE:__________________
INSTRUCTION: ENCIRCLE THE CORRECT ANSWER FOR EACH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS.
USE PENCIL IF POSSIBLE.
01. In arson investigation it is necessary to _____ the wire before it will cut-off.
a. Tagged b. Sealed c. Photograph d. Marked
02. It is also necessary to _____ the both ends of the wire being cut-off so that they can be
identified.
a. Tagged b. Sealed c. Photograph d. Marked
03. It is a building or structure where fifty (50) or more people congregate, gather, or assemble
for any purpose.
a. Public Way b. Private Building c. Corporate Building d. Public Assembly Building
04. Any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air.
a. Vestibule substance b. Smelting Substance c. Pyrophoric Substance d. Sulfur
05. What do you call that passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the
interior parts of the building?
a. Vertical shaft b. Vestibule c. Standpipe system d. Sprinkler system
06. Following are the processes of collecting liquid samples; except:
a. Siphoning device b. New syringe c. Evidence container d. Flour
07. Following are the processes of collecting liquid accelerant which are believed trapped in
porous materials such as concrete floor; except:
a. lime b. Diatomaceous earth c. Scooping d. Flour
08. Following are the processes of collecting liquid evidence absorbed by solid materials
including soils and sand, except:
a. Sawing b. Lime c. Scooping d. Scraping
09. What do you call that visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warn the
occupants of the building or fire fighting elements of the presence or danger of fire to enable
them to undertake immediate action to save life and property?
a. Flash point b. Fire Lane c. Fire door d. Fire alarm
10. What do call that portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept opened and
unobstructed at all times for the expedient operation of fire fighting unit.
11. What do call that fire resistance door prescribed for opening in fire separation walls
partition?
12. It is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapour in sufficient
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.
13. It is a piece of material or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an
electrical system
a. Overloading b. Insulator c. Conductor d. Jumper
14. It is the use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system
a. Overloading b. Insulator c. Conductor d. Jumper
15. Any material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
combustion.
a. Hypergolic fuel b. Oxidizing Material c. Industrial baking d. Drying
16. It is a rocket or liquid propellant which consists of combinations of fuels and oxidizers which
ignite spontaneously on contact with each other.
a. Hypergolic fuel b. Oxidizing Material c. Industrial baking d. Drying
17. He is the person who holds the legal right of possession or title to building or real property.
a. Occupancy b. Occupant c. Tenants d. Owner
18. Otherwise known as the “ Revised Fire Code of the Philippines”.
a. P.D. 1185 b. R.A. 6713 c. P.D. 96 d. R.A. 9514
19. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set –off explosives.
a. Combustible material b. Flammable Material c. Blasting Agent d. Abatement
20. Condition of a building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks
adequate exits or fire escapes.
a. abatement b. Electrical Arc c. Curtain Board d. Fire trap
21. Classification of materials used to start a fire; combustible fuel.
a. Pyromania b. Incendiary materials c. Alcoholic d. Drug Addicts
22. Action of an offender that may resort to arson as a means of public disturbance because a
fire attracts people and destruction causes confusion that gives rise to attendant problems that
divert police attention.
a. Punitive measures b. Pyromania c. Public disturbance d. Vandalism
23. It is a general term denoting intentional burning to destroy properties.
a. Punitive measures b. Pyromania c. Public disturbance d. Vandalism
24. It is the uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn anything without motivation. It usually
do not run away from the crime, usually alone and feel satisfied watching the flame.
a. Abnormal youth b. Pyromania c. The Hero type d. Sexual deviates
25. Types of pyromania having a sex perverts derive sexual stimulation from setting a fire and
watching the flame.
26. Types of pyromania when a person set fire on a building, subsequently pretend to dicover
it and turn in the alarm so that he will appear as a hero to the public.
27. The motive of an arsonist to use fire as a means of punishing another person for reason of
jealousy , hatred or revenge.
a. Intimidation b. Force c. Intent d. Punitive Measures
28. It is the moving cause which induces a person to commit a crime.
a. Opportunity b. Desire c. Intent d. Motive
29. Following are the motive of an arsonist, except;
a. Economic Gain b, Desire to move c. Vice d. property Transaction .
30. Motive of an arsonist arises when the stock on hand may have lost value by reason of
seasonal nature of the business, scarcity of materials necessary to complete the contracts,
overstocks in the absence of expected order or a changing market.
a. Economic Gain b, Desire to move c. Disposing of merchandise d. property Transaction
31 Motive of an arsonist occurs when the premises may no longer be desirable because of the
condition of the building, the fact that the quarters are outgrown or because of the locality.
a. Economic Gain b, Desire to move c. Disposing of merchandise d. property Transaction
32. It is a material element of arson or the purpose of design with which the act is done and
involves the will.
a. Opportunity b. Desire c. Intent d. Motive
33. What crime is committed when a person intending to burn a wooden structure, collect
some rags , soaks them in gasoline and places them beside the wooden wall of the building ,but
when about to light a match to set fire to the rags , discovered by another who chases him
away
a.Malicious Mischief b. Attempted Arson c. Frustrated Arson d. Arson
34. What crime is committed when a person intending to burn a building set fire the roof of the
house and said house was partially burned.
a. Malicious Mischief b. Consummated Arson c. Frustrated Arson d. Attempted Arson
35. Section 54 of Republic Act 6975, states the power to investigate all causes of fires and if
necessary file the proper complaint with the City/ Provincial Prosecutor who has jurisdiction
over the case.
a. Philippine National Police b. NBI c. Jail bureau d. Bureau of Fire
36. The law created amending the law on arson.
a. P.D. 1602 b. P.D. 1612 c. P.D. 96 d. P.D. 1613.
37. The basic tactics used in extinguishing fire when the fire fighters remove the
occupants/persons from the building/hazards to a safety place.
a. Overhaul b. Rescue c. Salvage d. Ventilation
38. It is the constant temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid is qual to the
atmospheric pressure.
a. Vapor Density b. Fire point c. Boiling Point d.Heating Point
39. It takes shortly after ignition, fire plume begins to form about the burning fuel. As the
plumes develop, it begins to draw or retain air from the surrounding space into column.
a. Ignition b. Growth c. Flashover d. Decay
40. It takes when the fire consumes the available fuel in the compartment, the rate of heat
released begins to decline .
a. Ignition b. Growth c. Flashover d. Decay
41. Is the material or substance being burned in the combustion process?
a. oxygen b. Fuel c. heat d. self-sustained chemical reaction
42. Is a complex reaction that it requires a fuel (gaseous or vapor state), an oxidizer, and heat to
combine in a very specific way.
a. Fuel b. oxygen c. heat d. self-sustained chemical reaction
43. Those materials that yield oxygen or other oxidizing gases during the process of a chemical
reaction.
44. Is the energy component of the fire tetrahedron?
a. Fuel b. oxygen c. heat d. self-sustained chemical reaction.
45. A colorless, odorless gas and one of the composition of air which is approximately 21 % by
volume.
46. Any substance which reacts chemically with oxygen and produces flames?
47. A form of energy generated by the transmission of some other form of energy, as in
combustion or burning.
48. Under the fire triangle theory, there are 4 ways to extinguish fire?
a. True b. false c. maybe d. all of these
49. The graphical representation of the three elements of fire is known as?
a. fire square theory b. fire tetrahedron theory c. fire triangle theory d. none of these
50. Another explanation of the requirements of combustion uses a four-sided figure is
called?
a. fire square theory b. fire tetrahedron theory c. fire triangle theory d. none of these
51. The fourth element of the fire tetrahedron explanation is known as?
a. Heat b. fuel c. oxygen d. chemical reactivity
52. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as?
a. Reducing agent b. oxidizing agent c. temperature d. none of these
53. The oxygen in the _____ in the surrounding area is considered the primary oxidizing agent?
a. Plants b. atmosphere c. air d. water
54. Another term for reducing agent is known as?
55. Another term for temperature is known as?
56. For combustion to occur there should be four elements that are necessary?
57. The oxygen in the _____ in the surrounding area is considered the primary oxidizing agent?
a. Plants b. atmosphere c. air d. water
58. Another term for reducing agent is known as?
59. Another term for temperature is known as?
60. For combustion to occur there should be four elements that are necessary?
61. This type of energy can generate temperatures high enough to ignite any combustible
materials near the heated area?
a. Chemical b. electrical c. nuclear d. mechanical
62. An energy created by friction and compression?
63. It is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?
64. Heat energy is generated when atoms either split apart or combine?
65. Is the movement of the two surfaces against each other? This movement produced sparks
being generated?
a. Heat b. fire c. heat of friction d. heat of compression
66. Heat is generated when a gas is compressed in a container or cylinder?
67. Technically speaking, _________ is a form of combustion?
68. Known as exothermic reaction?
a. Heat b. fuel c. heat of friction d. heat of compression
69. Are those that remain when other products of combustion cool to normal temperature?
a. Fire b. fuel c. fire gases d. poisonous gases
70. It is the luminous body of a burning gas which gets hotter and less luminous when mixed
with more oxygen?
a. Smoke b. flame c. pyrolysis d. combustion
71. It refers to the chemical process whereby fire consumes the most solid part of the fuel. It is
the thermal decomposition of a solid fuel through the action of heat.
a. pyrolosis b. smoke c. endothermic reaction D. exothermic reaction
72. Are changes whereby energy (heat) is absorbed or is added before the reaction takes place.
73. Reactions or changes that release or give off energy (heat) thus they produce substance
with less energy than the reactants.
74. It is the visible product of incomplete combustion, usually a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen,
carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, finely divided particles of soot and carbon and miscellaneous
assortment of product released from the burning material.
75. It is known as the initial stage of fire?
a. incipient/beginning phase b. free-burning phase c. smoldering phase d. fuel
76. The second phase of burning in which materials or structure are burning in the presence of
adequate oxygen.
a. incipient/beginning phase b. free-burning phase c. smoldering phase d. fuel
77. The final phase of burning wherein flame ceases but dense smoke and heat completely fill
the confined room.
a. incipient/beginning phase b.free-burning phase c.smoldering phase d. backdraft
78. Any action taken during fire fighting operations that allows air to mix with these hot gases
can result in an explosive ignition called?
a. incipient/beginning phase b.free-burning phase c.smoldering phase d.backdraft
79. Materials involving vegetables fibers, wood, paper straw, grain and grass; combustible
minerals such as coal and coke.
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C D. Class D
80. Materials including petroleum products such as gasoline, fuel oils, lubricating oils, and
greases; animals fats such as butter, lard, and tallow.
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C D. Class D
81. This type of fire involves electrical motors, electrical appliances and apparatus.
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
82. These are materials involving combustible metals, alloys or metal compounds either in a
solid, semi-solid or liquid state.
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class K d. Class D
83. These are materials involved in the kitchen fires. This classification was added to the NFPA
portable extinguishers standard in 1998?
a. Class A b. Class B c. Class K d. Class D
84. It is the transmission of heat through an object/medium or conductor, such as pipe, metal,
hot-air duct, wire or even wall.
a. Conduction b. Radiation c. Convection d. flame contact
85. Heat may be conducted from one body to another by direct flame contact. Fire spreads
along or through burning material?
86. It is the transmission of heat by the moving currents of liquid or gas. When these gases or
liquids are heated, they start to move within themselves; and by their free motion, circulation
starts.
87. The transmission through the discharge and spread of heat from a heated or burning
source.
a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. flame contact
88. It simply means “how hot the fire is burning”?
a. flashpoint b. intensity of fire c. magnitude of fire d. explosive limits
89. The temperature at which the material is not enough to keep burning, but still gives off
enough vapors to cause a flame to “flash” across the surface?
a. flashpoint b. intensity of fire c. fire point d. explosive limits
90. The temperature at which the material will give off ample vapors to keep burning.
91. This means the size of fire, and it is governed by the surface area of fuel exposed to the air.
a. flashpoint b. intensity of fire c. magnitude of fire d. explosive limits
92. It means the amount (expressed in percent) of fuel vapor that can be mixed with air to form
and explosive or flammable mixture.
93. Method of extinguishment which uses an extinguishing agent whose primary characteristics
is heat absorption.
a. cooling b. smothering c. separation d. chemical chain reaction
94. The fourth method of extinguishment is known as inhibition or the interruption of chemical
reaction.
95. The removal of fuel, as in the example of turning off a valve in a gas line prevents the fuel
and oxygen from coming together.
96. It excludes the oxygen from the fuel so that the gases or vapors of the fuel cannot ignite
and continue the combustion.
97. It is known as the most effective in cooling the burning material below its ignition
temperature.
a. water b. carbon dioxide c. dry chemical d. dry powder
98. A number of its properties make CO2 a desirable extinguishing agent. It is non-combustible
and non-reactive with most substances; it can penetrate and spread to all parts of fire
99. It is extinguishing agents use today with mixtures of powders and various additives that
improve the storage, flow and water repellence of the powders.
a. water b. carbon dioxidse c. dry chemical d. dry powder
100. Generally terms for agents used to extinguish combustible metal fires?
X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-AME032004Fire-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-X-
(SGD) ANTONINO M. ESTEBAN

P/LT (RET.)
LL.B, MSCA, RCRIM

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SYNTHESIS 2 (LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION)

NAME:______________ YR. & SEC._

(SGD) ANTONINO M. ESTEBAN

NAME:______________ YR. & SEC._

(SGD) ANTONINO M. ESTEBAN

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