REFERENCE: E.

patient is quadriplegic if the cervical cord superior to C3 is transected and may die owing to
Clinically Oriented respiratory failure
Anatomy 3rd Edition
By : C 2. Describing the intervertebral disk; EXCEPT:
Keith Moore A. thinnest in the thoracic region and thickest in the lumbar region
B. its posterior longitudinal ligament lies within the vertebral canal
QUESTIONS: C. the most superior intervertebral disk is between C1 and C2 vertebra
BACK, D. the central cord which is nucleus pulposus is highly elastic
VERTEBRAL E. its anulus fibrous is composed of concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage
COLUMN AND
CONTENTS REFERENCE: Clinically Oriented Anatomy 3rd Edition
By : Keith Moore
MULTIPLE
CHOICES: QUESTIONS: NECK AND THORAX

C 1. True about the C 3. The pretracheal layer of the deep cervical fascia surrounds this structure and forms it false capsule:
spinal cord in A. trachea D. sternocleidomastoid
adults; EXCEPT: B. larynx E. hyoid
A. C. thyroid gland
occupies only the
superior 2/3 of the A 4. Which of the following is not a muscle of the posterior triangle of neck?
vertebral canal A. superior belly of omohyoid D. splenius capitis
ending usually at B. levator scapula E. anterior scalene
lower border of C. middle scalene
L1
vertebra E 5. A stab wound on the neck which injures the spinal root of CN XI results to the following signs and
B. blood Symptoms; EXCEPT:
supplies are arising A weakness in turning head to the opposite side
from the branches B. drooping of the shoulder
of vertebral deep C. inability to elevate the shoulder
cervical, intercostal D. weakness and atrophy of the trapezius
and lumbar E. loss of pain sensation on the shoulder and upper chest
B 6. One of the possible complications of thyroiodectomy is injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve
arteries resulting to hoarseness. Which is not true about the recurrent laryngeal nerve:
C. A. it courses in the groove of between the trachea and esophagus
anterior spinal B. it supplies all the laryngeal muscles
arteries supply the C. it continues as the inferior laryngeal nerve
anterior 1/3 of the D. it is the motor nerve of the larynx
spinal cord while its E. the left recurrent laryngeal branches from the vagus in the thoracic cavity
posterior 2/3 is C 7. In surgical treatment of hyperthyroidism, the posterior part of each lobe of the enlarged thyroid is
usually preserved to protect and spare the:
supplied by A. trachea D. thyroidea ima
posterior spinal B. inferior thyroid artery E. external laryngeal nerve
arteries C. superior laryngeal artery
D. its A 8. Among the following, the best site for thoracentesis is:
internal vertebral A. 9th intercostal space, midaxillary line D. 7th intercostal space, midaxillary line
venous plexuses B. 6th intercostal space, midclavicular line E. 10th intercostal space, scapular line
are seen external to C. 8th intercostal space, scapular line
the dura mater. C 9. The anterior intercostal spaces are supplied by anterior intercostals arteries which arise from:
A. posterior intercostals artery D. superior epigastric artery
B. thoracic aorta E. lateral thoracic artery
C. internal mammary artery
D 10. Muscle of expiration:
A. anterior scalene D. transversus thoracis
 B. B. superior vena cava E. arch of aorta
diaphragm C. trachea
B 13. In the cardiac silhouette of a radiograph the right border of the heart is formed by:
A. right ventricle D. left atrium
B. right atrium E. pulmonary trunk
C. ascending aorta
E. C 14. This structure is found only in the right ventricle:
levatores costarum A. chordae tendinae D. papillary muscles
C. B. trabeculae carnae E. aortic valve
external intercostal C. moderator band
B 11. Each lung has C 15. Auscultation of the mitral valve is best heard at the:
10 A. 2nd intercostal space, left midclavicular line D. 2nd intercostal space, right parasternal line
bronchopulmonary B. 6th intercostal space, right parasternal line E. 4th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
segments which C. 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line
can be surgically A 16. The coronary arteries arise from the:
removed if A. ascending aorta D. circumflex artery
necessary and B. arch of aorta E. marginal artery
C. thoracic aorta
independent of the A 17. The azygos vein provides an alternate drainage for the abdomen and back. It ends by draining into
other segments. A the:
bronchopulmonary A. superior vena cava D. left brachiocephalic vein
segment is supplied B. inferior vena cava E. posterior intercostals vein
by a: C. right brachiocephalic vein
A. B 18. The vagus nerves course through the thoracic cavity and enters the abdominal cavity through the:
secondary A. aortic opening of the diaphragm D. muscle fibers of the diaphragm
bronchus B. esophageal opening of the diaphragm E. opening behind the medial arcuate ligament
C. vena caval opening of the diaphragm
E 19. The ligamentum arteriosum passes form the inferior concave surface of the arch of aorta to the:
D. A. left superior pulmonary vein D. right pulmonary trunk
bronchiole B. right superior pulmonary vein E. left pulmonary artery
B. tertiary C. pulmonary trunk
bronchus C 20. The advanced cases of arterial disease associated with an aneurysm of the arch of aorta, pressure
may exerted on the:
A. lungs D. azygos vein
E. B. left atrium E. superior vena cava
terminal bronchiole C. trachea
A 12. This structure B 21.The mediastinum is divided into a superior and inferior compartment by a plane passing through:
can be found both A. thoracic inlet D. upper surface of dome of diaphragm
in the superior and B. sternal angle E. apex of the heart
posterior C. base of the heart
compartments of E 22. This structure lies outside the middle mediastinum:
the mediastinum: A. pericardium D. heart
A. B. phrenic nerve E. thymus gland
thoracic duct C. great arteries of the heart

REFERENCE: Clinically Oriented Anatomy 3rd Edition

By : Keith Moore
D. lungs
QUESTIONS: HEAD

C 23. Cranial bone forming part of the middle cranial fossa:

A. ethmoid D. occipital
B. frontal E. parietal
 C. A 26. The immediate trunk of origin of the vertebral artery is:
sphenoid A. subclavian D. internal carotid
D 24. Middle B. thoracic aorta E. common carotid
meningeal artery is C. external carotid
transmitted through B 27. Route of infection from the upper lip to the cavernous sinus:
the following A. anterior facial vein through the inferior ophthalmic vein
foramen: B. anterior facial vein through the superior ophthalmic vein
A. ovale C. through the deep facial vein
D. through the pterygoid venous plexus
E. posterior facial veins
E 28. Muscle of face that pierced by the parotid duct:
A. masseter D. orbicularis oris
D. B. risorius E. buccinator
spinosum C. zygomaticus major
B. A 29. Salivary duct/s whose termination is into the oral vestibule:
rotundum A. parotid duct D. major duct of sublingual gland ( Bartholin’s )
B. submandibular duct E. Stensen’s and Wharton’s ducts
C. minor duct of sublingual gland ( Rivinus )
D 30. Operation on the parotid gland poses danger to the branches of the following nerve:
A. trigeminal D. facial
E. B. glossopharyngeal E. hypoglossal
superior orbital C. vagus
fissure E 31. The anterior division of the mandible nerve supplies motor nerves to the following muscles;
C. EXCEPT:
lacerum A. temporalis D. medial pterygoid
C 25. Aside from B. masseter E. mylohyoid
the occipital lobe, C. lateral pterygoid
the posterior C 32. Which of the following layers of the eyelid give shapes and form to the eyelid:
cerebral artery A. orbicularis occuli D. palpebral conjunctiva
supplies the B. levator palpebrae superioris E. orbicularis oculi and tarsal plate
following: C. tarsal plate
A. pons B 33. Which of the following is lodged in the lacrimal bone?
A. lacrimal gland D. lacrimal canaliculi
B. lacrimal sac E. caruncle
C. lacrimal duct
D 34. This bone forms part of the nasal septum:
A. sphenoid D. ethmoid
B. nasal bone E. frontal
D. C. maxilla
parietal lobe A 35. Paranasal sinus that communicates with the nasal cavity through its opening in the superior meatus:
B. A. posterior ethmoidal D. frontal
cerebellum B. anterior ethmoidal E. sphenoid
C. middle ethmoidal
C 36. This bones forms part of the lateral wall of the orbit:
A. temporal D. occipital
B. parietal E. ethmoid
E. basal C. sphenoid
ganglia B 37. The hypoglossal nerve supplies the following muscles of the tongue; EXCEPT:
C. basal A. all intrinsic muscles D. genioglossus
part of the temporal B. palatoglossus E. styloglossus
lobe C. hypoglossus
B 38. The Eustachian tube opens in the following area in the pharynx:
A. root of nasopharynx D. anterior portion of laryngopharynx
B. lateral wall of nasopharynx E. posterior wall of laryngopharynx
 C. lateral B. dense connective tissue layer E. pericranial layer
part of oropharynx C. aponeurotic layer
A 39. Lateral wall of A 42. Middle meningeal artery is a branch of:
middle ear: A. internal maxillary D. internal carotid
A. B. external carotid E. middle cerebral artery
tympanic C. facial
membrane
REFERENCE: Clinically Oriented Anatomy 3rd Edition
By : Ben Pansky

D. carotid QUESTIONS: ABDOMEN

wall
B. B 43. Right and left hypochondriac are described as:
tegmen tympani A. above transpyloric between the 2 lateral lines
B. above transpyloric, but lateral to the right and left vertical lines
C. between transpyloric, transtubercular and 2 vertical lines
D. below transtubercular line and between vertical lines
E. E. none of the above
ventricular wall C 44. Organs structures located in the epigastrium; EXCEPT:
C. jugular A. stomach D. duodenum
wall B. liver E. pancreas
C 40. Endolymph is C. spleen
contained in the E 45. Formation of the anterior rectus sheath above the symphysis pubis is derived from:
following spaces: A. external oblique aponeurosis D. B and C only
A. scala B. internal oblique aponeurosis E. all of the above
tympani C. transversus abdominis aponeurosis
A 46. The following structure forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal:
A. external oblique aponeurosis D. inguinal ligament
B. internal oblique aponeurosis E. none of the above
D. C. fascia transversalis
vestibule D 47. The following are sources of blood supply of the stomach; EXCEPT:
B. A. right gastric artery D. hepatic proper artery
semicircular canals B. left gastric artery E. splenic artery
C. common hepatic artery
B 48. True of the pancreas; EXCEPT:
A. the head lies within the curve of the duodenum
E. B. most of the anterior right side is separated from the transverse colon by the covering of
saccule peritoneum
C. scala C. behind the neck is related the portal vein
media D. the upper border of the body is related to the coeliac artery
E. tail forms the left extremity, extending to the surface of the spleen
E 49. The following are sources of blood supply of the pancreas; EXCEPT:
D 41. Layer of scalp A. splenic artery D. inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
that contains the B. gastroduodenal artery E. gastroepiploic artery
emissary veins: C. superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
A. 1st A 50. The following are tributaries of the portal vein; EXCEPT:
layer A. hepatic veins D. superior mesenteric vein
B. left gastric vein E. splenic vein
C. left gastric epiploic vein
D 51. The following are unpaired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta:
A. coeliac artery D. median sacral artery
B. superior mesenteric artery E. all of the above
D. loss
C. inferior mesenteric artery
areolar tissue layer
C 52. True of large intestine; EXCEPT:
 A. papillae
terminal part is the B 54. The visceral surface of the liver is related to the following organs; EXCEPT:
anus A. stomach D. colon
B. the B. left kidney E. right suprarenal gland
transverse colon is C. duodenum
the most movable B 55. Ligament of the liver derived from embryonic blood vessel:
portion A. coronary ligament D. triangular ligament
C. the B. ligamentum teres E. none of the above
sigmoid is not C. falciform ligament
completely covered A 56. True of the suprarenal gland; EXCEPT:
by peritoneum A. right is semilunar in shape
D. the B. inferior suprarenal artery is a branch of the renal artery
rectum begins at C. the medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
the level of sacral D. the cortex secretes aldosterone
vertebra 3 E. the cortex is derived from the mesoderm
E. the C 57. The following structures support the kidney to maintain its positions; EXCEPT:
cecum is the widest A. renal fascia ( Gerota ) D. perirenal fats
part B. renal artery and vein E. pararenal fats
C. renal fibrous capsule

B 53. True of the REFERENCE: Clinically Oriented Anatomy 3rd Edition

biliary system; By : Keith Moore
EXCEPT:
A the QUESTIONS: PELVIS, PELVIC CAVITY AND PERINEUM
gallbladder serves
to concentrate and C 58. The general structures of the female pelvis show the following features; EXCEPT:
secrete the bile A. the female pelvic cavity is wider, shallower, and has larger superior and inferior pelvic
B. the apertures.
fundus of the B. the sacrum is less curved
gallbladder lies at C. round obturator foramen
the left border of the D. wider pubic arch
right rectus muscle E. ischial tuberosities are located farther apart
at the end of the C 59. This type of pelvis is the most spacious obstetrically:
A. android D. anthrophoid
B. platypelloid E. none of the above
9th costal
C. gynecoid
cartilage
C 60. This thin triangular ligaments extend from the lateral margin of the sacrum and coccyx to the
C. the
ischial spine:
cystic duct contains
A. sacroiliac ligament D. sacrotuberous ligament
spiral folds called
B. iliolumbar ligament E. none of the above
Valves of Heister
C. sacrospinous ligament
D. the
common bile duct
runs caudally in the
free edge of the
lesser omentum.
E.
C 61. The following statement describes the walls of the pelvis, EXCEPT:
common bile duct
A. the anterior wall is formed by the bodies of the pubic bones
and the duct of
B. the piriformis lines the posterior wall laterally
Wirsung in most
C. the levator ani and coccygeus cover the lateral pelvic cavity
cases have a
D. the obturator internus muscles cover most of the lateral wall
common opening
E. the posterior wall is formed by the sacrum with adjacent parts of the ilium and the sacroiliac
on the major
joints.
E 62. The levator A. pre prostatic D. spongy
ani muscle is B. prostatic E. penile
composed of the C. membranous
following; EXCEPT: B 65. All of the following are parts of the uterus; EXCEPT:
A. A. internal os D. external os
puborectalis B. posterior fornix E. cervical canal
C. isthmus
C 66. The following muscles can constrict the vagina and act like sphincter; EXCEPT:
A. pubovaginalis D. ischiocavernosus
B. urogenital diaphragm E. A, B and C only
C. bulbospongiosus

D. A 67. This part is the widest and longest part of the uterine tube:
pubococcygeus A. ampulla D. infundibulum
B. B. isthmus E. cornua
iliococcygeus C. intramural
E 68. All of the following forms the boundary of the perineum, EXCEPT:
A. pubic symphysis D. coccyx
B. ischial tuberosities E. sacrospinous ligaments
C. sacrotuberous ligaments
A 69. In the male, the deep perineal space contains the following; EXCEPT:
E. levator
A. prostatic urethra D. bulbourethral glands of Cowper
prostatae
B. sphincter urethra E. deep transverse perineal muscle
C.
C. membranous urethral glands
coccygeus
C 70. The superior end of the anal columns where the rectum joins the anal canal:
B 63. This branch
A. pectinate line D. anal valve
arises from the
B. mucoscutaneous line E. perineal body
posterior division of
C. anorectal line
the internal iliac
A 71. Tributary/ies of the portal vein:
artery:
A. superior hemorrhoidal vein D. all of the preceding
A.
B. middle hemorrhoidal vein E. none of the preceding
internal pudendal
C. inferior hemorrhoidal vein
artery
C 72. The greater vestibular glands ( Bartholin’s glands ) in the female are homologous with the:
A. prostate gland D. seminal vesicle
D.
B. paraurethral gland E. Skene’s glands
umbilical artery
C. bulbourethral glands
B. lateral
sacral artery
REFERENCES : 1. Concise Histology 2nd edition
By: Bloom and Faucet
E. inferior
2. Basic Histology 10th edition
gluteal artery
Junquiera
C. middle
rectal artery
QUESTIONS : CELL AND TISSUES
B 64. The widest
and most dilatable
B 73. True statement about cell membrane:
part of the male
A. its permeability is due to its trilipid structure
urethra:
B. is composed of branching oligosaccharides
C. is made up of mainly of sphingolipids and some glycoproteins
D. is divided into the inner and outer membranes
D 74. Metabolic activity / activities that occur/s in mitochondrial matrix:
A. glycolysis D. citric acid cycle
B. gluconeogenesis E. all of the above
 C. electro B. connective E. all of the above
transport chain C. muscular
B 75. Templates for D 78. Epithelium covering the mucosa of seminiferous tubules:
transcription are A. are composed of single layer of polygonal cells
carried by: B. are made up of compact columnar cells
A. DNA C. appears to be falsely stratified
D. sertoli cells and spermatogenic cells arranged in layers
E. have keratin on the superficial layer
E 79. Connective tissues are present in:
A. dermis D. basement membrane
B. muscle E. all of the above
C. nerve
D. r RNA
B. m RNA A 80. Components of compact bone:
A. the concentric lamellae
B. the parenchyma with no definite arrangement
C. the marrow cavity on the center
D. Howship’s lacunae housing osteoblasts
E. amino E. Volkman’s canal connecting the Haversian canal
acids
C. t RNA
C 76. The REFERENCE : 1. Concise Histology2nd edition
characteristic cells By: Bloom and Fawcett’s
of the liver are:
A. 2. Wheater’s Functional Histology 3RD edition
arranged
haphazardly QUESTIONS : CARDIOVASCULAR AND RESPIRATORY

B 81. Layer of smooth muscle cells interposed by fenestrated sheets of elastin characterize the:
D. A. tunica intima D. mesothelium
capable of B. tunica media E. fenestrated capillaries
phagocytosis C. tunica adventitia
B. tubular D 82. The cells found along the outer surface of the capillary endothelial cells and thought to have contractile functions are known as:
branching A. fibroblast D. pericytes
B. myoblast E. mesothelial cells
C. smooth muscle cells
E. D 83. The respiratory ( gas exchange ) division of the respirator system includes all of the following;
capable of storing EXCEPT:
vitamin A. respiratory bronchiole D. secondary bronchiole
C. B. alveolar sacs E. alveoli
binucleated C. alveolar ducts
B 77. Most widely B 84. Lamellar bodies are structure seen within:
distributed A. type I pneumonocytes D. type II pneumonocytes
fundamental type of B. clara cells E. Lambert’s cell
tissue: C. Bowman’s cell
A.
epithelial
REFERENCE :
By :

D. QUESTIONS : DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

nervous
A 85. Which of the following histologic features is important in preventing mechanical erosion of the
esophageal surface during swallowing:
 A. A. haustra D. intestinal gland
stratified squamous B. plicae semilunares E. none of the above
non-keratinizing C. taenia coli
epithelium and D 88. The type connective tissue responsible for the formation of the regenerative nodule in cirrhosis of
mucus glands the liver:
B. A. elastic connective tissue D. collagenous connective tissue
bundles of skeletal B. reticular connective tissue E. none of the above
muscle in the upper C. adyrose tissue
third
C. REFERENCES : 1. Junquiera Book of Histology
bundles of smooth 2. Delmar’s Fundamental of Anatomy
muscle in the lower
third
D.
bundles of skeletal
and smooth muscle
mixture in the QUESTIONS : BLOOD, IMMUNE AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
middle third
E. D 89. Granular leukocytes; EXCEPT:
stratified squamous A. neutrophil D. monocyte
keratinizing B. basophil E. none of the above
epithelium and C. eosinophil
serous glands A 90. Which cells is not derived from myeloid cells in the bone marrow:
D 86. This A. lymphocyte D. segmenters
histologic structure B. platelet E. none of the above
of the duodenum C. RBC
neutralizes the C 91. Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes:
highly acidic A. formed along the lymph vessels
content of the B. filters the lymph
stomach: C. the afferent lymphatic vessel passes along the hilum of lymph node
A. crypts D. covered by fibrous capsule
of Leiberkuhn’s E. none of the above
D 92. True about the spleen:
A. bilobed mass of tissue
D. B. reaches maximum size during puberty and then involutes thereafter
Brunner’s gland C. consists of aggregates of lymphocyte called lymphatic nodule
B. D. it phagocytizes worn out RBC
microvilli

REFERENCE : Concise Histology 2nd edition

By : Bloom and Fawcett

QUESTIONS : ENDOCRINE AND GENITO-URINARY SYSTEM

E. plicae
circulares
E 93. Which of the following hormones characteristically raises the body’s basal metabolic rate?
C.
A. glucagon D. calcitonin
glycocalyx
B. insulin E. thyroxine
C. somatostatin
A 94. Which of the following is a pituitary hormone that directly targets the renal collecting ducts?
C 87. This
A. ADH D. TRH
histologic structure
B. ACTH E. TSH
of the large
C. FSH
intestine is
E 95. The basal lamina of the glomerular filtration barrier is cleared of occasional build up of cellular
responsible for
debris and some antigens – antibody complexes by the phagocytic activity of which of the following
efficient peristalsis:
 cell types?
A. B 97. Most common congenital anomaly of the heart:
podocyte A. atrial septal defect D. coarctation of the aorta
B. ventricular septal defect E. ectopia cordisa
C. tetralogy of Fallot
B 98. Congenital megacolon is associated with a defect of:
D. A. colonic mucosa D. defect of smooth muscle in tunica muscularis
Polkissen cell B. absence of myenteric plexus E. absence of elastic tissue in the intestinal wall
B. C. non-function Meissner’s plexuses
endothelial cell
REFERENCES : 1. Basic Clinical Neuroanatomy
By: Paul Young

E. 2. Clinical Neuroanatomy
mesangial cell Manters and Gatz
C.
juxtaglomerular cell 3. Snell’s Neuroanatomy
C 96. Which
function of the QUESTIONS : NEUROANATOMY
sertoli cells is most
directly attributable C 99. Corticospinal tract may result in the following clinical manifestations; EXCEPT:
to their zonula A. spastic hemiplegia D. positive Babinski sign
occludens B. increased resistance to passive stretch E. extensor plantar response
junctions? C. flaccid paralysis
A. A 100. The part of the limbic system whose alteration is associated with Alzheimer’s Disease:
phagocytosis of A. hipocampal formation D. mamillary body
residual bodies B. amygdaloid nucleus E. cingulum
B. C. medial part of the thalamic nuclei
physical support of C 101. Left hemisection of spinal cord at T10 will result in the following; EXCEPT:
the spermatogenic A. ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch below the umbilicus
cells B. ipsilateral loss of vibratory sense below the umbilicus
C. C. contralateal loss of position sense below the umbilicus
protection of D. contralateral loss of pain sensation below the inguinal ligament
spermatozoa from E. contralateral loss of temperature sensation and below the inguinal ligament
autoimmune attack C 102. Lesion at the optic chiasm will result to:
D. A. right homonymous hemianopsia
synthesis and B. left homonymous hemianopsia
secretion of C. bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
androgen binding D. blindness of right eye
protein E. right upper quadrantanopsia
E. none
of the above

REFERENCE :
Langmans
Embryology

Introduction to
Embryology
Babinski

QUESTIONS :
EMBRYOLOGY