Understanding Human Sexuality 6th

Edition By Janet Shibley Hyde – Test

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Sample Questions
 

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Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Which of the following terms refers to the external genitals of the female?
A. Clitoris
B. Uterus
C. Vagina
D. Vulva

2. The _____ is an example of an external female sex organ.

A. ovary
B. clitoris
C. uterus
D. vas deferens
  

3. The clitoris comprises the:

A. labia minora and labia majora.
B. fourchette and perineum.
C. shaft and glans.
D. urethra and introitus.

4. Which of the following is true of the penis and the clitoris?

A. Unlike the clitoris, the penis is erectile.
B. Both the penis and clitoris comprise a shaft and a glans.
C. Unlike the penis, the clitoris has few or no nerve endings.
D. Both the penis and clitoris play a known role in reproduction.

5. The _____ are long spongy bodies under the labia majora that run from the
tip of the clitoris to either side of the vagina.
A. seminiferous tubules
B. fallopian tubes
C. vasa deferentia
D. crura

6. The penis in the male is homologous to the _____ in the female.

A. vagina
B. clitoris
C. mons pubis
D. hymen

7. Which of the following is true of the clitoris?

A. It plays no role in the sexual arousal of women.
B. It is of uniform size across all women.
C. It develops from the same embryonic tissue as the penis.
D. It has fewer nerve endings than any other area of the body.

8. In what way do the clitoris and penis resemble each other?

A. They both vary in size from one person to another.
B. They both serve known reproductive functions.
C. They both possess channels for the passage of urine.
D. They both have very few nerve endings on their surface.
  

9. The erection of the clitoris is possible because its internal structure

contains
_____.
A. urethra
B. corpora cavernosa
C. seminiferous tubules
D. smegma

10. The _____ has a rich supply of nerve endings.

A. clitoris
B. smegma
C. hymen
D. ovum

11. The _____ is a non-reproductive female sexual organ that plays an

important role in stimulating sexual arousal.
A. vagina
B. uterus
C. penis
D. clitoris

12. The _____ is the layer of fat that is covered with pubic hair and is
positioned on top of the pubic bone.
A. os pubis
B. mons pubis
C. labia minora
D. labia majora

13. The _____ are rounded pads of fatty tissue lying along both sides of the
vaginal opening and are covered with pubic hair.
A. labia majora
B. fallopian tubes
C. labia minora
D. seminiferous tubules

 
14. The _____ are two hairless folds of skin lying between the outer lips and
running right along the edge of the vaginal opening.
A. vasa deferentia
B. labia majora
C. labia minora
D. seminiferous tubules

15. Which of the following is true of the labia?

A. The labia majora are hairless folds of skin.
B. The labia minora are covered with pubic hair.
C. The clitoral hood is formed by the labia majora.
D. The Bartholin glands lie inside the labia minora.

16. The area of skin between the vaginal opening and the anus is called the
_____.
A. hymen
B. endometrium
C. areola
D. perineum

17. The vaginal opening is sometimes called the _____.

A. fourchette
B. perineum
C. introitus
D. mons pubis

18. In human females, urine passes through the _____.

A. clitoris
B. vagina
C. perineum
D. urethra

19. The _____ is a thin membrane which, if present, partially covers the vaginal
opening.
A. mons pubis
B. perineum
 C. clitoris
D. hymen

20. Which of the following is true of clitoridectomy?

A. It is the restoration of a mutilated clitoris.
B. It is the partial or total removal of the clitoris.
C. It is the stitching together of the clitoris and prepuce.
D. It is the restoration of a mutilated prepuce.

21. Which of the following is the simplest form of female genital cutting (FGC)
classified as Type 1 by the WHO?
A. Castration
B. Clitoridectomy
C. Infibulation
D. Excision

22. The most extreme form of female genital cutting (FGC) involves the
removal of the clitoris, all of the inner lips, and part of the outer lips. The
remaining parts of the outer lips are then stitched together. This form of FGC
is called _____.
A. ovariotomy
B. excision
C. infibulation
D. clitoridectomy

23. Which of the following is one of the physical consequences of infibulation?

A. Heightened sexual arousal
B. Increased risk of urinary infections
C. Increased incidence of orgasms
D. Fewer complications during childbirth

24. Which of the following is true of the hymen?

A. An annular hymen hinders menstruation.
B. Hymens are not reliable indicators of virginity.
C. An imperforate hymen has several openings.
D. The hymen is present in all human females at birth.

 
25. The _____ is an internal female sex organ.
A. vagina
B. labia majora
C. perineum
D. fourchette

26. Which of the following is true of vaginal walls?

A. They possess no nerve endings.
B. They become more flexible with age.
C. They are highly elastic.
D. They become thicker with age.

27. The nerve supply of the vagina is:

A. evenly distributed throughout its length.
B. concentrated in the upper third around the cervix.
C. scant, if not nonexistent.
D. concentrated in the lower third near the introitus.

28. Which of the following is true of the G spot?

A. It is located on the front wall of the vagina.
B. It is homologous with the male penis.
C. It is an insensate spot on the vaginal wall.
D. It is typically more sensitive than the clitoris.

29. The _____ are erectile tissues which lie close to the crura of the clitoris,
and are about the size and shape of a pea pod.
A. fallopian tubes
B. seminiferous tubules
C. vestibular bulbs
D. vasa deferentia

30. The _____ is/are also known as the female prostate, and lie(s) between the
wall of the urethra and the wall of the vagina.
A. Skene’s gland
B. seminiferous tubules
C. Bartholin glands
D. vas deferens
  

31. Which of the following is true of the Skene’s gland?

A. It is located on the clitoral hood.
B. It has no known function.
C. Its ducts empty into the urethra.
D. It secretes fluid for all women.

32. The organ that is responsible for female ejaculation is the _____.
A. fundus
B. meatus
C. vas deferens
D. Skene’s gland

33. The major function of the _____ is to hold and nourish a developing fetus.
A. vagina
B. uterus
C. fallopian tubes
D. ovaries

34. Which of the following is true of the uterus?

A. Its entrance is wide but it gradually narrows.
B. It is also known as the mons veneris.
C. It serves no known reproductive function.
D. It is the shape and size of an upside-down pear.

35. The _____ consists of three layers: the endometrium, the myometrium, and
the perimetrium.
A. uterus
B. vagina
C. clitoris
D. ovaries

36. The layer of the uterus that is sloughed off during menstruation and
creates most of the menstrual discharge is the _____.
A. endometrium
B. myometrium
 C. exometrium
D. perimetrium

37. The middle, muscular layer of the uterus is the _____.

A. endometrium
B. myometrium
C. exometrium
D. perimetrium

38. The muscles of the myometrium:

A. are sloughed off during menstruation.
B. create the contractions of labor and orgasm.
C. form the external cover of the uterus.
D. are very weak and are incapable of expanding.

39. Which layer of the uterus is highly elastic and allows the accommodation
of a nine-month-old fetus?
A. Endometrium
B. Myometrium
C. Exometrium
D. Hypometrium

40. The outer layer of the uterus that forms an external cover for the organ is
the _____.
A. endometrium
B. myometrium
C. exometrium
D. perimetrium

41. _____ are the pathways through which eggs travel toward the uterus and
sperm reach the eggs.
A. Ovaries
B. Bartholin glands
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Fallopian tubes

 
42. Fertilization typically occurs in a part of the fallopian tube known as the
_____.
A. infundibulum
B. cilium
C. fimbria
D. crus

43. The numerous fingerlike projections at the end of the infundibulum that
extend toward the ovary are known as _____.
A. cilia
B. fimbriae
C. oviducts
D. crura

44. The _____ are two organs that lie on either side of the uterus, and are about
the size and shape of unshelled almonds.
A. testes
B. breasts
C. kidneys
D. ovaries

45. Which of the following is true of ovaries and egg cells?

A. A woman with only one ovary cannot conceive.
B. The ovaries produce eggs and manufacture sex hormones.
C. The ovaries are connected directly to the fallopian tubes.
D. The eggs cannot be fertilized outside the fallopian tubes.

46. One of the main functions of the _____ is the production of the female
reproductive cells.
A. hymen
B. breasts
C. vagina
D. ovaries

47. Which of the following is a major function of the ovaries?

A. They manufacture the sex hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
B. They comprise the canal through which babies are delivered.
 C. They are the organs directly responsible for a woman’s orgasm.
D. They hold and nourish the developing fetus.

48. Ovaries contain numerous _____, each a capsule that surrounds an egg.
A. areolas
B. cilia
C. infundibula
D. follicles

49. The breast consists of about 15 or 20 clusters of _____, each with a

separate opening to the nipple.
A. areolas
B. mammary glands
C. oviducts
D. fimbriae

50. The dark area of skin surrounding the nipple on the breast is termed the
_____.
A. fimbriae
B. follicle
C. areola
D. oviduct

51. Which of the following is true of breasts?

A. Large breasts are more sensitive to erotic stimulation than small breasts.
B. Small breasts are more erotically sensitive per square inch than are large
ones.
C. Breasts have few nerve endings and are not susceptible to erotic
stimulation.
D. Breasts have no reproductive or erotic functions.

52. The _____ is the opening at the end of the glans of the penis through which
urine and semen pass.
A. testis
B. fourchette
C. meatus
D. perineum
  

53. The main part of the penis is called the _____.

A. fourchette
B. shaft
C. smegma
D. prepuce

54. The raised ridge at the edge of the glans of a penis is called the _____.
A. corona
B. shaft
C. meatus
D. perineum

55. The two long cylinders of spongy tissue lying on top of the penis are called
the _____.
A. Bartholin glands
B. corpora cavernosa
C. corpus spongiosum
D. vasa deferentia

56. The spongy body running the length of the underside of the penis is the
_____.
A. coronal ridge
B. corpora cavernosa
C. corpus spongiosum
D. coronal sponge

57. During erection, the _____ can be seen as a raised column on the lower side
of the penis.
A. fourchette
B. corpus spongiosum
C. vas deferens
D. perineum

58. Which of the following is true of the biological makeup and functioning of
the penis in human males?
A. The human penis contains a bone which aids in erection.
 B. The foreskin of the human penis is not retractable.
C. The flaccid state of a penis is known as tumescence.
D. The erection of a penis results purely from blood flow.

59. The _____ is an additional layer of skin that forms a sheathlike covering
over the glans of a penis.
A. urethra
B. fourchette
C. scrotum
D. foreskin

60. Smegma is produced by the _____ glands.

A. Skene’s
B. Tyson’s
C. Bartholin
D. Cowper’s

61. The circumcision of males involves the removal of the _____.

A. fourchette
B. perineum
C. foreskin
D. urethra

62. _____ is the form of male genital cutting that involves making a slit the
length of the foreskin, on top of the penis, with the foreskin otherwise
remaining intact.
A. Infibulation
B. Excision
C. Supercision
D. Subincision

63. Identify the form of male genital cutting, common among some tribes in
central Australia, which involves a slit being made on the lower side of the
penis along its entire length and to the depth of the urethra.
A. Supracision
B. Supercision
 C. Subincision
D. Superincision

64. Which of the following procedures results in the excretion of urine at the
base rather than at the tip of the penis?
A. Subincision
B. Supercision
C. Excision
D. Infibulation

65. The _____ is an external genital structure in the male that contains the
testes.
A. prostate
B. phallus
C. scrotum
D. fourchette

66. The _____ is analogous to the female’s ovary.

A. vas deferens
B. corpus spongiosum
C. meatus
D. testis

67. Spermatogenesis takes place in the _____.

A. interstitial cells
B. bulbourethral glands
C. seminiferous tubules
D. vasa deferentia

68. Sperm are stored in the _____.

A. interstitial cells
B. seminiferous tubules
C. vasa deferentia
D. perineum

 
69. The production of testosterone is carried out in the _____.
A. epididymis
B. seminiferous tubules
C. Skene’s gland
D. interstitial cells

70. Which of the following is true of the testes?

A. The testes move away from the body in a cold environment.
B. The testes are endocrine glands.
C. The testes move closer to the body in a hot environment.
D. The testes are analogous to the clitoris.

71. Which of the following is true of sperm?

A. Sperm are manufactured in the interstitial cells.
B. Sperm can survive unharmed in extreme temperatures.
C. Sperm can be injured due to extremities in temperature.
D. Sperm are manufactured by the Bartholin glands.

72. What is the function of the cremaster muscle?

A. It is the path through which sperm leave the body.
B. It opens the cervix during childbirth.
C. It is responsible for clitoral erection.
D. It moves the testes to or away from the body.

73. Which of the following terms refers to the male reproductive cell at the
earliest stage of spermatogenesis?
A. Spermatozoan
B. Spermatid
C. Spermatogonium
D. Spermatocyte

74. Which of the following is true of ejaculation?

A. Cowper’s glands secrete fluid only after ejaculation.
B. The ejaculatory duct opens into the seminiferous tubules.
C. An average ejaculate contains about 200 million sperms.
D. Upon ejaculation, sperms pass from one testis to the other.

 
75. In humans, a normal egg or a normal sperm carries _____ chromosomes
each.
A. 23
B. 33
C. 46
D. 56

76. The _____ is a long tube, about 6 meters or 20 feet in length, coiled into a
small crescent-shaped region on the top and side of the testis.
A. epididymis
B. urethra
C. seminiferous tubule
D. seminal vesicle

77. The _____ are two saclike structures that lie above the prostate, behind the
bladder, and in front of the rectum in human males.
A. kidneys
B. seminal vesicles
C. ovaries
D. Bartholin glands

78. The prostate:

A. is fairly large at birth but shrinks markedly during puberty.
B. secretes a milky alkaline fluid that is part of the ejaculate.
C. cannot be felt in a rectal examination.
D. is composed entirely of glandular tissue.

79. The function of the prostate gland is to:

A. manufacture and store sperm.
B. supply a fluid that increases acidity in the urethra.
C. supply a fluid that prevents the destruction of sperms.
D. manufacture male sex hormones.

80. The “bulbourethral glands” are also called the _____ glands.
A. Tyson’s
B. Skene’s
 C. Cowper’s
D. Bartholin

81. During sexual arousal, the _____ secrete a small amount of a clear alkaline
fluid, which appears as droplets at the tip of the penis before ejaculation
occurs.
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. Cowper’s glands
D. interstitial cells.

82. Which of the following is true of breast cancer?

A. Breast cancer is seldom due to genetic factors.
B. Obesity increases the risk of breast cancer.
C. Breast cancer is the least common form of cancer in women.
D. Abortion increases the risk of breast cancer.

83. _____ is the main technique for the early detection of breast cancer and
involves taking an X-ray of the breasts.
A. Mastectomy
B. Mammoplasty
C. Mastopexy
D. Mammography

84. How are mammographies disadvantageous?

A. They have a low success rate and are incapable of detecting small tumors.
B. They involve exposure to radiation, which increases the risk of cancer.
C. They cannot detect cysts and fibroadenoma.
D. They can detect cancer only in its advanced stages.

85. If a lump on a breast disappears following needle aspiration, it was most

likely a _____.
A. fibroadenoma
B. cyst
C. gland
D. malignant tumor

 
86. Physicians feel that the best way to differentiate between a fibroadenoma
and a malignant tumor in the breast is through _____.
A. needle aspiration
B. a biopsy
C. a mammogram
D. an MRI scan

87. In modified radical mastectomy:

A. only the breast is removed.
B. only the lump is removed.
C. the breast, lymph nodes, and pectoral muscles are removed.
D. the breast and underarm lymph nodes are removed.

88. The most extensive surgery for breast cancer is _____.

A. modified radical mastectomy
B. radical mastectomy
C. simple mastectomy
D. lumpectomy

89. Approximately 95 percent of cases of cervical cancer are caused by _____.

A. cystoceles
B. poor hygiene
C. genetic factors
D. the human papilloma virus (HPV)

90. The death rate from cervical cancer has decreased sharply since the mid-
1960s, mainly as a result of _____.
A. Pap tests
B. CT scans
C. genetic mapping
D. encephalograms

91. _____ cancer may be suspected when a woman has vaginal bleeding during
times in the menstrual cycle other than her period, or after menopause.
A. Ovarian
B. Endometrial
 C. Cervical
D. Rectal

92. _____ is a nonsurgical treatment for cervical cancer that uses extreme cold
to destroy the abnormal cells.
A. Hysterectomy
B. Lumpectomy
C. Mastectomy
D. Cryotherapy

93. Which of the following is true of a hysterectomy?

A. It leaves women “masculinized,” with a beard and a deep voice.
B. It is the standard treatment for women with endometrial cancer.
C. It prevents a woman from enjoying, or even having, sex.
D. It is the surgical removal of the ovaries, while keeping the uterus intact.

94. Early symptoms of _____ cancer are frequent urination especially at night,
difficulty in urination, and difficulty emptying the bladder.
A. testicular
B. prostate
C. uterine
D. penile

95. Preliminary diagnosis of prostate cancer is by a _____.

A. rectal examination
B. Pap test
C. CT Scan
D. angiogram

96. Which of the following is true of cancer of the penis?

A. It is more common in circumcised men than in uncircumcised men.
B. It is thought to be related to the collection of smegma under the foreskin.
C. It is the most common cause of death by cancer in men.
D. It cannot be treated by surgery or by radiation therapy.

 
97. Cancer of the _____ is the most common form of cancer in men between
the ages of 29 and 35.
A. penis
B. testes
C. prostate
D. anus

98. Which of the following is true of testicular cancer?

A. An undescended testis faces small risk of cancer.
B. It can be detected with the help of a Pap test.
C. Its cause has not been ascertained yet.
D. Every lump in the testes is cancerous.

99. Describe the similarities between the clitoris and the penis.

100. Briefly describe the different types of female genital cutting (FGC).

101. Describe the structure and functions of the vagina.

102. How are the uterus, the fallopian tubes, and the ovaries related?
  

103. What is male circumcision? Why is it practiced and what are its
advantages?

104. What is the cremasteric reflex? What is its function?

105. Describe the stages of spermatogenesis.

106. Describe the structure and function of the prostate gland.

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 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Safe and effective means of contraception were not legally available for
use in Canada until
A. around the turn of the century (i.e. 1900)
B. after World War I (i.e. 1918)
C. after World War II (i.e. 1945)
D. the late 1960s

2. Why is a discussion of overpopulation relevant to the history of

contraceptive use?
A. Concerns about the ability for the planet to sustain the growing population
lead many experts to believe that the population must be limited.
B. Concerns about the ability for the planet to sustain the growing population
lead to the development of hormonal contraception.
C. Concerns about the rising population of unhealthy people lead many
experts to believe that reproduction of some segments of the population must
occur.
D. It is relevant to reproduction but not contraception.

3. Of the following types of contraceptives, which has the highest typical use
failure rate?
A. oral contraceptive pill
B. IUD
C. male condom
D. female condom

4. The oral contraceptive pill

A. works mainly by preventing ovulation.
B. works mainly by killing the sperm before they enter the fallopian tubes.
C. is 100 percent effective in practice.
D. has been shown to be more dangerous than was shown in previous studies
in the 1970s.

5. With regard to the part played by progestin in the combination pill, which
one is FALSE?
A. Progestin makes the cervical mucus thick.
B. Progestin changes the lining of the uterus.
 C. Progestin inhibits FSH production.
D. Progestin inhibits LH production.

6. The combination pill __________ estrogen levels, and it ________ FSH

production.
A. increases; stimulates
B. increases; inhibits
C. decreases; inhibits
D. decreases; stimulates

7. Three women out of every hundred who use the Pill will become pregnant
during a year. Three percent represents what is called the
A. failure rate
B. effectiveness rate
C. typical user rate
D. non-success rate

8. Mary is a very conscientious person in all that she does. She applies this
sense of conscientiousness in taking her birth control pill. She takes the pill
exactly according to directions. Mary can be considered
A. a typical user.
B. a perfect user.
C. a normative user.
D. a user where there is no chance of experiencing failure of contraception.

9. Failures in the use of the contraceptive pill usually occur

A. when the pill does not contain enough estrogen.
B. when the woman switches brands and the new pill is not as effective as the
one she had been on.
C. when the woman forgets to take the pill for a day or two or so.
D. when the woman has intercourse with a male who is highly fertile in the
number of sperm he produces.

10. A woman on the pill mixes up her schedule while on vacation. She
remembers to take her pill the first two days of her vacation but then forgets
to take her pill the next three days in a row. According to your text, what
should she do?
 A. take a pill as soon as possible and then another one at regular schedule
and resume her schedule
B. take 2 pills right away and then resume her regular schedule
C. quit taking the pill for 7 days straight to menstruate and start her regular
schedule for the next month
D. take a pill as soon as possible, resume her regular schedule, and use a
back-up form of birth control

11. Of the serious side effects of the contraceptive pill that we have heard of
via the media, the one that has been substantiated is
A. that the pill causes cancer of the cervix.
B. that the pill causes cancer of the breast.
C. that the pill causes cancer of the uterus.
D. that the pill causes problems relating to blood clotting.

12. Women who are in certain at-risk groups should not use the contraceptive
pill. One of these groups includes
A. women who are over 35 and are cigarette smokers.
B. women who are between the ages of 18 and 34 and who tend to have 3-4
drinks per week.
C. women who are between the ages of 18 and 34 and who tend to have 3-4
drinks per weekend at one sitting.
D. women who have low libido.

13. Women on the pill have an increased susceptibility to

A. crabs
B. scabies
C. syphilis
D. chlamydia

14. The occasional side effects of irritability and depression in pill-users are
probably related to the pill’s
A. estrogen content.
B. progesterone content.
C. inhibition of sexual desire.
D. All of the answers are correct.

 
15. The first Canadian birth control clinic was established in Hamilton, Ontario
in
A. 1895
B. 1920
C. 1932
D. 1960

16. In defending before Parliament the bill that would make contraception
legal, who made the statement, “The state has no business in the bedrooms of
the nation”?
A. Joe Clark
B. Pierre Elliott Trudeau
C. Brian Mulroney
D. Adrienne Clarkson

17. Recognizing the toll of unwanted pregnancies on women’s well-being,

several women’s groups in British Columbia joined together in the early
20th century to form the Canadian Birth Control League. A major influence on
this organization was __________, an American crusader for the legalization of
contraception in the United States.
A. Margaret Sanger
B. Eleanor Roosevelt
C. Christie Brinkley
D. Hillary Clinton

18. A major preliminary step to the formal legalization of contraception in

Canada was made in 1936 when Dorothea Palmer was acquitted after being
charged for distributing birth control information in poor neighbourhoods. This
set a precedent that
A. it was permissible to provide birth control information if it was done in the
interest of the ‘public good’.
B. even those responsible for law enforcement disagreed with the laws
prohibiting contraception.
C. Canadian law is open to interpretation and can be very forgiving.
D. distributing birth control information was considered a serious violation of
civil obedience and needed to be punished severely.

19. Dr. Henry Morgentaler has been instrumental in bringing changes to

Canada’s abortion laws through a campaign characterized by
 A. mobilizing groups of women and staging violent protests.
B. targeting key legal officials and initiating aggressive media attacks.
C. refusing to obey governmental demands in a nonviolent manner meant to
force concession regarding women’s rights for abortion.
D. seeking to attain higher and higher political offices to make changes within
the system.

20. Use of the oral contraceptive pill has a major disadvantage in that
A. the burden of contraception is placed solely or mainly on the woman.
B. it may not be as useful for the woman who has intercourse frequently as
compared to the woman who has intercourse infrequently.
C. it tends to interfere with sexual intercourse—because the woman must
remember to take the pill every day for the whole menstrual cycle.
D. there are negative long term effects on the fertility of the woman.

21. It appears that a real advantage for women taking the pill is
A. a decreased susceptibility to gonorrhea.
B. a decrease of pre-menstrual pain.
C. a decreased susceptibility to vaginitis.
D. a decrease in susceptibility to breast cancer.

22. One type of contraceptive pill that changes the cervical mucus such that
sperm cannot get through, but where about 40% of the women still ovulate is
the
A. combination pill
B. triphasic pill
C. progestin-only pill
D. estrogen-only pill

23. It has been suggested that progestin-only pills work by

A. inhibiting implantation of the egg.
B. inhibiting ovulation.
C. changing the cervical mucus so that sperm can’t get through.
D. all of these mechanisms

24. This contraceptive is inserted into the vagina, remains there for 21 days,
and stops ovulation from occurring:
 A. cervical cup
B. IUD
C. diaphragm
D. the vaginal ring

25. The truly big advantage Depo-Provera injections have as a contraceptive is

A. that there are no side effects.
B. that it does not require memory to use it properly.
C. the shortened period of infertility following cessation.
D. its unique balance between the hormones of estrogen and progestin.

26. This contraceptive must be administered every 3 months for maximum

effectiveness. One apparent side effect is amenorrhea. This contraceptive is
A. Depo-Provera
B. the estrogen-only injection
C. Norplant
D. the copper-T IUD

27. Depo-Provera is a(n) ________ method of contraception.

A. estrogen-only
B. synthetic estrogen
C. progestin-only
D. combination estrogen and progestin

28. There are two contraception devices available in Canada that look like an
IUD. The one that IS an IUD contains ______, the other is not actually an IUD
because it contains ________.
A. progesterone; copper
B. copper; progesterone
C. the T-shape; a U-shape
D. they are both IUDs

29. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of IUDs?

A. inexpensive
B. no interruption of the sexual experience
C. easily placed by the women several hours prior to intercourse
D. no effect on fertility after removal
  

30. The use of IUD’s declined sharply in North America in the 1980s. Why?
A. they were replaced by the female condom
B. simply never became popular
C. lawsuits against manufacturers for damages suffered by users
D. the shape of the device was uncomfortable

31. The IUD probably prevents pregnancy by

A. inhibiting ovulation.
B. increasing estrogen levels.
C. producing changes in the uterus.
D. preventing sperm from entering the uterus.

32. Of the following, the most effective form of contraception is the

A. female condom
B. IUD
C. male condom
D. cervical cap

33. Once the IUD is in place,

A. one of the side effects is that the woman cannot use a tampon during
menstruation.
B. it does tend to interrupt intercourse at times when the sexual act is
prolonged.
C. it can be considered permanent, never having to be replaced.
D. it is simple to use, needing only to be checked periodically to see that the
strings are in place.

34. The failure rate of the IUD is

A. better than the pill or sterilization.
B. better than Depo-Provera.
C. similar to the pill and Depo-Provera.
D. highest during its first three months after insertion.

35. The basic principle on which cervical caps operate are

A. by releasing progestin to keep the fertilized egg from implanting in the
endometrium of the uterus.
 B. blocking the entrance of the uterus.
C. changing the environment of the vagina to one of being more acidic.
D. preventing the egg from entering the fallopian tube.

36. A vaginal barrier device must be left in place for at least ________ hour(s)
after intercourse.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 12

37. The typical user failure rate of cervical caps are about _______ percent
A. 1
B. 7
C. 10
D. 20

38. Most contraceptive failures that occur with the use of cervical caps
A. result from improper use.
B. result from leaving it in too long.
C. are caused by using too much contraceptive cream or jelly which causes
the diaphragm to become dislodged during intercourse.
D. are because of the one and only size in which the diaphragm comes.

39. There is evidence of a reduction in rates of ______ cancer among long-time

users of the diaphragm.
A. breast
B. cervical
C. ovarian
D. vaginal

40. How do the contraceptive sponge and cervical caps differ?

A. how they are inserted
B. the barrier aspects to how they work
C. whether they contain a spermicide
D. the concave shape

 
41. Each patch (Evra) lasts for how long?
A. 1 day
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 28 days

42. For the condom to be most effective,

A. it needs to be carefully rolled onto the penis just before ejaculation.
B. the penis should be withdrawn after ejaculation soon after the man’s
erection has begun to subside.
C. it must be put on before intromission and the penis must be withdrawn
soon after ejaculation.
D. spermicide-coated condoms should be used which help change the vaginal
environment to be more alkaline and harmful to sperm.