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6соurse 2 variant 2019

1) In the appointment of tocolytic drugs should be monitored for:

1. The amount of blood loss

2. Only the status of the fetus

3. Only the state of the pregnant woman

4. The amount of fluid you drink

5. the state of the fetus and the pregnant woman+

2)tocolytic drug administered in any mode :

1. The combined 2 tocolytics

2. The combined tocolytics 3

3. monotherapy

4 in combination with antibiotics+

5 in combination with oxytocin

3) Driving purpose of nifedipine:

1. The initial dose - 10 mg under the tongue every 20 minutes during 1 hour, the subsequent dose
of 10 mg orally every 6-8 hours during the 48 hours from the start of therapy+

2. The initial dose - 20 mg under the tongue every 20 minutes for 2 hours, the subsequent dose of
20 mg orally every 6-8 hours during less than 28 hours from the start of therapy

3. The initial dose - 10 mg sublingually, every 20 minutes for 3 hours, the subsequent dose of 10
mg orally every 6-8 hours during not more than 38 hours from the start of therapy

4. The initial dose - 20 mg under the tongue every 20 minutes during 1 hour, the subsequent dose
of 20 mg orally every 6-8 hours during less than 38 hours from the start of therapy

5. The initial dose - 10 mg under the tongue every 60 minutes during 1 hour , the subsequent
dose of 10 mg orally every 10 hours for no more than 28 hours from the start of therapy

4)Scheme of indomethacin destination:

1. The initial dose of 50-mg loading dose orally or rectally, and then 25 mg every 6 hours for 28
hours

2. The initial dose of 100 mg loading dose orally or rectally, and then 25 mg every 6 hours for 28
hours

3. The initial dose of 50-mg loading dose orally or rectally, and then 50 mg every 6 hours for 48
hours
4. The initial dose of 100 mg loading dose orally or rectally, and then 25 mg every 6 hours for 48
hours+

5. The initial dose of 100 mg loading dose orally or rectally, then po100 mg every 6 hours for 28
hours

5) At what gestational age should not be used indomethacin as a tocolytic drug

1 to 35 weeks of pregnancy+

2. from 30 weeks of pregnancy

3. from 32 weeks of pregnancy

4. 28 weeks of pregnancy

5 to 37 weeks of gestation

6) How often in the appointment of acute tocolysis monitor blood pressure and Ps:

1. every 30 minutes constantly+

2. every 30min, and then every 60 minutes up to 40 hours

3. every 30 minutes for 5 hours and then every 2 hours for 20 hours

4. every 15 minutes during 5 hours and then every 60 minutes for 20 hours

5. every 30 minutes during the first hour, then every 60 minutes for 24 hours and then every 4
hours

7)Why appoint an acute tocolysis

1. The removal of labor+

2. to aid in the prevention of fetal distress

3. to prevent blood loss in new mothers

4. for the prophylaxis of chorioamnionitis

5. to conduct independent genera

8) How often spend vaginal study in preterm labor

1 every 6 hours

2. every 8 hours

3. every 4 hours

4. every 2 hours
5. do not spend+

9) Physiological blood loss during labor is considered to be blood loss :

1. Up to 400 ml

2. Up to 500 mL+

3. Up to 600 mL

4. 800 ml

5 to 1000ml

10) For prevention of bleeding in the sequence and the early postpartum period applies :

1. metilergometrin

2. oxytocin

3. prostaglandins

4. Dicynonum

5. The right 1 , 2 , 3+

11) Premature detachment of normally situated placenta can lead to :

1. The emergence of the uterus Kuvelera

2. intrapartum and antenatal fetal death

3. The development of DIC

4. hemorrhagic shock

5. all the listed complications+

12) A feature of bleeding in placenta previa is :

1. uterine tenderness on palpation

2. external bleeding may not be

3. There are signs of intra-abdominal bleeding

4. All of the above

5. All the answers are incorrect+

13) For a complete typical uterine rupture is not typical:

1. The termination of labor

2. premature rupture of membranes+


3. fetal death

4. The development of pain and hemorrhagic shock

5. The absence of uterine contours

14) To break the old uterine scar is not typical:

1. pain syndrome

2. asymptomatic+

3. spotting

4. intrauterine fetal hypoxia

5. All answers are correct

15) The most appropriate use for the diagnosis of placenta previa:

1. radioisotopescintigraphy

2. The thermal imaging

3. The ultrasound scan +

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

16) At vaginal examination with incomplete placenta previa is usually determined by :

1. spongy tissue of the placenta over all internal throat

2. The head of the fetus and the handle

3. Fetal leg

4. All of the above

5. None of the above+

17) For external obstetric research for placenta previa is most characteristic :

1. The high-mounted fetal presenting part +

2. transverse and oblique position of the fetus

3. noise placental vessels above the vagina

4. All of the above

5. None of the above


18) A feature of bleeding in placenta previa is , except for :

1. painful uterine bleeding+

2. external bleeding may be excessive

3. The external bleeding may be slight

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

19) When premature detachment of the placenta on the front wall of the uterus ,
characterized by :

1. Local pain +

2. cramping in the sacrum and lower back

3. The lower limb edema

4. swelling anterior abdominal wall

5. None of the above

20) Incomplete placenta previa ,significant bleeding from the birth canal and the opening
of uterine os 5-6 cm delivery is shown :

1. by Caesarean section+

2. vaginallywith blood transfusions and

3. vaginally with early amniotomy and without induction of labor

4. produce a rotation of fetal stem

5. All the answers are correct

21)pregnant women with preeclampsia at term pregnancy of 32 weeks showed signs of


progressive abruption placenta , urgent hospitalization to the hospital . Obstetric tactics :

1. Intensive Care and preservation of pregnancy

2. labor induction and rodostimulyatsiya

3. Cesarean section+

4. The use of tocolytic agents

5. The right 1 and 4

22) In multiparous primiparous with partial placenta previa at the opening of the cervix
4cm diagnosed breech fetus. Estimated fetal weight - 3900 , the conduct of tactics :

1. early labor induction and amniotomy


2. Early amniotomy and intravenous drip antispasmodics

3. Cesarean section +

4. The use of tocolytic agents

5. extraction of the fetus for pelvic end

23) During cesarean section produced over full placenta previa , bleeding occurred . You
should suspect :

1. true ingrowth chorionic villi into the myometrium

2. Uterine hypotonic

3. hypo coagulation+

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

24)For the clinical symptoms of premature detachment of normally situated placenta is


characterized by all of the above except

1. abdominal pain

2. anemia

3. uterine asymmetry

4. fetal hypoxia

5. polyuria+

25)The placenta previa is often accompanied by :

1. tight attachment of the placenta

2. The true placenta accreta

3. anemizatsiya women

4. properly 1 ) and 2 )+

5. All of the above

26) For the premature detachment of normally situated placenta is characterized by:

1. abdominal pain

2. The location of the high fetal presenting part

3. uterine asymmetry

4. The right 1 and 2


5. The right 1 and 3+

27) In placenta previa bleeding always:

1. outside+

2. Internal

3. External and internal

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect

28) Violation of the hemostatic system most likely to happen:

1. in severe pre-eclampsia

2. with premature placental abruption

3. when a large blood loss of any origin

4. in shock of any origin

5. When all of the above+

29) The basic principles of treatment of premature detachment of normally situated


placenta are :

1. in the rapid delivery

2. an adequate compensation for loss of blood

3. in preventing complications

4. in all listed +

5. if nothing of the above

30) The massive bleeding during premature detachment of normally situated placenta ,
usually due to a violation of :

1. blood coagulation

2. uterine capacity

3. in the microcirculation system

4. all the above+

5. None of the above


31) In a tight attachment of the placenta chorionic villi tend to penetrate:

1. in the spongy layer of mucous membrane

2. In the compact layer of mucosa

3. in the basal layer of mucosa+

4. in myometrium

5. 1 and 2 correctly

32) For the full increment of real placenta is characterized by:

1. The absence of any bleeding from the genital tract in the successive period+

2. profuse bleeding from the genital tract after 1-2 minutes. after childbirth

3. minor bleeding from the genital tract immediately after the birth of the fetus

4. nesvorachivaemost blood flowing out of the genital tract

5. 2 and 3 correctly

33) Tactics obstetrician at the infringement of the placenta :

1. stretching the umbilical cord

2. conducting external uterine massage

3. intravenous oxytocin

4. conducting outdoor receptions squeezing afterbirth Abuladze , Gentera , Credit Lazarevic

5. The introduction of antispasmodics+

34) When it is advisable to pour massive blood loss :

1. whole blood

2. packed red blood cells

3. fresh frozen plasma

4. The right 1 and 2

5. The right 2 and 3 +

35) Bleeding after birth the placenta may be because -this :

1. delay parts of the placenta in the uterus

2. hypotonic uterine condition


3. a bleeding disorder

4. travma birth canal

5. All of the above +

36) Everything described below typical detachment normally situated platsenty except

1. uterinehypertonus

2. The presence of hematoma retroplatsentarnoy

3. The strong external bleeding+

4. abdominal pain

5. fetal death

37) When placenta previa is the basic risk of uterine bleeding?

1. The rapid onset of hemorrhagic shock+

2. postpartum anemia

3. changing the fetal heart

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect

38) A pregnant woman from 30 to 32 a week was in the department of pathology of


pregnancy about spotting .If examination diagnosed complete placenta previa. The
condition is satisfactory no complaints. The uterus is a tone. Bleeding stopped completely.
What to do next?

1. to write home pregnant+

2. Make emergency surgery

3. keepstotsianare until the end of pregnancy

4. start labor induction

5. appoint antispasmodics

39) When premature separation normal local placenta retroplacental formed a hematoma ,
while possible :

1. infiltration of the muscular layer of the uterus with blood .

2. violation of uterine function .

3. The formation of the internal combustion engine -sindroma .

4. The formation of the uterus Kuvelera


5. All of the above+

40) A complication of premature detachment of normally situated placenta :

1. uterine rupture

2. couvelaire uterus

3. painful shock

4. Cervical gap

5. The right 2,3+

41) The reason for the presence of placenta increment takes place :

1. pyelonephritis

2. The presence of the transferred abortions +

3. The lack of a history of abortion

4. anemia

5. disease of the cardiovascular system

42) When should labor finished pregnant at the central previa and no bleeding ?

1. 32 weeks

2. 36 weeks

3 .39 weeks

4. 40 weeks

5. 38 weeks+

43) The main clinical symptom of placenta previa :

1. periodic cramping

2. The change in fetal heart

3. repeated uterine bleeding+

4. vigorous stirring of the fetus

5. All answers are correct

44) What stage abortion if a woman complains of cramping , heavy bleeding . Objectively -
shortened cervix , cervical canal passes 1 finger, the uterus in size much smaller than the
duration of pregnancy .

1. threatening miscarriage
2. abortion in progress

3. incomplete miscarriage+

4. complete miscarriage

5. beginning miscarriage

45) At the onset of bleeding in the early postpartum period is necessary to :

1. The introduction uterotonics

2. inspection of the soft birth canal

3. The manual examination of the uterus

4. All answers are correct+

5. All the answers are incorrect

46)placenta previa - is such a pathology, in which the placenta is located

1. In the body of the uterus

2 in the lower uterine segment

3. in the lower uterine segment , partially or completely blocking the internal ostium+

4. The rear wall of the uterus

5. in the bottom of the uterus

47) Location of the placenta should be considered as physiological , if ultrasound of the


uterus in the III trimester of pregnancy, its bottom edge does not reach the internal os :

1. 11-12 cm

2. 9-10 cm

3. 6-7 cm +

4. 5-6 cm

5. 4 - 5 cm

48) "Migration" of the placenta occurs most often when the placenta is located on the wall
of the uterus :

1. front+

2. back

3. right
4. left

5. All answers are correct

49) Bleeding from the genital tract at low placentation due

1. placental abruption+

2. sclerosis villus low-lying placenta

3. degenerative changes of chorionic villi

4. The increased deposition of fibrinoid substance on the surface of the placenta

5. all the listed

50)The main indicator of consumption coagulopathy is :

1. The reduction of the concentration of fibrinogen

2. The decrease in the concentration of prothrombin

3. The reduction in the number of platelets

4. All of the above +

5. None of the above

51) For low placentation most characteristic symptom of the following

1. hypotension

2. hypertension

3. anemia

4. bleeding from the genital tract +

5. All of the above

52)The most commonly used method for diagnosis of placenta previa :

1. radioisotopescintigraphy

2. The thermal imaging

3. The ultrasound scan +

4. All of the above

5. None of the above


53) At vaginal examination with full placenta previa is defined by :

1. rough shell membranes

2. pelvic end of the fetus

3. fruit handle

4. placental edge +

5. None of the above

54) At vaginal examination with incomplete placenta previa is defined by :

1. spongy tissue of the placenta over all internal throat

2. The head of the fetus

3. Fetal leg

4. All of the above

5. None of the above+

55) placenta previa in the first stage of labor should be differentiated , except:

1. premature detachment of normally situated placenta

2. uterine rupture

3. with a break of varicose vagina site

4. The right 1 and 2 +

5. with all of the above

56) A feature of bleeding in premature detachment of normally situated placenta is :

1. always outside

2. alone , often at night

3. always painless

4. All of the above

5. None of the above+

57) For external obstetric research for placenta previa is most characteristic , except:

1. The high-mounted fetal presenting part

2. transverse and oblique position of the fetus

3. noise placental vessels above the vagina


4. presenting part in the pelvic cavity +

5. All of the above

58) A feature of bleeding in placenta previais :

1. The resulting dark blood with clots

2. The liquid flowing blood , scarlet+

3. There are signs of intra-abdominal bleeding

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

59) Bleeding accompanied by prolonged uterine hypertonic characterized by :

1. for placenta previa

2. to premature detachment of normally located placenta +

3. for the neck- cervix pregnancy

4. The right 1 and 3

5. For all the above

60) premature detachment of the placenta on the front wall of the uterus, characterized by:

1. Local pain +

2. cramping in the sacrum and lower back

3. The lower limb edema

4. swelling anterior abdominal wall

5. None of the above

61) The most common cause of premature detachment of normally situated placenta is :

1. edema pregnant

2. hypertensive disorders in pregnancy +

3. diabetes

4. malformations of the uterus

5. All of the above

62). In order to identify violations of the vascular- platelet hemostasis should be


determined :

1. The blood clotting time for Lee - White


2. The time of recalcification

3. prothrombin index

4. fibrinogen concentration

5. all the answers right +

63) In the premature detachment of normally situated placenta giving birth is shown :

1. labor induction with oxytocin

2. labor induction with prostaglandins

3. The introduction of metilergometrina intravenous drip

4. The introduction of pituitrina simultaneously intramuscularly

5. None of the above +

64) Incomplete placenta previa, significantlittle bleeding from the birth canal and the
opening of uterine os 9 cm delivery is shown:

1. by Caesarean section

2. vaginally with blood transfusions and with labor induction

3. vaginally with early amniotomy and without labor induction+

4. produce a rotation of fetal stem

5. expectant management

65) Premature detachment of normally located placenta from mothers often occurs:

1. whendiscoordination labor

2. When an absolute and a relative short umbilical cord

3. if not shown rodostimulyatsii

4. pre-eclampsia

5. When all of the above +

66)The highest value in the choice of tactics of delivery of incomplete placenta previa has:

1. presentation of the fetus (head, pelvic)

2. The state of the cervix (smoothed, shortened, fully open)

3. The condition of the fetus (alive, dead)


4. The severity of bleeding+

5. age pregnant women

67) pregnant women with hypertension in the current long-term 32 weeks of pregnancy
showed signs of progressive premature placental abruption. made an urgent admission to
the hospital. obstetric tactics:

1. Intensive Care and preservation of pregnancy

2. labor induction and labour stimulation

3. Cesarean section+

4. The use of tocolytic agents

5. The right 1 and 4

68)In multiparous primiparous with partial placenta previa at the opening of the cervix
4cm diagnosed breech fetus. estimated fetal weight - 4000 of tactics:

1. early labor induction and amniotomy

2. Early amniotomy and intravenous drip antispasmodics

3. Cesarean section +

4. The use of tocolytic agents

5. extraction of the fetus for pelvic end

68) Pregnancy 38 weeks, true ingrowth chorionic villi into the myometrium.how to labor
finished?

1. independent genera

2. caesarean section

3. Caesarean section followed by amputation of the uterus+

4. Caesarean section followed by hysterectomy

5. All the answers are incorrect

69)When bleeding during cesarean section produced about placenta previa, the most
correct is the following obstetric tactics:

1. The re-use of drugs uterotonic action

2. hysterectomy+

3. supravaginal uterus amputation


4. The use of prostenon in the thickness of the myometrium

5. All answer rigth

70)When cesarean section over the premature detachment of normally situated placenta
after extraction of the fetus and the placenta should:

1. to bring the uterus into the wound and carefully inspect its surface (front and rear)

2. entermetilergometrin (or oxytocin)

3. fully compensate for blood loss

4. do all of the above+

5. Do not do any of the above items

71) The clinical picture in premature detachment of normally situated placenta is due to :

1. The size of the placental surface exfoliated

2. The state of hemostasis system

3. The severity of pathology background

4. all the listed+

5. nothing of the above

72) The clinical picture with placenta previa usually depends on :

1. the degree of previa

2. the magnitude of bleeding

3 of comorbidity

4. The right 2 and 3+

5. from all the above

73) A characteristic feature of bleeding in placenta previais :

1. The suddenness of their appearance+

2. their frequency

3. anemia of pregnant

4. The right 2 and 3

5. All of the above

74) Violation of the hemostatic system most likely to happen :

1. in severe pre-eclampsia
2. with premature placental abruption

3. when a large blood loss of any origin

4. in shock of any origin

5. When all of the above+

75) The basic principles of treatment of premature detachment of normally situated


placenta are :

1. in the rapid delivery

2. an adequate compensation for loss of blood

3. in preventing complications

4. in all listed+

5. if nothing of the above

76) When progressing abruptio placentae developed during pregnancy should be made :

1. lobor induction

2. earlyamniotomy

3. tocolysis

4. Caesarean section+

5. The right 1 and 2

77) If abruptio placentae occurred in childbirth , should be evaluated :

1. The state of the birth canal

2. The status of the fetus

3. The blood loss

4. The state of coagulation

5. All of the above+

78) If abruptio placentae occurred in the first stage of labor , it should be

1. perform a cesarean section+

2. impose forceps

3. apply vacuum extraction of the fetus


4. All of the above is true

5. start labor induction

79) In the premature detachment of normally situated placenta manual control postpartum
uterine examination produce :

1. obligatory

2. not necessarily

3 depending on the amount of blood loss+

4. depending on blood pressure

5. All answers are correct

80)The reference manual examination of the uterus postpartum produce Incomplete


placenta previa:

1. obligatory

2. not necessarily+

3. hemorrhage depending on

4. depending on the state of puerperal

5. 3rd right 4

81) Pathology in which may develop neck- cervix uteruspregnancy :

1. Inflammatory diseases of the cervix and the area of the isthmus

2. endomyometritis

3. uterine hypoplasia

4. The right 1 and 2+

5. All of the above is true

82) The clinical picture in neck- cervix pregnancy is mainly characterized by :

1. profuse bleeding+

2. severe pain in the abdomen

3. prolonged hypotension

4. fetal death

5. all the listed


84)In the examination of the cervix in the mirrors for the neck- cervix pregnancy is
characterized by:

1. The eccentric arrangement of the external os

2. The barrel shape of cervix+

3. sharp cyanosis of the vaginal part of the cervix

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

85) cervical pregnancy should be differentiated ( in the first months of pregnancy )

1. with uterine myoma

2. with an ectopic pregnancy

3. abortion in vogue

4. The right 1 and 3+

5. with all of the above

86) The indications for hand postpartum uterine examination is :

1. Increased blood loss

2. questioned the integrity of the placenta

3. doubts about the integrity of the uterine wall

4. All of the above

5. The right 2 and 3+

87) When cervical pregnancy should be made :

1. cervical and uterine curettage

2. cervicaltamponade

3. supravaginal uterus amputation

4. hysterectomy+

5. The right 1 and 2

88)At full placenta previa cesarean section is usually performed in a planned manner :

1. the beginning of labor

2. 38 weeks of pregnancy+
3. pregnancy 40 weeks

4. None of the above

5. All answers are correct

89) In conducting pregnant with complete placenta previacan not :

1. prescribe her home from the hospital until delivery

2. produce a vaginal examination is operating+

3. prescribe laxatives medications drugs

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

90) Indication for manual removal of the placenta is:

1. Minor bleeding from the genital tract in the absence of placenta

2. minor bleeding from the genital tract with signs of placental separation

3. The long-term (30 min.) For a successive period for minor bleeding from the genital tract

4. The right 1 and 3+

5. All of the above

91)Violation of the placenta due process:

1. pathological (partially dense) attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall+

2. Uterine hypotonia

3. The forced separation of the placenta

4. all the listed

5. nothing of the above

92) Delay parts of the placenta in the uterus may be due to :

1. pathological ( dense ) the attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall

2. violation of uterine capacity

3. spasm of uterine throat

4. all the listed+

5. nothing of the above

93) The appearance of small bleeding from the genital tract in the III stage of labor shows :
1. the possibility of a partial dense attachment of the placenta

2. breaks of the birth canal soft tissue

3. The edge of the placenta

4. 1 and 2 correctly+

5. all the listed

94) The manual removal of placenta should be done when blood loss :

1. up to 100 ml

2. Up to 200 mL

3. Up to 400 mL

4. 600 ml+

5 to 800 ml

95)For the full increment of real placenta is characterized by:

1. The absence of any bleeding from the genital tract in the successive period+

2. heavy bleeding from the genital tract after 5-10 minutes after the birth of the fetus

3. minor bleeding from the genital tract immediately after the birth of the fetus

4. nesvorachivaemost blood flowing out of the genital tract

5. The right 2 and 4

96) The main cause of placenta previa :

1. degenerative changes in the uterine lining+

2. The multiple pregnancy

3. polyhydramnios

4. The two-horned uterus

5. All answers are correct

97) characterized by the following clinical signs for placenta previa :

1. uterus toned, painful , asymmetric

2. massive prolonged bleeding

3. The fetal heartbeat is no


4. The uterus is soft , symmetrical , scarlet blood+

5. All the answers are incorrect

98) If true increment placentae shown :

1. The manual removal of the placenta

2. postpartum uterine curettage

3. uterinetamponade swab with fibrinogen

4. supravaginal uterus amputation+

5. The right 2 and 3

99) In case of partial placenta firmly attached to the background bleeding shown :

1. a one-time intravenous administration of oxytocin

2. drip intravenous metilergometrina

3. intramuscularpituitrina

4. The manual removal of the placenta+

5. All answers are correct

100)The reasons for the early postnatal period pathology include:

1. delay in the uterus placental lobule

2. Uterine hypotonia

3. bleeding due to violations of blood coagulation function

4. All of the above+

5. None of the above

101) A variant of hypotonic bleeding in the early postpartum period is:

1. The solid-stage blood loss with normal blood clotting

2. repeated blood loss, extended in time, in small portions

3. hemorrhage with the initial reduction in blood coagulation properties

4. The right 1 and 2+

5. The right 2 and 3

102) The normal measure of central venous pressure is :


1. 60-69 mm water column

2. 70-79 mm water column

3. 80-89 mm water column

4. 90-100 mm water colum+

5. all the listed

103) The level of central venous pressure equal to 160 mm of water . . Art should be
regarded as an indicator :

1. hypervolemia+

2. hypovolemia

3. normovolaemia

4. None of the above

5. All of the above

104) Specify the indications for manual inspection of the uterine cavity walls in the early
postpartum period , except:

1. suspected uterine rupture

2. delay units placenta

3. hypotonic bleeding

4. under physiological childbirth+

5. scar on the uterus after cesarean section and hemorrhage

105) Indications for manual examination of the uterus wall in the immediate postpartum
period :

1. under physiological childbirth

2. fetusdestoy operation

3. classic external- internal rotation of the fetus in the leg

4. cervical gap I-II art.

5. The right answers 2 and 3+

106) Low central venous pressure indicates that the patient has :

1. The reduction of the VCB

2. The increase in VCB


3. The threat of pulmonary edema

4. The right 2 and 3+

5. All of the above

107)For massive transfusion syndrome is characterized by:

1. violation of rheological properties of blood ( hyperaggregation )

2. violation of the microcirculation

3. renal hepatic failure

4. All of the above+

5. None of the above

108) The reaction of the organism to puerperal blood loss is :

1. to reduce the venous return of blood to the heart

2. The decrease in cardiac output

3. The maximum stimulation of the sympathetic- adrenal system

4. in all listed+

5. if nothing of the above

109) For bleeding , which is based on the birth canal tears , characterized by :

1. The tone of the uterus is reduced

2. The nature of continuous bleeding+

3. clot friable , easily soluble

4. The blood does not clot

5. None of the above

110)For the premature detachment of normally situated placenta most characterized by


the following clinical signs I) hypotension II) tachycardia III) hypertonus uterus IV)
violation of the condition of the fetus

1. The right 1, 2, 3

2. The right 1, 2

3. All answers are correct+


4. The right 1 and 4

5. all the answers wrong

111)For the prevention of placenta praevia in women with a history of obstetric and
gynecological history shows

1. compliance with the interval between pregnancies at least 2.5-3 years

2. Treatment of chronic endometritis

3. The normalization of ovarian function

4. Healthy Lifestyle

5. The right 1, 2, 3+

112) At full premature detachment of normally situated placenta diagnosis is usually made
on the basis of I) analysis of clinical data II) analysis of data history III ) ultrasound IV) X-
ray inspection

1. 1 , 2 , 3+

2. The right 1 , 2

3. All answers are correct

4. 2 and 4 right

5. all the answers wrong

113) Calls pregnant with complaints of bleeding from the genital tract ( in the second half
of pregnancy ) tactics obstetrician should be as follows :

1. to make a careful examination of the overall

2. make a careful study of external obstetric

3. To immediately send a pregnant woman in maternity hospital

4. organize the monitoring of pregnant day care

5. The right 1 , 2 , 3+

114) By the sequence of pathology and early postnatal periods give the following etiological
factors :

1. anomalies of the uterus

2. excessive use of the uterus during labor shorten the funds

3. excessive uterine stretching during multiple pregnancy , polyhydramnios

4. all the answers wrong


5. all answers are correct+

115) Hypotonic bleeding in the early postpartum period is often the case at birth :

1. premature

2. The belated

3. rapid

4. fast

5. All answers are correct+

116)For the treatment of uterine hypotension used drugs

1. oxytocin

2. metilergometrin

3. glucose

4. Ascorbic acid

5. The right 1 , 2+

117) Diagnostics hypotonic bleeding in the early postpartum period is carried out on the
basis of the following clinical picture:

1. heavy bleeding from the genital tract with a relaxed uterus

2. minor bleeding from the genital tract after 15-30 minutes after the release of the placenta,
which stops when the outdoor massage the uterus and shorten the application means the uterus,
but after a short time again resumes

3. bleeding from the genital tract in spite of the integrity of the unborn placenta

4. bleeding from the genital tract in the absence of traumatic injury of soft tissues of the birth
canal

5. all answers are correct+

118)Occurrence coagulopathic bleeding in the early postpartum period may be due to:

1. with severe preeclampsia

2. premature detachment of normally situated placenta

3. The presence of a dead fetus in the womb

4. with amniotic fluid embolism

5. all answers are correct+

119)For prevention hypotonic bleeding in the early postpartum period include:


1. before breastfeeding newborn

2. rational, careful management of labor

3. adequate anesthesia delivery

4. intravenous oxytocin 1II stage of labor

5. all answers are correct+

120)The volume of transfusion therapy, as a rule, is determined by:

1. The level of blood pressure

2. heart rate

3. The amount of blood loss

4. The state of health and the state of mothers (puerperal)

5. all answers are correct+

121)There are the following factors mortality in hypotonic postpartum bleeding

1. fails to timely blood loss

2. delayed uterus removal surgery

3. violation of the uterus removal surgery techniques (prolonged, traumatic)

4. inadequate infusion-transfusion therapy of hemorrhagic shock

5. all answers are correct+

122)The causes of bleeding in the successive period are:

1. partly true placenta accreta

2. complete the true placenta accreta

3. Partial tight attachment of the placenta

4. The right 1 and 3+

5. The right 2 and 3

123)The reasons for tight attachment of the placenta are:

1. the scar on the uterus

2. placentaprevia

3. degenerative changes in the uterine wall


4. anomalies of the uterus

5. The increase in activity of trophoblastic gestational sac+

124) The most frequent cause of placenta accreta is true :

1. uterine fibroids

2. Genital infantilism

3. The increase in the proteolytic activity of the ovum

4. scar on the uterus

5. degenerative changes of the endometrium ( abortion , multiparous )+

125) In order to apply the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage :

1. B- Lynch compression suture

2. bilateral ligation of the uterine arteries

3. hysterectomy

4. Correct Answers 2 , 3

5. All answers are correct+

126)In the case of increment placenta chorionic villi are attached within :

1. the functional layer of the endometrium

2. myometrium and beyond+

3. The basal layer of the endometrium

4. perimetry

5. The parameter

127) Before the introduction of the hand into the uterus in the third stage of labor and the
immediate postpartum period is necessary to :

1. treat the vulva with antiseptic solutions

2. empty the bladder

3. To connect an intravenous drip system

4. hold a general anesthesia

5. perform all manipulations listed above+


128)The characteristic manifestations of the full dense attachment of the placenta are:

1. abdominal pain

2. bleeding

3. The height of the bottom of the state of the uterus above the level of the navel after the birth of
the fetus

4. The absence of signs of placental separation , absence of bleeding+

5. bleeding, no signs of placental separation

129) Principles of postpartum hemorrhage :

1. Early diagnosis

2. The search for the cause and proper treatment

3. adequate replenishment of blood loss

4. The correct answer 2 , 3

5. All answers are correct+

130) should be to assess the causes of postpartum hemorrhage :

1. produce a manual examination of the uterus

2. examine the birth canal

3. To evaluate the blood clotting

4. The correct answer 1 , 2 , 3+

5. The correct answer 1 , 2

131) Indication for manual examination of the uterus postpartum are all listed clinical
situations below , except:

1. cervical rupture and 1 degree 2+

2. ongoing blood loss greater than the physiological

3. The presence of the scar on the uterus and bleeding

4. doubts about the integrity of the placenta

5. suspicion of uterine rupture

132) During pregnancy physiologically developing the following changes occur in the
hemostatic system :
1. hypercoagulation+

2. anticoagulation

3. consumption coagulopathy

4. activation only vascular platelet link

5. The activation of only the plasma unit

133) In manual examination of the uterus postpartum pain relief usually apply the
following :

1. inhalation anesthetic

2. intravenous anesthetic+

3. pudendal anesthesia

4. paracervical anesthesia

5. The right 1 , 2

134) necessarily be carried out when it is defective placental tissue :

1. External massage of the uterus

2. The removal of the uterus

3. voiding

4. The manual examination of the uterus+

5. introductionuterotonics

135) With eversion of the uterus must be :

1. puerperas withdraw from shock

2. gently straighten the uterus against the backdrop of deep anesthesia , carry out anti-shock
event+

3. performsupravaginal hysterectomy and blood transfusion

4. carry out hysterectomy and blood transfusion

5. The right 1 and 3

136) The development of a low placentation contribute to the following changes in the
uterus , except:
1. dystrophic

2. inflammatory

3. scar

4. proliferative+

5. The right 2 and 4

137) Tactics physician in detecting acute fatty liver :

1. start preparing for childbirth and continue the complex therapy

2. make an urgent delivery is based on obstetric situation

3. To continue conservative treatment of the disease

4. all the answers wrong+

5. All answers are correct

138)If there is inversion of the uterus after delivery, then:

1. The bottom of the uterus is not palpable through the abdominal wall

2. can be slight or intense abdominal pain

3. Remove the uterus can be seen from the vulva

4. All of the above is true+

5. all untrue

139) If necessary, the production of manual removal of the placenta:

1. The need to introduce misoprostol prior to the procedure

2. it is necessary to introduce an antibiotic within before the procedure+

3. The need to introduce a hand into the uterine cavity, and the other hand to use the cord traction

4. it is necessary to introduce a hand into the uterine cavity, and the other put on the mother's
abdomen to hold the bottom of the uterus

5. The right 1 and 3

140) If you have selected manual compression of the abdominal aorta to stop postpartum
hemorrhage , compression of the point is :

1. under the umbilicus and slightly to the right

2. under the umbilicus and slightly to the left


3. above the umbilicus and slightly to the right

4. above the navel and slightly to the left+

5. All the answers are incorrect

141) For rapid volume replacement for obstetric hemorrhage must urgently begin
transfusion :

1. dextran ( polyglukin , reopoligljukin )

2. crystalloids ( saline , Ringer's solution)+

3. odnogruppnoy blood (or blood products )

4. Only the native plasma

5. All answers are correct

142) During the bimanual compression of the uterus must be :

1. Place a folded hand into a fist in front of vaginal vault+

2. Place the folded his hand into a fist in the rear vaginal vault

3. Place the folded hand into a fist into the uterine cavity

4. Place the folded into a fist hand on the anterior abdominal wall

5. All answers are correct

143) The reason for decrease in urine output in preeclampsia :

1. Organic kidney disease

2. vasospasm

3. The reduction in renal blood flow

4. The right 1 and 2

5. All answers are correct+

144) The most characteristic symptom of pre-eclampsiais :

1. swelling shins

2. albuminuria

3. The complaint of headache , dizziness , blurred vision

4. The development in the second half of pregnancy


5. proteinuria+

145) h signs of eclampsia are:

1. hypertension

2. albuminuria and edema

3. diarrhea

4. convulsions and coma+

5. headache

146) complication of eclampsiacan not be considered :

1. neurological complications

2. fetal death

3. pulmonary edema

4. uteroplacental apoplexy+

5. retinal detach

147) Differential diagnosis of eclampsia conducted:

1. Epilepsy

2. hysteria

3. with hypertensive crisis

4. meningitis

5. with all of the above+

148)The best option of delivery in severe hypertensive states is:

1. forceps

2. The delivery is independent

3. caesarean section

4. vacuum extraction of the fetus+

5. operationembriotomia

149)The attack of eclampsia can occur in all cases, except for:

1. with out pregnance+

2. During Pregnancy
3. in the early postpartum period

4. In the first stage of labor

5. in the second stage of labor

150) For the purpose of emergency delivery in eclampsia is most often used :

1. The fetal vacuum extraction

2. extraction of the fetus for pelvic end

3. Cesarean section+

4. operationembriotomia

5. independent genera

151) Pre-eclampsia is distinguished from hypertension in pregnant women

1. The level of blood pressure+

2. The severity of edema syndrome

3. oliguria

4. The appearance of brain symptoms

5. The level of proteinuria

152) The differential diagnosis of a hypertensive crisis in a pregnant woman , as a rule,


should be carried out :

1. Epilepsy

2. with preeclampsia

3. With Acute Myocardial Infarction

4. All answers are correct+

5. All the answers are not true

153) In order to prevent eclampsia seizure apply :

1. autonomic blockade

2. aminophylline intravenously

3. infusion therapy

4. intravenous magnesium sulphate+

5. All of the above


154) The most effective anti-hypertensive agent for severe pre-eclampsia :

1. Magnesium sulfate

2. clonidine+

3. Dibazolum and papaverine

4. pentamin

5. no - shpa

155) pregnant women with high blood pressure , proteinuria and severe headache is a
symptom :

1. mild preeclampsia

2. preeclampsia moderate severity

3. severe preeclampsia+

4. hypertensive crisis

5. All answers are correct

156) The loading dose of magnesium sulfate 25 % :

1. intravenously 20 ml 25% for 5 minutes

2. intravenously 5.0 ml - 25 % after the / m 20.0 ml

3. 20.0 ml of 25% - 20 ml diluted in isotonic solution at 10ml two syringes . cc bolus very
slowlyfor15 min+

4. System for intravenous 100.0 mL - 25 % set within 5 minutes after administration of 20.0 ml /
m

5. All the answers are not true

157) Antihypertensive drugs should be administered to reduce blood pressure in severe


pre-eclampsia , if diagnosed with diastolic blood pressure :

1. 90 mm Hg or higher+

2 between 100 and 110 mm Hg

3. 100 mm Hg or higher

4. 110 mm Hg or higher

5. 80 mm Hg or higher
158)The aim of antihypertensive therapy in severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia is to support
the diastolic BP:

1. at normal numbers

2. less than 80 mm Hg

3. between 80 mm Hg and 90 mm Hg

4. between 90 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg+

5. All the answers are incorrect

159) Anticonvulsant therapy for severe preeclampsia and eclampsiashould :

1. be interrupted by 6 hours of birth

2. carried out within 12 hours after the last spasms

3. carried out within 24 hours after the last spasms+

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect

160) What are the expected effects of infusion therapy for hypertensive disorders ?

1. The elimination of hypovolemia (deficit VCB )

2. The improvement of blood rheology+

3. The improvement of blood microcirculation

4. all the answers wrong

5. All answers are correct

161)In the absence of the effect of intensive therapy for hypertensive disorders the issue of
delivery decide:

1. in the first day

2. immediately+

3. after three days

4. a week

5. 2 weeks

162) The indications for emergency caesarean section when hypertensive disorders are
other than :

1. anuria not amenable to treatment.


2. The presence of a positive effect of intensive therapy for mild asthma .

3. amovroz+

4. ponra placenta

5. fetal distress

163) Indicate any changes in the urine are characteristic of the pure form of pre-
eclampsia ?

1. izostenuriya

2. cylindruria

3. hematuria

4. proteinuria+

5. unchanged

164) Your tactics if , at the end of the period of exile there were symptoms of pre-eclampsia
:

1. enter antispasmodics

2. make a cesarean section

3. give anesthesia , apply forceps+

4. wait for independent delivery

5. The use of vacuum extraction of the fetus

165) Your actions if a pregnant woman has started an attack of eclampsia ?

1. apply the gag

2. enterPromedolum , seduksen , droperidol

3. To enter antihypertensives

4. applyglossotilt

5. MgSO4 25%-20.0 +

166) What measures should begin therapy in pregnant women with pre-eclampsia
,eclampsia, to prevent the attack ?

1. the introduction of antihypertensive drugs

2. the introduction of magnesium sulphate solution


3. the introduction of fluid and protein drugs

4. with effects on the central nervous system , the establishment of medical protective regime .

5. with immediate delivery+

167) The risk factors for pre-eclampsiais :

1. hypertension .+

2. nulliparous age 20 years and older .

3. hypotension

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

168) Pre-eclampsia - a complication arose :

1. Only during pregnancy.+

2. at high levels of prolactin in the body and thromboxane .

3. When choriocarcinoma .

4. If all of the above .

5. innocent of the above

169) Obstetric tactics , if at the end of 1 - st stage of labor had a strong headache, pain in
the epigastric region ?

1. enter antispasmodics .

2. make a cesarean section .+

3. give anesthesia and impose forceps

4. The use of fetal vacuum extraction

5. wait for independent delivery

170). In the event of pregnancy in patients with epilepsy shows :

1. The continuation of the pregnancy+

2. The interruption in the second trimester

3. The interruption in the third trimester

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect


171) How to distinguish an attack of eclampsia from an epileptic fit ?

1. the nature of seizures

2. The seizure duration

3. unconsciousness

4. The presence of pregnancy and symptoms of hypertensive disorders+

5. The staging attacks seizures

172) Blood Viscosity in eclampsia :

1. increased+

2. reduced

3. Do not change

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect

173) Pregnancy 37 weeks.Preeclampsia severe. The cervix for childbirth is not ready. They
stated progressive chronic fetal hypoxia. The treatment is necessary:

1. prolong pregnancy for 1-2 weeks

2. start labor induction with intravenous oxytocin or prostaglandins

3. carry out labor induction scheme with a whole sac

4. produce a cesarean delivery+

5. All the answers are incorrect

174)eclampsia must be differentiated:

1. Epilepsy

2. with hypertension

3. with a brain tumor

4. The right 1 and 2+

5. with all of the above

175) Distinct changes in the fundus are most common :

1. for hypertensive disease+

2. for dropsy pregnant

3. for nephrolithiasis
4. The right 1 and 2

5. All the answers are incorrect

176)The use of heparin is indicated for the treatment of pregnant women

1. with eclampsia

2. with preeclampsia

3. with placental insufficiency on the background of the late pre-eclampsia

4. The right 1 and 2+

5. All of the above is true

177) Consequences of preeclampsia include all of the following except :

1. The reduction of glomerular filtration

2. oliguria

3. The increase of uric acid levels in plasma

4. The reduction in placental blood flow

5. All answers are correct+

178) Premature delivery is when hypertensive disorders shown in the presence of :

1. eclamptic coma

2. anurii

3. preeclampsia

4. Return 1 and 2+

5. none of the above all

179)In pre-eclampsia, severe treatment is permissible:

1. 24 hours+

2. 48 hours

3 for 24 - 48 hours

4. for 12 hours

5. 72 hours
180)The absolute indication for cesarean section in pregnant women with hypertensive
disorders are:

1. fetal hypoxia

2. fetal malnutrition

3. intrauterine fetal death

4. complete premature placental abruption+

5. None of the above

181)Whenmagnesian discontinue therapy after birth with severe pre-eclampsia?

1. 12 hours after

2. 24 hours later+

3. 48 hours later

4. after 72 h

5. immediately after birth

182) The hematocrit during infusion therapy in patients with hypertensive disorders should
not be less than :

1. 27-28 %

2. 25-26 %+

3. 20-24 %

4. 29-30 %

5. 35 - 45 %

183) For eclampsia is characterized , in addition to :

1. The presence of tonic convulsions

2. The presence of clonic seizures

3. absence seizures+

4. coma

5. prodrome

184)hypertensive disorders in pregnancy is characterized by:

1. The increase in body weight


2. hyperglycemia

3. violation of the microcirculation in vital organs+

4. hypotension

5. All answers are correct

185) Gestational hypertension is:

1. The increase in diastolic blood pressure> 100 mm Hg measured by two-times the interval 2 h.

2. The increase in diastolic blood pressure> 110 mm Hg measured by two-times the interval 4 h

3. The increase in diastolic blood pressure> 90 mm Hg at a twofold dimension to 4:00 interval+

4. The increase in diastolic blood pressure> 120 mm Hg at the twofold dimension intervals 3:00

5. All the answers are incorrect

186)eclampsia is characterized by:

1. presence of tonic and clonic seizures+

2. absence seizures

3. High temperature

4. The smell of acetone breath

5. All the answers are incorrect

187) For the purpose of emergency delivery in eclampsiaapply :

1. The fetal vacuum extraction

2. extraction of the fetus for pelvic end

3. Cesarean section+

4. fetal destroy operation

5. All answers are correct

188) Gestational hypertension is :

1. The increase in diastolic blood pressure > 100 mm Hg for a single measurement

2. The increase in diastolic blood pressure > 110 mm Hg for a single measurement

3. The increase in diastolic blood pressure > 90 mm Hg at a single measurement+


4. The increase in diastolic blood pressure > 120 mm Hg for a single measurement

5. All the answers are incorrect

189) Hypertension in pregnancy :

1. This was first revealed hypertension arose before the 20th week of pregnancy , and kept no
more than 6 weeks after giving birth+

2. This first revealed hypertension arose after 30 weeks of pregnancy , and kept no more than 8
weeks after giving birth

3. is the first time revealed hypertension arose after 32 weeks of pregnancy , and store up to 7
weeks after the birth

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect

190) The diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension is made by :

1. edema in the lower extremities

2. proteinuria

3. The increase in blood pressure

4. Correct Answers 1 and 3

5. The right 1,2,3+

191) When pregnant hypertension antihypertensive therapy should be initiated at the level
of blood pressure :

1. more than 140/90

2. more than 150/100

3. more than 160/100+

4. more than 130/90

5. over 120/90

192) In the treatment of hypertension in pregnancy should be appointed :

1. Magnesium sulfate

2. Nifedipine Retard+

3. Nospanum

4. All answers are correct

5. All the answers are incorrect


193) By the viral infection of the fetus is most sensitive :

1. In the early stages of pregnancy+

2. The mid- pregnancy

3. in the last stages of pregnancy

4. The right 2 and 3

5. All answers are correct

194)embriopaty with intrauterine infection most characteristic of infections :

1. mycotic

2. bacterial

3. viral+

4. parasitic

5. bacterial and mycotic

195) Infectious fetopathy - a fetal loss during pregnancy :

1. 6-11 weeks+

2. 12-17 weeks

3. 18-27 weeks

4. 28-32 weeks

5. 22-38 weeks

196)The disease rubella pregnant leads to the development of:

1. The premature termination of pregnancy

2. fetal abnormalities+

3. The heavy defeats of the maternal organism

4. all the above

5. None of the above

197)The absolute indication for termination of pregnancy is a disease of pregnant rubella


in pregnancy

1. 8-12 weeks
2. 12-16 weeks

3. 16-20 weeks

4. 20-24 weeks

5. The right 1, 2+

198) When the disease of influenza in the I trimester of pregnancy, the following
complications:

1. fetal abnormalities

2. intrauterine infection of the placenta

3. spontaneous miscarriage

4. The right 1 and 3+

5. all the listed

199) In the primary infection of women with genital herpes during pregnancy is often
observed :

1. spontaneous miscarriage

2. prematurity

3. fetal death

4. All of the above+

5. None of the above

200 If there are ineffective attempts at a live fetus , full disclosure of the cervix

uterus and position the head to the pelvis :


A) labor necessary to complete the cesarean operation
B) labor necessary to complete the vacuum extraction+
C) you need to do an episiotomy
D) necessary to stimulate the labor administration of oxytocin

201Shoulder dystocia is diagnosed:


A) if the fetus is not born shoulders for 60 seconds. after the birth of the head
B) the fetal head is retracted in the direction of the crotch "turtle sign"+
C) light traction does not affect labor
D) all of the above is true

202. When shoulder dystocia:


A)necessary to receive McRoberts+
B) to avoid pressing on the womb and ask the woman to push harder
C) you must not pull strongly and continuously for the head downward and pour over the nada-
womb
D) must be strongly tightened for fetal head and put pressure on the bottom of the uterus

203.At birth, the pelvis or buttocks of the fetus should be :

A) necessary to pull down


B) you need to pull up
C) do not touch , keep watching+
D) you must sip of the inguinal fold

204.Pregnant 32 years , with a full-term pregnancy delivered with complaints of blood - stye
discharge from the genital tract for no apparent reason . OBJECTIVE: Satisfactory condition
tory

, A / D 110/70 mm Hg . Tone and shape normal uterus .heartbeat


fetus clear , rhythmical 144. What pathology can assume ?
A) abruptio placentae
B) molar pregnancy
C) placentaprevia+
D) breaksvariceal vaginal walls

205.Signs of HELLP syndrome are:

A), nausea, vomiting , pain in the right upper quadrant


B) an increase in liver size
C) decrease in the number of platelets
D) all of the above+

206.The formation of synechia in the uterine cavity called:

1. Achermans syndrome
2. Shi chans syndrome
3. PCOS
4. Kiary –Frommeli
5. Simmonds syndrome

207.А syndrome that develops as a result of postpartum hemorrhage:

1. Achermans syndrome
2. Shi chans syndrome
3. PCOS
4. Kiary –Frommeli
5. Simmonds syndrome

208.Тhe syndrome which the clinic manifests is a triad of symptoms: infertility, menstrual irregularities,
obesity.

1. Achermans syndrome
2. Shi chans syndrome
3. PCOS
4. Kiary –Frommeli
5. Simmonds syndrome

209.The syndrome which the clinic shows through galactorrhea :

6. Achermans syndrome
7. Shi chans syndrome
8. PCOS
9. Kiary –Frommeli
10. Simmonds syndrome

210.А syndrome called pituitary cachexia

6. Achermans syndrome
7. Shi chans syndrome
8. PCOS
9. Kiary –Frommeli
10. Simmonds syndrome

211. А syndrome that develops a violation of the muller duct in the fetal development

6. Achermans syndrome
7. Syndrome Rokytansky-Mayer-Küster
8. PCOS
9. Kiary –Frommeli
10. Simmonds syndrome

212. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is a polyetiological disease, the development of which may be due
to: 1.age-related changes in the body

2. neuropsychiatric factors

3. occupational hazards

4. allergic factors

5. all answers are correct

213. According to the localization of the ovum, the following options for an ectopic pregnancy are
distinguished

1.bilateral tubal pregnancy

2.abdominal pregnancy

3. cervical pregnancy

4.ovaries pregnancy

5. all answers are correct


214. Types of cervical condylomas:

1. exophytic, endophytic condylomas

2. mushroom condylomas

3. Gigantic Condyloma Bushke - Leveshteyna

4. flat condylomas

5. smooth condylomas

215. When conducting a test with a 3% solution of acetic acid, cervical leukoplakia manifests itself:

1. mosaic

2. punctuation

3. the presence of keratinizing glands

4. the presence of open glands

5. mosaic and punctuation

216. With supravaginal amputation, the uterus with the left appendages, as a rule, cross

1. both round ligaments

2. own ligament of the right ovary and the right tube (uterine end)

3. funnel-pelvic ligament on the left

4. funnel-pelvic ligament on the right

5. true 1,2,3

217. The preferred route for the spread of gonorrhea infection:

1. lymphogenous;

2. hematogenous;

3. perineural;

4. contact;

5. intracanalicular.

218. Contraindication to the introduction of the IUD "Mirena" is:

1. endometrial hyperplasia.

2. interstitial uterine fibroids of small sizes.

3. small interstitial uterine fibroids.

4. condition after conservative myomectomy in women of the reproductive period.


5. submucous uterine fibroids.

219, Premature sexual development is called the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics and
menstruation in girls aged:

1. up to 4-5 years

2. up to 5-6 years

3. up to 7-8 years

4. up to 9-10 years

5. up to 10-11 years

220. Rokytansky-Mayer-Küster syndrome is an indication:

1. for prolonged parlodel therapy

2. for ovarian demedulation

3. for plastic surgery on the uterus

4. for colpopoiesis

5. for surgery on the pituitary gland

221. The frequency of male infertility is:

1. 1O-15%

2. 15-20%

3. 20-30%

4.40-50%

5.60-70%

222. Tubal pregnancy:

1. usually broken due to mechanical overstretching of the pipe wall

2. not accompanied by the transformation of the endometrium into the decidual membrane

3. does not have any peculiarities in its course, depending on the place of nidation of the ovum

4. may be due to unusual egg migration

5. rarely seen in infantilism

223. . Tubal pregnancy:

1. it does not have specific objective signs and is not diagnosed before its interruption

2. in the isthmic department more often interrupted by the type of pipe rupture
3. through tube abortion usually resolved by spontaneous cure

4. never occurs in combination with pregnancy of a different location

5. under any conditions, puncture of the posterior arch is crucial

225. Gonorrhea in women:

1. characterized by the development of clinical symptoms 2-3 days after infection

2. characterized by the presence of abundant foamy whites

3. may cause bartholinitis

4. may cause cervical atresia

5. usually complicated by the development of parametritis

226. The diagnosis of gonorrhea can be made:

1. with a positive Borde-Zhangu reaction

2. upon detection of bilateral inflammation of the fallopian tubes

3. in cases of combined inflammation of the urethra and cervical canal

4. in cases of gonococcus detection

5. in cases of fever up to 38 degrees in response to the administration of gonovaccine

227. With peritonitis, a gynecological patient shows surgery in volume

1. hysterectomy with appendages

2. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with appendages

3. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with tubes

4. hysterectomy with tubes

5. all of the above is incorrect

228. Interruption of tubal pregnancy by type of tubal abortion occurs more often during pregnancy

1.11-12 weeks

2.10-11weeks

3.7-8 weeks

4. 5-6 weeks

5. 3-4 weeks

229. In a patient 30 years old during surgery for bilateral pyosalpinx should be performed

1. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with appendages


2. removal of both fallopian tubes

3. hysterectomy with appendages

4. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with tubes

5. removal of both appendages

230. The decrease in the number of active sperm is called:

1. aspermia

2. oligospermia

3. asthenospermia

4. necrospermia

5. teratozospermia

231. What class according to Pap -smear test are atypical cells suspicious of malignancy

1.1class

2. 3 class

3.4 class

4.5 class

5.2 class

228. HSV is:

1. the most common human viral infection caused by HSV type 1 and 2

2. chronic viral infection caused by HSV type 1 and 2 (more often) is characterized by 90% infection in
the population, lifelong persistence of the virus in the body and polymorphism of manifestations

3. infection caused by HSV type 2, accompanied by lifelong carriage of the virus and its periodic
reproduction, leading to the development of clinical relapse

4. HSV inflammatory disease characterized by latent course

5. all of the above is not true

229. Menopausal syndrome:

1. found at a frequency of 7O-8O%

2. occurs as a result of hyperestrogenism

3. usually goes away on its own during the first 5 years of postmenopause

4. can be attributed to mild form with the number of tides up to 1O per day and undisturbed general
condition
5. often accompanied by - the development of hirsutism, hypertrichosis, - a decrease in the tone of voice

230. Vulvites:

1. in reproductive age more often primary

2. in the vast majority of cases of gonorrheal etiology

3 in childhood can be a consequence of helminthic invasion.

4. may be the reason for the formation of wide genital warts

5. usually require parenteral antibiotic therapy

231. A characteristic sign of papillomovirus infection with a biopsy of the cervix is:

1. keratosis

2. coilocytes

3. hyperkeratosis

4. parabasal cells

5. atypical cells

232. A woman has amenorrhea, infertility, no uterus and ovaries, karyotype 45x. Diagnosis?

1. testicular feminization syndrome

2. Klinefelter syndrome

3. Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome

4. Rakitansky syndrome

5. hermaphroditism

233. Specify the karyotype formula for Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome:

1. 45 хо

2. 46 хх

3. 47 ху ( + 21 )

4. 47 хху

5. 47 ххх

235. With Mayer-Rokytansky-Kustner syndrome ...

1. male karyotype 46, XU

2. mosaic kariotype 45, X

3. Kariotype female 46, XX


4. kariotype 45, ХО

5. karyotype 47, xxx

236. Trichomonads are resistant to:

1. direct sunlight

2.antibiotics

3. moisture

4. high temperature (above 40 * C)

5.low temperature

237. The criteria for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis include:

1. complaints of copious discharge from the genital tract

2. itching in the vagina + increase in PH from 5.0 to 7.5

3. increase in PH from 3.0 to 7.5

4. abundant vaginal discharge + key cells + increase in PH + positive aminotest

5. profuse vaginal discharge + vaginal itching

238. In a latent state, the genital herpes simplex virus is localized:

1. in paravertebral sensory ganglia

2. in detachable vagina

3. in cerebrospinal fluid

4. in the cyclic epithelium of endocervix

5. in blood lymphocytes

239. Signs of vaginal discharge with bacterial vaginosis

1. flaky, curd

2. yellow-green-gray, foamy

3. liquid greenish

4. purulent

5. milky gray, homogeneous, sometimes with gas bubbles

240. Rupture of fallopian tube –

1. usually characterized by a gradual slow growth of the clinic


2. often can be diagnosed without additional diagnostic methods

3. more often occurs when the fetal egg is localized in the ampullar region

4. manifested by total muscle tension of the anterior abdominal wall

5. is an indication for salpingostomy surgery

241. Specify the formula for the karyotype for Down's disease:

1. 46 хх

2. 47 ху ( + 21 )

3. 45 хо

4. 47 хху

5. 47 ххх

242. Marriage is considered infertile if pregnancy does not occur if there is regular sexual activity
without the use of contraception during:

1. 6 months

2. 1 year

3. 2 years

4.2,5 years

5. 5 years

243. The incubation period of CMV is:

1. from 2 to 26 days, on average 2-10 days

2. from 1 to 12 months (average 3 months)

3. 12 to 48 hours

4. from 3 to 8 weeks

5. depends on the age and gender of the patient

244. The "gold standard" for the diagnosis of chronic endometritis is:

1. PCR smear

2. Ultrasound of the pelvic organs.

3. determination of the sensitivity of microflora to antimicrobial agents.

4. morphological study of the endometrium.

5. bimanual research
245. The "gold standard" for the diagnosis of chronic salpingoophoritis is:

1. bimanual research

2. laparoscopy

3. hysterosalpingography

4. Ultrasound of the pelvic organs.

5. hysteroscopy

246. Exacerbation of gonorrhea occurs most often:

1. during menstruation

2. after the end of menstruation

3. during ovulation

4. Anytime

5. before menstruation

247, The most effective dose of mifepristone for medical abortion:

1. 150mg

2.200mg

3.400mg

4.600 mg

5. 800mg

248. Retrocervical endometriosis:

1. may be manifested by pain, flatulence, delayed stool on the eve and during menstruation

2. impossible to diagnose with bimanual examination

3. diagnosed with hysterography

4. diagnosed with pneumopelviography

5. can be treated only by surgery

249. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding with persistence of the follicle proceeds against the background of:

1. high estrogen saturation

2. low estrogen saturation

3. high gestagenic saturation

4. androgen saturation
5. glucocorticoid deficiency

250. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding in the menopause is caused by:

1. adenomyosis

2. adenomatosis

3. atrophic processes in the endometrium

4. formation of immunodeficiency

5. violation of the circhoral production of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GRH)

251. Pregnancy localized in the interstitial part of the tube is interrupted most often during pregnancy

1. 1-2 weeks

2. 2-3 weeks

3.3-4 weeks

4. 5-6 weeks

5. 7-8 weeks

252. The volume of surgical intervention in a woman of 40 years with submucous uterine myoma

1. hysterectomy without appendages

2. supravaginal amputation of the uterus without appendages

3. conservative uterine fibroids

4. hysterectomy with appendages

5. supravaginal amputation of the uterus with appendages

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