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MCQs in Objective Pathology PDF
MCQs in Objective Pathology PDF
Objective Pathology
with Explanations
MCQs in
Objective Pathology
with Explanations
Second Edition
Sumant Sharma MD
Laboratory Director/ Director of Infection Control
Prince Sultan Kidney and Heart Center
Najran, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Yogesh Chhabra MD
Director of Blood Bank and Transfusion Services
King Khalid Hospital
Najran, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
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– Sant Kabir
Preface to the Second Edition
Sumant Sharma
Yogesh Chhabra
Preface to the First Edition
Sumant Sharma
Acknowledgments
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are correctly matched? (R-1)
A. Virchow—Invention of microscope.
B. Celsius—Work on naked eye appearance of diseased
organs.
C. Pasteur—Showed the way to active immunization.
D. Jenner—Laid foundation of bacteriology.
E. Mendel—Discovered principles of inheritence.
2. Which of the following are pathology subspecialities!?
A. Histopathology—The diagnosis of disease by examining
altered histology of tissue sections.
B. Exfoliate cytology—Diagnosis of disease by studying
body fluids secretion and excretions.
C. Toxicology—Study of defence processes in the body
D. Hematology—Study of infectious processes.
E. Forensic pathology—Use of pathology for legal purposes.
3. Which of the following definitions are correct?
A. Allophenic mouse—A mouse in which two types of cells
form clones of varying number in different organs.
2 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
ANSWERS
1. A. False: Inventor of microscope was Leeuwenhoek.
B. True
C. False: Pasteur laid the foundation of bacteriology.
D. False: Jenner showed the way to active immunization.
E. True
2. A. True
B. True
C. False: Toxicology is study of effect of poisons.
D. False: Hematology is study of blood disorders.
E. True
3. A. True: Alophenic mice are produced by implantation into
a psuedopregnant female a combined embryo developed
in vitro by fusing two developing eggs from two pregnant
mice.
B. True
C. False: Pathogenesis is the mechanism by which
disease is caused.
D. False: Etiology is the cause of disease.
E. True
4. A. True
B. False: Immunohistochemistry (IHC) or gene rearrange-
ment studies are required.
C. True
D. False: Immunohistochemical studies for prostate speci-
fic antigen are required.
E. False
5. A. False: Cellular morphology is preserved but not the
tissue architecture.
B. True
C. False: FNAC can be used to diagnose tumors in some
situations and may eliminate the need for surgery.
4 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
CONCEPTS
Q.1. Which of the following are true about cell-cell inter-
actions?
A. Occluding junctions and zona adherence are the same.
B. Macula densa are also called nexus.
C. Integrins and selectins share a common role of leuko-
cyte—endothelial cell interaction.
D. Cadherins prevent cancers from becoming invasive.
E. Immunoglobulin superfamily molecules have a role in
recognizing and binding immunological molecules.
F. Cytokines are secreted by hemopoietic cells only.
G. Tyrosine kinase associated receptors cause synthesis
and secretion of various hormones.
H. G-proteins are also called guanosine nucleotide binding
regulatory proteins.
Ans. A. False: Occluding junctions are called zonula occludens
and adhering junctions are called zonula adherence.
B. False: Macula densa is another name for desmosomes
and gap junctions are called nexus.
C. True: Besides the selectins also cause movement of
leukocytes and platelets.
D. True: Cadherins are calcium dependent adhesion mole-
Introduction to Pathology 5
B. True
C. True
D. False: Failure of energy dependent sodium potassium
pump causes intracellular accumulation of Sodium.
E. False: Myelin figures seen in cell injury are disintegrated
membrane blebs containing water and dissociated lipo-
proteins between lamellae of membranes.They can be
found both intracellularly and extracellularly.
Q.4. Which of the following are true?
A. Phospholipid rich amorphous densities are seen in
mitochondria in irreversible cell injury.
B. Ischemia-reperfusion injury is mainly because of oxida-
tive damage to cell.
C. Generation of oxygen free radicals occurs in cytoplasm.
D. Superoxide oxygen is the most reactive of the oxygen
free radicals.
E. Cyanide kills by poisoning mitochondrial cytochrome
oxidase.
F. Ionising radiation can injure the DNA and the cell by
radiolysis of water and production of oxygen free radi-
cals.
Ans. A. False: These are characteristic of reversible injury. In
irreversible injury, calcium rich densities are seen.
B. True
C. False: It begins within mitochondrial inner membrane.
D. False: Hydroxyl radical is the most reactive.
E. True
F. True
Q.5. Which of the following are true?
A. Cloudy swelling and hydropic swelling are the same.
B. Russell’s bodies representing excessive immunoglobin
in plasma cells’ rough endoplasmic reticulum represent
a form of hyalin change.
C. Hyalin degeneration occurs in rectus abdomin’s muscle
in typhoid fever.
D. Mallory’s hyalin is seen in hepatocytes in cholestasis.
E. Corpora amylacea represent a form of intracellular hyaline.
Ans. A. False: Cloudy swelling involves excessive accumulation
of sodium and water whereas in hydropic swelling mainly
only water accumulates (vacuolar degeneration).
Introduction to Pathology 7
B. True
C. True: This is called Zenker’s degeneration.
D. False: It is seen in alcoholic hepatitis.
E. False: It is an example of extracellular hyaline.
Q.6. Which of the following are true?
A. In hepatic Steatosis, granulomas may be found in the
liver.
B. In hepatic steatosis, neutral fat accumulates both inside
the hepatocytes and outside.
C. Mallory’s hyaline bodies are basically proteins.
D. Albinos are more prone to skin cancers.
E. Ochronosis and alkaptonuria are synonymous.
Ans. A. True: Lipogranulomas may appear consisting of collec-
tions of lymphocytes, macrophages and some multi-
nucleated giant cells.
B. False: There is only intracellular accumulation. Stromal
infiltration by mature adipose cells is sometimes seen
in obesity; most common organs affected being the
heart and pancreas.
C. True: These are intermediate filaments of cytokeratin
D. True: Albinos are deficient in tyrosinase activity in skin
and have generalized hypopigmentation. This makes
them more prone to develop basal cell and squamous
cell cancers on excessive exposure to sun.
E. False: Ochronosis is a rare condition marked by dark
pigmentation of ligaments, cartilage,fibrous tissue skin
and urine. It may be caused by an inborn error of meta-
bolism, alkaptonuria. This allows formation of Homo-
gentisic acid, part of which is excreted in the urine and
part of which is stored in tissues. But ochronosis may
also be caused by chronic phenol poisoning.
Q.7. In which cases are the number of cisterns of rough
endoplasmic reticulum increased and in which condi-
tions are they decreased?
Ans. 1. Increased number of cisterns: In all cells with high protein
production and secretion, e.g. plasma cells.
2. Decreased number of cisterns: Inactive cells with de-
creased protein synthesis, e.g. in liver of undernourished
patients.
8 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
Q. 8. What is oncosis?
Ans. Irreversibly impaired metabolism (generally oxidative meta-
bolism) brings about the death of cells with subsequent
vacuolar swelling of cell and reactive inflammation in the
absence of programmed cell death. The morphologic result
is necrosis
Note: Cell death and necrosis are not identical. A once-living cell
submerged and fixed in formaldehyde is chemically dead
although from a structural standpoint it remains intact and
“animate”.
Types
1. Ribosome-layer complexes: These are layered aggregates
of RER cisterns with interposed rows of ribosomes.
2. Annulated lamellae complexes: These are layered aggre-
gates of perinuclear RER cisterns with nuclear pores.
3. Mitochondrial-lamellar-layer complexes: These are layered
aggregates of longitudinally compressed mitochondria and
RER cisterns.
Q.2. What are cytoplasmic nuclei?
Ans. This is the histological correlate of onion-layered aggre-
gation of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (“fingerprint dege-
neration”).
Cytoplasmic nuclei are a sign of blocked enzyme syn-
thesis, such as is occasionally seen in blocked or dege-
nerative protein synthesis.
Q.3. Why is golgi apparatus atrophied in erythroblasts?
Ans. Atrophy of golgi apparatus is the ultrastructural correlate of
disturbed protein synthesis with or without impaired post-
translational protein modification. So it is typical in cells that
Introduction to Pathology 9
KEY WORDS
Etiology, pathogenesis, morphological changes, clinical significance,
molecular biology, tissue, cell and organ injury, Father of modern
pathology.
Q.2. Which of the following are true?
A. Atrophy involves decrease in number of cells of an organ.
B. Adaptation, reversible injury and cell death are separate
events not interlinked and can occur independently or
each other.
C. Cell death can be normal.
D. Necrosis can be physiological as apoptosis can be
pathological (abnormal).
E. Calcification is always pathological.
F. Cells exposed to even sublethal or chronic stimuli are
always damaged.
G. Cellular aging occurs with cumulative sublethal injury
with increasing life span.
Ans. A. False: Atrophy involves decrease in function and size of
cells.
B. False: Adaptation, reversible injury and cell death can
be considered stages of progressive impairment of cell’s
normal function and structure. For instance in response
Introduction to Pathology 13
SUPPLEMENTARY TOPICS—CELL
INJURY AND INFLAMMATION
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true about cell Injury?
A. Hypothyroidism and scurvy cause delayed wound
healing.
B. Ultraviolet light promotes healing.
C. Cerebral cortex and myocardium can regenerate after
injury.
D. Fibrinoid necrosis occurs in TB.
E. Enzymatic lysis of adipose tissue causes fat necrosis.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. The myofibroblastic differentiation of fibroblast causes
contraction of granulation tissue.
B. Endarteritis obliterans and leukemia can be caused by
radiation exposure for a long time.
C. Apoptosis is pathological event.
D. Apoptosis is an energy dependent pigmentation of DNA
by non-lysosomal endonucleases.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. Endothelial cells and plasma cells are capable of
phagocytosis of particulate matter in acute inflammation.
B. Lymphocytes and plasma cells contribute in chromic
inflammation.
C. In vascular phase of inflammatory response, neutrophils
and monocytes move towards periphery of microcircula-
tory vessels a process called pavementing.
D. T-lymphocytes produce antibodies.
E. Transudate is noninflammatory fluid with few cellular
elements.
Introduction to Pathology 31
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. False
C. False
D. False
E. True
2. A. True
B. False
Introduction to Pathology 33
C. False
D. False
3. A. False: Neutrophils, macrophages and eosinophil are the
main phagocytes in acute inflammation.
B. True
C. Flase: The process described is called margination.
Pavementing is adhering of inflammatory cells to vascular
endothelium.
D. False: B-lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins.
E. True
4. A. False: The described process is chemotaxis. Diapedesis
is movement of white cells out of the vessel through gaps
in endothelial cells.
B. True
C. True
D. True
5. A. True
B. True
C. True
D. False: This description is that of an abscess. Granuloma
is characterized by chronic inflammation.
E. False: Type neollagen is seen in basement membranes.
Type I is seen in the said places.
6. A. True
B. False: There are two antibody binding fragments.
C. True
7. A. True: IgM appears in a small quantity within 7 days of
exposure to antigen.
B. False: IgA is selected by plasma cells as a dimmer, i.e.
two molecules, linked together by one polypeptide-J
chain.
C. True
D. True
E. True
8. A. True
B. True
C. True
D. False: These are T8 positive cells.
E. True
34 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
CONCEPTS
IMMUNOPATHOLOGY
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. Heparin mediates type I hypersensitivity (Anaphylactic
reaction).
B. Pernicious anemia and Grave’s disease are examples
of immune complex diseases.
C. Contact dermatitis is an immune complex disease.
D. CREST syndrome is a form of scleroderma.
E. SLE is characterized by primary immune deficiency.
Ans. A. True: Both histamine and heparin mediate anaphylactoid
reaction.
B. False: These are two examples of type II hypersensitivity
reaction (cytotoxic type).
C. False: Contact dermatitis is a type IV hypersensitivity
reaction (cell mediated type). Type III reactions are
exemplified by serum sickness, SLE and glomerulone-
phritis.
D. False: Scleroderma is progressive systemic sclerosis.
CREST syndrome is localized scleroderma charac-
terized by anticentromere antibodies. It is characterized
by calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal
dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia.
Introduction to Pathology 35
INFLAMMATION
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. P-selectin is normally present in Weibel-Palade bodies
in endothelial cells.
B. Defects in cell adhesion is found in diabetes and corti-
costeroid use.
C. Myeloperoxidase deficiency is associated with increased
incidence of bacterial infections.
D. Histamine is produced by mast cells and basophils only.
E. IL-I is responsible for pain and prostaglandin E2 for
pyrexial response.
Ans. A. True.
B. True: Also seen in alcohol intoxication and certain con-
genital deficiencies of adhesion molecules.
C. False: Although incidence of bacterial infection may be
increased, characteristically candidal infections are in-
creased in myeloperoxidase deficiency.
36 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true about DNA replication?
C. Syphilis
D. Toxopalsmosis
E. Rubella.
5. Which of the following are true about bacterial infec-
tions?
A. C.Welchi alphatoxin causes digestive damage to cell
membrane.
B. C.Difficile does not produce any toxin.
C. Scaleded skin syndrome and toxic shock syndrome
causing bacteria are of same genus.
D. Vibrio Cholerae produces an enterotoxin.
6. Which of the following are true about environmental
pathogens?
A. A cavity lesion on chest X-ray in a coal worker signifies
superimposed tuberculosis.
B. Liver cannot be damaged by environmental agents.
C. Asbestos-related disease may manifest as broncho-
genic carcinoma.
D. Bleomycin and busulfan cause interstitial pulmonary
fibrosis.
E. Both cyanide and carbon monoxide poisoning cause
cherry red coloration of blood.
7. Which of the following is true about congenital
disease?
A. A teratogen cannot act before pregnancy is discovered.
B. Childhood polycystic kidney disease always occur as
a lone entity.
C. Congenital CNS defects are associated with folate
deficiency.
D. Criduchat syndrome is a single gene disorder.
E. Hb Barts (gamma 4 tetramers) can cause intrauterine
death of fetus.
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. False: Transcription is the process where by mRNA, a
copy of DNA of gene is produced before a polypeptide
is synthesized.
C. True
Genetic and Environmental Causes of Diseases 39
2. A. True
B. True
C. False
D. False
3. A. True
B. True
C. False: Location is at chromosome 6.
D. False: DR 5 is associated with Hashimoto’s disease and
DR4 with rheumatoid disease.
4. A. False: It is a round worm disease.
B. False: It is a fungal disease.
C. True
D. False: It is a protozoan.
E. False: It is a togavirus.
5. A. True: Welchi alpha-toxin is a lecithinase that digests cell
membrane.
B. True: The toxin causes pseudomembranous colitis.
C. True: The genus is Staphylococcus.
D. True
6. A. True
B. False: A variety of agents including the carbontetra-
chloride and oral contraceptives damage liver.
C. False: Mesothelioma is caused by asbestos exposure.
D. True
E. True
7. A. False: Though usual time when pregnancy is most
susceptible is 3rd-8th week, teratogens can act before
diagnosis of pregnancy.
B. False: This autosomal recessive disease is usually
associated with multiple liver cysts, congenital hepatic
hibrosis and proliferation of bile ducts.
C. True
D. False: The defect is different.
E. True
GENETIC DISEASES
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. Brushfield spots are seen on skin in Mongols.
B. Tumor’s syndrome patients are usually females and their
somatosomes have Barr bodies.
40 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
PRETEST
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. In anasarca, edema fluid accumulates in dependent
parts of body.
B. Mechanism behind blushing and response to heat are
same.
C. Tissue factor is activated without any stimulus in
intrinsic pathway.
D. Alpha granules of platelets contain calcium and ATP.
E. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a congenital
syndrome manifesting in adolescence.
Ans. A. False: Anasarca is generalized body edema.
B. True: Both are examples of active hyperemia.
C. False: Collagen activates tissue factor (factor XII) in
intrinsic pathway.
D. False: α-granules of platelets contain fibrinogen, fibro-
nectin, factor V and von Willebrand’s factor, factor IV and
platelet derived growth factor (PDGF). ADP and calcium
alongwith histamine, serotonin and epinephrine are
stored in dense bodies.
E. False: HUS usually follows gastrointestinal infections
with verotoxin producing E. coli 0157:H7 and occurs
most commonly in children.
Q.2. Which of the following are true?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT) can be used to screen liver
disease.
B. PTT tests intrinsic pathway only.
C. Thrombin time tests for adequate clotting factor.
Miscellaneous Topics in General Pathology 43
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true?
A. In metaplasia, there is reversible change in one mature
cell type to another mature cell type.
B. Dysplasia is characterized by loss of epithelial polarity
and abnormal mitotic figures.
C. An abnormal nest of adrenals under renal capsule will
be classified as neoplasia.
D. A jumbled up mass of cartilage, respiratory epithelium
and other tissue types indigeneous to lung lying in lung
as a developmental anomaly will be called choristoma.
E. Metaplastic changes can occur in appendix in appen-
dicitis and upper esophagus in esophagitis.
2. Which of the following developmentally abnormal
conditions lead to decrease in physical growth?
A. Down syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Maternal alcohol and tobacco use
D. Maternal diabetes mellitus
3. Which of the following is true about hyperplasia and
hypertrophy?
A. Smooth muscle hypertrophy is seen in pregnancy, uri-
nary obstruction and intestinal stenosis or obstruction.
B. In gynecomastia there is seen in pregnancy, urinary
obstruction and intestinal stenosis or obstruction.
C. Graves disease causes thyroid hyperplasia.
D. Sheehan’s syndrome can cause thyroid atrophy.
46 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. True
C. False: This will be called a choristoma.
D. False: The typical description is of a hamartoma.
E. False: The typical metaplastic changes are seen in
bronchi of cigarette smokers and in prostate around
areas of infarction.
2. A. True: Decreased skeletal growth.
B. True: Decrease skeletal growth.
C. True: These cause IUGR.
D. False: Average birth weight is greater than normal.
3. A. True
B. False: Lobules do not exist in male breast. Gyncomastia
is male breast hypertrophy.
C. True
D. True: There is panhypopituitarism and TSH is decreased
or absent.
E. True
4. A. True
B. True
C. True
D. True
E. True
5. A. True
B. True
C. True
D. False
6. A. True
B. False: It is also produced by pancreatic cancers and
also by breast and gastric cancers.
C. True
D. True
7. A. True
B. False: All men’s are autosomal dominant.
C. True
D. True
E. True
Chapter 5
Disorder
derss of Me
Disorder Mettabolism and
Homeos
Homeosttasis
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true about amyloidosis?
A. Amyloidosis of AA type is a complication of rheumatoid
arthritis.
B. Amyloidosis may occur as a complication of myeloma-
tosis.
C. Rectal mucosal biopsy is positive in 80 percent cases
of myelomatosis.
D. Congored and Van Gieson staining methods are impor-
tant in detecting amyloid.
E. Hepatic failure is a common cause of death.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. Dystrophic calcification occurs in individuals with abnor-
mal calcium metabolism.
B. Psammoma bodies are found in tumors such as papil-
lary carcinoma of thyroid and meningiomas.
C. Dystrophic calcification is associated with hyperparathy-
roidism.
D. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of phenylalanine
hydroxylase.
E. Cystathione synthetase is deficient in homocystinuria.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. Gout is characterized by hypouricemia.
B. First metatarsophalangeal joint is commonly affected in
gout.
C. Cushings syndrome is characterized by hyponatremia
Disorders of Metabolism and Homeostasis 49
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. True
C. False: It is done for diagnosing amyloid. The biopsy
should include submucosa and muscle for the maximum
chance of detecting amyloid.
D. True
E. False: Renal failure is a common cause of death in amy-
loid.
2. A. False: Dystrophic calcium characterized by deposition
of calcium is damaged tissue usually occurs in patients
with normal calcium metabolism.
B. True
C. False: Metastasic calcification occurs in hyperparathy-
roidism.
D. True
E. True
3. A. False: It is associated with hyperuricemia.
B. True
C. False: Hypernatremia is caused by increased production
of glucorticoids in cushings syndrome.
D. True
E. True: High out put failure can occur in wet Beri-Beri.
4. A. False: Copper accumulates in increasing amounts in
Wilsons disease.
B. True
C. True
D. False: Cerebral boundary zone infarction may follow
hypotension. Superior longitudinal simus thrombosis
may occur in debilitated children causing engorgement
of veins and hemorrhage.
5. A. False: Hay fever is a cause of local edema. Active
hyperemia of acute inflammation being responsible.
B. True: Hemorrhage infarction of intestine may progress
to gangrene.
C. False: It will produce primary hyperaldosteronism
D. False: Burns cause hypovolemic shock.
6. A. False: The characteristics described are those of ante-
mortem thrombus.
Disorders of Metabolism and Homeostasis 51
ANSWERS
1. A. False: Survival to middle age is usual.
B. True
C. True
D. False: Hypercholesterolemia is a risk factor.
E. True
2. A. True
B. True: These are also called caterpillar cells.
C. True
D. False: Extension of inflammation from arteries into
surrounding veins and nerves leads to their fibrous
encasement.
3. A. False: Atherosclerotic aneurysms are commonest in
abdominal aorta. Syphilitic aneurysms more commo-
nest in abdominal aorta. Syphilitic aneurysms more
commonly affect aortic arch.
B. False: Mural thrombus is commonly present and may
fill the saccular aneurysms.
C. False: These usually cause hypotension.
D. True
E. True: Lipid is predominantly within the cytoplasm of
foamy macrophages.
4. A. False. It is usually seen in association with other anoma-
lies such as TGA where shunt may improve hemo-
dynamic situation.
B. True: Prinzmetal angina.
C. True
D. True
E. False: Tg level is usually normal.
5. A. True
B. False: Any artery in the body may be affected.
C. True
D. False: Aortic incompetence has association with
ankylosing spondylitis.
E. True: Seen in South America.
6. A. False: It is the result of hypertension.
B. True
C. True
D. True
E. True
Cardiovascular System 55
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true?
A. RBC antibodies and enzyme deficiencies always cause
hemolytic anemia.
B. Sickle cell anemia causes protection against malaria.
C. Autoantibodies causing lysis of blood cells are found in
SLE and CLL.
D. Deficiency of spectrin cause spherocytosis.
E. Factor XII is the fibrin stabilizing factor.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. Plasmin derived from plasminogen degrades both fibrino-
gen and fibrin.
B. Hemophilia A and von Willebrand’s diseases are charac-
terized by deficiency of factor VIII.
C. A short history of symptoms and signs of anemia, infec-
tion and thrombocytopenia indicate AML.
D. Both the thalassemia major and minor are compatible
with normal life span.
E. Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors are factor II,
VII, IX, XI.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. All slow developing anemia’s are asymptomatic.
B. Myelophthisis is a reduction in productive capacity of
bone marrow.
C. Polycythemia vera is characterized by high erythro-
poietin levels.
Blood and Bone Marrow 57
ANSWERS
1. A. False: RBC antibodies or enzyme deficiencies may be
harmless and not cause hemolysis.
B. True
C. True
D. True: There is genetically determined abnormality in a
membrane polypeptide called spectrin.
E. False: Coagulation factor XIII is the fibrin stabilizing
factor.
2. A. True
B. True
C. False: The characteristic picture is seen in AML.
D. False: Thalassemia major patients die in young adulthood
or before.
E. True
3. A. True
B. True
C. False: Erythropoietic levels are high in secondary
polycythemia.
D. True
E. True
4. A. True
B. False: Hyperbilirubinemia is conjugated
C. True
D. False: Red cell fragmentation occurs in microangio-
pathic hemolysis.
5. A. False: It indicates good response.
B. True
C. False
D. False
E. True
6. A. True
B. True
Blood and Bone Marrow 59
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. True
C. False: Asbestos bodies are usually found in underlying
lung tissue.
D. True: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the usally causative
organism.
E. True: CMV or aspergillosis is usually present too.
2. A. False: Clara cells, secreting a proteinaceous fluid are
found in terminal bronchioles pneumocytes are present
in alveoli.
B. False. Type-II pneumocytes may proliferate.
C. True
D. True
E. True
3. A. True: These are neuroendocrine tumorlets seen in
lungs.
B. False: These are usually present in upper lobes in cont-
rast to panlobular emphysema that occurs in lower lobes.
C. True: This feature differentiates it from other granulo-
matous inflammations.
D. True
E. True: Larger particles cannot reach alveoli.
4. A. True
B. False: Hypotension can be caused by them.
C. True
D. True
E. False: Lipoid pneumonia can be caused by extrinsic as
well as intrinsic cases.
5. A. True
B. False: Chronic bronchitis causes hyperplasia of mucin
secreting cells.
C. True
D. False: Tuberculin test is index of cell mediated immunity.
E. True
64 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
6. A. True
B. False: Only lober pneumonia is characterized by sus-
tained rise in pulmonary artery pressure.
C. True
D. True
E. True: After an attack there can be pulmonary collapse
and imperfect resolution of pneumonia causing bron-
chiectasis.
Chapter 9
Liver
er,, Biliar
Liver Biliaryy TTrract and
Ex ocr
Exocr ine PPancr
ocrine ancr
ancreaseas
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true?
A. Acute viral hepatitis can cause fatty liver.
B. Mallory bodies are found in infective hepatitis.
C. Predominant HBsAg expression in serum and hepato-
cytes is found in a symptomatic HBV carrier.
D. Before cirrhosis could occur, hepatocyte regeneration
with fibrosis has to take place.
E. Enlarged liver pressing on portal vein can cause portal
hypertension.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. In ulcerative colitis, sclerosing cholangitis can occur.
B. Oral contraceptives have been associated with liver cell
adenomas.
C. Typhoid fever organisms can survive in gallbladder in a
carrier state.
D. Serum amylase is reduced in acute pancreatitis.
E. Alpha-1 antitrypsin is due to defect in copper metabolism.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. Cholesterol gallstones are most frequent.
B. Carcinoma pancreas is associated with smoking and
diabetes mellitus.
C. Splenic atrophy occurs in portal hypertension.
D. Jaundice is seen usually when serum bilirubin
concentration exceeds 40 micro mole per liter.
E. Acute pancreatitis may cause hypocalcemia.
66 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
ANSWERS
1. A. False: Fatty liver is caused by protein, energy, malnu-
trition, alcoholism and obesity.
B. False: Mallory bodies are found in alcoholic hepatitis and
sometimes in Indian childhood cirrhosis.
C. True
D. True
E. False: Portal hypertension is caused by interference
with hepatic microcirculation.
2. A. True: Patient may develop cholangiocarcinoma.
B. True
C. True
D. False: It is raised
E. False: Wilsons disease is one in which serum cerulo-
plasmin levels are decreased.
3. A. False: Mixed stones are most frequent.
B. True
C. False: There is splenomegaly due to congestion.
D. True
E. True
Chapter 10
Aliment ar
aryy TTrract
Alimentar
PRETEST
1 Which of the following are true?
A. Adenolymphoma is a highly malignant tumor of parotids.
B. Heavy alcohol intake is a risk factor for esophageal
carcinoma.
C. Atrophic gastritis is characterized by loss of specialized
gastric mucosal cells especially parietal cells.
D. Prognosis of squamous cells carcinoma of oral cavity
depends on its site.
E. Chronic gastritis starts as chronic superficial gastritis.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. Linitis plastica is a condition in which deep layers of
stomach wall are thickened.
B. Achlorhydria is a risk factor for peptic ulcer.
C. Crohn’s disease gives a cobblestone appearance to
colon.
D. Ulcerative colitis causes colonic mucosal pseudo-
polyps.
E. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by Vibrio cholerae.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. Primary malabsorption syndromes are celiac disease,
tropical sprue and Whipple’s disease.
B. Abetalipoproteinemia is primary malabsorption syndrome.
C. Long-standing ulcerative colitis is a risk factor for colonic
carcinoma.
D. Tubular adenomas are usually small rounded nodules on
a stalk.
E. Crohn’s disease is associated with increased risk of
small bowel cancer.
68 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
ANSWERS
1 A. False: Adenolymphoma is entirely benign, occurs in
middle aged men.
B. True
C. True
D. True: Prognosis worsens as the site of cancer becomes
further back in oropharynx
E. True
2. A. True
B. False: Risk factors for gastric cancer include blood
group “O”, cigarette smoking, high gastrin secretion (e.g.
in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome).
C. True
D. True
E. False: The condition is caused by Clostridium difficile.
3 A. True
B. False: It is a biochemical defect using interference of
absorption.
C. True
D. True
E. True: Quite rare though.
Pancreatic Pathology
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. Scorpion stings can cause acute hemorrhagic pancrea-
titis.
B. Type I D M patients are absolutely dependent on insulin
to prevent ketoacidosis and coma.
Alimentary Tract 71
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true?
A. Pregnancy at an earlier age is associated with increased
risk of ovarian carcinoma.
B. Ovarian cancer spreads to contralateral ovary peritoneal
cavity and para-aortic lymph nodes.
C. Endometrial hyperplasia is associated with decreased
estrogen stimulation.
D. Cervical carcinoma is usually squamous cell type.
E. Carcinoma in situ (CIS) cervix is increasing in detected
incidence.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. Estrogen stimulation is increased in endometrial carci-
noma.
B. Ruptured ovarian cyst can give rise to granulomatous
inflammation.
C. Carcinoma can arise in ovarian endometriosis.
D. Complete hydatidiform mole is usually triploid on chro-
mosome analysis.
E. Hydatidiform mole can cause hyperthyroidism.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. Multiple peptic ulcers may be seen in islet cell tumor
of pancreas.
B. Parathyroid adenoma may cause nephrocalcinosis.
74 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
ANSWERS
1. A. False: Pregnancy at an earlier age is associated with
decreased risk.
B. True
C. False: The estrogenic stimulation is increased.
D. True
E. True
Male and Female Genital Tract and Endocrine System 75
2. A. True
B. True: Released keratin leads to granulomatous inflam-
mation.
C. True: Commonest form in adenocarcinoma.
D. False: Complete mole is always diploid partial one can
be triploid.
E. True: A thyroid stimulator molecule is part of HCG
secreted by mole.
3. A. True: Excess gastrin secretion is the cause.
B. True
C. False: Virilization is caused by excess of androgens.
D. True
E. True
4. A. True: Enzyme deficient can be a dehalogenase.
B. False: Excess ACTH results in cushing and may cause
hyaline change in anterior pituitary.
C. True: These occurs in suprasellar lesion and may result
in anterior pituitary damage by pressure necrosis.
D. True
E. False: Medullary carcinoma is the one least likely to
have hematogenous metastasis.
5. A. True
B. False: ACTH levels are raised in an attempt to get
adrenals to produce more steroid hormones.
C. False: Adrenal medulla cells are involved.
D. False: Graves disease is caused by autoantibodies
mimicking TSH.
6. A. True: It is synonyms of nodular glomerulosclerosis.
B. True
C. False: Insulin is produced by beta cells and alpha cells
produce glucagons.
D. False: In Di George syndrome, there is congenital
absence of parathyroid glands.
Chapter 12
Breas
eastt
Breas
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. True
C. False: This (pink cell change) is not associated with any
increased risk.
Breast 77
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. True: It is because of bone metastasis. In intitial stages
only acid phosphatase is increased.
C. True
D. True
E. False
2. A. True
B. True
C. True: It has got a bad prognosis.
D. True
E. False: Fecal organisms are the usual causative agents.
3. A. True
B. False: Human papilloma virus causes condylomata
acuminata.
C. True
D. True
CONCEPTS
Genital Pathology, Breast
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease is usually hematogenously
acquired.
B. Cervical carcinoma is the most common malignant
tumor of female genital tract.
C. Leiomyomas are the most common tumors of female
genital tract.
D. The most common primary site for secondaries in
ovaries is GIT.
E. Partial mole is usually diploid.
Ans. A. False: PID is an ascending infection usually, often due
to gonorrhea and/or Chlamydia, from cervix to endo-
metrium, fallopian tubes and pelvic cavity. It is an impor-
tant cause of pelvic and even peritoneal inflammation,
abscess formation and scarring.
B. False: Cervical carcinoma is the third most common
malignancy of FGT. Endometrial adenocarcinoma is the
most common malignancy of FGT and usually presents
with postmenopausal bleeding.
80 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
C. True.
D. False: Though stomach and colon are the common pri-
mary sites for secondaries in ovary, primaries in endo-
metrium and breast spread to ovaries more commonly.
E. False: Partial mole is usually triploid. Complete moles
are diploid.
Q.2. What are the pre-invasive lesions of breast cancer?
Ans. Pre-invasive lesions that may progress to breast cancer
include ductal carcinoma in situ and lobular carcinoma in
situ. Invasive cancer occurs in several histological variants.
They are ductal carcinoma, tubular carcinoma, mucinous
carcinoma, tubular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma and
inflammatory carcinoma.
Q.3. Which of the following are true?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma of penis can occur because
of not doing circumcision before adolescence.
B. Spermatocele contains sperms in its fluid.
C. Testicular tortion can cause painful hemorrhagic infarc-
tion.
D. Seminoma occurs in older men.
E. Prostate cancer is commoner than lung cancer in the
men in PSA.
Ans. A. False: Squamous cell carcinoma of penis has nothing
to do with early or late circumcision. It is related to HPV
infection and is uncommon.
B. True: Spermatocele is a dilated efferent duct in epididy-
mus containing sperms.
C. True: Tortion of testis is twisting of spermatic cord.
D. False: Seminoma is a radiotherapy and chemotherapy
sensitive cancer of young men that causes bulky
testicular mass. Spermatocytic seminoma can occur in
older men.
E. True: Prostate cancer is the most common cancer of
men in the USA. It occurs in the peripheral zone of
prostate (posterior part). Serum PSA are raised.
Chapter 14
Kidney and
Urinar
inaryy TTrract
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true?
A. Younger age-group males are more susceptible to
urinary tract infection.
B. Renal carcinoma generally spread to bones.
C. Urinary calculi are more common in temperate than tro-
pical climates.
D. Diseases of glomerulus cause non-selective proteinuria,
if glomerulus is damaged more severely.
E. Transitional cell carcinoma has a positive association
with bilharziasis.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. Kidneys are shrunken in chronic glomerulonephritis.
B. Amyloidosis usually causes nephritic syndrome.
C. Nephroblastoma (Wilm’s tumor) commonly metasta-
sizes to lungs.
D. Bilateral renal agenesis usually occurs as a lone entity.
E. Adult polycystic kidney disease causes renal failure in
earlier life.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis affects kidneys and lungs.
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized
by proliferation of parietal epithelium of Bowman’s
capsule and forms crescents filling the capsular space.
C. Diabetic kidney is characterized by crystals in collecting
tubules.
82 MCQs in Objective Pathology with Explanations
ANSWERS
1. A. False: Incidence is more in females from puberty to
middle age.
B. True: Other tumors spreading to bone include breast,
prostate, thyroid and lungs.
C. False: Because of more concentration of urine, these are
commoner in tropical countries.
D. True: This is in contrast to selective proteinuria that is
commoner in minimal change disease.
E. False: Cigarette smoking is related to TCC whilst bilhar-
ziasis, if long standing, can cause the rare squamous
cell carcinoma of bladder.
2. A. True
B. True
C. True
D. False: Its associated with pulmonary hypoplasia and
spinal cord defects.
E. False: The renal affections become apparent in adult life.
Childhood polycystic kidney disease is manifested in
younger aged individuals.
3. A. True: It is a necrotizing vasculitis.
B. True
C. False: Crystals are found in metabolic diseases such
as gout. Diabetic kidney is characterized by papillary
necrosis.
D. True
Kidney and Urinary Tract 83
RENAL PATHOLOGY
CONCEPTS
Q.1. Which of the following are true?
A. Glomerular disease, when it causes nephritic syndrome,
is associated with microalbuminuria only.
B. Rapidly progressive GN is another name for crescent
GN.
C. IgA nephropathy is most common cause of gross hema-
turia in children, young adults and non-smokers.
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis is most common cause
of nephrosis in adults.
E. Renal cell carcinoma may be associated with femini-
zation or masculinization.
Ans. A. False: Nephritic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria
but amount is less than 3.5 gm/24 hrs.
B. True: RPGN is characterized microscopically by hyper-
cellular glomeruli with crescent formation in Bowman’s
capsule.
C. True: IgA nephropathy is most common cause of GN
worldwide. It tends to produce recurrent gross hematuria
in children and young adults.
D. True.
E. True. Paraneoplastic syndrome like this may occur from
ectopic hormone production. Other syndromes include
Cushing’s (corticosteroid), polycythemia (erythropoietin)
and hypertension (Renin).
Chapter 15
Skin, Sof
Softt TTissue
issue and
Sk ele
elettal Sy
Skele Syss tem
PRETEST
1. Which of the following are true?
A. Pemphigus is a viral infection.
B. Diverticulitis is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis,
C. Basal cell carcinoma is a highly metastasizing neo-
plasm.
D. Bowen’s disease and squamouscellcarcinoma in situ
are closely related.
E. Increased basal layer melanocytes are seen in lentigo.
2. Which of the following are true?
A. Nodular melanoma has a vertical growth phase only.
B. Acute hemolysis can occur in non-immune patients
following quinine treatment in P. falciparum malaria.
C. Lentigo maligna is a misnomer in that it is benign condi-
tion.
D. Malignant tertian malarial fever is caused by P. falci-
parum.
E. Tropical splenomegaly regresses with long-term antima-
larial therapy.
3. Which of the following are true?
A. A lack of active vitamin D is seen in osteoporosis.
B. Paget’s disease of bone causes raised serum alkaline
phosphatase.
C. Chondrosarcoma can recur locally and may kill the
patient by involvement of a vital structure.
D. Synovial sarcoma arises in joints.
E. Rhabdomyosarcoma mostly arises in skeletal muscles
of extremities.
Skin, Soft Tissue and Skeletal System 85
ANSWERS
1. A. False: The etiology is autoimmune.
B. False: Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with celiac
disease.
C. False: BCC is a locally aggressive tumor.
D. True
E. True
2. A. True: Malignant melanoma has both horizontal and
vertical growth phases.
B. True
C. False: Lentigo maligna (Hutchinson’s melanotic freckle)
is essentially a malignant melanoma-in-situ.
D. True
E. True
3. A. False: Lack of vitamin D in children causes Rickets and
in adults, osteomalacia.
B. True
C. True
D. False: Synovial sarcoma arises mostly in bone or soft
tissue just adjacent to joint especially lower extremity.
E. False
ANSWERS
1. A. True
B. False: Acute subdural hematoma is usually associated
with cerebral contusions and lacerations and is common
finding if death occurs soon after head injury
C. True
D. True: Extradural hematoma may be caused due to tear
of middle meningeal artery.
E. False: Internal capsule and cerebellum are common
sites.
2. A. False
B. True
C. True: This may occur in improperly treated CSOM.
D. False: CMV infection of CNS is usually acquired in utero
and is characterized by intranuclear inclusion bodies.
3. A. True: Bilateral temporal lobe necrosis can occur.
B. True
C. False: Gasserian ganglion is a common site of infection
by zoster (varicella) virus.
D. True
4 A. True
B. False: It is an anaplastic astrocytoma occurring in
cerebral hemispheres of adults.
C. True: It usually occurs in cerebellum of children.
D. False: It is a tumor of blood vessels occurring mainly
in cerebellum.
E. True