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GPAT 2011 TEST SERIES

Paper code: GP11-3A

Time: 2 Hrs
Total questions: 100
1 mark per correct answer, 1/3rd negative mark for every wrong question

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Q1) Which drug is popularly known as Hit and Run Drug

a) Guanthedine
b) Reserpine
c) Amrinone
d) Hydralazine

Q2) The Integrated rate equation for first order reaction is

a) x/a(a-x)=kt
b) log a/(a-x)=2.303/t
c) log a(a-x)=kt/2.303
d) x=kt

Q3) Hypertension stage-II falls in the range of

a) Sys ≥ 160 and diastolic ≥ 100
b) Sys 140-159 or diastolic 90-99
c) Sys ≥ 160 or diastolic ≥ 100
d) Sys 140-159 and diastolic 90-99

Q4) Half life for zero order reaction is calculated using

a) T ½ = 0.693/K
b) T ½ = 2.303/K
c) T ½ = 1/ak
d) T ½ = a/2k

Q5) The value of frequency in IR depends on:

a) Bond strength
b) Reduced Mass
c) Both
d) None

Q6) Maximum amount of potassium loss is done by

a) Spironolactone
b) Acetazolamide
c) Chlorthalidone
d) Torasemide

Q7) The region of electromagnetic spectrum below 200 nm is known as

a) Vaccum UV region
b) Far UV region
c) Low UV region
d) Microwave region

Q8) Cocaine on hydrolysis gives:

a) Ecogonine + ethyl alcohol + benzoic acid
b) Ecogonine + methyl alcohol + benzoic acid
c) Ecogonine + ethyl alcohol + cinamic acid
d) Ecogonine + methyl alcohol + cinamic acid

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Q9) Amrinone is
a) PDE-III inhibitor
b) PDE-IV inhibitor
c) Na/K+ ATPase inhibitor
d) None of above

Q10) Van-Urk's reagent is

a) p-dimethylaminobenzoic acid
b) p-methylaminobenzoic acid
c) p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
d) p-methydiaminobenzaldehyde

Q11) Which of following drug can't be used for the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia?
a) Nifedipine
b) Verapamil
c) Diltiazem
d) None of above

Q12) Emetine is biogenetically derived from one of the following

a) Phenylalanine
b) Tyrosine
c) Di hydroxy phenylalanine
d) Tryptophan

Q13) Facultative anaerobes

a) Can tolerate oxygen and grow better in its presence
b) Do not tolerate oxygen and die in its presence
c) Can grow in presence or absence of oxygen
d) can grow in Presence of atmospheric oxygen

Q14) Which of the following is true for circulating RAS system?

a) ACE is a dipeptide that acts on carboxyl terminal of A-I to generate A-II
b) ACE is a dipeptide that acts on amino terminal of A-I to generate A-II
c) ACE is a tripeptide that acts on carboxyl terminal of A-I to generate A-II
d) ACE is a dipeptide that acts on angiotensinogen to generate A-I

Q15) Belladona alkaloid contains:

a) Anisocytic stomata, non glandular tarichomes, cluster caluim crystals, multilayered
palisade cells
b) Anisocytic stomata, glandular trichomes, cluster caluim crystals, single layered
palisade cells.
c) Anisocytic stomata, glandular trichomes, acicular caluim crystals, single layered
palisade cells.
d) Anomocytic stomata, non glandular trichomes, cluster caluim crystals, single layered
palisade cells.

Q16) Idioblasts are present in:

a) Cinchona

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b) Coca
c) Hyosscyamus
d) All of the above

Q17) Which of the following is an example of mixed vasodilators?

a) Sod. Nitroprusside
b) Hydralazine
c) Trinitroglycerine
d) Nicorandil

Q18) Canrenone is an active metabolite of

a) Triametrene
b) Amiloride
c) Spironolactone
d) Minoxidil

Q19) Following ACE inhibitor is not a prodrug

a) Perindopril
b) Lisinopril
c) Benazepril
d) Imidapril

Q20) Alkaloidal contents present in ergot

a) 0.1-0.25 %
b) 0.25-0.5 %
c) 0.5-1.0 %
d) 1.0-2.0 %

Q21) The dried tubers of Gloriosa superba Linn. Belonging to family liliaceae contains
a) Morphine
b) Quinine
c) Atropine
d) colchicines

Q22) Bancroft rule is used to study the stability of

a) Solution
b) Emulsion
c) Suspension
d) Colloids

Q23) HLB value of detergent is

a) 16 to 18
b) 1 to 3
c) 7 to 9
d) 13 to 16

Q24) Which statement is true about angiotensin receptor blocker?

a) They cause complete blockade of AT1 receptor

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b) They result in indirect AT2 activation.

c) They do not cause dry cough
d) All of above

Q25) Wilson and Blair media is an example of

a) Indicator media
b) Enriched media
c) Anaerobic media
d) Selective media

Q26) A pharmaceutical API is prone to environmental oxidation. To achieve a better

therapeutic action, its size needs to be reduced. Method of choice for pulverization is
a) Ball milling
b) Hammer mill
c) Colloid mill
d) Rotary cutter mill

Q27) Lactose operon of E. coli is

a) Mocistronic
b) Inducible
c) unregulated
d) Repressible

Q28) Dry cough is major side effect of

a) ACE inhibitors
b) CCBs
c) Β blockers
d) Diuretics

Q29) How many grams of drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of 1:2500 solution
a) 0.2
b) 0.02
c) 0.4
d) 1.25

Q30) Site of action of adrenergic neuron blocker is:

a) Intraneuronal granule
b) Postsynaptic nerve endings
c) Axonal membrane
d) None of above

Q31) Method of size reduction of ascorbic acid is

a) Colloid mill
b) Jet mill
c) Pebble mill
d) All of above

Q32) Mark- Houwink equation is used to determine molecular weight of colloids from

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a) Viscosity
b) Diffusion
c) Electronic charge
d) None of above

Q33) Acetazolamide, other than diuretic, can also be used in:

a) Glaucoma
b) Epilepsy
c) Acute mountain sickness
d) All

Q34) Globar unit is

a) Silicon Sulphide
b) Tungsten
c) Silicon carbide
d) None of the above

Q35) Class III antiarrhythmic agents are __________________________.

a) Na+ channel blocker
b) K+ channel blocker
c) Na+ channel opener
d) K+ channel opener

Q36) C-N stretching in amine is observed in the range of

a) 2100-2260 cm-1
b) 1610-1680 cm-1
c) 1180-1360 cm-1
d) 3590-3650 cm -1

Q37) Reflex tachycardia and precipitation of angina are side effects of directly acting
vasodilators except:
a) Diazoxide
b) inoxidil
c) Sod. Nitroprusside
d) Hydralazine

Q38) Which antihypertensive is relatively safer during pregnancy?

a) Enalapril
b) Nifedipine
c) Furosemide
d) None of above

Q39) Propanolol as antihypertensive should be avoided in which of following condition:

a) Asthmatic patients
b) Pregnancy
c) Person suffering from co-existing anxiety and tachycardia
d) Migraine

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Q40) Which of the following statement is true for 1,4-dihydropyridines

a) R1 should be unsubstituted for better activity
b) R2 derivatives with aminoethyl ether side chain results in potent compound
c) S-enantiomer are eutomer
d) All of above

Q41) Calculate the frequency of light of wavelength 200 nm

a) 5 x 10-4 Hz
b) 5 x 106 Hz
c) 1.5 x 1015 Hz
d) 5 x 108 Hz

Q42) Find the correct sentence

a) Primary amino group have two absorption peak in IR
b) Primary amino group have one absorption peak in IR
c) Secondary amino group have two absorption peak in IR
d) None of above

Q43) Following nitrate is used for chronic prophylaxis of angina pectoris:

a) Erythrityl pentatetranitrate
b) Erhthrityl tetranitrate
c) Both
d) None

Q44) By first order kinetics in four half lives, the drug is excreted near about
a) 75 %
b) 87.5 %
c) 93.75 %
d) 97%

Q45) Drug which reacts with hydrochloric acid and potassium ferricyanide solution gives
yellow colour
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Papaverine
d) Meconic acid

Q46) Which one of the following is selective α2-antagonist?

a) Yohambine
b) Prazosin
c) Indoramine
d) Clonidine

Q47) Calculate the amount of sodium chloride required to make 1.5% soln of pilocarpine
HCl isotonic with tear solution.Freezing point of 1% soln of pilocarpine HCl = -
0.130C, Freezing point of 1% soln of NaCl = -.5760C
a) 0.65 %
b) 0.585 %

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c) 0.9 %
d) 0.564 %

Q48) Pyridine-Pyrrolidine heterocyclic ring system is present in one of the followings:

a) Coniine
b) Nicotine
c) Papaverine
d) Anabasine

Q49) CCBs may have following side effect:

a) Foetopathy
b) Precipitation of asthma/ angina
c) Difficulty in bladder voiding
d) All of above

Q50) Functional group identification is done by

a) UV
b) IR
c) NMR
d) HPLC

Q51) PCR is exclusively used for

a) DNA identification
b) DNA recombination
c) DNA amplification
d) DNA repair

Q52) Nux vomica can be distinguished from adulterants by:

a) Aleurone grains
b) Lignified trichomes
c) Plasmodesma
d) All of the above

Q53) The carbonyl compounds in IR appears in (per cm) the range of

a) 1850-1650
b) 1700-1750
c) 1670-2000
d) None

Q54) Which of the following is used as a cell container of prism material IR radiation?
a) NaCL
b) KBr
c) A and b
d) None

Q55) The source of radiation used in IR spectrophotometry

a) Nernest glower
b) Sodium lamp

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c) Deuterium
d) Tungsten

Q56) S-H stretching region in IR is

a) 2600-2550 cm-1
b) 2400-2220 cm 1
c) 1600-1400 cm-1
d) 1070-1030 cm-1

Q57) Antibody (rather than antigen) is immobilized on microtiter well, technique is

a) Sandwich ELISA
b) Competitive ELISA
c) Indirect ELISA
d) All of the above

Q58) Hybridomas are employed for

a) Production of somatic cells
b) Killing cancer cells
c) Synthesis of antibiotics
d) Synthesis of antibodies specific to single antigen

Q59) Concentration of insulin extract can be achieve by

a) Forced circulation evaporator
b) Climbing film evaporator
c) Both
d) None

Q60) CH2 and CH3 in IR can be differentiated by

a) Streching vibration
b) Bending vibration
c) Both
d) Only (a)

Q61) An increase in absorption intensity is called as

a) Bathochromic shift
b) Hyperchromic shift
c) Hypsochromic shift
d) Hypochromic shift

Q62) Methyldopa consist of one asymmetric carbon at α-position. Which form of this
compound is active
a) d-form
b) l-form
c) a and b
d) None of these

Q63) Atropine, hyoscyamine and hyoscine are distinguished from other alkaloids by
a) Mayer's test

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b) Wagner's test
c) Hager's test
d) Vitali's test

Q64) Thermistor which measures resistance (IR detector) is composed

a) Oxides of Mn, Co and Ni
b) Bi-Sb
c) Xenon
d) Triglycin sulphate

Q65) In the assay of sulphamethoxazole IP. (C10H11N3O3S), 0.2 g of the sample was
dissolve in 50ml of 2M HCl. To this was added 3.0 g of KBr and titration was carried
out. If the volume of 0.1M titrant consumed was 8.0 ml, calculate the % purity
a) 99.70 %
b) 101.2 %
c) 8.87 %
d) 98.79 %

Q66) DLSO theory is related to

a) Stability of emulsion
b) Stability of colloids
c) Stability of suspension
d) None

Q67) Mixing of semisolids is carried out using

a) Double cone mixer
b) Rotating cube mixer
c) Planetary mixer
d) Fluidized bed mixer

Q68) Quinine is Antimalarial drug biosynthesized in plant by

a) Lysine
b) Ornithine
c) Tryptophan
d) Cinnamic acid

Q69) Finger print region for IR

a) 1400 - 4000 cm-1
b) 4000 - 8000 cm-1
c) 400 - 1400 cm-1
d) None of the above

Q70) IR spectra is plotted as

a) Absorbance vs. Wavelength
b) Transmittance vs. Wave number
c) Intensity vs. m/z
d) Absorbance vs. Wave number

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Q71) Seeds of Physostigma Venenosum is biological source of

a) Crow Fig Seed
b) Calabar bean
c) Colchicum
d) Ipecac

Q72) Chlorthiazide, bendrothiazide, benzthiazide are structurally similar & have the ring.
a) 5H-Dibenz(b,f)azepine
b) 1,2,4-Benzothiadiazine
c) Benzodiazepine
d) Phenothiazine

Q73) Tropine, a hydrolytic product of atropine on treatment with CrO3 gives

a) Atropic acid
b) Tropic acid
c) Pseudo cocaine
d) Tropinone

Q74) Erometrine is treated with water produces……..fluoroscence

a) green
b) deep violet
c) blue
d) deep yellow

Q75) The technique of transfer of DNA molecules separated by gel eletrophoresis to the
nitrocellulose or nylon membrane is called
a) Northern blot
b) Southern blot
c) Western blot
d) None of these

Q76) Substrate level phosphorylation takes place in

a) krebs cycle and transistion reaction
b) glycolysis and kreb cycle
c) glycolysis and ETC
d) ETC and transition reaction

Q77) A compound has a molecular has a molecular weight of 245;an equivalent weight of
148.5 and an A 1%1cm of 723 at 309 nm. Its molar absorptivity is
a) 220.37
b) 1101.18
c) 17713.5
d) 22037.4

Q78) Non curable disease comes under

a) Schedule- J
b) Schedule- P1
c) Schedule- N

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d) Schedule- S

Q79) How much of 90 % and 20 % alcohols are required to produce 350 ml of 60 %

alcohol?
a) 250 ml, 100 ml
b) 300 ml, 50 ml
c) 200 ml, 150 ml
d) 150 ml, 200 ml

Q80) ephedrine + water + dil. HCl treated with cupper sulphate & NaOH gives
a) Voilet color
b) Purple color
c) Pink color
d) yellow color

Q81) Pasture effect is

a) Reduction in oxidation rate even in high oxygen concentration
b) Shifting of aerobic conditions to anaerobic and vice a versa
c) Conversion of ADP to ATP
d) Sterilization at 63 C for 30 min

Q82) In fructose fructose -1-3 bis phosphate is oxidised in aerobic respiration, ATP
production will be
a) 38
b) 36
c) 32
d) 20

Q83) C-O stretching of phenol occurs at (per cm)

a) 1050
b) 1100
c) 1150
d) 1220

Q84) Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate and unicellular clothing lignified trichomes are the
characteristic of which adulterant of atropa belladonna
a) Phytolacca decandera
b) Ailanthus glandulosa
c) Solanum nigrum
d) none of these

Q85) For delivering DNA into cell which is not applicable

a) Microinjection
b) Viral vector
c) Liposome
d) electrofusion

Q86) First dilution then plating is done to enumerate bacteria in

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a) pour plate technique

b) streak plate
c) both
d) none of the obove

Q87) Red color of capsicum is due to pigment

a) Capsiacin
b) Capsanthin
c) Quassin
d) none of these

Q88) d- Tubocaurarine belonges to which type of alkaloid

a) Quinoline
b) Isoquinoline
c) Diterpene
d) None of above

Q89) Acid chloride have highest frequency among carbonyl compounds is due to
a) Electropositive effect of halogen atom
b) Electronegative effect of halogen atom
c) C=O group
d) None of above

Q90) In aerobic respiration of a glucose TCA cycle synthesis how many ATP molecules
a) 38
b) 36
c) 24
d) 12

Q91) Link between carbohydrste and fat metabolism is

a) Pyruvic acid
b) Oxalo acetate
c) Acetyl COA
d) Citrate

Q92) Match the following:

Disease Condition associated
P)Gaucher's syndrome 1)n-acetyl hexoaminidase
Q)Lesh- nyhan syndrome 2)Homogentisate dideoxygenase
R)Alkeptonurea 3)Gluco-cerebrosidase
S)Tay-Sachs 4)Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl
a) P-3 Q-4 R- 2 S-1
b) P-2 Q-4 R-1 S-3
c) P-1 Q-3 R-2 S-4
d) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2

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Q93) Lignified idioblast near veins is microscopical character for _________

a) Dubosia
b) Coca
c) Stramonium
d) Digitalis purpurea

Q94) Dense pseudo-parechymatous cells of Ergot is composed of _________

a) Cellulose
b) Starch
c) Chitin
d) Inulin

Q95) Warty trichomes are found in

a) Senna
b) Nux-vomica
c) Vinca
d) Datura

Q96) The diagnostic character for identification of kurchi (H. antidysenterica) is:
a) Rhomboidal (Prismatic) crystal of calcium, sieve tubes, triseriate medullary
ray, yellowish content of cork cell.
b) Rosette crystal of calcium, sieve tubes, uniriseriate medullary ray, yellowish
content of cork cell.
c) Rhomboidal (Prismatic) crystal of calcium, sieve tubes, triseriate
medullary ray, reddish-brown content of cork cell
d) Rosette crystal of calcium, sieve tubes, uniriseriate medullary ray, reddish-
brown content of cork cell

Q97) Mercaptopurin is titrated with:

a) TBAH
b) Perchloric Acid
c) Sodium Hydroxide
d) None of the above

Q98) Which of the following ca+2 channel blocker contain tertiary amino group in side
chain:
(p) isradipine (q) nimodipine
(r) nicardipine (s) verapamil
a) p,q
b) p,r
c) q,r
d) r,s

Q99) Acetazolamide can be synthesised from one of the following intermediate

a) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1,3-thiazole
b) 5 amino2-mercapto-1,3,4-thiadiazole
c) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1,2,3,-thiazole
d) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1,3,4-tetrazole

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Q100) Thiazide causes

a) ↓es Mg2+ excretion + ↑es urate excretion + ↓es Ca +2 excretion
b) ↑es Mg2+ excretion + ↓es urate excretion + ↓es Ca +2 excretion
c) ↑es Mg2+ excretion + ↓es urate excretion + ↑es Ca +2 excretion
d) ↓es Mg2+ excretion + ↓es urate excretion + ↓es Ca +2 excretion

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