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UNIVERSITY OF SANTO TOMAS

DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL EDUCATION


MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2015
ANATOMY, HISTOLOGY & RADIOLOGY MOCK EXAM
Wednesday, 01 July 2015
SET A

NAME:__________________________________________________________ SIGNATURE:_________________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This questionnaire is composed of 100 items. On the box provided in the front
page of the Examination Answer Sheet, kindly write your student number, name, year, section and table
number. All final answers should be made on the back page of the EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET provided
for. SHADE SET A. Only Mongol 1 may be used. Do not leave any blanks as this will be considered incorrect.
Do NOT detach the name stub. Submit this questionnaire together with your answer sheet. Please be guided
accordingly

TEST 1: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.

C_____1.Infected wounds of the scalp can lead to cavernous sinus thrombosis via these veins
A. Angular C. Emissary
B. Facial D. Opthalmic
C_____2. Wounds affecting this layer gape widely due to the opposing pull of the muscle attached to it:
A. Skin C. Galea aponeurotica
B. Subcutaneous layer D. Loose areolar
C_____3 The key to a safe thoracentesis is to keep the needle close to:
A. Parasternal border C. Superior border of the rib
B. Inferior border of the rib D. Costal groove of the rib
A _____4. After squeezing an infected pustule on the nose a diagnosis of cavernous sinus thrombosis was made.
Infection from this area was carried by the facial vein to the cavernous sinus through the _______ vein:
A .Superior ophthalmic C. Angular
B. Retromandibular D. Superficial temporal
B_____5. The best space to enter in the neck for an emergency access to the airway outside the hospital:
A. Hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage
B. Thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage
C. Cricoid cartilage and trachea
D. Tracheal rings
B_____6. At the neck, swallowed foreign body may be lodge in the part of the esophagus opposite the level of:
A. 4th cervical vertebra C. 1st thoracic vertebra
B. 6th cervical vertebra D. 4th thoracic vertebra
D _____7. In which part of the lobar bronchus does inhaled foreign bodies get usually lodged?
A. Left superior C. Left inferior
B. Right superior D. Right inferior
B_____8. In what area is tracheostomy best done?
A. Between trachea and cricoid C. Tracheal ring 4-5
B. Tracheal ring 2-3 D. Tracheal ring 5-6
A_____9. The nerve that is injured when one hastily ligates the inferior thyroid artery during thyroid surgery:
A. recurrent laryngeal C. phrenic
B. external laryngeal D. vagus
C_____10. Which statement is true of the internal jugular vein?
A. It drains all of the thyroid gland on that side of the body
B. It drains into the external jugular vein

C. It is accompanied by the deep cervical chain of lymph nodes
D. It lies deep to the prevertebral fascia
D_____11. Narrowest part of the larynx in infants:
A. Supraglottis C. Infraglottis
B. Glottis D. Cricoid
B_____12. The bifurcation of the common carotid artery is at the level of:
A. Hyoid bone
B. Upper border of the thyroid cartilage
C. Laryngeal prominence
D. Upper border of cricoid cartilage

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C______13. A 44-year-old man with a stab wound was brought to the emergency department, and a physician found
that the patient was suffering from a laceration of his right phrenic nerve. Which of the following conditions has likely
occurred?
A. Injury to only GSE fibers
B. Difficulty in expiration
C. Loss of sensation in the fibrous pericardium and mediastinal pleura
D. Loss of sensation in the costal part of the diaphragm
C_____14. A75-year-old patient has been suffering from lung cancer located near the cardiac notch, a deep
indentation on the lung. Which of the following lobes is most likely to be excised?
A. Superior lobe of the right lung C. Superior lobe of the left lung
B. Inferior lobe of the right lung D. Inferior lobe of the left lung
D______15. A 31-year-old football player with a head injury is brought to a local emergency department. Physical
examination, radiogram, and a magnetic resonance imaging scan indicate a lesion of the trigeminal nerve. Which of
the following muscles is most likely paralyzed?
A. Geniohyoid C. Cricothyroid
B. Palatoglossus D. Tensor veli palatini
C_____16. A 56 year old male chronic smoker had a history of weight loss body malaise comes for consult due to
multiple swellings or neck masses. Which set of lymph nodes should be palpated and biopsied for suspicion of
metastasis of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
A. Upper jugular C. Posterior cervical
B. Lower jugular D. Submandibular
A_____17. The thyroid isthmus is known to lie in which area?
A. 2nd to 4th tracheal rings
B. 3rd to 5th tracheal rings
C. Midway from the thyroid and cricoid cartilages at C4
D. C2 to C4
C_____18. A 56 year old male patient suffered a motor vehicular accident, he suffered multiple rib fractures and had
ecchymoses along the right hemithorax, chest xray revealed blunting of the right costophrenic sulci. The surgeon
plans to insert a chest tube to drain the fluid at which site?
A. 2nd ICS right mid-clavicular line upper border of the rib
B. 7th ICS right posterior axillary line upper border of the rib
C. 5th ICS right anterior axillary line upper border of the rib
D. 5th ICS left mid-axillary line lower border of the rib
B_____19. What is the most common lobe to be affected in atelectasis?
A. Right upper lobe C. Left upper lobe
B. Right middle lobe D. Left lower lobe
B_____20. Inverted or retracted nipple is due to cancer invasion of the:
A. Deep fascia of the pectoralis muscle
B. Lactiferous duct
C. Subcutaneous Lymphatics
D. Suspensory ligament of cooper
C_____21. Large gallstones have been known to erode through the posterior wall of the gallbladder and enter the
intestinal tract. Which part of the intestinal tract is likely to initially contain the stone?
A. The sigmoid colon C. The transverse colon
B. The descending colon D. The ascending colon
A_____22. A 53-year-old man was admitted to hospital complaining of chronic gastric ulcer unresponsive to medical
treatment. The surgeon decided to perform a vagotomy. The anterior vagal trunk was divided between sutures as it
lies on the anterior surface of the abdominal part of the esophagus. Which of the following is likely to result from this
procedure?
A. Loss of secretomotor nerve supply to the mucosal glands of the stomach.
B. Hoarse voice because of paralysis of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx on the left side.
C. Increased heart rate because of decreased parasympathetic input to the cardiac
D. Incontinence because of an absence of parasympathetic input to the bladder.

(#23-24)A 44-year-old man with a long history of duodenal ulcer was seen in the emergency department exhibiting
all the signs and symptoms of severe hypovolemic shock.
C_____23. If the ulcer perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum, the artery that will most likely be
eroded is the:
A. Splenic artery C. Gastroduodenal artery
B. Right gastric artery D. Right gastroepiploic artery

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B_____24. If the duodenal ulcer had perforated the anterior wall of the duodenum, where in the peritoneal cavity
would the duodenal contents have entered?
A. The lesser sac
B. The right anterior subphrenic space
C. The left lateral paracolic gutter
D. The right posterior subphrenic space
C_____25. A 10-year-old girl was seen in the emergency room because of pain in the right iliac region. On physical
examination, the skin in the right lower quadrant was hyperesthetic and tender to touch, and the abdominal muscles
showed rigidity and guarding. A diagnosis of acute appendicitis was made. The tenderness at the RLQ is due to the
stimulation of which of the ff nerves by the inflamed appendix?
A. The eighth right intercostal nerve
B. The tenth right intercostal nerve
C. The subcostal and first lumbar nerves
D. The sympathetic autonomic afferent nerves from the appendix
D_____26. A 21-year-old man was stabbed in the abdomen and on exploration the superior mesenteric artery was
transacted. Which segments of the colon would most likely become gangrenous because of this this injury?
A. Ascending and descending colons
B. Transverse and sigmoid colons
C. Descending and sigmoid colons
D. Ascending and transverse colons
C_____27. A 35-year-old woman with a history of cholecystectomy arrives in the emergency department with
intractable hiccups most likely caused by an abdominal abscess secondary to surgical infection. Which of the
following nerves carries pain sensation caused by irritation of the peritoneum on the central portion of the inferior
surface of the diaphragm?
A. Vagus nerve C. Phrenic nerve
B. Lower intercostal nerve D. Greater splanchnic nerve

(#28-30)A 35 yo male, stab wound victim brought to the emergency room with a BP of 90/60, heart rate of 125bpm
with a 1 cm stab wound located at the RLQ area anterior axillary line with an eviscerated loop of intestine .He
underwent Exploratory laparotomy using midline incision
B_____28.Structures most likely to be injured will be:
A. Jejunum C. Sigmoid
B. Ileum D. Ascending colon
B_____29.The large intestine can be differentiated from the small by this external characteristic:
A. Plicae semicirculares C. Thinner wall
B. Taenia coli D. All of the above
C_____30. In midline vertical incision the following structure is traversed after the skin and superficial fáscia is the:
A..Extraperitoneal tissue & parietal peritoneum
B. Fascia transversalis
C. Linea alba
D. Rectus sheath
B_____31.Origin of the blood supply of the intestines found on the Left upper quadrant is/are
A. Superior Mesenteric
B. Superior and inferior mesenteric
C. Inferior Mesenteric
D. Superior and celiac
D_____32.If the segment of the intestine that protruded is partially opened and was noted to have a mucosa with few
to absent circular fold and its mesentery is fatty with many vascular arcades. You would identify this segment as:
A. Duodenum C. Proximal ileum
B. Proximal jejunum D. Distal ileum
A_____33.Anatomical basis for the arrest of inspiration in Murphy’s sign is the stimulation of which of the following
nerve?
A. Phrenic C. 7th ICN
B. Subcostal D. Celiac Plexus
D_____34.The region(s) lateral to the epigastric region is:
A. Lumbar C. Iliac
B. Hypogastric D. Hypochondriac
A_____35.True of the common bile duct
A. Formed by the union of cystic and common hepatic duct
B. Lateral border of the triangle of Calot
C. Enters the 2nd part of the duodenum anteromedially
D. All of the above

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C_____36. A right subcostal incision was used for open cholecystectomy, which part of the gallbladder will be seen
immediately by the surgeon after opening the parietal peritoneum
A. Body C. Fundus
B. Cystic duct D. Neck
B_____ 37. The Jaundice is commonly caused by stone in the:
A. Cystic duct C. Fundus of the gallbladder
B. Common bile duct D. Common hepatic artery
B_____38. In order to palpate the distal common bile duct during biliary exploration, one should palpate the second
portion of the duodenum at its
A. Anteromedial portion C. Anterolateral portion
B. Posteromedial portion D. Posterolateral portion
B_____39.A farmer swallowed some santol seeds, which area of the GI tract will these seeds most likely cause
obstruction?
A. Antral pyloric area C. Colorectal junction
B. Ileocecal junction D. Splenic flexure
B_____40. A patient presenting with adenocarcinoma of the lower 1/3 of the esophagus would most likely have
metastasis to which of the following lymph nodes?
A. bronchomediastinal C. lower jugular
B. celiac D. diaphragmatic
B_____41. A patient presents with sensory loss on adjacent sides of the great and second toes and impaired
dorsiflexion of the foot. These signs probably indicate damage to which of the following nerves?
A. Superficial peroneal C. Lateral plantar
B. Deep peroneal D. Posterior tibial
A_____42. A motorcyclist falls from his bike in an accident and gets a deep laceration that severs the superficial
peroneal nerve near its origin on the Left. He will not be able _____his left foot:
A. Evert C. Invert
B. Dorsiflex D. Plantar flex
B_____43. Most common direction of a hip dislocation:
A. Anterior C. Superior
B. Posterior D. Inferior
C_____44. PE finding(s) in Anterior compartment syndrome of the leg:
A. Absent posterior tibial artery pulsation
B. Loss of sensation to the skin over dorsum of the foot
C. Inability to extend the toes
D. All of the above
A_____45. True of the deep peroneal nerve:
A. has sensory and motor component
B. lies medial to the tibialis anterior muscles
C. supplies the lateral compartment of leg
D. a branch of the tibial nerve
C_____46. The radiocarpal joint is what type of joint
A. Ball and socket. C. Hinge
B. Condyloid. D. Plane joint
C_____47. Which neurovascular structures passes below the pyriformis muscle?
A. Deep branch of the femoral artery C. Sciatic nerve
B. Obturator artery D. Superior gluteal artery
B_____48. Pulsation of the upper extremity located at the cubital area; medial to the tendon of the biceps muscles:
A. Radial C. Profunda brachii
B. Brachial D. Ulnar
B_____49. Loss of sensation over the medial aspect of the leg and inability to extend the knee joint results from
injury of which of the following nerve?
A. Obturator C. Sciatic
B. Femoral D. Tibial
D_____50.Rupture of the calcaneal tendon will result in inability to ____ the foot :
A. Invert C. Dorsiflex
B. Evert D. Plantarflex
C_____51. Fracture of the medial epicondyle will result in injury of which of the following nerve?
A. Radial C. Ulnar
B. Median D. Musculocutaneous

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D_____52. Most commonly used vein for phlebotomy:
A. Basilic C. Brachial
B. Cephalic D. Median cubital
A_____53. Pulsation used in blood pressure monitoring:
A. Brachial & radial C. Ulnar & radial
B. Brachial & ulnar D. Profunda brachii & brachial
C_____54. True of Colle’s fracture:
A. found at the proximal end of the radius
B. occurs from a fall on the back of the hand
C. dinner fork deformity
D. distal fragment is displaced anteriorly
A_____55. Allen’s test is used to determine patency of the following vessels:
A. Radius and Ulna C. Radius and Brachial
B. Brachial and radius D. Brachial and Profunda Brachii
A_____56. Injury to the brachial plexus, usually due to tearing of the roots of C5 & C6 during a difficult breech
delivery may result in:
A. Erb-Duchenne Paralysis C. Long Thoracic Nerve Injury
B. Klumpke’s Paralysis D. Ulnar Nerve Injury
A_____57. Atrophy of the thenar muscle is seen in prolonged compression of the following:
A. Median nerve C. Radial Nerve
B. Posterior Division of C8 & T1 D. Ulnar nerve
C_____58. Flexor tendon sheath inflammation usually secondary to trauma of the hand results in:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. De Quervain;s tenosynovitis
B. Claw hand D. Paronychia
B_____59. When cannulating the femoral artery, you should bear in mind that:
A. The artery lies lateral to the femoral nerve
B. The artery is lateral to the femoral vein
C. The artery is posterior to the femoral vein
D. The artery is medial to the femoral vein
C_____60. A reducible 2x2 cm soft non pulsatile mass below the inguinal sulcus that is more prominent on straining
or lifting heavy weights and disappears on lying down. The diagnosis is:
A. Direct inguinal hernia C. Femoral hernia
B. Indirect inguinal hernia D. Femoral artery aneurysm
B_____61. Which skeletal feature would you consider to be most characteristic of the male pelvis?
A. Subpubic angle of 90 degrees or greater
B. Pelvic cavity is narrow and deep
C. Ischial spines are not prominent
D. Ischial tuberosities are everted
D_____62. A patient complains of a boil located on her labia majora. Lymphatic spread of the infection would most
likely enlarge which nodes?
A. Internal iliac nodes C. External iliac nodes
B. Sacral nodes D. Superficial inguinal nodes
A_____63. Support for the uterus is provided by the following structures EXCEPT which?
A. Broad ligament
B. Uterosacral ligament
C. Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments
D. Levator ani muscles
D_____64. The boundaries of the perineum include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Ischiopubic rami
 C. Tip of the coccyx
B. Ischial tuberosity
 D. Ischial spine
B_____65. In males, traumatic injury to the perineum may rupture the bulb of the penis or the penile urethra. The
resulting leakage of blood or urine may be found in all of the following areas EXCEPT which?
A. Anterior abdominal wall C. Scrotum
B. Ischiorectal fossa D. Superficial perineal pouch
B_____66. The sphincter vesicae receives its innervation from the
A. Pudendal C. Obturator
B. Hypogastric plexus D. Inferior rectal
D______67. A median episiotomy should least likely damage which muscles?
A. Bulbospongiosus C. Deep transverse perineal
B. Superficial transverse perineal D. Lschiocavernosus

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C______68. An elderly man with prostitis. The seminal colliculus of his prostate gland is infected and its openings are
closed. Which of the following structures are most likely affected?
A. Ducts of the prostate gland C. Ejaculatory ducts
B. Prostatic utricle D. Ducts of the seminal vesicle
D______69. What nerve crosses the ischiorectal fossa that is most likely injured when I&D is performed for
Ischiorectal abscess
A. Obturator C. Perineal
B. Pudendal D. Inferior rectal
D______70. Origin of the arterial supply to the suprarenal glands:
A. Inferior phrenic C. Abdominal aorta
B. Renal artery D. All of the above
B______71. The vagus nerve passes into the abdomen by passing through which opening of the respiratory
diaphragm
A. Aortic hiatus C. Caval foramen
B. Esophageal hiatus D. Lateral arcuate ligament
B ______72. The cisterna chyli conveys lymph into the:
A. Right lymphatic duct C. Azygous vein
B. Thoracic duct D. Superior vena cava
C______73. With one exception, preganglionic sympathetic axons synapse upon postganglionic sympathetic
dendrites or cell bodies. The exception to this general rule occurs within the:
A. Renal cortex C. Suprarenal medulla
B. Renal medulla D. Suprarenal cortex
C______74. An MRI exam of a 3 year old boy reveals that he has a double ureter. Which of the following embryonic
structures is most likely failed to develop normally
A. Mesonephric (wolffian duct) C. Ureteric bud
B. Paramesonephric (mullerian duct) D. Metanephros
B______75. The rectouterine pouch (pouch of Douglas) can be most efficiently entered by a surgical incision through
the:
A. Posterior fornix of the vagina C. Anterior rectal wall
B. Anterior fornix of the vagina D. Lateral fornix of the vagina
C_____76. A 43 year old female presents with pain in her external genitalia. Physical examination reveals an
inflamed swelling on the right side of the vaginal vestibule consistent with Bartholinitis. The greater vestibular gland
(Bartholin):
A. is modified erectile tissue
B. is a homologue of the prostate gland
C. is located deep to the bulbospongiosus muscle
D. has a duct that opens into the deep perineal pouch
C_____77. True of the SUPRARENAL GLAND
A. surrounded by renal capsule and fascia
B. is pyramidal on the left and semilunar on the right
C. drained by single pair of suprarenal veins
D. retroperitoneal and separated from the kidneys by the renal fascia
B_____78. Part of the Levator ani inserted into the perineal body & acts like a sphincter
A. Iliococcygeus.
B. Levator prostatae/ pubovaginalis
C. Pubococcygeus
D. Puborectalis
A_____79. When the long axis of the body of the uterus is bent forward at the level of the internal os with the long
axis of the cervix:
A. Anteflexion of the uterus C. Retroverted
B. Anteversion of the uterus D. Retroflexed
C_____80. The sacral outflow of the parasympathetic system enters the pelvic plexus via:
A. Hypogastric nerves C. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
B. Pudendal nerves D. Sacral splanchnic nerves
D_____81. Which of the following describes the structure of the nuclear membrane?
A. Lipid bilayer C. Connected to SER
B. Thinner than cytolemma D. Shows presence of pores
A_____82. Which organelle is characterized by the presence of acid hydrolases?
A. Lysosome C. Mitochondria
B. Microbody D. Annulate lamella

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C_____83. In the skeletal muscle, how does I band appear at height of contraction?
A. Widest C. Disappears
B. Thinnest D. Remain constant all throughout
D_____84. Which of the following describes the medium sized artery?
A. Wide lumen C. Prominent t. adventitia
B. Vasorum up to intima D. Prominent internal elastic membrane
A_____85. Which of the following is part of blood-air barrier?
A. Pneumocyte I C. Alveolar macrophage
B. Pneumocyte II D. RBC in capillary lumen
C_____86. Which of the following describes the intercalated discs in cardiac muscle?
A. Site of triad C. Nexus for cellular coordination
B. Hemidesmosome D. Site of the numerous mitochondria
A_____87. Which skin appendage is classified as simple saccular and holocrine ?
A. Sebaceous gland C. Axillary sweat gland
B. Ordinary sweat gland D. All sweat glands in body
B_____88. Which histological feature in the endometrium is consistent with the presence of a corpus luteum?
A. Collapsed glands C. Pseudostratification of cells
B. Subnuclear vacuoles D. Pseodoinflammatory pattern of stroma
B_____89. Which of the following cells is part of blood-testis barrier?
A. Spermatids C. Primary spermatocytes
B. Sertoli cells D. Secondary spermatocytes
C_____90. Which of the following degenerative change occurs in elastic cartilage?
A. Calcification C. Fatty degeneration
B. Bony transformation D. Asbestos degeneration
C_____91. Which property characterizes the epithelium of urinary bladder?
A. Polarity C. Elasticity
B. Metaplasia D. Pseudostratification
A_____92. Which of the following structures in filtration barrier serves as a physical barrier?
A. Lamina densa C. Lamina rara externa
B. Lamina rara interna D. Slit pores between the pedicels
D_____93. Which of the following histological feature characterizes the spleen?
A. Lymphatic nodule C. Lymphatic cords
B. Afferent lymphatic vessel D. Periarterial lymphoid sheaths
C_____94. Which of the following cells in fundic gland is acidophilic, with fried egg appearance?
A. Chief cells C. Parietal cells
B. Gastrin cells D. Neuroendocrine cells
A_____95. Which cells lining the hepatic sinusoids synthesize extracellular matrix and Collagen?
A. Ito cells C. Endothelial cells
B. Macrophage D. Stellate cell of von Kuppfer
D_____96.Which of the following cells has a bactericidal action in the small intestine?
A. Goblet cell C. Enteroendocrine cell
B. Enterocyte D. Granule cell of Paneth
A_____ 97. Which organelle in the E/M of the neuron is identified as the Nissl bodies seen in light microscopy?
A. RER C. Microtubule
B. SER D. Golgi complex
D_____98. Which part of the adrenal gland produces the hormone that results in reabsorption of sodium and water at
distal convoluted tubule?
A. Adrenal medulla C. Zona reticularis
B. Zona fasciculata D. Zona glomerulosa
A_____99. Which histological feature characterizes the pars nervosa?
A. Herring bodies C. Acidophils and basophils
B. Chromophobes D. Vesicles containing colloid
B_____100. Which histological feature distinguishes compact bone?
A. Bone cells C. Anastomosing bony trabeculae
B. Interstitial lamella D. Intercommunicating marrow cavities

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