Last Minute First Aid Notes by DR Noor Ul Basar

Last Minute
FIRST AID
Notes
By: Dr. Noor ul Basar
First Aid Notes B y D r. N o o r u l B a s a r
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PREFACE
It gives us immense pleasure to present before you the e-

book version of First Aid tests by Dr Noor ul Basar. All the tests compiled in e-book is indeed a success,
which made many of the FCPS-1 candidates to walk through their preparation with a light heart. A need of
such tests is felt maximum as we approach to our examination, a point of time when we get lost completely
but keep staring at First Aid, BRS, Kaplan, etc with a heavy heart full of fear and anxiety. Such a fear is there
indeed in everyone’s heart, which gave us the spark of compiling all tests together, and this gave birth to
“Last Minute First Aid Notes” by Dr Noor ul Basar.
The candidates of FCPS-1 will see this e-book concise and exam-friendly. This e-book is covering
Biochemistry, Cardiovascular System, Central Nervous System, Embryology, Endocrinology,
Gastroenterology, General Pathology, Haematology, Immunology, Microbiology, Musculoskeletal System,
Pharmacology, Renal System, Reproductive System, Respiratory System and bonus topics on anatomy
Abdomen, Pelvis and Perineum, Thorax, which will make a quick revision for the FCPS-1 examination going
candidates. It will also help them save a lot of time to concentrate on First Aid.
The response of First Aid tests by Dr Noor ul Basar at various facebook groups was the biggest
encouragement for us to present its modified version in e-book. Every organ-system of first aid was
incorporated with fine details with its clinical aspects in the test form by Dr Noor ul Basar. The e-book version
is made with a solo motto of getting every candidate through the first aid organ system. It is the right solution
for all the last minute revisions for every candidate just before the examination.
We would take this opportunity to express our profound gratitude and deep regards to “Dr Noor ul Basar”
and are so much grateful to him for providing all of us the right resources at the right time in FCPS Prep.
Batch 2005-10 facebook group. What a toughest job he had done, truly highly appreciated. Without his hard
work and efforts this would not have been a complete one. Our all dedications goes to “Dr Noor ul Basar”.
And above all without the blessing of ALMIGHTY ALLAH this e-book would not have been a complete one.
During the whole process of making this e-book, we have relied on feedback from candidates and would like
to continue this process so that subsequent editions and modifications can be responsive of reader
preferences. We would appreciate any mistake, comment, or suggestion that the reader might make @our
facebook page www.facebook.com/RoadMapToFCPS.
Regards
Dr MedGuide &
FCPS Guide Team
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TABLE OF CONTENT
S.No Chapter / Topic Page No.
1) First Aid Test – Biochemistry 4
2) First Aid Test – Cardiovascular System 10
3) First Aid Test – Central Nervous System 15
4) First Aid Test – Embryology 22
5) First Aid Test – Endocrinology 32
6) First Aid Test – Gastroenterology 36
7) First Aid Test – General Pathology 41
8) First Aid Test – Haematology 50
9) First Aid Test – Immunology 56
10) First Aid Test – Microbiology 61
11) First Aid Test – Musculoskeletal System 69
12) First Aid Test – Pharmacology 73
13) First Aid Test – Renal System 81
14) First Aid Test – Reproductive System 86
15) First Aid Test – Respiratory System 90
16) Anatomy Test – Abdomen Region 94
17) Anatomy Test – Pelvis & Perineum Region 100
18) Anatomy Test – Thorax Region 106
Tips / Steps for solving MCQs By Dr MedGuide
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# First Aid Test – Biochemistry Key

1) DNA October subunit contain which main amino acids? Lysine and Arginine
2) What inactivates transcription of DNA? Hypermethylation
3) Deamination of cytosine makes? Uracil
4) The only histone that is not on the nucleosome core? H1

Ribonucleotide
5) Hydroxy urea inhibits?
reductase
Glycine, Aspartate and
6) Amino acids necessary for purine synthesis?
Glutamine
HGPRT (Hypoxanthine-
7) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is the absence of? guanine-phosphor-
ribosyl-transferase)
8) Change resulting in early stop codon. Which mutation type? Nonsense mutation
Unwinding of DNA template at replication fork is done by enzyme
9) Helicase
name as?
Hereditary nonpolyposis
10) Mismatch repair is mutated in which disease? colorectal cancer
(HNPCC)
11) Non homologous end joining repair is mutated in disease? Ataxia telengiectasia
12) The smallest RNA is? tRNA
13) Name the stop codons? UGA, UAA, UAG

α-amanitin (found in
14) _________ inhibits RNA polymerase-II?
death cap mushrooms)
15) The longest RNA is? rRNA
16) Name start codon? AUG
17) Patients with lupus make antibodies to? Spliceosomal snRNPs
18) ________ contains actual genetic information coding for protein? Exons
19) Most abundant RNA? rRNA
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20) Rb and P53 inhibits? G1-S
21) Permanent cells remain in which phase of cell cycle? G0
22) Nissl bodies contain? RER

Liver hepatocytes and steroid hormone producing cells if
23) SER
adrenal cortex are rich in?
24) Labile cells never goes to which phase of cell cycle? G0
The distribution centre of protein and lipids from the ER to the
25) Golgi apparatus
plasma is?
26) Long chain fatty acids are metabolized in? Peroxisomes
Retrograde to micro tubule transport is feature of which type of
27) Dynein
micro-tubule?
28) In cilia microtubule arrangement is? Kartagener syndrome
Immotile cilia due to dynein arm defect, is an autosomal Immotile Cilia Syndrome
29)
recessive disease. Syndrome? (ICS)
30) Stain for connective tissue? Vimentin
31) _________ inhibits NA-K pump by binding to K site? Ouabain (glycoside)
32) Skin contain which type of collagen? Type I
33) Type of collagen defective in osteogenesis imperfecta? Type I
34) Hydroxylation of proline and lysine requires? Vitamin C (as cofactor)

Cleavage of terminal regions of procollagen transforms it into
35) Tropocollagen
insoluble?
36) Other name of brittle bone disease? Osteogenesis imperfecta
37) Late wound repair contain which collage? Type I
38) Ehlers Danlos syndrome is defective is which collagen? Type III
39) Fibrillin defect is in which syndrome? Marfan syndrome
Reduced collagen and
40) Wrinkles of aging are due to _________ and _________?
Elastin production
41) Defective collagen in Alport syndrome? Type IV
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42) Neither of 2 alleles is dominant. Term? Codominance

Severity of disease worsens or age of onset of disease is earlier
43) Anticipation
in succeeding generation?
Mitochondrial inherited
44) Heteroplasmy is seen in which inherited disease?
disease
45) Random X inactivation in females is called as? Lyonization
46) Imprinting is due to activation or deletion of genes on? Chromosome no. 15
47) Happy puppet in which syndrome? Angelman's syndrome
48) Structural defect are inherited by which pattern? Autosomal dominant
49) Ragged red fibres are characteristic of? Mitochondrial myopathy
50) Mitochondrial myopathies are? Maternal / Paternal
51) Tendon xanthoma classically seen in? Achilles' tendon
52) Hereditary spherocytosis are due to defect in? Spectrin and Ankyrin
Chromosome no. 4
53) Huntington gene is located on which chromosome?
(short (p) arm)
Von Recklinghausen’s
54) Another name of neurofibromatosis type 1? disease (chromosome
17)
55) Ash leaf spots are seen in? Tuberous sclerosis
56) APKD is associated with which chromosome? Chromosome no. 16
57) Grower maneuver is characteristic of? Duchenne's dystrophy
58) Longest known human gene? Dystrophin gene

59) In cystic fibrosis which gene is defective? CFTR gene
60) Test diagnostic for cystic fibrosis is? Sweat test
61) 2nd most common cause of mental retardation? Fragile X chromosome
62) Trinucleotide repeat in Friedreich ataxia? (CAA)n
63) Rocker bottom feet + micrognathia are seen in which? Edwards syndrome
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64) Most common chromosomal disorder? Down syndrome

Most common trisomy resulting in live birth after Down
65) Edward syndrome
syndrome?
66) Patau syndrome is trisomy number? chromosome 13 (3 copy)
Cri-du-chat syndrome is congenital micro deletion of
67) Chromosome no. 5
chromosome?
68) Distinctive ELFIN facies are seen in which syndrome? Williams syndrome
Thymic, Parathyroid and
69) DiGeorge syndrome is has defects of?
Cardiac
70) Which vitamin is contraindicated in pregnancy? Vitamin A
71) High cardiac output is feature of which vit deficiency? Vitamin B1

Dementia, Dermatitis
72) Name 3 D's of pellagra?
and Diarrhea
73) Vitamin used as cofactor on transamination? Vitamin B6
74) Test used to detect the etiology of the deficiency? Schilling test
75) Vitamin that can increase iron toxicity? Vitamin C

Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism, decrease adult hair and
76) Zinc
anosmia are features of which element deficiency?
77) Cofactor for enzymes in decarboxylation reaction? Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
78) Malignant carcinoid syndrome caused b deficiency of vitamin? Vitamin B3
79) Vitamin necessary for dopamine beta-hydroxylase? Vitamin C

80) Fomepizole inhibits? Alcohol dehydrogenase
81) Alcohol dehydrogenase operates via which order kinetics? Zero order
Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces _________ ATP via
82) 32ATP
malate aspartate shuttle?
83) NAD+ is used in _________ reactions? Anabolic / Catabolic
84) Phosphorylation of glucose in liver is catalyzed by? Glucokinase
85) Lipoic acid is inhibited by? Arsenic
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86) Name the only purely ketogenic amino acids? Lysine and Leucine
87) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency causes which defects? Neurologic defects

Pyruvate metabolite _________ carries amino groups to liver from
88) Alanine
muscle?
ATP synthase inhibitors that directly inhibit mitochondrial ATP
89) Oligomycin
synthase?
90) _________ chain fatty acids produce new glucose? Odd
91) Muscle cannot participate in gluconeogenesis because it lacks? Glucose-6-phosphatase
92) NADPH required for which reactions? Reductive

Chronic granulomatous
93) NADPH oxidase deficiency leads to which disease?
disease
94) Most common human enzyme deficiency? G6PD deficiency
95) Fructose intolerance is due to hereditary deficiency of enzyme? Aldolase B

Lens deficient in which enzyme that causes sorbitol
96) Sorbitol dehydrogenase
accumulation?
97) Which form of amino acid found in protein? L-form
98) Most basic amino acid? Arginine
99) At body pH which amino acid has no charge? Histidine
100) Which amino acids are required during periods of growth? Arginine and Histidine
101) Catecholamines are derivative of which amino acid? Phenylalanine
102) Heme derivative of which amino acid? Glycine
Phenylalanine
103) Musty body odor is due to which deficiency?
hydroxylase
Homogentisic acid
104) Alkaptonuria is congenital deficiency of?
oxidase
105) Amino acids involved in maple syrup urine disease? Ile, Leu, Val
Cardiomegaly is finding of which glycogen storage disease type-
106) Pompe's disease
II?
107) The enzyme deficient in Von-Gierke's disease is? Glucose-6-phophatase
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108) Most common lysosomal storage disease? Gaucher
109) Cherry red spot with no Splenomegaly? Tay Sachs disease

Fabry's disease (XR) &
110) All lysosomal storage disease are AR EXCEPT?
Hunter disease (XR)
111) Zebra bodies are seen in? Niemann-pick disease
112) Fruity odor smell is due to which ketone body? Acetone

Glycogen stores are depleted after how many days of
113) Day 1
starvation?
Main source of energy after 3 days starvation for brain and heart
114) Ketone bodies
is?
115) Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is? HMG-CoA reductase
116) Why RBC cannot use ketone? Lack of mitochondria
117) LDL transport cholesterol from _________ to _________? Liver to Tissues
118) Chylomicrons are secreted by? Intestinal epithelial cells
119) Abeta-lipoproteinemia os due to deficiency of? Apo B100 and Apo B48
120) Treatment of cystinuria is? Acetazolamide

Tryptophan ➔ Serotonin
121) Melatonin is derivative of which amino acid?
➔ Melatonin
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# First Aid Test – Cardiovascular System Key

1) Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in? LAD
2) Cardiac output = _________ ? HR x CO

Contractility, Preload,
3) Stroke Volume affected by? Name three parameters?
Afterload
4) Most posterior part of heart? Left atrium
5) Vasodilators decrease what Preload / Afterload? Afterload
6) EF is the index of? Ventricular contractility
7) Viscosity depends mostly on? Hematocrit
8) Fixed splitting is seen in? ASD

9) S4 is in what? Mid diastole / Late/ Early? Late
10) Period of highest oxygen consumption? Isovolumetric contraction
Period between aortic valve closing and opening of mitral
11) Isovolumetric relaxation
valve?
Expiration increases intensity of which side of heart sounds?
12) Left
Left / Right?
13) Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area? Mitral area
14) Myxomatous degeneration causes which valvular lesion? MVP
15) Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to? Ca influx
16) Rapid repolarization caused by? Massive K efflux
17) Pacemaker action potential occurs in? SA AV node
Ventricular
18) QRS complex shows?
depolarization
Allows time for
19) AV nodal delay is useful because?
ventricular filling
20) Lyme disease causes which heart block? 3rd degree
21) Sawtooth appearance? Atrial flutter
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22) Hypertension, Bradycardia and Respiratory depression? Cushing triad

Increases BP only -----
23) Aortic arch responds? And transmits via?
Vagus nerve
24) Highest blood flow per gram of tissue? Kidney
25) Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause? Vasoconstriction
26) Autoregulation in brain caused by? CO2 (pH)

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of
27) Left atrial pressure
which pressure?
28) Boot shape heart? TOF
Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital
29) Turner syndrome
syn?
30) Drug to close PDA? Indomethacin
Transposition of great
31) Infant of diabetic mother ➔ Congenital defect?
vessels
32) Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in? Malignant hypertension
33) Most common site of atherosclerosis? Abdominal aorta
34) Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with? Hypertension
35) Common cause of sudden death first few hours after MI? Arrhythmia
36) Marker for reinfarction? Ck-MB
37) V1-V2 ➔ infarction location? Anteroseptal

38) Autoimmune pericarditis after MI? Dressler syndrome
39) Sudden death in young athlete? HOCM
Alcohol abuse, Beriberi,
Cocaine use, Chagas
40) Etiology of dilated cardiomyopathy?
disease, Doxorubicin,
Hemochromatosis
41) Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI? ECG
42) Isolated right heart failure is due to? Cor-Pulmonale
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43) Heart failure cells? LHF / RHF? LHF
44) IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved? Tricuspid
45) Colon cancer having IE? Organism? Streptococcus bovis
46) In rheumatic fever early death die to? Myocarditis
47) RF which type of hypersensitivity? Type II
48) Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart? Left atrium
49) Early lesion in rheumatic fever? MVP
50) Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children? Rhabdomyosarcoma
51) Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis? Churg Strauss syndrome
52) Pulseless disease? Takayasu arteritis

Buerger disease
53) Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers? (Thromboangiitis
obliterans)
Chloride, Thorium
54) Angiosarcoma associated with?
Dioxide and Arsenic
55) Benign painful, red blue tumor under finger Nails? Glomus tumor
56) Vitamin causing hyperglycemia? Niacin

Quinidine, Sotalol and
57) Torsade de pointes caused by drugs? Name 2?
Ibutilide
58) Adenosine action time? 15 secs
Inhibition Na-K ATPase &
59) Name 2 important function of digoxin?
Vagus nerve stimulation
60) Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesterol? Statins
61) Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart? Left atrium
62) In JVP, a wave shows? Atrial contraction
63) Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level? <60 mmHg
3-7 days (in Goljan)
64) Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI? 2/3-7/10/14?
5-10 days in (First Aid)
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In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which

65) M protein
protein?
66) Patient having prosthetic valve having IE? Agent? Strep epidermidis
67) Cardiac cirrhosis caused by? RHF/LHF? RHF
68) Tree bark appearance? Syphilitic heart disease
69) Most common heart tumors? Metastases
70) Print metal angina? St elevation / depression? ST elevation

Dicrotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which
71) S2 heart sound (2nd)
heart sound?
72) Structure with richest blood supply? Carotid body
73) Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart? Right ventricle

All part of ventricles are
74) At J point of ECG what happens?
depolarized
75) Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is? Free fatty acids
Myocardial infarction that damages the anterior interventricular Left anterior descending
76)
septum & apex. Which artery is occluded? artery
77) Which parameter does the viscosity depends upon? Hematocrit
During physical examination what diagnostic sign might be Elevated jugular venous
78)
observed in the neck of a patient with right heart failure? pressure
79) Which murmur is often cause by age related calcification? Aortic stenosis
Pulses are weak, and the strongest part of the peripheral pulse
occurs late after the S1 is heard; this is because it takes a long
80) Pulsus Parvus Tardus
time for blood to cross the stenotic aortic valve to fill the
vessels. This is called as?
Ventricular fibrillation
81) What are the most dangerous sequelae or torsade de pointes?
and death
Patient with Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome have higher risk Supra ventricular
82)
of which type of arrhythmia? tachycardia
An ECG shows no identifiable waves. What is the most likely
83) Ventricular fibrillation
diagnosis?
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How does neonates with tricuspid atresia remain viable given Both ASD and VSD
84)
with severely compromised circulation? required
Six days after having myocardial infarction a patient presents
Holosystolic murmur of
85) with a new onset murmur , which type of murmur is this most
mitral regurgitation
likely?
Quinine causes symptoms of headache and tinnitus, which
86) Cinchonism
collectively called?
Hyperglycemia 2ndary to
87) Adverse effect of diazoxide?
insulin release
88) Name the potentially fatal adverse effect of Ibutilide? Torsade de pointes
Which ion is infused to treat torsade de pointed and digoxin
89) Magnesium
toxicity?
Flushing, Hypotension
90) Name three toxicities of antiarrhythmic drug adenosine?
and Chest pain
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# First Aid Test – Central Nervous System Key

1) Astrocyte marker? GFAP
2) Micro glia origin? Mesoderm
3) Free nerve endings sense? Pain and temperature
4) Invests single nerve fibre? Endoneurium
5) Norepinephrine _________ location of synthesis? Locus Coeruleus
6) Circadian rhythm nucleus? Suprachiasmatic nucleus

Trigeminal and gustatory pathway relay by which thalamic
7) VPL
nucleus?
8) Destruction of which centre causes hyperphagia? Ventromedial
9) Input nerves in cerebellum? Climbing & Mossy fibres

Dentate, Emboliform,
10) Name deep nuclei of cerebellum? Lateral to medial
Globose, Fastigii
11) Dorsal Striatum? Putamen + Caudate
12) Direct pathway has ? D1/D2 D1
13) Cogwheel rigidity seen in? Parkinson’s disease
14) Chorea is characteristic of? Basal ganglia
15) Essential tremors are treated by? B- blockers
16) Hemiballismus characteristic of which lesion? Sub thalamus

Amygdaloid nucleus →
Hyperorality,
17) Klüver-Bucy syndrome? Area of lesion and features?
Hyperphagia &
Hypersexuality
Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome involves which thalamic
18) Dorso-medial nucleus
nucleus?
19) Frontal eyes field lesion?? Eyes look toward / away? Towards lesion
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Central Pontine
Acute paralysis, dysarthria, Diplopia, and loss of Myelinolysis _______ due
20)
consciousness? Disease and common cause? to very rapid correction
of hyponatremia
21) Non fluent aphasia with intact comprehension? Area involved Broca’s area
22) _________ connects Broca with Wernicke areas? Arcuate Fasciculus
23) Cerebral perfusion is normally driven by? PCO2

Posterior communicating
24) Common site of berry aneurysm with CN-III palsy?
artery
Contralateral hemiparesis, decrease contralateral
25) Anterior spinal artery
proprioception and ipsilateral hypoglossal dysfunction? Cause
26) Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms associated with? Chronic HTN
CT shows bi convex disk not crossing suture line? What
27) Epidural hemorrhage
hemorrhage is this?
Intraparenchymal
28) Hemorrhage most commonly caused by systemic HTN?
hemorrhage
In ischemic brain disease? Irreversible damage occurs after
29) > 5 minutes
how much time?
Brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction lasting fewer
30) Transient ischemic attack
than 24 hours?
Choroid plexus _________
31) CSF is made by _________ ? And reabsorbed by _________ ?
Arachnoid granulation
Dementia, Ataxia and
32) Clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Urinary incontinence
33) Nerves C1-C7 exist via? Intervertebral foramina
34) Subarachnoid space extends to? Lower border of S2

Cell body in the dorsal
35) 1st order neuron of spinothalamic tract are in?
root ganglion
36) Dorsal column decussates in? Medulla
Anterior horn of spinal
37) Poliomyelitis cause destruction of what part on spinal cord?
cord
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38) Floppy baby at Birth? Disease? Werdnig Hoffman disease

Riluzole (blocks
39) Treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
glutamatergic)
Ipsilateral UMN sign below lesion, ipsilateral loss of tactile,
Brown Sequard
40) vibration below lesion and contralateral pain temperature loss
syndrome
below lesion? Disease
41) Dermatome at nipple? T4
Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is
42) Rooting reflex
stroked? Name reflex
43) Inferior colliculus is associated with? Auditory
44) Pineal gland secretes? Melatonin

Eye movement, pupillary constriction and accommodation is
45) CN-III
function of which CN?
46) Cranial nerve nuclei located in which portion of brain? Tegmentum
Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus?
47) Nucleus ambiguous
Nucleus involves?
48) Foramen ovale contains which nerve? Mandibular nerve
49) Hearing and balance controlled by which nerve? CN-VIII
50) Structure passing through jugular foramen? CN-IX,X,XI & Jugular vein
Ophthalmoplegia,
51) Cavernous sinus syndrome? Feature? Ophthalmic and Maxillary
sensory loss
52) CNX lesion? Uvula deviates _________ from side of lesion? Away
53) Bell's palsy involve which nerve? Facial nerve proper

Masseter, Temporalis and
54) 3 muscles closes jaw. Name them?
Medial Pterygoid
55) Epinephrine contraindicated in which glaucoma? Close Angle Glaucoma
56) Patient problem going downstairs? Nerve injured? CN-IV
57) Silent painless glaucoma? Open angle glaucoma
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Left homonymous
58) Right optic tract lesion causes?
hemianopia
59) Alzheimer's disease most commonly associated with? Down syndrome
60) Parkinsonism with dementia? Lewy body dementia

Scanning speech,
61) Charcot’s classic triad of Multiple Sclerosis? Intentional termites,
Nystagmus
62) Gold standard investigation for MS? MRI
63) In GBS what step is most critical for treatment and survival? Respiratory support
Metachromatic leukodystrophy is commonly due to which Arylsulfatase A (ARSA)
64)
deficiency? deficiency
65) Drug of choice for absence seizures? Ethosuximide
66) Partial seizures most commonly originate due to which lobe? Medial temporal lobe
67) Headache most commonly due to irritation of? Dura matter
68) Worst headache of my life? SAH
69) Port wine stains are seen in? Sturge weber syndrome
NF1 (Von Recklinghausen
70) Cafaeau lait spots and Lisch nodules seen in which disease?
disease)
Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to defect in which
71) Chromosome 3
chromosome?
Majority of childhood primary tumors are? Supra / Infra
72) Infra tentorial
tentorial?
73) Fried eggs seen in which brain tumor? Oligodendrocyte
74) Psammoma bodies seen in which brain tumor? Meningioma
75) Basal ciliary bodies seen in? Ependymoma

76) Herniation can compress which cerebral artery? Anterior cerebral artery
77) Most common cause of ring enhancing lesion? Mutation
78) Browning of iris is side effect of which drug? Latanoprost
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79) Opioid toxicity is treated with? Naloxone naltrexone
80) Maintenance programme for opioid addicts done by? Methadone
81) 1st line drug for trigeminal neuralgia? Carbamazepine
82) 1st line drug for eclampsia? MgSO4
83) Gingival hyperplasia side effect of which epileptic drug? Phenytoin
84) Barbiturates facilitate GABA A action by? Inc duration of Cl channel
85) Benzodiazepine toxicity treated by? Flumazenil
86) Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic? Halothane
87) Most common drug used for endoscopy? Midazolam
88) Drug used for rapid anesthesia induction & short procedures? Propofol
89) Local anesthetic causing severe cardiovascular toxicity? Bupivacaine
90) Drug used in malignant hyperthermia? Dantrolene
91) Parkinson disease is due to loss of ----neurons? Dopaminergic neuron
92) Anti-parkinson drug also used against influenza A? Amantadine
93) Selegiline selectively inhibits? MAO-B
94) Sumatriptan contraindicated with? CAD / Prinzmetal’s angina
95) Haloperidol is antagonist of which receptor? Dopamine receptor
96) Cough suppressor opioid? Dextromethorphan
97) Brain tumor causing polycythemia? Hemangioblastoma
98) Most common childhood supratentorial tumor? Craniopharyngioma
99) 3rd most common primary brain tumor in adult? Schwannoma

100) Butterfly glioma seen in? Glioblastoma multiforme
101) Muscle which opens the jaw? Lateral pterygoid
102) What is the test used for CN XI injury? Syringomyelia
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Contralateral paralysis of lower face only? Which type of lesion

103) UMN lesion
is it?
104) Nissl substance are not present in? Axon
Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by
105) CN-IX
which nerve?
106) Parinaud syndrome causes paralysis of which gaze? Conjugate vertical gaze
107) Patellar reflex root value? L3-L4
108) Fredreich’s ataxia has repeat disorder of which gene? GAA (Frataxin{FXN}gene)
109) Tabes-dorsalis is consequence of? Tertiary syphilis

Ant white commissure of
110) In syringomyelia what is damaged?
spinothalamic tract
111) Adult spinal cord extends upto? Lower border of L2
112) Lateral ventricles connects with 3 ventricle through? Foramina Monro

HTN, Anti-coagulation
113) Hemorrhagic stroke is often due to?
and Cancer
114) Shaken baby can lead to which intracranial hemorrhage? Sub-dural hemorrhage
115) Sub arachnoid hemorrhage treated with? Nimodipine
116) Nucleus ambiguous effects are specific to which artery stroke? PICA
117) Wernicke’s area is in which gyrus? Sup temporal gyrus
118) Slow writhing movements specially of fingers? Athetosis
119) Lewy bodies composed of? Alpha-synuclein

120) Neurohypophysis secretes? ADH + Oxytocin
121) ACh location of synthesis? Basal nuclei of meynert
122) Pacinian corpuscles senses? Vibration and Pressure
123) Glossopharyngeal nerve motor supply to which muscle? Stylopharyngeus
124) Pseudoptosis seen in which nerve injury? Abducent
125) Hypoglossal nerve supply all muscle of tongue EXCEPT? Palatoglossus
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Dorsal spinocerebellar
126) Clarke nucleus are found in which spinal cord tract?
tract
127) Largest nucleus of midbrain? Substantia nigra
128) Excitatory transmitter in cerebellum? Glutamate
129) Pupillary light reflex centre? Pretectal nucleus
130) Most common cns complication after sarcoidosis? Facial nerve paralysis
131) Nucleus interposed name of which nuclei? Globos and emboliform
132) In Wilson disease , which part of basal ganglion is suffered? Putamen
133) Marcus Gunn Pupil diagnosis made by? Swinging flash

Searching → Frontal Eye
Field
134) Searching movements involved which eye field?
Tracking → Occipital Eye
Field
135) Which thalamic nuclei are involved in arousal? Midline/ intralaminar
Pineal body and
136) Epithalamus consist of?
habenular nuclei
Melatonin, Serotonin and
137) Pinealocytes synthesizes? Name 3 substance CCK
(Ref: Kaplan 453)
138) Cells of betz are present in which cortex? Primary motor cortex
139) Lesion of prefrontal lobe produces which syndrome? Frontal lobe syndrome
140) Hippocampus is characterized by how many layers? 3 layers
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# First Aid Test – Embryology Key

1) Gametes are descendent of? Primordial germ cells
2) All primary oocytes are formed in which month of fetal life? 5th month of fetal life
3) Primary oocyte remain dormant in which phase? Prophase I
4) Secondary oocytes is arrested in which phase? Metaphase II
5) Granulosa cells secrete? Estrogen

Progesterone stimulates the endometrium of the
6) Secretory
uterus to enter which phase?
7) Primordial germ cells derived from? Wall of yolk sac
Which cells supply as the stem cell in male
8) Type A spermatogonia
throughout reproductive life?
Newly ejaculated sperms are incapable of fertilization until they
9) Capacitation
undergo?
10) Advanced maternal age is risk factor for? Down syndrome
Normally _________ percent of sperms in an ejaculate are
11) 10%
grossly deformed?
12) Genetic disorder characterized by hypogonadism & anosmia? Kallmann syndrome
13) Anovulation is often treated with? Clomiphene Citrate
14) If a girl never begins menstruation the condition is called? Primary ovarian failure
The reaction which occurs when the sperm binds to the zona
15) Acrosome reaction
pellucida of the secondary oocyte is?
16) Sperm produces ATP from? Fructose
17) Blastomeres are totipotent upto which cell stage? 8 cell stage
_________ refers to a stem cell that can differentiate into

18) Pluripotency
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm?
19) Blastocyst implants which part of uterine wall? Posterior superior wall
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Cytotrophoblast and
20) Trophoblast differentiate into?
Syncytiotrophoblast
21) Most common site of ectopic pregnancy? Ampulla
22) Bilaminar embryonic disk is? Epiblast and hypoblast
23) The syncytiotrophoblast secretes? HCG
24) HCG can be assayed on _________ day in maternal urine? 10 day

Left / right axis determination begins with the asymmetric
25) Sonic hedgehog protein
activity of?
Paraxial, Intermediate
26) Mesoderm further give rise into?
and Lateral mesoderm
27) The intermediate mesoderm forms which system? Urogenital system
28) Sclerotic me of somite forms? Axial cartilage and bone
29) Dura matter is derivative of which germ layer? Mesoderm
30) Adrenal Cortex derivative of which germ cell layer? Mesoderm
31) Chondroma is a tumor arise from remnants of? Notochord

Placenta attached to the lower part of uterus covering internal
32) Placenta previa
os?
33) Classic cause of first trimester bleeding? Ectopic pregnancy
Human Placental
34) Growth hormone of the fetus?
Lactogen
35) Hoffbauer cells are macrophage like cells found in? Placental membrane
Syncytiotrophoblast and
36) In late pregnancy placental membrane is formed by? the fetal capillary
endothelium *** (imp)
37) The near-term fetus excrete about _________ of urine daily? 500mL
38) Potter syndrome lead to which amniotic fluid condition? Oligohydramnios
39) Name the fetal albumin produced by fetal hepatocytes? a-fetoprotein
40) Mucus connective tissue of umbilical cord is also called? Wharton's jelly
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41) A light gray shines sac indicates? Omphalocele

Vasculogenesis occurs first within extra embryonic visceral
42) 17th day
mesoderm around yolk sac on day?
43) Hematopoiesis is taken over by liver at which week? Beginning of 5th week
44) Hemoglobin a2r2 is called? Fetal hemoglobin
45) Hydroxy urea promotes which hemoglobin? HBF

Highly oxygenated blood in fetal circulation is carried by which
46) Left umbilical vein
vessel?
47) Ligamentum venosus is the remnant of? Ductus venosus
48) Pericardial cavity is formed by which mesoderm? Lateral plate mesoderm

Smooth part of right and
49) Adult structure of bulbus cordis?
left ventricle
50) Aorticopulmonary septum is derivative of? Neural crest cells
Abnormal neural crest cell migration such that there is non- Transposition of great
51)
spiral development of AP septum lead to? arteries
52) Rib notching on X-ray is feature of? Post ductal coarctation
53) Stapedial artery is derived from which aortic arch? 2nd aortic arch
Celiac, Sup mesenteric
54) Adult structure if Vitelline arteries?
and Inferior mesenteric
55) Which cardinal vein is not involved in forming IVC? Anterior cardinal vein
56) Primitive stomach is formed in which week ? 4th week

Primitive stomach rotates _________ % clockwise around its
57) 90
longitudinal axis?
Which layer of pyloric region hypertrophies in hypertrophic
58) Mucularis externa
pyloric stenosis?
59) Uncinate process is formed by which bud? Ventral
60) Double bubble sign is indicative of? Annular pancreas
Sup mesenteric
61) Midgut derivative are supplied by?
artery
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62) Physiological umbilical herniation is seen in which week? Beginning of 6th week
63) Midgut loops around _________ counterclockwise? 270

The urorectal septum fuses with the cloacal membrane at the
64) Perineal body
future site of the anatomical ?
65) Lower anal canal derived from? Proctodeum
66) Junction between upper and lower anal canal is indicated by? Pectinate line
67) Ureteric bud is an outgrowth of? Mesonephric Duct
68) Fetal metanephros is located at vertebral level of? S1-S2

Urachus or Median
69) Allantois becomes fibrous cord called? umbilical ligament in
adult
Ureteropelvic junction
70) Most common cause of congenital obstruction of urinary tract?
obstruction
71) Most common renal malignancy of childhood? Wilms tumor
Left renal vein is compressed between superior mesenteric
72) Nutcracker syndrome
artery and abdominal aorta?
By which week male and female characteristic of the external
73) By week 12
genitalia can be recognized?
74) Phenotype sexual differentiation is determined by which gene? SRY gene
75) SRY gene encodes for protein called? Testes determining factor
Vestigial remnants of the mesonephric duct may be found in the
76) Appendix vesiculosa
adult female called?
77) The Phallus forms the? Clitoris
78) Urogenital folds forms the? Labia minors
79) Testosterone is secreted by which cells? Leydig cells

80) Vestigial remnant of paramesonephric duct is? Appendix testes
81) The labioscrotal swelling form the? Scrotum
82) Respiratory diverticulum is formed in which week? 4th week
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83) Terminal sac period is the period between? 24-birth
84) Pseudo glandular period is the period? 7-16 weeks
85) The site of the thyroglossal duct is indicated in adult by? Foramen cecum
86) Ultimobranchial body is derivative of which pouch? 4th pouch
87) Muscle of facial expression derived by? 2nd pharyngeal arch
88) No taste bud is present in which part if tongue? Filiform papillae
89) All muscle motor supply is by XII cranial nerve EXCEPT? Palatoglossus (CN X)
90) Pharyngeal cyst occurs when _________ persist? Pharyngeal groove2-4
91) Most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue? Sublingual
92) Cleft palate is which type of genetic disorder? Multifactorial

Anatomic landmark that distinguishes an anterior cleft palate
93) Incisive foramen
from posterior cleft palate is?
3rd and 4th pharyngeal
94) DiGeorge syndrome occurs due to defect in?
pouches
95) Remnant of notochord is? Nucleus pulposus
96) Anterior neuro pore closes on? Day 25
97) Posterior neuro pore closes on? Day 27
98) The lumen of neural tube for rise to? Ventricular system
Prosencephalon,
99) Name 3 primary brain vesicles? mesencephalon and
rhombencephalon
100) At birth the conus mudullaris extend to the level of? L3
101) Myelination of the corticospinal tract is not completed until? The end of 2 years
102) Remnants of ratkhe pouch may give rise to a? Craniopharyngioma

Arnold Chiari malformation occurs when the caudal vermis and
103) tonsils of cerebellum and medulla herniated through which Foramen magnum
foramen?
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104) Utricle responds to which acceleration? Linear acceleration
105) Semicircular ducts responds to? Angular acceleration
106) Stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch? Pharyngeal arch 2
107) Eye development begins at day? 22nd day
108) The choroid fissure closes during week? 7th week

The extra ocular muscle develops from Mesoderm of which
109) Somitomeres 1, 2 and 3
somitomeres?
110) Anophthalmia is? Absence of the eye
111) HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week? 6th week
112) Growth hormone of later half of pregnancy? hPL

_________ used by the fetal testes as a precursor of testosterone
113) Progesterone
synthesis?
114) The most potent estrogen is? Estradiol
115) Amniocentesis is preferred in which weeks? 14-18 weeks
116) Quickening in a woman first pregnancy in which weeks? 18-20 weeks
117) At week 20 uterine fundus is palpable at the? Umbilicus
118) Surfactants are produced in which weeks? 25-27
119) Normal baseline fetal heart rate is? 120-160 beats per minute
120) Maximum susceptible period of teratogenicity is? 3-8weeks
121) The most common of CMV fetal infection is? Sensoneural deafness
122) Teratogenicity of thalidomide is? Limb defect
123) Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by? Phenytoin
124) Aminoglycoside causes which toxicity? CN-VIII
Appendages in wrong position is due to mutation in which
125) Hox gene
gene?
126) Heart begins to beat in which week? 4th week
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127) Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue? Agenesis
128) Incomplete organ development? Hypoplasia

Vaginal clear cell
129) Effect of diethylstilbestrol on fetus?
adenocarcinoma
130) Caudal regression syndrome caused by? Maternal diabetes
131) High risk of spontaneous abortion is side effect of? Vitamin A excess
132) Decidua basalis is derived from? Endometrium
133) Obliteration of Vitelline duct is in which week? 7th week
134) Yolk sac erythropoiesis is in which weeks? 3-8 weeks
135) Ductus arteriosus contain which blood? Deoxygenated

Meninges and spinal cord herniated through spinal cord defect
136) Meningomyelocele
is called?
137) Dec separation of hemispheres across Midline leads to? Holoprosencephaly
138) Most common site of syringomyelia? C8-T1
139) PDA is derivative of which aortic arch? 6th aortic arch
140) Arches are derived from which germ layer? Mesoderm
141) Styloid process is derivative of which branchial arch? 2nd branchial arch
142) CN IX supplies which muscle? Stylopharyngeus
143) All intrinsic muscles of larynx are derivative of 6th arch EXCEPT? Cricothyroid (4th arch)
144) Thymus is derivative of which pouch? 3rd pouch
145) Superior parathyroid derivative of which pouch? 4th (inferior 3rd pouch)
146) Posterior 1/3rd of tongue is formed by? 3rd and 4th arch
147) Name cranial nerves involving in taste sensation? CN VII, IX, X
148) Muscle of tongue are derived from? Occipital myotomes
149) Normal remnant of thyroglossal duct? Foramen cecum
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150) Failure of fusion of the maxillary & medial nasal process results? Cleft lip
151) Midgut returns to abdominal cavity in _________ week? 10th week
152) Spleen is _________ in origin? Mesodermal
153) Bicornuate uterus result due to incomplete fusion of? Paramesonephric duct
Failure of urethral folds
154) Hypospadiasis is due to _________ ?
to close
Faulty positioning of
155) Epispadiasis is due to _________ ?
genital tubercle
Absence of pleuro-
156) Diaphragmatic hernia is due to?
peritoneal membrane
157) Vertebra is derived from? Sclerotome
158) Somite’s are derived of which mesoderm? Paraxial mesoderm
159) Left umbilical vein will regress to? Ligamentum Teres

Crown rump length at 8
160) Gestational age is estimated from?
weeks
161) Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral is called? Sacralization
Mesoderm,
162) Structure of secondary villus include? cytotrophoblast &
syncytium
163) Amputated leg is the result of? Amniotic bands
1st and 2nd endodermal
164) Auditory tube is formed by?
pouch
165) Thyroid is derived from? Endoderm
166) Four chambers of heart are formed by? Endo cardinal cushions
167) Strongest layer of small intestine is? Submucosa

Peritubular interstitium of
168) Erythropoietin are secreted by?
kidney
169) Which protein maintain red cell shape? Spectrin
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170) Which is not major basic tissues? Blood
171) Ovary epithelium is? Simple cuboidal
172) Which structure has 3 layers of muscles? Stomach
173) PDFG is secreted by which part of platelets? Alpha granules
174) Which cells produce antibodies? Plasma cells
175) Most abundant phagocytes in circulation? Neutrophils
176) Submucosal glands are present in? Duodenum
177) Nissl bodies are? RER
178) Most mucinous acini gland is? Sublingual glands
179) Calcium releases in muscle from? Sarcoplasmic reticulum
180) In Which state maximum HB produces occurs? Pro erythrocyte
181) Average life of GI epithelium? 2-7 days
182) Basophilia of cell is due to? RER

Which cell release extra cellular fibres and amorphous
183) Fibroblast
substance?
184) Neurons in olfactory tract are? Bipolar
185) Heparin is released by which cells? Mast cells
186) Microtubule are part of? Centrioles
187) Micro filament composed of? Actin
188) _________ capsule covers the liver? Glisson
189) Signet ring appearance seen in? Adipocyte
190) Osteoclast are present in? Howships lacunae
191) Structural unit of bone? Haversian system
192) Myelin has _________ percent of protein? 20%
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193) Blood group antigen are? Carbohydrate
194) Hassel corpuscles feature of? Thymus
195) Hypertrophied pharyngeal tonsil? Adenoid
196) Bruner gland are present in submucosa of? Duodenum
197) Thickest zone of adrenal cortex? Zona fasciculata
198) Which coat is thickest in large veins? Adventitia
199) Ovarian follicles are present in? Cortex of ovary
200) Eosinophils play role in? Parasitic infections
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# First Aid Test – Endocrinology Key

1) Adrenal cortex derived from? Mesoderm
Fetal adrenal gland consist of two zones. Outer _________ zone
2) Adult & Active fetal
and _________ inner zone.
3) Islet of Langerhans most common in which area of pancreas? Tail of Pancreas
4) Rathke pouch → Ectodermal / Endodermal? Ectodermal
5) Brains use _________ in starvation? Ketone bodies
6) TRH stimulate? Name 2? TSH, Prolactin
7) Right adrenal vein drain in _________? Inferior Vena Cava
8) Which is present in brain? Glut 1
9) Insulin cross placenta? True / False ? False
10) Dopamine _________ practin? Stimulate / Inhibit? Inhibit

Hypoglycemia, Exercise,
11) Growth hormone stimulated by? Name 3
Sleep
12) Which zone of adrenal gland is source of cortisol? Fasciculata
What will increase in 21 hydroxylase deficiency?
13) Sex hormones
Mineralocorticoids/ Cortisol / Sex hormones?
14) PTH initially increase activity of? Osteoblast / Osteoclast? Osteoblasts
15) Vitamin D deficiency causes _____ in adults & _____ in children? Osteomalacia & Rickets
Para follicular cell of
16) Calcitonin is secreted by?
thyroid (C cells)
17) Signaling pathway of insulin? Intrinsic Tyrosine kinase
18) Thyroid binding capacity in pregnancy? Increases / Decreases? Increases

Peroxidase and 5
19) Propylthiouracil inhibit _________ and _________?
deiodinase
20) Primary cause of Cushing syndrome? Exogenous steroids
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21) Cushing disease? Increase ACTH / Decrease ACTH? Increase ACTH
22) Carcinoid tumor derived from? Neuroendocrine cell of GI
23) Common sites for Zollinger Ellison syndrome? Pancreas & Duodenum
24) DKA most important complication of? Type-1 DM
25) HLA associated with? Type-1 DM / Type-2 DM Type-1 DM
26) Cataract cause in DM? Sorbitol accumulation
27) Marker of carcinoid syndrome? 5HIAA
28) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus...causes? Lithium, Demeclocycline

Demeclocycline and
29) Treatment of SIADH??
restrict water
Chvostek and Trousseaus
30) Name two signs seen in hypocalcemia?
sign
31) Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism? Adenoma
32) Hashimoto thyroiditis associated with which malignancy? B cell lymphoma
33) Orphan Annie nuclei seen in? Papillary carcinoma

De quarin
34) Name thyroiditis with granulomatous inflammation?
(Subacute Thyroiditis)
35) Pheochromocytoma? VMA / HVA? VMA
36) Inc TSH, dec T4, dec free T4, Dec T3 uptake? Diagnosis? Hypothyroidism
Acute 1 adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage
37) Neisseria meningitidis
associated with which microbe?
No skin pigmentation seen in? Primary / Secondary Adrenal
38) Secondary insufficiency
insufficiency?
Symptoms of pheochromocytoma occurs in? Spells /
39) Spells
Continuous?
40) Which is teratogenic? Propylthiouracil / Methimazole? Methimazole
_________ containing hormone control body metabolic rate?
41) Iodine
Iron, Cu, Iodine, Calcium?
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High plasma renin associated with? Primary / Secondary Secondary

42)
hyperaldosteronism? hyperaldosteronism
43) Calcitonin? Increases / Decreases calcium level? Decreases calcium level
44) Glucagon made by _________ cell of pancreas? Alpha cells
45) RBCs depend only on glucose? True / False? True
46) Posterior pituitary secretes? ADH and Oxytocin
47) Medulla originated from? Neural crest cells

Right sided valvular
48) Carcinoid causes? Right / Left sided valvular disease?
disease
Parathyroid tumor, Pituitary tumor, Pancreatic endocrine
49) Wermer syndrome triad
tumor?
50) Post-partum bleeding leads to which syndrome? Sheehan syndrome
_________ presents as an anterior midline neck mass that moves
51) Thyroglossal duct cyst
with swallowing or protrusion of the tongue ?
52) Most common ectopic thyroid tissue site is? Tongue
Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults which causes
53) Pheochromocytoma
episodic hypertension?
Neuro-ectoderm _______
54) Posterior pituitary derived from _________ and secretes_______?
secretes ADH & Oxytocin
55) Spermatocyte contains which insulin transporters? Glut-5
56) Prolactin is secreted by? Anterior pituitary
57) Prolactin is topically inhibited by? Dopamine

Anti-diuretic hormone is synthesized in which nucleus of
58) Supra optic nucleus
hypothalamus?
59) Treatment of central diabetes insipidus? Desmopressin
Exogenous corticosteroids can cause reactivation of TB and
60) IL-2 production
candidiasis by blocking which chemokine?
61) Prolonged secretin of cortisol is due to? Chronic stress
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62) Source of PTH? Chief cells of parathyroid
63) Which enzyme stimulate kidney for production of calcitriol? 1 alpha- hydroxylase
Cramps, Parenthesis,
64) Clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia?
Pain, Carpopedal spasm
65) Thyroid hormones increase Basal metabolic rate via? Na/K - ATPase pump
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# First Aid Test – Gastroenterology Key

Splenic artery and vein is in? Gastrosplenic ligament /
1) Splenorenal
Splenorenal?
2) Hepatic artery, Portal vein, Common bile duct = ? Portal triad
3) Strongest layer of duodenum? Mucosa / Submucosa / Serosa=? Submucosa
4) Bruner glands feature of? Stomach / Duodenum / Ilium? Duodenum

Arterial supply of GI arises from _________ of aorta? Anterior /
5) Anterior
Posterior / Lateral?
6) Parasympathetic supply of hindgut? Pelvic
7) Watershed area in GI tract? Splenic flexure

Common hepatic,
8) Branches of celiac trunk?
Splenic, Left gastric
9) Rectal venous anastomoses? Superior & Inferior rectal
Below pectinate line painful somatic stimulation is by which
10) Inferior Rectal nerve
nerve? Sup. rectal / Inf. rectal/ Pudendal / Middle rectal?
11) Which hepatic zone is sensitive to toxic injury? I / II / III? Hepatic zone III
Which is not content of femoral sheath? Femoral vein / artery
12) Femoral Nerve
/ nerve?
Most common hernia in women ? Direct Inguinal / Inguinal /
13) Femoral Hernia
Diaphragmatic / Femoral?
Which hernia covers all 3 layers of spermatozoa fascia ? Indirect
14) Indirect Inguinal Hernia
/ Direct inguinal / Femoral?
Phenylalanine and
15) Name the potent stimulators of gastrin?
Tryptophan
Hormone secrete HCO3 but not pancreatic enzyme? CCK /
16) Secretin
Secretin / Somatostatin?
17) Motilium action produces which movements? Migratory motor complex
Source of intrinsic factor? Chief cell / Parietal cell / Mucosal
18) Parietal cells
cell?
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Enzyme secreted by duodenum mucosa? Protease /

19) Enterokinase
Enterokinase / Amylase?
Fructose is taken up by? Simple diffusion / Facilitated diffusion
20) Facilitated diffusion
/ Counter transport?
21) Name to factors absorbed in terminal ilium? Vitamin B12 & Bile salts
22) Intra gut antibody? IgG / IgA / IGM / IgE? IgA
23) Bilirubin is the product of? Heme metabolism

Most common tumor of salivary gland? Pleomorphic adenoma /
24) Pleomorphic adenoma
Warthin tumor?
25) Bird beak appearance is seen in? Gerd / Achalasia? Achalasia
Dysphagia, Glossitis, Iron
26) Plummer Vinson syndrome? Triad?
deficiency anemia
Painless bleeding of submucosal vein in lower 1/3rd of
27) Varices
esophagus? Cancer / Varices?
28) Progressive dysphagia feature of? Esophageal cancer
29) Whipple disease causative agent? Tropheryma Whippelii

Osmotic diarrhea is seen in? Celiac sprue / Tropical sprue /
30) Lactase deficiency
Whipple disease / Lactase deficiency?
31) Fat soluble vitamin? ADEK
32) Celiac sprue associated with which disease? Dermatitis Herpetiformis
33) Ulcers resulted due to burn injury? Curling ulcer
34) Ulcer due to hypertension? Cushing ulcer
35) Stomach cancer associated with which blood group? A / B / O? A
36) Pain increase with meal? Duodenal / Gastric? Gastric ulcer
37) Ulcerative colitis involve which part of GI tract? Colon
38) String sign feature of ? Crohn / Ulcerative colitis? Crohn

Diverticulitis, Ectopic
39) Differentials of appendicitis?
pregnancy
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40) Left sided appendicitis is named to? Diverticulitis

Most common site of diverticulum is? Ilium / Jejunum / Rectum
41) Sigmoid
/ Sigmoid?
42) Most common congenital anomaly of GI tract? Meckel’s diverticulum
Hirschsprung disease associated with which syndrome?
43) Down syndrome
Turner/ Down / Klinefelter / Patau?
44) Sawtooth appearance in Colon? Colonic polyps
Double bubble sign? Adhesion / Meconium ileus / Duodenal
45) Duodenal atresia
atresia?
46) Familial adenomatous polyposis _________ name the gene? APC
47) most common site of carcinoid tumor? Appendix

Pregnant lady jaundice. Important marker? ALP / AST / GGT /
48) GGT
ALT?
Which drug cause Reye’s syndrome in children?
49) Aspirin
Acetaminophen / Aspirin / Brufen / Ampicillin?
Mallory bodies seen in? Hep-C / Hep-B / Autoimmune / Alcoholic
50) Alcoholic Hepatitis
hepatitis?
51) CEA Tumor marker of? Colorectal Ca
52) Net mug liver caused by? RHF / LHF? RHF

Black liver associated with? Gilbert syndrome / Dubbin Johnson Dubbin Johnson
53)
syndrome / Rotor syndrome / Crigler–Najjar syndrome? syndrome
54) In Wilson disease, cu deposits in which later of cornea? Descement membrane
55) Hemochromatosis associated with? HLA A3 / HLA A4 / HLA A5? HLA A3

Jaundice, Fever, RUQ
56) Charcot triad?
pain
Migratory thrombophlebitis feature of? Acute pancreatitis / Pancreatic
57)
Chronic pancreatitis / Pancreatic adenocarcinoma? adenocarcinoma
58) Marker of pancreatic carcinoma? CA 19/9
59) Treatment of carcinoid syndrome? Octreotide
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Magnesium hydroxide causes? Diarrhea / Constipation /

60) Diarrhea
Seizures?
61) Falciform ligament is derivative of? Fetal umbilical vein
62) Superior mesenteric artery is at which vertebral level? L1

Which type of carcinoma is seen above pectinate line?
63) Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma / Squamous cell carcinoma?
64) Which zone of liver contains P-450 system? Zone III
Enterochromaffin like
65) Gastrin inc acid secretion primarily through its effects on?
cells
66) The only GI submucosa glands is? Burners gland
67) Direct bilirubin is conjugated with? Glucuronic acid

Mucoepidermoid
68) Most common malignant tumor of salivary gland?
carcinoma
Feeling of having a lump in ones throat without clinical or
69) Globus sensation
radiographic evidence is called?
70) Achalasia is due to loss of? Myenteric plexus
Lye ingestion and acid
71) Esophageal strictures associated with?
reflux
Stratified squamous with
72) Barret’s esophagus is replacement of which epithelium?
columnar epithelium
73) Telescoping of 1 bowel segment into distal segment is called? Intussusception
74) Most common site of volvulus is? Sigmoid colon
75) Angiodysplasia is confirmed by? Angiography
76) Dense core bodies seen in which tumor? Carcinoid tumor
77) Cavernous hemangioma is tumor of which body organ? Liver
78) In cavernous hemangioma why biopsy is contraindicated? Due to risk of hemorhage
79) Budd Chiari syndrome is due to occlusion of? IVC or Hepatic veins
80) Cirrhosis with PAS-positive globules in liver? a1-anti trypsin deficiency
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Unknown cause of concentric onion skin bile duct fibrosis? Primary Sclerosing
81)
Diagnosis? Cholangitis
82) Obstructive jaundice with palpable gall bladder? Courvoisier's sign
They produce IgA
Why are payers patches important in the immune
83) antibodies that combat
response?
intramural antigens
Smokes food,
Achlorhydria, Chronic
84) Name 4 major risk factors for stomach cancer?
Gastritis & Type A blood
group
85) What surgical complication can lead to bowel obstruction? Adhesion
Deposition of
86) What is the cause of bronze diabetes?
hemosiderin in the skin
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
87) Name two intrahepatic cause of biliary obstruction? & Primary Sclerosing
Cholangitis
88) What enzymes are elevated in acute pancreatitis? Amylase and Lipase
What drug combination is often used as triple therapy for Metronidazole,
89)
H.Pylori eradication? Amoxicillin and PPI
90) What drug used to treat gastroparesis? Metoclopramide
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# First Aid Test – General Pathology Key

1) Leading cause of death due to poisoning? CO poisoning
2) CO poisoning inhibit which enzyme? Cytochrome oxidase
3) Name mitochondrial toxins? Alcohol and salicylate
4) Most susceptible to hypoxia in nephron? Proximal tubule

Irreversible damage to neuron occurs after _________ minutes
5) 5 minutes
of global hypoxia?
6) Most destructive free radicals? Hydroxyl free radicals
7) Which vitamin is the best neutralizer of free radical? Vitamin C
8) Marker of intermediate filament degradation? Ubiquitine
9) Mallory bodies are present in? Alcoholic liver disease
10) Acetaminophen free radicals are formed in? Liver
11) Wear and tear pigment? Lipofuscin

Hemosiderin laden macrophages present in left sides heart
12) Heart failure cells
failure are called?
13) What is called green bile? Biliverdin
14) Disordered cell growth is called? Dysplasia

Neurons, skeletal and
15) Examples of permanent cells?
cardiac muscle cells
16) Most common cause of caseous necrosis? TB
17) Programmed cell death is called? Apoptosis
18) Guardian of genome is? P53
19) Which is specific for pancreatitis? Lipase
20) Heterophagy is seen in which cell organelle? Lysosomes
21) Cerebral infarct is example of? Liquefactive infarct
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22) What is called red bile? Bilirubin
23) Extrinsic pathway in apoptosis require? TNF
24) In lead poisoning lead deposits in? Proximal renal tubule
25) Only endogenous pigment? Melanin
26) Which metaplasia occurs in brain? No metaplasia in brain
27) Most susceptible zone in hypoxia of hepatocyte? Zone 3
28) Oxidase reaction produce which radicals? Superoxide free radicals
29) Primary lysosomes are derived from? Golgi apparatus

Idiopathic Parkinson
30) Lewy body seen in?
disease
31) Most common cause of tissues hypoxia? Ischemia
32) Most common site for metastatic calcification? Kidney
33) Vitamin as an antioxidant? Vit E
34) Central organ in apoptosis? Mitochondria
35) Caspases are involved in which phenomenon? Apoptosis

Female had silicon breast implant, which was then removed,
36) Plasma cells
which cells would be numerous?
37) Omental necrosis is of which type? Fat necrosis
38) Superimposed infection on necrosis is called? Wet gangrene
39) Metaplasia of surface epithelium most commonly causes by? Chronic irritation
40) In our country the most common cause of cell injury is? Ischemia
41) Immediate affect after injury to a vessel is? Vasoconstriction
42) Most important chemical mediator of inflammation? Histamine
43) Clearance of neutrophils in acute inflammation is by? Apoptosis
44) The hallmark of acute inflammation is increased? Vascular permeability
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45) Acute phase reactants mostly synthesized in? Liver

Catecholamines ,
46) Neutrophil leukocytosis is caused by?
corticosteroids and lithium
47) Most common cause of skin abscess? Staph aureus
48) Hall mark of chronic inflammation? Tissue destruction
49) Kininogen converts into bradykinin due to? Hageman factor

Prostaglandin that helps in protection of gastrointestinal
50) PGE2
mucosa is?
51) Prostacyclin is produced by? Endothelial cells
52) Fever in inflammation is caused by? IL1 and TNF-a
53) ICAM and VCAM are responsible for? Leukocyte adhesion
54) Most common cause of increases permeability? Inflammation
55) Chemotaxis is a feature of? Acute inflammation
56) Most common cause of hyperkalemia? Renal failure

Endothelial injury,
57) Virchow’s triad? abnormal blood flow and
hypercoagulability
58) Pulmonary thromboembolism originate from? Femoral vein
59) Best indicator of tissues hypoxia? Mixed venous O2
60) Most common cause of respiratory acidosis? Anxiety
61) Cushing triad? Inc BP, HTN, bradycardia
62) most common manifestation of septic patient is? Hypotension

Most important distinguishing feature if hypovolemic and
63) Temperature
septic shock is?
64) Last mediator of endo toxic shock? IL6
65) Death due to embolism after accident? Fat embolism
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66) Severe generalized edema is called? Anasarca
67) Which vitamin involved in synthesis of collagen? Vitamin C
68) Keloid is excess of which type of collagen? Type 3
69) Corticosteroid inc which WBC? Neutrophils
70) The hallmark of healing? Granulation tissue
71) The element act as cofactor in collagen synthesis is? Zinc
72) Polyclonal gammopathy is sign of ? Chronic inflammation
73) The liver contain stem cells in? Canal of herring
74) Most important cells for wound contraction is? Myofibroblasts
75) Resistance to tension in main function of which collagen? Type 1 collagen
76) Liver regenerates in how many days? 10-14 days
77) Most common cause of impaired wound healing? Infections
78) Cells increasing in number is called? Hyperplasia

Degree of cellular
79) Grading of tumor is done by? differentiation on
histological appearance
80) Sarcoma involves which origin? Mesenchymal
81) Down syndrome is associated with which malignancy? ALL
82) Most common metastatic cancer to bone? Breast

Esophageal
83) Barret’s esophagus associated with?
adenocarcinoma
84) Bcl-2 gene associated with which tumor? Follicular lymphoma
85) Ret gene associated with which tumor? MEN IIA and IIB
86) Li Fraumeni syndrome associated with which gene? P53
87) Colorectal carcinoma associated with which gene? APC
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88) TRAP is tumor marker of? Hairy cell leukemia
89) S-100 tumor marker of? Melanoma, Astrocytoma

Thyroid medullary
90) Calcitonin tumor marker of?
carcinoma
Mesothelioma and
91) Disease associated with asbestosis?
Bronchogenic carcinoma
92) Vinyl chloride associated with which disease? Angiosarcoma
93) ACTH like peptide are secreted by which tumor? Small cell lung carcinoma
Papillary Ca of thyroid,
Serous papillary
94) Name disease associated with Psammoma bodies? cystadenocarcinoma of
ovary, Meningioma,
Malignant mesothelioma
95) Most common site of metastasis? Lymph nodes
96) Most common cancer related death? Lung carcinoma
97) Alkylating agents associated with which malignancy? Leukemia
98) Polycythemia is associated with which carcinoma? RCC
99) CA-125 tumor marker of? Ovarian carcinoma

Adult T cell leukemia/
100) HTLV-1 virus associated cancer is?
lymphoma
Retinoblastoma and
101) Rb gene associated with which 2 tumors?
osteosarcoma
102) Dysplastic nevus associated with which neoplasm? Malignant melanoma
103) Cachexia is mediated by? TNF-a

Gastrointestinal stromal
104) c-kit gene associated tumor is?
tumor (GIST)
Degree of localization /
105) Staging of tumor is done by?
spread base on site&size
106) Malignancy of skeletal muscle is called? Rhabdomyosarcoma
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107) Term carcinoma implies which origin? Epithelial origin
108) Tumor involving all germs layers called? Teratoma
109) DPC gene associated tumor? Pancreatic cancer

Neuroblastoma, Lung and
110) Bombesin tumor marker of?
Gastric cancer
Polycystic kidney disease is which Mendelian genetic
111) Autosomal dominant
disorder?
112) Known cause of congenital anomalies are? Multifactorial
113) Most common autosomal recessive disorder is? Hemochromatosis
114) First 4 weeks of life is called which period? Neonatal period

Which disease is commonly associated with down syndrome
115) Alzheimer's disease
in younger age?
Mitochondrial DNA disorder is associated with ___
116) Maternal
inheritance?
117) Barr body is attached to which part of cell? Nuclear membrane
118) Most common cause of neonatal death? Prematurity
119) Cataract is caused by which infection during pregnancy? Rubella
120) XXY genotype is of? Klinefelter syndrome
121) Best way to identify Turner syndrome? Karyotyping
122) Achondroplasia is associated with? Inc paternal age

Patient with primary amenorrhea, webbed neck, short stature.
123) XO
What is Karyotype?
124) Allele is which type of gene? Non identical gene
Dec AFP, increase HCG,
125) Triple marker for Down syndrome are?
decrease uterine estriol
Controversial with Turner
126) Scanty Barr body?
syndrome
127) Most common type of Mendelian disorder is? Autosomal recessive
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128) Most common X linked disorder is? Fragile X syndrome
129) Highest caloric value is of? Fat
130) Beriberi is due to which vit def? Vitamin B 1 (thiamine)
131) Most common pathogen causing congenital infection is? Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Acne & Acute
132) Vitamin A used in treatment of?
promyelocytic leukemia
133) The most common source of vitamin K is? Colonic bacteria
134) Name essential fatty acids? Linoleic & Linolenic acid
135) Tryptophan is used in synthesis of? Niacin
136) Ionization radiation damages which part of cell? DNA
137) Most frequent type of cancer caused by radiation? Acute Leukemia
138) Most common drowning is? Ulcerative colitis
139) Nicotine patch is in treating of? Wet drowning

What is the most important factor determining daily energy BMR (Basal Metabolic
140)
expenditure? Rate?
141) Most common cause of death in anorexia nervosa? Ventricular arrhythmia
142) First hematological sign in total body radiation? Lymphopenia
143) Most common systemic complication of IV drug abuser? Hepatitis B
144) Which element is use in diabetes? Chromium
145) Sepsis in burn patient is due to? Pseudomonas aeruginosa
146) Goat milk lacks in? Folate and pyridoxine
147) Gene which is defective in obesity? Leptin
148) Rat poisons contain which derivative? Coumarin
149) Corn based diets are deficient in? Tryptophan and niacin
150) Which current os more dangerous? AC current
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151) What metabolite of nicotine used for screening? Cotinine
152) Cofactor in conversion of dopamine to nor epinephrine? Vitamin C
153) Most common UV B light related cancer? Basal cell carcinoma

Hypokalemic metabolic
154) Vomiting in bulimia nervosa produces _________ alkalosis?
alkalosis
155) What complication occurs in shaken baby syndrome? Retinal hemorrhage
Which bile acid is not reabsorbed in terminal and has role in
156) Lithocholic acid
producing colorectal cancer?
157) 1st sign of vitamin A deficiency? Night blindness
158) What is least sensitive to radiation? Bone
159) Avidin in raw eggs bind with? Biotin
160) Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is? Marjolin’s ulcer
161) Berger’s disease is strongly associated with? Smoking
162) Pellagra is due to _________ deficiency? Niacin deficiency
163) Name far soluble vitamins? ADEK
164) Sarcoma is derived of? Connective tissue
165) Non neoplastic tissue in foreign origin? Choristoma

_________ is a neoplastic component and _________ is non Neoplastic→Parenchyma
166)
neoplastic component? Non-neoplastic→Stroma
167) Benign tumors are enclosed by fibrinous capsule EXCEPT? Uterine leiomyoma
Sarcomas spread through _________ and carcinomas through Sarcomas→Hematogenous
168)
_________ commonly? Carcinomas→Lymphatics
169) Glioblastoma multiforme seeds in? CSF
Acute lymphoblastic
170) Most common cancer in children is?
leukemia
171) Most common type of mutation in cancer is? Point mutation
172) Most common anemia in cancer? Anemia of chronic disease
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173) Most common para neoplastic syndrome? Hypercalcemia
174) Carcinoma which invade tissues but does not metastasize? Basal cell carcinoma
175) Virus cause cancer because they have? Oncogene

Which of the following is the most radio sensitive phase of cell
176) M phase
cycle?
177) Most radiosensitive tumor is? Lymph node
178) Tumor involving lymph vessels is called? Cystic hygroma
179) Slowest growing thyroid tumor? Papillary carcinoma
180) Radiation usually cause cancer after _________ years? 5-10 years
181) Major circulating phagocyte? Neutrophil
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# First Aid Test – Haematology Key

1) Professional APCs? Dendritic cell
2) Clock face chromatin distribution seen in? Plasma cells
3) CD stand for? Cluster of differentiation
4) Universal recipient? AB
5) Majority of circulating lymphocytes are?? T cells
6) Vitamin K deficiency _________ decrease synthesis of? 2,7,9,10, Protein C & S

Polycythemia, Sickle cell
7) Decrease ESR? Causes?
anemia, CCF
8) Clopidogrel and ticlopidine blocks? ADP Receptor
Thalassemia, Iron def,
9) Basophils stippling seen in?
Lead poisoning, ACD
10) Oval cells are seen in? Megaloblastic anemia
11) In asplenia what bodies are found? Howell jolly bodies

Plummer Vinson
12) Iron deficiency anemia manifests to which syndrome?
syndrome
13) HBH genes _________ deletion of how many genes? 3 gene deletion
14) Beta thalassemia is due to which type of mutation? Point mutation
Ferro chelatase + ALA
15) Lead inhibits?
dehydratase
16) Treatment of lead poisoning in kids? Succimer
Increase homocysteine but normal methylmalonic acid and Megaloblastic due to
17)
hyper-segmented neutrophils? folate deficiency
Dec haptoglobin, Inc
18) Finding in intravascular hemolysis?
LDH, Hemoglobinuria
Severe anemia,
19) Pancytopenia ? Feature? Neutropenia &
Thrombocytopenia
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Failure or destruction of
20) Cause of aplastic anemia?
myeloid stem
21) Hemolytic anemia following oxidative stress ? G6PD deficiency
22) PNH impaired synthesis of which gene? mutant PIGA gene
23) Sickle cell anemia point mutation of which amino acid? Glutamic acid with Valine
24) Osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia? Agent? Salmonella Para typhi
25) Erythroblastosis fetalis is due to which immunoglobulin? IgG
26) Common cause of macroangiopathic anemia is? Prosthetic heart valves
27) CLL is associated with which autoimmune hemolytic anemia? Cold agglutinin (IGM)
28) Treatment of sickle cell anemia? Hydroxy urea and BMT
29) Tea colored urine is seen in which condition? Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
30) Glanzmann thrombasthenia is defect in? GP IIb/IIIa
31) Hemophilia defect in which coagulation pathway? Intrinsic pathway
32) TTP _________ deficiency of? ADAMTS 13

Sepsis, Trauma, Obstetric
33) Causes of DIC?
complication, Malignancy
34) Most common cause of inherited hypercoagulability? Factor V Leiden disease
Increase risk of thrombotic skin necrosis with hemorrhage
35) Protein C & S
following administration of warfarin? What is the deficiency?
36) Cryoprecipitate contain? Factor VIII and factor XIII
37) Hodgkin lymphoma has which characteristic cells? Reed-Sternberg cells
38) Increase DIC what blood component we should give? FFP

Increase WBC count with left shift and increase leukocyte
39) Leukemoid reaction
alkaline phosphatase? What is this reaction?
40) Which Hodgkin lymphoma has excellent prognosis? Lymphocyte predominant
41) Starry sky appearance scene on which lymphoma? Burkitt’s lymphoma
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42) Most malignant gammopathy? Multiple myeloma
43) t(11;14) associated with which lymphoma? Mantle cell lymphoma
44) Waldenströms macroglobulinemia is associated with which IG? IGM

Increase peripheral blood
45) CLL differs from SLL in having?
lymphocytosis
46) Philadelphia chromosome is seen in? CML
47) Vitamin is given as treatment of which malignancy? AML

Name the chromosome translocation which is responsive to
48) t(15:17)
vitamin A?
49) Birbeck granules seen in ? Histiocytosis X
50) Teardrop cell seen in? Myelofibrosis
51) In polycythemia vera which type of mutation is seen? JAK2 mutation

Inappropriate absolute polycythemia is associated with which
52) RCC, Wilms tumor
disease?
53) Patient on heparin what we have to follow? APTT
54) Warfarin toxicity is corrected by? Vitamin K & FFP
55) Methotrexate toxicity is reversible by which drug? Leucovorin
56) Drug used for childhood tumors? Dactinomycin
57) Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by? Cyclophosphamide

58) Drug used in breast cancer and is an endometrial antagonist? Raloxifene
59) Name the drug used in treatment of CML? Imatinib Mesylate
60) Name the drug used is glioblastoma multiforme? Nitrosoureas

Nephrotoxicity &
61) Side effects of Cisplatin and Carboplatin?
Acoustic nerve damage
Paclitaxel hyper-stabilize polymerized microtubules in which
62) M phase
phase?
63) Thrombolytic toxicity is treated with? Aminocaproic acid
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64) A patient on warfarin what will be his follow up? PT, APTT, INR
65) Histiocytosis expresses which CD? CD1

Burkitt lymphoma is due to activation of which activation? And c-myc proto oncogene
66)
mention it's translocation? activation → t(8;14)
Monoclonal gammopathy
67) Most common gammopathy? of undermined
significance
68) Burkitt lymphoma is endemic form in Africa have which lesion? Jaw lesion
Diffuse large B cell
69) Most common adult NHL?
lymphoma
70) Reed stern Berg cells are which CD+? CD15+ & CD 30+
Constitutional signs and symptoms? Hodgkin / Non-Hodgkin
71) Hodgkin lymphoma
lymphoma?
72) Defect in platelet plug formation ____ increase what parameter? Bleeding time
73) Treatment of hereditary spherocytosis? Splenectomy
74) Name the tapeworm causing B12 deficiency? Diphyllobothrium latum
75) Chipmunk facies are seen in? Beta thalassemia major
76) Cooley’s anemia? Thalassemia major
77) Heinz bodies seen in? G6PD

DIC,TTP HUS, Traumatic
78) Helmet cells seen in?
hemolysis
79) Delta granules of platelets secrete? Serotonin, ADP, Ca (SAC)
80) Factor VIII is produced by? Endothelial cell
81) Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of which cell? Plasma cell
82) Mast cell stabilizer? Cromolyn sodium
83) APC cells perform their function via? MHC II
84) Universal donor? O
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B blood group person what have on RBC surface and what in Antigen on RBC surface
85)
plasma? & A antibody in serum
86) Master of iron regulatory hormone? Hepcidin
87) Most common cause of anemia in malignancy? ACD
88) Alcohol is toxic to which organelle? Mitochondria

Form of glutamate for synthesis for folic acid is absorbed in
89) Mono-glutamate
jejunum?
90) Thymidylate synthase irreversible inhibited by? 5 fluorouracil
91) Most common cause of Vitamin B12 deficiency? Pernicious anemia
92) Most common cause of macrocytosis? Alcohol access
93) Car scratch disease? Agent? Bartonella henselae
94) Smudge cells are seen in? CLL

Blood antibodies are natural antibodies synthesize in ________
95) Payer Patches
after birth?
96) Burr cells seen in?? CRF (decrease EPO)
97) Sickle cell disease is protective against which disease? Plasmodium falciparum
98) Job syndrome is associated with inc of which IG? IgE
99) Dec LAP score is seen in which blood malignancy? CML
Acute Promyelocytic
100) Numerous auer rod cells are seen in?
Leukemia (M3)
Painless lymphadenopathy occur almost in all leukemia
101) Hairy cell leukemia
EXCEPT?
102) Hereditary spherocytosis is which type of Mendelian disorder? Autosomal dominant
103) Most sensitive blood cells to radiation exposure are? Lymphocyte
Acute Monocytic
104) Gum infiltration is seen in which leukemia?
Leukemia
105) Protozoa causing eosinophilia? Dientamoeba Fragilis
106) Free vitamin B12 binds to R binder which is synthesized in? Salivary glands
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107) Only leukemia with thrombocytosis? CML
108) Most common cause of pyridoxine deficiency? INH

Hyper segmented
109) Marker for folate or vitamin B12 deficiency?
neutrophils
110) Aplastic crisis is due to which agent? Parvo virus
111) Heterophile antibodies are which Ig antibodies? IGM
112) CNS and testicle involvement? Which malignancy? ALL
113) Common causes of death in multiple myeloma? Sepsis & Renal failure
114) Most common cause of qualitative platelet defect? Aspirin
115) Most sensitive screen for DIC? D dimer
116) Most common pathogen transmitted by transfusion? CMV
117) If factor IX is not available, what is next best choice? FFP
118) DIC is stimulated by? Thromboplastin
119) Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at? Activator X
120) Bence jones proteins are derivatives from? Gamma globulins
121) Splenic infarction commonly occurs in? CML
122) AIHA is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type 2
123) Iron is stored in the form of? Ferritin
124) Best indicator of iron stores is? Serum ferritin
125) HB binds with _____________ in blood? Haptoglobin
126) t(11;22) translocation? Ewing sarcoma
127) Cell surface marks of macrophage? CD14
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# First Aid Test – Immunology Key

1) Outer cortex of lymph node contain which cells? B cells
Which area of lymph node is not well developed in DiGeorge
2) Paracortex
syndrome?
3) Lymph drainage of lateral side of dorsum of foot? Popliteal
4) Lymph drainage of rectum below pectinate line? Superficial inguinal
5) T cells are found in which pulp of spleen? White pulp
6) Thymus is derived from? 3rd pharyngeal pouch
7) MHC gene is located on which chromosome? Chromosome no. 6
8) APC cells expresses which MHC class? MHC - II
9) Grave disease is associated with why HLA subtype? B8
10) NK cells uses what for induction of apoptosis? Perforins & Granzyme
11) Antibodies are produced by which cells ? Plasma cells
12) Positive selection is done in which part of thymus? Thymic cortex
Macrophage, Dendritic
13) Name APCs (Antigen Presenting Cells)?
cell, B cell
14) Costimulatory signal is given by interaction between? B7 & CD28
15) Th1 cells inhibited by? IL-10
16) Which portion of IgM and IgG fixes complement? Fc
17) Light chain contributes to which fraction of antibody? Fab
18) Main antibody in secondary response to antigen? IgG
19) Colostrum contain which antibody? IgA
20) IgE mediates immunity against worms by activating? Eosinophils
21) Mature B lymphocytes express ____________ on their surfaces? IgM & IgD
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22) Most abundant antibody in blood? IgG
23) Antibody with lowest concentration in serum? IgE
24) Classic complement pathway mediated by which antibody? IgG & IgM
25) Neutrophil chemotaxis done by which complement? C5a
26) C1 esterase inhibitor def causes which disease? Hereditary angioedema
27) Decay accelerating factor causes which disease? PNH
28) Antibody pentamer in serum? IgM
29) Name the opsonin’s in bacterial defense? C3b & IgG
30) Recurrent Neisseria bacteremia is caused due to deficiency of? C3-C8 deficiency
31) Which IL inhibit inflammation? IL-10

Name the IL that supports growth factor and differentiation of
32) IL-3
bone marrow stem cells?
IL causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase
33) IL-6
reactants?
34) Cytokine mediates septic shock? TNF-alpha
35) Name unique marker of NK? CD56
36) All cells have MHC-I EXCEPT? RBC
37) Receptor for EBV on B cells ? CD21

Self-reactive T cells become non-reactive without
38) Anergy
costimulatory molecule. This phenomenon is called?
39) IgA in Breast milk is form of which immunity? Passive
40) Antibody involved in type-1 HSR? IgE
41) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is which type of hypersensitivity? Type-II
42) In erythroblastosis fetalis which Ig is involved? IgG
43) Hashimoto thyroiditis involves which type of hypersensitivity? Typed-IV
44) Rheumatic fever is which type of HSR? Type-II
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45) Anti-mitochondrial antibody associated disorder? Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

Mixed connective tissue disease associated with which
46) Anti RNP
autoantibody?
47) Drug induced SLE associated with hitch antibody? Anti-histone
48) T cell deficiencies produce which infections mostly? Fungal ad viral
49) In Brutton aggamaglobinemia defect is in which gene? Tyrosine kinase gene
50) Jobs syndrome increases which immunoglobulin? IgE

3rd & 4th pharyngeal
51) DiGeorge syndrome is failure to develop?
pouches
52) Sinus and lung infections are caused by which Ig deficiency? Selective IgA deficiency
53) SCID is due to defective? IL-2 receptor

Thrombocytopenia,
54) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome presentation triad is?
Infections & Eczema
55) Graft from twin or clone is called? Syngeneic graft
56) Rejection occurs within minutes of transplantation is called? Hyperacute rejection

Vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interstitial lymphocytic
57) Acute rejection
infiltrate is feature of which type of rejection?
58) Most common infection in transplant recipient? CMV
59) Target of infliximab is? TNF-a
60) Target of trastuzumab is? Erb-B2
61) Drug used to prevent acute transplant rejection? Daclizumab
62) Serum sickness is which type of hypersensitivity? Type III
63) In ataxia telengiectasia which gene is defective? ATM gene
64) Contact dermatitis is which HSR? Type IV
65) Fibrinoid necrosis is hallmark of which HSR? Type III
66) Live attenuated vaccine mainly induced which response? Humoral
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67) Half-life of passive immunity is? 3 weeks
68) IL that promotes differentiation of B cells? IL5
69) IL that activates NK cells? IL12
70) MAC complex is formed by? C5b-9f
71) IgA in circulation is in which form? Monomer
72) Which fragment of antibody determines idiotype? Fab
73) Foreign body is phagocytosed by? APC
74) MHC II expressed only on? APC

Ankylosing spondylitis,
75) HLA B27 Associated with which disease? Psoriasis, IBD & Reiter
syndrome
76) NK activity is enhanced by? IL-12, IFN-b, IFN-a
77) Lymph drainage of stomach? Celiac
78) Lymph drainage os scrotum? Superior inguinal

During extreme cellular immune response which area of lymph
79) Paracortex
node enlarges?
80) Most common congenital immunoglobulin deficiency? IgA
81) Which transplant has best allograft survival rate? Corneal transplant
82) Most common drug induced lupus? Procainamide
83) Most common cause of death in SLE? Infections
84) Reservoir of HIV is? Dendritic cells

Amyloidosis of which organ is most serious form of organ
85) Kidney
involvement?
86) Which rest for AIDS is confirmatory? Western blot
87) Complement components are synthesized mostly in? Hepatocyte
88) Sjogren syndrome is associated with? Rheumatoid arthritis
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89) Initial most sensitive test for SLE? ANA
90) Patient has CRF best donor for this patient is? Twin
91) Master switch to nucleus for induction of inflammation? NF-kb
92) IL that stimulates and activates eosinophils? IL-5
93) Methyl dopa alters which antigen on RBC surface? Rh antigen
94) Amyloid precursor protein is located on which chromosome? Chromosome no. 21
95) Misfolded proteins are normally removed by? Proteasomes
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# First Aid Test – Microbiology Key

1) Bacillus anthracis capsule contain? D glutamate
2) Bacteria containing no cell wall? Mycoplasma
3) Loeffler’s media is for? Clostridium Diphtheria

Nocardia, Pseudomonas,
4) Name obligate aerobes? Mycobacterium TB,
Bacillus
Strep. pneumonia,
5) Asplenic individuals are susceptible to which organism? H.Influenzae &
N.Meningitidis
Strep. pneumonia,
6) IgA protease is secreted by? H.Influenzae type B &
Neisseria
7) Endotoxins mode of action? Indices TNF & IL-1
8) Rice water diarrhea caused by? Vibrio Cholerae
9) Whooping cough is caused by? Bordetella Pertussis
10) Clostridium perfringens produces which toxin? Alpha toxin (lecithinase)
11) Toxic shock syndrome? Causative agent? Staphylococcus Aureus
12) Spores is formed in which bacterial growth phase? Stationary
13) Bacteria without plasmid termed as? F- (F negative)
14) Organism that is catalase positive and coagulase sensitive? Staphylococcus Aureus
15) Which agent causes otitis media in children? Streptococus Pneumonia
16) Meningitis in babies caused by? Streptococcus Agalactiae
17) Rusty sputum is associated with? Streptococus Pneumonia
18) Component of normal human flora? Staph. Epidermidis
19) Normal flora that cause dental caries? Streptococcus Mutans
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Diphtheria →
20) Bull neck is seen in which infection? Agent? Corynebacterium
Diphtheriae
21) Floppy baby syndrome is seen due to which toxins of? Clostridium Botulinum
22) Sulfur granules in sous tract seen in? Actinomycetes Israelii

Prophylactic treatment of Mycobacterium Avium intracellular
23) Azithromycin
is?
24) Hansen's disease is also called? Leprosy
25) Prophylaxis in H.Influenzae is given by? Rifampin

Legionella pneumonia is clinically detected by presence of
26) Urine
antigen in?
Pseudomonas
27) Blue green pigment os produced by toxins of?
Aeruginosa
28) Most common serotype causing hemolytic uremic syndrome? O157:H7
29) Red currant jelly sputum? Klebsiella
30) Mesenteric adenitis is caused by? Yersinia Enterocolitica
31) Question marked shaped bacteria? Leptospira Interrogans
32) Rose spots in abdomen, fever, headache feature of? Salmonella Typhi
33) Bulls eye rash seen in? Lyme disease
34) Saddle nose and Hutchinson teeth is feature of? Congenital Syphilis
35) Q fever → Agent? Coxiella Brunetti
36) Clue cells, vaginal discharge with fishy smell? Gardnerella Vaginalis
37) Assay used in diagnosis of rickettsial infection? Latex agglutination
Coxsackievirus A, Rocky
38) Palm and sole rash is seen in? mountain spotted fever,
Syphilis, Scabies & Tinea
39) Reiter syndrome caused by? Chlamydia trachomatis
40) Only bacterium having cholesterol? Mycoplasma Pneumonia
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41) Budding yeast with captain wheel formation? Para coccidioido mycosis
42) Spaghetti & Meat ball appearance in KOH preparation? Tinea Versicolor
43) Septate hyphae branches at acute angles? Aspergillus Fumigatus
44) Fungal disease most commonly in DKA & leukemic patients? Mucor & Rhizopus
45) Rose Gardner disease? Sporothrix Schenckii
46) Seen diarrhea in AIDS? Cryptosporidium

Chorioretinitis,
47) Toxoplasma gondii → Classic triad? Hydrocephalus &
Intracranial calcification
48) Naegleria fowleri enters brain via? Cribriform plate
49) Kissing bug causes which disease? Chagas disease
50) Treatment of Leishmania Donovani? Sodium Stibogluconate
51) Plasmodium malaria cycle of how many hours? 72 hrs
52) Scotch tape test is done for? Enterobius Vermicularis
Female anopheles causes blockage of lymphatic vessels →
53) Wuchereria Bancrofti
Agent?
Neurocysticercosis →
54) Swiss cheese appearance is seen in? Causative agent?
Taenia solium
55) River blindness is caused by? Onchocerca volvulus
Squamous cell carcinoma
56) Schistosoma haematobium causes which disease of bladder?
of bladder
57) Pipe stem cirrhosis is caused by which agent? Schistosoma Mansoni
58) Surgeons inject what to kill daughter cell of Hydatid cyst? Ethanol
59) Macrophage containing amastigotes? Name the organism? Leishmania Donovani
60) Cholangiocarcinoma associated with which organism? Clonorchis Sinensis
61) Drug used against staphylococcus aureus? Methicillin & Nafcillin
Clavulanic acid,
62) Name beta lactamase inhibitor?
Sulbactam, Tazobactam
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63) Red man syndrome caused by? Vancomycin
64) Drug of choice for meningitis and gonorrhea? Ceftriaxone
65) Imipenem is always administered with? Cilaststin

Nephrotoxicity,
66) Main side effect of aminoglycosides?
Ototoxicity, Teratogen
Milk, Antacids & iron
67) Tetracycline must not be taken with?
containing preparation
68) Drug of choice for atypical pneumonia? Macrolides
69) Gray baby syndrome is side effect of? Chloramphenicol
70) Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial? Dihydrofolate reductase
71) Only agent used as solo prophylactic against TB? Isoniazid
72) Hyperuricemia is the side effect of which ATT? Pyrazinamide

Trimethoprim –
73) Prophylaxis of recurrent UTI?
Sulfamethoxazole
74) ATT inducing P-450 system? Rifampin
Cryptococcus
75) Soap bubble lesions in brain is seen in?
Neoformans
76) Oral thrush in immuno-compromised patient? Candida albicans
77) Flask shaped ulcer on histology is seen in infection of? Entamoeba histolytica
78) African sleeping sickness is transmitted by? Tse Tse fly
79) Chlamydial cell wall lack in? Muramic acid
80) Condylomata lata is seen in which syphilis? Secondary

81) Lyme disease causes by? Borellia Burgdorferi
82) Common antecedent of campylobacter jejuni? Guillain-Barre syndrome
83) Tumbling motility is characteristic of? Listeria Monocytogenes
84) Must autoclave to kill spores by steaming at? 121oC for 15minutes
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Corynebacterium
85) Club shape bacteria is?
Diphtheria
Tetanospasmin prevent release of which inhibitory
86) GABA & Glycine
neurotransmitters in spinal cord?
87) Which protein of opsonization and phagocytosis ? Protein-A
88) Lowenstein- Jensen agar medium is for? M. Tuberculosis

Fungi, Legionella &
89) Silver stain is used for?
Helicobacter pylori
Nifurtimox or
90) Treatment for Chagas disease?
Benznidazole
Exchange of genes between 2 chromosome by crossing over
91) Recombination
within regions of significance base sequence homology?
92) All DNA virus are double stranded EXCEPT? Parvovirus
93) All virus are haploid EXCEPT? Retrovirus
94) Slapped cheeks syndrome is caused by? Parvovirus (B19. Virus)
95) Owls eyes inclusion are seen in? CMV
96) Atypical lymphocytosis is see in? EBV virus
97) No. 1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children is? Rota virus
98) In picorna viruses all are retroviruses EXCEPT? Rhino viruses
99) Yellow fever virus is transmitted by? Aedes mosquito

100) Largest DNA virus? Pox virus? Pox virus
101) Herpes virus acquire envelope from? Nuclear membrane
Parainfluenza, RSV &
102) Other viruses in paramyxovirus?
Rubeola
103) Kolpik spots feature of? Measle virus
104) Negri bodies are characteristic of? Rabies virus
105) Anti- HBcAg is positive in? Window period
106) In HIV gp41 shows ____________? Fusion & Entry
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Flu like, Feeling fine,

107) Name 4 stages of HIV infection? Falling count & Final
crisis
108) Bacillary angiomatosis caused by? Bartonella Henslae
109) Ring enhancing lesion in HIV patients → Agent? Toxoplasmosis gondii
110) Retinitis in HIV → Agent? CMV
111) Normal flora of skin? Staph. Epidermidis
112) Canned food contain which toxin? Clostridium Botulinum
113) Reheated rice contain toxins? Staphylococcus Aureus
114) In cystic fibrosis patient most common cause of pneumonia? Pseudomonas
115) Travelers diarrhea → Agent? Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
116) Nosocomial infection is caused by? Staphylococcus Aureus
117) Septic arthritis most common cause? Neisseria Gonorrhea
118) Vertebral tuberculosis is also called? Potts disease

Female have short
119) UTI most commonly occurs in woman than men because?
urethra
Staphylococcus
120) 2nd Lessing cause of community acquired UTI?
Saprophyticus
121) Mode of transmission of toxoplasmosis gondii? Cat feces
122) Classic triad of rubella? PDA, Cataract & Deafness
123) Sandpaper like rash with sore throat? Scarlet fever
Vesicular rash begins on trunk spread to face and extremities
124) VZV
with lesion of different age?
125) Painful genital ulcer with inguinal lymphadenopathy? Hemophilus Ducreyi
126) Genital warts organism? HPV 6 & 11
Fitz Hugh Curtis
127) Violin string adhesion of parietal peritoneum to liver?
syndrome
128) Most common cause of nosocomial infect. in wound infection? Staphylococcus Aureus
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129) Water aerosol is risk factor of which pathogen? Legionella

Corynebacterium
130) Pseudomembranous colitis is cussed by?
Diphtheria
131) Cherry red epiglottis in children is seen in? H. Influenza type B
132) Whipple disease is caused by? Tropheryma Whippelii
133) Bilateral Bell's palsy seen in? Lyme disease
134) Amphotericin mechanism? Form membrane pores
135) Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patient? Fluconazole
136) Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis? Caspofungin
137) Treatment of Trypanosoma Brucei? Melarsoprol
138) Prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A virus? Amantadine
139) 2nd line drug for CMV retinitis in immuno compromised patient? Foscarnet
140) Interferon toxicity causes? Neutropenia
141) All protease inhibitor ends in? Navir like Ataza-navir

Which drug is used for prophylaxis and fetal transmission
142) Zidovudine
during pregnancy?
Fluroquinolones are contraindicated during pregnancy
143) Cartilage damage
because it causes?
Drugs must be phosphorylated by thymidine kinase to be active Nucleotide reverse
144)
are? transcriptase inhibitor
145) Megaloblastic anemia is side effect of which anti-HIV drug? Zidovudine
146) Terbinafine inhibits which fungal enzyme? Squalene epoxidase

Input setting empirical therapy for community acquired
147) Fluroquinolones
pneumonia?
148) HIV Prophylaxis for pneumocystis pneumonia? TMP-SMX
149) Red green color blindness is side effect of which ATT? Ethambutol
150) Dog or cat bite associated with which pathogen? Pasteurella multocida
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Chlamydia trachomatis,
151) Top bugs of pelvic inflammatory disease?
N. Gonorrhea
152) 3rd leading cause of UTI? Klebsiella Pneumonia
Tell 3 agents in descending order causing meningitis in Group B streptococcus >
153)
newborn? E. Coli > Listeria
154) Most common pathogen causing osteomyelitis? Staphylococcus Aureus
155) Name viruses causing watery diarrhea? Rota, Adeno & Norwalk
156) Pseudo-appendicitis is caused by which agent? Yersinia enterocolitica
157) Kaposi sarcoma associated with which herpes virus? HHV-8
158) In HIV, attachment to the host CD4+ T cell is done by? GP 120
159) Hepatitis viruses via feco-oral root? HAV & HEV

160) Bullet shaped capsid is seen in? Ranked virus
Parotitis, Orchitis &
161) Symptoms of mumps?
Aseptic meningitis
Coryza, Cough &
162) 3 Cs of measle?
Conjunctivitis
Paramyxovirus contain which protein which causes respiratory
163) F protein
epithelial involvement?
Polio, Echo, Rhino,
164) Picorna virus includes?
Coxackie & HAV
165) Post cervical lymphadenopathy associated with? EBV
Molluscum
166) Flesh colored done lesion with central dimple?
Contagiousum
167) All DNA virus replicate in nucleus EXCEPT? Pox virus
168) All RNA virus replicate in cytoplasm EXCEPT? Influenza & Retrovirus
169) Which anti-HIV causes hypercholesterolemia? Raltegravir
170) Metallic taste is due to which drug? Metronidazole
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# First Aid Test – Musculoskeletal System Key

Autoantibodies against hemidesmosome caused which
1) Bullous pemphigoid
disease?
2) Pudendal nerve block → Site? Ischial spine
Medial collateral
ligament, Anterior
3) Unhappy triad?
collateral ligament &
Lateral meniscus
Supraspinatus,
4) Rotator cuff muscles? Infraspinatus, Teres
minor, Subscapularis
5) Fall on outstretched hand may cause fracture of? Scaphoid
6) Wrist drop is caused by injury of? Radial
7) Root value injury of Erb-Duchenne palsy? C5-C6
8) Popes blessing sign is seen in? Ulnar

Serratus anterior → Long
9) Winged scapula? Muscle and nerve?
thoracic nerve
10) Fibula neck fracture? Nerve involved? Common peroneal nerve
Fast twitch white fibers and decrease mitochondria. Which type
11) Type 2 muscle
of muscle?
12) Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by which cells? Chondrocytes
Person can't jump, climb stairs, or can't rise from seated Inferior Gluteal nerve
13)
position → Nerve involved? (L5-S2)
14) Bone formed directly without cartilage? Woven bone
15) Advanced paternal age-related disease? Achondroplasia
16) Erlenmeyer flask bone on X ray? Osteopetrosis
17) Normal Ca , Phosphorus & PTH and increase ALP → Disease? Disease Paget's disease
18) Vertebral crush fractures usually seen in? Osteoporosis
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Osteosarcoma
19) Double bubble appearance in?
(Giant cell tumor)
20) Onion skin appearance in bone? Ewing sarcoma
21) Bouchard nodes involve which phalanges? PIP
22) Rheumatoid arthritis → Type of reaction? Type-III
23) Baker cysts → which side of knee? Behind the knee
24) Sjogren syndrome associated with which type of lymphoma? B cell lymphoma
Mono sodium urate
25) Crystals in Gout?
crystals
26) Chromosomal translocation in Ewing sarcoma? 11;22
S.Aureus, Streptococcus,
27) Infectious arthritis → Pathogens?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Conjunctivitis, Urethritis,
28) Reiter syndrome → Triad?
Arthritis
Libman-Sacks
29) SLE causes which type of endocarditis?
Endocarditis
Non caseating granuloma with elevated serum ACE levels →
30) Sarcoidosis
Disease?
31) Pencil in cup deformity on X-ray → Which disease? Psoriatic Arthritis
32) Drug induced lupus → Antibodies? Anti-histone antibodies
33) Schaumman & Asteroid bodies? Sarcoidosis
34) Giant cell arteritis associated with? Polymyalgia Rheumatica
35) Fibromyalgia seen in women of age range? 30-50
36) Mechanic hands seen in? Dermatomyositis
37) Antibodies seen in poly myositis? Anti jo antibodies
38) Most common neuromuscular junction disorder? Myasthenia gravis

NMJ disorder associated with small lung cancer? Name
39) Lambert-Eaton syndrome
disorder?
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Calcinosis, Raynaud's
phenomenon, Esophageal
40) Crest syndrome involves?
dysmotility, Sclerosis,
Telangiectasia
41) Auspitz sign seen in? Psoriasis
42) Allergic contact dermatitis? Type IV HSR
43) Mask of pregnancy? Melasma
44) Honey colored crusting → Disease? Impetigo
45) In scalded skin syndrome exotoxins destroys which stratum? Stratum granulosum
46) In pemphigus vulgaris, IgG is formed against? Desmosomes
47) In Acanthosis nigricans there is hyperplasia of? Stratum Spongiosum
48) Lichen planus associated with which hepatitis? Hepatitis C
49) Keratin pearls is seen in? Squamous cell carcinoma
50) What is precursor of melanoma? Dysplastic Nevus
51) Febuxostat inhibits? Xanthine oxidase
52) Antidote of acetaminophen? N - acetylcysteine

Platelet aggregation &
53) PGI2 function?
Promote vasodilation
Xerophthalmia,
54) Classic triad of Sjogren’s syndrome?
Xerostomia & Arthritis
55) Eccrine gland secretes? Sweat
56) HLA-D4 associated disease? Rheumatoid arthritis
57) Pseudo gout crystal? Calcium pyro phosphate

Crohn disease &
58) Inflammatory bowel disease?
Ulcerative Colitis
59) Treatment of sarcoidosis? Steroids
60) Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma? Actinic keratosis
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61) C7 root is usually compressed by? Cervical disc lesion
62) Name the nerve passes in Guyon canal syndrome? Ulnar nerve
63) How many tendons passed in carpel tunnel? 9 tendons
64) Saturday night palsy is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve
65) Sign in axillary nerve injury? Flattened deltoid
66) Which bone is called funny bone? Humerus

Cervical rib / Pancoast
67) Klumpke's palsy is usually caused by?
tumor
Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve & what is its root Long thoracic nerve & its
68)
value? root value is C5, C6, C7
Name? Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor
69) Thenar muscle
pollicis brevis?
Sensory deficit in tibial nerve injury is seen in which part of
70) Sole of foot
lower limb?
71) Cause of injury of anterior hip dislocation? Obturator nerve
Mesenchymal stem cells
72) What is the source of osteoblast?
in periosteum
73) Vitamin D deficiency in childhood causes? Rickets
Polyostotic fibrous
74) McCune-Albright syndrome is a form of which disease?
dysplasia
75) Sunburst pattern on X-ray is seen in? Osteosarcoma
76) Heberden's nodes involves which phalanges? DIP
77) Crystals in pseudo gout? Calcium pyro phosphate
78) Infarction of bone and marrow is called? Osteonecrosis
79) Fibromyalgia patients must have how many tender points? >11 of 18 tender points
Hyper keratosis is due to increase thickness of which skin
80) Stratum corneum
layer?
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# First Aid Test – Pharmacology Key

1) ____ relates the rate of elimination to the plasma concentration? Clearance
2) Half-life is the property of _________ order elimination? First order
3) Fraction of administered drug that reaches circulation is called? Bioavailability
4) Drugs give IV have _________ percent bioavailability? 100%
5) Frequency of dosing Is affected by _________ ? Half life

Constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time
6) Zero order elimination
indicates which order elimination?
Slightly polar, Water
7) Phase I metabolism of drugs usually yields?
soluble metabolites
8) Maximal effect a drug can produce is called? Efficacy
9) Amount of drug needed for a given effect is called? Potency
10) Quantitative measurement of relative safety of drug is called? Therapeutic index
11) Partial action of morphine is at which opioid receptor? mu

Sympathetic nervous
12) Adrenal medulla are part of which nervous system?
system
Botulinum toxins blocks release of neurotransmitter at which
13) Cholinergic
terminals?
14) Mydriasis is the action of which receptors? a1
Decrease heart rate and contractility of atria is the action of
15) M2
which receptors?
16) Increase gastric secretion is the action which receptors? H2
17) Decrease uterine is the action of which receptor? B2
Which vasopressin receptor involve in inc vascular smooth
18) V1
muscle contraction?
19) Challenge test for diagnosis of asthma? Methacholine
20) Which drug activate bowel and bladder? Bethanechol
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21) Clinical application of Donepezil? Alzheimer's disease
22) Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is done by? Edrophonium
23) In chronic myasthenia gravis, drug of choice is? Pyridostigmine
24) Antidote of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? Pralidoxime
25) Adrenal medulla is innervated by which fibres? Cholinergic fibres
26) Potent stimulator of sweat, tests and saliva? Pilocarpine
27) Atropine effect on eye is? Mydriasis & Cycloplegia
28) Isoproterenol action is on which receptors? b1 & b2
29) Dobutamine mainly effects on which receptor? b1
30) Drug used to reduce premature uterine contraction? Terbutaline
31) Attention deficit disorder can be treated by? Amphetamine

Clonidine, Methyl-dopa,
32) Name centrally acting a2 agonists? Guanabenz, Guanfacine,
& Lofexidine
Orthostatic hypotension,
33) Toxicity of phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine is?
Reflex tachycardia
34) Name selective b-antagonist? Pindolol, Acebutolol
Prazosin, Terazosin &
35) Drugs used in urinary retention in BPH?
Doxasozin
Decrease heart rate &
36) What is the effect of b-blocker in angina pectoris?
contractility
37) Antidote of opioid poisoning is? Naloxone/Naltrexone
38) Atropine toxicity antidote? Physostigmine salicylate
39) Antidote for benzodiazepine? Flumazenil

Doxorubicin &
40) Drugs causing dilated cardiomyopathy?
Daunorubicin
41) Direct Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is caused by drug? Methyl dopa
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42) Chloramphenicol causes which syndrome? Gray baby syndrome
43) ACE inhibitors main side effect? Cough & Angioedema
44) Drug causing pseudo membranous colitis? Clindamycin
45) Vitamin causing hyperglycemia? Niacin

Hydralazine, Phenytoin,
46) Name drugs causing SLE-like syndrome?
Procainamide & INH
47) Tardive dyskinesia is side effect of? Antipsychotics
48) Name ATT drug which is P-450 inducer? Rifampin
49) Antidote for warfarin toxicity? Vitamin-K, FFP

Neurotoxicity &
50) Side effect of isoniazid?
Hepatotoxicity
51) Drug which decreases triglycerides? Fibrates
52) Drug protective against diabetic nephropathy? ACE inhibitors
53) Drug which can cause cyanide toxicity? Nitroprusside
54) Hydralazine decreases → Afterload / Preload? Afterload

↑insulin sensitivity in
55) Action of Glitazones? peripheral tissue & levels
of adiponectin
56) Sulfonylureas closes which channels in b-cells? K+ channel
57) First line therapy of Type 2 DM? Metformin
58) Drug is teratogen? Carbimazole/Methimazole/Propylthiouracil? Methimazole
59) Drug used in SIADH? Demeclocycline

Irreversibly inhibit H+/K +
60) Mechanism of PPI? ATPase in stomach
parietal cells
61) Carcinoid tumor is treated by? Octreotide
62) Name antacids causes diarrhea? Magnesium hydroxide
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63) The powerful centrally acting antiemetic is? Ondansetron
64) Metoclopramide is which receptor antagonist? D2

Myelosuppression caused by methotrexate is rescued by which
65) Leucovorin (Folinic acid)
drug?
66) Anti-Breast cancer drug having endometrial antagonist action? Raloxifene
67) Myelosuppression cause by 5 fluorouracil is rescued by? Thymidine
68) Hemorrhagic cystitis is side effect of? Cyclophosphamide

Nephrotoxicity caused by Cisplatin / Carboplatin / Oxaliplatin is
69) Amifostine
prevented by?
Name the drug which is Philadelphia chromosome tyrosine
70) Imatinib
kinase inhibitor?
71) Monoclonal antibody against CD20 is? Rituximab
Probenecid inhibits reabsorption of Uric acid in which part of Proximal convoluted
72)
nephron? tubule (PCT)
73) Febuxostat inhibits? Xanthine oxidase
74) Antidote of acetaminophen? N-acetylcysteine
75) Name anti-TNF antibody commonly used in Crohn disease? Infliximab

Irreversibly inhibit both
76) Mechanism of aspirin?
COX 1 & COX 2
77) Warfarin effects which pathway? Extrinsic pathway
78) Site of action of heparin? Blood
79) Heparin toxicity is treated by? Protamine sulphate
80) Clopidogrel toxicity cause which hematological deficiency? Neutropenia
81) Abciximab binds to which glycoproteins receptor? IIb/IIIa

82) Which drug is used or maintenance program for opioid addicts? Methadone
83) Opioid used as cough suppressant? Dextromethorphan
84) Drug of choice for absence seizures? Ethosuximide
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85) 1st line treatment of eclampsia? MgSO4
86) 1st line of treatment for acute epilepsy? Diazepam
87) Fetal hydantoin syndrome is teratogenicity caused by? Phenytoin
88) Neural tube defects caused by which drug? Valproic acid

Barbiturates facilitate GABA action by __________ of Cl- channel
89) ↑duration
opening, this ↓ neuron firing. (BarbiDurate↑duration)
90) Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic? Halothane
91) Most common drug used for endoscopy? Midazolam
92) IV anesthetic used for rapid and short procedures? Propofol

Hypercalcemia &
93) Main complication of succinylcholine?
Hyperkalemia
94) Malignant hyperthermia is treated hyperthermia? Dantrolene
95) Benztropine improves __________ in Parkinson disease? Tremors & Rigidity
96) Carbidopa is converted to __________ in CNS? Dopamine
97) Selegiline selectively inhibits? MAO-B
98) Half-life of sumatriptan? < 2 hours

Marked respiratory depression is caused by which
99) Barbiturates
depressants?
Marijuana can be detected in urine up to __________ months of
100) 1 month
last use?
101) Treatment of Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome is? IV Vitamin B1
102) Treatment of delerium tremens? Benzodiazepines
103) Drug of choice for ADHD? Methylphenidate
104) Social phobias are treated with? SSRI
105) Drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder is? Clomipramine
106) All typical antipsychotics block which receptors? D2 receptors
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107) Corneal deposits is side effect of which antipsychotics? Chlorpromazine
108) Treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Dantrolene
109) Which atypical antipsychotic may cause agranulocytosis? Clozapine
110) Teratogenicity caused by lithium? Ebstein anomaly
111) Generalized anxiety disorder is treated by? Buspirone
112) Drug of choice of bedwetting patient is? Imipramine

Convulsion, Coma &
113) Main toxicity of tricyclics antidepressants?
Cardio-toxicity
114) How much time antidepressant need to have its effect? 4-8 weeks
115) Antidepressant used for diabetic peripheral neuropathy is? Duloxetine
116) Drug used for altitude sickness? Acetazolamide
117) Name osmotic diuretic? Mannitol
118) What is the effect of loop diuretic on calcium in the blood? Hypocalcemia
119) Gout is side effect of which diuretic? Loop diuretic
120) Idiopathic hypercalciuria is treated with? Thiazide diuretics
121) While using ACE inhibitor what will be the effect on renin? Renin level increases
122) Drug inhibits steroid synthesis? Ketoconazole
ER positive breast
cancer, History of DVTs &
123) Contraindications of estrogens?
Tobacco use in women >
35 years age
124) a1-agonist used to treat BPH? Tamsulosin
Inhibit cyclic GMP
125) Mechanism of action of Sildenafil?
phosphodiesterase
Fexofenadine, Cetirizine,
126) Name 2 drugs of 2nd generation of H1 blockers?
Loratadine, Desloratadine
Bronchial smooth muscle
127) What is the action of b2- agonist on bronchial muscles?
relaxation
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128) Name the mast cell stabilizer? Cromolyn

Drug that blocks conversion of arachidonic acid to
129) Zileuton
leukotrienes?
Drug that can loosen mucous plug in Cystic fibrosis
130) N-acetylcysteine
patient is?
Inflammatory &
131) Bronchoconstriction is mediated by __________ & __________ ?
Sympathetic tone
132) Bipolar disorder is treated with? Lithium
133) Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus? Ganciclovir
134) Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3) treated by? All-trans retinoic acid
135) Common treatment of Burger’s disease? Smoke cessation
136) Prophylaxis for Hemophilus influenza (B)? Rifampin
137) Treatment if hemorrhagic cystitis is? Mesna
138) Medical abortion is done by? Mifepristone
139) Drug of choice for migraine? Sumatriptan
140) Treatment of Neisseria gonorrhea? Ceftriaxone
141) Neural tube defect prevention done by? Folic acid (Folate)
142) Drug of choice for PDA? Indomethacin
143) Prostate carcinoma is treated with? Flutamide
144) Drug used in pulmonary hypertension? Bosentan
145) Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman is treated by? Aromatase inhibitor
146) 1st line drug for depression? SSRIs
147) Imipenem always administered with? Cilastatin
148) Red man syndrome is side effect of? Vancomycin

Nephrotoxicity,
149) Main side effects of aminoglycosides?
Ototoxicity & Teratogen
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150) Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial? Dihydrofolate reductase
151) Fluoroquinolones damages to? Cartilage
152) Metallic taste is by which anti-microbial drug? Metronidazole
153) Optic neuropathy is side effect? Ethambutol

High risk endocarditis with undergoing surgical or dental
154) Amoxicillin
procedures → Antimicrobial prophylaxis?
Empiric therapy for community acquired pneumonia of outdoor
155) Macrolides
patient setting?
156) Drug of choice Cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patient? Fluconazole
Drug which inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting synthesis of
157) Caspofungin
b-glucan?
158) Terbinafine used to treat? Onychomycosis
159) Leishmaniasis is treated by? Sodium Stibogluconate

CMV retinitis in immuno compromised patient when ganciclovir
160) Foscarnet
fails?
161) Orange body fluids is side effect of? Rifampin
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# First Aid Test – Renal System Key

1) Normal GFR? 100 ml/min
Para amino hippuric acid
2) Renal plasma flow best estimated with?
(PAH)
3) Clearance = ___________ ? UV/P
4) Hartnup disease deficiency due to ______ & result in _______ ? Tryptophan → Pellagra
5) Maximum reabsorption is seen in which part of nephron? Early PCT
6) Name the channel on thick ascending loop of henle? Na-K-Cl
7) Transient action of angiotensin II? Vasoconstriction
8) Aldosterone primarily regulate? Volume / Osmolarity? Volume
9) Macula densa is the part of which tubule? Distal convoluted tubule
10) Potent stimulus for erythropoietin? Hypoxia
11) Renin is secreted by? b1 effect / b2 effect / a1 effect a2 effect? b1

1) ↓ plasma Ca
12) Parathyroid hormone secreted in response to? Tell 3 points. 2) ↑ plasma PO4
3) ↓ plasma 1,25-(0H)2 D3
ANP is secreted in response to → Increase ventricular
13) Increases atrial pressure
pressure / Increase atrial pressure?
14) Insulin causes → Hypokalemia / Hyperkalemia? Hypokalemia
15) Digitalis block which enzyme? Na/K ATPase pump
16) U wave on ECG? Hypokalemia

Neuromuscular irritability &
17) Low level of magnesium causes?
arrhythmias
18) For every 1 mEq/L Hco3 how much PCO2 increases? 0.7 mmHg
Which type of renal tubular acidosis associated with calcium
19) 1
containing kidney stone? 1 / 2 / 3 / 4?
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20) Muddy brown cast? Acute Tubular Necrosis

Berger disease
21) Most common glomerulonephritis globally?
(IgA nephropathy)
22) Alport syndrome ___________ mutation in which collagen? Type IV collagen
23) Wagener granulomatous associated with → C anca / P anca? C anca
24) Apple green birefringence is seen in? Amyloidosis

Focal segmental
25) Most common glomerular disease in HIV?
glomerulonephritis
Minimal change
26) Most common glomerular disease in children?
nephropathy
Ammonium magnesium
27) Composition of staghorn calculus?
phosphate
Ethylene glycol (anti-freeze) or vitamin-C abuse causes which
28) Oxalate
crystal?
29) Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion feature of? Diabetic glomerulonephritis
30) Radiolucent stone? Cystine/ Calcium / Uric acid? Uric acid
RCC associated with which syndrome & defect of Von Hippel Lindau →
31)
chromosome number? Chromosome no. 3
Secondary polycythemia associated tumor? RCC / Wilms
32) RCC
tumor / Transitional cell carcinoma?
Painless hematuria? Urethral cancer / Bladder cancer / Renal
33) Bladder carcinoma
cancer?
34) Most common renal malignancy in early childhood? Wilms tumor
Thyroidisation of kidney involve which cast? Neutrophilic /
35) Eosinophilic
Eosinophilic / Plasma cells?
Obstetric catastrophes &
36) Diffuse cortical necrosis associated with?
Septic shock
37) Most common cause of acute renal failure? Acute tubular necrosis
38) ADPKD? Autosomal recessive / Autosomal dominant? Autosomal dominant
Membranoproliferative
39) Tram track appearance seen in?
glomerulonephritis
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40) Erythropoietin is formed by which part of kidney? Peritubular capillaries
41) Name diuretic causes gout? Loop diuretics

Diuretic drug of choice for hypercalciuria? Loop diuretics /
42) Hydrochlorothiazide
Hydrochlorothiazide?
Most common intracellular buffer? Haemoglobin / Protein /
43) Protein
Bicarbonate / Phosphate?
Which has highest protein content? Plasma / HB / Plasma
44) Plasma protein
protein / PO4?
Which of the following has highest clearance? Inulin / PAH /
45) PAH
Glucose / Na?
Angiotensin-I is converted to angiotensin-II in → Lung
46) Lung capillary
capillary endothelium / Kidney / Liver?
Which is absorbed passively from the renal tubules → NH3 /
47) Cl
Cl / Glucose?
48) 65% Na absorption is in? Proximal tubule
49) Thirst is decreased by → ADH / Alcohol / Angiotensin-II? ADH
50) Aldosterone escape caused by → Renin / Aldosterone / ANP? ANP
51) Normal filtration fraction? 20% / 50% / 30%? 20%
52) Charge barrier is lost in? Nephrotic / Nephritic? Nephrotic
53) Ureter passes ___________ the uterine artery? Above / Below? Below
54) Extra cellular volume is measured by? Inulin
 Fenestrated capillary endothelium
Components of Glomerular
55)  Fused basement membrane with heparin sulphate
filtration barrier
 Epithelial layer insisting of podocyte
56) Clearance > GFR shows? Net tubular secretion
57) Renal plasma flow best estimates with? PAH
58) Important clinical clue to diabetes mellitus? Glycosuria
59) PTH increases ca reabsorption by which transporter? Ca/Na exchanger
60) Which part of nephron completely impermeable to water? Thick ascending LOH
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61) 80% of Na is reabsorbed in? Early PCT

NSAIDS can cause acute renal failure by inhibiting the renal
62) Prostaglandins
production of?
Decrease renal pressure,
Decrease Na delivery &
63) JG cells secretes renin in response to?
Increase sympathetic tone
(b1)
64) Peaked T waves are seen in? Hyperkalemia
65) Tetany is caused by? Hypocalcemia
66) Name causes of normal anion gap? Diarrhea, Glue sniffing, RTA
67) Which renal tubular acidosis is hyperkalemic? Type 4 RTA

Advanced renal disease /
68) Waxy casts in urine is due to?
CRF
Good pasture syndrome is which type of hypersensitivity
69) Type II
disease?
Membranous
70) Spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits?
glomerulonephritis
71) Hexagonal kidney stone is seen in? Cysteine
Von Hippel Lindau syndrome is due to deletion in
72) Chromosome no. 3
chromosome number?
73) Acute pyelonephritis affects which part of the kidney? Cortex sparing glomeruli
Why is the left kidney harvested for transplantation rather Because left kidney is
74)
than the right? longer renal vein
Dilates the afferent
75) What are the effects of prostaglandins on the glomerulus?
arterioles & increases GFR
PCT by sodium dependent
76) Where amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron & how?
transporters
What substance is secreted in early proximal convoluted
77) Ammonia
tubule that acts as a buffer?
Which three ions indirectly reabsorbed in thick ascending
78) Na, K & Cl
loop of henle?
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79) On which segment of nephron does aldosterone act? Collecting tubule

80) What is the site of action of angiotensin converting enzyme? Lungs
81) Which cells produce renin in the kidney? Juxtaglomerular cells
What is the primary electrolyte disturbance in metabolic
82) Serum bicarbonate
acidosis?
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common
83) SLE
cause of death of which systemic disease?
Azotemia, Hypertension,
What are the four clinical finding associated with nephritic
84) Oliguria, & Proteinuria
syndrome?
<3.5g/day
85) Most commonly composed element of kidney stones is _____? Calcium
Wilms tumor, Aniridia,
86) What are the four components of WAGR complex? Genitourinary malformation
& Mental motor Retardation
Carbonic anhydride
87) What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide?
inhibitor
Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis for patient allergens
88) Ethacrynic acid
to sulfa drugs?
Hyperglycemia,
Hyperlipidemia,
89) What are the effects of hydrochlorothiazide toxicity?
Hyperuricemia,
Hypercalcemia
Na-K-Cl transporter
90) Mechanism of action of loop diuretic?
inhibitor
It prevents inactivation of
Mechanism of action of angioedema caused by ACE bradykinin which is a potent
91)
inhibitors? vasodilator that's leads to
angioedema
Hyperlipidemia, Edema,
What are the four clinical finding associated with nephrotic
92) Fatty casts & Massive
syndrome?
proteinuria >3.5g/day
Renal Ischemia, Crush
93) Name 3 causes of acute tubular necrosis?
Injuries & Toxins
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# First Aid Test – Reproductive System Key

1) Lymph drainage of ovaries? Para aortic lymph nodes
Suspensory ligament of
2) Ovarian vessels are in which ligament?
ovaries
Simple ciliates columnar
3) Fallopian tubule epithelium?
epithelium
Ejaculation caused by? Parasympathetic / Sympathetic /
4) Pudendal
Pudendal?
5) FSH is inhibited by? Inhibin
6) Which cells produces anti-mullerian hormone? Sertoli cells
7) Spermatogenesis occurs in? Seminiferous tubules

Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen Adipose tissue & Sertoli
8)
in _________ and _________ ? cells
9) 5-alpha reductase inhibited by which drug? Finasteride
10) Placenta is source of which type of estrogen? Estriol
11) Estrogen receptors are expressed in which part of cell? Cytoplasm

During menstrual cycle what is responsible for temperature
12) Progesterone
increase?
13) Meiosis-II is arrested in which phase until fertilization? Metaphase-II
Implantation within wall of uterus occurs on which day after
14) 6th day
fertilization?
15) HCG detectable in blood after how many days after conception? 1 week
16) The best test to confirm menopause? Inc FSH

Hydatidiform mole,
Choriocarcinoma,
17) Name the elevated HCG in pathologic states ?
Gestational Trophoblastic
Tumors
18) NO Barr body is feature of? Turner syndrome
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Androgen insensitivity
19) Most common form of male pseudo-hermaphroditism?
syndrome
20) Penis at 12 caused in? 5 α reductase deficiency
21) Honeycombed uterus seen in? Hydatidiform mole

Cerebral hemorrhage &
22) Mortality in eclampsia is due to? Name 2 causes?
ARDS
23) Painful bleeding in 3rd trimester? Abruptio placenta
24) Oligohydramnios can lead to which syndrome? Potter syndrome
25) HPV 18--- E7 gene product inhibits which gene? Rb suppressor gene
Invasive cervical
26) Koilocytosis seen in?
carcinoma
27) Chocolate cysts? Treatment? Endometriosis → Danazol
28) Most common gynecological malignancy? Endometrial carcinoma
29) Most common of all tumors in females? Leiomyoma (fibroid)
30) Worst prognostic gynecological carcinoma? Ovarian carcinoma

Amenorrhea, Infertility,
31) PCOD clinically manifests by?
Obesity
32) Most common ovarian mass in young female? Follicular cyst
33) Stroma ovarrii contains? Functional thyroid tissue

Yolk sac tumor
34) Schiller-duval bodies seen in?
(Endodermal sinus )
35) Call-Exner bodies seen in? Granulosa cell tumor
36) Spindle shaped tumors that are desmin positive? Sarcoma botryoides
37) Yolk sac tumor marker? AFP
38) GI malignancy that metastasize to ovaries? Krukenberg tumor
39) Leaf like projections are seen in which breast tumor? Phyllodes tumor
Axillary lymph node
40) Single most important prognostic factor or Breast cancer?
involvement
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41) Most common cause of acute mastitis? Staphylococcus Aureus
42) Most common cause of breast lump? In female age >25? Fibrocystic disease
Periurethral lobe
43) BPH involve which lobe?
(Lateral & Middle lobe)
44) What is the increased risk of cryptorchidism? Prematurity
45) Fried egg appearances seen in? Seminoma
46) Bent penis due to acquired fibrous tissue formation? Disease? Peyronie disease
47) Drug used to treat male pattern baldness? Finasteride
48) Drug used in premature uterine contractions? Ritodrine & Terbutaline
49) Drug used for breast cancer as well as to treat osteoporosis? Raloxifene
50) Malignant painful worst prognosis testicular germ cell tumor? Seminoma
Posterior lobe
51) Prostatic adenocarcinoma involves which lobe?
(peripheral zone)
52) Comedocarcinoma has which necrosis? Caseous necrosis
53) Classic stellate morphology shows which breast carcinoma? Invasive ductal
Ovarian fibroma, Ascites,
54) Meigs syndrome? Triad?
& Hydrothorax
55) Diethylstilbestrol used in pregnancy leads to? Clear cell carcinoma
56) Ovarian cancer marker? CA 125
57) Dysgerminoma associated with which syndrome? Turner syndrome

Fat, Hair, Teeth, Bone &
58) Ovarian dermoid cyst may contain?
Cartilage
59) Treatment of endometriosis? Danazol
60) Painless bleeding in any trimester? Placenta previa

5 alpha reductase is which type of disorder? Autosomal
61) dominant / Autosomal recessive / X-linked dominant / X-linked Autosomal recessive
recessive?
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62) Meiosis-I is arrested in which phase until ovulation? Prophase-I

Blood from ruptured follicle cases peritoneal irritation that can
63) Mittelschmerz
mimic appendicitis called?
64) Most common site of fertilization in fallopian tube? Ampulla
65) Luteal day is usually if how many days? 4 days
66) Spermatogenesis begin at puberty with? Spermatogonia

Ovaries, Fallopian tube &
67) Broad ligament contains?
Round ligament of uterus
Ligament of ovary lies ______________ to uterus? Lateral / Medial
68) Lateral
/ Front / Back?
69) Ovary epithelium? Simple cuboidal
70) LH surge causes? Ovulation
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# First Aid Test – Respiratory System Key

Respiratory bronchioles,
1) Respiratory zone consists of?
Alveolar ducts & Alveoli
Mucus secretion are swept out of lungs toward mouth by
2) Ciliates columnar cells
which cells?
Dipalmitoyl
3) Pulmonary surfactant contains?
phosphatidylcholine
Superior portion of right
4) Aspirated peanut at supine position reaches?
inferior lobe
Thoracic duct & Azygous
5) Aorta at T12 Other components are?
vein
6) Phrenic nerve root value? C3,C 4, C 5
7) important muscle in expiration? Rectus abdominus
8) Kallikrein activates _____________ ? Bradykinin

Neonatal respiratory
9) Surfactants deficit in which disease?
distress syndrome
10) Vital capacity? TV + IRV + ERV
Which part of lung has largest contribution of functional dead
11) Apex of healthy lung
space?
12) Change in lung volume in given change in pressure is called? Compliance
13) Relaxed form of HB has high affinity for O2? True / False? True
14) CO has _____________ time greater affinity than O2? 200
15) Methemoglobinemia can be treated with? Methylene blue
16) Fetal dissociation curve is shifted to? Left / Right? Left
17) Oxygen HB dissociation curve is sigmoid due to? Positive cooperatively
18) Normal pulmonary artery pressure? 10-14 mmHg
19) Cyanosis result when deoxyhemoglobin HB reaches? >5 mmHg
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20) V/Q = 0 what does it means? Airway obstruction (shunt)

Bicarbonate,
21) CO2 is transported in forms? Name them? Carbaminohemoglobin,
Dissolved form
22) Bohr effect seen in? Peripheral tissues
23) Chronic hypoxia pulmonary vasoconstriction results in? RVH

Chest pain, Tachypnea &
24) Pulmonary embolism symptoms?
Dyspnea
25) Amniotic fluid emboli can lead to? DIC
26) Hypercoagulability, stasis, and endothelial injury? Virchow's triad
27) Barrel shape chest seen in? Emphysema
28) Test for asthma? Methacholine challenge

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy & non-caseating
29) Sarcoidosis
granuloma? Disease?
30) Which effects lower lobes? Asbestosis
In neonatal respiratory distress syndrome therapeutic
31) Retinopathy of prematurity
supplemental O2 can result in?
32) NRDS persistent low O2 tension can lead to risk of? PDA
33) Curschmann spirals seen in? Asthma
34) Type of hypersensitivity in asthma? Type-II

Bronchogenic carcinoma &
35) Asbestosis associated with?
Pleural mesothelioma
Surfactant is made by _____________ cells and mostly Type II Pneumocytes → 35th
36)
abundant after _____________ week of gestation? week of gestation
37) Treatment of sleep apnea? Weight loss, CPAP, Surgery
38) Dull percussion note? Pleural effusion
39) Coin lesion on X-ray film? Lung Cancer
40) Lung carcinoma associated with smoking? Squamous cell carcinoma
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41) In spontaneous pneumothorax, tracheal deviation towards? Towards side of lesion
42) Carcinoid tumors secretes? Serotonin
43) Salt and pepper histological feature seen in? Small cell lung carcinoma
44) Horner syndrome? Ptosis, Miosis & Anhydrosis
45) Most common cause of lung abscess? Staphylococcus aureus
46) Farmer disease shows which type of hyperactivity reaction? Mixed type II / III
47) Facial plethora seen in? SVC obstruction
48) In pneumothorax? Decrease tactile fremitus

Spontaneous pneumothorax most commonly occurs
49) Rupture of apical bleb
because of?
Diphenhydramine,
50) Name 1st generation H1 blockers? Dimenhydrinate,
Chlorpheniramine
51) Theophylline causes bronchodilators by? Inhibits phosphodiesterase
52) Mast cell stabilizers? Cromolyn
53) Drug of pulmonary hypertension? Bonestan

NMDA glutaminergic
54) Dextromethorphan act on which receptors?
receptors
Name the transcription factor that induces production of
55) NF-kB
TNF-alpha?
56) Lymphatic pleural effusion also called? Chylothorax
57) Psammoma bodies seen in which lung disease? Mesothelioma
58) Most aggressive lung carcinoma? Small cell lung carcinoma
59) Sleep apnea breathing stops for how much time? 10 sec
Prematurity, Maternal
60) Risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
diabetes, Cesarean section
61) Egg cell calcification of hilar lymph nodes? Silicosis
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Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is associated with which lung

62) Adenocarcinoma of lung
carcinoma?
Busulfan, Bleomycin &
63) Drugs causing restrictive lung disease?
Amiodarone
Homan sign, Dorsiflexion of
64) What sign is present in DVT? And how we check it?
foot
Primary pulmonary hypertension is due to inactivation of
65) BMPR2 gene
which gene?
66) 1gm HB binds with = ________ ml O2? 1.34 ml
67) Functional residual capacity? RV + ERV
68) Pain from the diaphragm can be referred to? Shoulder

In perfusion limited .. Diffusion can be increased only if
69) Blood flow
________ increases?
70) Majority of blood CO2 is carried as ________ in plasma? Bicarbonate
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# Anatomy Test – Abdomen Region Key

Anterior rami of lower six
Cutaneous nerve supply to the anterior abdominal wall is
1) thoracic & 1st lumbar
derived from the?
nerves
2) Which dermatome is located over xiphoid process? T7
3) The lymphatic below the umbilicus drain into? Superficial inguinal node
4) Colles facia is which part of body? Perineum

Internal oblique muscle
5) The cremaster muscle is derived from which muscle fibre?
fibre
External oblique, Internal
6) Rectus sheath is formed by which muscles? oblique & Transversus
abdominis muscle
Anterior abdominal wall of rectus sheath is firmly attached to
7) Tendinous intersection
_____________ of rectus abdominis muscle?
Internal oblique &
8) Conjoint tendon is formed by which muscles?
Transverse abdominis
Fascia transversalis &
9) The femoral sheath is formed by?
Fascia iliac psoas
10) Inguinal ligament is formed by aponeurosis of? External oblique muscle
11) The length of inguinal canal is? 1.5 inch (4 cm)
12) The deep inguinal opening is opening in? Fascia transversalis

The external spermatic fascia is attached to margins of which
13) Superficial inguinal ring
ring?
14) Pyramidalis muscle is supplied by which nerve? 12 thoracic nerve
Genital branch of
15) Cremaster muscle is supplied by which nerve?
genitofemoral nerve
16) Action of cremaster muscle is? Retract testis
17) Cremasteric fascia derived from? Internal oblique muscle
18) __________ is the closed sac invaginated from behind the testis? Tunica vaginalis
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19) Gubernaculum plays an important role in? Descent of testis
20) Outer fibrous capsule of testis is called? Tunica albuginea
21) Epididymis length is approximately? 6 meters
22) Testicular artery is branch of? Abdominal aorta
23) Left Testicular vein drains into? Left renal vein
24) Lymph draining from testis is to? Para aortic lymph nodes
25) Para aortic lymph node are at the level of? First lumbar vertebra
26) The inferior epigastric artery arises from? External iliac artery
27) Superficial epigastric artery is branch of? Femoral artery

The anastomoses between lateral thoracic vein & superficial
28) Thoraco-epigastric vein
epigastric vein is called?
The communication between greater sac and lesser sac with
29) Epiploic foramen
one another through?
30) Greater omentum connects greater curvature of stomach with? Transverse colon
31) Which ligament connects the stomach to hilus of spleen with? Gastrosplenic ligament
32) Superiorly of Epiploic foramen is which part of liver? Caudate lobe of liver
33) Spaces between diaphragm and the liver is? Sub phrenic spaces
34) Parietal peritoneum in pelvis is mainly supplied by? Obturator nerve
35) Visceral peritoneum is supplied for? Stretch only
36) Most tubular part of stomach? Pylorus
37) Esophagus enters the stomach at the? Cardiac orifice
38) Short gastric arteries are derived from? Splenic artery
39) All lymph nodes from the stomach eventually passes to? Celiac nodes
40) Duodenum is of which alphabetic shape? C shape
41) First part of duodenum is at the level of which vertebra? L1
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42) Ligament of Treitz attached to which part of duodenum? 4th part of duodenum
Superior mesenteric
43) Inferior pancreato-duodenal artery is branch of?
artery
44) Length if ilium is? 3.6 m
45) Appendix attached to which surface of cecum? Posteromedial
46) Appendicular artery is branch of? Posterior cecal artery
47) Left colic flexure is held up by? Phreni-cocolic ligament

Left colic artery branch of
48) Distal one third of transverse colon supplied by which artery?
inferior mesenteric artery
49) Length of transverse colon is? 38cm
Sigmoid colon is continuous with rectum in front of which
50) 3rd sacral vertebra
vertebra?
Transverse & Sigmoid
51) Large intestine is retro peritoneal except?
colon
52) Fatty tags attached to the wale of large intestine is called? Appendices epiplocea
53) Right lobe is divided into quadrate a caudate lobe by? Gall bladder
54) Ports hepatis is on which surface of liver? Postero-inferior
55) Ligamentum Teres is the fibrous remains of? Umbilical vein
56) Ligamentum venosum is the fibrous remains of? Ductus venosus
57) Gall bladder has a capacity of approximately? 30 ml
58) Cystic artery is branch of? Right hepatic artery
59) Gall bladder contracts In response to hormone? Cholecystokinin
60) Bile duct is formed by the union of? Cystic duct & CHD
61) The circular smooth muscle of ampulla of Vater called ? Sphincter of oddi
62) Main pancreatic duct open in which part of duodenum? Second part
63) Largest single mass of lymphoid tissue is? Spleen
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64) Artery of foregut is? Celiac artery

Left gastric artery,
65) Name terminal branches if celiac trunk? Splenic artery & Hepatic
arteries
66) The policeman of abdomen is? Omentum
67) Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by? Inferior vene cava
Round ligament &
68) Inguinal canal of female contains?
Ilioimguinal nerve
69) Internal spermatic fascia is derived from? Transversalis fascia
70) In inguinal hernia, posterior wall os formed by? Conjoint tendon
71) Iliac crest marks the level of which lumbar vertebral body? L4
72) Nerve supply to Pyramidalis? Sub costal nerve
73) Intermittent pain of small intestine felt at? Umbilicus
74) Left gastroepiploic artery is branch of? Splenic artery

Superior mesenteric
75) Artery which crosses third part if duodenum?
artery
Superior mesenteric
76) Abdominal angina is due to occlusion of?
artery
77) Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by? Ligament of Treitz
78) Major site of peptic ulcer? Duodenum

All EXCEPT first 2cm of
79) Which part of duodenum is retro peritoneal?
first part
80) Blood vessels related to para duodenal fossa is? Portal vein
81) Most common type of intussusception is? Ilio-colic
82) Parasympathetic supply of sigmoid colon is? Pelvic splanchnic nerves
83) Sigmoid and descending colon drains into? Inf mesenteric nodes
84) Capsule of liver is known as? Glisson capsule
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A pathologist want to pass dye into the liver. He will reach

85) Ligamentum Teres
through?
86) Weight of liver is? 1.5 kg
87) Hepatic zone with least blood supply is? Zone c
88) Proximal part of common bole duct is supplied by? Cystic artery
89) Perinephric fat and kidney is enclosed by? Gerota's fascia
90) The ascent of horse shoe shaped kidney is prevented by? Inferior mesenteric artery
91) Renal artery lies at the level of? L1
92) Right supra renal vein drains into? Inferior vena cava
93) A single kidney shows how many segments? 5

Entrance at urinary
94) Narrowest part of urinary bladder is?
bladder
95) Right gastroepiploic artery is branch of? Gastro-duodenal artery
96) Right gastric artery is branch of? Hepatic artery
97) Short gastric artery are branch of? Splenic artery
98) Cystic artery is branch of? Hepatic artery
99) Varicocele more common on which side? Left side
100) The testis descent into scrotum is preceded by? Gubernaculum
101) Length of epididymus is? 7 meter long
102) Depth of mesentery from root to gut is about? 15 cm
103) The muscularis mucosa is thickest in which part of GIT? Esophagus
104) Enterochromaffin cells produces? Serotonin & Endorphin
105) Diverticulosis is most common in? Sigmoid colon
106) Lumbar plexus is embedded within? Psoas muscle
107) Average capacity of renal pelvis is? Less than 5 ml
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108) In scrotum fatty layer of superficial fascia is called? Dartos fascia
109) Testicular artery arises from aorta at? L2
110) Celiac artery arises from aorta at level of? T12
111) Splenic artery runs along which border of pancreas? Upper
112) Largest branch of lumbar plexus? Femoral nerve
113) Largest branch of celiac artery is? Splenic artery
114) Cremasteric artery is branch of? Inferior epigastric artery
115) Which part of duodenum is longest? 3rd part of duodenum
116) Root of mesentery is crossed by which part of duodenum? 3rd part of duodenum
117) Shortest part of colon? Ascending colon
118) Spleen develops from which mesogastrium? Dorsal mesogastrium
119) Most posterior part of stomach? Fundus
120) Gall bladder has capacity of? 30-50ml
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# Anatomy Test – Pelvis & Perineum Region Key

1) Word pelvis means? Basin
4 bones → 2 hip bones,
2) Bony pelvis is composed of how many bones? Name them?
Sacrum & Coccyx
3) Below the brim is which pelvis? True or False pelvis? True pelvis
4) Pelvic inlet bounded Posteriorly by? Sacral promontory

During pregnancy, the ligament of pelvis are relaxed by which Estrogen, Progesterone &
5)
hormones? Relaxin
6) Pelvis is which shaped in males? Heart shaped
7) The distance between Ischial tuberosities measure about? 4 inch
Pubic bones, Pubic rami

8) Anterior pelvic wall is formed by?
& Symphysis pubis
9) Obturator canal is a gap in? Obturator membrane
10) Sacro spinous ligament is which shaped? Triangular
11) Pelvic floor is formed by? Pelvic diaphragm
12) The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete on which side? Anteriorly
13) Which fascia is called parametrium in females? Visceral pelvic fascia

Sacral plexus lies on posterior pelvic wall infront of which
14) Piriformis muscle
muscle?
15) Root value of sciatic nerve? L4-5, S1-3
16) Gluteus medius muscle supplied by? Superior gluteal nerve
17) Root value of pudendal nerve? S2, S3 & S4
18) Gluteus Maximus is supplied by? Inferior gluteal nerve
19) Obturator nerve emerges from which border of psoas muscle? Medial border
20) Parietal peritoneum on the lateral pelvic wall? Obturator nerve
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21) Pelvic splanchnic nerves arises from? S2, S3 & S4
Front of promontory of
22) Superior hypo gastric plexus is situated in?
the sacrum
23) Common iliac artery divide to external & internal at which point? In front of sacroiliac joint
24) Deep circumflex iliac artery is branch of? External iliac artery
25) Upper portion of bladder is supplied by? Superior vesical artery
26) Artery to vas deferens arises from? Inferior vesical artery
27) Obturator artery leaves the pelvis through? Obturator canal
28) Internal pudendal artery leaves the pelvis through? Greater sciatic foramen
Ilio-lumber artery, Lateral
29) Name the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery? sacral arteries & Superior
gluteal artery
30) Direct communication of the inferior mesenteric artery is? Superior rectal artery
31) Ovarian artery arises from abdominal aorta at the level of? First lumbar vertebra
32) Median sacral artery arises at? Bifurcation of aorta
33) External iliac vein is continuation of? Femoral vein
34) The left ovarian vein drains into? Left renal vein
35) Length of sigmoid colon is? 10-15 inches
36) Sigmoid colon is attached to pelvic wall by? Sigmoid mesocolol
37) Rectum begins in front of which sacrum? 3rd sacral vertebra
38) The lower part of rectum is dilated to form? Rectal ampulla
39) In male ureters near termination is crossed by? Vas deferens
40) Ureter has how many constrictions? 3 constrictions
41) Urinary bladder has maximum capacity of approximately? 500 ml
42) Empty bladder is which shaped? Pyramidal
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Median umbilical
43) Apex of bladder connects with?
ligament
44) The neck of bladder point on which side? Inferiorly
45) Internal surface of bladder is called? Trigone
46) The muscular coat of bladder is which muscle? Detrusor muscle
47) In male neck of bladder Is held in position by which ligament? Puboprostatic ligament
Internal & External lymph
48) Lymph drains from bladder in?
nodes
49) In females, neck of bladder is attached by which ligament? Pubo-vesical ligament
50) Approximate length of vas deferens is? 45cm
51) Vas deferens joins the duct of seminal vesicle to form? Ejaculatory duct
52) Ejaculatory duct open in which part of urethra? Prostatic part
53) Prostate surround which part of urethra? Prostatic part
54) Lymph drainage of prostate is into? Internal iliac nodes

Inferior hypogastric
55) Which plexus supplies the prostate?
plexus
56) Ovary is attached to the back of ye broad ligament by? Mesovarium
57) Ovary is covered by modified area of peritoneum called? Germinal epithelium

Ovary usually lies near the lateral wall of pelvis in a depression
58) Ovarian fossa
called?
Which ligament of the uterus is the remains of the lower part of
59) Round ligament
Gubernaculum?
60) Lymph drainage of ovary is in? Para aortic nodes
61) After pregnancy ovaries may prolapse into? Pouch of Douglas

62) Which is the narrowest part of the tube? Isthmus
63) Widest part of the uterine tube is? Ampulla
64) The cavity of cervix communicates with cavity of body through? Internal OS
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65) Forward bending of the uterus on the long axis of vagina? Anteversions
66) Ligament that attaches the cervix to pubic bones? Pubocervical ligaments
67) Lymph from fundus drains into? Para aortic nodes
68) Lower third of the vagina is supported by? Perineal body
69) Vaginal artery is branch of? Internal iliac artery

Inferior hypogastric
70) Which plexus supplied the vagina?
plexus
71) The pelvic fascia in the region of uterine cervix is often called? Parametrium
72) Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity is the? Rectouterine pouch
73) The anterior triangle which contains urogenital orifices is c/d? Urogenital triangle
Superficial perineal
74) The potential space that lies beneath the skin of perineum is?
pouch
75) In males the superficial perineal pouch contains? Root of penis
76) At the distal end of penis, corpus spongiosum expands to form? Glans penis
77) The bulb of penis is continuous anteriorly with the? Corpus spongiosum
Deep & External iliac
78) The lymph of glans penis drains into?
lymph nodes
79) Penis is supplied by which nerve? Pudendal nerve
80) Erectile tissue drains into? Internal iliac nodes
81) The ducts of bulbourethral glands open into which urethra? Penile urethra
Prostatic, Membranous &
82) Male urethra is divided in which parts?
Penile urethra
83) Widest part of urethra is? Prostatic urethra
84) Which is the narrowest part of urethra? External meatus
Clitoris, Opening of
85) Name the contents of vestibule of the vagina?
urethra & Vagina
86) Shortest part of urethra is? Membranous urethra
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87) The cries of clitoris are covered by? Ischio-cavenous muscles
88) The length of female urethra is? 1.5 inches
89) Upper half of the anal canal is supplied by? Superior rectal artery
Medial group of
90) The lower half of the anal canal is drained into?
superficial inguinal nodes
91) Pudendal nerve & internal pudendal nerves lie in which canal? Pudendal canal
92) The inferior rectal artery originates from the? Internal pudendal artery
93) The Obturator internus muscle received it's nerve supply from? Sacral plexus
94) The sphincter urethrae received it's innervation from the? Pudendal nerve
95) The prostatic venous plexus drains into the? Internal iliac veins
In most women the anatomic position of the uterus when Anteverted and
96)
bladder empty is? anteflexed
97) Erections is the response of the activity of the? Parasympathetic nerve
98) Cancer of prostate can metastasize to the skull via the? Vertebral venous plexus
Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder metastasize to
99) External and internal iliac
which of the following lymph nodes?
100) The internal Anal sphincter receives it's nerve supply from the? Hypogastric plexuses
101) Right testicular vein drains into? Inferior vena cava
102) Patient feels pain on defection. Nerve involved is? Inferior rectal nerve
Superficial perineal
103) When the bulbar urethra is injured, urine will leak into?
pouch
104) Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a boy? Posterior urethral valve
Both internal & external
105) Cervical carcinoma is drained by which lymph node?
iliac
106) Tumor of cervix will spread to labius majora via? Round ligament of uterus
107) Ejaculatory duct opens into? Prostatic urethra
108) Carcinoma of prostate drains into? Internal iliac nodes
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109) During childbirth, a major bony landmark used for childbirth is? Ischial spine
110) Female pelvis is also called? Gynecoid
111) What is the landmark for bishop scoring? Ischial spine
112) Weight bearing line passes through? Ischial tuberosity

The branch of internal carotid artery which remains in true
113) Middle rectal artery
pelvis throughout its course is?
114) The accessory Obturator artery is a branch of? Inferior epigastric artery
115) To reach the uterus, uterine artery crosses the? Ureter
116) Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes? Superficial inguinal node
117) Ductus deferens end in? Ejaculatory duct
118) Dorsal vein of penis drains into which plexus? Santorini's plexus
119) The most fixed part of uterus is? Cervix
120) The only part of vagina to have peritoneal covering is? Posterior fornix
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# Anatomy Test – Thorax Region Key

Sternum, Ribs & Costal
1) Bones of thoracic wall consists of ?
cartilage
2) Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone
3) Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis? T4-5
4) Common site or bone marrow biopsy? Body of sternum
5) Name false ribs? 8th , 9th & 10th
6) Which part is weakest part of rib? Angle of rib
7) The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the? Abdominal musculature
8) Which type of movement is there in costochondral joints? No movements

Internal & Innermost
9) The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between?
intercostal muscle
10) Nerve supply of diaphragm? Phrenic nerve
Which structure passes through aortic opening? Aorta, Thoracic duct &
11)
Azygous vein
12) Most important muscle of respiration? Diaphragm
13) Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra? T8
14) Anterior intercostal veins drains into? Internal thoracic veins

Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal
15) 6th intercostal space
space?
Sup epigastric artery &
16) Anterior intercostal artery terminates as?
Musculo-phrenic artery
Mediastinal artery of
anterior intercostal
17) Thymus is supplied by ?
artery, Superior thyroid &
Inferior thyroid artery
Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower
18) 1st intercostal nerve
trunk of brachial plexus?
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Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial

19) 2nd intercostal nerve
side of arm?
In coronary artery disease, pain refereed to medial side of arm
20) Intercostobrachial nerve
due to?
Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present
21) Middle mediastinum
in which mediastinum?
22) Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra? 6th cervical vertebra
23) Length of trachea? 13cm
24) Trachea divides at the level of? T4-5

Esophagus & led
25) Posteriorly trachea contains?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
26) Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives? Superior lobar bronchus
Right bronchus is wider &
27) Foreign body tends to enter right bronchus because?
shorter
28) Visceral pleura is sensitive to? Stretch
Superior & Inferior lobar
29) Left bronchus on entering the hilum divides into?
bronchus
30) What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall? Endo thoracic fascia
31) How are lungs attached to mediastinum? By their roots
32) Name the lobes of right lung? Upper, Middle & Lower
Broncho-pulmonary
33) Functional unit of lung is?
segments
34) Shape of broncho-pulmonary segment? Pyramidal
Descending thoracic
35) Bronchial arteries are branches of?
aorta
36) All lymph nodes living hilum drains into? Tracheobronchial nodes
37) Lungs are supplied by which plexus? Pulmonary plexus

Contraction & descent of
38) Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by?
the diaphragm
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39) Quite expiration is which type of process? Passive process

Sterno-pericardial
40) Pericardium attached anteriorly to the sternum by the?
ligaments
41) Pericardium supplied by which nerve? Phrenic nerve
42) Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space? 5th intercostal space
43) Skeleton of heart consists of? Fibrous rings
44) Superior vene cava has how many valves? No valve
45) Coronary sinus open into which chamber of heart? Right atrium
46) Greater part of anterior surface of heart is due to? Right ventricle
47) Name the cusps of tricuspid valves? Anterior, Septal & Inferior
48) Right coronary artery arises from which sinus? Anterior aortic sinus
Medial end of 2nd left
49) Pulmonary valve is best heard at?
intercostal space
Closure of tricuspid &
50) First heart sound is produced by?
bicuspid valve
51) The conducting system of heart is composed of which muscle? Modified cardiac muscle
52) Name the pacemaker of heart? Sinoatrial node
53) SA node usually supplied by? Right coronary artery

Septal cusp of tricuspid
54) AV node is located just above which cusp?
valve
55) Right bundle branch is supplied by? Left coronary artery
Only route for cardiac impulse to spread from atria to ventricle
56) AV bundle
is?
57) Which is the largest branch of right coronary artery? Marginal branch
Left posterior aortic sinus
58) Left coronary artery arises from?
of ascending aorta
Which branch of left coronary artery supplies right & left Anterior interventricular
59)
ventricle? branch
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60) Name the largest vein draining the heart? Coronary sinus
61) Coronary sinus is continuation of? Great cardiac vein
62) Anterior cardiac vein drain into? Right atrium

Right subclavian & Right
63) Brachiocephalic vein is formed by union of?
internal jugular vein
64) Azygous vein drain into which aspect of superior vene cava? Posterior aspect
Right ascending lumbar &
65) Azygous vein usually formed by?
Right sub-costal vein
66) Ligamentum arteriosus is remains of? Ductus arteriosus
67) Intercostal nodes lies at which site of ribs? Head of ribs
68) Brachiocephalic nodes drain lymph from? Thyroid & Pericardium
69) Thoracic duct begins at the abdomen as a dilated sac called? Cisterna chyli
70) Length of right lymphatic duct is? 0.05 inch (1.3cm)
71) The vagus nerves the abdomen through which opening? Esophageal opening
72) Phrenic nerves passes in ___________ of root of lungs? Front
73) Name the only motor nerve supplying the diaphragm? Phrenic
The first thoracic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical
74) Stellate ganglion
ganglion is called?
Branches of descending
75) Middle third of esophagus is supplied by?
thoracic aorta
76) Upper end of esophagus is at level of? C6
Enlargement of which part of heart causes esophageal
77) Left atrium
obstruction?
78) Esophagogastric junction is at? T7
79) The carina is part of? Trachea
80) Tracheostomy site for 6 years old child is between? 3-4 tracheal rings
81) Parietal and fibrous pericardium supplied by which nerve? Phrenic nerve
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82) Right border of the heart is mainly formed by? Right atrium
Which vein of heart is located in posterior interventricular

83) Middle cardiac vein
sulcus?
84) 1st rib articulates with which vertebra? T1

The longest fibres of diaphragm arise from which costal
85) 9th constable cartilage
cartilage?
86) The phrenic nerve is separated by inferior vene cava by? Fibrous pericardium
87) Posterior surface of base of heart is entirely formed by? Left atrium
88) SA node is which shaped? Crescent
89) Tetralogy of Fallot is due to unequal division of? Truncus arteriosus
90) Lung contain how much bronchi pulmonary segments? 10 segments
91) Body of sternum is also called? Gladiolus
92) Apex of heart is formed by? Left ventricle
93) Most anterior structure in thoracic inlet is? Sternohyoid
94) J receptors are present in? Alveolar interstitium
95) Thoracic duct also called? Pecquet duct
96) Best guide of inter segmental planes is? Veins draining segment
97) Sympathetic supply of heart is from? T1-T5
98) Strongest part of parietal pleura is? Costal part
99) Lungs are supplied by? Bronchial arteries
100) Lingula is part of which lobe? Left upper lobe
101) Coronary arteries arises from which aorta? Ascending aorta
102) The largest group of axillary nodes is? Apical

Lateral wall of left
103) Most common site for myocardial infarction is?
ventricle
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104) Phrenic nerve is which type of nerve? Mixed type
105) Which nerve segment is commonly injured? T1
106) Female has which type of respiration? Thoracic type
107) Left bundle branch supplied by? Right coronary artery
108) Complete ossification of body if sternum occurs at? 21 years
109) Pleural pain referred to shoulder by which nerve segment? C3, C4 & C5
110) Pretracheal fascia infections spread to? Anterior mediastinum
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IMPORTANT TIPS FOR SOLVING MCQS BY DR MEDGUIDE

First have faith in Allah Almighty and then in hard work what you have studied, it will change your mindset from
1)
fear of failure and frustration to trust in Allah’s blessing and success.
Always read the complete stem of question with all options very carefully as to be sure that you understand what
2) is being asked, even you feel that first option is the right choice because sometimes there are two options, one is
exactly right, and other one is close to right answer.
So read each option for familiarity but always keep in your mind that only one option can be the correct answer
3)
so choose the best one.
4) While reading the stem, pay more attention to key words like “not true, incorrect, except, most, best etc”
If the stem is too much long, go down and read all options first then keeping the options in your mind while reading
5)
stem think about what the question is asked.
If an option is partially correct, uncertainly consider it to be incorrect. This thing will help you eliminate wrong
options and increase your odds of choosing the correct one by considering the remaining options and select the
6)
one you think is the answer. At this point, you may quickly scan the stem to be sure you understand the question
and your answer.
7) The actual online examination is totally different from the conventional examination.
8) Your examination begin after clicking on "Start Exam" button once you have read all instructions.
As exam begun, 100 questions (in each paper) will appear on screen one by one with options (A-E) along two
9)
buttons of “NEXT” and “SKIP” at the bottom left and right with “Timer” of 120 minutes at the top of right side.
It is important to be thorough to understand the question, but it is equally important for you to keep moving as
10) to give each question its due time. Examination will automatically move to next question by "Next" Button at
bottom left of screen.
Only skip those questions about which you have no idea. It will get repeated after your complete first round of
11)
100 questions as to think about them in second round.
12) You can skip a single question only twice at maximum.
13) There is absolutely no negative marking so don’t leave any question unanswered.
If you don’t know the right answer, make an educated guess. Your score is based on the number of correct answers,
14)
not the number you get incorrect.
Sometimes a same question appears in same or both papers twice. If you are 100% sure about the correct answer,
15)
mark the same one every time otherwise if you are uncertain you can choose another close to the right answer.
You can select any choice from A to E but once you submitted response by pressing the next button, that question
16)
cannot be reviewed, and you won’t be able to change your choice/answer.
17) Best of luck to all FCPS-1 aspirants. May Allah Almighty bless everyone and all succeed in achieving their goals.
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Last Minute First Aid Notes by DR Noor Ul Basar

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# First Aid Test – Biochemistry Key

2) What inactivates transcription of DNA? Hypermethylation

3) Deamination of cytosine makes? Uracil

4) The only histone that is not on the nucleosome core? H1

12) The smallest RNA is? tRNA

13) Name the stop codons? UGA, UAA, UAG

19) Most abundant RNA? rRNA

20) Rb and P53 inhibits? G1-S

21) Permanent cells remain in which phase of cell cycle? G0

22) Nissl bodies contain? RER

31) _________ inhibits NA-K pump by binding to K site? Ouabain (glycoside)

32) Skin contain which type of collagen? Type I

33) Type of collagen defective in osteogenesis imperfecta? Type I

34) Hydroxylation of proline and lysine requires? Vitamin C (as cofactor)

42) Neither of 2 alleles is dominant. Term? Codominance

46) Imprinting is due to activation or deletion of genes on? Chromosome no. 15

47) Happy puppet in which syndrome? Angelman's syndrome

48) Structural defect are inherited by which pattern? Autosomal dominant

49) Ragged red fibres are characteristic of? Mitochondrial myopathy

50) Mitochondrial myopathies are? Maternal / Paternal

51) Tendon xanthoma classically seen in? Achilles' tendon

56) APKD is associated with which chromosome? Chromosome no. 16

57) Grower maneuver is characteristic of? Duchenne's dystrophy

58) Longest known human gene? Dystrophin gene

62) Trinucleotide repeat in Friedreich ataxia? (CAA)n

64) Most common chromosomal disorder? Down syndrome

71) High cardiac output is feature of which vit deficiency? Vitamin B1

75) Vitamin that can increase iron toxicity? Vitamin C

78) Malignant carcinoid syndrome caused b deficiency of vitamin? Vitamin B3

79) Vitamin necessary for dopamine beta-hydroxylase? Vitamin C

85) Lipoic acid is inhibited by? Arsenic

87) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency causes which defects? Neurologic defects

91) Muscle cannot participate in gluconeogenesis because it lacks? Glucose-6-phosphatase

92) NADPH required for which reactions? Reductive

95) Fructose intolerance is due to hereditary deficiency of enzyme? Aldolase B

108) Most common lysosomal storage disease? Gaucher

109) Cherry red spot with no Splenomegaly? Tay Sachs disease

112) Fruity odor smell is due to which ketone body? Acetone

116) Why RBC cannot use ketone? Lack of mitochondria

117) LDL transport cholesterol from _________ to _________? Liver to Tissues

118) Chylomicrons are secreted by? Intestinal epithelial cells

120) Treatment of cystinuria is? Acetazolamide

# First Aid Test – Cardiovascular System Key

2) Cardiac output = _________ ? HR x CO

5) Vasodilators decrease what Preload / Afterload? Afterload

6) EF is the index of? Ventricular contractility

7) Viscosity depends mostly on? Hematocrit

8) Fixed splitting is seen in? ASD

21) Sawtooth appearance? Atrial flutter

22) Hypertension, Bradycardia and Respiratory depression? Cushing triad

25) Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause? Vasoconstriction

26) Autoregulation in brain caused by? CO2 (pH)

33) Most common site of atherosclerosis? Abdominal aorta

34) Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with? Hypertension

36) Marker for reinfarction? Ck-MB

37) V1-V2 ➔ infarction location? Anteroseptal

42) Isolated right heart failure is due to? Cor-Pulmonale

43) Heart failure cells? LHF / RHF? LHF

44) IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved? Tricuspid

45) Colon cancer having IE? Organism? Streptococcus bovis

117) LDL transport cholesterol from _ to _? Liver to Tissues