MCN MT 1

1.) A 28-year-old married woman seeks advice from the nurse in the company
health office about oral contraceptives. The nurse should advise her that if she smokes:
a. Oral contraceptives can cause thrombophlebitis.
b. Some oral contraceptives are safe, others are not.
c. Some oral contraceptives can be used without concern.
d. Oral contraceptives can be used with other methods.

2.) What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to
accept the pregnancy?
a. Lightening
b. Ballotment
c. Pseudocyesis
d. Quickening- occurs in the 20th week

3.) The nurse at a woman’s health clinic knows that client teaching regarding use of
an oral contraceptive is understood when the client:
a. “I can stop the pill and try to get pregnant right away.”
b. “I can miss two periods and not worry about being pregnant.”
c. “I will put a baby’s picture on my bathroom mirror, so I’ll see it every morning.”
d. “I am so glad we won’t have to mess with condoms even if I miss just one pill during the
month.”

4.) A 38-year-old client who is at 16 weeks' gestation is scheduled for an

amniocentesis. The nurse is aware that   an amniocentesis cannot determine the fetus':
a. Sex
b. Size
c. Lung maturity
d. Chromosomal make-up
5.)  A client states that she wishes to use the calendar method of birth control. The
nurse is aware that the client understands how to calculate the beginning of the fertile
period when she states:
a. Subtract 11 days from the length of my longest cycle
b. Subtract 18 days from the length of my shortest cycle.
c. Abstain from sexual intercourse after the 10th day of my cycle.
d. Abstain from sexual intercourse from the 10th day prior to the middle of my average cycle.

6.)  The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
a. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell
mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow
b. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite
c. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply
d. The mother may have a problem of digestion because of pica

7.)  Laboratory studies reveal that a pregnant client's blood type is 0 and she is Rh
positive. Problems related to incompatibility may develop in her infant if the infant is:
a. Rh negative
b. Type A or B
c. Born preterm
d. Type 0, Rh positive

8.) From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy mother should have
prenatal check up every:
a. week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks

9.)  Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to relieve which

discomfort?
a. Leg cramps
b. Urinary frequency
c. Orthostatic hypotension
d. Backache
10.) A client asks the nurse about the use of an intrauterine device (IUD) for
contraception. When discussing this method with the client,the nurse includes that a
possible problem with IUD use would be:
a. Expulsion of the device
b. Occasional dyspareunia
c. Perforation of the uterus
d. Frequent vaginal infections.

11.) A young client asks the nurse what she should do if she forgets to take the pill one
day. The nurse;s best response would be:
a. “take your pills s instructed.”
b. “Call the physician immediately.”
c. “continue as usual; missing one day is no problem.”
d. “The next day take one pill in the morning and one before bedtime.”

12.) The position that the nurse should encourage a client with cardiac disease to
assume during labor would be:
a. Supine
b. Semi-Fowler’s
c. High Fowler’s
d. Trendelenburg

13.)  The nurse is aware that placenta previa occurs 'when:

a. There is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
b. The placenta is not implanted securely in place on the uterine wall
c. There is premature aging of a placenta implanted in the uterine fundus
d. The placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment, covering part or all of the os

14.)  When a breech presentation is suspected, the nurse should diligently observe
the client for signs of:
a. Precipitate labor
b. Prolapse of tlie cord
c. Primary uterine inertia
d. Progression of normal labor
15.)  A primigravida asks the nurse when she can expect to feel her baby move. The
nurse should reply that quickening usually occurs in the:
a. 12 week
b. 16th week
c. 20th week
d. 24th week

16.)  A client is admitted to the hospital in labor 24 hours after her membranes have
ruptured. It is important for the nurse to assess the client's amniotic fluid for signs of
potential:
a. Cord prolapse
b. Placenta previa
c. Chorioamnionitis
d. Abruptio placentae

17.)  Upon assessment the nurse found the following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths
above the umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5 months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB)
not appreciated. Which of the following is the most possible diagnosis of this condition?
a. Hydatidiform mole
b. Missed abortion.
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy

18.) A client at 35 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital with a small amount of
bright red vaginal bleeding without contractions. After placing the client in bed, the nurse
should:
a. Check fetal heart tones
b..Administer a Fleet enema
c. Obtain an amniotomy setup
d. Perform a vaginal examination
19.) A client in the 16th week of pregnancy is scheduled for ultrasonography. When
preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse informs her that for this test it will be
necessary to:
a. Have an enema the night before the examination.
b. Fast for 12 hours to minimize the possibility of vomiting.
c. Monitor closely afterward for signs of precipitate labor
d. Drink at least 1 L of water one to two hours before the test and avoid urinating during
that time.

20.) Nursing care for a pregnant client who is to have an oxytocin stimulated-
contraction test should include:
a. Having the client empty her bladder
b. Placing the client in a supine position
c. Keeping the client on nothing by mouth.
d. Preparing the client for insertion of internal monitors.

21.) The nurse is aware that the client at 40 weeks gestation is experiencing true
labor if:
a. Cervical dilation has occurred.
b. Her membranes have ruptured.
c. The pains become more noticeable
d. The fetal heart rate baseline decreases.

22.) A client, who is admitted to the birthing room, is a Gravida III Para I. This means
that the client:
a. Had one premature baby
b. Has had an induced abortion
c. Had two previous pregnancies
d. Has three living children at home.

23.) During labor the nurse encourages the client to void. The nurse recognizes that
an overdistended urinary bladder during labor can:
a. Interfere with the delivery of the placenta
b. Interfere with the assessment of cervical diln
c. Prevent the diagnosis of cephalopelvic disproportion
d. Predispose to uterine hemorrhage immediately after birth.
24.)  A client is admitted in active labor. During the assessment between contractions
the nurse palpates her abdomen to determine the fetal presentation, which is:
a. Position of the fetal body parts
b. Portion of the fetus that enters the pelvis first
c. Relationship of the fetal presenting part to the mother’s pelvis
d. Relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother.

25.)  The fetus of a client in labor is in the LOP position. To alleviate some of the
discomfort caused by this type of labor, the nurse should advise the client’s partner to:
a. Encourage the client to sleep between contractions
b. Elevate the head of the client’s bed to a 45-degree angle
c. Instruct the client to take deeper breaths during contractions
d. Apply pressure to the client’s sacral area during a contraction. – relieve back pain
during labor (back labor)

26. A client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the clinic nurse with complaints of pelvic
pressure, increased urinary frequency, and vaginal secretions. The nurse would
correctly interpret these as signs and symptoms of a(n):  
a. vaginal infection
b. impending Labor
c. urinary Tract Infection
d. rupture of Membranes

27. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the birthing unit with rupture of
membranes for two hours. A pelvic exam reveals a dilatation of 4 cm and the presenting
part is not engaged. Which possible complication should the nurse anticipate?
a. Prolapsed of the cord
b. Placenta previa
c. Amniotic fluid
d. Abruptio placenta

28. A laboring client is lying supine with a blood pressure of 88/60. What should be
the initial nursing action?
a. Administer oxygen at 5L/min
b. Notify the physician/nurse-midwife
c. Increase the intravenous drip rate
d. Position client on the left side

29. A nurse is auscultating the heart rate of a fetus in a cephalic presentation. In

which location would the nurse hear the heart rate most clearly?
a. The lower quadrant of the maternal abdomen
b. Level of the maternal umbilicus
c. The upper quadrant of the maternal abdomen
d. Above the maternal umbilicus

30. Another nurse is assisting on a laboring mother. She knows that the mother have
achieved the 1st stage of labor if she had
a. full cervical dilation
b. 80% effacement
c. delivery of the baby
d. delivery of the placenta

31. The process wherein  a sperm unites with the female egg is termed as
a. Fertilization
b. Implantation
c. Unity
d. Pregnancy

32. The nurse is asked by a couple, when they could say that their baby is a fetus?
The baby inside has reached
a. fertilization and is about to implant
b. implantation until it reaches 5-8 weeks
c. 5-8weeks until its delivery
d. implantation until its delivery

33. The nurse reviewing her notes takes note on the best time to insert the
diaphragm. She is correct if she states – bonus.
a. 2 days before menstruation
b. 2 days of menstruation
c. 5 days after menstruation
d. 5 days before menstruation

34. A healthy couple went to the clinic to ask your advice on the best contraceptive
method, the nurse can correctly respond to these situation by applying what ethical
principle
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non-malificence
d. Fidelity

35. To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of diaphragm for family
planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how she will use the appliance. Which
response indicates a need for further health teaching?
a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use it”
b. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds”
c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse”
d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.

36. Family planning involves both artificial and natural method of preventing
pregnancy. A couple is asking Nurse Sharon on natural family planning method. She is
correct if she will include which of the following on her counseling as the best type of
natural family planning?
a. Barrier method
b. Use of vaginal douche
c. Withdrawal method
d. Symptothermal method

37. A woman first time positively diagnosed to be pregnant by ultrasound states, No I

can’t be pregnant, and this is a big mistake. Which of the following statement is the best
response of the nurse?
a. “Everything will be fine while you assure her of your presence”
b. “This is a gift from GOD, accept it”
c. “I know how you feel. I’m ready to listen”
d. “Hey! You know you did this to yourself”
38. The nurse responding on question number 11 should note what ethical principle:
a. beneficence
b. non-malificence
c. justice
d. advocacy

39. Nurse Joy of OB ward would like to attend a  seminar on Postpartum

Complications conducted, offered and required by the hospital. This can be considered
as:
a. advance training
b. formal education
c. in-service education
d. masteral education

40. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus that is tender
when palpated, remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected.
Which of the following should the nurse assess next?
a. Lochia
b. Breasts
c. Incision
d. Urine

41. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son
born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at
about 8 weeks,” the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the
following?
a. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
b. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
c. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
d. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

42. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse
documents this as which of the following?
a. Braxton-Hicks sign
b. Chadwick’s sign
c. Goodell’s sign
d. McDonald’s sign

43. Mikee needs to review relevant literature and studies on Labor pain. The
following processes are undertaken in reviewing literature EXCEPT
a. locating and identifying resources
b. reading and recording notes
c. clarifying a research topic
d. using the library

44. Further, Mikee utilized previous thesis from the library about Labor and Delivery.
Mikee is correct if he states that he is utilizing what type of literature:
a. Conceptual
b. Theoretical
c. Research
d. Foreign

45. The patient admitted to the Gyne Ward is asking for your help. They cannot pay
their bills on the hospital. As the nurse in-charge to the client, you are going to refer the
client to the:
a. Physician
b. Nurse Supervisor
c. Social Worker
d. Police

46. A pregnant client was rushed to the hospital because of high blood pressure and
swelling of the phase. The doctor diagnosed the patient of pre-ecclampsia and advised
to have modification of diet. In order to achieve the goal of having a safe pregnancy and
delivery by diet modification, the nurse should refer the client to the
a. medical pathologist
b. nutritionist
c. dietitian
d. obstetrician
47. Which of the following are common causes of bleeding in the first trimester of
pregnancy?
i. Abortion
ii. Abruptio placenta
iii. Placenta previa
iv. Ectopic pregnancy
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4

48. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with gestational
diabetes, which of the following instructions would be the priority?
a. Dietary intake
b. Medication
c. Exercise
d. Glucose monitoring

49. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current
early postpartum discharge?
a. Promoting comfort and restoration of health
b. Exploring the emotional status of the family
c. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
d. Teaching about the importance of family planning

50. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The
nurse understands that this indicates which of the following?
a. Palpable contractions on the abdomen
b. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
c. Fetal kicking felt by the client
d. Enlargement and softening of the uterus
51. A client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the clinic nurse with complaints of pelvic
pressure, increased urinary frequency, and vaginal secretions. The nurse would
correctly interpret these as signs and symptoms of a(n):  
a. vaginal infection
b. impending Labor
c. urinary Tract Infection
d. rupture of Membranes

52. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the birthing unit with rupture of
membranes for two hours. A pelvic exam reveals a dilatation of 4 cm and the presenting
part is not engaged. Which possible complication should the nurse anticipate?
a. Prolapsed of the cord
b. Placenta previa
c. Amniotic fluid
d. Abruptio placenta

53. A laboring client is lying supine with a blood pressure of 88/60. What should be
the initial nursing action?
a. Administer oxygen at 5L/min
b. Notify the physician/nurse-midwife
c. Increase the intravenous drip rate
d. Position client on the left side

54. A nurse is auscultating the heart rate of a fetus in a cephalic presentation. In

which location would the nurse hear the heart rate most clearly?
a. The lower quadrant of the maternal abdomen
b. Level of the maternal umbilicus
c. The upper quadrant of the maternal abdomen
d. Above the maternal umbilicus

55. Another nurse is assisting on a laboring mother. She knows that the mother have
achieved the 1st stage of labor if she had
a. full cervical dilation
b. 80% effacement
c. delivery of the baby
d. delivery of the placenta

56. The process wherein  a sperm unites with the female egg is termed as
a. Pregnancy
b. Fertilization
c. Implantation
d. Ovulation

57. The nurse is asked by a couple, when they could say that their baby is a fetus?
The baby inside has reached
a. fertilization and is about to implant
b. implantation until it reaches 5-8 weeks
c. 5-8weeks until its delivery
d. implantation until its delivery

58. The nurse reviewing her notes takes note on the best time to insert the
diaphragm. She is correct if she states – bonus- done prior to intercourse
a. 2 days before menstruation
b. 2 days of menstruation
c. 5 days after menstruation
d. 5 days before menstruation

59. A healthy couple went to the clinic to ask your advice on the best contraceptive
method, the nurse can correctly respond to these situation by applying what ethical
principle
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non-malificence
d. Fidelity

60. To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of diaphragm for family
planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how she will use the appliance. Which
response indicates a need for further health teaching?
a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time I use it”
b. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds”
c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse”
d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during the middle of my menstrual cycle”.

61. Family planning involves both artificial and natural method of preventing
pregnancy. A couple is asking Nurse Sharon on natural family planning method. She is
correct if she will include which of the following on her counseling as the best type of
natural family planning?
a. Barrier method
b. Use of vaginal douche
c. Withdrawal method
d. Symptothermal method

62. A woman first time positively diagnosed to be pregnant by ultrasound states, No I

can’t be pregnant, and this is a big mistake. Which of the following statement is the best
response of the nurse?
a. “Everything will be fine while you assure her of your presence”
b. “This is a gift from GOD, accept it”
c. “I know how you feel. I’m ready to listen”
d. “Hey! You know you did this to yourself”

63. The nurse responding on question number 11 should note what ethical principle:
a. beneficence
b. non-malificence
c. justice
d. advocacy

64. Nurse Joy of OB ward would like to attend a  seminar on Postpartum

Complications conducted, offered and required by the hospital. This can be considered
as:
a. advance training
b. formal education
c. in-service education
d. masteral education
65. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus that is tender
when palpated, remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected.
Which of the following should the nurse assess next?
a. Lochia
b. Breasts
c. Incision
d. Urine

66. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son
born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at
about 8 weeks,” the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the
following?
a. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
b. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
c. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
d. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

67. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse
documents this as which of the following?
a. Braxton-Hicks sign
b. Chadwick’s sign
c. Goodell’s sign
d. McDonald’s sign

68. Mikee needs to review relevant literature and studies on Labor pain. The
following processes are undertaken in reviewing literature EXCEPT
a. locating and identifying resources
b. reading and recording notes
c. clarifying a research topic
d. using the library

69. Further, Mikee utilized previous thesis from the library about Labor and Delivery.
Mikee is correct if he states that he is utilizing what type of literature:
a. Conceptual
b. Theoretical
c. Research
d. Foreign

70. The patient admitted to the Gyne Ward is asking for your help. They cannot pay
their bills on the hospital. As the nurse in-charge to the client, you are going to refer the
client to the:
a. Physician
b. Nurse Supervisor
c. Social Worker
d. Police

71. A pregnant client was rushed to the hospital because of high blood pressure and
swelling of the phase. The doctor diagnosed the patient of pre-ecclampsia and advised
to have modification of diet. In order to achieve the goal of having a safe pregnancy and
delivery by diet modification, the nurse should refer the client to the
a. medical pathologist
b. nutritionist
c. dietitian
d. obstetrician

72. Which of the following are common causes of bleeding in the first trimester of
pregnancy?
i. Abortion
ii. Abruptio placenta
iii. Placenta previa
iv. Ectopic pregnancy
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4

73. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed with gestational
diabetes, which of the following instructions would be the priority?
a. Dietary intake
b. Medication
c. Exercise
d. Glucose monitoring

74. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current
early postpartum discharge?
a. Promoting comfort and restoration of health
b. Exploring the emotional status of the family
c. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
d. Teaching about the importance of family planning

75. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The
nurse understands that this indicates which of the following?
a. Palpable contractions on the abdomen
b. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
c. Fetal kicking felt by the client
d. Enlargement and softening of the uterus

76. A nurse is receiving a report on four clients in the birthing center. Which client
should the nurse anticipate giving birth first?  
a. G1P0, 4 cm dilated, and 80% effaced
b. G2P1, 5 cm dilated, and 40% effaced
c. G6P1, 6cm dilated, and 50% effaced
d. G5P4, 5cm dilated, and 40% effaced

77. Your client in her fourth month of pregnancy has just been told she has an
incompetent cervix. What is the best way to explain this to her?
a. You have a severe cervical infection
b. The cervix will not open
c. The cervix is opening prematurely
d. You have a bleeding area on the cervix

78. A prenatal client at 16 weeks’ gestation presents at the clinic with unexplained
bleeding, cramping, and backache, which she has had for the past two days. A pelvic
exam reveals a closed cervix. What type of abortion does this indicate?
a. Imminent
b. Missed
c. Threatened
d. Incomplete

79. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the labor and birth unit. Her chief
complaint is abdominal cramping with a sudden gush of clear fluid. What is the priority
nursing diagnosis for this prenatal client?
a. Risk for ineffective coping related to unknown outcome of pregnancy
b. Knowledge deficit related to unfamiliarity with loss of vaginal fluids
c. Risk for infection related to premature rupture of membranes
d. Impaired physical mobility related to strict bed rest

80. A nurse is reviewing lab tests of four prenatal clients. Which lab finding would
support the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypocalcemia

81. The nurse is caring for four clients in the birthing center. The nurse should
encourage which client to ambulate?
a. G2P1 with ruptured membranes and 0 engagement
b. G3P2 with intact membranes and 4 cm dilated
c. G4P3 with ruptured membranes and 9 cm dilated
d. G5P4 with intact membranes and 8 cm dilated

82. A nurse is planning to perform Leopold’s maneuver on a laboring mother. What

should be the nurse’s initial action?
a. Position the client on her back
b. Have the client void
c. Wash hands with warm water
d. Apply sterile lubricant in the abdomen

83. Which of the following characteristics of the care plan should the quality manager
instill to the staff nurses of OB ward?
a. Nurse- focused, flexible, measurable and realistic
b. Client-focused, flexible, realistic and measurable
c. Nurse-focused, time-related, realistic and measurable
d. Client-focused, time-limited, realistic, and measurable

84. One patient in the unit asked the doctor about BTL. After explaining the
procedure and all the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure, she decided to
have the procedure, signed the consent yet she told the nurse that she doesn’t want the
husband to be informed. The act of the patient is considered
a. legal
b. illegal
c. moral
d. ethical

85. Another pregnant patient diagnosed of cervical cancer would like to deliver the
baby despite of the danger that she might die on the procedure. The husband disagrees
on the decision of the wife. In case of conflicting ideas between the patient and the
husband, the nurse is legally and primarily obliged to protect the right of the
a. patient
b. husband
c. both
d. hospital

86. The nurse in the OB ward lists all the activities that should be accomplished on
that duty.  She should be corrected by the nurse supervisor if she gives which of the
following task to the nursing aid
a. vital signs taking to an ambulating client
b. sending of specimen of a pre-eclamptic client
c. unoccupied bedmaking
d. health teaching on how to prevent infection

87. On PM shift, the nurse enters the room of the patient and shocked when she saw
the trash can is burning. The next action of the nurse should be
a. extinguish the fire
b. assure that the patient is safe
c. press the alarm
d. confine the fire

88. Nurse Conchita admits a pregnant patient with Thrombophlebitis, on her SOAPIE
charting which among the following is the subjective data
a. with a scale of 9 on 0-10 pain scale
b. to verbalize reduction of pain from 9 to 5
c. verbalizes reduction of pain from 9 to 5
d. verbalized radiating pain on the calf region

89. The nurse would like to conduct a study about the effects of classical music to
the intrauterine growth and development of a randomized group of pregnant mothers
and compared it to the intrauterine growth and development of another randomized
group of pregnant mothers. The nurse is correct if she states that the study is
a. true-experimentaal
b. quasi-experimental
c. pre-experimental
d. non-experimental

90. The independent variable of the study would be:

a. pregnant mothers
b. growth and development
c. classical music
d. randomization

91. The best sampling method the nurse can employ in relation to the research
design would be
a. purposive
b. quota
c. convenience
d. simple random

92. Which of the following phases of labor, wherein the mother shows excitement,
euphoria and eagerness to learn about her labor status?
a. latent
b. prodromal
c. transitional
d. active

93. Which of the following women would be at lowest risk for the development of
thrombus or thrombophlebitis?
a. Ideleria, 22 years old, nurse, 2nd vaginal delivery
b. Sharron, 38 years old, who asks for lactation suppression in order to return to work
c. Saddey, 28 years old, sixth child, caesarian birth
d. Emerita, 40 years old, third child 200 lbs, forceps delivery

94. Carlota is admitted in active labor. The nurse locates fetal heart sounds in the
lower left quadrant of the mother’s abdomen. The nurse is correct if she mentioned,
which of the following?
a. Carlota will probably deliver with too much pain
b. This indicates Carlota will probably have breech delivery
c. The fetus is in the most common left anterior fetal positions
d. This position is referred to as being sacrum posterior

95. Which of the following findings on a newly delivered woman’s chart would
indicate the client is at risk for developing early postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Post-term delivery
b. Retained placental fragments
c. Premature rupture of membranes
d. Grand multiparity

96. The nurse is conducting health teaching on a pregnant client that complains of
constipation. The following statements are correct regarding constipation in pregnancy.
Select all that apply.
i. It is due to the effects of Relaxin
ii. May be associated with iron supplements taken by the mother
iii. Effects brought by Estrogen.
iv. Due to decrease motility of the intestines.
a. i, ii, iv
b. ii, iii
c. i, ii, iii
d. ii, iv
97. The method utilizes a well-defined, step by step system of education and
instruction with the idea of painless childbirth is
a. bradley method
b. lamaze method
c. kegel’s exercise
d. dick-read method

98. A client is scheduled to have an ultrasound examination. She is worried on what

will happen during the ultrasound. The nurse went to the room and conducts some
teaching to the client. What instruction would the nurse give the client before
examination?
a. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.
b. You can have medicine for pain for any contractions caused by the test.
c. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus.
d. Drink at least 3 glasses of fluid before the procedure.

99. In contrast with the patient for ultrasound. What instruction would you give the
client before conducting amniocentesis?
a. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does not hurt the fetus.
b. The x-ray used to reveal your fetus’ position has no long term effects.
c. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward, which is why only a small amount is removed.
d. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your bladder size.

 100. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’ gestation, the nurse
would use which of the following?
a. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
b. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
c. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
d. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus.

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