1. A senior high school student asks the school nurse, “How will I know that I am fertile?

” The school nurse would be

inaccurate if she states that one of the signs of ovulation is:
a. Your cervical mucus is elastic
b. Your cervical mucus is clear, thin, and watery
c. You will experience a diffused lower abdominal discomfort that radiates to the back
d. There will be a sudden drop in you temperature followed by an increase for .7 - .8 0C for 3 full days

2. Right after discussing the different signs of ovulation, one of the participants was curious on why there is an
increased on the body temperature after ovulation, the nurse would explain to the group that which of the following
hormones is responsible for the increase in temperature?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Follicle Stimulating hormone
d. Oxytocin

3. A post-partum woman has just given birth to her 4 th baby. She had a missed abortion 4 years ago and her second
baby was born pre-term. Her first child died of pneumonia last month. The post-partum woman will be coded as:
a. G3, P2
b. G3, P1
c. G4, P3
d. G4, P2

4. A pregnant woman on her 34th week of pregnancy asked you what is the normal fetal movement, so that she knows
what she should be expecting to feel, and knows what she should report. You should let her know that the normal
fetal movement count is:
a. 10-12 times per hour
b. 8-10 times per hour
c. Twice every hour
d. 10 times per day

5. Gravity is counted by:

a. The number of pregnancies that reach the age of viability
b. The number of pregnancies in which the fetus has been born alive
c. The number of pregnancies regardless of duration of outcome
d. The number of pregnant women visiting a pre-natal clinic every week

6. A participant inquired. “What is the average normal weight gain during pregnancy?” Which of the following
responses would be appropriate?
a. 12 to 22 lbs
b. 15 to 25 lbs
c. 14 to 45 lbs
d. 25 to 35 lbs

7. A woman on her 2nd trimester of pregnancy complains of pyrosis, all of the following are helpful nursing
interventions except:
a. Drinking milk in between meals
b. Lying down with two pillows
c. Lying down after meals
d. Eat small frequent meals

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8. A 32-week multigravida shared to the group that her doctor informed her that the amount of her amniotic fluid is
less than normal. Which of the following fetal complication might be present?
a. Hypospadias
b. Esophageal atresia
c. Presence of babinski reflex
d. Renal malformation

9. The pregnant woman is in her first trimester is experiencing discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following is NOT
a danger sign of pregnancy:
a. Round ligament pain
b. Abdominal or chest pain
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Chills and fever

10. An 8-month pregnant woman complains of dizziness especially when she lies on her back. Which of the following
would be the best instruction given to the client to address her complaint?
a. Elevate legs on the wall for 30 minutes
b. Wear loose bra
c. Drink in between meals
d. Rest in a left side-lying position

11. A gravida woman told the nurse that a whitish mucus non-foul discharge in her vagina causes her some discomfort.
The best management would be:
a. Vaginal douche
b. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
c. Wearing cotton perineal pads
d. Penicillin (erythromycin)

12. A 28-week primigravida has ankle edema by the end of the day. Which statement by her would reveal that she
understands what causes this:
a. “I know this is a beginning complication; I’ll call my doctor tonight.”
b. “I understand this is from eating too much salt; I’ll restrict than more.”
c. “I’ll rest with my legs elevated to take pressure off lower extremity veins.”
d. “I walk for half an hour everyday to relieve this; I’ll try walking more.”

13. Which of the following statements made by an 8-week primigravida woman would require further teaching?
a. “I should eat more food rich in protein like monggo.”
b. “I should lessen my intake of fatty foods.”
c. “I should eat food rich in carbohydrates like cassava.”
d. “I should lessen my intake of carbohydrate rich foods.”

14. The nurse does the Umbillical Grip or Leopolds Manuever number 2. She palpated a hard, smooth and resistant
plane on the right side of the mother’s abdomen. This implies:
a. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation
b. The fetus is engaged
c. The best site for fetal heart tone assessment would be at the right side of the abdomen
d. The placenta is on the upper left portion of the uterus

15. Signs that are highly subjective during pregnancy include all except :
a. Dark pigmentation on the face and nose
b. Quickening
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 c. Striae Gravidarum
d. Braxton Hick’s contractions

16. The best time for a pregnant woman do the fetal movement count is:
a. Early morning, after meals
b. Anytime during the day when the mother feels comfortable
c. Before bed time
d. After a 30-minute walk

17. A client has been subjected for a 3 hour glucose tolerance test after having obtaining an above normal result for
a 50 gram screening test. 2 hours after the ingestion of an oral glucose for 3-hourse glucose tolerance test, the
normal blood sugar level would be:
a. 140 mg/dl
b. 150 mg/dl
c. 180 mg/dl
d. 90 mg/dl

18. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is assessing a 28 y/o woman who’s 24 weeks pregnant. Which findings would lead this
nurse to suspect that the client has mild preeclampsia?
a. Glycosuria, hypertension, seizure
b. Hematuria, blurry vision, reduced urine output
c. Burning on urination, hypotension, abdominal pain
d. Hypertension, edema, proteinuria

19. Which labor room assignment would the nurse give to a client diagnosed with gestational hypertension?
a. Near the elevator so she can be transported quickly
b. A room across from the nurses’ station so that she can be observed closely
c. In a back hallway where there’s a quiet private room
d. Close to the nursery so she’ll maintain hope of a positive outcome

20. When caring for a client with preeclampsia, which action is a priority?
a. Monitoring the client’s labor carefully and preparing for a fast delivery
b. Continually assessing the fetal tracing for signs of fetal distress
c. Checking vital signs every 15 minutes to watch for increasing blood pressure
d. Reducing visual and auditory stimulation

21. A client with severe preeclamsia is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate. The nurse is reviewing the
laboratory results and determines that which of the following magnesium levels is within the therapeutic range?
a. 1 mg/dl
b. 15 mg/dl
c. 5 mg/dl
d. 10 mg/dl

22. The best position for both clients with placenta previa and abruptio placenta would be:
a. Reverse trendelenburg postion to reverse possible development shock
b. Semi-fowlers to prevent accumulation of blood in the uterine cavity
c. Knee-chest position to prevent cord prolapse
d. Left lateral recumbent position ensure adequate fetoplacental perfusion

23. The nurse is caring for a client with mild active bleeding from placenta previa. Which assessment factor indicates
that an emergency cesarean section may be necessary?
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 a. Increased maternal blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
b. Decreased amount of vaginal bleeding
c. Fetal heart rate of 80 beats/minute
d. Maternal heart rate of 65 beats/minute

24. A 40 y/o at 37 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the hospital with complaints of vaginal bleeding following the use
of cocaine 1 hour earlier. Which complication is most likely causing the client’s complaint of vaginal bleeding?
a. Placenta previa
b. Abruption placentae
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. Spontaneous abortion

25. The nurse plans to teach the client how to do Kegel’s exercise several times a day. The nurse should explain
that the primary purpose of these exercise is to:
a. Prevent vulvar edema
b. Relieve lower back discomfort
c. Strengthen the perineal muscles
d. Increasing blood supply to the uterus

26. Which of the following is considered a premonitory sign of labor:

a. Absence of Braxton Hicks’ contractions
b. Increased maternal energy
c. Decreased maternal energy
d. Goodell’s sign

27. A 15-year old primigravida arrives at the birthing unit in early labor. On admission, the client’s cervix is 2 cm
dilated and 50% effaced, and contractions are occurring every 7 to 8 minutes, with membranes intact. After
admission, the nurse instructs the client that the most effective position for dilating the cervix is
a. Right lateral recumbent
b. Modified Trendelenburg position
c. Standing
d. Sitting in a comfortable chair

28. A 20-year old obese primigravida at 40 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the birthing center in the first stage of
labor, the client is admitted to the birthing center with contractions lasting 60 seconds and occurring every 5
minutes. The client’s cervix dilated 5 cm. In assessing the client’s emotional status, the nurse anticipates that
she will be:
a. Serious
b. Argumentative
c. Joyful
d. Panicky

29. The nurse is caring for a woman in labor. The woman is irritable, complains of nausea and vomiting and has
irresistible urge to push. The membranes rupture. The nurse understands that this indicates:
a. The woman is in transition stage of labor
b. The woman is having a complication and the doctor should be notified
c. Labor is slowing down and the woman may need oxytocin
d. The woman is probably pregnant

30. A woman in labor shouts to the nurse, "My baby is coming right now! I feel like I have to push!" An immediate
assessment reveals that the head of the fetus is crowning, which intervention is most appropriate?

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 a. Gently pulling at the baby's head as it's delivered
b. Holding the baby's head back until the physician arrives
c. Applying gentle pressure to the baby's head as it's delivered
d. Placing the mother in the Trendelenburg position until the physician arrives

31. A nurse has developed a plan of care for a client experiencing dystocia and includes several interventions in the
plan of care. The nurse prioritizes the plan of care and selects which intervention as the highest priority?
a. Providing comfort measures
b. Monitoring the fetal heart rate
c. Changing the client’s position frequently
d. Keeping the significant other informed on the progress of the labor

32. A 31-year old multigravida at 39 week’s gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. While the nurse
begins the admission process, the amniotic membrane ruptures spontaneously. The client’s cervix is 5 cm dilated
and the presenting head part is at 0 station. The nurse should first:
a. Perform a vaginal examination to determine dilation
b. Administer Ritodrine hydrochloride
c. Note the color, amount, and odor of the amniotic fluid
d. Prepare the client for imminent delivery

33. The best position a pregnant woman assumes during fetal movement count would be:
a. Left Side-lying position
b. Supine position pillow under the neck
c. Supine position pillow under the hips
d. Reversed trendelenburg position

34. Assessment of client diagnosed to have hyatidiform mole would incude:

a. Falling blood pressure with increased cardiac rate
b. Absence of fetal heart sounds
c. Diaphoresis
d. Dellusions

35. A 43 year old woman is scheduled for suction and curettage following a diagnosis of molar pregnancy. Along with
suction and curettage, the physician may perform which of the following procedures to prevent choriocarcinoma?
a. Vasectomy
b. Colpotomy
c. Tubal Ligation
d. Hysterectomy

36. The bleeding in placenta previa is contrasted to that of abruption placenta is such a way that:
a. Bleeding in abruptio placenta is painful while bleeding in placenta previa is painless
b. Bleeding in abruptio placenta is internal while bleeding in placenta previa external
c. There is more blood loss in abruption placenta
d. There is more blood loss in placenta previa

37. Before surgery to remove ectopic pregnancy, which of the following would alert the nurse to the possibility of tubal
rupture?
a. Amount of vaginal bleeding
b. Increased hcb and hct
c. Rapid pulse
d. Marked abdominal edema
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38. A 34-year old post-partum woman has given birth to healthy twins three years ago. Her second pregnancy was a
molar pregnancy. What is the woman’s obstetrical score?
a. G-1, T-2, P-0, A-1, L-2
b. G-2, T-2, P-0, A-0, L-2
c. G-1, T-1, P-0, A-1, L-2
d. G-2, T-2, P-1, A-1, L-1

39. A primigravida woman who visited the pre-natal clinic asked you “When will I be giving birth?” To be able to respond
accurately, what information should you obtain from the client?
a. The last time she had menses
b. When did she have sex with her husband
c. When did she know about her pregnancy
d. First day of her last menstrual period

40. During the client’s seventh month of pregnancy, she complains of backache. The nurse teaches her to
a. Sleep on a soft mattress
b. Walk barefoot at least once/day
c. Perform Kegel exercises once/day
d. Perform pelvic rocking exercises

41. Pyrosis and flatulence, common in the first trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?
a. Increased levels of HCG
b. Increased intestinal motility
c. Elevated human placental lactogen
d. Elevated estrogen levels

42. An adolescent who attended a fertility awareness seminar informed you that she had an intercourse with her
husband 3 days ago. If fertilization took place, the fertilized ovum would probably be implanted:
a. 3 days after the intercourse
b. 8 weeks after fertilization
c. 8 hours after fertilization
d. A week after fertilization

43. Nursing management for prolapsed umbilical cord would include:

a. Push the cord gently back to the uterine cavity
b. Try to rotate the fetus by maneuvering the abdomen
c. Cover the cord with sterile gauze wet with warm saline
d. Advise the mother to assume a reverse trendelenburg position

44. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation based on which of the
following as the cause?
a. The large size of the newborn
b. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
c. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
d. Excessive weight gain

45. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first and
third trimester?
a. Dysuria
b. Frequency
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 c. Incontinence
d. Burning

46. To achieve fertilization, ovum and spermatozoa meets at the distal third of the fallopian tube termed as:
a. Ampulla
b. Infundibulum
c. Insterstitial
d. Isthmus

47. Which is NOT considered as a positive sign of pregnancy?

a. Sonographic evidence of fetal outline
b. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
c. Audible fetal heart tone
d. Positive pregnancy test

48. Before the start of a non stress test, The FHR is 120 BPM. The mother ate the snack and the practitioner noticed
an increase from 120 BPM to 135 BPM for 15 seconds. How would you read the result?
a. Reactive
b. Abnormal
c. Non reactive
d. Inconclusive, needs repeat

49. Explaining the development of a baby, you identified in chronological order the growth of the fetus as it occurs in
pregnancy as:
a. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
b. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
c. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
d. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant

50. A multigravid client at 34 weeks’ gestation visits the hospital because she suspects that her water has broken.
After testing the leaking fluid with nitrazine paper, the nurse confirms that the client’s membranes have
ruptured when the paper turns which of the following colors?
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Red