* NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *

FINAL COACHING – OBSTETRICS

Prepared by: Prof Haydee Bacani, RM, RN, MAN(c)
Name:
SITUATION: FEMALE REPRODUCTIION 7. After the proliferative phase of the cycle,
1. In which of the following conditions is the ovulation that follows is the result of
vaginal rugae most prominent? the sudden rise of the __________
a. multiparous women hormone
b. before menopause a. estrogen
c. after menopause b. leutinizing
d. nulliparous woman c. growth
d. progesterone
2. A 23 year old client is having her menstrual
period every 2 weeks that last for 1 week. This 8. If pregnancy does not happen in this cycle,
type of menstrual pattern is bets defined by: the secretion of progesterone and estrogen
a. Menorrhagia begins to fall because of the degeneration
b. Metrorrhagia of the ________
c. Dyspareunia a. anterior pituitary gland
d. Amenorrhea b. corpus luteum
c. thyroid gland
3. Endometriosis is characterized by: d. posterior pituitary gland
a. Amennorrhea and insomnia
b. Ecchymoses and petechiae 9. One menstrual cycle is counted from the
c. Painful menstruation and backache __________
d. Early osteoporosis and pelvic inflammation a. last day of the menstrual flow to first
day of next flow
4. On physical examination, Suzanne Matthews b. first day of the menstrual to first day of
is found to have a cystocele. A cystocele is: the next
a. A sebaceous cyst arising from a vulvar fold. c. last day of the menstrual flow to last
b. Protrusion of the intestine into the vagina. day of next flow
c. Prolapse of the uterus and cervix into the d. first day of moderate menstrual flow to
vagina. the next flow
d. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal
wall
SITUATION: FAMILY PLANNING
Situation 2: MENSTRUAL CYCLE
10. Which of the following methods would be
5. After menarche, the periodic discharge of avoided for a woman who is 38 years old, has
blood, fluid and endometrial cellular debris 3 children and smokes a pack of cigarette per
from the uterus is called ______ day?
a. menstruation a. Oral contraceptives
b. menopause b. Cervical cap
c. menarche c. Diaphragm
d. coitarche d. IUD

11. A woman using diaphragm for

6. After the menstrual bleeding, the contraception should be instructed to leave it
regeneration of the new inner lining of the in place for at least how long after intercourse?
uterus happens to create a proliferative a. 1 hour
endometrium due to the action of ______ b. 6 hours
a. leutinizing hormone c. 12 hours
b. progesterone d. 24 hours
c. growth hormone
d. estrogen 12. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for
conception to occur, which of the following is
the most helpful criterion?
a. Sperm count
b. Sperm motility
c. Sperm maturity
d. Semen volume
13. A couple with one child had been trying,
without success for several years to have
another child. Which of the following terms
would describe the situation?
a. Primary infertility
b. Secondary infertility
c. Irreversible infertility
d. Sterility
14. To evaluate a woman’s understanding
about the use of diaphragm for family
planning, Midwife Trish asks her to explain how
she will use the appliance. Which response
indicates a need for further health teaching?
a. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for
holes every time I use it”
b. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if
I gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds”
c. “The diaphragm must be left in place for
atleast 6 hours after intercourse”
d. “I really need to use the diaphragm and
jelly most during the middle of my
menstrual cycle”.
SITUATION: PRENATAL CARE
Symptoms of pregnancy tend to cause
discomforts to a woman. Providing empathetic
and sound advice about measures to relieve
these discomforts help promote overall health
and well-being.
15. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the
second trimester, are most likely the result of
which of the following?
a. Increased plasma HCG levels
b. Decreased intestinal motility
c. Decreased gastric acidity
d. Elevated estrogen levels
16. She complained of leg cramps, which
usually occurs at night. To provide relief, the
midwife tells Diane to:
a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee
when the cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee
when the cramps occurs
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee
when the cramps occur
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the
knee when the cramp occur
17. A primigravida client at 26 weeks gestation
visits the clinic and tells the midwife that her
lower back aches when she arrives home from
work. The nurse suggest that the client
perform:
a. Tailor sitting
b. Leg lifting
c. Shoulder circling
d. Squatting exercises
18. When the midwife instructs a pregnant
client with a history of varicose veins about
strategies to promote comfort, which of the
following client statements indicates that the
teaching has been successful?
a. “Lying down with my feet elevated should
help”
b. “Support hose can be put on just before
bedtime”
c. “Restricting milk intake may provide some
relief”
d. “Wearing knee-high stockings is better than
pantyhose”
19. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the
mother may experience shortness of breath.
This complaint maybe explained as:
a. A normal occurrence in pregnancy
because the fetus is using more oxygen
b. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing
the diaphragm upward
c. The woman is having allergic reaction to
the pregnancy and its hormones
d. The woman maybe experiencing
complication of pregnancy
20. Agatha has ankle edema by the end of
each day. Which statement by her would
reveal that she understands what causes this?
a. “I know this is a beginning complication, I’ll
call my doctor tonight”
b. “I understand this is from eating too much
salt, I’ll restrict that more”
c. “I’ll rest in a Sim’s position to take pressure
off lower extremity veins”
d. “I know this is from gaining too much
weight. I’ll start to diet tomorrow”
Situation: Pregnancy is officially diagnosed on
the basis of the symptoms reported by the
woman and the signs elicited by the healthcare
provider.
21. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are
classified as which of the following?
a. Diagnostic signs
b. Presumptive signs
c. Probable signs
d. Positive signs
22. Which of the following would the Midwife
identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
a. Hegar sign
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Skin pigmentation changes
d. Positive serum pregnancy test
23.The nurse documents positive ballottement
in the client's prenatal record. The nurse
understands that this indicates which of the
following?
a. Contractions palpable on the abdomen
b. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
c. Fetal kicking felt by the client
d. Enlargement and softening of the uterus
24. The client has completed an at-home
pregnancy test with positive results. Which of
the following indicates the client understands
the meaning of the test results?
a. “I understand that this means I have
ovulated in the past 24 hours.”
b. “I understand that this means I am not
pregnant.”
c. “I understand that this means I might be
pregnant.”
d. “I understand that this means I am
pregnant.”
25. The client has come to the clinic because
she suspects that she is pregnant. Which of the
following would be the most definitive way to
confirm the diagnosis?
a. Client's report of amenorrhea for 3 months
b. Positive Hegar's sign
c. Pigmentation changes of the breast
d. Palpation of fetal movement by the care
provider
Situation: Prenatal care, essential for ensuring
the overall health of newborns and their
mothers, is a major strategy for helping to
reduce complications of pregnancy.
26. From the 36rd week of gestation until
delivery, a healthy mother should have
prenatal check up every:
a. week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
27. What event occurring in the second
trimester helps the expectant mother to accept
the pregnancy?
a. Lightening
b. Ballotement
c. Pseudocyesis
d. Quickening
28. During which of the following would the
focus of classes be mainly on physiologic
changes, fetal development, sexuality during
pregnancy and nutrition?
a. Preconception period
b. First trimester
c. Second trimester
d. Third trimester
29. The midwife in the prenatal clinic should
provide nutritional counseling to all newly
pregnant women because:
a. Most weight gain during pregnancy is fluid
retention
b. Dietary allowances should not increase
during pregnancy
c. Pregnant women must adhere to a specific
pregnancy diet
d. Different sources of essential nutrients are
favored by different cultural groups
30. Nutritional planning for a newly pregnant
woman of normal BMI should include:
a. Double her calorie intake per day because
she eats for two
b. An increase of 300 calories per day
c. An increase of 500 calories per day
d. A maintenance of her present caloric intake
as long as it is healthy
31. A primigravida woman in her 10th week of
gestation is concerned because she has read
that nutrition during pregnancy is important for
the growth and development of the fetus. She
wants to know something about the food she
should eat. The midwife should:
a. Instruct her to continue eating a normal
diet
b. Assess what she eat by taking a diet history
c. Give her a list of food to help her better
plan her meals
d. Emphasize the importance of limiting salt
and highly seasoned food
32. A client is concerned about gaining weight
during pregnancy. The midwife explains that
the largest part of weight gain during
pregnancy is because of:
a. The fetus
b. Fluid retention
c. Metabolic alterations
d. Increased blood volume
33. A patient who is 20 weeks pregnant tells d. Naegele’s Rule
the nurse that her prenatal vitamin makes her
sick. Which is the best suggestion?
a. Take the vitamin with breakfast 39. Every visit, you obtain the pregnant
b. Stop taking the vitamin for a few days and woman’s fundic height. At what age of
then resume gestation does the fundic height in cm is
c. Take the vitamin at bedtime strongly correlates with gestational age in
d. Take the vitamin with milk between meals weeks?
a. 16-24 weeks
34. The expected weight gain in a normal b. 18-24 weeks
pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is c. 20-32 weeks
a. 1 pound a week d. 12-38 weeks
b. 2 pounds a week
c. 10 lbs a month 40. The following are ways of determining
d. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester expected date of delivery (EDD) when the LMP
is unknown EXCEPT:
35. The main reason for an expected increased a. Naegele’s rule
need for iron in pregnancy is: b. Quickening
a. The mother may have physiologic anemia c. McDonald’s rule
due to the increased need for red blood cell d. Batholomew’s rule of 4
mass as well as the fetal requires iron
b. The mother may suffer anemia because of 41. To determine the client’s EDC, which day of
poor appetite in first trimester of pregnancy the menstrual period will you ask?
c. The fetus has an increased need for RBC a. First
which the mother must supply b. Last
d. The mother may have a problem of c. Third
digestion because of decreased GI motility d. Second

Situation: Be certain to reserve sufficient time 42. According to Diane, her LMP is January 15,
at prenatal visits to care can be thorough and 2022, using the Naegele’s rule what is her
there is enough time to set realistic goals and EDC?
expect outcomes with both a woman and her a. October 22, 2023
partner, if desired. The following obstetric b. October 23, 2022
calculations are needed to determine fetal well- c. October 22, 2022
being. d. September 22, 2022

36.Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and 43. If the LMP is February 25, 2023, the
has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy expected date of delivery (EDD) is
and the first pregnancy was a twin. She is a. November 3, 2015
considered to be b. October 2016
a. G 4 P 3 c. November 3, 2016
b. G 5 P 3 d. December 4, 2015
c. G 5 P 4
d. G 4 P 4 44. If Mrs. Medina comes to you for check-up
on June 2, her EDD is June 11, what do you
37. When the level of the fundus is midway expect during assessment?
between the umbilicus and xyphoid process the a. Fundic height 2 fingers below xiphoid
estimated age of gestation (AOG) is: process, engaged
a. 5th month b. Cervix close, uneffaced, FH midway
b. 6th month between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis
c. 7th month c. Cervix open, fundic height 2 fingers below
d. 8th month xiphoid process, floating
d. Fundal height at least at the level of the
38. Which rule in calculating age of gestation xiphoid process, engaged
was used in the previous number?
a. Mc Donald Rule 45. Elena asks which type of exercise is best to
b. Haase’s Rule strengthen her perineal muscles in anticipation
c. Bartholomew’s Rule of birth. Which of the following
recommendations is safest and most effective?
a. Walk or jog 20 minutes daily at a fairly
rapid pace.
b. Squat or tailor sit for 15 minutes out of
every day.
c. Periodically bear down as hard as possible
while holding her breath.
d. Lift both of her legs into the air while she
lies on her back.
46. The patient was ordered for the Sandovsky
Method of Fetal Movement monitoring. How
many fetal movements per hour is expected as
normal.
a. 5-10 times
b. 20-30 times
c. 10-12 times
d. 35-45 times
47. Elena, 30 years of age, shows the nurse
the birth plan that she has drafted. Which
statement by her would help assure the
midwife that she has a workable plan?
a. “I’ve written down everything I have to
have to make labor a success.”
b. “I didn’t include anything my boyfriend
wanted; I’m the one having the baby.”
c. “My mother strongly suggested I ask for
morphine like she did, so I’m going to add
that.”
d. “I’ve tried to keep it flexible because I know
circumstances can change.
48. A 40-year-old patient who is 8 weeks
pregnant and desires fetal testing is able to
have the following test at this time:
a. Biophysical profile
b. Chorionic villus sampling
c. Amniocentesis
d. Alpha-fetoprotein test
49. Which is not an indication of
amniocentesis?
a. Previous pregnancy with chromosomal
abnormal fetus
b. Down syndrome in siblings
c. Pregnancies in women over 35 years old
d. At 8 weeks gestation for chromosomal
study
50. Which of the following statement about L/S
ratio in amniotic fluid is correct?
a. A slight variation in technique does not
significantly affect the accuracy of result
b. A L/S ratio of 2:1 is incompatible with life
c. A L/S ratio of less than 1:0 is compatible
with fetal survival
d. When L/S ratio is 2:1 below, majority of
infants develop respiratory distress
51. What is the primary reason an ultrasound
is done in the second trimester except?
a. Evaluate fetal structure
b. Measure amniotic fluid
c. Determine sex
d. Confirm pregnancy
52. Liz Calhorn, 18 years of age, asks how
much longer her midwife refer to the baby
inside her as an embryo.
a. At the time of fertilization
b. When the placenta forms
c. From implantation until 20 weeks
d. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks
53. Rhina is a primipara hospitalized due to
preeclampsia. The doctor decided to perform
NST. The midwife should apply the fetal
transducer over the fetus:
a. chest
b. back
c. head
d. buttocks
54. Rachel, a diabetic woman at 36 weeks
gestation is scheduled for biophysical profile in
order to:
a. Ascertain correct gestational age
b. Determine fetal lung maturity
c. Determine fetal well-being
d. Determine fetal size and obvious congenital
anomaly
55. A midwife is providing instructions to a
pregnant client who is scheduled for an
amniocentesis. The midwife tells the client
that:
a. Strict bed rest is required after the
procedure
b. An informed consent needs to be signed
before the procedure
c. Hospitalization is necessary for 24 hours
after the procedure
d. A fever is expected after the procedure
because of the trauma to the abdomen
56. A physician has prescribed an ultrasound
for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy
and the client asks a midwife about the
procedure. The midwife tells the client that:
a. The procedure takes about 2 hours
b. It will be necessary to drink 1 to 2 quarts of
water before the examination
c. Gel is spread over the abdomen, and a
round disk transducer will be moved over
the abdomen to obtain the picture
d. The probe that will be inserted into the
vagina will be covered with a disposable
cover and coated with a gel
57. External monitoring of contractions and
fetal heart rate of a multigravida in labor reveal
a variable deceleration pattern on the fetal
heart rate. Which of the following should the
midwife do first?
a. Notify the physician
b. Change the client’s position
c. Administer oxygen at 2 LPM via mask
d. Prepare for CS delivery
58. The purpose of ultrasound taking during
first trimester:
a. Confirm pregnancy
b. Determine multiple gestation
c. Determine AOG
d. All of the choices
59. What test differentiates fetal blood from
maternal blood?
a. Rubin’s test
b. Kleihauer- Betke Test
c. Blood typing
d. Coomb’s test
Situation: Leopold’s maneuver is part of the
prenatal care to help determine the fetal
position.
60. You performed the Leopold’s maneuver
and found the following: breech presentation,
fetal back at the right side of the mother.
Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal
heart beat (PMI) BEST in which location?
a. Left lower quadrant
b. Right lower quadrant
c. Left upper quadrant
d. Right upper quadrant
61. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you
palpated a soft broad mass that moves with
the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation
of this finding is:
a. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the
head part.
b. The presentation is breech.
c. The mass palpated is the back
d. The mass palpated is the buttocks.
62. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you
palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is
that the mass palpated is:
a. The buttocks because the presentation is
breech.
b. The mass palpated is the head.
c. The mass is the fetal back.
d. The mass palpated is the fetal small part
63. You want to perform a pelvic examination
on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare
your client initially for the procedure by:
a. Position in dorsal recumbent
b. Taking her vital signs and recording the
readings
c. Warming the hands
d. Asking her to void
64. In doing Leopold’s maneuver palpation
which among the following is NOT considered
a good preparation?
a. The woman should lie in a supine position
with her knees flexed slightly
b. The hands of the midwife should be cold so
that abdominal muscles would contract and
tighten
c. Be certain that your hands are warm (by
washing them in warm water first if
necessary)
d. The woman empties her bladder before
palpation
65. Maryang Nakakiling arrives at the health
care clinic and tells the midwife that her last
menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She also
tells the midwife that a home pregnancy test
was positive, but she began to have mild
cramps and is now having moderate vaginal
bleeding. During the physical examination of
the client, the midwife notes that Marya has a
dilated cervix. The midwife determines that
Marya is experiencing which type of abortion?
a. Inevitable
b. Incomplete
c. Threatened
d. Septic
68. Midwife Reese is reviewing the record of a
pregnant client for her first prenatal visit.
Which of the following data, if noted on the
client’s record, would alert the nurse that the
client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion?
a. Age 36 years
b. History of syphilis
c. History of genital herpes
d. History of diabetes mellitus
69. Midwife Hazel is preparing to care for a
client who is newly admitted to the hospital
with a possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.
Midwife Hazel develops a plan of care for the
client and determines that which of the
following nursing actions is the priority?
a. Monitoring weight
b. Assessing for edema
c. Monitoring apical pulse
d. Monitoring temperature
70.Midwife Gina is aware that the most
common condition found during the second-
trimester of pregnancy is:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Mastitis
d. Physiologic anemia
71. You taught the client about the importance
of nutrition in pregnancy. The client asked you
how much is the total weight allowed in a
singleton pregnancy? You answered:
a. 11-15.9 kg
b. 1 pound per week weight gain
c. 25-35 kg
d. 2 lbs/week of weight gain
Situation – Nadya 32, G4P3 consulted because
of vaginal spotting of a few hours duration with
mild hypogastric pains. Her last menstrual
period was 12 weeks ago. She had a previous
miscarriage. A pregnancy test done two weeks
ago was positive
72. If her cervix is closed, non-tender without
passage of tissues, the likely diagnosis is
__________ abortion
A. missed
B. incomplete
C. complete
D. threatened
73. The back-up doctor requested pelvic
ultrasound with the findings of “intrauterine
pregnancy without cardiac activity”. Veronica
had moderate and continuous bleeding and
this time with an open cervix. The likely
diagnosis now is _________ abortion
a. missed
b. incomplete
c. threatened
d. complete
74. The definite management for this type of
abortion with open cervix and retained tissues
is __________
A. progesterone tablets
B. observation and rest
C. isoxsuprine tablets
D. completion curettage
75. On her follow-up visit one week after her
hospitalization, she was noted to have pale
palms and a hemoglobin of 9 grams/dl. Which
of the following medicines will NOT be
beneficial to her condition?
a. ferrous sulphate
b. magnesium sulphate
c. ferrous gluconate
d. ferrous fumarate
SITUATION: ANTEPARTAL BLEEDING
76. Midwife Michelle is assessing a 24-year-old
client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole.
She is aware that one of the following is
unassociated with this condition?
a. Excessive fetal activity.
b. Larger than normal uterus for gestational
age.
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Elevated levels of human chorionic
gonadotropin
77. Mylene in her third trimester arrives at the
emergency room with painless vaginal
bleeding. Which of the following conditions is
suspected?
a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease
78. Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding
has just been diagnosed as having a placenta
previa. Which of the following procedures is
usually performed to diagnose placenta previa?
a. Amniocentesis
b. Digital or speculum examination
c. External fetal monitoring
d. Ultrasound
79. You will teach a woman who had a
termination of pregnancy. Which among the
following statements of the patient shows that
the client understood your teaching?
a. I should call the doctor if I will have slight
vaginal spotting in 2 weeks with cramping .
b. I will use tampons for my bleeding and
douche to prevent infection.
c. I can take take acetaminophen (Tylenol) or
ibuprofen (Advil or Motrin or aspirin for
pain.
d. I can resume regular activities but avoid
heavy lifting or strenuous exercise for 3
days.
Situation: The majority of women who enter
pregnancy in good health expect to complete a
pregnancy and birth without complications. In
a few women, however, for reasons that
usually are unclear, unexpected deviations or
complications from the course of normal
pregnancy occur.
80. A midwife is assessing a woman suspected
of abruption placenta. Which of the following
assessment findings would the nurse to expect
in this condition?
a. Soft abdomen
b. Uterine tenderness
c. Absence of abdominal pain
d. Red vaginal bleeding
81. Which of the following factors would
influence the client to the development of
placenta previa?
a. Multiple gestation
b. Uterine anomalies
c. Abdominal trauma
d. Renal or vascular disease
82. A midwife is preparing for admission of a
client in the third trimester of pregnancy that is
experiencing vaginal bleeding and is suspected
of placenta previa. Which of the following
orders should the nurse question?
a. Prepare the client for an ultrasound
b. Obtaixn equipment for a manual pelvic
examination
c. Prepare to draw a hemoglobin and
hematocrit blood sample
d. Obtain equipment for external electronic
fetal heart rate monitoring
83. A 36-year-old client is admitted with a
possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy. When
planning the client’s care, which of the
following procedures should the midwife
anticipate in preparing the client for soon after
admission?
a. D&C
b. Ultrasound
c. Evacuation of uterus
d. Salphingectomy
84. A 24-year-old client admitted to the
hospital is suspected of having an ectopic
pregnancy. On admission, which of the
following would be most important to assess?
a. Sexual practices
b. Use of a diaphragm
c. Type of oral contraceptives
d. Date of last menstrual period
85. An expected finding to a client diagnosed
with ruptured ectopic pregnancy is:
a. Sharp, bilateral abdominal pain
b. Heavy bright red bleeding with the passage
of large clots
c. Tender abdominal mass
d. Elevated BP and slow bounding pulse
86. Which of the following signs and symptoms
will most likely make the midwife suspect that
the patient is having hydatidiform mole?
a. Slight bleeding
b. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
c. Absence of fetal heart beat
d. Enlargement of the uterus
87. Upon assessment the nurse found the
following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above
the umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5
months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not
appreciated. Which of the following is the most
possible diagnosis of this condition?
a. Hydatidiform mole
b. Missed abortion
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease
d. Ectopic pregnancy
88. Which of the following signs will distinguish
threatened abortion from imminent abortion?
a. Severity of bleeding
b. Dilation of the cervix
c. Nature and location of pain
d. Presence of uterine contraction
89. In the event of threatened abortion, which
of the following is an appropriate management
approach for this type of abortion?
a. Prepare the woman for D&C
b. Place the woman on bed rest for at least
one week and re-evaluate
c. Prepare the woman for a sonogram to
determine the integrity of the gestational
sac
d. Comfort the woman by telling her that if
she loses this baby she can try to get
pregnant again in about one month
90. Midwife Jackie assesses a dark brown
vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy
test, what type of abortion is attributed?
a. Threatened
b. Imminent
c. Missed
d. Incomplete
91. The primary differentiating factor between
threatened and inevitable abortion is:
a. Uterine contractions
b. Cervical opening
c. Mothers’ severity of pain
d. Bleeding
92. Which of the following would be most
important to include in the discharge teaching
plan for a client who had a suction curettage
evacuation of the uterus for hydatidiform molar
pregnancy?
a. Continuation of prenatal vitamins for 6
weeks
b. Psychological support for grief counseling
c. Importance of follow-up care
d. Hormonal contraceptives to prevent
pregnancy
93. Which of the following is not a cause of
ectopic pregnancies?
a. Adhesions of the fallopian tubes
b. Congenital abnormalities of the fallopian
tube
c. Tumors outside the fallopian tube, pressing
on it
a. Complete obstruction of the fallopian tube
Situation– Patient Norma, who is in the third
trimester, arrives at the hospital with vaginal
bleeding. She states that she snorted cocaine
approximately 2 hours ago.
94. Which defined complication is MOST likely
causing the client’s vaginal bleeding?
a. Premature separation of normally implanted
placenta
b. Pregnancy outside the uterus
c. Termination of pregnancy before the age of
viability
d. Abnormal lower implantation of the
placenta
95. The abdominal pain associated with
abruption placentae may be INITIALLY caused
by which of the following?
a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
b. Blood in the myometrium
c. Hemorrhagic shock
d. Concealed haemorrhage
96. The bleeding following severe abruption
placentae is usually caused by which of the
following condition?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Hyperglobulinemia
c. polycythemia
d. hypofibrinogenemia
97.Abruption Placenta can cause hemorrhagic
disorder which can lead to hypovolemic shock.
What is the LATE sign of hypovolemic shock
that the midwife should watch for?
a. Hypertension
b. Tachycardia
c. hypotension
d. tachypnea
SITUATION- RH INCOMPATIBILITY
98. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client
develops during which of the following
conditions?
a. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into
fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.
b. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into
maternal blood, stimulating maternal
antibodies.
c. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into
maternal blood, stimulating maternal
antibodies.
d. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into
fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.
99. All are correct regarding exchange
transfusion for newborns with ABO
incompatibility except which one?
a. Before the procedure, the baby’s stomach is
aspirated
b. umbilical vein is catheterized as the site for
transfusion
c. involves alternatively withdrawing small
amounts (2–10 mL) of the infant’s blood
and then replacing it with 50% amount of
donor blood
d. the procedure takes 1 to 3 hours
Situation: Hemolytic disorders: Erica is a 24-
year-old, pregnant for the second time and
now at 8 weeks AOG. She is Rh (-) with blood
type B.
100. Erica gave birth to a term baby with
yellowish skin and sclera. The baby is placed
on phototherapy. The treatment is effective
when blood test shows:
a. Low serum bilirubin
b. O2 level of 99%
c. Normal RBC and WBC count
d. Low platelet count