A1 PASSERS TRAINING CHN PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS

A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW AND DEVELOPMENT COMPANY
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

SET 1
PRINCIPLES AND STANDARDS OF CHN
Situation: CHN theories and major concepts

1. Obstacles to Winslow’s birth rights of health and longevity are the following except;
a. Mispriorities of the government c. Primary health care
b. Globalization d. Privatization
2. The main concept of Hanlon is total development which pertains to;
a. Amorphism c. Dualism
b. Essentialism d. Holism
3. Purlom’s concept of public health practice pertains to these phrases of human development;
a. Infancy and childhood c. Mid and late adulthood
b. Adolescence and young adulthood d. All phases of development
4. The highest of Freeman’s definition of CHN is;
a. Developing a social machinery c. Organized communities
b. Enhancing capabilities of people d. Singly as individual group
5. Most implicit in CHN is the application of this process;
a. Nursing process c. Problem-solving process
b. Research process d. Community organizing process
e.
f. Situation: CHN Principles
6. Considered as vital parts of CHN practice includes;
a. Health education and counseling c. Health and longevity
b. Social mobilization and justice d. Struggle against poverty
7. To ensure competent practice and quality care, nurses must;
a. Attend seminars, symposia and fora c. Conduct/participate in research
b. Go on graduate studies d. Practice nursing
8. In collaborate relations among the members of the health team, the nurse usually performs this role;
a. Secretary of the team c. Organizer of socials
b. Property custodian d. Coordinator of services
9. Indigenous community resources while the CH nurse can utilize are the following except;
a. Ventusa or dry cupping c. Traditional hilots
b. Microsoft word d. Herbal medicine
10. Respecting values, customs, and beliefs of people require which of the following actions?
a. Awareness training c. Discouraging harmful practices
b. Income-generating projects d. Collaborative practices
e.
f. Situation: The application of CHN concepts and processes.
11. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. As part of participation to policy formulation, the nurse plays an active role in lobbying for amendments to the
nursing law.
b. In the community, the nurse raises the level of awareness of the people to identify existing problems and
potentials to address such problems.
c. If the people of the community want free medicines, the nurse complies as the basis of services should
be on the people’s needs.
d. If may of the trained community health workers resigned, the nurse has to start all over again and never gives
up.
12. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. If people are not attending to the services offered by the health staff, the team must re-assess the
needs of the people.
b. In participatory approach, the nurse must devotedly adhere to what people want.
c. In a pleasant community where the people are fighting for land ownership, the nurse must not participate as
this is not a health concern.
d. Nurses must not join protect actions as nurses must be neutral at all times.
13. People have the potential for changing their behavior. This means;
a. One cannot teach old dogs new tricks.
b. Apathy and passivity cannot be addressed as these are defense mechanisms developed by people
themselves.
c. Education and training are meant to increase awareness towards responsible action.
d. Social offenders must always be watched out as they have the tendency to revert to their former selves.
14. If a particular health service falls, the most basic situation is;
a. Is this what the people demanded? c. Is this what people need?
b. What went wrong? d. Who is responsible for the failure?
15. In a meeting with the people’s organization in the community, the nurse was asked regarding her position on gambling and
usury. The most appropriate response is;
a. As long as people do not harm others, it is okay
b. Gambling and usury are part of Filipino culture so let them be
c. Gambling, yes, usury, no
d. Consider other forms of recreation and economic resources
16.
17. Situation: Knowledge of the concepts and processes of CHN is important.
18. The concern of the CH nurse is not only those who go to the center but also those who do not. What is the reason for this?
a. Determine the reasons why people who do not go to the center.
b. Identify health needs of people who do not come.
c. Define the needs and problems of those who come.
d. Ensure that CH services are comprehensive.
19. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Cognizant of the devolution of health services, decision-making on health affairs should be made by the office
of the mayor at the municipal level.
b. Given the community, the nurse can uplift the situation by herself.
c. Health illness have the same meanings in a homogenous community
d. While health is the responsibility of the health department, it is as much as the responsibility of the
people, as well
20. To facilitate implementation of a CHN project, the following are to be considered except;
a. Clear tasks and responsibilities c. Specific objectives with measurable output
b. Limited involvement of community d. Available materials and supply
members
21. When promoting the health of an individual, family and community, the first step to take by the CH nurse is to;
a. Establish a registry of families c. Do a health assessment
b. Conduct a community census d. Organize the community
22. The nurse makes a continuous appraisal for the care she provides for the community in relation to the objectives of care and
response of the community. This process is called community health
a. Assessment
b. Diagnosis
c. Participation
d. Evaluation
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DEVELOPMENT COMPANY ||3
23.
24. SITUATION: Nurse Joy is the new PHN in her municipality. She just had her license and is very excited about
her new job.
21. As a nurse, Joy knows very well that she can perform all of the following except:
a.Conduct lectures on the importance of prenatal visits to all pregnant women.
b.Perform Leopold’s maneuver in the home setting.
c. Assist in home deliveries
d.Suture 2nd degree lacerations during home deliveries
22. As a PHN, Joy knows that one of the following statements is not true. Which one is it?
a.All public health nurses are employed by the government
b.All community health nurses are employed by the government
c. All community health nurses provide care in the community setting
d.All public health nurses provide care in public health settings
23. When asked, nurse Joy identified the following as the patient of the community nurse:
a.Individual c. Population group
b.Family d. Community
24. Nurse Joy quoted C.E. Winslow when she said that her job also deals with applying her knowledge of the “Science
and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, promoting health to enable every citizen to realize his birthright to health
and longevity.” This statement is C.E.Winslow’s definition of ______________
a.Public health c. Community health
b.Public health nursing d. Community health nursing
25. Nurse Joy knows that only one of the following statements is correct. Which is it?
a. In CHN, the client is considered as passive recipient of care, not an active partner.
b. The goal of CHN is achieved through sectoral efforts
c. CHN practice is affected by developmental in health technology, in particular and changes in
society in general.
d. CHN is independent from the health care system and the larger human services system
26.
27. SITUATION: Simonette is the PHN in the municipality of Rizal. As a PHN, she assumes different roles,
depending on the client needs. In the month of August, she noticed that there has been a rising incidence of
diarrhea for a month in the young children in her municipality. The situation called for her to control the spread of
the health problem.
28. Simonette conducts a mother’s class to discuss the importance of boiling water to make it safe for drinking. Which
among the following role is she performing?
a. Clinician c. Leader
b. Health educator d. Researcher
29. Simonette organized a group of young adults and teenagers to help clean up the garbage near the community’s water
source. Which among the following is she performing?
30. When Simonette instructed the community people and the health workers to continuously report the cases of diarrhea
and the midwives to properly document the cases, she was performing her role as a?
31. During the home visits, Simonette identified cases of severe dehydration among children and immediately referred
them to the district hospital. Which among of the following roles is she performing?
32. Which among the following roles transcends all dimensions of nursing?
e.
f.
g.
h. SITUATION: Kris, Kath, Karen and Kelly are new community health nurses.
33. Kris is responsible for providing immunization to factory workers in a factory for canned foods. What field of CHN is
Kris in?
a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health nursing
b. Occupational Health Nursing d. None of the above
34. Kath organized health education classes on human sexuality among the first year high school students in her
workplace. What field of CHN is Kath in?
a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health Nursing
35. Konnie recommended to the administration that the employees be provided with personal protective equipments.
What field of CHN is Konnie in?
36. Karen organized a lecture discussion on the prevention of substance abuse among the out of school youth in her
workplace. What field of CHN is Karen in?
37. Kelly organized the clean – up of stagnant canals and disposal of uncovered water receptacles in the school to
prevent dengue. What field of CHN is Kelly in?
e.
f. Situation: You are assigned as a PHN in the RHU I of the Municipality of Liwayway.
38. Your responsibilities include the following except:
a. Participate in the implementation and evaluation of the municipal health plan for the year 2012
b. Participate in the anti – insurgency drive of the military in your municipality
c. Organize trainings on the standards for hypertension detection and BP taking for midwives
d. Organize anti – rabies immunizations for the dogs in the municipality
39. Your roles include the following except;
a. Care provider c. Epidemiologist
b. Collaborator d. Budget officer
40. Related to patient care, your tasks include the following except:
a. Administer streptomycin (IM) to category II PTB patients
b. Insert the NGT since it is available in the home setting and provide ORS to a severely dehydrated
child before referral
c. Close a 4 inch cut by suturing it after local infiltration with anesthesia
d. Cleanse a stage 2 decubitus ulcer in a bedridden patient in the home setting
41. You know very well that you should organize activities in the areas of ________.
a. Health promotion c. Rehabilitation
b. Disease prevention d. All of the above
42. In terms of educational preparation, a PHN should have __________.
a. A BS Nursing degree
b. A BS nursing degree and must be a registered nurse
c. A BS Nursing Degree, be a registered nurse and masteral units
d. A BS Nursing Degree, be a registered nurse, and masteral degree.
43.
44. Situation: The community health nurse must be adept with the concepts of Community Health Nursing.
45. The community is an integral part of any given society. This means the following except:
a. Community problems are often reflections of society problems.
b. Culture shapes peoples as people shapes culture.
c. A community can become self-reliant while an adjacent one is not.
d. Societal factors may have direct effects on the community situation.
46. The community is always in a state of continuous movement and change. This means that;
a. Change in the community is inherent.
b. After a particular period of time, a community’s situation becomes predictable.
c. The condition in the community is static.
d. Traditional interventions are always applicable at any given time and situation.
47. If the condition in the community is always changing, it is necessary to:
a. Isolate community problems from societal problems.
b. Develop a community health plan.
c. Identify sources of conflicts in the community.
d. Continuously assess community situations.
48. The Community Health Nurse recognizes the role of community leaders because:
a. The nurse as a leader can dictate the people.
b. Leadership is born out of love for people.
c. Community members are dependent on their leaders.
d. Community participation must be upheld at all times.
49. The Community Health services provided by the nurse must be based on:
a. Needs and problems identified by the nurse
b. The identified needs on community diagnosis
c. Plan of action
d. Objectives of the plan
50.
51. Situation: Responsibilities of a Community Health Nurse
46. The nurse actively participates in the development of the community health plan in order to:
a. Represent the community in the health team
b. Impress the other members of the planning phase of the nursing process
c. Ensure that there is a nursing component in any health undertaking
d. See to it that the steps in the planning phase are carried out
47. What is the basic purpose of research in CHN?
a. Sources of funds and other resources c. Improvement of health care
b. Media projection d. Proof of competence
48. The nurse is practicing CHN if she
a. Visits an old woman in her home to change her post-surgical dressing
b. Instructs a couple on newborn care
c. Sets up a support program for teenage pregnant woman
d. Does any of these
49. At all times, the community health nurse must provide quality nursing services based on;
a. Standards of practice c. Nursing philosophy
b. Principles d. Concepts and objectives of CHN
50. The context of CHN practice is;
a. Existing health problems and needs of c. DOH goals
the people d. Devolution of team
b. Current health status of the people
e.
f. Situation: Tessie is a new community health nurse assigned in a rural community.
51. She noticed that Nay Lorta, the local herbolaria is snubbing her. The best thing for her to do is to
a. Snub her as well and pretend she does not exist
b. Ask the midwife to fetch her and have a meeting with her at the health center to clarify matters
c. Make a courtesy call by visiting her at where she lives
d. Send an invitation for a training of community health workers
52. She made a home visit to Marylin and Jose to give pre-natal instructions. She noticed that the two are having a quarrel.
What will she say?
a. “Why are you quarreling? Tell me so I can judge who is at fault.”
b. “Can you stop quarreling? We will be talking about more important things.”
c. “Stop it Jose. You are doing harm to the baby.”
d. “Is it alright if I just come back some other time?”
53. In a health workers’ training, you found out that the participants toll along their small children. Anticipating confusion during
the training, the best action is to;
a. Put all children in another room and have someone look after them.
b. Tell the participants to go home and have someone take care of their children.
c. Let the children be, anyway, the participants have to take care of their young.
d. Postpone the training for a day when participants can come by themselves alone.
54. It was election time and a candidate comes to you and requests you in a free clinic which is part of his campaign. What will
you do?
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a. Ask for an apology for not participating and tell him that the people can come to the health center
anytime they need their services.
b. Verify first if the candidate can give you a substantial professional fee.
c. You like him, no questions ask, go!
d. Wait until the rival candidate comes in and the one which you feel must win.
55. A woman went into the center for treatment of syphilis. Your midwife shared the matter to mothers who were there during
that time. What will you do?
a. Confirm the story to the mother
b. Explain to mothers that syphilis can be treated
c. Ignore the incident
d. Make a denial
e.
f. Situation: Community health nursing practice will require the application of basic concepts that will
enhance service provision to people.
56. Community participation is essential. This is made possible by;
a. Conducting consultation meetings with key leaders of the community.
b. Full participation of the nurses in decision making.
c. Shared leadership in the community of the onset of the program.
d. Provision of comprehensive and understandable information.
57. To effectively provide nursing care to the community, the nurses must first;
a. Understand the community’s culture.
b. Review existing health records.
c. Identify formal leaders.
d. Assess the health beliefs of the people.
58. The minimum level of the people’s participation is;
a. Consultation c. Information
b. Citizen’s control d. Partnership
59. In addressing the health problems of the community, the nurses must ensure that;
a. People identify and prioritize their own problems.
b. Health team members give their share of responsibility in health care.
c. People are passive recipients of services.
d. DOH programs are carried out.
60. People’s participation is made possible through;
a. Primary health care
b. Use of multidisciplinary approach
c. Community organizing
d. Local government code
e.
f. Situation: Community health nurses provide care to individuals who visit the health center.
61. In conducting risk assessment, the nurse utilizes the principle that;
a. Each individual is unique. c. An individual is part of the family.
b. Client’s trust is necessary. d. Rapport must be established.
62. In the health-belief model, an individual will take preventive health actions if he perceives;
63. 1. His susceptibility to disease
64. 2. The severity of disease
65. 3. Benefits or efficiency of actions
66. 4. The nurse is trustworthy
a. All of the above c. 1 and 2 only
b. 1,2 and 3 d. 1 only
67. In promoting the healthy lifestyle of the individual, the nurse must emphasize the individual’s;
a. Self-responsibility c. Self-respect
b. Self-worth d. Self-dignity
68. In dealing with the health problem of an individual, the nurse looks into the different factors affecting health as reflected in
this model;
a. Germ theory
b. Epidemiological model
c. Wellness-illness continuum
d. Multiple causation model
e.
f. Situation: As the new public health nurse of Baryo Kepos Bayan, Pia applies the key concepts and
principles of Community Health Nursing.
65. As a Community Health Nurse, Pia’s concern will be the following population group;
g. 1. Families in their homes
h. 2. School population
i. 3. Workers in the factories
j. 4. Patients confined at CG Hospital
a. All of the above c. All except 3
b. All except 4 d. All except 2
66. Among her efforts as a health nurse, Pia’s concern will be the following population group;
a. Provide services to all individuals in the community.
b. Identify high risk population groups in the community.
c. Provide care to families in the community.
d. Target the general public for community health service provision.
67. The main focus of Pia’s efforts will be on;
a. Provision of health and ensuring peaceful death
b. Health promotion and disease prevention
c. Ensuring the right to health and longevity
d. Self reliance in health
68. Pia will have to coordinate with the other members of the health team. The approach which is integrated and comprehensive
is referred to as;
a. Multi-lateral approach c. Multi-casual approach
b. Inter-disciplinary approach d. Multi-sectoral approach
69. Recognizing the fact that the condition in the community is dynamic. Pia must;
a. Assess existing contradictions/conflicts to identify sources of problems.
b. Assess community situation to identify sources of problems and possible solutions.
c. Regard community as never static, hence, requiring ready and fixed health programs.
d. Consider community as composed of integral parts of society.
Situation: Phoebe and Pia are involved in health education work.

72. For health education to be successful, the nurses ensure that it is;
a. Based on analysis of existing health programs.
b. An outcome of evaluation of existing educational resources
c. In accordance to the teaching competencies of the nurse
d. Based on identified needs of the people
73. Health education is most needed when;
a. Persons are still healthy
b. People at early stage of illness
c. People are sick
d. Individuals at rehabilitation phase
e.
f. Situation: CHN is a synthesis of nursing practice and public health practice.
72. What is the aim of CHN?
a. To serve all ages of population c. Development of human being
b. Promoting and preserving health d. Limitation to certain age only
73. Where is CHN extended?
a. Individuals, families and communities c. Mature and elderly
b. Female population only d. Adolescents, adult and aged
74. What are the criteria to become a public health nurse?
a. BSN graduate with license c. Specialist in any field
b. Specialist in CHN d. Cum laude on graduation
75. The dynamic care of this nursing tool provides measurements of progress. What is the scientific, systematic process for
quality care?
a. Nursing policies
b. Nursing standard
c. Nursing procedures
d. Nursing process
e.
f. Situation: Health and Wellness concepts
76. The modern concept of health refers to;
a. How individuals can be called disease-free
b. How individuals can avail the function of their immune system
c. How individuals maintain maximum level of wellness
d. How individuals avoid diseases
77. The factor in ecosystem affecting the individual’s health that is involved in the menace of population, basically man-made is;
a. Behavioral c. Environmental influences
b. Socio-economic d. Political
78. The factor in the ecosystem affecting the individual’s health that is involved in the provision of essential health services
whether community-based, accessible, sustainable, and affordable is the;
a. Socio-economic c. Behavioral
b. Health Care Delivery System d. Political
79. Which is not an example of behavioral influences in the optimum level of functioning on health status?
a. Cigarette smoking and alcohol drinking
b. A grandmother with an adult-onset diabetes
c. Sedentary lifestyle of an office worker
d. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace
80.
81. The level of health of an individual, family, group, population, or community is called;
a. Health assets c. Health problem
b. Health status d. Health needs
82. In the health care delivery system, ideally, rehabilitation services begin;
a. Upon admission of clients in the health care system
b. Upon discharge of clients from health care system
c. After the client’s physical condition stabilizes
d. Soon after the client has requested for rehab services
83.
84. Situation: Concepts of Community Health Nursing are used in working with the clients, individuals, families, group
and communities.
82. The focus of CHN is the promotion of health. Which one below is the responsibility of the nurse upon meeting a client?
a. Spot mapping of the location
b. Making referral system
c. Identifying available resources
d. Assessment of health status
83. The CHN spend long period of time with the family as community clients in varied health settings. What kind of health care
services are provided to members of this family?
a. Referral only
b. Selected problems
c. All types
d. Priority cases
84. In the practice of community health nursing, a continuum cycle of this dynamic process is done until termination of nursing is
implicit. Which nursing knowledge is this?
a. Nursing procedure
b. Nursing process
c. Nursing research
d. Nursing management
85. The knowledge of the nurse in the community is not limited to nursing but a required and updated knowledge in biological
and social sciences, ecology and utilization of this:
a. Community health resources
b. Health programs from the region
c. Recruited family members
d. Community health organizations
85.
86. Situation: The context of CHN is an instrument to community development.
86. Which program should a CHN participate actively to support global action for the environment?
a. Toxic chemical waste management
b. Anti-smoke belching
c. Zero-hospital waste management
d. Zero-solid waste management
87. The aim of partnership and collaboration with the people is to;
a. Get people to work together to address concerns that affect them
b. Give people an opportunity to learn skills in intrapersonal relations
c. Bar people in the decision-making process
d. Expect people to participate in the context of autocratic leadership
88. The basic reasons why community organizers need to phase out from the community is to enable;
a. Nurses to open CO work in other depressed communities
b. People to exercise self-reliance
c. The people’s organization to expand their coverage
d. People to test their unity and strength
89. The important foundation in community organization is to bring together several indigenous leaders. This is;
a. Integration c. Representation
b. Core group formation d. Mobilization
90. What is the method of establishing rapport with the people and exercising effort to imbibe community lifestyle with them?
a. Integration c. Representation
b. Core group formation d. Socialization
91. The nurse and other members of the health team provide training on basic health care and other concerns to organized
group leaders. Which of the following phases of the COPAR process is the training done?
a. Sustenance and strengthening phase
b. Organization-building phase
c. Pre-entry phase
d. Entry phase
e.
f.
g. LEVELS OF CLIENTELE
h.
i. Situation: The Individual as a Client
92. The following are applications of the atomistic approach in looking at man EXCEPT:
a. Provision of a tepid sponge bath to lower the temperature of the client
b. Family therapy
c. Nurses’ administration of medications at the right time
d. Performance of proper wound care
93. Hopelessness as a nursing problem falls under which dimension of man?
a. Social c. Spiritual
b. Psychological d. Intellectual
94. The holistic approach in looking at an individual states that:
a. Man is equal to the sum of his parts
b. Man is composed of spare parts
c. Man’s parts, when joined together, form a whole
d. Man is different from, and is more than the sum of its parts
95. Which of the following statements pertains to a man’s social dimension?
a. Majority of men develop an unquestioning belief in someone or something
b. The family is man’s first socializing agent
c. Man’s rationality make him merciful
d. Man is different from, and is more than the sum of his parts
96. Lino Oban was granted a tertiary education scholarship by their town mayor to any private school in Manila. Coming
from a poor farming community, you know that his first few days in school would pose as a threat to which of the
following dimensions?
a. Physical c. Spiritual
b. Social d. Intellectual
97. Ms. Sue Plada consulted the nurse at the industrial clinic and was advised to have a hemoglobin count.
a. Physical b. Social
c. Spiritual d. Intellectual
98.
99. All of the following conditions are examples of the application of the atomistic approach, except:
a. Taking the temperature of the patient c. Assessing the type of family
b. Testing visual acuity d. Administering medications
100. Which of the following statements regarding holistic approach is correct?
a. People in a homogenous community share the same health perceptions
b. Problems of the individual should be treated as separate from the problems of the family
c. An individual can perform various roles at the same time
d. We cannot teach new tricks to “old dogs”
101. The following are evidence that human beings hold supremacy over all of life forms EXCEPT:
a. People are blessed with intellect and will.
b. Humans could either be male or female.
c. The humans are capable of establishing significant relations among others.
d. An individual believes in the virtues of hope, faith, and charity.
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119. Set 2
120.
121. As a community health nurse, your clients are usually diverse. It is important that you should be aware of
the needs of these clients according to their developmental stages.
1. Princess, 22 years old, has just been accepted in an ambulatory health clinic. She approached you to report an
outbreak of influenza in their neighborhood and has shared with you how she anxiously awaits her first job. The major
development focus of Princess and her age group is:
a. Rebelling against parental control in matters of dating and going out with friends
b. Deciding what worth can be shared by the next generation
c. Finding oneself and developing initial commitments
d. Resolving how one will confront death
2. In one of your clinics, you met Mrs. Baby, a 42-year-old woman, who began to feel anxious about her life. Her
husband has been very busy, having been promoted as CEO of their company. Her oldest child is already working
and the two younger ones are in school. She daydreams about having another baby. You would consider her situation
as:
a. Expecting midlife disillusionment c. Serious developmental abnormality
b. Healthy life expectation d. Out of control midlife crisis
3. Mr. Melanio, 50 years old, is known to be obsessed with his graying and balding hair. He makes frequent negative
references to his body and energy level, and at one time, he told his wife to leave him for a younger man. His
behavior probably indicates ________.
a. Mental or neurotic disorder c. Desire to separate from the wife
b. Loss of sexuality d. Awareness of aging and mortality
4. Aling Melody, 75 years old, is very active in church activities. She is in good physical health but was brought to your
clinic by her oldest daughter. Her daughter is disturbed because Aling Melody always talks about “when she dies”.
She has given away some of her possessions to friends and other close relatives. She also told her family about
wanting to be cremated when the “time” comes. She says she is fine and just wants to be realistic and ready. Your
nursing interventions would most likely be to ________.
a. Explain that her behavior is developmentally normal
b. Loss of sexuality
c. Desire to separate from the wife
d. Awareness of aging and mortality
5. Mr. Valeros, 70 years old, came to the clinic complaining about muscle weakness, fatigue, and shortness of breath
with his regular walking exercise in the morning. Upon examination, his BP is 136/86 and pulse rate is 70 beats/min.
He said that after the short rest, he feels fine again. He is not taking any medication. Your analysis with his
assessment would be most likely that he _________.
a. Probably experiences signs of normal aging
b. Needs to take preventive “anti-hypertensive” medication
c. Has cardiac pathology and needs to be seen by the doctors
d. None of the above
e.
f. Situation: The Family as a Client
6. The family theory that sees the person as fulfilling roles within the social system:
a. Structural-functional theory c. Developmental stage theory
b. Crisis theory d. Interactional theory
7. This family theory states that the family’s major task is to create an environment, in which each family member can
master the developmental tasks required of them to accomplish at each stage of development.
8. The birth of Joseph Jr. to the teenage daughter of the Santos couple compelled each family member to take turns in
caring for him so that his mother would be able to go back to school. The family theory applicable to such as situation
is the _________.
9. Failure to attend to the family health tasks, as identified by Freeman, constitutes __________.
a. Family crisis c. Family weaknesses
b. Family nursing problems d. Family needs
10. In 1983, Richard Kalish adapted Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs to come up with a theory on the needs of a family.
Which among the following needs listed below is unique to Kalish Hierarchy of Needs?
a. Stimulation need c. Exploration needs
b. Pain avoidance need d. Protection
e.
f. For Numbers 20-25: Which of the following is characterized by the descriptions given below?
a. Developmental theory
b. Structural-functional theory
c. Role theory
d. Crisis theory
11. The empty nest stage is one of its sub-stages. A
12. It addresses the membership of the family & the dyadic relationships among members. B
13. Role strain occurs when individuals have difficulty meeting other expectations. C
14. One of the main functions of the family is to add and to socialize new members. B
15. The assumption is that the family is made up of members who may experience hazardous events in their life. D
16. Each family member has roles that are specialized or shared depending on age, sex, status, and complementarity. C
g.
h. Situation: The Population Group as a Client
i. For Numbers 17-21: Choose the population group described in each number.
a. Children c. Women
b. Elderly d. Indigenous groups
17. Suffers from double burden. C
18. Afflicted with protein-energy malnutrition and micronutrient deficiencies. A
19. Suffers from decreased strength and sensory problems. B
20. Looks different from the rest, aside from having unique cultural practices. D
21. Victims of male and clan authority. C
22.
22. The constant presence of an etiological factor and a disease in a particular area is called
a. Sporadic c. Epidemic
b. Endemic d. Pandemic
23. To establish new cases of disease by studying those exposed to a risk factor, the nurse must conduct this study;
a. Case control c. Prospective
b. Cross-sectional d. Experimental
24. The primary aim of occupational health nursing is;
a. Reduction of hazards in the work area
b. Maintenance of a healthy work environment
c. Promotion of optimum health and prevention of diseases and injuries
d. Industrial peace among workers and management
25. Workers may be exposed to different hazards of work like biological hazards exemplified by
a. Stress, tenure, salary c. Heat, cold, humidity
b. Dust, fumes, chemicals d. Fungi, virus, bacteria
26. To weed out drug users in the school, the nurse sets up a drug watch community. This is an activity under that component of
school health nursing.
a. School health services
b. School health instruction
c. Healthful school living
d. School-community-linkage
e.
f. Situation: Care of population groups led to the development of specialized field in CHN.
27. Community health nursing emphasizes;
a. Mental health promotion c. Mental hygiene
b. Mental disease prevention d. Mental stress management
28. In Occupational Health Nursing, the nurse may establish the possible sources of occupational health problems in the work
area, through conducting surveillance. Such activity is a part of the methods of what level of disease prevention?
a. Intermediate c. Secondary
b. Primary d. Tertiary
29. The primary aim of the Occupational Health Nurse is;
a. Reduction of risks in the work area
b. Maintenance of a healthy work environment
c. Prevention of diseases and injuries and promotion of optimum in health
d. Maximum productivity of the workers and labor harmony
30. In the school setting, the nurse may facilitate drills as preparation for disasters. This is under the component of School
Health Nursing called;
a. Health instruction c. Healthful school living
b. School health services d. School-community linkage
31. The school nurse’s responsibilities in school health services will include the following except;
a. Maintaining a school clinic
b. Referrals and follow through
c. Isolation of communicable diseases
d. Food sanitation of school canteen
e.
f. ML, an elderly patient, 81 years old, loves to walk. She has failing eyesight, wobbly legs, is
stubborn and believes she can still manage.
32. What preventive measure will the nurse prescribe for her well-being that is, letting her walk as she likes, but at the
same time protecting her from ill events in life?
a. Ask her to have a companion whom she feels at ease with and to use a cane.
b. Talk to her and warn her not to walk anymore because it’s dangerous.
c. Suggest riding a wheelchair at regular times during the day.
d. Give her liberty walk but at her own risk.
33. When caring for older persons, what bioethical principle should you keep in mind?
a. Autonomy c. Justice
b. Beneficence d. Non-maleficence
34. Regardless of social stratum, character, or difficulties of the old person’s personality and behavior, which should be
accorded to the old person?
a. Praise and well-wishes
b. Mano po gestures
c. Gratitude and humble service
d. Respect, coupled with care and utmost attention
35.
36. As included in the WHO’s Health for All in the Philippines, the elderly people are properly cared for at home.
35. Which of the following needs, according to Maslow, apply to old people?
a. Belongingness c. Emotional
b. Economic d. Spiritual
36. Humanitarian issues affect the care of the elderly. Filipino values are changing. Which one would you maintain in the
care of the elderly?
a. Labor and management c. Educational and recreational
b. Income of elderly d. Security and protection
37. What would be the thrust of the program that you would make for the elderly?
a. Invoke elderly in a volunteer work
b. Educate the children to be responsible for their parents
c. Provide information on physical and social processes
d. Build homes for the elderly
38. In our country, senior citizens are given the privilege when they purchase their medicines. How much is the discount?
a. 25% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 20%
e.
f. Situation: The Community as a Client
g.
39. Which among the following is NOT an aim of Community Health Nursing?
a. Relief and rehabilitation measures c. Management and treatment of diseases
b. Health promotion d. Disease prevention
40. Recognition of the community as having been made up of institutions organized into a social system is manifested in
all of the following EXCEPT:
a. The midwife courses the information regarding a scheduled immunization in the barangay hall through the
head of the BHW.
b. The community organizers conduct an initial courtesy call with the barangay officials
c. The implementation of the health programs is accomplished with the help of the members of the barangay
youth club.
d. The public health nurse conducts home visits to provide nursing care to sick individuals.
41. Which of the following statements about a community is not true?
a. The dynamics in one community is the same as any other community in the country
b. The community is a group of people sharing common geographic boundaries, or common values and
interests.
c. A community functions within a socio-cultural context in that the people share the same cultural heritage,
making ach community unique from another.
d. The physical characteristics of the environment vary and this affects the economic production of the
people.
42.
43. HEALTH CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM
42. Which of the following contributes to poor health situation of the majority?
44. 1. High cost of health services
45. 2. Low priority for health
46. 3. Crisis oriented concept of health
47. 4. Globalization
a. 1 only c. 1,3 and 4
b. 1,2 and 3 d. All of these
43. The following statements describe the health human resources except:
a.Every year there is a marked increase in the number of health professionals
b.Despite the increase in the number of health providers, there is still an enormous need in the rural areas
c.The growing number of health professionals contributes to their low salaries and lack of benefits
d.Migration to other countries is primarily an economic issue
44. Despite the nature of disease patterns, hospitals have been developed and maintained as primary venues of health
services because _________________
45. 1. Some diseases are far advanced and require hospitalization
46. 2. Not all diseases can be prevented at the community level
47. 3. Hospitals are infrastructures that serve as proof of development
48. 4. Hospital practice is rooted in the colonial health science education system
a. 1 and 2 c. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,2,3 and 4
49. This process refers to the act by which the national government confers power and authority upon the various local
government units to perform specific functions and responsibilities
a.Globalization c. Devolution
b.Privatization d. Liberalization
50. Which of the following are the components of Health Sector Reform Agenda?
51. 1. Health financing reforms
52. 2. Local health system reforms
53. 3. Public health program reforms
54. 4. Hospital systems reforms
55. 5. Health regulatory reforms
56. 6. Public investment reforms
a. All of these c. 2,3,4,5,&6
b. 1,2,3,4 & 5 d. 2,3,4 & 6
e.
f. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE AS A STRATEGY
g.
47. Primary health care, as a service delivery policy of the DOH, permeates all strategies and thrusts of government
health programs at which levels?
1) National level
2) Local government level
3) Community level
4) Private sector level
5) Semi-private sector level
6) Hospital level
a. All of these c. 1, 3, & 4
b. 1, 2, & 3 d. 1, 4, & 5
48. The cornerstones of primary health care include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Active community participation
b. Use of latest technology
c. Intra-and inter-sectoral linkages
d. Support mechanism made available
49.
50. As a nurse in the Rural Health Unit, you plan with the midwife the family planning program of a mother. Who among of
the following is involved in your plan?
a.Municipal health officer
b.Nutritionist
c. Doctor on duty
d.Community health worker
51. The elements of primary health care include which of the following?
1) Environmental sanitation
2) Control of communicable diseases
3) Adequate food and proper nutrition
4) Provision of essential drugs
5) Emergency treatment
6) Treatment of locally endemic diseases
a. All of these c. 1, 2, 3, & 4
b. 1, 2, 5, & 6 d. None of the above
52. This refers to the smallest manageable health unit in areas that are small enough to be managed without being
bogged down by much bureaucracy, yet large enough to make health care delivery feasible.
a. Referral system c. District health system
b. Referral hospital d. Rural health unit
53. The first international conference on Primary Health Care was held at ________.
a. Geneva, Switzerland on 1978 c. Acapulco, Mexico in 1978
b. Washington, USA in 1979 d. Alma Ata, USSR in 1978.
54. To respond to prevailing health problems of the Filipino people, the emphasis of the health care system must be
_________.
a. Disease prevention
b. Health promotion
c. Health promotion and disease prevention
d. Prevention and integration to development
55. The following statements about primary health care are true, EXCEPT:
a. Primary health care recognizes the health of the people as essential in socio-economic development.
b. Primary health care makes a distinction between the different classes of the people
c. The goal of primary health care is attained through the provision of adequate health services.
d. Primary health care is the nucleus of the country’s health c are system.
56. The goal of primary health care are according to the WHO is health for all by the year 2000 and beyond. What makes
this goal achievable?
a. Agent-host-environment c. Evolutionary-based
b. Health-illness continuum d. High-level wellness
57. The multi-sectoral approach, in PHC, recognizes intersectoral and intrasectoral linkages in health. This means that
health workers should work closely with all of the following sectors, EXCEPT:
a. Local governments c. Agriculture
b. Education d. Philippine army
e.
f. Situation: Primary Health Care is the core strategy in program thrusts of government in all levels –
national, regional, provincial and community.
57. In intrasectoral linkages, which of the following levels of Health Services in the pyramidal organization focuses on the
treatment of prevalent diseases in the community?
a. Rural c. Regional
b. District d. National
58. In intersectoral linkages, the purpose is to unify the effort of health sector and others concerned. Which of the following
development is expected from the Primary Health Care Approach?
a. Social and Economic c. Intellectual and Emotional
b. Physical and Social d. Spiritual and Psychological
59. To which of the following health care facilities are cases referred to beyond the capability of the Primary Health Care Units
and health workers competence?
a. Community hospital c. Intermediate
b. Regional d. Peripheral
60. Primary Health Care endorses the concept of team work. Which of the following factors would make the health service
sssseffective and efficient?
a. Team planning c. Workshops
b. Group work d. Team building
61. The Community Health Nurses, as a health worker, must present a positive attitude for the Primary Health Care services to
be effective. Which of the following should be done by the nurse?
a. Refer to politicians the health problems
b. Discard traditional attitudes
c. Let people depend on the nurse
d. Encourage bureaucratic set up
e.
f. Situation: The primary health care (PHC) approach
62. The following statements pertaining to PHC are correct except;
a. Ultimate goal is self-reliance c. Responds to immediately health problems
b. Alternative health system d. Utilizes approach technology
63. The PHC is effective when CH nurses
a. Are models of health c. Initiate mass actions
b. Lead people in community mobilization d. Trust people’s capabilities
64. The goal of PHC according to the DOH is;
a. Health for all by year 2000
b. Health for all by 2000 and health in the hands of the people by 2020
c. Health for all in 2000 and beyond
d. Provide equity and quality health care in partnership with people.
65.
66.
67. LEVELS OF HEALTH CARE AND LEVELS OF DISEASE PREVENTION
65. Which of the following services fall under tertiary level of health care services?
a.City hospitals c. Provincial hospitals
b.Regional medical centers d. Emergency hospitals
66. Health problems beyond the capability of the village health workers are referred to an intermediate health facility,
usually a _________________
a. District hospital c. Specialty clinic
b. Medical center d. Rural health unit
67. This system is established so that lower – level health facilities/ services refer more serious and complicated cases to
higher level facilities.
a. Multiple referral system c. Two – way referral system
b. One – way referral system d. Multi – level referral system
68. Which of the following are intermediate level health workers?
1. Sanitary inspector
2. Municipal health officer
3. Nutritionist
4. Village health worker
5. Public health nurse
6. Midwife
a. All of these c. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1,2,5 and 6 d. None of the above
e.
f. Situation: Health Promotion
69. The goal of health promotion is to
a. Identify and minimize risk factors c. Popularize healthy habits
b. Rehabilitate sick individuals d. Increase wellness level
70. Which of the following pertains to health promotion?
a. Health protection manifesting behavior
b. Specific to a particular health problem
c. Approach activities to enhance health capabilities
d. Shorten the duration of the disease process
71. Individual wellness refers to;
a. The person’s ability to abide by the community norms
b. The person’s maintenance of healthy lifestyle
c. The person’s ability to adapt to his external environment
d. The individual’s formation of health beliefs and habits
72. In health promotion, community wellness is ensured through the promotion of
a. Healthy lifestyles c. Healthy behavior and beliefs
b. Healthy environment d. Healthy norms
73. Nutrition, as an important method of health promotion is ensured through
a. Growth monitoring c. Taking vitamins
b. Balanced diet d. Micro-nutrient supplementation
e.
f. Situation: Phoebe becomes responsible in the health promotion program of the health unit.
74. Phoebe must understand that the goal of health promotion is centered on;
a. Decreasing risk factors that will endanger health.
b. Diverting the occurrence of a disease condition or a health problem.
c. Enhancing the level of wellness of the different clientele.
d. Health protection against particular health problems.
75. At the level of individual wellness, the nurse ensures that an individual maintains;
a. Commitment to societal norms c. Health behaviors and beliefs
b. Healthy lifestyle d. Health surroundings
76. In health promotion, a most basic nursing intervention to be prioritized is;
a. Client teaching c. Primary health care
b. Community organizing d. Risk appraisal
77. In health promotion, it is believed that health behaviors and beliefs are formed at the level of the;
a. Individual c. Community
b. Family d. Society
78.
79. Personal habits affecting health are referred to as:
a. Hygiene practices
b. Health behavior
c. Health living
d. Lifestyle
e.
f. Situation: Activities in health promotion and disease prevention
80. Establishing youth clubs and mother’s organization in the community is;
a. Primary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention
b. Secondary level disease prevention d. Health promotion
81. Assistance in physical therapy of a trauma patient;
82. Conducting clinics in prisons to determine the extent of infectious diseases is
83. Giving lectures on sex education to high school students is
84. Identifying sick individuals in the community for prompt treatment is
a. Primary level disease prevention
b. Secondary level disease prevention
c. Tertiary level disease prevention
d. Health promotion
84. Specific protection against disease is an activity under ___________
a. Primary prevention c. Tertiary prevention
b. Secondary prevention d. None of the above
85. The following activities are examples of tertiary prevention except:
a. Colostomy support group c. Passive ROM exercises
b. Proper transferring techniques d. Crutch walking
86.
87.
88. SITUATION 2: Given the following activities, identify which level of disease prevention or health
promotion would belong to
a. Primary level of disease prevention
b. Secondary level of disease prevention
c. Tertiary level of disease prevention
d. Health promotion
89. Management of epidemics - C
90. Conducting sputum microscopy on TB suspects - B
91. Establishing youth clubs and mother’s organization in the community - D
92. Assistance in the physical therapy of trauma patient - C
93. Conducting epidemiologic investigations to identify the extent of spread of infectious disease - C
94. Promotion of condom use -D
95. Teaching self – injection insulin to diabetic - C
96. Male circumcision - D
97. Sex education - D
98. Ball room dancing for the middle – aged - D
99. Breastfeeding – D
100. Operation Timbang in Brgy. 645 - B
101. Use of hard hats in construction sites - A
102. Surgical handwashing - C
103. Use of mosquito nets - A
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.Set 3
112.
113.Situation: Disease Prevention
1. The best time for disease prevention is during this phase of the disease process.
a. Asymptomatic c. Symptomatic
b. Prepathogenic d. Pathogenic
2. Primary level disease prevention methods are applied during this phase
3. Secondary level disease prevention methods are applied in this phase;
4. Tertiary level of prevention is applied in this phase;
5. A particular disease is far advanced if it is at this phase;
a. Asymptomatic
b. Prepathogenic
c. Symptomatic
d. Pathogenic
6. Catheterization of a client to promote urinary elimination is an example of __________
a.
7. How could research data be utilized in the prevention of diseases?
b. In recording epidemics and communicable diseases
c. In prescribing meds for communicable diseases
d. In monitoring primary health care effects
e. In reporting case findings
8. The following activities fall under secondary prevention except:
a. Pap smear c. Dental prophylaxis
b. Self – breast examination d. Chemotherapy
9. The following activities are examples of health promotion except:
a. Regular exercises
b. Use of insect repellants
c. Stress management
d. Maintenance of ideal body weight
a.
b. Situation: Disease prevention is an emphasis in community health work.
10. Primary prevention methods will best be exemplified by:
a. Screening tests c. Avoidance of carcinogens/allergens
b. Prompt treatment d. Contact tracing
11. Disease prevention is most effective if done with partnership of the;
a. Barangay officials c. Local government
b. People d. Members of the health team
12.
13. After pelvic surgery, the sign that would be indicative of a developing thrombophlebitis would be;
a. Pitting edema on the ankle c. A reddened area in the ankle
b. Pruritus on the calf and thigh d. A tender, painful area on the leg
14. Primary level prevention is illustrated by;
a. Teaching the mother of the child with diarrhea c. Conducting Operation Timbang
how to use Oresol d. Teaching a patient post-mastectomy exercises
b. Isolation of the child with chicken pox
15. Which is a secondary level of facility?
a. San Isidro Rural Health Unit c. Hocus Provincial Hospital
b. San Lazaro Hospital d. University of Santo Tomas Hospital
16. Which of the following is a failure in health maintenance?
a. Health deficit c. Foreseeable crisis
b. Health threats d. Health needs
17. Which are conditions conductive to diseases, accident or failure to realize one’s potential?
a. Health threats c. Foreseeable crisis
b. Health deficit d. Health needs
18. Absence of regular health check-up is an example of;
a. Health threats
b. Health deficit
c. Foreseeable crisis
d. Health needs
e.
f. FAMILY HEALTH NURSING PROCESS
g.
h.
Situation: Family health nursing focuses on the promotion of health of the family. Given that your client
is the Gandara Family of Barrio Kapos.
18. Which of the following is the top priority for the Gandara family?
a. Unemployment of Roel, the head of the family
b. Scabies of Ryan, the eldest son
c. Mild anemia in the pregnancy of Aida, the mother
d. Poor home environment
19. Unemployment is a;
a. Health threat c. Stress point
b. Health deficit d. Both health deficit and stress point
20. When all the children got married and left the Gandara’s, the stage is referred to by Duvall as the;
a. Beginning family
b. Family with teenagers
c. Laughing center
d. Old age/retirement family
e.
f.
g. Situation: First Level assessment of the Family
h. For numbers 21 – 28, choose the type of data that describes the examples given below.
a. Family structure, characteristics and dynamics
b. Socio – economic and cultural characteristics
c. Home and environment
d. Health status of each family member
e. Beliefs and practices
21. Nutritional intake of each family member - D
22. All members of the family finished high school in public school - B
23. Cigarette smoking - C
24. Pail system - C
25. Extended family - A
26. Eldest child with a history of primary complex - D
27. Family members are non – members of any barangay organization - B
28. Congested neighborhood - C
i.
j. For numbers 29 – 38, identify the type of nursing problem described below.
a. Wellness condition
b. Health threat
c. Health deficit
d. Stress points/ foreseeable crisis situation
29. Blindness - C
30. Regular exercise - A
31. Hospitalization of a family member - D
32. Family disunity - B
33. Malnutrition - C
34. Resettlement in a new village - D
35. Spiritual well being - A
36. STDs - C
37. Loss of job of a couple with seven children - B
38. Poor impulse control - B
k.
l. SITUATION: Second Level Health Assessment of the Family
m. Numbers 39 – 47 describe client activities that possibly lead to family nursing problems. Choose the appropriate
Family Nursing Problem which the situations described would lead to
a. Inability to recognize the presence of the problem
b. Inability to make decisions with respect to taking appropriate health action
c. Inability to provide adequate nursing care to the sick, disabled, dependent or at risk member of the family
d. Inability to provide a home environment conducive to health maintenance
39. Denial of the existence emphysema - A
40. Lack of parenting skills - C
41. Lack of knowledge regarding proper toilet construction - D
42. Lack of financial resources, such as fare for a pregnant woman to get to a nearby facility for pre – natal check – up - D
43. Role conflict between the adult members of the family - C
44. Lack of knowledge regarding the signs and symptoms of diabetes and its complications - A
45. Client perception of hypertension as low salience - A
46. Conflicting opinions of family members regarding which family planning method to use - B
47. Stigma associated with tuberculosis - A
n.
o. Situation 3: Priority Setting of Family Nursing Problems
p. Number 48 –52 describe the criteria in determining priorities among health conditions. Choose the appropriate
criterion in priority setting that describes the examples given below
a. Nature of the condition
b. Modifiability of the condition or problem
c. Preventive potential
d. Salience
48. foreseeable crisis - A
49. refers to the nature and magnitude of future problems that can be minimized - C
50. refers to the family’s perception of the seriousness of a health condition or problem - D
51. wellness state - A
52. refers to the probability of success in eradicating the problem - B
53. If the figures below pertain to scores when priority setting was done by the nurse, which health problem do you think
should the nurse prioritize?
a. 4 and 2/3 c. 3 and 2/3
b. 4 d. 2 and 2/3
54. Which of the following is the highest possible score of any health problem?
a. 7 c. 5
b. 6 d. 4
55. Which of the following is the lowest possible score of any health problem?
a. 0 c. 1/3
b. 1 d. 2/3
56. The nurse considers the following factors in determining the modifiability of a health condition, except:
a. Current knowledge, technology and c. Resources of the family
interventions d. Gravity of the health problem
b. Resources of the nurse
57. The nurse considers the following in scoring for the preventive potential of a health condition, except:
a. Exposure of any high risk group c. History of illnesses
b. Duration of the problem d. Current management of the disease
e.
f. COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING PROCESS
g. Situation: Community Diagnosis
58. Community diagnosis as a process involves _______________
a. Step by step data gathering
b. Identification of the health problems of the community
c. A continuous learning experience for the nurse and the community people
d. Continuous development of the community health programs
59. Community diagnosis as a profile involves ______
a. Data gathering, data collation and data analysis
b. To identify the resources available to the community people
c. To enable the nurse to set priorities for planning
d. To coordinate health services with other socio – economic services in the community
60. Community diagnoses is done because of the following reasons, except:
a. To have a clear picture of the problems of the community
b. To identify the resources available to the community people
c. To enable the nurse to set priorities for planning
d. To coordinate health services with other socio – economic services in the community
61. This type of community diagnoses aims to obtain general information about the community or a certain population
group.
a. Comprehensive community diagnoses
b. Problem oriented community diagnoses
c. Rapid rural appraisal
62. Demographic variables show the following, except;
a. Population size c. Population control
b. Population distribution d. Population composition
63. The following are examples of demographic data needed in the community diagnosis, except:
a. Patterns of immigration c. Political groups identified
b. Growth rate d. Total population
e.
f. For numbers 64 – 74. The following are socioeconomic data needed for community diagnosis. Choose the
category to which the given examples belong to:
a. Social indicators c. Environmental indicators
b. Economic indicators d. Cultural indicators
64. Light industry - B
65. Two – way radio - A
66. 67% are high school undergraduates - A
67. Covered basketball court - B
68. 3% practicing composting - C
69. Suob - D
70. Natural spring - C
71. Usog - D
72. Open pit privy - C
73. Peddicab driver - B
74. Banyon - D
75. Environmental indicators include
i. Physical characteristics of the community
ii. Water supply
iii. Land ownership
iv. Transportation
v. Waste disposal
vi. Air, water and land pollution
a. All, except 1 and 2 c. All, except 3 and 4
b. All, except 2 and 3 d. All, except 4 and 5
76. Health illness pattern as an aspect of the community diagnosis includes the following, except:
a. Top five causes of mortality
b. Number of mothers dying due to pregnancy, delivery and puerperium
c. Number of new cases of a disease
d. Top ten developmental issues
77. Health resources include
i. Budget allotment per household
ii. Community recreational facilities
iii. Health manpower available
iv. Health budget and expenditures
v. Categories of health services available
vi. Geographic distribution of health manpower
a. All, except 1 and 2 c. All, except 3 and 4
b. All, except 2 and 3 d. All, except 4 and 5
78. There are three levels of data gathering when doing community diagnosis. Which of the following statements, when
made by the nurse, indicates an acceptable level of data gathered in a certain population?
a. We will conduct a survey of 10% households in Brgy. Sta. Lucia
b. I will interview 10% of the enlisted CHWs in Brgy. Sta Lucia
c. I will gather data from among 10% of the traditional healers identified in Brgy. Sta Lucia.
d. We will leave the questionnaire in 30% of the households for them to answer and pick them up the
following day.
79. The following are instruments in data gathering, EXCEPT:
a. Biodata form c. Interview guide
b. Survey questionnaire d. Observation checklist
80. Target setting in community diagnosis involves which of the following?
a. Constructing time plan
b. Conducting household calls
c. Motivating community members to participate in the study
d. Developing a spot map of the community
81. Which of the following is NOT a community dimension secondarily related to health?
a. Presence of a concrete road
b. 50% of children are malnourished
c. 23% are Iglesia ni Cristo
d. A piggery in the southern part does not practice proper excreta disposal
82. The following are community dimensions directly related to health, EXCEPT:
a. Food and nutrition c. Type of injuries
b. Endemic disease d. None of the above
83. Community health nursing problems may be categorized as the following, EXCEPT:
a. Health – related problems c. Health resources problems
b. Health status problems d. None of the above
84. To facilitate data collection, the choices in the survey form should be:
a. Coded c. Mutually beneficial
b. Encoded d. Mutually exclusive
85. The following are examples of an exhaustive category, EXCEPT:
a. Sex: male, female, others
b. Income: below P1000; P1001 – P5000; above 5000
c. Educational attainment: None, Elementary Undergraduate, elementary Graduate, High School
Undergraduate, Highschool Graduate, College Undergraduate, College Graduate, Graduate level of
studies
d. Religion: Roman Catholic, Protestant, Islam and others
86. Which of the following is not an activity under the implementation phase of community diagnosis
a. Actual data gathering
b. Feedback of results to the community
c. Action planning
d. Target setting
87. Which of the following refers to activities that should be conducted as a result of the community diagnosis?
a. Action planning c. Planning
b. Health action d. Development programs
e.
f. For numbers 88 – 98. The following are community health nursing problems identified through community
diagnosis. Choose the category to which the given examples belong to.
a. Health status problems c. Health related problems
b. Health resources problems d. None of the above
88. Malaria - A
89. Unapproachable RHU staff - B
90. Lack of antibiotics in the Rural Health Unit - B
91. Sexual and Reproductive Rights bill (HB 3773) - C
92. 5% of the population practice responsible parenthood - A
93. High prevalence of UTI among the women – A
94. 1: 100,000 midwife to population ratio - B
95. Absence of nebulizer in the barangay health station - B
96. Active military operations against the NPAs - C
97. Unpredictable harsh weather - C
98. Malfunctioning weighing scale at the health center - B
99. Impassable roads due to landslide - C
100. Priority – setting of community health nursing problems make use of the following criteria
1. Nature of the problem
2. Salience of the problem
3. Magnitude of the problem
4. Social concern
5. Preventive potential
6. Modifiability of the problem
a. All, except 1 c. All, except 3
b. All, except 2 d. All, except 4
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161. Set 4
162.
163. SITUATION: Planning for community Health programs
164. For numbers 1 – 5, choose the type of plan that fits the example/ description given below
a. Comprehensive plan d. Medium term plan
b. Operational plan e. Short term plan
c. Long term plan
1. Purchase of a month’s supply of cotton and alcohol 4. President Ramos’ plan for Philippines to reach the
for a pediatric clinic - B newly industrializing country status by the year 2000.
2. National health plan - C -D
3. WHO plan to eradicate tuberculosis worldwide - A 5. Regular purchase of office supplies for the health
center - B
165.
166. Situation: Community Diagnosis
6. The most common method of community diagnosis that accounts for the bulk of date is;
a. Census c. Interview
b. Records review d. Sample survey
7. The following are steps on processing data. Arrange them in order.
8. 1. data analysis
9. 2. data collection
10. 3. data presentation
11. 4. data collation
a. 2,4,1 and 3 c. 2,4,3 and 1
b. 2,3,4 and 1 d. 2,3,1 and 4
12. The major factors affecting the population include the following except;
a. Births c. Migration
b. Deaths d. Morbidity
13. A population pyramid with a triangular shape and broad base indicates the following except;
a. Death rates c. Young population
b. Poverty d. More females
14. The sampling method used for a reliable community diagnosis is;
a. Simple random
b. Multi-stage
c. Cluster
d. Systematic random
e.
f. COMMUNITY ORGANIZING
g. Situation: Community Organizing Participatory Action Research (COPAR)
11. The following describes community organizing, except:
a. It is a continuous and sustained process of educating the people to understand and develop their critical
awareness on their condition.
b. It involves motivating the elected leader to work for the good of the selected members of the
community.
c. It entails working with the people collectively and efficiently on their immediate and long-term problems.
d. It includes mobilizing the people for capability-building process.
12. Which of the following statements regarding the definitions of COPAR is not true?
a. COPAR is a social development approach that aims to transform the apathetic, individualistic, and
voiceless poor into a politically responsive community.
b. COPAR is a continuous and sustained process of educating the people to understand and develop their
critical awareness of their existing condition.
c. COPAR is a process by which the community identifies its needs and objectives and develops confidence
to take action to solve their own problems.
d. COPAR is a collective, participatory, and a fixed process of building community organizations.
13. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the importance of COPAR?
a. Role
COPAR playgenerates income for the oppressed sector of the society. c. Validation
b. Program
COPAR preparesplanning people to eventually take over the management d. meetings of development programs.
22. The following
c. COPAR activitiesmaximizes
fall underthe theresources
pre-entry of or the
preparatory
upper classphase
of society.
of community organizing, EXCEPT:
d. Social
a. COPARpreparation
generates through
income for sensitization
the oppressedof barangay
sector ofleaders
the society.
14. Which ofb.theCommunity
following statements
profiling is TRUE with regard to the principles of COPAR?
a. Site
c. The selection
most oppressed and exploited sectors of the society are open to change.
b. Entry
d. COPAR into
should
the community
be based on the interest of the upper class of society.
23. The other c. term
Thefor poorest
the entry sector
phaseof the
is ________.
society resists social change.
d. Orientation
a. COPAR willphase only temporarily lead to self-reliance because poor c. people,
Social byorientation
nature, needs
phasediscipline, and
b. Social
guidance. preparation phase d. Preparation phase
15.
24. Which
This phase
of thesignals
followingthe statements
actual entryisofNOT the community
TRUE regarding organizer
the PROCESSES
into the community.
involved in COPAR?
a. Pre-entry
COPAR utilizes a progressive cycle of action-reflection-actionc.process. Organizational building phase
b. Entry
Consciousness raising through experiential learning is centrald.to COPAR. Preparation phase
e.
c. COPAR is leader-oriented; thus, it focuses on core group formation.
f.
d. Situation:
COPAR is In CHN, the nurse
participatory utilizes community organizing (CO).
and mass-based.
25.
16. The
Onegoal of purposes
of the CO is of integration in COPAR is to __________.
a. Community
a. Gather data participation
that is necessary in the identification of community c. People’s
health organization
problems.
b. Community development
b. Understand deeply the culture and lifestyle in the community. d. People’s awareness
26. Preliminary
c. social
Validateinvestigation
the community utilizeshealth needs identified earlier.
a. Primary
d. Identify datathe sources
community leaders that may be tapped for organizing c. Registries and records
purposes.
17. b. Interviews
Methods and organizations
of integration include the following, EXCEPT: d. Focus group discussions
27. Upon entry to the community, the nurse can start the following except;
a. Participation in direct production activities of the people.
a. Deepening social investigation c. Small group formation
b. Conduct house-to-house visits
b. Community integration d. Social preparation
c. Helping out in household chores
28. Manageable units of the community to facilitate service delivery and people’s participation;
a. d.SpotParticipating
map in all the social activities of the youth inc.theCore community
group
18. Social investigation
b. Small group is a systemic process of collecting, collating, and analyzing data group
d. Organizing to draw a clear picture of the
29. community,
The except;
basic reasons why the community organizers need to phase out the community is to enable the;
a. a.Nurse Training
to openofCO community leaders
work in other in doing social investigation
depressed c. People’s organization to expand their coverage
b.
areas Analysis of secondary data available should be considered d. soPeople
as nottototest
duplicate dataand
their unity and waste time
strengths
and effort.
b. People to exercise self-reliance
30. c. Proper
An instrument integration
for gathering of health
objective data workers is necessary
from an individual is; in facilitating social investigation.
d. Datahistory
a. Nursing gathering should utilize survey questionnaires c. Use of laboratory exam findings
19. Groundwork
b. Physical is defined
assessmentas ___________. d. Process recording
31. The exact a.opposite
Motivatingof thepeople
current problematic
on a one-on-one situation is stated
basis as a;towards the resolution of community problems
to work
a. Plan
b. Going around and giving tasks to people so that community c. problems
Objectivewill be solved.
b. Goal
c. Uniting the community people as a group on the proper action d. Evaluation
towards the resolution of community
32. In the assessment
problems.phase of the family health nursing process, an indicator for problem prioritization of a family health
problem d.is the;
Measuring the outcome of activities implemented versus the objectives that were set.
20. a. Nature
Reflection dealsofwiththe____________.
problem c. Modifiability
b. Preventive
a. Addressing with the deeper and ongoing concerns ofd.theSalience
potential community problems will be solved
33. By its nature, which ofthe
b. Echoing the lessons
followinglearned
problems fromwillone
be given least priority?
organization to the other.
a. Unemployment c. Poor home environment
c. Establishing a mirror image “of the successful organization in one barangay in another barangay.
b. Scabies d. Ascariasis
d. Acting out the tasks that will be done so as to build the community organization.
34. Which of the following indications are used for determining the family’s value on prevention?
21. The following are critical activities under COPAR, except:
35. 1. Updated immunization schedule
36. 2. Family’s concept of prevention
37. 3. Compliant behavior
38. 4. Eating habits
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1,2,3 and 4
e.
f. Situation: To ensure the people’s participation, Pia and Phoebe employed Community Organizing (CO).
39. Community organizing is a continuous and sustained
a. Approach c. Strategy
b. Process d. Intervention
40. The goal of CO is;
a. Community involvement c. Community participation
b. Community development d. Community integration
41. Awareness raising is an important element of CO because;
a. It is the primary motivation to action. c. It may result to chaos if people are not aware.
b. It means community involvement. d. It preserves a culture of silence.
42. Preliminary social investigation utilizes;
a. Primary data c. Actual interviews
b. Registries from the municipal hall d. Ocular inspection
43. The best entry to the community is;
a. Low key approach
b. Entry with a parish priest
c. Endorsement by the mayor
d. Free clinic
e.
f. COMMUNITY ORGANIZING
40. This phase entails the formation of more formal structures in the community.
a. Pre-entry phase b. Entry phase
c. Organizational building phase d. Sustenance and strengthening phase
41. This phase entails the inclusion of more formal procedures of planning, implementing, and evaluating community-wide
activities.
a. Pre-entry phase c. Organizational building phase
b. Entry phase d. Sustenance and strengthening phase
42. This phase occurs when the community organization has already been established and the community members are
already participating in the community-wide.
a. Pre-entry phase c. Organizational building phase
b. Entry phase d. Sustenance and strengthening phase
43. The following are guidelines that should be followed in the entry phase, except:
a. Recognize the role of local authorities
b. Lifestyle of organizer should be in keeping with those of the community residents
c. Organizer should be famous among the community people
d. The community organizer should act as a role model
44. The training and education of the community health organization members is important for the following purposes,
except:
a. To consolidate the organization
b. To motivate the members to act as a united whole
c. To equip the members of the organization with the necessary leadership and health skills
45. The following are training programs a community health organization member should undergo, except:
a. Self-awareness leadership training c. Basic nursing skills
b. Basic health skills training d. Advance health skills training
e.
46. One supervised project in the barangay is putting up “Botika ng Barangay” which is supervised by one of the following
health care providers:
a. Pharmacist c. Midwife
b. Physician d. Nurse
47. Which of the following is not a function of the Community Health Organization?
a. Regular planning and conduct of ARAS
b. Ensures collective participation in decision-making, planning, implementation, and evaluation of
community projects
c. Raising the community’s consciousness on health
48. Organization building in community organizing involves the following except:
a. Spotting and developing potential c. Core group formation
leaders d. Setting up of the community
b. Community integration organization
49. Which of the following is not an activity under the sustenance and strengthening phase of COPAR?
a. Development of financial management systems
b. Application for SEC registration
c. Conduct of leadership training seminars among core group members
d. Collaboration and forming federations with other groups or organizations
50. The following are strategies under the sustenance and strengthening phase, except:
a. Education and training c. Solicitation of material resources
b. Conduct of mobilizations needed
d. Developing secondary leaders
51. COPAR as a concept is important in community health nursing because:
a. It is a comprehensive and its principles are in keeping with the principles of primary health care
b. Community organizing is necessary in all community settings.
c. Its methods are already proven to be effective
d. It is adopted as a community health nursing approach by all nursing schools.
52.
53. Situation: Community Development
54. The three main goals of community development include the enhancement of the following, except:
a. People’s knowledge c. People’s capability
b. People’s participation d. People’s well-being
55. The three main fields of community development include the following, except:
a. Community education c. Community enterprise
b. Community organization d. Community resource management
56. Community education involves the following goals, except:
a. Conscientization c. Community value formation
b. Networking d. Skills development
57. The following are basic principles of community development processes.
e. 1- Democratic and inter- and intra-linked
f. 2- culture-sensitive and gender-sensitive
g. 3- Dynamic and integrated
h. 4- Sustainable and empowering
a. All, except 1 c. All, except 3
b. All, except 2 d. All of the above
e.
f. SELECTED PUBLIC HEALTH PROGRAMS
g. Situation: The basis of the programs by nurses is the community’s health situation.
56. The community’s situation reflects the characteristics at the national level. Thus, nurses identify the following as descriptive
statements of the health of the people except;
a. Infectious diseases dominating in the disease patterns
b. Widespread malnutrition
c. A young population as indicated by low median age
d. High infant mortality rate and controlled maternal mortality rate
57. The underlying root of the poor health situation in the country is;
a. Lopsided priorities of the government c. Poverty
b. Graft and corruption d. Backward culture
58. Improvement in health is only made possible through;
a. More health professionals committing themselves in community work
b. Government ensuring high budget allocation for health
c. Genuine people’s participation
d. Re-orientation of health science curricula
59. High infant mortality rate will require improvements of health services in this program;
a. Under-five clinic c. Expanded immunization program
b. Maternal and child health d. Family planning
60. Reviewing the leading cause of morbidity and mortality, the most common disease according to transmission are;
a. Respiratory c. Degenerative
b. Systematic d. Vector-borne
e.
f. Situation: Family Planning.
61. Natural family planning methods include
i. Implants
ii. IUD
iii. Basal Body Temperature
iv. Sympto-Thermal Method
v. Abstinence
vi. Cervical Mucus Method
g. a. 1, 3 and 5 b. 3, 4, 5 and 6
h. b. 3, 4 and 6 c. All of these
62. Child spacing involves the couple’s decision to implement any of the following:
i. Hormonal methods of FP
ii. Permanent methods of FP
iii. Natural methods of FP
iv. Biologic methods of FP
v. Barrier method of FP
vi. Safe sex
63. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 a. 1,3,4 and 5
64. b. 1,3,5 and 6 b. All of the above
65. For family planning to succeed, an important consideration in the decision-making process regarding the appropriate
method to use is the
66. a. Woman’s decision c. Couple’s decision
67. b. Man’s decision d. Health worker’s decision
68. Which of the following is an example of a biologic method of child spacing?
69. a. Lactation amenorrhea method c. Implants
70. b. Diaphragm d. Depo-provera
71. The cervical mucus method indicates that the woman should observe the following, EXCEPT
a. Mucus secretions
b. Feeling of heaviness in the perineal area
c. Vaginal sensations of wetness or dryness
d. Menstrual days
72. Family planning principles and goals include
i. Woman’s health
ii. Responsible parenthood
iii. Safe Sex
iv. Prenatal care
v. Child’s health
vi. Safe motherhood
73. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2,3,4 and 5
c. 1,2,5 and 6
d. All of the above
74. The following methods are 99% effective, EXCEPT
a. Tubal ligation c. Sterilization
b. Vasectomy d. LAM
75. The following statements regarding tubal ligation are true, EXCEPT
a. It can be performed right after a woman gives birth.
b. It has an effect on the quantity of the breastmilk produced by the woman.
c. It has no known long-term side-effect.
d. It helps protect against ovarian cancer.
76. The following statements about vasectomy are true, EXCEPT
a. It is fully effective only after 20 ejaculations or three months.
b. It has no effect n the sexual performance of the male.
c. Its common complication includes pain in the scrotum, swelling and bruising.
d. It results in decreased semen production
77. The cervical mucus of a woman in the fertile period possesses the following characteristics
i. Slippery
ii. No secretions
iii. Elastic
iv. Breaks when stretched
v. Watery
vi. Smelly
78. a. 2 only c. 3 only
b. 2,4 and 6 d. 1,3 and 5
79.
80. Situation: The Department of Health is the head administrative agency, governing the health sector in the
Philippines.
71. The vision of the DOH is;
a. Health for all Filipinos
b. Health in the hands of the people by the year 2020
c. The leader, staunch advocate and model in promoting health for all in the Philippines
d. Guarantee equitable, sustainable, and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor and shall lead the
quest for excellence in health
72. The goal of the DOH is Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA), with the National Objectives of Health (NOH) serving as the
roadmap for all stakeholders in health. All of the following are reasons for health sector reform, except;
a. Slowing down in the reduction of both infant and maternal mortality rates
b. Rising and high burden from chronic, degenerative diseases and infectious diseases, respectively
c. Unattended emerging health risks from environmental and work related factors
d. Burden of disease is heaviest on the affluent
73. The following are considered as a specific role of the DOH based on EO 102, except;
a. Leader in health c. Enabler and capacity builder
b. Reformist for health development d. Administrator of specific services
74. The Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA) utilizes FOURmula ONE for Health as its framework, having four components
such as health financing, health regulation, service delivery, and good governance. Which of the following is not included in
the goals of this framework?
a. Better health outcomes c. Streamlining health system
b. More responsive health system bureaucracy
d. Equitable health care financing
75. The following are included in the Millenium Development Goals that is based on the fundamental values of freedom,
equality, solidarity, tolerance, health, respect of nature and shared responsibility. Which is not health-related?
a. Eradicate extreme poverty c. Improve maternal health
b. Promote gender equality and empower d. Ensure environmental sustainability
women
e.
f. Situation: The DOH formulated the plans, programs and projects with the vision “Health for all
Filipinos.”
76. Which of the following is the mission of the DOH?
a. promote healthy lifestyle
b. ensure accessibility and quality of health care
c. reduce morbidity and moratality
d. improve general status of the people
77. Which of the following is not a basic principle in the achievement of improved health?
a. Health and nutrition as priorities
g. b. Universal access to health services
h. c. Enhancement of performance on health sector
i. d. Funding from non-government organization
78. Which of the following is not the primary strategy to achieve health goals?
j. a. Support of local health system
k. b. Development of national standard for health
l. c. Assurance of health care for all
m. d. Funding from non-government organization
79. The dental health program of the DOH has committed to contribute to the improvement of the quality of life of Filipinos
through its project “Sang Milyong Sepilyo” for which strategy?
n. a. Operation research study
o. b. Social mobilization
p. c. Partnership with other sectors
q. d. Capability building and value formation
80. The Sentrong Sigla Movement” is the joint program of the DOH and the local government levels, what is the aim of this
movement?
r. a. Promote quality of health services
s. b. Certification and recognition programs
t. c. Benefits for local execution and health workers
u. d. Better and more effective collaboration
v.
w. Situation: Many changes in the DOH happened since 1901. In 1975, the DOH National Health Plan
reviewed the health system.
81. What was implemented after the restructuring of the DOH?
a. Philippine Heart Center of Asia c. Tertiary Hospitals
b. Alma Ata Restructuring of WHO
d. Restructured Health Care Delivery
System
82. Why was there devolution?
a. To bring services near to people c. To become self reliant
b. To empower local participants d. To stop funding from national funds
83. Dr. Winslow defines public health as science and art of preventing disease. What is art in the public health?
a. Leadership skills on the nurse c. Creativity in making health programs
b. Organizing people to participate d. Team building in group work
84. Hanlon stresses that public health is dedicated to common attainment of highest level of physical health, mental, and social
well being. What is the concise definition?
a. Emotional quotient
b. Total well-being
c. Focus on physical illness
d. Fragmented health
85. In community health, assessment of the client requires multidisciplinary approach. Who is the team leader of the group?
a. Nursing students
b. Doctor
c. Trained healer
d. Nurse
86.
87. Situation: Family Planning, EPI
86. The following statements refer to the family planning program except;
a. Policy program advocates partnership, participation and promotion of health.
b. The main aim of the program is birth control.
c. The program is anchored on safe motherhood and child survival.
d. Females may decide independently on contraceptive method.
87. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Effectiveness on sterility will come after 25 to 40 days after vasectomy.
b. Multiparous women have high fertility post IUD removal.
c. Pills are advisable to those who have occasional sex.
d. Condoms can be reused.
88. Life-long immunity for tetanus is achieved by a woman after
a. 3 pregnancies c. 3 booster doses
b. 2 doses during pregnancies d. Fourth tetanus toxoid
89. DPT is given at
a. 0.05 ml, ID c. 0.5 ml, SQ
b. 0.5 ml, IM d. 0.1 ml, ID
90. The seven EPI diseases are scheduled for immunization to provide immunity during which one of these infants’ age?
a. After the child’s first birthday
b. Newborn to six months
c. Before the child’s birthday
d. Six months to one year
Situation: Expanded Program on Immunization

91. All these diseases may be contracted through the droplet infection, EXCEPT
a. Diphtheria c. Pertussis
b. Measles d. Poliomyelitis
92.
92. A fully immunized child is one who has received the following:
i. BCG
ii. DTP
iii. Measles vaccine
iv. OPV
v. TT
vi. Hepatitis syndrome
a. 1,2,3 and 4 c. 3,4,5 and 6
b. 2,3,4 and 5 d. All of the above
93. This vaccine is given by mouth:
a. OPV c. TT
b. BCG d. DTP
94. The following are target populations of the EPI, EXCEPT
a. Infants c. School entrants
b. Pregnant women d. Adolescents
95. A woman is considered to have a lifetime immunity against tetanus after which dose?
a. Second dose c. Fourth dose
b. Third dose d. Fifth dose
96. What is the eligible age for giving immunizations?
a. Before the child turns one year old
b. Before the child reaches three years old
c. Before the child reaches six years old
d. Any age
97. Vaccines against these diseases normally result in fever within the first 24 hours, EXCEPT
a. Diphtheria c. Tetanus
b. Measles d. Whooping cough
98. The following are contraindications to giving vaccines, EXCEPT
a. Convulsions c. Malnutrition
b. Fever of 39⁰C d. Dehydration
99. The following vaccines are given three times in a year, EXCEPT
a. Hepatitis B c. DPT
b. OPV d. Measles
100. Which of the following is a common side effect of BCG?
a. Koch’s phenomenon c. Indolent ulceration
b. Deep abscess at vaccination site d. Lymph node enlargement
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136. Set 5
137.
1. The following vaccines are administered intramuscularly, EXCEPT
a. DPT c. Anti-hepatitis B vaccine
b. BCG d. All of the above
2. When is the earliest time for the administration of an anti-measles in case there is an epidemic in a locality?
a. 3 months c. 9 months
b. 6 months d. anytime, since there is danger of cross
138. infection
3. Among newborns, tetanus may be transmitted through
a. Puncture wounds
b. Improper handling of cord stump
c. Improperly cleaned baby bottle
d. Dirty water
4. This disease is characterized by a pseudomembrane in the upper respiratory tract:
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis c. Pertussis
b. Diphtheria d. Measles
5. The following immunizations may be administered by giving a 0.5ml of the vaccine, EXCEPT
a. BCG c. Anti-measles vaccine
b. DPT d. Anti-hepatitis B vaccine
139.
140. Situation: There are other important basic knowledge in the performance of our task as Community Health Nurse
in relation to immunization. These include;
6. The correct temperature to store vaccines in a refrigerator is;
a. Between +2 deg C and +8 deg C c. Between -8 deg C and 0 deg C
b. Between -4 deg C and +8 deg C d. Between -8 deg C and +4 deg C
7. Which of the following vaccines is not done by intramuscular (IM) injection?
a. Measles vaccine c. Tetanus toxoids
b. Hepa-B vaccine d. DPT
8. Which of the following dose of tetanus toxoid is given to the mother to protect her infant from neonatal tetanus and likewise
provides 10 years protection for the mother?
a. Tetanus toxoid 1 c. Tetanus toxoid 3
b. Tetanus toxoid 2 d. Tetanus toxoid 4
9. Which of the following conditions is not true about contraindication to immunization?
a. Do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS.
b. Do not give BCG if the child has known hepatitis.
c. Do not give DPT2 and DPT3 to a child who has had convulsions within 3 days of DPT
d. Do not give DPT to a child who has recurrent convulsions on active neurologic disease.
10. Which of the following statements about immunization is not true?
a. A child with diarrhea who is due for OPV should receive the OPV and make extra dose in the next visit.
b. A child should be immunized in the health center before referral.
c. There is no contraindication to immunization if the child is well enough to go home.
d. There is no contraindication to immunization if the child is well enough to go home and if the child should be
immunized in the health center before referral are both correct.
11.
12. Situation: Immunization schedule is to be used in order to provide maximum immunity to the seven EPI diseases
before the child reaches one year.
11. This refers to the body resistance which pertains to the protein present in the serum of blood.
a. Antitoxin c. Antigen
b. Allergen d. Antibody
12. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth?
a. DNA c. BCG
b. OPV d. DPT
13. Which one of the following is the main principle of the expanded program on immunization?
a. The program is based on epidemiological situation.
b. Routine immunization schedule must be enforced.
c. Its objective which is reduction of morbidity and mortality
d. The legal basis and existing policies
14. Earlier schedule of measles vaccine given at 9 months gives what percentage of protection?
a. 95% c. Lifetime
b. 100% d. 85%
e.
f. Situation: Nurse E has been trained for newborn screening in Manila. As a competent nurse, Nurse E
complies with the Newborn Screening Act of 2004.
15. The law that provides a mandate for newborn screening is which of the following?
a. RA 9288 c. RA 7600
b. RA 8976 d. RA 7719
16. When is newborn screening done?
a. Within 14 days c. After 24 hours, not later than 3 days
b. After 72 hours or 3 days d. Within 7 days
17. Why should the baby’s heel be not squeezed?
a. To prevent incorrect results
b. To prevent hemolysis and incorporation of tissue fluid
c. To prevent incorporation of tissue fluid
d. To prevent hemolysis
18. Nurse E has to activate blood circulation. This is done by;
a. Applying warm towel on the foot c. Warming the foot gently
b. Applying moist compress on the foot d. Warming the foot with hot water bag
19. Newborn screening is used to detect the following metabolic disorders except;
a. Congenital hyperthyroidism
b. Congenital hyperplasia
c. Galactosemia
d. G6PD
e.
f. Situation: Gerald is 12 years old. He was immunized when he entered school. Now, he is at the doctor’s
office with measles.
20. What caused the measles of Gerald, a 12 year old boy now?
a. Primary vaccine failure c. Material and antibiotics
b. Weaning of the vaccine d. High tittered vaccine
21. Measles vaccine is stored at the refrigerator temperature of 35 degrees Celsius to 45 degrees Celsius and must be kept
from light, how long should the vaccine be exposed after which it is to be discarded?
a. 240 minutes c. 12 hours
b. 8 hours d. 6 hours
22. Which among the nursing responsibilities should a nurse do to control patient contact and environment at once?
a. Report to local authority c. Inject attenuated vaccine
b. Disinfect all bottles d. Immunize with live vaccine
23. In institutional outbreak and depending on administration policy, what is the best thing to do?
a. Inject Ig measles c. Ask everyone to contribute
b. Immunize everyone d. Report to DOH for free vaccine
24. Immunization of contact is a control measure. How many hours of exposure to the disease could you give the vaccine?
a. 24
b. 36
c. 72
d. 48
e.
f. Situation: Control of Diarrheal Diseases.
25. Two main dangers of diarrhea are dehydration leading to death and undernutrition. These are most often caused by
a. Loss of appetite of the person with diarrhea
b. Loss of large amount of water and salt from the body
c. Toxins poisoning the bloodstream
d. Loss of blood volume in bloody diarrhea
26. The following are at risk for diarrhea:
i. Infants taking infant formulas
ii. Young children who are teething
iii. Breastfed children
iv. Children in communities with no potable water supply
g. a. All except 2 c. All except 4
b. All except 3 d. All of the above
27. Basic diarrhea prevention include
i. Breastfeeding
ii. Infant immunization against measles
iii. Use of latrine
iv. Freshly prepared food
v. Clean drinking water
vi. Handwashing
h. a. All except 2 c. All except 4
28. Diarrhea can cause undernutrition among children because
i. Nutrients are lost from the body in diarrhea
ii. Nutrients are used to repair damaged tissue rather than from growth
iii. A child with diarrhea may not feel hungry
iv. Mothers may not feed their children normally because of fear of making the diarrhea worse.
i. a. All except 2 c. All except 4
29. Children with the following signs are suffering from SEVERE dehydration
i. Sunken and dry eyes; tears absent
ii. Child drinks eagerly but is still thirsty
iii. Restless and irritable
iv. Poor skin turgor
v. Mouth and tongue are dry
vi. Drowsy and looks floppy
j. a. 1, 4 and 6 c. 4, 5 and 6
b. 1, 3 and 5 d. All of these
30. The three rules for treating diarrhea at home are the following, EXCEPT
a. Prevent dehydration- giver cereal gruel, ORS
b. Prevent undernutrition- breastfed or give usual milk, cereal, fruit juice
c. Stop diarrhea- give antidiarrheal medications, antibiotics
d. Consult health worker if the following develops- repeated vomiting, fever, blood in the
stool
31. When teaching a mother to give oral rehydration solution to her child, the following are taken into consideration
i. Give more when the child wants more ORS than what was given
ii. Immediately give ORS when the child vomited
iii. Give a teaspoonful of ORS every 1-2 minutes for a child under 2 years
iv. For an older child, more frequent ORS sips from a cup may be given
k. a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. All of the above
l.
m. Situation 4: National Tuberculosis Program
32. This refers to the comprehensive strategy which primary health services use to detect and cure TB patients:
a. Directly Observed Treatment Short-Course Therapy
b. Management of pulmonary patients
c. Essential chemotherapy
d. Integrated disease control of TB
33. TB symptomatic exhibit the following signs and symptoms:
i. Cough for 2 weeks or more
ii. Afternoon/ night fever
iii. Chest pain
iv. Unexplained weight loss
v. Blood in the sputum
vi. Enlarged lymph node
n. a. 1 to 5
b. 2 to 6
c. 3 to 6
d. All of the above
34. Short course chemotherapy for 6 months given to those with
i. Sputum smear positive cases
ii. TB relapse
iii. (-) sputum smear
iv. (+) extensive lung lesion
v. (+) radiographic lung lesion
vi. Extrapulmonary cases
35. a. All of these
b. 1,2,3 and 4
c. 1,2,4 and 6
d. 1,4,5 and 6
36. What is the purpose of the SCC-MDT for tuberculosis patients?
a. To reduce the stigma attached to the tuberculosis
b. To eradicate and completely prevent the relapse of the disease
c. To emphasize the importance of sustained therapy
d. To prevent the development of tuberculosis
37. Ms. May Sayad is a public health nurse manning the local health center in your locality. She was conducting a review
of the NTP records when she noticed that majority of the NTP enrollees were walk-in patients from the barangay who
presented signs of PTB. As you know, this type of case finding is called
a. Walk-in case finding c. Passive case finding
b. Active case finding d. Individual case finding
38. Lolo Oben is a patient from Sitio Kikilo who submitted 3 sputum specimens to you. Upon sputum microscopy, you
learned that two of his sputum samples are positive for acid-fast bacilli. As you know, a patient with at least two
sputum specimens positive for AFB by microscopy , with or without radiographic abnormalities consistent with PTB is
known as a
a. Pulmonary smear c. Doubtful PTB case
positive case d. Extrapulmonary
b. Pulmonary smear tuberculosis case
negative case
39. Collection of the sputum specimens for microscopic study should be done within
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours
40. Category 1 for the treatment of PTB include the following medications EXCEPT
a. Rifampicin c. Pyrazinamide
b. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin
41.
42. Situation: Tuberculosis, a primary respiratory disease is common among malnourished individuals living in
crowded places. The Department of Health survey of 1997 reveals that there are 600,000 actively spreading the
disease and 16 million Filipinos are afflicted.
43. The bacteria producing the disease is:
a. Mycobacterium bovis c. Mycobacterium africanum
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Mycobacterium leprae
44. Which of the following is the mode of transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis?
a. Ingested food c. Airborne droplet
b. Skin contact d. Used utensils
45. Which vaccine is a preventive measure during infancy and grade school entrants?
a. BCG c. DPT
b. Tuberculosis d. OPV
46. Which of the following topics is considered in your health teaching in cases of communicable diseases?
a. Prevalence of diseases in community c. Mode of spread and control measures
b. Annual risk of infection d. Mortality rate among adults and infants
47. Which of the following comprehensive strategies is used to detect and cure tuberculosis?
a. Category and treatment regimen
b. Case finding and maintenance
c. Direct observed treatment for short course
d. Strengthen national TB control program
48.
49. Situation: The burden of infectious diseases in our country is still heavy, as announced by the Department of
Health. One of the leading causes of morbidity is still Pulmonary Tuberculosis.
45. Tuberculosis is primarily a respiratory disease caused by tubercle bacilli. Which mode of transmission is extremely
contagious?
a. Ingestion of food c. Animal handling
b. Airborne d. Skin contact
46. Which of the following should a nurse do to detect prevalence of PTB?
a. Blood smear c. Skin scrapping
b. Organ biopsy d. PPD testing
47. Which of the following is the priority objective in PTB control?
a. Sputum treatment c. BCG immunization
b. Reduction of risk d. Identification of positive cases
48. As a nurse, which of the following basic preventive action is done to eradicate PTB?
a. Health teachings c. Distribution of medicine
b. Improvement of social condition d. Referral to health centers
49. When an older person is affected with PTB, which of the following measures will you advise to effectively prevent the spread
of the diseases to the other members of the family?
a. Cover mouth and nose when coughing c. X-ray members of the family
and sneezing d. Continue taking medication
b. Isolate the person
50. A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health needs of factory
workers?
a. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health Office
b. Physician employed by the factory
c. Public Health Nurse of the RHU of their municipality
d. Rural Sanitary Inspector of the RHU of their municipality
51. Public health service are given free of charge. Is this statement true or false?
a. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of the government to provide these services.
b. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services.
c. The statement may be true or false; depending on the specific service required.
d. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned.
52. According to C.E Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health?
a. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity
b. For promotion of health and prevention of diseases
c. For people to have access to basic health services
d. For people to be organized in their health efforts
53.
53. The three major micronutrient deficiencies emphasized by the WHO are the following:
i. Vitamin A deficiency
ii. Vitamin E deficiency
iii. Iron deficiency anemia
iv. Iodine deficiency disorder
v. Vitamin B deficiency
vi. Protein-energy malnutrition
54. a. 1, 2 and 4 55. c. 2,3 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4 56. d. 1,3 and 6
54. Food fortification involves the addition of a micronutrient deficient in the diet to the following
i. Soy sauce
ii. Catsup
iii. Salt
iv. Margarine
v. MSG
vi. Noodles
55. a. All except 6 c. 3 and 5
56. b. 2, 4 and 6 d. All of the above
57. The term used to described all the eye signs of Vitamin A deficiency is
a. Bigot’s spot c. Xeropthalmia
b. Kwashiorkor d. Opthalmia neonatorum
58. The following are examples of macronutrients
i. Fats
ii. Minerals
iii. Vitamins
iv. Proteins
v. Carbohydrates
vi. Calories
59. a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 4 and 5
60. b. 2, 5 and 6 d. 2, 3 and 4
61. A chemical element used by the thyroid gland to produce hormones that help regulate bodily mechanism:
a. Iodine c. Potassium
b. Iron d. Zinc
62. Also known as protein malnutrition
a. Keratomalacia c. Marasmus
b. Xeropthalmia d. Kwashiorkor
63. A type of PEM that afflicts an older child when the next baby is born:
a. Keratomalacia c. Marasmus
b. Xeropthalmia d. Kwashiorkor
64. The following are some of the best sources of Vitamin A, EXCEPT
a. Malunggay c. Wheat bread
b. Breastmilk d. Eggs
65. The best source of Iodine are
a. Meat products c. Yellow vegetables
b. Green leafy vegetables d. Seafoods
66. Iodine deficiency disorders may result in the following EXCEPT
a. Goiter c. Mental retardation
b. Stillbirth d. Blindness
67.
68. Situation : Malaria and Dengue Control Program
69. The characteristics of the mosquito vector that causes Malaria are an important consideration in disease prevention.
Its characteristics include the following:
i. It is a female mosquito
ii. It is an Anopheles mosquito
iii. It is day biting
iv. It lives in slow-flowing, fresh steams
v. It is called Aedes Aegypti
vi. It is night biting
70. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, 4 and 5
71. b. 1, 2, 4 and 6 d. All of the above
72. Preventive measures for malaria include
i. Chemoprophylaxis with Chloroquine
ii. Insecticide treatment of mosquito nets
iii. House spraying with an insecticide
iv. Cutting of vegetation overhanging along steam banks
v. On stream seeding with larvivorous fish
vi. Mosquito-eating frog propagation
73. a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 d. All of the above
74. The most important preventive measure for travelers going to Malaria-endemic areas include
a. Use of insecticide treated mosquito nets
b. Chemoprophylaxis with chloroquine
c. Avoidance of swimming in streams
d. Environmental spraying with insecticide
75. Plasmodium, the parasite causing Malaria, is a
a. Virus c. Amoeba
b. Bacteria d. Protozoa
76. The Malaria parasites primarily invade and destroy the _________, thus causing its characteristic sign and symptoms
of fever, chills, anemia, malaise and others.
a. RBC c. Neutrophils
b. WBC d. Blood Plasma
77. The characteristics of the mosquito vector that causes dengue hemorrhagic fever is an important consideration in
disease prevention. Its characteristics include the following:
i. It is a female mosquito
ii. It is an anopheles mosquito
iii. It is day biting
iv. It lay eggs in clear water containers
v. It is called Aedes aegypti
vi. It is night biting
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, 4 and 5
b. 1, 2, 4 and 6 d. All of the above
78. The diagnostic test for dengue hemorrhagic fever that is easily done by public health nurses at the health center is the
a. Blood smear c. Complete blood count
b. Tourniquet test d. Hemoglobin count
79. Methods of prevention and control for dengue include
i. Destroying breeding places of mosquito such as rubber ties and empty cans
ii. Keeping water containers inside the house covered
iii. Changing the water of flower vases once a week
iv. Scrubbing the side of vases and water containers
v. Residual spraying with insecticides
vi. Avoid hanging too many clothes inside the house
80. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, 4 and 5
b. 1, 2, 3 and 6 d. All of the above
81. Treatment of Dengue include the following EXCEPT
a. Replacement of body fluids by giving ORS or IV fluids
b. Treatment of fever by giving Aspirin
c. Bed rest to promote recovery
d. Treatment of headache by giving Paracetamol
82. Malaria and Dengue are
a. Endemic in the Philippines
b. Diseases associated with poverty
c. Diseases that are difficult to prevent and control
d. Caused by viruses
83.
84. Situation: Lani, a 12-year old girl was told by her mother to clean the backyard and burn the leaves of the jackfruit
tree. After 4 days, Lani manifested petechial hemorrhage with slight fever. She is brought to the Rural Health Unit.
85. Upon seeing Lani, which of the following questions should the nurse ask her to obtain history of her illness?
a. “Why did you not show your mother your skin patches right away?”
b. “Don’t you have a maid to clean your backyard?”
c. “Do you have a communicable disease?”
d. “Were you bitten by mosquitoes when you were cleaning your yard?”
86. What is the immediate source of infection of Lani, diagnosed with dengue fever?
a. Vector mosquito Aedes Aegypti c. Common houselies
b. Rodents and insects d. Cockroaches and fleas
87. Which of the following is immediately done to test the presence of Dengue fever on Lani?
a. ELISA c. Blood count
b. Rumpel Leads d. Platelet count
88. The best measure to control spread of hemorrhagic fever is to:
a. Avoid hanging clothes in the backyard
b. Keep water container covered
c. Spray insecticide weekly
d. Eliminate vector’s breeding places
e.
f. Situation: Endemic malaria occurs in the tropic and subtropic areas where socio-economic condition is
very poor.
g.
77. Which among the infectious agents of malaria is most serious to affect man?
a. Plasmodium brasilanum c. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium falciparum
78. During your assessment, which among the signs and symptoms need referral to the secondary or tertiary care facility?
a. Sweating and headache d. Fever and chill
b. Icterus and shock e. Renal or liver failure
79. The mode of transmission of this disease is through the bite of an infected female mosquito. What do you call this female
aggressive mosquito?
a. Aminophylline d. Anopheline
b. Spirozoites e. Hepatocytes
80. Laboratory confirmation of malaria is done in blood film. What do you expect to see in the film?
a. Antibodies d. Malarial purinates
b. Malarial parasites e. Antigen
81. What drug of choice is ordered for malaria?
a. Chloroquine d. Phosphate
b. Primaquine e. Sulfates
f.
g.
h. Situation: Acute Respiratory Infection
82. The following are signs to look for in a 1 month old child with possible Pneumonia
i. Fast breathing
ii. Severe undernutrition
iii. Chest indrawing
iv. Convulsions
v. Low body temperature
vi. Wheezing
i. a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 4
1. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 5
83. A three-month-old child has fast breathing if his respiratory rate is all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. 39 breaths per minute c. 60 breaths per minute
b. 54 breaths per minute d. 63 breaths per minute
84. IMCI stands for
a. Illness Management of Children’s Inadequacies
b. Integrated Management of Children’s Infections
c. Integrated Management of Chronic Infections
d. Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
85. This sign refers to a continuous high pitched inspiratory sound similar to a whistling sound:
a. Wheezing c. Rales
b. Stridor d. Breath sounds
86. This is always given as a remedy to a child with pneumonia:
a. Paracetamol b. Oresol
c. Salbutamol
d. Antibiotic
87. A three-year-old child has a normal rate of breathing if his respiratory rate is
a. 19 breaths per minute b. 39 breaths per minute
c. 54 breaths per minute
d. 63 breaths per minute
88. Home care for a child aged less than two months with severe ARI include all of the following
i. Breastfeeding
ii. Give antibiotics
iii. Keep the child warm
iv. Clearing the nose of secretions
v. Provide intravenous solution
vi. Give solid foods to the child
b.a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. All except 3
b. 2, 3, 4 d. All except 5
and 5
89. A seven-month-old baby has normal breathing if his respiratory rate is
a. 21 breaths per minute b. 45 breaths per minute
c. 57 breaths per minute
d. 64 breaths per minute
a.
b. Situation: Josie, 4 years old, is brought to the Rural Health Unit for cough, fever and rashes. The doctor
diagnosed her as measles.
90. Which of the following should you do first?
a. Perform a procedure c. Assess the patient
b. Plan for your care regimen d. Identify diagnosis
91. You found whitish, grayish pecks in the inner surface of Josie’s cheeks. Which of the following refer to these?
a. Morhili eruption c. Scarlet marks
b. Koplik spots d. Strawberry tongue
92. Which of the following procedure should you teach Josie’s sister when Josie has fever at home?
a. Proper positioning b. Hot sitz bath
c. Isolation technique d. Tepid sponge bath
93. Which of the following complication should be watched?
a. Meningitis c. Otitis media
b. Pneumonia d. Laryngitis
94. Which of the following consideration would be rendered to avoid complication of pneumonia?
a. Protect eyes from glare of sunlight
b. Correct technique of sponge bath
c. Ventilated room but free from drafts
d. Check prescribed medications faithfully
95.
96. Situation: One of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality are pulmonary infections. Acute respiratory
infection (ARI) could be managed at home, given the proper protocol.
97.
95. Which of the following should you include in the health teachings given to mothers to prevent ARI?
a. Wash hands after using the toilet c. Avoid droplet infection
b. Avoid smoking in the home d. Consult the doctor regularly
96. In adults with pneumonia or ARI in the home, which drug must be available at the RHU based on the standard
management?
a. Chloramphenicol c. Cotrimoxazole
b. Oxygen tanks d. Injectable gentamycin
97. In far flung areas, who could dispense ARI standard orders in case of pneumonia in children?
a. Sanitarian c. Nurse
b. Midwife d. Barangay health worker
98. During home visit, you assessed the child with ARI. Which of the following signs indicate immediate medical attention?
a. Inability to drink c. Temperature is 37.7 deg C
b. Restlessness d. Poor appetite
99. Which of the following is not included in the prevention of acute respiratory infection?
a. Measles immunization
b. Avoid smoking
c. Breast feeding
d. Good ventilation
100. Magnitude of the problem is defined as ____________.
a. The severity of the problem that can be measured in terms of the proportion of the population
affected by the problem
b. Classification of the problem as health status, health resource or health related problem
c. The probability of reducing, controlling or eradicating the problem
d. The probability of controlling or reducing the effects posed by the problem
e.
f.
g.
h. Set 6
i.
j. Situation: Nurse Cita is preparing for a home visit to her Type II diabetic patient, Mang Jose.
1. Nurse Cita knows very well that all of the following are risk factors for diabetes, EXCEPT
a. Obesity b. Age > 35 years
c. Hypertension
d. HDL cholesterol level < 35 mg/dl
2. Mang Jose informed Nurse Cita that he has been reading a lot about the different types of diabetes because he wanted
to make sure that he understood the disease well. Which of the following verbalized statements of Mang Jose is NOT
CORRECT
a. Type I diabetes is also known as juvenile-onset diabetes
b. Type II diabetic patients will never need insulin to preserve life
c. Type I diabetic patients need insulin to preserve life
d. Type II diabetes is also known as maturity-onset diabetes.
3.
4. Nurse Cita wanted to correct Mang Jose’s misconception regarding diabetes. Which among the following also needs to
be corrected?
a. Diabetes is a serious chronic cardiovascular disease characterized by an increase in blood
sugar levels.
b. Diabetes occurs when insulin is not adequately produced by the pancreas.
c. Diabetes also happens when the body cannot properly use insulin.
d. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by hyperglycemia.
5. All of the following are included in the criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, EXCEPT
a. Symptoms of diabetes plus casual fasting glucose concentration greater than or equal to
200mg/dl.
b. Two-hour post load glucose greater than or equal to 200 mg/dl during an oral glucose tolerance test
(OGTT).
c. Fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal t 126 mg/dl
d. Symptoms of Diabetes plus casual plasma glucose concentration greater than or equal to 200mg/dl
6. Nurse Cita started talking about the five components of diabetes management. These include the following except
a. Pharmacologic therapy
b. Nutrition Management
c. Exercise
d. Reduced smoking
7. Diet and weight control constitute the foundation of diabetes management. Which among the following should NOT BE
INCLUDED among the things that Nurse Cita should discuss with Mang Jose?
a. Avoid simple sugars like cakes and chocolates.
b. Consume complex carbohydrates like rice, pasta, cereals and fresh fruits.
c. Eat more fiber-rich foods like vegetables.
d. Balance salt and sugar intake.
8. Exercise lowers blood glucose by increasing the uptake of glucose by body muscles and by improving insulin utilization.
Which among the following should be included in the general precautions for diabetic patients during exercise?
a. Use protective devices such as rubber boots to avoid injury to the foot.
b. Exercise only during cold weather to promote comfort.
c. Always carry quick sugar sources like candy or softdrink to avoid hypoglycemia.
d. Inspect feet daily for callous after exercise.
9.
10. Situation: Tetanus is an acute disease induced by toxin of tetanus bacilli growing anaerobically in wounds and at
the site of umbilicus among newborn of infants, characterized by muscular contraction.
8. Little Ana, 2 weeks old, was brought to you at RHU by her mother due to fever and muscle twitching. Your first action is to:
a. Blame the mother c. Report to health office
b. Inspect the umbilical cord d. Check temperature manually
9. To gather data base with the help of little Ana’s mother, which step of nursing process would you do?
a. Planning c. Evaluation
b. Assessment d. Intervention
10. Mode of transmission in Tetanus Neonatorum is through contamination from varied sources like soil, dust or animal feces.
Which one below would you teach the mother of little Ana?
a. Boil the water before drinking c. Bring the baby to the health center everyday
b. Use new diapers d. Wash hands before touching the cord
11. Method of control of Tetanus among infants is scheduled immunization of tetanus toxoid on:
a. Parents of the baby
b. Pregnant women
c. Newborn babies
d. Installation of bright light
d.
e. Situation: James has been smoking 20 years now. When he visited the health center together with his wife, he
saw a pamphlet on healthy lifestyle behavior.
12. All of the following are included in healthy lifestyle, EXCEPT
a. Not smoking b. Having a regular exercise
c. Eating a delicious diet everyday
d. Weight control
13. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the benefits of regular exercise?
a. Improves the risk of developing high blood pressure
b. Increases the risk of developing non-insulin dependent (Type II) Diabetes Mellitus
c. Causes feelings of depression and anxiety
d. Helps people achieve and maintain a healthy body weight
14. Smoking causes
a. Coronary artery disease, heart disease, hardening of arteries and complication of blocked arteries,
hypertension, blood clots
b. Disease of the oral cavity and peptic ulcer disease
c. COPD’s such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema
d. All of the above
15. This term refers to directly smoking from a lighted cigarette or other tobacco products:
a. Active smoking b. Passive smoking
c. Mainstream smoking
d. Second-hand smoking
16. This term refers to smoke exhaled by a smoker and inhaled by other people:
a. Active smoke b. Passive smoke
c. Mainstream stroke
d. Second-hand smoke
17. A smoker like James is exposed to
a. Mainstream smoke and side stream smoke
b. Second-hand smoke and side stream smoke
c. Mainstream smoke and second-hand smoke
18. Which of the following are benefits of quitting smoking?
i. Within 20 minutes, the blood pressure and pulse rate drop to normal, the body temperature of the
hands and feet returns to normal.
ii. Within 8 hours, the carbon monoxide level in blood drops to normal and the oxygen level of the
blood increases to normal.
iii. Within 24 hours, the risk of a sudden heart attack decreases.
iv. Within 48 hours, nerve endings begin to regenerate and a person’s ability to smell and taste
returns to normal.
v. Within 2 weeks to 3 months, blood circulation improves and lung function increases up to 30%.
vi. Within 1-9 months, overall energy increases while coughing, nasal congestion, fatigue, and
shortness of breath are markedly reduced.
b. a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 3, 4 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. All of the above
c.
d. Situation: Lorena, a student nurse, is trying to prepare for a quiz on IMCI.
19. Lorena knows that all of the following are danger signs that require referral EXCEPT
a. Child vomits everything b. Child is unable to sleep
c. Convulsions
d. Child is unconscious or lethargic
20. Generally speaking, a seriously ill child has
a. All four of the danger signs c. Two to three of the danger signs
b. Three to four of the danger signs d. One or more of the danger signs
a.
21. After checking for general danger signs, Lorena knows that the health care provider must check for main symptoms.
The IMCI clinical guidelines suggest checking for
a. Cough or difficult breathing c. Fever
b. Diarrhea d. All of the above
22. The key clinical signs are used to assess a sick child with cough or difficult breathing. This includes the respiratory
rate, lower chest wall indrawing and stridor. Lower chest wall indrawing
a. Distinguishes children who have pneumonia from those who do not
b. Indicates severe pneumonia in children
c. Indicates severe pneumonia and requires hospital admission of children
d. Indicates pneumonia and requires home management of children
23. In case of diarrhea, Lorena knows that all children should be assessed for:
a. Signs of dehydration
b. The period the child has had diarrhea
c. Blood in the stool to determine of the child has dysentery
d. All of the above
24. When assessing for the elasticity of the skin, Lorena should perform this in the abdomen with the fold of the skin
a. Horizontal to the child’s body d. In different directions with the child’s
b. Vertical to the child’s body body
c. Diagonal to the child’s body
25. A fluid deficit of ≥ 10 percent of the body weight is indicative of
a. Severe dehydration c. Moderate dehydration
b. Some dehydration d. No dehydration
26. Proper feeding is the most important aspect of treatment for children with diarrhea for 14 days or more or persistent
diarrhea. The goals of nutritional therapy include
a. Temporarily reduce the amount of animal/ reducing milk in the diet
b. Providing a sufficient intake of energy, protein, vitamin sand minerals to facilitate the repair process in the
damaged gut mucosa and improve nutritional status
c. Ensuring adequate food intake during convalescence to correct any malnutrition
d. All of the above
27. With regard to detection of acute or current measles, Lorena should know that this is based on fever with a
generalized rash, plus
a. Red eyes
b. Runny nose
c. Cough
d. At least any of the following signs- red eyes, runny nose or cough
28. Urgent referral to a hospital is needed when a child with measles displays
a. Lethargy plus severe stomatitis with deep and extensive mouth ulcers or severe eye
complications, such as clouding of the cornea
b. Pus draining from the eye or non-deep and non-extensive mouth ulcers
c. Eye or mouth complications with pneumonia, diarrhea or ear infection
d. A and D
29. For children with ear problems, which of the following clinical signs should be assessed?
a. Ear discharge c. Both of these
b. Ear pain d. Neither of these
30. Tender swelling behind the ear is indicative of
a. Mastoiditis c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. No ear infection
31. Pre-referral treatments for children aged 2 months up to 5 years, include
i. Approximate antibiotic
ii. Quinine (for severe malaria)
iii. Vitamin A
iv. Prevention of hypoglycemia with breastmilk or sugar water
v. Oral antimalarial
vi. Paracetamol for high fever (38.5⁰ C or above) or pain
vii. Tetracycline eye ointment (if with clouding of the cornea or pus draining from eye)
viii. ORS solution so that the mother can give frequent sips on the way to the hospital
32.
33.
34. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. All except 5
a. 2, 3, 4, 5 c. All of the above
35. Lorena knows that Vitamin A helps resist measles virus infection in the eye as well as in the layer of cells that line the
lung gut, mouth and throat that is why it is given to a child with measles or severe malnutrition. The first dose should
be given to the child in the health center while the second dose should be given
a. By the nurse at the health center, the next day
b. To the mother, for her to give it to the child the next day at home
c. By the nurse at the health center, the following week
d. None since there is no second dose
36. All of the following cases need to be returned for follow-up at the health center, not later than 2 days EXCEPT
a. Pneumonia c. Malaria, if fever persists
b. Dysentery d. None of the above
37. All of the following cases need to be returned for follow-up at the health center not later than 5 days EXCEPT
a. Persistent diarrhea c. Feeding problem
b. Acute ear infection d. None of the above
e.
38. For a child who is one week to 2 months old, the following condition requires breastfeeding assessment EXCEPT
a. Child is taking multivitamins
b. An infant has difficulty feeding
c. Child is breastfed less than 8 times in 24 hours
d. Child is taking other foods or drinks
39. Signs of good attachment include
i. Child’s chin touching breast
ii. Child’s mouth wide open
iii. Child’s tongue protrudes in-between sucking
iv. Child’s lower lip turned outward
v. Child sucks with characteristic sound
vi. More areola visible above tan below the mouth
b. a. 1, 3, 5 and 6 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 2, 4 and 6 e. All of the above
40. All of the following indicates that the child is sucking effectively, EXCEPT
a. Slow sucking c. Sucking with some pausing
b. Deep sucks d. None of the above
38. How would you classify a 36-month old child who has very low weight and some palmar pallor?
a. Severe malnutrition and severe anemia c. Anemia and very low weight
b. Severe anemia and very low weight d. Severe anemia
39. How would you classify a 30-month old child who has fever with malaria risk and measles present and there are no signs of
severe classification and no blood smear taken?
a. Fever no malaria c. Very severe febrile disease/malaria
b. Fever malaria unlikely d. Malaria
40. How would you classify a 5 year old boy who has fever with malaria risk and no runny nose, no measles, no other cause of
fever and no blood smear taken?
a. Fever no malaria c. Very severe febrile disease/malaria
b. Fever malaria unlikely d. Malaria
41. How would you classify a 36-month old child who has very low weight and severe palmar pallor?
a. Severe anemia c. Severe malnutrition and severe anemia
b. Severe anemia and very low weight d. Anemia and very low weight
42. How would you classify an 18-month old child who has visible severe wasting and severe palmar pallor?
a. Severe malnutrition c. Very low weight
b. Severe anemia d. Severe malnutrition and severe anemia
43. How would you classify a 9 month old child who has diarrhea for 3 days with blood in stool? The child is restless and
irritable; no sunken eyes, drinks eagerly, thirsty and skin pinch goes back immediately?
a. No dehydration c. No dehydration and dysentery
b. Some dehydration and severe persistent d. Some dehydration and dysentery
diarrhea
44. How would you classify an 11 month old child who has diarrhea for 14 days and with no blood in stool. The child is restless
and irritable; no sunken eyes, drinks eagerly, thirsty and skin pinch goes back slowly.
a. No dehydration and dysentery d. Some dehydration and severe
b. Some dehydration and dysentery persistent diarrhea
c. No dehydration
45. How would you classify a 12 month old child who has diarrhea for 2 days with no blood in the stool? The child is not
abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken; not restless and irritable; no sunken eyes, is able to drink but is not thirsty and skin
pinch goes back immediately.
a. No dehydration c. No dehydration and dysentery
b. Some dehydration and severe persistent d. Some dehydration and dysentery
diarrhea
46. How would you classify a 20-month old child who has an ear problem and no pus is seen draining from the ear and
discharge is reported for 2 days.
a. No ear infection c. Acute ear infection
b. Chronic ear infection d. Mastoiditis
47. How would you classify a 20 month old child who has an ear problem and tender swelling behind the ear?
a. No ear infection c. Acute ear infection
b. Chronic ear infection d. Mastoiditis
48. How would you classify a 12 month old child who has signs suggesting measles and pus draining from the eye and no sign
for severe classification?
a. Measles c. Severe complicated measles
b. Measles with mouth complications d. Measles with eye complications
49. How would you classify a 15 month old child who has an ear problem and has ear pain?
a. Mastoiditis c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. No ear infection
50. How would a. you
Severe
classify
malnutrition
a 9 month old child who has edema on both feet? c. Very low weight
b. Severe anemia d. Anemia
51. How would you classify a 15 month old child who has signs suggesting measles and deep or extensive mouth ulcer?
b. Measles with eye complication d. Measles with eye complications
52. How would you classify a 12 month old child who has signs suggesting measles and pus draining from eye and no signs for
the severe classification?
b. Measles with eye complications d. Measles with mouth complications
53. A yellow color in the IMCI chart signifies;
a. Home management c. Treatment at the health center
b. Urgent referral d. Emergency triage and treatment
54. In home management of a child with pneumonia, the caretaker is counselled on how not to;
a. Give oral drugs c. When to return
b. Treat local infection at home d. Discontinue feeding
55. In history taking and communicating with the caregiver, vital communication technique is emphasized. Which of the following
will hinder effective communication?
a. Asking the caregiver if she is giving an unsure answer
b. Giving the caregiver time to answer the question
c. Using words the caregiver understands
d. Listening
56. Which of the following is not a danger sign?
a. Convulsion c. Lethargy/unconsciousness
b. Inability to drink or breastfed d. Difficulty breathing
57. A mother complains that her child has inability to drink or breastfed. The nurse verifies this evidence by asking;
a. “The child may not be hungry that is why he is not drinking or feeding.”
b. “Please tell me more about this.”
c. “When did the child last ate?”
d. “May I observe you while you are feeding the child?”
58. If the child has only one of the danger signs implicitly stated in the IMCI guideline, this child will be classified under what
color?
a. Pink c. Green
b. Blue d. Yellow
59. Which vital sign is important in classifying a child with pneumonia from those who do not have?
a. Temperature c. Chest indrawing
b. Respiratory rate d. Stridor
60. Which of the following child has stridor and needs to be referred?
a. Jolens, producing a wheezing noise when he breathes out
b. Rodoraman, an agitated crying child exemplifying harsh noise during inhalation
c. Bentot, an agitated crying child with a wheezing noise as he breathes out
d. Dinggay, a calm child with harsh noise during inhalation
61. Lloyd was brought to the health center for check up and for his second shot of DPT. His respiratory rate is 40 bpm, without
chest indrawing and absence of danger signs and symptoms. Lloyd is classified under;
a. Very severe disease c. Pneumonia
b. Severe pneumonia d. No pneumonia
62. If pneumonia is present with major danger signs and symptoms, treatment will include;
a. Cotrimoxazole po BID c. ORS 240 cc every loose stool
b. Amoxicillin po BID d. Procaine penicillin IM OD
63. Marites, a 5 year old child was brought to the health center with these signs and symptoms: skin pinch test at 1 second,
drinks eagerly and is thirsty, irritable with sunken eyes. You would classify Marites as:
a. Pink: Severe dehydration c. Green: No dehydration
b. Red: Very severe dehydration d. Yellow: Some dehydration
64. Miguelito, a 33 lb child is brought by his father due to episodes of loose stools. If Miguelito already lost 1,500 ml of body
fluids, he is classified under;
a. Pink: Severe dehydration c. Green: No dehydration
b. Red: Very severe dehydration d. Yellow: Some dehydration
65. A child with dysentery is to be suspected of which infectious microorganism?
a. Salmonella c. Shigella
b. Vibrio cholera d. E. coli
66. Measles death among children are most commonly caused by;
a. LTB c. Bronchioectasis
b. Encephalitis d. Pneumonia and laryngotracheitis
67. Dino, a 3 year old child, was brought to the health center because of fever. Axillary temperature is 37.6 degrees Celsius.
Leah, the nurse tickles Dino’s foot and notices that there is a resistance when Dino flex his legs. Dino cried. Leah, using
IMCI will classify Dino as:
a. Pink: Very severe febrile disease c. Green: Uncomplicated fever
b. Red: Severe febrile disease d. Yellow: Malaria
68. In a low malaria risk area, a child with fever of 38 degrees Celsius with complaints of runny nose is classified as;
a. Pink: Very severe febrile disease c. Green: Uncomplicated fever
b. Green: Fever - Malaria unlikely d. Yellow: Malaria
69. Denver was brought to the RHU because of measles, pus draining from his eyes and mouth ulcers. He has been classified
by Dan, the PHN, as YELLOW: Measles with mouth and eye complications. Which of the following is the treatment of choice
for Denver?
70. 1. Gentian violet to be coated on his cheeks
71. 2. Gentian violet for his mouth ulcers
72. 3. Tetracycline ointment for his eyes
73. 4. Aspirin for fever
74. 5. Vitamin A supplement
a. 2,3,5 c. 1,3,5
b. 1,2,3,4,5 d. 1,2,3,5
75. Among the following, the most serious complication of an ear infection is;
a. Hearing loss c. Pain
b. Mastoiditis d. Deafness leading to learning problems
71. Which of the following behavior best suggests that the child is experiencing ear pain?
a. Frequent tugging of the ear c. Voracious appetite
b. Sleepiness d. Irritability
72. An ear infection of 15 days is classified as;
a. Acute otitis media c. Mastoiditis
b. Chronic otitis media d. Subacute otitis media
73. In the treatment of dehydration, the commercially available IV fluid choice is which of the following?
a. NSS c. 50% Dextrose in Water
b. D5LR d. D5NSS
74. Ernesto, a 4 year old child was brought to the outpatient facility, who manifests restlessness and irritability, sunken eyeball
and poor skin turgor. He is classified by Nurse D.G. as Child B. the first four hours after assessment; DJ will give how many
ml of ORS?
a. 200-400 ml c. 700-900 ml
b. 400-700 ml d. 900-1000 ml
75. Agatha, a 5 year old child will be given how many ml of ORS for every loose/watery stool?
a. 50-100 ml c. 200-500 ml
b. 100-200 ml d. As tolerated
76. A mother of a 3 year-old child complains that his son is negativistic and always says no. The mother asked the nurse why
his son is always like that. The nurse is correct by responding;
a. Your son is being spoiled and should be punished.
b. Every time he acts that way, just ignore him.
c. It’s quite normal for his age to act that way for it’s his way to search for independence.
d. It is his way to explore the environment, it is best you encourage him to do that.
77. The foundation of all psychosocial task is said to be;
a. Love c. Caring
b. Trust d. Self actualization
78. According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of a toddler is;
a. Industry vs. Inferiority c. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
b. Initiative vs. Guilt d. Trust vs. Mistrust
79. The school age child is at the correct psychosocial task as he learns to develop which of the following?
a. Try new things c. Create things
b. Develop independence d. Start new things
80. The parent of a child can best teach the child proper manners and conduct by;
a. Modeling c. Religious teaching
b. Schooling d. Positive reinforcement
81. All the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not?
a. Reddened eyes c. Pustule
b. Coryza d. Cough
82. The WHO stated the breastfeeding should be started within 30 minutes after normal birth. The nurse is observing the
mother during breastfeeding. Which of the following observation shows that the baby latched optimally?
a. The baby’s lower lip is turned inward and lower portion of the areola is more covered than the upper portion.
b. The baby’s lower lip is turned outward and portion of the lower areola is more covered than the upper portion.
c. The baby’s lower lip is turned outward and portion of the upper areola is more covered than the lower
portion.
d. The baby’s lower lip is turned inward and the upper portion of the areola is more covered than the lower
portion.
83. Breast milk, unlike ordinary milk contains which of the following?
a. It contains more nutrients than ordinary milk.
b. It has a higher protein, fat and carbohydrate content than ordinary milk.
c. It contains antigens that boost the child’s immune system.
d. It has maternal antibodies that protect the child from illnesses for a period of time.
83.
84. Situation: Attending to the needs of a pregnant woman, a woman in labor and assisting in childbirth are part
of the community health nurse’s responsibilities.
84. Nurse Sheila is attending to women who came to the health center for prenatal check-up. Upon assessment, she
noticed that her client, Aling Rosa, had pale palms and conjunctiva. She requested Aling Rosa to have her
hemoglobin tested and explained that hemoglobin levels below this value is indicative of anemia. Which of these
hemoglobin levels is Nurse Sheila referring to?
a. < 7g/ dL c. < 9 g/ dL
b. <11 g/ dL d. 6 g/dL
85. In the Integrated Management of Pregnancy and Childbirth or IMPAC, which of these hemoglobin levels indicates
severe anemia?
a. < 7 g/ dL c. < 9 g/ dL
b. <11 g/ dL d. <6 g/ dL
86. Treatment for severe anemia include
a. 1 tablet of iron twice daily for 3 months c. Both of these
b. Urgent referral to the hospital d. Neither of these
87. Nurse Sheila was called to attend to a woman in labor on her 8 th month of pregnancy. The woman was still in the taxi
outside the health center and was reported to be wet from the waist down with a clear fluid from her vagina. Upon
quick interview of the woman’s companion, Nurse Sheila decided to refer the woman to the nearest hospital. Which
among the signs below is indicative of urgent referral to a nearby hospital?
a. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
b. Rupture of membranes at less than 8 months of pregnancy
c. Temperature of 38⁰C and above
d. All of the above
88. A woman complaining if fever >38 ⁰ C and above and any of flank pain or burning sensation on urination most
probably has
a. Urinary tract infection c. Lower urinary tract infection
b. Upper urinary tract infection d. Any of the above
89. A 4-week postpartum woman came to the health center and complained of curd-like vaginal discharge and intense
vulval itching. Nurse Sheila suspected this as a case of
a. Possible gonorrheal infection c. Possible trichomonas infection
b. Possible bacterial infection d. Possible candida infection
90. Nurse Sheila is providing health teachings to a group of mothers on the danger signs of pregnancy that require
immediate referral to a nearby hospital. These include:
i. Vaginal bleeding
ii. Convulsions
iii. Severe headaches with blurred vision
iv. Fever and too weak to get out of bed
v. Severe abdominal pain
vi. Fast or difficult breathing
91. a. 1, 2, 4 and 6 b. 1 to 5 only
a. All except 4 c. All of the above
92. When counseling on family planning methods to breastfeeding women, Nurse Sheila emphasized that this method
should only be used 6 months after childbirth. Which one is she referring to?
a. Lactational amenorrhea method c. Combined oral contraceptives
b. Condoms d. Progesterone-only injectables
93. Nurse Sheila congratulated the pregnant women for coming to the health center for their prenatal check-up. She
reiterated that all pregnant women should have a total of at least how many routine antenatal visits?
a. 2 routine antenatal visits c. 6 routine antenatal visits
b. 4 routine antenatal visits d. 8 routine antenatal visits
94. According to Nurse Sheila, the third routine antenatal visit should be done by the woman at which month of
pregnancy?
a. Before 4 months c. At 8 months
b. At 6 months d. At 9 months
e.
f. Situation: In your self-managed Child Health Nursing Clinic, you encounter these cases pertaining to
the care of children with pulmonary infections.
95. Jose brought her 3-month old child to you because of cough and cold. Which of the following is your primary action?
a. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup.
b. Assess the patient using the chart on management of children with cough.
c. Refer to the doctor.
d. Teach the mother how to count her child’s breathing.
a.
96. In responding to the care concerns of children with severe disease, referral to the hospital is the essence especially if the
child manifests which of the following?
a. Wheezing c. Difficult to awaken
b. Stopped feeding well d. Fast breathing
97. Which of the following therefore is the most responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of unnecessary deaths from
pneumonia and other severe diseases?
a. Taking the temperature of the sick child c. Weighing the child
b. Provision of careful assessment d. Giving antibiotics
98. You were able to identify factors that lead to respiratory problems in the community where your health facility serves. To
reduce morbidity cases due to pneumonia, your primary role is to;
a. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs and symptoms of pneumonia.
b. Refer cases to hospitals.
c. Make a home visit to sick children.
d. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHWs to have a meeting with mothers.
99. Using the IMCI model, the pink row needs:
a. No specific treatment c. Home treatment
b. Specific antibiotics d. Urgent referral
e.
f. Situation: Among common conditions found in children especially among poor communities are ear
infections/problems. The following questions apply.
99. A child with ear problem should be assessed for the following except;
a. Ear pain c. Ear discharge
b. Is there any fever? d. If discharge is present, for how long?
100. If the child does not have an ear problem, using IMCI, what should you, as a nurse, do?
a. Check for tender swellings behind the ear. c. Check for ear discharge.
b. Go to the next questions; check for d. Check for ear pain.
malnutrition.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
l.
m.
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p.
q.
r.
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t.
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x.
y.
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aa.
ab.
ac.
ad.
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af.
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ai.
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al.
am.
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aq.
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as.
at. Set 7
au.
av.
1. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days, can be classified as;
a. Chronic ear infection c. Complicated ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
2. An ear discharge that has been present for less than 14 days, can be classified as;
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
3. If your child has severe classification because of ear problem, what should be the best thing that you, as the nurse, can do?
a. Dry the ear by wicking. d. Instruct mother when to return
b. Refer urgently. immediately.
c. Give an antibiotic for 5 days.
e.
f. Situation: A child with diarrhea registers one sign in the pink row and one in the yellow row of the IMCI
Chart.
4. We can classify the patient as;
a. Moderate dehydration c. Severe dehydration
b. No dehydration d. Some dehydration
5. A child who has had diarrhea for 14 days but has no sign of dehydration is classified as;
a. Severe dysentery c. Dysentery
b. Severe persistent diarrhea d. Persistent diarrhea
6. If the child has sunken eyes, drinking eagerly, thirsty and skin pinch goes back slowly, the classification would be;
a. Moderate dehydration c. No dehydration
b. Some dehydration d. Severe dehydration
7. A child with visible severe wasting or severe palmar pallor may be classified as;
a. Moderate malnutrition/anemia c. Not very low weight; no anemia
b. Severe malnutrition/anemia d. Anemia/Very low weight
8. A child has some palmar pallor. He can be classified as;
a. Not very low weight; no anemia c. Moderate anemia/normal weight
b. Severe malnutrition/anemia d. Anemia/ very low weight
e.
f. Situation: Proper food and nutrition are important factors that contribute to fast recovery and
rehabilitation of patients. As such, meeting the nutritional needs of patients must be a major part of the
nursing care plan.
9. Which of the chemical substance are present in the food which keep body healthy, supply materials for growth and repair of
tissues and provide energy for work and physical activities?
a. Nutrients c. Minerals
b. Neurobions d. Vitamins
10. You assessed a child with visible severe wasting, he has;
a. LBM c. Edema
b. Marasmus d. Kwashiorkor
11. A 10 month old baby has measles; he had loose bowel movement while in the hospital. Which of the following would you
advise the mother to continue as hydration therapy at home?
a. Diluted soup and tea c. Rice-based solution or “am”
b. Discontinue breast milk d. Orange juice or coke
12. Nurse P is discussing about the fluid needs of the young child. What is the best fluid to offer to the child to relieve thirst?
a. Fruit juice at all time c. Fizzy drinks
b. Highly sweetened drinks d. Water
e. f.
g. Situation: Nutrition, IMCI, CDD
13. The following statements are true regarding Kwashiorkor except;
a. Food is the only cure.
b. The child is apathetic and does not want to eat.
c. Characterized by skin ores, edema and moon-face.
d. It usually starts when the child is less than one year old.
14. The recipients of targeted food assistance program are the;
a. General public c. Pregnant women
b. Children d. Children and pregnant women
15. Belen is 1 month old and has pneumonia. The intervention should be;
a. Tepid sponge bath c. Refer immediately
b. Provide antibiotics and see after 2 days d. Assess for other signs
16. The initial sign of dehydration in diarrhea is;
a. Weight loss c. Comatose
b. Positive skin fold test d. Thirst
17. Ana is 1 year old and with 5 bouts of diarrhea in a day. What should be given at every hour?
a. ½ cup of water
b. One glass oresol
c. Antibiotic
d. IV fluids
e.
f. Situation: Leprosy is a chronic infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae, an acid-fast,
rod-shaped bacillus. The disease affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, mucosa of the upper
respiratory tract and also the eyes.
18. A diagnosis of leprosy, according to the DOH is made using
a. Clinical signs and symptoms as basis
b. Microscopic examination of the bacilli in the skin discharge
c. Sputum microscopy
d. Culture and Sensitivity test
19. In an endemic country, an individual should be regarded as having leprosy if he or she manifests at least one of the
cardinal signs of leprosy. These include
a. Skin lesion with definite sensory loss c. Both of these
b. Positive skin smears d. Neither of these
20. There are two major classifications of leprosy based on skin-smear results. These include paucibacillary leprosy
patients. The community health nurse should warn a patient that one of these drugs causes a brownish-black
discoloration and dryness of the skin. Which drug is it?
a. A suspect case if leprosy c. A case of multibacillary leprosy
b. A case of paucibacillary leprosy d. A case of leprosy remission
21. Drugs used in the MDT of leprosy patients are a combination of Rifampicin, Clofazimine and Dapsone for
multibacillary leprosy patients, and Rifampicin and Dapsone for paucibacillary leprosy patients. The community health
nurse should warn a patient that one of these drugs causes a brownish-black discoloration and dryness of the skin.
Which drug is it?
a. Rifampicin c. Dapsone
b. Clofazimine d. All of the above
22. The community health nurse should assess the patient for history of allergies before leprosy treatment. Which of these
drugs should not be given to patients who are allergic to Sulpha drugs?
a. Rifampicin c. Dapsone
b. Clofazimine d. All of these
e.
f. Situation: Diseases of the heart and vascular system remain to be the first and the second leading
causes of mortality among Filipinos, respectively, as of 2002. According to the DOH, these are
mainly due to hypertension, coronary heart disease and stroke.
23. Nurse Perla was conducting a home visit in a nearby barangay when Mang Pedro approached her and requested that
his blood pressure be taken. It was the first time for Nurse Perla to meet Mang Pedro. Upon assessment, Mang
Pedro’s blood pressure was 150/94 mmHg. Which among the following should Nurse Perla do next?
a. Inform Mang Pedro that he is hypertensive and encourage him to practice healthy lifestyle.
b. Ask Mang Pedro to visit the health center after one week for further assessment and encourage
him to practice healthy lifestyle.
c. Inform Mang Pedro that he is hypertensive and prescribe antihypertensives.
d. Ask Mang Pedro to visit the health center after one week for further assessment, but in the meantime,
prescribe an antihypertensive drug.
24. After a few consecutive consultations at the health center, Mang Pedro’s average blood pressure reading was
recorded at 140/90 mmHg. Nurse Perla knows that Mang Pedro belongs to which category?
a. Normal blood pressure c. Hypertension, stage 1
b. Prehypertension d. Hypertension, stage 2
25. Nurse Perla is careful in choosing the equipment that will be used for BP taking. She knows very well that a BP cuff
that is too narrow will lead to
a. False low systolic reading c. False low reading
b. False high systolic reading d. False high reading
26. Nurse Perla delegated vital signs to the rural health midwife at the health center. Upon initial assessment of Mang
Pedro’s blood pressure in the left arm, the midwife missed hearing the patient’s vascular sound because of the noise
in the environment. Which of the following actions indicate that the midwife is practicing the clinical standards in blood
pressure taking?
a. The midwife waits 1-2 minutes before making further measurements on the same arm.
b. The midwife deflates the cuff completely, removes the cuff, asks Mang Pedro to move his arm, waits for 1-
2 minutes and transfers the BP cuff on the right arm.
c. The midwife deflates the cuff completely, removes the cuff, asks Mang Pedro to move his arm, waits for 1-
2 minutes and gets the BP on the same arm.
d. The midwife deflates the cuff completely, removes the cuff, asks Mang Pedro to move his arm, waits for 1-
2 minutes and transfers the BP cuff on the right arm.
27. Nurse Perla taught Mang Pedro lifestyle modification to help manage his hypertension. This includes a dietary sodium
intake of less than
a. 3 grams NaCl c. 9 grams NaCl
b. 6 grams NaCl d. 12 grams NaCl
28. Mang Pedro asked if he could still drink beer with his friends especially during special occasions. Nurse Perla
informed Mang Pedro that the recommended dietary intake of regular beer should not exceed
a. 1 bottle c. 3 bottles
b. 2 bottles d. 4 bottles
29. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is also fast emerging as a cause of morbidity and mortality among Filipinos. All of the
following are modifiable risk factors of CAD. Which of these are the major risk factors according to studies?
i. Hypertension
ii. Lack of exercise
iii. High cholesterol
iv. Personality
v. Cigarette Smoking, tobacco use
vi. Obesity
vii. Diabetes Mellitus
viii. High coagulability of the blood
a. 1, 2, 3 and4 c. 2, 4, 6 and 8
b. 1, 3, 5 and 7 d. 3, 4, 5 and 6
30. Cholesterol is processed by the GIT into lipoprotein globules called chylomicrons. Different types of cholesterols have
different effects in the body. Which of the following is the effect of low-density lipoproteins?
a. They adhere to vulnerable points in the arterial endothelium, thus leading to the formation of foam
cells and plaque formation.
b. They promote the use of total cholesterol by transporting it to the liver where it is biodegraded and
excreted later on.
c. They promote the destruction of high-density lipoproteins.
d. They ingest the plaque that formed in the arterial endothelium, thereby improving circulation through the
arteries.
31. Nurse Perla taught Mang Pedro that this type of cholesterol is a strong negative risk factor for heart disease.
a. Low-density lipoproteins c. Both of these
b. High-density lipoproteins d. None of these
32. Which of the following types of fats should be minimized by Mang Pedro since it raises low-density lipoprotein and
lowers high-density lipoprotein?
a. Monosaturated fat c. Saturated fat
b. Polyunsaturated fat d. Monosaturated fat
33.
34.
35. A cerebrovascular disorder is an umbrella term that refers to a central nervous system functional abnormality due to
the disruption of the normal blood supply in the brain. Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA) in the world. Stroke is divided
into two major categories: Ischemic and Hemorrhagic. Mang Pedro’s hypertension is the major risk factor identified in
a. Ischemic Stroke c. Both of these
b. Hemorrhagic stroke d. Neither of these
36. Ischemic stroke is the most common type. Which of the following is a common symptom of Ischemic stroke?
a. Exploding headache
b. Decreased level of consciousness
c. Tinnitus and dizziness
d. Numbness or weakness of the face, arm of leg, especially on one side of the body
37. Mang Pedro smokes ten sticks of cigarettes everyday. Nurse Perla told Mang Pedro that he should stop smoking soon
because smoking is the primary risk factor in
a. Chronic bronchitis c. Bronchial asthma
b. Emphysema d. All of these
38. Nurse Perla recalled that a client should be suspected of COPD, if the client
i. Is more than 40 years old
ii. Is more than 50 years old
iii. Is smoking 20 sticks per day
iv. Has been smoking for many years
v. Has difficulty in breathing
vi. Has symptoms of progressive and increasing shortness of breath in exertion
vii. Has chronic dry cough
viii. Has chronic productive cough
a. All of the above c. 2, 4, 6 and 8
b. 1, 3, 5 and 7 d. 4, 5, 6 and 7
e.
f. Situation: Natural family planning methods are advocated because of its numerous benefits. The
four scientific natural methods are: Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM), Ovulation Method/
Cervical Mucus Method, Basal Body Temperature Method (BBT) and Symptothermal Method
(STM).
g.
39. All of the following are the benefits of natural family planning, EXCEPT
a. It has no side effects
b. It is empowering because the primary decision to practice resides in the woman
c. Makes the woman aware of the processes in her body
d. It aids in planning for pregnancy because it identifies the fertile and infertile days in a woman
40. LAM provides natural protection against pregnancy and encourages starting another method at the proper time. A
woman is naturally protected against pregnancy when
i. Her baby gets at least 85% of his or her feedings as breastmilk
ii. Her baby is breastfed often, day and night
iii. Her menstrual period has not returned
iv. Her baby is less than 6 months old
a. 1 and 3 only c. 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 4 only d. All of the above
41. Which of the following natural family planning methods will protect the woman against STDs, including HIV/ AIDS?
a. Ovulation method/ cervical mucus c. Both of these
method d. Neither of these
b. Symptothermal method
42. Peter and Tricia are practicing cervical mucus method. For a few days, Tricia noticed that her secretions have turned
sticky, pasty and crumbly. For proper child spacing, which among the following decisions of the couple is correct?
a. The couple decided to have unprotected intercourse until menstruation began again.
b. The couple decided to avoid intercourse.
c. The couple decided to use a barrier method.
d. The couple decided to practice withdrawal.
43. When using basal body temperature, which of the following should be observed?
i. Woman checks her body temperature orally everyday
ii. Woman checks her body temperature at a convenient site everyday
iii. Woman checks her body temperature at the same time each morning, before she gets out of bed.
iv. Woman checks her body temperature at the same time each morning, after washing herself.
v. Women records her temperature on a special graph
vi. Women records her temperature on her diary
vii. The woman observes if her temperature has risen above her regular temperature and has stayed
up fro 3 full days. This means that ovulation has occurred and has passed.
viii. The woman observes if her temperature has risen above her regular temperature and has stayed
up for 3 full days. This means that menstruation has occurred and has passed.
a. 1 to 4 only c. 1, 3, 5, and 7
b. 5 to 8 only d. All of the above
44. When using basal body temperature, if the woman’s temperature has risen above her regular temperature and stayed
up for 3 full days, the couple may have unprotected intercourse for how many days?
a. Over the next 5-7 days, until the woman’s next menstrual bleeding period begins
b. Over the next 7-10 days, until the woman’s next menstrual bleeding period begins
c. Over the next 10-12 days, until the woman’s next menstrual bleeding period begins
d. Over the next 12-14 days, until the woman’s next menstrual bleeding period begins
45.
46. Situation: Nurse Nancy was on duty at the Magana Health Center when Bobby was brought in due to a dog
bite in the left lower leg.
47. Aling Tanya, Bobby’s mother, is frantic that Bobby would get rabies. Nurse Nancy began discussing the signs and
symptoms of rabies. This include the following:
i. Fever
ii. Anorexia
iii. Nausea and vomiting
iv. Headache
v. Pain or paresthesias at bite site
vi. Signs of nervous system dysfunction as hyperactivity, disorientation, hallucination, seizures, and
paralysis.
vii. Biting at inanimate objects
viii. Aimless running an d prolonged progressiveness
a. All of the above c. All except 4 and 5
b. All except 1 and 2 d. All except 7 and 8
48. Rabies infection has three phases. This includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. Invasion Phase b. Incubation Phase
c. Neurologic Phase d. Paralytic Phase
49. Aling Tanya told Nurse Nancy that immediately after the incident, she thoroughly wash the wound with soap and water
and applied antiseptic at the wound site. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
a. That’s a good move. It will ensure that the wound would not get infected.
b. You should not have done that. The wound would be inflamed as an effect of washing with water.
c. Washing with soap and water and cleansing it with an antiseptic will prevent infection.
d. That’s not necessary because the rabies virus could not be killed though washing anyway.
50. Nurse Nancy discusses the ways on how to prevent future rabies infection. This includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. After an animal bite, the patient should consult a veterinarian or trained personal to observe the animal.
b. If the animal showed signs of behavioral change during the observation period, immediately kill it.
c. Ensure that the dogs are vaccinated at 3 months of age and every year thereafter
d. Dogs should be leashed or confined in a cage.
51. The Rabies Control Program according to Nurse Nancy focuses on networking as a key strategy in controlling rabies.
Networking with the school is done for the school personnel and students to have an active involvement in this
endeavor. The school officials have the following responsibilities. Which one is not included?
i. Identify teachers who can be key leaders in organizing Anti Rabies Scouters in the school
ii. Initiate inclusion of rabies prevention and control in PTA meetings
iii. Organize parents’ class to develop necessary knowledge and attitude on rabies prevention and
control
iv. Tap potential children leaders from grades 4, 5 and 6 who can actively participate in the anti-
rabies activities
a. 1 only c. None of the above
b. 4 only d. All of the above
b.
c. Situation: Nurse Julia, a new registered nurse, is assigned in a community health center in the province
of Samar. She knows that the province is endemic with schistosomiasis.
52. She was on her way to conduct a home visit in a nearby barangay when she noticed that a group of school-aged
children were happily gathering small nails in the shallow waters of a stream. She immediately told them to destroy
the snails that they have gathered because those were Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi, the intermediate host of
schistosomiasis. Nurse Julia knows that were Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi possess the following characteristics
EXCEPT
a. Adult snail is greenish-brown in color and is just a little bit bigger than a palay grain
b. Adult snail tastes like chicken when cooked in a coconut milk.
c. Adult snail could be found clinging to fresh and decaying leaves of water plants or grasses, pieces of
rotting wood and protruding rocks
d. Adult snail could also be found in sandy-loam soil
53. Nurse Julia warned the children not to swim in the stream. She explained that may get schistosomiasis by swimming
in the infected water through skin penetration of the parasite. Skin penetration is a capability of
a. Ovum c. Cercariae
b. Miracidium d. Schistosomiasis
54. Nurse Julia explained further that early infection with schistosomiasis is also known as
a. Katayama fever c. Ground itch
b. Swimmer’s itch d. Nakayama fever
55. Nurse Julia explained to the mothers that there are several methods of diagnosing schistosomiasis. This includes all of
the following. Nevertheless, she emphasized that in the Philippines, the definitive diagnosis of schistosomiasis is
a. Circumoval Precipitin Test
b. Kato-katz technique to enumerate the eggs
c. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay or ELISA
d. Indirect hemaglutination using adult worms and antigens
56. Control of the Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi snails could be done through
i. Drainage of breeding sites and proper management of irrigation system
ii. Removal of shade by clearing vegetation around bodies of water
iii. Prevention of breeding on banks of streams and irrigation canals by lining these with concrete
iv. Covering snail habitats with landfill
a. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only d. All of the above
e.
f.
g. Situation: Alejandro lives in a squatter’s area. He goes to the nearby school. He helps his mother
gather mollusks after school. One day, he was absent because of fever, malaise, anorexia, nausea and
abdominal discomfort.
53. Upon assessment, Alejandro was diagnosed to have Hepatitis A. Which mode of transmission has the infectious agent
taken?
a. Fecal-oral, one to two weeks before the onset
b. Fecal-oral after the appearance of jaundice
c. Homologous after attack
d. General susceptibility
54. Which of the following is the concurrent disinfection in the case of Alejandro?
a. Investigation of contact c. Infection of powerful Hepa A
b. Sanitary disposal of feces, urine and d. Quarantine of sick individual
blood
55. Which of the following must be emphasized during mother’s class of Alejandro’s mother?
a. Administration of Ig to families
b. Thorough hand washing before eating and after toileting
c. Use of attenuated vaccine
d. Boiling of food especially meat
56. Disaster control should be undertaken when there are three or more hepatitis A. Which among these measures is a priority?
a. Eliminate fecal contamination of food c. Health education every week
b. Disseminate printed materials d. Mass administration of Ig
57. What is the average incubation period of hepatitis A?
a. 30 days c. 50 days
b. 60 days d. 24 days
e.
f. Situation: The Communicable Disease Control Service of the Department of Health created the Soil-
transmitted Helminthiasis (STH) Control Program in 1999 to help solve this persistent problem in the Philippines.
g.
58. Nurse Emy identified Ascariasis, Trichuriasis and Hookworm infestation among the common soil-transmitted
helminthiasis in the Philippines. Anemia is a common health problem associated with these EXCEPT
a. Ascariasis c. Hookworm infestation
b. Trichuriasis d. All of the above
59. Rectal prolapse, according to nurse Emy is a health problem in
b. Trichuriasis d. All of the these
60. A common diagnostic procedure for all includes microscopic identification of eggs in the stool. Which among these
may also be visualized during barium examination?
b. Trichuriasis d. All of the these
61. According to Nurse Emy, mass treatment of 2-14 year old children is the main strategy of the program because this
age group is the most at risk group and they have the highest prevalence and intensity of infection. Mass treatment of
this age group will automatically reduce the prevalence and intensity of infection for the whole community. Which
among the following statements is the least accurate description of the treatment strategy?
a. Target clients are children aged 2-14 years because the 6-14 years old harbor the greatest load of
infection whereas 2-5 years old suffer the greatest morbidity when infected.
b. The suggested frequency of treatment is twice a year because of reinfection.
c. Reinfection is 50% at 6 months after treatment.
d. Treatment should last 3 years because infective eggs remain viable in the soil and are able to infect
people for a maximum of 2 years.
62. Albendazole and mebendazole are benzimidazole derivatives. They have the widest spectrum of activity and mode of
action against intestinal helminthes. Which one is known to be more effective against hookworm?
a. Albendazole
b. Mebendazole
c. Both of these
d. None of these
63.
64. Situation: Alternative medicine includes the use of herbal medicine, and the practice of acupressure, acupuncture,
aromatherapy, etc.
63. A group of patients in a community is securing the help of the community health nurse on the appropriate herbal medicine to
use. Which of the following patients require need for further teaching?
a. A patient with bite using Yerba Buena
b. A patient with edema using sambong
c. A patient with fungal infection using akapulko
d. A patient with headache using bawang
64. A vine which bears tiny fruits and grows wild in backyard that is used as ati-helminthic is;
a. Bayabas c. Ampalaya
b. Sambong d. Niyug-niyugan
65. All of the following are reminders on the proper use of herbal plants except;
a. Use only one part of the plant being advocated.
b. Avoid the use of insecticides as these may leave poisons on plants.
c. Use clay pot and cover it while boiling.
d. Use only one kind of herbal plant for each type of symptoms and sickness.
66. What is the herbal plant that can lower uric acid production for patients with rheumatism and gout?
a. Niyug-niyugan c. Tsaang gubat
b. Lagundi d. Ulasimang bato
67. It can be used as anti-edema, diuretic and anti-urolithiasis but is not a medicine for kidney infections.
a. Yerba Buena c. Sambong
b. Niyug-niyugan d. Akapulko
68. Based on the principle that life is the result for QI or life energy, what is the alternative medicine practice that maintains
health, treats diseases, and alleviates pain by massaging certain points of the body surfaces?
a. Tai Chi c. Acupressure
b. Cupping d. Aromatherapy
69. Which of the following laws paved way for the creation of the Philippine Institute of Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
a. RA 7160
b. RA 8423
c. RA 8243
d. RA 7875
e.
f.
Situation: Utilization of medicinal plants in the community provides self-awareness and self-
appreciation.
70. For common cough and colds, the medicinal plant of choice is:
a. Buhok ng mais c. Niyog-niyogan
b. Lagundi d. Bayabas
71. For ascariasis, the following is advisable;
b. Lagundi d. Bayabas
72. For toothache with swollen gums, the nurses administer this medicinal plant.
b. Lagundi d. Yerba Buena
73. Skin diseases can be cured by plants high in;
a. Potassium
b. Tannin and pectin
c. Aromatic oils
d. Alkaloids
e.
f. RESEARCH AND QUALITY IMPROVEMENT
g. Situation: Environmental protection is a global concern.
74. How can research data be utilized in the prevention of disease?
a.In recording epidemics and in communicable disease control.
b.In prescribing medications for communicable diseases.
c. In monitoring effects in primary health care
d.In reporting case findings.
75. Which step in the research process uses surveys and interviews to obtain data?
a.Statistical analysis of the data c. Review of related literature
b.Statement of the problem d. Data collection
d.
e. Situation: Nurse Luzviminda is interested in conducting a mini-research on responsible parenthood.
76. How should nurse Luzviminda start the process of research?
a.Make a survey in the neighborhood.
b.Identify the focus on the study.
c. Observe family relationships at home.
d.Watch family interactions in telenovelas and family shows.
77. Where else will nurse Luzviminda get ideas to make the responsible parenthood study?
a.Conversations with classmates and friends e. c. Community data
d. b. Literature and review. f. d. Notes from lecture
78. “Responsible parenthood is a 50-50% sharing of responsibilities between the husband and the wife.” Which part of the
research canon does this statement belong to?
a.Research hypothesis c. Tool paradigm
b.Problem statement d. Conceptual framework
79. Responsible parenthood through survey research is best analyzed by which design?
a.Correlation c. Triangulation
b.Qualitative d. Quantitative
80. The data that you will gather in a study about responsible parenthood should give the answer to your ________.
a.Hypothesis c. Research problem
b.Conceptual framework d. Instrumentation
d.
e. Situation: Sampling. As a beginning researcher, you are aware that sampling is an essential element of the
research process.
f.
81. What does a sample group represent?
a.Control group c. Universe
b.General population d. Study subjects
82. What is the most important characteristic of a sample?
a.Appropriate number c. Representativeness
b.Appropriate location d. Randomization
83. Random sampling ensures that each subject has ____________.
a.an equal chance of selection c. been selected based on criteria
b.been selected systematically d. characteristics that match other samples
84. Which of the following sampling methods allows use of any group of research subjects?
a.Convenience c. Snowball
b.Purposive d. Quota
85. You decided to include 5 barangays in your municipality and chose a sampling method that would get representative
samples from each barangay. What is the appropriate method for you to use in this case?
a.Cluster sampling c. Systematic sampling
b.Stratified sampling d. Random sampling
d.
e. Situation: Theoretical Framework. Apply your knowledge on the different nursing theories in the succeeding
questions.
86. For the research entitle “Factors Affecting Post-Operative Patient’s Decision to Seek Assistance from Nurses with
their ADLs,” select the most appropriate theoretical framework.
a.Benner’s Five levels of Proficiency of Nurses
b.Dorotea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory
c. Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
d.Callista Roy’s Adaptation Model
87. For the research entitled “The Relationship between the Nurse’s Level of Socialization and the Quality of their Patient
Care,” select the most appropriate theoretical framework.
a.Benner’s Five Levels of Proficiency of Nurses
b.Dorotea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory
c. Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
d.Callista Roy’s Adaptation Model
88. For the research entitled “Coping Behaviors of Preschool Children in Cast,” select the most appropriate theoretical
framework.
a.Dorotea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory
b.Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
c.Callista Roy’s Adaptation Model
d.Madeleine Leininger’s Transcultural Care Theory
89. For the research entitled “A Study on the Community Health Nurse’s Nursing Care Decisions in a Predominantly
Dumagat-Populated Community,” select the most appropriate theoretical framework.
a.Dorotea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory
b.Nightingale’s Environmental Theory
c. Callista Roy’s Adaptation Model
d.Madeleine Leininger’s Transcultural Care Theory
d.
e. Situation: Types of Research. The use of massage and meditation to help decrease stress and pain have been
strongly recommended based on documented testimonials.
90. Martha wants to do a study on the topic “Effects of massage and meditation on stress and pain.” The type of research
that best suits this topic is ___________.
a.applied research c. basic research
b.qualitative research d. quantitative research
91. This research topic has the potential to contribute to nursing because it seeks to _________.
a.include new modalities of care c. clarify an ambiguous modality of care
b.resolve a clinical problem d. enhance client care
92. Martha does a review of literature for the purpose of __________.
a.Determining statistical treatment of research data
b.Gathering data about what is already known or unknown about the problem
c. Identifying if the problem can be replicated
d.Answering the research question
93. The client’s rights should be protected when doing research using human subjects. Martha identifies these rights as
follows, EXCEPT:
a.Right to self-determination c. Right to privacy
b.Right to compensation d. Right not to be harmed
94.
95. You are interested in studying the effects of meditation and relaxation on the pain experienced by cancer patients.
What type of variable is pain?
a.Dependent c. Correlational
b.Independent d. Demographic
96. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to that of those with acute illness. How
will you best state your problem?
a.The Effect of the Type of Support System of Patients with Chronic Illness and those with Acute Illness.
b.A Descriptive Study to Compare the Support System of Patients with Chronic Illness in terms of Demographic
Data and Knowledge about Interventions.
c. A Comparative Analysis of the Support System of Patients with Chronic Illness and those with Acute Illness.
d.A Study to Compare the Support System of Patients with Chronic Illness to that of those with Acute
Illness.
97. You would like to compare the support system of patients with chronic illness to that of those with acute illness. What
type of research is that?
a.Descriptive
b.Experimental
c. Correlational
d.Quasi-experimental
d.
98. You are shown a Likert scale that will be used in evaluating your performance in the clinical area. Which of the
following questions will you NOT use in critiquing the Likert scale?
a.Is the instrument clearly described?
b.If the Likert Scale is to be used for a study, was the development process described?
c.Is information on the reliability and validity of the scale provided?
d.Are the techniques to complete and score the scale provided?
d.
e.
f. Situation: Statistical tests.
99. Given the hypothesis, “Primiparas discharged early have a poorer perception of maternal competence than those
discharged later.” Select the most appropriate statistical test.
a.Chi square
b.Median test
c. ANOVA
d.t- test for independent samples
100. Given the hypothesis, “Post-treatment cigarette smoking incidence will be less in behavior modification therapy
group than in the hypnosis group,” select the most appropriate statistical test.
a.Chi square
b.Median test
c. ANOVA
d.t-test for independent samples
101. Given the hypothesis, “A higher proportion of patients on a planned nursing instruction on self-medication will be
more compliant than those on the traditional mode of instruction,” Select the most appropriate statistical test.
a.Chi Square
b.Median Test
c.ANOVA
d.t-test for independent samples
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
l.
m.
n.
o.
p.
q.
r.
s.
t.
u.
v.
w.
x.
y. Set 8
z.
aa. Situation: Ethical Considerations
1. All of the following are manifestations of a researcher’s consideration of the subject’s right to fair treatment, EXCEPT:
a. Honoring of all agreements made between the researcher and the subject
b. Subject’s access to research personnel at any point in study to clarify information
c. Debriefing
d. Reporting of unethical behavior
2. All of the following are indications that information about a client may be revealed, EXCEPT:
a. The subject has committed acts of violence against another individual.
b. The subject is a political activist.
c. The subject is diagnosed to have a rare communicable disease.
d. The subject has a notifiable disease as classified by the DOH.
3.
4. VITAL STATISTICS
5. Stillbirth rate, or the ratio of the stillborn infants per 1,000 live births, is also known as __________.
a. Perinatal death mortality
b. Fetal death rate
c. Neonatal mortality rate
d. Post-neonatal mortality rate
6. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the recording and interpretation of vital statistical data?
a. A 67-year old man who died of CVA while visiting his grandchildren in Cebu City will be registered
in Cebu City.
b. A pregnant woman who died of multiple injuries acquired from a vehicular accident is recorded as
maternal death.
c. A female who has supposed to celebrate her 27th birthday on a Friday but was stabbed to death on
Thursday before that died at the age of 27 years.
d. A 32-year old woman in labor who slipped and hit her head, and died of a massive cerebral hemorrhage
will be recorded as maternal death.
7. A Swaroop’s index of 30% implies that ________.
a. 30% died at the age of 50.
b. 70% died at the age of 50.
c. 30 % died before the age of 50
d. 70 % died before the age of 50
6. Which of the following is a sensitive index of the health conditions in a community influenced primarily by
environmental rather than endogenous factors?
a. Crude death rate c. Maternal mortality rate
b. Infant mortality rate d. Fetal death rate
7. Which of the following is a measure of prevalence?
a. The number of adults with high blood pressure as revealed by a survey.
b. The annual report of notifiable cases in the Philippines by the Disease Intelligence Center
c. An annual report of HIV and AIDS cases in the Philippines in 2001
d. The weekly number of cases of influenza reported by the city health officer.
8. The following measure the probability of death from a certain disease in a population EXCEPT
a. Crude death rate c. Age-specific rate
b. Case fatality rate d. Proportional mortality rate
9. A case fatality rate of 81% for dengue hemorrhagic fever indicates_______.
a. A chronic disease condition c. A very fatal disease condition
b. An acute disease condition d. A mild disease condition
10. In an epidemic of cholera, the incidence rate can be expected to be________.
a. equal to its prevalence rate c. lower than its prevalence rate
b. higher than its prevalence rate d. not related to its prevalence rate
11. Which measure is utilized in identifying the ten leading cause of death?
a. Attack rate c. Cause of death rate
b. Case fatality rate d. Proportional mortality rate
12. Which of the following rates is used in determining population growth?
a. Crude birth rate c. General fertility rate
b. Age-specific fertility rate d. Crude death rate
13. Which of the following gives the most accurate picture of the force of mortality in a given population?
a. Crude death rate c. Age-specific rate
b. Case fatality rate d. Cause-specific death rate
14.
15. To determine the percentage of all deaths attributable to a certain disease, we compute for the _________.
a. Case fatality rate c. Specific death rate
b. Cause-specific death rate d. Proportional mortality rate
16. A Swaroop’s index of 20% implies that ________.
a. 20% die before the age of 50.
b. 80% die before the age of 50
c. 20% of death are persons who are in the age of 50 years alone
d. 80% of deaths are persons who are in the age of 50 years alone
17. In evaluating the longstanding number of cases of rabies in a municipality, which statistical measure will the nurse
use?
a. Incidence rate c. Morbidity rate
b. Prevalence rate d. Mortality rate
18. A disease will have the highest case fatality rate among a list of disease if, it has the highest ______.
a. Number of case
b. Number of deaths
c. Percentage of cases over deaths
d. Percentage of deaths over cases
19. Which of the following is used in determining population growth in a country?
a. Crude Birth rate c. Age-specific rate
b. General fertility rate d. Cause-specific death rate
20. A rate is a probability figure if the____________.
a. numerator is a part of denominator.
b. denominator corresponds to the same time period as the numerator
c. denominator constitutes the population at risk
d. denominator corresponds to the same age group or sex as the numerator.
21.
22. Situation: You are assigned to a municipality with a total population of 25, 0000. Of this, 1,350 persons died
within the past year. Thirty-six of these deaths were due to pneumonia while 540 of those who died were aged
50 and above.
23. What is the Swaroop’s index in the community?
a. 30% c. 40%
b. 35% d. 45%
24. What numerator will be used in computing neonatal mortality rate?
a. Number of deaths at age 1 week or below
b. Number of deaths at age 1 month or below
c. Number of deaths at age 28 days or below
d. Number of deaths at age 11 months or below
25. What denominator is used in computing for the general fertility rate?
a. Estimate mid-year population
b. Number of registered live birth
c. Number of pregnancies of the year
d. Number of females in the reproductive age
26. In gathering data about the community, which of the following is important?
a. People’s major concern even if they are not health-related
b. The occupation, geographic distribution and seasonal movement of the population
c. Health status, nutrition, housing and sanitation
d. All of the above
27. When the nurse collects information about 100% of the population, she is conducting a/an_____.
a. Community survey c. Census
b. Epidemiology survey d. None of the above
b.
c. Situation: Important and direct health indicators are presented through vital statistics. Given the selected statistics
of Pasong Tala;
d. Population: 4,000 Deaths Due to TB: 40
e. Total Births: 500 Cases of TB: 80
f. Total Deaths: 400 Total Infant Deaths: 4
25. The infant mortality rate is computed as:
a. 4/4000 x 1000 c. 4/500 x 1000
b. 4/400 x 1000 d. 400/4 x 1000
26. The case fatality rate of TB is;
a. 80/40 x 100 c. 80/4000 x 100
b. 40/80 x 100 d. 40/4000 x 100
27. The relative importance of TB as a killer is shown through;
a. 40/80 x 100 c. 40/500 x 100
b. 40/400 x 100 d. 40/4000 x 100
28. To compute for the rank of TB as a killer, we use this;
a. 40/4000 x 10000 c. 40/400 x 100
b. 80/4000 x 10000 d. 80/400 x 100
29. Morbidity rate of TB is computed as;
a. 80/500 x 10000
b. 80/4000 x 10000
c. 80/400 x 10000
d. 40/80 x 10000
30. The crude birth rate of community X is 30.5. This means that;
a. 30.5 births in every 1000 population d. 30 births in 1000 population of women
b. 31 births in every 1000 population 15-44 years old
c. 30 births in every 1000 population
31. Infant mortality rate refers to deaths in every 1000 births belonging to;
a. 0-26 days c. 0-1 week
b. 0-1 month d. 0-12 months
32. There are 20 cases of measles in a community and 5 died. What is the case fatality rate of measles?
a. 0.025 % c. 25 %
b. 2.5 % d. 250 %
33. The relative importance of a cause of a death is computed as;
a. Case fatality rate c. Proportionate mortality rate
b. Cause of death rate d. Incidence rate
34. In estimating the rank of a cause as a common illness, the nurse makes use
a. Incidence rate
b. Prevalence rate
c. Swaroop’s index
d. Attack rate
e.
f. Situation: A community health nurse must be knowledgeable on the vital statistics of the
community she is serving.
35. Which of the following refers to the systematic study of vital events in a certain community?
a. Epidemiology c. Community statistics
b. Population census d. Vital statistics
36. Major factors affecting population include the following, except;
a. Births c. Migration
b. Deaths d. Morbidity
37. Which of the following patterns is intermittent and confined to certain geographical area or locality?
a. Sporadic
b. Endemic
c. Epidemic
d. Pandemic
38. A sensitive index of the health conditions obtained in the community which is influenced more by environmental rather than
endogenous factors is the;
a. Crude death rate c. Fetal death rate
b. Infant mortality rate d. Maternal mortality rate
39. The crude birth rate of Community B is 30. This means:
a. 30 births in every 100 population
b. 30 births in every 1000 population
c. 30 births in 100 population of woman 15-49 years old
d. 30 births in 1000 population of woman 15-49 years old
40.
41. EPIDEMIOLOGY
42. Situation: From January to September 2006, there were two outbreaks of typhoid fever in Cavite City.
Epidemiologic investigation was undertaken by the rural health unit to investigate the outbreaks.
40. As a public health nurse, you know that typhoid fever is caused by __________.
a.poor personal hygiene practices c. inhalation of contaminated air
b.intake of unsafe food or water d.fomites
41. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiological investigation is to ________.
a.identify who are at risk of contracting the disease.
b.delineate the etiology of the epidemic.
c. encourage cooperation and support of the community.
d.Identify geographical location of the disease in the community.
42. This step of epidemiologic investigation ascertains the number of cases of typhoid fever occurring in a community:
a.Establishing the epidemic
b.Establishing the time and space relationship of the disease.
c. Establishing the relationship between cases to the characteristic of the community
d.Correlating all the data obtained
43. As an epidemiologist, among other things, you are expected to ____________.
a.institute appropriate control measures in the confirmation of an outbreak.
b.check the presence of signs and symptoms in patients according to the standard case definition of the
disease.
c. monitor the occurrence of selected notifiable diseases by weekly charting o graphing of cases.
d.plan and secure necessary resource needed for disease control measure.
44. The expanded role of the public health nurse includes classifying medical problems when the physician is not found.
What is used as a guide in performing this task?
a.Management guidelines
b.Diagnostic guidelines
c. Assessment guidelines
d.Standard case definition
45. Lately, an epidemiologic shift in the health status of Filipinos is said to be occurring as an effect of a change in
lifestyle. An epidemiologic shift is characterized by ____________.
a.resurgence of tuberculosis as an important and largely unattended disease burden.
b.increasing importance of chronic diseases side by side with infectious disease as a major cause of
death.
c. improved control of endemic diseases versus control of epidemics.
d.increasing level of pollution in the environment.
46.
47. Situation: The level of immunity of the individual is an important factor in preventing the transmission of
disease.
48. Which of the following is an example of a non-specific body defense?
a.Cellular immunity c.Inflammatory response
b.Antibodies d.Phagocytes
49. Of the following bodily defenses against infection, which one is an example of a specific disease?
a.Lymphocyte formation c. Nasal cilia
b.Intact skin d.Stomach acid
50. Immunity obtained as a result of experiencing an illness is known as _________.
a.Active natural immunity c. Active acquired immunity
b.Passive natural immunity d.Passive acquired immunity
51. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissues and proliferate, thus causing infection. One factor is
virulence of organism. What is the other factor?
a.Weakness of the body c. Resistance of the organism
b.Resistance of the host d.Weakness of the organism
b.
c. Situation: Descriptive epidemiology deals with the collection, organization, and analysis of data regarding
the occurrence of disease and other health conditions. Proper verification of diseases deals with screening, case
finding, surveillance and contact tracing.
52. Sensitivity and specificity are characteristics of effective screening procedures. Sensitivity refers to the avoidance of
which type of result?
a.True positive c. True negative
b.False positive d.False negative
53. Which of the following indicates the uniqueness of the association between a sign/symptom and the disease?
a.Sensitivity c. Both
b.Specificity d.Neither
54. The following describes active immunity, EXCEPT:
a.Host produces own antibodies in response to natural antigens
b.Host produces own antibodies in response to mother’s antibodies
c. Host produces own antibodies in response to artificial antigens
d.Toxoids are administered to the host
55. The following describes passive immunity, EXCEPT:
a. Antibodies are formed in the presence of a mild infection
b. Antibodies from the mother is acquired
c. Antibodies from other sources are administered
d. Immune serum from animals are injected to humans
56.
57. For items 54 to 59, choose the type of the community’s response to a disease agent invasion:
58. 2-3 cases of dengue hemorrhagic fever in Brgy. Filomena
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
59. Mass food poisoning
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
60. Schistosomiasis in Leyte
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
61. Pneumonia
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
62. More susceptible than human individuals
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
63. More immune than susceptible individuals
64.
a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Endemic
d. Pandemic
65.
66. DEMOGRAPHY
67. Situation: Basic concepts on demography.
68. Community health nurses are expected to utilize demographic data for effective planning and implementation of
health programs.
60. A sex ratio of 99 in Brgy. San Jose indicates that _______.
a. there are 99 females in Brgy. San Jose
b. there are 99 males in Brgy San Jose
c. there are 99 females for every 100 males in Brgy. San Jose
d. there are 99 males for every 100 females in Brgy. San Jose
61. Which of the following is considered an economically productive age group?
a. 15-64 years old
b. 15-60 years old
c. 18-60 years old
d. 18-65 years old
62. The statement: “Seventy-eight dependents had to be supported by every 100 persons in the economically productive
age groups in Caloocan in 1997”, indicates that
a. Caloocan in 1997 was characterized by a huge number of economically productive individuals.
b. Caloocan in 1997 was characterized by a huge number if very young and elderly economic
dependents.
c. Caloocan in 1997 was characterized by a high birth rate and death rate.
d. Caloocan in 1997 was characterized a high fertility rate.
63. If you are a nurse assigned in a country with a Type 1 population pyramid, which should be your specialty?
a. Pediatric nursing
b. Maternal nursing
c. Maternal and child nursing
d. Geriatric nursing
64. Life expectancy at birth is also known as _________.
a. livebirths
b. expected livebirths
c. lifespan
d. lfetime expectation
65. The urban-rural distribution of a country aids national planners in identifying the area where to concentrate its health
services on. As a community health nurse, given the urban-rural distribution in the Philippines, you know very well that
health services should generally be concentrated in _________.
a. the rural areas
b. the urban areas
c. selected areas in the city
d. urban poor communities
66. You are a CHN assigned in Brgy. 789. Applying your knowledge of demography, you noted that Mang Teroy’s
household has a crowding index of 1, while Mang Tonyo’s household has a crowding index of 2. Analyzing the data,
where will disease transmission be faster?
a. In Mang Teroy’s household
b. In Mang Tonyo’s household
c. In both of the households
d. In neither of the households because the data is irrelevant to disease transmission
67. The statement, “The higher the population density, the more congested the area, the easier the disease transmission,”
generally means that:
a. Epidemics are likely to occur in rural countries.
b. Epidemics are likely to occur in middle class subdivision in cities.
c. Epidemics are likely to occur in urban poor communities.
d. Epidemics have nothing to do with a population density.
68. A method of doing census where people are assigned to the place where they are physically present at the time of the
census, regardless of their usual place of residence is _________.
a. de jure
b. de juror
c. de facto
d. in facto
69. A type of registration system that keeps a continuous record of all vital events like births, deaths and marriage body:
a. Continuing population registers
b. Vital registration
c. Voter’s registration system
d. Civil registry
70. The following are components of demography, EXCEPT:
a. Population composition
b. Population size
c. Population pyramid
d. Population distribution
71. Age-dependency ratio has the following assumptions, EXCEPT:
a. All children below 15 years old are economically unproductive.
b. All persons above 65 years old are economically productive.
c. All persons aged 15-64 are economically productive.
d. Economically dependent persons include those above 65 years
72. of age.
73. The age dependency ratio in the Philippines in 1990 was 75.3. This could be interpreted as:
a. In the Philippines in 1990, 75.3% of the population was economically productive.
b. There were 75 dependents for every 100 persons who was economically productive in the
Philippines in 1990.
c. In the Philippines in 1990, every 75 persons in the economically productive age group had to support
100 dependents.
d. None of the above.
74.
75. Situation: In community health work, the nurse applies specific sciences like Demography.
73. In gathering data regarding the population of the community, the best and ideal method to use is;
a. Sample survey c. Records review
b. Interviews of barangay council d. Census
74. Sitio Melver has 1,478 households; Pia wants to conduct a survey of 25% of households. This means how many
households?
a. 370 c. 375
b. 17 d. 20
75. Typical characteristics of a poor community are the following except;
a. Population pyramid with a broad base c. High sex ratio
b. Low median age d. High population density
76. Demography is concerned with the following except;
a. Size of the population in the past, at the present and in the future
b. Characteristics of the population, especially age, sex, socioeconomic status, etc.
c. Spatial distribution of people in a particular territory
d. Increase in incidence of particular diseases presumed to be brought about by migration
77.
78. FIELD HEALTH SERVICES AND INFORMATION SYSTEM (FHSIS)
79. Situation: Nurse Yasmin is making an annual report for the rural health unit. This prompted her to review the
importance of the field health services and information system or FHSIS.
77. This constitutes the mechanism of transmitting data from one facility to another:
a. Family treatment record
b. Target client list
c. Tally form
d. Output report
78. The second building block or foundation of the FHSIS is the ____________.
c. Tally form
d. Output record
79. The fundamental building block or foundation of the FHSIS:
Family treatment record
Target client list
Tally form
Output report
80. This is where the presenting symptoms of chief complaint of the patient on consultation, the diagnosis, treatment and
treatment data are recorded.
c. Tally form
d. Output report
81.
82. Which of these is maintained as part of the system of records of the BHS, the BHC, the RHU, the MHC or the hospital
outpatient facility?
c. Tally form
d. Output report
83. In the FHSIS, the lowest level of reporting unit is the ____________.
a. Provincial health office
b. District health office
c. Rural health unit
d. Barangay health station
84.
85. Situation: Field health services and information system provides summary data on health service delivery and
selected program from the barangay level up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the process on
how this information became processed and consolidated.
83. All of the following are objective of FHSIS except;
a. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease and describe their natural history
b. To provide standardized, facility level data base which can be assessed for more in depth studies
c. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promote activities
d. To ensure that the data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use
fashion
84. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the field health service information system?
a. Family treatment record c. Reporting forms
b. Target client list d. Output record
85. Which of the following is used to monitor particular groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program of the DOH?
c. Reporting forms
d. Output record
e.
86. Dental health services are reported ____________.
a. Immediately
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Quarterly
87. Child births attended to by the LGU personnel are reported ____________.
a. Immediately
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Quarterly
88. Cases of Diphtheria should be reported on which basis?
a. Immediately
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Quarterly
f.
g. ENVIRONMENTAL SANITATION
h. Situation: Nurse Thelma is now a registered nurse hired as a community health nurse in the
Municipality of Bonifacio. On her first day of work, she decided to have an ocular survey of the
area where she is assigned. She noticed that one of the barangay in their municipality had
environmental sanitation problems.
89. Nurse Thelma knows the factors affecting environmental sanitation include:
1) Water sanitation
2) Food sanitation
3) Refuse and garbage disposal
4) Excreta disposal
5) Animal bite control
6) Housing
7) Air pollution
8) Stream pollution
a. All except 3
b. All except 5
c. All except 7
d. All of the above
90. Environmental sanitation promotion is primarily a function of the DOH. Specifically, this is a responsibility of which
agency in the DOH?
a. Environmental Sanitation office
b. Environmental and Occupational Health Office
c. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control Program
d. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control Office
91. The strategies of the DOH to promote environmental sanitation include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Water quality surveillance
b. Proper solid and liquid waste management
c. Sanitation of private places
d. Sanitation management of disaster areas
92. Nurse Thelma noticed that in the outskirts of Bgy. Maligaya, some facilities gather water from a spring with a
cemented encasement. She knows that it belongs to what type of approved water facility?
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
93. Nurse Thelma wished that the people in Bgy. Maligaya had access to a water system with a piped distribution
network. Nurse Thelma is referring to which type of approved water facility?
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
94. However, Nurse Thelma knows that a piped distributor network is not feasible in Bgy. Maligaya because this is most
suitable in:
a. Rural areas where houses are thinly scattered
b. Rural areas where houses are clustered densely
c. Densely-polluted urban areas
d. Densely-polluted urban poor areas
95. Upon recall, she is aware that with an average of 100 households within 25 meters distance from the source of water,
this type of water facility could be DOH-approved.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
i.
96. Unapproved type of water facility include:
a. Open dug wells
b. Unimproved springs
c. Wells that need priming
d. All of the above
97. Disinfection of water supply is done by the:
a. The municipal health officer
b. The public health nurse
c. The rural health midwife
d. The sanitary inspector
98. Disinfection of water supply is required in all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Newly-constructed water facility
b. Water supply facility
c. Bacteriology positive water supply sources
99. Container disinfection of drinking water collected from water facilities that could be recontaminated should be
performed. This includes water from all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Open dug wells
b. Unimproved spring
c. Surface water
100. In any research study were individual persons are involved, it is important that an informed consent for the study
is obtained. The following are essential information that you should disclose to the prospective subjects; EXCEPT
a. Assurance of anonymity and confidentiality
b. Explanation of the procedure
c. Consent to incomplete disclosure
d. Description of benefits, risks and discomforts
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bn. Situation 2: Student nurse Cecil is preparing for a quiz in her community health nursing subject.
She is studying the Proper Excreta and Sewage Disposal Program of the DOH.
1. With regard to toilet facilities, which of the following statements by student nurse Cecil is inaccurate?
a. Level 1 toilet facility includes pit latrines and the ventilated improved pit
b. Level 2 toilet facility includes reed odorless earth closet
c. Level 2 toilet facility includes water sealed type with septic tank
a. Level 3 toilet facility includes toilet facilities connected to a sewerage system, then to a treatment plant.
2. She recalled that in one of her rural community exposure, she was able to utilize a toilet facility that required a pail of
water for flushing. This is an example of __________.
a. Level 1 toilet facility
b. Level 2 toilet facility
c. Level 3 toilet facility
d. Level 4 toilet facility
3. Student nurse Cecil knows that in the Philippine rural areas, this type of approved toilet facility is not yet feasible:
a. Level 1 toilet facility c. Level 3 toilet facility
b. Level 2 toilet facility d. Level 4 toilet facility
e.
f. Situation 3: Public health nurse Rita is reorienting herself on proper solid waste management.
4. Refuse is a general term applied to solid and semi-solid waste materials other than human excreta. Waste material in
refuse may be divided into all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Garbage b. Rubbish
c. Manure d. None of the above
5. This term refers to leftover vegetable, animal, and fish material from kitchen and food establishments, which have the
tendency to decay, thus, giving off foul odor and sometimes also serve as food for flies and rats:
6.
a. Garbage c. Manure
b. Rubbish d. None of the above
7. This term refers to waste materials such as bottles, broken glass, tin cans, waste paper, discarded textile materials,
porcelain wares, pieces of metal and other wrapping materials. Which term is it?
a. Garbage c. Manure
b. Rubbish d. None of the above
8.
9. Under the environmental health services, which of the following should the nurse participate?
a. Water diseases
b. Gastrointestinal diseases
c. Environmental friendly
d. Diarrhea and vector borne
10. All of the following should comply with the requirement of acquiring a health certificates, except:
a. Grace, a crew in Janibee fastfood chain
b. Mr. Garcia, the cashier at the school cafeteria
c. Mang Tonyo, the siomai vendor near the PRC
d. Ms. Reyes, the chef in the restaurant of the university hotel
11. Food may be contaminated in all of the following, except:
a. Source of food supply c. Distribution of food
b. Transportation of food d. None of the above
12. The four rights on food safety include the right source, right preparation, right cooking and right storage. All of the
following are aspects of the right source, except:
1) Involves buying fresh food
2) Checking expiry dates of processed foods
3) Avoidance of buying canned food with bulges, dents, and broken seals
4) Using water from clean and safe sources
5) Involves washing hands and kitchen utensils before and after preparing food
6) Buying pasteurized milk and fruit juices only
a. 1 and 2 c. 4 and 5
b. 3 and 4 d. 5 and 6
13. Student Leslie recalled her mother’s food preparation practices. She concluded that one of the following practices
needs correction.
a. Storing leftover food in tightly-sealed containers
b. Lunchtime consumption of untouched breakfast covered with a plate on the dining table
c. Recycling leftover food by reheating them after storage in the refrigerator
d. Dinnertime consumption of untouched lunch placed in the refrigerator the entire afternoon.
14. Student nurse Leslie thinks that all of the following statements are correct. Which one is not?
a. Cooked food should not be left at room temperature for more than 4 hours to prevent
multiplication of microorganisms.
b. If food is to be stored in hot condition, the temperature should be ≥ 60 ᵒC.
c. If food is to be stored in cold condition, the temperature should be ≤ 10 ᵒC.
d. Microorganisms multiply best at a temperature range of 10-60 ᵒC.
15. When reheating food, which among the following temperatures, at the minimum, should be attained?
a. 80ᵒC. c. 60ᵒC.
b. 70ᵒC. d. 50ᵒC.
e.
f. Situation: Nurse Jana is trying to memorize the more recent laws and policies affecting
environmental health and sanitation.
16. The law requires all vehicles to pass the smoke emission standards prior to registration:
a. RA 8749 c. RA 9003
b. RA 6969 d. RA 9275
17. This law mandates a community-based approach management through composting and recycling:
a. RA 8749 c. RA 9003
b. RA 6969 d. RA 9275
18. This law bans the use of incineration for municipal, biomedical and hazardous wastes:
a. RA 8749 c. RA 9003
b. Senate Resolution 676 d. RA 9275
19. This law bans the use of persistent organic pollutants in household and industries:
a. RA 8749 c. RA 9003
b. Senate Resolution 676 d. RA 9275
20. Which among the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. The Clean Air Act of 1999 bans smoking are in enclosed public places, including public transport.
b. The Clean Water Act of 2004 requires the reuse of household waste water before it is released into
the river.
c. The clean Air Act of 1999 bans the incineration of hospital wastes.
d. The Clean Water Act of 2004 requires the LGUS to form water management areas.
21. The statement, “Burning of wastes in the community, is allowed in RA 8749” is:
a. True c. Irrelevant
b. False d. Inaccurate
e.
f. Situation: Water quality and monitoring for surveillance is the responsibility of each municipality
through RHU. Planning must be assisted by the Environmental Health Service.
20. The nurse should know that the examination of drinking water by the government or non-government municipality through
the RHU. Planning must be assisted by the Environmental Health Services;
a. Sanitary Engineer c. Department of Health
b. Municipality d. City of Health
21. Disinfection of water supply is required in newly constructed well. Repaired water pipes, contaminated water and what else?
a. Unimproved spring c. Surface water
b. Open well d. River dam
22. Approved types of toilet facilities may need water and not depending on receiving space. What type of toilet is without the
need of water?
a. Pit latrines c. Flush toilet
b. Water sealed d. Aqua privies
23. Hospital waste management program is a requirement before construction of a new facility. The hospital personnel are
required to train in waste management to prevent which of the following?
a. Communicable disease c. Cross infection
b. Nosocomial infection d. Transmission of infection
24. Nursing responsibilities and activities to ward off environmental pollution is beyond measure. The nurse is in best position to
conduct health education through which of the following?
a. Development of designs or programs c. Development and distribution of IEC
b. Use of communication media materials
d. Role modeling approach
e.
f. Situation: Environmental health is a branch of public health that deals with the study of preventing
illnesses by managing the environment and changing people’s behavior to reduce exposure to
biological and non-biological agents of disease and injury.
25. Which of the following is responsible for the promotion of healthy environmental conditions and prevention of environmental
related diseases?
a. Environmental and Occupational Health c. Center for Health and Development
Office d. Rural Health and Sanitary Office
b. Environmental Sanitation Code of the
Philippines
26. A protected well or developed spring with an outlet but without a distribution system is known as;
a. Point source c. Stand post
b. Communal faucet d. Waterworks system
27. Pour-flush and aqua privies are classified under what level of approved toilet facilities?
a. Level I c. Level III
b. Level II d. Level IV
28. The four rights in food safety include the following, except;
a. Right source
b. Right handling
c. Right preparation
d. Right cooking
e.
f. Situation: All materials, biological or non-biological, that are discarded in any health care facility and
not intended for any other use should be handled properly.
29. Which among the following is an important requirement for registration and renewal of licenses of newly constructed and
existing hospitals?
a. Hospital Waste Management Program
b. Municipal Refuse Disposal System
c. Incineration System of Hazardous Hospital Wastes
d. Disinfection treatment to prevent transmission of diseases
30. Tissue paper is thrown in;
a. Yellow bin c. Red bin
b. Black bin d. Green bin
31. The code of sanitation is;
a. PD 856 c. RA 6969
b. RA 9003 d. RA 8749
32. Alternative technologies to treat hospital waste are the following, except;
a. Incinerator c. Pyrolysis
b. Microwave d. Autoclave
33. Employment in Project NARS is under the auspices of;
a. DOH c. PRC
b. DOLE d. BON
34. The following are the functions of nurses as warriors for wellness, except;
a. Implement
b. Initiate
c. Inform
d. d. Immunize
e.
f. Situation: Mixed Concepts
35. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breastmilk is sufficient for the baby’s entire nutrient needs only up to;
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
36. What is given to a woman within a month after delivery of a baby?
a. Malunggay capsule c. Retinol 200,000 IU 1 cap
b. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg OD d. Potassium iodate 200 mg, 1 cap
37. Which biological vaccine used in EPI is stored in the freezer?
a. DPT c. Measles vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid d. Hepatitis B vaccine
38. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution?
a. 2 c. 6
b. 4 d. At the end of the day
39. In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal
document?
a. PD 996 c. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
b. RA 7864 d. Presidential Proclamation No. 46
40. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
a. DPT c. Measles vaccination
b. BCG d. Hepatitis B vaccination
41. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
a. DPT1 c. Infant BCG
b. OPV1 d. Hepatitis B vaccine
42. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?
a. Seizures a day after DPT1 c. Abscess formation after DPT1
b. Fever for 3 days after DPT1 d. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1
43. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature
registered at 38.1 deg C. which is the best course of action that you will take?
a. Go on with the infant’s immunization.
b. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.
c. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment.
d. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well.
44. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have protection against
tetanus for how long?
a. 1 year c. 10 years
b. 3 years d. Lifetime
45. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center of cough; her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the IMCI guidelines
of assessment, her breathing is considered;
a. Fast c. Normal
b. Slow d. Insignificant
46. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?
a. Prescribe antibiotic d. Instruct the mother to continue
b. Refer him urgently to the hospital breastfeeding
c. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
47. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 5 times a day. His skin
pinch goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in
which category?
a. No sign of dehydration c. Severe dehydration
b. Some dehydration d. The data is insufficient
48. Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of some
dehydration. Based on the IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do?
a. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given.
b. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours.
c. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management.
d. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation.
49. A mother is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child
vomits. You will tell her to;
a. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment.
b. Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy
c. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician.
d. Let the child rest for 10 minutes, then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
50. A ½ year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy malnutrition, Kwashiorkor. Which of the following
signs will be most apparent in this child?
a. Voracious appetite c. Apathy
b. Wasting d. Edema
51. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “boggy pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage the child?
a. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement
b. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program
c. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focus the menu planning for her child
d. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism
52. During the physical examination of a young, what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that may be observed?
a. Kerotomalacia c. Night blindness
b. Corneal opacity d. Conjunctival xerosis
53. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the dose given to
preschoolers?
a. 10,000 IU c. 100,000 IU
b. 20,000 IU d. 200,000 IU
54. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor, what part is best examined for pallor?
a. Palms c. Around the lips
b. Nailbeds d. Lower conjunctival sac
e.
55. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of
certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?
a. Sugar c. Margarine
b. Rice d. Filled milk
56. What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?
a. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 3 to 6 months
b. Give babies aged to 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of Retinol
c. Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission
d. Instruct mother to feed their babies adequately their baby’s resistance
57. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide,
which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Inability to drink c. Signs of severe dehydration
b. High grade fever d. Cough for more than 30 days
58. Management of child with measles includes the administration of which of the following?
a. Gentian violet
b. Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia
c. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
d. Retinol capsules regardless of when the last dose was given
59. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To
determine malaria risk, what will you do?
a. Do a tourniquet test c. Get a specimen for blood smear
b. Ask where the family resides d. Ask if the fever is present everyday
60. The following are the strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most
effective in the control of dengue fever?
a. Stream seeding with larva-eating fishes
b. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
c. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas
d. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets
61. Secondary prevention for malaria includes?
a. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
b. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
c. Determine whether the place is endemic or not
d. Growing larva-eating fishes in mosquito breeding places
62. Scotch tape swab is done to check which intestinal parasite?
a. Ascaris c. Hookworm
b. Pinworm d. Schistosoma
63. Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB?
a. Hematemesis c. Cough for 3 weeks
b. Fever for 1 week d. Chest pain for 1 week
64. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category?
a. Sputum negative cavitary cases d. Client diagnosed for the first time
b. Clients returning after default through a positive sputum exam
c. Relapses and failures of previous
65. When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the neighborhood, the level of this approved type of water facility is:
a. I c. III
b. II d. IV
66. MWSS provides water to Manila and other clients in Metro Manila. This is an example of which level of water facility?
a. I c. III
b. II d. IV
67. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in the management of AIDS. Which of the following is not an action expected of
these drugs?
a. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS
b. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
c. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease
d. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition
68. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category?
a. Sputum negative cavitary cases
b. Clients returning after default
c. Relapses and failure of the previous
d. Client diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam
69. To improve compliance to the treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS?
a. Having the health worker follow-up the client at home
b. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor the drug intake
c. Having the patient come to the health center every month to getr his medication
d. Having a target list to check on wether the client collected his monthly supply of the drug
70. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?
a. Macular lesion c. Thickened painful nerves
b. Inability to close eyelids d. Sinking of the nose bridge
71. In the Philippines, which condition is the most frequent cause of death associate with schistosomiasis?
a. Liver cancer c. Bladder cancer
b. Liver cirrhosis d. Intestinal perforation
72. What is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in the endemic area?
a. Use of molluscides d. Use of protective footwear such as rubber
b. Building of foot bridges boots
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
73. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct a health education activity. Which of the following is irrelevant?
a. Use of sterile syringes and needles
b. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
c. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
d. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections
74. Which of the following biological vaccine used in EPI that should not be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT c. Measles vaccine
b. OPV d. MMR
75. You will conduct an outreach immunization in a barangay with a population of about 1500. Estimate the number of infants in
the barangay.
a. 45 c. 66
b. 50 d. 60
76. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik spot. You may see koplik spot by inspecting the?
a. Nasal mucosa c. Skin of the abdomen
b. Buccal mucosa d. Skin on ther antecubital surface
77. Among the following diseaseS, which is airborne?
a. Viral conjunctivitis c. Diphtheria
b. Acute poliomyelitis d. Measles
78. Among the children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by what organism?
a. Haemophilus influenza c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Morbillivirus d. Neisseria meningitides
79. Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria. Which of the following strategies in malaria control is based on this fact?
a. stream seeding c. Destruction of breeding places
b. Stream clearing d. Zooprophylaxis
80. In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma is endemic in certain regions?
a. S. Mansoni c. S. Malayensis
b. S. Japonicum d. S. Haematobium
81. Which of the following opportunistic infections from AIDS virus that is characterized by tonsillopharyngitis?
a. Respiratory candidiasis c. Cytomegalovirus disease
b. Infectious mononucleosis d. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
82. To determine the possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that may be undertaken by
the Public Health Nurse?
a. Contact tracing c. Mass screening test
b. Community survey d. Interview suspects
83. Which is the best control measure for AIDS? c. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial
a. Being faithful to a single sexual partner sex workers
b. Using a condom during each sexual d. Making sure that one’s sexual partner foes
contact not have signs of AIDS
55.
56. Situation: Nursing care during child birth must ensure clean and safe deliveries at home or in Rural Health
Units.
84. Who should handle home deliveries?
a. Licensed health personnel c. Trained hilot
b. Trained birth attendant d. Albularyo
85. The pointers that the nurse should consider during home delivery are these;
a. Clean bed sheets, clean hands, and clean cord
b. Clean hands, clean surface and clean cord
c. Clean hands, normal delivery and complete expulsion of placenta
d. Spontaneous delivery, no laceration and no complication
86. In preparation for home delivery, which should be done first by Nurse L in the first stage of labor?
a. Set up sterile area
b. Wear sterile gloves
c. Wash hands with soap and water, prepare room and bed and set up things needed for delivery
d. Cleanse vulva with soap and water and mild disinfection
87. What are the products covered by the Milk Code or EO 51?
a. Breast milk only d. Breast milk substitutes, other milk
b. Formula milk products, foods and beverages
c. Cow’s milk alone
88. Home deliveries for normal pregnancies are admitted by licensed health personnel:
a. When the trained hilots have delivered more often than ten cases
b. When the mother is multiparous and bleeding
c. When the licensed personnel are busy with other deliveries
d. When there are no licensed personnel in an area
89. After the delivery, the nurse knows that the first post-partum check-up should be conducted when?
a. Within 25 hours c. 6 weeks
b. Within 1 week d. 10 days
35.
90. An emerging form of care is hospice care. This care is increasingly becoming popular nowadays because the family of a
hospice client cannot afford the hospital costs of long term care. Which of the following is true with regards to hospice care?
a. Hospice care prolongs life, alleviate suffering and restore health if possible.
b. Hospice care is an affordable cost for treating terminally ill clients.
c. Hospice care helps client die in comfort and dignity.
d. Hospice care provides rehabilitative efforts to restore clients and help them achieve their optimum level of
functioning.
91. Which disease is declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the Philippines?
a. Poliomyelitis c. Rabies
b. Measles d. Neonatal tetanus
92. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the municipal health statistics using graphs and tables. To compare the
frequency of the leading causes of mortality in the municipality, which graph will you prepare?
a. Line c. Pie
b. Bar d. Scatter diagram
93. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?
a. Integration c. Community study
b. Community organization d. Core group formation
94. In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems?
a. Mobilization c. Follow-up/extension
b. Community organization d. Core group formation
95. The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing?
a. To educate the people regarding community health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
c. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems
d. To strengthen the bond between the people
96. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to:
a. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem
b. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
c. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
d. Identify the health problem as a common concern
97. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?
a. Pre-pathogenesis c. Prodromal
b. Pathogenesis d. Terminal
98. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?
a. Primary c. Intermediate
b. Secondary d. Tertiary
99. On the other hand, Operation Timbang is _________ prevention?
b. Secondary d. Secondary
100. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with the best opportunity to observe
family dynamics?
a. Clinic consultation c. Home visit
b. Group conferences d. Written communication
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
l.
m.
n.
o.
p.
q.
r.
s.
t.
u.
v. Set 10
w.
x.
1. Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral linkages?
a. Two-way referral system
b. Team approach
c. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife
d. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher
2. The Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in the public health care in
the Philippines. The monthly field health service activity report is a form used in which of the components of the FHSIS?
a. Tally report c. Target/client list
b. Output report d. Individual health record
3. To describe the sex composition of the population, which demographic tool may be used?
a. Sex ratio c. Population pyramid
b. Sex proportion d. Any of this may be used
5. Which of the following is a natality rate?

a. Crude birth rate c. Infant mortality rate
b. Neonatal mortality rate d. General fertility rate
6. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What
population is particularly susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)?
a. Pregnant women and the elderly c. 1-4 year old children
b. Under 5 year old children d. School age children
7. Which of the following statistics can give you the most accurate reflection of the health status of a community?
a. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate c. Swaroops’ index
b. Infant mortality rate d. Crude death rate
8. Which of the following statistics best reflects the nutritional status of a population?
a. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate c. Infant mortality rate
b. Proportionate mortality rate d. Swaroop’s index
9. Whata.numerator
Estimatedis used
midyear
in computing
populationgeneral fertility rate? c. Number of pregnancies in the year
b. Number of registered live birth d. Number of females of reproductive age
10. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a Purok. You will gather information only from families with members who
belong in the target population of PEM. What method of data gathering is best for this purpose?
a. Census c. Records review
b. Survey d. Review of civil registry
11. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is
termed;
a. De jure c. De facto
b. De locsus d. De novo
12. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the multi-drug therapy, which component will be most useful?
a. Tally report c. Target/client list
b. Output report d. Individual health record
13. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of births within 30 days from the occurrence of
the birth?
a. PD 651 c. RA 3573
b. Act 3573 d. RA 3375
14. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate?
a. Public Health Nurse c. Municipal health officer
b. Rural Health Midwife d. Any of these health professionals
15. Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care?
a. Modifiability of the problem c. Magnitude of the health problem
b. Nature of the problem presented d. Preventive potential of the health problem
16. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of
this movement?
a. This is a project spearheaded by local government units.
b. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units.
c. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control.
d. Its main strategy is certification of health centers which is able to comply with its standards
17. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning?
a. Those who have children or more.
b. Those with medical conditions such as anemia.
c. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years.
d. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months.
18. Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates
this principle?
a. Information dissemination about the need for family planning
b. Support of research and development in family planning methods
c. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods
d. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility
19. A woman, 6 months pregnant, comes to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is contraindicated?
a. Tetanus toxoid c. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg
b. Retinol 200,000 IU d. Potassium iodate 200 mg capsule
20. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you to if she can have her delivery at home. After history taking and physical
examination, you advised her against a home delivery. Which of the following disqualifies for a home delivery?
a. Her OB score is G5P3
b. She has some palmar pallor
c. Her blood pressure is 130/80
d. Her baby is in cephalic presentation
e.
f. Situation: It was reported that there was a surge of incidences of diarrhea and upper respiratory tract
infections among strong evacuees in Cabangan Elemtary School in Legazpi City. The Mayon Volcano
disaster team joined by the nurses noted that there were 20 families in a classroom and makeshift
toilets are on the adjacent areas.
20. Epidemiological concepts which can be applied in the situation includes the following except;
a. Major disruption affecting socio-economic environment.
b. Congestion providing escalated risk of cross-infection.
c. Interplay of both extrinsic and intrinsic factors.
d. High herd immunity of the evacuees.
21. During times of disasters like this, evacuation centers often times become a gallery of illnesses. Those who immediately
developed illness as compared to others is called the;
a. Vulnerable groups c. Groups with low immunity
b. Herd population d. Case groups
22. A report of high incidence of diarrhea was noted after people ate sandwiches donated by a civic group. The disease
occurrence is;
a. Sporadic c. Epidemic
b. Endemic d. Pandemic
e.
f.
g. Situation: In the practice of CHN, nurses are involved in health campaigns.
23. The aims of family planning are the following except;
a. Right to informed choice c. Birth control
b. Child survival d. Safe motherhood
e.
f. Situation: Community health work involves management of common health problems like diarrhea,
malnutrition, and pneumonia.
24. Most common anthropometric data to assess malnutrition is;
a. Weight c. Basal metabolic rate
b. Height d. Daily caloric intake
e.
f. Situation: The health situation of the Philippines.
25. The basis of poor health situation in the country is;
a. Poverty c. Low priority of health
b. Lack of government support d. Graft and corruption
26. The following contribute to poor health situation of the majority.
27. 1. high cost of health services
28. 2. low priority for health
29. 3. crisis-oriented concept of health
30. 4. backward economy
a. 1 only c. 1,3 and 4
b. 1,2 and 3 d. All of these
31. The following statements describe the health human resources except;
a. Every year, there is a marked increase in number of health professionals.
b. Despite in the increase in the number of health providers, there is still an enormous need in the countryside.
c. The growing number of health professionals contributes to their low salaries and lack of benefits.
d. Migration to other countries is solely an economic issue.
32. Despite of the preventive nature of the diseases comprising morbidity and mortality patterns, hospitals have been developed
and maintained as primary venues of health services because
33. 1. Diseases are far advanced and require hospitalization.
34. 2. Not all diseases can be prevented at community levels.
35. 3. Hospitals are infrastructures for that project development.
36. 4. Hospital practice is rooted from colonial-oriented health science and education.
a. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3
b. 1,2 and 3 d. 1,2,3 and 4
e.
37. For common coughs and colds, these medicinal plants can be used except;
a. Lagundi c. Bayabas
b. Sambong d. Luya
38. Niyog-niyogan is best for;
a. Coughs and colds c. Ascariasis
b. Diarrhea d. Asthma
e.
f. Situation: Communicable diseases are classified according to the portal of entry.
39. Which of the following communicable diseases is not through the upper respiratory system?
a. Chicken pox c. Mumps
b. Measles d. Malaria
e. 32. Which of the following communicable diseases is not gastrointestinal tract as portal of entry?
a. Leprosy c. Typhoid
b. Paratyphoid d. Dysentery
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
33. Leandro, a client with schizophrenia was sent back home in Malabon after treatment in NCMH. Though cured, the family of
Leandro rejected the home transfer and told the NCMH staff they do not know Leandro, even if the records is showing that
they are the immediate family. These facets of public health burden are called;
a. Defined burden c. Hidden burden
b. Undefined burden d. Future burden
34. Morbidity among the older person age 65 and above is mainly due to which of the following preventable illness?
a. Influenza c. Tuberculosis
b. Pneumonia d. Heart disease
35. Mortality among the elder population is caused by;
a. Infection c. Diarrhea
b. Diseases of the heart d. Pneumonia
36. As a counselor, the PHN should utilize which of the following most important techniques?
a. Informing c. Advising
b. Active listening d. Counseling
37. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one month interval;
a. DPT, BCG, TT c. BCG, DPT, Hepa B
b. DPT, OPV d. Measles, DPT, Hepa B
38. If ever convulsion occurs after administering DPT, what should the nurse best suggest to the mother?
a. Do not anymore continue the DPT vaccination.
b. Give DT instead of DPT.
c. Give the pertussis component of the DPT vaccine and remove the DT component.
d. Advise the mother to come back 1 year for revaccination.
39. Which of the following is a useful tool in showing the family needs versus the resources available for utilization?
a. Omaha system c. Family health tree
b. Genogram d. Ecomap
40. In a population of 250,000, how many mothers are calculated to receive tetanus toxoid immunization?
a. 8,750 c. 7,500
b. 87,500 d. 75,000
41. In a population of 189,889 the eligible school entrant children needing BCG vaccination is;
a. 5,696 b. 5,697
c. 6,646 d. 6,647
42. A community with a population of 500,000 will need how many PHN?
a. 50 c. 100
b. 25 d. 500
43. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
a. To support the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of illness.
b. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs.
c. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health.
d. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mother and
children.
44. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement?
a. The service is provided in the natural environment of people.
b. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems.
c. The service is based on the available resources within the community.
d. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified.
45. Population-focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?
a. Community organizing c. Community diagnosis
b. Nursing process d. Epidemiologic process
46. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is based on which of the following?
a. Health and longevity as birthrights
b. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens
c. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing
d. The worth and dignity of man
47. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?
a. Health for all Filipinos
b. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health
c. Improve the general status of the population
d. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020
48. Region IV hospital is classified as what level of facility?
49. What is true of primary facilities?
a. They are usually government-run.
b. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis.
c. They are training facilities for health professionals.
d. A community hospital is an example of this level of health facility.
50. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating:
a. Effectiveness c. Adequacy
b. Efficiency d. Appropriateness
51. You are a new BSN graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply?
a. Department of Health c. Regional Health Office
b. Provincial Health Office d. Rural Health Unit
52. RA 7160 mandates the devolution of basic services from the national government to local government units. Which of the
following is the major goal of devolution?
a. To strengthen local government units
b. To allow greater autonomy to local government units
c. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance
d. To make basic services more accessible to the people
53. Who is the chairman of the Municipal Health Board?
a. Mayor c. Public Health Nurse
b. Municipal Health Nurse d. Any qualified physician
54. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the health care delivery system?
55. The Public Health Nurse is the supervisor of rural health midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory function of the
public health nurse?
a. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
b. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
c. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the barangay health center
d. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives
56. One of the participants in a hilot training class asked you to whom she should refer a patient in labor who develops a
complication. What will be your answer?
a. Public health nurse c. Municipal health officer
b. Rural health midwife d. Any of these health professionals
57. You are the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 health midwives among
the RHU personnel. How many more midwives are needed?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
58. If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you will submit the request for these items for approval to the;
a. Rural Health Unit c. Provincial Health Office
b. District Health Office d. Municipal Health Board
59. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases or notifiable diseases. Which law mandates reporting
cases of notifiable diseases?
a. Act 3573 c. R.A. 1054
b. R.A. 3753 d. R.A. 1082
60. The number of cases of dengue fever usually increases towards the end of the rainy season. This pattern of occurrence of
dengue fever is best described as;
a. Epidemic occurrence b. Cyclical variation
c. Sporadic occurrence d. Secular occurrence
61. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some other countries in Western
Pacific Region, “free” of which disease?
a. Pneumonic plaque c. Small pox
b. Poliomyelitis d. Anthrax
62. In the census of the Philippines in 1995, there were about 35,299,000 males and about 34,968,000 females. What is the sex
ratio?
a. 99.06:100 c. 50.23%
b. 100.94:100 d. 49.76%
63.
64. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get false negative in
this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination?
a. Effectiveness c. Specificity
b. Efficacy d. Sensitivity
65. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is given for fever,
headache and cough?
a. Sambong c. Akapulko
b. Tsaang gubat d. Lagundi
66. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding, negative and feminine force is termed;
a. Yin c. Qi
b. Yang d. Chai
67. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines?
a. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC c. Presidential Decree No. 147
b. Letter of Instruction No. 949 d. Presidential Decree 996
e.
f. Situation: Devolution of health services transferred powers and authority to the local government units
for self-reliance.
68. Who among the following appoints nursing personnel in the municipalities?
a. City Mayor c. Municipal Mayor
b. Congressman of the District d. Senator representing the DOH program
69. Which of the following is the primary function of the community health nurse?
a. Assisting special health needs c. Promotion of health and prevention of
b. Evaluating health programs diseases
d. Implementing programs of the DOH
70. World Health Organization defines community health as one of the following;
a. A teamwork based on social and natural sciences
b. Assessment of client’s health needs
c. Achievement of human potentials
d. Special field in nursing including social assistance
71. Which of the following concepts in Community Health Nursing is used to work with clients?
a. Knowledge of World Health organization c. Extension of benefits to clients
standards d. Health promotion
b. Primary prevention
72. Which of the following activities of Community Health Nursing is directed towards the optimum level of functioning?
a. Secondary prevention c. Primary prevention
b. Ecosystem approach d. Tertiary prevention
e.
f. Situation: Communicable diseases are classified according to portal of entry.
73. Which of the following communicable diseases is not skin and mucous membrane entry?
a. Gonorrhea c. Scabies
b. Dengue d. Syphilis
74. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissue and proliferate, causing infection. One factor is virulence of the
organism. What is the other factor?
a. Weakness of the body c. Resistance of the host
b. Resistance of the body d. Weakness of the organism
e.
f. Situation: Maternal and Child health services is one vital program in the Department of Health.
74. Which among the following is the overall goal of the maternal health program?
a. Reduce perinatal mortality
b. Improve the survival, health, and well-being of mother and the unborn
c. Implement the Basic Emergency Obstetric Care (BEMOC) Strategy
d. Improve the quality of prenatal and postnatal care
75. At least how many times check up should be done with regards to prenatal care?
a. Once c. Thrice per semester
b. Twice a month d. Four times
76. A mother who has completed all the doses of tetanus toxoid is called as;
a. Fully Immunized Mother (FIM) c. Tetanus-Free Mother (TFM)
b. Fully Immunized Woman (FIW) d. Completely Immunized Women (CIW)
77. Which of the following can be given to a pregnant client?
a. Vitamin A c. Iodine
b. Iron d. All of these
e.
f. Situation: The number of older persons increases in our country and even in the global scenario. They
need total nursing care too.
78. Which of the following goal of health care of older persons?
a. Rights of older persons c. Improve quality of life
b. Multidisciplinary care d. Longer disability-free life
79.
80. All of the following are characteristics of older persons except;
a. Financially-disadvantaged c. Have a tendency to always report
b. Housebound illness
d. May develop adverse drug reactions
81.
82.
83. The older persons are susceptible to accidents in the home. What should be the nurse’s instruction to the caregivers?
a. Always stay beside the older person c. Stay in the room all the time
b. Maintain good nutrition d. Avoid environmental hazards
e.
f.
g. Situation: Reproductive health is a right and a married couple has the freedom to do what they like with
corresponding responsibility.
81. In the local framework of RH, which one is the ultimate goal?
a. Women’s health in reproduction c. Achievement of women’s status
b. Attainment of optimum health d. Better quality life of Filipinos
82. The focus of Philippine RH includes which of the following?
a. Women’s health c. Health of men and women
b. Violence against women d. Adolescent RH
83. Which among the following is not a core principle of the Philippine RH?
a. Rights-based c. Gender responsive
b. Culturally-oriented d. Proactive gender care
84. One preventive care management that the nurse can teach in reproductive health infection is;
a. Use of feminine wash every night c. Counseling on human sexuality
b. Proper hygiene of women d. Use of condom
e.
f.
g. Situation: One important tool a community health nurse uses in the conduct of his/her activities is the
CHN Bag.
85. The Community/Public Health Bag is;
a. As essential and indispensable equipment of the community health nurse
b. A tool used by the community health nurse in rendering the effective nursing procedures during a
home visit.
c. Contains basic medications and articles used by the community health nurse
d. A requirement for home visits
86. Which of the following is the content of a bag?
a. Tissue paper c. Blood pressure apparatus
b. Benedict’s solution d. Prescription paper
87. How many scissors are in the public health bag?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
88. What is the rationale for the use of bag technique during home visits?
a. It should minimize or prevent the spread of infection from individuals to families.
b. It saves time and effort of the nurse in the performance of nursing procedures.
c. It helps render effective nursing care to clients or other members of the family.
d. It should not overshadow concerns for the patient.
89. Which among the following is important in the use of the bag technique during home visit?
a. Minimize if not totally prevent the spread or infection
b. Arrangement of the bag’s contents must be convenient for the nurse
c. Be sure to thoroughly clean your bag especially when exposed to communicable diseases
d. The bag should contain all necessary supplies and equipment ready for use
90. In consideration of the steps in applying bag technique, which side of the paper lining of the CHN bag is considered clean to
make anon-contaminated work area?
a. The upper tip c. The inside surface
b. The outer surface d. The lower tip
e.
f. Situation: The DOH of our country gives due importance to the contribution of Filipino Nurses in the
improvement of the health care system.
91. Which of the following is the focus of the promotive level of care in community health nursing?
a. Evaluation c. Planning
b. Assessment d. Diagnosis
92. The nurse assigned in Rural Health Unit as a beginning nurse practitioner is described as one of the following:
a. Specialist c. Generalist
b. Mother-child nurse expert d. Home care nurse
93. In Rural Health Units, which kind of health services is available?
a. Safe motherhood c. Home care
b. Post hospitalization d. All types
94. Which of these scientific approaches is the best tool a nurse can depend on for quality care in the community or any setting?
a. Nursing management c. Nursing protocol
b. Nursing process d. Nursing research
95. Which one of the following processes is used by the nurse wherein biological and sociological sciences are utilized to obtain
community resources?
a. Community-based c. Health networking
b. Community health d. Nursing process
e.
f. Situation: Two health workers are planning for a nutrition program. The nurse’s function overlaps with
that of the midwife.
96. What is the best to do when there is overlapping of functions?
a. Report to the supervisor c. Refer to manual
b. Get a lawyer d. Report to the physician
97. In the intervention phase of nutrition, the nurse assists in the implementation of program. What will you do?
a. Sponsor dietary counseling c. Hold mothers craft
b. Develop/distribute IEC materials d. Conduct wet feeding
98. Monitoring and supervision are the 2 main functions of the nurse. To whom would you give feedback after a home visit
regarding nutrition program?
a. Mayor’s office c. Regional office
b. Provincial office d. Midwife on duty
99. While the midwife is mapping, the nurse clusters the map. What is it’s purpose?
a. Logistics c. Train midwife
b. Detect nutrition problem d. Consolidate data
100. Which data are consolidated in a nutrition program?
a. Logistics c. Nutrition situation
b. Techniques in operation timbang d. Findings of programs
e.
f.
g. m.
h. n.
i. o.
j. p.
k. q.
l. r.
s.
t.
u.
v.
w.
x.

A1 PASSERS TRAINING CHN PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS

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A1 PASSERS TRAINING CHN PRINCIPLES AND CONCEPTS

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A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW AND DEVELOPMENT COMPANY

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

PRINCIPLES AND STANDARDS OF CHN

Situation: CHN theories and major concepts

Situation: Phoebe and Pia are involved in health education work.

Situation: Expanded Program on Immunization

5. Which of the following is a natality rate?

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