Situation 1: The Philippines is composed of a majority of young a.

Measles
population. An increase of the incidence of communicable disease b. Severe acute diarrhea
is commonly observed among countries with young population. c. Neonatal tetanus
Communicable disease prevention program is an important d. All of the above
function of the public health nurse in improving the quality of life.
Situation 2: Leprosy is still considered one of the most dreaded
1. Epidemiology is used for: diseases nowadays. The PHN in order to effectively care for and
a. Determining factors that have brought the prevent the spread of this infection should know the following
disease information regarding the disease
b. Evaluate effectiveness of Under Five
c. Determine efficacy of garlic in preventing 10. This disease is transmitted through
hypertension a. Bite of a mosquito
d. All of the above b. Prolonged skin to skin contact
2. Which branch of epidemiology is concerned with c. Fecal-oral
determining the factors that affect the occurrence and d. Blood
distribution of disease in the population? 11. You know that this disease is caused by
a. Descriptive a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Therapeutic b. Herpes zoster virus
c. Analytic c. Paramyxovirus
d. Evaluation d. Toga virus
3. All but one belong to the same type of epidemic 12. The early sign of this disease are the following EXCEPT
a. STD a. Discoloration of the skin
b. Dengue hemorrhagic fever b. Nasal obstruction
c. Food poisoning c. Difficulty closing the eyelids
d. Measles d. Numbness on the site of lesion
4. In 2001, new strain of polio was reported after it has 13. Currently used treatment for leprosy includes the use
been eradicated in 2000. This is a best example of a of
time related occurrence? a. Rifampicin and dapsone
a. Cyclical variation – longer than a year b. Rifampicin, INH, and dapsone
b. Short-time fluctuation c. Rifampicin, Clofazimine, Dapsone
c. Secular variation – span several years d. Rifampicin, INH, Pyrazinamide
d. Long-time fluctuation - 14. Diagnostic exam for this disease is
5. Epidemiology is directly concerned with which of the a. Blood test
following? b. Wound culture
a. Factors influencing occurrence and c. Skin slit test
distribution of disease, defects, disability d. Lumbar puncture
or death of groups of individuals 15. The law which liberalized the treatment of leprosy
b. Vital health statistics under ambulatory management
c. Environmental sanitation a. RA 1136 – reorganizing the division of TB in
d. Treatment of communicable disease DOH
6. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a b. RA 1021 – act on strengthening the
disease is Philippine disaster and risk reduction and
a. Active natural management system
b. Active artificial c. RA 4073
c. Passive natural d. RA 7277 – magna carta of disabled persons
d. Passive artificial
7. Which cases have to be reported within 24 hours? Situation 3: Wally,40 years old came to the health center and was
a. Measles assessed by Nurse Yosh with complaints of night sweats,
b. Severe acute diarrhea hemoptysis, fever, loss of weight and chest pain. He was
c. AIDS suspected to have PTB.
d. Neonatal tetanus
8. Which disease is not included in the disease targeted 16. Which of the following sets of signs and symptoms
for eradication? would best distinguish tuberculosis from a simple
a. Measles upper respiratory tract infection?
b. Severe acute diarrhea a. Weight loss, hemoptysis, diarrhea
c. Cancer b. Cough, weight loss, low grade afternoon
d. Neonatal tetanus fever
9. Which disease requires weekly monitoring? c. Dyspnea, wheezing, cyanosis

Prepared by: Jayvee V. De Guzman RN, MANc

 d. Non-productive cough, weight loss, a. Extend intensive phase for 15 days then
abdominal mass proceed to the maintenance phase
17. The agent responsible for pulmonary tuberculosis is b. Extend intensive phase for 30 days then
a. Tubercle bacilli proceed to maintenance phase
b. Hansen’s bacillus c. Extend intensive phase for 1 month, then a
c. Mycobacterium leprae week before the end of the extension
d. Vibrio coma phase, sputum microscopy will be done.
18. During the consultation, Wally was instructed to d. Extend intensive phase for 1 month, then a
submit a sputum specimen for microscopy. Your week before the end of the extension
instruction to Wally includes: phase, chest x-ray will be done
a. Breathe in air deeply 25. Among the drugs prescribed to Wally was INH. Nurse
b. At the height of inspiration, cough strongly Yosh is preparing to teach Wally about the effects of
and spit the sputum in the container INH. To be included in her teaching plan will be
c. Observe contamination precautions a. Presence of red-orange urine output
d. All of the above b. Presence of peripheral neuritis
19. Under the DOH protocol, Wally should submit how c. Presence of tinnitus
many sputum specimens for microscopy? d. Presence of optic neuritis
a. 1 26. Pyridoxine was given together with INH ,the purpose of
b. 2 the former is to
c. 3 a. Dilute the color of urine
d. 4 b. Prevent the side effects of INH
20. After 7 days, results revealed positive sputum c. Prevent pain in the eye
microscopy. Wally will undergo what treatment d. Prevent tinnitus
regimen under the National Tuberculosis Program? 27. After the treatment regimen, repeat sputum
a. Regimen 1 microscopy was done and revealed sputum positive.
b. Regimen 2 Wally will undergo what treatment regimen?
c. Regimen 3 a. 1
d. Regimen 4 b. 2
21. Under the National Tuberculosis Program, treatment c. 3
includes how many regimens? d. 4
a. 1 28. Sputum (-) but x-ray positive TB patients will undergo
b. 2 what treatment plan?
c. 3 a. 1
d. 4 b. 2
22. Anti-TB drugs that will be taken by Wally will be the c. 3
following: d. 4
I. Intensive-Rifampicin, Isoniazid, 29. Which anti-TB drug can cause optic neuritis?
Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol a. Rifampicin
II. Intensive-Rifampicin, Isoniazid, b. INH
Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol, c. Ethambutol
Streptomycin d. Streptomycin
III. Maintenance-Rifampicin, 30. Which anti-TB drug can cause orange color urine?
Isoniazid a. Rifampicin
IV. Maintenance-Rifampicin, b. INH
Isoniazid, Ethambutol c. Ethambutol
a. I and III d. Streptomycin
b. II and IV 31. Wally’s newborn child was brought to the health
c. I and IV center for BCG immunization. Yosh the nurse, is to
d. II and III administer the vaccine. To administer BCG properly,
23. Wally will undergo treatment for how many months? she knows that it will be given
a. 8 a. 0.5 cc, ID, right arm
b. 6 b. 0.05 cc, ID, right arm
c. 9 c. 0.1 cc, ID, left arm
d. 4 d. 0.01 cc, ID, left arm
24. Before Wally undergoes the maintenance phase, he 32. To ensure correctness and effectiveness of BCG
will be subjected to sputum microscopy. If it reveals (+) administration, Yosh will observe the following
sputum microscopy, he will a. Will not expose the ampule of BCG to light

Prepared by: Jayvee V. De Guzman RN, MANc

 b. Store BCg ampule in the freezer a. Sometimes breasts feel soft. Give
compartment of the refrigerator breastfeeding in between.
c. Use opened ampule within 4 hours of b. Baby cries sometimes. This means the
reconstitution breast milk is not sufficient.
d. Disinfect site of administration c. Supplementary feeding should be started as
33. DOTS is a strategy to make sure the patient comply early as 3 months old.
with his treatment regimen. During the intensive phase d. Continue breastfeeding alone until the
of treatment, how often is the patient required to go baby is 6 months old
to the health center to collect his supply of 40. A mother complained of cracked nipple. Hence, she
medications? cannot breastfeed her baby well. You will respond to
a. Daily this by advising the following EXCEPT
b. Weekly a. Take suitable antibiotics
c. Monthly b. Start feeding on the unaffected nipple
d. Every 2 weeks c. Leave a drop of hindmilk on the nipple after
34. To ensure success of DOTS regimen, the following feeding
elements are needed d. Help the baby to fix the nipple in correct
I. Supply of medicines position
II. Treatment partner 41. Antibiotics are taken properly so as to minimize
III. Support of local government a. Allergic reactions
IV. Medication card b. Resistance
a. I, II, and III c. Complications
b. II, III, and IV d. Reinforcement
c. III and IV
d. All
42. Which is the primary goal of community health
35. TB is a global problem. According to research the
number one reason why there is failure in the nursing?
treatment of TB is because of A. To support and supplement the efforts of the
a. Global poverty
b. Lack of medicines medical profession in the promotion of health and
c. Poor compliance to treatment prevention of
d. Overcrowding
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals,
36. The public health nurse needs to visit different patient
and families. Among these listed who should be visited families and communities to cope with their
last health needs
a. Diabetic client
b. Pregnant mother and family C. To increase the productivity of the people by
c. Patient with typhoid fever providing them with services that will increase their
d. Adolescent with psychosocial problems
level of health
37. Health education is a major activity in your plan. The
purpose of this is to D. To contribute to national development through
a. Find out people’s reaction to health services promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly
currently provided
b. Inform public of the available program and on mothers and children
services they can avail 43. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best
c. Provide information on health promotion
explains this statement? 
d. Facilitate a change in attitudes and
behavior towards health A. The service is provided in the natural
38. Breastmilk protects babies against infection. This is environment of people
because breastmilk contains
a. Lactoferrin which binds iron and prevent B. The nurse has to conduct community
growth of harmful bacteria diagnosis to determine nursing needs and
b. Antibodies which helps fight infection
problems
c. Living white blood cells to many common
infection C. The service are based on the available
d. All of the above
resources within the community
39. Which of the following is an important message for the
mothers after delivery

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 D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the C. Municipal health officer
health problems identified D. Any of these health professionals
44. Population- focused nursing practice requires 49. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for
which of the following processes? reporting cases or notifiable diseases. What law
A. Community organizing . mandates reporting cases of notifiable diseases?
B. Nursing, process A. Act 3573
C. Community diagnosis B. RA.3753 – law on registry of civil status
D. Epidemiologic process C. RA 1054 – free medical and dental assistance
45. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services to employees of industrial, commercial and
from the national government to local government agricultural sectors.
units. Which of the following is the major goal of D. RA 1082 – strengthening health and dental
devolution? services in rural areas
A. To strengthen local government units 50. In which step are plans formulated for solving
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government community problems?
units. A. Mobilization
C. To empower the people and promote their B. Community organization
self-reliance C. Follow-up/extension
D. To make basic services more accessible to the D. Core group formation
people 51.  Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of
46. Which level of health facility is the usual point of the natural history of disease? 
entry of a client into the health care delivery A. Pre-pathogenesis
system? B. Pathogenesis
A. Primary C. Prodromal
B. Secondary D. Terminal
C. Intermediate 52. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what
D. Tertiary level of prevention?
47. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural A. Primary
health midwives. Which of the following is a B. Secondary
supervisory function of the public health nurse? C. Intermediate
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife D. Tertiary
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife 53. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you
C. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the with the best opportunity to observe family
midwife dynamics?
D. Formulating and implementing training A. Clinic consultation
programs for midwives B. Group conferences
48. One of the participants in a hilot training class C. Home visit
asked you to whom she should refer a patient in D. Written communication
labor who develops a complication. You will 54. Which of the following is an advantage of a home
answer, to the; visit?
A. Public health nurse A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a
B. Rural health midwife greater number of people

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 B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand
appraisal of the home situation
C. It allows sharing of experience among people
with similar health problems
D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for
health needs of its members
55. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning
a home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose of objective
B. The plan should revolve around the family
health needs
C. A home visit should be conducted in the
manner prescribed by RHU
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a
responsible-family member
56. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing
nursing care during a home visit. The most
important principle in bag technique states that it;
A. Should save time and effort
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the
spread of infection
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient
and his family
D. May be done in variety of ways depending on
the home situation, etc.
57. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its
contents, which of the following must the nurse
do?
A. Wash his/her hands before and after
providing nursing care to the family members
B. In the care of family member’s, as much as
possible, use only articles taken from the bag
C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold
it with the right side out before putting it back into
the bag.
D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which
the bag was placed, ensuring that the
contaminated side is on the outside.
58. The public health conducts a study on the factors
contributing to the high mortality rate due to heart
diseases in the municipality where she works.
Prepared by: Jayvee V. De Guzman RN, MANc
Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse
practice in this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation
59.  Which of the following is a function of
epidemiology?
A. Identifying the disease condition based on
manifestations presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the
occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used
in the treatment of the 3 year old client with
pneumonia
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the
implementation of the Integrated Management
of Childhood Illness
60. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function
of the nurse during an epidemic? 
A Conducting assessment of suspected cases to
detect the communicable diseases
B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected
by the communicable disease
C. Participating in the investigation to
determine the source of epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive
measures against the disease
61. The primary purpose of conducting an
epidemiologic investigation is to;
A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the
community
C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting
the disease
D. Identify geographical location of cases of
the disease in the community
62. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person
propagated epidemic?
A. There are more cases of the disease than
expected
 B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted
through a vector
C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to
a common vehicle
D. There is gradual build-up of cases before we
epidemic becomes easily noticeable
63. Primary health care is a total approach to
community development. Which of the following is
an indicator of success in the use of the primary
health care approach?
A. Health services are provided free of charge to
individuals and families
B. Local officials are empowered as the major
decision makers in matters of health
C. Health workers are able to provide care based
on identified health needs of the people
D. Health programs are sustained according to
the level of development of the community
64. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge
of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is
given for colds and cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi
65. What law created the Philippine institute of
Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
A. RA 8483
B. RA4823
C. RA 2483
D. RA 3482
66. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care
approach in the Philippines?
A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC
B. Letter of Instruction No 949
C. Presidential Decree No. 147 – declares april 21
and may 19 as national immunization day
D. Presidential Decree 996 – old immunization act
new is R.A. 10152
67. Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral
linkages?
Prepared by: Jayvee V. De Guzman RN, MANc
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another
midwife
D. Cooperation between PHN and public
school teacher
68. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community
health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional
assessment. What population is particularly
susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)?
A. Pregnant women and the elderly
B. Under 5 year old children
C. Adolescents
D. School age children
69. Civil registries are important sources of data.
Which law requires registration of births within 30
days from the occurrence of the birth?
A. PD 651
B. Act 3573
C. RA 3753
D. RA 3375
70. Which of the following professionals can sign the
birth certificate?
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals
71. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched
to improve health service delivery. Which of the
following is/are true of this movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded by local
government units
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local
government units
C. It encourages health centers to focus on
disease prevention and control
D. Its main strategy is certification of health
centers able to comply with standards
72.  Which of the following women should be
considered as special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
 C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35
that the baby has “lactated on” the breast
years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the property?
past 15 months
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks
B. The mother does not feel nipple pain
73. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of
C. The baby’s mouth is only partly open
which vitamin may cause neural tube defects?
D. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the baby’s
A. Niacin
mouth
B. Riboflavin
78. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that
C. Folic Acid
breastmilk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient
D. Thiamine
needs only up to:
74. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery.
A. 3 months
Which of the following will you do first?
B. 6 months
A. Set up a sterile area
C. 1 year
B. Put on a clean gown and apron
D. 2 years
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water
79. Which biological used in EPI is stored in the
D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of
freezer?
labor and contractions
A. DPT
75. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding,
B. Tetanus toxoid
which of the following will you do?
C. Measles vaccine
A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
delivery
80. Unused BCG should be discarded how many
B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her
hours after reconstitution?
nipples are everted
A. 2
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and
B. 4
after each breastfeeding
C. 6
D. Explain to her that breastfeeding the baby
D. At the end of the day
will lessen blood loss after delivery
81. In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not
76. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to
obliged to secure parental consent. This is
the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after
because of which legal document?
delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast
A. PD 996
this early?
B. RA 7864
A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
B. To stimulate milk production by the
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46
mammary acini
82. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the
A. DPT
colustrum
B. BCG
D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in
C. Measles vaccination
the presence of the health worker
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
77. In a mother’s class, you discuss proper
83. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health
breastfeeding technique. Which of these is a sign
center for his first immunization. Which can be
given to him?

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 A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B Vaccine
84. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the
infant had?
A. Seizures a day after DPT1
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT1
C. Abscess formation after DPT1
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1
85. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health
center for immunization. During assessment, the
infant’s temperature registered at 38.1 C. Which is
the best course of action that you will take?
A. Go on with the infants immunization
B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to
subside
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further
assessment
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for
immunization when he is well
86. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose
of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will
have protection against tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime
87. Management of a child with measles includes the
administration of which of the following?
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B. Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia
C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last
dose was given
88. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for
consultation because of fever which started 4 days
prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk,
what will you do?
A. Do a tourniquet test
B. Ask where the family resides
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C. Get a specimen for blood smear
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday
89. The following are strategies implemented by the
DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which
of these is most effective in the control of Dengue
fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons
going to endemic areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use
chemically treated mosquito nets
90. Secondary prevention for malaria includes?
A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or
not
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding
places
91. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which
intestinal parasite?
A. Ascaris
B. Pinworm
C. Hookworm
D. Schistosoma
92. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS
category?
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after default
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB
treatment regimens
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through
a positive sputum exam
93. To improve compliance to treatment, what
innovation is being implemented in DOTS?
A. Having the health worker follow up the client at
home
B. Having the health worker or a responsible
family member monitor drug intake
C. Having the patient come to the health center
every month to get his medications
 D. Having a target list to check on whether the A. DPT
patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs B. OPV
94. In the Philippines, which condition is the most C. Measles vaccine
frequent cause of death associated by D. MMR
schistosomiasis? 99. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue Fever.
A. Liver cancer You will say that there is slow capillary refill when
B. Liver cirrhosis the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not
C. Bladder cancer return within how many seconds?
D. Intestinal perforation A. 3
95. What is the most effective way of controlling B. 5
schistosomiasis in an endemic area? C. 8
A. Use of molluscicides D. 10
B. Building of foot bridges 100. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber A. Nasal Mucosa
boots B. Buccal mucosa
96. When residents obtain water from an artesian well C. Skin on the abdomen
in the neighborhood, the level of this approved D. Skin on the antecubital surface
type of water facility is:
A. I – point source (protected well or spring that
serves 15-25 households)
B. II – communal faucet or stand posts – with a
source or reservoir , piped distribution
network, and communal faucets, located not
more than 25 m from the farthest house
C. III – individual house connections or water
works system) piped system
D. IV
97. For prevention of Hepatitis A, you decided to
conduct health education activities. Which of the
following is irrelevant?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by
vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal
hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and
illegal water connections
98. Which biological used in EPI should not be stored
in the freezer?

Prepared by: Jayvee V. De Guzman RN, MANc