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PAPER CODE: 0500447

B.TECH- (VII SEM, IV-YEAR) EXAMINATION, 2020
ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION & CONTROL
Read carefully the instructions on the Back of this Test Booklet
Important Instruction

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The Test is of 1 Hour duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 70 questions. The maximum marks are 50
5. There is one part in the question paper. The distribution of marks subject wise in each part is
as under for each

Part – A – (20) marks – Question N0. 1 to 40 consists of ½ marks for each correct response Part

B– (30) marks – Question N0. 41 to 70 consists of one marks for each correct response

6. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instructions No.5 for correct response
of each question.
7. Use Blue/Black ball point pen only for writing particulars/marking.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall/room until otherwise it is permissible.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Test Booklet to the Invigilator
on duty in the Room/ Hall.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters):__________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures _________________________________________________________

in words __________________________________________________________________

ENROLLMENT NO ___________________________________________________________

COURSE ___________________________

BRANCH ____________________________

Candidate’s Signature: ___________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ____________________

 PART-I

Q 1How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic matter in
water?
(A) the oxygen demand increases
(B) the oxygen demand decreases
(C) the oxygen demand remains unchanged
(D) None of the above

Q2Which of the following is not a surface source?

(A) River
(B) Well
(C) Lake
(D) Ocean.

Q3Under natural condition the flow of a unpolluted river would contain:

(A) more DO in summer than in winter
(B) less DO in summerthan in winter
(C) more or less the same amount of DO in winter and summer.
(D) least amount of DO during the floods.

Q4 Yeild of a reservoir can be decided by using

(A) catchment yield
(B) reservoir evaporation
(C) reservoir leakage
(D) all of these

Q5. Fresh sewage is __________ in nature.

a) acidic
b) neutral
c) alkaline
d) highly acidic

Q6. Workers working in __________ industry are most prone to white lung cancer.
a) coal mining
b) limestone mining
c) textile
d) asbestos

Q7. A standard test for determination of hardness in water is termed as __________ test.
a) EDTA
b) electometric
c) total count
d) presumptive

Q8. Which of the following is not a weightless pollutant ?

a) SPM
b) Thermal pollution
c) Radioactive rays
d) Noise pollution
Q9. Which of the following is the most lethal water pollutant ?
a) Phenol and cynide
b) Chlorine
c) Alkalis
d) Suspended solids

Q10. The permissible color for domestic water supply is __________ ppm.
a) 1
b) 20
c) 100
d) 1000

Q11.Thermal pollution due to excessive heat & temperature in the working place causes
a) reduction in working efficiency of manpower.
b) fatigue.
c) high breathing rate.
d) all (a), (b) & (c).

Q12. From pollution control point of view, the maximum permissible concentration of sulphur
dioxide in atmospheric air is about __________ ppm.
a) 1
b) B. 5
c) 50
d) D. 500

Q13 Reingleman chart is used for the evaluation of __________ pollution.

a) air
b) water
c) noise
d) radioactive

Q14 London smog’ was primarily caused by:

a) burning of coal
b) burning of oil
c) eruption of a volcano
d) none of the above

Q15Which of the following is not a major constituent of a photochemical smog?

a) PAN
b) CO
c) HC
d) O3

Q16 Electrostatic precipitators remove:

a) SO2
b) Particulate matter
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of them
Q17 Higher exposures of humans to nitrogen oxides may cause:
a) Bronchitis
b) pneumonia
c) Allergies and viral attacks
d) All of the above

Q18The permissible annual average standard of PM10 (RSPM) ambient air quality standard for
standard residential areas in India is:
a) 60 μg/m3
b) 80 μg/m3
c) 90 μg/m3
d) 100 μg/m3

Q19 The device, which can be used to control gaseous as well as particulate pollutants in the
industrial emissions, is known as:
a) Cyclone
b) Spray tower
c) Dynamic precipitator
D) Fabric filter

Q20The environmental lapse rate is found to be:

a) 6.5°C/km
b) 8.6°C/km
c) 6.5°C/km
d) 5.6°C/km

Q21 Taj Mahal at Agra may be damaged by:

a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen

Q22 Noise level during normal conversation among men is about __________ decibels.
a) 10
b) 45
c) 90
d) 115

Q23 TLV of mercury in potable (drinking) water is about __________ ppm.

a) 0.001
b) 0.1
c) 1
d) 5

Q24 We sense odours by?

(A) Breathing onto others
(B) Identifying smells
(C) Olfactory response
(D) A measuring instrument

Q25 What is potable water otherwise known as?

(A) Raw water
(B) Irrigation water
(C) Drinking water
(D) Surface water

Q26 What is the primary effect of excess phosphorous in the aquatic environment called?
(A) Fixation
(B) Nitrification
(C) Eutrophication
(D) Radiation

Q27Filtration is a common, conventional method for water purification. Nowadays, a membrane

technique, which removes almost all minerals and salts from water, is being used to purify water.
What is this method known as?
(A) Distillation
(B) Sedimentation
(C) Reverse osmosis
(D) Boiling

Q28 The percentage of a rock's total volume that is taken up by pore space is called the _______ .
(A) Permeability
(B) recharge
(C) aquifer
(D) porosity

Q29 Permeability is __________ .

(A) the ability of a solid to allow fluids to pass through
(B) The process by which plants release water vapor to the atmosphere
(C) The amount of water vapor in the air relative to the maximum amount of water vapor
the air can hold.
(D) the percentage of pore space in the rock

Q30 A local water table positioned above the regional water table is said to be:
(A) Stranded
(B) perched
(C) displaced
(D) depressed

Q31 The boundary between the saturated zone and the unsaturated zone is called the______ .
(A) water table
(B) Aquifer
(C) Aquiclude
(D) Porosity

Q32The infiltration of water into the subsurface is the __________ .

(A) Influent
(B) Effluent
(C) Discharge
(D) recharge
Q33 What is the term for a relatively impermeable geologic unit?
(A) an artesian
(B) an aquiclude
(C) an aquifer
(D) none of these

Q34 What are disease producing bacteria called?

(A) Parasites
(B) New strain
(C) Sour type
(D) Pathogenic

Q35What are the two main causes of hardness in water?

(A) Gold and silver
(B) Calcium and magnesium
(C) Phosphate and nitrate
(D) Oxygen and methane

Q36Dynamic head is best described as the

(A) Velocity of water in a main at full pumping pressure
(B) Total energy that a pump must develop for pumping to take place
(C) Total pressure in feet of head, measured at the pump discharge during periods of rest
in the system
(D) Pumping end of any device used to force water into a pressure system

Q37Chlorine demand is satisfied at the point when

(A) The reaction of chlorine with organic and inorganic materials stops
(B) Free chlorine residuals reach 2.5 mg/L
(C) An odor of chlorine is present
(D) Chlorine reaches the last tap

Q38When disinfecting a new or repaired main, what is the minimum chlorine residual at the extreme
end
of the main after standing for 24 hours?
(A) 15 mg/L
(B) 20 mg/L
(C) 25 mg/L
(D) 30 mg/L

Q39Chlorine will destroy bacteria most rapidly at what pH?

(A) 7.5
(B) 8.5
(C) 9.5
(D) 10.5

Q40 What is the process of adding chlorine to water until the chlorine demand has been satisfied
called?
(A) Contact time
(B) Reliquefaction
(C) Hypochlorination
(D) Breakpoint chlorination
 PART-II

Q 41. Suspended solid present in the waste water generated in blast furnace gas cooling and
cleaning plant is removed by
a) biological oxygen pond.
b) radial settling tank (thickener) using coagulant (lime & ferrous sulphate).
c) lagoons
d) filtration

Q 42 Persons working in cement plants and limestone quarries are more prone to disease like
a) cancer
b) asthma
c) silicosis
d) .flourosis (bone disease)

Q 43. Particulates (< 1μm size) remaining suspended in air indefinitely and transported by wind
currents are called
a) fumes
b) mists
c) smoke
d) Aerosol

Q44. Operating principle of cyclone separator is based on the action of __________ dust particles.
a) diffusion of
b) centrifugal force on
c) gravitational force on
d) electrostatic force on

Q 45. Exposure to small amount of __________ results in high blood pressure & heart disease in
human beings.
a) hydrogen sulphide
b) mercury
c) cadmium
d) asbestos

Q 46. Maximum allowable concentration of CO2 in air for safe working is __________ ppm (parts
per million).
a) 50
b) 1000
c) 2000
d) 5000

Q 47. Tolerable limit of nitrogen oxides in air is __________ ppm.

a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 5
d) 25
Q 48. During which of the following operating conditions of an automobile, carbon monoxide
content in the exhaust gas is maximum ?
a) Idle running
b) Acceleration
c) Cruising
d) Deaccelaration

Q 49. H2S present in gaseous stream can be removed by adsorption on

a) silica gel
b) active carbon
c) bog iron
d) limestone powder

Q50. Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is the maximum allowable concentration (i.e. safe limit) of
pollutants in air. Safe limit for SO2 in air is __________ ppm.
a) 5
b) 500
c) 1000
d) 2000

Q51. Most of the atmospheric air pollutants are present in large quantity in
a) stratosphere
b) thermosphere
c) trophosphere
d) mesosphere

Q52. 'Pneumoconiosis' is a disease caused by the inhalation of __________ dust.

a) coal
b) uranium ore
c) iron ore
d) lime

Q53. Most efficient and suitable dust removal equipment for removal of flyash from flue gas in a
thermal power plant is the
a) gravity settling chamber
b) cyclone separator
c) electrostatic precipitator
d) bag filter

Q54. The concentration of water vapour in troposphere, which depends upon the altitude &
temperature varies in the range of zero to __________ percent.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 8
d) 12

Q55. The main industrial source of emission of hydrogen sulphide air pollutant is
a) petroleum refineries.
b) coal based thermal power plants.
c) pulp and paper plant.
d) metallurgical roasting & smelting plant.

Q56. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) is not produced in the __________ industry.

a) nitric acid making
b) nitrogenous fertiliser
c) detergent
d) any of these

Q57. World's worst radioactive pollution was caused by nuclear reactor disaster which occured in
a) Arizona (U.S.A.)
b) Chernobyl (undivided U.S.S.R.)
c) Pensylvania (U.S.A.)
d) Moscow (U.S.S.R.)

Q58. Dissolved oxygen content in river water is around __________ ppm.

a) 5
b) 100
c) 250
d) 500

Q59. The amount of chemical coagulant added for treatment of polluted water __________ with
increase in temperature of the polluted water to be treated.
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains constant.
d) may increase or decrease ; depends on the chemical characteristics of polluted water

Q60. Particles having diameter greater than 75 μm (micrometer = 10-6 mm) are called
a) grit
b) dust
c) powder
d) smoke

Q61. Presence of bacteria in potable (drinking) water causes

a) turbidity
b) disease
c) bad odour
d) bad taste & colour

Q62. What are the methods of treatment & disposal of radioactive wastes ?
a) Evaporation & chemical precipitation.
b) Biological methods & adsorption in ion exchange materials.
c) Fixing into a solid mass with cement and sinking deep in the sea.
d) All (a), (b) & (c).

Q63. Bacterial aerobic oxidation of polluted water in biological oxidation ponds is done to purify it.
Presence of bacteria helps in
a) coagulation and flocculation of colloids.
b) oxidation of carbonaceous matter to CO2.
c) nitrification or oxidation of ammonia derived from breakdown of nitrogeneous organic matter to
the nitrite and eventually to the nitrate.
d) all (a), (b) and (c).
Q64. Maximum permissible turbidity in potable water is __________ ppm.
a) 1
b) 10
c) 250
d) 1000

Q65. Presence of __________ hardness is responsible for the temporary hardness in water.
a) carbonate
b) calcium
c) choride
d) sulphate

Q66. Dose of chlorine for disinfection of water is about __________ mg/litre of water.
a) 0.01
b) 0.1
c) 0.3
d) 1

Q67. Which is the most practical and economical method for removal of suspended solid matter
from polluted water?
a) Sedimentation
b) Skimming off
c) Chlorination
d) Biological oxidation

Q68. Iron & manganese present in the polluted water is removed by

a) simple filtration.
b) oxidation followed by settling & filtration.
c) chemical coagulation.
d) chlorination only.

Q69. Water effluent generated in printing industry is decolourised by

a) ion exchange technique.
b) reverse osmosis.
c) electrolytic decomposition.

Q70. Acute danger to human life (i.e. death) exists, if the concentration of CO2 in atmospheric air
exceeds __________ percent (by volume).
a) 1
b) 3
c) 7
d) 20
READ the following Instructions carefully:

1. The candidate should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet
with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. The candidate should not write their Roll Number anywhere else (except in
the specified space) on the Test Booklet.
3. Handle the Test Booklet with Care as under no circumstance (except for
discrepancy in Test Booklet Code), will another set be provided.
4. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the
Answer Sheets. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided
for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’.
5. On completion of the Test, the candidate must handover the Test Booklet to
the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
6. Each Candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
7. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or invigilator,
should leave his/her seat.
8. The candidate should not leave the examination Hall without handing over
their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the attendance Sheet again.
9. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator and any Electronic item like mobile
phone, pager etc. is strictly prohibited until otherwise it is permissible.
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