Veterinary Virology at A Glance by Sukdeb Nandi PDF

Veterinary Virology:
At A Glance
S. Nandi
MVSc, Ph.D.
International Book Distributing Co.

Veterinary Virology:
At A Glance
s. Nandi
MVSc, Ph.D.
Senior Scientist
Centre for Animal Disease Research and Diagnosis
Indian Veterinary Research Institute
Izatnagar-243 122 (UP) India
International Book Distributing Co.

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Preface
Virology is the study of viruses causing infectious and
contagious diseases in man and animals. There are many viral
diseases namely FMD, PPR, sheep pox, goat pox, IBR,
bluetongue, swine fever, rabies, canine parvovirus etc
prevalent in India affecting different species of aniInals and
causing enormous economic losses. All the diseases caused
by pathogens except viral diseases can be treated with
antimicrobials. As there is no specific treatment available for
viral diseases or it is expensive, it is of paramount importance
to diagnose the viral diseases promptly and accurately in order
to implement the control strategy in an effective and efficient
manner. The viral diseases are mostly controlled by
immunizing the animals with potent and efficacious
immunoprophylactic agents.
With the implementation of new trimester/semester
systems, the students have to face a number of quizzes,
midterm and final examinations. This system evaluates the
student's learning capability and teacher's teaching techniques
on a regular basis. Mostly objective type and short notes are
asked in the examination. Further, a number of organization/
institutions hold regular examination for admission in various
degree programmes, award of merit scholarships and
appointment on various jobs based on objective type
questions.
It is therefore hoped that the book will be extremely
useful for teachers as well as students of Veterinary Sciences
and other institutions.
Lastly, the author will appreciate receiving-comments
on the quality of books and errors if any for improvement of
the book.
s. Nandi
"This page is Intentionally Left Blank"
Contents
1 Structure and Composition of Viruses 1

2 Classification and Nomenclature of Viruses 9
3 Cultivation of Viruses 11
4 Determinants of Host Resistance 17
5 Immune Response to Viral Infections 19
6 Tumour Viruses 23
7 Papovaviridae 31
8 Adenoviridae 35
9 Herpesviridae 37
10 Picornaviridae 41
11 Poxviridae 49
12 Parvoviridae 53
13 Caliciviridae 55
14 Togaviridae and Flaviviridae 57
15 Orthomyxoviridae 63
16 Paramyxoviridae 67
17 Coronaviridae 73
18 Rhabdoviridae 75
19 Retroviridae 85
20 Reoviridae and Birnaviridae 89
21 Viral Diseases of Different Animals 93
22 Laboratory Diagnosis of Viral Diseases 105
23 Miscellaneous Questions 117
References 141
Chapter 1
Structure and Composition
of Viruses
A. Answer the following questions.

Q.1. Arrange the unicellular micro-organisms in decreasing
order of size and complexity.
A. Protozoa, fungi, bacteria, mycoplasma, rickettsiae and
chlamydiae.
Q.2. What is the mode of replication of above micro-organisms?
A. Binary fission.
Q.3. Who first invented the TMV?
A. Beijerinck in 1898.
Q.4. Who first invented FMD?
A. Loeffler and Frosch.
Q.5. Who first invented negative staining to the electron
microscopy of viruses?
A. Brenner and Home in 1959.
Q.6. Name the viruses having no matrix proteins.
A. Arenavirus, bunyavirus, coronaviruses do not have matrix
proteins.
Q.7. Name viruses with helical symmetry and icosahedral
symmetry.
A. Icosahedral - African swine fever virus, togavirus,
herpesvirus, flavivirus, retrovirus.
Helical - Orthomyxovirus, paramyxovirus.
Q.8. What is haploid genome?
A. All the viral genomes except retrovirus are haploid i.e they
1
Veterinary Virology: At A Glance
contain only one copy of each gene. The retrovirus genome

is diploid i.e. they contain two identical copies of RNA as
genome.
Q.9. Name the viruses with dsDNA, ss DNA, dsRNA and ssRNA.
Ans.dsDNA - Viruses under the families Poxviridae,
Herpesviridae, Adenoviridae, Papovaviridae ; ss DNA -
Viruses under the family Parvoviridae ; dsRNA - Viruses
under the families Reoviridae and Birnaviridae; ssRNA -
Viruses under the families Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae,
Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, Coronaviridae, Paramyxoviridae,
Rhabdoviridae, Orthomyxoviridae, Arenaviridae,
Bunyaviridae and Retroviridae.
Q.l0. Name the RNA viruses with + sense RNA and - sense
RNA.
A. Positive sense - Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Togaviridae,
Flaviridae, Coronaviridae and Retroviridae. Negative sense
- Orthomyxoviridae, Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae,
Arenaviridae, Bunyaviridae.
Q.ll. Why are they called + sense and - sense RNA viruses?
A. The + sense RNA genome of the viruses can also act as
mRNA to synthesize protein after binding with the risosome
inside the infected cells. On the other hand, the - sense or
dsRNA before being infectious should be converted to +
sense by the virion associated transcriptase.
Q.12. Name the viruses with dsDNA genome which is circular.
A. Viruses under the family Papovaviridae and partially
double stranded under hepadnaviridae.
Q.13. Which virus is having dsDNA genome covalently
crosslinked at each end?
A. Pox virus.
Q.14. Which virus genome contains repeat sequence at the end?
A. Some herpesviruses and ssRNA of retroviruses.
Q.1S. Which virus DNA genome contains inverted terminal
repeats and without enzymatic digestion, denatured
2
Structure and Composition of Viruses
molecule self anneal to form single stranded circle?

A. Adenovirus.
Q.16. Which virus contains inverted terminal repeat sequence
that give rise to hairpin structures?
A. Parvovirus.
Q.17. Which viruses contain protein covalently linked to the 5'
end of the genome?
A. Adenovirus, hepadnavirus, parvovirus, picornavirus and
calicivirus.
Q.18. What are hexamers and pentamers?
A. In viruses with icosahedral symmetry, the capsomers on
the faeces and edges bond to six neighbouring capsomers
and are called hexamers, whereas those at the vertices bind
to five neighbouring capsomers and are called pentamers.
Q.19. Which viruses contain segmented genome?
A. Arena and birnavirus RNAs consist of 2 segments,
bunyavirus RNA of 3 and orthomyxovirus RNA of 7 or 8 (
in different genera).
Q.20. Which viral genome is called ambisense?
A. At least one RNA segment of Arenavirus and bunyavirus
is partly + sense and partly - sense and is called ambisense.
Q.21. Which viral RNA is 5' capped and 3' polyadenylated?
A. Togavirus and Coronavirus.
Q.22. Which virus RNA contains a protein at 5' end and 3'
polyadenylated?
A. Picornavirus and Calicivirus.
Q.23. Which viral RNA is 5' capped but not 3' polyadenylated?
A. Flavivirus.
Q.24. Which viral genome code a single polypeptide that
subsequently cleaved to several viral polypeptides?
A. Picornavirus.
Q.25. What are empty and defective interfering particles?
A. During assembly, viral particles may be formed that contain
3
no nucleic acid (empty particles) or that have an incomplete

genome (defective interfering particles).
Q.26. Which virus contains two concentric capsids?
A. Reovirus.
Q.27. Lipid occurs in the outer membrane of pox virus has same/
different composition from that of host celllipids.
A. Different.
Q.2S. Which viruses contain lipid within the icosahedral capsid
in addition to envelope?
A. African swine fever virus and Pox virus.
Q.29. Which virus contains internal glycoprotein in the
membrane of the core?
A. Poxvirus.
Q.30. Which naked virus contains one glycoprotein as outer
capsid protein?
A. Rotavirus.
Q.31. Which viruses contain neuraminidase?
A. Orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus.
Q.32. Which viruses contain DNA dependent RNA polymerase?
A. Poxvirus and African swine fever virus.
Q.33. Which viruses contain ds RNA dependent RNA
polymerase?
A. All the dsRNA containing viruses (Reoviruses and
Birnaviruses).
Q.34. Which viruses contain ssRNA dependent RNA
polymerase?
A. Orthomyxovirus, Paramyxovirus and Rhabdovirus.
Q.3S. Which viruses contain poly A polymerase?
A. Poxvirus and Reovirus.
Q.36. Which viruses contain RNA dependent DNA polymerase?
A. Retroviruses.
Q.37. Which viruses contain polynucleotide ligase that breaks
4
Structure and Composition o/Viruses
ss breaks in ds DNA.
A. Retroviruses.
Q.38. Which viruses contain DNA dependent DNA polymerase
that synthesizes ds DNA?
A. Hepadnavirus.
Q.39. Which viruses contain deoxyribonuclease (exo and endo)?
A. Pox, Retro and Adenovirus.
Q.40. Which viruses contain endonuclease ?
A. Poxvirus.
Q.41. Which viruses contain protein kinase enzyme?
A. Retrovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Paramyxovirus, Herpesvirus
and Adenovirus.
Q.42. Which viruses contain tRNA aminoacylases?
A. Retrovirus.
Q.43. What are the two cryoprotective agents used in
lyophilisation of viruses?
A. DMSO and glycerol.
B. Write true or false about the following.

Q.l. All the micro-organisms namely protozoa, fungi, bacteria,
mycoplasma, rickettsiae and chlamydiae contain either
DNA or RNA and have their own machinery for producing
energy and macromolecules.
A. False. They contain both DNA as well as RNA.
Q.2. Viruses have either DNA or RNA as genetic material.
A. True.
Q.3. Viruses contain ribosomes but no other organelles.
A. False. They do not contain any organelles.
Q.4. Viruses are not susceptible to antibiotics.
A. True.
Q.S. Bacteria, mycoplasma and rickettsiae are sensitive to
interferon.
A. False.
5
Q.6. Chlamydiae and viruses are sensitive to interferon.

A. True.
Q.7. Rickettsiae and chlamydiae can grow on non-living media.
A. False.
Q.B. The plant viruses with helical nucleocapsids are rod shaped
and naked?
A. True.
Q.9. The animal viruses with helical nucleocapsids are
enveloped.
A. True.
Q.I0. The spikes or proteins projected out from the surface of
the envelope of the virus are glycosylated.
A. True.
Q.ll. The matrix protein of the enveloped viruses are
glycosylated.
A. False. Non-glycosylated.
Q.12. Introns can be present in the genome of the virus.
A. True.
Q.13. mRNA derived from the viral genome may be read in
different (upto 3) reading frames.
A. True. It gives rise to 2 to 3 proteins with different amino
acids.
Q.14. All viral RNAs except Arenavirus and bunyavirus are
linear and none is a covalently closed circle.
A. True. Arenavirus and bunyaviruses have sticky ends and
occur as circle.
Q.1S. Negative sense RNA contains RNA dependent RNA
polymerase (transcriptase) in the virion.
A. True.
Q.16. + sense RNA contains no RNA dependent RNA
polymerase (transcriptase) in the virion.
A. True.
Q.17. The naked viruses are more heat labile than enveloped
6
Structure and Composition of Viruses
viruses.
A. False.
Q.18. Viruses survive better in aerosols at lower temperatures.
A. True.
C. Fill in the blanks.

Q.l. In capsid, the capsomeres are held together by - - - - .
A. Non-covalent bonds.
Q.2. Viruses with icosahedral symmetry have - - edges or
equilateral triangle, - - faeces and - - - - vertices.
A. 30, 20, 12.
Q.3. The size of the viral DNA genomes ranges from - - - (Kb/
Kbp) in parvovirus to over - - - Kbp in pox virus.
A. 4.5 kb i 200 Kbp.
Q.4. The size of ss viral RNA varies from - - - - - kb and ds
viral RNA from - - ?
A. 7.5 to 18 Kb i 7 to 22Kbp.
Q.5. Host cell DNA is found in some - - - - - - - - virus
and cellular ribosomes are incorporated in - - - - --.
A. Papovavirus; Arenavirus.
Q.6. Lipid constitutes about - - (%) of the dry weight of
enveloped virus.
A. 30-35%.
Q.7. About - - (%) envelope lipid is - - - - - - - - and
remainder is - - - - - - - .
A. 50-60% i Phospholipid i cholesterol.
Q.B. The temperature of dry ice and liquid nitrogen is - - -
and - - - - - respectively.
A. -70"c and -196°c.
Q.9. The half life of the virus can be measured in second
at - - -, minutes at - - - -, hours at - - -, days
at - - - and years at - - - - - or - - - - - - .
A. 60°C, 37°C, 20°C, 4°C, -70°C or -196°C.
7
Q.l0. The proteins preserlt on the surface of the envelope are

called - - - - - - - .
A. Peplomers.
8
Chapter 2
Classification and
Nomenclature of Viruses

Q.l. What are satellite viruses?
A. The replication of those viruses depend on other viruses
are called satellite viruses.
Q.2. What are the different enteric viruses?
A. Rotavirus, coronavirus, enterovirus and some adenovirus.
They are acquired by ingestion and replicate primarily in
intestinal tracts.
Q.3. What are the different respiratory viruses?
A. Orthomyxovirus, rhinovirus, paramyxovirus, coronavirus
and adenovirus. They are acquired by inhalation and
replicate in the respiratory system.
Q.4. What are the different arboviruses?
A. These are the viruses that are transmitted through
arthropods. They replicate in the arthropod's tissue and
transmitted to the vertebrate host when arthropods bite
vertebrate host. Ex- Orbivirus, most bunyavirus, flavivirus,
togavirus, rhabdovirus and African swine fever virus.
Q.S. Name ssDNA, dsDNA, ssRNA and dsRNA viruses.
A. ssDNA ( Parvovirus, circovirus), dsDNA(Poxvirus,
herpesvirus, adenovirus, Papovavirus, African swine fever
virus, Hepatitis B virus), ssRNA (Picornavirus,
Orthomyxovirus, Paramyxovirus, Togavirus, Pestivirus,
Rhabdovirus, Coronavirus, Arenavirus, Bunyavirus,
Retrovirus, filovirus and calicivirus) and dsRNA (Reovirus,
Birnavirus).
9
Q.6. Name the viruses having positive sense ssRNA.

A. Picornavirus, Calicivirus, Togavirus, Pestivirus and
Retrovirus.
Q.7. Name the viruses having negative sense ssRNA.
A. Orthomyxovirus, paramyxovirus, rhabdovirus, arenavirus,
bunyavirus and filovirus.
Q.8. Name the viruses having segmented genome.
A. Arena virus, bunyavirus, orthomyxovirus, bimavirus and
reovirus.
Q.9. Name the viruses having RNA dependent RNA polymerase.
A. All the negative sense RNA viruses contain RNA dependent
RNA polymerase in the virion.
10
Chapter 3
Cultivation of Viruses

Q.1. Who showed that poliovirus can be grown in non-neural
cells in vitro?
A. In 1949, Enders, Weller and Robbins.
Q.2. What are the different overlay medium used in plaque assay
of viruses?
A. Methylcellulose gel, agarose, agar, tragacanth gelly etc.
Q.3. Which viruses show haemadsorption?
A. Orthomyxovirus, Paramyxovirus and Togavirus. Cultured
cells infected with orthomyxovirus, paramyxovirus and
togaviruses show the property of adsorbing RBC called
haemadsorption as newly synthesized viral proteins present
in the plasma membrane binds to RBC.
Q.4. What is eclipse period?
A. Soon after infection, the inoculated virus disappears i.e.
infectious virus particles can not be demonstrated even
intracellularly. This period is called eclipse period.
Q.5. What are viruses that bud through plasma membrane?
A. Togaviruses, Paramyxoviruses, Rhabdoviruses,
Orthomyxoviruses and Retroviruses.
Q.6. What are viruses that bud through endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Flaviviruses.
Q.7. What are viruses that bud through golgi bodies?
A. Vaccinia.
Q.B. What are viruses that bud through golgi bodies and
endoplasmic reticulum?
11
A. Coronavirus and bunyavirus.

Q.9. What are viruses that bud through nuclear membrane?
A. Herpesvirus.
Q.I0. Which viruses are uncoated in two stages?
A. Poxviruses.
Q.ll. Which RNA viruses have genes for nonstructural protein
at 5' end?
A. Coroavirus and Togavirus.
Q.12. Which RNA viruses have genes for structural protein at
5' end?
A. Flavivirus.
Q.13. Name the viruses that shut down the cellular protein
synthesis rapidly.
A. Picornavirus, poxvirus and herpesvirus.
Q.14. Name the viruses which shut down the cellular protein
synthesis later and gradually.
A. Adenovirus.
Q.15. Name the non-cytocidal viruses.
A. Arenavirus and retrovirus.
Q.16. Name the viruses which are cytocidal but do not shut down
the cellular protein synthesis very well.
A. Flavivirus.
Q.17. Which viruses produce syncytia or polykaryocytes or giant
cells in cell monolayer?
A. Paramyxovirus, herpesvirus, coronavirus and poxvirus.
Q.IB. What is persistent infection?
A. In this case, the infected cells produce and release viriions
but cellular metabolism is little affected and infected cells
continue to grow and divide. Ex Arenavirus, retrovirus and
some paramyxovirus.
Q.19. Which virus infected cells acquire the capacity to bind
immunoglobulin nonspecifically?
A. Herpesvirus.
12
Q.20. Which viral genome remain as episomal in transformed

cells?
A. Papillomavirus and herpesvirus.
Q.21. Which viruses replicate in macrophages?
A. Canine distemper virus, BHV-1, CMV and adenovirus.
Q.22. Which viruses replicate in lymphocytes?
A. MD virus.
Q.23. Which viruses are associated with RBCs?
A. BTV and ASFV.
Q.24. Which viruses remain in the plasma of the blood?
A. Togavirus, flavivirus and enterovirus.
Q.2S. Which virus resist phagocytosis by macrophages?
A. Infectious canine hepatitis.
Q.26. Which virus is phagocytosed by macrophages and also
replicate in them?
A. Lactic dehydrogenase virus.
Q.27. Which viruses are transmitted though milk?
A. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus, Murine mammary
tumour virus, foot and mouth disease virus and some of
the tick borne encephalitis virus.
Q.2B. Which viruses are transmitted through needles and other
equipments contaminated with blood?
A. Hepatitis B virus, Equine infectious anaemia virus and
bovine leucosis virus.
Q.29. Which viruses are transmitted through contaminated pork
scraps?
A. Classical swine fever virus, African swine fever virus,
vesicular exanthema virus.
Q.30. What are the different viruses transmitted through semen
in cattle?
A. BHV-1, Bovine leucosis virus, Bluetongue virus and Foot
and mouth disease.
13

Q.1. The replication of adenovirus DNA does not require
Okazaki fragments.
A. True.
Q.2. Hamster and other rodents are widely used in tumour
virology.
A. True.
Q.3. Diploid cell strains do not have the diploid chromosome
number.
A. False.
Q.4. Haemadsorption property can be demonstrated by non-
cytopathogenic as well as cytocidal viruses.
A. True.
Q.5. Cytopathic changes can occur in both productive and non-
productive infections and in permissive and non-permissive
cells.
A. True.
Q.6. All infections, whether cytocidal or non-cytocidal lead to
the production of new virions.
A. False.
Q.7. Transformation by DNA viruses is always non-productive
(the transform cells do not produce infectious progeny
virus).
A. True.
Q.S. Transformation by retroviruses is usually productive.
A. True.
Q.9. 'Y interferon can be produced by virus infected cell culture.
A. False.
Q.10. Most RNA viruses are good interferon inducers and most
DNA viruses are poor inducers.
A. True. However, poxvirus being the DNA virus is a good
inducer of interferon.
Q.ll. Interferon do not show any virus specificity i,e. interferons
14
induced by paramyxovirus are effective against togavirus

or other virus.
A. True.
Q.12. Herpesvirus particles travel to the CNS in axon cytoplasm
and also infect the Schwann cells of the nerve sheath.
A. True.

Q.1. The isolation/ cultivation of virus in embryonated chicken
eggs was devised by - - - - - - - - - - in1930.
A. Goodpasture
Q.2. - - - - - - - - or - - - - - - - - can be used to
stain the cell culture monolayer in plaque assay.
A. Neutral red or crystal violet. The uninfected cells take up
the stain and plaques appear as clear area against red or
purple background.
Q.3. - - - - - - - and - - - - - - - - viruses can produce
plaques even in cell monolayer maintained in liquid
medium.
A. Herpes virus and pox virus.
Q.4. Haemagglutination was first described by - - - - - - in
1941.
A. Hirst.
Q.5. Goose RBC can be agglutinated by - - - - -, - - - - -
- and - - - - - - - virus.
A. Bunyavirus, alphavirus (togavirus), rabies virus and
Flavivirus.
Q.6. Chicken, human and guineapig RBC can be agglutinated
by - - - - - and - - - -.
A. Orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus.
Q.7. - - - - - numbers of influenza virus particles are needed
to agglutinate the RBC.
A. 10 7 •
Q.8. The eclipse period ranges from - - to - - - hours in
15
DNA viruses and from - -to - - hours in RNA viruses.

A. 5 (Herpes virus, African swine fever virus) to 15
(Papovavirus) hours and 3( Rhabdovirus, Picornavirus,
Calicivirus, Togavirus, Flavivirus, Orthomyxovirus) to 10 (
Retrovirus) hours.
Q.9. Nested set overlapping subgenomic RNAs are produced
by - - - - - - ~ virus.
A. Coronavirus.
Q.l0. The full name of Acycloguanosine or acyclovir is
A. 9-(2-hydroxyethoxymethyl) guanine.
Q.ll. Acyclovir inhibits the - - - - - - - enzyme of
herpesvirus.
A. DNA polymerase.
Q.12. The uncoating of influenza virus is inhibited by - - - -
- - - - and - - - - - (anti-viral drugs).
A. Rimantidine and Amantidine.
Q.13. Tumour associated transplantation antigens are located in
the - - - - - - whereas the tumour (T) antigens are
usually found in the - - - - - - -.
A. Plasma membrane; nucleus.
Q.14. The interferon was discovered by - - - - and - - - in
1957.
A. Isaacs and Lindenmann.
Q.15. Nonmammalian vertebrates have interferon - - genes but
not interferon - - genes.
A. a.; a.
Q.16. - - - - - - - - viruses are cytocidal in cultured cells
but harmless in vivo.
A. Enteroviruses.
Q.17. - - - - - virus is non-cytocidal in cultured cells and
cause a lethal disease in vivo.
A. Rabies.
16
Chapter 4
Determinants of Host
Resistance
A. Write true or false about the followings.

Q.1. FMD virus causes a severe disease in European cattle but
not in the African buffalo.
A. True.
Q.2. Donkeys are more resistant to African horse sickness virus
than are horses or mules.
A. True.
Q.3. Zebras are refractory to African horse sickness virus
infections.
A. True.
Q.4. Non-primates and mice are susceptible to poliovirus.
A. False.
Q.5. Only primates and humans are susceptible to poliovirus.
A. True.
17
Chapter 5
Immune Response to Viral
Infections

Q.1. What is the predominant Ig present in colostrums of cow,
sow and mare?
A. IgG.
Q.2. What is the predominant Ig present in colostrums of woman
and bitch?
A. IgA.
Q.3. What is the predominant Ig present in the milk of woman,
sow, mare and bitch?
A. IgA.
Q.4. What is the predominant Ig present in the milk of cow?
A. IgG.
B. Write true or false about the followings.

Q.1. Tc and Td activities usually peak about 1 week after the
onset of a vrial infection and disappear by 2 to 3 weeks.
A. True.
Q.2. Memory Tc, Td and Th cells can persist for many years in
the host.
A. True.
Q.3. NK cells do not specifically recognize viral and/or MHC
antigens nor do they have Fc receptors.
A. True.
Q.4. NK cells activity is greatly enhanced within 1-2 days of
infection with viruses.
19
A. True.
Q.5. K cells plays a role in antibody dependent cellular
cytotoxicity (ADCC).
A. True.
Q.6. K cells have receptor for Fc of IgG molecule.
A. True.
Q.7. Dendritic cells are non-phagocytic and lack Fc and C3
r~ceptors.
A. True.
Q.B. IgM antibody is of diagnostic value in detecting recent or
chronic infection.
A. True.
Q. 9. IgM can cross the placenta to reach foetus during pregnancy.
A. True.
Q.I0. The presence of IgM antibody against a particular virus in
a newborn animal suggests intrauterine infection.
A. True.
Q.ll. The classical complement activation pathway is dependent
on antigen-antibody complex.
A. True.
Q.12. The alternate complement pathway is antibody
independent.
A. True.
Q.13. Both classical and alternate pathways of complement are
important in viral infections.
A. True.
Q.14. The activation of complement via the alternate pathway
appear to occur mainly after infections with enveloped
viruses bud through plasma membrane.
A. True.
Q.15. The Tc response usually peaks at about 1 week after
infection.
A. True.
20
Immune Response to Viral Infections
Q.16. The antibody response usually peaks at 2-3 weeks after

infection.
A. True.
Q.17. NK cell activity is maximal by 2 days.
A. True.
Q.1B. Interferon activity peaks with the peak of the infecting
virus.
A. True.
Q.19. Peyer's patches and tonsils make antibodies mainly of IgA
class.
A. True.

Q.1. - - - - - - mice have no NK cells.
A. Beige.
Q.2. In cow, sow and mare, the placenta is - - - - - - - type.
A. Epitheliochorial.
Q.3. In sheep and goat the placenta is - - - - - - - type.
A. Syndesmochorial.
Q.4. In dog and cat, the placenta is - - - - - - - - type.
A. Endotheliochorial.
Q.5. In mouse and rat the placenta is - - - - - - - type.
A. Hemochorial.
Q.6. During last few weeks of pregnancy in cow, the level of
IgG1 in colostrums may reach - - - -g/litre compared
to - - - - - g/litre in serum.
A. 40; 13.
Q.7. The concentration of IgG in chicken egg yolk is - - - g/
litre compared with - - - - g/litre in the maternal
circulation.
A. 25; 6.
Q.B. A laying hen produces about - - - g of IgG/year for
transfer to yolk.
21
A. 25.
Q.9. The half life of maternal antibodies in the newborn calf and
foal is - - days, dog is - - - days, cat - - - days and
mouse - - - days.
A. 21 ; 8-9 ; 2.
22
Chapter 6
Tumour Viruses

Q.1. How many types of lymphocytes involved in interaction
with virus or virus infected cells?
Ans. Seven. Four types of T cells, B cell, K cell and NK cell as
well as Macrophages including dendritic cells.
Q.2. What is the difference between benign and malignant
tumour?
A. A benign tumour is a lump produced by abnormal cell
proliferation, remains localized and does not invade
adjacent tissue. On the other hand, a malignant tumour is
usually locally invasive and may be metastatic i.e. spread
by lymphatic or blood vessels to other parts of the body.
Such malignant tumours are often referred to as cancers.
Q.3. What are sarcomas, carcinomas, lymphomas and leukemia?
Ans. Malignant tumours of epithelial cell origin are known as
carcinomas, mesenchymal origin as sarcomas and
lymphocytes as lymphomas (solid tumour) or leukemia
(circulating cells).
Q.4. What is carcinogenesis?
A. The process of development of tumours is termed as
carcinogenesis or tumorigenesis or oncogenesis.
Q.S. Who discovered the viral etiology of avian leukemia and
avian sarcoma?
Ans. Ellerman and Bang discovered the avian leukemia in 1908
whereas Rous discovered the avian sarcoma in 1911.
Q.6. What are the different malignant and benign tumour
producing viruses?
23
A. Many retroviruses and few herpesviruses cause malignant

tumors under natural conditions, while papillomaviruses
of many species of animals produce benign tumours of the
skin. Polyoma viruses and some adenoviruses are
tumorigenic only when inoculated into new born rodents
but not in nature.
Q.7. How many copies of RNA molecules are present in a
retrovirus?
Ans. Two identical copies of RNA molecules are present in a
retrovirus.
Q.8. What are defective retroviruses?
A. The rapidly tumorigenic exogenous retroviruses carry a
fourth gene, onc (abbreviated for oncogene) which is
responsible for the malignant change in the infected cell.
The oncogene is usually incorporated in place of part of
one or more normal viral genes and called defective
retroviruses. The replication of defective retroviruses
depend on the helper retroviruses. However, Rous sarcoma
virus is a non-defective retrovirus where viral oncogene
(v-src) is present in addition to complete copies of structural
genes (gag, pol and env).
Q.9. What are the exogenous and endogenous retrovirus?
A. The cDNA copy of a retrovirus is called provirus and may
be transmitted in the germline DNA from mother to
offspring. Proviral DNA is under the control of cellular
regulatory genes and normally totally silent. However, it
can be activated by various factors such as irradiation,
exposure to mutagenic or carcinogenic chemicals etc. On
the other hand, other retroviruses behave as more typical
infectious agents, spreading horizontally to contacts and
are called exogenous retroviruses. They do not occur in an
endogenous provirus form in nature. Most endogenous
retroviruses never produce disease can not transform
cultured cells and contain no oncogene in their genome.
Most exogenous retroviruses on the other hand, are
tumorigenic.
24
Tumour Viruses
Q.I0What are ecotropic, amphotropic and xenotropic

retroviruses?
A. Some endogenous retroviruses which replicate only in the
host species from which they originate are called ecotropic,
others replicates both in native and foreign hosts and called
amphotropic. Some replicate only in foreign host but not in
native host are called xenotropic.
Q.ll What is the difference between cellular oncogenes and viral
oncogenes?
A. Unlike viral oncogenes, (i) cellular oncogenes are located at
particular and stable positions on a chromosome of cells of
every individual of a species (ii) they contain introns (ill)
they segregate as classical Mendelian loci (iv) they are highly
conserved through evolution (c-src of drosophila and
humans are 95% homologous) (v) they are normally
transcribed at low levels. c-onc genes are essential genes
and may play key roles in normal regulation, division and
differentiation of cells. On the other hand, (i) v-onc genes
do not have intron sequence and cellular transcriptional
signals (ii) have substitution of a small number of
nuc1eotides by point mutation (Hi) deletion and/ or
rearrangement of some portions of the coding sequence. The
protein encoded by the v-src gene usually has similar
function attributes and intracellular location to the protein
encoded by the corresponding c-onc gene.
Q.12Why the virus inoculums are filtered through 0.22 Jlm/0.45
Jlm disposable filter before infecting cell culture?
A. 0.45 Jlm filters can exclude all the bacteria while 0.22 Jlm
filters can exclude all mycoplasmas as well as bacteria.
Q.13 Name one cell line each of the sheep, goat and avian origin.
A. The cell lines of sheep, goat and avian origin are not
available.
Q.14 Name one cell line of each species of animal.
Ans.Cattle - MDBK, bovine turbinate; Swine - PK-15, IBRS-2;
Dog - MOCK; Human - Hela; Horse - Ederm; Cat - CRFK;
African green monkey - Vero ; Hamster - BHK21.
25
Q.15. Why the serum is inactivated at 56°c for 30 min before using
it in eFT and VNT?
A. The complement and non-specific virus inhibitors are
inactivated in this process.
Q.16. What are the different inactivating agents used to inactivate
viruses in preparing vaccines?
A. Formaldehyde, a-propirolactone and ethylenimines.
Q.17. What are the adjuvants most commonly used in animal
vaccines?
A. Alum and mineral oils.
Q.l. Deletion of the oncogene removes the tumorigenicity of
the virus.
A. True.
Q.2. The rapidly tumorigenic retroviruses carry a viral oncogene.
A. True.
Q.3. The weakly tumorigenic (slowly transforming) viruses on
the other hand, contain no viral oncogene but can induce B cell,
T cell or myeloid leukemia with low efficiency after long
incubation period.
A. True.
Q.4. The transfection of the cultured cells with a DNA copy of
the oncogene alone linked to the viral LTR which contains
promoter and enhancer is needed to induce cell transformation.
A. True.
Q5. Oncogenes are necessary for viral replication.
A. False.
Q6. Viral oncogenes originate from cellular oncogenes.
A. True.
26
TurnOUT Viruses
Q.7. There are about 200 individual viral species in some 20

different viral families that infect eight major domestic animal
species (cattle, sheep, goat, swine, horse, dog, cat and chicken).
A. True.
Q.B. Corona virus and rhinoviruses do not grow well in
monolayer culture but grow well in explant culture (small cube
of tissue from trachea or gut).
A. True.
Q.9. Intracerebral inoculation of baby mice is the method of
choice for isolation of rabies, flavirus and togavirus.
A. True.
Q.I0. FMD virus has been found as contaminate in smallpox
vaccine produced in calves.
A. True.
Q.ll. Embryonated eggs used to produce vaccines may carry
retroviruses.
A. True
Q.12. Porcine parvovirus has been recognized as a common
contaminant of primary porcine cell culture and of crude
preparation of trypsin.
A. True.
Q.13. Live attenuated BHV-l vaccines are abortigenic and feline
panleukopenia, hog cholera, BVD and bluetongue vaccines are
teratogenic.
A. True.
Q.14. Canine parvovirus infection may be immunosuppressive
and it interferes with the response of dogs to vaccination against
canine distemper virus.
A. True.
Q.lS. Vaccination of cattle with inactivated FMD vaccine may
activate a latent infection with BHV-l.
27
A. True
Q.16. Attenuated live virus vaccines against avian
encephalomyelitis and infectious bursal disease are pathogenic
to young chicks.
A. True.
Q.17. Consumptions of veterinary vaccines worldwide is
estimated to be around 10 11 per year for a livestock population
of 1010 including poultry.
A. True.
Epidemiology to viral infections

Q.l. What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?
Ans. The incidence of a disease is defined as the proportion of
population contracting that disease during a specified period
(usually a year). The prevalence refers to the proportion of
infected population at a particular point of time.
Q.2. Name one disease each transmitted through milk,
contaminated garbage, dander, bite and arthropod.
Ans. Milk - Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus; contaminated
garbage - hog cholera; dander- Marek's disease; bite - rabies;
arthropod - bluetongue.
Q.3. What is iatrogenic infection?
Ans. The iatrogenic infection is acquired through use of
contaminated equipments such as syringe/ needle etc. Example
Equine infectious anaemia.
QA. What is vertical transmission?
A. The vertical transmission refers to the transfer of virus from
parent to offspring usually before birth or occasionally in the
perinatal period. It occurs via the germline, via the egg, across
the placenta or during perinatal period via milk. Examples Cattle
- IBR, BVO, BLV, BT; Horse - EHV-1, EAV; Swine - HCV, PRY,
28
Tumour Viruses
porcine parvovirus ; Sheep - border disease virus, Rift valley

fever virus, bluetongue virus, Nairobi sheep disease virus; Dog
- canine herpesvirus 1 ; Cat - FPLV, Feline leukemia virus ;
Chicken - avian encephalomyelitis virus, avian leucosis-sarcoma
virus.
Q.S. Name one disease where arthropod mediated transmission
is mechanical or there is no replication of virus in the vector.
A. Myxomatosis and fowl pox.
Q.6. Name one disease where arthropod mediated transmission
is biological or there is replication of virus in the vector.
A. Bluetongue.
Q.7. What are the examples of arthropod borne viral disease of
domestic animals?
A. The viral diseases which are transmitted through the
arthropod vectors are called arthropod borne viral diseases.
These are given in the following table.
Species Disease Vector
Horse Eastern equine encephalitis, Mosquitoes
Western equine encephalitis,
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
African horse sickness Mosquitoes
and
Culicoides
Equine infectious anaemia Biting flies
Swine African swine fever Tick
Japanese encephalitis Mosquitoes
Sheep, goat, cattle Bluetongue Culicoides
Sheep Loupingill Tick
Nairobi sheep disease Mosquitoes
SheeE and cattle Rift valley fever Mosquitoes
Deer Epizootic haemorrhagic disease Culicoides
Rabbit Myxomatosis Mosquitoes,
fleas
29
Q.8. What are the arthropod borne viral zoonosis?

A. These are arthropod borne viral diseases which can be
transmitted from animals to human and vice versa.
Disease Species Vector
Chikungunya Mammals Mosquitoes
EEE, WEE Birds Mosquitoes
VEE Mammals Mosquitoes
JE Birds & pigs Mosquitoes
Yellow fever Primates Mosquitoes
RVF Mammals Mosquitoes
Colorado tick fever Mammals Ticks
Kyasanur forest disease Primates Ticks
Louping ill Mammals Ticks
Tick borne encephalitis Mammals and Ticks
birds
Q.9. What are the non-arthropod borne viral zoonosis?

Ans. Rabies, influenza virus A, Ebola, Marburg etc.
30
Chapter 7
Papovaviridae
Write true or false about the followings.

Q.1. Papilloma viruses are naturally tumorigenic causing
papillomas (warts) in many species of animals.
A. True
Q.2. Bovine, human and rabbit pappillomaviruses in association
with certain co-factors may produce carcinomas.
A. True
Q.3. Papilloma viruses can be grown in cultured cells.
A. True
Q.4. Seven types of bovine papillomaviruses and 33 types of
human papillomaviruses have been identified so far.
A. False. Bovine - 6 ; Human - 32
Q.5. Bovine papillomaviruses 1, 2 and 3 are related serologically,
have same genome size and share DNA sequence.
A. False. BPV 1, 2 and 5 are related.
Q.6. Bovine papillomaviruses 4, 5 and 6 have smaller genome
size than other three and share DNA sequence.
A. False. BPV 3, 4 and 6 have smaller genome size and are
related.
Q.7. Papilloma virus DNA is not integrated into the cellular
genome but remain episomal.
A. True
Q.8. Papilloma virus antigen can be detected in the cells of
dermal layer of a papilloma proliferating excessively but
not in the keratinized cells at the surface of the papilloma.
A. False. It can be detected in the keratinized cells but not in
31
the cells of the dermal layer of a papilloma.

Q.9. The level of antibody is correlated with either growth or
regression of papillomas.
A. False
Q.10Warts are more commonly seen in cattle than any other
domestic animal and incidence is highest in calves and
yearlings.
A. True
Q.llCutaneous papilloma or warts are caused by bovine
papilloma virus 1,2 and 3.
A. True
Q.12. The papilloma due to BPV-4 occur commonly in alimentary
tract and urinary bladder and may progress to squamous
cell carcinoma.
A. True
Q.13. The ingestion of bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum) acts as
co-carcinogen in the transition of benign papilloma to
invasive carcinoma of the G.I. tract or bladder.
A. True
Q.14. Pedunculated fibropapillomas (frond papillomas) caused
by BPV-6 and rice grain papilloma caused by BPV-5 are
seen on the teats of cattle.
A. True
Q.15. Papilloma or warts are more common in cattle at pasture
than in housed cattle.
A. False
Q.16. Experimentally BPV-1 and 2 can produce tumours like
sarcoids in horses.
A. True
Q.17. Globally, cervical cancer is the leading cancer in women.
A. False. It is the second most common cancer in women in
the world.
Q.18. Globally sexually transmitted HPV infections are very
common in adults.
32
Papovaviritiae
A. True.
C. Fill in the blanks..

Q.l. About - - - - - - - - - new cases of cervical cancer in
women are reported annually in the world with a death
toll of - - - - - - - - - -.
A. 470000 ; 233000.
Q.2. About - - - - - - - - - new cases of cervical cancer in
women are reported annually in India with a death toll of
A. 125,000; 74,000.
Q.3. In India, cervical cancer in women accounts for - - - % of
all cancer cases followed by breast cancer which accounts
for ----%.
A. 24; 20.
Q.4. Of the more than 100 known human papilloma virus (HPV)
types, only - - - - are known to be transmitted through
sexual contact.
A. 37.
Q.5. Two vaccines against cervical cancer marketed by
Glaxosmithkline and Merck are - - - - - - - - and -
- - - - - - - - - respectively.
A. Cervarix ; Gardasil.
33
Chapter 8
Adenoviridae
A. Answer the followings. ,

Q.1 What are the different animal diseases caused by
adenoviruses?
A. Dog - Infectious canine hepatitis; Turkey - Marble spleen
disease; Chicken - EDS-76 and inclusion body hepatitis.
Q.2. What are the two genera of the Adenoviridae family?
A. Mastadenovirus and Aviadenovirus.

Q.l. Adenoviruses are icosahedral in shape with 252 capsomers
(240 hexamers, 12 pentamers and 20 equilateral triangles).
A. True
Q.2. There is a fiber of (20-50 nm) from each of 12 pentamers of
an adenovirus particle.
A. True
C. Fill in the blanks:
Q.1. Infectious canine hepatitis in dogs is also called - - - - -
A. Blue eye disease.

Q.2. Adenoviruses produce - - - - - - type of inclusion
bodies.
A. Intranuclear basophilic inclusion bodies.
Q.3. What is the causative agent of infectious canine hepatitis?
A. Infectious canine hepatitis is caused by canine adenovirus
type 1. It is characterized by respiratory or ocular disease,
encephalopathy, chronic hepatitis and interstitial nephritis.
35
The canine adenovirus 2 causes respiratory disease,

tonsillitis, pharyngitis, tracheitis, bronchitis and
bronchopneumonia.
36
Chapter 9
Herpesviridae

Q.1 Which virus is having hollow capsomers?
A. Herpesvirus.
Q.2 Which virus contains 150 hexamers and 12 pentamers?
A. Herpesvirus.
Q.3 Which virus glycoproteins possesses Fc receptor and binds
with normal IgG?
A. Herpesvirus.
Q.4 Which herpesvirus genome contains highest G+C %?
A. Pseudorabies virus (74%).
Q.5 Which herpesvirus genome contains lowest G+C %?
A. Canine herpesvirus (32%).
Q.6 BHV-2 is more closely related to human herpes simplex
virus than BHV-1.
A. True. The DNA homology between BHV-2 and herpes
simplex virus is 15%, whereas it is less than 6% between
BHV-1 and BHV-2.
Q.7. Describe the causative agent of IBRjIPBjIPV.
A. It is a notifiable list B OIE disease which includes
transmissible diseases that are considered to be of socio-
economic andj or public health importance within the
countries and that are significant in the international trade
of animals and animal products. There is only one antigenic
type of BHV1, irrespective of whether isolates are derived
from cases of IBR or IPV. On the basis of restriction enzyme
digestion patterns, three genotypes of BHV 1 can be
distinguished: subtype 1 (BHV1.1)- a respiratory subtype,
37
subtype 2 further subdivided into two groups (BHV 1.2a

and BHV 1.2b)- genital subtype and subtype 3 ( BHV 1.3 or
BHV 5)- an encephalitic subtype. Although, there is no
definite association between subtype and clinical entity,
subtype 1 strains primarily cause respiratory infections,
subtype 2 strains cause respiratory and genital infections
and subtype 3 strains have neuropathogenic properties.
BHV 1 subtypes 1 and 2a mainly cause the respiratory form
of the disease (!BR), fever, drop in milk production and
abortion and infections with these subtypes have a lethal
outcome. BHV 1 subtype 2b is responsible for IPV or IPB
and has also been isolated from animals with mild
respiratory symptoms or ocular disease. Although, BHV1.2a
isolates cause abortion, BHV 1.2b isolates are not
abortifacient. BHV1.1 is more virulent than BHV1.2b. BHV
1.3 or BHV 5 has been isolated from calves that died of
encephalitis and from an aborted foetus.

Q.1. Duck plaque or duck enteritis is caused by an
alphaherpesvirus and domestic as well as wild duck, geese,
swans and other waterfowls are equally susceptible.
A. True.
Q.2. Marek who discovered Marek's disease in birds was a
French physician cum pathologist.
A. False. He was a Hungarian physician cum pathologist.
Q.3. In Marek's disease, viral DNA is present as episomal as well
as integrated into the host genome.
A. True.
Q.4. Marek's disease virus can be transmitted in ovo.
A. False.
Q.5. Marek's disease virus and turkey herpes virus are closely
related and having 95% DNA sequence homology.
A. True.
Q.6. BHV-l can be transmitted through semen.
38
Herpesviridae
A. True.
C. Fill in blanks.
Q.l. - - - - - - - - - - is the site of latency of BHV-l in
respiratory form of the disease.
Ans. Trigeminal ganglia.
Q.2. - - - - - - - - -is the site of latency of BHV-l in
reproductive form of the disease.
Ans. Sciatic/ sacral ganglia.
Q.3. Bovine herpesvirus 1 (BHV-l) is the causative agent of - -
A. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (!BR), Infectious pustular

vulvovaginitis (IPV) or Infectious pustular balanoposthitis
(IPB).
Q.4. Bovine herpesvirus 2 (BHV-2) is the causative agent of -
A. BovLne mammilitis.
Q.5. Cell culture derived from almost any species support the
replication of - - -virus.
A. Pseudorabies virus.
Q.6. Pseudorabies (Aujeszky's disease) is caused by - - - - -
- -and primarily a disease of - - - - - - - - which acts
as primary host for a diverse range of secondary host - -
A. 1. Alphaherpesvirus 2. swine 3. cattle, sheep, goat, dog,

cat etc.
Q.7. Bovine malignant catarrhal fever is caused by a - - - - -
A. 'Y herpesvirus.
39
Chapter 10
Picornaviridae

Q.l. What is the meaning of the word 'Picorna'?
A. The term derived from the word poliovirus, insensitivity to
ether, coxsackie virus, orphan virus, rhinovirus and
ribonucleic acid.
Q.2. Who discovered FMD virus?
A. In 1897, Loeffler and Frosch discovered FMD virus.
Q.3. How many capsomers are there in a FMD virus?
A. 60. Each capsomer consists of single molecule of each of the
4 polypeptides namely VPl, VP2, VP3 and VP4.
Q.4. How many serotypes of FMD virus are present?
A. Seven serotypes of FMD virus have been identified by cross
protection tests and serological tests such as CFT, VNT and
ELISA. The 0 (Oise) and A (Allemagne) have been
discovered in 1922, C in 1926 and SAT-I, SAT-2 and SAT-3
from 1952-1958 and Asia-l in 1957. RNA hybridization tests
divide the types into two groups. (1) O,A/C and Asia-1 and
(2) SAT-I, SAT-2 and SAT-3 with 60-70% homology between
different serotypes within group and 25-40% between
groups.
Q.5. How the FMD can be diagnosed in animals from other
vesicular diseases?
A.
41
Disease Family Cattle Sheep Swine Horse

FMD Picornaviridae Susceptib Susceptible Susceptible Resistant
le
Swine Picornaviridae Resistant Resistant Susceptible Resistant
vesicular
disease
Vesicular Rhabdoviridae Susceptib Susceptible Susceptible Susceptible
stomatitis le
virus
Vesicular Caliciviridae Resistant Resistant Susceptible Resistant
exanthema
Q.6. What are the important diseases of animals caused by

picornaviruses ?
A.
Genus Virus Principal host Disease
Enterovirus Swine vesicular Swine Swine vesicular
disease virus disease
Avian enterovirus Chickens Avian
encephalomyelitis
virus
Ducks Duck hepatitis
Turkey Turkey hepatitis
Cardiovirus Encephalomyocar Mammals in Encephalomyocarditis
ditis virus contact with
rodents
Rhinovirus Bovine rhinovirus Cattle Rhinitis
fl-3}
Aphthoviru FMDvirus Cloven hooved FMD
s animals
Q.7. How many strains of poliovirus are present?

A. By neutralization test, poliovirus strains have been
classified into 3 types 1, 2 and 3. Type 1 is the commonest
and causes most epidemics.

Q.1. The FMD virus are unstable below pH 7.0, the rhinoviruses
below 5 but enterovirus and cardioviruses ar stable at pH
3.0.
A. True.
42
Picornaviridae
Q.2. Though stable at pH 3.0, cardioviruses are labile between

pH 5 and 6 in the presence of 0.1 M halide ions.
A. True.
Q.3. All the viruses of the different genera under the
Picornaviridae have a poly C tract in their genome.
A. False. It is present in the genome of aphthovirus and
cardiovirus but not in the genome of enterovirus and
rhinovirus.
Q.4. Sodium carbonate is effective against FMD virus
(aphthovirus) but not effective against swine vesicular
disease virus.
A. True.
Q.5.3D protein, coded by FMD virus genome is a RNA
polymerase.
A. True.
Q.6. Although, FMD is a disease of cloven hooved animals
(cattle, sheep, goat, pig, deer etc), it can affect llama and
camel.
A. True.
Q.7. In FMD, the mortality is low but morbidity is high.
A. True.
Q.8. More than 70 species of wild mammals belonging to more
than 20 families are susceptible to natural or experimental
infection with FMD virus.
A. True.
Q.9. Horses are also susceptible to FMD.
A. False.
Q.I0. Sheep and goats often show severe form of the disease.
Ans. False. Subclinical form.
Q.ll. FMD virus can be excreted in milk.
A. True.
Q.12. The carrier state of FMD has also been observed in swine.
A. False.
43
Q.13. The duration of immunity to FMD in cattle after natural

infection or vaccination usually lasts for 6 months to 1 year.
A. True.
Q.14. Live attenuated FMD vaccines are also available for use
in animals.
A. False.
Q.lS. SAT-I, SAT-2 and SAT-3 serotypes of FMD virus are
present only in South African Territory.
A. True.
Q.16. Avian encephalomyelitis virus is pathogenic to both young
and older chickens.
A. False. It affects chickens of 1-21 days of age but not older
chickens.
Q.17. There are many types of Avian encephalomyelitis virus.
A. False. Only one antigenic type is present.
Q.IB. Avian encephalomyelitis virus (AEV) produces relatively
mild encephalomyelitis in quail, turkeys and pheasants.
A. True.
Q.19. Only live attenuated Avian encephalomyelitis virus (AEV)
vaccine is available to control the disease.
A. False. Both live attenuated and inactivated vaccines are
available.
Q.20. Live attenuated vaccine can be used in young chicks to
control avian encephalomyelitis.
A. False. The virus is not sufficiently attenuated to be used in
young chicks. It is used at the age of 10 weeks and provide
protection of newborn chicks up to 21 days.
Q.21. There is only one serotype of duck hepatitis virus.
A. True.
Q.22. Like AEV, duck hepatitis virus also affects ducks less than
21 days of age.
A. True.
44
Picornaviridae
Q.23. Live attenuated vaccine is not available against duck

hepatitis.
A. False. Live attenuated vaccine is available against duck
hepatitis.

Q.1. In the carrier state of FMD lasts for - - - - - - in cattle,
- - - - -sheep and - - - -goats.
A. (1) 2 years (2) 9 months (3) 6 months
Q.2. - - - - - - - and - - - - - - - - - adjuvants are
used in inactivated FMD vaccines.
A. Aluminium hydroxide and mineral oil.
Q.3. - - - - -, - - - - - - - and - - - - - - - -
inactivants are used in inactivated FMD vaccines.
A. HCHO, AEI and BEL
Q.4. - - - - - - - - - - - and - - - - - - - - cell lines
are susceptible to FMD virus.
A. BHK-21 and IBRS-2.
Q.5. Swine vesicular disease of swine was first recognized in 1966
in- - - - (country).
A. Italy.
Q.6. Avian encephalomyelitis was first described in 1932 in - -
- - - - - (country).
A. U.S.A.
Q.7. Avian encephalomyelitis virus (AEV) can be isolated in
embryonated hen's egg by - - - route.
A. 5-7 days old embryonated eggs are used to isolate the virus
by yolk sac route.
Q.8. Duck hepatitis was first recognized in 1945 in - - - - - -
-(place).
A. New York.
45
Q.9. - - - - - -, developed a killed vaccine against polio.

A. Jonas Salk. Salk's killed polio vaccine is a formalin
inactivated preparation of three types of poliovirus grown
in monkey kidney tissue culture.
Q.I0. - - - - - , - - - - - and - - - - - - developed the
live attenuated vaccine against polio virus.
A. Koprowsky, Cox and Sabin. Live attenuated vaccine is
prepared by growing the attenuated strain in monkey
kidney cells.
A Write true or false about the followings.
Q.l. Most of the viral zoonoses are caused by arboviruses.
A. True
Q.2. In temperate climates, arbpvirus infection transmitted by
mosquitoes or sandflies occur mainly during summer
months when the vectors are most numerous and active.
A. True
Q.3. The infections transmitted by ticks occur most commonly
during spring and early summer months.
A. True
Q.4. Influenza viruses and pox viruses survive better in air at
high rather than at low humidity.
A. False.
Q.S. Housing cattle and sheep during winter often increases the
incidences of respiratory and enteric diseases.
A. True.
Q.6. Both feline calicivirus and feline viral rhinotracheitis virus
produce persistent infections.
A. True.
Q.7. Over 400 arboviruses are known and at least 66 cause disease
in domestic animals and humans.
46
Picornauiridae
A. True.
Q.B. 14 arboviruses are tick borne and 52 are transmitted by
mosquitoes, sandflies or culicoides species.
A. True
47
Chapter 11
Poxviridae
A. Answer the followings.

Q.1. Who first described the ASF disease in swine and where?
A. In 1921, Montgomery described the disease in domestic
swine in Kenya.
Q.2. When was the last case of smallpox reported in India?
A. Saiban Bibi, a 30 year old woman from Bangladesh found
with smallpox on the Karimganj railway platform in Assam
on 24th May, 1975 was the last smallpox case reported in
India.
Q.3. When was the smallpox declared eradicated from the Globe?
A. The last case of smallpox was detected in Merca, Somalia
on 26th October, 1977. The whole world was declared free
from smallpox in October, 1979.
QA. What are the different strains of vaccinia virus used to
prepare smallpox vaccine?
A. Elstree (Uster Instute), E.M. 63 (Moscow) and the New York
Board of Health strain.
Q.1. All the viruses under Poxviridae family are sensitive to
organic solvent.
A. False. Orthopoxviruses and most avipoxviruses are ether
resistant, whereas para poxvirus, capripoxvirus and
leporipoxviruses are ether sensitive.
49
Q.2. Poxviruses are resistant to ambient temperature and may

survive many years in dried scabs.
A. True.
Q.3. Both enveloped and non-enveloped pox virus particles are
infectious.
A. True.
Q.4. Cowpoxvirus can also infects domestic cats.
A. True.
Q.5. The diagnosis of cowpox can not made without laboratory
test.
A. True. A parapox virus (pseudocowpox) and a herpes virus
(bovine mammilitis virus) produce lesions similar to lesions
produced by cowpox virus on the teats of cows.
Q.6. The hog louse acts as biological vector while transmitting
the swine pox virus to swine.
A. False. The swine pox virus does not replicate in the louse.
Q.7. Myxovirus (orthopoxvirus) causes a localized benign
fibroma in wild rabbit (Sylvilagus sp.) and generalized
disease in the European rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus).
A. True.
Q.B. Parapoxviruses can produce pocks on the CAM of the
embryonated hen's eggs.
A. False.
Q.9. African swine fever virus is the only an arbovirus contains
DNA as genome.
A. True.
Q.I0. Ornithodoros tick acts as biological vector in the
transmission of ASF virus.
A. True.
50
Poxviridae

Q.1. The size of the different pox virus genome varies from - -
- - - - - to - - - - - - - .
A. 130 Kbp [Parapox virus ( pseudocowpox)]; 280 Kbp
[Avipoxvirus (fowlpox virus)].
Q.2. Swine pox is transmitted between pigs by the bite of - -
A. Hog louse (Hematopinus suis).

Q.3. Cowpox virus has a genome size of - - - - - - whereas
vaccinia virus has - - - - -.
A. 220 Kbp ; 185 Kbp.
Q.4. African swine fever virus is transmitted through - - - -
- - - of the genus - - - - -.
A. Soft tick; Ornithodoros.
51
Chapter 12
Parvoviridae

Q.l. Viruses of Parvovirus genus are having a positive sense
ssDNA genome.
A. False. Negative sense.
Q.2. The Parvoviruses are 20 nm in diameter and having 32
capsomeres.
A. True.
Q.3. Viruses under the Parvovirus genus replicate in the
cytoplasm of the infected cells.
A. False. It replicates in the nucleus.
Q.4. Parvoviruses can produce IjN eosinophilic inclusion bodies.
A. True.
Q.5. Feline panleukemia virus produces cerebellar hypoplasia
in kittens while the canine parvovirus produces myocarditis
in pups.
A. True.
Q.6. Feline panleukemia virus and Mink enteritis virus can be
differentiated by SNT and RE digestion of genomic DNA.
A. False.
Q.7. Feline panleukemia virus and mink enteritis virus can
agglutinate pig RBCs at 40C and pH 6.5 which is unstable
at room temperature.
A. True.
53
Q.B. Canine parvovirus can agglutinate pig RBCs at 4°C and pH

6.5 which is stable at room temperature.
A. True.
Q.9. In FPLV /CPV infections, infected animals may excrete 109
virus particles per gram of stool.
A. True.
Q.10. The FPLV may be carried to a distance of> 200 metre by
wind blown fomites.
A. True.
Q.ll. The faecal samples of CPV infected dogs with acute enteritis
may contain up to 20,000 HA units / ml.
A. True.
Q.12. The FPLV and CPV causes cerebellar hypoplasia in kittens
and pups respectively. A. False. The FPLV causes cerebellar
hypoplasia in kittens but CPV causes myocarditis in pups.
54
Chapter 13
Caliciviridae

Q.1. The size of calicivirus is slightly smaller than picornavirus.
A. False. It is slightly larger than picornavirus.
Q.2. The icosahedral capsid of calicivirus is constructed from
four polypeptides like picornavirus.
A. False. The calicivirus capsid is constructed from one
polypeptide, whereas the FMD virus capsid is constructed
from four polypeptides.
Q.3. The caliciviruses have 32 cup shaped surface depressions.
A. True. Calici is derived from the word calyx means cup.
Q.4. The calicivirus contains single copy of + sense ssRNA as
genome.
A. True. The calicivirus contains + sense RNA which can act
as mRNA and synthesize protein after moving to ribosome.
Q.5. The calicivirus is relatively resistant to heat and acid.
A. True.
Q.6. Vesicular exanthema of swine (calicivirus) was first
recognized in swine in 1932 in - - - - - - - - - - - -
(place).
A. Southern California.
Q.7. Both live attenuated and inactivated feline calicivirus
vaccines are available.
A. True.
55
Chapter 14
Togaviridae and Flaviviridae

Q.l. What are the symptoms of the CSF virus infections in pigs?
A. The acute form of the disease is characterized by high fever,
anorexia, depression, conjunctivitis, vomiting, diarrhea
and/ or constipation, paralysis of limbs, circling tremors and
convulsions.
Q.2. Where are the different countries where the equine arteritis
disease has been seen?
A. USA, Australia, Poland and Switzerland.
Q.3. Name the vectors and reservoirs of the Japanese B
encephalitis, Yellow fever and Dengue.
A.
Disease Vectors Reservoirs
Japanese C. trtaeniorhynchus Birds
C. vishnui
B encephalitis
Yellow fever A. aegypti Monkey, Man
Haemogogus spegazzinii (5.
America)
A. africanus, A. simpsoni (Africa)
Dengue fever A. aegtJpti, A. albopictus Monkey?
QA. How the CSF virus is transmitted?

A. CSF virus is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with
infected pigs or by ingestion of contaminated feed (swill).
It can also be transmitted through semen.
Q.5. What is the incubation period of CSF virus?
57
A. 7 days to 10 days.
Q.6. What diseases can confuse the diagnosis of CSF?
A. African swine fever, porcine reproductive and respiratory
syndrome, cumarin poisoning, purpura haemorrhagica,
post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PWMS),
porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS),
Salmonella and Pasteurella infection.
Q.7. How many genetic groups and subgroups are there in CSF
virus?
A. There are three genetic groups with 3 or 4 subgroups namely
1.1 -1.3, 2.1 -2.3 and 3.1 -3.4. European isolates are under
group 2, Russian and Cuban isolates under group 1 and
Asian isolates are under group 3.
Q.l. The togaviruses are spherical, enveloped and 60-70 nm in
diameter.
A. True.
Q.2. The togaviruses containes icosahedral capsid of 28-35 nm
in diameter.
A. True.
Q.3. The togavirus contains single copy of linear, + sense ssRNA
genome of 12 Kb.
A. True.
Q.4. The genome of the togavirus is capped at 5' end and
polyadenylated at 3' end.
A. True.
Q.5. All the members of the family togaviridae are arthropod
borne.
A. False. Only members of the genus alphavirus are arthropod
borne but not the rubivirus (rubella).
58
Q.6. Classical swine fever and equine viral arteritis are

transmiited through arthropods.
A. False.
Q.7. The genes for structural proteins of togavirus are located at
the 5' end.
A. False. The genes for structural proteins of togavirus are
located at the 3' end of the genome.
Q.8. Like togaviruses, flaviviruses also contain two envelope
glycoproteins.
A. False. Only one glycoprotein (gpE) is present.
Q.9. Like togaviruses, flaviviruses are capped at 5' end and
A. False. Flaviviruses are capped at 5' end but not
Q.10. Like togaviruses, flaviviruses contain genes for non-
structural protein at 5' end.
A. False. Flaviviruses contain genes for structural proteins at
5' end, whereas in togaviruses the genes for non-structural
proteins at 5' end.
Q.l1. Togaviruses and flaviviruses are very stable in the
environment.
A. False.
Q.12. Flaviviruses do not produce CPE in the cell culture system.
A. True.
Q.13. The infection of pregnant cows with BVD virus may result
in birth of weak undersized calf (weak calf syndrome).
A. True.
Q.14. If a pregnant cow is infected during 100-150 days of
gestation with BVD virus, there is cerebellar hypoplasia,
cavitation of the cerebrum and retinal hypoplasia of the new
born calf.
59
A. True.
Q.1S. The border disease in sheep is also known as 'hairy shaker
disease.'
A. True.
Q.16. The disease is called border disease because it was first
reported on farms in border areas between England and
Scotland.
A. True.
Q.17. The infection of pregnant ewes with border disease virus
may result in the delivery of dead or deformed lambs.
A. True.
Q.18.1f the pregnant ewes are infected with border disease virus,
lambs are born with excessive hair on the body, poor growth
and neurological symptoms.
A. True.
Q.19. Classical swine fever is also called European swine fever.
A. True.
Q.20. In classical swine fever infection, light skin swine exhibit a
diffuse hyperemia and purplish discoloration of the skin
on the abdomen.
A. True.
Q.21. The pregnant mares infected with equine arteritis virus
may abort.
A. True.
Q.22. The inner core of pestiviruses are electron dense and
hexagonal in shape.
A. True.
Q.23. Most of the CSF virus strains are non-cytopathic in nature
in cell culture.
A. True.
60
Q.24. Cytopathic effects of some isolates of CSF virus in cell

culture are due to defective interfering particles.
A. True.
Q.2S. In vivo CSF virus infections can induce apoptosis.
A. True.
Q.26. CSF virus can cause different forms of the disease
depending on age, breed and immune status of the animal.
A. True.
Q.27. CSF virus can cross the placenta of pregnant animals.
A. True.

Q.l. CSF virus can be isolated or grown in - - - - - - - cell
line.
A. PK-1S.
Q.2. Two envelope glycoproteins of togavirus which contain
neutralizing epitopes are - - - - - - - --- - - and -
A. El and E2.
Q.3. CSF virus is under the genus - - - - - - - and family -
A. Pestivirus; Flaviviridae.
Q.4. Piglets upto - - - - - of age exhibit acute form of the
disease.
A. 12 weeks.
Q.5. The typical haemorrhages in CSF are seen on - - - -, -
- - - - and - - - - - - - .
A. Ear, tail, abdomen and inner side of the limb.
Q.6. CSF virus is transmitted through - - - - - - ,- - - - -
- and - - - - - - - - .
61
A. Saliva, urine and faeces.

Q.7. The characteristic petechial to ecchymotic haemorrhages of
kidneys in CSF virus infected swine is called - - - - - -
A. Turkey egg.
Q.S. - - - - - - - - - - is found in large intestine
particularly in illeocaecal junction in CSF virus infected
pigs.
A. Button ulcer.
Q.9. Infection with CSF virus during early pregnancy may cause
A. Abortions, still birth, mummification and malformations of

foetus.
Q.l0. Infection with CSF virus during 50-70 days of pregnancy
may cause - - - - - - - - .
A. Persistently viraemic piglets. They are reservoir of virus
and shed large quantity of virus.
62
Chapter 15
Orthomyxoviridae

Q.1. How many types of surface projections are present on the
surface of the influenza virus?
A. Two types of surface projection are present: the rod shaped
haemagglutinin (H) and mushroom shaped neuraminidase
(N).
Q.2. How many types of Hand N proteins have been reported
in influenza A viruses?
A. 16 H and 9 N.
Q.3. Which term refers to point mutations that occur during
influenza virus replication?
A. Antigenic drift.
Q.4. Which term refers to gene segments from one influenza
virus recombining with those of another influenza virus?
A. Antigenic shift.
Q.5. Which strain of the influenza virus is involved in the current
outbreak in birds in Asia in 1997?
A. H5N1.
Q.6. Which species has been known to susceptible to avian and
human influenza viruses and can act as intermediate host
for a new virus formed by both types of viruses?
A. Pig.
Q.7. What types of cats have been infected with current avian
63
influenza virus?
A. Tiger, leopards and domestic cats.
Q.8. The current avian influenza virus appears to be resistant to
what anti-viral drug?
A. Rimantidine and Amantadine.
Q.9. What are the different species of animals affected by different
genera of influenza viruses?
A. Influenza A viruses affect avian, swine, equine, ferret, dogs,
mink, whale and human beings. Influenza B viruses can
cause disease in humans, ferret and seals. However, these
viruses have also been isolated from pigs and horses.
Serological evidence of infection has been found in pigs,
dogs and horses. Influenza C viruses have been isolated
from humans and swine. Experimentally, dogs can also be
infected. Serological evidence of infection has been found
in pigs, dogs and horses.

Q.l. The swine influenza, equine influenza and avian influenza
are causes by influenza A virus.
A. True.
Q2. Both antigenic shift and antigenic drift have been reported
in avian influenza viruses.
A. True.
Q.3. The influenza virus A, Band C are closely related and have
shared antigens.
A. False.
Q.4. The influenza virus can be inactivated at 56°C within 30
min.
A. True.
Q.5. The influenza A virus contains linear + sense ssRNA genome
with eight segments.
64
Orthomyxoviridae
A. False. It contains -sense ssRNA.

Q.6. The H and N polypeptides of the influenza virus are non-
glycosylated.
A. False. The H and N polypeptides are glycosylated.
Q.7. Both influenza A and C viruses can infect swine.
Ans. True.
Q.8. Swine influenza virus also infects turkeys and humans.
A. True.
Q.1. The equine influenza virus was first isolated in 1957 in - -
- - - - - - (place).
A. Prague.
Q.2. The influenza virus can be isolated in embryonated hen's
egg by inoculating either through - - - - - - - - or -
- - - - - - - - route.
A. Amniotic or allantoic.
Q.3. Influenza virus can be grown in primary - - - - - - -
- cell and - - - - - cell line.
A. Chicken embryo fibroblast or MDCK
QA. The pigs are principally infected with - - - - - -subtype
of influenza A virus.
A. H1N1.
Q.5. If C Pathogenicity test and IjV pathogencity test are carried
ou t in - - - - chicken and - - - - - chickens
respectively (age of the bird).
A. Day old and 6 weeks respectively.
Q.6. - - - - - - in 1931, first isolated the swine influenza virus.
A. Shope.
65
Q.7. The eight RNA segments of influenza A virus code for -

- structural and - - - non-structural proteins.
A. 7 structural and 3 non-structural proteins.
Q.B. Influenza viruses are under the family - - - - - - -.
A. Orthomyxoviridae.
Q.9. Prior to 1997, three pandemics were caused by - - - -, -
- - - - and - - - - - subtypes of influenza viruses.
A. H1N1, H2N2 and H3N2.
Q.10. There are 3 genera of influenza viruses namely - - - -
-, - - - - - and - - - - - - - .
A. Influenza A, Influenza B and Influenza C.
Q.ll. Pigs are susceptible to all subtypes of avian influenza
viruses in experimental condition but in natural condition
only viruses with - - - - haemagglutinin and - - - -
neuraminidase are reported.
A. H1, H3 i N1, N2.
Q.12. Two subtypes of influenza A viruses namely - - - - and
- - - - - have been isolated from horses.
A. H7N7 and H3NB. The former one is known as equine type
1 and the latter one as equine type 2. The equine 2 produces
more severe symptoms than type 1.
Q.13. The avian influenza virus can be isolated in - - - - - -
and - - - - - - cell line.
A. Hep-2 and MDCK cell lines.
66
Chapter 16
Paramyxoviridae

Q.1. What are the different types of enveloped glycoproteins
present in the Paramyxoviruses?
A. There are two types of proteins present on the surface of
the paramyxoviruses which are as follows.
1) Viruses under genus Paramyxovirus: HN (Haemagglutinin
and neuraminidase) and F(Fusion).
2) Viruses under genus Morbillivirus : H (Haemagglutinin)
and F (Fusion).
3) Viruses under genus Pneumovirus : G (Glycoprotein G) and
F (Fusion).
Q.2. How many different forms of Ranikhet disease are present
based on the clinical signs?
A. 1. Doyle's form (Viscerotropic Velogenic Newcastle disease
virus strains) 2. Beach's form (Neurotropic Velogenic
Newcastle disease virus strains) 3. Beaudette's form
(Mesogenic strains) 4. Hitchner's form (Lentogenic strains)
5. Asymptomatic enteric form.
Q.3. What are the different names of Newcastle disease?
A. Ranikhet disease, avian pneumoencephalitis, avian
distemper, avian pest, pseudofowl pest.
Q.4. What are the different strains of Newcastle disease viruses
used for vaccine production?
A. Lentogenic: Lasota, F, Hitchner B1, V4. Mesogenic : H,
Mukteswar, Kumarov, Roakin.
67

Q.l. The viruses of Paramyxoviridae are pleomorphic, usually
roughly spherical or filamentous with a diameter of 150-
300nm.
A. True.
Q.2. The paramyxoviruses are naked.
A. False. They are enveloped.
Q.3. The Paramyxoviruses are having single copy of negative
sense ssRNA of 18-20 Kb in length.
A. True.
QA. There is no detectable neuraminidase activity in
Morbillivirus and no detectable haemagglutinin and
neuraminidase activity in Pneumovirus.
A. True.
Q.5. The F protein of viruses under Paramyxoviridae family must
be cleaved into two disulfide linked polypeptide Fl and F2
to become biologically active.
A. True.
Q.6. The vaccines against Paramyxovirus can be highly effective
if it elicits antibodies against HN protein only.
A. False. The antibodies against HN and F protein must be
elicited to become highly effective.
Q.7. Syncytium formation in cell culture is a characteristic feature
of viruses under Paramyxoviridae family.
A. True.
Q.8. Although, paramyxoviruses replicate in the cytoplasm, they
produce both lie and I/N inclusion bodies.
A. True.
Q.9. Haemadsorption is readily demonstrable by all the viruses
under the Paramyxoviridae family.
68
Paramyxoviridae
A. False. Haemadsorption is seen in parainfluenza viruses,

some morbilliviruses but not with pneumoviruses.
Q.l0. The F protein is present in virus under Orthomyxoviridae
and Paramyxoviridae families.
A. False. F protein is present in the paramyxovirus but not in
the orthomyxovirus.
Q.l1. Quaternary ammonium compound, 0.1 % cresol, 1-2%
Lysol and 2% formalin can be used as disinfectant against
NDV.
A. True.
Q.12. There are many serotypes of NDV.
A. False. Only one serotype is present.
Q.13. There are two serotypes of rinderpest virus.
A. False. There is one serotype of rinderpest virus.
Q.14. For disinfection, NaOH, detergents and all commercial
disinfectants are used against RP virus.
A. True.
Q.1S. Domestic pigs can be infected by RP virus and develop
clinical signs.
A. True.
Q.16. All the wild animals under the genus Artiodactyla are
susceptible to RP virus.
A. True.
Q.17. Edward Jenner in 1809 first described the course and clinical
feature of the canine distemper disease.
A. True.
Q.18. There are many strains with varying virulence but only
one serotype of CD virus.
A. True.
69
Q.19. Newcastle disease has been reported in pigeons, guinea

fowls, Japanese quails and turkeys with mainly neurological
disorder.
A. True.
Q.1. Newcastle disease (ND) was first recognized in 1926 in
- - - - -(place).
A. Java.
Q.2. Parainfluenza virus 1 under the genus Paramyxovirus is
known as - - - - - - - .
A. Sendai virus.
Q.3. Parainfluenza virus 2 under the genus Paramyxovirus is
known as - - - - - - - .
A. Simian virus 5.
QA. There are three different strains of NDV namely - - - -
-, - - - - - and - - - - - - - .
A. Lentogenic, Mesogenic and Velogenic. The Lentogenic
strains are a virulent or mildly pathogenic. Mesogenic
strains are moderately pathogenic and Velogenic strains are
highly pathogenic.
Q.5. There are - serotypes of avian paramyxovirus (PMV) and
NDV is named as- --.
A. 9; PMV-1.
Q.6. The virulence of NDV is measured by - - - - - - - -
which is determined by lie inoculation of day old chicks.
A. Neuropathic index (NI).
Q.7. Lentogenic, Mesogenic and Velogenic strains of NDV have
---, --- &----
Neuropathic index respectively.
A. ~0.25, 0.6-1.8 and ~2.0.
70
Paramyxoviridae
Q.B. Occasionally humans are infected with NDV and show -

----, -------, -------- &-----
- - - (symptoms).
A. Conjunctivitis, laryngitis, pharyngitis and tracheitis.
Q.9. The canine distemper disease is also known as - - - - -
- -, as hyperkeratosis of foot pad and nose is seen.
A. Hard pad disease.
Q.l0. Newcastle disease virus is under the genus - - - - - and
family - - - - - - .
A. Rubulavirus; Paramyxoviridae.
Q.ll. The host range of canine distemper disease include species
of the families - - - - -, - - - - - - - - - and - - -
A. Canidae, Procyonidae and Mustelidae.

Family Species of animals
Canidae Dog, dingo, fox, coyote, jackal and wolf
Procyonidae Raccoon and panda
Mustelidae Skunk, badger, weasel, ferret, mink, marten and
otter
71
Chapter 17
Coronaviridae

Q.l. How many glycoproteins are present in the coronaviruses?
A. There are two glycoproteins in the coronavirus. (1) El -
transmembrane glycoprotein performs the role carried by
matrix protein of other envelope viruses and (2) E2- club
shaped peplomer and is important in cell attachment.
Q.2. What is the site of replication of coronavirus?
A. Coronaviruses replicate in cytoplasm and bud through
endoplasmic reticulum and golgi bodies.
Q.3. Why are they called 'Coronavirus'?
A. The coronaviruses are so named because large club shaped
peplomers projecting from the envelope give the particle
the appearance of solar 'Corona'.
Q.l Coronaviruses are having helical nucleocapsid with 10-20
nm in diameter.
A. True.
Q.2. The coronaviruses are pleomorphic, enveloped and having
a diameter of 75-160 nm (average 100 nm).
A. True.
Q.3. The coronavirus contains a single molecule of + sense ssRNA
of 17-24 Kb which is capped at 5'end and polyadenylated
at 3' end.
73
A. True.
Q.4. Coronaviruses were first reported as cause of diarrhoea in
calves in US in 1973.
A. True.
Q.5. Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) of swine was first
recognized in US in 1964.
A. True.
Q.6. Avian infectious bronchitis was first recognized in birds in
US in 1930s.
A. True.
Q.7. The laying hens infected with IB virus may lay soft shelled
and malformed eggs.
A. True.
Q.8. The IB virus can be isolated by inoculating the embryonated
eggs through- route.
A. Allantoic route.
Q.9. The IB virus causes stunting and curling of the chicken
embryo.
A. True.
Q.10. There are eight serotypes of IB virus within the two major
groups.
A. True.
Q.ll. Bluecomb caused by a coronavirus was first recognized
in turkey in US in 1951.
A. True.
74
Chapter 18
Rhabdoviridae

Q.1. Describe the different serotypes and genotypes of rabies
and rabies related viruses.
A. Rabies is caused by a number of different strains of the large,
bullet shaped with one end rounded or conical and other
planar or concave, single stranded negative sense RNA
viruses of the genus Lyssavirus, family Rhabdoviridae. The
rabies virus measures approximately 180X75 nm. The
RNA genome encodes 5 proteins: the glycoprotein G is the
primary structural component of the surface spikes
embedded in the viral envelope and is associated with the
smaller M protein. Enclosed by the host cell derived
envelope is an infectious viral core of nucleocapsid (N)
proteins, thus encapsidating the viral genome and the RNA
polymerases. The NS protein is associated with the
nucleocapsid.
Classical rabies is generally a fatal encephalomyelitis of
warm blooded animals caused by Lyssavirus genotype I,
with several different strains prevalent throughout the
world. With the discovery of rabies related viruses, the cross-
reactivity of internal antigens (the ribonucleoprotein
complex) was used to identify new viruses under the
Lyssavirus genus within the Rhabdoviridae family. Virus
neutralizing antibodies (VNAbs) which recognize the
membrane glycoprotein (G) or MAbs subdivided the genus
into six serotypes. Comparison of the viral nucleoprotein
gene (N) sequences delineated 7 genotypes. The genetic
diversity of representative members of the Lyssavirus genus
75
(rabies and rabies related viruses) using the sequence of

the gene encoding transmembrane glycoprotein revealed
two major phylogroups. Phylogroup I comprises the
worldwide serotype 1 [classic rabies virus and Australian
bat lyssaviurs(ABL)], serotype 4 ( Duvenhage virus),
serotype 5 [European bat Lyssavirus l(EBL-l) and serotype
6 [European bat Lyssavirus 2 (EBL-2). Phylogroup II
comprises the divergent African serotype 2 (Lagosbatvirus)
and serotype 3 (Mokola virus). The details of the rabies
and rabies related virus have been given in the table 1.
Comparison of the viral nucleoprotein gene (N) sequence
delineated 7 genotypes (1) Rabies virus (2) Lagosbat virus
(3) Mokola virus (MOKV) (4) Duvenhage virus (5) European
Bat Lyssavirus 1 (EBLV 1) subdivided into la and Ib (6)
European Bat Lyssavirus 2 (EBLV 2) subdivided into 2a and
2b and (7) Australian Bat Lyssavirus (ABLV). Rabies virus
is distributed worldwide among terrestrial mammals and
bats, presents the most comprehensive collection of isolates
and has been extensively studied due to its health and
economic significance. Rabies related viruses have so far
been isolated in limited geographical regions.
Q.2. What is Fermi antirabies vaccine?
A. Fixed rabies virus grown in sheep brain and treated with
phenol at 22oC. Some residual live virus is present. This has
caused vaccine induced rabies in some persons. It is no
longer used now-a-days.
Q.3. What is Semple antirabies vaccine?
A. It is a 5% suspension of sheep brain infected with fixed
rabies virus and inactivated with phenol at 370 C leaving no
residual virus. It was developed by Semple in 1911 at Central
Research Institute, Kasauli.
Q.4. What are the two diploid cell strains used in growing rabies
virus for vaccine production?
A. WI-38 and MRC-5.
76
Rhabdauiridae
Q.S. What are the different countries which are free from the
rabies?
A. Australia, Japan, Great Britain, Hawaii, Scandinavian
countries and most of the Islands of Caribbean basins.
B. Write true or false about the foIlowings.
Q.l. Rabies virus haemagglutinates goose RBC at 4°C and pH
6.2.
A. True.
Q.2. The haemaggulutination activity of rabies virus is inhibited
by heating at S6°C for 30 min or treating with ether, trypsin,
pronase, deoxycholate or tween 20.
A. True.
Q.3. The haemaggulutination of rabies virus is not inhibited
betapropriolactone.
A. True.
QA. Pups are more susceptible to rabies than adult dogs.
A. True.
Q.S. The fixed rabies virus is more neurotropic.
A. True.
Q.6. Rabies in animals is called hydrophobia.
A. False.
Q.7. The rabid animals do not show the symptoms of
'hydrophobia' .
A. True.
Q.B. The fixed rabies virus moves at a speed of 3 mm/hour in
the axon.
A. True.
Q.9. The movement of rabies virus from bite site to axon to the
neuronal body and ultimately to brain is called centripetal
77
migration.
A. True.
Q.l0. The movement of rabies virus from brain to salivary gland
and virtually every tissue of the body is called centrifugal
migration.
A. True.
Q.ll. The rabies virus may be shed in urine and milk.
A. True.
Q.12. Among human infections, rabies is believed to be the 10th
most common cause of death.
A. True.
Q.13. More than 99% of all human deaths from rabies occur in
Africa, Asia and South America.
A. True.
Q.14. Rabies is endemic in 100 countries where more than 2.5
thousand million people live.
A. True.
Q.15. Although, all mammals are susceptible to rabies, only
member of the canid, viverrid (skunks and raccoons) and
chiropteran (bats) species are considered as the most
efficient vectors of the diseases.
A. True.
Q.16. Bats are capable of transmitting all the genotypes of rabies
and rabies related viruses.
A. False. Mokola virus (genotype 3) is not transmitted by bats.
Q.17. The present English name 'rabies' is derived from Latin
meaning raging, furious, savage or madness.
A. True.
Q.18. The neurological reactions varies between 1 in 200 to 1600
recipients in Semple type anti-rabies vaccines.
78
Rhabdoviridae
A. True.
Q.19. The neurological reactions varies between 1 in 8000 to 27000
recipients in Fuenzalida type anti-rabies vaccines.
A. True.
Q.20. Rabies virus is stable between pH 3 and pH 11.
A. True.
Q.21. The dose of equine immune globulin is higher compared
to human immunoglobulin because of short half life of
equine immunoglobulin in man.
A. True.
Q.22. Bovine ephemeral fever was first recognized in 1867 in
Africa.
A. True.
Q.23. Rabies and bovine ephemeral fever viruses do not produce
any CPE in cell culture.
A. True.
Q.24. In vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV) infections, the pigs may
develop vesicular lesions on the snouts and coronary bands.
A. True.
Q.25. The VSV is a zoonotic virus and can produce influenza
like symptoms in humans.
A. True.
Q.26. In bovine ephemeral fever (BEF) ,there is a rise in plasma
fibrinogen but drop in plasma calcium.
A. True.
Q.27. In BEF virus infections, animals can respond well to
calcium infusion and non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs.
A. True.
Q.28. The BEF virus can be isolated in A. albopictus (mosquito)
cell culture or suckling mouse.
79
A. True.
Q.l. The rabies in postmortem materials is diagnosed by
immunofluorescent test of impression smears of - - - -
- - - - , - - - - - - - - - and - - - - - - - - - -
A. Medulla, cerebellum and hippocampus.

Q.2. - - - - - - - - - and - - - - - - - - - strains of
rabies virus can be used in preparaing anti-rabies vaccine.
A. Pasteur strain, Pittman and Moore, Street Alabama Dufferin
(SAD), Flury's strain.
Q.3. The rabies virus can be grown in - - - - - - - - and -
- - - - - - - - - - cell lines.
A. Vero, BHK-21.
Q.4. The rabies virus can be grown in primary - - - - - - -
- cells.
A. Chicken embryo fibroblast.
Q.5. The rabies virus can be grown in - - - - - - - - and -
- - - - - - - - - - diploid cell strains.
A. WI-38 , MRC-5.
Q.6. There are two strains of VSV namely - - - - - - - - -
and - - - - - - - - - - - .
A. New Jersey, Indiana.
Q.7. On the basis of clinical signs, there are two forms of rabies
- - - - - and - - - - - - .
A. Furious and dumb.
Q.8. According to WHO, there are - - - - - - human deaths
from rabies per year in the world.
A. 60,000.
80
Rhabdoviridae
Q.9. In India about - - - million people undergo anti-rabies

treatment annually with a death toll of - - - - - - people.
A. 0.7 i 30, 000.
Q.10. The encephalitogenic factor present in the sheep brain used
in preparation of anti-rabies vaccine is - - - - .
A. Myelin.
Q.ll. The rabies virus attaches to skeletal muscle cells via - -
- - - - - receptors.
A. Acetylcholine.
Q.12. - - - - - and - - - - - - are two tests usually carried
out to determine the potency of anti-rabies vaccine.
A. Habel's test and NIH test.
Q.13. The diagnosis of rabies from saliva or CSF in live human
beings is called - - - - - - test.
A. Intra Vitam.
Q.14. The murine neuroblastoma cell line namely - - - - - -
is the most susceptible one for rabies virus isolation.
A. CCL-131.
Q.1S. The cell culture anti-rabies vaccine must have - - - I.U.
per IjM dose as per WHO recommendation.
A. 2.5.
Q.16. In LEP and HEP anti-rabies vaccine - - - - - strain is
used.
A. Flury's.
Q.17. In primary chicken embryo cell based anti-rabies vaccine
- - - - - - strain is used.
A. Flury's (LEP).
Q.18. - - - - - vaccine is used to control rabies in wild
animals.
81
A. Bait.
Q.19. In the world, more than - - - - million people receive
post exposure vaccination against rabies per year.
A. 10.
Q.20. The purified Vero cell rabies vaccine contains the - - -
- strain of rabies virus.
A. Wistar.
Q.21. Although, modem cell culture based anti-rabies vaccines
are potent, one failure in - - - - - post exposure cases
does occur.
A. One million.
Q.22. The rabies vaccination of - - - - % dogs is sufficient to
break the canine transmission chain.
A. 80.
Q.23. The dose of human rabies immune globulin is - - LU./
Kg, whereas equine rabies immunoglobulin is - - - - -
LU.fKg.
A. 20; 40.
Q.24. Now-a-days, - - - - is used as inactivant to prepare
inactivated anti-rabies vaccine.
A. Betapropriolactone (BPL).
82
1. 1/1 Rabies virus Worldwide except Australia, Britain, Dogs, foxes, raccoons, bats 70,000 per year Wide range
Iceland, Ireland, New Zealand, in the Americas and others of mammals
Scandinavia
2. 2/II Lagosbat virus Central African Republic, Nigeria, Fruit bats :Etdololl /telllulII Not detected in Dogs,cats
Senegal, South Africa Micropteflllll pusiIllIs human being
Epo/llopltort/s wa1!lbergi
Senegal Insectivorous bats :
Nycteris galllbiellsis
South Africa, Zimbabwe Cats
Ethiopia Dogs
3. 3/II Mokola virus Cameroon, Nigeria Shrews 2 (Nigeria :1969, Shrews,
Ethiopia, S. Africa, Zimbabwe Domestic cats 1971) rodents,
Zimbabwe Dogs dogs and
Central African Republic Rodents cats
4. 4/1 Duvenhage virus S. Africa Insect. Bats : Milliopterus 1 (S. Africa: 1971) None
sc1treibersii detected
Zimbabwe Nycteris tltcbaica
5. 5/1 European bat Denmark, France, Germany, Hungary, Insect. Bats : EptesiclIs 2 (Russia,1985; Sheep and
lyssavirus EBL la Netherlands, Poland, Russian serotitllls Ukraine, 1977) stone
EBL Ib Federation France, Netherlands, Spain marten
6. 6/1 European bat Germany, Netherlands, Ukraine, UK Insect. Bats : Myotis 2 (Finland,1985; None
lyssavirus EBL 2a dasycllellle and M. Scotland, 2002) detected.
EBL2b Switzerland daubertollii
7. 1/1 Australian bat Australia Insect. Bats (Sacco/lliIIlIlS 2 (Aush'alia, 1997 None
lyssavirus f/al'tl'clltns) and 1998) detected
ABLV Philippines Fruit bats: Ptcro]1l1s a/ecto
P. pohoccplta/lIs
P. sm]1l1/atlls
P.colIspici//Il/IIS
Chapter 19
Retroviridae

Q.l. Describe the retroviral genome?
Ans. The retroviral genome is diploid containing two identical
molecules of RNA noncovalently linked at 5' ends. Each
haploid segment is a linear single stranded + sense
molecules of 5 Kb, which is capped at 5' end and
polyadenylated 3' end.
Q.1. The V-onc containing viruses are usually replication
defective.
A. True.
Q.2. Jnspite of having V-src gene, Rous sarcoma virus is not a
replication defective virus.
A. True.
Q.3. Oncovirus particles can be divided into 4 subgroups A, B,
Cand D.
A. True.
Q.4. All oncoviruses of veterinary importance belong to the
type C subgroup.
A. True.
Q.5. The internal proteins of different species of lentivirus (gag
and pol gene products) show extensive cross reactivity but
no cross reactivity with equivalent proteins of oncoviruses.
85
A. True.
Q.6. Oncoviruses but not lentiviruses replicate only in dividing
cells.
A. True.
Q.7. Lentiviruses are transmitted horizontally never in the
germline.
A. True.
Q.8. In Visna, a lentivirus disease of sheep, CSF contains upto
200 mononuclear cells/ml (normal 50 cells/ml).
A. True.
Q.9. Lentiviruses like other viruses are sensitive to interferon.
A. False. Lentiviruses are exceptionally resistant to interferon.
Q.10. Caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis (CAE) virus is naturally
transmitted to sheep.
A. False.
Q.ll. Experimental infection of sheep with caprine arthritis
encephalomyelitis virus causes arthritis.
A. True.
Q.12. CAE virus causes encephalomyelitis in kids 2-4 months of
old and arthritis in goats of about 12 months of age.
Ans. True.
Q.13. Out of 3 subfamilies of Retroviridae family, only members
of Oncovirinae subfamily contain tumorigenic/oncogenic
viruses.
A. True.
Q.14. Retroviruses are spherical, 80-130 nm in diameter and have
a three layered structure (i) genome nucleoprotein complex
having helical symmetry (ii) the icosahedral capsid enclosed
the internal structure (iii) the third layer is lipid bilayer/
envelope.
86
Retraviridae
A. True.
Q.1S. The RNA of the rapidly transforming oncoviruses in
addition to 3 genes for structural proteins contains a fourth
gene, the viral oncogen (V-onc) and associated with deletion
of part of env gene.
A. True.
B. Fill in the blanks.
Q.l. The Retroviridae families consists of three subfamilies
namely - - - - - - - , - - - - - - - - - and - - - -
A. Oncovirinae, Lentivirinae and Spumavirinae.

Q.2. There are about - - - - molecules of reverse transcriptase
enzymes in a retrovirus.
A. 30.
Q.3. Each retrovirus contains 3 genes - - - - - - - - - -
- - - and - - - - - - - - - .
A. Gag, pol and env. Gag gene encodes the virion core protein
(group specific antigen), pol gene encodes the reverse
transcriptase and the env gene encodes the virion peplomer
proteins (envelope).
Q.4. Equine infectious anaemia virus can be transmitted by -
- - - - - - - , - - - - - - - , - - - - - - - - and-
A. Tabanid flies, stable flies (Stomoxys sp.), mosquitoes and

midges.
Q.5. Equine infectious anaemia can be transmitted through milk,
saliva, urine and semen of viraemic horse.
Ans. True.
87
Chapter 20
Reoviridae and Birnaviridae

Q.1. What is the origin of the term 'Reovirus'?
A. The name 'reovirus' has come from respiratory enteric
orphan virus.
Q.2. How many genus are there under the Reoviridae family?
A. There are three genus under Reoviridae family (i)
Orthoreovirus (il) Orbivirus and (iii) Rotavirus.
Q.1. All the reoviruses are non-enveloped, spherical virions
about 70 nm in diameter which consists of two layers of
capsids.
A. True.
Q.2. The inner capsid of all reoviruses consist of 32 capsomers
in icosahedral symmetry.
A. True.
Q.3. All the orthoreoviruses, orbiviruses and rotaviruses are
resistant to lipid solvent.
A. False. Orthoreoviruses and rota viruses are resistant but
orbiviruses are sensitive to lipid solvent.
QA. All the orthoreoviruses, orbiviruses and rotaviruses are
stable over a wide pH range.
A. False. Orthoreoviruses and rota viruses are stable over wide
pH range but orbiviruses are stable only in narrow pH
89
range. (6-8).
Q.5. Although, iodophore and phenolic compound inactivate
the rotavirus but hypochlorite is ineffective.
A. True.
Q.6. The Bluetongue virus can cause congenital infections in cattle
and sheep with abortions and fetal abnormalities.
A. True.
Q.7. The bluetongue virus may be excreted through semen of
viraemic bulls.
A. True.
Q.8. African horse sickness virus can cause disease in horse, mule
and donkey.
A. True.
Q.9. Birnaviruses are non-enveloped, icosahedral virions of 60
nm in diameter with 32 capsomers.
A. True.
Q.I0. Birnaviruses are resistant to pH 3.0, ether and chloroform.
A. True.
Q.ll. There are four structural proteins which are gIycosylated
present in !BD virus.
A. False. Nonglycosylated.
Q.12. There are two segments of dsRNA (3.3. and 3.8 Kb) in !BD
virus.
A. True.
Q.13. IBD virus serotype II causes inapparent infections in
chickens and turkey poults.
A. True.
90
Reoviridae and Birnaviridae

Q.1. Although, orthoreovirus and orbiviruses contain - -
dsRNA segments, rotaviruses contain - - dsRNA
segments.
A. 10,11.
Q.2. There are - - - - - avain orthoreovirus which can cause
- - - - - - , - - - - - - - - , - - - - - - - - - - in
chickens, turkey and geese.
A. 11, arthritis, tenosinovitis, chronic pneumonia.
Q.3. There are - - - serotypes of African horse sickness virus.
A. 11.
Q.4. The African horse sickness virus can be isolated in - - -
old mice by - - - route.
A. 2-6 days, intracerebral.
Q.5. The concentration of rotavirus in faeces of infected animals
may be upto - - virus particles per gram.
A. 1011.
Q.6. There are - serotypes of !BD virus.
A. Two ( I and II).
Q.7. The !BD is most severe in - - old chicks but not in - - old
chicks.
A. 3-5 weeks, 1-14 days.
91
Chapter 21
Viral Diseases of Different
Animals
Q.1. What are the different generalized viral disease of cattle?

A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily Serotype Vaccines

No. or genus available
1. Foot and Picornaviridae / 7 Inactivated

mouth disease Aphthovirus
2. Rinderpest Paramyxoviriade/ 1 Live

Morbillivirus attenuated
3. Bovine Rhabdoviridae 1 Inactivated

ephemeral and
fever attenuated
4. Bovine viral Flaviviridae/ 1 Inactivated

diarrhoea Pestivirus and
attenuated
5. Malignant Herpesviridae 1 None

catarrhal fever ( y herpesvirinae)
6. Rabies Rhabdoviridae 1 Inactivated

(Lyssavirus) and
attenuated
93
Q.2. What are the different viral diseases affecting respiratory

system of cattle?
A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily or Serotype Vaccines
No. genus available
1. !BR Herpesviridae 1 Attenuated
(oherpesvirinae) / and
Varicellovirus inactivated
2. Parainfluenza Paramyxoviridae 1 Inactivated
-3 ( Paramyxovirus) and
attenuated
3. Malignant Herpesviridae 1 None
catarrhal fever ,( y herpesvirinae)
4. Bovine Paramyxoviridae 1 Attenuated
respiratory ( Pneumovirus)
~n9'tial virus
Q.3. What are the different enteric viral diseases of bovines?

A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily Serotype Vaccines available
No. or genus
1. Bovine viral Flaviviridae / 1 Inactivated and
diarrhoea Pestivirus attenuated
2. Bovine Reoviridae Several Attenuated vaccine
rotavirus I(rotavirus) [given to dam
Q.4. What are the different reproductive and neonatal viral

diseases of bovines?
A.
No. genus available
1. Bovine viral Flaviviridae / Pestivirus 1 Inactivated and
diarrhoea attenuated
2. IPV/IPB Herpesviridae 1 Attenuated and
(a herpesvirinae) / inactivated
Varicellovirus
3. Bluetongue Reoviridae (Orhivirus) 24 Inactivated and
attenuated
94
Viral Diseases of Different Animals
Q.5. What are the different viral diseases affecting skin of

bovines?
A.
No. 1genus available
1. Pseudolumpy Herpesviridae 1 None
skin disease I ( a herpesvirinae)
2. Cowpox Poxviridae 1 None

I(Orthopoxvirus)
3. Pseudocowpox Poxviridae 1 None
I(parapoxvirus)
4. Bovine Poxviridae 1 None
popular (parapoxvirus)
stomatitis
5. Lumpy skin Poxviridae 1 Attenuated
disease I(Capripoxvirus)
6. Bovine Papovaviridae 6 Autogenous
papilomatosis I(papillomavirus)
Q.6. What are the different generalized viral diseases of sheep

and goats?
A
No. genus available
1. Bluetongue Reoviridae (Orbivirus) 24 Inactivated
and attenuated
2. Foot and Picornaviridae /7 Inactivated
mouth disease Aphthovirus
3. Sheep pox Poxviridae 1 Inactivated
(Capripoxvirus) and
attenuated
4. PPR Paramyxoviridae 1 Attenuated
(Morbillivirus)

system of sheep and goats?
A.
95

No. Igenus available
1. Parainfluenz Paramyxoviridae 1 Inactivated
a-3 ( Paramyxovirus) and
attenuated
2. Visna-Maedi Retroviridae 1 None
I(Lentivirinae)
Q.8. What are the different viral diseases affecting alimentary

A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily or genus Serotype Vaccines
No. available
1. PPR Paramyxoviridae 1 Attenuated
I(Morbillivirus)
Q.9. What are the different viral disease affecting respiratory

A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily Serotype Vaccines
1. Sheep pox Poxviridae 1 Inactivated
(Capripoxvirus) and
attenuated
2. Goat pox Poxviridae 1 Inactivated
(Capripoxvirus) and
attenuated
3. Orf Poxviridae (Parapox 1 None
(Contagious virus)
pustular
dermatitis}
Q.I0. What are the different viral diseases affecting reproductive

A.
96
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily Serotyp Vaccines available

No. or genus e
1. Bovine viral Flaviviridae/ 1 Inactivated and
diarrhoea Pestivirus attenuated
2. Bluetongue Reoviridae 24 Inactivated and
I(Orbivirus) attenuated
Q.ll. What are the different generalized viral diseases of

swine?
A.
No. genus available
1. Foot and mouth Picornaviridae / 7 Inactivated
disease Aphthovirus
2. Hog Cholera Flaviviridae(pestivirus) 1 Attenuated

3. Pseudorabies Herpesviridae 1 Inactivated
(alphaherpesvirinae) and
attenuated
4. Swine vesicular Picornaviridae 1 None
disease I (Enterovirus)
5. Vesicular Calicivirus (Calicivirus) 1 None

exanthema of
swine
6. Vesicular Rhabdoviridae(Vesicul Many Inactivated
Stomatitis ovirus)

system of swine?
A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily or genus Serotype Vaccines
No. available
1. Swine Orthomyxoviridae Several None
influenza (Influenza virus A)

system of swine?
A.
97

No. genus available
1. Transmissible Coronaviridae Several Attenuated
gastroenteritis (Coronavirus) given to
dam
2. Rota virus Reoviridae (Rotavirus) Several Attenuated
infection of given to
swine dam
Q.14. What are the different viral diseases affecting reproductive

system of swine?
A.
No. genus available
1. Hog Cholera Flaviviridae 1 Attenuated
(Pestivirus)
2. Pseudorabies Herpesviridae 1 Inactivated

(alphaherpesviridae) and
attenuated
3. Japanese Flaviviridae 1 Inactivated
encephalitis (Flavivirus) and
attenuated
Q.1S. What are the different viral diseases affecting skin of
swine?
A.
No. genus available
1. Swine pox Poxviridae (Suipox) 1 None
2. Swine Picornaviridae 1 None

vesicular (Enterovirus)
disease
3. Vesicular Calicivirus 1 None
exanthema of (Calicivirus)
swine
4. Vesicular Rhabdoviridae(Vesicu Many Inactivated
Stomatitis lovirus)
98
Q.16. What are the different generalized viral diseases of

canine?
A.
No. genus available
1. Canine Paramyxoviridae(Morb 1 Attenuated
distemper iIlivirus)
2. Canine Parvoviridae 1 Attenuated
parvovirus (Parvovirus) and
inactivated
3. Infectious Adenoviridae 1 Attenuated
canine (Mastadenovirus) and
hepatitis inactivated
4. Rabies Rhabdoviridae 1 Inactivated
(Lyssavirus) and
attenuated

diseases of canine?
A.
No. !genus available
1. Canine Adenoviridae 1 Attenuated
laryngotracheitis (Mastadenovirus)
2. Parainfluenza -2 Paramyxoviridae 1 None

I (paramyxovirus)
Q.1B. What are the different viral diseases affecting alimentary
system of canine?
A.
SI. Disease Family/Subfamily Serotype Vaccines available
No. or genus
1. Canine Parvoviridae 1 Attenuated and
Iparvovirus I(parvovirus) inactivated
2. Canine Coronaviridae 1 Inactivated
coronavirus I(Coronavirus)
99

system of canine?
A.
No. genus available
1. Haemorrhagic Herpesviridae 1 None
disease of (alphaherpesvirinae)
Ipups

canine?
A.
No. 'genus available
1. Canine Papovaviridae Several None
papillomatos (Papillomavirus)
is
Q.21. What are the different generalised viral diseases of

cats?
A.
No. I genus available
1. Feline Parvoviridae 1 Attenuate
panleukemia (Parvovirus) d and
inactivate
d
2. Rabies Rhabdoviridae 1 Inactivate
(Lyssavirus) d and
attenuated
3. Feline Retroviridae 1 Inactivate
leukemia l(Oncovirinati d subunit

system of cats?
A.
100

No. genus available
1. Feline Caliciviridae (Calicivirus) 1 Attenuated
Calicivirus and
infection inactivated
2. Feline Herpesviridae 1 Attenuated
rhinotracheitis (alphaherpesvirinae) and
inactivated

system of cats?
A.
No. I genus available
1. Feline Parvoviridae (parvovirus) 1 Attenuated
panleukemia and
inactivated
2. Feline rota Reoviridae (Rotavirus) Several None

system of cats?
A.

No. genus available
1. Feline Parvoviridae 1 Attenuated
pan1eukemia (Parvovirus) and
inactivated
Q.2S. What are the different viral diseases affecting skin of

cats?
A.
No. genus available
1. Cowpox Poxviridae 1 None
(Orthopoxvirus)
101
Q.26. What are the different generalized viral diseases of

poultry?
A.
51. Disease Species FamilyjSubfamily or Serotype VaccInes
No. !genus available
1. EDS-76 Chicken, Adenoviridae Unknown Inactivated
duck and (Aviadenovirus)
turkey
2. Avian Chicken, Picornavirus 1 Attenuated
encephalomyelit duck and (Enterovirus)
is virus turkey
3. Avian influenza Chicken Orthomyxoviridae Many Inactivated
and turkey I (Influenzavirus A ).
4. Avian leukosis Chicken Retroviridae(Oncovir 1 Inactivated
inae) and
attenuated
5. Eastern equine Pheasants Togaviridae 1 Inactivated
encephalomyelit (Alphavirus)
is
6. Gumboro Chicken Bimaviridae 1 Inactivated
disease (Birnavirus)
7. Marek's disease Chicken Herpesviridae 1 Attenuated
I (Alphaherpesvirinae)
8. Ranikhet disease Most of the Paramyxoviridae 1 Attenuated

species of (Rubula virus) and
birds inactivated

system of poultry?
A.
SI. Disease Species Family/Subfamily Serotype Vaccines
1. Reovirus Chicken and Reoviridae 11 None
infections other birds (Reovirus)
2. Infectious Chicken Coronaviridae Several Attenuated
bronchitis Coronavirus)
3. Infectious Chicken Herpesviridae 1 Attenuated
laryngotracheit (Alphaherpesvirina
is e)
102

system of poultry?
A.
SI. Disease Species Family/Subfamil Serotype Vaccines
No. Iy or genus available
1. Duck hepatitis Duck and Picornaviridae 1 Attenuate
turkey (Enterovirus)
t d
2. Duck plaque Duck Herpesviridae 1 None
(Alphaherpesviri
nae)

poultry?
A.
SI. Disease Species Family/Subfamil Serotype Vaccines
No. y or genus available
1. Avian pox All species Poxviridae 1 Attenuated
of birds (Avipox virus)
Q.30. What are the generalized viral diseases of horses?

A.
No. genus available
1. African horse Reoviridae (Orbivirus) 9 Attenuated
sickness
2. Borna Unclassified 1 None
3. Eastern equine Togaviridae (alphavirus) 1 Inactivated
encephalitis
4. Equine Arteriviridae ,I Attenuated
arteritis (Arterivirus)
5. Equine Retroviridae 1 None
infectious (Lentivirinae)
anaemia
6. Western Togaviridae (Alphavirus) 1 Inactivated
equine
encephalitis
7. Venezuelan Togaviridae (Alphavirus) 7 Inactivated
equine
enc~halitis
103

system of horses?
A.
No. Igenus available
1. Equine Herpesviridae 2 Inactivated
rhinopneumon (alphaherpesvirinae) and
itis attenuated
2. Equine Orthomyxoviridae 2 Inactivated
influenza I(Influenzavirus A)
Q.32. What are the different reproductive and neonatal viral
diseases of horses?
A.
No. genus available
1. Equine Herpesviridae 1 Inactivated
abortion (alphaherpesvirinae) and
attenuated
2. Equine Arteriviridae 1 Attenuated
arteritis (Arterivirus)
3. Equine coital Herpesviridae 1 None
exanthema (aIphaherpesvirinae)

horses?
A.
No. genus available
1. Equine Papovaviridae (papilloma Several None
papillomatosis virus)
2. Vesicular Rhabdoviridae 7 None
stomatitis (Vesiculovirus)
104
Chapter 22
Laboratory Diagnosis of Viral
Diseases
Prompt, accurate and reliable diagnosis of viral diseases of

animals is of paramount importance to adopt the necessary
measures to prevent and control diseases at the earliest and to
avoid the huge economic losses. Diagnostic virology is expensive
and time consuming. There are two kinds of tests to diagnose a
viral infection in an animal : (1) those that demonstrate the
presence of the virus and (2) those that demonstrate the presence
of antibodies to specific virus. The diagnosis of viral infections
of domestic animals is a daunting task as there are about 200
individual viral within 20 different viral families that infect 8
major domestic animal species (Cattle, sheep, goat swine, horse,
dog, cat and chicken). If the antigenic types within an individual
viral species are considered and the number of animal species is
broadened to include turkey, duck and zoo and laboratory
animals then the number of individual viruses exceeds 1000.
Lack of proper facilities in most of the virological laboratories,
technical manpower and non-availability of rare chemical and
equipments, often results in difficulty in providing diagnosis of
the animal diseases in time. Very few laboratories are having
necessary modern facilities in terms of reagents and equipments
along with the scientific manpower with skills, expertise and
experiences for the diagnosis of a vast array of animal diseases.
With the development of newer and rapid techniques including
the molecular techniques for diagnosis of viral infections of
animals, diagnostic virology in rapidly becoming a routine
procedure in most of the laboratories. Now-a-days many
companies are marketing different diagnostic kits for the
diagnosis of a galaxy of animal diseases.
105

Q.1. What type of specimens should be collected from animals
for diagnosis of different viral diseases of animals?
A. For rapid and accurate diagnosis of viral infections,
specimens should be collected from animals as soon as possible
during the acute phase of the disease. Specimens can be collected
both from the live as well as dead animals.
Q.2. How to collect the specimens from animals?
A. Specimens should be taken as early as possible in the acute
phase of the illness. To check the bacterial contamination, all
samples including blood samples should be taken aseptically.
Swabs and other samples should be placed in virus transport
medium (VTM). This is actually a buffered solution (PBS, HBSS,
Earle's solution, NSS etc.) containing protein and antibiotics.
Protein acts as a protective agent and to be added @ 1 % in the
form of BSA or skimmed milk powder or faetal calf serum (FCS).
The source of protein is not important provided the protein is
sterile, free from viruses and antibodies or viral inhibitors.
Antibiotics usually penicillin and streptomycin but gentamycin
and antifungal compounds may be used to check the bacterial
or fungal growth and should be included at concentration
inhibitory to bacterial fungi but nontoxic to cell culture. It must
also be remembered that rickettsiae and chlamydial may be
susceptible to penicillin, which should not be added to transport
media for these agents. VTM should be prepared sterile and
distributed in 2 ml quantities in suitable sterile glass/plastic
containers. A pH indicator should be included and VTM should
always maintain the neutral pH. The tissue specimen for
histopathological examination should be collected and fixed as
soon as after death to avoid autolytic changes. The tissue of
appropriate size should be collected in 10% formol saline in a
sterile container.
1) Nasal swabs: The cotton swabs are made and sterilized by
autoclaving. Now-a-days ready made sterilized cotton swabs are
available in the market. To take nasal swabs, the animal is kept
in a standing position with head slightly raised. The swab is
106
Laboratory Diagnosis of Viral Diseases
moistened with transport medium and gently introduced into

the nostrils, rotated gently to be coated with nasal secretion. After
removal, the swab is broken off into a tube or bottle or transport
medium. Throat swabs are also collected in a similar manner.
2) Rectal swabs : The cotton swabs are made and sterilized
by autoclaving. The swab is moistened with transport medium
and gently inserted through the anal sphincter and gently rotated.
The swab is finally withdrawn and broken off into the tube with
transport medium.
3) Faecal samples : Although, faeces are naturally
contaminated with bacteria, it is essential that stools are collected
aseptically. Diarrhoeic faeces should be collected directly from
the animal rather than from the ground with the help of a cotton
swab or gloved finger. Plastic bags may also be used.
4) Vesicles and vesicular fluid: The vesicles on the mucous
membranes such as tongue, gum, dental pads are collected using
sterile precautions. In large animals, the animal is restrained,
the tongue is taken out using muslin cloth/ surgical gauze and
vesicles are collected using sterile forceps/scissors in the
transport medium. Vesicular fluid also can be collected with the
help of cotton swabs and broken off into a bottle of transport
medium.
5) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) : The CSF can be collected from
the cerebellomedullary cistern or the lumbosacral space. The
lumbar puncture is the preferred one. A lumbar puncture is
made between 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae. A needle of 1.5 cm
is inserted between the vertebrae and CSF withdrawn with a
syringe.
6) Lesion scrapings : In cutaneous lesion, the skin is first
sterilized by swabbing with diethyl ether. A sterile scalpel is
used to remove suitable material and put in the transport
medium for further laboratory examination.
7) Urine: The urethra is washed and sterilized and the urine
is collected directly into a sterile container.
107
8) Saliva: It is directly collected into a sterile container.

9) Blood : The skin is first sterilized by swabbing with ethyl
alcohol or tincture of iodine. The needle is carefully inserted
into the vein with a 10 ml syringe fitted with appropriate needle
required for different species of animals and requisite volume
of blood is collected in a sterile container containing the anti-
coagulant. A sterile cotton is held to arrest the bleeding. Blood
is collected from jugular vein of sheep, goat, equines and bovines,
from anterior vena cava of pigs and from tarsal veins of dogs.
10) Serum: The blood is collected as described above in sterile
glass test tube and kept in flat position. After clotting, liquid
phase is collected as serum for serological examination. It is
necessary to collect two specimens at an interval of 2-3 weeks.
Q.3. How to transport the specimens to the laboratory?
A. After collecting the specimens in VTM, it is to be packed
properly before sending it to a suitable laboratory. Packaging
has three main purposes: to maintain the specimen's viability,
to prevent it leaking outside the package and to prevent cross
contamination. The packaging should be in three layers.
1) A primary receptacle - containing the specimen itself. This
must be water tight and where volatile buffers are used it
must be air tight. Plastic or glass vials/containers with screw
caps are usually used as primary receptacle. Screw caps
and other lids should be taped to prevent accidental
loosening.
2) Secondary packaging- This is a water tight secondary layer
enclosing enough absorptive material (tissue paper,
absorbent cotton, wool etc.) to absorb all the fluid of the
specimen in case of leakage. Polythene bag is generally used
as secondary packaging.
3) Outer packaging- It is intended to protect the secondary
packaging from outside influence viz., physical damage and
water during transit. Metal, wooden or plastic container/
box with tightly fitting lid are generally used as outer
packaging.
108
Biological materials survive better at low temperature. So, it is

desirable to maintain the low temperature during the shipment
of the specimens. Refrigeration may be achieved by using solid
CO2, wet ice or frozen pads. Repeated freezing and thawing
should be avoided as this may cause loss of titre. The outer
package should be kept inside an icebox containing refrigerant
in such a way as to keep the two in contact.
The collected materials/ samples in VfM can be sent to a nearby
laboratory for diagnosis by keeping it on ice through a messenger.
However, samples should be properly packed before sending it
to a distant laboratory through messenger, mail, post, freight,
courier etc. Viruses require living cells to grow. The amount of
virus in a specimen will not increase after it has been taken but
will decline and the rate of declining depend on the temperature
and other condition. It is therefore important that the time in
transit should be as short as possible. The temperature is the
major factor in virus survival during transit. Viruses vary
considerably in heat stability. Surface proteins are denatured
within few minutes at temperature of 55-60°C with the result
that the virion is non-infectious, because it is no longer capable
of normal cellular attachment and/ or uncoating. At ambient
temperature, the rate of decay of infectivity is slower but
significant, especially in hot summer weather or in the tropics in
any season. Viruses must be stored at low temperature, 4°C (ice
or a refrigerator) is usually satisfactory for a day or so but long
term preservation requires temperature well below zero. Two
convenient temperatures are -79°C, the temperature of frozen
CO2 (dry ice) and of some freezers or-196°C, the temperature of
liquid N2 • As a thumb rule, the half life of most of the viruses can
be measured in seconds at 60°C, minutes at 37DC, hours at 20°C,
days at 4°C and years at -79°C or lowers.
Q.4. How to process the specimens in the laboratory to isolate
the virus?
A. On arrival in the laboratory, the specimens are processed
immediately or refrigerated until processed. For inoculation into
animaIj cell culture/embryonated eggs (EE), swabs are shaken
in fluid medium, faeces are dispersed in fluid medium and tissue
109
specimens are homogenized in a high speed blender/pestle and

mortar with the help of an abrasive like powdered glass or sand.
Good quality hard sand should be properly washed in distilled
water, treated with HCI, washed thoroughly, dried and sterilized
before use. Generally, the infective tissue is homogenized in a
few ml of buffer usually having a pH of 7.2 to 7.3 to make about
10% tissue suspension. The suspension is centrifuged at about
1000g for 10-15 minutes to sediment the tissue debris and coarse
materials. In the supernatant, antibiotics are added @ 10,000
units of penicillin and 10 mg of streptomycin per ml of fluid
and allowed to act for about 30 minutes at room temperature.
The supernatant is collected and usually passed through a 0.45
/lm disposable syringe filter to remove contaminating non-viral
organisms. This inoculum is now ready to be inoculated into
cell culture/ anirnaljEE. Clinical specimens processed in this way
are generally suitable for detection of viral antigens/DNA/RNA
by in vitro tests.
Q.5. How to inoculate the virus into the embryonated eggs by
different route?
A. Embryonated eggs form a good medium to cultivate viruses
particularly the viruses of poultry, being a natural host, free from
antibodies, small to handle and naturally protected from
contamination. The eggs used for this work should preferably
be from specific pathogen free (SPF) flock or at least disease free
flock because some of the organisms get passed into eggs from
the layer hens. The eggs for this work should be kept in a small
egg incubator of about 100 or more eggs capacity kept at 37°C.
Humidity is maintained at 60% by keeping a trough containing
water. Eggs should be turned once or twice a day. Depending
on t.lte type of virus, different routes of inoculation are used.
(A) Inoculation into Yolk sac: It is done in 5 to 7 or 8 days old
fertile eggs to grow rabies, avian encephalomyelitis virus,
Marek's disease virus, chicken infectious anaemia virus,
infectious bronchitis virus, chlamydia and mycoplasma.
Method: The fertile eggs are candIed in a dark room in an egg
candler which can be made by making a hole in an ordinary
110
wooden box with an electric bulb inside the box. Discard eggs
which are cracked, infertile and having dead embryos. Living
embryos will show blood vessels of CAM and dead ones will
not show blood vessels. By candling, mark the air space with a
lead pencil. At the top of the air space make a small hole after
disinfecting it with 70% alcohol with the help of dentist's drill.
The specimen is taken in a small tuberculin (1 ml) syringe fitted
with 23 gauge and 1.5" long needle. The egg with hole is kept
vertically in an egg tray keeping the hole top most. The needle is
introduced vertically through the hole till almost entire length
of the needle enters the egg. Now about 0.2 to 0.25 ml of inoculum
is slowly pushed from the syringe into the egg. The hole is sealed
immediately with hot wax. The eggs are incubated at 35-3J'OC
under 60-70% humidity. They are kept vertically, undisturbed
for 10 days before harvesting the embryos. For this, eggs are
candied, cut the egg shell 1 mm above the air space mark. The
shell cap is removed with a scalpel. Now, with the help of a sterile
forceps CAM and amniotic sac are removed from the top and
embryos and yolk sacs are harvested and noted for any changes.
(B) Inoculation into CAM: This method is generally used for
isolation of IBD, avian pox, cow pox and buffalo pox viruses.
Method: Embryonated eggs incubated for 10-12 days are taken
from disease free and preferably SPF flock. The eggs are candied
and one triangle of 1-1.5 cm sides is marked with a pencil. The
area should not have any major blood vessels. The dentist's drill
is used to carefully cut the shell along the lines of the triangle.
The CAM lies just below the shell and care must be taken not to
damage it. The cut piece of shell is slowly and carefully lifted
with a sharp scalpel or needle. With a sterile needle, a small slit
is made in the shell membrane. Now a small hole is drilled
through the shell and shell membrane in the centre of the air
cell. A rubber bulb is used to apply suction at the hole. By suction,
an artificial air cell forms in the area of the cut triangular shell
because air can enter through the slit made in the shell membrane,
in the triangular area. The outer wall of the air cell is formed by
the shell membrane and the inner wall by the CAM. 0.1 ml to 0.5
ml inoculum can be put on the CAM, by a syringe, through the
111
slit. After inoculation, the openings on the natural air cell and
the artificial air cells, are sealed with the molten paraffin wax.
(C) Inoculation into allantoic cavity: This method is generally
done to isolate ND, avian influenza and adenoviruses.
Method : 9 to 11 days old embryo eggs are used. The eggs are
candIed and air sac is marked with pencil. A small hole is drilled
about 3 mm inside the margin of the air cell, piercing shell and
shell membrane. The egg is kept vertically with the air cell on
top. A tuberculin syringe fitted with a 5/8" long needle is filled
with the inoculum. The needle is pushed vertically through the
hole and 0.3 ml of inoculum is pushed into the allantoic sac. The
hole is sealed and incubation is done as above.
(D) Intravenous inoculation : This method is generally used to
inoculate the bluetongue virus. This method is extremely difficult
and require special expertise and skill. 9 to 12 days old chicken
embryo are candIed and superficial large blood vessel is marked
with a pencil. The egg surface is disinfected and a triangle is cut
out around the marked area of blood vessel leaving shell
membrane intact. The shell is removed and eggs are kept on the
tray with the exposed vein on the top. A drop of mineral oil is
applied on the triangular area to make the vein more distinct.
A tuberculin syringe fitted with 26 gauge needle is pierced slowly
parallel to the vein and 0.2 ml of inoculum is injected followed
by incubation at 37°C.
Q.6. What are the points to be considered while inoculating the
embryonated eggs by different routes?
A. (1) Eggs from hens vaccinated against the disease under
investigation should not be used.
(2) Eggs must be sterilized with cotton soaked with ethyl alcohol
before inoculation.
(3) Fertile eggs with well developed blood vessels and jerking
movements indicating a developing embryo should be used.
(4) The embryo should be examined immediately after death
preferably after keeping at 4°C for 1/2 to 1 hour to minimize
bleeding.
112
(5) Eggs should be opened near a flame or inside a laminar flow

if the material is to be used for further tests or passage.
(6) Allantoic fluid is removed by breaking the egg shell on the
air sac, then removing the shell membrane and CAM and fluid
is sucked with a pipette.
(7) CAM should be examined by keeping the membrane in a
petridish against a black background.
(8) About15% embryos die normally and should not be regarded
as death due to virus.
(9) Some viruses need blind passages of embryonic material to
detect pathogenicity in embryo.
Q.7. What are the animal/poultry viruses can be isolated/
cultivated in embryonated eggs inoculated by different
routes?
A.
SI. Route of Age of Volume of Type of virus
No. inoculation embryo inoculation
(days) t(ml)
1. CAM 10-12 0.1 CD, ILT, fowlpox, buffalo pox,
sheep pox, goat pox, PRV,
HSV, VZV, Vaccinia, IBD,
reovirus, ALC
2. Allantoic 9-12 0.1 RD, IB, avian influenza,
mumps
cavity
3. Amniotic 7-15 0.1 Influenza, mumps, duck viral
hepatitis
cavity
4. Yolk sac 5-8 0.1 Mumps, rabies, IBH-
hydropericardium syndrome,
chicken infectious anaemia,
MD, avian encephalomyelitis,
ALC
5. I/V 9-12 0.1 Bluetongue. ALC
6. l/C 8-14 0.1 Rabies,HSV
113
Q.8. What are different cell lines used to isolate the different
animaIj poultry viruses?
A.
Serial Viruses Celljcelllines used
No
1. FMDvirus BHK21, PK15, IB-RS-2, bovine kidney, Hela and Hep2
2. PPR virus Vero, bovine kidney, bovine testis and B95a
3. RP virus Same as PPR virus
4. IBR virus MDBK, WI38
5. BTvirus BHK21, Vero, Bovine and ovine embryonic kidney
and testis
6. Canine CRFK, MDCK, canine kidney, feline kidney
parvo
virus
7. Rabies CEF, MEF, pig kidney, dog kidney, hamster kidney,
BHK21, WI38, MRCS, Human embryonic lung
8. Sheep pox Kidney and testis of sheep, goat and calf, MDBK,
and Vero and BHK21
Igoatpox
9. Swine Kidney, testis, bone marrow, spleen, lymph node of
fever swine,PK15
Q.9. How the effect of viruses can be recognized in cell culture
system?
A. Virus growth in cell culture can be monitored through
appearance of cytopathic effects (CPE) in cell culture. CPE
(rounded cell, granularity, vacuolization, syncytia formation etc.)
gradually becomes visible over the time during the replication
process. The formation of inclusion bodies is also evident in virus
infected cells. Intra-cytoplasmic (IjC) inclusion bodies found in
cells infected with pox viruses, paramyxoviruses, reovirus and
rabies viruses whereas intra-nuclear (I/N) inclusion bodies are
produced by herpes viruses, adenoviruses and parvoviruses.
Some viruses viz., canine distemper and RP viruses may produce
both IjC and IjN inclusion bodies in the same cell. Inclusion
bodies can be shown by HE staining, fluorescent antibody
staining or electron microscopy. The basophilic IjC inclusion
bodies are found in cell infected with pox viruses.
114
Another conspicuous feature of infection of cell monolayer by

paramyxo, herpesviruses, corona and pox viruses is production
of syncytial giant cells or polykaryocytes.
Q.10. Name the viruses which are non-cytopathogenic?
A. Retrovirus, rabies virus, arenavirus, swine fever virus.
Q.11. What are different fluorochrome used to label antibody?
A. Fluoresceine "isothiocyanate and rhodamine which fluoreses
apple green and yellowish red under the UV microscope
respectively are used.
Q.12. What are the different types of ELISAs?
A. Various ELISA techniques developed can be classified into
the following types.
1. Direct ELISA
2. Indirect ELISA
3. Sandwich ELISA/Immunocapture ELISA
4. Competition ELISA
5. Liquid phase blocking sandwich ELISA
6. Liquid phase blocking competition ELISA
Q.13. What are the different chronic infections (Persistent
infection with virus demonstrated for long periods with or
without disease) of animals?
A.
Virus Host Site of Virus Antibodies Chronic diease
persistent shedding
infection
ASFvirus Swine Hematopoie Variable Non- Intermittent fever
tic system neutralizing
FMDvirus Cattle Soft palate Intermittent Non- No signs
and pharynx and neutralizing
prolonged
CD virus Dog Brain Nil Present Rarely old dog
encephalitis
HCvirus Swine Widespread Continuous Non- Systemic,
neutraling Iprogressive, fatal
115
Q.14. Name a disease condition where there is no antibody

response.
A. Scrapie in sheep.
Q.lS. Name a disease condition where there is non-neutralizing
antibody response.
A. African swine fever, Aleutian mink disease.
Q.16. Name a disease condition where antibody attached to virus
enhances the infection of macrophages.
A. Cytomegalovirus, Lactic dehydrogenase virus, Dengu
viruses.
Q.17. Name a disease condition where lymphocytes are infected.
A. Infectious bursal disease (Gumboro disease),
Cytomegalovirus, Human immunodeficiency virus.
Q.lS. Name a disease condition where macrophages are infected.
A. Lactic dehydrogenase virus, African swine fever virus.
Q.19. Name a disease condition where Ts cells are induced.
A. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus, herpes virus.
Q.20. What is the definition of zoonoses?
A. Zoonoses are those diseases and infections which are
transmitted between vertebrate animals and man.
116
Chapter 23
Miscellaneous Questions

Q.1. Name the zoonotic viral disease transmitted through contact.
A. Contact -Cowpox; Inhalation - Birdflu ; Bite of animal -
rabies; Bite of mosquitoes - Chikingunya, Japanese encephalitis,
Yellow fever, Dengue.
Q.2. What are the emerging zoonotic diseases?
A. Emerging zoonoses are defined as diseases which are caused
by apparently new agents or by previously known organisms,
but have more recently shown an increase in incidence or
expansion into a new geographic host or vector range.
Q.3. What is Von Magnus phenomenon?
A. When cells are infected with a high dose of influenza virus, a
large proportion of viruses are defective. The virus yield will
have a high HA titre but low infectivity. This is known as Von
Magnus phenomenon.
Q.4. What are the two different types of assays to determine the
infectivity of viruses?
A. Quantitative and quantal. Quantitative assay measure the
actual number of infectious particles in the inoculum, while
quantal assays only indicate the presence or absence of infectious
viruses. Quantal assays of infectivity can be carried out in
animals, eggs, or tissue culture and the titre is expressed as LD50,
EID50 or TCID50/ml. It indicates the highest dilution of the
inoculum that would produce an effect in 50% of animals, eggs
or cell cultures inoculated. The LD50 or EID50 or TCID50 is
calculated by Reed and Muench method or Karber method.
117
The quantitative infectivity assay of viruses is similar to the

estimation of bacterial viable counts by colony counting. Two
methods are available - plaque assay in monolayer cell culture
and pock assay on chick embryo CAM.
Q.5. What is the origin of the following cell lines?
WI-38, HeLa, HEP-2, KB, Vero, BHK-21, MDBK, MDCK and
CRFK.
A.
(a) WI-38 Human embryonic lung cell strain
(b) HeLa Human epithelioma of cervix cell line
(c) HEP-2 Human carcinoma of nasopharynx cell line
(d) KB Human carcinoma of nasopharynx cell line
(e) Vero Vervet monkey kidney cell line
(f) BHK-21 - Baby hamster kidney cell line
(g) MDBK - Madin Derby bovine kidney cell line
(h) MDCK - Madin Derby canine kidney cell line
(i) CRFK Crandell feline kidney cell line
Q.6. What is psedovirions?
A. When virus capsids enclose host DNA instead of viral nucleic
acid, they are called pseudovirions.
Q.7. What are phenotypic mixing?
A. When cells are infected with antigenically different strains of
influenza virus or influenza virus and a paramyxovirus, the
envelope of some of the progeny virus particles contain viral
antigens characteristic of both parents but genome of only one
parent, it is called phenotypic mixing.
Q.8. What is cross reactivation or marker rescue?
A. When a cell is infected with an active virus and a different
but related inactive virus, progeny possessing one or more
genetic traits of the inactivated virus may be produced. This
phenomenon is called croos reactivation or marker rescue.
118
Q.9. What is multiplicity reactivation?

A. When a cell is infected with a large dose (high multiplicity)
of a single virus inactivated by UV irradiation, live virus may be
produced. The different virions that cause infection of a cell may
have suffered damage to different genes so that from the total
genetic pool, it may be possible to obtain a full complement of
undamaged genes. This explains how infectious progeny can be
produced. This phenomenon is called multiplicity reactivation.
Q.10. What is viroid?
A. The term 'Viroid' has been introduced by Diener in 1971 for
a new class of subviral agents which contains low molecular
weight dsRNA but no protein. The infective agent is resistant to
heat and organic solvent but sensitive to RNase. First identified
in the potato spindle tuber disease.
Q.11. Which viruses can cause damage to the chromosomes of
host cells.
A. Measles, mumps, adenoviruses, CMV and varicella.
Q.12. What are Cowdry type A and type B inclusion bodies?
A. The intranuclear inclusion bodies were classified into two
types by Cowdry in 1934. Cowdry type A inclusions are of
variable size and granular appearance (e.g hepes virus, yellow
fever) while type B inclusions are more circumscribed and often
multiple (e.g. adenovirus, poliovirus).
Q.13. What is the causative agent of smallpox?
A. Based on the severity of the clinical disease, geographical
distribution and haemadsorption tests on CEF cultures, variola
strains could be classified into three groups. Group A was
dominant in Asia, Group B in Africa and Group C in South
America, with case fatalites of 15-36%,8-13% and less than 1 %
respectively.
Q.14. How can vaccinia virus can be differentiated from the
variola virus?
119
A. Vaccinia and variola viruses are similar in their properties

and considered together. Both viruses grow on the CAM of
ECE and produce pocks. Variola pocks are small, shiny, white,
convex, non-necrotic and non-haemorrhagic lesions. Vaccinia
pocks are larger, irregular, flat, grayish, necrotic lesions, some
of which are haemorrhagic. The highest temperature above
which pocks are not produced is called ceiling temperature. The
ceiling temperatures are 41°C for vaccinia, 38.5°C for variola
major and 37.5°C for variola minor.
Q.15. Is there any difference in susceptibility to rabies by
different species?
A. Yes. Cattle, cats and foxes are highly susceptible. Skunks and
fowls are relatively resistant. Opossums is the least susceptible
to the disease. Man and dogs occupy an intermediate position.
Q.16. Name two list A of the OIE poultry diseases.
A. Newcastle disease and highly pathogenic avian influenza.
Q.1. The ribosomes are absent in viruses.
A. True.
Q.2. RNA viruses have the genetic information in RNA.
A. True.
Q.3. Bacteria are killed in 50% glycerol saline, but this acts as a
preservative for many viruses.
A. True.
Q.4. Receptor destroying enzyme is produced by many bacteria
including Vibrio cholerae and is present in many vertebrate cells.
A. True.
Q.5. Interferon can also be induced by some bacteria and
protozoa.
A. True.
120
Q.6. Naturally occurring small pox has been eradicated from the
globe in 1977.
A. True.
Q.7. Vaccinia virus does not occur in nature and considered to
be an artificial virus.
A. True.
Q.S. Vaccinia but not variola virus produces plaques in chicken
embryo fibroblast culture.
A. True.
Q.9. Smallpox is an exclusively human disease and no animal
reservoir are known.
A. True.
Q.10. There are three ssRNA segments present in bunyavirus as
genome.
A. True. Three segments are called large, medium and small
segments.
Q.ll. Although, most of the bunyaviruse's have - sense RNA as
genome, the 5' end of the 5 segment of Phelebovirus genome is
+sense. This type of genome is called ambisense.
A. True.
Q.12. Both glycoprotein peplomers and matrix proteins are
present in the bunyavirus.
A. False. The glycoprotein peplomer is present but not the matrix
protein.
Q.13. Although, viruses of different genera of bunyaviruses are
arthropod borne, Hantavirus, a bunyavirus is not transmitted
by arthropods.
A. True.
Q.l. There are about - - - - million HlV infected people in
121
the world today and - - - - -million AIDS deaths since the

beginning of epidemic.
A. 33.6 million; 16.3 million.
Q.2. The propagation of virus in embryonated eggs was first
done by - - - - - - - and - - - - - .
A. Goodpasture and Woodruff.
Q.3. The infectious nature of saliva in rabid dog was
demonstrated by - - - - - - - .
A. Zinke.
QA. The phenomenon of phagocytosis was discovered by - -
- - - - - in the year - - .
A. Metchnikoff in 1883.
Q.5. The phenomenon of anaphylaxis was first observed by -
- - - - and - - - - - in the year - - - - - -.
A. Portier and Richet in 1902.
Q.6. - - - - - - - - - proved that yellow fever disease is
caused by a virus.
A. WaIter Reed.
Q.7. - - - - - - - first used the cowpox virus to vaccinate
against smallpox.
A. Edward Jenner.
Q.8. The term viroid was coined by - - - - - - - in the year
A. Diener in 1971.
Q.9. One gene one enzyme hypothesis was given by - - - - -
- and - - - - - - - - .
A. Beadle and Tatum.
Q.10. Slow virus infection was first described by - - - - - -
122
A. Sigurdsson.
Q.ll. The reverse transcriptase enzyme was discovered by-
- - - - , - - - - - and - - - .
A. Dulbecco, Baltimore and Temin.
Q.12. - - - -....:.~ - - first prepared the yellow fever vaccine.
A. Max Theiler.
Q.13. - - - - - - first studied on Kuru disease agent.
A. Gajdusek and Blumberg.
Q.14. The hybridoma technology or monoclonal antibodies was
first invented by - - - and - - - - - - in 1975.
A. Kohler and Milstein.
Q.15. - - - - - - - first discovered the role of thymus in
immunity.
A. Good and Miller.
Q.16. The jumping gene was first discovered by - - - - - -
A. Barbara McClintock.
Q.17. The Southern hybridization or Southern blot was invented
by - - - - - - .
A. E.M. Southern.
Q.18. The restriction enzyme or restriction endonuclease was
first discovered by - - - -, - - - - and - - - - - -.
A. Werner Arber, Hamilton Smith and Daniel Nathan.
Q.19. Nucleotide sequencing was first done by - - - - - - -
A. Frederick Sanger.
Q.20. The immunoelectrophoresis was first done by - - - - -
- and - - - - - - - - - .
A. Grabar and Williams.
123
Q.21. The role of bursa in humoral immunity was discovered

by - - - - - and - - - - .
A. Click and Chang.
Q.22. The properdin was discovered by - - - - - - -.
A. Pillmer.
Q.23. The double helix structure of DNA was discovered by -
- - - - - in 1953.
A. Watson and Crick.
Q.24. The synthesis of DNA was first shown by - - - - -.
A. Kornberg.
Q.25. The number of capsomers in icosahedral viruses varies
from - - - - to
A.32 ; 1892.
Q.26. The shape, size and internal structures of viruses can be
determined by - - - -.
A. Electron microscopy.
Q.27. The electron dense chemicals used in negative staining
by EM are - - - - and - - - - - -.
A. Phosphotungstic acid and uranyl acetate.
Q.28. In density gradient centrifugation, - - - and - - - -
are usually used to prepare gradient.
A. Sucrose, cesium chloride.
Q.29. The electron microscope can magnify the virus up to - -
- - times.
A. 4lakh.
Q.30. Electron microcopy by shadow casting technique is used
to determine - - -, negative staining for - - - - - and
ultrathin sections for - - - - --.
A. shape; fine details; internal structures.
124
Q.31. The icosahedral viruses have - - - - - - - rotational

symmetry.
A. 5:3:2.
Q.32. The total number of capsomers in a virion can be calculated
by the formula - - -.
A. N =10(n-1)2 + 2. N = Number of capsomers, n = Number of
capsomers in one edge of the equilateral triangle.
Q.33. The size of the nucleic acid of the viruses is expressed as
A. Kb/Kbp.
Q.34. The bacteriophage was first seen by - - - - - - in 1915
and the term bacteriophage was given by - - - - - - - - in
1917.
A. Twort ; d' Herelle.
Q.35. Viruses occupy the twilight zone that separates the 'living'
from the 'non-living'.
A. True.
Q.36. - - - - - - - first demonstrated that the viruses can be
crystallized like chemicals in 1935.
A. Stanley.
Q.37. The extracellular infectious virus particle is called
A. Virion.
Q.38. The size of the virus can be calculated using - - - - - -
law from the rate of sedimentation of the virus in the
ultracentrifuge.
A. Stokes.
Q.39. Neuraminidase present in the influenza virus is called -
A. Receptor destroying enzyme.
125
Q.40. Monkeys were used for the isolation of poliovirus by - -

- - -and - - - - -in 1909.
A. Landsteiner ; Popper.
Q.41. The embryonated hen's was first used for the cultivation
of virus by - - - - in 1931.
A. Goodpasture.
Q.42. Plaque assay was introduced by - - - - - - in 1952 in
animal virology.
A. Dulbecco.
Q.43. Vaccinia virus infected cells show small multiple inclusions
known as - - - - - --.
A. Guarnieri bodies.
Q.44. Large inclusions known as - - - - - - - - are seen in
fowl pox virus infected cells.
A. Bollinger bodies.
Q.45. - - - - - - , 9 year old lad severely bitten by a rabid dog
was given dried spinal cord from rabbits infected with fixed virus
by Louis Pasteur.
A. Joseph Miester.
Q.46. Three virus families namely - - - - - - -, - - - - -
- and - - - - form the order Mononegavirales i.e. viruses with
negative sense, single stranded non-segmented RNA genomes.
A. Rhabdoviridae ; Filoviridae ; Paramyxoviridae.
Q.47. Out of nine different avian paramyxoviruses (APMV)
serotypes, Newcastle disease is caused by - - - - - - .
A. APMV-l.
Q.48. The Vera cell derived anti-rabies vaccine for human use
should not contain more - - - pg of cellular DNA per dose.
A. 100.
126
Q.49. Rift valley fever is transmitted by - - - - - - - - and

- - - - - - - - - mosquitoes.
A. Culex and Aedes.
Q.50. Nairobi sheep disease is transmitted by a tick called - -
A. Rhipicep1ut.lus appendiculatis.
Q.51. Describe the general properties of DNA and RNA
containing viruses.
Nucleic acid Single or Nucleocapsid Enveloped Shape of Group
type double symmetry or not virus
stranded
DNA Single Icosahedral Naked Spherical Parvovirus
Double Icosahedral Naked Spherical Papovavirus
Adenovirus
Icosahedral Enveloped Roughly Herpesvirus
spherical
Complex Enveloped Brick Poxvirus
shaped
RNA Double Icosahedral Naked Spherical Reovirus
Naked Spherical Orbivirus
Icosahedral Naked Spherical Bimavirus
Single Icosahedral Naked Spherical Picornavirus
Icosahedral Enveloped Spherical Togavirus
Enveloped Roughly Retrovirus
Spherical
Helical Enveloped Roughly Orthomyxov
spherical irus
Helical Enveloped Pleomorph Paramyxovir
ic us
Helical Enveloped Bullet Rhabdovirus
sh<iJled
Helical Enveloped Roughly Coronavirus
spherical
Helical Enveloped Oval or Arenavirus
pleomorph
ic
127
Q.52. Describe the DNA containing viruses.
Family Diameter(nm) Enveloped/Naked Symmetry Capsome Transcriptase Type Size (Kbor Kbp)
res
Papovaviridae 45 (polyomavirus) Naked lcosahedral 72 - DS 5 (polyoma)
55 papillomavirus) Circular 8(papillomavirus)
Adenoviridae 70 Naked lcosahedral 252 - DSLinear 30-37
Herpesviridae 150 Enveloped lcosalledral 162 - DSLinear 120-220
Poxviridae 300-450XI70-260 Enveloped Complex - + DSLinear 130-280
African swine 220 Enveloped lcosahedral 1892 + DSLinear 150
fever virus
Parvoviridae 20 Naked lcosahedral 32 - SS (-) 5
Linear
Hepadnaviridae 45 Naked lcosahedral ? + (reverse DS, 3.2
transcriptase) Circular
Q.53. Describe the RNA containing viruses.
Family Diameter(nm) Enveloped/Naked Symmetry Capsomeres Transcriptase Type Size (Kbor Kbp)
Picomaviridae 25 Naked Icosahedral 60 - SS,l (+) 7.5-8.5
Caliciviridae 35 Naked Icosahedral 32 - SS, 1 (+) 7.9
Togaviridae 65 Enveloped but no Icosalledral ? - SS,l (+) 12
matrix protein)
Flaviviridae 45 Enveloped (but no Icosahedral ? - SS,l (+) 12
matrix protein)
Orthomyxoviridae 100 Enveloped Helical - + SS, 8 (-) 13.6
Paramyxoviridae 180 + Helical - + SS,l(-) 18-20
Coronaviridae 100 Enveloped (but no Helical - - SS,l(+) 17-24
matrix protein}
Arenaviridae 120 Enveloped (but no Helical - + SS, 2 (-) 10-14
matrix protein)
Bunyaviriade 110 Enveloped (but no Helical - + SS,3(-) 13.5-21
matrix protein)
Retroviridae 100 Enveloped (but no Icosahedral ? + (reverse SS,l (+) 2)((3.5-9)'
matrix protein) transcriptase)
Rhabdoviridae 180X75 Enveloped Helical - + SS,l(-) 127
Filoviridae 790-970X80 Enveloped Helical - + SS,l (-) 12.7
Reoviridae 60-80 Naked Icosahedral 32 (inner + DS,10- 17-22
capsid) 12"
92 (outer
capsid)
Bimaviridae 60 Naked Icosahedral 92 + DS,2 7
* Two identical molecules being held together by H bond at their 5'end.

** Reovirus and orbivirus = 10, Rotavirus =11 and Colorado tick fever virus =12.
Q.54. Name the vectors of the following diseases.

(a) African swine fever ( b) African horse sickness (c)
Bluetongue (d) Yellow fever (e) Equine infectious anaemia (f)
Dengue.
Ans. (a) Ticks (b) Culicoides and mosquitoes (c) Culicoides (d)
Mosquitoes (e) Biting flies (f) Mosquitoes.
Q.55. Name the arthropod borne viral diseases.
Ans.
Disease Principal vertebrate Arthropod
host host
Eastern equine encephalitis Birds Mosquitoes
Western equine encephalitis Birds Mosquitoes
Venezuelan equine encephalitis Mammals Mosquitoes
Japanese B encephalitis Birds and pigs Mosquitoes
Murray Valley encephalitis Birds Mosquitoes
St. Louis encephalitis Birds Mosquitoes
West Nile encephalitis Birds Mosquitoes
Russian Spring Summer Rodents. birds Ticks
Encephalitis
Colorado tick fever Mammals Ticks
Rift Valley fever Mammals Mosquitoes
Kyasanur Forest disease Primates Ticks
Louping i1i Sheep and other Ticks
mammals
Q.56. Name non-arthropod borne viral zoonotic diseases.

Ans. Monkey pox, orf, cow pox, pseudocowpox, rabies, Vesicular
stomatitis, influenza virus type A, Lymphocytic
choriomeningitis, Marburg and Ebola.
Q.57. Name viruses which are transmitted vertically from mother
to offspring.
A. Some of the viruses belonging to Retroviridae, Herpesviridae,
Parvoviridae, Arenaviridae and orbiviruses, togaviruses,
coronaviruses and bunyavirus.
Q.58. Name the congenital conditions in domestic animals.
A. Bovine viral diarrhea, hog cholera, rift valley fever, bovine
130
leukernia, feline panleukemia, avian leucosis, bluetongue, IBR,

equine herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1), porcine herpesvirus 1 (PHV-1)
and canine herpesvirus 1 (CHV 1).
Q.59. Describe the functions of interferons.
Ans. Interferons are proteins/ glycoproteins produced by cells
in response to viral or non-viral inducers. They are non-antigenic
and do not induce the antibody production. They can be
produced by live or inactivated DNA or RNA viruses. Synthetic
Poly I;C is a good inducer of interferon. They are species specific
not virus specific. It means interferon produced in human beings
will act in human beings not in other species of animals. But
interferon produced by one particular virus will act against other
viruses as well. The maximum production of interferon occurs
in 6-12 hours. They are inactivated by proteolytic enzymes but
not by nuclease.
Q.60. Write true or false about the followings.
a) Interferon can be produced by UV irradiated viruses.
b) Interferon can not be produced by synthetic polynucleotides.
Ans. a) True b) False.
Q.61. Which is the most susceptible animal to isolate the FMD
virus.
Ans. Unweaned mice.
Q.62. How many serotypes of FMD virus are there in the world?
A. There are 7 serotypes of the FMD virus namely 0, A, C, Asia-
I, SAT-I, SAT-2 and SAT-3.
Q.63. How many structural proteins are there in a FMD virus
and which one is immunogenic?
A. The FMD virus has 4 structural proteins and VPl is the most
immunogenic one.
Q.64. Which are the commonly used inactivants to inactivate
the virus for FMD vaccine production?
131
A. AEI and BEL

Q.65. What does it stand for 0 and A respectively in FMD virus
serotypes?
A. Oise and Allemagne.
<2.66. Which tests are used for typing the FMD virus?
Ans. CFT, VNT and ELISA.
Q.67. What is the duration of immunity in ruminants following
vaccination with AI(OH)3 and oil adjuvanted FMD vaccine?
Ans. 6 months (AI(OH)3 gel) ; 1 year (Oil ).
Q.68. The most effective disinfectant to kill FMD is - - - - -
and - - - - - - - - - .
Ans. 2% NaOH and 4% Na2C03.
Q.69. Which cell lines are used to isolate or propagate the FMD
virus?
Ans. BHK-21 and IBRS-2.
Q.70. An animal can be infected with more than one serotype of
FMD virus.
Ans. True.
Q.71. - - - - serotypeofFMD virus is most prevalent followed
by - - - - - and - - - -.
Ans. 0 ; Asia-l ; A.
Q.72. - - - - serotype of FMD virus has not been reported
during the last 10 years.
Ans. C.
Q.73. What are the tick borne flaviviruses?
Ans. Russian Spring Summer Encephalitis, Louping ill, Kyasanur
Forest Disease.
Q.74. Influenza virus type A, Band C are discovered by - - -
-, - - - - - - and - - - - - respectively.
132
Ans. Smith, Andrews and Laidlaw in 1933, Francis and Magill

in 1940 and Taylor in 1949.
Q.7S. Haemagglutination test can be carried out using either live
or inactivated viruses.
Ans. True.
Q.76. The classification of influenza virus type A, Band Care
on the basis of - - - - - - - antigen.
Ans. Ribonucleoprotein.
Q.77. Newcastle disease virus infection in human beings can
cause - - - - - - - .
Ans. Conjunctivitis and flu like symptoms.
Q.78. Rabid vampire bats show the symptoms of rabies.
Ans. False
Q.79. Name the prion diseases of man and animals.
Ans.
Species Disease
Sheep Scrapie
Cattle Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
Deer Chronic wasting disease
Human Kuru and Creutzfeldt Jacob disease
Q.80. Match the followings.
1. Hard pad disease a. Infectious canine hepatitis
2. Pearl eye disease b. Classical swine fever
3.Epidemic tremor c. Marek's disease
4. Button ulcer d. Avian encephalomyelitis
S. Rubarth's disease e. Canine distemper
Ans. le, 2c, 3d, 4b and Se.
133

1. Gumboro disease a. PPR
2. Lyssa bodies b. IBD
3. Swamp fever c. IBR
4. Pink eye disease d. Rabies
5. Zebra marking e. Equine infectious anaemia
Ans. 1b, 2d,3 e,4c and Sa.
1. Malignant catarrhal fever a. Sheep
2. Louping ill b. Poultry
3. Marek's disease c. Swine
4. Pseudorabies d. Mouse
5. Ectromelia e. Dog
6. Parainfluenza 2 f. Cattle
Ans. H, 2a, 3b, 4c, Sd and 6e.
1. Contagious pustular dermatitis a. Aviadenovirus
2. Visna-Maedi b. Marek's disease
3. MATSA c. Slow viral disease
4. Avian pneumoencephalitis d.Orf
S.CELO virus e. Paramyxovirus
Ans. 1d, 2c, 3b, 4e and Sa.
1. Influenza virus a. Negative sense ssRNA
2. Rabies virus b. Antigenic shift and antigenic drift
134
3. Chicken pox virus c. Morbillivirus

4. Measles d. Rubivirus
5. Rubella (German Measles) e. Variola
6. Small pox f. Herpes virus
Ans. 1b, 2a, 3f, 4c, 5d and 6e.
1. Rabies a. Feather follicle
2. Influenza b.Saliva
3. Marek's disease c. Throat swab
4. RP virus d. Vesicular fluid and tongue
epithelium
5. FMD virus e. Spleen
Ans. 1b, 2c,3a, 4e and 5d.
1. Hepatitis A a. Hepadnavirus
2. Hepatitis B b. Hepatovirus (Picornavirus)
3. Hepatitis C c. Calicivirus
4. Hepatitis D d. Hepacivirus (Flavivirus)
5. Hepatitis E e. Delta virus
Ans. 1b, 2a, 3d, 4e and 5c.
Q.87. Classical swine fever is also called African swine fever.
Ans. False. Classical swine fever is also called Hog cholera.
Q.88. Classical swine fever and African swine fever virus are
caused by same virus.
Ans. False. Classical swine fever is caused by Pestivirus (RNA
virus) whereas African swine fever is caused by a DNA virus.
Q.89. Japanese B encephalitis occurs in Japan only.
Ans. False. It also occurs in South East Asia including India.
135
Q.90. Bluetongue is not prevalent in India.

Ans. False.
Q.91. African horse sickness is not prevalent in India.
Ans. True.
Q.92. Rinderpest has been eradicated from India.
Ans. True.
Q.93. African swine fever is present only in Africa.
Ans. False.
Q.94. India is free from Louping ill, African swine fever and
equine encephalitis.
Ans. True.
Q.9S. What are the different rinderpest virus strains?
Ans. Kabete '0', Nakamura III and Mukteswar.
Q.96. Name the viruses causing abortion/ stillbirths in cattle.
Ans. IBR/IPV, bovine viral diarrhea virus, bluetongue virus,
Rift Valley fever virus and Parainfluenza -3.
Q.97. Name the viruses which cause abortion/stillbirths in
equine.
Ans. Equine arteritis virus, equine herpes virus 1, 2 and 3.
Q.98. Name the viruses which cause abortion/ stillbirths in pigs.
Ans. Porcine parvovirus, porcine herpes virus, African swine
fever virus and vesicular exanthema virus.
Q.99. Name the causative agents of the following diseases.
a) Cattle plaque
b) Duck plaque
c) Fowl plaque
d) Human plaque
e)Fowl cholera
f) Human cholera
136
g) Avian diphtheria
h) Hog cholera
Ans. (a) Rinderpest (b) duck herpes virus -1 (c) Avian influenza
(d) Yersinia pestis (e) Pasteurella multocida (f) Vibrio cholerae (g)
ILT virus (h) Classical swine fever virus.
1. Red nose in cattle a) EEE virus
2. Pink eye in cattle b) Equine arteritis virus
3. Pink eye in equine c) Equine infectious anaemia
virus
4. Sleeping sickness d) Infectious canine hepatitis
5. Swamp fever e) Respiratory form of !BR
6. Blue eye f) Conjunctival form of !BR
7. Blue comb in turkey g) Porcine herpes virus
S. Big liver disease in poultry h) Turkey enteritis virus
9. Mad itch in swine i) Avian leucosis virus
Ans. le ; 2f; 3b ; 4a ; 5c; 6d ; 7h; Si ; 9g.
Q.l0l. Write down the full form of the followings.
(a) FAT (b) ELISA (c) PAGE (d) CIE (e) MATSA (f) TSTA (g)
COFAL (h) RIA
Ans. (a) Fluorescent antibody technique (b) Enzyme linked
immunosorbent assay (c) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (d)
Counter immunoelectrophoresis (e) Marek associated tumour
specific antigen.(f) Tumour specific transplantation antigen (g)
Complement fixation for Avian leukosis (h) Radioimmuno assay.
Q.l02. Write down the full form of the followings.
(a) PCR (b)RT-PCR (c) Real time PCR (d) tRNA (e) rRNA (f)
cDNA (g)mRNA.
Ans. (a) Polymerase chain reaction (b) Reverse transcriptase
137
Polymerase chain reaction (c) Real time Polymerase chain

reaction (d) Transfer RNA (e) ribosomal RNA (f) Complementary
DNA (g) Messenger RNA.
Q.103. What are the different congenital viral infections of
domestic animals?
Species Family Disease Abnormalities,
Cattle Herpesviridae !BR Fetal death, abortion
Togaviridae BVD Fetal death, abortion, congenital
defects, inapparent infections
with lifelong carrier.
Retroviridae BLV Inapparent infection, leukemia
Reoviridae BTV Fetal death, abortion, congenital
defects
Horse Herpesviridae EHV-l Fetal death, abortion, neonatal
disease
Arteriviridae EAV Fetal death, abortion
Swine Herpesviridae Pseudorabies Fetal death and abortion
Flaviviridae Hog cholera Fetal death, abortion, congenital
virus defects, inapparent infections
with lifelong carrier.
Flaviviridae JEV Fetal death, abortion
Sheep Flaviviridae BDV Congenital defects
Reoviridae BTvirus Fetal death, abortion, congenital
defects
Dog Herpesviridae Canine Perinatal death
herpesvirus 1
Cat Parvoviridae FPLV Cerebellar hypoplasia
Retroviridae Feline Leukemia, fetal death
leusosis
virus
Chicken Picomaviridae Avian Congenital defects, fetal death
encephalomy
elitis virus
Retroviridae Avian Inapparent leukemia and other
leucosis- diseases
sarcoma
viruses
138
List of the recommended tests for international trade

Disease Prescribed test Alternative test
AUjeszky's disease ELISA. VN -
Avian infectious - AGID, VNT and
laryngotracheitis ELISA
Avian infectious bronchitis - VNT, HI, ELISA
Bluetongue Agent identification, AGID, VNT
ELISA,PCR
Bovine viral diarrhoea Agent identification -
Classical swine fever Neutralizing peroxidase linked -
assay, Fluorescent antibody
virus neutralization test,
ELISA
Duck viral enteritis - -
Duck viral hepatitis - -
Eastern/Western/Venezuelan - HI, CFT, Plaque
Equine encephalomyelitis reduction
neutralization
test
Equine infectious anaemia AGID ELISA
Equine influenza - HI
Equine viral arteritis VNT, agent identification -
(semen only)
Foot and mouth disease ELISA, VNT CFT
Fowl pox - -
Highly pathogenic avian - AGID,HI
influenza
Infectious bovine VNT, ELISA and agent -
rhinotracheitis/ infectious
identification (semenonly)
pustular vulvovaginits/
infectious pustular
balanoposthitis
Infectious bursal disease - AGID,ELISA
IGumboro diaease)
Japanese encephalitis - -
Malignant catarrhal fever - VNT,IFAand
PCR
Marek's disease - AGID
139
Veterinary Virologl/ : At A Glance
Newcastle disease - HI
PPR VNT ELISA
Rabies VNT -
Rinderpest ELISA VNT
Sheep pox and goat pox - VNT
Transmissible gastroenteritis of - VNT,ELISA
swine
140
References
1. Butler, M. (2004). Animal Cell Culture. 2nd edition, Bios Scientific

Publishers.
2. Cathy, D. (1989). Antibodies - A practical approach. Vol 11, IRL
Press at Oxford University Press, Oxford.
3. Chauhan, R.S. and Tripathy, B.N. (2002). Veterinary
Immunopathology (Theory and Practice). 1't edition, IBDC,
Lucknow.
4. Chauhan, RS. (1995). Veterinary Clinical and Laboratory
Diagnosis. pt edition. Jay Pee Brothers Medical Publishers (Pvt.)
Ltd. New Delhi.
5. Chauhan, RS. (2002). Illustrated Veterinary Pathology. 1't
edition. IBDC, Lucknow.
6. Chauhan, RS. (2003). Illustrated Special Veterinary Pathology.
IBDC, Lucknow.
7. Chauhan, RS. (2003). Veterinary Laboratory Diagnosis. IBDC,
Lucknow.
8. Freshney, RI. (2000). Culture of animal cells - A manual of basic
techniques. 4th edition, Wiley-Liss.
9. Gooi, H.C. and Chapel, H. (1990). Clinical Immunology: A
practical approach, IRL Press at Oxford University Press,
Oxford.
10. Masters, J.RW. (2000). Animal cell culture. 3 rd edition, Oxford
University Press, Oxford.
11. Murphy, F.A., Gibbs, E.P.J., Horzinek, M.C. and Studdert, M.J.
(1997). Veterinary Virology. 3 rd edition, Academic Press.
12. Tizard, I.R. (1998). Veterinary Immunology: An introduction,
5th edition, Harcourt Brace and Company Asia Pvt. Ltd.
141

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Composed & Designed at:

1 Structure and Composition of Viruses 1

A. Answer the following questions.

contain only one copy of each gene. The retrovirus genome

molecule self anneal to form single stranded circle?

no nucleic acid (empty particles) or that have an incomplete

B. Write true or false about the following.

Q.6. Chlamydiae and viruses are sensitive to interferon.

C. Fill in the blanks.

Q.l0. The proteins preserlt on the surface of the envelope are

A. Answer the following questions.

Q.6. Name the viruses having positive sense ssRNA.

A. Answer the following questions.

A. Coronavirus and bunyavirus.

Q.20. Which viral genome remain as episomal in transformed

B. Write true or false about the following.

induced by paramyxovirus are effective against togavirus

C. Fill in the blanks.

DNA viruses and from - -to - - hours in RNA viruses.

A. Write true or false about the followings.

A. Answer the following questions.

B. Write true or false about the followings.

Q.16. The antibody response usually peaks at 2-3 weeks after

C. Fill in the blanks.

A. Answer the following questions.

A. Many retroviruses and few herpesviruses cause malignant

Q.I0What are ecotropic, amphotropic and xenotropic

Q.7. There are about 200 individual viral species in some 20

Epidemiology to viral infections

porcine parvovirus ; Sheep - border disease virus, Rift valley

Q.8. What are the arthropod borne viral zoonosis?

Q.9. What are the non-arthropod borne viral zoonosis?

Write true or false about the followings.

the cells of the dermal layer of a papilloma.

C. Fill in the blanks..

A. Answer the followings. ,

B. Write true or false about the followings.

A. Blue eye disease.

The canine adenovirus 2 causes respiratory disease,

A. Answer the following questions.

subtype 2 further subdivided into two groups (BHV 1.2a

B. Write true or false about the followings.

A. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (!BR), Infectious pustular

A. 1. Alphaherpesvirus 2. swine 3. cattle, sheep, goat, dog,

A. Answer the following questions.

Disease Family Cattle Sheep Swine Horse

Q.6. What are the important diseases of animals caused by

Q.7. How many strains of poliovirus are present?

B. Write true or false about the followings.

Q.2. Though stable at pH 3.0, cardioviruses are labile between

Q.13. The duration of immunity to FMD in cattle after natural

Q.23. Live attenuated vaccine is not available against duck

C. Fill in the blanks.

Q.9. - - - - - -, developed a killed vaccine against polio.

A. Answer the followings.

Q.2. Poxviruses are resistant to ambient temperature and may

C. Fill in the blanks.

A. Hog louse (Hematopinus suis).