Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH National Diploma in

Occupational Health and Safety
January 2007 examinations

CONTENTS

Introduction 2

Unit A – Managing health and safety 3

Unit B – Hazardous agents in the workplace 12

Unit C – Workplace and work equipment 20

Examination technique 26

© 2007 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: info@nebosh.org.uk website: www.nebosh.org.uk

The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444

T(s):exrpts/D/D-07-01 DW/DA/REW/500
 Introduction

NEBOSH first introduced a National Diploma in Occupational Safety and Health in 1989 but, in response to
the emergence of national competency standards in this area, the Diploma was offered in two parts from
1997 – with Diploma Part 2 set at the same level as the previous Diploma. The current version of the
NEBOSH Diploma was introduced in 2004 to meet the requirements of the revised national vocational
standards in “Occupational Health and Safety Practice”, published by ENTO (formerly the Employment
National Training Organisation and now an independent standards setting body working alongside the
Sector Skills Councils and other organisations). The relevant standard was published as a level 4 standard
within the national framework and the Diploma was therefore designed as a level 4 award. However, in
2005, the Qualifications and Curriculum Authority (QCA) changed the national qualifications framework by
dividing level 4 into three separate levels – levels 4, 5 and 6 – and the Diploma was placed at the highest of
these (ie. level 6). This is a level of assessment that is approximately equivalent to that of an honours
degree. This does not mean that the Diploma award is the equivalent of a degree since most degrees
require three years of full-time study; rather, it signifies that the depth of academic skill (but not necessarily
the breadth of knowledge) required by the award corresponds to a degree level programme. It should be
borne in mind, though, that the Diploma is a vocational rather than a purely academic qualification and so
such comparisons are not straightforward.

As a QCA-accredited level 6 award, the Diploma satisfies the academic requirements for graduate
membership of the recognised professional body, the Institution of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH),
leading – after satisfying the requirements of two years’ initial professional development and peer review – to
Chartered Safety and Health Practitioner (CMIOSH).

The NEBOSH Diploma is divided into four individually assessed Units. The award is achieved on successful
completion of all four Units, three Units being assessed by means of a 3-hour examination and the fourth
Unit being assessed by means of a workplace based assignment (or for pre-2007 enrolments the completion
of three 3 hour examinations and three workplace based assignments. Both parts of the assessment must
be completed to a satisfactory standard). This Examiners’ Report refers to the examination component only.

The Diploma is a professional level award and the requirements are demanding, as befits any award that
allows entry into a profession, particularly one that has chartered status. The sole requirement for
acceptance onto a Diploma programme (other than any that may additionally be imposed by an accredited
programme organiser) is the NEBOSH level 3 Certificate or equivalent. However, while the level 3
qualification might provide some basic knowledge of the subject, the Diploma requires academic rigour and
the demonstration of a much higher level of understanding of theoretical, technical and legal issues.
Students without a grounding (eg GCSE or A-level) in mathematics, physics, chemistry or biology, for
instance, may need to devote time to gain knowledge of some of the basic concepts that underpin much of
the syllabus content. In addition, students with limited or no experience of studying for a higher level
qualification will need to develop their study, research and examination skills in order to maximise their
chances of success. Success in the Diploma depends not on the regurgitation of learned facts but on
demonstrating an understanding of how the theory can be applied and adapted in a practical setting in order
to achieve high standards of health and safety at work. Given the breadth of the subject, this is not an easy
task but, with concerted effort on the part of the student, it is achievable.

The results from the three Unit examinations on this occasion show pass rates of 47%, 61% and 65% (Units
A, B and C respectively). One reason why these figures were not higher may be due to poor examination
technique, which is addressed at the end of this Report. However, the comments from Examiners suggest
that some candidates are simply unprepared for the level of the Diploma and show both a lack of knowledge
of key material (theoretical, technical and/or legal issues) and an understanding of how the concepts should
be applied to often complex situations. This Report provides some pointers in this respect but the onus for
acquiring the level of knowledge and understanding required must rest with the student, with the help and
support of course providers. On a positive note, while Examiners’ Reports inevitably concentrate on some of
the weaknesses found in candidates’ answers, every examination produces some excellent scripts from
candidates who have obviously put much effort into their studies in order to achieve success. Such effort
does not go unrecognised.

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 UNIT A – Managing health and safety

General comments
This was the fifth Unit A examination paper of the re-formed NEBOSH Diploma and the questions set were
taken from the syllabus material published in the Diploma Guide. 939 papers were submitted for
examination.

To be successful in this part of the examination process, candidates need to be prepared to deliver and
apply a level of knowledge commensurate with the Diploma award. As always, there were some excellent
answers with maximum or near maximum marks being achieved on most questions by a small number of
candidates, but not necessarily the same candidates on each occasion. Where candidates achieved low
marks overall, this was generally for at least one of the following three reasons. Firstly, candidates were not
always armed with the degree of understanding and detail required at this level. This was particularly evident
in many of the answers provided to Questions 5, 8 and 9 for example. Candidates setting out on a course of
study for the level 6 diploma need to ask themselves whether they have provided for the necessary
preparation, revision and examination question practice that is important for maximising their chances of
success in the examination; this is a very different level of examination from the NEBOSH National General
Certificate and yet a number of the scripts marked were little better than those provided by Certificate
candidates. Secondly, many candidates achieved less than their possible potential through focusing on only
a limited range of issues on a question that had scope for a broader range to be tackled. Questions 3 and 7
provided numerous examples of this. Examination question practice, with feedback provided by training
providers, together with the use of answer plans (on section B questions in particular) are important elements
in trying to maximise marks. Thirdly, candidates wasted much time and lost many opportunities for marks by
failing to read the question carefully, not relating their answers to the question asked or the scenario set, and
providing information that was not asked for or required. This was a particular issue for questions 2, 5 and
11.

Section A – all questions compulsory

Question 1 (a) Organisations may sometimes fail to implement good health and safety
standards because they believe that the costs of implementation will
outweigh any financial benefits and hence reduce profitability. Explain
why such organisations often identify the costs of health and safety
control measures much better than they identify the financial losses that
can arise from poor health and safety standards. (6)

(b) Explain, with examples, the meaning of the terms ‘insured’ and
‘uninsured’ costs in connection with accidents and incidents at work and
describe the relative size of these two costs in an organisation as
demonstrated by accident costing studies. (4)

Answers to this question varied considerably in quality. In general, better responses were
provided for part (b) than part (a). In answering the first part of the question candidates were
expected to refer to the relative ease with which the capital and running costs of providing
control measures can be quantified. These are generally immediate and therefore easily
visible. On the other hand, the financial losses arising from poor health and safety standards
are much harder to identify for a number of reasons such as the savings gained in terms of
a reduction in accidents and incidents are not immediate but generally medium to long term;
the costs of accidents and cases of ill-health are not fully understood and there is no
adequate procedure in place to collect such costs, either because of the lack of relevant
expertise or because of the time needed to collect such information; and finally as a result of
the difficulty in assessing the realistic cost of matters such as the loss of productivity and of
reputation and good will. Some candidates referred only to the good standards of health and
safety that should be in place while others focussed on the cost of accidents without
attempting to explain why they were difficult to identify.

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 While answers to part (b) were to a better standard, in some cases there was a
misconception that all insured costs were direct and all uninsured costs indirect. Costs
normally covered by insurance would include for example, those associated with employers’
liability, public liability and fire whilst uninsured costs arising from accidents and incidents at
work could include damage to property, repair of plant and the cost of any clean up that may
have to take place. Better answers suggested that uninsured costs were typically from eight
to thirty six times greater than insured costs.

Question 2 The following table shows the number of lost-time accidents recorded at two
organisations involved in similar manufacturing processes. The figures in
brackets show the mean numbers of employees at each organisation for the
year in question.

Year Organisation Organisation

A B
2002 22 (2500) 8 (250)
2003 24 (2450) 8 (265)
2004 31 (2300) 8 (300)
2005 30 (2100) 7 (340)

(a) Calculate and compare the annual lost-time accident incident rates for
the two organisations for the years shown and comment on any trends. (5)

(b) Identify any possible limitations with the data itself, or the way that it is
collected, that might make direct comparisons of the rates at the two
organisations unreliable or misleading. (5)

This was a fairly straightforward question which allowed those candidates who understood
the general concept of accident rates to obtain good marks by choosing and stating an
appropriate multiplier (such as rate per 1000 employees), by carrying out the calculation
correctly and by recognising both that Organisation B has significantly higher rates than
Organisation A but that there was a rising trend in A with a falling trend in B.

The second part of the question required candidates to identify possible limitations on the
comparability of the data such as the organisations having different definitions of lost time
accidents and different methods of reporting them; the data produced by either organisation
may not take into account overtime worked nor include accidents to part time staff and those
occurring to non-employees such as contractors; and cultural issues such as the possible
existence of a greater propensity to take time off in one organisation as opposed to the
other.

On the whole part (b) of the question was not as well answered as part (a) with many
candidates appearing not to have read the question with sufficient care and introducing
issues such as differences in the levels of risk, technology and even industry sector instead
of concentrating on the data and its method of collection.

Question 3 Outline the range of internal and external information sources that may be
useful in the identification of hazards and the assessment of risk. For each
source, indicate the type of information available and how it contributes to
hazard identification or risk assessment. (10)

In answering this question, many candidates were able to obtain some marks by identifying
useful sources of information but there were fewer who went on to explain how these
sources might contribute to the identification of hazards or the assessment of risks.

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 Internal sources include investigation reports on accidents and near miss incidents and ill-
health data which help to identify workplace hazards and contribute to the understanding
and estimation of the degree of risk involved. Proactive monitoring data such as those
arising from inspections and audits which involve observation of the workplace and working
practices can provide information on the use and reliability of risk control measures as can
maintenance and inspection records of plant, equipment or personal protective equipment.

As for external sources, candidates could have referred to HSC/HSE ACoPs and guidance
which identify hazards and set risk control standards to meet legal and good practice
requirements; HSC/HSE national accident and ill-health data which again assist with the
identification of hazards and the probability of their associated risk; statistics and guidance
from other authoritative sources such as professional bodies, trade associations and
insurers and guidance from international bodies such as WHO, ILO and ESA on specific
hazards and risk control standards.

This was an outline question and it was therefore disappointing to see that a number of
candidates produced nothing but a list of sources which consequently restricted the number
of marks they could be awarded.

Question 4 Train drivers may spend long periods of time in the cab of a train and may be
susceptible to loss of alertness. This can increase the risk of human error.

(a) Describe, with examples, a range of factors which may influence the
degree of alertness of train drivers. (5)

(b) Outline a range of practical measures that could reduce the risk of lack of
alertness in train drivers. (5)
____________________________________________________________________________________________

It was not necessary to have knowledge of the rail industry to answer this question and
candidates should have been able to identify that the main factors which could affect
alertness were fatigue, driver health and cabin environment. Fatigue could be caused by the
design of the shift system including rotation issues, the length of shift, the spacing of rest
breaks and the recovery time between working periods. The level of fatigue might also be
exacerbated by the driver’s non-work activities. Degree of alertness could also be affected
by an existing medical condition, by the consumption of drugs or alcohol and by external
stressors such as domestic issues. Finally the driver’s working environment and level of
activity would also have an affect on alertness. Contributory factors would include the
temperature, ventilation, level of noise and comfort of the seating in the cabin while driving
repeatedly on the same route and working alone for long periods would not help.

Having successfully identified the influencing factors, it should then have not been too
difficult to outline a range of control measures. These would include the introduction of a
shift system to minimise the risk of fatigue with controls being introduced on shift length, the
provision of regular breaks and sufficient recovery time particularly during and after the
potentially high risk period between midnight and 06.00 hrs. It would also be necessary to
introduce a pre-employment medical examination followed by regular in service health
screening and to put in place an alcohol and substance use policy with arrangements for its
enforcement including random testing. Finally attention would have to be given both to the
design of the cabin and the driver’s activity including the provision of air conditioning,
controls for illumination and sun shading, adjustable seating, the introduction of noise
control measures and arrangements to ensure variation in route allocation.

Some candidates believed “two man” working was an essential measure to be taken whilst
the few who suggested that to avoid fatigue and boredom drivers should get up and walk
round the train were not awarded marks.

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Question 5 (a) Describe the statutory procedures for making regulations under the
Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974. (6)

(b) Outline the purpose and principles of cost-benefit analysis as it applies to

proposed regulations. (4)

Examiners were concerned that this question was generally very poorly answered
particularly since it concerned a fundamental aspect of health and safety legislation. There
was obvious confusion when procedures for making regulations were being discussed with
many outlining the procedures for making an Act of Parliament rather than regulations and
writing about green and white papers, various readings and eventually Royal Assent. The
description may well have been accurate but it had nothing to do with the question asked.
What was required initially was reference to the power to make regulations given to the
Secretary of State under section 15 of HSWA with the proviso that the subject matter of the
regulations should fall within those matters contained in Schedule 3 to the Act. The
procedure involves consultation by the Secretary of State with HSC (though HSC may make
a proposal to the Secretary) and with relevant government and other bodies. The proposals
must lie before both Houses of Parliament for 40 days and are passed if they are not voted
against in either House. If there is a vote against them, they are annulled.

There was also a distinct lack of knowledge of the purpose and principles of cost benefit
analysis. The purpose is to identify the overall value to society of proposed regulations by
comparing the benefits which would arise with the costs of implementing the regulations. In
carrying out the exercise, the costs and benefits are both converted to a monetary value
following established protocols for the costing of benefits in terms of the prevention of death,
damage injury and ill-health. Costs are adjusted to allow for the different timescales over
which costs and benefits may occur or accrue and implementation costs are estimated.
Finally the calculated monetary values of costs and benefits are compared. Many
candidates were unable to progress beyond a general suggestion that the costs of
implementing regulations could be balanced against the benefits to society. This was not
enough to gain the four marks available.

Question 6 Outline the factors which should be considered in the planning of a health and
safety inspection programme.

Information on the specific workplace conditions or behaviours that might be

covered in an inspection is not required. (10)

_________________________________________________________________________

This was again a straightforward question which produced some good answers with many
candidates structuring their responses round the four key words – who, what, where and
when and outlining factors such as the composition and competence of the inspection team,
the specific areas of the workplace to be inspected, the frequency and timings of the
inspections, the possible need to provide personal protective equipment to the inspection
team, the preparation of checklists, consulting previous inspection reports and researching
applicable legislation and standards, and deciding on procedures to be followed after the
inspection to ensure appropriate remedial action is taken. Better answers included the need
to obtain senior management support and commitment for the inspection programme.
Some candidates did not pay sufficient attention to the word “planning” and instead outlined
what the team should look for during the inspection.

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 Section B – three from five questions to be attempted

Question 7 The refurbishment of an organisation’s offices will involve the services of

several different trades from a number of small local companies and is to be
completed while the building is occupied. An interior designer specialising in
commercial properties will manage the project, which will last about three
weeks and will require fewer than five persons to be working on the
refurbishment at any one time.

(a) Outline the criteria that should be used when selecting contractors to
undertake their part of the project. (6)

(b) Outline the organisational measures that the project manager may need
to consider in order to ensure the health and safety of office personnel
during the work.

You are not required to consider the specific risks associated with the
work. (14)

This was a reasonably popular question with answers to part (a) rather better than those
provided for part (b).

Candidates were able to outline a number of criteria to be considered in selecting a

competent contractor including, amongst others: the contractor’s previous experience with
the type of work; the reputation of the contractor with previous or current clients; the quality
and content of the health and safety policy and risk assessments; the level of training and
qualifications of staff; accident/enforcement history; membership of relevant professional
bodies; equipment maintenance and statutory examination records; and the detailed
proposals (eg method statements) for the work to be carried out.
The second part required an outline of the organisational measures that the project
manager might need to consider in order to ensure the health and safety of the office
personnel during the refurbishment work. There was a generous mark scheme for this part
of the question which offered a wide range of measures which could have been cited by
candidates. These included agreeing schedules and timescales with the contractors;
induction issues such as the provision of relevant information on procedures for signing in
and out, accident reporting, means of escape and procedures to be followed in the event of
an emergency and on hazards in the building such as the location of utilities and the
presence of substances such as asbestos; arrangements for the staged delivery and
storage of materials and the removal of waste; and arrangements for consultation between
the individual contractors and the building manager. There would also be a need to ensure
that the office employees were kept fully informed of the timetable for and progress with the
work and in particular of any parts of the building to which access might be temporarily
restricted. Practical arrangements for monitoring the contractor’s health and safety
performance were also important.

Some candidates mistakenly took this to be a question on the CDM Regulations whilst
others concentrated on the physical controls to be put in place rather than organisational
measures.

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Question 8 A chemical process control panel contains a digital temperature display that
shows the reaction temperature. If a critical temperature is reached, the
operator must press an emergency stop button, which results in the reaction
being quenched and cooled.

Concern has been expressed about the adequacy of relying on the operator to
take the necessary action when the reaction temperature is too high. One
proposal is to automate the reaction quench sequence if a specified
temperature is exceeded.

One such simple system comprising three key components (A, B and C)
connected in series has been proposed and this is shown below in Fig (i).

Fig (i)

A further suggestion is that the reliability of the protective system could be enhanced by
placing an identical system in parallel to the main system which would be activated
automatically by a sensor and switch arrangement (D) in the event of failure of the first
system. This is shown in Fig (ii).

A A

B B

C C

Fig (ii)

Reliability data for the components is given below.

Component Reliability
A 0.94
B 0.85
C 0.91
D 0.98

(a) If the manual system is retained, identify measures that could be taken to
reduce the probability of operator error resulting in the reaction not being
quenched. (8)

(b) Using simple reliability theory calculate the reliability of the system shown
in Fig (i). (2)

(c) Calculate the improvement in system reliability that would arise from
using a parallel system as shown in Fig (ii) when compared with the
simpler system shown in Fig (i). (6)

(d) Identify the factors that should be taken into account when deciding
whether to go ahead with either of the two automated protection systems. (4)

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 This was not a very popular question and the answers provided varied considerably in
quality. For part (a), some candidates were able to identify only measures such as operator
training and job rotation whereas better answers referred also to the provision of an alarm to
attract attention if the temperature approached a critical value, the value of well placed
emergency stop buttons, the use of a marked analogue display rather than a digital display,
the restriction of access to the control room to minimise distraction and environmental issues
to assist alertness such as lighting, temperature and noise levels.

In general, for Parts (b) and (c), most candidates were able to arrive at the reliability of the
main system shown in Figure (i). However the calculation required to show the improvement
in system reliability that would arise from using a parallel system when compared with the
simpler system was more challenging and proved to be beyond many.

Reliability of main system:

0.94 x 0.85 x 0.91 = 0.7271 (= 73%)

Increase in reliability
Reliability of standby system: = 0.7271
Reliability of system with parallel standby:
1 - (1 - 0.7271) (1 - 0.7271) = 1 - (0.2729) (0.2729) = 1 - 0.0745 = 0.9255 (= 93%)
Reliability of overall system:
0.9255 × 0.98 = 0.9070
Overall improvement of 0.1799 ((0.1799 / 0.7271 x 100) = 24.7%)

For part (d), the factors to be considered in making a decision as to whether to go ahead
with either of the automated protection systems would be an evaluation of the risk and the
cost of the stand by system; the possibility of using more reliable components in a single
system (and particularly in the case of component B) and the possibility of adding
components in parallel rather than a complete new system. This part of the question was
again poorly answered with most candidates limiting their answers to risk evaluation and
cost issues.

Question 9 A factory has on its site a two-storey warehouse that is used occasionally for
storing packaging materials. It is also used to house redundant equipment that
includes some damaged wooden racking. The building is falling into a state of
disrepair and there is a large hole in the floor-boards of the upper floor. Signs
with “Danger – no entry” have been placed at the bottom of each of the two
staircases and the electricity supply to the building has been disconnected.
The security company that provides security cover to the site by means of
regular visits has reported signs of unlawful entry into the warehouse, and it
appears that some of the racking has been removed.

Outline the possible breaches of civil statute law and criminal statute law that
this situation may present and in each case, explain the relevant duty and
identify the duty holder. (20)

In answering this question, those candidates that tackled each area of law in a systematic
way generally achieved higher marks. The most relevant civil statute law relating to the
scenario is contained in the Occupiers’ Liability Acts of 1957 and 1984. Under the earlier
statute, the occupier of premises owes a duty to ensure the safety of lawful visitors to the
premises in respect of dangers arising from the state of the premises or things done or
omitted to be done in them. The security staff would be considered lawful visitors and the
erection of signs might not be considered a sufficient precautionary measure given the state
of the building.

Under the later Act the occupier owes a similar duty to persons other than lawful visitors. To
be in breach of this duty, he/she should have reasonable grounds to believe that persons
may be placed at risk and the risks are those against which he/she may reasonably be
expected to offer some protection. In this case the employer has been advised of unlawful
entry into the building and, apart from erecting notices has done little else to meet his/her
obligation under the Act.

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 Under criminal law, candidates should have considered legislation which imposed a duty on
the owner of the premises and the respective employers in respect of the safety of the
security company employees, any of the factory’s own employees who may enter the
warehouse and any potential trespassers such as children. Relevant legislation that could
have been explored in the context of the scenario would have included sections 2-4 of the
Health and Safety at Work Etc Act 1974; duties in the Management of Health and Safety at
Work Regulations 1999 relating to risk assessments, health and safety arrangements and
arrangements for employers sharing worksites or employees working in host employer’s
undertakings.

This was an unpopular question which did not produce very good answers. The
requirements of the Occupiers’ Liability Acts were not widely understood and some did little
more than produce suggested control measures which were not required by the question.

Question 10 A multi-site business in the UK has a quality management system compliant

with ISO 9001:2000. It also has a health and safety management system and
an environmental management system that operate independently. The Board
of Directors is now considering the possibility of developing an integrated
management system encompassing all three elements. In order that a decision
can be made objectively, prepare a brief for the Board that explains the key
potential benefits of:

(a) an integrated management system (10)

(b) retaining the existing system of separate management systems. (10)

The arguments for and against the use of an integrated management system for safety,
quality and environmental issues will need to be considered by many practitioners at some
stage during their careers. The question invited candidates to outline their understanding of
the key benefits of both an integrated and separate systems.

The benefits of an integrated management system could have included: consistency of

format and a lower overall cost through the avoidance of duplication in procedural, record-
keeping, compliance auditing and software areas; encouraging priorities and resource
utilisation that reflect the overall needs of the organisation rather than an individual
discipline; applying the benefits from good initiatives in one area to other areas;
encouraging closer working and equal influence amongst specialists; encouraging the
spread of a positive culture across all three disciplines; and providing scope for the
integration of other risk areas such as security or product safety.

Benefits from retaining separate systems could have included: providing a more flexible
approach tailored to business needs in terms of system complexity and operating
philosophy (eg safety standards must meet minimum legal requirements whereas quality
standards can be set internally – therefore, the need for a more complex system in one
element may not be mirrored by a similar need in the other two elements); existing systems
may work well and the process of integration may expend unnecessary resources and affect
their effectiveness; separate systems might be clearer for external stakeholders or
regulators to understand and work with; and they may encourage a more detailed and
focused approach to auditing and standards.

Answers to this “compare and contrast” question were to a reasonable standard with those
candidates who adopted a logical approach to dealing with the application and practical
operation of integrated management systems able to gain good marks. While marks were
available for style this was less important than content and so elaborately presented reports
to the management board without the necessary substance may not have gained the
number of marks that their authors had anticipated.

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Question 11 (a) Distinguish between:

(i) common law and statute law (4)

(ii) civil law and criminal law (6)

(b) Employers have a duty under common law to take reasonable care to
ensure the safety of their employees. Outline the nature of this duty,
using practical examples and referring to case law where appropriate, in
terms of:

(i) safe premises (5)

(ii) reasonably competent fellow employees. (5)

In answering part (a)(i), the more successful candidates were those who explained that
common law has been determined by the courts over many years by judicial precedent.
Statute law, on the other hand, takes the form of Acts of Parliament and Statutory
Instruments (orders and regulations), which lay down requirements and assign duties and
responsibilities.

In part (a)(ii), candidates could have referred to the different objectives of the two systems
(one to provide a remedy, the other to punish), the burden of proof required (a balance of
probabilities as opposed to beyond all reasonable doubt), the parties generally involved (two
parties rather than the state and a party) and the different court structures involved.

Wilsons and Clyde Coal Company v English [1938] was relevant to all of part (b) of the
question and was a good starting point for illustrating the relevant duties and their non-
delegable nature.

Employers must provide and maintain reasonably safe premises for their employees and
must consider the reasonably foreseeable risks that might occur. This will entail putting
arrangements in place for the regular inspection of premises and for carrying out any
maintenance or repair found to be necessary. Relevant cases expounding the extent of the
duty could have included Paine v Colne Valley Electricity Supply Co, Latimer v AEC and
Cook v Square D.

As for employees, employers have a duty to take reasonable care to select, train and
instruct competent staff, to monitor them and to take appropriate action in cases of
dangerous behaviour. Hudson v Ridge Manufacturing Co Ltd was a relevant case as were
cases describing the limits of “in the course of employment” (such as Smith v Crossley
Brothers), providing that they were clearly linked to the issues of competent employees and
their behaviour.

This was a very popular question which produced some good answers. However there were
still a few candidates who appear to have little concept of the sources and types of law. In
part (b) there were many references to HASAWA and it was difficult to decide whether this
was due to a lack of understanding of common law or through misreading the question.

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 UNIT B – Hazardous agents in the workplace

General comments
This was the fourth time that a Unit B paper had been set for the Diploma in its present form and 532
candidates presented themselves for the examination. All questions were based clearly on the content of the
published syllabus and a balance was achieved between questions that required specific technical
knowledge relating to occupational health risks and their measurement and control and those that addressed
workplace issues in a more general way. In the event, candidates tended to perform better on the latter type
of question – for instance Questions 1 and 9 relating respectively to the functions of an occupational health
service and hand-arm vibration syndrome, while they did not do so well on the former. The answers to
Questions 2 and 3 were particular examples of this. However, good marks were obtained by a number
candidates for several of the questions and this should provide some reassurance to those who were
unsuccessful on this occasion.

A prerequisite for success is the accumulation of knowledge in order to gain a high level of understanding
that can be demonstrated in the examination. This requires a significant amount of study on the part of
candidates, together with structured revision and practice in writing examination answers. It was apparent on
this occasion that several candidates were unprepared for the examination, which hopefully they will be able
to address for a future occasion.

Section A – all questions compulsory

Question 1 Outline the possible functions of an occupational health service within a large
manufacturing company. (10)

The possible functions of an occupational health service that could have been outlined
include pre-employment health screening or other medical examinations (for example, of
employees returning to work following accidents or of those such as transport drivers whose
work demands particular physical competencies), biological monitoring and health
surveillance. The service would also very likely have a role in contributing to health and
safety policies, providing specialist input to risk assessments and health education and
training programmes, carrying out sickness and absence monitoring and keeping health
records, managing first-aid provision, implementing rehabilitation programmes and liaising
with other professionals such as local GPs and HSE/EMAS. Other possible functions,
depending on the organisation and its activities, might include immunisation, drug and
alcohol screening and involvement with environmental monitoring programmes.

A few candidates were able to identify the role of occupational health staff in conducting
medical examinations and health surveillance but were then not able to go much further and
outline other likely functions, in particular how occupational health expertise could be used
in promoting and managing health at work. In general, however, the question was well
answered and most candidates were able to provide a good range of possible functions of
an occupational health service.

12
Question 2 (a) Outline what is meant by the term ‘biological monitoring’ and indicate
circumstances in which such monitoring may be appropriate. (6)

(b) What practical difficulties must an employer take into account when
introducing a programme of biological monitoring. (4)

The first part of this question was not well answered and it became obvious that many
candidates did not understand the principles of biological monitoring. Some confused
biological monitoring with biological agents and wrote about the latter while others described
personal sampling techniques which was clearly not what the question required.

Biological monitoring is concerned with the measurement or assessment of hazardous

substances or their metabolites in tissues, secretions, excreta or expired air. It is a
complementary technique to air monitoring or sampling and can be used to determine if
existing controls are adequate; when information is required on the accumulated dose in a
target organ; when there is a specified guidance value against which a comparison might be
made (such as in EH 40); when there is significant absorption by non-respiratory routes and
in circumstances when there is significant reliance on personal protective equipment.

However, better answers were provided for part (b) concerning the practical difficulties an
employer should take into account when introducing a programme of biological monitoring.
Apart from the monitoring required by statute, it would normally be conducted on a voluntary
basis. Consequently the informed consent of those involved would have to be obtained and
their concerns overcome. Other difficulties include the availability of suitable facilities or a
location to carry out the monitoring especially if this has to be done at the end of the shift;
the availability of specialists to carry out the monitoring for example if blood samples are to
be taken; maintaining the integrity of samples to avoid cross contamination and ensuring
there was no possibility of cross infection; the fact that there are few guidance values
available for comparison and finally the cost involved in carrying out the exercise.

Question 3 An airborne contaminant has a Workplace Exposure Limit (WEL) of 40 ppm, 8

hour time-weighted average (TWA). Despite the introduction of a range of
engineering controls the airborne concentration of this contaminant in a
workshop has been measured and has been found to be 160 ppm, 8 hour
TWA.

The local manager has chosen a piece of respiratory protective equipment

(RPE) with an assigned protection factor (APF) of 40 to be worn by all
employees in the contaminated area.

(a) Using the data above explain how you determine if the manager has
made an appropriate choice of RPE. (4)

(b) Suggest other factors that should be taken into account when selecting
appropriate RPE. (6)

It was unfortunate that for part (a) of the question many candidates did not appear to
understand the term assigned protection factor (APF). They were not able to do the
calculation required and therefore often came to the wrong conclusion. Candidates should
have explained that APF is the concentration of contaminant in the air divided by the
maximum allowed concentration in the face piece. In the scenario described, the maximum
concentration in the face piece to which an employee should be exposed would be the WEL
– 40ppm. Therefore the minimum APF required would be 160/40 = 4. The actual APF is ten
times the minimum and consequently the respiratory protective equipment chosen would
have a large safety factor and should offer a good level of protection.

13
 In contrast, answers to the second part of the question were to a better standard with most
candidates able to suggest a range of factors including the nature of the dust or vapour
involved; the length of time that employees would need to wear the equipment and the type
of work to be carried out taking into account its physical nature, the degree of movement
required and the restrictions of the working space; the compatibility of the respiratory
protective equipment with other personal protective equipment; the ease with which it can
be put on and maintained; its manufacture to an appropriate standard and importantly the
need to consult fully with the workforce on the selection of the equipment.

Question 4 According to current veterinary and medical opinion the bacterium E.Coli O157
should be assumed to be carried by all ruminants (cattle, sheep, goats, deer).
In addition, this bacterium can exist for long periods of time outside of the
animal (in soil and faeces).

(a) Suggest ways in which children making an educational visit to an open

farm might be exposed to E. Coli O157 bacteria. (4)

(b) Explain a range of practical control measures that should be put in place
in order to reduce this risk of exposure. (6)

Candidates had first to recognise that the bacteria was transmissible through hand to mouth
contact and as it states in the question, can exist for long periods of time outside the animal
for example in soil or faeces. With that understood, there should have been no difficulty
either in suggesting how children on a visit to an open farm might be exposed to the
bacteria or in explaining control measures that should be put in place.

The children’s hands could be contaminated by touching animals, touching surfaces

contaminated by faeces such as gates and fences and coming into contact with
contaminated footwear during its removal. The transfer of the bacteria to the mouth could
take place during eating or drinking before hands had been thoroughly washed or from
putting fingers near or in the mouth for any other purpose (as young children often do).
Many candidates wanted to suggest other transmission routes which were not relevant.

There was a range of control measures that could be put in place. It would be important
before the visit took place to brief schools of the precautions to be observed so that the
children could be advised of what they should and should not do once they arrived at the
farm. On the farm, contact with animals should be restricted to specified areas and
arrangements put in place to clean, disinfect and remove faeces from these areas on a
regular basis. Hand washing facilities should be provided, ideally placed at the exits from
contact areas and before entrance to areas set aside for taking refreshment and it would be
sensible for children to be advised on thorough hand washing techniques at the start of the
visit. The animal areas should be segregated from areas set aside for eating and signs
warning of the risks of contamination and the precautions to be taken placed in strategic
positions. Finally the farm management should ensure that there is an adequate number of
staff on duty to supervise and advise visitors in the contact areas.

While in general this question was well and sensibly answered, there were candidates who
suggested inappropriate controls such as children being provided with personal protective
equipment such as gloves, aprons and over shoes while others called for the erection of
perspex screens between the children and the animals. Substitution of the animals was not
really a realistic option but the suggestion did in fact appear in several scripts.

14
Question 5 A new sports and leisure centre that provides facilities for the general public is
planning to install a range of UV tanning equipment. The equipment uses UV
sources with a higher intensity than normal sunlight to accelerate tanning.

(a) Describe what should be included in the training given to employees who
will operate this facility in order to ensure both their safety and that of the
customers. (6)

(b) Suggest other control measures that should be put in place for the safe
operation of this facility. (4)

Answers to this question were to a reasonable standard though some candidates tended to
provide too much detail on the health effects of UV exposure while others, when they came
to answer the second part, repeated matters that they had already included in their answers
to part (a).

Information was required on the content of the training programme that should be given to
employees who would operate the UV tanning equipment. They would need first of all to be
made aware of the risks of exposure to UV radiation and then instructed in the operation of
the equipment including the safety controls and features fitted such as the timer and
emergency alarm and the importance of carrying out pre-user checks and cleaning between
each customer. Dealing with the customers would also be an important part of the training
including instructing them in the safety features of the equipment and how they might call for
assistance in an emergency and advising them on the risks associated with UV exposure,
the recommended duration/frequency of their exposure and the precautions to be taken
such as wearing goggles and sun screen products.

For part (b), candidates were asked to suggest other control measures that should be put in
place. These could have included the screening or enclosure of the tanning equipment, the
siting of employee workstations away from stray UV radiation, the provision of suitable
goggles and ensuring their use, carrying out regular maintenance on the equipment such as
changing tubes and maintaining records of customer exposure.

Question 6 (a) Identify a range of information sources an employer could use to

determine the extent to which their organisation has a work-related stress
problem. (7)

(b) Explain which of the employer’s statutory duties are relevant to work-
related stress. (3)

There are a number of information sources available in house that employers might use to
determine the extent to which their organisations have a work related stress problem. These
include data on accidents and levels of sickness absence; health surveillance data; records
of staff turnover and poor or erratic timekeeping; the number of complaints received from
employees and the grievances or discipline problems that have arisen; information available
from the completion of staff questionnaires or from performance appraisals or return to work
or exit interviews and the results of an assessment of performance carried out against
HSE’s management standards. Answers to this part of the question were to an acceptable
standard though some candidates got off on the wrong foot and identified external sources
of information rather than those available in house. Given that stress is a very topical
subject, it was disappointing to note, too, that few candidates made any mention of the HSE
management standards.

15
 For part (b), there were few candidates who were able with any degree of confidence to
explain the employer’s statutory duties relevant to work related stress. There was
misunderstanding of the word “statutory” and many wrote about the common law duty of
care. What was required to obtain the marks available was reference to the employer’s duty
under section 2 of the HSWA to ensure the safety and health (including mental health) of
employees; duties under regulations 3 and 5 of MHSWR to undertake assessments of risks
including risks of work related stress and the duty under the Working Time Regulations to
ensure that restrictions on working hours are met since if they are not, it may be a
contributory factor in causing stress. Many candidates were too vague in their responses to
this part of the question and so did not gain the marks available.

Section B – three from five questions to be attempted

Question 7 (a) Explain why it is difficult to determine whether cancers in the working
population are caused by exposure to substances used at work. (6)

(b) Review the merits and limitations of each of the following methods for
identifying the carcinogenic potential of a substance.

(i) Human epidemiology (5)

(ii) Animal studies (5)

(iii) In vitro mutagenicity testing. (4)

This was not a popular question but of those candidates who did attempt it, many did well
with the first part but not so well with the second.

Part (a) was designed to assess candidates’ understanding of some of the key difficulties in
identifying occupational cancers. Relevant issues could have included the long latency
period of many cancers, with changes in the exposure pattern and exposed population
during that period; the multi-causality of many cancers and the potential for synergism and
interaction with non-occupational causes; the prevalence of common cancers, such as lung
cancer, in the general population; individual susceptibility, and poor historical records,
particularly of past exposure.

In their review of the merits and limitations of methods for identifying the carcinogenic
potential of a substance, candidates could have pointed out that human epidemiology,
whilst being a definitive method for identifying human carcinogens, is expensive and time
consuming and usually requires large populations. It is not a method to be deployed for
assessing the carcinogenic potential of new substances and suffers from problems of
sensitivity, specificity, and reliance on accurate records for assessing substances currently
in use.

Animal testing studies are the best experimental method though they, too, can be expensive
and time consuming but the data can be gathered more quickly than by epidemiology. Apart
from any ethical concerns, there are difficulties in extrapolating animal data to humans and
often very large doses are required to produce a response which may in any case vary with
different species.

Finally in-vitro mutagenicity testing such as the Ames Test is rapid, low cost and avoids
ethical problems. However, whilst a finding of mutagenic potential may well also indicate
carcinogenic potential, the tests are not totally reliable and they can produce both false
positives and false negatives.

16
Question 8 Stonemasons are exposed to irritant limestone dust in the course of their work.
Limestone dust has been assigned a workplace exposure limit (WEL) under the
Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations (COSHH) 2002.

(a) Explain the term Workplace Exposure Limit (WEL) in this context. (3)

(b) Stonemasons’ work involves both cutting and finishing of limestone.

Explain the factors to be considered when undertaking a suitable and
sufficient assessment of the risks from their exposure to limestone dust. (11)

(c) Given that stonemasons are required to work both in a workshop and out
on site, suggest a range of control measures that would be suitable in
each of these situations. (6)

For part (a) candidates were expected to explain that in the context of the scenario, the
workplace exposure limit (WEL) would be the maximum concentration of limestone dust to
which employees might be exposed by inhalation. The concentration is measured in mg/m³ ,
and is averaged over a specific period of time, either long term over a period of eight hours
intended to control effects by restricting the total intake by inhalation over one or more work
shifts, or short term, usually fifteen minutes, to control effects that may be seen after a brief
exposure. For the control of exposure to limestone dust to be considered adequate under
COSHH, the WEL should not be exceeded and principles of good hygiene practice should
be followed. There were few candidates who could give an adequate explanation of a WEL.

In undertaking an assessment of the risks faced by stonemasons from exposure to the dust,
the factors to be considered include the health effects of limestone dust such as irritation to
the skin, eyes and respiratory tract, the number of persons exposed, the level and duration
of their exposure and the susceptibility of individuals; the routes of entry of the dust such as
through inhalation or ingestion; the particle size of the dust which will determine how far into
the body the dust may pass; the way in which the work is carried out whether by hand or
power tool; the level and effectiveness of existing control measures and results from the
monitoring of airborne contaminants and/or health surveillance.

As for suitable control measures, for operations carried out in the workshop, the use of local
exhaust ventilation would be required but for site work, damping down would be the
measure that would have to be used. Controls to be used in both situations include the use
of cutting tools with in-built extraction or a damping spray; the provision and use of
respiratory protective equipment which should be comfortable to wear for extended periods
of use, compatible with other personal protective equipment and suitable for use during
work at height; and the provision of eye and hearing protection, gloves and overalls.

This was not a popular question and was answered by those who attempted it with varying
degrees of success. Many provided generic answers rather than ones which related directly
to the scenario described.

Question 9 (a) Describe the causes and health effects of hand-arm vibration syndrome
(HAVS). (6)

(b) Outline the elements of a strategy designed to reduce the incidence of

HAVS amongst employees who make extensive use of hand-held tools in
their work and which ensure compliance with the Control of Vibration at
Work Regulations 2005. (14)

The causes of hand arm vibration syndrome are as a result of contact over long periods of
time with tools that vibrate in the medium frequency range. The likelihood of occurrence is
worse when a percussive action is involved and it can be exacerbated by low temperatures
and smoking. The effects on health can include damage to the peripheral nervous system
leading to vascular disorders such as vaso-constriction, neurological disorders such as
numbness and tingling, loss of dexterity and grip, gangrene in severe cases, blanching of
the skin and carpel tunnel syndrome. The extent of severity can be indicated by the degree
of blanching and the use of grading tools such as the Stockholm scale.

17
 In answering part (b), answers should have made reference to factors including the need to
undertake a risk assessment that gives an identification and analysis of tasks involving
vibrating equipment, the duration of exposure to vibration, the people involved, their
predisposition to vibration related disorders, the magnitude of vibration, the use (with
caution) of typical or manufacturers’ data, the use of an accelerometer to measure vibration
exposures and comparison with the exposure action value (EAV) and exposure limit value
(ELV) contained in CVWR. Control measures that should be considered would include,
amongst others, reducing exposure so far as is reasonably practicable by a formal
programme of controls if the ELV is exceeded; the automation/change of a process to avoid
the use of hand-held vibrating tools; the appropriate equipment selection; job rotation and a
change of work patterns with short and frequent breaks; planned preventive
maintenance/lubrication; the avoidance of cold conditions; the correct selection of personnel
following pre-employment health screening and health surveillance and health
questionnaires with clinical tests as necessary.

This was a very popular question which was generally well answered though for the second
part, there were some candidates who found it difficult to present a control strategy. A
control strategy does include controls measures but is wider than this, incorporating the
other factors listed above.

Question 10 Staff working in a busy 24 hour Accident and Emergency Department of a city
centre hospital are exposed to a range of health risks including violence, stress
and manual handling.

(a) For EACH of these health risks indicate how exposure can occur and
suggest factors that will increase the likelihood of A&E staff being
exposed to these risks. (12)

(b) Outline a range of controls that the hospital could introduce to minimise
the risks to staff from violence, stress and manual handling. (8)

This again was a very popular question and most candidates who attempted it showed a
good understanding of the issues involved and dealt separately with each health risk and its
controls.

The risk of violence is present since staff, in order to administer treatment, have to deal in
close proximity with patients who are often in a distressed state and in pain and who may be
under the influence of alcohol or drugs. The situation is often exacerbated by the presence
of the patient’s relatives or friends who are often equally distressed and concerned at the
time that has passed before the patient has been seen. The risk from manual handling
arises in this situation since patients may have to be moved when they are often
unconscious or incapacitated and cannot help themselves or when their movements are
unpredictable or unhelpful particularly if they have consumed alcohol or substances.
Frequently for treatment purposes, equipment may have to be moved to the patient before
assistance is available and often mechanical aids are not immediately to hand. In an
Accident and Emergency Department, staff need to work quickly in order to treat certain
conditions effectively and the fact that there is little control over the volume or pace of work
may add to the stress to which they are exposed. The working environment can often be
noisy or threatening and they frequently have to cope with distressing situations. Targets for
waiting times are imposed by management and staffing levels may not be sufficient since
the work load can not be accurately predicted.

18
 To minimise the risk of violence to staff, the hospital might consider installing CCTV and
panic alarms or buttons as well as introducing a security presence into the department.
Training the staff in managing violence and/or aggression would also be helpful as would
improving the working environment to make more space available and to remove items of
furniture that could potentially be used as missiles. A further measure would be to ensure
that staffing levels are sufficient to cope with peak times and that staff have effective
communication with patients to advise them of the envisaged waiting time and with each
other to increase the efficiency in providing necessary treatment. As for the risks involved in
manual handling, control measures would include the provision of training in handling
techniques appropriate for accident and emergency situation; working in teams of two
(which could also minimise risks from violence); and ensuring that equipment was always at
hand to assist in any handling or lifting operation that has to be carried out. To minimise the
risk from stress, management would need to ensure appropriate shift patterns with planned
breaks are introduced in the Department as well as training in the management of the
condition and the provision of support and counselling for those who might be affected.

Question 11 (a) Define the term ‘ergonomics’. (2)

(b) Outline the effects on health and safety which can arise from poor
ergonomic design. (4)

(c) Using practical examples describe how these effects can be avoided. (14)

For part (a), there were a few answers that took a rather restricted view of ergonomics but
the majority correctly embraced the notion of ergonomics as the study of the interaction
between workers and their work, in terms of the design of the workplace, work equipment
and work methods.

Having recognised this, it should have been apparent that the effects of poor ergonomic
design include almost the entire range of physical and mental harm that can occur to
persons at work. In particular, candidates might have referred to physical harm in terms of
discomfort, fatigue and musculoskeletal disorders and to mental harm as evidenced by
increased stress, lack of motivation and an increase in error leading to accidents or
incidents. While this part of the question was also generally well answered, there were some
candidates who concentrated only on physical health effects to the exclusion of other effects
such as the potential for an increase in error and de-motivation.

The final part of the question was less well answered with many candidates writing
exclusively and extensively about display screen equipment. This question required a wider
consideration of the issues. Practical measures which would help to avoid the effects of
poor ergonomic design are designing working space and equipment to suit individuals and
not “average” persons; providing equipment and furniture that are easily adjustable; and
fitting controls that are clearly marked, standardised and easily accessible. Additional
measures include the introduction of automation; eliminating or reducing the need for
employees to twist, stretch and bend; reducing the weight of loads that need to be moved
manually; designing tools to minimise the application of force; changing work patterns;
improving the working environment particularly as far as temperature, lighting and noise are
concerned; and improving the presentation of information using signs, displays and colour
coding.

19
 UNIT C – Workplace and work equipment

General comments
This was the fourth time that a Unit C paper had been set for the Diploma in its present form and 595
candidates presented themselves for the examination. Unit C addresses the technical aspects of safety and
this paper is therefore designed to test candidates’ knowledge and understanding of some of these technical
issues. While some candidates met the challenge admirably, there were many that showed confusion and a
lack of technical knowledge. Overall, there was much reliance placed on general and generic statements that
neither demonstrated the level of technical understanding required nor, very often, addressed the specific
question asked. As a result, the questions that produced the better answers were those that centred largely
on procedural rather than technical matters such as Question 3 on the scheme for examination and testing of
portable electrical appliances and Question 8 on the measures that should be taken to reduce the likelihood
of a mobile crane overturning. In questions where a greater amount of technical content was required such
as Question 4 on the possible sources of ignition from a diesel powered fork lift truck and Question 10 on
fatigue failure, candidates fared less well.

Also evident from many candidates’ scripts was a lack of knowledge of specific legal requirements and the
terms used in legislation. This problem came to the fore in answers to Question 2 on the Supply of
Machinery (Safety) Regulations 1992.

Section A – all questions compulsory

Question 1 (a) Outline a range of hazards associated with the use of mobile elevating
work platforms (MEWPs). (4)

(b) Outline the general requirements for the safe use of MEWPs. (6)

In general there were good answers provided for this straightforward question with many
candidates obtaining the full range of marks available. For part (a), they needed to outline
hazards including falls from a height of persons or materials, instability of the vehicle, being
struck by other vehicles, trapping and impact hazards, mechanical failure, contact with
overhead lines or other obstructions and exposure of employees to adverse weather
conditions.

Having identified the hazards, it should then have not been too difficult to outline the
measures which would be required to ensure the safe use of the equipment. These include
the selection and training of operators; guarding scissor mechanisms to prevent trapping;
correct positioning to prevent over-reaching and proximity to dangers such as overhead
lines; maintaining stability by the use of fully extended and locked outriggers on firm ground;
preventing the use of the equipment in adverse weather conditions; keeping within the safe
working limit; prohibiting the transfer of persons or materials to or from the platform while it
was in a raised position; regular inspection and servicing of the equipment; preventing falls
from the platform by the use of hand rails or harnesses; controlling working areas by the use
of barriers and signs and providing head protection where appropriate.

20
Question 2 Outline the process that must be followed before a machine can be supplied
under the Supply of Machinery (Safety) Regulations 1992. (10)

In answering this question, candidates were expected to state that the machine must satisfy
certain health and safety requirements (EHSRs) and must be safe. Good responses gave
examples of EHSRs such as those involving the safety and reliability of control devices, and
protection against mechanical hazards and other hazards such as electricity, noise and
vibration. Answers should then have referred to the need for the responsible person who
might be the manufacturer of the machine or the appointed representative in the Community
to carry out the appropriate conformity assessment procedures which include the
preparation of a technical file (containing information such as full detailed drawings and
calculations and a description of the methods adopted to eliminate hazards presented by
the machine); to ensure that the machine complies with the requirements of other relevant
EC directives; to issue a declaration of conformity and to fix the CE mark in a distinct,
visible, legible and indelible manner.

This question was not well answered with most candidates showing a poor grasp of the
process and in attempts to improvise, producing responses which were vague and muddled.

Question 3 State the main factors to be considered when devising a scheme for the
systematic examination and testing of portable electrical appliances. (10)

In answering this question, candidates should have first considered the importance of
producing an initial inventory of the equipment to be examined and tested, ensuring that
each item was provided with a unique means of identification. That completed, it would then
be necessary to determine the appropriate type and frequency of inspection for each item
based on factors affecting the level of risk, such as the type of appliance, any protective
systems provided such as earthing, double insulation, or reduced voltage, the age and
usage of the appliance, the environment in which it was used and the experience and
competence of the user. Additionally, historical data and manufacturer’s recommendations
would need to be taken unto consideration. Finally, criteria for each type of examination and
test would have to be laid down which would include issues such as the competence of the
tester, the calibration and maintenance of test equipment, the format of records to be kept
on the results of the tests and examinations and systems to identify and take out of use
equipment that was found to be faulty. Better answers included reference to the Electricity
at Work Regulations 1989 and published guidance from the HSE.

The question produced some well structured and informative answers though some
candidates were diverted into detailing a check list of parts of the appliances that should be
inspected.

Question 4 (a) Identify the sources of ignition from a typical diesel-engined fork-lift truck. (4)

(b) Outline the protection that should be provided on such a truck in order to
minimise the risk of explosion when it is required to work in a potentially
flammable atmosphere. (6)

In the first part of the question, candidates were asked to identify possible sources of
ignition from a typical diesel-engined fork lift truck. They should have referred to flames or
sparks from the exhaust and inlet systems, sparks arising from the truck’s electrical system,
as a result of the presence of static electricity or through over speeding or overloading of the
engine.

21
 Part (b) required an outline of the protection that should be provided on the truck to
minimise the risk of explosion when it was required to work in a potentially flammable
atmosphere. An initial protection measure would be the fitting of flame and spark arrestors
to prevent flashback to atmosphere if vapour was drawn into the inlet system and to prevent
any flames from the exhaust system escaping into the air of the workplace. The engine and
exhaust system should be designed to ensure that their surface temperatures were below
the ignition temperature of the flammable substance and the use of a water jacket on the
exhaust system would provide additional protection. Electrical equipment on the truck
should be suitable for zones 1 and 2 and mechanical alternatives (eg fuel gauge) should be
fitted where possible. The use of electrically conducting materials for parts such as tyres
and drive belts would reduce static build up while fitting speed limiters would help prevent
over speeding or over loading of the engine.

There were only a small number of good answers provided for this question. Most
candidates seemed to lack the depth of knowledge required and perhaps as a result
concentrated on procedural and human controls when the question was quite clearly about
hardware issues set in a specific scenario.

Question 5 With the aid of a fully labelled diagram, identify the key safety features of a
building to be used as a facility for the storage of highly flammable solvents in
200 litre drums. (10)

In answering this question, the quality of the diagrams was not the critical factor, but it was
important to provide sketches that were clear and fully labelled. Marks were awarded for
identifying features such as bunding to contain spills, including a facility to collect and
dispose of spillages; the building to be constructed of fire resistant materials with a light
weight roof or blast panels, erected on an impermeable base, with an adequate separation
distance from other buildings; a facility for the segregation of materials; adequate access
and egress including a ramp to facilitate the handling of drums; the provision of high/low
ventilation and of sprinklers/fire extinguishers to be used in the event of an emergency and
finally security features such as the provision of locks and warning signs.

The question was well answered in the main though the standard of diagrams produced in
some cases was poor with little labelling, with candidates preferring to rely on an
accompanying text. A few produced a diagram of a compound and not of a building as
required. Whilst these candidates may have gained some of the marks available they would
have missed out important features such as high and low level ventilation, a light weight roof
and blast panels.

Question 6 The owners of a large distribution warehouse business have secured a contract
from a stationery manufacturer. Their insurers have recommended that the
proposed storage facility is sprinkler protected. Outline the design factors to be
considered in providing an adequate sprinkler system for the facility. (10)

An initial design factor to be considered in the provision of an adequate sprinkler system

would be the capacity of water required, the existence of an adequate and assured water
supply and the availability of an alternative if this was to fail for any reason. The design of
the pumping system would also be important with a diesel back up if the decision was taken
to install electrically operated pumps. Other factors would include the means of activating
the system (frangible bulbs or detector activated); the linkage of the system to alarms; the
spray pattern required; the area to be covered and the presence of other combustibles apart
from the stationery; the height of the storage racks and their distance from the sprinkler
heads; the provision of fire stopping for sprinklers passing through compartmentalisation; the
provision of fire water run off and the arrangements to be put in place for testing the
equipment.

This question was generally poorly answered with many candidates proceeding no further
than stating that a water supply and a number of sprinkler heads were required. Many
answers lacked technical depth and did not show an understanding of the particular issues
raised in the wording of the question.

22
 Section B – three from five questions to be attempted

Question 7 A rectangular warehouse building (40m x 100m ground area & 18m high) was
constructed on a structural steel framework, with a flat roof and coated steel
walls. During a storm, the warehouse suffered a catastrophic failure of one of its
long walls which in turn caused collapse of the roof and buckling of the other
walls.

(a) Describe the possible mechanisms of structural failure that investigators

would need to consider as potential causes of the incident. (10)

(b) Outline the health and safety issues to be considered when planning the
subsequent demolition of the damaged warehouse. (10)

Possible mechanisms of structural failure that could have been described in answering part
(a) of this question included adverse weather conditions exceeding designed wind loadings;
overloading of the structure by excess weight on the roof caused by snow or rain water;
weakening of the steelwork by corrosion through roof leaks or the inoperation of rain water
drains; alteration to structural members which had invalidated the original design
calculations; subsidence or nearby excavation or tunnelling operations creating instability
and vibration caused by the volume of passing traffic or wind variation which would result in
fatigue. This part of the question was answered badly with most candidates unable to relate
to the scenario and giving answers to what they considered to be a metal fatigue question.

However, there were better answers to part (b) where most candidates seemed more at
ease relating to construction issues. Issues that should have been mentioned were the
competence of the demolition contractor; the method to be used for demolishing the partially
collapsed structure to prevent premature collapse of the remainder; precautions to be taken
to prevent falls of people or material; the identification and isolation of buried services such
as electricity water and gas; the inspection, examination and maintenance of plant and
equipment to be used; procedures for the removal of waste; the protection of adjoining
property and the provision of appropriate personal protective equipment for the employees
such as hard hats, boots and eye protection.

Question 8 (a) Describe the factors that may cause instability of a mobile crane. (8)

(b) Outline the measures that should be taken to reduce the likelihood of
overturning during a lifting operation. (12)

This question was generally one of the better answered on the paper with good answers
closely relating the appropriate control measures with an identified factor. Factors affecting
crane stability that could have been described include: incorrect initial selection of the crane;
incorrect slinging; unstable ground that is incapable of bearing the weight of the crane and
its load; sloping or uneven ground; obstructions being struck by the crane or causing the
load to snag; exceeding the safe working load; incorrect operation of the crane (for example
in the non use of outriggers); incorrect tyre pressures; mechanical failure and adverse
weather conditions.

Controls centre around the carrying out of an area survey including a full assessment of the
environment and the load to be lifted; procedural controls such as the preparation of a lifting
plan, selection of the appropriate crane, ensuring the regular inspection and maintenance of
the crane and appointing a competent person to supervise the lift; engineering controls such
as ensuring the outriggers are fully extended and that the capacity indicator and alarm
system, the motion and performance limit device and overhoist limit switch are in good
working condition; and behavioural controls such as the competence and training of the
driver, slinger and banksman.

The majority of candidates obtained in excess of half marks for this question.

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Question 9 Construction work is to take place in a rural area where electrical power for the
site is to be gained from an existing 11kV overhead supply that cuts across the
site on wooden poles. Outline the control measures to ensure electrical safety
in relation to:

(a) the overhead supply; (8)

(b) the provision and use of electricity on the site. (12)

The first part of this question was concerned with the precautions to be taken when
undertaking work near an overhead electrical supply and so was seeking a description of
the key elements described in HSE Guidance Note GS6. Good answers began by
considering the possibility of re-routeing the cables and pointing out that, before any actions
were recommended by way of protective measures, the utility supplier would need to be
consulted. Answers should then have outlined the usual methods of protection including
identification of safety distances, the use of barriers, marking tape and bunting, the use of
goal posts and tunnels, height restrictions on plant, safe systems of work, supervision,
warning signs and training for plant operators.

Part (b) was directed at the safe use of electricity on the site and was seeking an outline of
the key precautions set out in guidance such as HSG 141 “Electrical safety on construction
sites.” Issues that are relevant include planning and assessment for the development of the
electricity supply by a competent person; the safe positioning of transformers; the routeing,
marking and protection of cables; the use of protective measures such as reduced low
voltage systems, residual current devices and double insulated equipment; arrangements
for inspection and testing of the fixed supply (including the integrity of the system earthing)
and portable equipment; the development of safe systems; and the use of competent
persons for installation of and work on the electrical supply.

There were few good answers provided for this question which exposed a lack of technical
knowledge by many candidates. Some suggested cutting off the supply of power to the site
even though the scenario called for it to be used.

Question 10 A serious accident occurred when a threaded steel rod in the braking
mechanism of a hoist broke. An investigation revealed that the cause of the
breakage was fatigue failure.

(a) Describe the mechanism and characteristics of fatigue failure. (6)

(b) List THREE factors which can contribute to such a failure and for each
factor describe one circumstance in which it may occur. (6)

(c) Describe the measures that could have been taken to minimise the
likelihood of such a failure. (8)

This question was designed to test candidates’ understanding of the mechanisms and
causative factors of fatigue failure and the measures that could minimise the probability of
such failure occurring.

Part (a) required candidates to describe issues such as crack propagation from points of
stress concentration, fluctuating stress environments and the characteristic conchoidal
fracture pattern. The final failure may be ductile or brittle.

In part (b), candidates needed to explore factors which could give rise to fatigue failure in
practice such as sharp corners, holes or surface occlusions, design and fatigue strength
issues, residual stresses imposed during manufacture or assembly, and the effects of
factors such as corrosion or temperature.

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 For part (c), candidates should have described measures to minimise the likelihood of
fatigue failures such as those connected with design, manufacture and installation involving
the correct specification of materials and components to match service conditions, correct
assembly and quality assurance; the maintenance, inspection and examination (with NDT)
particularly of critical components and their replacement at planned intervals; and
measures connected with use such as avoiding abuse and remaining within designed
operational limits, the provision of training and instruction for those involved in the use and
the keeping of service history records.

This question was not widely attempted and the answers that were produced were
disappointing with few recognising its connection with Markham Colliery. There was again a
lack of relevant technical knowledge with some confusing fatigue failure with other types of
failure such as ductile or brittle.

Question 11 The horizontally sliding gate at the bottom of a construction site hoist used for
raising and lowering both persons and materials is electrically interlocked.

(a) Illustrate, by means of a schematic diagram, a suitable interlocking

arrangement and give reasons for the level of protection shown. (10)

(b) Outline the factors that could prevent effective operation of the
interlocking mechanism and the measures that would be needed to
ensure continued effectiveness. (10)

This was the least popular question on the paper and was not answered particularly well by
those who attempted it. Its aim was to test candidates’ understanding of possible interlocking
arrangements on the sliding gate of a hoist on a construction site and how such
arrangements and their maintenance might be linked to the level of risk and the conditions of
service.

For part (a) of the question, candidates were asked to provide a schematic diagram of a
suitable interlocking arrangement and justify it in the context of risk. Many of the diagrams
provided were poor, with indiscernible interlocking and switching arrangements. A number of
different arrangements could have been chosen, but a good diagram might have shown two
limit switches in opposite modes linked into control circuitry in a manner dependent on the
assessed risk. An explanation of the chosen arrangement together with reliability
advantages (or failure routes avoided) should have been provided. In practice, few
candidates did well.

Most candidates managed to come up with one or two factors and measures for part (b) but
many seemed to forget that this was a scenario based on a construction site and so the
arduous conditions, dirty environment, exposure to adverse weather conditions, and the use
of the equipment by a variety of employees some of whom were not trained to do so and
some with the desire to defeat the safety measure in the desire to improve efficiency,
needed to feature in the discussion of factors that could prevent effective operation.
Measures to ensure continued effectiveness could have included the selection of robust
components, circuit design to minimise the risk of earth faults, arrangements for regular
inspection and maintenance, protection from the environment and effective supervision.

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 Examination technique

Introduction

Preparation for the examination in terms of diligent study, completion of coursework requirements and
structured revision are naturally all essential elements of examination preparation. The focus here, however,
is on the need for candidates to familiarise themselves with the format and requirements of the examination
papers in order to prepare a strategy for approaching them on the day.

Good examination technique will not make up for any gaps in knowledge or lack of understanding of syllabus
material. The primary emphasis should therefore be placed on gaining the degree of knowledge and
understanding appropriate to the Diploma award. However, candidates who have studied hard in order to
achieve the standard required sometimes let themselves down by a failure to demonstrate their
understanding in the examination. Part of any study and revision programme should therefore aim to
develop a good examination technique so that candidates can do full justice to their efforts.

Approach to the examination papers

Each Unit examination paper is identical in format, with six short-answer questions (Section A) and five long-
answer questions (Section B). All questions in Section A are compulsory and three questions must be
attempted from Section B.

For Section A questions, candidates should show that they recognise the main issues relating to the subject
of the question, but they are not required to go into great depth on any of these issues, even though they
might be tempted to do so. Such temptation should be resisted; marks are often available for providing a
certain level of detail – sufficient, perhaps, to show why the issue identified is relevant and that the principles
are understood – but beyond this there are no further marks to be gained. This does not mean, though, that
answers should be superficial; the technical, legal and other issues expected at Diploma level still need to be
addressed, but often in less depth than they would be on a Section B question. It should be noted that both
sections on the paper are equally weighted so that candidates must be careful not to spend too much time
on one section such that they leave insufficient time to complete the other. In terms of the marks available,
providing incomplete answers to a couple of questions on Section A will have less serious consequences
than being unable to answer one of the Section B questions due to pressure of time.

The selection of questions to be answered in Section B will normally be made in the reading time that is
allowed before the start of the examination. Candidates should use this time to read each question carefully
to ensure that its specific requirements are understood. They should not be influenced solely by the subject
matter of a particular question but must ensure that their knowledge of that subject extends to the specific
aspects addressed by the question. Nothing will be gained by demonstrating an in-depth knowledge of
aspects of the subject that are not asked for. It is expected that candidates will spend approximately twice
as long on an answer to a Section B question than they spent on each Section A question. The Examiners
will therefore expect answers to be given in greater depth to justify this additional time. The amount of detail
that might be accepted as sufficient for a satisfactory answer to a Section A question will normally be
considered totally inadequate as an answer in Section B. Here, candidates are given the opportunity to
demonstrate not only that they are able to identify the relevant issues but also, where required, that they can
tell the Examiner about them in some depth.

Approach to individual questions

Before starting an answer, candidates should read the question again, and re-read it until they are certain
that they understand exactly what is being asked. Every word of the question is there for a reason, and
much depends on taking note of the signposts contained in the question. Whilst writing an answer,
candidates may have to return to the question several times in order to ensure continued relevance. Under
the stressful conditions of an examination, it is quite easy to misunderstand a question or to wander off into
more familiar territory. All too often, Examiners are faced with what would have been an excellent answer if
only a different question had been asked. In such situations, the Examiner is unable to award marks and the
candidate has wasted much valuable time.

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Candidates should pay close attention to the ‘action verb’ or instruction in each question, for this defines the
depth of answer required. Many of the questions in Section A start with the instruction to ‘outline’ or ‘identify’,
which is used to indicate that little depth is required. Even so, candidates should note the differences
between the instructions. Candidates who, for instance, provide a simple list of points when an outline is
required will not be able to take full advantage of the available marks. In Section B, use will often be made of
other instructions, such as ‘describe’ or ‘explain’. ‘Bullet point’ answers to questions such as these will be
considered unsatisfactory. Occasionally, specific instructions – for instance, to draft a management brief –
are given. Credit will be given to answers that follow such instructions for, again, there is a reason for their
inclusion. Issues identified in a management brief, for instance, should be explained and justified in such a
way that a person unfamiliar with occupational health and safety will be able to understand their relevance.

It should also be noted that questions, particularly those in Section B, may start with a scenario. It is
important to remember that this is used as a signpost both to direct and to constrain an answer and that
generalised answers which do not make specific reference to the situation described will earn few marks.
Candidates should try to picture the scene in their minds while answering the question in order to focus on
the key issues more easily.

Some questions are divided into two or more parts, where the marks available for each part are clearly
shown. Candidates should use the allocation of marks to guide their efforts and they should not spend a
disproportionate amount of time on a part that offers few marks when more marks are available elsewhere.

Inevitably, answers that bear a coherent structure fare better than those that are disjointed and where points
are jotted down almost as they come to mind. In order to produce a structured answer, candidates need to
think clearly about what is being asked. Very often, particularly for Section B questions, candidates will need
to use an answer plan in order to ensure that all relevant points are identified in the actual answer. The form
that this plan takes is a matter of personal preference but it is important, having identified the key points, that
they are not forgotten when writing the answer. Candidates should therefore continually refer back to the
plan whilst writing their answer. There is no need to cross out an answer plan since it may contain a
creditworthy point that has not been developed in the full answer (due to pressure of time, perhaps).
However, it will help the Examiner if an answer plan is headed as such.

Summary

The Diploma requires more than just a general understanding of health and safety issues. It requires
candidates to demonstrate technical competence and an insight into the subject that should be expected of a
health and safety professional dealing with complex risk issues. Answers that might have been acceptable
for the National General Certificate will be considered woefully inadequate at Diploma level and candidates
may have to develop further their techniques for demonstrating the level of knowledge and understanding
required. Opportunities that are made available by programme organisers to do this should be eagerly
taken, and advice given by tutors that reinforces, or adds to, the suggestions given here should be absorbed.
It should be borne in mind that Examiners enjoy being able to award marks and have no hesitation in doing
so when they are deserved. The ease with which they are able to do this, however, rests with the candidate.
Although a good knowledge of the breadth and depth of the Diploma syllabus is vital, success in the
examination ultimately depends upon the ability to demonstrate this knowledge in a logical and meaningful
way.

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