DATE : 17/11/2019 QUESTION PAPER CODE 52

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 120 Minutes Answers & Solutions Marks : 240

for
NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION
IN JUNIOR SCIENCE (NSEJS) 2019-20
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 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT

1. Apples dropping from apple trees were 3. In the adjacent circuit, the voltages across AD,
observed by many people before Newton. But BD and CD are 2 V, 6 V and 8 V respectively.
why they fall, was explained by Isaac Newton If resistance R A = 1 k, then the values of
postulating the law of universal gravitation. resistances RB and RC are _______ and ______
Which of the following statements best respectively.
describes the situation? RB
B A
(a) The force of gravity acts only on the apple
(b) The apple is attracted towards the
RC RA
surface of the earth
(c) Both earth and apple experience the same
force of attraction towards each other C D
(d) Apple falls due to earth’s gravity and (a) 4 kand 6 k
hence only (a) is true and (c) is absurd (b) 2 kand 1 k
Answer ( c ) (c) 1 k and 2 k

S o l . According to Newton's law of gravitation, (d) Data insufficient as battery voltages is not
force of gravitation acts on both interacting given
object having same magnitude of force and Answer ( b )
this force is attractive in nature. 2V
S o l . Current flowing through circuit 
2. A rectangular metal plate, shown in the 1 103 
adjacent figure has a charge of 420 C = 2 × 10–3 A
assumed to be uniformly distributed over it.
4V
Then how much is the charge over the shaded B A
area? No part of metal plate is cut. (Circles
and the diagonal are shown for clarity only.
 = 22/7) 2V 2V

C D
14 cm

4
RB   2 k
2  103
28 cm 2
RC   1 k
(a) 45 C (b) 450 C 2  103
(c) 15 C (d) 150 C 4. A new linear scale of temperature
measurement is to be designed. It is called a
Answer ( a )
‘Z scale’ on which the freezing and boiling
points of water are 20 Z and 220 Z
Q
S o l . Charge per unit area  respectively. What will be the temperature
A
shown on the ‘Z scale’ corresponding to a
temperature of 20°C on the Celsius scale?
1 22 2 
Area of shaded portion  28  14  2  7  (a) 10 Z (b) 20 Z
2  7 
(c) 40 Z (d) 60 Z
= 42 cm2 Answer ( d )

420 T  20 20  0
Charge on shaded portion   42 Sol. 
28  14 220  20 100

= 45 C  T = 60 Z
2
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

5. Some waveforms among I, II, III and IV 6. A rigid body of mass m is suspended from
superpose (add graphically) to produce the point O using an inextensible string of
waveforms P, Q, R and S. Among the following, length L. When it is displaced through an
match the pairs that give the correct angle , what is the change in the potential
combinations: energy of the mass? (Refer adjacent figure.)
X
O
P t
Q t

I0 t
L
R t
II 0 t

m
III 0 t
S
IV 0 t Y
t
(a) mgL(1 – cos) (b) mgL(cos – 1)
Resultant Superposition of (c) mgLcos (d) mgL(1 – sin)
P (K) III and IV Answer ( a )
Q (L) II and IV Sol.
O
R (M) I, II and III 
L
S (N) I and IV
(O) II and III
m
(a) PO, QN, RL, SM h

(b) PM, QN, RL, SK h = L – Lcos

(c) PM, QN, RK, SL So PE = mgh = mg (L – Lcos)
(d) PO, QM, RL, SK = mgL (1 – cos)

Answer ( b ) 7. A piece of wire P and three identical cells are

connected in series. An amount of heat is
S o l . III + IV generated in a certain time interval in the
wire due to passage of current. Now the
S
circuit is modified by replacing P with another
wire Q and N identical cells, all connected in
series. Q is four times longer in length than P.
II + IV The wire P and Q are of same material and
have the same diameter. If the heat generated
in second situation is also same as before in
R the same time interval, then find N.
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 16 (d) 36
I + II + III Answer ( b )
l
P S o l . RP 
A
4 l
II + III RQ 
A
(3V)2
H1  t
l
A
(nV)2
H2  t
I + IV l
4
A
Q
H1 = H2
 n=6
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 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

8. 4 S o l . After the terminal velocity reached

3 Fv Fb
2
F (N)

1
0
–1 mg
–2 Fnet = 0
mg – Fv – Fb = 0
0 2 4 6 8 10
x (m) mg = Fv + Fb
Refer to the adjacent figure. A variable force 10. At any instant of time, the total energy (E) of
F is applied to a body of mass 6 kg at rest. The a simple pendulum is equal to the sum of its
body moves along x- axis as shown. The speed 1
kinetic energy  mv2  and potential energy
of the body at x = 5 m and x = 6 m is ____ and 2 
____ respectively.  1 kx2 
  , where, m is the mass, v is the
(a) 0 m/s, 0 m/s 2 
velocity, x is the displacement of the bob and
(b) 0 m/s, 2 m/s k is a constant for the pendulum. The
(c) 2 m/s, 2 m/s amplitude of oscillation of the pendulum is
(d) 2 m/s, 4 m/s 10 cm and its total energy is 4 mJ. Find k.

Answer ( c ) (a) 1.8 Nm–1

(b) 0.8 Nm–1
Sol.  W = F × x
(c) 0.5 Nm–1
For x = 0 to x = 5
(d) Data insufficient
1
W    4    5  1 Answer ( b )
2
1 2
S o l .  Potential energy PE = kx
W = 12 J 2
From work-energy theorem At maximum height, potential energy = Total
energy
W = KE
1
v = 2 m/s 4 × 10–3 = xk(0.1)2
2
From x = 5 m to x = 6 m
4  10–3  2
∵F=0 k=
(0.1)2
 v = constant = 2 m/s
k = 0.8 Nm–1
9. Consider the motion of a small spherical steel
11. When a charged particle with charge q and
body of mass m, falling freely through a long
mass m enters uniform magnetic field B with
column of a fluid that opposes its motion with
velocity v at right angles to B, the force on the
a force proportional to its speed. Initially the
moving particle is given by qvB. This force
body moves down fast, but after some time
acts as the centripetal force making the
attains a constant velocity known as terminal
charged particle go in a uniform circular
velocity. If weight mg, opposing force (Fv) and
buoyant force (Fb) act on the body, then the mv
motion with radius r  . Now if a hydrogen
correct equation relating these forces, after Bq
the terminal velocity is reached, is: ion and a deuterium ion enter the magnetic
field with velocities in the ratio 2:1
(a) mg + Fv = Fb respectively, then the ratio of their radii will
(b) mg = Fv – Fb be _______.
(c) mg = Fv + Fb (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(d) None (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
Answer ( c ) Answer ( d )

4
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

mv f
Sol.  r Sol. m 
Bq f u
Hydrogen ion  1H1 6
 3  (first condition)
Deuterium ion  1H
2 64
 u = –8 cm
rp mp vp Bqd
 
rd Bqp md vd 6
2  (second condition)
6  (u  x)
rp mp vp qd 6
  
rd md vd qp  2 
6  (8  x)

 x = 1 cm
rp 1 2 1 1
   
rd 2 1 1 1 1
Number of turns =  10
0.1
rp : rd = 1 : 1
13. The triangular face of a crown glass prism
12. In a screw-nut assembly (shown below) the ABC is isosceles. Length AB = length AC and
nut is held fixed in its position and the screw the rectangular face with edge AC is silvered.
is allowed to rotate inside it. A convex lens (L) A ray of light it incident normally on
of focal length 6.0 cm is fixed on the nut. An rectangular face with edge AB. It undergoes
object pin (P) is attached to the screw head. reflections at AC and AB internally and it
The image of the object is observed on a emerges normally through the rectangular
screen Y. When the screw head is rotated base with edge BC. Then angle BAC of the
through one rotation, the linear distance prism is _________.
moved by the screw tip is 1.0 mm. The
observations are made only when the image (a) 24° (b) 30°
is obtained in the same orientation on the
screen. At a certain position of P, the image (c) 36° (d) 42°
formed is three times magnified as that of the
Answer ( c )
pin height. Through how many turns should
the screw head be rotated so that the image S o l . When we tracing the path of light ray, we get
is two times magnified?
A

L 
Y P



2
O X 2
Screen
nut
X1 screw head 2 2
B C

(a) 8
  + 2 + 2 = 180°
(b) 10
5 = 180°
(c) 12
180
(d) 14 =
5
Answer ( b )  = 36°

5
 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

14. A Physics teacher and his family are travelling

z
in a car on a highway during a severe lightning
storm. Choose the correct option:
(a) Safest place will be inside the car as the
charges due to lightning tend to remain on I
the metal sheet / skin of the vehicle if 0
struck by lightning. (c)
y
(b) It's too dangerous to be inside the car. As
the car has a metal body the charges tend x
to accumulate on the surface and will
generate a strong electric field inside the z
car.
(c) Safest place is under a tree. It's better to
get drenched under a tree as the wet tree I
will provide a path to the charges for
0
earthing. (d)
(d) It is safer to exit the car and stand on y
open ground
x
Answer ( a )
Answer ( a )
S o l . By the concept of electrostatic shielding
15. A conductor in the form of a circular loop is 16. A school is located between two cliffs. When
the metal bell is struck by school attendant,
carrying current I. The direction of the
first echo is heard by him after 2.4 s and
current is as shown. Then which figure
second echo follows after 2.0 s for him at the
represents the correct direction of magnetic
same position near the bell. If the velocity of
field lines on the surfaces of the planes XY and sound in air is 340 ms–1 at the temperature of
XZ. (Consider those surfaces of the XY and XZ the surroundings, then the distance between
planes which are seen in the figure.) the cliffs is approximately _____.

z (a) 0.488 km

(b) 0.751 km

(c) 1.16 km
I
(d) 1.41 km
0
(a) Answer ( c )
y
2d
x Sol.  v =
t

z v  t 1 340  2.4
d1    408 m
2 2

I
v  t 2 340  (2.4  2)
d2    748
2 2
0
(b)
d = d1 + d2 = 408 + 748
y
d = 1156 m
x
d  1.16 km
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 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

17. The radius of curvature of a convex mirror is 19. A particle experiences constant acceleration
‘x’. The distance of an object from focus of this for 20 s after starting from rest. If it travels a
mirror is ‘y’. Then what is the distance of distance S1 in the first 10 s and distance S2 in
image from the focus? the next 10 s, the relation between S1 and S2
is:
y2 x2
(a) (b) (a) S2 = 3S1 (b) S1 = 3S2
4x y
(c) S2 = 2S1 (d) S1 = 10S2
x2 4y2
(c) (d)
4y x Answer ( a )
Answer ( c ) 1
S o l . S1  a  t2
2
1
  a  102
Sol. 2
x x
y– 2 = 50a
2
y v1 = u + at
1 1 1 = 10a
 
f v u
1 2
2 1 2 S2  v1t  at
  2
x v 2y  x
= 150a
1 2 2 S2 = 3S1
  
v x 2y  x
20. A sound wave is produced by a vibrating
x(2y  x) metallic string stretched between its ends.
 v Four statements are given below. Some of
4y
them are correct.
Distance between image and focus
(P) Sound wave is produced inside the string
x x(2y  x)
  (Q) Sound wave in the string is transverse
2 4y
(R) Wavelength of the sound wave in
2 surrounding air is equal to the wavelength
x
 of the transverse wave on the string
4y
(S) Loudness of sound is proportional to the
18. A piece of ice is floating in water at 4°C in a
square of the amplitude of the vibrating
beaker. When the ice melts completely, the
string
water level in the beaker will
(a) Rise Choose the correct option.

(b) Fall (a) P (b) R and S

(c) Remains unchanged (c) P and Q (d) S

(d) Unpredictable Answer ( d )

Answer ( a ) S o l .  Loudness  (Amplitude)2

21. How many positive integers N give a
ice
S o l . Immersed Volume Vi  Vtotal remainder 8 when 2008 is divided by N?
w4C
(a) 12
mice  V (b) 13
After melting Vformed  ( )  ice total
w 0 C (w )0c (c) 14
Vformed > Vi (As 4°C > 0°C) (d) 15
 Level should increase Answer ( d )

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 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

S o l . Here, remainder is 8 3a6  a8 3( 6  6 )  ( 8  8 )

Sol. 
 N must be greater than 8 a7 7  7
N must be factors of = 2008 – 8 = 2000
 6   2  3   6 2  3 
= 24 × 53 
7  7
Total number of factors = 5 × 4 = 20
 Factors greater than 8 are 10, 16, 20, 25, 5(7  7 ) ∵ 2  3  5 and
 5  2 
40, 50, 80, 100, 125, 200, 250, 400, 500, (7  7 )    3  5 
1000, 2000.
25. The number of triples (x, y, z) such that any
So, total number of solutions = 15 one of these numbers is added to the product
Hence, option (d) is correct of the other two, the result is 2, is
22. What is the product of all the roots of the (a) 1
2
equation 5 | x |  8  x – 16 ? (b) 2
(a) –64 (b) –24 (c) 4
(c) 576 (d) 24
(d) Infinitely many
Answer ( a )
Answer ( b )
2
Sol. 5 | x | + 8  x  16 S o l . x + yz = 2 ...(i)
On squaring, y + zx = 2 ...(ii)
 5|x| + 8 = x2 – 16 z + xy = 2 ...(iii)
 x2 – 5|x| – 24 = 0 Subtracting (ii) from (i),
 (|x| – 8)(|x| + 3) = 0
(x – y) = z(x – y)
 |x| = 8 |x| = –3
 Either x = y or z = 1

x  8 Case I :
If z = 1
Product of roots = (+8) × (–8) = –64
 x + y = 2 and xy = 1
Option (a) is correct.
23. LCM of two numbers is 5775. Which of the 1
 x 2
following cannot be their HCF? x
(a) 175 (b) 231  x2 – 2x + 1 = 0
(c) 385 (d) 455  x=1
Answer ( d )
 y=1
S o l . 5775 = 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 × 11
 (1, 1, 1) is one of the triplet
175 = 5 × 5 × 7
Case II :
231 = 7 × 3 × 11
385 = 7 × 5 × 11 If x = y

455 = 13 × 7 × 5  x(1 + z) = 2 and z + x2 = 2

Hence, 455 cannot be HCF.  x + zx = z + x2
24. Let  and  be the roots of x2 – 5x + 3 = 0 with  x – z = x(x – z)
 > . If an = n – n for n  1 then the value of
 Either x = z or x = 1
3a6  a8
is (i) If x = z  x = y = z
a7
(a) 2 (b) 3  x + x2 = 2
(c) 4 (d) 5  x = 1 or – 2
Answer ( d )  (–2, –2, –2) is second triplet
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 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

(ii) If x = 1  y = 1 27. In the given figure, two concentric circles are

shown with centre O. PQRS is a square
 z=1
inscribed in the outer circle. It also
 (1, 1, 1) is repeated triplet. circumscribes the inner circle, touching it at
points B, C, D and A. What is the ratio of the
So only two triplets (1, 1, 1) and (–2, –2, –2) perimeter of the outer circle to that of
are possible. quadrilateral ABCD?
Hence, option (b) is correct.
P B Q
26. In rectangle ABCD, AB = 5 and BC = 3. Points
F and G are on the line segment CD so that
DF = 1 and GC = 2. Lines AF and BG intersect A C
O
at E. What is the area of AEB?

(a) 10 sq. units S D R

(b) 15/2 sq. units  3

(a) (b)
4 2
(c) 25/2 sq. units

(d) 20 sq. units (c) (d) 
2
Answer ( c ) Answer ( c )
Sol. 5
A B P B Q
Sol.

3
A C
O
 F G
D C
1  2 2 S D R

E Let radius of outer circle be r.

1  PR = 2r
Area of (AFGB) = (2  5)  3  10.5
2
and PQ  2 r
∵ CD  CG  GF  FD
  PQ r
 5  2  GF  1  Radius of inner circle = OA = 
2 2
 GF  5  3  2 

Now EFG ~ EAB r2 r2

AB  OA2  OB2   r
2 2
ar(AEB) 25
  Circumference of outer circle 2r 
ar(EFG) 4   
Perimeter of ABCD 4r 2
ar(EFG) 4 Option (c) is correct.
 
ar(AEB) 25 28. If a, b, c are distinct real numbers such that
ar(EFG) 4 1 1 1
 1  1 a b c evaluate abc.
ar(AEB) 25 b c a

(a)  2
ar(AFGB) 21
 
ar(AEB) 25 (b) 2 1

10.5  25 25 (c) 3
 ar(AEB)   12.5  sq. units
21 2 (d)  1
Hence, option (c) is correct. Answer ( d )

9
 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

1 1 1 30. Mr. X with his eight children of different ages

Sol. a  b c is on a family trip. His oldest child, who is
b c a
9 years old saw a license plate with a 4-digit
1 1 number in which each of two digits appear
 a b  
c b two times. “Look daddy!” she exclaims. “That
number is evenly divisible by the age of each
bc
a b  of us kids!”. “That’s right,” replies Mr. X, “and
bc
the last two digits just happen to be my age”.
bc Which of the following is not the age of one of
bc  ...(i) Mr. X’s children?
a b
(a) 4 (b) 5
1 1
 b c (c) 6 (d) 7
c a
Answer ( b )
ca
bc  S o l . Possible ages of children can be 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
ac
6, 7, 8, 9.
ca ∵ There are 8 children and oldest child is 9
ac  ...(ii)
bc years old.
1 1  Sum of four digits must be divisible by 9.
 a c
b a If four digit number is divisible by 9 then
possible combinations of digits must be
1 1 ba
ac    (0, 9), (1, 8), (2, 7), (3, 6), (4, 5)
a b ab
Also the number should be even because
ba
ab  ...(iii) if number is not divisible by 2 then it
ac cannot be divisible by 4 and 8.
From (i), (ii) & (iii), we get Hence age of the child cannot be 5

bc ca ba ∵ Even number is not divisible by 5 if last

(ab)(ac)(bc)    digit is non-zero.
a b b c a c
If last digit is zero then only two
a2b2c2 = 1
possibilities can occur.
abc   1
99 00 is not possible because last two
 Option (d) is correct. digits are the age of his father.
29. If the equation (2 – 5 + 6)x2 + (2 – 3 + 2)x 99 90 is not divisible by 4 and 8 both
+ (2 – 4) = 0 has more than two roots, then
hence it is also not possible.
the value of  is
 Option (b) is correct.
(a) 2 (b) 3
31. How many number lie between 11 and 1111
(c) 1 (d) None of these which divided by 9 leave a remainder 6 and
Answer ( a ) when divided by 21 leave a remainder 12?
(a) 18 (b) 28
S o l . If (2 – 5 + 6)x2 + (2 – 3 + 2)x + (2 – 4) = 0
has more than two roots, then this equation is (c) 8 (d) None of these
an identity. Answer ( a )
  2 – 5 + 6 = 0,  2 – 3 + 2 = 0 and S o l . Numbers which are divided by 9 leave a
2 = 4 remainder 6 are 24, 33, 42, 51,...,1104 ...(i)
Numbers which are divided by 21 leaves a
  = 2, 3 and  = 1, 2 and  = –2, 2
remainder 12 are 33, 54, ...,1104 ...(ii)
 Common value of  is 2.  Total numbers are the common number of
Option (a) is correct. terms of sequence (i) and (ii).

10
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

Now let there are 'n' common terms of (i) and 34. An observer standing at the top of a tower,
(ii) have a common difference of 63 starting finds that the angle of elevation of a red bulb
from number 33 (∵ L.C.M. of 9 and 21 is 63) on the top of a light house of height H is .
 33 + (n –1) × 63 = 1104 Further, he finds that the angle of depression
of reflection of the bulb in the ocean is .
 n  18 Therefore, the height of the tower is
 Option (a) is correct.
H(tan   tan )
32. Two unbiased dice are rolled. What is the (a)
(tan   tan )
probability of getting a sum which is neither 7
nor 11? Hsin(  )
(b)
cos(  )
7 7
(a) (b)
9 18 H(cos   cos )
(c)
2 11 (cot   cot )
(c) (d)
9 18 (d) H
Answer ( a ) Answer ( a )
S o l . Total number of outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36 S o l . Let AB = h be the height of tower.
Outcomes whose sum is either 7 or 11 =
Also, F be the point of reflection of D (red
(1, 6) (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), (6,1), (5, 6),
bulb).
(6, 5)
D
Number of outcomes whose sum is neither
7 nor 11 = 36 – 8 = 28 
E A
H 
28 7
 Required probability =  h
36 9
Hence, option (a) is correct. C B
33. The solution of the equation 1 + 4 + 7 + .....
+ x = 925 is H
(a) 73 (b) 76

(c) 70 (d) 74 F G
Answer ( a ) In AED,
S o l . Let x be the nth term.
DE H  h
 x = 1 + (n – 1) × 3 tan   
AE AE
 x = 1 + 3n – 3
 AE = (H – h)cot ...(i)
 x = (3n – 2)
In AGF,
n
 Sn  925  (1  (3n  2))
2 AG
tan  
n FG
 925  (3n  1)
2
 1850 = 3n2 – n hH
 tan   [∵ FG = AE] [From (i)]
 3n2 – n – 1850 = 0 (H  h)cot 

 3n2 – 75n + 74n – 1850 = 0  tan(H – h) cot = (h + H)

 3n(n – 25) + 74(n – 25) = 0  tan(H – h) = (h + H)tan
 (n – 25)(3n + 74) = 0  Htan – htan = htan + Htan
 74 
 n = 25 ∵ n  3  H(tan   tan )
   h
(tan   tan )
 x = 3 × 25 – 2 = 73
Hence, option (a) is correct. Hence, option (a) is correct.

11
 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

1 1 1 Similarly,
35. The sum of the roots of   is
x a xb c OB × OC = 8 ...(ii)
zero. The product of roots is
OC × OD = 32 ...(iii)
ab
(a) 0 (b) OA × OD = 16 ...(iv)
2
From (i) and (ii),
1
(c)  (a2  b2 ) (d) 2(a2 + b2) OC = 2(OA)
2
Answer ( c )  AC = 3 × OA ...(v)
1 1 1 Now, OA × OB = 4 [From (i)]
Sol.  
xa xb c 2(OA) × OD = 32 [From (iii)]
xbx a 1  OD = 4 × OB
 2

x  (a  b)x  ab c  BD = 5 × OB
 (2x + a + b) × c = x2 + (a + b)x + ab
 AC × BD = 3 × 5 × (OA × OB)
 x2 + x(a + b – 2c) + ab – ac – bc = 0
= 15 × 4 [From (i)]
(a  b  2c) = 60
 Sum of roots = =0
1
 Option (a) is correct.
 a + b = 2c
37. If tan + sec = 1.5, then value of sin is
(a  b)
 c ...(i) 5 12
2 (a) (b)
Product of roots = ab – ac – bc 13 13

= ab – c(a + b) 3 2
(c) (d)
5 3
(a  b)2 Answer ( a )
= ab  [From (i)]
2
S o l . We have
1 2
= (a  b2 ) sec2 – tan2 = 1
2
Hence, option (c) is correct. 1
(sec – tan) =
36. In the convex quadrilateral ABCD, the sec + tan
diagonals AC and BD meet at O and the
measure of angle AOB is 30°. If the areas of 1 2
= = ...(i)
triangle AOB, BOC, COD and AOD are 1, 2, 8 1.5 3
and 4 square units respectively, what is the
product of the lengths of the diagonals AC 3
and sec + tan = 1.5 = ...(ii)
and DB in sq. units? 2
(a) 60 (b) 56 On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
(c) 54 (d) 64
13
Answer ( a ) sec =
12
Sol. D C
30° In ABC
150° 150°
O AB2 = AC2 – BC2
30° A
AB2 = 132 – 122
A B 13 5
AB = 5
Area of triangle OAB = 1 
C 12 B
AB 5
1  sin = =
  OA  OB sin30  1 AC 13
2
 OA × OB = 4 ...(i) Option (a) is correct.

12
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

38. If sin2x + sin2y + sin2z = 0, then which of the S o l . In AEO,

following is NOT a possible value of cosx + A 30°
cosy + cosz?
(a) 3 E
(b) –3 O
D
(c) –1
(d) –2 O’ 30°
B C
Answer ( d )
S o l . ∵ sin2x + sin2y + sin2z = 0 OE
tan30° =
 sinx = siny = sinz = 0 AE
 cosx = ± 1; cosy = ± 1; cosz = ± 1
 AE = 3 [∵ OE = 1]
 cosx + cosy + cosz can be either 1 + 1 + 1
=3
Similarly, DC = 3
or 1 + 1 –1 = 1 or –1 –1 + 1 = –1
 AC = AE + DC + DE
or –1 –1 –1 = –3
 cosx + cosy + cosz  –2 = 3 +2+ 3
 Option (d) is correct.
39. Find the remainder when x 51 is divided by = 2  1+ 3  ...(i)
x2 – 3x + 2.
(a) x 3
Required area (ABC) = × (AC)2
(b) (251 – 2)x + 2 – 251 4
(c) (251 – 1)x + 2 – 251
3
(d) 0 =  4 × (3 + 1+ 2 3)
4
Answer ( c )
S o l . x2 – 3x + 2 = (x – 1)(x – 2) [from (i)]
 x51 = (x – 1)(x – 2) Q(x) + (px + q)
=  4 3 + 6  sq. units
Put x = 1  1 = (p + q) ...(i)
Put x = 2  251 = (2p + q) ...(ii) Hence, option (b) is correct.

Solving equation (i) and (ii), we get 41. In case of mice coat colour, two genes are
p= (251 – 1) and q = 2 – 251 responsible for colour of the hair. Gene ‘A’ is
responsible for distribution of pigments on
 Remainder = (px + q)
shaft of hair. Wild type allele of ‘A’ produces a
= (251 – 1)x + (2 – 251) yellow band on dark hair shaft (agouti),
Option (c) is correct. whereas recessive allele produces no yellow
40. In an equilateral triangle, three coins of radii band. There is another allele of A, known as
1 unit each are kept so that they touch each AY, which is embryonic lethal in homozygous
other and also sides of the triangle. The area condition only. In an experiment, two yellow
of triangle ABC (in sq. units) is mice were crossed to obtain a progeny of 6
pups. What would be the most probable
(a) 4 + 2 3 number of agouti mice among them?
(b) 4 3 + 6 (a) 0
7 3 (b) 2
(c) 12 +
4
(c) 4
7 3
(d) 3 + (d) None of the above
4
Answer ( b ) Answer ( b )

13
 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

S o l . In this experiment, three cases are possible 43. Pinus sylvestris grows at low temperatures in
Russia. The plant survives under such freezing
(i) Agouti × Agouti = All Agouti conditions due to the presence of :
(a) Saturated lipids in plasma membrane
2 1 (b) Glycoproteins in plasma membrane
(ii) Yellow × Yellow = Yellow, Agouti
3 3
(c) Glycolipids in plasma membrane
(d) Polyunsaturated lipids in plasma
1 1 membrane
(iii) Agouti × Yellow = Yellow, Agouti
2 2 Answer ( d )
S o l . Pinus sylvestris grows at low temperatures in
According to the given statement in question,
Russia. The plant survives under such freezing
conditions due to the presence of
i.e.,Yellow × Yellow
polyunsaturated lipids in plasma membrane
as these lipids have a lower melting point and
2 1 more flexibility than the phospholipids with
that mean Yellow and Agouti saturated acyl chains.
3 3
44. In an experimental setup, certain pathogen
So, most probable number of agouti mice caused a disease in primates with nasal
congestion, sore throat and fever being the
1 common symptoms. The scientists injected an
would be = 6  2
3 extract from blue-green mold as the first line
of action. However, the symptoms did not
42. A stain was developed by a group of scientists subside. The possible causative agents of the
disease were listed out as follows.
to stain a particular cell organelle. The stain
was tested on various tissues derived from an i. A virus
autopsy sample from a mammal. The ii. A fungus
organelles were counted. The results showed iii. A conjugation deficient bacterium
maximum number of the organelles in cells of
iv. A tapeworm
brain, lesser in cells of heart, least in mature
sperms and absent in erythrocytes. Identify Choose the correct option from the following
that indicate the pathogen.
the organelles from following options.
(a) i, ii (b) i, iii
(a) Nissl bodies (c) ii, iv (d) iii only

(b) Mitochondria Answer ( b )

S o l . Administration of extract from blue-green
(c) Golgi bodies mold (fungi) did not subside the symptoms
possibly because the causative agents of the
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum disease may be virus, bacteria or helminth but
not fungus. So, the most appropriate answer
Answer ( a ) is option (b).
45. A group of students was studying
S o l . Mitochondria, Golgi bodies and Endoplasmic
development of an organism under controlled
reticulum are the organelles absent in
laboratory conditions. Following observations
enucleated erythrocytes of mammals were made by them.
whereas Nissl's bodies are present in neural
i. The larvae had a rod-like supporting
tissue which is maximally concentrated in structure that separated the nervous
brain. system and the gut.

14
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)
ii. A prominent central cavity was present in
the transverse section of the part of the
nervous system of the larvae; while the
adults had cerebral ganglia as the main
component of the nervous system.
iii. The eyes were prominently seen in larvae.
iv. The tails were absent in the adults, which
the larvae had.
v. A lot of phagocytic activity was observed
before conversion of larvae into adults.
vi. The adults had a cuticular exoskeleton.
The organism under study must be belonging to:
(a) Amphibia (b) Pisces
(c) Protochordata (d) Arthropoda
Answer ( c )
S o l . “Arthropods are non-chordates i.e. lack
notochord which is a rod-like supporting
structure that separates nervous system and
gut as in case of chordates such as
Amphibians, fishes and Protochordates. Adult
Amphibians and fishes have a well developed
nervous system while adult protochordates
had cerebral ganglia as nervous system.
Although both amphibians and protochordates
exhibit ‘tadpole’ larval stage with prominent
eyes and tails but exoskeleton is present only
is protochordates (tunicates). Therefore,
answer is protochordates.”
46. A process is represented in the adjacent
figure. The arrows indicate the flow of a
biochemical reaction. The arrowhead points
to the product, while the base of the arrow
indicates the template biomolecule. What do
P, Q, R, and S represent?
R absence of their parents by biologists dressed
X Y
P
S scientists to learn the migratory route. What
Q type of animal behaviour might be responsible
Z for these captive-bred cranes to follow the
(a) P : Replication, Q : Translation,
R : Transcription, S : Reverse Transcription
(b) P : Transcription, Q : Replication,
R : Reverse Transcription, S : Translation
(c) P : Reverse Transcription, Q : Replication,
R : Translation, S : Transcription
(d) P : Reverse Transcription, Q : Replication,
R : Transcription, S : Translation
15
Answer ( d )
Sol. Transcription (R)
Reverse (P)
RNA (X) DNA (Y)
Transcription
Translation
(S)
Replication
Proteins (Z) (Q)
Here, ‘Y’ represents DNA which produces its
new copies by the process of ‘Replication’
represented by ‘Q’. RNA is formed from DNA
by the process called ‘Transcription’ which is
here represented by ‘R’. RNA are translated
into proteins by the process called
‘Translation’, represented by ‘S’ here.
In certain viruses, DNA can be synthesize
from RNA by the process of ‘Reverse
transcription’, represented by ‘S’.
Therefore, P is reverse transcription
Q is replication
R is transcription
and S is translation
47. The whooping cranes were on the verge of
extinction with only 21 individuals in wild in
1941. After conservation measures, the
cranes are now included in the endangered
category by IUCN. The highlight of the
conservation efforts is the reintroduction of
the whooping cranes in wild. This was
possible due to raising of the young cranes in
in crane costumes. Aircraft Guided bird
migration technique was used for teaching
the captive-bred cranes to follow the
crane costume dressed scientists?
(a) Cognitive learning
(b) Habituation
(c) Operant conditioning
(d) Genetic Imprinting
Answer ( d )

S o l . The type of animal behaviour responsible for
these captive–bred cranes to the crane
costume dressed scientists is genetic
imprinting which is a rapid learning process
that takes place early in the life of a social
animal and establishes a behaviour pattern
such as recognition of and attraction to its
own kind or a substitute.
48. In the baking industry, when the dough is
prepared, various ingredients are mixed
together with the flour. At one instance, the
dough was fermented, but failed to rise
sufficiently during the baking process. Choose
the correct cause(s) from following
possibilities.
i. The salt was mixed before the
fermentation process was completed
ii. The sugar was added in excess
iii. Yeast granules were not activated prior to
mixing with the flour.
(a) i, iii (b) iii only
(c) i, ii, iii (d) i, ii
Answer ( c )
S o l . Addition of salt in the dough slows down
fermentation and enzyme activity in dough.
Excess sugar in dough can slow down or even
inhibit yeast activity. As sugar level increases,
yeast becomes stressed as less water is
available for it to function. Inactivated yeast
granules consist of yeast cells that are no
longer living or active and reduces mix time
and creates a more extensible dough once
they are activated.
49. Given below are four statements.
I. Prokaryotic cells are unicellular while
eukaryotes are multicellular.
II. Histones are present in eukaryotes and
absent in prokaryotes.
III. The nucleoid contains the genetic
material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
IV. Prokaryotic flagellum is composed of
flagellin while eukaryotic flagellum is
composed of tubulin.
Identify which amongst these are false.
(a) I and II (b) III and IV
(c) II and III (d) I and III
Answer ( d )
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NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)
S o l . All eukaryotes are not multicellular. For
example, protistans are unicellular
eukaryotes. The region that contains genetic
material in prokaryotes is called nucleoid
whereas in eukaryotes it is called nucleus.
50. The students of a college were working on
regeneration using Planaria (Platyhelminthes)
and Asterias (Echinodermata). Planaria was
cut in three pieces, namely, a piece with
head, with tail and the middle piece. Asterias
(bearing five arms) was cut in such a way that
after separation, six pieces were obtained,
namely, an arm with a portion of the central
disc, four pieces cut from tips of each of the
remaining arms and the remaining body. The
animals were allowed to regenerate
completely. How many Planaria and Asterias
respectively will be obtained after the
completion of regeneration in both?
(a) 1, 1 (b) 3, 2
(c) 3, 6 (d) 1, 2
Answer ( b )
S o l . Planarians possess a tremendous power of
regeneration. If cut across into three parts,
each part regenerates into a complete normal
individual.
In case of Asterias, body part with the portion
of central disc can regenerate an entire
animal four pieces cut from tips of each of the
remaining arms are devoid of central disc,
hence, cannot regenerate while the remaining
body with remaining central disc can
regenerate an entire animal.
Therefore, after the completion of
regeneration in Asterias total two organisms
will be obtained.
51. Fecundity in animal world is the maximum
possible ability of an individual to produce
offsprings during its entire lifetime. Following
factors were checked for their effect on
fecundity of different animal models.
i. Availability of food during breeding
season
ii. Mode of fertilization
iii. Population density
Which of these factors(s) can regulate
fecundity?
(a) i, ii
(b) ii, iii
(c) i, ii, iii
(d) None of the above
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

Answer ( c ) i. Increased pollution around industries

S o l . All the given factors i.e. the availability of food ii. A stable transposition of a gene in moths
during breeding season, mode of fertilization
iii. Limitations of the vision of birds to
and population density affect the fecundity of differentiate dark moths on darkened barks
animals. and pale moths in presence of lichens
52. An organism has 27 pairs of homologous iv. Ability of lichens to grow on barks in less
chromosomes. In each daughter cell after polluted areas only.
completion of mitosis and in each gamete
after completion of meiosis II, ________ and (a) i, iv (b) i, iii, iv
_________ chromosomes would be present (c) i, ii (d) i, ii, iii and iv
respectively.
Answer ( b )
(a) 27 and 27 (b) 54 and 27
Sol.
(c) 108 and 54 (d) 54 and 108 Pre-Industrial Period Post-Industrial Period

Answer ( b )
• No air pollution • Pollution increased
S o l . In mitosis, mother cell divides to form two
• Tree trunk lighter • Tree trunk darken
identical daughter cells which have the same in colour
number of chromosomes as mother cell.
• No smoke deposition • Smoke and soot deposition
Hence, each daughter cell would have and thick growth of on trunk preventing lichens
27 pairs or 54 chromosomes. white coloured growth
lichens on tree trunk
Meiosis is a reductional division which
• Less predation of • Dark moths are not visible
involves two consecutive divisions. The
pale moth while pale moths cannot
daughter cells have half the number of camouflage causing
chromosomes than that of mother cell. limitations of vision of birds
leading more predation of
Hence, in each gamete, after completion of pale moths
meiosis-II, 27 chromosomes would be present.
55. A 4 m long bacterial cell was magnified and
53. Rahul sprayed a chemical ‘X’ on a plant with drawn to a dimension of 6 cm. How many
rosette habit. After few days, he found the times has it been magnified?
internodal distances to have increased
suddenly. The chemical ‘X’ might be: (a) 1.5 × 103 (b) 15 × 104

(a) Ethylene (b) Abscisic acid (c) 1.5 × 104 (d) 1.5

(c) Auxin (d) Gibberellic acid Answer ( c )

Answer ( d ) S o l . Size of bacterial cell = 4 m = 4 × 10–6 m

Size of drawn cell = 6 cm = 6 × 10–2 m
S o l . The sprayed chemical 'X' is Gibberellic acid
which induces internodal and stem elongation
6  102
in rosette plants. So, bacterial cell magnification =
4  106
54. In case of peppered moths, pale and dark
moths are observed. Pale variety is known to = 1.5 × 104
be the wild type variety. During industrial 56. Gymnosperms are called ‘naked seed bearing
revolution, industrial melanism led to plants’ because they lack:
prevalence of dark variety around the cities
(a) Male gamete (b) Ovule
and pale variety continued to be in majority in
areas away from the industries. After (c) Ovary (d) Seeds
enforcement of regulations for controlling Answer ( c )
pollution, reappearance of pale moths in
majority was observed around cities again. S o l . Gymnosperms are called ‘naked seeds
Driving force(s) for these adaptive changes is/ bearing plants’ because they lack ovary. The
are: seeds are not enclosed within the fruit.

17
 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

57. Any damage or injury to a particular area Answer ( b )

causes nociceptors to release some
chemicals, which carry the signal to the
higher centres in the nervous system for the
processing and a subsequent action.
However, there is a difference in the way in
which the stimulus is received which is
related to the acuity of the detection.
S o l . Light between 400-700 nm wavelength
constitute the photosynthetically active
radiation. Maximum photosynthesis takes
place in red and blue light of the visible
spectrum and minimum photosynthesis takes
place in green light.

Rate of Photosynthesys
Fingertips are more sensitive as compared to
the forearm. Following reasons for the
observed phenomenon were suggested.
i. The receptive fields in the fingertip are
smaller
ii. The number of nociceptors per receptive
field in the forearm is lesser
iii. The amount of prostaglandins released by
the nociceptors per receptive field is
400 500 600 700
more in fingertips
The most probable reason(s) for this may be: VIBGYOR
59. On a study tour, plants with leathery leaves
(a) i (b) i, iii with thick cuticle, vivipary, salt glands,
(c) ii, iii (d) i, ii, iii apogeotropic roots and stomata limited to
Answer ( d ) abaxial surface were observed. The plants
might be:
S o l . In fingertips, the receptive fields are smaller
and densely packed with nociceptors or pain (a) Bromeliads (b) Cycads
receptors. The number of nociceptors and (c) Mangroves (d) None of the above
amount of prostaglandins released by these Answer ( c )
receptors per receptive field is also more in
S o l . Mangroves are adapted to grow in a wet and
fingertips in comparison to forearm. salty place. They have leathery leaves with
58. thick cuticle, show vivipary (the young plant
Rate of Photosynthesys

within the seed), have salt glands, have

apogeotropic roots (roots that grow away
from the ground) and have stomata limited to
abaxial surface.
60. Four different human body fluid samples were
subjected to quantification of hydrogen ion
concentration. mEq/L is the unit of
measurement for hydrogen ion concentration.
The results of the experiment were as follows:
Parameter Sample A: 1.6 × 102 units
Rate of photosynthesis in hydrophytes Sample B: 4.5 × 10–5 units
depends on various parameters. The
Sample C: 1 × 10–3 units
adjacent graph shows the effect of one
Sample D: 3 × 10–2 units
parameter (while keeping all the others
constant) on the rate of photosynthesis. Identify the samples in sequence from A to D.
Rate of photosynthesis is plotted on Y axis. (a) Gastric HCI, Venous blood, Intracellular
Identify the parameter which is plotted Fluid, Urine
along X axis: (b) Venous blood, Intracellular Fluid, Gastric
(a) Light intensity HCI, Urine
(b) Wavelength (c) Urine, Gastric HCI, Venous blood,
Intracellular Fluid
(c) Temperature
(d) Intracellular Fluid, Urine, Gastric HCI,
(d) CO2 concentration Venous blood
18
 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

Answer ( a ) Gammaxene insecticide powder is prepared

S o l . Higher the amount of hydrogen ions, lower by the reaction given in the adjacent box. If
will be the pH of body fluid. 78 g of benzene when reacted with 106.5 g of
chlorine, how much Gammaxene would be
On this basis we can conclude that formed?
Sample A with maximum hydrogen ions (a) 140 g (b) 154.5 g
concentration facilitate lowest pH among the
given samples indicating that sample A is (c) 145.5 g (d) 160 g
gastric HCl.
Answer ( c )
H + ion
Human H Cl
Samples concentration Body Fluids H H
(m Eq/L)
Sol. UV Cl Cl
+ 3 Cl2
1.6 × 10 2 Gastic H H
A
= 160 HCl Cl Cl
H Cl
4.5 × 10–5 Venous
B
= 0.000045 blood Given mass 78g 106.5g
1 × 10 –3 Intracellular 78 106.5
C
= 0.001 fluid No. of moles  1 mole  1.5 mole
78 71
D 3 × 10 –2 Urine
= 0.03 Cl2 is the limiting reagent
Sequence of sample = Gastric HCl, Venous ∵ 3 moles of Cl 2 produce 1 mole of
blood, Intracellular fluid, Urine. gammaxene
61. Four gram of mixture of calcium carbonate  1.5 moles of Cl 2 produce 0.5 mole of
and sand is treated with excess of HCl and gammaxene
0.880 g of carbon-di-oxide is produced. What
Mass of 1 mole of gammaxene = 291 g
is the percentage of calcium carbonate in
original mixture?  Mass of 0.5 moles of gammaxene
(a) 40% = 291 × 0.5 = 145.5 g
(b) 50% 63. Which of the following polymeric material will
be ideal for remoulding?
(c) 55%
(d) 45% (a) Polythene and Melamine

Answer ( b ) (b) Polyvinyl chloride and Polythene

S o l . 4 g mixture of CaCO3 + sand (c) Melamine and Bakelite

(d) Bakelite and Polyvinyl chloride
CaCO3 + 2HCl  CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
Answer ( b )
Number of moles of CO2 produced
S o l . Polyvinyl chloride and polythene are
0.88 thermoplastics and therefore they are ideal
= for remoulding.
44
= 0.02 moles 64. An element Y is a white translucent solid at
room temperature and exhibits various
∵ 1 mol of CaCO3 produces 1 mol of CO2 allotropic forms. Some compounds of element
 Number of moles of CaCO3 reacted Y find application in agricultural industry.
Y forms two solid oxides which dissolve in
= 0.02 moles
water to form comparatively weak acids. The
 Mass of CaCO3 reacted = 0.02 × 100 = 2 g element Y is:
(a) Sulphur (b) Nitrogen
2
 % of CaCO3 in the mixture =  100  50% (c) Phosphorous (d) Carbon
4
Answer ( c )
62. Cl H
H Cl S o l . Oxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen are
UV Cl H gases, whereas oxides of phosphorus i.e. P4O6
+ 3 Cl2 H Cl and P4O10 are solids and react with water to
Benzene Cl H give weak acids.
H Cl
Gammaxene Therefore, element ‘Y’ is phosphorus.

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 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

65. How many sigma bonds are present between S o l . Since substance X melts after 10 seconds on
any two carbon atoms in fullerenes? burner flame and is a poor conductor of
(a) 1 (b) 2 electricity in molten state as well as in the
form of aqueous solution, this means 'X' is a
(c) 3 (d) 4
covalent compound. Its solubility in water
Answer ( a ) indicates that it is polar in nature.
S o l . In fullerenes, one sigma bond is present  'X' is a polar covalent compound.
between any two carbon atoms. 69. In a beaker 50 ml of a normal HCl solution
66. A student was studying reactions of metals was taken and NH3 gas was passed through it
with dilute NaOH at room temperature. The for some time. The contents of the beaker
student took dilute NaOH in four different test were then titrated, which required 60 ml of
tubes and added copper powder to test tube semi normal NaOH solution. How much
A, zinc dust to test tube B, aluminium powder ammonia was passed through the beaker?
to test tube C and iron powder to test tube D
(a) 0.85 g (b) 0.34 g
and observed effervescence in _______.
(c) 0.51 g (d) 0.4 g
(a) Test tubes A & B (b) Test tubes B & C
Answer ( b )
(c) Test tubes C & D (d) Test tubes A & D
S o l . Milliequivalent of NaOH = NVml
Answer ( b )
= 0.5 × 60
S o l . In test tube 'B' and 'C' effervescence will be
= 30
observed due to the evolution of hydrogen
gas, whereas in test tube 'A' and 'D', no such Milliequivalent of HCl = NVml = 1 × 50 = 50
effervescence will be observed. In neutralisation reaction;
67. A magician performed following act: He Total milliequivalent of HCl = Milliequilvalent
dipped Rs. 50 note in a 50% solution of of NH3 +
alcohol in water and held it on the burning Milliequivalent of
flame, but the note did not burn. The reason NaOH
behind this is 50 = Milliequivalent of NH3 + 30
(a) The alcohol kept on dousing the fire Milliequivalent of NH3 = 50 – 30 = 20
(b) Air required for burning was not available Moles of NH3 = 20 × 10–3 moles
(c) The Rs. 50 note failed to reach ignition Mass of NH3 = 20 × 10–3 × 17 = 0.34 g
temperature
70. Which is the correct order of metals with
(d) The Rs. 50 note is fire proof reference to their melting point in increasing
Answer ( c ) order?
S o l . The heat supplied to the Rs. 50 note is (a) Hg, Ga, Li, Ca
transferred to water by conduction. So, in the (b) Ca, Li, Ga, Hg
presence of 50% solution of alcohol in water, (c) Hg, Li, Ga, Ca
the ignition temperature of paper is not
(d) Hg, Ga, Ca, Li
reached. Hence, it does not burn.
Answer ( a )
68. Substance X is white crystalline solid which
melts after 10 seconds on burner flame. It is S o l . Metal Melting point
soluble in water and insoluble in CCl4. It is a Hg 234 K
poor conductor of electricity in molten state
as well as in the form of aqueous solution, Ga 303 K
hence we coclude that substance X is Li 454 K
(a) An ionic compound Ca 1124 K
(b) A non-polar covalent compound
Therefore, the correct arrangement of metals
(c) A polar covalent compound in the increasing order of their melting point
(d) A pure element is
Answer ( c ) Hg < Ga < Li < Ca

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 NSEJS 2019- 20 (Question Paper Code 52)

71. Which of the following is iso-structural with 74. Arrange following solutions in increasing
CO2? hydronium ion concentration. The solutions
are:
(a) NO2 (b) N2O4
(P) 0.1 M HCl (Q) 0.1 M H 2SO 4 (R) 0.001 M
(c) NO (d) N2O
NH4OH (S) 0.001 M Ca(OH)2
Answer ( d )
The correct order will be
N (a) P > Q > R > S (b) Q > P > S > R
S o l . NO2 
:O O:
: :

(c) S > R > Q > P (d) S > R > P > Q

:

Answer ( * )
:O : O:
:

: :
S o l . P : 0.1 M HCl gives 0.1 M H+ = 10–1 M H+
N2O4  N—N
Q : 0.1 M H2SO4 gives 2 × 0.1 M H+
:O O:
= 2 × 10–1 M H+
:

:N O: R : 0.001 M NH4OH gives 0.001 M OH–

:

NO 
= 10–3 M OH–
: :

: :

N2O  N N O

:O O: Kw 1014
:

CO2  C Concentration of H+ = 
[OH ] 103
 N2O is iso-structural with CO2.
72. Sodium tungstate has formula Na2WO4, lead = 10–11 M OH–
phosphate has formula Pb3(PO4)2, formula for S : 0.001 M Ca(OH)2 gives 2 × 0.001 M OH–
lead tungstate should be: = 2 × 10–3 M OH–
(a) PbWO4 (b) Pb2(WO4)3
kw 1014
(c) Pb3(WO4)2 (d) Pb3(WO4)4 Concentration of H+ = 
[OH ] 2  103
Answer ( a )
= 5 × 10–12 M H+
S o l . Na2WO4 indicates, valency of WO4 = –2
So, correct order of hydronium ion
Pb3(PO4)2 indicates, valency of Pb = +2
concentration is S < R < P < Q
 Chemical formula of lead tungstate
* None of the given option is correct.
= PbWO4
75. A zinc rod was dipped in 100 cm 3 of 1M
73. What is the ratio of reducing agent to
copper chloride solution. After certain time
oxidizing agent, if the following reaction is
the molarity of Cu2+ ions in the solution was
correctly balanced? NH3 + O2  NO + H2O
found to be 0.8 M. If the weight of zinc rod is
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 20 g, then the molarity of chloride ions is
(c) 5 : 3 (d) 3 : 5 ______.

Answer ( a ) (a) 2 M

S o l . In the balanced reaction, (b) 1.5 M

(c) 1 M
Oxidation
(d) 0.5 M
–3 0 +2 –2 Answer ( a )
4NH 3 + 5O 2 4NO + 6H 2O
(R.A.) (O.A.) S o l . When Zn rod is dipped in copper chloride
solution, following reaction takes place:
Reduction
CuCl2 + Zn  Cu + ZnCl2
 Reducing agent : Oxidizing agent All the chloride ions will remain in solution.
4:5  Molarity of Cl– ions = 2 × 1 = 2 M.

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 NSEJS 2019 -20 (Question Paper Code 52)

76. When four dilute solutions of (I) vinegar, (II) Electronic

Sol. Element/ Atomic Number
common salt, (III) caustic soda and (IV) baking c onfiguration
ion (Z)
soda are tested with universal indicator which K L M N
will be the correct observation Ne 10 2 8

(a) I - Green, II - Violet, III - Blue, IV - Red N 3–

7 2 8

(b) I - Green, II - Blue, III - Violet, IV - Red Mg

2+
12 2 8
(c) I - Red, II - Green, III - Violet, IV - Blue K +
19 2 8 8
2+
(d) I - Red, II - Violet, III - Green, IV - Blue Ca 20 2 8 8

Answer ( c ) As Ne, N 3– and Mg 2+ have same number of

electrons i.e., 10 electrons. So Ne, N 3– and
Dilute Nature Colour shown with Mg2+ are isoelectronic species.
Sol. solution of solution universal indicator
79. Which of the following gases will have equal
Vinegar (I) Acidic Red
volume at STP, if the weight of gases is
Common salt (II) Neutral Green
14.0 g?
Caustic soda (III) Strongly basic Violet
(i) N2O (ii) NO2
Baking soda (IV) Mildly basic Blue
(iii) N2 (iv) CO
77. In one litre of pure water, 44.4 g of calcium (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii) & (iii)
chloride is dissolved. The number of ions in
(c) (i) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
one mL of the resultant solution is:
Answer ( d )
(a) 7.23 × 1023 (b) 7.23 × 1020
(c) 4.82 × 1023 (d) 4.82 × 1020 Sol. Gas Molecular mass Number of
(u) Moles
Answer ( b )
14
N2 O 44  0.32
Given mass 44
S o l . Number of moles of CaCl2 =
Molecular mass 14
NO 2 46  0.30
46
44.4
=  0.4 mole 14
111 N2 28  0.5
28
∵ 1 litre solution contain 0.4 mole of CaCl2 14
CO 28  0.5
 1 mL solution contain 0.0004 mole of 28
CaCl2 As N2 and CO have same number of moles
∵ One CaCl2 ionized into one Ca2+ anc 2Cl– i.e., 0.5 mole.
ions.
 N2 and CO will have equal volume at STP
So, the total number of ions = 3
22.4
 Total ions in 1 mL i.e., L  11.2 L
2
= 3 × 0.0004 × 6.022 × 1023
80. Which of the following are not ionic?
= 7.23 × 1020
(i) AlCl3 (ii) CaCl2
78. Which of the following species is/are
isoelectronic with Neon? (iii) MgCl2 (iv) LiCl
(i) N3– (ii) Mg2+ (a) (i) & (iv) (b) (i) & (ii)
(iii) K+ (iv) Ca2+ (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
(a) Only (iv) (b) Only (ii) Answer ( a )
(c) Both (i) & (ii) (d) Both (i) & (iii) S o l . Chlorides of aluminium and lithium are
Answer ( c ) predominantely covalent in nature.

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