Professional Documents
Culture Documents
SECTION A
Question
1
a.
Death
of
the
fetus
in
utero
after
20
weeks
gestation
b.
Death
of
the
baby
in
the
first
week
of
life
c.
The
sum
of
stillbirths
and
neonatal
deaths
d.
The
sum
of
stillbirths
and
early
neonatal
deaths
e.
A
stillbirth
Question
2
a.
It
is
reliable
if
the
woman
has
just
stopped
taking
the
pill
b.
It
may
differ
from
the
EDD
estimated
by
scan
c.
It
is
accurate
in
calculating
the
estimated
date
of
delivery
EDD
in
every
case
d.
It
is
calculated
by
adding
on
9
months
and
7
days
from
the
date
of
conception
e.
It
outlines
the
date
the
baby
will
deliver
Question
3
a.
It
can
be
done
by
the
midwife
or
GP
b.
It
is
accurate
from
14
weeks
onwards
c.
Body
mass
index
may
affect
the
measurement
d.
The
measuring
tape
should
be
applied
upside
down
e.
It
may
lead
to
a
diagnosis
of
fetal
growth
restriction
1
Question
4
Question 5
Which
one
of
the
following
statements
is
correct
in
relation
to
chorionicity
of
twin
pregnancies?
a.
Perinatal
mortality
is
higher
for
dichorionic
than
monochorionic
twins
b.
Dichorionic
twin
pregnancies
may
be
monozygotic
c.
Monochorionic
twin
pregnancies
may
be
dizygotic
d.
It
is
best
established
on
ultrasound
scan
in
the
third
trimester
e.
Monochorionic
twins
are
the
most
common
type
after
fertility
treatment
Question
6
a.
Oestrogen
b.
Antifibrinolytic
drugs
c.
The
combined
oral
contraceptive
pill
d.
The
progesterone
containing
intrauterine
device/
system
(IUS)
e.
Non-‐steroidal
anti-‐inflammatory
agents
Question
7
2
c.
Obesity
d.
Diabetes
mellitus
e.
Nulliparity
Question
8
Which
one
of
the
following
statements
in
relation
to
treatment
of
endometrial
cancer
is
true?
The
following
are
common
symptoms
that
may
be
associated
with
cervical
cancer
EXCEPT:
Which
one
of
the
following
statements
about
large
loop
excision
of
the
transformation
zone
(LLETZ)
is
true?
3
Question
11
All
of
the
following
in
relation
to
Doppler
waveform
studies
of
the
feto-‐
placental
circulation
are
true
EXCEPT:
a.
The
umbilical
artery
(UA)
is
the
most
common
vessel
examined
in
the
growth
retarded
fetus
b.
The
middle
cerebral
artery
(MCA)
is
useful
in
evaluating
the
growth
retarded
fetus
c.
The
MCA
is
useful
when
evaluating
for
potential
fetal
anaemia
d.
Reversed
end-‐diastolic
flow
(REDF)
indicates
serious
fetal
compromise
e.
Absent
end-‐diastolic
flow
(AEDF)
in
the
UA
requires
immediate
delivery
Question
12
A
25
year
old
woman
presents
with
painful
vulval
ulceration.
What
is
the
most
likely
cause?
a.
Syphilis
b.
Herpes
simplex
virus
c.
Trichomonas
d.
Human
papilloma
virus
e.
Gonorrhoea
Question
13
Which
one
of
the
following
is
NOT
a
complication
of
acute
pelvic
inflammatory
disease?
a.
Pyosalpinx
b.
Chronic
pelvic
pain
c.
Menorrhagia
d.
Ectopic
pregnancy
e.
Subfertility
4
Question
14
A
35
year
old
woman
presents
to
the
Gynaecology
OPD
with
a
9
month
history
of
amenorrhoea.
Which
one
of
the
following
investigations
is
NOT
routinely
performed
in
this
case?
a.
Testosterone
b.
Antimullerian
hormone
c.
Prolactin
d.
Thyroid
function
tests
e.
Follicle-‐stimulating
hormone
Question
15
A
woman
presents
to
the
ED
with
vaginal
bleeding
after
8
weeks
amenorrhoea
and
a
positive
pregnancy
test.
On
vaginal
examination
her
cervical
os
is
open.
What
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
A
woman
has
had
3
consecutive
first
trimester
miscarriages.
Which
of
the
following
conditions
is
least
likely
to
be
the
cause?
5
Question
17
A
40
year
old
woman
presents
with
a
6
month
history
of
postcoital
bleeding.
What
is
the
most
important
investigation
that
needs
to
be
performed?
Which of the following is not usually a "symptom" of pregnancy?
a.
Heartburn
b.
Nausea
and
vomiting
c.
Diarrhoea
d.
Amenorrhoea
e.
Urinary
frequency
Question
19
With regard to dating a pregnancy which one of the following is correct?
a.
The
LMP
is
a
reliable
way
to
date
a
pregnancy
even
if
the
cycles
are
irregular
b.
Crown-‐rump
length
is
measured
on
a
dating
US
from
9-‐14weeks
c.
Pregnancy
is
dated
from
conception
d.
If
a
women
has
a
35
day
menstrual
cycle,
7
days
should
be
subtracted
from
the
EDD
obtained
from
Naegele's
rule
e.
Head
circumference
is
the
most
reliable
measurement
on
US
at
any
gestation
to
date
a
pregnancy
6
Question
20
A
37
year
old
woman
Para
2+1
presented
to
the
emergency
department
with
bleeding
per
vaginum.
She
was
28
weeks
pregnant
with
a
twin
pregnancy.
There
was
a
small
amount
of
painless
bright
red
bleeding
earlier
that
day.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
Which of the following is not a risk factor for placenta abruption?
a.
Smoking
b.
Previous
caesarean
section
c.
Pre-‐eclampsia
d.
Previous
abruption
e.
High
parity
Question
22
7
Question
23
Which
of
the
following
is
true
about
the
progestogen-‐containing
intrauterine
contraceptive
device
(Mirena)?
Margaret,
a
45
year-‐old
woman
with
a
history
of
breast
cancer
3
years
ago,
who
is
now
taking
tamoxifen,
presents
for
contraceptive
advice.
She
is
otherwise
healthy
with
a
normal
BMI
and
BP.
She
has
had
no
periods
since
she
had
chemotherapy
3
years
ago
but
was
told
at
the
Breast
clinic
she
needed
reliable
contraception.
Which
of
the
following
would
be
a
suitable
option
for
Margaret?
a.
Fibroids
b.
Cervical
cancer
c.
Pelvic
inflammatory
disease
d.
Cystocoele
e.
Menorrhagia
8
Question
26
The
instrument
in
the
picture
below
would
be
best
suited
to
which
of
the
following?
In
active
management
of
the
third
stage
of
labour
to
prevent
primary
post-‐
partum
haemorrhage,
intramuscular
oxytocin
is
recommended
to
be
given
when?
9
Question
28
You
are
called
to
review
a
lady
who
is
1
hour
post-‐delivery.
Her
I-‐MEWS
chart
shows
her
to
be
tachycardic
and
hypotensive.
The
midwife
informs
you
that
her
estimated
blood
loss
has
been
600ml.
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
a
risk
factor
for
her
condition?
In relation to stress incontinence which of the following is true?
a.
Insertion
of
a
tension
free
vaginal
tape
is
associated
with
a
small
risk
of
bladder
perforation
b.
Clam
augmentation
ileo-‐cystoplasty
is
one
of
the
surgical
treatment
options
c.
It
is
caused
by
an
unstable
bladder
d.
Stress
incontinence
never
occurs
with
urge
incontinence
e.
The
second
line
therapy
duloxetine
works
by
blocking
the
muscarinic
receptors
on
the
detrusor
smooth
muscle
Question
30
A
58
year
old
post-‐menopausal
lady
presents
with
a
dragging
sensation
per
vaginum
and
discomfort
on
intercourse.
On
Sims
speculum
examination
she
is
noted
to
have
a
cysto-‐urethrocoele.
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
a
risk
factor
for
her
condition?
10
Question
31
The following drugs are used in the treatment of pre-‐eclampsia EXCEPT:
a.
Methyldopa
b.
Labetolol
c.
Magnesium
sulphate
d.
Ergometrine
e.
Hydralazine
Question
32
The following bloods are done at the routine booking visit EXCEPT:
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pre-‐eclampsia?
a.
Multiparity
b.
Obesity
c.
Family
history
of
pre-‐eclampsia
d.
Age
greater
than
40
years
e.
Multiple
pregnancy
Question
34
11
Question
35
The use of HRT is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Which
of
the
following
is
FALSE
with
regards
to
gestational
trophoblastic
disease?
Regarding ectopic pregnancy which one of the following is true?
12
e.
Laparotomy
is
mainly
used
for
management
Question
39
Which
of
the
following
is
true
regarding
failure
to
progress
during
labour
where
the
membranes
are
intact?
Which
statement
regarding
variable
decelerations
in
the
first
stage
of
labour
is
true?
13
Question
42
With pregestational diabetes in pregnancy which one of the following is true?
a.
Patients
should
take
10mg
rather
than
0.4mg
of
folic
acid
periconceptually
b.
The
use
of
an
insulin
pump
is
contraindicated
c.
If
treated
correctly
will
not
have
implications
for
the
child
d.
Perinatal
outcome
is
not
related
to
the
pre-‐pregnancy
HbA1C
e.
There
may
be
a
deterioration
in
eye
complications
Question
43
Regarding carcinoma of the vulva which one of the following is true?
Which one of the following statements regarding ovarian cancer is true?
a.
It
can
be
detected
by
an
effective
screening
programme
b.
It
can
be
related
to
inherited
genetic
mutations
c.
It
is
related
to
the
human
papilloma
virus
d.
The
mainstay
of
adjuvant
treatment
to
surgery
is
radiotherapy
e.
It
presents
early
with
obvious
symptoms
14
Question
45
Which
one
of
the
following
statements
regarding
shoulder
dystocia
in
labour
is
true?
Which one of the following is true about maternal death in the UK?
a.
It
occurs
half
as
often
following
myocardial
infarction
than
sepsis
b.
It
is
measured
as
the
number
of
deaths
per
hundred
thousand
maternities
c.
It
occurs
most
often
due
to
venous
thromboembolism
d.
It
is
increasing
as
a
consequence
of
haemorrhage
e.
It
occurs
most
often
as
a
consequence
of
sepsis
Question
47
Which of the following statements is true about the third stage of labour?
a.
The
routine
use
of
syntocinon
in
the
management
of
the
third
stage
of
labour
reduces
the
risk
of
postpartum
haemorrhage
b.
Syntometrine
is
preferred
for
women
with
hypertension
following
delivery
c.
Signs
of
placental
separation
during
the
third
stage
include
a
small
vaginal
bleed
and
shortening
of
the
umbilical
cord
d.
The
partogram
includes
the
third
stage
of
labour
e.
The
third
stage
usually
occurs
two
hours
after
delivery
of
the
baby
15
Question
48
Orla
is
a
P1+0
who
is
in
her
second
pregnancy.
At
34
weeks
in
this
pregnancy
she
presents
with
a
non-‐specific
vaginal
discharge
and
a
high
vaginal
swab
is
taken.
This
grows
Group
B
Streptococcus
(GBS).
Otherwise,
her
pregnancy
is
normal;
she
has
no
medical
problems
and
no
known
allergies.
Which
statement
is
true?
a.
She
should
be
advised
that
her
baby
will
need
to
be
admitted
to
the
NICU
for
observation
b.
She
should
be
treated
for
GBS
antenatally
depending
on
the
sensitivities
indicated
on
the
swab
report
c.
Her
baby
will
need
treatment
with
penicillin
after
birth
d.
When
she
goes
into
labour
she
will
be
treated
with
intravenous
penicillin
4
hourly
during
labour
e.
When
she
goes
into
labour
she
will
be
treated
with
intravenous
co-‐
amoxiclav
8
hourly
Question
49
Which
of
the
following
is
true
about
the
delivery
of
a
woman
with
HIV
infection
in
pregnancy?
a.
Has
a
vertical
transmission
rate
from
mother
to
baby
of
10%
b.
Lactation
should
be
encouraged
c.
Should
be
by
caesarean
section
d.
Fetal
blood
sampling
during
labour
is
contraindicated
e.
The
CD4
count
and
viral
load
have
no
bearing
on
the
management
of
the
delivery
Question
50
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
true
about
a
couple
who
are
being
investigated
for
primary
subfertility?
a.
Intra-‐cytoplasmic
sperm
injection
(ICSI)
is
used
in
male
factor
infertility
b.
They
have
failed
to
conceive
after
6
months
trying
c.
Polycystic
ovarian
syndrome
causes
20%
of
anovulatory
subfertility
d.
The
woman
will
need
to
have
female
reproductive
hormones
measured
on
day
14
and
day
21
e.
If
there
is
one
abnormal
semen
analysis
the
male
will
be
treated
for
16
male
factor
subfertility
Question
51
SECTION B
A
2-‐year
old
is
brought
directly
into
the
ED
urgently
by
his
parents.
He
has
a
short
history
of
fever,
vomiting,
lethargy
and
irritability.
On
initial
review
he
is
febrile,
responding
only
to
pain
and
moaning.
Which of the following is the most likely infecting organism?
A
2
year-‐old
boy
is
admitted
via
the
ED
following
his
first
febrile
convulsion
which
lasted
5
minutes.
The
parents
are
very
anxious
and
you
are
asked
to
speak
with
them
following
the
event.
Which
of
the
following
pieces
of
information
is
most
applicable
to
simple
febrile
convulsions?
a.
They
affect
10%
of
children
by
the
age
of
6
years
b.
Up
to
one
third
of
children
may
have
a
recurrence
c.
They
are
commonly
associated
with
varicella
infection
d.
Buccal
phenytoin
is
indicated
for
management
e.
They
are
associated
with
learning
difficulties
in
later
childhood
Question
53
A
6-‐year
old
child
is
brought
to
the
ED
in
the
middle
of
the
night
with
her
first
episode
of
wheezing.
She
has
a
background
history
of
eczema.Her
oxygen
saturation
is
85%
in
room
air
and
she
is
unable
to
talk.
You
initiate
treatment
with
oxygen,
nebulised
salbutamol
and
IV
hydrocortisone
with
minimal
effect.
Administration
of
which
of
the
following
medications
is
the
most
appropriate
next
step
in
managing
this
child?
17
b.
IV
amoxicillin
clavulanate
c.
IV
0.9%
Saline
d.
Nebulised
budesonide
e.
IV
magnesium
sulphate
Question
54
Aoife
is
a
10
week-‐old
baby
girl
whose
karyotype
map
is
shown
below.
Her
medical
condition
is
most
likely
to
be
associated
with
which
of
the
following
congenital
cardiac
abnormalities?
Chloe,
aged
8
weeks,
presents
to
ED
with
poor
feeding
and
is
noted
to
have
a
murmur
suggestive
of
a
ventricular
septal
defect.
You
diagnose
that
she
has
associated
congestive
cardiac
failure.
Which
of
the
following
clinical
findings
is
most
likely
to
be
present
in
Chloe?
18
e.
Respiratory
rate
64/min
Question 56
Conor
is
a
previously
healthy
4
month-‐old
infant,
who
presented
to
the
ED
with
a
12
hour
history
of
reluctance
to
feed
and
breathlessness.
His
heart
rate
is
250/
min
and
respiratory
rate
is
52/minute.
He
is
afebrile,
acyanotic
and
otherwise
appears
well.
Which one of the following is most likely to apply to this infant?
Question 57
An
11-‐year-‐old
girl
presents
following
6
days
of
fever,
abdominal
pain
and
bloody
diarrhoea.
She
has
become
increasingly
lethargic.
Blood
tests
reveal
Hb
7.5
g/dL,
WCC
15
×
109/L,
platelets
40
×
109/L,
urea
9.0
mmol/L
and
creatinine
200
micromol/L.(Normal
ranges:
Urea:
2.5-‐6.6mmol/l;
Creatinine:
44-‐77micromol/L)
Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of her diarrhoea?
Regarding
primitive
reflexes
in
babies,
which
one
of
the
following
statements
is
false?
a.
Rooting
is
fully
developed
by
36
weeks
of
gestation
b.
Palmar
grasp
disappears
at
2-‐3
months
of
age
c.
Asymmetrical
tonic
neck
reflex
is
fully
developed
at
birth
d.
Persistence
of
Moro
reflex
beyond
6
months
of
age
signifies
CNS
dysfunction
19
e.
Parachute
reflex
appears
by
3
months
of
age
Question
59
Given
the
appearance
shown
in
image
below,
which
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
20
Question
60
Given
the
x-‐ray
findings
below
which
of
the
following
is
the
most
likely
diagnosis?
21
Question
61
The
child
in
the
image
below
has
developed
the
findings
demonstrated
in
the
image
2
days
after
receiving
a
laceration
to
skin
below
her
right
eye.
She
is
also
febrile,
without
proptosis
and
can
move
her
right
eye.
Choose
the
most
appropriate
first
line
antibiotic
for
this
case
from
the
list
below
(given
that
the
child
has
no
history
of
antibiotic
allergies)
a.
Piperacillin/Tazobactam
b.
Penicillin
c.
Metronidazole
d.
Amoxicillin
clavulanate
e.
Vancomycin
Question
62
An
infant
is
brought
to
her
GP
for
her
6
week
check.
Which
one
of
the
following
physical
signs
is
abnormal
in
this
baby?
22
Question
63
A
10
year
old
boy
is
brought
to
ED
with
a
history
of
weakness
of
the
left
side
of
his
body
since
morning.
He
is
on
antibiotics
for
the
past
week
for
intermittent
fever.
He
has
been
seen
by
his
GP
on
3
occasions
in
last
2
months
with
a
history
of
headache
which
was
thought
to
be
a
tension
headache.
He
also
had
an
ear
infection
1
month
ago.
On
examination;
his
temperature
is
38.5
C,
throat
is
normal,
right
tympanic
membrane
is
dull.
He
is
drowsy.
He
has
no
neck
stiffness.
There
is
hemiparesis
of
the
left
side.
The
fundi
and
the
rest
of
the
clinical
examination
are
normal.
a.
Migraine
b.
Brain
abscess
c.
Encephalitis.
d.
Hysterical
conversion
reaction.
e.
Brain
tumour
Question
64
A
3
year
old
boy
presents
to
the
ED
with
difficulty
in
swallowing
and
a
high
temperature.
On
exam
he
appears
toxic,
anxious
and
doesn't
want
to
lie
down.
He
has
drooling
from
his
mouth
and
has
soft
stridor.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
most
appropriate
initial
step
in
this
boy's
management?
23
Question
65
A
4
year
old
boy
presents
to
ED
with
a
history
of
high
fever,
irritability
and
headaches.
His
vaccinations
are
up-‐to-‐date.
On
examination
he
has
a
temperature
of
390C,
neck
stiffness
and
a
congested
throat.
The
rest
of
his
examination
is
normal.
His
Hb
is
12
gm/dl,
WBC
is
18x
109/l
with
80%
neutrophils
and
platelets
are
181
x
109/l.
A
lumber
puncture
shows
Gram
positive
diplococci.
A
3
day
old
baby
has
fed
poorly
for
the
past
6
hours.
She
was
born
at
term
after
an
uneventful
pregnancy.
Her
APGAR
scores
and
birth
weight
were
normal
and
she
is
breast
fed.
On
examination
she
is
lethargic,
SAO2
93%
in
room
air,
has
cold
peripheries
and
her
capillary
refill
time
is
4
seconds.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management plan?
24
Question
67
You are asked by a nurse to chart IV fluids for a boy weighing 20 kgs.
Which
of
the
following
most
closely
approximates
to
his
maintenance
fluid
requirements?
Jean
is
13
years
of
age
and
is
having
multiple
absence
seizures
on
a
daily
basis.
Which
of
the
following
anticonvulsants
is
the
most
appropriate
first
line
treatment
for
her?
a.
Topirimate
b.
Sodium
Valproate
c.
Lamotrogine
d.
Carbamazepine
e.
Ethosuximide
Question
69
A
2-‐day-‐old
baby
is
brought
to
the
ED
with
a
24-‐hour
history
of
poor
feeding
and
vomiting.
On
examination
she
is
lethargic
and
has
jaundice,
a
capillary
refill
time
of
3
seconds
and
hepatomegaly.
a.
Galactosaemia
b.
Phenylketonuria
c.
Maple
syrup
urine
disease
d.
Zellwaeger's
Syndrome
e.
Cystic
Fibrosis
25
Question
70
For
each
of
the
following
statements
below,
please
choose
the
most
likely
diagnosis
from
the
above
list;
Options
may
be
used
more
than
once
A
6-‐week
old
baby
is
admitted
with
worsening
lethargy
over
1-‐2
days.
She
is
noted
to
be
very
pale,
with
a
small
haematoma
on
her
back,
she
has
a
haemoglobin
of
8
g/L
with
normal
white
cell
count
and
platelets
A
10
year
old
boy
has
a
2-‐minute
episode
of
collapse
during
a
football
match;
he
is
brought
to
the
ED
by
his
mother
who
is
wearing
bilateral
hearing
aids
26
Question
71
Child
Development
For
each
of
case
descriptions
below,
select
the
developmental
age
achieved
from
the
above
list.
Options
may
be
used
more
than
once
Walks
easily
on
a
narrow
line,
runs
lightly
on
toes.
Throws
and
catches
a
ball
well.
Good
control
in
writing
and
drawing
with
pencils,
copies
a
square
and
a
triangle,
and
letters
such
as
'V'
,
'T'
,
'O'
with
varying
degrees
of
accuracy.
Gives
agency
to
toys
e.g.
makes
a
doll
'say'
something
or
do
something
(feed
another
doll).
Able
to
use
2
or
more
substitutions,
e.g.
a
roll-‐up
towel
as
a
doll,
and
a
crayon
as
a
bottle.
Sits
unsupported
on
the
floor,
can
adjust
body
posture
when
leaning
forward
to
pick
up
and
manipulate
a
toy
without
losing
balance.
Enjoys
casting
objects
over
the
side
of
cot
and
chair.
Looks
in
correct
direction
for
falling
or
fallen
toys.
27
Question
72
Nutrition
Select
the
most
appropriate
diagnosis
from
the
list
above
for
each
of
the
following
scenarios.
Options
may
be
used
more
than
once.
A
6
month
old
infant
with
intermittent
non
bilious
vomits,
occasional
drooling,
coughing
associated
with
feeding.
28
Question
73
Paediatric Haematology
29