Tìm từ thích hợp vào chỗ trống

Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (31) ______up about 10 percent of the population - but, frankly, it
seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and
cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand. What (32) ______someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t
exactly sure, but research points to a complex (33) ______between genes and environment While no exact set of “leftie
genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands do have more left-handed family members. And
researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties. But no matter (34) ______it is that drives someone to
use their antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that left-handed people tend to have.
So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed
knowledge and help (35) ______an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 1: A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 2: A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 3: A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 4: A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 5: A. put B. bring C. make D. take
Water is necessary for life. People can live only a few days (44) _____ it. Yet nearly 25 million people die each year
because of it. Both industrial nations and less-developed countries are worried about the (45) ______ and quantity of water
in the world.
Even though people, animals, agriculture, and industry use a lot of water, there is more than enough on the Earth.
Water covers about three-fourths of the Earth's surface. However, 97.4 percent of it is salt water. Three-fourths of the Earth's
fresh water is frozen in glaciers and in the great polar ice caps. Most of the water we use (46) _____ from rivers, lakes, and
the atmosphere. Less than one percent of the Earth's water is usable, and we use it over and over again.
One of the (47) ______ about water is distribution. Water is not always distributed where the large (48) ______
centers are. Some regions get enough rain, but it is all in one or two short rainy seasons.
Question 6: A. in B. without C. for D. with
Question 7: A. quality B. condition C. situation D. characteristics
Question 8: A. gets B. arrives C. goes D. comes
Question 9: A. facts B. things C. problems D. cases
Question 10: A. population B. men C. women D. people
Throughout the world there are different ways for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a handshake is
the (38) __________ form of welcoming and greeting someone. In many countries around the Mediterranean Sea a (39)
___________ kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends and family. It can be a very (40) __________
surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a hug instead.
At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (41) ___________ is followed. People may bow, grab another’s
arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at the other’s face and say nothing.
Most people in the world are tolerant of visitors and don’t mind what travellers do that seems wrong as long as the
visitors are (42)__________. A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is experiencing different customs.
Question 11: A. different B. unique C. common D. same
Question 12: A. light B. superficial C. fast D. heavy
Question 13: A. huge B. large C. big D. great
Question 14: A. habit B. routine C. custom D. tradition
Question 15: A. sincere B. truthful C. faithful D. hopeful

Any change in one part of an ecosystem can cause changes in other parts. Droughts, storms and fires can change
ecosystems. Some changes ____(46)___ ecosystems. If there is too little rainfall, plants will not have enough water to live. If
a kind of plant dies off, the animals____(47)___feed on it may also die or move away. Some changes are good for
ecosystems. Some pine forests need fires for the pine trees to reproduce. The seeds are sealed inside pinecones. Heat from a
forest fire melts the seal and lets the seeds ____(48)___. Polluting the air, soil, and water can harm ecosystems. Building
dams on rivers for electric power and irrigation can harm ecosystems ____(49)___ the rivers. Bulldozing wetlands and
cutting down forests destroy ecosystems. Ecologists are working with companies and governments to find better ways of
___(50)____ fish, cutting down trees, and building dams. They are looking for ways to get food, lumber, and other products
for people without causing harm to ecosystems.
Question 16: A. harms B. harmful C. harmless D. harm
Question 17: A. who B. where C. that D. when
Question 18: A. out B. in C. go D. fly
Question 19: A. on B. around C. over D. under
Question 20: A. catching B. holding C. carrying D. taking
 Located in central Africa, Lake Victoria is a very unusual lake. __( 44 )__ of the largest lakes in the world; it is also
one of the youngest. Estimated to be about 15,000 years old, it is a relative baby compared with Earth’s other very large
lakes, __( 45 )__ more than two million years old. Yet judging by the variety of life in it, Lake Victoria __( 46 )__ a much
older body of water. Usually, lakes need a much longer time __( 47 )__ by a diverse array of life-forms. It is common for
new lakes to contain only a small number of species. Lake Victoria, however, is packed with colorful fish, most notably,
cichlids. There are __( 48 )__ 500 different species of just this one type of fish.
Question 21: A. Not only is it B. One is it only not C. Is it one not only D. It not only one is
Question 22: A. are B. which can be C. they are D. which being
Question 23: A. views B. likes C. portrays D. resembles
Question 24: A. they are B. is populated C. to become D. becoming populated
populated populated
Question 25: A. as many as B. as many C. many D. too many

Researchers in communication show that more feelings and intentions are (1) _______ and received nonverbally than
verbally. Mehrabian and Wienerfollowing have stated that only 7% (2) _______ message is sent through words, with
remaining 93% sent nonverbal (3) _______. Humans use nonverbal communication because:
1. Words have limitations: There are (4) _______ areas where nonverbal communication is more (5) v than verbal, especially
when we explain the shape, directions, personalities which are expressed nonverbally.
2. Nonverbal signal are powerful: Nonverbal cues primarily express inner (6) _______ while verbal messages deal basically
with outside world.
3. Nonverbal message are likely (7) _______ more genuine: because nonverbal behaviors cannot be controlled as easily as
spoken words.
4. Nonverbal signals can express feelings inappropriate to state: Social etiquette limits (8) _______ can be said, but
nonverbal cues can communicate thoughts.
5. A separate communication channel is necessary to (9) _______ send complex messages: A speaker can add enormously to
the complexity of the verbal message through simple nonverbal (10) _______.
Question 26: A. mailed B. posted C. sent D. thrown
Question 27: A. through B. off C. in D. for

Question 28: A. expressions B. thoughts C. gestures D. postures

Question 29: A. sum B. great deal C. numerous D. amount
Question 30: A. effect B. effectiveness C. effectively D. effective
Question 31: A. words B. feelings C. shows D. sorrows
Question 32: A. be B. being C. been D. to be
Question 33: A. why B. that C. what D. when
Question 34: A. help B. have C. make D. get
Question 35: A. signs B. sight C. signals D. signatures

We can (29) _______ other people in many different ways. We can talk and write, and we can send messages with
our hands and faces. There is also the phone (including the mobile!), the fax, and e-mail. Television, film, painting, and
photography can also communicate ideas.
Animals have ways of exchanging information, too. Bees dance and tell other bees where (30) _______ food.
Elephants make sounds that humans can’t hear. Whales sing songs. Monkeys use their faces to show anger and love. But this
is nothing (31) _______ to what people can do. We have language - about 6,000 languages, in fact. We can write poetry, tell
jokes, make promises, explain, persuade, tell the truth, or tell lies. And we have a sense of past and future, not just present.
Radio, film, and television (32) _______ a huge influence on society in the last hundred years. And now we have the
Internet, which is infinite. But what is this doing to this? We can give and get a lot of information very quickly. But there is
(33) _______ information that it is difficult to know what is important and what isn’t. Modem media is changing our world
every minute of every day.
Question 36: A. talk to B. talk with C. communicate to D. communicate with
Question 37: A. finding B. found C. to find D. they find
Question 38: A. compare B. comparing C. is compared D. compared
Question 39: A. have B. have had C. are having D. had
Question 40: A. so much B. such much C. so many D. too much

Owning a pet
The joys and tribulations of being a pet owner! During our lifetime most of us have some experience of either
owning a pet or being in (7) _______ contact with someone who does. Is there such a things as “the ideal pet”? If so what
characterizes the ideal pet? Various (8) _______ influence one’s choice of pet, from your reasons for getting a pet to your
lifestyle. For example, although quite a few pets are relatively cheap to buy, the cost of upkeep can be considerable.
Everything must be (9) _______ into account, from food and bedding, to vaccinations and veterinary bills. You must be
prepared to (10) _______ time on your pet, which involves shopping for it, cleaning and feeling it. Pets can be demanding
and a big responsibility. Are you prepared to exercise and housetrain an animal or do you prefer a more independent pet?
How much spare room do you have? Is it right to lock an energetic animal into a confined space? Do you live near a busy
road which may threaten the life of your pet? Pets such as turtles and goldfish can be cheap and convenient, but if you prefer
affectionate pets, a friendly cat or dog would be more (11)
Question 41: A. near B. close C. narrow D. tight
Question 42: A. facets B. elements C. factors D. points
Question 43: A. considering B. held C. taken D. kept
Question 44: A. take B. waste C. occupy D. spend
Question 45: A. suited B. appropriate C. likely D. good
Most Americans eat three meals (10) ______ the day: breakfast, lunch, and dinner. Breakfast begins between 7:00 and
8:00am, lunch between 11:00 am and noon, and dinner between 6:00 and 8:00 pm. On Sundays "brunch" is a (11) ______ of
breakfast and lunch, typically beginning at 11:00 am. Students often enjoy a "study break" or evening snack around 10:00 or
11:00 pm. Breakfast and lunch tend to be light meals, with only one course.
Dinner is the main meal.
For breakfast Americans will eat cereal with milk which are often mixed (12) ______ in a bowl, a glass of orange juice,
and toasted bread or muffin with jam, butter, or margarine. Another common breakfast meal is scrambled eggs or an omelet with
potatoes and breakfast meat (bacon or sausage). People who are on a diet eat just a cup of yogurt.
Lunch and dinner are more (13) ______. When eating at a formal dinner, you may be overwhelmed by the number of
utensils. How do you (14) ______ the difference between a salad fork, a butter fork, and a dessert fork? Most Americans do not
know the answer. But knowing which fork or spoon to use first is simple: use the outermost utensils first and the utensils closest
to the plate last.
Question 46: A. in B. for C. on D. during
Question 47: A. addition B. connection C. combination D. attachment
Question 48: A. each other B. together C. one another D. others
Question 49: A. vary B. variety C. varied D. various

Question 50: A. say B. talk C. speak D. tell

About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources. We (15)___
well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion
of our animal consumption is in the (16)____ of packaging and this constitutes about seven percent by weight, of our
domestic(17) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing
fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(18) ____ than coal and one methodn
of “recovery” strongly (19)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.
Question 51: A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove
Question 52: A. form B. way C. type D. kind
Question 53: A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements
Question 54: A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand

Question 55: A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored

I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little
suspected that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (23) ________ port for a cyclist's
arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (24) ________ town and down to
Ribe, where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in
June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several small islands and various parts of
the countryside.
In my (25) ________, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was no (26)
________. On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned out to be the local baker. He
insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter in Odense. Within
minutes, he had (27) ________ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to
keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday.
Question 56: A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient
Question 57: A. in to B. up ward C. out of D. upon
Question 58: A. information B. experience C. knowledge D. observation
Question 59: A. exception B. difference C. change D. contract
Question 60: A. fixed B. ordered C. settled D. arranged
Đọc hiểu
DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation of once-productive land into unproductive or poorly productive land. Since the first
great urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6,000 years ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil
quality, leading to gradual desertification in virtually every area of the world.
It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought does make land more
vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid regions. Another mistaken belief is that
the process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially
where poor land management is practiced. Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and
arable land; wherever human activity leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction is inevitable.
[1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale farming
requires extensive irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and leaching minerals into the
topsoil. [3] Grazing is especially destructive to land because, in addition to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing
mammals also trample the fine organic particles of the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and
erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the earth to build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and
agriculture can deplete as much as 2 to 3 centimeters of topsoil every 25 years - 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced
by nature.
Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the soil. This
usually occurs as a result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian empires- Sumer, Akkad and Babylon-
were built on the surplus of the enormously productive soil of the ancient Tigris- Euphrates alluvial plain. After
nearly a thousand years of intensive cultivation, land quality was in evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the
Sumerians began digging the huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop
yield was achieved in this way, but over-irrigation was to have serious and unforeseen consequences. From as early as 2400
BC we find Sumerian documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It is believed that the fall of the Akkadian
Empire around 2150 BC may have been due to a catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into
salt. Even today, four thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still
resemble rock-hard fields of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle of degradation
begins, conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins to disappear, soil becomes more
vulnerable to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in to provide moisture for plans. This further diminishes
plan cover by leaching away nutrients from the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more
frequent and more severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves
finer underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s greatest concentration of organic
matter and microorganisms, and is where most of the earth’s land-based biological activity occurs. Without this fragile coat
of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist. An extreme case of its erosion is found in the Sahel, a transitional zone
between the Sahara Desert and the tropical African rain forests; home to some 56 million people. Overpopulation and
overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective margin of the
Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the Sahara Desert spread 100
kilometers southward through the Sahel.
Question 1: Which of the following statement is true about desertification?
A. It has a history as long as that of civilization.
B. It was just as serious in the past as it is today.
C. It is a fairy recent problem.
D. Ancient societies managed the problem well.
Question 2: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. cultivate B. dry C. settled D. populated
Question 3: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect because _____.
A. they do not think of of it as a serious problem
B. they see it as being reversible
C. they do not see it as being caused by human activity
D. they think of it as a very slow process
Question 4: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the following activities
A. The repetitive planting of the same crop B. Irrigation
C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Over fertilization
Question 5: The word “degradation” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. rejuvenation B. deterioration C. contribution D. consumption
Question 6: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Show the progress of desertification down through history.
B. Propose a method for dealing with the desertification problem.
 C. Describe one progress that leads to desertification.
D. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area.
Question 7: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. washing B. depositing C. concentrating D. dispersing
(1) Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth century when coke was first used instead of charcoal
for refining iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its use in architecture to items such as chains and
tie bars for supporting arches, vaults, and walls. With the improvement in refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-
iron beams, columns, and girders. During the nineteenth century further advances were made, notably Bessemer’s
process for converting iron into steel, which made the material more commercially viable.
(2) Iron was rapidly adopted for the construction of bridges, because its strength was far greater than that
of stone or timber, but its use in the architecture of buildings developed more slowly. By 1800 a complete internal iron
skeleton for buildings had been developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional timber beams, but it generally
remained concealed. Apart from its low cost, the appeal of iron as a building material lay in its strength, its resistance to fire,
and its potential to span vast areas. As a result, iron became increasingly popular as a structural material for more traditional
styles of architecture during the nineteenth century, but it was invariably concealed.
(3) Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred mainly in the new building types spawned by the
Industrial Revolution: in factories, warehouses, commercial offices, exhibition hall, and railroad stations, where its practical
advantages far outweighed its lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the new age explored the
potential of iron, covering huge areas with spans that surpassed the great vaults of medieval churches and cathedrals.
Paxton’s Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great Exhibition of 1851, covered an area of 1.848 feet by 408 feet in
prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The Paris Exhibition of 1889 included both the widest span and the greatest
height achieved so far with the Halle Des Machines, spanning 362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However,
these achievements were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its structural
advantages, had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in the more traditional styles of architecture was
slower to develop.
Question 8: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Advances in iron processing in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
B. The effects of the Industrial Revolution on traditional architectural styles.
C. Advantages of stone and timber over steel as a building material.
D. The evolution of the use of iron in architecture during the 1800’s.
Question 9: According to the passage, iron was NOT used for beams, columns, and girders prior to the early eighteenth
century because _____.
A. all available iron was needed for other purposes
B. limited mining capability made iron too expensive
C. iron was considered too valuable for use in public buildings
D. the use of charcoal for refining ore produced poor quality iron
Question 10: Iron replaced stone and timber in the building of bridges because iron was considered _____.
A. more beautiful B. new and modern C. much stronger D. easier to transport
Question 11: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to_____.
A. industrial architecture B. internal iron skeleton
C. stone D. strength
Question 12: The word “surpassed” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. imitated B. exceeded C. approached D. included
Question 13: According to paragraph 3, the architectural significance of the Halle Des Machines was its _____.
A. wide span B. great height
C. unequaled beauty D. prefabricated unites of glass
Question 14: How did the artistic elite mentioned in the passage react to the buildings at the Paris Exhibition?
A. They tried to copy them. B. They ridiculed them.
C. They praised them. D. They refused to pay to see them.
Question 15: It can be inferred that the delayed use of exposed iron structures in traditional styles of architecture is
best explained by the _____.
A. impracticality of using iron for small, noncommercial buildings
B. association of iron architecture with the problems of the Industrial Revolution
C. general belief that iron offered less resistance to fire and harsh weather than traditional materials
D. general perception that iron structures were not aesthetically pleasing

(1) Interest is the sum charged for borrowing money for a fixed period of time. Principal is the term used for the money that
is borrowed, and the rate of interest is the percent per year of the principal charged for its use. Most of the profits for a bank
are derived from the interest that they charge for the use of their own or their depositor’s money.
(2) All problems in interest may be solved by using one general equation that may be stated as follows:
Interest = Principal X Rate X Time
(3) Any one of the four quantities – that is, interest, principal, rate, or time – may be found when the other three are known.
The time is expressed in years. The rate is expressed as a decimal fraction. Thus, 6 percent interest means six cents charged
for the use of $1 of principal borrowed for one year. Although the time may be less than, equal to, or greater than one year,
most applications for loans are for periods of less than one year. For purpose of computing interest for short periods, the
commercial year or 360 days is commonly used, but when large sums of money are involved, exact interest is computed on
the basis of 365 days.
Question 16: With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?
(A) Profits (B) Rate (C) Interest (D) Principal
Question 17: The word “fixed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) Definite (B) short (C) repeated (D) trial
Question 18: At 4 percent interest for the use of $1 principal, how much would one pay?
(A) Six cents per year (B) Twenty-five cents per year
(C) Four cents per year (D) One cent per year
Question 19: Which of the following would be a correct expression of an interest rate as stated in the equation for computing
interest?
(A) Four (B) 04 (C) 4 (D) 4/100
Question 20: Most applications for loans are for
(A) one year (B) less than one year (C) more than one year (D) 360 days
Question 21: The word “periods” in paragraph 3 refers to
(A) time (B) loans (C) applications ( D) interest
Question 22: A commercial year is used to compute
(A) exact interest (B) interest on large sums of money
(C) interest on a large principal (D) interest for short periods of time

(1) The protozoans, minute, aquatic creatures each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm, constitute a
classification of the most primitive forms of animal life. They are fantastically diverse, but three major groups may be
identified on the basis of their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails, which they use to project themselves
forward. The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short
tails. The Sarcodina, which include amoebae, float or row themselves about on their crusted bodies.
(2) In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For
example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but
decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus.
(3) Protozoans are considered animals because, unlike pigmented plants to which some protozoans are otherwise almost
identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the major characteristics of the cells
of higher animals.
(4) Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to each other and responding uniformly to
outside stimulate. Current research into this phenomenon, along with investigations carried out with advanced microscopes
may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into question the basic premise that they have only
one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt,
as the technology improves our methods of observation, better models of classification will be proposed.
Question 23: Where do protozoans probably live?
(A) Water (B) Sand (C) Grass (D) Wood
Question 24: What is protoplasm?
(A) A class of protozoan
(B) The substance that forms the cell of a protozoan
(C) A primitive animal similar to a protozoan
(D) An animal that developed from a protozoan
Question 25: To which class of protozoans do the amoebae belong?
(A) Mastigophora (B) Ciliata (C) Sarcodina (D) Motility
Question 26: What is the purpose of the large nucleus in the Ciliata?
(A) It generates the other nucleus.
(B) It contains the genetic code for the small nucleus.
(C) It regulates growth.
(D) It reproduces itself.
Question 27: Why are protozoans classified as animals?
(A) They do not live on simple organic compounds.
(B) They collect in colonies.
 (C) They respond uniformly to outside stimulate.
(D) They may have more than one cell.
Question 28: The word “uniformly” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
(A) in the same way (B) once in a while (C) all of a sudden (D) in the long run
Question 29: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
(A) protozoans (B) microscopes (C) investigations (D) colonies
Question 30: Which of the following statements are NOT true of protozoans?
(A) There are approximately 40,000 species.
(B) They are the most primitive forms of animal life.
(C) They have a large cell and a smaller cell.
(D) They are difficult to observe.
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classical and medieval worlds,
while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century
did silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud was a distraction
to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the
usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As the number of readers
increased, the number of potential listeners declined and thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading
for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as
libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be used for information
or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as newspapers was in some way mentally weakening.
Indeed, this argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had
gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialised readership
on the other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use reading
skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological changes in the
century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.
Câu 31: Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because .
A. few people could read to themselves
B. there were few places available for private reading
C. silent reading had not been discovered
D. people relied on reading for entertainment
Câu 32: The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “___ ”.
A. attracting attention B. for everybody’s use C. most preferable D. widely used
Câu 33: The development of silent reading during the last century indicated .
A. an increase in the number of books B. an increase in the average age of readers
C. a change in the status of literate people D. a change in the nature of reading
Câu 34: Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of ___.
A. the decreasing need to read aloud B. the development of libraries
C. the increase in literacy D. the decreasing number of listeners
Câu 35: It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialised reading materials was an indication of ___.
A. a decline of standards of literacy B. a change in the readers’ interest
C. an improvement of printing techniques D. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes
Câu 36: The phrase “a specialised readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “ ”.
A. a status for readers specialised in mass media
B. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge
C. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge
D. a reading volume for particular professionals
Câu 37: All of the following might be the factors that affected the continuation of the old shared literacy culture EXCEPT .
A. the inappropriate reading skills B. the printed mass media
C. the diversity of reading materials D. the specialised readership

The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert hydrogen to
helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about four billion six hundred million years and is thousands of times
larger than the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest of the Sun’s life will be like. About five billion years from
now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the
center will increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of the Sun will expand approximately 35 million
miles, about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun. The Sun will then be a red giant star.
Temperatures on the Earth will become too high for life to exist.
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the
Earth, it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova
explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is
called a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere remains
there, it will have frozen over the Earth’s surface.
Câu 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun ___.
A. has been in existence for 10 billion years
B. is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
C. will continue to be a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
D. is rapidly changing in size and brightness
Câu 39: When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will the atmosphere be like on the Earth?
A. It will become too hot for life to exist.
B. It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the sun.
C. It will freeze and become solid.
D. It will be almost destroyed by nova explosions.
Câu 40: Large amounts of gases may be released from the Sun at the end of its life as a .
A. white dwarf B. red giant C. yellow dwarf D. black dwarf
Câu 41: As a white dwarf, the Sun will be ___.
A. a cool and habitable planet B. the same size as the planet Mercury
C. thousands of times smaller than it is today D. around 35 million miles in diameter
Câu 42: The Sun will become a black dwarf when ___.
A. the outer regions of the Sun expand B. it has used up all its fuel as a white dwarf
C. the Sun moves nearer to the Earth D. the core of the Sun becomes hotter
Câu 43: The word “there” in the last sentence of paragraph 4 refers to .
A. our own planet B. the core of a black dwarf
C. the outer surface of the Sun D. the planet Mercury
Câu 44: This passage is intended to ___.
A. describe the changes that the Sun will go through
B. discuss conditions on the Earth in the far future
C. alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
D. present a theory about red giant stars
Câu 45: The passage has probably been taken from ___.
A. a scientific chronicle B. a news report
C. a work of science fiction D. a scientific journal

(1) The protozoans, minute, aquatic creatures each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm, constitute a classification of
the most primitive forms of animal life. They are fantastically diverse, but three major groups may be identified on the basis of
their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails, which they use to project themselves forward. The Ciliata, which
use the same basic means for locomotion as the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails. The Sarcodina, which include
amoebae, float or row themselves about on their crusted bodies.
(2) In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of protozoans. For
example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large nucleus that regulates growth but
decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus.
(3) Protozoans are considered animals because, unlike pigmented plants to which some protozoans are otherwise almost
identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the major characteristics of the cells of
higher animals.
(4) Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to each other and responding uniformly to outside
stimulae. Current research into this phenomenon, along with investigations carried out with advanced microscopes may
necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into question the basic premise that they have only one
cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as the
technology improves our methods of observation, better models of classification will be proposed.
Câu 46: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Colonies of protozoans B. Mastigophora
C. Motility in protozoans D. Characteristics of protozoans
Câu 47: The word “minute” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
 A. Very common B. Very fast C. Very old D. Very small
Câu 48: Where do protozoans probably live?
A. Water B. Sand C. Grass D. Wood
Câu 49: What is protoplasm?
A. A class of protozoan B. The substance that forms the cell of a protozoan
C. A primitive animal similar to a protozoan D. An animal that developed from a protozoan
Câu 50: The word “uniformly” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. in the same way B. once in a while C. all of a sudden D. in the long run
Câu 51: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. protozoans B. microscopes C. investigations D. colonies
Câu 52: Which of the following statements are NOT true of protozoans?
A. There are approximately 40,000 species.
B. They are the most primitive forms of animal life.
C. They have a large cell and a smaller cell.
D. They are difficult to observe.

(1) It was the first photograph that I had ever seen, and it fascinated me. I can remember holding it at every angle in order to
catch the flickering light from the oil lamp on the dresser. The man in the photograph was unsmiling, but his eyes were kind. I
had never met him, but I felt that I knew him. One evening when I was looking at the photograph, as I always did before I went
to sleep, I noticed a shadow across the man’s thin face. I moved the photograph so that the shadow lay perfectly around his
hollow cheecks. How different he looked!
(2) That night I could not sleep, thinking about the letter that I would write. First, I would tell him that I was eleven years old,
and that if he had a little girl my age, she could write to me instead of him. I knew that he was a very busy man. Then I would
explain to him the real purpose of my letter. I would tell him how wonderful he looked with the shadow that I had seen across his
photograph, and I would most carefully suggest that he grow whiskers.
(3) Four months later when I met him at the train station near my home in Westfield, New York, he was wearing a full beard. He
was so much taller than I had imagined from my tiny photograph.
(4) “Ladies and gentlemen,” he said, “I have no speech to make and no time to make it in. I appear before you that I may see you
and that you may see me.” Then he picked me right up and kissed me on both cheeks. The whiskers scratched. “Do you think I
look better, my little friend?” he asked me.
(5) My name is Grace Bedell, and the man in the photograph was Abraham Lincoln.
Câu 53: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain how Grace Bedell took a photograph of Abraham Lincoln
B. To explain why Abraham Lincoln wore a beard
C. To explain why the first photographs were significant in American life
D. To explain why Westfield is an important city
Câu 54: The word “fascinated” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. interested B. frightened C. confused D. disgusted
Câu 55: The man in the photograph
A. was smiling B. had a beard C. had a round, fat face D. looked kind
Câu 56: What did Grace Bedell do every night before she went to sleep?
A. She wrote letters. B. She looked at the photograph.
C. She made shadow figures on the wall. D. She read stories.
Câu 57: The little girl could not sleep because she was
A. sick B. excited C. lonely D. sad
Câu 58: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. Time B. Speech C. Photograph D. Station
Câu 59: From this passage, it may be inferred that
A. Grace Bedell was the only one at the train station when Lincoln stopped at Westfield B. There were many people
waiting for Lincoln to arrive on the train
C. Lincoln made a long speech at the station in Westfield
D. Lincoln was offended by the letter
Câu 60: Why did the author wait until the last line to reveal the identity of the man in the photograph?
A. The author did not know it.
B. The author wanted to make the reader fell foolish.
C. The author wanted to build the interest and curiosity of the reader.
D. The author was just a little girl.
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment
surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest subsistence strategy, and has been
practiced for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and
the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled,
and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the
shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater independence on
hunting, and along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on
the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences
have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-
gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both
Africa and Alaska that society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a
central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration on patterns evolving for most
hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those
practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 61: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The Paleolithic period B. Subsistence farming
C. Hunter-gatherers D. Marginal environment
Question 62: Which is the oldest subsistence strategy?
A. Migrating B. Domesticating animals
C. Farming D. Hunting and gathering
Question 63: The word “rudimentary” is closet in meaning to _____.
A. rough B. preliminary C. ancient D. backward
Question 64: When was hunting and gathering introduced?
A. 1,000,000 years ago B. 2,000,000 years ago
C. 10,000 years ago D. 2,000 years ago
Question 65: What conditions exist in the lower latitude?
A. Greater dependence on hunting. B. More coats and waterways for fishing.
C. A shorter growing season. D. A large variety of plant life.
Question 66: The word “mobile” in the passage can be replaced by _____.
A. transportable B. carried C. movable D. portable
Question 67: Which of the following is not mentioned in the above passage?
A. More and more people in the modern time live on the food they gather in the natural environment around their homes.
B. The more vegetable in the lower latitude in the tropics there is, the greater opportunity for gathering plants there are.
C. Because of the shorter growing season in higher latitude, the availability of plants is limited.
D. The environmental differences result in restricted diet.

Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese
expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they
have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they
do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and
the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves
can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in
height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well
accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often
occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can,
therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away
near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally
have time for warning of their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when
movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the
heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when
the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian
islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English
Channel.
Question 68: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____.
A. tides B. underwater earthquakes
 C. storm surges D. tidal waves
Question 69: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves except that _____.
A. they are the same as tsunamis
B. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
C. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
D. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
Question 70: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. located B. moved C. filtered D. not pleased
Question 71: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _____.
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
C. causes serve damage in the middle if the ocean
D. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
Question 72: In line 9, water that is “shallow” is NOT _____.
A. coastal B. tidal C. clear D. deep
Question 73: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to _____.
A. arrive without warning B. originate in Alaska
C. be less of a problem D. come from greater distances
Question 74: The possessive “their” in line 15 refers to _____.
A. these tsunamis B. thousands of miles
C. the inhabitants of Hawaii D. the Hawaii Islands
Question 75: The passage suggests that the tsunamis resulting from the Krakatoa volcano _____.
A. resulted in little damage
B. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
C. actually traveled around the world
D. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many
countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of
communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are
concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has
been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They
say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs
of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling
salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would
often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his
working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very
small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the
amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular
phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very
useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are
bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Câu 76: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because____.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Câu 77: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
Câu 78: The word "means" in the passage most closely means ______.
A. “meanings”
B. “expression”
C. “method”
 D. “transmission”
Câu 79: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may ________.
A. damage their users’ emotions
B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament
D. change their users’ social behaviours
Câu 80: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability
B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family
D. had a problem with memory
Câu 81: According to the writer, people shoul____.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly
D. never use mobile phones in all cases
Câu 82: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”
B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”
C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work”
D. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time”

Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving immigrants
depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries,
several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United
States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that
anyone who was willing to work could find a job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs - Social
Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks of working people, Social
Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability
insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many
wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may
not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to
increase dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution
is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include Medicaid
and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal
expense and made available to persons on low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and
voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is
estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percent of U.S. households
contribute money to charity.
Câu 83: New immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.
A. the people who came earlier
B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations
D. volunteer organizations
Câu 84: It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth of___.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population
Câu 85: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. “executed” B. “studied” C. “introduced” D. “enforced”
Câu 86: Most of the public assistance programs ____ after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions
B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions
D. did not work in institutions
Câu 87: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ______.
A. elderly people ask for more money
 B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing
D. younger people do not want to work
Câu 88: Americans on low incomes can seek help from ______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
Câu 89: Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the ______.
A. young people’s voluntarism only B. volunteer organizations
C. people’s growing commitment to charity D. innovations in the tax system
Câu 90: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. public assistance in America B. immigration into America
C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America

Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times, made in 1936. Charlie
Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing him, happened to describe the working
conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured to the city to work on automotive
assembly lines. Within four or five years, these young men’s health was destroyed by the stress of work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp.
Abruptly, the film shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory. However, the rather
bitter note of criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentle note of satire. Chaplin prefers to
entertain rather than lecture.
Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most pointed
social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying
to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an
automatic feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding
machine malfunctions, hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped in his position on the assembly line and cannot escape. This
serves to illustrate people’s utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a social context. It does not offer
a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of many who feel they are victims of an over-
mechanised world.
Question 91: According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from ______.
A. a movie B. a conversation C. a newspaper D. fieldwork
Question 92: The young farm boys went to the city because they were ______.
A. promised better accommodation
B. driven out of their sheep farm
C. attracted by the prospect of a better life
D. forced to leave their sheep farm
Question 93: The phrase “jostling one another” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. jogging side by side B. pushing one another
C. hurrying up together D. running against each other
Question 94: According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended ______.
A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers
B. to introduce the main characters of the film
C. to produce a tacit association
D. to give the setting for the entire plot later
Question 95: The word “vainly” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. recklessly B. carelessly C. hopelessly D. effortlessly
Question 96: According to the author, about two-thirds of Modern Times ______.
A. entertains the audience most B. is rather discouraging
C. was shot outside a factory D. is more critical than the rest
Question 97: The author refers to all of the following notions to describe Modern Times EXCEPT “______”.
A. satire B. entertainment C. criticism D. revolution

Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment
surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest known subsistence strategy and has
been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming
and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.
 Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have dwindled,
and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the
shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on
hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on
the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences
have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the observation of
modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While
the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the
camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice
seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These
patterns of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 98: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 99: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.
A. agricultural products B. hunter-gatherers’ tools
C. nature’s provision D. farming methods
Question 100: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.
A. have better food gathering from nature
B. can free themselves from hunting
C. harvest shorter seasonal crops
D. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
Question 101: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a___.
A. further understanding of prehistoric times
B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies
D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming
Question 102: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow
B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
C. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found
D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops
Question 103: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
C. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
D. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
Question 104: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share_____.
A. only the way of duty division B. some restricted daily rules
C. some methods of production D. some patterns of behavior
Question 105: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move
B. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
C. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods
D. A Brief History of Subsistence Farmi

(1) The initial contact between American Indians and European settlers usually involved trade, whereby Indians acquired
tools and firearms and the Europeans obtained furs. These initial events usually pitted Indian tribes against each other as they
competed for the European trade and for the lands containing fur-producing animals. When the furs had been depleted, the
Europeans began a campaign to obtain the lands the Indians occupied. The Indians often formed confederations and alliances
to fight back the Europeans; however, the Indians’ involvement in the white people’s wars usually disrupted these
confederations. Indians resisted the attempts by the whites to displace them. They fought defensive wars such as the Black
Hawk War in 1832. Indian uprisings also occurred, like the Sioux uprising in the 1860s.
(2) Despite the resistance of the Indians, the Europeans were destined to win the conflict. After Indian resistance was
crushed, the whites legitimized the taking of Indian lands by proposing treaties, frequently offering gifts to Indian chiefs to
get them sign the treaties. Once an Indian group had signed a treaty, the whites proceeded to remove them from their land.
Often the Indians were forced west of the Mississippi into Indian Territory-land the whites considered uninhabitable. If only
a few Indians remained after the conquest, they were often absorbed by local tribes or forced onto reservations.
(3) No aspect of American history is more poignant than the accounts of the forced removal of Indians across the
continent. As white settlers migrated farther west, Indians were forced to sign new treaties giving up the lands earlier treaties
had promised them. Some Indian tribes, realizing the futility of resistance, accepted their fate and moved westward without
force. The Winnebagos, who offered little resistance, were shifted from place to place between 1829 and 1866. About half of
them perished during their perpetual sojourn. Other tribes, however, bitterly resisted. The Seminoles signed a treaty in 1832
but violently resisted removal. Hostilities broke out in 1835 and continued for seven years. The United States government
lost nearly 1,500 men and spent over $50 million in its attempts to crush Seminole resistance. Most of Seminoles were
eventually forced to Indian Territory. However, several hundred remained in the Florida Everglades, where their descendants
live today.
Question 106: What does the passage mainly discuss? [Ph¸ t hµnh bëi dethithpt.com]
A. Violation of treaties by white settlers.
B. Conflict between American Indians and Europeans settlers.
C. The diverse cultures of American Indian tribes.
D. Trade between American Indians and European settlers.
Question 107: The word “legitimized” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. encouraged B. wrote to support C. justified D. coordinated
Question 108: It can be concluded from the line 8-10 that _____.
A. Both Indians and European wanted to end the conflict by signing treaties
B. Indian chiefs were easily bribed by economic offerings
C. Europeans showed great speaking skill in their treaty proposals
D. Europeans had greater military, political, and economic power than Indians
Question 109: The author makes the point that Indian Territory was _____.
A. where a few Indians remained
B. in the western part of Mississippi.
C. where several battles between Indians and whites took place.
D. considered undesirable by European settlers.
Question 110: According to the passage, which of the following did NOT happen?
A. Treaties allowed Indians to live where they wanted.
B. Indians tribes formed alliances with other tribes.
C. Indians were forced to live on reservations.
D. Indians rebelled against European settlers.
Question 111: In line 14-16, the author implies that _____.
A. Indian treaties and removal were minor events in American history.
B. new treaties promised Indians more land than had the earlier treaties
C. many accounts of Indian removal are not true
D. Indian removal was a shameful tragedy of American history
Question 112: The word “futility” could be best replaced by _____.
A. uselessness B. expense C. importance D. advantage

No educational medium better as means of spatial communication than the atlas. Atlases deal with such invaluable
information as population distribution and density. One of the best, Pennycooke's World Atlas, has been widely accepted as a
standard owing to the quality of its maps and photographs, which not only show various settlements but also portray them in
a variety of scales. In fact, the very first map in the atlas is a cleverly designed population cartogram that projects the size of
each country if geographical size were proportional to population. Following the proportional layout, a sequence of smaller
maps shows the world’s population density, each country’s birth and death rates, population increase or decrease,
industrialization, urbanization, gross national product in terms of per capita income, the quality of medical care, literacy, and
language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country fits in with the global view, additional projections depict
the world's patterns in nutrition, calorie and protein consumption, health care, number of physicians per unit of population,
and life expectancy by region. Population density maps on a subcontinental scale, as well as political maps. Convey the
diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a broad array of scales.
Question 113: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The educational benefits of atlases.
B. Physical maps in an atlas.
C. The ideal in the making of atlases.
D. Partial maps and their uses.
Question 114: According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke's World Atlas shows______.
A. the population policy in each country
 B. the hypothetical sizes of each country
C. geographical proportions of each country
D. national boundaries relative to population
Question 115: In the passage, the word “invaluable” is closet in meaning to ______.
A. incremental B. invalid C. priceless D. shapeless
Question 116: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. calorie consumption B. currency exchange rates
C. a level of educations D. population decline
Question 117: The word “layout” in the passage refers to _____.
A. the cartogram B. the geographical size
C. population D. each country
Question 118: It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to _____.
A. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country
B. identify a shortage of qualified labor
C. give readers a new perspective on their own country
D. show readers photographs in a new form
Question 119: The author of the passage implies that _____.
A. atlases provide a bird's eye view of countries
B. maps use a variety of scales in each projection
C. maps of countries differ in size
D. atlases can be versatile instrument
Question 120 The word “convey” in the passage is closest meaning to _____.
A. devise B. conjure up C. demonstrate D. indicate
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the whale is very huge, it is not
hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails that end like flippers. With just a gentle flick, it can propel
itself forward. The skin of a whale is so smooth that it does not create any friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s
breathing hole is located on the top of its head, so it can breathe without having to completely push its head out of the water.
Whales are protected from the cold seawater by body fat that is called blubber. (Dethithpt.com)
Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviours, they are more similar to humans than fish. They live in family
groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from cooler to warmer waters. The young stay with their
parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales are known not to desert the ill or injured members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such case occurred in 1988, when
three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter and the sea had begun to freeze over. Whales are mammals
that require oxygen from the air, so the frozen ice was a great danger to them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for
them to breathe through. Volunteers from all over soon turned up to help these creatures. They cut holes in the ice to provide
more breathing holes for the whales. These holes would also serve as guides for the whales so that they could swim to
warmer waters.
(Adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com?reading_comprehension)
Question 121: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world
B. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures
D. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water
Question 122: Whales can move easily in water thanks to their .
A. tail and blubber B. size and head C. tail and skin D. skin and head
Question 123: Where is the whale’s breathing hole located?
A. On its head B. On its back C. On its face D. On its tail
Question 124: According to paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following to show that whales “are more similar to
humans” EXCEPT .
A. they do not desert the ill or injured members
B. they do not migrate from cooler to warmer waters
C. they live in family groups and travel in groups
D. the young stay with their parents for almost fifteen years
Question 125: The word “tiny” in paragraph 3 probably means .
A. very small B. very deep C. very fat D. very ugly
Question 126: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. guides B. holes C. the whales D. warmer waters
Question 127: According to the passage, why was the frozen ice on the sea surface a danger to whales?
A. Because they couldn’t swim in icy cold water.
 B. Because they couldn’t eat when the weather was too cold.
C. Because whales couldn’t breathe without sufficient oxygen.
D. Because the water was too cold for them as they were warm-blooded.

It's called 42 - the name taken from the answer to the meaning of life, from the science fiction series The Hitchhiker's
Guide to the Galaxy. 42 was founded by French technology billionaire Xavier Niel, whose backing means there are no tuition
fees and accommodation is free. Mr Niel and his co-founders come from the world of technology and start-ups, and they are
trying to do to education what Facebook did to communication and Airbnb to accommodation.
Students at 42 are given a choice of projects that they might be set in a job as a software engineer - perhaps to design a
website or a computer game. They complete a project using resources freely available on the Internet and by seeking help
from their fellow students, who work alongside them in a large open-plan room full of computers. Another student will then
be randomly assigned to mark their work.
The founders claim this method of learning makes up for shortcomings in the traditional education system, which they say
encourages students to be passive recipients of knowledge. "Peer-to-peer learning develops students with the confidence to
search for solutions by themselves, often in quite creative and ingenious ways."
Like in computer games, the students are asked to design and they go up a level by completing a project. They graduate
when they reach level 21, which usually takes three to five years. And at the end, there is a certificate but no formal degree.
Recent graduates are now working at companies including IBM, Amazon, and Tesla, as well as starting their own firms.
"The feedback we have had from employers is that our graduates are more apt to go off and find out information for
themselves, rather than asking their supervisors what to do next," says Brittany Bir, chief operating officer of 42 in California
and a graduate of its sister school in Paris. Ms Bir says 42's graduates will be better able to work with others and discuss and
defend their ideas - an important skill in the “real world” of work. "This is particularly important in computer programming,
where individuals are notorious for lacking certain human skills," she says. (Dethithpt.com)
But could 42's model of teacher less learning work in mainstream universities? Brittany Bir admits 42's methods do not
suit all students. "It suits individuals who are very disciplined and self-motivated, and who are not scared by having the
freedom to work at their own pace," she says.
(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/business-37694248)
Question 128: According to the passage, 42 is .
A. a kind of school B. a type of accommodation
C. an innovation in technology D. a tool of virtual communication
Question 129: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. students at 42 B. projects C. resources D. software engineers
Question 130: The author mentions “to design a website or a computer game” in paragraph 2 to illustrate___.
A. a job that a French software engineer always does
B. a choice of assignment that students at 42 have to complete
C. a free resource available on the Internet
D. a help that students at 42 get for their work
Question 131: What do 42’s graduates receive on completion of their course?
A. a certificate B. a degree C. a project D. a design
Question 132: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The founders of 42 share the idea of providing free service on Facebook.
B. It normally takes 42’s students at least five years to complete their course.
C. The students of 42 are required to play computer games during their course.
D. 42’s peer-to-peer approach promotes active learning and working.
Question 133: According to Ms Bir, 42’s graduates will be able to improve .
A. the skills of giving feedback
B. the skills of searching for information
C. the skills of teamwork and debating
D. the skills of software programming
Question 134: The word “notorious” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by .
A. respectable B. incompetent C. infamous D. memorable
Question 135: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. 42 is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities
B. all 42’s graduates are employed by world leading technology companies
C. 42’s students have to handle the task assigned without any assistance
D. 42 adopts project-based and problem-solving learning methods

(1) Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventually in every living thing provided, of course, that an illness or
accident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of aging may be seen in old people, such as the
graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs of aging in a pet dog or cat include loss of playfulness and energy, a
decline in hearing and eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age too, but the signs are much harder to detect.
(2) Most body parts grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They reach their peak at
the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that, they begin to decline. Bones, for example, gradually become lighter and
more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones also become rigid and more inflexible. This can make moving very
painful. (Dethithpt.com)
(3) All the major organs of the body show signs of aging. The brain, for example, works less efficiently, and even gets
smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old people often have trouble in remembering recent
events.
(4) One of the most serious changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from the heart. They
become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow to the rest of body. This condition accounts, directly or
indirectly, for many of the diseases of the aged. It may, for example, result in heart attack.
(5) Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wear out at different rates. There are great differences
among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the way they age. The majority of cells are capable of
reproducing themselves many times during the course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers can never be replaced once
they wear out.
(6) Gerontologists - scientists who study the process of aging - believe this wearing out of the body is controlled by a
built-in biological time-clock. They are trying to discover how this clock works so that they can slow down the process. This
could give man a longer life and a great number of productive years.
Question 136: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants.
B. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity.
C. Not all signs of aging are visible.
D. The outward signs of aging may be seen in old people.
Question 137: What does the word “it” in line 2 refers to?
A. aging B. a living thing C. an illness D. an accident
Question 138: All of the followings may be the outward signs of aging EXCEPT _____.
A. the graying of the hair B. the wrinkling of the skin
C. the decline in hearing and eyesight D. the loss of appetite
Question 139: When does the human body begin to lose vigor and the ability to function efficiently?
A. Soon after reaching adulthood B. During childhood
C. Early adulthood D. Past middle age
Question 140: The word “brittle” as used in the second paragraph means _____.
A. soft and easily bent B. hard and endurable
C. hard but easily broken D. rigid and inflexible
Question 141: According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of the old?
A. The arteries have become thickened and constricted.
B. The blood vessels lead from the heart.
C. The brain gets smaller in size.
D. Bones become lighter and brittle.
Question 142: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. All living things grow old.
B. Aging is unavoidable in any living things.
C. Plants show less signs of aging than any other living things.
D. Most body parts wear out during the course of a lifetime.

(1) Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the U.S. Department of
Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being homeschooled. Some educational experts say that
the real number is double this estimate, and the ranks of homeschooled children seem to be growing at the average rate of
about eleven percent every year.
(2) At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who could not
attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are taking on the responsibility of
educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the educational system. Many parents are unhappy
about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom. Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools,
one teacher is responsible for thirty or forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need.
Escalating classroom violence has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school.
(3) Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a multi-million
dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support groups, and conventions that
help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating their children. Though once it was the only
choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted alternative to an educational system that many believe is
failing.
Question 143: The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____.
A. remaining unchanged B. remaining the same
C. going up D. going down
Question 144: The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to “_ at home”.
A. be taught B. self-learned C. untaught D. self-studied
Question 145: This estimated number was presented by _____.
A. a government office B. school teachers
C. the parents D. homeschooled children
Question 146: According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the last year of the 20th
century must be _____.
A. 1,600,000 B. 850,000 C. 1,900,000 D. 1,700,000
Question 147: More parents teach their children because they completely _ the current educational system.
(Dethithpt.com)
A. please with B. object to C. appeal to D. approve of
Question 148: The noun “dissatisfaction” in this paragraph is best equivalent to “_____”.
A. disappointment B. disagreement C. discrimination D. discouragement
Question 149: Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too __ for them.
A. explosive B. expensive C. dangerous D. humorous
Question 150: The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____.
A. acceptable B. favorable C. remarkable D. unfavorable

LEVELS OF VOCABULARY
Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least three have
been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the speakers of a
language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and expressions are well defined and
listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by
almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal
situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a
large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even
slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more common in
speech than writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang
expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang
phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to
describe familiar objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation of a large
body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in the society; second, a
diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract labels for scholars
who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang
expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select and use three types of expressions.
Câu 151: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases
C. Different types of vocabulary D. Dictionary usage
Câu 152: How is slang defined by the author?
A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage.
B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.
C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers.
D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.
Câu 153: The word “appropriate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. old B. large C. correct D. important
Câu 154: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. words B. slang phrases C. memories D. the majority
Câu 155: What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar
words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not
considered acceptable for more formal situations.”?
A. Familiar words and phrases are found in both speech and writing in formal settings.
B. Familiar situations that are experienced by most people are called colloquialisms.
C. Informal language contains colloquialisms, which are not found in more formal language.
D. Most of the speakers of a language can used both formal and informal speech in their appropriate situations.
Câu 156: Which of the following is true of standard usage?
A. It can be used in formal and informal settings.
B. It is limited to written language.
C. It is only understood by the upper classes.
D. It is constantly changing.
Câu 157: The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created EXCEPT _____.
A. new situations B. a new generation
C. interaction among diverse groups D. a number of linguists

In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea mountains: the strange
guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated mountains until they were
discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946.
He was serving at the time as naval officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the
nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty
years. Since then, hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons, guyots
present a challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops indicate that they once
stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition, their
summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500
feet. Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops of guyots has
recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops of what were once islands. Some of this
material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two processes: The great weight
of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea rose a number of times, especially
when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11,000 years ago.
Câu 158: The word “conceal” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. hide B. create C. erode D. contain
Câu 159: The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of _____.
A. a deep-sea diving expedition B. computer analysis
C. research submarines D. a fathometer
Câu 160: What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?
A. The first guyot was discovered there.
B. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.
C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean.
D. No guyots have ever been found there.
Câu 161: The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics in common?
A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.
B. Both were formed by volcanic activity.
C. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.
D. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.
Câu 162: According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of _____.
A. between 600 and 3,200 feet B. more than 8,200 feet
C. less than 600 feet D. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet
Câu 163: According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. High tides and earthquakes.
D. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents.
Câu 164: According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. From 8,000 to 11,000 years B. In the nineteenth century
C. In 1946 D. 80 million years ago
Câu 165: What is the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To describe feature of the undersea world.
 B. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot
C. To present the results of recent geologic research.
D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains.

The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political ascendancy of the “common man” in
American politics. Whereas all previous presidents had been Easterners from well-to-do families, Jackson was a self-made
man of modest wealth from the West. Born in 1767, Jackson fought in the American Revolution, in which many of his
relatives died. Afterwards, he studied law and moved to the Western District of North California. When that territory became
the state of Tennessee, Jackson was elected the state’s first congressman. His name became a household word during the war
of 1812, when, as a U.S Army major general, he led troops against the Creek Indians in the Mississippi Territory and later
defeated the British at New Orleans.
After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a private party. Crowds of well-
wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyed the White House as they tried to glimpse the new president.
The common man had made a dramatic entrance onto the national political scene.
Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy. Many states abandoned property requirements for
voting. Elected officials began to act more truly as representatives of the people than as their leaders. As president of the
common man, Jackson waged a war against the Bank of the United States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the institution,
declaring it a dangerous monopoly that profited the wealthy few.
Although he had built his reputation as an Indian fighter during the War of 1812, Jackson was not an Indian hater. He
adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened solution to the Indian problem-removal. Many tribes submitted
peacefully to being moved to the West. Others were marched by force to the Indian Territory, under brutal conditions, along
what the Cherokees called the Trail of Tears.
One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, which under him became a highly organized
political party. In opposition to the Democrats were the Whigs, a party that attracted supporters of the Bank of the United
States and opposed the tyranny of the man called “King Andrew”. A less specific but more basic legacy is the populist
philosophy of politics that still bears the name “Jacksonian Democracy.”
Câu 166: The author’s perspective toward Andrew Jackson could be best described as _____.
A. critical B. emotional C. personal D. historical
Câu 167: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration _____.
A. destroyed the White House
B. brought a new style to the presidency
C. made a lot of common people angry
D. put a military man in the White House for the first time
Câu 168: The word “institution” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. the presidency of the United States B. American society
C. The Bank of the United States D. democracy
Câu 169: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United States?
A. He thought it benefited only rich people.
B. It started a war.
C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.
D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote
Câu 170: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was _____.
A. developed during the War of 1812 B. forceful and cruel
C. considered his greatest achievement D. considered progressive at the time
Câu 171: The word “brutal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. tearful B. abrupt C. humane D. harsh
Câu 172: Which of the following could NOT be inferred about Andrew Jackson?
A. He served his country throughout his life B. He supported democratic reforms
C. He inspired populist politics D. He was president during a violent war

The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have varied according to the
structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society.
In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally in hunting and gathering activities to obtain food. With the
development of agricultural communities, women’s work revolved more around the home. As urban centres developed, women
sold or traded goods in the marketplace.
From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. Women have worked because of
economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether they were unmarried or married, and especially
if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely through their own work. Women’s indentured work has often been
similar to their work at home. Women have maintained the primary responsibility for raising children, regardless of their paid
work. Women have historically been paid less than men and have been allocated lower-status work
Some major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing proportion of women in the labor
force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size and technological innovation in the home); higher levels
of education for women; and more middle and upper-income women working for pay or for job satisfaction. Statistically, they
have not yet achieved parity of pay or senior appointments in the workplace in any nation.
Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labor of their families. This custom was so prevalent during the
Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded women, often admitted to membership the
widows of guild members, providing they met professional requirements. Dressmaking and lacemaking guilds were composed
exclusively of women.
Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were distributed to workers by
merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes. During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as
the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system slowly declined. Goods that had been produced by hand in the home
were manufactured by machine under the factory system. Women competed more with men for some jobs, but were
concentrated primarily in textile mills and clothing factories. Manufacturers often favored women employees because of relevant
skills and lower wages, and also because early trade union organization tended to occur first among men. Employees in
sweatshops were also preponderantly women. The result was to institutionalize systems of low pay, poor working conditions,
long hours, and other abuses, which along with child labor presented some of the worst examples of worker exploitation in early
industrial capitalism. Minimum wage legislation and other protective laws, when introduced, concentrated particularly on the
alleviation of these abuses of working women.
Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less from poor conditions of
work and exploitative labor, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The growing use of the typewriter and the
telephone after the 1870s created two new employment niches for women, as typists and telephonists, but in both fields the result
was again to institutionalize a permanent category of low-paid, low-status women’s work.
Câu 173: When the the farming communities developed, women worked _____.
A. critical B. emotional C. personal D. historical
Câu 174: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration _____.
A. destroyed the White House
B. brought a new style to the presidency.
C. made a lot of common people angry
D. put a military man in the White House for the first time.
Câu 175: The word “institution” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. the presidency of the United States B. American society
C. The Bank of the United States D. democracy
Câu 176: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United States?
A. He thought it benefited only rich people
B. It started a war.
C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.
D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote.
Câu 177: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was _____.
A. developed during the War of 1812 B. forceful and cruel
C. considered his greatest achievement D. considered progressive at the time
Câu 178: The word “brutal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. tearful B. abrupt C. humane D. harsh
Câu 179: Which of the following could NOT be inferred about Andrew Jackson?
A. He served his country throughout his life B. He supported democratic reforms.
C. He inspired populist politics D. He was president during a violent war.
Câu 180: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to _____.
A. their role in the home B. their marital status and their husbands
C. the different factors of the society D. the Industrial Revolution

CÂU TRẮC NGHIỆM HỎI GIAO TIẾP SỞ GD

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
questions.
Question 1: The shop assistants: "This is my last portable CD player. I'll let you have it for fifty dollars."
Stevenson: " _____________?"
A. Could you give me your last CD
B. Could you give me a disccount
C. Could you possibly give me fifty dollars
 D. Can you tell me your favourite type of music
Question 2: Customer: "Can I try this jumper on?"
Salesgirl: "_____"
A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there
Question 3: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
-Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? ______”
-Hai: “ Yes, I can. Certainly”
A. Can you help me with this decorations?.
B. Can I help you?
C. Shall I take your hat off?
D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
Question 4: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
-Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”
-Mary: “______”
A. That’s very kind of you. B. What a pity!.
C. I can’t agree more. D. Not a chance
Question 5: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-
office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
-John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”
-Passer-by: “______”.
A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the comer over there.
C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here.
Question 6: Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank
in the following exchange.
-Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Lora!”
-Lora: “______”.
A. No, I don't think so. B. Oh, you don't like it, do you?
C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. Thanks, my mum bought it.
Question 7: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping.
-Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think l want to get this red blouse”.
-Anne: “______”.
A. Don't you have one like this in blue? B. That's a long way to go, dear.
C. No, thank you D. I'll go myself, then.
Question 8: Henry is talking to his mother.
-Henry: “ I've passed my driving test”.
-His mother: “______”.
A. All right. B. That's too bad.
C. That's a good idea. D. Congratulations!
Question 9: Jane: “Would you rather have coffee or orange juice?”
Susan: “______”.
A. I like both B. I have either
C. Either, please D. I’d rather to have coffee
Question 19: Khanh: “I’d like the blue jacket, please! Can I try it on?”
Tien: “Yes, ______”.
A. you would B. you must C. certainly D. you do
Question 11: Tung: “Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you.”
Tuan: “______”
A. Really?
B. Do you like them?
C. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn’t it?
D. I’m glad you like them.
Question 12: Lan: “Would you say the Great Wall is among the seven man-made wonders of the world?”
Trang: “_______”
A. That’s the least I could do.
B. Do you think so, too?
C. There’s no doubt about that.
D. It was created by ancient Chinese people, wasn’t it?
Question 13: Interviewer: "What sort of job are you looking for?" - Curtis: "_______."
 A. No, I don't think so. I'd really prefer something outdoors.
B. Oh, for me the most important is job satisfaction and I can have some work experience.
C. As a student, the most interesting thing about the job is working with people.
D. Well, I'm still in school, so I want something either in the evening or on the weekend.
Question 14: Peter: "Hi, David, do you think it's possible for you to have a talk sometime today?" - David: "_____."
A. I'd love to, but I've got a pretty tight schedule today.
B. No more time for me. I have to work with my boss.
C. I wish I had been free yesterday to have time with you.
D. Excuse me; however, I'm so busy all day from morning
CÂU TRẮC NGHIỆM PHÁT ÂM SỞ GD
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1 A. attempts B. conserves C. obeys D. studies
Question 2 A. vacation B. nation C. question D. exhibition
Question 3 A. campus B. plane C. game D. base
Question 4 A. enjoyed B. loved C. joined D. helped
Question 5 A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed
Question 6 A. sour B. hour C. pour D. flour
Question 7 A. finished B. escaped C. damaged D. promised
Question 8 A. clothes B. couches C. bosses D. boxes
Question 9 A. advises B. raises C. devises D. goes
Question 10 A. example B. exotic C. excellent D. exhaust
Question 11 A. volunteer B. trust C. fuss D. judge
Question 12 A. houses B. services C. passages D. techniques
Question 13 A. average B. natural C. family D. already
Question 14 A. breakfast B. feature C. peasant D. pleasure

CÂU TRẮC NGHIỆM TRỌNG ÂM SỞ GD

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. decent B. reserve C. confide D. appeal
Question 2: A. stimulate B. sacrifice C. devastate D. determine
Question 3: A. parent B. attempt C. women D. dinner
Question 4: A. assistance B. appearance C. position D. confidence
Question 5: A. conserve B. achieve C. employ D. waver
Question 6: A. perseverance B. application C. agriculture D. dedication
Question 7: A. signal B. instance C. airport D. mistake
Question 8: A. chemistry B. decision C. statistics D. attention
Question 9: A. preparation B. transportation C. diagnostic D. technology
Question 10: A. summer B. carpet C. visit D. include
Question 11: A. polite B. roommate C. diverse D. apply
Question 12: A. interfere B. athletics C. agrarian D. available
Question 13: A. enterprise B. category C. vacancy D. contribute
Question 14 A. present B. appeal C. dissolve D. eject
CÂU TRẮC NGHIỆM TỪ ĐỒNG NGHĨA SỞ GD
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the lunar calendar to manage their
crops, the start of the year.
A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people
Question 2: The government decided to pull down the old building adter asking for the ideas from the local resident.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
Question 3 Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. instant B. available C. direct D. facial
Question 4: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay-up-date with technology without spending too much time
on it?
A. connect to the Internet all day B. update new status
C. use social network daily D. get latest information
Question 5: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things. B. remembering to do right things.
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things.
Question 6: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. informative B. delighted C. exciting D. essential
Question 7: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication.
A. using gesture B. using speech
C. using verbs D. using facial expressions
Question 8: We are a very close- knit family.
A. need each other.
B. are close to each other.
C. have very close relationship with each other.
D. are polite to each other.
Question 9: Helen Keller, blind and deaf from an early age, developed her sense of smell so
finely that she could identify friends by their personal odors.
A. classify B. communicate with C. describe D. recognize
Question 10: The device is very sophisticated and should only be operated by someone who
is familiar with it.
A. delicate B. complex C. fragile D. resilient
Question 11: Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.
A. a person who bakes bread every morning
B. a bakery-owner
C. a person who delivers bread to make money
D. a person who goes out to work to earn money
Question 12: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.
A. a beloved member B. a bad and embarrassing member
C. the only child D. the eldest child
Question 13: A living cell is a marvel of detailed and complex structure.
A. magnification B. invention C. swiftness D. wonder
Question 14: A striking example of a successful multiethnic country is Switzerland, where French, German, and Italian
speakers from diverse religious groups live and work harmony and prosperity.
A. remarkable B. legitimate C. spontaneous D. characteristic

14 CÂU TRẮC NGHIỆM TỪ TRÁI NGHĨA SỞ GD

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to calculate their position
accurately.
A. carelessly B. imprecisely C. uneasily D. untruthfully
Question 2: He is very absent – minded . He is likely to forget things or to think about something different from what he
should be thinking about.
A. retentive B. unforgettable C. old – fashioned D. easy – going
Question 3: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly.
A. ignorant B. uneducated C. knowledgeable D. rude
Question 4: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities.
A. transposition B. maintenance C. variation D. movement
Question 5: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked
Question 6: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Question 7: They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side in any
circumstance.
A. be confident B. be smart C. be optimistic D. be pessimistic
Question 8: English is a compulsory. subject in most of the schools in Vietnam.
A. required B. optional C. paid D. dependent
Question 9: I prefer secure jobs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time.
A. challenging B. demanding C. safe D. stable
Question 10: The format allowed me to offer constructive criticism and ensure that their conversation remained on track
during the project.
A. useful B. negative C. meaningful D. positive
Question 11: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prizes.
A. difficulty B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 12: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the
future.
A. express disapproval of B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. resolve a conflict over
Question 13: Organized research may discourage novel approaches and inhibit creativity, so seminal discoveries are still likely
to be made by inventors in the classic individualistic tradition.
A. common B. coherent C. varied D. unbiased
Question 14: In the Egyptian calendar, the first practical calendar created, the advent of Sirius in the morning sky before
sunrise marked the beginning of the annual flooding of the Nile.
A. functional B. inefficient C. accurate D. standard