FIITJEE VIJAYAWADA

EAMCET - 2020
MOCK TEST
Date: 12.07.2020
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
Instructions:

A. Question paper format:

The question paper consists of 3 Section (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each section has 1 part.
PartA&B:
(i) It contains 40multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which only one is correct.
(ii) It contains 80 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which only one is correct
B. Marking scheme:
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each section consists of one type
question.
(i) Single Correct Choice: You will be awarded 1 marks(Total Marks: 160)if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative Marking.

Atomic No. : H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19,
Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30, As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe =
54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 23.

Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27, Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40,
Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba =
137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

Enrollment No.:
Name: ……………………………………………………….Centre ………………………………
Batch : ………………………………………………………. Date ……………………………….
 EAMCET2001_12.07.2020

PART I
PHYSICS
Single Correct Choice Type (Total Marks: 120) (3, – 1)
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

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PART II
CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Choice Type (Total Marks: 120) (3, – 1)
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of
(a)Jaundice (b)Typhoid (c)Syphilis (d)Cholera
2. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched
(a)A halogen which is liquid at room temperature—Bromine
(b)The most electronegative element—Fluorine
(c)The most reactive halogen—Fluorine
(d)The strongest oxidizing halogen—Iodine
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3. In silicon dioxide
(a)Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two
silicon atoms
(b)Each siliocn atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bounded to two
silicon atoms
(c)Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
(d)There are double bonds between silicon and oxygen atoms
4. In IIIA group, Tl (thalium) shows +1 oxidation state while other members show +3 oxidation state, is
Due to
(a)Presence of lone pair of electron in Tl (b)Inert pair effect
(c)Large ionic radius of Tl ion (d)None of these
5. The property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number is
(a)Ionisation energy (b)Electronegativity
(c)Solubility of their sulphates (d)Solubility of their hydroxides
6. Identify the product in following order
3,4,5-Tribromoaniline   (i) diazotizat ion
    ?
(ii) H 3 PO 2

(a)3, 4,5 –Tribromobenzene (b)1, 2, 3 – Tribromobenzene

(c) 3, 4, 5 – Tribromo phenol (d)3, 4, 5 – Tribromo nitro benzene
7. The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I)
benzene (II) and nitrobenzene (III) is
(a)I > II > III (b)III > II > I (c)II > III > I (d)I < II > III
8. Orbital interaction between the sigma bonds of a substitutent group and a neighbouring pi orbital is
known as
(a)Hyperconjugation (b)Inductive effect
(c)Steric effect (d)Dipole-dipole interactions
9. The enolic form of acetone contains
(a)8  bonds, 2  -bonds and 1 lone pairs (b) 9  -bonds, 1  -bond and 2 lone pairs
(c) 9  -bonds, 2  -bonds and 1 lone pairs (d)10  -bonds, 1  -bonds and 1 lone pairs
10. Purest form of iron is
(a)Cast iron (b) Wrought iron (c)Hot steel (d) Stainless steel
11. The equation for Freundlich adsorption isotherm is
x n
(a)  kp
1 /n
(b) x  mkp
1 /n
(c) x / m  kp (d)All of these
m
12. The Van't Hoff factor for sodium phosphate would be
(a)1 (b) 2 (c)3 (d) 4
13. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is
(a)3.0504 (b) 3.64 (c)3.05 (d) 2.9732
14. An element occurring in the bcc structure has 12 . 08  10 23 unit cells. The total number of atoms of the
element in these cells will be
(a) 24 . 16  10 23 (b) 36 . 18  10 23 (c) 6 . 04  10 23 (d) 12 . 08  10
23

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15. In which of the following compounds iron has lowest oxidation state
(a) FeSO 4 .( NH 4 ) 2 SO 4 . 6 H 2 O (b) K 4 Fe (CN ) 6
(c) Fe (CO ) 5 (d) K 2 FeO 4
16. In Carius method 0.099 g organic compound gave 0.287 g AgCl . The percentage of chlorine in the
compound will be
(a)28.6 (b) 71.7 (c)35.4 (d) 64.2
17. Which one of the following in used to make 'non-stick' cookware
(a)PVC (b)Polystyrene
(c)Polyethylene terephthalate (d)Polytetrafluoroethylene
18. Which is the correct alternate for hydrolysis constant of NH 4 CN
Kw Kw Kb K
(a) (b) (c) (d) a

K a
K a  Kb c K b

19. 0.5 M ammonium benzoate is hydrolysed to 0.25 percent, hence its hydrolysis constant is
6
(a) 2 . 5  10  5 (b) 6 .2 5  1 0 (c) 3 . 125  10  6 (d) NONE
20. A mixture of methane, ethylene and acetylene gases is passed through a Wolf's bottle containing
ammoniacal cuprous chloride. The gas coming out is
(a)Methane (b)Acetylene
(c)A mixture of methane and ethylene (d)The original mixture
21. Benzene can be obtained by heating either benzoic acid with X or phenol with Y. X and Y are
respectively
(a)Zinc dust and soda lime (b)Soda lime and zinc dust
(c)Zinc dust and sodium hydroxide (d)Soda lime and copper
22. Pyridine is less basic than triethylamine because
(a)Pyridine has aromatic character (b)Nitrogen in pyridine is sp 2 hybridized
(c)Pyridine is a cyclic system (d)In pyridine, lone pair of nitrogen is delocalized
23 .Best method of preparing alkyl chloride is
(a) ROH  SOCl 2     (b) ROH  PCl 5     
anhy. ZnCl
(c) ROH  PCl 3
 (d) ROH  HCl    
2


24. C 6 H 5 Cl prepared by aniline with

(a)HCl (b) Cu 2 Cl 2
(c) Cl 2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 (d) HNO 2 and then heated with Cu 2 Cl 2
25. Cinnabar is an ore of
(a) Hg (b) Cu (c) Pb (d) Zn
26. Metal which can be extracted from all the three dolomite, magnesite and carnallite is
(a) Na (b) K (c) Mg (d) Ca
27. The ratio of rates of diffusion of SO 2 , O 2 and CH 4 is
(a) 1 : 2 : 2 (b)1 : 2 : 4 (c) 2 : 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2 : 2

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28. Corrosion of iron is essentially an electrochemical phenomenon where the cell reactions are

2
(a) Fe is oxidised to Fe and dissolved oxygen in water is reduced to OH
3
(b) Fe is oxidised to Fe and H 2 O is reduced to O 22 
2 
(c) Fe is oxidised to Fe and H 2
O is reduced to O 2

2
(d) Fe is oxidised to Fe and O2 is reduced to H 2O
2 

29. Zn ( s )  Cl 2 (1 atm)  Zn  2 Cl . E
0
cell of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase Ecell
(a) [ Zn 2  ] should be increased (b) [ Z n ] should be decreased

(c) [ Cl ] should be decreased (d) P Cl should be decreased 2

30. The 3 d metal ions form coloured compounds because the energy corresponding to the following lies in
the visible range of electromagnetic spectrum
(a)Free energy change of complex formation by 3 d metal ions
(b) d  d transitions of 3 d electrons (c)Heat of hydration of 3 d metal ions
(d)Ionisation energy of 3 d metal ions
31. The IUPAC name for K 2 [ PtCl ] 6 is
(a)Potassium platinum hexachloride (b)Potassium hexachloro platinum (IV)
(c)Potassium hexachloro palatinate( IV) (d)Potassium hexachloro platinum
32. Following data is known about melting of a compound AB.  H  9 . 2 kJ mol  1 ,  S  0 . 008 kJ K  1 mol  1 . Its
melting point is
(a)736 K (b)1050 K (c) 1150 K (d) 1150 o C
33. The heat evolved in the combustion of benzene is given by
1
C6H 6  7 O 2  6 CO 2 ( g )  3 H 2 O ( l );  H   3264 . 6 kJ
2

Which of the following quantities of heat energy will be evolved when 39 g C 6 H 6 are burnt
(a)816.15 kJ (b)1632.3 kJ (c)6528.2 kJ (d)2448.45 Kj
34. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by
(a)Increasing the activation energy (b)Decreasing the activation energy
(c)Reacting with reactants (d)Reacting with products
35. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of
(a)Primary alcohol (b)Secondary or tertiary alcohol
(c)Mixture of primary and secondary alcohols (d)Mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
36. Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting
(a)Phenolate ions and methyl iodide (b)Methoxide ions and bromobenzene
(c)Methanol and phenol (d)Bromo benzene and methyl bromide
37. The most reactive compound towards formation of cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed by
acidification is
(a)Benzaldehyde (b)p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
(c)Phenyl acetaldehyde (d)p-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
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38. Electron occupies the available orbital singly before pairing in any one orbital occurs, it is
(a)Pauli's exclusion principle (b)Hund's Rule
(c)Heisenberg's principle (b)Prout's hypothesis
39. Cause of diagonal relationship is
(a)Similar electronic configuration of the elements
(b)Similar e / r ratio of the elements
(c)Same number of valency electrons in the elements
(d)Same atomic weights of the elements
40. Ratio of C p and C v of a gas X is 1.4, the number of atom of the gas ‘X’ present in 11.2 litres of it at STP
will be
(a) 6 . 02  10 23 (b) 1 . 2  10 23 (c) 3 . 01  10 23 (d) 2 . 01  10 23
PART III
MATHEMATICS
Single Correct Choice Type (Total Marks: 120) (3, – 1)
This section contains 80 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

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