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(7.3)
b. The same formula applies, but instead of equal likelihood for each mode of
transportation, the percentages of likelihood are now different;
The probability that Ramesh got to work in a car for the new probability values is now:
P(car|late) = (.3*.5) / ( .3*.5 + .1*.2 + .6 * .05) = 3/4, or .75
Part 2
(7.4)
6. There is a 1 in C(50,6) ways to get the winning numbers. The total prize money is 10 million
dollars, so the expected value is
(10000000/C(50,6) ) - 1 = -.37
Basically, every time you buy a ticket, you can expect to lost 37 cents.
8. On a single (fair) die, each face has an equal chance of landing face up, or 1/6.
For a single die, the expected outcome is:
1*(1/6) + 2*(1/6) + 3*(1/6) + 4*(1/6) + 5*(1/6) + 6*(1/6) = 21/6 = 3.5
For three (independent and fair) dice, the expected outcome is 3.5*3 = 10.5
12. a. The chance of rolling a 6 is 1/6, and the chance of not rolling a 6 is 5/6. If we roll the die n
times and we get a 6 on the last roll, then that means we rolled the die n-1 before without
resulting in a 6 being face up.
Thus, the probability is (5/6)(n−1 )*(1/6)
b. To determine the expected number of times we roll the dice, we would need to sum
up all the possible scenarios n*(5/6)(n−1 )*(1/6) where we roll the die some n number of times.
We do a summation for n from 1 to infinity.
∑ n*(5/6)(n−1 )*(1/6) =
n =1
∞
= (1/6)∑ n*(5/6)(n−1 ) . Here, we know that because( lim(n-> infinity) for the nth term) =
n =1
0, the series is convergent.
∞
Using the fact that the infinite sum∑ n*( x)(n−1) = 1/(1-x)2, when | x |< 1,
n =1
∞
We can rewrite (1/6)∑ n*(5/6)(n−1 ) as
n =1
(1/6)* (1/ (1 - 5/6)2) = 1/6 * 36 = 6
The expected number of times we roll the die is 6.
We can see that P(X=0 and Y=0) = 0. Basically, after two coin flips, it is impossible to have 0
heads and 0 tails total.
Notice that P(X=0) = 1/4 and P(Y=0) = 1/4, so P(X=0)*P(Y=0) is actually 1/16.
This means that P(X and Y) is not equal to P(x)*P(Y)
Therefore, X and Y are dependent.
28. The variance of the number of successes in n Bernoulli trials is n*p*q. Here n = 10, p = 1/6
and q = 5/6 . Therefore the variance is 50/36 = 25/18.