D.S.S.

AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES – 8

Dr.SANJAY 7014964651

ALL SUBJECT QUESTION

1. The client is admitted to the unit after a motor vehicle accident with a
temperature of 102°F rectally. The nurse is aware that the most likely
explanation for the elevated temperature is:
❍ A. There was damage to the hypothalamus.
❍ B. He has an infection from the abrasions to the head and face.
❍ C. He will require a cooling blanket to decrease the temperature.
❍ D. There was damage to the frontal lobe of the brain.

Answer A is correct. Damage to the hypothalamus can result in an

elevated temperature because this portion of the brain helps to regulate
body temperature. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no
data to support the possibility of an infection, a cooling blanket might
not be required, and the frontal lobe is not responsible for regulation of
the body temperature.

2. The nurse is evaluating the client’s pulmonary artery pressure. The

nurse is aware that this test will evaluate:
❍ A. Pressure in the left ventricle
❍ B. The systolic, diastolic, and mean pressure of the pulmonary artery
❍ C. The pressure in the pulmonary veins
❍ D. The pressure in the right ventricle

Answer B is correct. The pulmonary artery pressure will measure the

pressure during systole, diastole, and the mean pressure in the
pulmonary artery. It will not measure the pressure in the left ventricle,
the pressure in the pulmonary veins, or the pressure in the right
ventricle. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. The nurse notes the patient care assistant looking through the personal
items of the client with cancer. Which action should be taken by the
registered nurse?

❍ A. Notify the police department as a robbery

❍ B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse
❍ C. Monitor the situation and note whether any items are missing
❍ D. Ignore the situation until items are reported missing

Answer B is correct. The best action at this time is to report the incident
to the charge nurse. Further action might be needed, but it should be
determined by the charge nurse. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect
because notifying the police is overreacting at this time, and monitoring
or ignoring the situation is an inadequate response.
4. The doctor has ordered 80mg of furosemide (Lasix) two times per
day. The nurse notes the patient’s potassium level to be 2.5meq/L. The
nurse should:
❍ A. Administer the Lasix as ordered
❍ B. Administer half the dose
❍ C. Offer the patient a potassium-rich food
❍ D. Withhold the drug and call the doctor

Answer D is correct. The potassium level of 2.5meq/L is extremely low.

The normal is 3.5–5.5meq/L. Lasix (furosemide) is a nonpotassium
sparing diuretic, so answer A is incorrect. The nurse cannot alter the
doctor’s order, as stated in answer B, and answer C will not help with
this situation.

5. The doctor has ordered a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation

(TENS) unit for the client with chronic back pain. The nurse teaching
the client with a TENS unit should tell the client:
❍ A. “You may be electrocuted if you use water with this unit.”
❍ B. “Please report skin irritation to the doctor.”
❍ C. “The unit may be used anywhere on the body without fear of
adverse reactions.”
❍ D. “A cream should be applied to the skin before applying the unit.”

Answer B is correct. Skin irritation can occur if the TENS unit is used
for prolonged periods of time. To prevent skin irritations, the client
should change the location of the electrodes often. Electrocution is not a
risk because it uses a battery pack; thus, answer A is incorrect. Answer
C is incorrect because the unit should not be used on sensitive areas of
the body. Answer D is incorrect because no creams are to be used
with the device.

6. The nurse is assessing the client admitted for possible oral cancer. The
nurse identifies which of the following as a late-occurring symptom of
oral cancer?
❍ A. Warmth
❍ B. Odor
❍ C. Pain
❍ D. Ulcer with flat edges

Answer C is correct. Pain is a late sign of oral cancer. Answers A, B,

and D are incorrect
because a feeling of warmth, odor, and a flat ulcer in the mouth are all
early
occurrences of oral cancer.

7. The nurse is caring for the client who has been in a coma for 2
months. He has signed a donor card, but the wife is opposed to the idea
of organ donation. How should the nurse handle the topic of organ
donation with the wife?
❍ A. Contact organ retrieval to come talk to the wife
❍ B. Tell her that because her husband signed a donor card, the hospital
has the right to take the organs
upon the death of her husband
❍ C. Drop the subject until a later time
❍ D. Refrain from talking about the subject until after the death of her
husband

Answer A is correct. Contacting organ retrieval to talk to the family

member is the best choice because a trained specialist has the knowledge
to assist the wife with making the decision to donate or not to donate the
client’s organs. The hospital will certainly honor the wishes of family
members even if the patient has signed a donor card. Answer B is
incorrect; answer C might be done, but there might not be time; and
answer D is not good nursing etiquette and, therefore, is incorrect.

8. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery

followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What
should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV
medication?
❍ A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
❍ B. Warm the solution
❍ C. Continue the infusion and document the finding
❍ D. Discontinue the medication
Answer A is correct. Crystals in the solution are not normal and should
not be administered to the client. Discard the bad solution immediately.
Answer B is incorrect because warming the solution will not help.
Answer C is incorrect, and answer D requires a doctor’s order.

9. The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client
should be seen first?
❍ A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG
tube
❍ B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is
being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
❍ C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a
PICC line
❍ D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being
treated with cortisone via a centrally
placed venous catheter

Answer D is correct. The priority client is the one with multiple sclerosis
who is being treated with cortisone via the central line. This client is at
highest risk for complications. MRSA, in answer C, is methicillin-
resistant staphylococcus aureas. Vancomycin is the drug of choice and
can be administered later, but its use must be scheduled at specific times
of the day to maintain a therapeutic level. Answers A and B are incorrect
because these clients are more stable.

10. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for

the client who has had a hemorroidectomy?
❍ A. High-fiber
❍ B. Low-residue
❍ C. Bland
❍ D. Clear-liquid

Answer D is correct. After surgery, the client will be placed on a clear-

liquid diet and progressed to a regular diet. Stool softeners will be
included in the plan of care, to avoid constipation. Later, a high-fiber
diet, in answer A, is encouraged, but this is not the first diet after
surgery. Answers B and C are not diets for this type of surgery.

Question # 11. The client with AIDS tells the nurse that he has been
using acupuncture to help with his pain. The nurse should question the
client regarding this treatment because acupuncture:

A. Uses pressure from the fingers and hands to stimulate the energy
points in the body
B. Uses oils extracted from plants and herbs
C. Uses needles to stimulate certain points on the body to treat pain
D. Uses manipulation of the skeletal muscles to relieve stress and pain

Answer D is correct. Acupuncture uses needles, and because HIV is

transmitted by blood and body fluids, the nurse should question this
treatment. Answer A describes acupressure, and answers B and C
describe massage therapy with the use of oils.
Question # 12. The 10-year-old is being treated for asthma. Before
administering Theodur, the nurse should check the:
A. Urinary output
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse
D. Temperature

Answer C is correct. Theodur is a bronchodilator, and a side effect of

bronchodilators is tachycardia, so checking the pulse is important.
Extreme tachycardia should be reported to the doctor. Answers A, B,
and D are not necessary.

Question # 13. The nurse witnesses the nursing assistant hitting the
client in the long-term care facility. The nursing assistant can be charged
with:
A. Assault
B. Tort
C. Negligence
D. Malpractice

Answer A is correct. Assault is defined as striking or touching the client

inappropriately, so a nurse assistant striking a client could be charged
with assault. Answer A, negligence, is failing to perform care for the
client. Answer B, a tort, is a wrongful act committed on the client or
their belongings. Answer D, malpractice, is failure to perform an act that
the nursing assistant knows should be done, or the act of doing
something wrong that results in harm to the client.
Question # 14. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report.
Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150ccs drainage
B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102°F
D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck’s traction

Answer A is correct. The first client to be seen is the one who recently
returned from surgery. The other clients in answers B, C, and D are
more stable and can be seen later.

Question # 15. A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-

sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with
sodium restriction?
A. Peanut butter cookies
B. Fresh peach
C. Cottage cheese and fruit
D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Answer B is correct. The fresh peach is the lowest in sodium of these

choices.
Answers A, C, and D have much higher amounts of sodium.

Question No. 16:-Late deceleration on a CTG indicates

A:-Head compression
B:-Cord compression
C:-Fetal hypoxia
D:-Fetal sleep
Correct Answer:- Option-C

QuestionNo. 17:-Immediate/most common complication of third stage

of labour is
A:-bleeding
B:-shock
C:-sub involution
D:-perforation
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question No. 18:-Placenta is formed from

A:-Chorion fund sum and decidua basalis
B:-Chorion larvae and decidua parietalis
C:-Chorion fund sum and decidua capsularis
D:-Chorion fund sum and decidua parietalis
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question No. 19:-Amniotic fluid contains acetylcholine esterase

enzymes, what is the diagnosis?
A:-Open spina bifida
B:-Gastroschisis
C:-Omphalocoele
D:-Osteogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question No. 20:-A rape victim comes on 4th day for contraception. The
best method is
A:-high dose oestrogens
B:-high dose progestogens
C:-combination of estrogen and progesterone
D:-CuT
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-The vaccine which is given as intramuscular injection

A:-Measles vaccine
B:-BCG
C:-DT
D:-OPV
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question22:-The green stick type of fracture is common in which of the

following group
A:-children
B:-elderly people
C:-women
D:-obese persons
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question23:-Venom of cobra attacks on

A:-Digestive system
B:-Nervous system
C:-Circulatory system
D:-Respiratory system
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-Puerperium is the period in a woman's life which is

A:-First week after her first menstruation
B:-First 6 weeks after delivery
C:-First 2 weeks after marriage
D:-Period from conception to delivery
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question25:-Following is not a staff under primary health center

A:-Medical officer
B:-Health worker female
C:-Lab technician
D:-CT scan technician
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question26:-Following is a disease spread through the urine of rats

A:-Leptospirosis
B:-Chikungunya
C:-Malaria
D:-Dengue fever
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question27:-Which of the following statement about rice is false?

A:-Milled raw rice contains low amount of vitamin B
B:-Husked raw rice is a poor source of calcium
C:-Hand pounded undermilled rice is a fair source of B vitamins
D:-Par boiling of rice causes loss of thiamine while milling
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question28:-At how many weeks of gestation, uterus reaches the level

of umbilicus
A:-32 weeks
B:-20 weeks
C:-22 weeks
D:-12 weeks
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-MDT is a treatment approach for which disease
A:-AIDS
B:-Leprosy
C:-Tuberculosis
D:-Hepatitis
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-Mission Indradhanush is a programme related to
A:-Palliative care
B:-Antenatal care
C:-Immunization
D:-Mental health
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question31:-PAP smear is a simple test to predict the occurrence of

____ in females.
A:-Ovarian cancer
B:-Breast cancer
C:-Oral cancer
D:-Cervical cancer
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-The relationship of foetal head and limb to it's trunk is
_____
A:-Attitude
B:-Lie
C:-Presentation
D:-Polarity
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-Anganwadi function under which central government
programme
A:-BSS
B:-ICDS
C:-NMEP
D:-NRHM
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-What is the management of postpartum haemorrhage?
A:-Give oxytocic drug
B:-Start an IV infusuion
C:-Massage uterine fundus in circular motion
D:-All the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question35:-Which of the following is a description of a 3rd degree tear
after delivery?
A:-2 cm long tear on right medio lateral area of vagina after labour
B:-A tear involving vaginal muscles
C:-A tear involving anal sphincter
D:-A tear extending into vaginal mucosa
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question36:-A child doubles it's birth weight at
A:-6 months
B:-8 months
C:-10 months
D:-12 months
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question37:-Photo therapy is used to treat ____ in newborns.
A:-Physiological jaundice
B:-Anemia
C:-Convulsions
D:-Fever
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question38:-For a poor anaemic woman which of the following foods

may be added to her diet in plenty
A:-Milk and curds
B:-Green leafy vegetables
C:-Fruits
D:-Cucumber
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question39:-Kidneys are composed of millions of functional units called
_____
A:-Neurones
B:-Rod cells
C:-Nephrons
D:-Follicles
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question40:-Which day is observed as world TB Day?
A:-October 30
B:-September 29
C:-February 14
D:-March 24
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question41:-___ is added to water to remove temporary hardness.
A:-Calcium hydroxide
B:-Ion exchange resins
C:-Sodium carbonate
D:-Calcium carbonate
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question42:-____ is the best spacing method for a woman who has one
child.
A:-Copper T
B:-Tubectomy
C:-Oral pills
D:-Vasectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question43:-MTP act came into force in India in the year _____.
A:-1971
B:-1948
C:-1986
D:-1969
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question44:-Which of the following statements about the rights of
children in India is false?
A:-A child has the right for physical emotional and social development
B:-A child's right to survival begins from birth
C:-A child has the right to be protected against all sorts of abuse
D:-A child has the right to participate in any decision directly involving
himself
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question45:-The causative agent of Diphtheria is _____.
A:-Bordetella
B:-Salmonella
C:-Coryne bacterium
D:-Mycobacterium
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question46:-Obesity is defined as a body mass index
A:-more than 30
B:-less than 18
C:-between 25 to 29
D:-From 20 to 25
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question47:-AIDS is transmitted by
A:-Bite of bed bugs
B:-Sitting on same bench with a patient
C:-Sexual contact with a patient
D:-Shaking hands with a patient
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question48:-The incubation period of influenza is
A:-1-2 days
B:-1-2 weeks
C:-15-20 days
D:-1-6 months
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question49:-The following is a measure to control dengue fever
epidemic in your locality
A:-washing hands before eating food
B:-drinking only boiled water
C:-remove all collections of water from old tyres, broken toys etc
D:-covering mouth and nose while in public places with a mask
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question50:-The following is an advice given to an ante natal woman
A:-Do not wear cotton garments
B:-Do not eat fruits in early pregnancy
C:-Do not take vitamin supplements
D:-Do not take over the counter medicines

Question 1: In a patient with diabetes, which is the best antihypertensive

drug?
A: Captopril
B: Diuretic
C: Verapamil
D: Propranolol
E: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: A
Question 2: In a patient with bronchial asthma, which is the best
antihypertensive drug?
A: Verapamil
B: Propranolol
C: ACE inhibitor
D: Minoxidil
E: Hydralazine
Correct Answer: A
Question 3: A one-month old child with meningitis has low glucose,
high protein and increased count of polymorphs in CSF. The drug of
choice for this patient is?
A: Cephalin
B: Ampicillin
C: Amino glycoside
D: Penicillin-G
E: Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: D
Question 4: Na channels are blocked by:
A: Tretadotoxin
B: Opsonin
C: Calmodulin
D: Troponin
E: Quinidine
Correct Answer: D
Question 5: Hypotensive action of clonidine includes:
A: Increased sympathetic out flow from CNS
B: Ganglionic blockade
C: Adrenergic blockade
D: Reduced reactivity of arteriolar smooth muscle
E: Sodium and water depletion
Correct Answer: D
Question 6: Which of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of
angina pectoris?
A: Quinidine
B: Quinine
C: Propranolol
D: Salbutamol
E: Digoxin
Correct Answer: C
Question 7: Diazoxide:
A: Is hypertensive drug
B: Is not bound to serum protein
C: Causes pericardial effusion
D: Used orally to treat hyperglycemia
E: Due to reflex sympathetic stimulation can cause angina
Correct Answer: E
Question 8: Digoxin can produce:
A: Bradycardia
B: Ventricular septal defect
C: Rightt ventricular infarct
D: Cardiac tamponade
E: Constrictive pericarditis
Correct Answer: A
Question 9: Nerve Gas causes convulsive contraction. Which of the
following is the mechanism of these agents?
A: Block of acetylcholine receptors
B: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
C: Inhibition of release of acetylcholine
D: Activation of MAO
E: Inhibition of MAO
Correct Answer: B
Question 10: Which of the following drugs have side effect of erectile
impotence?
A: Frusemide
B: Nitroglycerine
C: Propranolol
D: Diazepam
E: Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: C
Question 11: Local anesthetics which are grouped as amides include:
A: Procaine
B: Lidocaine
C: Amikacin
D: Tetracaine
Correct Answer: B
Question 12: Thiopentone sodium given intravenously produces:
A: Quick introduction of anesthesia
B: Long lived general anesthesia
C: Analgesia
D: Good skeletal muscle relaxation
E: Elevation of blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Question 13: Lignocaine given intravenously can:
A: Suppress ventricular arrhythmias
B: Suppress atrial arrhythmias
C: Activate sodium channels
D: Block calcium channels
E: Produce general anesthesia
Correct Answer: A
Question 14: Nitrous oxide produces:
A: Good analgesia
B: Slow induction
C: Good muscle relaxation
D: Cardiac depression
E: Hyperoxia
Correct Answer: A
Question 15: Which of the following is the drug of choice for
staphylococcus aureus infection?
A: Ampicillin
B: Cloxacillin
C: Tetracycline
D: Amino glycoside
E: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: B
Question 16: Which of the following is a COX-2 inhibitor
A: Ibuprofen
B: Aspirin
C: Naproxen
D: Piroxicam
E: Meloxicam
Correct Answer: E
Question 17: Halothane produces:
A: Hypertension
B: Bronchoconstriction
C: Respiratory irritation
D: Moderate analgesia
E: Smooth induction
Correct Answer: E
Question 18: Drugs used for the treatment of Petit-mal (absence) seizure
include:
A: Sodium carbonate
B: Primidone
C: Phenytoin sodium
D: Ethosuximide
E: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: D
Question 19: Blockade of dopaminergic receptor by chlorpromazine
results in:
A: Psychotic effect
B: Anti emetic effect
C: Galactosemic
D: Hypotension
E: Parkinsonism
Correct Answer: E
Question 20: Regarding rationale of drug prescription
A: Each drug for each symptom
B: Should be avoided in minor self limiting illness
C: Patient should be informed about the side effects
D: It should be cheap
E: It should be for specific time period only
Correct Answer: B
Question 21: Which drug should be give for thrombolysis in acute MI?
A: Heparin
B: Aspirin
C: Streptokinase
D: Warfarin
E: Ticlopidine
Correct Answer: C
Question 22: Diazepam is used as an:
A: Analgesic
B: Anxiolytic
C: Muscle using
D: Anti-tussive
E: Anti-emetic
Correct Answer: B
Question 23: Anti-depressant drugs include:
A: Chlorpromazine
B: Amikacin
C: Diazepam
D: Phenelzine
E: Phenobarbitone
Correct Answer: D
Question 24: Pregnant woman with hypertension, which drug should be
given?
A: Clonidine
B: Guanethidine
C: Methyldopa
D: Hydralazine
E: Verapamil
Correct Answer: C
Question 25: Anxiolytic effect is mediated by which receptor
A: Dopaminergic
B: GABA
C: Glutamate
D: NE
E: Serotonin
Correct Answer: B
Question 26: Promethazine action produces:
A: Sedation
B: Emetic effect
C: Histamine effect
D: Antipsychotic effect
E: Parkinsonism
Correct Answer: A
Question 27: Regarding CNS stimulants:
A: Picrotoxin selectively antagonizes the effect of GABA
B: Nikethamide is a good orally effective respiratory stimulant
C: Strychnine acts by activating the effect of glycine
D: Methylxanthines inhibit gastric secretions by ADH
E: Convulsions due to toxic doses of strychnine are treated with oral
phenobarbitone
Correct Answer: A
Question 28: Patient uses diuretic drug, he is hypertensive, type II
diabetic and have bilateral pedal edema. which diuretic impair in
glycemic control.
A: Thiazide diuretics
B: Loop diuretics
C: Spironolactone
D: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
E: Thiazide + loop diuretics
Correct Answer: A
Question 29: Schizophrenic patient with dry mouth, constipation,
blurring of vision, which drug is responsible in causing all this.
A: Chlorpromazine
B: Amethystine
C: Thioridazine
D: Lithium
E: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: C
Question 30: Lorazepam:
A: Not used as amnestic in cardioversion
B: Treatment of psychosis
C: Used in confusion in elderly patients
D: Used in treatment of night mares
E: Uses as sedative and hypnotics
Correct Answer: D
Question 31: Advanced stage (grade IV) encephalopathy with acute
renal failure, by which drug?
A: Paracetamol
B: Ethylene glycol
C: Valproic
D: Halothane
E: Aminoglycoside
Correct Answer: A
Question 32: Selegiline used in Parkinsonism has the following
characteristics?
A: It acts like amantadine
B: Acts by selectively activating MAO, Type B
C: It diminishes tremors and rigidity
D: Retards the progress of disease
E: Does not blocks the dopamine breakdown
Correct Answer: C
Question 33: Bromocriptine, an ergot alkaloid may be used in the
treatment of the following:
A: Hypotension
B: Hypo-prolactinoma
C: galactosemic
D: Secondary amenorrhea
E: Pituitary dwarfism
Correct Answer: D
Question 34: Which is potassium sparing diuretic?
A: Ethacrynic acid
B: metolazone
C: Indapamide
D: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
E: Triamterene
Correct Answer: E
Question 35: Cholinergic drugs which are potentiated by neostigmine
include:
A: Acetylcholine
B: Carbachol
C: Pilocarpine
D: Mega choline
E: Bethanechol
Correct Answer: A
Question 36: Hyoscine butyl bromide is useful for the treatment of:
A: Motion sickness
B: Parkinsonism
C: Myasthenia gravis
D: Peptic ulcer
E: Glaucoma
Correct Answer: A
Question 37: Which of following drug is H-K ATPase pump blocker
A: Cimetidine
B: Omeprazole
C: Ranitidine
D: Sucralfate
E: Amantadine
Correct Answer: B
Question 38: Endogenous muscle relaxant is
A: Endorphin
B: Nitroglycerine
C: MgS04
D: Salbutamol
E: Edrophonium
Correct Answer: A
Question 39: Drugs which produce postural hypotension includes:
A: Tetramethonium
B: Propranolol
C: Phenoxybenzamine
D: Halo then
E: Clonidine
Correct Answer: E
Question 40: Carbachol is:
A: A natural alkaloid
B: A purely muscaranic drug
C: Resistant to acetylcholine esterase
D: Neurotic
E: Used in myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: C
Question 41: Which one is the CNS effect of atropine
A: Increase in rate and depth of respiration
B: Restlessness
C: Decrease in NREM sleep
D: Mydriasis
E: Miosis
Correct Answer: B
Question 42: A person with respiratory alkalosis and high respiratory
rate has presented in ER with the history of drug poisoning, which drug
it may be?
A: Salicylates
B: Morphine
C: Atropine
D: Organophosphorus
E: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: A
Question 43: Which one of the followings would be most useful in a
patient with cerebral edema?
A: Acetazolamide
B: Amiloride
C: Ethacrynic acid
D: Furosemide
E: Mannitol
Correct Answer: E
Question 44: Action of rosiglitazone
A: Increase uptake of glucose in myocytes and adipocytes
B: It has good effect in lipid metabolism
C: Increase glucose uptake by hepatocytes
D: It decreases the activity of PPAR-gamma enzyme
E: It has bad effect in lipid metabolism
Correct Answer: A
Question 45: Drugs useful in the treatment of infertility include all of the
following except:
A: Bromocriptine
B: Clomiphene
C: Human chorionic gonadotropin
D: Prolactin
E: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Correct Answer: D
Question 46: Which of the following is pharmacokinetic action of the
durg?
A: Bone marrow suppression by methotrexate reversed with aspirin
B: Morphine induced respiratory depression with nalaxone
C: Beta blockers induced asthma can be relieved with hydralazine
D: Adverse effect of levodopa can be increased by carbidopa
Correct Answer: B
Question 47: Dopamine (half life 2 minutes) administration is started by
intravenous infusion in a patient in a dose which will produce
therapeutically effective blood levels on reaching steady state
concentration. After starting the infusion in this patient, dopamine
actions will begin after:
A: 4 minutes
B: 9 minutes
C: 15 minutes
D: 30 minutes
E: 45 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Question 48: Which of the following conditions is an indication for the
use of calcitonin?
A: Hypoparathyroidism
B: Intestinal osteodystrophy
C: Osteoporosis
D: Paget�s disease
E: Rickets
Correct Answer: D
Question 49: Which of the following anticancer drug has nerphrotoxic
effect
A: Methotrexate
B: Bleomycin
C: Cyclophosphamide
D: Cisplastin
E: Imatinib
Correct Answer: D
Question 50: A patient is has developed digoxin toxicity his plasma level
of dioxin is 4 ng/dl (Plasma half life of digoxin is 36h). How much time
is required so that plasma level of digoxin drops to safe level of 1 ng/dl
A: 36 hr
B: 52 hr
C: 72 hr
D: 92 hr
E: 112 hr
Correct Answer: C