CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE

EXAMINATION QUESTIONS COMPILATION

WITH RATIONALIZATION

Case Situation: Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco.

Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the
house that resulted also to the death of Esco.
1. Bong is liable of what crime? a. Robbery b. Theft
a. Arson b. Murder c. Malicious mischief d. Robbery with Theft
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder Case Situation:
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm
his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter.
committed by Bong? As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus,
a. Arson b. Murder he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder result.
Case Situation: 13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They a. theft
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they b. property damaged
shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear. c. malicious mischief
d. robbery
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit? 14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes
a. Homicide b. Murder use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
c. Homicide with Mutilation some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
d. Murder with serious physical injur a. theft
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, b. property damaged
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did c. malicious mischief
they commit? d. robbery
a. Homicide b. Murder 15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo
c. Homicide with Mutilation crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
d. Murder with serious a. theft
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes b. malicious mischief
but they just saw the latter while walking and intentionally c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What d. robbery
crime did they commit? 16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes
a. Homicide b. Murder use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
c. Frustrated homicide d. Attempted murder some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
Case Situation: b. malicious mischief
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel without d. robbery
being married. Grace and Jomar parted their ways. Grace got 17. Validity of Search Warrant
married to Bong, however, they were not blessed to have a a. when the judge sign
child of their own, and thus, they had legally adopted Manuel. b. upon serve
One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter was c. from the date indicated therein
sleeping. d. from the date receive by officer
6. What crime committed by Manuel? 18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information
a. Parricide b. Homicide or complaint in court?
c. Murder d. Infanticide a. probable cause
b. personal knowledge
7. What if Manuel killed Grace? c. substancial
a. Parricide b. Homicide d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Murder d. Infanticide 19. If the search is illegal the things seized is?
a. competent
Case Situation: b. irrelevant
c. inadmissible
Allan and Grace while walking towards home were d. admissible
approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a gun 20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved.
declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of
demanded for their wallet and gave the same to him for fear of action?
their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in a. Factum probandum
taking the personal property of Allan and Grace. b. Evidence
8. What crime committed by Lenie? c. factum probans
a. Theft b. snatching d. factum prubans
c. Robbery d. Grave Threat Case Situation:
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years
Case Situation: from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a
breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about
intent to gain took the LCD Television. Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation,
9. Manuel is liable of what crime? Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its 72 hours
a. Robbery b. Theft age.
c. Malicious mischief d. snatchig
10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main 21. For what crime Alden can be charged?
door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and a. homicide b. parricide
thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is c. murder d. infanticide
liable of a crime of. 22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant?
a. Robbery b. Theft a. homicide b. parricide
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching c. murder d. infanticide
11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door 23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant?
without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter a. homicide b. parricide
took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed c. murder d. infanticide
to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at 24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is
the back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden?
liable of what crime? a. homicide b. parricide
a. Robbery b. Theft c. murder d. infanticide
c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main Case Situation:
door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open the Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and
door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD B entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while
Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of? Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out.
 c. differential association theory
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as? d. labeling theory
a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A
c. principal by indispensable cooperation persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal
d.principal law what is the term used for it?
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as? a. Conspiracy
a. principal by inducement b. Proposal
b.principal by direct participation c. Entrapment
c. principal by indispensable cooperation d. Instigation
d.principal
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as? 37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how
a. principal by inducement person may are included?
b.principal by direct participation a. 3
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. 8
d.principal c. 4
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all d. 6
the money from the teller?
a. principal by inducement 38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case?
b.principal by direct participation a. Preponderance of evidence
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
d.principal c. Probable cause
d. Substantial Evidence
29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as 39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious
look-out?? destruction of property by means of fire is called.
a. principal by inducement a. Arson
b.principal by direct participation b. Combustion
c. principal by indispensable cooperation c. Disposition
d.principal d. Murder
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among
Case Situation: citizens of
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill a. Good repute and probity
Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in b. High educational level
consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te c. Good religious background
owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya d. High social standing
Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a 41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in
place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice. 1.They should be segrageted especially during the
Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub withdrawal period
while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies. 2.They should be closely supervised to prevent
Viceremains as look-out. attempts to commit suicide or
self-mutilation
30. Alden is liable for a crime as? 3.They should not be administered
a. principal by inducement sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a physician
b.principal by direct participation 4.They should be transferred to mental institution of
c. principal by indispensable cooperation proper psychiatric treatment
d.principal a. 2, 3 and 4
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as? b. 3, 4 and 1
a. principal by inducement c. 4, 1 and 2
b.principal by direct participation d. 1, 2 and 3
c. principal by indispensable cooperation 42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious
d.principal mischief?
32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
a. principal by inducement a. The damage was caused inadvertently
b.principal by direct participation b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions
c. principal by indispensable cooperation of arson
d.principal c. The offender has caused damage to the property of
33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime another
as? d. The damage was caused deliberately
a. principal by inducement 43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven
b.principal by direct participation years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many
c. principal by indispensable cooperation years?
d.principal a. 1
34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola b. 2
Dora is liable of a crime as? c. 7
a. principal d. 8
b.accessories 44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was
c. accomplice arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for
d.principal by indispensable cooperation opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of
cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would
35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive
knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime Dangerous Drug Act)?
as? a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
a. principal b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
b.accessories c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
c. accomplice d. Use of dangerous drugs
d.principal by indispensable cooperation 45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
result of the frustration and anger people experience a. Accepted
over their inability to achieve legitimate social and b. Determinate
financial success. c. Sensitive
a. strain theory d. Unreliable
b. psychological theories 46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the
 presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of Court. a. Crime and felony are the same
In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear b. Crime covers felonies
simple case of unjust vexation.
a. Possible c. No distinction whatsoever
b. No d. The source of felony is a RPC
c. It depends 58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two
d. Yes and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to pacify them
47. Who among the following can apply for release under the Law whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of
on Recognizance? the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked C.
a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is What crime was committed by the one who attacked C?
three (3) years and above a. Direct assault
b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is b. Indirect assault
Twelve (12) months and above c. None
c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is d. Physical injury
not morethan Six (6) months 59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick
d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every corner,
Six (6) months and above a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards:
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to a. Maximum security facility
the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can b. Medium security facility
leading question be asked? c. Super maximum security facility
a. It depends d. Minimum security facility
b. No 60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to
c. Partially testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served on
d. Yes him. Can the court punish him for contempt?
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards? a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a
a. Inmates health witness against another.
b. Prison security b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying.
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their
d. Prison industry case.
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his
for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In testimony.
his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that 61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the
the door could be useful. So, he brought it to his house. What Parolee?
crime was committed? Prison record
a. Robbery Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer
b. Maliscious Mischief Location of the Prison or Confinement
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling Order of Court
d. Theft a. 4 and 1
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of b. 1 and 2
Appeals? c. 3 and 4
a. Sandiganbayan d. 2 and 3
b. Court of first instance 62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally
c. Supreme court crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According
d. Tanodbayan to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of you use to those who consfired in the killing?
the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner? a. Abused of Superior Strength
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate b. Conspiracy
sentence c. Intimidation
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate d. Treachery
sentence 63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
indeterminate sentence However, control over the probationer and probation program
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate is exercised by
sentence
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides
another crime? 2 CRIMES b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
a. It depends c. The Secretary of Justice
b. No d. The Court who place him on probation
c. Partially 64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result
d. Yes with an individuals bond to _____________ is weak and
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation? broken.
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate a. Behavior
sentence of the offender b. Police
b. To exonerate the offender c. Law
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself d. Society
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case 65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court persons other than (not) the offended party?
EXCEPT: a. Abduction
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the b. Act of lasciviousness
issue c. Seduction
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him d. Falsification
to a penaly of an offense 66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness
c. To remain silent who is unwilling to testify?
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions a. Intelligent
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the b. Leading
latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of c. Misleading
judicial repreive? d. Unresponsive
a. Live with integrity 67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is
b. Testing period imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger
c. Walk with faith toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
d. Out of the institution a. Retribution
57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a b. Restoration
felony and a crime? c. Rehabilitation
 d. Deterrence examination?
68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief: a. Opponent
I. The offender deliberately caused damage to property b. PAO lawyer
II. Such act does not constitute arson or other crimes c. Proponent
involving destruction d. Prosecution
III. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving 78. The system of key control in a jail includes:
destruction a. An updated system of monitoring and control of
IV. The act of damaging anothers property was committed keys
merely for the sake of damaging it b. A documented inventory of security personnel
b. I, III, IV c. A collector of all padlocks and keys
c. I, II, IV d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
d. I, II, III 79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity,
e. II, III, IV EXCEPT:
a. Simple Seduction
69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon? b. Adultery
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government c. White Slave Trade
physician d. Sexual Harassment
b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero" 80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate,
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above EXCEPT:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect
probation conditions when confronted by or reporting to any officer or
70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court member of the custodial force
within_________. c. Willful watse of food
a. 10-day period d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
b. 30-day period orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
c. 15-day period 81. The following are classified as crimes against honor,
d. 60-day period EXCEPT:
71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to a. Premature Marriage
execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was b. libel
assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge c. Incriminating innocent person
who issued the warrant? d. Slander
a. 10 82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
b. 15 a. Offender
c. 20 b. The offender party
d. 30 c. Other public officers
72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law d. Any peace officers
of the State?
a. Espionage
b. Piracy 83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from
c. Treason criminal liability/
d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified a. It depends
trespass to dwelling b. No
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of c. Sometimes
concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming d. Yes
they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct? 84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight. the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of dying,
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction. Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving committed because the material he mixed on the foods is
moral turpitude. a. Impossible
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial b. Inadequate
Court before and after conviction. c. Ineffectual
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, d. Intentional
encountered Y an American. They eventually got married. 85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based
When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an on the recommendation of:
action against him for violating their marriage. What is X a. Board of Pardon and Parole
liable to? b. Bureau of Correction
a. Adultery c. Parole and Probation Administration
b. Bigamy d. Office of the Executive Secretary
c. Concubinage 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
d. Polygamy philippines?
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or a. R.A 7659
information before arraignment if the b. R.A 7965
amendment_______________. c. R.A 8177
a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a d. R.A 9346
higher to a lower offense or excludes any 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it
accused must be made at the place where the:
b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a a. Contraband was found
higher to a lower offense and adds another b. Police station is located
accused c. Arrest was effected
c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower d. Crime was forced
to a higher offense and excludes any of the 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
accused document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence
d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower without further proof of due execution or genuiness?
to a higher offense and adds another accused a. Baptismal Certificates.
76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in
internal and external act. Which of the two acts is Hongkong
indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime? c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in
a. External act Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official
b. Intentional act seal
c. Internal act
d. Unintentional act d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct signed by the promise, showing payment of a loan,
 found among the well-kept file of the promissor. liable for rape:
89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the
serve his sentence by the court if he victims drink to enable her husband to have
a. Becomes unruly and undicipline intercourse with the victim's.
b. Commits another offense b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it
c. He is 21 years old in the mouth of the victim's.
d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation c. When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
d. With the use of force or intimidation.
101.Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional.
90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written Will he qualify for probation?
agreement, there is the application of a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
the____________evidence rule. b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One
a. Documentary (1) day
b. Best c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One
c. Written (1) day
d. Parol d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat 102.There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as
the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain in the follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and rehabilitation.
administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What a. Criminal intent
crime was committed by X? b. Criminal mind
a. Attempted Parricide c. Criminal sanction
b. Frustrated Parricide d. Criminal action
c. Serious Physical Injuries 103.The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries
d. No crime for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged.
92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his
probation in the United States? stab wounds. Can the prosecution file another information
a. Sir Walter crofton against Ben for homicide?
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. John murry spear a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already
d. John Augustus been convicted of the first offense.
93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical
be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if the injuries is necessarily included in the charged of
crime committed by the petitioner is against national security. homicide.
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of
b. Secretary of Justice crime the accused committed.
c. Secretary of National Defense d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government filing of the earlier charge against him.
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be 104.Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released
treated__________. provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been previously
a. Comprehensively convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
b. Appopriately a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum
c. Confidentially penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is
d. Judiciously destierro
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
police. What are these studies called? prision correccional
a. Population Surveys c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum
b. Police surveys penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is
c. Victimization surveys reclusion perpetua
d. Information surveys d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate the possible maximum term of punishment of the
court sends a case back to lower court for new trial? offense he maybe found guilty of.
a. Trial by publicity 105.A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of
b. Trial by jury crime is known as:
c. Trial by default a. Forensic medicine
d. Trial de novo b. Physical science
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason c. Forensic science
of their office and of which they may properly take and act d. Criminalistic Technology
without proof re called matters of: 106.To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must
a. Priveleged communication be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
b. Judicial notice a. Murder
b. Treason
c. Pleadings c. Parricide
d. Judgment d. Infanticide
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison 107.The following are crimes against national security and the law
sentence? of nations EXCEPT one:
a. Commutation of sentence a. Violation of neutrality
b. Parole b. Rebellion
c. Absolute pardon c. Treason
d. Conditional pardon d. Espionage
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused 108.Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed
may be discharged to become a state witness? by public officers?
a. Forgery
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty. b. Official breaking seal
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of c. Malversation
any offense. d. Refusal of assistance
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be
discharged can be substantially 109.Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little
corroborated on all points. more care than the other inmates. Which of the following
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the should NOT be done by a jail officer?
accused hose discharge is requested. a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff
100.Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held regularly
 b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed b. Violation of traffic laws
diet c. Violation of rental laws
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6)
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate months imprisonment
110.The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: 122.What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
a. Movement of the offender is restricted nervous system and are commonly referred to as
b. Cruelty “uppers”?
c. Adding ignominy a. Amphetamines
d. Taking advantage of superior strength b. Naptha
111.When taking up arms against the government was undertaken c. Barbiturates
by members of the military, what law was violated? Republic d. Diazepam
Act________.
a. 9165 123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio
b. 7610 without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
c. 6506 EXCEPT:
d. 6968 a. Rape
112.The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting b. Abduction
the arrest, EXCEPT those: c. Seduction
a. That may be used for escaping d. Adultery and Concubinage
b. Used in the commission of a crime 124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense.
c. That are within the immediate vicinity This is the rule on:
d. Which are means of committing violence a. Duplicity of offense
113.Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has b. Complex crime
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the c. compound crime
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged d. continuing crime
with? 125.In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates
a. Batas Pambansa 95 an arresting officer should inform the person to be
b. Batas Pambansa 85 arrested of his rights?
c. Batas Pambansa 105 a. Art. III Sec. 12
d. Batas Pambansa 965 b. b.Miranda Doctrine
114.An advantageous result in the integration of correctional c. R.A. 7438
agencies is: d. Rule 115
a. More physical facilities to maintain 126.It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous
b. More prisoners to supervise Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for
c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances Other Purposes.
d. Better coordination of services and increased cost- a. RA 9165
efficiency b. RA 1956
115.It is the system or criminal procedure which is c. RA 9156
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of d. RA 1965
the defense and prosecution to appeal. 127.What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug
a. Inquisatorial incidents?
b. mixed a. Reclusion Perpetua
c. accusatorial b. Life Imprisonment
d. fixed c. Death
d. Fine
116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted 109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the after plea and during the trial with leave of court and without
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the causing prejudice to the rights of the accused.
defense and the accused presumed innocent. a. form
a. inquisitorial b. substance and form
b. mixed c. substance
c. accusatorial d. none of these
d. fixed 128.A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the
117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be
MCTC. filed:
a. R.A. 7691 a. before the prosecution rests
b. R.A. 8493 b. before arraignment
c. BP 129 c. before preliminary investigation
d. R.A. 1379 d. before plea
118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
EXCEPT: 129.Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical
a. Extent of penalty antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the
b. Person accused cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
c. territory a. Prejudicial question
d. subject matter b. inquest proceeding
119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any c. preliminary investigation
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of d. custodial investigation
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of 130.Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is
the prosecutor. sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a
a. Complaint crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
b. Pleadings guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
c. Information
d. Affidavit a. preliminary investigation
120.Prescription of offense commence to run: b. inquest proceeding
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended c. prejudicial question
party or peace officers or their agent. d. custodial investigation
b. Upon filing of cases in court.
c. Upon escape of the accused. 131.Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
d. Upon re-appearance of the accused punishable by:
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one
121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary (1) day
procedure, EXCEPT: b. more than four years, two months and one day
a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment c. less than four years, two months and one day
 d. six years, one day and above 144.It is a security given for the temporary release of a person
in custody of the law.
132.The following persons are authorized to conduct a. Bail
preliminary investigation, EXCEPT: b. parole
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court c. fine
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their d. conditional pardon
assistants
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal 145.Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person
Circuit Trial Courts failed to appear at the trial without justification and despite
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; due notice.
e. a and c a. In absentia
133.After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court b. in flagrante de licto
without a preliminary investigation within how many days c. on the merits
an accused person upon knowing the filing of said d. none of these
complaint may ask for preliminary investigation? 146.When Bail is a matter of right?
a. 5 days a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan,
b. 15 days Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court.
c. 10 days b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
d. 30 days c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
134.Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may d. upon preliminary investigation
be bound to answer for the commission of an offense. 147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
a. Arrest a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
b. Warrant b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
c. jurisdiction c. crimes punishable by death
d. Seizure d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life
135.Validity of the warrant of arrest? imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong
a. no fixed duration
b. 30 days 148.When bail is a discretionary?
c. 20 days a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by
d. 10 days reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
136.Lifetime of search warrant? b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
a. 10 days but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist.
b. 20 days c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
c. 5 days but not more than 20 years when there is undue
d. No fixed duration risk that he may commit another crime during the
137.Within how many days upon the date of execution of a pendency of the appeal.
warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
shall report to the court which issue such warrant when but not more than 20 years who has previously
arrest was not been made? escaped from legal confinement.
a. 10 days
b. 30 days 149.Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of
c. 20 days its commission and at the time of the application for
d. 5 days admission to bail may be punished with death.
138.It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing a. capital offense
the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan. b. less grave
a. instigation c. heinous crime
b. investigation d. grave felony
c. entrapment 150.The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
d. Entertainment a. Property Bond
139. In flagrante delicto means _____? b. Cash Bond
a. caught in the act c. Corporate surety bond
b. instigation d. Recognizance
c. caught after commission e. None of the choices
d. entrapment 151.When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be
140.When arrest may be made? sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of
a. At any time of the day and night preventive imprisonment.
b. At day time a. 30 days
c. At night time b. 20 days
d. from sun dust till dawn c. 15 days
d. 60 days
141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the 152.Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
warrant of arrest in his possession? a. acquittal of the accused
a. Need not have b. execution of the judgment of conviction
b. Should always have c. dismissal of the case
c. may sometime have d. all of the choices
d. need to have 153.It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and
142.It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
officer after a person has been taken into custody. one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused
a. custodial investigation and the other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly
b. inquest balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence
c. interview should tilt the scale in favor of the accused and he must
d. interrogation be acquitted.
143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even a. Equipoise rule
without a warrant? b. Presumption of guilt
c. Hornbook doctrine
a. When the crime was committed in the presence d. due process of law
of the arresting officer. 154.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
b. When the crime was in fact been committed and assist destitute litigant?
there is personal knowledge based on probable a. Counsel de officio
cause that the person to be arrested has b. counsel de parte
committed it. c. Public Attorney’s Office
c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees. d. National Prosecution Office
d. All of the choices
155.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend c. 20 days
and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents d. d. 60 days
under his control at the trial of an action.
a. subpoena 166.How many days are given to an accused person to
b. subpoena ducestecum prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
a. 15 days
c. subpoena ad testificandum b. 20 days
d. d. warrant of arrest c. 30 days
156.Unless shorter period is provided by special law or d. 180 days
Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held 167.The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from
within ___ days from the date the court acquires receipt of the pre-trial order?
jurisdiction over the person of the accused. a. 30 days
a. 30 days b. 15 days
b. 10 days c. 20 days
c. 15 days d. 60 days
d. 5 days 168.The trial court have how many days from the first day of
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ trial to terminate the same?
shall be entered. a. 60 days
a. Not guilty b. 365 days
b. admission by silence c. 180 days
c. guilty d. 150 days
d. none
169.The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the
158.When reception of evidence is necessary under the following circumstances:
following circumstances: a. at the arraignment and plea
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense b. during the trial whenever necessary for
b. plea of guilty to capital offense identification purposes
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light
d. all of these offense
d. all of the choices
159.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a 170.The order of trial is:
motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
or information and the details desired in order to enable
him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
known as: c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
a. motion for bill of particular d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
b. motion for clarification 171.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
c. motion to dismiss mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
d. motion for postponement device to assist him in testimony.
a. Testimonial aids
160.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be b. Emotional security items
suspended on the following grounds: c. support
a. The accused appears to be suffering from d. none of these
unsound mental condition. 172.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
b. There exist a prejudicial question. of examination of a child, if the same will further the
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the interest of justice.
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office a. leading questions
of the President . b. relevant
d. All of the choices c. misleading
161.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by d. Narrative
an accused is: 173.Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an
a. Motion to quash accused to be state witness:
b. nolleprosequi a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of
c. Motion to dismiss the accused.
d. bill of particulars b. said accused does not appear to be the most
162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and guilty
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite involving moral turpitude/
period from the commission of the offense. d. all of the choices
a. Prescription of crime 174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person
b. acquisitive may move for the dismissal of the case on:
c. prescription of penalty a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution
d. extinctive an opportunity to be heard.
163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the b. Demurrer to evidence
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the c. motion for reconsideration
second time. d. motion for new trial
175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the
a. double jeopardy issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal.
b. double trial a. pre-trial
c. double trouble b. trial
d. double counter c. plea bargaining
164.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by d. Judgment
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any 176.Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the
a. one year proper penalty and civil liability.
b. 2 years a. judgment
c. 5 years b. rendition of judgment
d. d. 4 years c. promulgation of judgment
165.Within how many days after arraignment and from the d. conviction
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? 177.It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the
a. 30 days possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral
b. 15 days certainty only is required.
 a. acquittal d. Affidavit
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. clear and convincing 190.Prescription of offense commences to run:
d. preponderance of evidence a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
178.It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the party or peace officers or their agent.
evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond b. Upon filing of cases in court.
reasonable doubt. c. Upon escape of the accused.
a. dismissal d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
b. conviction
c. acquittal 191. When an appeal shall be taken?
d. judgment a. within 10 days
179.Judgment becomes final when? b. within 30 days
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse. c. within 15 days
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied d. within 5 days
or served. 192.Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to a. Subject of the offense
appeal. b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits
d. when he appealed for probation of the offense
e. all of the choices c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
committing an offense
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of d. Firearm
conviction becomes final. 193. When search must be made?
a. Motion for new trial a. in the day time
b. Motion for reconsideration b. only during sunrise
c. Motion to dismiss c. any time of the day and night
d. All of these d. in the presence of two witnesses
181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal?
a. prosecutor 194.In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the
b. Secretary of DOJ ____?
c. appellant a. Plaintiff
d. Solicitor General b. offended party
182.The party appealing the case shall be called? c. defendant
a. appellant d. Respondent
b. accused 195.A complaint or information have the same legal content,
c. Appellee however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who
d. Defendant subscribe an information?
183.It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit a. Accused
where the power of the court is exercised and which is b. Prosecutor
jurisdictional in criminal case. c. Witness
a. Venue d. victim
b. Jurisprudence 196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
c. jurisdiction the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
d. court investigation except?
184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
instance. b. Judge MTC/MCTC
a. Original jurisdiction c. Regional State Prosecutor
b. Exclusive jurisdiction d. Public Attorney’s office
c. concurrent jurisdiction e. b and d
d. appellate jurisdiction 197.An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
the others. of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. Original jurisdiction a. R.A. 7438
b. Exclusive jurisdiction b. R.A. 7348
c. appellate jurisdiction c. R.A. 7834
d. concurrent jurisdiction d. d. R.A. 3478
186.It is the system or criminal procedure which is
characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of 198.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
the defense and prosecution to appeal. cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
a. Inquisitorial principle also known as:
b. mixed a. rights against illegal arrest
c. accusatorial b. the right to presume innocent
d. fixed c. rights against self- incrimination
187.It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted d. right to live
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the 199.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the pleading are prohibited except:
defense and the accused is innocent. a. motion to quash
a. inquisitorial b. bill of particular
b. mixed c. answer
c. accusatorial d. demurred to evidence
d. fixed 200.The following cases committed by public official with
188.In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
EXCEPT: jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Extent of penalty a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
b. Person accused 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
c. territory of the RPC
d. subject matter b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
189.Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of 14-A.
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
the prosecutor. their office.
a. Complaint d. None of the choices
b. Pleadings Section 201.It is the law which classifies rape from crime against
c. Information chastity to crimes against person, making crime
 prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender c. absolutely false
party? d. partly false
a. R.A. 8353 212.In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
b. R.A. 9283 a. Office of the President
c. R.A. 8493 b. Office of the Clerk of Court
d. d. R.A. 7055 c. Office of the Prosecutor
202.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed d. Office of the Ombudsman
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances 213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be information are the following, EXCEPT:
separated? a. It must be in writing
a. When the offended party waives the civil action; b. It must be in the name of the People of the
b. When the offended party reserves his right to Philippines.
institute the civil action; c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
c. When the institution of the civil action is made d. It must be filed in court
prior to the criminal action. 214.Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal
d. all of the choices action for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The
203.What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions? case may:
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict. a. No longer be prosecuted
b. Independent civil action instituted may be b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
continued against the estate or legal c. Still be prosecuted
representative of the accused. d. Be prosecuted by the State
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case
shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil 215.The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of
action the offended party may file against the incapacitated individual with no known parents,
estate of the deceased. grandparents or guardian is known as:
d. all of the choices a. Doctrine of parens patriae
204.Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee b. Doctrine of non-suability
may be released on bail in the following manner, except: c. police power
a. property bond d. habeas corpus
b. performance bond
c. corporate surety 216.The modes of making an arrest are:
d. recognized a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested
205.Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case b. by the submission to the custody of the person
a. after arraignment making the arrest
b. after the defense has rested its case c. by using unreasonable force
c. after trial d. a and b only
d. after the prosecution had rested its case e. a and c only
206.The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned 217.The following are crimes Against National Security and
the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as Law of Nations, EXCEPT.
valid. a. Treason
a. before arraignment b. Piracy and mutiny
b. before conviction c. Espionage
c. before preliminary investigation d. Rebellion
d. before trial 218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a
207.The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial person who owes allegiance to it.
conference except: a. treason
a. examination of witnesses b. espionage
b. marking of evidence c. adherence to the enemy
c. plea bargaining d. rebellion
d. stipulation & simplification of issues 219.The degree of proof required to convict a person accused
208.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action of treason.
shall be made: a. substantial evidence
a. before arraignment b. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. before the pre-trial conference c. two witness rule
c. before the prosecution rest its case d. preponderance of evidence
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
209.Amendment without leave of court before the accused 220.The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT:
pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the following a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine
instances EXCEPT: waters;
a. amendment as to substance b. The offenders are not members of its
b. amendment as to form complement or passengers of the vessel;
c. amendment that reflect typographical error c. That the offender resist to a superior officer;
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or
crime seize the whole or part of the cargo of said
vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of its
210.One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may complement or passengers.
be discharged in order to be state witness is that 221.Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most Piracy:
guilty a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty the high seas or in Philippine waters
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char boarding or firing upon the same.
211.P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their
1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay victims without means of saving themselves.
shall have authority to bring together the parties actually d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder,
residing in the same city or municipality for amicable homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
settlement where the offense committed is punishable by 222.Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway
imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is: Robbery Law of 1974.
a. Comm. Act No. 616
a. absolutely true b. P.D. 532
b. partly true c. P.D. 533
 d. R.A. 6235
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and
detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his
liberty is liable for:
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. unlawful arrest
d. kidnapping
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any
person, EXCEPT:
a. commission of a crime
b. escape from prison / penal institution
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the
compulsory confinement
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
225.The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying
release, EXCEPT:
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive
order for the release of a prisoner.
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to
said prisoner.
c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the
liberation of such person.
d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the
detainee to the proper judicial authority.
e. All of these
226.Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms
which is considered a low power gun. Considering that the
crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how
many hours should that a case be filed to the proper
judicial authority?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a
person to change his resident or otherwise expels him
from the Philippines.
a. violation of domicile
b. arbitrary detention
c. trespass to dwelling
d. expulsion
228.The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
b. Any public officer or employee who searches any
papers or other effects found therein without the
previous consent of the owner.
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to
leave the premises, after having surreptitiously
entered said dwelling and after having been
required to leave the premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches
domicile without witnesses.
e. All of the choices
229.SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant,
search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having
discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1
Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled
with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to
be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
a. Liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
c. May not be liable for violation of
domicile
d. Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
230.The following are crimes against the fundamental law of
the States. Which one can be committed by private
person?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Interruption of religious worship
d. Offending religious feelings
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful
meetings
231.The law which provides Human Security
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745
c. R.A. 9372
d. R.A. 7438
232.Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with
the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his
Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was
manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under
the facts given, what crime was committed by the former
and that of his Group?
a. murder
b. sedition
c. rebellion
d. homicide
233.This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking
arms against government to completely overthrow and
supersede said existing government.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
234.A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation,
stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities, public
utilities, military camps and installation with or without
civilian support for the purpose of diminishing state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
235.It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of the
legal method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
236.A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while
going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is
liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the
National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237.The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that
would rise against the rich businessmen of their city. For
what crime can they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238.Any association, organization, political party or group of
persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the
purpose of removing the allegiance to said government or
its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with
the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239.Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land
occupied by informal settlers for government projects and
for their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan.
Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of
Mayor Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close
escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also
slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs.
Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
240.The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
 b. The offender is a public officer or employee c. usurpation of official functions
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in d. a & c
authority 250.Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself
without authority of the law.
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a a. alias
person in authority b. A.K.A.
241.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an c. fictitious names
individual or as a member of some court or government d. true name
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____? 251.It is committed by a person, who being under oath are
a. Agent of a person in authority required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a
b. Judicial authority hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth
c. person in authority or say something contrary to it.
d. Public employee a. forgery
242.It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously b. perjury
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such c. falsification
person, while engaged in the performance of official d. false testimony
functions. 252.Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good
a. Direct assault customs, which having been committed publicly, have
b. Indirect Assault given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National the same.
Assembly a. immoral doctrines
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in b. obscene publication and exhibition
authority or the agents of such person c. grave scandal
243.The following are crimes classified as public disorders, d. libel
EXCEPT. 253.Refers to persons having no apparent means of
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order subsistence but has the physical ability to work and
neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
utterances a. bum
c. Alarms and scandals b. vagrant
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails c. prostitute
e. None of the choices d. destitute
244.Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun 254.It is the improper performance of some acts which should
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating have been lawfully be done.
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___? a. malfeasance
a. illegal discharge of firearm b. misfeasance
b. alarm & scandals c. nonfeasance
c. disturbances d. dereliction of duty
d. outcry 255.It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an
245.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion unjust order which decides some point or matter but which
of service of sentence. however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue:
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors, a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors. b. Judgment rendered through negligence
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, c. Unjust interlocutory order
violence or intimidation. d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
c. Through connivance with other convicts or e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor –
employees of the penal institution. revelation of secrets
d. All of the choices
246.Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before 256.This one is committed by public officers or employees
serving his sentence or while serving the same he who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall
committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the
have occurred? punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the
a. recidivism commission of offenses.
b. reiteration a. Direct bribery
c. quasi-recidivism b. Indirect bribery
d. habitual delinquency c. Qualified bribery
247.It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of prosecution of offenses
a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by
falsification through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or 257.What crime is committed by any public officer or employee
altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in
contained therein (Art. 169) connection with the performance of his official duties, in
consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present
a. Falsification of public document received by such officer, personally or through the
b. Forgery mediation of another.
c. Falsification a. Direct bribery
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or b. Qualified bribery
notary or ecclesiastical minister c. Indirect bribery
248.A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in
and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of: prosecution
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document 258.Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement
who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender who
b. Theft through falsification of a public document has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua
and/or death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or
c. Falsification of public document present.
d. Forgeries a. bribery
249.This crime is committed by any person without any b. direct bribery
distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer c. qualified bribery
and performing under pretense of official position any act d. indirect bribery
pertaining to such person. 259.It is a crime committed by any appointed public official
a. usurpation of authority who shall become interested in any transaction within his
b. estafa territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency.
a. Prohibited transaction
 b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public 270.A private individual who detains another for the purpose of
officer depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days
c. Fraud against public treasury is guilty of:
d. Prevarication a. illegal detention
260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, b. arbitrary detention
shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, c. serious illegal detention
or through abandonment or negligence shall permit d. slight illegal detention
another person to take public funds or property. 271.A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted
a. Direct bribery the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the
b. Technical malversation jailer is guilty of what crime?
c. Malversation of public funds a. illegal detention
d. Embezzelment b. illegal arrest
261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or c. unlawful arrest
public officers: d. physical injuries
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners 272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens
b. Infidelity in the custody of documents another with the infliction upon the person, honor or
c. Revelation of secrets property of the latter or of his family of any wrong
d. all of these amounting to a crime.
a. grave threat
262.This is committed by any public officer or employee who b. light threat
shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a c. grave coercion
prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the d. light coercion
imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations 273.When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is
or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner. made by another, what crime is committed?
a. Police brutality a. grave threat
b. Sadism
c. Maltreament of prisoners b. light threat
d. Physical injures c. graver coercion
d. light coercion
263.This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or 274.Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything
make immoral advances to a woman under his custody or belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the
to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative same to the payment of a debt, is committing.
within the same degree by affinity of any person in the a. grave threat b. light threat
custody of a warden or officer. c. light coercion d. graver coercion
275.It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means
a. Sexual harassment of force, violence or intimidation to do something against
b. Abuses against chastity his will, whether right or wrong.
c. Acts of Lasciviousness
d. Abuse of authority a. grave threat
264.Takes place whenever a person is killed during a b. light threat
confusion attendant to quarrel among the several persons c. grave coercion
not continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be d. light coercion
ascertained. 276.It includes human conduct, which although not productive
a. homicide of some physical or material harm would annoy any
b. murder innocent person
c. death caused by tumultuous affray a. light threat
d. riots b. light coercion
c. unjust vexation
265.Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing d. grave coercion
the death of their unborn child is guilty of: 277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with
a. parricide intent to gain by means of violence against, or
b. abortion intimidations upon things of any person, or using force
c. intentional abortion upon anything.
d. unintentional abortion a. robbery
266.A formal and regular combat previously concerted b. theft
between two parties in the presence of two or more c. brigandage
seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the d. estafa
selection of arms and fix all other conditions. 278.A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the
a. riot owner, what crime was committed?
b. duel a. a theft
c. tumultuous affray b. robbery
d. mutilation c. possession of pick locks
267.It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a d. possession of false key
woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the
latter of its true.
a. physical injury 279.A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors
b. duel who form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in
c. tumultuous affray the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of
d. mutilation extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to
268.What crime is committed by person who assaulted be attained by means of force & violence.
another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two a. Robbery
weeks? b. kidnapping
a. mutilation c. brigandage
b. serious physical injury d. d. theft
c. less serious physical injury 280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but
d. slight physical injury without violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon
269.Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a things shall take personal property of another without
child less than 12 years old. latter’s consent.
a. rape a. robbery
b. acts of lasciviousness b. kidnapping
c. seduction c. brigandage
d. abduction d. theft
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away d. territory
the furniture of her employer would be charged of what 293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit
crime? where the power of the court is exercised and which is
a. theft jurisdictional in criminal case.
b. robbery a. Venue
c. qualified theft b. Jurisprudence
d. estafa c. jurisdiction
282.Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the d. court
property would be large when surveyed is a crime of: 294.It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
a. estafa a. Original jurisdiction
b. chattel mortgage b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. usurpation c. concurrent
d. altering boundaries or landmarks d. appellate jurisdiction
295.It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
others.
283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake a. Original jurisdiction
of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil b. Exclusive jurisdiction
motive. c. appellate jurisdiction
a. swindling d. concurrent jurisdiction
b. destruction of property
c. malicious mischief 296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines
d. chattel mortgage crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their
284. What crime was committed by a married woman having punishment?
carnal knowledge with a man not her husband? a. civil law
a. adultery b. procedural law
b. concubinage c. criminal law
c. acts of lasciviousness d. substantive law
d. seduction 297.The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT:
285.A married man who allows his paramour to live in their a. Act 3815
conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime? b. City and municipal ordinance
a. adultery c. Special penal laws
b. concubinage d. constitution
c. acts of lasciviousness 298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of
d. seduction criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on?
286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not a. January 1, 1923
amounting to rape by using force or intimidation. b. January 1, 1932
a. adultery c. December 8, 1930
b. concubinage d. January 1, 1933
c. acts of lasciviousness 299.The following are characteristics of classical theory of
d. seduction criminal law, EXCEPT:
287.A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will
penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what and the purpose of the penalty is retribution.
crime? b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
absolutely free will to choose between good and
a. rape evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect
b. seduction or result of the felonious act than the man.
c. forcible seduction c. there is scant regard to the human element.
d. acts of lasciviousness d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and
288.Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do
girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation.
was committed? 300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are
a. seduction acts committed or omitted in violations of special laws?
b. acts of lasciviousness a. felony
c. abduction b. offense
d. none of the foregoing c. misdemeanor
289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces d. in fractional law
of jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding.
The latter however, pawned the said jewelries and 301.Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of
misappropriated the same. What would be the proper criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states
offense committed by Luz? that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or
a. swindling sojourn in the Philippines?
b. theft a. Generality
c. robbery b. Territoriality
d. malicious mischief c. Prospective
290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an d. Retroactive
absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption
against members of the family from criminal ability in 302.The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality,
crimes against properties. EXCEPT:
a. Robbery a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
b. theft b. Those who are immune under the law of
c. malicious mischief preferential application
d. estafa c. Those who are exempted under Public
291.It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and International law
prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime. d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
a. Criminal procedure
b. Criminal jurisprudence 303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
c. rules of court Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city
d. rules of procedure ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the
292.It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
cases. loitering?
a. Jurisdiction
b. b. Jurisprudence a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
c. Venue
 b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of produces the injury without which the result would not
criminal law have occurred.
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of a. Proximate cause
the law b. Intervening cause
d. No, for a did not loiter again c. Immediate cause
304.Under what characteristics of criminal law the above d. Probable cause
circumstance falls? 316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of
a. Generality physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT
b. Territoriality a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were
c. Prospective inflicted was in normal heath.
d. Retroactive b. The death may be expected from the physical
305. What legal maxims support the above scenario? injuries inflicted.
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time.
a. Pro reo Principle d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of
b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege the victim.
c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea 317.The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT:
d. Actus me invitusfactus non a. That the act performed would be an offense
against persons or property.
306.Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot b. That the act was done with evil intent
be criminal unless the mind is criminal”. c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible,
a. Pro reo or that the means employed is either inadequate
b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege or ineffectual.
c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea d. That the act does not constitute a crime of
d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus negligence or imprudence.

307.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its 318.X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he
essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a
judicial determination of guilt. sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he
a. Ex post facto law commit?
b. Bill of attainder a. Mistake in the blow
c. Retroactive law b. No crime committed
d. Prospective c. preaterintentionem
308.The following persons are exempt from criminal liability d. impossible crime
under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
a. Heads of states 319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may
b. ambassador deem proper to repress and which is not punishable by
c. ministers of plenipotentiary law, it shall:
d. charges d affaires
e. None of the choices a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
309.Crimes committed within the territorial water of another the Chief Executive, through the Department of
country can either be triable in that country or in the Justice
country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
that a crime committed on board vessel shall be NOT Executive, through the Department of Justice.
tried in the court of the country having territorial
jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
security of the territory or the safety of the state is the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
endangered. d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
a. French rule Justice of the Supreme Court.
b. American Rule 320.This takes place when the offender commences that
c. Spanish Rule commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not
d. English Rule perform all the acts of execution which should produce the
310.Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his
the external world. own spontaneous desistance.
a. act a. Consummated
b. Omission b. Frustrated
c. Dolo c. Attempted
d. Culpa d. Impossible crime
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____. 321.A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
a. Deceit shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury,
b. Fault what crime is committed by A?
c. Culpa a. Physical Injury
d. Intent b. Frustrated Homicide
c. Attempted Homicide
312. Things which are wrongful in their nature. d. Less serious physical injury
a. evil
b. mala in ce 322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious,
c. mala in se EXCEPT:
d. mala prohibita a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
313. The moving power which impels one to action for a b. All the acts performed would produce the felony
definite result. as a consequence but the felony is not produced.
a. intent c. By reason of causes independent of the will of
b. motive the perpetrator.
c. deceit d. Due to some cause or accident other than his
d. fault own spontaneous desistance.

314.The following are crime committed by mistakes which
does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. PreaterIntentionem
d. Mistake in fact
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous
sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause,
323.Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of
her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the
stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and
administer an antidote causing Mr. William to survive but
left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
a. Frustrated parricide
b. b.attempted parricide
c. serious physical injury
 d. less serious physical injury 334.Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of
324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
from the point where the offender begins the commission a. Liable for the crime of theft
of the crime to that point where he has still control over his b. Liable for the crime of robbery
acts including their (acts) natural course. c. Not liable for the crime of theft
a. Subjective Phase d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
b. Objective Phase 335.The following circumstances exempt a person from
c. Internal Act criminal liability though there is civil liability considering
d. Act of Execution that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining a. Minority
stage of execution of felony? b. Accident
a. Nature of the offense c. Imbecility/Insanity
b. Elements constituting the felony; d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
c. Manner of committing the felony e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable
d. Intent in committing the crime fear of an equal or greater injury.
326.A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the 336.The following are exempted from criminal liability,
Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe- EXCEPT:
house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What a. Children 15 years of age below
crime was committed by A,B, and C? b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
a. Illegal Assembly discernment
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
c. Attempted Robbery d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
d. No crime discernment.
327.A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in 337.Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon
their secret safe house. While they are planning how to commission of a crime?
commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and a. Those 15 years of age and below
arrested the group. b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
b. No crime was committed d. Those who are 18 years of age
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere
conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable 338.Are those where the act committed is a crime but for
d. Attempted robbery reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty
e. Frustrated robbery imposed.
328.Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the a. Justifying circumstances
capital punishment or penalties which in any of their b. Mitigating circumstances
periods are: c. Absolutory cause
a. light d. Exempting circumstances
b. correctional 339.X was charged before the court. During the pendency of
c. afflictive his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death on
d. reflective the case involved and on his criminal liability?
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his
laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied? criminal liability is extinguished.
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal
a. The RPC shall be observed liability is not extinguished.
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws. c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law resurrection.
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the relatives will be the one to face trial and punished
RPC in case of his conviction.
330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a 340.Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause.
person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
committed has been freely and consciously done and may a. Spontaneous desistance
therefore be put down to the doer as his very own. b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal
a. Guilt liability by reason of relationship
b. Liability c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical
c. Responsibility injuries under exceptional circumstances
d. Imputability d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft
331.Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with swindling and malicious mischief by relationship
the law, so that such person is deemed not to have to the offended party
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and e. All of the choices
civil liability. 341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all
a. justifying circumstances crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism.
b. mitigating circumstances a. generic
c. exempting circumstances b. specific
d. aggravating circumstance c. qualifying
d. Inherent
332.The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT 342.C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
a. Unlawful aggression. her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to committed aggravated by what circumstances?
prevent or repel it. a. ignominy
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the b. passion
person defending himself. c. cruelty
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending d. Craft
himself. 343.Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for
333.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single
the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the individual and is usually granted to certain classes of
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or persons usually political offenders, who are subject to trial
negligent. but not yet convicted.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating a. Pardon
c. Exempting b. Commutation
d. Aggravating c. Parole
 d. Amnesty b. 15 years
344.The law which prohibits the imposition of the death c. 10 years
penalty? d. 5 years
a. RA 6981 357.Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe
b. P.D. 968 in how many years?
c. R.A. 9346 a. 20 years
d. R.A. 4103 b. 15 years
345.How do you call an offender who within a period of ten c. 10 years
(10) years from the date of his release or last conviction of d. 5 years
the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), 358.Light offenses prescribe in:
Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any of a. 12 months
the said crimes a third time or offener? b. 6 months
a. Recidivist c. 4 months
b. Quasi recidivist d. 2 months
c. Reiteration
d. habitual delinquent 359.A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this
346.The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B
of alternative circumstances, except: and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is
a. Low degree education concerned, the crime committed by A is:
b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not a. Attempted murder
intended it or not a habitual drunkard. b. frustrated murder
c. Relationship in crimes against property c. illegal discharge of firearm
d. Relationship in crimes against persons d. all of these
347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of 360.In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is:
a crime. a. frustrated homicide
a. principals b. murder
b. accessories c. consummated homicide
c. accomplice d. none of the above
d. instigators 361.X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide
348.A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is (consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion
regarded as: Perpetua.
a. principal by direct participation
b. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. principal by induction He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment.
d. instigators Determine his penalty.
349.The desire or wish in common thing a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to
a. intent Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the
b. motive maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
c. conspire b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to
d. cooperate Reclusion temporal (any period) as the maximum
350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the period of the indeterminate penalty
murder of another person is liable as: c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to
a. principal reclusion perpetua as maximum
b. accessory d. Prision mayor
c. accomplice 362.X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated)
d. conspirator punishable by prision correctional. There was one
351.Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime
property to meet the fine. let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty.
a. subsidiary penalty a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to
b. suspension Prision correctional (maximum period) as
c. penalty maximum period of the indeterminate penalty.
d. d.civil interdiction b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to
Prision correctional (any period) as maximum
352.In cases where in the commission of an offense is period of the indeterminate penalty
necessary in the commission of another it is said the crime c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as
is: maximum period
a. formal crime d. None of the above
b. informal crime
c. compound crime 363.Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a
d. complex crime crime.
353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of a.15-18 years old
penalties. b.18-70 years old
a. degree c.9 years old and below
b. period d.between 9 and 15 years old
c. prescription 364.Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
d. duration execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
354.A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period a.Accomplices
defined by law subject to the termination by the parole b.Suspects
board at any time after service of the sentence. c.principal actors
a. Suspension d.accessories
365.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to
b. indeterminate sentence execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time
c. prescription fixed by law.
d. period of penalty a.prescription of crime
355.The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall b.prescription of prosecution
prescribe in how many years? c.prescription of judgment
a. 15 years d.prescription of penalty
b. 1year
c. 10 years 366.A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of
d. 5 years penalty is suspended.
356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and a.Pardon
reclusion temporal shall prescribe in: b.commutation
a. 20 years c.amnesty
 d.reprieve b. Murder
c. Parricide
367.Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to d. Manslaughter
secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the 377.What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
society. a. Principal by direct participation
a.mala prohibita b. Principal by induction
b.mala in se c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c.private crimes d. Accomplice
d.public crimes 378.What about Mr. C. Goddard?
368.Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have a. Principal
acted together in the commission of a crime. b. Accomplice
a.gang c. Accessory
b.conspiracy d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c.band
d.piracy 379.What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?
369.The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound a. Principal
to. b. Accomplice
a.Negligence c. Accessory
b.imprudence d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c.omission 380.The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
d.act a. Obedience to a lawful order
370.Ways and means are employed for the purpose of b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or
trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of performance of duty
his criminal plan. c. A person who acts under compulsion of an
a.Misfeasance irresistible force
b.entrapment d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
c.inducement 381.The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio
d.instigation without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
EXCEPT:
371.The following are exempted from criminal liability, a. Seduction
EXCEPT: b. Rape
a. Children 15 years of age below c. Abduction
b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons d. Acts of Lasciviousness
c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
discernment
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without 382.What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal
discernment property belonging to another is committed with grave
372.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for abuse of confidence?
the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the a. Robbery
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or b. Qualified Theft
negligent. c. Theft
a. Justifying d. Burglary
b. Exempting
c. Mitigating 383.What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of
d. Aggravating murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
373.When a public officer convinces a person to commit a a. Murder
felony and would arrest him or her after its commission he b. Illegal Possession of firearm
is committing. c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
a. instigation d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
b. entrapment
c. conspiracy 384.If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a
d. proposal person in a manner that is determined and constant until
374.It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
depending upon what the law provides and cannot be a. Threat
offset by any aggravating circumstances. b. Grave threat
a. Mitigating Circumstances c. Coercions
b. Exempting circumstances d. Light threat
c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances 385.When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the
375.Crimes are classified in various categories. What offended party does not amount to a crime the designation
classifications of crime is when a single act results to or of the offense is called
more serious or less serious offenses. a. Threats
a. Continuing Crime b. Grave threats
b. Complex crime or delito complejo c. Light Threats
c. Special complex crime d. Coercion
d. Compound crime or delito compuesto 386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the
same is liable for:
376.Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
vacation and the only way to reach the island is to ride a d. all of the choices.
boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the 387.If a private person removes a person confined in jail or
owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other
allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price. Mr. means, the crime committed is:
Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R. a. Evasion of service of sentence
Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s c. Delivery of prison from jail
Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. What was d. corruption of public official
the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger? 388.Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
a. Homicide b. 4 months
 c. 6 months
d. 2 months
389.X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
390.Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. treason
b. conspiracy to commit treason
c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
391.To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of
persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in
the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties
which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said
authorities within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 18
d. 48
392.Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads
are allowed under the following circumstance.
a. Amendments as to substance
b. Amendments as to form
c. Amendments that change the nature of the
offense
d. None of these
393.The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil
liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply
in the following instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil action
b. When the offended party reserves the right to
institute separate civil action
c. When the offended party institute the criminal
action
d. When the offended party institute the civil action
prior to the criminal action.
394.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. Before the arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference
c. Before the prosecution rest
d. Before the prosecution present evidence
395.The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the
criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396.The petition for suspension of the criminal action based
upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action
may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Office of the prosecutor
d. None of these
397.Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required
before the filing of a complaint or information where the
penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
398.The following may be submitted by the respondent in a
preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents
399.The following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation on cases falling within their
jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
d. Judges of Municipal trial court
400.An offense which under the law existing at the time of its
commission and of the application for admission to bail
may be punish with death is called:
a. Capital punishment
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense
d. Grave offense
401.The court may dismiss the case on the ground of
insufficiency of evidence:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior
leave of court
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution
an opportunity to be heard
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only
402.Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben
which was snatched from him three days ago. He
confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone
against his will. For what crime or crimes may Manuel be
liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
a. Coercion
b. Robbery
c. Threats
d. Theft
403.The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other
than where the case is assigned.
404.Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense
and the evidence of guilt is strong.
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
405.Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under
the custody of the law. It should be made at:
a. Anytime of the day
b. anytime of the day and night
c. Anytime of the morning
d. d. anytime of the night
406.It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with
kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy:
a. Charivari
b. Grave scandal
c. Alarm and Scandal
d. Harana
407.The application for search warrant may be filed with the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a
crime was committed.
b. Any court within the judicial region where the
crime was committed
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the
warrant shall be enforced
408.An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first
level court shall be by:
a. Notice of appeal
b. by Petition for review
c. Petition for review on certiorari
d. Petition for certiorari
409.After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be
dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by:
a. The courts own initiative
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer
to evidence
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
d. a and b only
410.Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the
escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail
guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the
escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked
and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was
committed by the Warden?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
 b. Direct Bribery a. Complaint
c. Delivery of prison from jail b. Information
d. corruption of public official c. Pleadings
411.What Crime can be charged against the guard who d. Affidavit
connives with the prisoner? 422.Prescription of offense commence to run:
a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners party or peace officers or their agent.
c. Delivering prisoner from jail b. Upon filing of cases in court
d. A and B c. Upon escape of the accused
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
412.A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral
or indecent advances to a woman who is under his 423.The following are cases covered by rules on summary
custody or wife or daughter of the person under his procedure EXCEPT:
custody shall be liable for: a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
a. Acts of lasciviousness b. Violation of traffic laws
b. Abuses against Chastity c. Violation of rental laws
c. Indirect Bribery d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6)
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners months imprisonment
424.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
413.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of assist destitute litigant?
evidence which means that evidence must have such a. Counsel de officio
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its b. counsel de parte
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is c. Public Attorney’s Office
____________? d. National Prosecution Office
a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
b. That it is material to the facts in issue 425.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
c. That it is credible and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
d. That it is the best evidence under his control at the trial of an action.
414.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible a. subpoena
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except: b. subpoena duces tecum
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to c. subpoena ad testificandum
establish the probability or improbability of the d. warrant of arrest
fact in issue. 426.The order of trial is:
b. When it is competent a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
c. When it is credible b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
based on other related evidence. d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
415.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
on what requisites of admissibility? 427.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
a. materiality mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
b. competency device to assist him in testimony.
c. relevancy a. Testimonial aids
d. credibility b. Emotional security items
416.It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the c. support item
trier of facts because of its logical connection with the d. none of these
issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or 428.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
bearing to the question? of examination of a child, if the same will further the
a. material interest of justice.
b. relevant a. leading questions
c. competent b. misleading
d. credible c. relevant
417.The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by d. narrative
imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become 429.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
permanent ________ after issuance of the order without evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
the case having been revived. a. Matters of Public Knowledge
a. One year b. The measure of time
b. six months c. Law of nations
c. Two years d. Law of nature
d. three years 430.Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise
418.Within how many days after arraignment and from the of its discretion, EXCEPT.
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the a. The geographical divisions
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? b. Matter which are of public knowledge;
a. 30 days c. Matters capable of unquestionable
b. 20 days demonstration; or
c. 15 days d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of
d. 60 days their judicial functions.
419.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare 431.Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites.
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? These requisites are:
a. 15 days a. The matter must be one of common and general
b. 30 days knowledge.
c. 20 days b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not
d. 180 days doubtful or uncertain
420.The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial c. It must be known to be within the limits of the
Court is called? jurisdiction of the court.
a. R.A. 7691 d. All of the choices
b. R.A. 3019 432.Self incriminatory statement falling short of an
c. R.A. 8493 acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of
d. B.P. 129 the proceeding in the same case which does not require
421.Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any proof.
peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of a. Admission
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of b. self serving statement
the prosecutor. c. declaration against interest
 d. confession
433.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the _____.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
434.What are secondary evidence?
a. Certified true COPY of a
document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
435.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol evidence Rule
b. b. parol evidence
c. Best Evidence Rule
d. Secondary Evidence
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving,
can make known of their perception to others can be
witness and the following shall not be a ground for
disqualification.
a. Religious and political belief
b. Interest in the outcome of the case
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided
by law
d. All of the choices
437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and
Benefit program and for other purposes.
a. R.A. 6981
b. R.A. 6646
c. P.D.749
d. R.A. 6770
438. No person may be compelled to testify against his
parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege.
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. res inter alois acta rule
e.
439.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
injury.
d. In criminal cases
440.A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of
a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
a. not admissible in evidence against the accused
who made the plea of offer.
b. admissible in evidence against the accused who
made the plea of offer
c. shall not be considered an plea
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
441.The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by
the rules of court.
a. Res inter alios acta rule
b. admission by co-partner
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or
saying anything when an act or declaration is
said against him in his presence.
442.The following are the requirements in determining child’s
competency as a witness EXCEPT:
a. capacity of Observation
b. capacity of Recollection
c. capacity of Communication
d. capacity to Comprehend
443.Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made
by several person charged with the same offense and
without the possibility of collision among them, the fact
that the statements are in all respects identical is
confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and
are admissible against the other persons implicated
therein.
a. interlocking confessions
b. res inter alios acta rule
c. admission by privies
d. confession by co-defendant
444.An act or declaration made in the presence and within the
hearing or observation of a party who does or says
nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for
action or comment if not true, and when proper and
possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence
against him.
a. admission by silence
b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by privies
445.Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule?
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts
which he knows of his personal knowledge; that
ism which are derived from his own perception.
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence
in court
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the
authority of another person.
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to
facts of which the witness has no personal
knowledge because it is derived from the
knowledge or perception of others who are not
called to testify.
446.The declaration of a dying person, made under the
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of
such death.
a. Dying declaration
b. res gestae
c. declaration against interest
d. declaration about pedigree
447.Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the
amount of evidence required by law.
a. burden of evidence
b. burden of proof
c. proof of evidence
d. cause of action
448.A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia
anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides
that a crime committed while on board of the vessel.
a. French rule
b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
guardianship.
a. subsidiary penalty
b. penalty
c. suspension
d. civil interdiction
450.It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual
relationship to a married man. This statement is?
a. True
b. false
c. It depends
d. Partly false
451.The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
a. death by lethal injection
b. reclusion perpetua
c. reclusion temporal
d. prison mayor
452.It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual
relationship to a married woman.
This statement is?
a. True
 b. false 464.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by
c. It depends imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any
e. Partly false amount or both shall become permanent after ____.
a. one year
453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or b. 2 years
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by c. 5 years
which ideas are represented on material substances. d. 4 years
a.documentary evidence 465.Within how many days after arraignment and from the
b.testimonial evidence date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the
c.material evidence accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
d.real evidence a. 30 days
454.When the witness states that he did not see or know the b. 15 days
occurrence of a fact. c. 20 days
a.positive evidence d. 60 days
b.corroborative evidence
c.secondary evidence 466. How many days are given to an accused person to
d.negative evidence prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
455.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry a. 15 days
and render judgment after a fair trial. b. 20 days
a.ex post facto law c. 30 days
b.equal protection of the law d. 180 days
c.rule of law 467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
d.due process of law the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
investigation except?
456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
which is intended. b. Judge MTC/MCTC
a. Aberratio ictus c. Regional State Prosecutor
b. Error in personae d. Public Attorney’s office
c. Dura Lex Sed lex e. b and d
d. Praeter Intentionem 468.A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
457.If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
shall be entered. of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. Not guilty a. R.A. 7438
b. admission by silence b. R.A. 7348
c. guilty c. R.A. 7834
d. none d. R.A. 3478
458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
following circumstances:
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
b. plea of guilty to capital offense 469.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
d. all of these principle also known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
459.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a b. the right to presume innocent
motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint c. rights against self- incrimination
or information and the details desired in order to enable d. right to live
him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is 470.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
known as: pleading are prohibited except:
a. motion for bill of particular a. motion to quash
b. motion for clarification b. bill of particular
c. motion to dismiss c. answer
d. motion for postponement d. demurred to evidence
460.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be 471.The following cases committed by public official with
suspended on the following grounds: salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
a. The accused appears to be suffering from jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
unsound mental condition. a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
b. There exist a prejudicial question. 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the of the RPC
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
of the President . connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
d. All of the choices 14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
461.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by their office.
an accused is: d. None of the choices
a. Motion to quash 472.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
b. Nolle pro sequi instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
c. Motion to dismiss provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances
d. bill of particulars can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and separated?
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite b. When the offended party reserves his right to
period from the commission of the offense. institute the civil action;
a. Prescription of crime c. When the institution of the civil action is made
b. acquisitive prior to the criminal action.
c. prescription of penalty d. all of the choices
d. extinctive
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the 473.Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were
second time. surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
a. double jeopardy government projects and for their relocation. The residents
b. double trial oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents,
c. double trouble slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the latter came
d. double counter near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her
 but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. c. 20 days
For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation d. 180 days
to Mayor Alden? 483.Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
a. Sedition prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
b. Slander by Deeds a.Parents
c. Direct Assault b.Offended Spouse
d. Rebellion c.Guardians
d.God father
474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT: 484.Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons
a. The assault is committed with a weapon of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty
imposed.
b. The offender is a public officer or employee a.impossible crimes
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in b.aggravating circumstances
authority c.absolutory causes
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a d.complex crimes
person in authority
e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad 485.An act which would be an offense against persons or
without public uprising. property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
475.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an accomplishment.
individual or as a member of some court or government a.compound crime
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____? b.impossible crime
a. Agent of a person in authority c.complex crime
b. Judicial authority d.accidental crime
c. person in authority 486.The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
d. Public employee a.RA 5425
476.It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously b.RA 8553
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such c.RA 7659
person, while engaged in the performance of official d.RA 9346
functions. 487.The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a
a. Direct assault person as its owner or author
b. Indirect Assault a.responsibility
b.duty
c.guilt
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National d.imputability
Assembly 488.Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies
authority or the agents of such person beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable
477.The following are crimes classified as public disorders, consequences.
EXCEPT. a.fortuitous event
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order b.fate
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful c.accident
utterances d.destiny
c. Alarms and scandals 489.Known in other countries as the body of principles,
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails practices, usages and rules of action which are not
e. None of the choices recognized in our country.
478.Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun a.penal laws
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating b.special laws
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___? c.common laws
a. illegal discharge of firearm d.statutory laws
b. alarm & scandals 490.Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent
c. disturbances of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an
d. outcry act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced liability there is civil liability
prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow a.Exempting
the escape of her brother is guilty of what crime? b.alternative
a. Evasion of service of sentence c.justifying
b. delivering prisoners from jail d.aggravating
c. Bribery 491.Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in
d. Corruption of public official accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal
and civil liability.
480.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion a.exempting
of service of sentence. b.alternative
a. By means of unlawful entry c.justifying
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs d.aggravating
or floors. 492.When the offender enjoys and delights in making his
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
violence or intimidation. unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the
criminal act.
d. Through connivance with other convicts or a.Ignominy
employees of the penal institution. b.cruelty
e. All of the choices c.treachery
481.Within how many days after arraignment and from the d.masochism
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the 493.One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? been previously convicted by final judgment of another
a. 30 days crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal
b. 20 days Code.
c. 15 days a.Recidivism
d. 60 days b.habitual delinquency
c.reiteracion
482.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare d.quasi-recidivism
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
a. 15 days 494.Alevosia means
b. 30 days a. Craft
 b. treachery a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
c. evident premeditation establish the probability or improbability of the
d. cruelty fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
495.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
and render judgment after a fair trial. based on other related evidence
a. ex post facto law 506.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
b. equal protection of the law a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
c. rule of law on what requisites of admissibility?
d. due process of law a. a. materiality
b. relevancy
496.A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his c. competency
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less d. credibility
serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or 507.Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or
falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
third time or oftener. a. negative
a. Recidivist b. affirmative
b. quasi-recidivist c. positive
d. Alibi
508.An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove
c. habitual delinquent the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
d. hardened criminal supplementary to that already given and tending to
497.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which strengthen or confirm it.
is intended. a. Corroborative
a. Aberratio ictus b. Associative
b. Error in personae c. Commulative
c. Dura Lex Sed lex d. Credible
d. Praeter Intentionem 509.Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the
logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record,
exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral certainty
498.It means mistake in the blow. of the guilt of the accused or that degree of proof which
a. Aberratio Ictus produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
d. Praeter Intentionem b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
499.A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for c. Preponderance of evidence
its execution and accomplishment are present. d. Substantial evidence
a. Attempted 510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
b. Frustrated sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to
c. Consummated establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions
d. Accomplished of innocence to warrant a conviction.
500. An act or omission which is the result of a a. Prima-facie evidence
misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not b. Preponderance of evidence
intentional. c. Rebuttal evidence
a. Absolutory Cause d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy 511.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
d. Felony evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining a. Matters of Public Knowledge
in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of b. Law of nation
fact? c. The measure of time
a. Evidence d. Law of nature
b. Facts 512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of
c. Proof its discretion, EXCEPT:
d. Burden of proof a. The geographical divisions
b. Matter which are of public knowledge
502.It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. c. Matters capable of unquestionable
It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of demonstration; or
action? d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of
a. Factum probandum their judicial functions.
b. Evidence
c. factum probans 513.When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request
d. proof of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow
503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of
otherwise provided by law or these rules. a material issue in the case?
a. the same in all courts and in all trials and a. after the trial
hearings b. before judgment
b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and c. on appeal
hearings d. all of the choices
c. dependent on the type of case involved 514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of
and hearings the proceeding in the same case which does not require
504.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of proof.
evidence which means that evidence must have such a. Admission
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its b. declaration against interest
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____? c. self-serving statement
a. That it should not be excluded for by law 515.Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the
b. That it is material to the facts in issue court.
c. That it is credible a. Real or Object
d. That it is the best evidence b. Testimonial
505.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible c. Documentary
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except: d. Direct
516.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original
documents itself. This refers to the ___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
517.What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed
orunder cannot be produced in court, without bad
faith on the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined in
court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of the public officer or is recorded in a
public office.
e. All of the choices
518.When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or
cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of
its execution or existence and the cause of its
unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its
contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some
authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in the
order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519.When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or
cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on
the part of the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under
the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce
it after reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined in
court without great loss of time and the fact
sought to be established from them is only the
general result of the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the
custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
public office
e. All of the choices
520.What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
521.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
than the contents of the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522.It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a
party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to
the terms of the written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523.On which of the following circumstances parol evidence
can be accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
imperfection in the written agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to
express the true intent and agreement of the
parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the
parties or their successors in interest after the
execution of the written agreement.
524.The following are qualifications for discharged of a person
to be state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of
the accused whose discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
proper prosecution for the offense committed
except the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be
substantially corroborated in its material points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted
of an offense involving moral turpitude;
525.R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank
deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not
examined or inquired or looked into by any person or
government officials, EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber,
dereliction of duty of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is
the subject matter of litigation
e. in cases of well explained wealth
526.No person may be compelled to testify against his parents,
other direct ascendants, children or other direct
descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. declaration against Parental relationship
527.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT:
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
injury
d. In criminal cases
528.It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of
facts.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d. Cumulative evidence
529.It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or
uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition
affirmed.
a.secondary evidence
b.prima facie evidence
c.corroborative evidence
d.best evidence
530.A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
a.documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence
d.real evidence
531.When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence
b. corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence
d. negative evidence
532.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
and render judgment after a fair trial.
a.ex post facto law
b.equal protection of the law
 c.rule of law impossibility of its accomplishment.
d.due process of law a. Mala in se
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of b. mala prohibita
criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on? c. Impossible crime
a. January 1, 1923 d. Formal crimes
b. January 1, 1932 545.It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and
c. December 8, 1930 not an essential element of a crime but would tend to
d. January 1, 1933 establish the identity of the perpetrator.
a. Intent
534.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which b. Motive
is intended. c. Negligence
a. Aberratio ictus d. ignorance
b. Error in personae 546.The following are causes which would produce criminal
c. Dura Lex Sed lex liability though the result be different from what is
d. Praeter Intentionem intended, EXCEPT:
535.Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, a.Abberatio ictus
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment? b.Error in Personae
a. Act 3815 c.Preater intentionem
b. Criminal Law d.Ignorantia Facti
c. Revised Penal Code
d. Criminal Procedure 547.The offender performs all the acts of execution that would
produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not
536.Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn produced by reason of causes independent of the will of
in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious the perpetrator.
affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by: a. Attempted
a. Treaty Stipulation b. Consummated
b. Public International Law c. Frustrated
c. Law of Preferential Application d. Formal Crimes
d. All of the choices
537.By Principles of Public International law, the following 548.Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a
enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine single act.
Criminal law, EXCEPT: a.formal crimes
a. Consul b.formal felonies
b. Heads of State c.informal crimes
c. Ambassador d.material crimes
d. d. Minister de affaires 549.It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement
538.Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or to commit a felony and decide to commit it.
forbidding it: a. Proposal
a. Crimes b. Conspiracy
b. Felonies c. A & B
c. Offense d. Cuadrilla
d. Infractions of law 550.A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall
be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service
539.Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the
liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a
retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised proclamation announcing the passing away of the
Penal Code. calamity.
a. Eclectic a. Good Conduct Time Allowance
b. Classical Theory b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
c. Positivist Theory c. Executive Clemency
d. Neo-Classical Theory d. Indeterminate Sentence

540.The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial 551.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to
jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality Principle execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time.
and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime a. Prescription of Crime
committed on board vessels affects the national security of b. Prescription of Penalty
the Country where such vessel is located. c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
a. French Rule d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
b. English Rule commission of crime
c. Spanish Rule 552.The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute
d. Greek Rule the offender after the lapse of certain time.
541.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its a. Prescription of Crime
essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a b. Prescription of Penalty
judicial determination of guilt. c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
a. Ex post facto law d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
b. Retroactivity commission of crime
c. Bill of attainder 553.It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction
d. Prospective and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed
542.Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
Dolo or Deceit? a. Parole
a. Intent b. Pardon
b. Freedom c. Probation
c. Intelligence d. Amnesty
d. Negligence 554.Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole
543.These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself Law.
but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act a. Act No. 4103 as amended
which it prohibits. b. RA No. 4103 as amended
a. Crime c. RA No. 4225 as amended
b. Felonies d. PD No. 968 as amended
c. Mala in se 555.What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59)
d. Mala Prohibita a. Arresto Menor
544.Is that act performed which would be an offense against b. Arresto Mayor
persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal c. Prision Correctional
 d. Prision Mayor
556.It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s 567.Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from
sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the criminal liability, EXCEPT:
most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no a. Natural brother/ sister
case to exceed 40 years. b. Legitimate brother/ sister
c. Adopted brother/ sister
a. Three-fold rule d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
b. Three-fold liability rule e. Brother in a fraternity
c. Four-fold rule 568.One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the
d. Four-fold liability rule principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the
557.In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts,
same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day of with the intention of supplying material or moral aid in the
subsidiary imprisonment. execution of the crime in an efficacious way.
a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
b. Principal by inducement
a. Php 8.00 c. Accomplice
b. Php 12.00 d. Accessory
c. Php 35. 00 569.Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the
558.It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of commission of the crime.
Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a a. Principal by inducement/ induction
party in litigation. b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
a. Costs c. Principal by direct participation
b. Fine d. Principal by conspiracy
c. Damages
d. Civil liability 570.Who are criminally liable?
559.Who may grant pardon? a. Principals
a. The President b. Accomplices
b. The private offended party c. Accessories
c. The accused d. All of the choices
d. The People of the Philippines 571.Those which must be taken into consideration as
560.If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and
same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, effects of the crime and the other conditions attending its
the credited preventive imprisonment is commission.
a. Fulltime credit a. Extenuating
b. 4/5 credit b. Mitigating
c. 2/3 credit c. Alternative
d. 1/5 credit d. Aggravating
561.Period of detention undergone by an accused where the 572.It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the
crime with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to injury
bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39) or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks
a. Solitary confinement the moral conscience of man.
b. Preventive imprisonment a. Cruelty
c. Inmate incarceration b. Ignominy
d. Suppressive Detention c. Outraging
562.A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of d. Scoffing
parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3) 573.Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex
The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A
dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their
inter vivos. Children?
a. Absolute disqualification a. Maybe NO
b. Temporary disqualification b. Yes
c. Bond to keep the peace c. No
d. Civil interdiction d. Maybe YES
563.It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a 574.The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing
certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming information respecting the national defense with intent, or
near that place designated in the sentence, not less than there is reason to believe that information is to be used to
25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers. the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to the
a. Transportation advantage of any foreign nation.
b. Deportation a. Treason
c. Destierro b. Rebellion
d. Extradition c. Espionage
d. Mutiny
564.Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except: 575.Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are
a. Capital punishable under
b. Afflictive a. BP No. 616
c. Correctional b. PD No. 616
d. Slight c. CA No. 616
e. Light d. RA No. 616
565.Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the
imposition of penalty: 576.Committed when two countries are at war of which the
a. Retribution or expiation Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the
b. Correction or reformation regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality.
c. Social defense a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
d. Public Rataliation b. Violation of neutrality
c. Correspondence with hostile country
566.The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a d. Flight to enemy’s country
person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is 577.A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy
against the law. country despite government prohibition is liable of this
a. Penalty crime.
b. Ordeal a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
c. Fine b. Violation of neutrality
d. Imprisonment c. Correspondence with hostile country
 d. Flight to enemy’s country 589.To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of
578.Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
intention of universal hostility. sentence
a. Mutiny b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
b. Piracy sentence
c. Sea-jacking c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
d. Hi-jacking indeterminate sentence
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
579.The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go sentence
from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a 590.What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the a. Codigo Penal
populace. They demanded from the government to b. Code of Kalantiao
release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop c. Code of Hammurabi
raping. Are they liable for terrorism? d. Maragtas Code
a. Yes 591.How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
b. No a. Liberally in favor of the government
c. Doubtful b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
d. No answer c. Liberally in favor of the accused
580.Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention? d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
a. Detaining a person without legal ground 592.Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the requires the highest condemnation of the society.
proper authorities a. Crimes mala prohibita
c. Delaying release b. Crimes mala in se
d. Illegal Detention c. Crimes supersedeas
581.A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who d. Crimes flagrante delicto
detains a person without legal ground. 593.This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction
a. Arbitrary detention over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the involve the internal management of the vessel.
proper authorities
c. Delaying release a. American Rule
d. Illegal Detention b. English Rule
e. No crime c. French Rule
582.A crime committed by a private individual who detains a d. Filipino Rule
person without legal ground.
a. Arbitrary detention 594.Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to
proper authorities appear as amicus curiae’
c. Delaying release a. Champertous contract
d. Illegal Detention b. Amicus curiae
583.Committed by a public officer who detains a person for c. Amicus curiea
some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the d. Champertuos contract
proper authority w/n the prescribed time. 595.A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses
a. Arbitrary detention of litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be
proper authorities won or recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical
c. Delaying release for the lawyer and hence illegal.
d. Illegal Detention a. Champertous contract
b. Amicus curiae
584.A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays c. Amicus curiea
the release of a person in his custody in spite of a judicial/ d. Champertuos contract
executive order to release him. 596.The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts
a. Arbitrary detention based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty
proper authorities party.
c. Delaying release a. contempt
d. Illegal Detention b. forum shipping
585.A public officer who without authority compels a person to c. forum shopping
change his residence is guilty of d. direct contempt
a. Grave Coercion 597.It is a small ceremonial mallet  commonly made of hardwood,
b. Grave Threat and a symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the
c. Expulsion capacity of a chair or presiding officer.
d. Violation of Domicile a. Gavel
586.A public officer who procures a search warrant without just b. Hammer
cause is liable of c. Wood hammer
a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
b. Warrant maliciously obtained 598.The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of
c. Searching domicile without witnesses all judges and it is called as.
d. Violation of Domicile a. Black robes
587.An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the b. Black toga
Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace c. Black dress
officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal property d.White robes
described therein and bring it before the court. 599.It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a
a. Warrant of Arrest particular day usually placed or posted outside the
b. Search Warrant courtroom.
c. Subpoena a. Court calendar
d. Summons b. Supreme Court calendar
588.In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the c. School calendar
appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly d. Schedule calendar
a. Accepted 600.Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court
b. Determinate or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it.
c. Sensitive a. contempt
d. Unreliable b. direct contempt
 c. indirect contempt 613. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow
d. disobedience of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom
organization.
601.A-2 in Intelligence report means? a. Audit
a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by b. Coordination
other sources c. Monitoring
b. completely reliable source and is d. Authority
Probably true 614.PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available
c. completely reliable source and is information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
Usually reliable Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by a. anti – juvenile delinquency
other sources b. criminal investigation
602.Seeing ahead and making sound assumption? c. intelligence operations
a. prioritizing d. patrol activities
b. foretelling 615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
c. forecasting a. promote better police-citizen interaction
d. documenting b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report
writing
603.This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest c. improve administration efficiency particularly in
of criminal syndicate member? recruitment and selection
a. investigation a. increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate
b. intelligence members
c. crime search 616.PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
d. patrol evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
604.Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get a. information is usually from a reliable source and
information and would be managed to get back? is possibly true
a. mercenary b. information is usually from a reliable source and
b. none is improbable
c. penetration c. information is usually from a reliable source and
d. assassin is probably true
605.Which of the following is the oldest warning device? d. information is usually from a reliable source and
a. trumpet is doubtfully true
b. siren 617.PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report
c. horn evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
d. radio a. information is usually from a reliable source and
606.The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is is possibly true
called? b. information is usually from a reliable source and
a. tear down is improbable
b. eviction c. information is usually from a reliable source and
c. squadron is probably true
d. demolition d. information is usually from a reliable source and
607.H refers to the importance of the establishment with is doubtfully true
reference to the national economy and security?
a. risk analysis 618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as
b. relative critically provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551?
c. risk assessment a. Police retirables requesting for extension of
d. relative vulnerability service.
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified
608.There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in by the appropriate government agency.
2011. What was the percent increase? c.Government employees wishing to transfer to
a. +27.3% the PNP
b. +23.7% d.Graduates of Criminology
c. +37.2% 619.Plans which require action or assistance from persons or
d. +32.7% agencies outside the police organization.
609.In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA: a. management plans
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance b. operational plans
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance c. tactical plans
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance d. extra-department plan
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance 620.Protection of classified document concerning their
610.The importance of the firm or installation with reference to preparation, classification, reproduction, handling,
the national economy or security: transmission, disposal and destruction.
a. Relative security a. document security
b. Relative necessity b. operational security
c. Relative criticality c. physical security
d. Relative vulnerability d. organizational security
611. These are the major courses of action that the 621.What is the system of natural or man-made barriers
organization plans to take in order to achieve its placed between the potential intruder and the objects,
objectives. persons and matters being protected?

a. Procedures a. document security

b. Strategies b. communications security
c. Plans c. physical security
d. Objectives d. personnel security
612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but 622.Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of
they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on the operation used in the planning and objects, persons and
high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal matters being protected?
requirement of acceptance. a. military intelligence
a. Democracy b. strategic intelligence
b. Functional authority c. combat intelligence
c. Line authority d. counter-intelligence
d. Staff authority 623.The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can
be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date information
 about crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment c. unity of command
of: d. span of control
a. patrol base headquarters 635.What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
b. crime information center a. information comes from an unreliable source
c. management information center and is probably true
d. public information office b. information comes from a fairly reliable source
624.Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to and is confirmed by other sources
________ on the entire police organization, community, c. information comes from an unreliable source
crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc. and is improbable
a. costs d.information comes from an unreliable source
b. data and is doubtfully true
c. plans 636.Under physical security, what should be placed between
d. statement the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
625.New employees should be briefed on security rules and c. Risk
regulations of the organization and the importance of d. Barrier
observing them. This process is called: 637.Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he
a. security information meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
b. security reminders June 1999?
c. security orientation a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
d. security investigation b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the
626.What plans require action or assistance from persons or age requirement
agencies outside the police organization? c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
a. tactical plan d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
b. extra department plan requirement
c. management plan 638.A police officer who manages a police station must use all
d. all of these of the following skills, EXCEPT.
627.This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding a. conceptual
citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the b. technical
would be violators. c. interpersonal
a. double-officer patrol d. communication
b. single-officer patrol 639.The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in
c. low visibility patrol sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
d. high visibility patrol a. formulation of details of the plan
628.The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct b. recognition of the need to plan
contact is called _______? c. setting up planning objectives
a. oxidation d. gathering and analysis of data
b. convection 640.In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
c. conduction a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
d. radiation b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
629.How is one classified if he steals primarily because of d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
chance of detection? 641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in
a. systematic pilferer order to increase physical protection of establishment or
b. ordinary pilferer installations.
c. casual pilferer a. top tower
d. unusual pilferer b. top guard
630.An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate c. cellar guard
Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of d. tower guard house
the nation appeal. 642.What is the next planning step after the need to plan is
a. fifty recognized?
b. twenty a. evaluate alternatives
c. thirty b. formulate the objective
d. sixty c. execute the plan
631.In the intelligence functions, the black list includes d. analyze the data
________ forces. 643.This type of patrol performs certain specific,
a. unwanted predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and
b. friendly systematic basis.
c .neutral a. apprehension-oriented patrol
d. unfriendly b. low visibility patrol
632.The first step in the planning process is to recognize the c. split-force patrol
need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to d. directed deterrent patrol
discovering the need to plan? 644.Among the following applicants for appointment to the
a. conduct of research police service, who may be automatically granted height
b. conduct of training waiver?
c. conduct of inspection a. government employees wishing to transfer to
d. conduct of management audit the PNP
633.The special formations used in crowd control include the b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by
wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is small the appropriate government agency
enough not to require a squad, then the formation is: c. police retirables requesting for extension of
service
a. diagonal d. graduate of criminology
b. wedge 645.The following changes must be made in police operating
c. deployed line procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel are
d. clockwise to be employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT.
634.634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol
controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to officers simply make a brief report and return to
ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the patrol duties rather than complete their
organization is reached. investigations
a. scalar principle b. patrol officers should be better trained and
b. exception principle equipped to conduct routine investigations
 c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote a. investigation report
more time to the investigation of crimes to which b. case disposition report
they respond c. follow-up report
d. the patrol supervision should be able to d. crime report
provide the patrol officer with assistance in 657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up
determining whether a case has sufficient merit for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are then
to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by made available for emergency and the more active and
the patrol officer widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their
646.The more complex the organization, the more highly presence, thus, promoting the impression of -
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for: a. suspensions
a. cleaner delineation of functions b. effectiveness
b. coordinating authority c. omnipresence
c. strictly line discipline d. efficiency
d. finer division of supervision 658.What is the importance of a firm or installation in the
647.The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that relation to national security referred to?
patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined a. relative security
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis. b. relative necessity
a. low-visibility patrol c. relative criticality
b. directed deterrent patrol d. relative vulnerability
c. split force patrol 659.When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the
d. apprehension-oriented patrol method is called ____________.
648.PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only a. radiation
to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of b. oxidation
_______________. c. convection
a. unity of command d. conduction
b. delegation of authority 660.The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to
c. span of control attend meeting in Malacañang.
d. report to immediate superior a. white list
b. black list
649.PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of c. target list
amusement and entertainment known to be habitually d. access list
visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III 661.The attestation function over police appointment is vested
Alta’s undercover assignment is called. in the:
a. multiple assignment a. Civil Service Commission
b. social assignment b. National Police Commission
c. work assignment c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. dwelling assignment d. Department of Interior and Local Government
650.Which of the following statements is FALSE? 662.Selling security within the organization sets and maintains
a. classified information must not be discussed by a climate of _______ to the appreciation of the
one friends and members of the family department’s objectives.
b. classified information should be known only by a. participation
one person b. clear
c. cabinets with classified documents must be c. understanding
secured with padlocks and security measures at d. collaboration
all time 663.Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
651.Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is June 2002?
usually known as: a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
a. force field analysis requirement
b. Delphi technique b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the
c. simulation model age requirement
d. forecasting c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
652.These regulations establish the specifications of uniform d. Yes, he meets the maximum education
and the manner in which they are to be worn: requirement
a. personnel transaction regulations 664.What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is
b. firearms regulations “the information comes from a completely reliable source
c. uniform regulations and is probably true”?
d. equipment regulations a. B-2
653. b. A-2
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas c. A-3
projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention d. A 1
strategy. 665.In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total
a. police omnipresence crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime
b. police effectiveness volume is attributed to physical injuries?
c. police discretion a. 18.7%
d. police authority b. 20.7%
654.Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a c. 25.7%
police officer? d. 4.8%
a. personnel integrity and honesty 666.SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered
b. physical stamina and bearing as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is the
c. courageous type of evaluation?
d .high intelligence a. A-5
655.In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the Police b. A-1
Station of Municipality A. If the population of Municipality is c. A-4
5 Million, what is the crime rate? d. A-2
667.It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are
a. 3509 recognized and that established deterrents remain
b. 4010 necessary and cost effective.
c. 4250 a. inspection
d. 4009 b. interrogation
656.If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a c. risk analysis
result of the first investigation, a _________ report should d. evaluation
be submitted.
668.What type of patrol performs certain specific, 680.What management principle provides that only one officer
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and be in direct command or supervision of each officer.
systematic basis? a. span control
a. split-force patrol b. unity of command
b. low visibility patrol c. chain of command
c. apprehension-oriented d. line of authority
d. directed deterrent patrol 681.What is referred to as total number of police officers
669.A patrol beat refers to a: assigned to patrol duties?
a. Number of crimes to be solved a. effective strength
b. Number of residents to be protected b. mandatory strength
c. Location of police headquarters c. actual strength
d. Geographical area to be patrolled d. authorized strength
670.It is importance of installation in relation to national 682.When police patrols are increased beyond normal levels,
security. this is called ________?
a. relative criticality a. reactive patrol
b. relative indispensability b. directed deterrent patrol
c. relative security c. citizen patrol
d. relative vulnerability d. proactive patrol
671.It is the formal process of choosing the organization 683.What is the method of collection of information wherein the
mission and overall objective both the short and long term investigator tails or shadows the persons or vehicles?
as well as the divisional and individual objectives based on a. Research
the organizational objectives. b. Surveillance
a. planning c. Casing
b. organizing d. Photography
c. directing 684.Before a security expert can recommend what type of
d. managerial decision-making security will needed by an industrial establishment, there
672.A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the is a need for him to undertake a :
anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for a. security training
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a b. security check
certain location. c. security survey
a. stake out d. security education
b. cops and robbers game 685.When one procures information about subject secretly; he
c. follow up is performing _______ collection method.
d. surveillance a. routine
673.How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division b. overt
organized into shifts for each duty? c. active
a. daily four-shift d. covert
b .daily five-shift 686.Under this principle, each group reports to an individual
c. one shift-daily who is part of a supervisory group that answers to a higher
d. daily three-shift supervisor and so on until a group of administrators report
674.The formulation of conclusions from the theory developed, to the chief executive.
tested and considered valid as a result of interpretation is a. unity of command
called. b. span of control
a. collection c. scalar principle
b. integration d. aggregation
c. evaluation 687.Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern?
d. deduction a. clockwise
675.In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If b. zigzag
the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were c. criss-cross
murder incidents? d. stationary
a. 250 688.To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when
b. 2,500 they infiltrate and gather information about criminal
c. 500 syndicates?
d. 5,000 a. Budget
676.The more complex the organization, the more highly b. Planning
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for: c. Intelligence
a. cleaner delineation of functions d. Patrol
b. coordinating authority 689.Which of the following statement is TRUE?
c. strictly line discipline a. Performance evaluation measures credibility
d. finer division of supervision of the police personnel.
677.The following questions are tests for accuracy of b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
information, EXCEPT: salary increases of promotion.
a. Does the report agree or disagree with available c. Performance evaluation is done once a year
and related intelligence? among police personnel.
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance d. Performance evaluation is implemented to
c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus determine the quality of work performance of
operandi? personnel.
d. Is the information about the target or area of the 690.Line units such as the patrol section or investigation
operation? section in police stations prepare their work programs in
678.Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or which areas are called ___.
lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize the a. Budget
disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer b. Management
must prepare a: c. Operational plans
a. guard deployment plan d. Tactical plan
b. security education plan 691.What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to
c. civil defense plan capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of actions
d. disaster or emergency plan of foreign nations?
679.It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic a. combat intelligence
areas so that they can easily be controlled. b. national intelligence
a. Coercion c. police intelligence
b. Quarantine d. strategic intelligence
c. Conversion 692.How are coded messages converted to intelligible
d. Containment language?
 a. Encoding b.the information comes from a completely
b. Processing reliable source and is probably true
c. Labeling c.the information comes from a usually reliable
d. Decoding source and is and is probably true.
693.The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are d.the information comes from a usually reliable
applied for a longer time and are considered as the most source and is possibly true
different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most 705.It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the
rewarding. plan?”
a. casing a. objectives
b. undercover operation b. planning assumptions
c. penetration c. problems
d. surveillance d. planning environment
694.As Security Director of Company B, you should know how 706.The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following
many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury organizational features, EXCEPT:
situation and how many ________ patients can be a. Unified delivery of services
processed at a single time. b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
a. Wounded c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
b. Emergency d. Unity of direction
c. Female 707.Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are
d. Male properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the
695.A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is following cannot be undertaken by them?
determined through a process called _________. a. He can locate and question the suspect if he
a. security training apprehends him.
b. He can identify available evidences.
b. security education c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
c. security promotion d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
d. security investigation policemen.
696.696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and 708.It is a physical security applied to business groups
lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol engaged in industries, like manufacturing, assembling,
techniques? research and development, processing, warehousing and
a. decoy patrol even agriculture.
b. high visibility patrol a. operational security
c. directed patrol b. industrial security
d. low visibility patrol c. physical security
697.What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a d. special types
designated location and under specific circumstances? 709.It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned
a. management plans with the physical measures to prevent unauthorized
b. tactical plans access.
c. operating plans a. operational security
d. procedural plans b. industrial security
698.What type of organization consciously coordinates the c. physical security
activities of two or more persons towards a given d. special types
objective? 710.Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of
a. flexible organization the facility caused by human action, accidental or
b. formal organization intentional.
c. informal organization a. security hazards
d. non-flexible organization b. man-made hazard
699.Who among the following meets the age qualification for c. natural hazard
appointment to the police service? d. all of the above
a. Rey who is 20 years old 711.Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused
b. Dennis who is 17 years old damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
c. John who is 22 years old functioning of human activities, including security.
d. Santi who is 35 years old a. security hazards
700.The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary b. man-made hazard
object in order to gain information is called: c. natural hazard
a. undercover works d. all of the above
b. penetration 712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the
c. casing national economy and security.
d. surveillance a. relative criticality
701.If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of b. relative vulnerability
bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from: c. all of the above
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be d. non of the above
controlled 713.One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away
b. an explosion any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire a. pilferer
d. a toxic and irritant gas b. casual pilferer
702.Which of the following is not included in the patrol c. systematic pilferer
function? d. intruder
a. Response to citizen calls 714.. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of
b. Investigation of crimes an installation to restrict or impede access thereto.
c. Routine preventive patrol a. natural barrier
d. Inspection of identified hazards b. man-made barrier
703.Disaster preparedness and control plans should include c. perimeter barrier
_______ so that people who are directly involved know the d. physical security
extent of the incident. 715.. It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with
a. evacuation services mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and
b. identification services made or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
c. counseling services a. clear zone
d. public information services b. bodies of water
704.An intelligence report classified as A-2 c. building wall
means__________. d. wire fence
a.the information comes from a completely
reliable source and is doubtfully true
716.. It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the a. doppler effect
height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is b. duress code
placed to attain the minimum height requirement. c. peterman
a. clear zone d. fail safe
b. bodies of water 730.. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its
c. building wall validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
d. wire fence a. dry run
717.. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the b. run through
perimeter barrier. c. controlling
a. clear zone d. fire drill
b. bodies of water 731.. It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
c. building wall damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
d. wire fence hazard.
718.. He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security a. relative criticality
guards. b. relative vulnerability
a. Chief, PNP c. all of the above
b. Mayor d. non of the above
c. Governor 732.. It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of
d. Secretary, DILG which does not have the same value as the original
719.. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on records.
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward with a. useful records
a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed wire. b. vital records
a. topping c. important records
b. top guard d. non-essential records
c. all of the above 733.. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
d. non of the above irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
720.. Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it a. casual pilferer
give psychological effect to violators. b. ordinary pilferer
a. guard towers c. systematic
b. tower guards d. unusual pilferer
c. guard house 734.. The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and
d. guard post the temperature is lowered below the burning point.
721.. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and a. smothering
management officials before security survey is conducted. b. starving
a. pre- security survey c. cooling
b. post- security survey d. all of the above
c. entrance conference 735.. It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the
d. exit conference increase of room temperature, and which automatically
722.. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy operates the system to put out the fire.
and deficiency in all aspects of security. a. wet pipe system
a. security inspections b. automatic sprinklers
b. security survey c. dry pipe system
c. special survey d. stand pipe system
d. supplemental survey 736.. These fire results from the burning of wood, paper,
723.. It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
and its relevance to their work. a. Class “A” Fires
a. security education b. Class “B” Fires
b. security indoctrination c. Class “C” Fires
c. security training d. Class “D” Fires
d. security awareness 737.. Private Security Agencies must be registered at what
724.. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security government agency.
allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof. a. DTI
a. controlling b. PNP
b. access list c. CSC
c. exclusion area d. LGU
d. controlled area
725.. Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction 738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of
control. temporary license.
a. restricted area a.100
b. exclusion area b.1,000
c. controlled area c.50
d. coverage factor d.200
726.. A restricted area containing materials or operation of 739.. The regular security guard license is good for how many
security interest. years?
a. restricted area a. 1 year
b. exclusion area b. 2 years
c. controlled area c. 6 months
d. coverage factor d. 3 years
727.It is the key elements in the security survey system of a 740.. It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
plant or installation. a. P1,000,000.00
a. security guard b. P500,000.00
b. human guard c. P100,000.00
c. company guard d. non of the above
d. agency guard 741.. It is the required minimum number of guards to operate
728.. It is a term used in England for lock pickers, company security forces.
safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or a. 30
areas. b. 200
a. doppler effect c. 50
b. duress code d.100
c. peterman 742.. A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much
d. fail safe amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance company.
729.. A term applied to a device or system that in the event of a. P50,000.00
failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled. b. P100,000.00
 c. P150,000.00 c. GSU
d. P200,000.00 d. CSF
743.. PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how 756.. It is a security force maintained and operated by the
many firearms for use of its security guards. private company/corporation for its own protection and
a. 10 security requirements 
b. 20 a. PDA
c. 30 b. PSA
d. 70 c. GSU
744.. PSAs who have been applying for regular license to d. CSF
operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed 757.. It is a security unit maintained and operated by any
firearms. government entity other than military or police.
a. 10 a. PDA
b. 20 b. PSA
c. 30 b. GSU
d. 70 c. CSF
745.. The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a d.PAD
basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly licensed 758.. It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
firearms. a. PADPAO, Inc.
a. 20 b. SAGSD
b. 12 c. SEC
c. 50 d. PNP
d. 25 759.. It is a government agency involved in the supervision of
746.. This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs.
security guards. a. PADPAO, Inc.
a. 20 b. SAGSD
b. 12 c. SEC
c. 50 d. PNP
d. 25 760.. It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of
747.It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
allowed to use high powered firearms; except one. a. 25 years
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality b. 30 years
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery c. 35 years
c. transporting big amount of money d. 20 years
d. providing security to VIPs 761.. It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be
748.. The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA.
many percent of the total number of guards employed. a. 100
a.5% b. 200
b.10% c. 1,000
c.15% d. 50
d.20% 762.. What is the minimum number of guard requirements in
749.. These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or the operation of branch offices of PSA.
security guard, EXCEPT: a. 20
a. high school graduate b. 30
b. physically & mentally fit c. 10
c. 18 to 50 years of age d. 40
d. without pre-licensing training 763.. __________ are included in the category of in-house
750.. There are two different ways in which security guards are guards.
hired or employed, the company guard and the other one a. government guards
is: b. private security agency
a. government guards c. propriety guards
b. private security agency d. all of the above
c .propriety guards 764.. It is charge with the directing the work and observing the
d. in-house guards behavior performance of the men under his unit.
751.. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and a. security guard
Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs. b. security supervisor
a. PD 603 c. watchman
b. EO 292 c. security officer
c. RA 5487 765.. The following items must be stipulated in the security
d. PD 968 service contract, EXCEPT:
752.. They are any person who offers or renders personal a. money consideration
service to watch or secure either residential or business b. number of hours of security service
establishment or both. c. salary of the security guard
a. private detective d. commission of the operator
b. security guards 766.. It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any
c. propriety guards applicant who failed to submit the complete requirements
d. company guards in the renewal of license.
753.. Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, a. cancellation
but involved in detective work. b. revocation
a. private detective c. nullification
b. security guards d. suspension
c. propriety guards 767.. It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout
d. company guards the Philippines.
754.. It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission, a. Private Scty. Law
conducts or carries on or holds himself out in carrying b. RA 5487
detective works. c .IRR of RA 5487
a. PDA d.all of the above
b. PSA 768.. It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as
c. GSU provided by R.A. 5487.
d. CSF a. suspension of license
755.. It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private b. cancellation of license
corporation that employs any watchman or guards. c. all of the above
a. PDA d. non of the above
b. PSA
 783.. They have the authority to conduct inspection to
769.. It is the established rules and regulations in the operation PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
of GSUs, EXCEPT: a. C, SAGSD
a. registration at SAGSD b. C, ROPD
b. registration at CSG c. PD, PPO
c. both A & B d. SAGSD Officer
d. registration at SEC 784.. These are authorized to conduct investigation on all
770.. Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
__________ to exercise profession at SAGSD. PDAs.
a. permit a. C, ROPD
b. authority b. Inves. Comm., CSG
c. registration c. all of the above
d. license d. none of the above
771.. How many days prior expiry month of license shall 785.. It must be avoided by the private security personnel,
require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations. either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
a. 60 days a. direct contact
b. 30 days b. indirect contact
c. 45 days c. confrontation
d. 15 days d. carrying of firearms
772.. Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the 786.. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or
accredited testing centers within how many days after the _________ the members of the agency in case of
date of examination. emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days a. organize
c .45 days b. incorporate
d.15 days c. utilize
773.. Moribund but previously licensed security agency, d. deputize
means: 787.. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. dying PSA a. Intelligence
b. viable PSA b. Police Community Relation
c. new PSA c. Civil Security Group
d. renewing PSA d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
774..It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as 788.. Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
security officers, guards, and operators. a. Chief of Staff, AFP
a. physical & mental examination b. Secretary of the DILG
b. medical & dental examination c. Secretary of National Defense
c. physical agility test examination d. Chief of the PNP
d. drug test examination 789.. It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in
775.. Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom? the PNP.
a. DILG a. MNSA
b. C, PNP b. Master’s Degree
c. PD, PPO c. OSEC
d. RD, PRO 3 d. BS Degree
776.. Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom? 790.. Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551
a. PSAs Operators to remove from the PNP, police officers who are-
b. CSF Managers a. inefficient
c. all of the above b. ineffective
d. non of the above c. unproductive
777.. It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the d. all of the choices
C, PNP. 791.. The nature of which, the police officer is free from
a. closing reports specific routine duty is the definition of -
b. opening reports a. “on duty”
c. participants b. “special duty”
d. name of course c. “leave of absence”
778.. It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs. d. “off duty”
a. displayed 792.. An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is
b. carried called-
c. registered a. post
d. all of the above b. unit
779.. Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in c. sector
the industrial security management. d. section
a. Kabit System 793.. The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in
b. Illegal Operation the PNP is-
c. Merger of Security a. Very Satisfactory
d. Moribund Security b. Fair
780.. It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing c. Outstanding
temporary license to operate. d. Poor
a. pre-inspection 794.. The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and
b. post-inspection receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How much
c. inspection will be his Longevity Pay?
d. continuing inspection a. 5,000 pesos
781.. It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted b. 7,500 pesos
to the applicant agency. c. 10,000 pesos
a. regular license d. 12,500 pesos
b. temporary license 795.. SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He
c. license to operate had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his
d. permit to operate longevity pay?
782.. These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by a.Php4, 200
the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT: b. Php5, 000
a. serious offense c. Php6, 500
b. light offense d. Php7, 000
c. grave offense 796.. A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
d. less grave offense a. division
 b. unit c. 1.57 m
c. section d. 1.54
d. department 811.. The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can
797.. The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
promoted to PO2 or PO3. a. Officers Basic Course
a. PSJLC b. Officers Candidate Course
b. PSOBC c. Officers Advance Course
c. PSOOC d. Senior Leadership Course
d. PSBRC 812.. What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel
798.. Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he under the waiver program?
could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- a. permanent
a. 1 year b. contractual
b. 3 years c. temporary
c. 2 years d. probationary
d. 5 years 813..The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
799.. An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is
called- a. Western Police District
a. beat b. NCRPO
b. sector c. Southern Police District
c. route d. Central Police District
d. post 814.. The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
800.. The system used in PNP promotions is called- a. Director General
a. Performance b. Chief Superintendent
b. Seniority c. Deputy Director General
c. Palakasan d. Director
d. Merit 815.. The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
801.. The directorate who is in charge of supplies and a. TCDS
equipments of PNP is- b. DDG for Administration
a. logistics c. DDG for Operations
b. comptrollership d. none of them
c. intelligence 816..The national headquarters of the PNP is-
d. plans a. Camp Dangwa
802.. What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional b. Camp Crame
Director? c. Camp Aguinaldo
a. 4 years d. Fort Bonifacio
b .5 years 817.. The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
c. 6 years a. recognition of good work
d. 9 years b. gives officers high morale
803.. The period of time in the present rank in permanent c. gives higher pay
status is called- d. all of the choices
a. Time-In-Grade 818.. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
b. Length of Service a. recruitment falls on summer
c. Seniority in rank b. qualified applicant falls below quota
d. Plantilla position c. ordered by the President
804.. The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and d. none of them
“deodorant” of the PNP is called- 819.. Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru-
a. Personnel Records Mgt. a. medical examination
b. neuro-psychiatric examination
b. Research Development c. physical fitness examination
c. Police Community Relation d. drug test
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt. 820.. Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
805.. The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into a. 20 to 36 years old
how many districts? b. 19 to 36 years old
a. four c. 21 to 35 years old
b. six d. 20 to 35 years old
c. five 821.. What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be
d. seven qualified a the C, PNP?
806.. A functional group within a section is called- a. Director
a. division b. Superintendent
b. route c. Chief Superintendent
c. unit d. Director General
d. sector 822.. The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who
807.. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is- passed any licensure examination administered by the
a. Intelligence Professional Regulations Commission is-
b. Police Community Relation a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
c. Comptrollership b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt. c. Republic Act Nr. 6975
808.. Which of the following is not an administrative support d. Republic Act Nr. 8551
unit? 823.. The highest award given to a PNP member is-
a. Special Action Force a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
b. Civil Security Group b. Medalya ng Kagitingan
c. Police Security and Protection Office c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
d. all of the choices d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
809.. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP 824.. What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program?
members who want to be promoted to- a. 10 months
a. SPO4 b. 18 months
b. SPO3 c. 12 months
c. SP01 d. 24 months
d. PO3 825.. When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and
810.Under the general qualifications for appointment in the Reorganization Act?
PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least- a. 1992
a. 1.62 m b. 1996
b. 1.64 m c. 1994
 d. 1998 d. PNP
826.. What law was amended by RA 8551? 840.. What is the basis for promotion that includes the length
a. RA 7659 of service in the present rank?
b. RA 6425 a. Merit
c. RA 6975 b. Superiority
d. RA 9165 c. Time-In-Grade
827.. Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total d. Age
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB 841.. In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered
must be established? continuous service of-
a. two a. 10 years
b. four c. 15 years
c. three b. 20 years
d. five d. 25 years
828.. What is the lowest administrative penalty? 842.. What is the length of service before a PNP member
a. Forfeiture of Pay would be qualified for optional retirement?
b. Restricted to Specified limits a. 5 years
c. Witholding of Privilege b. 10 years
d. Admonition c. 15 years
829.. It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under d. 20 years
the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S. Degree 843.. A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and
according to RA 8551? extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called-
a. 4 years a. Regular
b. 6 years b. Permanent
c. 5 years c. Temporary
d. 7 years d. Meritorious
830.. It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP 844.. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
Member can be attrited. authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
a. 5 years commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
b. 15 years legitimate purposes.
c. 10 years a. Clear Zone
d. 20 years b. Public Place
831.. It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB). c. Police Checkpoint
a. lump sum d. Pre-Determined Area
b. pension 845.. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or
c. gratuity in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
d. allowance cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s
identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
832.Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to criminal activity.
as- a. Frisking
a. citizens complaint b. Search
b. grave misconduct c. Spot Check
c. breach of internal discipline d. Pat-down Search
d. none of them 846.. A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in
833.PLEB is composed of how many person? the performance of duty is called-
a. 3 a. Regular
b. 5 b. Posthumous
c. 4 c. Temporary
d. 6 d. None of them
834.. How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the 847.. Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
Chief, PNP? criminologist who applied and selected will have the initial
a. four years rank of -
b. six years a. Senior Inspector
c. five years b. Inspector
d. nine years c. SPO4
835.. How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief, d. Chief of Inspector
PNP if extended? 848.. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
a. not more than 1 year Superintendent is vested in the-
b. not less than 2 years a. Chief, PNP
c. more than 1 year b. President
d. none of them c. Civil Service Commission
836.. The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam d. NAPOLCOM
passers is- 849.. When can the President extend the tenure of service of
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 the Chief, PNP?
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 a. after 4 years
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551 b. there is no successor
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975 c. during martial law
837.. The agency that administers all the mandatory training d. national emergencies
for police officers is 850.. What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for
a. PPSC early retirement?
b. PNP a. two ranks higher
c. DHRDD b. one rank higher
d. NAPOLCOM c. his present rank
838.. Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP? d. one year gratuity
a. President 851.. Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
b. Chief, PNP a. Civil Service Commission
c. Sec. of DILG b. Congress
d. NAPOLCOM c. Commission of Appointment
839.. Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and d. NAPOLCOM
Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under 852.. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
Republic Act Nr. 8551? members who want to be promoted to-
a. NAPOLCOM a. SPO4
b. Civil Service Commission b. SPO1
c. Congress c. SPO3
 d. PO3 c. regular
853.. The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State d. ordinary
shall establish and maintain one police for which shall be- 868.. It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they
a. national in scope can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector.
b. civilian in scope a. Officer’s Basic Course
c. national in character b. Officer’s Advance Course
d. military in character c. Officer’s Candidate Course
854.. What is the meaning of PPSC? d. Senior Leadership Course
a. Phil. Public Safety Course 869.. How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP
b. Phil. Private Safety College National Office (NHQ-PNP)?
c. Phil. Public Safety College a. eleven
d. Phil. Private Safety Course b. ten
855..The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank c. nine
of Police Superintendent is called- d. twelve
a. MNSA 870.. Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the
b. OSEC confirmation of the:
c. MPSA a. Civil Service Commission
d. Master’s Degree b. NAPOLCOM
856.. He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary? c. Commission on Appointment
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen d. President of the Phil.
b. Gen. Rafael Crame 871.. The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
857..It is an association or group of individuals with a common c. The Chief Directorial Staff
goal. d. Regional Director of the NCR
a. Police organization 872.. The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM
b. Law enforcement group is located in what city?
c. Non-government organization a. Quezon City
d. Organization b. City Of Manila
c. Mandaluyong City
858.. Who is the Father of Modern Policing System? d. Makati City
a. Edwin Sutherland 873.. Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
b. Emile Durkhiem a. Chief, PNP
c. Sir Robert Peel b. Secretary, DILG
d. Leonard Keeler c. President of the Phil.
859..Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila? d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
a. Capt. George Curry 874.. The law that merges the police and Philippine
b. Capt. Henry Allen Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt a. R.A. 7659
d. Capt. Howard Taft b. R.A. 6975
860.. Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____. c. R.A. 8551
a. chastity d. P.D. 765
b. passion 875.. How many deputies do the PNP consist?
c. person a. one
d. mankind b. three
861.. What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of c. two
satisfactory service rendered? d. four
a. promotion 876.. How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the
b. longevity pay PNP Organization?
c. additional allowance a. fourteen
d. retirement benefits b. sixteen
862.. What is the lowest administrative penalty? c. Fifteen
a. reprimand d. Seventeen
b. admonition 877.. The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done
c. restriction how many times per year?
d. forfeiture of pay a. once
863..Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of b. thrice
Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______. c. twice
a. Chief, PNP d. four
b. Provincial Director 878.. MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is
c. Regional Director offered and administered by an institution known as-
d. PLEB a. PPSC
864.. Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where b. NAPOLCOM
the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced resignation c. National Defense Office
may be appealed before this body. d. National Defense College
a. Regional Appellate Board 879.. The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to
b. Office of the President SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
c. National Appellate Board a. Police Basic Course
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM b. Junior Leadership Course
865.. Which of the following composed the PNP? c. Senior Leadership Course
a. members of the INP d. Officers Candidate Course
b. members of the PC 880.. The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the
c. members of the PNP necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in the
d. all of the choices field is called-
866..What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? a.Finance Service
a. Deputy Director General b.Logistics Support Service
b. Police Director c.Computer Service
c. Police Chief Superintendent d.Communications & Electronics Svc
d. Police Senior Superintendent 881.. The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is-
867.. The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets a. SPO2
all the basic qualification for promotion is termed- b. SPO4
a. special c. SPO3
b. meritorious d. Inspector
882.. How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director? 894.. The following are functions in a police organization,
a. one EXCEPT:
b. three a. primary functions
c. two b. administrative functions
d. four c. secondary functions
883.. The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of d. auxiliary functions
1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is- 895.. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
a. Republic Act Nr. 6975 disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
b. Republic Act Nr. 7659 Patrol officer is:
c. Republic Act 8551 a. Conduct a complete search.
d. Presidential Decree 765 b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
884.. In the history of our police force, who was the first c. No further search may be made.
Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno supervisor.
b. Gen. Raul Imperial 896.. He is known as the father of modern policing system?
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez a. August Vollmer
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento b. Robert Peel
885.. The primary objective of Philippine National Police: c. Oliver Cromwell
a. Law Enforcement d. Cesare Lombroso
b. Peace and Order 897.. When responding to call for police assistance due to
c. Protect and Serve planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
d. Crime Prevention should the patrol officer will do?
886.. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
Quezon City. It was named after the 1 st Filipino Chief of b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further
the Philippine Constabulary. injury to happen.
a. Rafael Palma c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive
b. Cesar Nazareno Ordinance Disposal Team.
c. Rafael Crame d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
d. Emilio Aguinaldo procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
887.. Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years 898.. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed
old then. What year can Alden retire? Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
a. 2017 the PNP?
b. 2031 a. Inspector
c. 2032 b. Chief Inspector
d. 2022 c. Senior Inspector
888.. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the d. Superintendent
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national 899.. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in
security? the PNP?
a. The AFP operating through the area
commander is the one primarily responsible a. 1
on matters involving insurgency and other b. 3
serious treats to national security. c. 2
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role d. 4
towards insurgency and other serious treats 900.. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
to national security. a. Four star general
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the b. Director
AFP in insurgency-affected areas. c. Chief Superintendent
d. All of the choices d. Director General (PNP)
889.. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations 901.. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field a. 1:1000
operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest b. 1:1500
and investigation refers to c. 1:500
a. Field Procedure d. 1:7
b. Time Specific plan 902.. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the
c. Problem oriented plan __________.
d. Headquarters procedure a. DDG for operation
890.. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period b. Chief, Directorial Staff
______? c. DDG for administration
a. Not exceeding four years. d. Chief, PNP
b. Not exceeding five years. 903.. Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and
c. Not exceeding six years. function of the PNP?
d. Not exceeding three years. a. enforce all laws and ordinances
891.. The law that empowered the police commission to b. maintain peace and order
conduct entrance and promotional examination for police c. investigate and prevent crimes
members refers to: d. prosecute criminal offenders
a. RA 6040 904.. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word
b. RA 157 _______, which means government of the city.
c. RA 5487 a. politia
d. PD 765 b. Polis
892.. The theory of police service which states those police c. politeia
officers are servants of the people or the community refers d. Policy
to: 905.. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the
a. Old objectives of the organization will be attained.
b. Home rule a. planning
c. Modern b. Advancement
d. Continental c. police planning
893.. Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the d. Development
Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank 906.. It is the premier educational institution for the training,
upon entry? human resource development and continuing education of
a. Senior Inspector all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
b. Chief Inspector a. PPSC
c. Inspector b. RTS
d. none of the choices c. PNPA
 d. NPC d. All of the above
907.. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint 918.. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions
against the police officers. through unity of command from top to bottom of
a. IAS organization:
b. PNP a. Audit
c. PLEB b. Coordination
d. NAPOLCOM c. Monitoring
d. Authority
908.. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial 919.. Which of the following statements is true:
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the a.Performance evaluation measures credibility
PNP regional director: of the police
a. six b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for
b. Five salary increases or promotion
c. Three c.Performance evaluation is done once a year
d. four among police personnel
909.. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or d.Performance evaluation is implemented to
locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to provide determine the quality of work performance of
day-to-day services to the community. personnel
a. Patrol 920.. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for
b. Beat Patrol _______:
c. Line Patrol a. Administrative control
d. Area Patrol b. Operational supervision
c. Administration and control
910.. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of d. Policy and program coordination
____________? 921.. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same
a. Director General supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
b. Solicitor General a. delegation of authority
c. Inspector General b. span of control
d. IAS General c. unity of command
911.. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be d. chain of command
how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel? 922.. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the
a. one (1) Director General of the PNP is;
b. more than one a. 4 years
c. at least one b. 56 years
d. less than one c. 5 years
912.. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the d. 21 years
immediate things to do when accident occur? 923.. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
a. Cordon the area a. standard operation procedures
b. Go away and call your superior b. special operation procedures
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital c. standard operating procedures
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him d. special operating procedures
913.. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses 924.. The following are the characteristics of a good plan,
of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is except:
the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS? a. Flexibility
a. Dir. Alma Jose b. specific
b. Dir. Romeo Pena c. Clear
c. Dir. Sonny Razon d. expensive
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento 925.. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many
914.. All of the following are members of the People’s Law of the annual quota is allocated for women?
Enforcement Board, EXCEPT: a.10%
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace b.120
and Order Council from among the c.100
respected members of the community d.200
b. Any barangay captain of the 926.. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived
city/municipality concerned chosen by the in the following order:
association of barangay captains a. age, height, weight & education
c. Any member of the Sangguniang b. age, weight, height & education
Panglunsod c. height, education, weight & age
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated d. in any order
Bar of the Philippines 927.. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis
915.. Two or more persons forming an organization must provided by law.
identify first the reason for establishing such organization. a. attrition
They must identify the organization’s _________: b. separation
a. strategy c. romotion
b.mission d. Retirement
c.vision 928.. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not
d. objective be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum
916.. To improve delegation, the following must be done, age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry
EXCEPT: program is ____.
a. establish objectives and standards a. 35 years old
b. count the number of supervisors b. 25 years old
c. require completed work c. 30 years old
d. define authority and responsibility d. 31 years old
917.. The number of subordinates that can be supervised 929.. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members
directly by one person tends to: is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
a. Increase as the physical distance between among the following is exempted to undergo the Field
supervisor and subordinate as well as Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
between individual subordinate increases a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
and experience of the subordinate b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
c. Increase as the level of supervision Inspector via Lateral entry.
progresses for the first line supervisory level c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
to the management level Inspector after graduation.
 d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist shall be appealed to the__________:
and First Place in the Examination. a. Regional Appellate Board
930.. Planning as a management function is to b. National Appellate Board
be done in the various levels of PNP c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d.
Organization. Broad policy based from laws National Police Commission
directives, policies and needs in general is the 941.. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
responsibility of: a. R.A. 4864
a. Directorate for Plans b. R.A. 8551
b. President of the Philippines c. Act 175
c. Chief, PNP d. PD 765
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration 942..__________ is given to any PNP member who has
931.. What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
Director General in the Armed Forces of the life above and beyond the call of duty.
Philippines? A. Meritorious Promotion B.
a. Lt. General Special Promotion
b. Major General C. Regular Promotion
c. Brigade General D. On-the-Spot Promotion
d. General 943..PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed
932.. The Philippine National Police will recruit for failure to comply with the requirements can re-apply to
500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its the PNP?
quota. Who among the following applicants is A. Maybe Yes
qualified to apply? B.Maybe No
a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978 C..Absolutely Yes
b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980 D.Absolutely No
c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993 944..The reason why police officer appears in court as a
d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991 witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his
933.. Police Inspector Katunggali joined the respect to the court and to his:
Philippine National Police on October 1, A.Position/Rank
1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as B.Superior
embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so C.Profession
that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP D.Comrades
which he served with extreme commitment and 945..Which among the following is NOT subjected to field
loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire? Operational Plans?
a. October 5, 1998 A.Patrol
b. October 6, 1999 B.Records
c. September 5, 2010 C.Investigation
d. September 5, 2008 D. Traffic
934.. Which of the following administrative 946.. Which of the following statement is not true about patrol?
penalties is immediately executory? A.It is the backbone of the police department
a. Dismissal B.It is the essence of police operation
b. Forfeiture of pay C.It is the single largest unit in the police department
c. Suspension that can be eliminated
d. Death penalty D.It is the nucleus of the police department
E.It is the operational heart of the police department
947..The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
935.. It is the third in command in the Philippine National conducted:
Police: A.thrice a year
a. Regional Director B. Every 6 months
b. Chief Directorial Staff C.Every 2 years
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd. D. Quarterly
d. Deputy Chief for Operation 948.. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
936.. The head of the National Capital Regional disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
director with the rank of: pension equivalent to:
a. Chief Superintendent A50% of his last salary
b. Director B. 70% of his last salary
c. Superintendent C.60% of his last salary
d. General D. 80% of his last salary
937.. Under the waiver program, who among the following 949.. How many successive annual ratingperiods before a
PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment? police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b. performance?
Paloma who is under height A.2
c. Jauquinwho is underweight B.4
d. Alden who is overage C.3
938.. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known D.1
as____________.
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 950.. How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a
1990 police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government performance?
Act of 1990 A.2
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government B.4
Act of 1990 C.3
d.Department of the Interior and the Local D.1
Government Act of 1990 951..In this theory, management assumes employees may be
939.. SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00 ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It is
base pay since he was promoted. After five years believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical
from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay work duties.
after adding his longevity pay? A.Hawthorne Effect
a. 32, 690.00 B.Stockholm Syndrome
b. 37, 690.00 C.X theory
c. 30, 459.00 D.Y theory
d. 31, 549.00 952..The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
940.. Decisions rendered by the national IAS A.Edward H. Sutherland
 B.C. Edwin Hawthorne 964..Is that field of management which involves planning, and
C.Henry A. Landsberger controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward
D.Douglas McGregor achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and
953.In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in minimum use of administrative resources.
most modern practice, management assumes employees A.Human Resources
are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that B.Personnel Management
they inherently dislike work. As a result of this, C.Human Management
management believes that workers need to be closely D.Personnel Administration
supervised and comprehensive systems of controls
developed. 965.. Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an
A.Hawthorne Effect arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
B.Stockholm Syndrome accomplishment of a definite objective.
C.X theory A.Management
D.Y theory B.Functioning
954..This kind of organizational structure classifies people C.Budgeting
according to the function they perform in their professional D.Planning
life or according to the functions performed by them in the 966.. Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific
organization. circumstances and details with the following procedures.
A.Functional Structure A.Field Procedures
B.Line and Staff Structure B.Procedural plan
C.Line Structure C.Operational Plans
D.Divisional Structure D.Functional plan
955..If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 967.. Which of the following is not a function of police
30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint personnel unit?
against erring PNP member shall be filed at the A.Preparing policy statements and standard
A.Office of the chief of police operating Procedures relating to all areas of the
B.PLEB administration of human resources
C.Mayor’s Office B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other
D. any of the choices line officials regarding personnel matters
956..Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of officers to identify, and subsequently correct,
20 years active service unsatisfactory working conditions
A.50% D. Establish criteria for promotion to the
B.10% exclusive ranks
C.2.5%
D.55% 968..It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating
undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s
957..This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as selection criteria
drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the A. Promotion Recruitment
objective is accomplished or the problem is solved B.Transfer Selection
A.Strategic plan C.Recruitment
B.Time Specific plan D.Selection
C.Problem oriented plan 969..It is recognized as the best method of filing
D.time bound operational plan A.Pigeon Hole
958..This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on B.retrieval operation
routine and field operations and some special operations C.Records Management
A.Strategic plan D.chain of custody
B.Time Specific plan 970..It is considered to be the heart of any identification
C.Problem oriented plan system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
D. policy or procedural plan A.Arrest and booking report
959..The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____? B.Miscellaneous Records
A.Superintendent B. C.Identification record
Director D.Fingerprint Records
C.Senior Superintendent D. Chief 971..The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly
Superintendent salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
960.. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a how many year?
police officer is A.1 year B. 2
A.A ground for dismissal months
B.Not qualified for promotion C. 4 years
C.Automatically dismiss D.Not a D.2 years
bar to promotion 972..In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of
961..Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the hours of classroom training should be required for newly
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, promoted supervisory personnel
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, A.72 hours
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the B.80 hours
offenders to justice C.75 hours
A.Deployment D.85 hours
B.Reinforcement 973..It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
C.Reintegration individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
D.Employment motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of
962.. What is the first step in making a plan? professionalism/
A.Frame of reference Professionalization.
B.Analyzing the Facts A.Recruit Training
C.Collecting all pertinent data B.Specialized training
D.Identification of the problems C.In Service
D.Field Training
963..It identify the role of police in the community and future 974.. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing
condition in state the entire mandatory and other consideration in promotion,
A.Visionary Plans is what kind of promotion?
B.Strategic Plans A.Promotion by Virtue of Position B.
C.Synoptic Planning Regular Promotion
D.Incremental Planning
 C.Meritorious Promotion D. B.DTI
Promotion C.PADPAO
D. PNP, SAGSD
975..It involves assistance and action by non police agencies
such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD 987..To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility
for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness what must be constructed.
plans and Civil defense plans A.Full view fence
A.Management Plans B. Chain link fence
B.Procedural plan C. Solid fence
C.Tactical Plans D. Multiple fences
D. Extra departmental plan 988.. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of
976.. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award: issued with a-
A.Medal A.Firearms
B. Awards B. Mission Order
C.Decorations C.Duty Detail Order
D.Ribbons D. None of These
977..For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya 989..What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member: A. 150 Hours
A.Six B. 72 Hours
B. Four C. 48 Hours
C.Five D. 300 Hours
D. Three 990..All except one are the line leadership staff:
978..Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, A.Detachment Commander
domination, or excessive use of authority: B.Post-in-Charge
A.Misconduct C.Chief Inspector
B. Dishonesty D.Security Supervisor 1
C.Incompetency
D. Oppression 991.. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double
979..The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an
a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, ___ high excluding the top guard.
hostage taking, rescue operations and other special A.8 feet
operations: B.7 feet
C.9 feet
A.NARCOM D. 6 feet
B. SAF 992.. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license
C.SWAT issued to security guards.
D. SOCO A. Any of the choices
980..The organizational structure of the PNP is __________. B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
A.Line C. Secretary, DILG
B. functional D. C/PNP
C.staff
D. line and staff 993..What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
981.. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not A. Photoelectric
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of B. Metallic foil
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper C. Audio detection
authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number D. Microwave Detection
of security guards. 994..Is the process of conducting physical examination to
A.50% determine compliance with establishment security policies
B. 20% and procedures?
C.30% A. Security Education
D. 10% B. Security Survey
982.. The vault door should be made of steel at least C. Security Planning
__________ in thickness? D. Security Inspection
A.7 inches
B. 9 inches 995.. Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the
C.6 inches knowledge of the objectives of the security and the means
D. 20 feet or more and the method to reach these objective or goal must then
983.. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive involve.
to a breach of the protection system, or that, could result A. Security Inspection
to loss. B. Security Hazards
A.Hazards C. Security Planning
B. Environmental Hazards D. Security Survey
C.Natural Hazards 996.. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device
D. Security Hazards designed to prevent entry into a building, room container,
984..An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items
integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to without the consent of the owner
determines person suitability for appointment or access to A .Padlocks
classified matter. B. Locks C. Code
Operated
A.Character Investigation D. Lever Locks
B.Physical Investigation 997.. A type of protective alarm system where the central
C.Background Investigation station located outside the installation. When the alarm is
D. Personnel Security Investigation sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency
985..The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
the national economy security A. Local Alarm system
A.Relative vulnerability B. Auxiliary System
B. Relative program C. Central Station System
C.Relative criticality D. Proprietary
D. Relative security
986..Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A.SEC
998.. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may 1010. .The following are principles of Physical Security,
activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to EXCEPT:
engage the activation bar a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
A. Bill traps b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
B. Foot Rail Activator c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
D. Foot buttons
999.These are wide beam units, used to extend the 1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, hazards.
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane a. Relative vulnerability
A. Fresnel Lights b. Relative criticality
B. Street Lights c. Relative susceptibility
C. Floodlights d. Relative security
D.Search lights
1000. . What is the required capital investment for 1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
organization of private security agency? authority that the person described is cleared to access
A. P 500,000 and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
B. B. P 100,000 clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
C. P 1,000,000 date of issuance.
D. P 50,000 a. 1 year
1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans and takes b. 4 years
away any or all types of items or supplies for economic c. 2 years
gain? d. 5 years
A. Normal Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer 1013. . The tenure of a security guard is:
C. Casual Pilferer a. Six Months
D. Systematic pilferer b. Co-terminus with the service contract
c. Two years
1002. . The metallic container used for securing documents d. Contractual
or small items in an office or installation refers to:
A. Safe 1014. . Which among the following is not an advantage of a
B. Vault full-view fence, except:
C. File room
D. None of these a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids
1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed in______ the intruder in planning.
material excluding the top guard? b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with
a. Seven feet .the movements of persons in the installation
b. Six feet c.It creates shadows which could prevent
c. Four feet concealment of the intruder.
d. Five feet d.None of these

1004. .The following things are used as barrier, which 1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety
serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims
Industrial Complex, EXCEPT: against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much
a. Human is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
b. Fences a. 50, 000
c. Doors b. 100, 000
d. Concertina c. 150, 000
1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are usually d. 200,00
designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
1016. . What type of investigation involves all aspect and
a. 3 hours details about the circumstances of a person?
b. 24hours a. partial background investigation
c. 6hours b. completebackground investigation
d. 12 hours c. personnel security investigation
d. national agency check
1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit
boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by 1017. . The exposure and the teaching of employees on
utilizing combinations by means of a dial. security and its relevance to their work is:
a. Lever locks a.Security Inspection
b. Combination lock b.Security Education
c. Padlock c.Security Orientation
d. Code operated locks d.Security Survey
1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed to 1018. .A type of security which provides sufficient
possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units. illumination to areas during hours of darkness
a. 30 a. Protective Lighting
b. 70 b. Fresnel Lights
c. 500 c. Search Lights
d. 1000 d. Street Lights
1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
green color? 1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually activated by
a. Sodium vapor lamp the interruption of the light beam is known as:
b. Incandescent lamp a. Metallic foil
c. Mercury vapor lamp b. Electric eye device
d. Quartz lamp c. Audio alarm
1009. .What type of security deals with the industrial plants d. Microwave alarm
and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
properties and operations are safeguarded? 1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their
a. Personnel security licensed firearm is needed after operating for six
b. industrial security months.
c. Physical security a. 1:3
d. bank security b. 1:5
 c. 1:2 1030. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier
d. 1:1 and should be locked and guarded.
1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in a. Gates and Doors
areas where insects predominate? b. Side-Walk Elevator
a. Mercury vapor lamp c. Utilities Opening
b. Quartz lamp d. Clear Zones
c. Sodium vapor Lamp
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp 1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy
and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
1021. . What is an act governing the organization and corresponding recommendation is:
management of private security agency, company guard a. security inspection
force and government security forces? b. security education
a. RA 8574 c. security training
b. RA 5478 d. security survey
c. RA 4587
d. RA 5487 1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and
issuances of license for private security personnel?
1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or a. PNP SOSIA
concertina. Chain link are for ______. b. PNP FED
a. Solid structure c. PADPAO
b. Least permanent structure d. PNP SAGSD
c. Permanent structure 1033. . What is the most common type of human hazard?
d. Semi- permanent structure a. Sabotage
b. Pilferage
1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC c. Theft
& LAC since it includes thorough and complete d. Subversion
investigation of all or some of the circumstances or
aspects of a person’s life is conducted? 1034. . What is the security force maintained and operated
a. Personnel Security Investigation by any private company/ corporation for its own security
b. Partial Background Investigation requirements?
c. Background Investigation a. GSU
d. Complete Background Investigation b. CSF
c. PSA
1024. 1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides d. PD
of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel
area to afford better observation of the installation refers 1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest degree
to: of security?
a. Clear zone a. Limited
b. Complimentary zone b. Restricted
c. Open zone c. Special
d. Free zone d. Exclusive

1025. The extension period for a license to operate issued 1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts according
upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of to a predetermined combination code of numbers?
guards is: a. Card- operated lock
a. 1 month b. Combination lock
b. 6 months c. Electromagnetic lock
c. 2 years d. Card Operated
d. 1 year

1026. .Which of the following types of lock is generally used 1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light?
in car doors? a. Sodium vapor lamp
a. Warded lock b. Mercury vapor lamp
b. Lever lock c. Incandescent lamp
c. Disc tumbler lock d. Quartz lamp
d. Combination lock 1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the
intruder while the guard remains in the comparative
1027. PADPAO stands for: darkness?
a. Controlled lighting
a. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective b. Fresnel light
Agency Operators, Inc. c. Emergency lighting
b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective d. Glare- projection
Agency Operators, Inc.
c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector 1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made barriers
Agency Operators, Inc. placed between the potential intruder and the object,
d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective person and matter being protected?
Associations Operators, Inc. a. Communication security
b. Document security
1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to c. Physical security
safeguard life and assets by various methods and device. d. Barrier
a. Physical Security
b. Perimeter Security 1040. .The following are the purposes of Security Survey,
c. Operational Security EXCEPT:
d. Security a. To ascertain the present economic status
b. To determine the protection needed
1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security officer. c. To make recommendations to improve the overall
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer security
b. Training Course. d. None of these
c. Holder of Masters Degree.
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. 1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate
e. Physically or mentally fit. document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a
person to engage in employing security guard or detective,
 or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage
or operate a private detective agency. 1051. . The following are phases of Security Education,
a. Secretary of DILG EXCEPT:
b. Security and Exchange Commission a. Special Interview
b. Security Seminar
c. Chief, PNP c. Security Promotion
d. President d. Training Conference

1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is

that the distances between strands will not exceed 1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
midway between posts. chance of detection?
a. 3 inches a. Systematic pilferer
b. 6 inches b. Ordinary pilferer
c. 4 inches c. Casual pilferer
d. 7 inches d. Unusual pilferer

1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established between 1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected a. Low Visibility
areas. b. High Visibility
a. 20 feet or more c. Reactive
b. 40 feet or more d. Proactive
c. 30 feet or more
d. 50 feet or more 1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP
container usually a part of the building structure use to investigational capability.
keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables a. Detective Beat Patrol
materials. b. Integrated Patrol System
a. Vault c. Community Oriented Policing System
b. Safe d. Team Policing
c. File Room 1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching
d. None of these the end of the line beat, and before returning to the point
of origin.
1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of a. Patrol Report
Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm? b.Situation Report
c.Investigation Report
a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the d.Incident Report
company’s Vault.
b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty. 1056. The ideal police response time is:
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses. a. 3 minutes
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the b. 5 minutes
guards table. c. 7 minutes
d. 10 minutes
1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man-made
capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or 1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition
unauthorized access. possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for the
a. Perimeter Fences creation of problem necessitating a demand for immediate
b. Wire Fences police service:
c. Moveable Barrier a. Hazard
d. Barrier b. Opportunity
1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in a c. Perception of Hazard
nearest police station of fire department. d. Police Hazard
a. A. Proprietary Alarm
b. Auxiliary Alarm 1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the
c. Central Alarm greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is:
d. Security Alarm a. Foot Patrol
1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused b. Marine Patrol
light rather than direction beam. They are widely used in c. Mobile Patrol
parking areas d. Helicopter Patrol
a. Street Lights 1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in
b. Search Lights patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the
c. Flood Lights night. The primary purpose is:
d. Fresnel Lights a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a
crime
b. To have sufficient cover
1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding c. To attract less attention
hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like and is d. For safety of the Patrol officer
then made fast or secured.
a. Lock 1060. The following are included in the cause and effect of
b. Padlock team policing.
c. Code Operated a. Reduce public fear on crime;
d. Card Operated b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in d. Diminish police morale; and
temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe e. Improve police community relation.
can withstand 2000
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it a. a, b, e
has passed the test. b. c. a, b, d, e
a. Fire Endurance Test c.a, c, d, e
b. Fire and Impact Test d. d. a, b, c, e
c. Burning Test 1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
d. Explain Hazard Test methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform
 specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
systematic basis: harm in certainty the police officer or other
a. Target Oriented Patrol persons
b. High-Visibility Patrol c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
c. Low-Visibility Patrol the police officer or other persons.
d. Directed deterrent Patrol d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s
1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be to avoid traffic accident.
best penetrated by the police through.
a. Foot patrol 1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during
b. Bicycle patrol pat-down search, a more secure search position may be:
c. Mobile patrol a. Standing position
d. Helicopter patrol b. Lying Face down Position
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to c. Hands placed against a stationary object,
accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The and feet spread apart.
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 d. All of these
hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
a. 2 shifts 1096. The following are types of specialized patrol
b. 4 shifts method except:
c. 3 shifts a. Marine Patrol
d. every other day shift. b. Air Patrol
c. Canine Patrol
1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally d. Foot Patrol
prevent the desire of human being to commit crime. 1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged
a. Preventive by his-
b. Proactive a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
c. Reactive b. Residents developed good public relations
d. High Visibility c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor
offenses
1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his
________________ since they can be operated very area
quietly and without attracting attention.
a. Mobility and wide area coverage. 1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered. a. True
c. Shorter travel time and faster response. b. False
d. Mobility and stealth c. Absolutely Yes d.
Absolutely No
1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San
Juanico Bridge? 1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number
a. Foot Patrol of apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types
b. K-9 Patrol of crimes:
c. Automobile Patrol a. Preventive Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the
Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau 1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose? a. It is the backbone of the police department
a. May 7, 1954 b. It is the essence of police operation
b. May 17, 1954 c. It is the nucleus of the police department
c. May 14, 1957 d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department
d. March 10, 1917 that can be eliminated

1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious 1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape of
persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also
especially during night-time, be prepared to use your established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or
service firearm and Flashlight should be- during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked
a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol
possible target. operations within the vicinity/periphery of the national or
b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a provincial highways.
possible target. a. Dragnet Operation
c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible b. Hasty Checkpoint
adversary. c. High-Risk Arrest
a. None of these d. High Risk Stop

1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when 1077. The following are patrol activities, except:
responding to Calls for Police Assistance? A. Arrest of alleged criminals
a. Arrest criminals B. Responding to emergency calls
b. Securing the area C. Inspection services
c. Aiding the injured D. Preparation of investigation reports
d. Extort Money
1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact
1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon, with the members of the community ideal in gaining the
except when its occupants pose imminent danger of trust and confidence of the people to the police:
causing death or injury to the police officer or any other A. Horse Patrol
person, and that the use of firearm does not create a B. Bicycle Patrol
danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its C. Automobile Patrol
non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following D. Foot Patrol
parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last
a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the
suspect/s with the police officer and other persons. area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
 B. Zigzag pattern a. Opportunity for graft.
C. Counter clockwise pattern b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the
D. Crisscross pattern law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
EXCEPT: squads.
a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public 1091. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:
c. It insures familiarization of area a. Aberdeen, Scotland
d. It promotes easier detection of crime b. Lyons, France
c. Vienna. Austria
1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as d. London, England
well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call 1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for
the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and patrolling:
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking a. Egyptians
purposes? b. English
a. German shepherd c. Chinese
b. Bloodhounds d. American
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers 1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to
in order to catch criminals is known as:
1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is: a. High visibility patrol
a. Foot b. Blending patrol
b. Automobile c. Low visibility patrol
c. Bicycle d. Decoy patrol
d. Helicopter
1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14h floor
1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in building. Which of the following should be the first thing to
terms of number of: do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
a. Superiors to whom he reports a. Urge no to jump
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders b. Call nearest relative
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him c. Clear the area
d. Any of these d. Report immediately to Station

1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities on
his beat.
a. Well Acquainted
b. Sluggish
c. Energetic
d. Unfamiliar
1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise
and before the counter-clockwise?
a. Straightway
b. Crisscross
c. Sector
d. Zigzag
1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to
increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous
section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the
street.
a. Unnecessary
b. Necessary
c. Voluntary
d. Redundant
1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve
members of the community in the maintenance of peace
and order by police officers.
a. Integrated Police System
b. Comparative Police System
c. Detective Beat System
d. Community Oriented Policing System
1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the
least likely to become completely a function of automobile
patrol is the checking of-
a. Security of business establishment.
b. Street light outrages.
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen
in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it
usually-
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when
quick mobilization is needed.
1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle
patrol over the other patrol methods?
A. Low cost
B.Visibility
C. Speed
D. Security
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively
implemented by police activity which-
a. Provides for many types of specialized
patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker
aspiration to commit crime.
c.Influences favorable individual and group
attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s
expectation of apprehension.
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which
integrates the police and community interests into a
working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
a. Preventive patrol
b. Directed Patrol
c. Community Relation
d. Team policing
1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most
ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
operations?
a. Motorcycle
b. Automobile
c. Helicopter
d. Horse
1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
Patrol officer is:
a.Conduct a complete search.
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made.
d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate
supervisor.
1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when
demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing
troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
 d. Shield specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned
1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every systematic basis:
intersection until reaching the point of origin is following a. Target Oriented Patrol
what pattern? b. High-Visibility Patrol
a. Clockwise c. Low-Visibility Patrol
b. Zigzag d. Directed deterrent Patrol
c. Counter clockwise
d. Crisscross 1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed
and dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on
1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol: foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal
a. Can report regularly to the command center. means to accomplish such end.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention. a. Dragnet Operation
c. It is inexpensive to operate . b. Hasty Checkpoint
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by c. High-Risk Arrest
patrol cars. d. High Risk Stop

1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and 1113. Which among the following activities during post-
operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms patrol or post-deployment phase is not included?
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP a. Formation & Accounting
investigational capability. b. Debriefing/Report Submission
a. Detective Beat Patrol c. Inspection & recall of Equipment
b. Integrated Patrol System d. Briefing
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing 1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls
of service.
1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and a. Reactive
assemble at the police unit b. High Visibility
headquarters at least _______ before the start of their c. Proactive
shift for accounting- d. Low Visibility
a. 10 minutes
b. hour 1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was
c. 30 minutes formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at
d. 15 minutes the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in
the area of responsibility of the patrol?
1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and a. Straight
amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would be b. Crisscross
criminals alike that the police are always existing to c. Clockwise
respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will d. counter clockwise
just around the corner at all times. This statement refers
to: 1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments
a. Police Omnipresence of an individual for weapons only.
b. Police Patrol a. Frisking
c. Police Discretion b. Search
d. Integrated Patrol c. Spot Check
1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and d. Pat-down Search
mobility and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes
lesser number of men and covers a wider area in a short 1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter
period of time, while protection to patrol officers: of the beat not at random but with definite target location
a. Foot patrol where he knows his presence is necessary.
b. Motorcycle Patrol a. Target Oriented
c. Automobile Patrol b. Zigzag
d. Helicopter patrol c. Clockwise
d. Criss-Cross
1107. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves
in a manner designed to help them blend the 1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following
neighborhood where they are deployed. are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
a. Absolutely False
b. Absolutely True a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action
c. Absolutely Yes taken.
d. Absolutely No b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable
area
1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of: c. Inspire more Public confidence.
a. One Man Patrol Car d. The officer can actually get to know the physical
b. Two Man Patrol Car layout of his beat better.
c. Foot Patrol
d. Canine Patrol 1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French word
________which means to go through paddles.
1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of a. Patroulier
activities: b. Patroul
a. Afternoon Shift c. Politeia
b. Morning Shift d. Politia
c. Night Shift
d. None of these 1120. The concept of Unity of command is:
a. No one should have more than one boss.
1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
persons or places: c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
a. Target Oriented Patrol effectively supervise.
b. High-Visibility Patrol d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
c. Reactive Patrol to subordinates.
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol 1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform appropriate when responding to quick emergency call?
a. Motorcycle Patrol
 b. Air Patrol 1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol
c. Automobile Patrol strategy called:
d. Foot Patrol a. Reactive Patrol
b. Directed Patrol
1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for c. Preventive Patrol
services d. Proactive Patrol
a. Reactive patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol 1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident
c. Proactive patrol faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he
d. Blending patrol should employ is:
a. Bicycle patrol
1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must b. Automobile patrol
be_______. c. Motorcycle patrol
a. Voice Radio Operator d. Foot patrol
b. Trained Formally
c. Licensed Dispatcher 1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a
d. Coordinator person that enables another to victimize him:
a. Instrumentality
1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was b. Opportunity
initiated on: c. Motive
a. August 10, 1917 d. Capability
b. August 7, 1901 1136. The factors to be considered in determining the
c. November 22, 1901 number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
d. March 17, 1901 following, except:
a. Size of the area
1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers b. Possible problems to be encountered
during Post-Deployment Phase? c. Topography
a. Situation Report d. none of the choices
b. Citation Report 1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the
c. Daily Patrol Report people together in a cooperative manner in order to
d. Hourly Patrol Report prevent crime:
a. Integrated Patrol
1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of b. Team policing
police omnipresence: c. Reactive patrol
a. Target Oriented Patrol d. Proactive patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol 1138. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
should conduct overt police operations in order to
1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method of discourage people from committing crime refers to:
patrol used in patrol force: a. Theory of police omnipresence
a. Foot Patrol b. Low police visibility theory
b. Air Patrol c. Low profile theory
c. Automobile Patrol d. Maximum deterrence theory
d. Motorcycle Patrol
1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times 1139. The principle of patrol force organization which states
more sensitive than human’s sense of smell? that patrol officers should be under the command of only
a. One thousand times one man refers to:
b. One hundred times a. Span of control
c. Ten thousand times b. Unity of command
d. Ten million times c. Chain of command
d. Command responsibility
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
through common medium and channel. 1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit
a. Information crime as a result of patrol.
b. Communication a. Crime prevention
c. Police Communication b. Crime intervention
d. Radio c. Crime suppression
d. Crime deterrence
1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the 1141. The Greek word which means “government of a city”
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other or “civil organization and the state”, which is claimed as
legitimate purposes. the origin of the word police refers to:
a. Clear Zone a. Politia
b. Public Place b. Policia
c. Police Checkpoint c. Politeia
d. Pre-Determined Area d. Polis
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary
1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily objective of patrol activity is:
to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the a. To prevent commission of crime.
peace and order situation in a particular area: b. Integrate the police and the community
a. Police Patrol c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
b. Preventive Patrol d. Visibility and Omniprescence.
c. Foot Patrol 1143. What law provides for the creation of the National
d. Patrol Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
a. RA 157
1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations: b. B. EO 213
A.Crime Prevention c. RA 6040
B.Protect and Serve d. EO 246
C.Law enforcement 1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
D. All of the choices a. Crypto Analyst
b. Cryptographer
c. Cryptograph
 d. Code breaker
1156. The process of extracting information from a person
1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group believes to be in possession of vital information without his
organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation. knowledge or suspicion.
a. Guerilla a. Elicitation
b. Propagandist b. Surveillance
c. Provocateur c. Roping
d. Strong Arm d. Undercover Operations
1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that
will correspond to the operation. 1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who
a. Multiple leaks false information to the enemy.
b. Natural a. Double Agent
c. Artificial b. Expendable Agent
d. Unusual c. Agent of Influence
1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE? d. Penetration Agent

A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information 1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
report any time since it is to processes. Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
clandestine method. prosecution of criminal offenders.
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a a. Internal Security Intelligence
medium size police station. b. Public Safety Intelligence
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence c. Criminal Intelligence
information by initiating good public relations. d. Preventive Intelligence
1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly
prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s 1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence information. collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
a. Partly True interpretation of all available information. What is
b. Partly False considered as the core of intelligence operations?
c. Wholly True a.Dissemination
d. Wholly False b. Analysis
1149. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful c. Mission
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused d. Planning
acceptance?
a. Maybe Yes 1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military
b. Yes Espionage".
c. No a. Alexander the Great
d. Maybe No b. Frederick the Great
1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the best c. Karl Schulmeister
factor to be considered is: d. Arthur Wellesley
A.Age
B.Access 1161. There are four categories of classified matters; top
C.Educational Attainment D.Body secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish,
built their folder consists of different colors. What will be the
1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” color of the document which requires the highest degree
which prohibits wiretapping in our country. of protection?
a. RA 1700 a. Red
b. RA 4200 b. Black
c. RA 7877 c. Blue
d. RA 7160 d. Green
1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible 1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical
authority that the person described is cleared to access indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim a. Number 13:17
clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the b. Number 3:17
date of issuance. c. Number 17:13
a. 1 year d. Number 17:3
b. 5 years 1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of
c. 2 years illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was
d. 4 years deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of
time to find out the authenticity of such reports.
1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent a. Social assignments
Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2? b. Work assignments
c. Organizational assignments
a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true d. Residential assignments
information
b. Unreliable source – probably true information 1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with
c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information defending the organization against its criminal enemies?
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true a. Line Intelligence
information b. Counter-Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
1154. It is a process or method of obtaining information from d. Tactical Intelligence
a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
a. Interview 1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which
b. Interrogation is “usually from a reliable source and improbable
c. Forceful Interrogation information”?
d. Tactical Interrogation a. C-5
b. B-5
1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record c. B-3
discreetly conversations of other people. d. C-3
a. Eavesdropping 1166. It is a form of investigation in which the operative
b. Bugging assumes a cover in order to obtain information
c. None of these a. Overt operation
d. Wiretapping b. Undercover assignment
 c. Covert operation d. Departmental Intelligence
d. clandestine operation
1177. It is considered as the most secured method of
1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting disseminating the information to the user of classified
message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes matters is by means of:
and cipher. a. Debriefing
a. Cryptographer b. Conference
b. Crypto Analyst c. Cryptographic method
c. Cryptography d. Seminar
d. Cryptechnician

1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered 1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to
by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and form a logical picture or theory.
doubtfully true information? a. Integration
a. D-4 b. Evaluation
b. C-4 c. Deduction
c. C-5 d. Interpretation
d. D-5
1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the a. Neutral
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: b. Unwanted
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle c. Friendly
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and d. Unfriendly
sunglasses
c.Change of seating arrangement within the 1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
surveillance vehicle conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car. from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
a. Observable
1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the b. Overt
anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for c. Visible
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a d. Covert
certain location.
a. Stake out 1181. An E-3 intelligence report means:
b. Rough Shadowing
c. Shadowing a. The information comes from completely reliable
d. Surveillance sources and Improbable true.
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources
1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes and probably true.
________ forces. c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources
a. Unwanted and doubtfully true.
b. Friendly d. The information comes from Unreliable sources
c. Neutral and possibly true.
d. Unfriendly 1182. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is
generally refers to as?
1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United a. Plant
Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its b. Stakeout
old post office box number. c. None
a. Security Service d. Tailing or Shadowing
b. Secret Intelligence Service 1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security color
c. Government Communication Headquarters folderof?
d. Defense Intelligence Staff a. Red
1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as b. Black
minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and c. Blue
censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence d. Green
accounting.
a. Herbert Yadley 1184. The process of assigning higher category of
b. Wilhem Steiber document or information according to the degree of
c. Admiral Yamamoto security needed.
d. Joseph Fouche a. Degrading
b. Classification
1174. If the information or documents are procured openly c. Upgrading
without regard as to whether the subject of the d. Advancement
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
purposes for which it is being regarded. 1185. It is a process or method of obtaining information from
a. Overt Operation a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
b. Surveillance a. Interview
c. Covert Operation b. Forceful Interrogation
d. Analysis c. Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation

1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in 1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to
the area and residence of the individual being determine if the information is true and-
investigated. a. Reliable
a. CBI b. Accurate
b. NAC c. Correct
c. PBI d. Probably true
d. LAC
1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:
1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature a. Line Intelligence
and necessary for more effective police planning. b. Operational Intelligence
a. Line Intelligence c. Strategic Intelligence
b. Strategic Intelligence d. Counter Intelligence
c. Police Intelligence
1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where
police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting 1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
purposes. a. Women
a. Safe house b. Double Crosser
b. Log c. False
c. Live Drop d. Anonymous
d. Decoy
1200. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which a. Coding
includes some or all of the circumstances. b. Encrypting
a. National Agency Check c. Decoding
b. Background Investigation d. Reclassify
c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Personnel Security Investigation 1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time: knowledge of the __________.
a. Frederick the Great
b. Alexander the Great a. The strength of the area where the information will
c. Arthur Wellesley be gathered
d. Joseph Hernandez b. Where they will be collecting the information
c. Available sources of information
1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established to d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
research, create and manage technical collection
discipline and equipment. 1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as
a.National Clandestine Service the greatest military strategist.
b.Directorate of Support a. Alexander the Great
c. Directorate of Intelligence b. Hannibal
d. Directorate of Science and Technology c. Frederick the Great
d. Genghis Khan
1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a
certain establishment or building. 1203. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
a. Access list accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
b. Black List acceptance?
c. Blue Print a. Yes
d. Silver list b. True
c. No
1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of d. False
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or
dissatisfied employees. 1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
a. Subversion Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
b. Sabotage prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
c. Espionage prosecution of criminal offenders.
d. None of these a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. Criminal Intelligence
1194. The combination of the elements isolated analysis c. Public Safety Intelligence
with other known information related to the operation. d. Preventive Intelligence
a. Recording
b. Analysis 1205. If the information or documents are procured openly
c. Integration without regard as to whether the subject of the
d. Interpretation investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
purposes for which it is being regarded.
1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological a. Overt Operation
aspects of groups of people. b. Clandestine
a. Sociological Intelligence c. Surveillance
b. Economic Intelligence d. Covert Operation
c. Biographical Intelligence
d. Political Intelligence 1206. Which of the following is the most common reason
why an informer gives information to the police?
1196. Which among the following principles of intelligence a. Monetary Reward
deemed to be the most important? Popularity
Revenge
a.intelligence requires continuous security measures As a good citizen
b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
c. Intelligence must be available on time 1207. A method of collecting information thru interception of
d. Intelligence must be flexible telephone conversation.
a. Bugging
1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its b. Wire Tapping
suitability for a particular operational purpose. c. Code name
a. Casing d. NONE
b. Loose Tail
c. Rough Shadowing 1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
d. Stakeout enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal
groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the
1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the police organization.
information to the operation, reliability of the source of or a.Conclusion
agency and the accuracy of the information. b.Capabilities
a. Evaluation c. Vulnerabilities
b. Recording d.Evaluation
c. Credibility
d. Appraisal 1209. It is the general statement describing the current
police internal defense, internal development,
 psychological operation and responsibilities of the 1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
organization a. Fixed Surveillance
a. Area of operation b. Stakeout Surveillance
b. Capabilities of organized crime c. Stationary Surveillance
c. the crime situation d. Active Surveillance
d. the mission
1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to
1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information the different hang out places of the subject.
concerning organized crime and other major police a. Social Assignment
problems. b. Residential Assignment
A.Military Intelligence c. Work Assignment
b.Military Information d. None of these
c.Police Intelligence
d.Police Investigation 1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other
material gain he is to receive.
1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives a. Gratitude
information in exchange for a reward is: b. Repentance
a. Informer c. Remuneration
b. Informant d. Vanity
c. Special informer 1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
d. Confidential Informant a. Director
b. General
1212. The intelligence required by department or agencies c. President
of the government to execute its mission and discharge its d. Director-General
responsibilities.
a. Counter 1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all
b. Departmental government departments concerning the broad aspect of
c. Line national policy and national Security.
d. National a National Intelligence
b.Departmental Intelligence
1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or some c. International Intelligence
other form of graphical representation and the arranging of d. Social Intelligence
this information into groups related items.
a. Recording 1225. .The process of categorizing a document or
b. Integration information according to the degree of security needed.
c. Analysis a. Classification
d. Demonstration b. Upgrading
c. Reclassification
1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and d. None of these
Possibly true?
a. -2 1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____
b. E-2 from the date of issuance.
c. E-3 a. 2 years
d. C-3 b. 5 years
c. 4 years
1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in d. 1 year
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities
and the protection of information against espionage, 1227. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
subversion and sabotage. a.Surveillant
a. Passive Intelligence b Subject
b. Counter Intelligence c. Interrogator
c. Line Intelligence d. Interviewee
d. Demographic Intelligence
1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan
1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of
of peace and order. bringing him the truth that his throne might rest upon it.
a. CRIMINT a. Joseph Petrosino
b. SIGINT b. Edgar Hoover
c. PUSINT c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. INSINT d. Akbar

1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to

1217. Who directs the organization conducting the determine if the information is true and-
clandestine activity? a Reliable
a. Manager b. Correct
b. Superior c. Probably true
c. Sponsor d. Accurate
d. Agent 1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to
block the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in
1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
of an individual group or nation. a. Counter Intelligence
a. Propagandist b. Passive Counter Intelligence
b. Support Agent c. Active Counter Intelligence
c. Principal Agent d. Intelligence
d. Action Agent
1231. Chronological records of activities that took place in
1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave the establishment under surveillance.
their messages to the other Agents. a. Memory
a. Live Drop b. records
b. Safe House c. Log
c. Decoy d. Report
d. Bait
1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and a. RA 5678
ciphers. b. RA 9165
a. Cryptography c. RA 1298
b. Cryptanalysis d. RA 8792
c. Decipher
d. Coding 1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word
“Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
1233. The protection resulting from the application of a. Enforcing Law
various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or b. Civil Policy
unauthorized person in gaining information through c. Guarding a City
communication. d. Citizenship
a. Communication Security
b. Physical Security 1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer
c. Document Security of the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those
d. Internal Security are the Marshal of France and ________:
a. Constable of France
1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are b. Queens Royal Guard
considered as: c. Scotland Yard
a. Top Secret d. Constabulary
b. Secret 1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and
c. Restricted people have minimal share in their duties or any direct
d. Confidential connection with them. This reflected the:
a. Continental Theory
1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should be b. Home rule Theory
placed on- c. Old Concept
a. Blue Folder d. Modern concept
b. Black folder 1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly
c. Green Folder ________ of a police service personnel:
d. Red Folder a. 75%
b. 5 to 10%
1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the c. 15 to 25%
person described is cleared to access and classify matters d. 7 to 10%
at appropriate levels.
a. Security Clearance 1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes
b. Document Clearance or those with an interstate components. The statement is:
c. Interim Clearance a. Correct
d. Nome of these b. Partially Correct
c. False
1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the d. partly False
subject is employed where constant surveillance is
necessary. 1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in
a. Close tail some sense transgress national borders:
b. Loose tail a. International Policing
c. Rough Shadowing b. Global Policing
d. Surveillance c. National Policing
d. Transnational Policing
1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable and
probably true.
a. C-4 1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include
b. B-3 educational requirement for police officer:
c. B-2 a. James Q. Wilson
d. C-5 b. Sir Henry Peel
c. August Volmer
d. O.W. Wilson
1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
_____________. 1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
a. Russia a. Law and Order
b. Germany b. Safer Communities together
c. Israel c. Serve and Protect
d. Pakistan d. We serve with pride and Care
1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by
_______ which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of 1252. Where do you can find the so called Police
the Spring and Autumn period. Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for police
a. Watch man officer whose are changed of committing any form of
b. Prefect misconduct:
c. Gendemarie a. Northern Ireland
d. Constabulary b. England
c. China
1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN d. Japan
integral mission.
a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor 1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured
b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra of police force is identical up to the rank of?
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas a. Chief Constable
d. None of these b. Chief Inspector
c. Chief Superintendent
1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited d. Inspector
jurisdiction on _______:
a. USA 1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women
b. New York and minorities as police officer.
c. None of these a. Massachusetts
d. Los Angeles b. California
c. New York
1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act: d. Washington
 b. Prime Minister
1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank c. National Public Safety Commission
to inspector or sub-lieutenant? d. Japan Commission
a. Police Rank 4
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4 1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
c. Police Officer Rank 1 a. Junsa
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1 b. Constable
c. Sergeant
1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest d. Police Officer
possible rank of its police personnel?
a. Police Rank 1 1268. Irish Police are called:
b. Police Officer Rank 1 a. Militsiya
c. Investigator 1 b. Constable
d. Constable c. Police Force
d. Garda Socha
1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” 1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral
police force and in having, set up the foundation for the Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police
social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good commissioner of a United Nation Operation.
reputation as one of the safety cities in the world. a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
a. Philippine National Polic c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
b. Hong Kong Police Force d. None of these
c. Japan Police Department
d. National Police Agency 1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies
on the absence of crime.
1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police a. Home rule
Force: b. Continental
a. Commissioner General c. Old police service
b. Director General d. Modern police service
c. Commissioner
d. Director 1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler
1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia: b. Ronald K. Noble
a. Omerta c. Johann Schober
b. Morse d. Aberdeen Scotland
c. Nostra Compra
d. Cosa Nostra 1272. The first president of the Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler
1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is b. Ronald K. Noble
the: c. Johann Schober
a. Executive Assembly d. Aberdeen Scotland
b. Major Assembly
c. National Assembly 1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts
d. General Assembly fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of
1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run activity.
by the: a. Organized Crime
a. Director General b. Transnational Crime
b. Supervisor c. Transnational Organized crime
c. Inspector General d. Terrorist
d. Secretary General
1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama
1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and Bin Laden in 1980?
introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and a. Al Qaeda
Chicago Police Department: b. Jihad
a. August Volmer c. Mafia
b. Margaret Adams d. Nuestra Costra
c. William Stewart
d. O.W. Wilson 1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by
1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi: members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
a. Policeman a. Al Qaeda
b. Chief Superintendent b. Jihad
c. Superintendent c. Mafia
d. Senior Superintendent d. Nuestra Costra
1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in 1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which is
Japan: aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious freedom.
a. Keishi a. Revolutionary
b. Koban b. Separalist
c. Omerta c. Ethnocentric
d. Keiban d. Political
1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the 1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes
highest position in Japan Police Organization: committed via the internet:
a. Dynamic IP Address
a. Commissioner Secretariat b. Internet Protocol Address
b. Commissioner c. Static IP Address
c. Chairman d. Email Address
d. Commissioner General
1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a 1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system
Commissioner General who is appointed by: or network of an individual, group or business enterprise
a. Japans Emperor without the consent of the party’s system:
 a. Computer Fraud
b. Hacking 1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation
c. Cracking of local chief executives as representative of the
d. Theft NAPOLCOM:
Repeated unauthorized absences;
1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of
replicating itself. .II. Abuse of authority;
a. Trojan Horse III. Habitual tardiness;
b. Worm IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
c. Virus V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
d. None of these

1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to A. I, II, III, V

establish a shared database among concerned agencies B. II, V, IV, I
for information on criminals, C.I, II, IV, III
methodologies, arrests and convictions on D. I, II, III, IV, V
transnational crime 1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at
known locations.
a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC) a. Functional Plan
b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH) b. Time Specific Plans
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO) c. Tactical Plans
d. Philippine National Police (PNP) d. Operational Plans
1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan? 1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump
a. KEISHI SOKAN sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the first
b. KEISHI SO _____.
c. KEISHI KAN a. 10 years
d. KEIBU-HO b. 5 years
c. 6 years
1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be d. 2 years
the “Father of Texas”.
a. Stephen Austin 1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age,
b. Vernon Knell Height, Weight and Education, only when the number of
c. Dave Batista qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual quota.
d. Johann Schober Appointment status under a waiver program is ________.
a. Temporary
1283. An order strengthening the operational, administrative b. Probationary
and information support system of the PCTC. Under this c. Permanent
EO, the centre shall d. Regular
exercise general supervision and control over
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG 1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who has
a. EO 100 exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
b. EO 465 life above and beyond the call of duty.
c. EO 465 a. Meritorious Promotion
d. EO 789 b. Special Promotion
c. Regular Promotion
1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 d. On-the-Spot Promotion
years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
a. 2016 1294. Which among the following has no promotional
b. 2023 authority over the members of the PNP?
c. 2012 a. Deputy Director General
d. 2031 b. Director General
c. President of the Philippines
1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP d. Regional Director
commissioned and non-commissioned officer may retire 1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately
and be paid separation benefits corresponding to a from the service after due notice and summary hearings if
position two ranks higher than his/her rank: it was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous
a. Retirement in the next higher grad period of:
b. Compulsory retirement a. 30 days or more
c. Early retirement program b. 15 days or more
d. Optional Retirement c. 20 days or more
d. 60 days or more
1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence 1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons
from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory following a high-risk stop.
power over PNP members. b. Dragnet Operation
a. Internal Affairs Service
b. National Police Commission b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board c. High-Risk Arrest
d. National Appellate Board d. High Risk Stop

1287. In police operational planning the use of the wedge, 1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay
squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable used since he was promoted. After five years from promotion,
for: what would be his monthly base pay after adding his
a. Arm confrontation longevity pay?
b. Relief Operation a. 21, 857.00
c. Civil Disturbance b. 19, 970.00
d. VIP Security c. 24, 870.00
d. 31, 549.00
1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to 1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that may
SPOI? induce incidents for some kind of police action:
a. Officers Senior Executive Course a. Police Accident
b. Officer Basic Course b. Police Brutality
c. Senior Leadership Course c. Police Hazard
d. Junior Leadership Course d. Police Operation
 1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings
1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means- of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and
a. The Sword Bearer refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
b. The Base c. Tear Gas
c. Islamic Congregation d. Water Cannon
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri e. Truncheon
f. Shield
1300. What kind of force is needed during armed 1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on
confrontation? foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
a. Reasonable force suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining
b. Logical Force the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s
c. Rational Force suspicion concerning criminal activity.
d. Evenhanded Force g. Frisking
1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the h. Search
picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in i. Spot Check
such manner that their presence may deter the j. Pat-down Search
commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from 1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
either side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line. commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
a. 50 feet legitimate purposes.
b. 50 meter k. Clear Zone
c. 100 feet l. Public Place
d. 100 meter m. Police Checkpoint
n. Pre-Determined Area
1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a 1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which
patrol jeep, the subject must be- was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the
public in general. What police office is using this kind of
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall blotter?
sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject o. Makati
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort p. Cebu
shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject q. Baguio
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall r. Davao
sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject 1312. It refers to the venue or place established or
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort designated by local government units within their
shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could be
subject held without securing any permit for such purpose from
the local government unit concerned.
1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in s. Secured Area
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper t. Wide Space
escort, preferably aided by a police woman. The statement u. Freedom Park
is- v. Clear Zone
a. Partially True 1313. The police function in which patrol belong is:
b. Wholly True w. Line function
c. Partially False x. Administrative function
d. Wholly False y. Staff function
z. Auxiliary function
1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public 1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of
assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near
shall be made under the control and supervision of the- Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence
a. Ground Commander of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is
b. Incident Commander prevented.
c. Immediate Commander d. aa. Ambition
Superior Officer bb. Intention
cc. Motive
1305. What should be the action of patrol officers, when dd. Opportunity
responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except? 1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank of
scene. __________:
b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals ee. Superintendent
c. Determine the crime committed. ff. C/Superintendent
d. None of these gg. Sr. Superintendent
hh. C/Inspector
1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the 1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up
information and pieces of evidence gathered at the crime without material interval for the purpose of taking into
scene? custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one
a. SOCO team suspected to have committed a recent offense while
b. Immediate Supervisor fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another
c. Responding unit that will normally require prior official inter-unit
d. Medico Legal Officer coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that
moment, comply due to the urgency of the situation.
1307. Request for police assistance in the implementation of ii. Hot Pursuit
final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of jj. Hasty Checkpoint
administrative bodies on controversies within their
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police kk. Dragnet Operation
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual ll. High Risk Stop
implementation. 1317. Which among the following terms is not related to
a. 3 days each other?
b. 10 days mm.Hot Pursuit
c. 5 days nn. Fresh Pursuit
d. 15 days oo. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
pp. Bright Pursuit
1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the
police, military and other peace keeping authorities shall
 observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the 1329. The form of security that employs cryptography to
same. protect information refers to:
qq. Reasonable Force A. Document and information security
rr. Greatest Lenience b. Operational security
ss. Maximum Tolerance c. Communication security
tt. Utmost Patience d. Industrial security
1319. Which among the following aspects of a. Security is
the weakest of them all? 1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow
a. Physical security complete visual access between two areas is:
b. Personnel security a. Solid fence
c. Document and information security b. Semi-solid fence
d. Personal Security c. Full-view fence
d. Masonry Fence
1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-
a. Partially Correct 1331. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager
b. Partially Wrong or Operator of a security agency is:
c. Absolutely Correct a. 40 yrs. Old
d. Absolutely Wrong b. 25 yrs. Old
c. 30 yrs. Old
1321. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of d. 35 yrs. Old
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an
installation. 1332. The following are the categories of automatic alarm
a. Hazard system, except:
b. Perimeter Barrier a. Photoelectric
c. Barrier b. Electric Eye Device
d .Energy Barrier c. Audio detection
d. Bill Traps
1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to 1333. Which of the following is not a false key?
secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards a. A picklock or similar tool .
on a full time basis. b. A duplicate key of the owner.
a. Guard Control Stations c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
b. Tower d.Any key other than those intended by the owner.
c. Tower Guard 1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
d. Top Guard a. 500 lbs.
1323. This lamps have the advantage of providing instant b. 750 lbs.
illumination when the switch is open and most commonly c. 1000 lbs.
used protective lighting system. d. 600 lbs.
a. Incandescent Lamp
b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp 1335. The minimum number of guards required for a
c. Mercury Vapor Lamp company security force is:
d. Quarts Lamp a. 1000
b. 30
1324. The following are the areas to be lighted: c. 100
A.Parking Areas; d. 200
b.Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates; 1336. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby
d. Vehicular Gates; and keys can open a group of locks.
E.Susceptible Areas. a. Key Control
a. a, c, e b. Master Keying
b. a, b, c, d c. Change Key
c. a, c, d, e d. Great Grand Master Key
d. a, b, c, d, e
1337. What is called as devices and contrivance installed
1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide
of this record does not have the same value as the additional security measures and operates to advertise
original. entry into sensitive and protected area?
a. Vital Documents a. Protective locks
b. Important Documents b. Protective cabinet
c. Useful Documents c. Protective barrier
d. Non- Essential Documents d. Protective Lighting

1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to the 1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is
natural economy and security. assigned for duty:
a.. Relative Operation a. Post
b Relative Security b. Beat
c. Relative Vulnerability c. Area
d. Relative Criticality of Operation d. Route

1327. A new Private security agency that has been issued a 1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of
temporary license to operate is good for how many years? inch.
a. One A. Measurement
b. Two B. Caliper
c.Three C. Buffer
d.Four D. Calibre
1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp.
1328. The removal of the security classification from the A. Bleach
classified matter. B. Alum
a.Segregation C. Sufite
b. Declassify D. Pulp
c. Reclassify 1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression or
d. Exclusion pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper.
A. Lithograph printing
B. Embossing
 C. Edge chains 1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as
D. Reprographing a fundamental point of identification.
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine. A. Slant
A. Fourdrinier Brothers B. Habit
B. Bryan Donkin C. Movement
C. Nicholas-Louis Robert D. All
D. Milton Reynolds 1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the
1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that writing ______
can be transmitted through its surface. A. Holds
A. Thickness B. Rests
B. Opacity C. Stays
C. Translucent D. Slants
D. Texture 1357. Among the following, which is a common defect of
1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of forgery?
document examiner is to determine and conclude with
scientific basis and technique who is the A. Patching
A. Beneficiaries B. Retracing
B. Writer or signatory C. A and B
C. Master mind D. None
D. Conspirator 1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the
1345. In questioned document, it is where all characteristics linear letters.
are grouped. A. Infra-linear
A. Class characteristics B. Supra-linear
B. Individual characteristics C. Linear
C. Both A and B D. None
D. Neither 1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of signature
1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a forgery is the determination of the probable writer of the
sufficient number of identical writing habits and the forgery.
absence of divergent characteristics. This is in A. Simple forgery
consonance with; B. Simulated forgery
A. Identification C. Traced forgery
B. Non-identification D. A and B
C. Either 1360. A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of
D. Niether the questioned signature and genuine is apparent.
1347. Embellishment is an example of A. Fraudulent
A. Individual Characteristics B. Simulated
B. Class Characteristics C. Simple
C. Both D. Traced
D. Neither 1361. To identify whether simple forgery was committed,
1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to which of the following should be retrieved?
A. Speed in writing A. Standard signature from the forger
B. Defective writing instrument B. Standard of the genuine signature
C. Unevenness of writing materials C. Standard of the person who made the
D. All of the choices forgery
1349. Among the following, which is not an element of D. Identity of the forger
movement? 1362. One of the following statements best describe what a
A. Line Quality collected standard is.
B. Rhythm A. It has the advantage of easily finding it.
C. Speed Freedom B. Attempt to disguise is removed.
D. emphasis C. The accused is aware that the specimen will
1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except be used against him.
those at the D. None
A. Middle of the words/strokes 1363. Authenticity of private documents is not necessary
B. End of the stroke when
C. Beginning of strokes A. It is 30 years old
D. B and C B. More than 30 years old
C. Less than 30 years old
1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to D. More or less 30 years old
as 1364. During paper manufacture, the following are included
A. Pen position except
B. Pen hold A. Security fiber
C. Pen emphasis B. Watermarks
D. Pen orientation C. Iridescent band
1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is D. Serial number
referred to as 1365. Which of the following is not a crime called forgery?
A. Ratio A. Forging the seal of the government
B. Proportion B. Counterfeiting of coins
C. Line quality C. Mutilation of coins
D. All D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or
1353. In questioned document examination, it is referred to stamp
as the flourishing succession of motion which are recorded 1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
in a written record. A. Counterfeit
A. Line quality B. Mutilation
B. Rhythm C. Utter
C. Speed in writing D. Import
D. Movement 1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is
1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the A. Counterfeiting
letters relative to the B. Uttering
A. Baseline C. Mutilation
B. Slope D. Importing
C. Alignment 1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is
D. Staff A. Not punishable under the revised penal code
B. Not punishable by any law
 C. Punishable under the revised penal code C. Locate the type writer used
D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC. D. Examination of the exemplar
1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed for 1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification
the genuine one is a form of in securing NBI clearance?
A. Falsification A. Thumb mark
B. Forgery B. Pending case
C. Tracing C. Picture
D. Fraud D. Signature
1370. Which of the following method should be used in 1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered in a
order for the naked eye to see a charred document? sketch?
A. X-ray A. Compass direction
B. Spectrograph B. Name of placed
C. Ultra violet C. Time
D. Infra red D. Location
1371. Which of the following security features of a paper bill 1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you
does not react to ultra-violet light? preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions,
A. Serial Number hematoma and the like?
B. Watermark A. Recording
C. Fluorescent printing B. Sketching
D. Invisible security fibers C. Photography
1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for D. Note taking
A. Sumer 1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to a
B. Turkey stroke which goes back to writing stroke.
C. Sumeria A. Patching
D. Egypt B. Retouching
1373. What is gustatory sensation? C. Retracing
A. Smell D. Restroking
B. Taste 1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred
C. Skin showing disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to
D. Hearing show defense of the -
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and A. Suspect
there should be light and darkness which is daylight and B. Witness
night. Among these, what is the basic component of C. Victim
photography? D. Kibitzers
A. All of these 1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the
B. Film energy coming from the muzzle point is called -
C. Camera A. Armor-piercing
D. Light B. Velocity
1374. Positive result of photography is called – C. Lead bullet
A. Picture D. Muzzle energy
B. Photograph 1388. What are the two types of firearms according to the
C. Positive construction of the interior of the barrel?
D. Negative A. Short and long barreled firearms
1375. Other term for lie detector is – B. Small arms and artilleries
A. GSR C. Lands and grooves
B. Pneumograph D. Smoothbore and rifled bore
C. Cardiograph 1389. What is the symbol of tented arch?
D. Polygraph A. Dash
1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner B. T
on the numerator? C. Te
A. Yes D. A and/or B
B. Maybe 1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern.
C. No A. Inner terminus
D. Sometimes B. Delta
1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of C. Inner shoulder
light of short duration. Which among of these is popular D. Core
today? 1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in
A. Flash bulb the -
B. Electronic bulb A. Pattern area
C. Lamp B. Delta
D. Flash light C. Core
1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint D. Type lines
permanently? 1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong to
A. Yes human or animal?
B. No A. Takayama
C. Maybe B. Benzidine
D. This time C. Kestle Meyer
1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines D. Precipitin
the firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____? 1393. How many standards in questioned documents is
A. In court needed to prove?
B. In progress A. 5 standards
C. Controversy B. 10 signatures
D. Handled C. Sufficient amount
1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false D. 5 pages
statement or signs of - 1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court
A. Detection presentation?
B. Deception A. 1909
C. Lie B. 1859
D. Untrue statement C. 1890
1381. In typewriting examination which of the following first D. 1903
to be conducted? 1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post
A. Examination of the questioned specimen mortem examination?
B. Collecting of typewriting standards A. To determine the duration of death
 B. To determine the manner of death A. Twist of rifling
C. To determine the deadly weapon B. Gyroscopic action
D. To determine the cause of death. C. Rotating motion
1396. What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in D. Pitch of rifling
detecting pulse rate and heart beat? 1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for
A. Kymograph scrutiny by litigants and others.
B. Pneumograph A. Police photography
C. Polygraph B. Photograph
D. Cardiograph C. Forensic photography
1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, D. Crime scene photography
he or she has - 1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was
A. Extra fingerprint made?
B. Extra hand A. Wiremark
C. Extra finger B. Trademark
D. Added finger C. Copyright
1398. What year did the colored photography was accepted D. Watermark
in US court? 1412. Tripod has how many feet?
A. 1956 A. It depends
B. 1978 B. Two
C. 1946 C. Three
D. 1960 D. Four
1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours? 1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which
A. 6-8 hours should be closely photographed?
B. 9-10 hours A. Weapons used
C. 8-12 hours B. Victims wounds
D. 3-6 hours C. Entrance and exit
1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph D. Things stolen
examination? 1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with other
A. James MacKenzie agencies when it comes to authenticity?
B. Angelo Mosso A. Signature and photograph
C. William Marston B. Thumb mark and photograph
D. John Larson C. Thumb mark and signature
1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity? D. Signature only
1415. What is the best test in determining the presence of
A. Blue blood?
B. Violet A. Benzedine
C. Pink B. Marquis
D. Bright red C. Takayama
1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types, D. Teichman
model of firearm and its bullets is done by - 1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects
A. Ballistician the result of polygraph examination?
B. Ballistic engineer A. Yes
C. Forensic engineer B. No
D. Firearm prober C. Depends
1403. What is the type of document which is notarized by a D. Maybe
RTC judge? 1417. It is where handwriting rest?
A. Public A. Feet
B. Official B. Vase line
C. Private C. Baseline
D. None of these D. Alignment
1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke 1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the
is called - heart that results to death.
A. Slicing A. Instantaneous rigor
B. Embracing B. Heart attack
C. Retouching C. Myocardial infarction
D. Patching D. Death
1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from 1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is
the chamber? measured in millimeter by the -
A. Breech A. Kymograph
B. Firing pin B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Extractor C. Pneumograph
D. Ejector D. Galvanograph
1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by 1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance
- of fingerprint is for -
A. Gauge A. Indemnification
B. Caliber B. Comparison
C. Caliper C. Identification
D. Hundredth of an inch D. Collection
1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is 1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime
involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the - scene which will be used for court presentation is called -
A. Victim A. Crime scene photography
B. Investigator B. Forensic photography
C. Object relative C. Crime photography
D. Prosecutor D. Police photography
1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern 1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves
which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling the muzzle of the gun is a kind of –
impression columns? A. Interior ballistics
A. Rolled impression B. Terminal ballistics
B. Indexing impression C. Forensic ballistics
C. Palm impression D. Exterior ballistics
D. Little finger impression 1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is
1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a known for introducing the word “Criminalistics.”
gun is also termed as – A. Hans Gross
 B. Alphonse Bertillon 1439. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be
C. Prof. R.A. Riess conducted in the crime laboratory?
D. Edmond Locard A. DNA
1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas? B. Microscope examination
a. No C. Chemical examination
b. Never D. Serology examination
c. Yes 1440. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the
d. Maybe effect to the fingerprint?
1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an image, A. Blurred
with a means of holding sensitized material and with a B. Sticky
means of regulating the amount of light that enters the C. Classified
camera at a given time. a. camera D. Clear
b. light 1441. What is found on the left white portion of the portrait?
c. film A. Vignette
d. lens B. Watermark
1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper C. Security fiber
a. Side D. Fiber
b. Middle 1442. In Henry System how many clasifications of
c. Lower fingerprints are there?
d. Upper A. 2
1427. What is the most common death caused by asphyxia? B. 3
a. strangulation C. 8
b. drowning D. 7
c. throttling 1443. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and
d. Hanging sickness is what kind of signature?
1428. What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage? A. Genuine
a. brain B. Spurious
b. stomach C. Forged
c. lung D. Simulated
1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch 1444. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you
a. small firearm consider it as rape on minor?
b. handgun A. Yes
c. revolver B. No
d. shotgun C. Partly Yes
1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the D. Partly No
pneumograph? 1445. In polarization film, how long is the developing?
a. 20 inches A. 5 minutes
b. 10 inches B. 7 min
c. 7 inches C. 3 min
d. 8 inches D. 8 minutes
1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line of 1446. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet?
physical defense. It must have: A. Jacketed
a. the building itself B. Metallic
b. communication barrier C. Silver
c. perimeter barrier D. Ogive
d. window barrier 1447. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and
1432. If the dead person is laying, where will the blood go _____.
during livor mortis? A. Hemotoxic
A. Back B. Viral
B. Neck C. Surgical
C. Head D. B or C
D. Legs
1433. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands?
A. Yes 1448. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible?
B. No A. Under experimental stage
C. Partly Yes B. Under analysis
D. Partly No C. Based on opinion
1434. What is the other term for dot? D. Unskill
A. Islet
B. Core 1449. Phos means light, graphia means _____.
C. Delta A. Write
D. Bifurcation B. Study
1435. In writing, what is being used? C. Technology
A. Finger D. Record
B. Forearm 1450. In major classification, the right thumb is the
C. Hands numerator while the left is the denominator?
D. All of the choices A. Yes
1436. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch, B. No
whorl and _____. C. It depends
A. Ulnar loop 1451. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you
B. Radial loop photograph even though there is no SOCO photographer?
C. Loop A. Vehicular accident scene
D. Arch B. Infanticide scene
1437. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this? C. Homicide scene
A. Irrelevant D. Parricide scene
B. Relevant 1452. What is the most common symptom of coma?
C. Control A. Unconsciousness
D. Evidence B. Blackening of lips
1438. In polygraph examination, what is being detected? C. Dilated eyes
A. Lying D. consciousness
B. Dying 1453. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking?
C. Truth A. H2O
D. Response B. Blood
 C. Air 1465. . Which of the following, the best method to use in
D. Anesthesia firing a revolver is to keep:
1454. In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is a. Both eyes closed
not limited to ____. b. Both eyes open
A. Semen c. Only the right eye is open
B. Blood d. Only the left eye is open
C. Riverstone 1466. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on
D. None of these the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
1455. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
their base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well as following statement the one which can most accurately be
the striking point of the bullet. inferred is that:
a. Jacketed bullet a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
b. Armor-piercing b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right
c. Semi-wed cutter bullet c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either
d. Tracer bullet left or right
1456. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the d. All of the above
bore diameter measured from: 1467. The secret of good shooting form is:
a. Land to firearm a. Proper sighting of the target
b. Land to land b. Firing slowly and carefully
c. Land to groves c. A relaxed and natural position
d. Groves to land d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
1457. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is
sealed by a solid flat block of metal against which the 1468. The term muzzle velocity refers most
barrel comes into position when the weapon is closed for accurately to the:
firing, which is termed as: a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
a. Extractor b. Average speed of the bullet in flight
b. Breechface c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
c. Head space d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
d. Breechblock
1458. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one 1469. Discharged bullet are initiated at:
inch in diameter is called. a. On base or nose
a. Machine gun b. Left side
b. Musket c. Right side
c. Artillery d. The end of the bullet
d. Single-shot firearm 1470. Discharged shell are initiated at:
1459. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
characteristics of: b. Where firing pin strikes
a. Four lands, four grooves right twist c. On any part of the shell
b. Six lands, six grooves left twist d. None of the above
c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist 1471. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
d. Five lands, five grooves right twist a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
1460. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in
its flight is called:
a. Range 1472. The caliber of the gun is:
b. Gauge a. Its barrel length
c. Rifling b. The circumference of its barrel
d. Center-fire c. The size of the ammunition used
1461. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets d. Diameter of the bore
fired from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the 1473. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of
cylinder with the bore: the exploded shell have been recovered by the
a. Shaving marks investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell with
b. Skid marks the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
c. Pivot marks a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
d. landmarks b. The cap and the wads
1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to: c. The cap and the pellets
a. James Forsythe d. The shot shell only
b. Philip O. Gravelle 1474. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
c. Van Amberg concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
d. Berthold Scwartz means of the ballistics is that:
1462. That science dealing with the motion of projectile a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight
from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it lands
reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called: b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined
a. Posterior ballistics by the angle of lead
b. Interior ballistics c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
c. Exterior ballistics differentiated by the direction of the lead
d. Terminal ballistics d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the
1463. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different width of the groove
from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
useful in directly identifying the: 1475. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different
a. Person who fired the particular gun from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
b. Direction form which a shot was fired useful in directly identifying the:
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired a. Person who fired the particular gun
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound b. Direction form which a shot was fired
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
1464. A patrolman should fire his pistol: d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
a. At no time 1476. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel a. At no time
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
d. Only as a last resort c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Only as a last resort
 1488. The term double action with reference to revolver
means most nearly that:
1477. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing
a revolver is to keep: action
a. Both eyes closed b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released
b. Both eyes open the hammer
c. Only the right eye is open c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell
d. Only the left eye is open ejection
1478. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge
the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling is pushed from the magazine at the same time
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the 1489. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or
following statement the one which can most accurately be Rifle barrels is called:
inferred is that: a. Land
a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves b. Groove
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and c. Lead
right d. One complete revolution inside the bore
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be 1490. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
either left or right shell by the:
d. All of the above a. Firing
1479. The secret of good shooting form is: b. Ejector
a. Proper sighting of the target c. Extractor
b. Firing slowly and carefully d. Hammer
c. A relaxed and natural position 1491. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is called
1480. The term muzzle velocity refers most the:
accurately to the: a. Ejector
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight b. Primer
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight c. Striker
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle d. extractor
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
1481. Discharged bullet are initiated at: 1492. A revolver to be tested and used in
a. On base or nose evidence should be picked up by:
b. Left side a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel
c. Right side b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger
d. The end of the bullet guard
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief
1482. Discharged shell are initiated at: d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end 1493. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found
b. Where firing pin strikes at the scene of the crime is normally not individual marked
c. On any part of the shell for identification in the:
d. None of the above a. Trigger
1483. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to: b. Ejector
a. Increase the speed of the bullet c. Slide
b. Decrease the amount of recoil d. barrel
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification 1494. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in usually a:
the air a. Rifled bore
1484. The caliber of the gun is: b. Choke bore
a. Its barrel length c. Full choke bore
b. The circumference of its barrel d. Smooth bore
c. The size of the ammunition used 1495. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a
d. Diameter of the bore firearm discharge will usually produce detectable powder
1485. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of pattern on a target is about:
the exploded shell have been recovered by the a. 6 to 10 inches
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell with b. 6 to 10 feet
the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given: c. 6 to 10 yards
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets d. 6 to 10 meters
b. The cap and the wads 1496. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a
c. The cap and the pellets criminal:
d. The shot shell only a. The empty shell remain within the chamber
b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of
firing
1486. Which of the following, the most accurate statement c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
means of the ballistics is that: 1497. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least index finger should:
eight lands a. Grasp the stock
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be b. Be straight along the barrel
determined by the angle of lead c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be d. Be inside of the trigger guard
differentiated by the direction of the lead 1498. A member of the police force may properly used his
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from pistol:
the width of the groove a. To disperse a disorder group of people
1487. Paraffin test is used to: b. To subdue a maniac
a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth c. To prevent the escape of a pelon
b. Discover whether the deceased person was d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a
poisoned crime
c. Estimate the approximate time of death of the 1499. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a
deceased revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful:
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun a. To see that it is not loaded
recently b. To put on the safety lock
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily
d. To mark it readily on the barrel
 1512. The most important single process in barrel
1500. The term “MAGNUM” originated in: manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
a. United States expert is:
b. France a. Reaming operation
c. England b. Rifling operation
d. Italy c. Boring operation
1501. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due d. Grinding or machining
to rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or
gunpowder is: 1513. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which
a. Pressure causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from
b. Extractor the gun is called:
c. Corrosion a. Extractor
d. Priming Composition b. Ejector
1502. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm c. Hammer
due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is: d. trigger
a. Ejector 1514. This process of combustion results in the solid
b. Single action powder being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high
c. Erosion temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases which
d. Potassium nitrate causes the explosive force which propels the bullet or shot
1503. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire charge along the barrel. This force is known as:
continuously while the trigger is depressed is called: a. Energy
a. Double action b. Pressure
b. Caliber c. Velocity
c. Automatic d. High Intensity
d. Trigger 1515. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with
1504. The distance that the rifling advances to make one the right hand twist is:
complete turn inside the gun barrel is called: a. Smith & Wesson
a. Gauge b. Browning type
b. Breech End c. Colt type
c. Pitch of rifling d. Webley type
d. Velocity 1516. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by
1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases the expansive force of gases coming from burning powder
the hammer that must be manually cocked is called: a:
a. Automatic a. Helixometer
b. Repeating arms b. Firearm
c. Single action c. Stereoscopic
d. Ejector d. Comparison microscope
1506. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both 1517. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of
cocks and releases the hammer: the bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize
a. Single action friction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore is:
b. Trigger a. Jacketed bullet
c. Hammer b. Wad cutter bullet
d. Double action c. Cannelure
1507. When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability d. Plated bullet
bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is 1518. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its
known as: original trajectory is:
a. Shotgun a. Range
b. Choke b. Fouling
c. Gauge c. Key hole shot
d. Chamber d. ricochet
1508. The only sure method of determining the velocity is 1519. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or
by the use of: there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning of
a. Micrometer the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is:
b. Taper Gauge a. Misfire
c. Caliber b. Recoil
d. Chronograph c. Hang-fire
1509. One of the most important single case in Firearms d. velocity
Identification History was that involving two men who were 1520. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as
supposed to have their employer and his housekeeper in phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon impact
upper New York State: is called:
a. Castelo Case a. Boat tail bullet
b. Timbol Case b. Tracer bullet
c. The Stielow Case c. Incendiary bullet
d. Castaneda case d. Ball type
1521. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”.
1510. During the seven years of radical agitation that a. Gatling guns
followed the arrest of these men , It was apparently b. Pistolized shotgun
forgotten that they had been seized on specific charge of c. Carbine
murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard d. muskets
Berrdelli. Forensic Ballistics sprange into national 1522. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by
prominence during this last phrase of: means of compressed air is:
a. Brownell Case a. Springfield armory
b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case b. Marlin rifle
c. Mitchell Case c. Carbine
d. Weber Case d. Air rifle
1511. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First 1523. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol
World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps is:
and considered the Father of modern Ballistics: a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist
a. Lieutenant Van Amberg b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist
b. Maj. Calvin Goddard c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist
d. Philip O. Gravelle 1524. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
a. Caliber .32
 b. Caliber .25 a. 7.65mm
c. Caliber .45 b. 6.35 mm
d. Caliber .22 c. 9 mm
1525. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch d. 7.63 mm
shot shotgun cartridges contains: 1538. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed
a. 12 gauge in explosion;
b. 24 pellets a. Misfired cartridge
c. 6 pellets b. Hang-fire
d. 9 pellets c. Tapered cartridge
1526. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined d. Rebated cartridge
under the comparison microscopic and was erroneously 1539. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of
drawn a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this the bullet?
matching is called: a. Omoscope
a. Photomicrograph b. Helixometer
b. Pseudomatch c. Chronograph
c. Microphotograph d. micrometer
d. striagraph 1540. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a
1527. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a combination of:
stationary position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its a. Pitch grifling
natural tendency is to go straight forward before b. Twist
encountering the regular rifling twist is called: c. Lands & grooves
a. Shaving marks d. cannelures
b. Skidmarks
c. Individual characteristics 1541. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after
d. Slippage marks explosion is called:
1528. Those characteristics which are determinable only a. Suppressor
after the manufacture of the firearm. They are b. Muzzle blast
characteristics whose existence is beyond the control of c. Compensation
men and which have random distribution. Their existence d. choke
in a firearm is brought about through the failure of the tool 1542. What are muzzle loading firearms?
in its normal operation through wear and tear, abuse, a. Muskets
mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes: b. Shotgun
a. Forensic ballistics c. Single sot firearms
b. Class characteristics d. Rifled arms
c. Riflings 1543. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you
d. Individual characteristics mean by 51?
1529. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore a. The diameter of the cartridge case
against the force of the charge is: b. The shoulder of the cartridge case
a. Breechface c. The diameter of the cartridge
b. Breechblock d. The length of the cartridge case
c. Chamber 1544. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent
d. bore a. Caliber .32
1530. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch b. Caliber .30
in diameter are generally classified as: c. Caliber .308
a. Artillery d. Caliber 30.06
b. Small arms 1545. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun
c. Cannons cartridge 12 gauge?
d. Recoilless rifle a. 12 pellets
1531. It is the study of firearms Identification by means of b. 9 pellets
the ammunition fired through them: c. 10 pellets
a. Ballistics d. 16 pellets
b. Forensic Ballistics 1546. . A firearm which features a movable firearm which is
c. Terminal ballistics manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the
d. Interior ballistics shooter;
1532. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson, a. Slide action type
revolver caliber .38 is: b. Lower action type
a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist c. Bolt action type
b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist d. Single shot firearm
c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist 1547. A device primarily designed for another purposes that
d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist have a gun mechanism in corporated in them.
1533. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in: a. Gas gun
a. Foot pound b. Liberator
b. Lbs./sq. inch c. Freakish device
c. Feet per second d. Flare guns
d. millimeter 1548. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the
1534. How many types of problem are there in Forensic head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the
Ballistics? manufacturer, caliber or gauge.
a. 8 a. Headspace
b. 7 b. Headstamp
c. 6 c. Proof mark
d. 5 d. ratchet
1535. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the 1549. The distance from the face of the closed breech of a
flame coming from the priming composition passes? firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the
a. Shell head cartridge seats.
b. Vent a. Keyhole
c. Primer pocket b. Headspace
d. anvil c. Gas operator
1536. What is the most powerful handgun in the world? d. Silencer
a. Magnum .357 1550. The most important single process in barrel
b. Magnum .44 manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
c. Magnum .50 expert.
d. Magnum .41 a. Reaming operation
1537. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter? b. Rifling operation
 c. Boring operation d. Film sensitivity
d. Grinding operation 1564. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only.
1551. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the a. Blue sensitive
target sideways; b. Orthochromatic
a. Ricochet c. Panchromatic
b. Hang-fire d. Infra red
c. Key hole shot 1565. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts
d. misfired no shadow.
1552. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major a. Bright
length of the barrel in smooth and the few inches are b. Dull
rifled. c. Hazy
a. Gas operated d. Cloudy
b. Damascus barrel
c. Paradox gun 1566. Lens corrected for astigmatism.
d. Cape gun a. Aprochomat lens
1553. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to b. Anastigmat lens
rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand. c. Achromatic lens
a. Headspace d. Rapid rectilinear lens
b. Ratchet 1567. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with
c. Trigger pull focal length that is:
d. Cylinder stop a. Wide angle lens
1554. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to b. Normal lens
prevent accident discharge or damage to it. c. Telephoto lens
a. Trigger pull d. Narrow angle lens
b. Trigger guard 1568. When a material does not allow light to pass its
c. Trailing edge medium it is said to be:
d. Thumb rest a. Transparent
1555. Pressure developed after explosion is measured in: b. Translucent
a. feet/second c. Opaque
b. Lbs./sq. inch d. All of the above
c. Foot pound 1569. To separate colors, this homogenous medium
d. Millimetre absorbs and transmits light rays passing through it.
a. Filter
1556. Used in cases such as for sending signals and b. Stop bath
enabling to see enemies in the dark. c. Developer
a. Harpoon guns d. Fixer
b. Gas guns 1570. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens
c. Flare guns type for interior photograph?
d. Care guns a. Wide angle lens
1557. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second b. Normal lens
30? c. Telephoto lens
a. Refers to the caliber d. Narrow angle lens
b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder 1571. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a
c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case predetermined time interval.
d. Refers to the weight of the bullet a. View finder
1558. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the. b. Shutter
a. Muzzle energy c. Light tight box
b. Diameter of the cartridge d. Holder of sensitized material
c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet 1572. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the
d. Pressure developed subject.
1559. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more a. Light tight box
than one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press of b. Shutter
the trigger? c. Lens
a. Slide d. View finder
b. Main spring 1573. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is
c. Disconnector focused with a given particular diaphragm opening.
d. Magazine catch a. Depth of field
1560. The amount of force which must be applied to the b. Hyper-focal distance
trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released. c. Focal distance
a. Velocity d. Scale bed
b. Muzzle energy 1574. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the
c. Trigger pull farthest object.
d. Shocking power a. Depth field
1561. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in b. Hyper-focal distance
police photography? c. Scale bed
a. Single, glossy, white d. Focal distance
b. Single, matte, cream 1575. Which among the following is not a primary color?
c. Double, glossy, white a. Red
d. Double matte, cream b. Blue
1562. When a photograph was developed, the objects in c. Yellow
open space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was d. Green
the lighting condition when the shot was taken? 1576. It is a microscopically small photograph.
a. Bright a. Microphotograph
b. Dull b. Photomicrograph
c. Hazy c. Photomacrograph
d. Cloudy d. Macrophotograph
1577. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes
1563. Refers to the response of film to different wavelength b. 5 to 10 minutes
of light source. c. 20 to 30 minutes
a. Spectral sensitivity d. 30 to 60 minutes
b. Color sensitivity 1578. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal
c. Light sensitivity paper for printing?
 a. Chloride paper 1591. Photography is defined as drawing with what
b. Bromide paper particular element?
c. Contact paper a. Light
d. Chloro-bromide paper b. Camera
1579. This refers to the absence of all colors. c. Film
a. White d. Developer
b. Red 1592. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the
c. Blue thicker center and thinner sides.
d. Black a. Positive lens
1580. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space b. Negative lens
casts a transparent shadow. c. Concave lens
a. Hazy d. Convex lens
b. Cloudy Dull 1593. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the
c. Cloudy bright various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
d. Bright a. Infra-red
1581. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what b. X-ray
particular method of photography is utilized? c. Orthochromatic
a. Bounce light d. Panchromatic
b. Side light 1594. The first use of photography in police work is in what
c. Transmitted light particular field?
d. Reflected light a. Crime prevention
1582. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of b. Identification files
two chemical solution in chemical processing in c. Surveillance work
photography. d. Crime scene investigation
a. Development 1595. The chemical processing step wherein the latent
b. Stop-bath image recorded on the paper or film becomes visible.
c. Fixation a. Fixer
d. Bleaching b. Bleacher
1583. Which among the following comprises the essential c. Stop bath
parts of a camera? d. Developer
a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized
material, View finder
b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized 1596. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use
material, View finder of microscope.
c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized a. Microphotography
material, Shutter b. Photomicrography
d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder c. Macrophotography
of sensitized material d. Photomacrography
1584. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of 1597. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of
its negative material. image refers to:
a. Wide angle lens a. Hyper-focal distance
b. Normal lens b. Focal distance
c. Long lens c. Focusing
d. Telephoto lens d. Focal length
1585. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of 1598. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from a. Laser light
two apertures. b. Coherent light
a. Focusing scale c. Black light
b. Scale bed d. Heat rays
c. View finder 1599. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in
d. Range finder logarithmic values refers to:
a. ISO rating
1586. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by b. ASA rating
connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a c. DIN rating
compound microscope. d. BSI rating
a. Microphotograph 1600. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing
b. Photomicrograph solution.
c. Photomacrograph a. Hypo or silver halide
d. Macrophotograph b. Potassium Alum
1587. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true c. Sodium Sulfate
photography. d. Acetic Acid
a. William Henry Fox Talbot 1601. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer
b. Thomas Wedgewood solution.
c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre a. Hydroquinone
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce b. Sodium sulfite
1588. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at c. Sodium carbonate
bright sunlight with normal subject. d. Potassium bromide
a. 1/30 f-8 1602. Refers to the product of illumination and time.
b. 1/125 f-11 a. Exposure
c. 1/60 f-4 b. Development
d. 1/250 f 2-8 c. Sensitized material
1589. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the d. Photograph
scene we use a camera at what particular level? 1603. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging.
a. Elevated a. Potassium Bromide
b. Eye level b. Sodium Sulfite
c. Bird’s eye view c. Sodium Carbonate
d. Worm’s eye view d. Boric Acid
1590. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in 1604. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits
reference to visible light is: differentially light rays passing through it.
a. 001 to 100 a. Stop bath
b. 300 to 400 b. Fixer
c. 400 to 700 c. Filter
d. 700 to 1000 d. Dektol
1605. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at: b. Central pocket loop
a. Fingers c. Double loop
b. Palms d. Whorl
c. Soles of the feet 1620. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops,
d. All of the choices with its respective shoulder and deltas.
1606. The fingerprint classification which is used in the US a. Double loop
and other English speaking country. b. Accidental loop
a. Henry System c. Central pocket loop
b. Batley System d. Whorl
c. Bertillion System 1621. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two
d. Galton System deltas.
1607. Which among the following is considered as a basic a. Accidental loop
type of ridge characteristics? b. Double loop
a. Ridge endings c. Whorl
b. Bifurcation d. Central pocket loop
c. Dots 1622. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from
d. All of the choices the thumb toward the little finger?
1608. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of a. Tented Arch
papillary ridges as means of identification. b. Radial loop
a. Edgeoscopy c. Ulnar loop
b. Poroscopy d. Loop
c. Podoscopy 1623. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter
d. Chiroscopy on either side of the impression by a recurve, and
1609. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered.
subject’s hand is: a. Tented arch
a. Necessary b. Radial loop
b. Unnecessary c. Ulnar loop
c. Optional d. Loop
d. Excessive 1624. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation
1610. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is: of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
a. Temporary a. Latent prints
b. Permanent b. Ridge
c. Lasting c. Core
d. Stable d. Delta
1611. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
a. Porelon 1625. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:
b. Special pad a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
c. Inkless pad b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs
d. None of the foregoing c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
1612. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving
impression are arbitrarily classified as. ridges
a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing 1626. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form
b. Loops with ridge count a single ridge is called:
c. Arches a. Enclosure ridge
d. Dependent on ridge tracings b. Dot ridges
1613. Referred to as outer terminus: c. Short ridges
a. Delta d. Resembling a loop
b. Dots
c. Bifurcation
d. None of the foregoing 1627. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.
1614. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces: a. Soles of the foot
a. Impression of false markings b. Palm
b. Accentuation of patterns c. Finger
c. Pattern reversals d. Elbow
d. Difficulty in photographing 1628. Points often missed in rolling impression.
1615. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the a. Bifurcation
body of the subject. b. Core
a. All fingers c. Delta
b. All fingers except the thumbs d. Ridge
c. Both thumbs 1629. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an
d. Both little fingers impression or imprint.
1616. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the a. Latent print
fingerprint card are referred to as: b. Pattern
a. Rolled impressions c. Loop
b. Plain impressions d. Arch
c. Fragmentary impressions 1630. Which among the following is not considered as a
d. Visible impressions basic fingerprint pattern?
1617. Known for his rule which states that “No two a. Loop
individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that b. Arch
human skeleton does not change after 20 years. c. Whorl
a. Darwin d. Accidental
b. Mendel 1631. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a
c. Galton sequence of spirals around core axes.
d. Bertillon a. Whorl
1618. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is b. Central pocket loop
to view the area: c. Double loop
a. Obliquely d. Accidental
b. About half an inch distance 1632. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on
c. Directly papillary ridges as a means of identification.
d. About one inch distance a. Poroscopy
1619. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of b. Edgeoscopy
pattern are represented: c. Podoscopy
a. Accidental Whorl d. Dactyloscopy
1633. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. 1646. According to the methods of isolation, what poison is
a. Delta isolated by means of distillation.
b. Bifurcation a. Volatile poisons
c. Core b. Non volatile poisons
d. Pores c. Metallic poisons
1634. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or d. Tetanic poisons
ridges from the little finger toward the thumb. 1647. When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance
a. Ulnar loop of function or death within a short time, the poisoning is
b. Radial loop classified as:
c. Arch a. Acute poisoning
d. Whorl b. Sub-acute poisoning
1635. Basis of fingerprint identification. c. Chronic poisoning
a. Pores d. Suicidal poisoning
b. Ridges 1648. When the action of the poison is marked by
c. Friction ridges disturbance produced in distant part from the site of
d. Latent print application, it is classified as:
1636. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable a. Local
method of identification due to following reason; except: b. Remote
a. Fingerprints are not changeable c. Combined
b. There are no two identical fingerprints d. Acute
c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy 1649. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.
a. Semen
1637. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are b. Blood
formed and developed? c. Cells
a. 3rd month of fetus life d. Muscles
b. 6th month of infancy 1650. A man of average built would normally have how
c. At birth many quarts of blood?
d. 3 months after birth a. 6 quarts
1638. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble b. 7 quarts
a loop, spiral or rod. c. 8 quarts
a. Delta d. 9 quarts
b. Core 1651. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about
c. Ridge 65% of the blood.
d. Whorl a. Platelets
1639. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the b. Fibrin
identity between two points. c. Leucocytes
a. Nine d. Plasma
b. Twelve 1652. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood.
c. Fifteen a. Plasma
d. Eighteen b. Hemoglobin
1640. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical c. Erythrocytes
and chemical properties, physiological action, treatment d. Fibrin
and method of detection. 1653. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is
a. Forensic Chemistry decomposed and stained with contamination.
b. Toxicology a. Benzidine test
c. Posology b. Van Deen’s Test
d. Forensic Medicine c. Phenolphthalein test
1641. A substance which when introduced into the body is d. Precipitin test
absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is 1654. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof
capable of producing noxious effect. that subject is definitely blood.
a. Drugs a. Preliminary test
b. Dangerous drugs b. Confirmatory test
c. Poison c. Precipitin test
d. Antidotes d. Blood typing and grouping
1642. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the 1655. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or
mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in not.
the abdomen and purging. a. Preliminary test
a. Corrosives b. Confirmatory test
b. Irritants c. Precipitin test
c. Narcotics d. Blood typing and grouping
d. Tetanics
1643. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord 1656. Positive result in the preliminary examination for
producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they semen in Barberio’s test.
are attached, it is classified as: a. Picric acid
a. Corrosives b. Spermine picrate
b. Irritants c. Napthol diazonium
c. Narcotics d. Anthraquinous chloride
d. Tetanics 1657. Animal fiber may be best described by:
1644. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important a. It is composed of protein
application in: b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light
a. Counterfeit coins c. It burns fast
b. Theft and Robbery d. It has acid like odor when burned
c. Bombs and Explosives 1658. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the
d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers approximate time of firing the gun?
1645. Agents which depress or retard the physiological a. Soot
action of an organ. b. Nitrates and nitrites
a. Corrosives c. Gases
b. Sedatives d. Metallic fragments
c. Tetanics 1659. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal
d. Narcotics origin what should the chemist examine under the
microscope?
a. Parts of the shaft
 b. Parts of the tip c. Florence test
c. Parts of the hair d. Ultraviolet test
d. Parts of the root 1674. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
1660. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue a. Chemical examination
litmus to red, it is: b. Density gradient test
a. Cotton c. Ultra-violet light examination
b. Silk d. Microscopic test
c. Fiber glass 1675. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test
d. Steel wool is utilized?
1661. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race a. Accelerated aging test
determinant? b. Bursting strength test
a. Cortex c. Opacity examination
b. Cuticle d. Microscopic examination
c. Medulla 1676. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by
d. Shaft decaying body.
1662. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of a. Chloride
human or animal origin b. Ammonia
a. Ignition test or burning c. Carbon dioxide
b. Fluorescence analysis d. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Chemical analysis 1677. The application of chemical principles in the
d. Microscopic analysis examination of evidence.
1663. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is a. Forensics
ineffective. b. Criminalistics
a. Carbon c. Instrumentation
b. Logwood d. Forensic Chemistry
c. Nigrosine 1678. To positively determine the presence of blood in
d. Gallotanic stained material, what test is used?
1664. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its a. Takayama Test
effects. b. Phenolphtalien test
a. Emetics c. Baberio’s test
b. Antidotes d. Florence test
c. Alkaloids 1679. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons
d. Tetanics may be isolated by means of what process?
1665. Which among the following exhibits bluish a. Extraction
fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light? b. Dilution
a. Blood c. Distillation
b. Semen d. Dialysis
c. Saliva 1680. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the
d. Urine presence of alcohol in the human body?
1666. Oldest known explosive. a. Saliva test
a. Black powder b. Harger breath test
b. Smoke powder c. Fecal test
c. Dynalite d. Drug test
d. TNT 1681. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with
1667. Deals with the study and identification by means of which the poison came into contact.
body fluids. a. Acute
a. Immunology b. Local
b. Serology c. Remote
c. Posology d. Combined
d. Pharmacology 1682. A material which is used to which is used to improve
1668. The process in reproducing physical evidence by the quality of the paper.
plaster moulds. a. Sizing material
a. Casting b. Rosin
b. Cementing c. Gelatin
c. Moulage d. Starch
d. Pickling 1683. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be
1669. Major component of a glass. formed if it is pesent.
a. Lime a. Rosin
b. Silica b. Starch
c. Soda c. Casein
d. Lime d. Gelatin
1670. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of 1684. Oldest ink material known to man.
tissues and causes nausea. a. Logwood
a. Corrosives b. Nigrosine
b. Irritants c. Carbon
c. Tetanics d. Gallotanic
d. Asthenics 1685. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
a. Logwood
1671. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity b. Nigrosine
and rigidity. c. Carbon
a. Lime d. Gallotanic
b. Soda 1686. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing
c. Glass ink, pencil or other marking material.
d. Gel a. Erasure
1672. An organic bacterial poison. b. Obliterated writing
a. Strychnine c. Indented writing
b. Ptomaine d. Contact writing
c. Brucine 1687. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with
d. Chloroform male pelvis.
1673. This test is used to detect the presence of semen a. Greater
particularly in stained clothing. b. Equal
a. Microscopic test c. Lesser
b. Barberio’s test d. Less significant
 1700. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination
1688. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation with either group A or B what would be the particular blood
in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to group of the sample.
declare a person clinically dead? a. Group A
a. 10-15 minutes b. Group B
b. 15-30 minutes c. Group AB
c. 30-45 minutes d. Group O
d. 45-60 minutes 1701. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
changes.
1689. A simple test used to determine cessation of a. 10 years
respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on b. 20 years
top of the chest of a person and no visible movement is c. 30 years
noticed. d. 40 years
a. Winslov test 1702. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white
b. Florence test greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
c. Barberio test a. Saponification
d. Castle Meyer test b. Rigor mortis
1690. A muscular change characterized by the softness of c. Mummification
the muscles and in which it no longer responds to d. Maceration
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of 1703. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood
proteins. tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
a. Stage of primary flaccidity portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity death and is completed by 12 hours.
c. Rigor mortis a. Rigor mortis
d. Livor mortis b. Primary flaccidity
1691. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from c. Maceration
a dead body in how many days? d. Livor mortis
a. 7 1704. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
b. 14 after meals.
c. 21 a. 2 to 3 hours
d. 28 b. 3 to 4 hours
1692. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm c. 4 to 5 hours
countries within how many days from death? d. 5 to 6 hours
a. 1 1705. Rate of growth of human hair.
b. 2 a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
c. 3 b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
d. 4 c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
1693. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and 1706. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body
separation of fragment bones. temperature is about:
a. Simple fracture a. 10 to 15 deg. F
b. Compound fracture b. 15 to 20 deg. F
c. Comminuted fracture c. 20 to 25 deg. F
d. None of the foregoing d. 25 to 30 deg. F
1694. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body. 1707. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Internal hemorrhage a. Wound
b. Hematoma b. Trauma
c. Contusion c. Bruise
d. Internal wound d. Scratch
1695. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object. 1708. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so
a. Imprint abrasion serious that it will endanger one’s life.
b. Pressure abrasion a. Non-mortal wound
c. Friction abrasion b. Mortal wound
d. Graze c. Trauma
1696. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and d. Coup injury
with accompanying movement over the skin. 1709. A collection of blood underneath the skin.
a. Pressure abrasion a. Contusion
b. Imprint abrasion b. Bruise
c. Impact abrasion c. Petechiae
d. Graze d. Hematoma
1697. A nervous disease marked by seizures with 1710. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and
convulsion and loss of consciousness. muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
a. Epilepsy a. Sprain
b. Apoplexy b. Contusion
c. Catalepsy c. Fracture
d. Uremia d. Dislocation
1698. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily 1711. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is
eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen evident.
in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo, a. Simple
vomiting, coma and convulsion. b. Compound
c. Comminuted
a. Epilepsy d. Dislocation
b. Apoplexy 1712. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone
c. Catalepsy without external wounds.
d. Uremia a. Sprain
1699. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in b. Fracture
how many hours when the blood has already clotted or c. Hematoma
diffused to different parts of the body wherein the d. Dislocation
discoloration is permanent and darker in color? 1713. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of
a. 12 hours tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained
b. 24 hours that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of
c. 36 hours the body to the gun is approximately.
d. 48 hours a. 6 inches
 b. 12 inches c. Minimum of six weeks
c. 18 inches d. Minimum of eight weeks
d. 24 inches
1714. A physical injury which is found at the site and also 1727. Period of time wherein there body would be
the opposite site of the application of force. skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical countries.
a. Extensive injury a. 1 month
b. Coup injury b. 3 months
c. Contre coup injury c. 6 months
d. Coup and contre coup injury d. 12 months
1715. A physical injury found at the site of the application of 1728. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
force. muscular change.
a. Extensive injury a. Cold stiffening
b. Coup injury b. Heat stiffening
c. Contre coup injury c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Coup and contre coup injury d. Putrefaction
1729. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the
1716. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
and stone. a. Diffusion lividity
a. Punctured wound b. Clotting of the blood
b. Hack wound c. Rigor mortis
c. Lacerated wound d. Hypostatic lividity
d. Incised wound 1730. Approximate average amount of semen per
ejaculation under normal conditions.
1717. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what a. 2 to 2.5 cc
wound would be exhibited? b. 2.5 to 5 cc
a. Punctured wound c. 5 to 10 cc
b. Hack wound d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
c. Lacerated wound 1731. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is
d. Incised wound regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
1718. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife. a. Deonatural acid
a. Punctured wound b. Dynamic natural anti-body
b. Hack wound c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
c. Lacerated wound d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
d. Incised wound 1732. A powerful tool in identification which points to the
1719. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows source of biological evidence by matching it with samples
ACGT, A stands for what? from the victims, suspects and their relatives.
a. Adenine a. DNA profiling
b. Adenide b. Serology
c. Adenum c. Instrumentation
d. Adenoid d. Forensics
1720. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what 1733. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good
sample should be obtained for DNA testing? sources of cells.
a. Fingerprints a. Saliva and tears
b. Hair b. Semen and saliva
c. Skeleton c. Urine and semen
d. Teeth d. Semen and blood
1721. It is inherited from the mother found in the 1734. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may
mitochondria which is in the cell body undergo DNA testing.
a. Nuclear DNA a. Hair
b. Helix b. Bone
c. Mitochondrial DNA c. Skin
d. DNA nucleus d. Fingernails
1722. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit 1735. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive
changes. action of its bacteria and enzyme.
a. 10 years a. Primary flaccidity
b. 20 years b. Post mortem rigidity
c. 30 years c. Cadaveric spasm
d. 40 years d. Putrefaction
1723. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of 1736. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female.
respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an a. Possession of vagina
organism. b. Possession of ovaries
a. Somatic death c. Possession of estrogen
b. Cellular death d. Possession of progesterone
c. Molecular death
d. Apparent death 1737. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.
1724. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural a. Hippocratic facie
a. Mannerism b. Mongolian facie
b. Tic c. Myxedema facie
c. Gait d. Facies lionine
d. Body language 1738. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
1725. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to a. Presence of testis
30 minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the b. Presence of androsterone
muscles and loss of their natural tone. c. Possession of penis
a. Stage of primary flaccidity d. Possession of testosterone
b. Post mortem rigidity 1739. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to
c. Cadaveric spasm mucous secretion of the respiratory track after death.
d. Secondary flaccidity a. “Cutis anserina”
b. Washerwoman
c. “Champignon d’ ocume”
1726. Approximate time for the completion of one case for d. Cadaveric spasm
DNA testing. 1740. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
a. Minimum of 2 weeks a. Natural death
b. Minimum of 4 weeks b. Molecular death
 c. Somatic death a. Polygraphy
d. Apparent death b. Polygraph
1741. A type of burn produced as a result of the body c. Truth serum
coming into contact with a moving object. d. Interrogation
a. Thermal burn 1755. Devised an instrument capable of continuously
b. Friction burn recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure.
c. Radiation burn a. William Marston
d. Electrical burn b. Angelo Mosso
1742. A condition of a woman who have had one or more c. John Larson
sexual experience but not had conceived a child. d. Sticker
a. Moral virginity
b. Demi-virginity
c. Physical virginity 1756. Psychological response to any demand.
d. Virgo intact a. Reaction
1743. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body. b. Stress
a. Flaccidity c. Pressure
b. Rigidity d. All of the above
c. Lividity 1757. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure
d. Putrefaction is to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent.
1744. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain a. 30 mm
parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of b. 60 mm
cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and c. 90 mm
diminished body temperature. d. 120 mm
a. Gangrene 1758. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep
b. Frostbite considered fit for polygraph examination.
c. Trench foot a. 5
d. Immersion foot b. 6
1745. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the c. 7
breakdown of sweating mechanism. d. 8
a. Heat cramp
b. Heat exhaustion 1759. Type of question related to the facts of the case and
c. Heat stroke is answerable by NO.
d. Burning a. Relevant question
1746. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, b. Irrelevant question
which part is not used? c. General question
a. Skull d. Immaterial question
b. Pelvis 1760. Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES.
c. Sternum a. Relevant question
d. Tibia b. Irrelevant question
1747. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and c. General question
bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death d. Immaterial question
due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and 1761. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that
massive infection. something is hidden or obscure.
a. Sunburn a. Fear
b. 1st degree burn b. Deception
c. 2nd degree burn c. Detection
d. 3rd degree burn d. Reaction
1748. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 1762. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ
minutes would die, the case of death would be? or organism as a result of stimulation.
a. Stupor a. Response
b. Stroke b. Deception
c. Asphyxia c. Detection
d. Exhaustion d. Reaction
1749. Most effective method in determining sex of an 1763. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger,
individual. which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Gonodal test a. Response
b. Social test b. Reaction
c. Genital test c. Stimuli
d. Chromosomal test d. Fear
1750. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the 1764. This component drives the chart paper under the
time of death. recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches
a. Cadaveric spasm per minute.
b. Putrefaction a. Cardiosphygmograph
c. Mascular contraction b. Kymograph
d. Rigor mortis c. Galvanograph
1751. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to: d. Pneumograph
a. Masturbation 1765. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of
b. Fingering the subject.
c. Sodomy a. Finger electrode plate
d. Sexual intercourse b. Diacritic notch
1752. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell c. Rubber convoluted tube
occurs in: d. Kymograph
a. 20 to 30 minutes 1766. This component record changes of the subject blood
b. 3 to 6 hours pressure and pulse rate.
c. 12 to 24 hours a. Cardiosphygmograph
d. 24 to 36 hours b. Sphygmomanometer
1753. Most noticeable sign of death. c. Galvanograph
a. Cessation of respiration d. Pneumograph
b. Progressive fall of body temperature 1767. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move amount of electricity.
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation a. Cardisphygmograph
1754. Most common and scientific method of detecting b. Sphygmomanometer
deception. c. Galvanograph
 d. Pneumograph 1782. Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally
1768. This component records the changes in the breathing without any attempt to change or control its identifying
of the subject. habits and its usual quality of execution.
a. Cardisphygmograph a. Natural writing
b. Sphygmomanometer b. Disguised writing
c. Galvanograph c. Cursive writing
d. Pneumograph d. System of writing
1769. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity 1783. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide
to deceive others. his identity is using:
a. Black lie a. Natural writing
b. White lie b. Disguised writing
c. Red lie c. Cursive writing
d. Yellow lie d. System of writing
1770. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the 1784. Writing in which are for most part joined together.
relevant question. a. Natural writing
a. Reaction b. Disguised writing
b. Normal response c. Cursive writing
c. Specific response d. System of writing
d. Positive response 1785. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen
1771. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions of any individual handwriting or in the product of any
were answered. typewriter.
a. Reaction a. Normal variation
b. Normal response b. Natural variation
c. Specific response c. Tremor
d. Positive response d. Wrong hand writing
1772. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
a. 20 to 30 minutes 1786. A person executing a signature while his arm is
b. 30 to 60 minutes steadied and assisted produces a:
c. 60 to 90 minutes a. Guided signature
d. 90 to 120 minutes b. Normal signature
1773. The primary objective of post test interview. c. Scribble
a. To thank the subject d. Handwriting signature
b. To obtain confession 1787. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital
c. To make the subject calm letters.
d. To explain polygraph test procedures a. Embellishment
b. Beard
1774. The purpose of pretest interview. c. Buckle knot
a. To prepare subject for polygraph test d. Diacritic
b. To obtain confession 1788. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal
c. To make the subject calm strokes.
d. To explain polygraph test procedures a. Hook
1775. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal b. Spur
pattern of response. c. Loop
a. Relevant questions d. Staff
b. Irrelevant questions 1789. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
c. Supplementary questions a. Hook
d. Control questions b. Spur
1776. The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph. c. Loop
a. 3 d. Staff
b. 4 1790. The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of
c. 5 many capital letters and which can also be seen
d. 6 occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters.
1777. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for a. Embellishment
detecting deception. b. Beard
a. William Marston c. Buckle knot
b. Harold Burtt d. Hitch
c. John Larson 1791. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
d. Leonarde Keeler a. Embellishment
b. Beard
1778. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure c. Buckle knot
changes were signs of deception. d. Diacritic
a. William Marston 1792. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
b. Harold Burtt a. Embellishment
c. Leonard Keeler b. Hump
d. John Larson c. Diacritic
1779. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph d. Knot
procedure for accused persons. 1793. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious
a. Angelo Mosso recurrence of stress of impulse.
b. Veraguth a. Line quality
c. Lombroso b. Rhythm
d. Vittorio Benussi c. Baseline
1780. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin d. Writing pressure
reflex. 1794. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or
a. Angelo Mosso intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface
b. Veraguth with increase pressure.
c. Lombroso a. Writing pressure
d. Vittorio Benussi b. Shading
1781. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with c. Pen emphasis
measurement, respiration component and blood pressure. d. Natural variation
a. Harold Burtt 1795. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
b. Hans Gross a. Line quality
c. Leonarde Keeler b. Baseline
d. John Larson c. Foot
 d. Hitch b. Retouching
1796. A signature written by the forger in his own style of c. Patching
handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the d. Retracing
genuine signature. 1809. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on
a. Traced forgery the paper during manufacture.
b. Disguised forgery a. Water marks
c. Simulated forgery b. Fiber marks
d. Simple forgery c. Paper design
1797. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful d. Wire marks
type of forgery. 1810. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what
a. Traced forgery particular condition is manifested?
b. Disguised forgery a. Grainy image
c. Simulated forgery b. Two image
d. Simple forgery c. Overlapping image
d. Three dimensional image
1798. Which among the following is an indication of 1811. An element which is added to complete another letter.
genuineness of handwriting? a. Spur
a. Continuity b. Slant
b. Smoothness c. Diacritics
c. Skillful writing d. Arc
d. Tremor 1812. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
purpose and normal writing conditions.
1799. Document which is completely written and signed by a. Complete signature
the testator. b. Standard signature
a. Genuine document c. Evidential signature
b. Disputed document d. Model signature
c. Holographic document 1813. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
d. Authentic document widening of the ink stroke.
1800. A document which contains some changes either as a. Shading
an addition or deletion. b. Pen emphasis
a. Altered documents c. Pen lift
b. Disputed document d. Pen pressure
c. Obliterated document 1814. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity
d. Inserted document of paper money.
1801. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the a. Quality of the engraving
original undecipherable. b. Color of the seal
a. Decipherment c. Wet strength of the paper
b. Restoration d. Watermarks
c. Obliteration 1815. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but
d. Interlineation made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the
1802. A class of signature for routine document or day to genuine coin.
day correspondence. a. Priceless coin
a. Formal b. Mutilated coin
b. Complete c. False coin
c. Cursory d. All of the choices
d. Careless scribble 1816. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal
1803. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
important documents. a. Tremor
a. Complete b. Tremors of fraud
b. Cursory c. Genuine tremor
c. Informal d. Deterioration
d. Careless scribble 1817. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
1804. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a. Staff
a fraudulent document underneath the genuine and b. Slant
tracing it with the use of pointed instrument. c. Diacritics
a. Carbon process d. Humps
b. Indention process
c. Projection process 1818. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the
d. Transmitted light process horizontal inch.
1805. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier a. Pica
than the rest of its outline. b. Elite
a. Off its feet c. Proportional spacing machine
b. Twisted letter d. Adding machine
c. Clogged type face 1819. Developed the system of handwriting classification
d. Rebound utilized by most police departments.
a. Lee and Abbey
b. Rolando Wilson
1806. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is c. Levine
almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits d. Landsteiner
reacting from fixed mental impressions. 1820. A kind of document executed by a person in authority
a. Handwriting and by private parties but notarized by competent officials.
b. Writing a. Official document
c. Typewriting b. Public document
d. Writing movement c. Commercial document
1807. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation d. Private document
and pen-lifts difficult. 1821. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine
a. Ball point pen coin.
b. Fountain pen a. False coin
c. Iron nutgall ink b. Counterfeit coin
d. Markers c. Priceless coin
1808. Disconnection between letters or letter combination d. Mutilation of coin
due to lack of movement control. 1822. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
a. Pen lift a. Character
 b. Design c. Ejector
c. Pitch d. Extractor
d. Type face 1836. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be
1823. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the withdrawn from the chamber.
writing rests. a. Breechblock
a. Base b. Breechface
b. Baseline c. Ejector
c. Foot d. Extractor
d. Staff 1837. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
1824. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what a. Rifling
has been effaced. b. Land
a. Decipherment c. Groove
b. Collation d. Cannelure
c. Obliteration 1838. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
d. Comparison a. Recoil
1825. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their b. Force
identifying characteristics. c. Backfire
a. Comparison d. Shot force
b. Collation 1839. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due
c. Conclusion to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
d. Examination a. Erosion
b. Rusting
c. Corrosion
1826. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed d. Decomposition
with the source of illumination behind it and the light 1840. Distance that the rifling advances to make one
passing through the paper. compete turn.
a. Transmitted light examination a. Pitch of rifling
b. Oblique photography examination b. Choke
c. Infrared examination c. Trajectory
d. Ultraviolet examination d. Recoil
1827. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a 1841. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a
person from his handwriting. complete unfired unit
a. Questioned Document Examination a. Bullet
b. Polygraphy b. Primer
c. Graphology c. Gunpowder
d. Psychology d. All of the choices
1828. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. 1842. Most common individual characteristic that are visible
a. Projectile on the base portion of then fired cartridge.
b. Ball a. Firing pin impression
c. Shell b. Ejector marks
d. Missile c. Extractor marks
1829. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles d. Chamber marks
at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the 1843. Failure of cartridge to discharge.
time it hits the target. a. Misfire
a. Interior ballistics b. Hang fire
b. Exterior ballistics c. Ricochet
c. Terminal ballistics d. Key hole shot
d. Posterior ballistics 1844. Invented the gunpowder.
1830. The science which deals with the effect of the impact a. Chinese
of the projectile on the target. b. James Forsythe
a. Interior ballistics c. Van Amberg
b. Exterior ballistics d. Berthold Schwartz
c. Terminal ballistics 1845. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition
d. Posterior ballistics placed into gun chamber.
1831. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin. a. Cartridge
a. Trigger b. Primer
b. Hammer c. Bullet
c. Sear d. Shell
d. Main spring 1846. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to
land.
1832. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is a. Gauge
equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in b. Mean diameter
pound equal to reciprocal gauge index. c. Caliber
a. Caliber d. Riflings
b. Gauge 1847. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the
c. Shot firing of the cartridge.
d. Charge a. Hammer
1833. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a b. Ejector
single round lead ball. c. Trigger
a. Shotgun d. Firing pin
b. Rifle 1848. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
c. Musket a. Breech
d. Pistol b. Ogive
1834. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number c. Rim
of lead pellets in one charge. d. Pitch
a. Shotgun 1849. A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings.
b. Rile a. Shotgun
c. Musket b. Rifle
d. Pistol c. Pistol
1835. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore d. Revolver
against the force of the charge. 1850. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to
a. Breechblock prevent leading.
b. Breechface a. Jacketed bullet
 b. Metal cased bullet 1865. A primer with two vents or flash holes.
c. Metal point bullet a. Bordan primer
d. Plated bullet b. Berdan primer
1851. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting c. Boxer primer
the target sideways. d. Battery primer
a. Key hole shot 1866. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are
b. Ricochet usually classified as:
c. Hang fire a. Flare guns
d. Misfire b. Zip guns
1852. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification. c. Matchlock
a. Interior d. Freakish device
b. Exterior 1867. The most reliable of all individual characteristics,
c. Terminal when fired cartridges are concerned.
d. Forensic a. Extractor marks
1853. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in b. Ejector marks
forensic ballistics. c. Chamber marks
a. 3 test bullets/shell d. Breech face marks
b. 4 test bullets 1868. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s
c. 5 test bullets/shell failure to explode on time.
d. 6 test bullets/shell a. Misfire
1854. It refers to the placement of the right and left b. Hang fire
specimen in side by side position. c. Ricochet
a. Drag marks d. Key hole shot
b. Positively matched 1869. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily
c. Juxtaposition barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce
d. Pseudomatch what kind of markings?
1855. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. a. Slippage marks
a. Range b. Skid marks
b. Trajectory c. Rifling marks
c. Velocity d. Shearing marks
d. Yaw 1870. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of
1856. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on projectiles.
fire when it is projected. a. Caliper
a. Incendiary bullet b. Chronograph
b. Ball bullet c. Test bullet
c. Tracer bullet d. Bullet recovery box
d. Explosive bullet 1871. Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics
1857. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from of persons so as to differentiate him from others
what particular part? a. Dactyloscopy
a. From land to land c. Identification
b. From land to groove b. Personal
c. From groove to groove d. Comparison
d. From groove to land 1872. Considered to be first scientific method of
Identification in person done by measuring various bony
structure of the human body.
1858. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by: a. Portrait-Parle
a. Frame b. Photography
b. Barrel c. Antropometry
c. Slide assembly d. Anthropometry
d. Rotating cylinder 1873. 547. The following are principles in personal
1859. The term double action in a firearm means. Identification, except.
a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously a. Law of individuality
b. Manually cocks the hammer c. Law of multiplicity of evidence
c. Autoloads before firing b. Law of infallibility
d. Double pressing of trigger d. Law of constancy
1860. Regarded as the father of ballistics, 1874. Which of the following personal Identification is not
a. Albert Osborne easy to change?
b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard a. Hair
c. Hans Gross b. Speech
d. Charles Waite c. Dress
1861. Raised portion between the groove found inside the d. personal pharapernalia
barrel. 1875. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of
a. Land Identification.
b. Caliber a. DNA fingerprinting
c. Gauge b. Dactyloscopy
d. Rifling c. Fingerprint Identification
1862. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet. d. Photography
a. Yaw 1876. Identification of person can be done either by
b. Trajectory Comparison or by____?
c. Velocity a. Exclusion
d. Gyroscopic action b. Examination
1863. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular c. Experimentation
firearm? d. Inclusion
a. Rifle 1877. The person credited for the discovery of the two
b. Revolver main layers of the friction skin.
c. Pistol a. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Sub-machine gun b. Marcelo Malpighe
1864. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior c. Herman Welcker
surface of the bore. d. J.C.A. Mayer
a. Rifling 1878. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved
b. Breaching from white jade containing the name and the thumb print
c. Ogive of the owner.
d. Swaging a. Tien Chi
 b. Tein Chi c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
c. Tein Shi d. William Herschel
d. Tien Shi 1891. Is the law which states that the greater the number of
1879. He is known to be the father of personal Identification the similarity or differences the more probability for the
having devised the first scientific method of personal conclusion to be correct.
Identification. a. Law of Infallability
a. John Dellinger b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence
b. Cesare Lombroso c. Law of Permenancy
c. John F. W. Herschel d. Law of Barcelinity
d. Alphonse Bertillion 1892. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
1880. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of a. Greek word
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, b. French word
except for some scratches due to old age. c. Latin word
a. Herman Welcker d. English word
b. Marcelo Malpighi 1893. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a
c. J.C.A. Mayer photographer?
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji A. Filter
1881. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for B. Camera
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. C. Firearm
a. William Herschel D. Handcuff
b. Dr. Henry Faulds 1894. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or
c. Dr. Francis Galton demonstration?.
d. Sir Edward Henry a. Yes
1882. Is person considered to be the father of modern b. Partly Yes
fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in c. No
almost all English speaking country. d. Partly No
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry 1895. Burned document or charred document is best
b. Juan Vucetich examined by.
c. Alphonse Bertillion a. Infrared Photography
d. Dr. Hans Gross b. Ultraviolet Photography
1883. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges c. Macro Photography
and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the d. Micro Photography
Royal Society of London. 1896. The average age of menopausal period of women to
a. Nehemiah Grew take place.
b. G. Bidloo a. 50 yrs old
c. Hintze b. 45 yrs old
d. Albinus c. 35 yrs old
1884. A system of Identification best used in case of burned d. 42 yrs old
body. 1897. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the
a. Fingerprint age of.
b. Skeletal Identification a. 14-16
c. Odontology b. 13-15
d. Photography c. 16 to 18
d. 12-14
1898. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
1885. The following are characteristics of man which can a. 14
easily be changed EXCEPT? b. 13
a. Hair Growth c. 16
b. Body Ornamentation d. 12
c. Speech 1899. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be
d. Clothing taken to show:
1886. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives a. Entrance
recognition to the science of fingerprint? b. Entrance and Exit
a. People vs. Medina c. Exit
b. US vs. Jennings d. Either a or b
c. Miranda vs. Arizona 1900. The development of breast in female commences at
d. West Case the age of.
1887. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first a. 13 to 14
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using b. 12 to 13
his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering c. 10-11
with the pay order he issued. d. 11 to 12
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
b. Gilbert Thompson 1901. In photography, when we say tripod, how many
c. Capt James Parke stands are there?
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores a. 2
1888. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive b. 3.5
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York c. 4
Police Dept. and FBI. d. 5
a. Generoso Reyes
b. Isabela Bernales 1902. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who
c. Patricio Agustin performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar.
d. Marcelo Bonifacio a. Landsteinir
1889. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is b. Zacchias
possibility for two prints to be the same it is c. Antistus
1:63,000,000,000. d. Hippocrates
a. Francis Bacon 1903. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a
b. Francis Galton normal light.
c. J.C.A. Mayer a. Ultra Violet Photography
d. Herman Welker b. Infra red photograhpy
1890. The person who used the system of identification c. Macro Photography
which was accepted by Spanish countries. d. Micro photography
a. Juan Vucetich
b. Henry Faulds
1904. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the a. Fingerprint
amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of b. Skeletal Identification
time, and it is considered as the door of the camera. c. Odontology
a. Shutter d. Photography
b. lens 1917. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
c. obscura individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using
d. view finder his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering
1905. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like with the pay order he issued.
formation. a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
a. dermis b. Gilbert Thompson
b. Dermal papillae c. Capt James Parke
c. papillae d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
d. dermal 1918. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
1906. The morphological constituents of human hair are examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York
cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement correct? Police Dept. and FBI.
a. Partly Yes a. Generoso Reyes
b. Partly No b. Isabela Bernales
c. Yes c. Patricio Agustin
d. No d. Marcelo Bonifacio
1907. It is the sensitized material that has the primary 1919. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
function of recording the image that is focused upon it by possibility for two prints to be the same it is
the lens of the camera. 1:63,000,000,000.
E. Filter a. Francis Bacon
F. Film b. Francis Galton
G. Firearm c. J.C.A. Mayer
H. Handcuff d. Herman Welker
1908. Considered to be first scientific method of 1920. The person who used the system of identification
Identification in person done by measuring various bony which was accepted by Spanish countries.
structure of the human body. a. Juan Vucetich
a. Portrait-Parle b. Henry Faulds
b. Photography c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
c. Antropometry d. William Herschel
d. Anthropometry 1921. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
1909. The person credited for the discovery of the two main a. Greek word
layers of the friction skin. b. French word
a. Alphonse Bertillion c. Latin word
b. Marcelo Malpighe d. English word
c. Herman Welcker 1922. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with
d. J.C.A. Mayer the interpretation of one’s personality?
a. Dactyloscopy
1910. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved b. Dactylomancy
from white jade containing the name and the thumb print c. Dactylography
of the owner. d. Dactylo-analysis
a. Tien Chi 1923. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside
b. Tein Chi of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth
c. Tein Shi surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
d. Tien Shi a. Dactyloscopy
1911. He is known to be the father of personal Identification b. Dactyloanalysis
having devised the first scientific method of personal c. Latent Print
Identification. d. Fingerprint
a. John Dellinger 1924. Which of the following serves the importance of
b. Cesare Lombroso Poroscopy?
c. John F. W. Herschel a. For determination of whether the prints belong to
d. Alphonse Bertillion a young or adult person.
1912. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of b. For Identification of person
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, c. For determination of whether the prints was taken
except for some scratches due to old age. during the lifetime or after death of a person
a. Herman Welcker d. B and C only
b. Marcelo Malpighi 1925. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will
c. J.C.A. Mayer constitute a permanent scar.
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji a. Epidermis
1913. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for b. Stratum corneum
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. c. Dermis
a. William Herschel d. Stratum mucosum
b. Dr. Henry Faulds 1926. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy.
c. Dr. Francis Galton a. Francis Galton
d. Sir Edward Henry b. Marcelo Malpighe
1914. He is considered to be the father of modern c. John Herschel
fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in d. Edmond Locard
almost all English speaking country.
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry 1927. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the
b. Juan Vucetich ridges.
c. Alphonse Bertillion a. Podoscopy
d. Dr. Hans Gross b. Poroscopy
1915. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges c. Chiroscopy
and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the d. Edgeoscopy
Royal Society of London. 1928. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a
a. Nehemiah Grew permanent scar in a normal friction skin?
b. G. Bidloo a. less than 1cm
c. Hintze b. less than 1 mm
d. Albinus c. more than 1cm
1916. A system of Identification best used in case of burned d. more than 1mm
body.
1929. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in
U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use of 1942. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta,
corrosive acid. recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
a. John Derenger a. radial loop
b. John Dillenger b. ulnar loop
c. Robert James Pitts c. loop
d. Robert Joworski d. tented arch
1930. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and 1943. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and
the feet? when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right
a. Epidermal skin delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered
b. Papillary skin as the most common type of whorl.
c. Friction a. plain whorl
d. All of the choices b. central pocket loop whorl
1931. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers c. double loop whorl
the skin? d. accidental whorl
a. Epidermis 1944. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is
b. Stratum corneum excluded in the combination?
c. Stratum Sangum a. ulnar loop
d. Stratum musocum b. plain whorl
1932. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the c. tented arch
hands? d. plain arch
a. Podoscopy 1945. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
b. Chiroscopy a. inner terminus
c. Poroscopy b. outer terminus
d. Chairoscopy c. focal point
1933. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots d. pattern area
(called pores) in an inked finger impression? 1946. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the
a. sweat pores center of the diverging typelines.
b. furrows a. Core
c. ridges b. island ridge
d. sweat duct c. delta
1934. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of d. convergence
the friction skin (found between ridges). 1947. What is the rule where there are two or more possible
a. Pores bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of delta?
b. indentions a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
c. furrows b. the one away from the core should be counted
d. duct c. the one which does not open towards the core is
1935. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where counted
sweat is excreted? d. the one towards the core should be counted
a. duct 1948. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously
b. furrows running side by side?
c. pores a. Bifurcation
d. sweat glands b. convergence
1936. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis c. divergence
and dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation d. enclosure
a. Generating layer 1949. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a
b. Dermal papillae period?
c. Sweat glands a. Lake
d. Dermis Papillary b. ending ridge
1937. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states c. island ridge
that fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of d. incipient ridge
Identification? 1950. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that
a. Principle of Individuality meets to form the original figure?
b. Principle of Infallibility a. bifurcation
c. Principle of Constancy b. island ridge
d. Principle of Permanency c. lake ridge
1938. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one d. convergence
side of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or 1951. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the
wave in the center? direction from which it started?
a. Loop a. diverging ridge
b. tented arch b. recurving ridge
c. plain arch c. converging ridge
d. exceptional arch d. bifurcation
1939. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it 1952. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge
should have _______ridge count. curves inward?
a. 1 a. sufficient recurve
b. 2 b. appendage
c. at least 1 c. obstruction ridge
d. 3 d. shoulder of loop
1940. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an 1953. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving
uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the
loop? inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found
a. Plain arch in the second type of central pocket loop.
b. central pocket loop a. bar
c. tented arch b. appendage
d. accidental whorl c. uptrust
1941. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or d. obstruction
slanting ridges flows towards the little finger? 1954. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the
a. loop line flow above the right delta and there are three
b. radial loop intervening ridges.
c. ulnar loop a. meeting whorl
d. tented arc b. outer whorl
 c. inner whorl 1968. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and
d. central pocket loop whorl serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the
1955. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular finger in the card?
ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it has a. Rolled Impression
been cross by the imaginary line. b. Plain Impression
a. ending ridge c. Contaminated with colored substance
b. incipient ridge d. Molded Prints
c. intervening ridge
d. enclosure 1969. In taking prints of the subject the technician always
1956. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and instruct the subject to:
which resembles a fork structure a. Stand straight
a. divergence b. Cooperate
b. convergence c. Relax
c. bifurcation d. Help the technician rolling
d. enclosure 1970. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the
1957. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its subject is that fingers must be:
infants stage which usually starts: a. Healthy
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life b. Dry
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life c. Moisten
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life d. Oily
d. 5th to 6th months before birth 1971. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled
1958. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch. away from the body of the subjects
a. T a. Both thumbs
b. A b. All eight fingers
c. P c. All fingers including thumbs
d. W d. All fingers except the thumbs
1972. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards
in taking fingerprint of a dead person
1959. It is the process of counting the ridges which a. Card holder
intervene between the delta and core of a loop? b. Spatula
a. ridge tracing c. Strip holder
b. ridge counting d. Forceps
c. ridge tracking 1973. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled
d. ridge summing impression the fingers must be inked from______ to base
1960. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the of the first joint.
fingerprint ink to the slab? a. a. Base
a. Fingerprint brush b. Tip
b. Fingerprint lifting tapes c. second joint
c. Fingerprint roller d. third joint
d. fingerprint card 1974. Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters,
1961. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such
has a size of: is known as:
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” a. Permanent Disabilities
b. 8” x 8” b. Temporary Deformities
c. 9” x 9” c. Permanent Destructions
d. 8” x 10” d. Deformities
1962. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has 1975. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are
a size of: more than the usual number in both hands?
a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½” a. Polyfinger
b. 8” x 8” b. Deformities
c. 9” x 9” c. Polydactyl
d. 8” x 10” d. Bidactyl
1963. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the 1976. Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter
fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting? symbols as a result of the interpretation?
a. Card Holder a. Checking
b. Fingerprint roller b. Identification
c. Fingerprint transfer card c. Classification
d. ink slab d. Blocking
1964. A chemical compound used in conventional 1977. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger.
developing of latent prints being one of the best methods a. left thumb
that can be utilized by a fingerprint technician. b. index finger
a. Fingerprint powder c. left index
b. Fingerprint Brush d. left middle
c. Fingerprint Fuming Device 1978. It is the division in the fingerprint classification which
d. Inkless Inking Device is always represented by a numerical value depending
1965. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card upon a whorl pattern appearing on each finger.
to avoid movement of the card during printing? a. key division
a. Card Holder b. major division
b. Forceps c. primary division
c. Carrying Case d. final division
d. Fingerprint card clip 1979. In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint
1966. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed from what finger does the Capital letter is derived.
latent print? a. thumb
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes b. index
b. Fingerprint transfer card c. little finger
c. Evidence Identification tags d. middle finger
d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment 1980. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the
1967. Is the type of an impression made or printed on the numerator and the denominator in the primary division is
card by individually rolling the ten fingers of the subject. ____.
a. Latent Prints a. so that there will be an equal value
b. Rolled Impression b. to complete the primary div.
c. Plain Impression c. to have a complete 32 numerical value
d. Molded Impression d. for formality
1981. What patterns are included in the small letter d. First Radial Loop
classification under the secondary division. 1994. What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in
a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch the key division?
b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch a. Both Index
c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop b. Both little
d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch c. Both thumb
d. Both middle
1982. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is 1995. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint
the classification of 14 ridge count. card of a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as.
a. Inner Loop a. Amputated finger
b. Outer Loop b. Same as the corresponding digit of the other
c. Medium hand
d. Small c. Meeting whorl
1983. What patterns are almost always represented by a d. Outer loop
dash in the classification formula except in the secondary 1996. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how
division. will the key be obtained.
a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
b. Whorl and Arch b. Ridge count of the first whorl
c. Plain and Tented Arch c. No key division to derived
d. Ulnar and Whorl d. Just indicate Dash
1984. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the 1997. In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing
tracing ridge flows below the right delta and there are five what will be the pattern interpretation of the two missing
intervening ridges. fingers.
a. Outer Whorl a. Plain Whorl
b. Meeting Whorl b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
c. Inner Whorl c. Dash
d. Accidental Whorl d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers
1985. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the
tracing splits into two branches the tracing will proceed on
the: 1998. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge a. Mutilated finger
b. Amputated finger
b. upper line of the bifurcation c. Fragmentary finger
c. Lower limb d. Deformities
d. next ridge just below 1999. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are
1986. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between amputated.
the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern. a. 1/1
a. Ridge Count b. 31/31
b. Intervening Ridge c. 32/32
c. Incipient ridge d. 16/16
d. Ridge tracing 2000. What division will be left blank in the classification
1987. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted formula if all fingers are missing?
as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count. a. Major and Final Division
a. Small b. Key and Major Division
b. Medium c. Major and sub-secondary
c. Large d. key and final Division
d. Exceptional 2001. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
1988. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as a. 14
____ when the right thumb reaches 17. b. 13
a. Small c. 16
b. Large d. 12
c. Medium 2002. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
d. Exceptional uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the
1989. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a loop?
ridge count of 17 or more. a. Plain arch
a. Small b. tented arch
b. Medium c. central pocket loop
c. Large d. accidental whorl
d. Exceptional 2003. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene
1990. What division in the fingerprint classification is derived between the delta and core of a loop?
by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the thumb. a. ridge tracing
a. Key Division b. ridge counting
b. Final Division c. ridge tracking
c. Major Division d. ridge summing
d. Secondary Division 2004. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern,
1991. What division in the classification is place at extreme what finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl
right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical pattern appears therein:
value. a. left little finger and right thumb
a. key b. right thumb and left little finger
b. final c. right little finger and left thumb
c. Major d. left thumb and right
d. Primary 2005. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all
1992. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the
loop or a whorl appearing on the; primary division?
a. Little Finger a. 25/29
b. Thumb Finger c. 24/28
c. Index Finger b. 29/25
d. Middle Finger d. 28/24
1993. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count 2006. What would be the secondary division if all the fingers
of the at right hand are plain arches while all the left hand fingers
a. ulnar Loop are tented arches?
b. Radial Loop
c. First Loop a. aA3a/tT3T
 c. A2a/tT2t d. optically variable device
b. aT3a/aA3t
d. tT3t/aA3a 2020. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower
2007. What division in the formula classification is left blank right corner of the face of the note changes color from
if all fingers are amputated? green to blue when viewed at different angles
a. Major and key a. optically variable ink
b. key and final b. optical device
c. Key and primary c. optical ink
d. final and major d. optically variable device
2008. The word Photography was coined by _____? 2021. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill
a. John F. W. Herschel and the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre degrees?
c. Henry Fox Talbot a. blue to green
d. Leonardo Da Venci b. green to blue
2009. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors c. red to green
are combined each other? d. green to red
a. magenta 2022. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of
c. yellow paper.
b. cyan a. abaca-cotton
d. Green b. plastic-polymer
c. abaca
2010. Which of the following are NOT considered as the d. cotton
primary colors, EXCEPT. 2023. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
a. yellow a. Diosdado P Macapagal
b. Blue b. Emilio Aguinaldo
c. Green c. Segio Osmena
d. Red d. Apolinario Mabini
2011. The act of attempting to interpret the character or 2024. How many security features are there in the new 500
personality of an individual from his handwriting. peso bill?
a. paleography a. 8
b. collation b. 9
c. graphology c. 7
d. cacography d. 6
2012. In Q.D it is the term used by some document 2025. How many security features are there in the new 1000
examiners and attorneys to characterize known material. peso bill?
a. exemplar a. 8
b. evidence b. 9
c. questioned c. 7
d. disputed d. 6
2013. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the 2026. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures
ability to write with both left and right. the pitch of rifling is:
a. cacography a. Chronograph
b. calligraphy b. Helixometer
c. calcography c. Micrometer
d. ambidextrous d. Taper gauge
2014. Which of the following are NOT considered as the 2027. A magnified photograph of a small object produced by
secondary colors, EXCEPT. connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound
a. yellow microscope is:
b. Blue a. Photomacrograph
c. Green b. Microphotograph
d. Red c. Photomicrograph
2015. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the d. Photography
writing instrument from the paper is called.. 2028. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is
a. pen emphasis smaller than the diameter of the body of the case:
b. pen pressure a. Rimmed cartridge
c. pen jump b. Rebated cartridge
d. pen lift c. Tapered cartridge
2016. The term document came from latin word d. Rimless cartridge
“documentum”, which means. 2029. . If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the
a. write lands have been worn down or through a bore is slightly
b. to teach oversize or oily, the marks are called:
c. lesson a. Skid marks
d. paper b. Slippage marks
c. Rifling marks
2017. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal d. Shearing marks
stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the 2030. When two specimens are compared under the
paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a. comparison microscope at the same direction, the same
whirl level, the same magnification and the same image, they
b. knob are called:
c. sour a. Positively match
d. loop b. Pseudo match
c. Juxtaposition
2018. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is d. Drag marks
a. Manuel Quezon 2031. In the United States, crimes are committed by
b. Emilio Aguinaldo juveniles using home-made weapons generally referred to
c. Segio Osmena as:
d. Apolinario Mabini a. Freakish device
b. Zip guns
2019. The only security features that the BSP was portrait in c. Matchlock
the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is. d. Flare guns
a. optically variable ink 2032. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from:
b. optical device a. Revolver
c. optical ink b. Pistol
 c. Rifle
d. Pistol & Revolver a. philander
2033. . A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of: b. prostitution
a. 730” c. philandering
b. 728” d. prostitute
c. 729” 2047. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
d. 724” female customers?
2034. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into a. gigolo
the chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as: b. pimps
a. Bullet c. callboy
b. Shell d. Johns
c. Primer 2048. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag
d. Cartridge factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is
2035. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a the approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved
combination of: in accident. .
a. Pitch a. 64 kms./hour
b. Twist b. 54 kms./hour
c. Lands & grooves c. 46 km.s/hour
d. Cannelures d. 45 kms./hour
2036. Class characteristics are determinable 2049. This method of identification depends on the ability of
even: the witness to describe the person seen committing the
a. During crime.
b. After a. Verbal description
c. Before b. Photographic files
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm c. Police line up
2037. The caliber is determined with the aid of: d. General photograph
a. Combined microscope
b. Micrometer
c. Macrometer
d. Manufacturer of the firearm 2050. Criminals whose identity may be established
2038. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the background identification.
crime scene will request the ballistician to determine: a. Known criminals
a. Owner of the firearm b. Unknown criminals
b. Model of the firearm c. Convicted criminals
c. Caliber and types of the firearm d. Unidentified criminals
d. Manufacture 2051. Compilation of known criminals available from police
2039. . That science which deals with the motion of the files and records.
projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to a. Rouge gallery
the time it hits the target is known as: b. General photograph
a. Terminal ballistics c. Police blotter
b. Interior ballistics d. Modus operandi files
c. Exterior ballistics 2052. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is
d. Forensic ballistics necessary.
2040. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of a. Loose tail
the projectile on target is called: b. Rough shadowing
a. Exterior ballistics c. Close tail
b. Interior ballistics d. None of the foregoing
c. Anterior ballistics 2053. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence
d. Terminal ballistics is:
a. Place it in a pill box and label it
2041. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining
drugs? c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it
a. Lot Lizards d. Tag it with a label
b. Hookers 2054. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an
c. Skeezers interrogation room must be:
d. Hustler a. With no windows or views
2042. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She b. There should only be one door
is usually a newcomer in the business? c. It must be sound proof
a. Door knocker d. All of the choices
b. Street walker 2055. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have
c. Call girl great knowledge of the case and is preferable when the
d. skeezers subject is not the talkative type.
2043. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She a. Narrative type
works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels? b. Question and answer type
a. Door knocker c. Stern type
b. Street walker d. Simple interrogation
c. Call Girl 2056. What should the investigator do to protect while in
d. Factory Girl transport those collected evidence from the crime scene?
2044. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their a. Seal it
own legitimate work or profession but works as a b. Mark it
prostitutes to supplement their income? c. Pack it properly
a. Door knocker d. Label it
b. Street walker 2057. Shadowing has the following purposes, except:
c. Call Girl a. To detect evidences of criminal activities
d. Factory Girl b. To establish association of a suspect
2045. The following countries which comprises the Golden c. To locate wanted persons
Triangle, EXCEPT. d. None of the foregoing
a. Vietnam 2058. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the
b. Thailand latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B”
c. Myanmar managed to escape. This is an example of:
d. Laos a. Attempted felony
2046. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long b. Frustrated felony
term partner repeatedly? c. Consummated felony
 d. Consummated felony d. Jealousy
2059. Kind of recognition whereby the description and 2072. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s
characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult. habits and associate are required.
a. Known fugitives a. Surveillance
b. Professional criminals b. Loose tail shadowing
c. Ordinary criminals c. Rough shadowing
d. Unknown fugitives d. Close tail shadowing
2073. More advantageous because it permits immediate
2060. The methods of determining and finding the changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
best way to remedy the specific cause or causes a. One man shadow
of the complaint or grievance refers to: b. Two man shadow
a. Cross examination c. Three man shadow
b. Grievance procedures d. ABC method
c. Investigative procedure 2074. In this method of search, the searchers proceed
d. Criminal procedures slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to one side
2061. A type of informant reveals information usually of no of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher
consequence of stuff produced from thin air. turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to
a. False informant the first movement.
b. Double-crosser informant a. Zone method
c. Mercenary informant b. Strip method
d. Frightened informant c. Spiral method
2062. Clandestine operation in police parlance. d. Wheel method
a. Covert intelligence 2075. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into
b. Secret activity quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
c. Over intelligence a. Zone method
d. Surveillance b. Strip method
2063. It is an art which deals with the identity and c. Spiral method
location of the offender and provides evidence of d. Wheel method
his guilt through criminal proceeding. 2076. The surroundings of the crime scene must be
a. Information photograph to show the relative location and distances.
b. Interrogation a. Environmental photograph
c. Instrumentation b. Physical reconstruction
d. Investigation c. Overview
2064. Special crime investigation is more concerned on: d. Over-all photograph
a. Physical evidence 2077. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No
b. Tracing evidence scale, proportion ignored and everything is approximate.
c. Testimonial evidence a. Sketch
d. Associative evidence b. Draft
2065. Is a person who provides an investigator with c. Rough sketch
confidential information concerning a past or d. Finished sketch
projected crime and does not wish to be known as 2078. Most common reason in discharging informants
a source of information. a. Burn out
a. Informants b. Too expensive to maintain
b. Witness c. Lack of loyalty
c. Informers d. Reprehensible behavior
d. Confidential informants 2079. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
2066. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to a. Stylus
divulge information. b. Pen
a. Interview c. Ink
b. Interrogation d. Chalk
c. Investigation 2080. A form of investigation in which an investigator
d. All of the foregoing assumes a different and unofficial identity.
2067. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, a. Tailing
utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime. b. Shadowing
a. Photographic file c. Surveillance
b. 201 file d. Roping
c. Rogue gallery 2081. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
d. Cartographic sketch a. Narrative type
2068. This is an element of crime commission wherein one b. Interrogation type
is induced to commit the crime. c. Question and answer type
a. Motive d. Stern type
b. Intent 2082. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty
c. Opportunity of a person taken into custody.
d. Deceit a. Protective custody
2069. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate b. Detaining for questioning
the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a c. Police restraint
procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up? d. All of the choices
a. 3 to 5 2083. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime
b. 5 to 7 scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and
c. 7 to 10 what were the circumstances of the crime.
d. 10 to 15 a. Crime scene
2070. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could b. Physical reconstruction
have committed the crime. c. Mental reconstruction
a. Motive d. Reconstruction of the crime
b. Intent
c. Opportunity 2084. Paid informants
d. Deceit a. Anonymous informants
2071. Motive in giving information wherein the b. Rival elimination informants
informant delights in giving information to gain c. False informants
favorable attention from the police. d. Mercenary informants
a. Competition 2085. Most common type of shadowing.
b. Repentance a. One man shadow
c. Vanity b. Two man shadow
 c. Three man shadow 2098. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest
d. Rough shadow physical surroundings.
2086. Ar a. Finished sketch
ticles and materials which are found in connection with the b. Sketch of details
investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the c. Sketch of locality
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was d. Sketch of grounds
committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of 2099. The explanation of any symbols used to identify
the criminal. objects in a sketch.
a. Tracing evidence a. Compass direction
b. Corpus delicti b. Title
c. Associative evidence c. Legend
d. Physical or material evidence d. Scale
2087. Instrumental detection of deception 2100. Such articles and evidences which assists the
a. Ballistic test investigator in locating the suspect.
b. Fingerprint test a. Physical evidence
c. Questioned document test b. Material evidence
d. Polygraph testing c. Associative evidence
2088. When the subject is in prone position what type of d. Tracing evidence
search should be implemented. 2101. Objects or substances which are essential part of the
a. Kneeling search body of the crime.
b. Standing search a. Corpus delicti
c. Floor search b. Physical evidences
d. Wall search c. Material evidences
2089. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the d. Associative evidences
arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine the 2102. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
identity of the suspects. a. Markings should be placed
a. Preliminary search of a person b. Proper turnover must be observed
b. Wall search c. Avoid altering contents
c. Standing search d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in
d. Floor search transit
2090. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an 2103. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned. a. MAC rule
a. Dashboard b. Right of way rule
b. Door handles c. Last clear chance rule
c. Steering wheel d. None of the choices
d. Rear view mirror 2104. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained
2091. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to areas are usually encircled. What is the primary
the law enforcers in order to get more information from them objective?
than he gives. a. To show points of interest
a. Double-crosser informants b. To have proper marking
b. Mercenary informants c. To avoid contamination
c. False informants d. To prevent alterations
d. Self-aggrandizing informants 2105. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve
2092. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the the specimen?
recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of a. Formaldehyde
physical science by application of natural sciences in matters b. Saline solution
of law and science. c. Alcohol
a. Chemist d. Distilled water
b. Scientist 2106. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
c. Criminalistics a. Assault
d. Toxicologist b. Attack
2093. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are c. Raid
committed in one place. d. Surveillance
a. Local crimes 2107. Primary requisite for conducting raids.
b. Local action a. Search warrant
c. Transitory crimes b. Raiding team
d. Transitory action c. Firearms
2094. The number of persons who handle the pieces of d. Back-up personnel
evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times 2108. A public officer when not being authorized by
of the commission up to final disposition of cases. judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will
of the owner thereof is committing:
a. Time custody a. Legal entry
b. Time disposition b. Violation of domicile
c. Time disposal c. Trespassing
d. Chain of custody d. Illegal entry
2109. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his
2095. A declaration made under the consciousness of an constitutional rights namely:
impending death. a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
a. Part of res gestate b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
b. Dying Declaration c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right
c. Confession to be informed of such rights.
d. admission d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
2096. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
a. Instrumentation 2110. A type of informant reveals information usually of no
b. Forensic consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
c. Legal medicines a. False informant
d. Criminology b. Mercenary informant
2097. Evidence which offers least resistance to c. Double crosser informant
decomposition d. Self-aggrandizing informant
a. Blood 2111. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are
b. Semen committed in many places.
c. Saliva a. Local crime
d. Hair b. Local action
 c. Transitory crime a. Thermal balance
d. Transitory action b. Thermal imbalance
c. Combustion
2112. The primary job of an investigator is to determine d. Oxidation
whether a crime has been committed, in order to 2124. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
determine such, he must have knowledge of the so-called a. Pyrolysis
cardinal questions of investigation. How many cardinal b. Combustion
questions are there? c. Detonation
a. Three d. All of the foregoing
b. Four 2125. A chemical decomposition of matter through the
c. Five action of heat.
d. Six a. Pyrolysis
2113. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of b. Combustion
transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on c. Detonation
it. d. Oxidation
a. Drivers 2126. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area
b. Ripper of the material with unit temperature gradient.
c. Wheelman a. Conduction
d. Rover b. Thermal conductivity
2114. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to c. Radiation
facilitate proper sketch orientation. d. Fission
a. Proper north 2127. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through
b. True north space or materials as waves.
c. Legend a. Conduction
d. Compass direction b. Convection
2115. A search method in which the searchers follow each c. Radiation
other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside d. Fission
proceeding toward the center. 2128. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose
a. Zone method with a motive.
b. Wheel method a. Providential fire
c. Spiral method b. Accidental fire
d. Strip method c. Intentional fire
2116. Taking into custody property described in the search d. None of the foregoing
warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence 2129. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in
in a case. the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
a. Seizure a. Arson
b. Detention b. Providential fire
c. Safekeeping c. Accidental fire
d. Confiscation d. None of the foregoing
2117. A method of criminal identification whereby 2130. First element known to man by experience, a colorless,
the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
are identified by depiction. a. Nitrogen
a. Verbal description b. Hydrogen
b. General photographs c. Oxygen
c. Police line up d. Neon
d. Rouge gallery 2131. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to
2118. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants. start a fire.
a. Sprinkler a. Fuel
b. Fire pump b. Oxygen
c. Fire hose c. Heat
d. Hydrant key d. None of the choices
2132. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
a. Free radicals
2119. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a b. Flash point
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid c. Thermal balance
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings. d. Thermal imbalance
a. Dust 2133. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke
b. Oxidizing material and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
c. Pyrolysis conditions.
d. Cryogenic a. Free radicals
2120. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at b. Pyrolysis
which vapors are evolved fast enough to support c. Thermal balance
continuous combustion. d. Thermal imbalance
a. Ignition temperature 2134. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
b. Kindling temperature destructive capabilities is developed.
c. Fire point a. Initial phase
d. Flash point b. Incipient phase
2121. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a c. Free burning phase
vapor-air mixture that ignites. d. Smoldering phase
a. Ignition temperature 2135. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
b. Kindling temperature a. The fire triangle
c. Fire point b. The fingerprint of the fire
d. Flash point c. Flashover
2122. Minimum temperature in which the substance d. Incipient phase of the fire
in the air must be heated in order to initiate or 2136. An occurrence when the heat has brought the
cause a self-contained combustion without the combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
addition of heat from outside sources. temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or
a. Boiling point shooting forth light and flames.
b. Ignition temperature a. Flashover
c. Fire point b. Backdraft
d. Flash point c. Thermal balance
2123. An exothermic chemical change in which a d. Thermal imbalance
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
2137. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, a. Rays of the sun
it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. b. Spontaneous heating
a. Flashover c. Arcing
b. Backdraft d. Lighting
c. Thermal balance 2152. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
d. Thermal imbalance a. Smoking
2138. Which among the following is the primary objective in b. Arcing
investigating fires? c. Sparkling
a. To determine its cause d. Overloading
b. To prevent recurrence 2153. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within
c. To determine liable persons the room or throughout the structure.
d. All of the foregoing a. Accelerant
2139. Reason why fire investigation is unique. b. Plants
a. It does not conform with regular investigative c. Trailer
procedure d. Wick
b. Unavailability of witnesses 2154. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a
c. Fire destroys evidence contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
d. All of the foregoing a. Accelerant
2140. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God. b. Plants
a. Providential c. Trailer
b. Accidental d. Wick
c. Intentional 2155. Most common reason of arson cases.
d. Incendiarism a. Revenge
2141. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat b. Profit
and oxygen. c. Competition
a. Fire d. All of the foregoing
b. Origin of fire 2156. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
c. Fire triangle a. Spontaneous heating
d. All of the foregoing b. Combustible gases
2142. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns. c. Combustible dust
a. Fuel d. None of the choices
b. Heat 2157. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials
c. Oxygen to start a fire.
d. Gas a. Plants
2143. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating b. Trailers
medium either gas or a liquid. c. Accelerants
a. Conduction d. Wick
b. Convection 2158. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
c. Radiation a. Abatement
d. Fission b. Combustion
2144. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid. c. Allotment
a. Specific heat d. Distillation
b. Latent heat 2159. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry
c. Heat of Combustion materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly
d. Heat of fusion known as:
2145. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or a. Black bone
natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air. b. Used petroleum
a. Carbon black c. Soot
b. Lamp black d. Black iron
c. Soot 2160. The use of more electrical devices which draw or
d. Black bone consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of
2146. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed the existing electrical system.
vapor as a result of combustion. a. Overloading
a. Fire b. Jumper
b. Flame c. Wire tapping
c. Heat d. Arcing
d. Smoke 2161. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01%
2147. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. of the assessed value of the building:
a. Fire a. Schools
b. Flame b. Department stores
c. Heat c. Hospitals
d. Smoke d. Single family dwellings
2148. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been 2162. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to
contained. floor, as well as from the base to top of the building.
a. Backdraft a. Standpipe system
b. Flashover b. Sprinkler system
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning c. Vertical shaft
d. Falling debris d. Flash point
2149. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames 2163. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire
indicates the burning of what material? resistance rating of not less than four hours with structural
a. Rubber stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction
b. Nitrogen products collapses under fire conditions:
c. Asphalt singles a. Post wall
d. Chlorine b. Fire trap
2150. Which among the following is commonly used in fire c. Fire wall
resistant materials? d. Firewood
a. Asbestos 2164. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local
b. Diamond government for any particular establishment.
c. Asphalt a. Fire service
d. Cotton b. Fire safety inspection
2151. A form of static electricity of great magnitude c. Fire drill
producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the d. Fire protection assembly
most common cause of providential fires.
2165. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to 2179. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which
another. contains alcohol.
a. Radiation a. Liquor
b. Convection b. Wine
c. Conduction c. Booze
d. Fission d. Vodka
2166. The active principle of burning characterized by the 2180. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of
heat and light of combustion. ill-refute whereby the business of prostitution is conducted.
a. Oxidation a. Operator
b. Flash point b. Banker
c. Smoldering c. Mama
d. Fire d. Pimp
2167. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the 2181. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse
reaction takes place. with another for hire.
a. Endothermic reactions a. Prostitute
b. Exothermic reactions b. Whores
c. Oxidation c. Knockers
d. Combustion d. All of the foregoing
2168. Product of an incomplete combustion. 2182. The procurement and transportation of women from
a. Soot far flung places for immoral purposes.
b. Charring a. White slavery
c. Ashes b. Prostitution
d. All of foregoing c. Organized crimes
2169. Color of a luminous flame. d. All of the foregoing
a. Orange-blue 2183. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls
b. Blue or professional prostitutes under the control of an organized
c. Yellow crime ring.
d. Red a. Disorderly houses
2170. Refers to the amount of heat released during b. Furnished room houses
complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted c. Call houses
to water and carbon dioxide. d. Massage clinics
a. Heat of combustion 2184. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the
b. Calorific value means with which to carry on the gambling game.
c. Fuel value a. Maintainer
d. All of the foregoing b. Conductor
2171. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance c. Banker
when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas. d. Operator
a. Calorie 2185. Anti gambling law
b. Latent heat a. PD 1869
c. Thermal heat b. PD 1612
d. Specific heat c. PD 1602
2172. Refers to gases that remain when the products of d. PD 1866
combustion are cooled to normal temperature. 2186. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except
a. Fire gases a. Broken families
b. Combustion gases b. Poverty
c. Oxidation gases c. Anonymity of city life
d. Flame d. All of the choices
2173. Fires caused by human error and negligence. 2187. Refers to a person having no apparent means of
a. Providential fires subsistence.
b. Intentional fires a. Gambler
c. Accidental fires b. Prostitute
d. Incendiarism c. Vagrants
2174. Primary component of wood d. None of the foregoing
a. Fiber 2188. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white
b. Cellulose slave trade.
c. Carbon a. Prision correctional
d. Pulp b. Prison mayor
2175. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern c. Reclusion temporal
or fingerprint of fire is developed. d. Reclusion perpetua
a. Incipient phase 2189. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.
b. Initial phase a. Maintainer
c. Free burning phase b. Conductor
d. Smoldering phase c. Banker
2176. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the d. Operator
flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume. 2190. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to
a. Incipient maintain the same effect.
b. Initial phase a. Tolerance
c. Free burning phase b. Physical dependence
d. Smoldering phase c. Poly drug abuse
2177. Most effective way of regulating vices. d. Drug experimenter
a. Continued police action by relentless drives in 2191. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
vice control potent Cannabis Sativa.
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement a. Marijuana
c. Both a and b b. Hashish
d. None of the choices c. Opium
2178. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive d. Morphine
intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and 2192. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning
psychological changes and dependence to alcohol. sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
a. Alcoholics a. Opium
b. Liquor addicts b. Opiates
c. Drunkard c. Morphine
d. Chronic alcoholics d. Heroin
2193. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
 a. Tetrahydrocannabinol a. DDB
b. Cannabis sativa b. NBI
c. Papaver somniferum c. PACC
d. Methamphetamine d. PNP
2194. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily 2208. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor,
used as: melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
a. Pain killer a. Narcotics
b. Cough reliever b. Stimulants
c. Stimulant c. Depressants
d. Depressant d. Hallucinogens
2195. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the 2209. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a
DDB? way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional
a. Secretary of Justice change.
b. Secretary of National Defense a. Alcohol
c. Secretary of Education b. Coca leaf
d. Secretary of Health c. Drug
2196. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking d. Marijuana
drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese 2210. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
tourist. emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
a. Marijuana a. Depressants
b. Cocaine b. Tranquilizers
c. Shabu c. Hallucinogens
d. Opium d. Stimulants
2197. The most potent derivative from opium. 2211. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
a. Codeine leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind
b. Cocaine and body.
c. Morphine a. Abuse
d. Heroin b. Vice
2198. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in c. Addiction
Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru. d. Gambling
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol 2212. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock
b. Papaver somniferum owners and other bettors.
c. Amphetamine a. Promoter
d. Erythroxylon coca b. “Cristo”
2199. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical c. Banker
name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”. d. Gambler
a. Chomper 2213. Most common problem encountered by the police in
b. Ecstacy vice control measures:
c. Shabu a. Unwillingness of government officials to work
d. Heroin against vices
2200. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
circumvent legal restrictions. c. Public apathy
a. Designer drugs d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
b. Hallucinogens 2214. The process of undergoing or producing gradual
c. Amphetamines chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic.
d. Methamphetamines a. Distillation
2201. A law which prohibits government officials to enter b. Fermentation
and gamble in Philippine casinos. c. Ionization
a. PD 1602 d. Purification
b. PD 1869 2215. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes
c. PD 510 argumentative and over confident.
d. PD 483 a. Slight inebration
2202. Office that controls and regulates gambling. b. Moderate inebration
a. PAGCOR c. Drunk
b. PCGG d. Coma
c. PACC 2216. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on
d. PNP conversion and fellowship.
2203. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among a. Aversion treatment
persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable b. Psychotherapy method
consideration for the chance to obtain a prize. c. Withdrawal method
a. Gambling d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
b. Sport 2217. Oldest profession known to man which involves
c. Lottery habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or
d. All of the choices profit.
2204. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games. a. Gambling
a. Wage b. Prostitution
b. Wager c. Addiction
c. Prize d. All of the foregoing
d. Banker 2218. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution
2205. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much to supplement their income.
as 25% of the substance: a. Call girls
a. Hashish b. Factory girls
b. Codeine c. Hustler
c. Morphine d. Door knocker
d. Heroin
2206. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of 2219. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent
stimulants known as: legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of
a. Crank responsibility.
b. Pep pills a. Disorderly houses
c. Knock-out drops b. Furnished room houses
d. Stick c. Call houses
2207. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on d. Massage clinics
prohibited and regulated drugs.
2220. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the A. Modus Operandi
world originated is located specifically in: B. Modes of Operation
a. Thailand-Burma-China border C. Methods of Operation
b. Laos-Thailand-China border D. Pattern of Operation
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border 2233. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border a criminal case about the activities of the criminals
2221. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made voluntarily to the investigator and who may even be willing
from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal to be a witness.
altering ingredient. Which among the following is A. Informant
not an immediate effect of weed? B. Informer
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate C. Mercenary
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration D. Women
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of 2234. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will
losing control proceed at the same place along the path parallel to one
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation side of the rectangle.
2222. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South A. Wheel search method
American shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant. B.Quadrant Search
a. Marijuana C. Spiral search method
b. Shabu D. Strip Search
c. Cocaine 2235. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence
d. Opiates in court; it should be taken from ____.
2223. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly A. General View
upon chance or hazard. C. Close-up view
a. Gambling B. Mid-range
b. Sports D. General to Specific
c. Tupada 2236. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing
d. All of the above actual measurements and of identifying significant items of
2224. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is evidence in their location at the scene.
difficult to control is that: A. Sketch
a. The big demand B. Rough Sketch
b. The plant can be easily cultivated C. Final Sketch
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country D. Finish Sketch
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously 2237. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the
2225. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is crime and its environs, including neighboring buildings,
reluctant to divulge information? roads, etc.?
A. interview a. Sketch of Locality
C. interrogation b. Sketch of Environs
B. information c. Sketch of the Ground
D. instrumentation d. Sketch in Details
2226. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be 2238. Elements of the Sketch:
shown in order to obtain conviction? a. Measurement and compass direction
A. intent b. Essential items and scale of proportion
B.desire c. Legend and title
C. motive d. All of the choices
D. opportunity 2239. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was
2227. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator subjected to physical harm by continuously kicking and
from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others. punching him in the stomach so that the same may
A. Grapevine Sources confess.
B. Cultivated Sources A. Coercion
C.Regular Sources B. Physical torture
D.Cognitive interview C. Duress
2228. What interrogation techniques when the investigator D. Verbal threats
indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a 2240. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to
grave offense. the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall
A. Sympathetic Appeal suffer the penalty of:
B. Mutt and Jeff A. Reclusion perpetua
C Extenuation B. Death
D. Emotional Appeal C. Reclusion temporal
2229. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject D. Destierro
falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt. 2241. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation
and technical investigation at the crime scene is:
a. Confession a. PNP Crime Laboratory
b. Extra-Judicial Confession b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
c. Admission c. Scene of the Crime Operation
d. Judicial Confession d. Crime Scene Investigation

2230. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known 2242. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the
criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and names scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on
of associate criminals. the pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but
a. Physical Line-up still moving. What is the proper course of action he should
b. Physical Show-up take?
c. Geographic Sketch a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to
d. Rogues Gallery arrive
2231. It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the
scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda crime scene and assist him with the
doctrine situation.
A. Custodial Investigation C. Call the investigator and inquire
B. Interview about his decision concerning the victim.
C. Field Inquiry D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the
D. Interrogation nearest hospital.
2232. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and 2243. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____
is established by a series of crimes under one a. the property taken
classification. b. the fact that the crime was committed
 c. anything of value C. Chief of Police
d. Intent of the suspect D. Investigator-on-case
2244. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical 2255. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by
representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken
orientation of the scene. glasses:
A. North A. Incised wound
B. West B. Punctured wound
C. East C. Stab wound
D. South D. Lacerated wound
2245. The following are the rules to be observed when 2256. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in
intervening a witness, EXCEPT: which the investigator inscribe initial date and time
a. allow implied answer directly?
b. saving faces A. marking
c. one question at a time B. labeling
d. avoid leading questions C. tagging
2246. In case there is no other available means of D. none of these
establishing the age of the offender, what should be done 2257. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a
if he claims that he is still a minor? evidence should be marked where ____.
a. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is A. At the tip of the blade
already of majority age. B. At the frame
b. Wait for the court to determine the age of the C. At the base
offender D. At the handle
c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant 2258. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week?
d. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the A. Sodium Chloride
offender B. Sodium Fluoride
2247. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident C. Sodium Dioxide
shall have the following duties, EXCEPT: D. NONE
a. Record the date and time the report was made 2259. What is the most important part of the hair?
b. Immediately respond to the crime scene A. Follicle
c. Made a synopsis of the incident B. Medulla
d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer C. Root
regarding the report D. All of these
2248. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene 2260. What is the minimum number of hair strands is
where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place needed?
where the evidence custodian receives the evidence A. 10 strands
collected during crime scene investigation? B. 30 to 60 strands
A. crime scene C. 120 strands
C. fixed post D. unlimited
B. command post 2261. Mummification is a condition of arrested
D. reception area decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is
2249. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team common in hot dry conditions, usually takes ___ to form.
leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT: A. 3 months
a. Takes down note to document important factors B. 1 month
b. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene C. 6 months
c. Photograph the crime scene before walking D. 1 year
through the crime scene 2262. A dead body was found and there is already
d. Defines the extent of search area presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body was
2250. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the at least ___.
crime scene? A. 2 days
a. To determine whether or not the processing has B. 5 days
been completed. C. 3 days
b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police. D. 1 week
c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime 2263. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave
scene. for the conduct of medical examination:
d. To determine whether there is a need to request A. Inhumation
for additional personnel B. Exhumation
2251. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to C. Autopsy
whom will the crime scene be turned over? D. Interment
A. Chief of Police 2264. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of
B. PCP Commander the following
C. Investigator-on-case a. The actual cause of death of the victim
D. owner of the place b. The actual killer of the victim
2252. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the c. The modus operandi involved
crime scene to be transported to the Crime Laboratory? d. The motive behind killing
a. Yes, because they were collected for 2265. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of
examination events by the observation and evaluation of physical
b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to evidence, as well as statement made by those involved
take custody of evidence with the incident:
c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to
bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory if the a. Crime Scene Reconstruction
investigator did not request b. Physical reconstruction
d. No, only those which require further laboratory c. Mental reconstruction
examination will be transported. d. Any of the above
2253. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly 2266. The purposes of a crime scene search are the
documented and locations of evidence was noted, the following, EXCEPT:
collection process begins and will usually start with – a. To identify the method of operation
A. point of exit b. To analyze physical evidence
B. fragile evidence c. To reduce the number of suspects
C. large objects d. To obtain physical evidence
D. removal of cadaver 2267. In the course of investigating the house where a
2254. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene? stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on
A. Chief Investigator the front door, since the unknown perpetrator and the
B. Team Leader victim who may die were both cut their identities need to
 be established through the bloodstains. How will the police D. Stylus
collect the stains? 2279. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline of interrogation?
solution and rub gently. a. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab b. To extract the information he possesses
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean c. To extract a confession of admission
razor blade d. All of the above
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in 2280. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
alcohol a. Names of the suspect
2268. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a b. Names of the witness
rough sketch is for c. Number of the cases
A. scale and proportion d. Facts of the cases
B. future use
C. accuracy and clarity
D.courtroom presentation
2269. What is the court process requiring a person to bring 2281. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober
documents in his possession to the courts? must keep in mind that before placing the specimen in a
a. summon paper packet it must be allowed first to ____?
b. subpoena ducestecum A. Refrigerate
C.subpoena testificandum B. Air dried
D. bill of particulars C. Moist
2270. What is the best method of collection evidence like D. Freeze
footprints and tire prints? 2282. Why is it important for a perishable material to be
A. Casting preserved by the way or the methods of preservation?
B. Dental Stone a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed
C. Plaster of Paris b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in
D. Photograph the same physical condition as when they were
2271. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the collected
information, interview/interrogation and instrumentation. c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the
Among of them information is deemed to be the most acquittal of the accused
important because d. All of the above
a. Information involves the elements of the crime 2283. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand
b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime has how many legs or vertical support?
c. Information identifies witnesses that will lead to A. two
the suspect B. four
d. None of these C. one
2272. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit- D. three
and-run may be particularly useful in the investigation 2284. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and
process because the year and make of the car involved empty shell for
may be determinable. The paint chips evidence collected A. proper and lasting mark
should be ideally placed on? B. preservation
a. Clear plastic envelope C. marking it
b. Clear plastic container D. labeling
c. Small plastic bag 2285. Which of the following is not the function of criminal
d. Cotton investigation?
2273. Which of the following is the primary source of a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who
evidence? commits crime
A. victim b. Prosecute and convict the criminal
B. crime scene c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
C. suspect d. Bring the offender to justice
D. all of these 2286. Below are serious crimes which leave physical
2274. Which among the following is an essential element of evidence, EXCEPT:
parricide? a. Homicide
a. by means of treachery b. Carnapping and arson
b. relationship of the offender with the victim c. Sexual assault and robbery
c. relationship of the offender with the witness d. Libel
d. age of the victim 2287. There are two robbers who broke into a house and
2275. In crime scene investigation, who determines its carried away some valuables. After they left such house
entry/exit? these two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already
A. the prober so that they can go of them . So while they are
B. SOCO dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the one
C. COP doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he
D. First responded immediately boxed him. Now this robber who was boxed
2276. After developing the latent print found at the crime then pulled out his gun and fired at the other one killing the
scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a latter. What crime is committed?
back record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with a. Robbery and Murde
the prober? b. Murder
A. yes c. Robbery w/ Homicide
B. no d. Homicide
C. maybe
D. It depends
2277. What would be the best camera position in taking 2288. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after
photographs showing a view of what a witness might have killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this,
seen? the crime would be?
a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man a. Robbery and Murder
b. parallel to the subject witness b. Robbery and Theft
c. overhead c. Robbery w/ Homicide
d. at the eye level d. Murder
2278. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or 2289. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B
engraved the initial on a collected hard object is called? a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A,
A. Collection and they get married. What crime is committed?
C. Scratcher A. Robbery
B. Luminous B. Robbery w/ Rape
 C. Robbery and Rape d. casing
D. NONE 2303. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the
2290. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The scene of the crime will most likely mean that –
wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, a. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
a man entered through that opening without breaking the b. the suspect was professional
same and gets items there. What crime is committed? c. the suspect was juvenile
A. Robbery d. the police probably did not conduct a complete
B. Theft search for evidence.
C. Robbery w/ force upon things 2304. During an interview, planning is important and must
D. None follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as they
2291. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998: happened, this technique is called –
A. RA 8484 a. chronological questioning
B. RA 7877 b. psychological questioning
C. RA 7080 c. physical questioning
D. RA 8353 d. None of these
2292. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are 2305. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
found in your house by the police, then it is ____. territory” such as the investigator room at the police station
a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing because the place –
b. Prima facie evidence of theft a. Is comfortable to the suspect
c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft b. Is familiar to the suspect
d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
2293. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful d. Intimidates the suspect
warrantless arrest EXCEPT: 2306. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene,
A. Seized in “Plain view” he should first of all –
B. Customs search a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care
C. Search of a moving vehicle not to jar
D. None of the choices b. wait until the crime scene has been sketched,
2294. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately photographed and measurements taken before
the things or property seized to the ____ together with an he collects the evidence
inventory duly verified under oath. c. immediately collects it and always sends it to the
a. Judge who issued the warrant Crime Laboratory for specific examination
b. Prosecution Counsel d. Compare the following edge of the took with
c. Requesting Party impression to determine if this was the tool used
d. Any of these in crime
2295. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____. 2307. All of the following are generally accepted rules of
A. 10 days behavior that should be followed by police officer first
B. No time Limit arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors,
C. 15 days EXCEPT –
D. NONE a. Try to keep witnesses separated
2296. The taking of a person into custody in the manner b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that c. Discus the crime with persons who witness the
person before the court to answer for the commission of a incident
crime. d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible
but do not leave the scene unguarded while
doing so
A. Search 2308. The primary reason for conducting a search in the
B. Arrest crime scene is to –
C. Initial Contact a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
D. Warrant of Arrest b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
2297. Who shall issue a Search Warrant? c. Undercover hidden evidence
A. Judge d. Determine the criminals method of operation
B. Executive Branch 2309. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be
C. Investigator on Case made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least
D. Prober likely to affect the appearance of its -
2298. All but one are the instances you can execute a A. Physical Integrity
lawful warrantless arrest. B. Evidentiary
A. Flagrante Delicto C. Legal Integrity
B. Escaped prisoner D. Integrity and Identity
C. Hot pursuit Principle 2310. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the
D. None of these pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
2299. Physical evidence is generally given weight the a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another
courts because- unit
a. it speaks for itself b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are
b. it cannot lie formerly doing
c. not affected by emotion c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
d. all of the choices d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
2300. Physical or personal appearance is important when coordination with other police units
testifying in court because – 2311. This situation takes place when a police officer
a. it will determine the quality of your testimony induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him after
b. it will determine the quantity of your testimony the commission of the crime.
c. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by A. Instigation
the court B. Search
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense C. Recidivism
2301. What does DNA stand for? D. Entrapment
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid 2312. The investigator who collects physical evidence
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This
2302. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was statement is applicable to –
pioneered by Allan Pinkerton a. Chain of custody of evidence
a. Every contact leaves a Mark b. Cardinal rules in investigation
b. modus operandi c. Three tools in investigation
c. shadowing d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2313. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the
crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2314. These are some of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes,
photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical
evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of death of
the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the
investigators
2315. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide
case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of death
b. seek additional information by interviewing
witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his rights
2316. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to
prevent and when detected or reported, they pose many
____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2317. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the
investigator must develop ___, eh must also remember
that the victim may suddenly lose interest in aiding
prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2318. The following are characteristics of organized crime,
EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2319. The following statements, answers the questions
“when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another
person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into the genital
or anal orifice or another person
c. committed under all the elements enumerated by
Art. 324 of the Revised Penal Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2320. Rape is committed under any of the following
circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or
otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave
abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a
woman
2321. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by
the use of force upon things, and the other is:
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
b. taking of personal property belonging to another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
2322. The following are the elements of the crime robbery,
EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2323. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the
thief in an automobile which has been stolen and
abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2324. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying
then collecting information and evidences, the next logical
step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
2325. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one
man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving
at the scene a short time later finds the victim
unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the crowd
to leave. His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the
assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an
injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to
order people about needlessly.
2326. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
2327. It is often important to know the time of death. The
reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk with the victim
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of
incident
c. protect the innocent from malicious allegations
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur
2328. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person, who
has all the qualification as provided by law, 3 rd Driver’s
License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct
2329. Which of the following is not a function of warning
symbol?
a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the
approaching danger
c. To direct motorist along the establish direction
d. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous
circumstance either on or adjacent to road
2330. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT:
a. To guide motorist along established routes
b. To inform proper routes
c. To help him along his way to the most simple and
direct method
d. To call the diminution of speed
2331. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around
questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of
the following is the best definition of “Right of Way”.
a. The personal right to move from one place to
another
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular
section of highway
c. The way or place open to the motorist and
pedestrian
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at
the time is occupied by another vehicle
2332. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation,
instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply.
A. Traffic Signs
B. Informative Signs
C. Regulatory Signs
D. Danger/warning signs
2333. A kind of road according to political subdivision within
town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters.
A. National Road
B. Municipal Road
C. Barangay Road
D. City Road
2334. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB
 A. Private C.Possibility involve in an accident
B. For Hire D.Increase of insurance premium
C. Government 2347. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is
D. Diplomatic best characterized by, EXCEPT:
2335. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is A.Poor legislation activities
valid for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
every birth month. C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
A. 18 Months D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
B.36 Months 2348. The following are NOT functions of Land
C. 24 Months Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
D.12 Months A.Reparation of vehicles
2336. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way B.Registration and licensing
involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but not C.Rental and license
involving a motor vehicle in motion: D.Licensing operating
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident 2349. One of the following statements that best indicates
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic
d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident rules
2337. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid
Manila Development Authority (MMDA)? bottlenecks
A. RA 8750 control the speed limited in densely
B .RA 7924 populated areas
C. RA 8749 D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow
D. PD 96 of traffic
2338. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program 2350. Most common defect attributed to the human element
is best measured by which of the following: in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption A. Intellectual
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions B. Perceptual
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to C. Decision
enforcement manner D. Attitudinal
d. None of these 2351. 2568. Statistically it is considered as the most
2339. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or common reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the A.Not observing the proper distance and
moment he starts to cross. following too close
A. Absolutely true B.Unnecessary
B. Partly true C.Recklessness
C. Absolutely false D.Discussion regarding fare
D. Partly false 2352. 2569. What is the general rule for the movement of
2340. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
street level for free-flow traffic. A. “keep to the left”
A. Expressway B. Safety First
B. Subway C. “keep to the right”
C. Skyway D. “watch out”
D. Tunnel road 2353. 2570. What would drivers do when an emergency
2341. City roads inter-link between municipalities and within vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light
the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the and sounding a siren?
minimum width of sidewalk? A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly
A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters B.continue driving slowly without regard of
B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters the emerging
C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters C.yield at the right of way and wait for the
D. 2.0 meters passage of the vehicle
2342. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of D.disregard the red light and siren
taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or 2354. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you
detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a approach an intersection with the traffic light with a “green
court. color” on but a traffic policeman is standing at the center of
A. Arrest intersection conducting the flow normally. As a driver you
B. Traffic Arrest will ignore the traffic man and follow the automatic traffic
C. Traffic Citation light-
D. Traffic Warning A. True
2343. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not B. False
less than ___ can apply for non-professional driver’s C. Sometimes
license D. It depends
A. 150 Days 2355. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes
B. 180 Days another vehicle, object or person and left the scene
C. 60 Days without stopping to identify himself or render aid
D. 30 Days A. hit and run
2344. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other B. third party liability
than serious to one or more persons: C. reckless driving
A. Property damage D. side sweeper
B. Less Serious Injury 2356. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to
C.Fatal Accident conditions, actions and physical features associated with
D. Non-fatal Accident motor collision or accident –
2345. When two vehicles approach an intersection at A.traffic engineering
approximately the same time, which shall give the right of B.traffic accident investigation
way: C.reckless driving
a. The vehicle coming from the right D.hit and run
b. Vehicle from the center 2357. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody
c. The vehicle coming from the left who are not a member of the organization who can helps
d. The vehicle that arrives first the organization
2346. Which of the following consideration does not act as A. Enforcer
a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian? B. Capo
A. Fear of fine and punishment C. Corrupter
B.Loss of driving privileged D. Corruptee
2358. What type of OCG which is manned by semi- A. Human Trafficking
organized individual with the end view of attaining B. Prostitution
psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs. C. Drug Trafficking
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime D. Sex tourism
B.Political Graft 2371. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified
C.Predatory Organized Crime when:
D.Syndicated Organized Crime A.the person trafficked is an elderly
2359. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is B.the person trafficked is a special child
primarily concerned with the generation of profits, C.the person trafficked is a woman
irrespective of national boundaries as a result of D.the person trafficked is a child
globalization.
A.Transnational Organized Crime 2372. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides
B.Transnational Crime that an organized criminal group must have a membership
C.Organized Criminal Group of at least ___:
D.NONE A. 3 or More
2360. What category of terrorist group which is What B. 2 or More
category of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow C. 4 or More
an established order and replacing it with a new political or D. 5 or More
social structure? 2373. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly
A. Ethnocentric included.
B. Revolutionary A. Al Qaeda
C. Separalist B. MILF
D. Political C. MNLF
2361. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for? D. JI
A.InformationConnection Technology 2374. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
B.InformationCommunication A.Swords bearer
Technology B.Islamic Congregation
C.InternetCommunication C.Father of the Swordsman
Technology D.The Base
D.Internet Connection Technology 2375. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting
2362. Economic crime is known as: for as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
A.Blue Collar Crime A. Bombings
B.Wildlife Smuggling B. Assassinations
C.White Collar Crime C. Kidnapping
D.Wildlife trafficking D. Prostitution
2363. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten: 2376. This is also known as the Human Security Act of
A. Terrorisme 2007:
B.Terrere A. RA 9372
C. Rapere B. RA 9160
D. Vestigarre C. RA 9165
2364. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of D. RA 8294
silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades 2377. This is the country which believed to be the origin of
to the authorities: Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
A. Capo A. United States of America
B. Omerta B. Italy
C. Jihad C. Japan
D. Ideology D. China
2365. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in 2378. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical
Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro National symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing
Liberation Front (MNLF): the heaven, earth and man:
A.Rizal Day Bombing A. Yakuza
B.Ninoy assassination B. Triad
C.Black September C. Tongs
D.Jabbidah Massacre D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
2366. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted 2379. Chain of custody should be observed by the
terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls all investigating team of cybercrimes:
Muslims around the world to slay Americans and their A.The Statement is wrong
allies. B.The statement is true
A. Abu-Abbas C.None of these
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef D.All of these
C. Ahmed Yassin 2380. Internet pornography is punishable under E-
D. Osama bin-Laden Commerce Act of 2000:
2367. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their A.The Statement is correct
memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal B.Statement is wrong
record, or similar considerations: C.either of the above
A.No Political Goals D.neither of the above
B.Hierarchical 2381. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership perpetuated, are legally required to have permanent logs
2368. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of and records of their clients:
their: A.The statement is true
A. membership B.The statement is false
B. motivation C.Neither of the above
C. leadership D.Either of the above
D. networking 2382. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that
2369. This theory refers to those processes by which the telecommunication companies are legally bound to
community influences its members towards conformity cooperate with the law enforcement agencies in the
with established norms and behavior. course of their investigation:
A. differential association A.The statement is absolutely correct
B. social control B.The statement is absolutely wrong
C. anomie C.The statement is partially correct
D. strain D.The statement is partially wrong
2370. It is a form of modern day slavery.
2383. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E- D. Any color
Commerce Act of 2000. 2395. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known
A. 20 years as “Back to Islam”.
B. 12 years A. Abu Sayyaf
C. 6 years B. MILF
D. 3 years C. Je naah Islamiya
2384. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make
them appear to have originated from legitimate sources: 2396. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with
A. Estafa the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of
B.Money Laundering people.
C. Anti-Money Laundering A.Nuclear
D. Swindling B.Weapon of mass destruction
2385. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic C.Anthrax
and/or sound in electronic form, representing the identity D.Chemical weapons
of a person and attached to or logically associated with the 2397. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal
electronic data message: organization in the world.
A. electronic key A. Al Qaeda
B. originator B. Jihad
C. electronic signature C. Chinese Mafia
D. electronic date message D. Nuestra Costra
2386. Only a computer forensic expert should search for
any evidence contained in a computer hardware. 2398. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor
A.The statement is absolutely correct pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
B.The statement is absolutely wrong pressure?
C.The statement is partially correct A. vapor density
D.The statement is partially wrong B. fire point
2387. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998: B. boiling point
A. RA 8551 D. vapor pressure
B. RA 8484
C. RA 9160 2399. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire
D. RA 9165 when it is in its gas-phased combustion.
2388. What is the name of the operation launched by US A. Flames
Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden? B. Exothermic reaction
A.Operation Geronimo C. Endothermic reaction
B.Operation Jabbidah D. NONE
C.Operation Neptune Spear 2400. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the
D.Operation Merdeka bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
2389. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT? combustion and has a low temperature.
A. The Neopolitan Camera A. Luminous
B. Sinilian Mafia B. Non-luminous
C. Cali Cartel C. Laminar
D. Sacra Corona Unita D. Turbulent
2390. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to 2401. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____.
establish a shared database among concerned agencies A. Infection
for information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and C. shock
conviction on transnational crime. B. burns
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes D. asphyxiation
(PCTC) 2402. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state
B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking under pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature
(NACAH) inside its container?
C.International Criminal Police Organization A. cryogenic gas
(ICPO) B. liquefied gas
D.Philippine National Police (PNP) C. compressed gas
D. nuclear gas

2391. It is known as IP address that changes every time the 2403. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the
internet accesses his ISP: method is called ____.
A. ISP A. radiation
B. Dynamic IP address B. oxidation
C. Static IP Address C. convection
D. IP Address D. conduction
2392. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website 2404. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A
pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial fires?
information such as credit card numbers or social security A. none of the choices
numbers. B. burning nipa hut
A. Phising C. exploding gas depot
B. Hacking D. forest fire
C. Cracking 2405. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
D. Identity Theft A.simultaneous fire
2393. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself B.thick reddish smoke
and infect a computer without permission or knowledge of C.faulty electric wiring
the user D.unexplained explosion
A. Virus 2406. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?
B. Trojan Horse A.water is not capable of extinguishing the
C. Logic Bomb fire
D. Worm B.there is the danger of electrocution
2394. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer C.burning metals are too hot
systems with malicious intent, usually for some criminal D.explosion may occur
purpose. 2407. Mechanical device strategically located in an
A. Black Hat Hackers installation or street where fire hose is connected so that
B. Gray Hat Hacker water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
C. White Hat Hackers A. fire hose box
 B. fire truck A. vertical ventilation
C. hose reel B. cross ventilation
D. fire hydrant C. forced ventilation
2408. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is D. horizontal ventilation
known as ___. 2420. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the
A. reducing agent most probable extinguishing method is:
B. oxidizing agent A. smothering
C. cooling agent B. fuel removal
D. chemical agent C. cooling
2409. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a D. dilution
building: 2421. The most important element of Fire?
A.It only moves horizontally A.Fuel
B.It has a circular movement B.Chemical chain reaction
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically C.Heat
D.It has a circular movement while moving D.Oxygen
horizontally 2422. A complete and detailed checked of the structures
2410. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space and material involved in the fire to make sure that every
containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of spark and ember has been extinguished and to have
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, assurance against
may result to an explosion, which is called: A. Overhaul
A. Spontaneous ignition B. Rescue
B. flashover C. Salvage
C. Backdraft D. None
D. Flash fire 2423. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose
they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most
2411. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while likely reason for taking this position?
electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to A.The stream is projected farther
the damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe B.The surrounding air is cool making the
gradual or rapid, internal or external. firemen comfortable
A. Arcing C.A backward force is developed which must
B. Induced Current be counter acted
C. Over Heating D.The firemen can see better when the
D. sparkling stream strikes
2412. The most common motive for arson is 2424. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the
A. jealousy crime that you have to file is:
B. profit A. murder with arson
C. spite B. arson with murder
D. revenge C. murder
2413. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of D. arson
arson? 2425. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical
A.inflammable substance found in the powder intended to fight all classes of fires.
premises A. H20
B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of B. Liquefied
the building C. Dry Chemical
C.building insurance D. Soda Acid
D.any of the choices 2426. All except one are aggravating circumstances in
2414. What is the process of raising the temperature to Arson.
separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and A.If committed with intent to gain:
then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to B.If committed with the benefit of another:
produce a nearly purified substance? C.If the offender is motivated by spite or
A. combustion hatred towards the owner or occupant of
B. evaporation the property burned:
C. distillation D.If committed by a syndicate
D. condensation E.None of the Above
2427. What color of smoke is present when the materials
2415. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
hydrant? A. Black
A. hydrant key B. White
B. key board C. Yellow
C. fire hose D. Blue
D. jumper 2428. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been
2416. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must
where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam determine?
forming ascent or descent? A.look for survivors
A. rope B.search for debris
B. hydrant C.locate the point of origin
C. ladder D.established corpus delicti
D. nozzle 2429. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F)
2417. What are the cross members between the beam and is a:
used in climbing the ladder called? A. Combustible liquid
A. hangar B. Corrosive liquid
B. beams C. Flammable liquid
C. rungs D. Volatile liquid
D. braces 2430. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy;
2418. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases however examination of lungs and blood showed no
in our midst, which of the following facilities should you abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will
check? be your interpretation under such circumstance?
A.Gift-wrapped packages A.The person died because of asphyxia
B.Electric switch system B.The person died because of the burning
C.Telephones C.The person was killed before it was
D.All of these burned
2419. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the D.The person died not of fire but because of
highest point of the roof is referred to as: suffocation
2431. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting A. Sedatives
operation involving high-rise building? B. Stimulants
A. attic C. Hallucinogen
B. extension D. Narcotics.
C. aerial 2445. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes
D. hook about 10% of the use raw opium.
2432. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains only A. Morphine
one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet. B. Heroin
A. Straight ladder C. Codeine
B. Attic ladder D. Opium
C. Extension ladder 2446. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon
D. Wall ladder coca.
2433. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate A. Cocaine
flame propagation. B. Marijuana
A. Plant C. Papayer Somniferum
B. Trailer D. claviceps purpurea
C. Accelerant 2447. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___
D. Gasoline specs.
2434. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober. A. Blue
A. Witness B. Orange
B. Society C. Violet
C. First responder D. Red
D. Owner 2448. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of
2435. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines. ___
A. RA 9514 A. Assistant Secretary
B. PD 1185 B. Secretary
C. RA 8294 C. Chairman
D. RA 8484 D. Undersecretary
2436. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson. 2449. What is the minimum age required to be able to
A.Kind and character of the building burned become a PDEA agent?
B.Location of the building A. 16
C.Extent or value of the damage B. 18
D.Whether inhabited or not C. 21
E.None of the choices D. s25
2437. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of 2450. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the
symptoms of poisoning. rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
A. Minimal Dose A. Chairman/President
B. Abusive Dose B. Secretary/PDEA DG
C. Toxic Dose C. CSUPT/President
D. Maximal Dose D. SUPT/PDEA DG
2451. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in
2438. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost the planning and formulation of policies and programs on
entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies. drug prevention and control
A. Situational A. PDES
B. Hard-core B. DDB
C. Hippies C. PNP Narcotics
D. Spree D. NBI Narcotics
2439. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly 2452. They serve as permanent consultant of the
absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the Dangerous Drug Board:
second most commonly used route of drug administration, A.NBI Director and PNP Director General
A. Snorting B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
B. inhalation C.PNP Director and PDEA Director
C. oral ingestion D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of
D. Injection Justice
2440. Among the countries involved in the first important 2453. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the
drug traffic route, which is responsible for preparation for following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
distribution? Circumstances:
A. Middle East A.Conducted in the presence or with the help
B. USA of minor/s
C. Turkey B.Established within one hundred (100)
D. Europe meters of a residential, business, church
or school premises.
C.Secured or protected with booby traps
D.Concealed with legitimate business
operations
2441. Which among the following responsible for producing E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
almost 60% of Opium in the world. engineer, public official or foreigner
A. Golden triangle F.all of the choices
B. Golden Crescent 2454. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of
C. Silver Triangle how many Ex-officio Members?
D. White Christmas A. 2
2442. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent? C. 2
A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India B. 12
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia D. 17
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand 2455. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand A.Its branches which occur at opposite
2443. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”. points on the stalk
A. Philippines B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Mexico C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
C. Spain whose edges are serrated in shape.
D. Lebanon D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully
2444. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often grown.
induce sleep.
2456. What agency of the government supervises drug A.To person from whom such items were
rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and confiscated or his representative or counsel
laboratories? B.A representative from the media
A.Department of Interior and Local C.A representative from the DOJ
Government D.Any elected public official
B.Department of Health E.None of the choices
C.Department of Justice
D.Department of Social Welfare and 2465. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by
Development forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis:
2457. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous A.Not more than five (5) grams per
Drug Board: package/bag
A. 2 years B.Not more than three (3) tablets for
B. 6 years capsules or tables
C. 4 years C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid
D. co-terminus solution
2458. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried
Drug Paraphernalia shall be: leaves and not more than 2 plants.
E.All of the choices
2466. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug
Testing EXCEPT:
A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
50 to 200 thousand pesos. Schools
B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
of 10 to 50 thousand pesos. violation of the Provision of Comprehensive
C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40 Dangerous Drug Act.
thousand pesos. C.Officers and Employee of public and
D.6 months rehabilitation private offices
2459. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into D.A and C only
the body of any person with or without his/her knowledge 2467. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving
either by injection inhalation, ingestion or other means. dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of:
A. Administer A. 180 days
B. Use B. 45 days
C. Dispense B. 30 days
D. Deliver D. 60 days
2468. An analytical test using some tools or device design
2460. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or screening
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various test.
techniques were made by its operator in concealing their A. Screening test
activities. B. Confirmatory rest
A. Hide-out operation C. Physical test
B. Safe house D. Chemical Test
C. Clandestine Operation 2469. The ____ shall designate special courts from among
D. Drug Syndicate the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try
2461. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on: and hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A. June 7, 2002 A. DOJ
B. July 4, 2002 B. Supreme Court
C. July 30, 2002 C. DDB
D. June 18, 2003 D. Sandiganbayan
2462. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT 2470. The law that penalized the use and possession or the
A.Officers and Employee of public and unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
private offices. A. P.D. 1519
B.Applicant for firearms license and for B. P.D. 1916
permit to carry firearms outside residence C. P.D. 1619
C.Officers and Members of the Military, D. P.D. 580
police and other law enforcement agencies 2471. A laboratory examination is only required to
D.All candidates for public office whether apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person arrested
appointed or elected both in national or local has:
government units. A.Physical sign of drug abuse
E.All persons charged before the B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense C.Visible manifestation that suspect was
having an imposable penalty of not less under the influence of drugs
than six (6) years and one (1) day. D.All of the choices
2463. Apprehending team having initial custody and control 2472. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic
of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant beverage is the absorption is faster?
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall A. 20 to 30 minutes
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and B. 30 to 60 minutes
photograph the same in the presence of the following, C. 10 to 20 minutes
EXCEPT. D. 50 to 60 minutes
A.To person from whom such items were 2473. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates
confiscated or his representative or that the person is under the influence of the liquor
counsel. (alcohol)?
B.A representative from the media. A. 0.05
C.A representative from the DOJ. B. 1.5
D.Any elected public official. C. 0.15
E.None of the choices D. 0.50
2464. Apprehending team having initial custody and control 2474. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where
of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant the business of prostitution is conducted.
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall A. Pimp
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and B. prostitute
photograph the same in the presence of the following, C. Knocker
EXCEPT. D. Maintainer
2475. The person is argumentative and overconfident.
There is slight impairment of mental difficulties. 2487. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use
A. Slight inebriation as a veterinary anesthetic.
B. Moderate inebriation A. Ketamine
C. Drunk B. Codeine
D. Very drunk C. Anesthesia
D. Sleeping pills
2476. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 2488. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2nd
of RA 9165 is ____: violation.
A.Qualified to apply for probation A.6 Months Rehabilitation
B.Disqualified to apply for probation B.12 Months Rehabilitation
C.Allowed to apply for probation C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
more than 6 years and 1 day 2489. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously
2477. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”. and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly
A. Marijuana or indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
B. Ecstacy A. Entrapment
C. Shabu B. Planting of Evidence
D. None of these C. Instigation
2478. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a D. Black mailing
cough reliever? 2490. It is the Agency of the government that will take
A. morphine charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs
B. cocaine confiscated:
C. opium A. Maritime Police
D. codeine B. Dangerous Drug Board
2479. When drunken person does not know the intoxicating C. PDEA
strength of the beverage he has taken. D. NBI
A. involuntary E. PNP
B. Intentional 2491. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of
C. Habitual Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time
D. Coma and date the arresting officers have to subject “A” to a
2480. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads drug test as required by the law?
to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and A.7:00 P.M., October 25
body. B.7:00 P.M., October 24
A. Morality C.8:00 A.M., October 26
B. Vices D.8:00 A.M., October 25
C. Prostitutions 2492. Which among the following data concerning
D. Gambling photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
2481. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall A.date and hour which each photograph was
conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or taken
surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors B.identification of the police photographer
within: C.proof of ownership of the camera
A. 24 hours D.focal length of the lens
B. 30 days 2493. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
C. 72 hours rough sketch is for _____.
D. 48 hours A.scale and proportion
2482. That part of the body most affected to by heavy B.future use
drinking are: C.accuracy and clarity
A.digestive system and nervous system D.courtroom presentation
B.brain and veins of the body 2494. All except are object evidence that should be taken
C.the lungs and heart photograph individually, EXCEPT?
D.None of the above A. Knife
2483. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo B. Semen
drug test? C. stone
A. yes D. Gun
B. maybe 2495. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
C. upon circumstances A. Police car on call
D. No B. Ambulance on call
2484. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a C. Fire Truck on call
prosecution witness during trial of the case against the D. Physician’s car
alleged drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. What 2496. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front
will be his penalty? seat of any running motor vehicle:
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment A.Seven years old
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years B.six years and old and under
C. Life imprisonment C.under six years old
D. Death penalty D.seven years old and under
2497. Marijuana is also known as?
2485. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their A. Coke
suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their B. Poppers
penalty the same? C. Cannabis
A. No D. Morphine
B. False 2498. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal
C. Yes drug cases?
D. True A. User
2486. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and B. Pusher
subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of C. Possessor
investigation involving the violations of RA 9165. D. Coddler
A. True 2499. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
B. Partially True A. Marijuana
C. False B. Shabu
D. Partially False C. Cocaine
D. AMorphine
2500. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
behavior? D. Physically dependent on drugs
A. Yes 2513. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than
B. No morphine.
C. Sometimes A. amphetamines
D. It depends B. cocaine
C. heroin
2501. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict D. iodine
to?
A. Reintegrate him to society 2514. The most important constituent of opium is the drug:
B. Punish him A. cocaine
C. Give him a lesson B. codeine
D. Incapacitate him C. heroin
D. morphine
2502. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the 2515. The number of persons who handle the evidence from
crime scene. Legally, it means the scene of the crime and between the times of the
A. proof in the commission of crime commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the
B. body of the victim case.
C. wrongful act A. chain of custody
D. none of these B. time of custody
2503. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the C. time of disposal
application of special investigative technique. D. time of disposition
A. background investigation 2516. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to:
B. criminal investigation A. morphine
C. preliminary investigation B. cocaine
D. special investigation C. heroin
2504. What is the other name for marijuana? D. codeine
A. rope 2517. The word hashish is derived from the name of
B. grassland Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to:
C. weed A. female marijuana plant
D. leaf B. male marijuana plant
2505. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation C. marijuana leaves
regarding drug operation. D. the marijuana resin
A. information 2518. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid
B. abuses obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in
C. integrity which the alkaloid base may be made by treating
D. reliability morphine with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a
2506. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is: dilute alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic
A. RA 7438 solution?
B. RA 8353 A. cocaine
C. RA 9160 B. codeine
D. RA 9165 C. heroin
D. paregoric
2507. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source 2519. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
of a prohibited drug? A. cocaine
  A. Marijuana B. marijuana
B. Opium C. opium
C. Coca bush D. shabu
D. Peyote 2520. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or
2508. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- counteracts poison or its effect
awareness and emotion? A. alkaloid
  A. Narcotics B. antidote
B. Stimulants C. emetic
C. Depressants D. titanic
D. Hallucinogens
2509. What is that state arising from repeated administration 2521. “Shabu” is chemically known as:
of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis? A. methamphetamine
 A. Habituation B. methamphetamine HCL
B. Drug dependence C. methyl amphetamine
C. Drug Addiction D. methyleneamine
D. Physical dependence
2510. What classification would solvents, paints and 2522. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
gasoline which are examples of substances that are potent Cannabis Sativa.
sniffed to obtain intoxication fall? A. hashish
 A. Depressants B. marijuana
B. energizers C. morphine
C. inhalants D. opium
D. tranquilizers
2523. Scientific name for cocaine.
2511. What is the act of injecting or that means of A. cannabis sativa
introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological B. erythroxylon coca
system of the body? C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
A. Consumption D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
B. Use
C. Administration Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body
D. Abuse functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing
rate. The regular administration of narcotics will produce
2512. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in physical dependence.
obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and A. depressants
using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, B. hallucinogens
he is – C. narcotic
A. Socially dependent on drugs D. stimulants
B. Mentally dependent on drugs
2524. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use
deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric of volatile substances.
current? 2535. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
A. Topical method nervous system and are commonly referred to as
B. Injection method “uppers”?
C. Iontophoresis A. Amphetamines
D. Oral method B. Naptha
C. Barbiturates
2525. What part of the globe is the principal source of all D. Diazepam
forms of cocaine? 2536. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. South East Asia A. opiates
B. South America B. Track
C. Middle East C. Shabu
D. South West Asia D. coke
2537. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
2526. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in awareness and emotion?
A. Columbia   A. Narcotics
B. India B. Stimulants
C. Mexico C. Depressants
D. France D. Hallucinogens
2538. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous
2527. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for
mind altering and gives the general effect of mood Other Purposes.
distortion?  
A. Sedatives A. RA 9165
B. Hallucinogens B. RA 1956
C. Hypnotic C. RA 9156
D. Tranquillizers D. RA 1965

2528. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? 2539. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug
A. Heroin incidents?
B. Marijuana A. Reclusion Perpetua
C. Cocaine B. Life Imprisonment
D. Shabu C. Death
D. Fine
2529. 2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of
withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness? 2540. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?
A. Psychological dependence A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
B. Physical dependence B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
C. Addiction C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
D. Withdrawal syndrome D. Sen. Tito Sotto
2530. 2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from
injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to 2541. These are the requirements during the conduct of
A. liquid amphetamine actual buy-bust operations.
B. Shabu   A. poseur buyer
C. Heroin B. marked money
D. freebase cocaine C. all of the choices
D. none of these
2531. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and 2542. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money
functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by
tends to RA 9165.
A. reduce the need for the drug   A. employee
B. satisfy more than one motive or need B. caretaker
C. increase the satisfaction of use C. financier D.
D. give sense of well being lookout

2532. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of 2543. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase female customers?
energy? a. Johns
A. Solvents b. Gigolo
B. LSD c. Pimps
C. Shabu d. Rentboys
D. Narcotics 2544. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the
penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
2533. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs commission of crimes?
are known as “downers”? a. Anomie
A. Hallucinogens b. Deterrence theory
B. Barbiturates c. Rational choice theory
C. solvents d. None of the above
D. cocaine 2545. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
drugs?
A. Lot lizards
2534. Who has committed an act which is punishable under C. Hookers
RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion B. Skeezers
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to D. Punters
P10,000,000.00? 2546. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana development of what culture?
plants in a plantation in the Cordillera. a. Northern
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession b. Eastern
of opium pipes and other paraphernalia. c. Western
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful d. Southern
medical prescription
2547. Crimes consummated by the use of computers and C. Defection
other highly modern devices. D. Prosecution
a. Transnational crimes 2560. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are
b. white collar crimes present, EXCEPT:
c. modern crimes A to avoid continues violation
d. cyber crimes B. offense committed is serious
2548. The following are transnational crimes, except C. the violator will not attend in court
a. drug trafficking D. involved in vehicular accident
b. gun smuggling 2561. The following are the good ways of searching the
c. money laundering scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
d. illegal recruitment A.look over the grounds at what seems to be
2549. The following countries comprises the Golden the point of collision
Triangle, except B.follow the path that the vehicle took in
a. Thailand leaving the scene
b. Laos C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
c. Myanmar D.established the identity of the vehicles
d. Vietnam 2562. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
2550. A term used to describe a place where trafficked investigation, EXCEPT
person are brought and forced to become prostitutes. A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
a. sweat shops B.Gassesses the situation and call for
b. hotels assistance
c. brothels C.care to the injured and protect their
d. motels property
2551. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? 2462
a. Khaddafy Janjalani 2563. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is
b. Hashim Salamay to:
c. Abdurajack Janjalani A.Look for the key event that causes the
d. Nur Misuari accident
B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
2552. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
came into being before the automobile was in use? C.Consider violations as primary causes and
A. No any factors as secondary causes
B. It depends D.Consider road conditions as limiting
C. Sometimes conditions rather as causes
D. Yes 2564. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01%
2553. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the of the assessed value of a building.
following is NOT a factor to consider A. single family dwellings
A.model of cars and vehicles B. department store
B.existing road /highway system C. hospitals
C.incidence of traffic accidents D. schools
D.traffic congestion hazards 2565. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is
for right turn only:
2554. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident A.Two headed arrow
what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police B.Arrow pointing to left
investigator. C.Straight arrow on the pavement
A.Conduct each interview separately D.The arrow is pointing to the right
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are 2566. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the
not biased flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
C.Listen to both sides keeping in full view of traffic:
D.Conduct the interview jointly A. Stationary
2555. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection B. Visible
at the same time who shall yield the right of way as a C.Conspicuous
general rule D. Inconspicuous
A. The driver on the left 2567. Licensed person allowing limited number of
B.The faster vehicle passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
C.The driver on the right A. Operator
D. The slower vehicle B. Driver
2556. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow C.Conductor
moving vehicles should use the: D. Pedestrian
A.lanes 2 and 3 2568. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an
B.outer lanes object with which it has collided; the force between the
C.inner lanes object ceases at this time.
D.either the inner or outer lanes A. Stopping
B. Disengagement
2557. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left C. Maximum Engagement
side, except when- D. Initial Contact
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an 2569. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is
obstruction sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other
motor vehicles circumstances.
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway A. Skid Mark
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic B.Scuff Marks
way C.Skip skid
2558. The double solid white line: D. Gas Skid
A.doesn’t allow lane changing 2570. The place and time after or beyond which accident
B.allows overtaking cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
C.allows lane changing A.point of no escape
D.allows parking B.point of Possible Perception
2559. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking C.Perception Delay
for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian, D.Any of the above
vehicles and roadway condition. 2571. Main cause of human trafficking.
A. Apprehension a. lack of employment opportunities
B. Adjudication b. poverty
 c. corruption in government a. Pedophile
d. organized crimes b. pervert
2572. Meaning of the phrase Abu Sayyaf c. Maniac
a. Holder of the sword d. Pedophilia
b. Founder of the sword
c. Bearer of the sword 2584. The former and original name of the Mafia
d. Keeper of the sword a. Sicilian Clan
2573. The other name given to the UN Convention Against b. Code of Omerta
Transnational Crimes c. Mafiosi
a. Palerna Convention d. La Cosa Nostra
b. Paterno Convention 2585. Moslem who participated in the Afghan war are
c. Palermo Convention referred to as
d. Paderno Convention a. Jihadis
2574. A prostitute who solicits customers in public places is b. Fundamentalists
called c. Mujaheddins
a. street walker d. Holy warriors
b. Johns. 2586. Founder of the New People’s Army of NPA
c. call boy. a. Jose Mari Chan
d. whore. b. Jose Maria Sison
2575. Placement is also called as c. Jose Marie Gonzales
a. heavy soaping d. Jose Maria Sioson
b. banking 2587. A member of the Bar refers to this profession
c. immersion a. judges
d. spin dry. b. investigators
2576. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting tattoos in almost c. lawyers
all parts of their bodies. The reason is d. prosecutors
a. their white bodies are very good materials to 2588. The year the UN Convention Against Transnational
make drawings. Crimes was held.
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on a. 2000
their bodies. b. 2002
c. they delight in showing theother members their c. 2001
tattoos. d. 2003
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the 2589. The founder of the Moro Islamic Liberation Front
group. a. Nur Misuari
2577. The initiation of the Chinese Triad consists of b. Khadaffy Janjalani
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a c. Hashim Salamat
photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his d. Abdurajack Janjalani
palm while reciting his oath to the organization.
b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed 2590. The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front
animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath an a. Nur Misuari
arch of swords while reciting his oath to the b. Khadaffy Janjalani
organization. c. Hashim Salamat
c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three d. Abdurajack Janjaalani
fingers while reciting his oath. 2591. In the strategy of terrorist, what is used for the
d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed people, government and the world to know their aims?
animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a a. Television
saint will be burned on his palm while reciting his b. Newspaper
oath. c. Radio
2578. What do the Yakuza do with their tattoos? d. All of the choices
a. Cover them as they are sacred. 2592. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos. a. Abu Sayaff
c. They undress only inside their house. b. Hezbollah
d. They only undress during oicho kabu. c. Fatah
d. Hamas
2579. What OPLAN was created by the PNP as their 2593. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group
campaign against most wanted persons and other responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
fugitives? a. Hezbollah
a. Oplan Cleansweep b. Al Qaeda
b. Oplan Criminal c. Fatah
c. Oplan Pagtugis d. Hamas
d. Oplan Batas 2594. South America country principal source of cocaine.
2580. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a person who a. Brazil
accepts the cultural goals to become rich but failed to b. Spain
accept the institutional means of achieving it. c. Columbia
a. Rebellion d. Chile
b. Retreatism 2595. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
c. Conformity a. Israel
d. Innovation b. Gaza Strip
2581. It is a type of anomie wherein an individual does not c. Lebanon
accept the cultural goal but accepted the institutional d. West bank
means of achieving it? 2596. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
a. Innovation a. organization
b. Retreatism b. faction
c. Rebellion c. cell
d. Ritualism d. station
2582. It is referred to as oldest and biggest criminal 2597. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US
organization in the world. destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Mafia a. Hezbollah
b. Yakuza b. Hamas
c. Chinese Triad c. Al Qaeda
d. Cali Cartel d. Fatah
2583. The name given to a person afflicted with a mental
illness wherein he is sexually aroused by young children.
2598. One of the most important components of terrorist- c. regulated
related investigations is the collection and preservation of d. unusual
what? 2613. What is the penalty of a person using a diplomatic
a. physical evidence passport in importing prohibited drugs inside the country?
b. witnesses I. A.8-12 years
c. information II. B.life imprisonment to death
d. all of these III. C.40 years to life imprisonment
2599. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.” IV. all of the above
I. RA 4200 2614. What are the two divisions of Criminalistics?
II. RA 4002 a. Physiacl and metallurgical
C. RA 2004 b. Scientific and technological
D. RA 4020 c. Biological and physiological
2600. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. d. Biblical and Astrological
a. Holy War 2615. What is secreted by the endocrine glands which
b. Holy Mass trigger and control many kinds of bodily activities and
c. Holy Cow behavior?
d. Holy Ghost a. A.Tears
2601. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda b. B.Hormone
a. Yasser Arafart c. C.Blood
b. Osama Bin Laden d. Sweat
c. Abdurajack Janjalani 2616. Who among the following has the authority to conduct
d. Abu Nidal examination of a deceased person?
2602. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries a. A.Medico Legal prober
a. M16 b. B.Medical Justice
b. AK47 c. C.Medico Legal Officer
c. M14 d. Medical Scientist
d. Galil
2603. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or
country. 2617. These are the three fold aims of the criminal
a. Transnational investigator, EXCEPT:
b. national I. to identify the guilty party
c. international II. to provide evidence of his guilt
d. none of them III. to locate the guilty party
2604. The most wanted terrorist in the world. IV. to file charges at the proper court
a. Yasser Arafat 2618. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is
b. Abu Nidal assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion
c. Osama Bin Laden a. zone method
d. Mohammad Alzawari b. spiral method
2605. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the State and c. wheel method
Protect the People from Terrorism,” d. strip method
a. RA 9372 2619. It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to
b. RA 9732 give the distances from two mutually perpendicular lines.
c. RA 9273 common
d. RA 9237 a. surveying methods
2606. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of b. cross projection
force to achieve a political end. c. rectangular coordinates
I. terrorism d. polar coordinate
II. violence 2620. It is existing between the investigator and the subject,
III. felony and it is usually determines the success of the
IV. criminal act investigation.
2607. Who formally organized the Kuratong Baleleng? a. rapport
I. Francisco Manuel b. personality
II. Franco Calanog c. breadth of interest
III. Fidel Ramos d. the approach
IV. Fajardo Sebastian 2621. Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with
this, purposely to develop rapport with the subject, either
the victim or suspect.
2608. An organized crime in the Philippines which is made I. opening statement
up of former MNLF and MILF rebels. II. inquiry of subject
I. A.Lexus Group III. narration
II. B.Pentagon Group IV. sympathetic approach
III. C.Abu Sayyaf
IV. D.Ilonggo KFR Group 2622. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental
2609. The largest and most powerful triad. and physical function
I. A.Su Yee On a. stimulants
II. B.14K b. Depressants
III. C.Wo Shing Wo c. Hallucinogens
IV. Sham Shui Po d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2610. What numeric code refer to the Dragon head of the 2623. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically
chinese triads? potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
I. A.438 a. stimulants
II. B.49 b. Depressants
III. C.489 c. Hallucinogens
IV. D.426 d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2611. What do you call the act of lending money in 2624. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional
exchange of exorbitant interest? nervous activity.
I. Tax evasion a. stimulants
II. Revolutionary tax b. Depressants
III. Sokaiya c. Hallucinogens
IV. Loansharking d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2612. What kind of vices are Lotto and casino?
a. common
b. prohibited
2625. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes b. unsolved
hallucinations and changes our perception, thought, c. success
emotion and consciousness and physical function d. failure
a. stimulants 2638. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be
b. Depressants suicidal or accidental it should be treated as?
c. Hallucinogens a. Homicide case
d. Narcotics/ Opiates b. Suicide case
2626. The following countries which considered as c. Murder case
GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top d. Any of the choices
supplier for opium. Which of the choices does not belong. 2639. What is the penalty when a person bringing into
a. Vietnam country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or
b. Iran passport.
c. Afghanistan a. Life imprisonment
d. Pakistan b. Life imprisonment-death
2627. According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a c. death
Drug Free Country in year___? d. no penalty because of immunity
a. 2035
b. 2025
c. 2030 2640. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to
d. 2020 corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and
2628. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the communication system
participation of the community. a. hacking
a. Oplan lambat sibat b. Trojan
b. operation private eye c. virus
c. operation public eye d. intellectual property
d. oplan galugad
2629. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight
against drug trafficking. 2641. The vehicles should not parked at these area.
a. Oplan lambat sibat a. Private driveway
b. operation private eye b. intersection
c. operation public eye c. pedestrian lane
d. oplan cleansweep d. fire hydrant
e. all the choices
2630. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant
portion of house was being damaged. 2642. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to
a. Consummated arson appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
b. Attempted arson reason?
c. Frustrated arson a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
d. No crime b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
2631. When a person sets fire to his own property under c. Life imprisonment
what circumstances which expose to danger of life or d. Death
property of another. 2643. Most important equipment in traffic accident
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of investigation?
property a. cellphone
b. Arson b. camera
c. malicious mischief c. Manila
d. no crime d. All of the choices
2632. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of 2644. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams
his prayer. shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
property
b. Arson b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
c. malicious mischief c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. no crime d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
400k
2633. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in 2645. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
combating organized crime and terrorism. facilitate proper sketch orientation.
a. family a. Proper north
b. school b. True north
c. NGO c. Legend
d. Community d. Compass direction
2634. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China 2646. A search method in which the searchers follow each
wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
a. Tiananmen square massacre proceeding toward the center.
b. Beijing square massacre a. Zone method
c. Tienanmen massacre b. Wheel method
d. Tienanmen square massacre c. Spiral method
2635. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, d. Strip method
the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from 2647. Taking into custody property described in the search
Quezon City. Where the case should be filed? warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence
a. Quezon City in a case.
b. Pasig City a. Seizure
c. Manila b. Detention
d. either of the above choices c. Safekeeping
2636. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous d. Confiscation
drugs to implicate person to drug related crime. 2648. A method of criminal identification whereby
a. Buy bust operation the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals
b. Instigation are identified by depiction.
c. entrapment a. Verbal description
d. planting evidence b. General photographs
2637. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as c. Police line up
Intelligence_______. d. Rouge gallery
a. Invalidate 2649. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
 a. Sprinkler c. Heat
b. Fire pump d. None of the choices
c. Fire hose 2663. Refers to gases liberated by heat.
d. Hydrant key a. Free radicals
2650. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a b. Flash point
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid c. Thermal balance
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings. d. Thermal imbalance
a. Dust 2664. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke
b. Oxidizing material and fire gases within a building or structure under natural
c. Pyrolysis conditions.
d. Cryogenic a. Free radicals
2651. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at b. Pyrolysis
which vapors are evolved fast enough to support c. Thermal balance
continuous combustion. d. Thermal imbalance
a. Ignition temperature 2665. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
b. Kindling temperature destructive capabilities is developed.
c. Fire point a. Initial phase
d. Flash point b. Incipient phase
2652. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a c. Free burning phase
vapor-air mixture that ignites. d. Smoldering phase
a. Ignition temperature 2666. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
b. Kindling temperature a. The fire triangle
c. Fire point b. The fingerprint of the fire
d. Flash point c. Flashover
2653. Minimum temperature in which the substance d. Incipient phase of the fire
in the air must be heated in order to initiate or
cause a self-contained combustion without the
addition of heat from outside sources.
a. Boiling point 2667. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus-
b. Ignition temperature tible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
c. Fire point characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and
d. Flash point flames.
2654. An exothermic chemical change in which a a. Flashover
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent. b. Backdraft
a. Thermal balance c. Thermal balance
b. Thermal imbalance d. Thermal imbalance
c. Combustion 2668. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire,
d. Oxidation it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
2655. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. a. Flashover
a. Pyrolysis b. Backdraft
b. Combustion c. Thermal balance
c. Detonation d. Thermal imbalance
d. All of the foregoing 2669. Which among the following is the primary objective in
2656. A chemical decomposition of matter through the investigating fires?
action of heat. a. To determine its cause
a. Pyrolysis b. To prevent recurrence
b. Combustion c. To determine liable persons
c. Detonation d. All of the foregoing
d. Oxidation 2670. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
2657. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area a. It does not conform with regular investigative
of the material with unit temperature gradient. procedure
a. Conduction b. Unavailability of witnesses
b. Thermal conductivity c. Fire destroys evidence
c. Radiation d. All of the foregoing
d. Fission 2671. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
2658. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through a. Providential
space or materials as waves. b. Accidental
a. Conduction c. Intentional
b. Convection d. Incendiarism
c. Radiation 2672. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat
d. Fission and oxygen.
2659. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose a. Fire
with a motive. b. Origin of fire
a. Providential fire c. Fire triangle
b. Accidental fire d. All of the foregoing
c. Intentional fire 2673. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
d. None of the foregoing a. Fuel
2660. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in b. Heat
the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. c. Oxygen
a. Arson d. Gas
b. Providential fire 2674. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
c. Accidental fire medium either gas or a liquid.
d. None of the foregoing a. Conduction
2661. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, b. Convection
tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire. c. Radiation
a. Nitrogen d. Fission
b. Hydrogen 2675. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
c. Oxygen a. Specific heat
d. Neon b. Latent heat
2662. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to c. Heat of Combustion
start a fire. d. Heat of fusion
a. Fuel 2676. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or
b. Oxygen natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
 a. Carbon black a. stimulants
b. Lamp black b. Depressants
c. Soot c. Hallucinogens
d. Black bone d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2677. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed 2691. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically
vapor as a result of combustion. potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
a. Fire a. stimulants
b. Flame b. Depressants
c. Heat c. Hallucinogens
d. Smoke d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2678. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. 2692. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional
a. Fire nervous activity.
b. Flame a. stimulants
c. Heat b. Depressants
d. Smoke c. Hallucinogens
2679. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been d. Narcotics/ Opiates
contained.
a. Backdraft 2693. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes
b. Flashover hallucinations and changes our perception, thought,
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning emotion and consciousness and physical function
d. Falling debris a. stimulants
b. Depressants
2680. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames c. Hallucinogens
indicates the burning of what material? d. Narcotics/ Opiates
a. Rubber 2694. The following countries which considered as
b. Nitrogen products GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top
c. Asphalt singles supplier for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
d. Chlorine a. Vietnam
2681. Which among the following is commonly used in fire b. Iran
resistant materials? c. Afghanistan
a. Asbestos d. Pakistan
b. Diamond 2695. According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a
c. Asphalt Drug Free Country in year___?
d. Cotton a. 2035
2682. A form of static electricity of great magnitude b. 2025
producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the c. 2030
most common cause of providential fires. d. 2020
a. Rays of the sun 2696. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the
b. Spontaneous heating participation of the community.
c. Arcing a. Oplan lambat sibat
d. Lighting b. operation private eye
2683. Most common source of accidental fire is related to: c. operation public eye
a. Smoking d. oplan galugad
b. Arcing 2697. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight
c. Sparkling against drug trafficking.
d. Overloading a. Oplan lambat sibat
2684. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within b. operation private eye
the room or throughout the structure. c. operation public eye
a. Accelerant d. oplan cleansweep
b. Plants
c. Trailer 2698. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant
d. Wick portion of house was being damaged.
2685. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a a. Consummated arson
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. b. Attempted arson
a. Accelerant c. Frustrated arson
b. Plants d. No crime
c. Trailer
d. Wick 2699. When a person sets fire to his own property under
what circumstances which expose to danger of life or
2686. Most common reason of arson cases. property of another.
a. Revenge a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
b. Profit property
c. Competition b. Arson
d. All of the foregoing c. malicious mischief
2687. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material. d. no crime
a. Spontaneous heating 2700. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of
b. Combustible gases his prayer.
c. Combustible dust a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
d. None of the choices property
2688. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials b. Arson
to start a fire. c. malicious mischief
a. Plants d. no crime
b. Trailers 2701. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in
c. Accelerants combating organized crime and terrorism.
d. Wick a. family
2689. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. b. school
a. Abatement c. NGO
b. Combustion d. Community
c. Allotment
d. Distillation 2702. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China
wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
2690. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental a. Tiananmen square massacre
and physical function b. Beijing square massacre
 c. Tienanmen massacre a. Brazil
d. Tienanmen square massacre b. Spain
c. Columbia
2703. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, d. Chile
the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from 2716. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
Quezon City. Where the case should be filed? a. Israel
a. Quezon City b. Gaza Strip
b. Pasig City c. Lebanon
c. Manila d. West bank
d. either of the above choices 2717. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
2704. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous a. organization
drugs to implicate person to drug related crime. b. faction
a. Buy bust operation c. cell
b. Instigation d. station
c. entrapment 2718. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US
d. planting evidence destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Hezbollah
2705. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as b. Hamas
Intelligence_______. c. Al Qaeda
a. Invalidate d. Fatah
b. unsolved 2719. One of the most important components of terrorist-
c. success related investigations is the collection and preservation of
d. failure what?
2706. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be a. physical evidence
suicidal or accidental it should be treated as? b. witnesses
a. Homicide case c. information
b. Suicide case d. all of these
c. Murder case
d. Any of the choices
2707. What is the penalty when a person bringing into
country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or
passport. 2720. Meaning of the term “Jihad”.
a. Life imprisonment a. Holy War
b. Life imprisonment-death b. Holy Mass
c. death c. Holy Cow
d. no penalty because of immunity d. Holy Ghost
2708. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to 2721. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda
corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and a. Yasser Arafart
communication system b. Osama Bin Laden
a. hacking c. Abdurajack Janjalani
b. Trojan d. Abu Nidal
c. virus 2722. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries
d. intellectual property a. M16
2709. The vehicles should not parked at these area. b. AK47
a. Private driveway c. M14
b. intersection d. Galil
c. pedestrian lane 2723. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or
d. fire hydrant country.
e. all the choices a. Transnational
2710. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to b. national
appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable c. international
reason? d. none of them
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment 2724. The most wanted terrorist in the world.
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment a. Yasser Arafat
c. Life imprisonment b. Abu Nidal
d. Death c. Osama Bin Laden
2711. Most important equipment in traffic accident d. Mohammad Alzawari
investigation? 2725. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of
a. cellphone force to achieve a political end.
b. camera I. terrorism
c. Manila II. violence
d. All of the choices III. felony
2712. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams of IV. criminal act
shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated. 2726. The largest and most powerful triad.
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k I. Su Yee On
II. 14K
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k III. Wo Shing Wo
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k IV. Sham Shui Po
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
400k 2727. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in
e. conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private
2713. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”. citizens is termed as:
a. Abu Sayaff
b. Hezbollah A.Arrest
c. Fatah B.Initialcontact
d. Hamas C.Childcustody
2714. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group D. All of the above
responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
a. Hezbollah 2728. It is the study of human society, its origin structure,
b. Al Qaeda functions and direction.
c. Fatah a. criminology
d. Hamas b. sociology
2715. South America country principal source of cocaine. c. psychology
 d. anthropology 2742. What is the legal term for nighttime?
2729. The science of classifying the physical characteristics. A. sanctuary
a. free will B.absurdity
b. positivism C. ephitomy
c. atavism D. nocturnity
d. somatology 2743. These are the rights of an accused that are derived
2730. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity from special laws enacted by Congress.
in explaining the cause of crime. A. Constitutional rights
a. geographical approach B. Civil rights
b. biological approach C.Statutoryrights
c. psychiatric application D. Natural rights
d. psychological application 2744. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total
2731. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
criminology. to the police?
a. retribution a. 22, 868
b. rejection b. 22, 068
c. reformation c. 20, 250
d. restoration d. 32, 644
2732. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the 2745. What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
behavior of the criminal. A. Apprehend
a. entomology B. Search
b. penology C. Set free
c. phrenology D. Renounce
d. criminology 2746. How many members composed the “Pangkat?”
2733. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result A. 1 member C. 2 members
of armed conflict.?
a. war B. 3 members
b. treatment D. 4 members
c. evacuation 2747. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in
d. education 2011. What was the percent increase?
2734. Science concerned with improving the quality of a. + 22.2%
offspring. b. + 20.2%
a. criminology c. + 22.0%
b. eugenics d. + 20.1%
c. genetics 2748. If the population in municipality A is 195, 000 and the
d. heredity crime volume is 2, 540, what is the crime rate?
a. 1230.6
b. 1465.2
c. 1302.6
2735. Commonly known as victimless crime: d. 1203.5
A.occassional crime 2749. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes reported to the
B.political crime police. If the 2011 population was 63 million what was the
C.public order crime crime rate?
D. conventional crime a. 147.5 b. 145.7
2736. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately c. 143.4
unattended. d. 154.7
a. abandoned child 2750. In 2000 the police recorded a total of 84,875 crimes
b. dependent child committed. If the population was 62 million what was the
c. abusive child crime rate?
d. neglected child a. 139.6 b. 193.6
2737. The principle that events including criminal behavior c. 136.9
that has sufficient causes.. d. 163.9
a. atavism 2751. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total
b. narassism crime volume of 84, 875, how many crimes were reported
c. determinism to the police?
d. positivism a. 20, 250
2738. An established and generally accepted moral values b. 32, 644
refer to. c. 22, 068
a. integrity d. 22, 858
b. morality 2752. If the 128 murder cases in City B represent 40% of
c. ethical standard the total murder cases in the province, what is the total
d. authority value for murder cases province wide?
2739. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality. a. 120
a. split mind b. 420
b. psychosis c. 430
c. neurosis d. 340
d. schizoprenia 2753. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result
of the frustration and anger people experience over their
2740. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
events? a. strain theory
A.mass murder b. psychological theories
B. serial killer c. differential association theory
C.homicidal    d. labeling theory
D. spree killer
2741. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, 2754. This theory suggest that stability and changes in
flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in criminal and deviant behavior through time and different
flight diving a chase would be an example of: stages in life.
A. Self Derogation Theory
A. Serial Murder B. Anomie Theory
B. Spree Murder C. Life Course Theory
C. Mass Murder D. Routine Activities Theory
D. Multiple Murder
2755. This theory suggest that females and males are a.Ecology
becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and b) Demography
education c) Epidiomology
A. Feminist Theory d) Physical anthropology
B. Paternalism 2768. It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure,
C. Liberation Theory functions and direction.
D. Life Course Theory a. Sociology
2756. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father b. Criminology
and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power c. Psychology
in the family d. Anthropology
A. Feminist theory 2769. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.
B. Egalitarian family a. Criminology
C. Patriarchal family b. Criminal Etiology
D. Matriarchal family c. Victimology
2757. These views suggest that males such as judges, d. Criminal Sociology
police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional 2770. An act or omission in violation of the public law
views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as commanding or forbidding it.
compared to their male counterparts. a. Crime
A. Paternalism b. Felony
B. Chivalry Hypothesis c. Offense
C. Masculinity d. Infraction of law
D. Power Control Theory 2771. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by
2758. This new branch in criminology opposes the _____________.
theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of a. Culpa
all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions b. intent
A. Peacemaking Criminology c. Fault
B. Sociology of Law d. both a and c
C. Restorative Justice 2772. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit,
D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis EXCEPT:
2759. This crimes are those that the lower class commit a. Intelligence
against the upper class of society in a capitalist system c. Freedom
A. Crimes of Passion b. Intent
B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance d. Negligence
C. Crimes of domination and Repression 2773. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to identify her
D. Crimes of Lower class group assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the
2760. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the hospital where she was declared dead on arrival, This
A. Proletariat crime is called,
B. Bourgeois a. complex crime
C. Capitalist b. simple crime
D. Ruling class c) instant crime
2761. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked d) situational crime
communism as a remedy? 2774. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making
A. George Vold deception through verbal communication. She had
B. Karl Marx committed estafa to several persons through illegal
C. Emile Durkheim recruitment. What crime according to result did she
D. Max Weber committed?
2762. This theory believes that society is divided into two a. acquisitive crime
groups with competing values the upper class and lower b. extinctive crime
class. c) instant crime
A. Class Theory d) situational crime
B. Differential Opportunity 2775. It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the
C. Conflict Theory commission of a crime.
D. Consensus Theory a. criminal victim
2763. A problem that occurs when offenders who have been b. criminal psychiatry
released from the system are placed in a program simply c. victimless crime
because the program exist. d. victimology
A. Diversion Movement 2776. It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s
B. Intervention external manifestation in relation to criminality.
C. Net widening a) Epidiomology
D. Primary Deviance b) Criminal Psychiatry
2764. The term criminology was originally derived from c) Criminal psychology
Italian word: d) Physical anthropology
a. crimen 2777. A crime can be classified according to its stages of
b. criminologo commission. What crime is committed when the offender
c. criminologia merely commences the execution of an offense by overt
d. criminologie act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
2765. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the execution which would produce the felony by reason of
society to prevent and repressed them? some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance?
a. Crime a. Attempted crime
b. Criminology b. Consummated crime
c. Victimology c. Frustrated crime
d. Criminal justice d. Complex crime
2766. The study of Criminology involves the use of 2778. It is the process by which individual reduce the
knowledge and concept of other sciences and field of frequency of their offending behavior as the age
study which makes the study of criminology: increases.
a. Dynamic a. doing gender
b. Nationalistic b. aging out
c. Social science c. criminal reduction
d. An applied science d. active precipitation
2767. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the 2779. Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code
relationship between criminality and the inhabitants of a according to their gravity. What crime to which the law
certain locality: attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
 a. grave felonies a. XYY syndrome b XXY
b. less grave felonies syndrome
c. light felonies c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
d. complex felonies syndrome
2780. What crimes according to the time or period of the 2792. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of
commission are those which are committed only when the delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission from one generation to the next taking place mostly
like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place. among disorganized urban areas.
a. seasonal crimes a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
b. instant crimes Phenomenon
c. situational crimes c. Crime
d. continuing crimes d) Delinquent behavior
2781. There are crimes that are committed within a certain 2793. In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed
length of time. What crime is committed by a series of acts as manifestations of basically evil human nature reflecting
in a lengthy space of time? either with the prince of darkness or an expression of
a. static crime divine wrath.
b. instant crime a. Classical theory
c. situational crime b. positivist theory
d. episoidal crime c. Demonological theory
2782. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which d. neo-classical theory
are committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means 2794. An attempt to determine intelligence and personality
for living are what crimes? on the basis of the size and shape of the skull.
a. Rational crimes a. Physiognomy
b. Irrational crimes b. palmistry
c. Blue-collar crimes c. Craniology
d. White collar crimes d. Somatotype
2783. It is that element of intentional felony which means 2795. It involves the measurement of facial and other body
that the person who committed the felony has the capacity characteristics as indicative of human personality.
to distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully a. Physiology
understands the consequences of his actions: b. somatotype
a. intelligence c. Physiognomy
b. imprudence d. Palmistry
c. intent 2796. According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or
d. freedom body built which have relationships to personality
2784. A psychological disorder in which a child shows characteristics are the following, EXCEPT:
developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity a. Ectomorph
and lack of attention. b. extomorph
a. psychotism c. Endomorph
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder d. Mesomorph
c. neuroticism 2797. A type of violent offender who uses violence as a
d. KSP disorder means of perpetrating the criminal act:
2785. The commission of criminal acts using the a. Culturally violent offender
instruments of modern technology such as computers or b. pathologically violent offender
the internet. c. Criminally violent offender
a. cyber sex d. d. situationally violent offender
b. cyber crime 2798. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of
c. computer crimes etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises
d. computer hacking from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti-
2786. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed social components of his personality?
to bring financial gain to the offender. a. Acute
a. organized crime c. Chronic
b. economic crime b. neurotic
c. cyber crime d. normal
d. profit crime 2799. Criminals can also be classified according to this
2787. This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term behavioral system. What are those criminals who have
is used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”. high degree of organization that enables them to commit
a. violence crime without being detected and usually operates in a
b. revolution large scale?
c. guerilla a. ordinary criminals
d. rebel b. professional criminals
2788. The killing of a large number of people over time by c. situational criminals
an offender who seeks to escape detection. d. organized criminals
a. road rage 2800. A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are
b. hate crime acquainted with each other.
c. mass murder a. statutory rape
d. serial murder b. date rape
2789. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”. c. marital rape
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada d. acquaintance rape
Kallikak 2801. According to Lombroso, these are physical
c. Ada Juke characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the
d. Ada Edwards general population and are throwbacks to animals or
2790. It refers to an study showing the relationship between primitive people.
the physical built of a person to his personality structure a. physical deviations
and the type of offense he is most prone to commit b. distinguishable traits
a. physiognomy b) c. atavistic stigmata
somatotype d. ape-like appearance
c. phrenology 2802. It is the most essential part of the definition of the
d) psychology criminal law:
2791. It is a proposal of a double male or super male a. elements
syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra b. penalty
Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and c. degree of evidence
aggressive. d. motive
2803. The concept that conduct norms are passed down d. positivist
from one generation to the next so that they become 2815. These are crimes committed by a person of
stable within the boundaries of a culture. respectability and high social status in the course of
a. heredity occupation.
b. inheritance a. Blue collar crimes
c. cultural transmission b. crime of the upper world
d. DNA c. White collar crimes
2804. Group of urban sociologists who studies the d. crime of the underworld
relationship between environmental conditions and crime. 2816. Public order crime is otherwise known as:
a. classical school a. Violent crimes
b. chicago school b. economic crimes
c. neo-classical school c. Organized crimes
d. positive school d. victimless crimes
2805. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws: 2817. The law that provides Board Examination for
a. Drakon Criminologists in the Philippines.
b. the Hittites a. R.A. 6975
c. Solon b. R.A. 8551
d. Hammurabi c. R.A. 6506
2806. He said that individuals are like human calculators. d. R.A. 8353
Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes 2818. Criminals who have a high degree of organization to
whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater than the enable them to commit crimes without being detected.
possible negative effect he would have to suffer if the gets a. Professional criminals
caught doing the crime: b. ordinary criminals
a. Cesare Beccaria c. Organized criminals
b. Cesare Lombroso d. expert criminals
c. Edwin Sutherland
d. Jeremy Bentham 2819. Who among the following are the “Holy Three in
2807. Who stated that crime is normal in a society? Criminology”?
a. Cesare Beccaria a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri
c. Emile Durkheim c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri
d. Enrico Ferri d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso
2820. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____
2808. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free wherein he concluded that the main difference between a
Will Study, stating that its absence among mentally criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to
retardate persons or those with some psychological different sets of conduct norms.
imbalances and personality disorders or physical a) Emile Durkheim
disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby b) Andre Michael Guerry
citing said theory as one of crime causation. c) Thorsten Sellin
a. Classical Criminology d) Abraham Maslow
b. Positivist Criminology
c. Neoclassical Criminology 2821. This school of thought in criminology states that
d. Social Structure Theory although individuals have self-rule, there are other factors
2809. This refers to the act of killing a large number of that affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause
people in a single violent outburst. them commit crimes:
a. Road rage a) neo-classical
b. serial killing b) utilitarianism
c. Mass murder c) classical
d. mass destruction d) positivist
2810. A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves 2822. This theory reflects the way people react to a given
sexual gratification by cruelty, psychotic desire to often situation based on the social influences they acquired from
torment torture or otherwise abuse his victim. other people that practically determine their behaviors.
a. Masochism This theory likewise serves as the learning process of
b. bestiality delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most
c. Sadism important theory in crime causation.
d. Incest a) Social Disorganization theory
2811. A sexual relationship between persons closely related b) Culture Conflict theory
by blood. c) Differential Association Theory
a. Incest d) Social Reaction Theory
b. sadism 2823. It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the
c. Masochism loss of order in a society.
d. rape a. synomie
2812. These are violent acts directed toward a particular b) anarchy
person or members of group merely because the targets c) anomie
share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender d) chaos
characteristics.
a. Violent crimes
b. hate crimes
c. Copy-cat crimes 2824. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states
d. victimless crimes that individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals,
2813. A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated and that those with weaker personalities tend to get
violence perpetrated against non-combatant targets by influenced easier by those with stronger personalities:
subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually a. Emile Durkheim b)
intended to influence an audience. Adolphe Quetelet
a. Rebellion c) Gabriel Tarde
b. piracy d) Enrico Ferri
c. Terrorism 2825. A term that used to describe motorists who assault
d. little war each other.
2814. It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might a. road rage
inhibit the exercise of free will. b. predation
a. Classical theory c. hate crime
b. neo-classical d. serial murder
c. Sociological
2826. This theory argues that intelligence is largely subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally means “to
determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and, stand by decided cases”.
that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to a. jus desert
behavior including criminal behavior: b. stare decisis
a. Nature Theory c. story decisis
b) Psychological theory d. just stare
c) Strain Theory 2837. This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that
d) Labeling theory people are law abiding but under great pressure, they will
resort to crime.
2827. The theory which states that attachment, connection a. strain theory
and link to society will determine whether a person shall b. social learning
commit a crime or not: c. cultural deviance
a. social control d. anomie
b) social disorganization 2838. The first IQ test was developed by a French
c) social bond psychologist named:
d) social learning a. Rafael Garofalo
2828. The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who b. Albert Bandura
violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The c. Walter Reckless
severity of the punishment should be commensurate with d. Alfred Binet
the seriousness of the crime. 2839. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he
a. restorative justice concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related
b. jus desert to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to
c. utilitarianism d. use the term “moron”.
equality of punishment a. Robert Dugdale
2829. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls b. Henry Goddard
below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain c. Eaenest Hooton
functioning. d. Charles Goring
a. hyperglycemia 2840. This theory focuses on the development of high crime
b. hyperglycomia areas associated with the disintegration of conventional
c. hypoglycemia values caused by rapid industrialization, increased
d. hypoglycomia migration and urbanization.
2830. This school on crime causation emphasized economic a. Cultural Deviance Theory
determinism and concentrated on the need for the quality b. Differential Association Theory
among all citizens. They provided statistical data which c. Social Disorganization Theory
claimed to show that variations in crime rates are d. Strain Theory
associated with variations in economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School 2841. A societal stage marked by normlessness in which
b. Socialist School disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion.
c. Psychiatric School a. Social disorganization
d. Chicago School b. Anomie
2831. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This c. Strain
was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the d. Synomie
personality that is characterized by an inability to learn 2842. It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal
from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt activities together with the time.
better known as: a. Birth cohort
a. psychotic personality b. aging out phenomenon
b. psychopathic personality c. Criminal aging
c. neurotic behavior d. crime rate
d. dementia praecox 2843. He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and
punishment is the principle of the greatest happiness
shared by the greatest number of people.
2832. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his a. Utilitatrianism
ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law, b. Jeremy Bentham
and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as c. Felicific Calculus
pointed out in this particular theory. d. Cesare Beccaria

a. Disorganization Theory 2844. The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother,
b. Culture Conflict Theory which occurs during the third year from birth is known as:
C.Differential Association Theory a. Oedipus Complex
d. Strain Theory b. Inferiority Complex
c. Electra Complex
2833. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per d. Incest
month. It is the theoretical basis which determines the 2845. Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through
peace and order situation. series of acts or episodes and in much longer time. This
a. index crimes crime is classified as:
b. crime rate a. Instant crime
c. non-index crimes b. episoidal crime
d. crime statistics c. Situational crime
2834. The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates d. seasonal crime
are a reflection of the leniency which the police treat 2846. The following are the characteristics of the Classical
female offenders. School of Criminology:
a. Doing gender I. The basis of criminal liability is human free
b. masculinity hypothesis will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
c. Chivalry hypothesis II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
d. pre-menstrual syndrome absolute free will to choose between right
2835. A stage of development when girls begin to have and wrong.
sexual feeling for their fathers. III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-
a. Oedipus complex criminals because of their physical
b. doing gender deviations.
c. Electra complex IV. That every man is therefore responsible for
d. chivalry hypothsis his act.
2836. The legal principle by which the decision or holding in
an earlier case becomes the standard by which a. I, II, III are correct.
 b. I, III, IV are correct.
c. II, III, IV are correct.
d. I, II, IV are correct. 2858. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
2847. It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
exercise of free will. without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
a. Classical theory provided by law for the offense.
b. positivist theory a. Justifying
c. Neo-classical theory b. Exempting
d. radical theory c. Mitigating
2848. His great contributions to criminology were the d. Aggravating
principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. 2859. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
a. Cesare Beccaria accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
b. Jeremy Bentham liability.
c. Cesare Lombroso a. Exempting
d. Emile Durkheim b. aggravating
2849. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired c. Justifying
the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop d. Mitigating
the theory of atavism. 2860. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Manila
a. Cesare Lombroso City Hall on January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city
b. Charles Goring ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the
c. Cesare Beccaria vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
d. Charles Darwin loitering?
2850. According to him, people with criminal behavior, a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
should be prohibited from having children. b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
a. Robert Dugdale effect of criminal law
b. Henry Goddard c. No, for the act was done prior to the
c. Charles Goring effectivity of the law.
d. George Wilker d. No, for A did not loiter again.
2851. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because 2861. His theory was that God did not make all the various
they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and species of animals in two days, as what the bible says but
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act rather that the species had evolved through a process of
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the adoptive mutation and natural selection which led to his
actor. conclusion that man was traced to have originated from
a. Containment Theory the apes.
b. Theory of Imitation a. Jeremy Bentham
c. Social Process Theory b. Charles Darwin
d. Social Reaction theory c. Prince Charles
2852. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with d)Charles de Gaulle
five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. 2862. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes
a. Born-criminal type of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
b. insane upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute
c. Criminaloid of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further
d. pseudo-criminal studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern
2853. These are crimes which are wrong from their very and Empirical Criminology”.
nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other a) Cesare Beccaria
violations of the Revised Penal Code. b) Edwin Sutherland
a. Heinous crimes c) Cesare Lombroso
b. mala in se d) Jeremy Bentham
c. Serious crimes 2863. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes
d. mala prohibita of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
2854. These are crimes which are wrong only because upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute
there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further
orderly society. Examples of these are the violations of studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern
special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. and Empirical Criminology”.
a. Mala prohibita a) Cesare Beccaria
b. less grave felonies b) Edwin Sutherland
c. Mala in se c) Cesare Lombroso
d. light felonies d) Jeremy Bentham
2855. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen 2864. Which of the following is NOT included in the
nulla poena sine lege” means: components of criminal justice system of the United
a. An act done by me against my will is not States?
my act a. Law enforcement
b. There is no crime where no law b. Corrections
punishing it. c. Prosecution
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. d. Courts
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. 2865. The power of the state to give any form of charity of
2856. He was the one who introduced the following public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that
definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes of improper care and that the state is duty bound to
within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking provide protection.
laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”: a. positivism
a) Raffaelle Garofalo b. loco parentis
b) Edwin Sutherland c. patria potestas d.
c) Cesare Beccaria parens patriae
d) Paul Topinard 2866. Under the law, they are the one responsible for
2857. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. preventing the child from becoming addicted to
It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or
he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical any harmful practices.
Theory in giving punishment is________________. a. DSWD
a) Restoration b. Parents
b) Treatment c. state
c) Retribution d. police
d) Deterrence
2867. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have b. Patria Potestas
been commenced upon: c. Parens’ Patriae
a. birth of the child d. Parental Responsibility
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday 2878. A person of such age is automatically exempted from
c. from the time of his conception criminal liability but should be taken to the custody and
d. upon reaching the age of majority care of his parents, DSWD representative or any
2868. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as institution engage in child caring.
the legal guardian of the child even though the parents of a. 15 years and below
the child are still alive when the best interest of the said b. under 18 years of age
child so require. c. under 15 years of age
a. adopter d. under 21 years of age
b. loco parentis 2879. Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child
c. guardian ad litem by subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
d. temporary guardian a. illegitimate
2869. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is b. legitimated
exempt from criminal liability unless: c. legitimate
a. he is committed a henious crime d. adopted
b. he is the principal accused 2880. In case of separation between parents of the child, a
c. he acted without discernment child of such age is given by the court the preference to
d. he acted with discernment choose between either parents.
2870. The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be a. under 9 years of age
prosecuted for the commission of the following, EXCEPT: b. 7 years of age
a. mendicancy c. 10 years of age
b. sniffing of rugby d. 5 years of age
c. prostitution 2881. Refers to aggregate of persons working in
d. theft commercial, industrial and agricultural establishments or
2871. A child left by himself without provisions for his enterprises whether belonging to the labor or management
needs/or without proper supervision falls under what whose primary duty is to care for the welfare of the
special category of a child? working children.
a. abandoned child a. civic association of adult
b. abused child b. community
c. neglected child c. Samahan
d. dependent child d. youth association
2872. In the absence of death of both parents of the child 2882. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
who shall continue to exercise authority over the child? a. death of the parents
I. Surviving grand parents b. emancipation of the child
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of c. death of the child
age d. All of the choices
III. Surviving parents of child 2883. Which of the following is the best way for the police to
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 win youth’s trust and confidence?
years of age. a. be friendly
a. I, II and IV only b. be firm and show them that you are strong
b. I and II only c. show to them that your bearing is good
c. I, II, III only and stand with pride
d. all of the above d. let them know that you are an agent of a
2873. Is a self-association of peers, bound together by person in authority
mental interest, who acted in concert in order to achieve a 2884. A child born inside a marriage where either party is
specific purpose which includes the conduct of illegal suffering from an impediments.
activities and control over a particular territory, facility or a. illegitimate child
type of enterprises. b. legitimated child
a. Juvenile gang c. legitimate child
b. Organized criminal d. adopted child
c. a bond 2885. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody
d. street corner gang of a child who committed an offense by the law
enforcement officer:
2874. The court can suspend parental authority if it finds a. initial contact with the child
that the parent: b. preliminary investigation
I. Treats the child with excessive c. initial investigation
harshness of cruelty. d. inquest proceedings
II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel 2886. This common procedure applied when arresting an
or example offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is
III. Compel the child to beg the subject of apprehension is a child.
IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions. a. informing the suspect is a child
a. I and II only b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. I and III only c. employing reasonable force
b. I, II, III and IV d. use of handcuffs
d. I, II and III only 2887. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
2875. Who among the following is considered as “Child in conditions which are most congenial to the survival,
Conflict with the Law”? protection and feelings of security of the child and most
a. Bryan who is 15 years old. encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
b. Yang who is 10 years old. emotional development. It also means the least
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the
d. anyone of them growth and development of the child.
2876. Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are a. Child at risk
most beneficial for the child. b. Best Interest of the Child
a. child as zone of peace b. nation c. Full development.
building d. Child welfare program
c. best interest of the child 2888. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall
d. presumption of minority be determine in the absence of proof what principle shall
2877. Is the mass obligation which the parents have in be observed?
relation to the persons and property of their an a. He is presumed to be minor
unemancipated child. b. He should prove his age
a. Paretal authority
 c. The Birth certificate should be produced c. a child
pending such issuance he should be hold. d. an adolescent
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to
prove his age.
2889. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral 2898. It is the act of buying and selling children:
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability a. exploitation
to respond to repeated physical and psychological b. prostitution
violence? c. abuse
A. Battered Woman Syndrome d. trafficking
B. Battered Wife 2899. This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether
C. Abused Woman habitual or not:
D. Rape trauma syndrome a. exploitation
2890. Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion b. abuse
program without necessity of court intervention on the c. prostitution
following: d. trafficking
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime 2900. Children are declared as ____________ in situations
committee is not more than six (6) years of armed conflict:
imprisonment; a. priorities for evacuation
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime b. exemptions
committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment; c. zones of peace
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime d. shields
committed exceeds six (6) years but not more 2901. This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her
than 12 years imprisonment; personal services or those of a person under his or her
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime control as security or payment for a debt, when the length
committed does not exceeds 12 years and nature of services are not clearly defined:
imprisonment. a. debt bondage
2891. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict b. involuntary servitude
with the law is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall: c. abuse
A. Pronounce its judgment; d. slavery
B. Wait for the application for suspension of 2902. A working child below fifteen years old may be
sentence of the child and order his turn over to allowed to work for only _______ hours per day:
DSWD. a. eight
C. Automatically place the child in conflict b. four
with law under suspension of sentence. c. five
D. Determine the civil liability and order the d. six
final discharge of the child in conflict with the law. 2903. Publication of photographs of persons or children in
various obscene or indecent poses meant to cause sexual
2892. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age excitement to those who will see them is a form of:
of 18 while under suspended sentence the court may: a. adult entertainment
A. Order the execution of sentence; b. illegal publication
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with c. obscene material
the law; d. pornography
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain 2904. Employers shall provide an opportunity for education
period or to its maximum age of 21. to all working children up to this level:
D. Any of the above choices a. elementary
2893. All records and proceedings involving children in b. college
conflict with the law from initial contact until final c.secondary
disposition of the case shall be: d. vocational
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part 2905. In employing children, the employment contract must
of the public record; be signed:
b. open to the public; a) by the Department of Labor and
c. considered restricted; Employment
d. considered privileged and confidential b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer
2894. Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18 th c) by the child’s parent or guardian
birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls with d) and notarized by a Notary Public
greeting to herself. How will you classify Mona as an 2906. In cases of working children, this has the duty of
offender? securing the permit from the Department of Labor and
a. juvenile offender Employment:
b. habitual offender a. parents
c. adult offender b. working child
d. none c. manager
2895. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct: d. employer
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile 2907. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to
delinquency when parents find it hard to balance their cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as
jobs with their parental responsibilities but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency repeated verbal abuse:
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency a. battery
d. it is only within the family that a child must b. psychological
learn his life values c. sexual
2896. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street d. physical
24 hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods 2908. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified
given by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him when:
at his young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro a) the person trafficked is an elderly
as a child? b) the person trafficked is a woman
a. neglected child b. c) the person trafficked is a special child
independent child d) the person trafficked is a child
c. Abandoned child 2909. This refers to any word or deed which debases,
d. dependent child degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of the
2897. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by child as human being.
her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as a a. eglect
victim? b. psychological abuse
a. an adult c. sexual abuse
b. an insane d. cruelty
 d) seven to ten o’clock pm
2910. The following person are liable for child prostitution, 2921. It means failure to provide, for reasons other than
EXCEPT: poverty, the basic needs of the child, such as food,
a. those who act as procurer of child clothing, medical care, shelter and basic education
prostitute a. sexual abuse
b. children recruited as prostitutes b. physical abuse
c. managers or owners of the establishment c. psychological abuse
where the prostitution takes place d. neglect
d. clients of child prostitute 2922. Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman
2911. This refers to the use, hiring, employment and financially dependent.
coercing of children as actors or models in printed a. stalking
pornographic materials: b. economic abuse
a. indecent shows c. battery
b. child prostitution d. sexual violence
c. obscene publication
d. child exploitation 2923. No child shall be employed as a model in any
2912. The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and advertisement directly or indirectly promoting the following:
purposes of human trafficking:
a. R.A. 9344 I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks
b. R.A. 7610 II. pornographic materials
c. R.A. 9208 III. medicines for use of adults
d. R.A. 8043 IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling
a. I, II, III are correct
2913. 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when b. II, III, IV are correct
the trafficked person is a child. c. I, II, IV are correct
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 d. I, III, IV are correct
years of age shall not be employed. 2924. The law that provides special protection of children
against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
a. Both statements are correct. a. R.A. 7610
b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is b. R.A. 9208
incorrect. c. R.A. 9231
c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is d. P.D. 603
correct. 2925. The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor.
d. Both statements are incorrect. a. R.A. 9262
2914. The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children b. R.A. 7610
Act of 2004”: c. R.A. 9231
a. R.A. 9262 d. R.A. 9344
b. R.A. 7610 2926. This form of child abuse includes lacerations,
c. R.A. 9208 fractured bones, burns, internal injuries and serious bodily
d. R.A. 9344 harm suffered by a child:
2915. It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the a. psychological
woman or her child resulting to the physical and b. emotional
psychological or emotional distress. c. physical
a. stalking d. cruelty
b. economic abuse
c. battery 2927. This refers to offenses where there is no private
d. sexual violence offended party:
2916. This includes the employment, use, inducement or a. Victimology
coercion of a child to engage in sexual intercourse or b. public order crime
lascivious conduct; the molestation, prostitution and or c. Victimless crime
incest with children. d. d. both a and c
a. sexual abuse
b. physical abuse 2928. This is the Latin term for parental authority:
b. psychological abuse a) loco parentis
d. cruelty b) patria potestas
c) parens patriae
2917. Refers to a program organized by travel d) patria adorada
establishments and individuals which consist of packages 2929. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the
or activities, utilizing and offering escort and sexual adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a supervised
services as enticement for tourists. trial custody for a period of:
a. prostitution a) at least six months
b. exploitation b) not more than six months
c. sex tourism c) at least one year
d. pornography d) not less than one year
2918. Refers to an intentional act committed by a person 2930. This refers to the document issued by the court
who knowingly and without lawful justification follows the signifying the approval of the application for adoption:
woman or her child or places the woman or her child a) decree of adoption
under surveillance directly or indirectly. b) petition for adoption
a. stalking c) annulment
b. economic abuse d) rescission
c. battery 2931. This is the legal age in the Philippines:
d. sexual violence a) twenty-one
2919. A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may b) seventeen
work but his work hours must not exceed ____ hours: c) eighteen
a) eight d) twelve
b) seven 2932. A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily
c) ten committed to the DSWD or to a duly licensed child
d) six placement agency and is free from parental authority:
2920. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen a) child legally available for adoption
years old may be allowed to work between the hours of: b) legally-free child
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven c) emancipated child
to eight o’clock p d) abandoned child
c) six to ten o’clock pm
2933. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to
cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and
repeated verbal abuse:
a) battery
b) psychological
c) sexual
d) physical
2934. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen
years old may be allowed to work between the hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm
b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
2935. Emancipation takes place when:
a) the parents decide to emancipate him or
her
b) the child becomes 18 years old
c) the child is already married
d) the child applies for it
d) games and gadgets
2936. The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic
suspension of sentence until the maximum age of __:
a) twenty-three
b) eighteen
c) twenty-one
d) twenty
2937. In case the child has been found guilty by the court,
he shall be ordered to be transferred to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
b) a youth detention home
c) a city or municipal jail
d) an agricultural camp
2938. Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted
when the:
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
c) CICL acted with discernment
d) victim filed the complaint
2939. The law enforcement officer must ensure that all
statements signed by the child during investigation are
witnessed and signed by the following:
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
b) his parents or guardian
c) legal counsel
d) social worker
2940. The body search of the child in conflict with the law
must be done only by a law enforcement officer:
a) who has initial contact
b) assigned to the case
c) of the opposite sex
d) of the same gender
2941. The first important thing that a law enforcer must do
upon initial contact is to ____:
a) know the age of the child
b) notify the local DSWD
c) call the parents
d) make a report
2942. It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in
conflict with the law:
a) testimony of the parents of the child
b) testimony of the child
c) certificate of birth
d) school records
2943. It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the
sentence imposed by the court upon a finding of guilt of
the child in conflict with the law, whereby the child
undergoes rehabilitation within a fixed period under such
terms and conditions as may be ordered by the court:
a) probation
b) suspension of sentence
c) parole
d) pardon
2944. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after
conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation
officer:
a) suspension of sentence
b) parole
c) probation
d) pardon
2945. A child in conflict with the law is exempted from
_____:
a) both criminal and civil liability
b) neither criminal nor civil liability
c) criminal liability only
d) civil liability only
2946. If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is
imprisonment of more than six years, diversion will be
within the jurisdiction of the ____________:
a) barangay
b) DSWD
c) police
d) court
2947. Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is
over fifteen years old. The decision as to whether the
child acted with or without discernment is made initially by
the _______:
a) social worker
c) law enforcer
b) CICL
d) judge
2948. The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict
with the law lies with the _______:
a) social worker
b) law enforcer
c) CICL
d) judge
2949. The age of full criminal responsibility is:
a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years
old
2950. It pertains to the document that must be signed by the
parents of the child in conflict with the law as part of the
conditions of diversion:
a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) certification of conciliation
c) memorandum of agreement
d) contract of diversion
2951. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen
years of age shall be turned over to the
________________ by the police for the determination of
appropriate program:
a) nearest police station
b) family
c) local DSWSD
d) court
2952. The diversion proceedings must be completed within
____ days:
a) thirty
b) forty-five
c) sixty
d) twenty
2953. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law
is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
____________ of the sentence shall automatically be
suspended:
a) imposition
b) determination
c) execution
d) discharge
2954. The ________________ has the right to refuse the
diversion program designed for the child:
a) offended party
b) parents of the child
c) victim
d) social worker
2955. When the court decides to execute the suspended
sentence, the child must be transferred to a:
a) youth rehabilitation center
b) youth detention home
c) agricultural farm
d) prison
2956. It shall be the duty of the ______________________
to make proper recommendation to the court regarding the
disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation
while under suspension of sentence:
a) prosecutor
b) social worker
 c) lawyer 2969. This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction
d) judge to an object or state of affairs at the same time repulsion
2957. All records pertaining to the case of the child in towards something associated with it.
conflict with the law shall remain _______ and ______: a. avoidance-avoidance
a) privileged and confidential c. approach-approach
b) classified and confidential c. approach-avoidance
c) privileged and restricted d. multiple
d) secret and confidential 2970. This is the process of excluding from the
consciousness a thought or feeling that causes pain,
2958. The age of full criminal irresponsibility is: shame or guilt.
a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with a. identification
discernment b. regression
b. 18 to 70 years old c. repression
c. 15 years old and below d. fixation
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with 2971. This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt
discernment deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a
2959. It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his desirable type of behavior.
environment or the way human beings act. a. rationalization
a. Human Beings b. sublimation
b. Learning c. compensation
c. Human Behavior d. projection
d. Stimulus 2972. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting
an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
2960. Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes a. olfactory
exhibited by people because of their inherited capabilities b. Auditory
or the process of natural selection. c. cutaneous
a. Inherited Behavior d. gustatory
b. Inborn Behavior 2973. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is
c. Learned Behavior a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
d. both a and c a. Neurosis
2961. It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a b. Depression
state of form adjustment and attempt to experience them c. Psychosis
again in memory. d. Anxiety
a. phobia 2974. This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
b. anger a. frustration
b. frustration b. conflict
d. regression c. anxiety
2962. Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self d. Depression
from _____.
a. anger 2975. The aggregate observable responses of an organism
b. fear to internal and external stimuli.
c. pleasure a. human behavior
d. pain b. behavior
2963. Human behavior is man’s response to the c. personality
interpretation of the ______ from within the person or from d. attribute
his environment. 2976. The process by which behavior changes as a result of
a. stimulus experience or practice.
b. action a. actualization
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. b. learning
inclination c. thinking
2964. This personality system controls the gateway to d. feeling
action. 2977. This type of conflict occurs when there are two
a. alter ego desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
b. Id a. avoidance-avoidance
c. ego b. approach-approach
d. Superego c. approach-avoidance
2965. What is the process of interpreting our behavior in d. multiple
ways to make it more acceptable to the self usually with 2978. This type of conflict when there are two courses of
the use of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real action, each of which has both pleasant and unpleasant
cause? consequences.
a. projection a. avoidance-avoidance
b. sublimation b. approach-approach
c. rationalization c. approach-avoidance
d. Compensation d. multiple
2979. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear
2966. Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified of a perfectly natural situation or object.
as follows, EXCEPT: a. melancholia
a. avoidance-approach b. phobia
b. avoidance-avoidance c. exaltation
c. approach-avoidance d. Mania
d. approach-approach
2967. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree 2980. It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.
manifests what particular defense mechanism? a. psychoses
a. repression b. neuroses
b. sublimation c. abnormality
c. displacement d. Psychopathy
d. projection
2968. An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or 2981. Hydrophobia is fear of ________.
pathological stealing. a. Water
a. kleptomania b. darkness
b. pyromania c. Snakes
c. phobia d. deep water
d. Dipsomania
2982. A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination d. fantasy
and regression. 2995. What type of defense mechanism is manifested by
a. psychosis Pining Garcia when he joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi
b. neurosis Chupapi, because of low self-esteem?
c. abnormality a. Identification
d. psychopathy b. projection
2983. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental c. Fantasy
traits, tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring. d. regression
a. heredity 2996. This refers to an action-producing agent:
b. environment a. Motives
c. inheritance b. Drives
d. Introvert c. Stimulus
2984. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have d. sensation
problems. This is a manifestation of what type of defense 2997. Human actions in relation to events taking place
mechanism? inside the body such as the brain and the nervous system
a. Fantasy is known as:
b. sublimation a. Neurological
c. Denial b. psychological
d. displacement c. Cognitive
2985. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the d. Humanistic
evening session, blames his poor performance in the
preliminary examination to his professor rather than his 2998. A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating
lack of preparation. This is an example of what type of manifests what particular classification of human
defense mechanism? behavior?
a. Reaction formation a. Habitual
b. displacement b. complex
c. Sublimation c. Instinctive
d. rationalization d. symbolic
2986. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when 2999. Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards
she saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an signify one’s academic achievement. This classification of
example of what defense mechanism? human behavior is known as:
a. Regression a. Habitual
b. suppression b. complex
c. Repression c. Instinctive
d. displacement d. symbolic
2987. Texting while driving is an example of what 3000. Mathematical ability and English communication skills
classification of human behavior? are examples of what type of human behavior?
a. Habitual a. Learned
b. symbolic b. inborn
c. Instinctive c. Operant
d. complex d. both a and c
2988. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus 3001. Eating when you are hungry is an example of
which largely helps to determine the actual behavioral _______ behavior.
response in a given situation. a. Habitual
a. Perception b. complex
b. awareness c. Instinctive
c. Sensation d. Symbolic
d. Learning 3002. It is the ability to withstand frustration without
developing inadequate modes of response such as being
2989. A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is emotionally depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or
said to be: becoming aggressive.
a. Psychotic a. Frustration Tolerance
b. ambivert b. Frustration Shield
c. Neurotic c. Frustration Flexibility
d. angry bird d. all of the above
2990. He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”. 3003. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up
a. Tom Cruise applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines when he
b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage
c. Sigmund Freud because he was under height. This is an example of:
d. Cesare Lombroso a. Sublimation
2991. Coping mechanism is the way people react to b. repression
__________. c. Substitution
a. Fear d. withdrawal
b. anxiety 3004. Which of the following items does not belong to the
c. Frustration group?
d. Anger a. prostitution
b. assassination
2992. It can be seen among people who handle their c. sabotage
problems in a very objective way. d. bombing
a. Coping Mechanism 3005. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack
b. Direct Approach of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others and
c. Detour aggression to environment and other people.
d. Withdrawal a. schizophrenic personality
2993. The most tolerated way of handling frustration. b. psychopathic personality
a. Defense Mechanism c. compulsive neurosis
b. Direct Approach d. neurotic personality
c. Detour 3006. Which of the following is not a common tactic in
d. Withdrawal terrorism?
2994. A type of defense mechanism whereby a person a. robbery
concentrates in area where he can excel. c. bombing
a. Displacement b. hijacking
b. compensation d. kidnapping
c. Rationalization
3007. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a c. commander
person performs an act while sleeping. d. hostage
a. somnambulism 3020. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside
b. mesmerism the bank together with their hostages; their demand is
c. somnolencia geared towards:
d. delirium a. revenge
3008. Animals are used for the achievement of sexual b. economic gain
excitation and gratification. c. escape
a. voyeurism d. vindication
b. fetishism 3021. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which
c. pedophilia indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
d. bestiality by:
3009. A person suffers from _____ when he developed a a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of an b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
external influence that later on becomes a part of his assurance
lifestyle and which he uses to relate to the world around c. by not attempting to trick or lie
him. d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
a. personality disorder you are willing to negotiate
b. abnormal behavior 3022. It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching
c. personality behavior nude woman or man.
d. abnormal personality a. exhibitionism
3010. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation b. voyeurism
EXCEPT, c. transvestitism
a. Preservation of life d. fetishism
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property 3023. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack
d. involve the media of conscience deficient feeling of affection to others and
3011. Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to: aggression.
a. police handling of the situation a. schizophrenic personality
b. negotiation b. psychopathic personality
c. contact c. compulsive neurosis
d. control of area and people d. neurotic personality
3012. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking 3024. This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to
situation is, the principles upon which society is based.
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators a. Anti-social
should not command b. Psychopath
b. open the communication at once b. Schizophrenic
c. negotiate d. Sociopath
d. ask for demands 3025. A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid
3013. When both hostage and hostage taker develop a sense of religious feeling.
mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other a. mania
shared stand on issues, leading them to become enemies b. mania fanatica
of the State, this turn referred to as, b. delusion
a. Stockholm Syndrome d. legal insanity
b. Confrontation
c. Negotiation 3026. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in
d. familiarization the male or an inability to achieve it.
3014. Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to a. masturbation
assault or injure is: b. prostitution
a. need deference  c. exhibitionism
b. need aggression d. frigidity
c. need recognition 3027. This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual,
d. need order preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by
3015. The need to influence or control others is: any technique, other than willing coitus between man and
a. need order  woman and involving actions that are directly results in
b. need dominance genital excite.
c. need achievement a. crime against chastity b. acts
d. need exhibition of lasciviousness
3016. A person has _____ when he/she has painful c. sexual deviation
memories associated with some shocking experience d. sexual offenses
which are repressed and cannot be 3028. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid
recalled.                        Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
a. anxiety a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. delusions b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are
c. amnesia wrong
d. phobia c. to show them that they are just crazy
3017. The first step in hostage taking crisis is: d. to try to bluff or trick them
a. crowd control 3029. The following are reasons, why common criminals are
c. negotiation easy to negotiate, except:
b. assault a. fears of police assault and punishment
d. traffic control b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
3018. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place c. they are familiar with police operations and
pleasure in imagining having sexual relations with newly tactics
dead young female bodies who were victims of suicides or d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio 3030. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used
commit? is_____?
a. necrophilia A. Kidnapping
b. rape C. Bombing
c. incest B. Assassination
d. none D. Extortion
3019. The most important person in a hostage situation: 3031. A personality disorder characterized by
a. negotiator suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self
b. hostage taker important, and argumentativeness, plus a tendency to
 blame others for one’s own mistakes and failure and to c. for personal reason
ascribe evil motives to others. d. because of political and ideological belief
A. Paranoid Personality 3043. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for
B. Dependent Personality death is called;
C. Schizoid Personality A. eros
D. Borderline Personality B. animus
3032. A personality disorder characterized by an inability to C. thanatos
form social relationships and can be classified as “loners”. D. lupus
A. Paranoid Personality 3044. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but
B. Schizoid Personality “SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
C. Dependent Personality D. a. the truth will prevail
Borderline Personality b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
3033. A personality disorder characterized by instability, d. save the host
reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems. 3045. When a highly trained and motivated group of
Such individuals are frequently described as impulsive and hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were
unpredictable. left with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
A. Borderline Personality B. hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
Compulsive Personality more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti- choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
social Personality a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
3034. When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental c. give all their demands
and physical fatigue and by various aches and pains, it is d. let the hostages killed
considered as: 3046. In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands
A. Anxiety Disorder an airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
B. Somatoform Disorder a. go to your ground commander
C. Dissociative Disorder b. give it with consent
D. Amnesia c. talk to him and delay the moment
3035. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking d. assault and kill him immediately
situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, 3047. Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:
negotiators should not command a. Prostitution
b. open the communication at once b. Bombing
c. negotiate c. Assassination
d. ask for demands d. Kidnapping
3036. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, 3048. These are important in a hostage taking situation,
when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical EXCEPT:
and psychic energy, hence: a. Presence of linguist negotiator
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for b. Considerable screening of all members
the authorities c. Dry run or constant practice
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them 3049. It is the position from which a unit commander and his
down staff exercise command over the hostage incident.
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender. a. command post
3037. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation. b. outer perimeter
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker c. inner perimeter
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the d. command headquarters
hostages 3050. It is an assault team responsible in carrying out
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker a. Negotiation Team
b. Medical Team
3038. They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies c. Tactical Team
a need: d. Response Team
a. interest 3051. Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures
b. perception Manual of 2010, this group should immediately be
c. motives activated in case of hostage situation:
d. drives a. Hostage Negotiation Team
3039. It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective b. Civil Disturbance Management
plan, policies, procedures and techniques in dealing with Team
sudden violent act of terrorist. c. Crisis Management Task Group
a. Crisis management d. PNP Command Post
b. stress mgt. 3052. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest ranking PNP officer
c. hostage negotiation who first arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he
d. political analysis serves now as a ground commander on the said crisis.
3040. Last option in hostage crisis: Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the
a. crowd control b. objectives are as follows, except one:
negotiation a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed,
c. traffic control d. and set free.
assault b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding
3041. It is any incident in which people are being held by to the demands of the hostage takers.
another person or persons against their will, usually by c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
perpetrator. surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
a. kidnapping 3053. Which of the following is considered least among
b. crisis management terroristic tactic?
c. hostage incident a. noise barrage
d. abduction b. assassination
3042. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take c.bombing
hostages: d.kidnapping
a. by reason of mental illness 3054. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and should not:
problems a.give his name
 b. give his rank and designation 3065. It refers to any organization whose members are 21
c.give in to all demands years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in
d.look friendly or accommodating carrying out child welfare activities and programs.
3055. The highest ranking field commander should not also A. NGO
be the chief negotiator because: B. Youth association
C. Youth organization
a. hostage takers will be afraid D. Civic organization
b. he is not authorized to grant
concessions 3066. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with
c. of conflict of interest as mediator the law shall be conducted in the presence of the
and decision maker following, EXCEPT.
d. hostage takers will not trust him A. Child’s counsel of choice
3056. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
terrorist tactic where target are often police, military C. Child’s relative
officials or political figures? D. Child’s parents
a.Hijacking
b. Ambush 3067. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the
c.Assassination Protection of Children in the formulation and
d. Kidnap for Ransom implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
3057. The stage of advance planning, organization and programs in the If community.
coordination and control in response to an anticipated A. Women and Children Protection Desk
future crisis occurrence is called B. Local Government Unit
a. Proactive Crisis Management C. Sangguniang Kabataan
b. Reactive Crisis Management D. Local Social Welfare and Development
c. Performance Stage 3068. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence
d. Reaction Phase social structures.
A. Biogenic approach
3058. A comprehensive plan which delineates B. Sociogenic approach
responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a C. Psychogenic approach
bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called D. All of these
a. Floor plan 3069. It refers to a person whose behavior results with
b. Bomb threat plan repeated conflict with the law.
c. Drill A. Delinquent
d. Contingency plan B. Habitual delinquent
C. Juvenile
3059. the crime charged against a child in conflict with the D. Recidivist
law is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will 3070. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period
determine whether diversion is necessary? shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon.
A. The Police A. 3 Months
B. The Prosecutor B. 5 Months
C. The Court C. 4 Months
D. 6 Months
D. The Barangay Chairman 3071. These are undesirable conditions in the community
3060. From the moment a child is taken into custody, the which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT.
law enforcement officer shall immediately but not later A. Gambling Houses
than hours after apprehension, turnover custody B. Recreational Facilities
of the child to the Social Welfare and Development Office. C. Vice Dens
A. Nine D. Attractive Nuisances
B. Eight 3072. This view asserts that children who started delinquent
C. Seven careers early and committed violent acts throughout their
D. Six adolescence would likely to continue as adults.
A. Culture conflict
3061. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile Justice System in B. Persistence
the Philippines. C. Containment theory
A. RA 9344 D. Reflective role taking
B. RA 10630 3073. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18
C. RA 10627 years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he
D. RA 8960 is often referred to as?
3062. It is one of the most important assets of the nation. A. Socialized delinquent
Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his B. Truant
welfare and enhance his opportunities for a useful and C. Criminal
happy life. D. Youth offender
A. Teenager 3074. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
B. Kid youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
C. Child behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
D. Youth appropriate care for them or recommending their
3063. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare
what agency of the government? agencies?
A. Department of Justice A. Rehabilitation Center
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development B. Reintegration Center
C. Department of Tourism C. Reformation Center
D. Department of Interior and Local Government D. Restoration Center
3064. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or 3075. Which among the following is not part of the rights of
to the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a a child in conflict with the law?
public or private custodial setting, from which the child in A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital
conflict with the law is not permitted to leave at will by punishment or life imprisonment, without the
order of any judicial or administrative authority. possibility of release
A. Apprehension B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
B. Confinement inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
C. Deprivation of Liberty C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily,
D. Incarceration of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the
shortest appropriate period of time
 D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate A. Predisposing factor
cases B. Environmental factor
3076. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be C. Biologic factor
considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that D. Precipitating factor
a crime will be committed. 3087. This is where the molding of the character of the child
A. Precipitating factor starts and every member of the family should strive to
B. Environmental factor make it a wholesome and a harmonious place.
C. Biologic factor A. Family
D. Predisposing factor B. Home
3077. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that C. Church
give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may D. School
report the same to what agency? 3088. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning
A. School process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts
B. Neighborhood Association with governmental and social control agencies and other
C. Barangay Council similar variables.
D. Church A. Biogenic approach
3078. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether B. Socio-genic approach
functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity C. Psychogenic approach
as to require professional help or hospitalization? D. None of the above
A. Mentally Ill Children 3089. What program is required for the child in conflict with
B. Physically Handicapped Children the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an
C. Emotional Disturbed Children offense without resorting to formal court proceedings?
D. Retarded at Maturity A. Diversion
3079. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and B. Community Service
becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a: C. Parole
A. Social delinquent D. Probation
B. Accidental delinquent 3090. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors
C. Asocial delinquent and youthful offender through the cooperation of the
D. Neurotic delinquent criminal justice system.
3080. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or A. Child Justice System
seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or B. Youth Justice System
made to beg in the streets or public places, or when C. Minor Justice System
children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling, D. Juvenile Justice System
prostitution, or other vices. 3091. A category of delinquency which may be credited to
A. Physically Neglected Child peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young
B. Emotionally Neglected Child person.
C. Psychologically Neglected Child A. Social
D. Sexually Neglected Child B. Accidental
3081. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile C. Neurotic
intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed D. Asocial
annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be 3092. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in
submitted by the provincial and city governments to the an activity.
Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of what A. Coercion
date of every year? B. Cruelty
A. February 28 C. Molestation
B. April 30 D. Abuse
C. March 30 3093. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of
D. May 30 Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and
3082. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with Discrimination Act of 1992.
I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this A. RA 6809
classification are only slightly retarded and they can B. RA 9344
usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra C. RA 9262
help, guidance and consideration. D. RA 7610
A. Trainable group 3094. It asserts that lower class youths with limited
B. Custodial group legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal
C. Educable group career to achieve alternate means universal success
D. Borderline or low normal group goals.
3083. It refers to any club, organization or association of A. Culture conflict
individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly B. Social development model
or indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare C. Containment theory
programs and activities. D. Differential opportunity
A. Samahan 3095. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
B. Student organization which among the following refers to a child who is alleged
C. Sanguniang Kabataan as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an
D. Youth association offense under Philippine laws?
3084. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to A. Juvenile Delinquent
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments B. Child in Conflict with the Law
over the life course. C. Minor Offender
A. Culture conflict D. Youth Criminal
B. Social development model 3096. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
C. Differential opportunity delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
D. Containment theory policies and activities.
3085. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, A. Philippine National Police
and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ B. Department of National Defense
of that expected of a normal child of the same C. Local Government
chronological age. D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
A. Trainable group 3097. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below
B. Borderline or low normal group 15 Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
C. Educable group A. RA 7610
D. Custodial group B. RA 9262
3086. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a C. RA 7658
result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and D. RA 9231
curiosity.
3098. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs A. Placement
and illicit experiences is stressed. B. Commitment
A. Conflict sub-culture C. Consignment
B. Criminal sub-culture D. Entrustment
C. Retreatist sub-culture 3109. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
D. All of these A. Abuse
3099. It refers to one with no proper parental care or B. Cruelty
guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at C. Exploitation
least six months. D. Neglect
A. Neglected Child 3110. High moral principles should be instilled in the child by
B. Deserted Child the following, EXCEPT.
C. Unattended Child A. Government
D. Abandoned Child B. School
3100. It refers to the programs provided in a community C. Home
setting developed for purposes of intervention and D. Church
diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict 3111. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs
with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or and / or without proper supervision.
community. A. Unattended Child
A. Community Juvenile Programs B. Neglected Child
B. Community Rehabilitation Programs C. Dependent Child
C. Community Outreach Programs D. Abandoned Child
D. Community - Based Programs 3112. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of
3101. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in
Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural,
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion economic, psychological or educational background
programs in the community? without resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Sangguniang Kabataan A. Diversion
B. Kabataan Partylist B. Friendly Interview
C. Commission on Human Right C. Due Process
D. National Youth Commission D. Preliminary Investigation
3102. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends 3113. Family home type which provide temporary shelter
upon the quality and type of education they receive as well from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the
as on the treatment at home and in the community, their DSWD.
I.Q range from about 50 to 75. A. Receiving homes
A. Educable B. Maternity homes
B. Custodial C. Nursery
C. Borderline D. Shelter care institution
D. Trainable 3114. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality
3103. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal for which the youth feels no remorse.
pattern of rules and regulations. A. Asocial
A. Recidivism B. Neurotic
B. Juvenile delinquency C. Accidental
C. Quasi recidivism D. Social
D. Delinquency 3115. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the
3104. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective manner by which an individual reduce the rate of their
deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or aberrant behavior as they age.
watchful and concerned neighbors. A. Aging-out
A. Clever guardians B. Decadence
B. Proficient guardians C. Desistance
C. Capable guardians D. Reduction
D. Qualified guardians 3116. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that
the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in
accordance with the Constitution and international
instruments on human rights?
3105. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and A. National Youth Commission
without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by B. Kabataan Partylist
himself without provision for his needs and/or without C. Commission on Human Rights
proper supervision. What classification of neglected child D. Sangguniang Kabataan
is this? 3117. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which
A. Physically Neglected Child results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural
B. Psychologically Neglected Child affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of
C. Emotionally Neglected Child conformist society.
D. Sexually Neglected Child A. Differential opportunity
3106. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and B. Culture conflict
children in conflict with the law, which provides child- C. Containment theory
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services D. Social development model
for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and 3118. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development. hereditary defect.
A. Child Justice and Welfare A. Psychogenic approach
B. Youth Justice and Welfare B. Biologic approach
C. Minor Justice and Welfare C. Sociogenic approach
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare D. Biogenic approach
3107. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard 3119. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for
themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to authority.
their perception or view of how significant others feel A. Emotional Disorder
about them. B. Vagrancy
A. Reflective role taking C. Truancy
B. Culture conflict D. Anti Social Behavior
C. Persistence 3120. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise
D. Containment theory defective which restricts their means of action on
3108. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the communication with others.
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any A. Physically Handicapped Children
duly licensed child placement agency or individual. B. Mentally Subnormal
 C. Essentially Incurable 3132. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
D. Retarded at Maturity severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
3121. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon behavior.
any knowledge of a child who have been treated or A. Psychological injury
suffered from abuse. B. Mental injury
A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery C. Physical injury
of abuse D. Emotional injury
B. Report the incident to the family 3133. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
D. File a case in court in behalf of the child It may take the form of an individualized treatment
3122. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against program, which may include counseling, skills training,
any violation of R.A. 7610? education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
A. Parents or guardians psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree
of consanguinity A. Diversion
C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any B. Rehabilitation
three responsible citizen C. Probation
D. All of the choices D. Intervention
3123. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result 3134. If children, whether male or female, who for money,
of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
emotion and mood. influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
A. Neurotic sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
B. Social A. Child Abuse
C. Accidental B. Child Trafficking
D. Asocial C. Child Prostitution
3124. Forcing an activity on the child without consent. D. Child Exploitation
A. Coercion 3135. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
B. Abuse occurring
C. Cruelty A. Control
D. Molestation B. Recession
3125. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency C. Repression
and that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both D. Prevention
deviant and conventional values. 3136. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
A. Swift it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
B. Drift defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code,
C. Coast including a barangay tanod.
D. Waft A. Police Officer
3126. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent B. Probation Officer
offender who is arrested more than four times before the C. Law Enforcement Officer
age of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an D. Public Officer
adult criminal. 3137. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
A. Acute offender unattended or inadequately attended.
B. Severe offender A. Abandoned Child
C. Chronic offender B. Abused Child
D. Desperate offender C. Neglected Child
3127. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do D. Dependent Child
so with a permit or clearance issued by: 3138. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years
A. The parents old.
B. The guardians A. Adolescence
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development B. Early adolescence
D. Any of the choices C. Juvenile
3128. This refers to children who are unable to cope with D. None of the above
their family life and chooses to leave the family home. This 3139. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which
is a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation,
conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for custom and culture which society does not accept and
adventures. which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures
A. Vagrancy in the public interest and it is being committed by minors?
B. Cheating A. Juvenile Delinquency
C. Lying B. Minor Delinquency
D. Stealing C. Child Delinquency
3129. What is a child caring institution that provides care for D. Youth Delinquency
six or more children below six years of age twenty-four 3140. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
medical and educational services? mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the
A. Nursery Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
B. Detention Home accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but
C. Day Care not later than hours after apprehension.
D. Maternity A. 8
3130. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and B. 24
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival, C. 12
protection and feelings of security of the child and most D. 36
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and 3141. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
emotional development. aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure person who tries to control his behavior.
B. Special Protection of Minor A. Neurotic
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice B. Accidental
D. Best Interest of the Child C. Asocial
3131. A place of residence whose primary function is to give D. Social
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants. 3142. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the
A. Maternity home CICL refused to take custody, the child may be release to
B. Hospital any of the following, EXCEPT.
C. Rehabilitation center A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious
D. Foster homes organization
 B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay C. 30
Council for the Protection of Children D. 50
C. A local social welfare and development officer 3154. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk under the law is:
Officer A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
3143. It accounts for individual offender by reference to B. The undersecretary of DepEd
learning process, which goes on in youth gangs, C. The undersecretary of the DILG
stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies and D. The undersecretary of the DSWD
other variables of that time. 3155. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of
A. Biogenic resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
B. Psychogenic victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain
C. Phatogenic reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the
D. Sociogenic offended and the community; and reassurance to the
3144. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It
and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent also enhances public safety by activating the offender, the
messages through a balanced approach. victim and the community in prevention strategies.
A. The mass media A. Restorative Justice
B. The family B. Rehabilitative Justice
C. The community C. Reformative Justice
D. The educational system D. Reintegrative Justice
3145. What approach towards delinquency views the 3156. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed
lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of by the Department of Social Welfare and Development
faulty biology? (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs
A. Phatogenic monitored by the DSWD, which provides care, treatment
B. Biogenic and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the
C. Psychogenic law. Rehabilitation services are provided under the
D. Sociogenic guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for
3146. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and under a structured therapeutic environment with the end
desirable, the following factors shall be taken into view of reintegrating them into their families and
consideration, EXCEPT. communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical
mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted
A. The safety of the child pending court disposition of the charges against them.
B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged A. Youth Reformation Center
B. Youth Reintegration Center
C. The circumstances of the child C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
D. The best interest of the child D. Youth Restoration Center
3147. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a 3157. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of
child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for the commission of the offense is found guilty of the
committing similar acts. These shall include curfew offense charged, shall place the child under
violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like. .
A. Delinquency A. Recognizance
B. Exclusive B. Diversion
C. Status C. Bail
D. Grave D. Suspended Sentence
3148. Children detained pending trial may be released on
bail or as provided for under Sections 34 3158. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in
and 35 of RA 9344. the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program?
A. Probation A. Punong Barangay
B. Recognizance B. BCPC Chairman
C. Parole C. LSWDO
D. Bond D. PNP member
3149. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a
minor, whether habitual or not? 3159. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that
A. Caress the most important function of the CJS is the protection of
B. Abuse the public and the repression of criminal conduct.
C. Discrimination a. Crime prevention
D. Exploitation b. Crime control
3150. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or c. Law and order
whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good d. Due process
cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is 3160. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of
dependent upon the public of support. an individual must be co-equal with the concern for public
A. Abandoned Child safety.
B. Neglected Child a. Crime prevention
C. Abused Child b. crime control
D. Dependent Child c. Law and order
3151. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible d. due process
persons from various sector of the community. 3161. This concerns to the obligations of the community to
A. Organization individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
B. Association advantages and sharing of common burden.
C. Club a. Prosecution
D. Samahan b. justice
3152. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short c. equality
term resident care for youthful offenders. d. trial
A. Bahay Pag-asa 3162. This function of the law enforcement is being done
B. Nursery through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of
C. Child caring institution crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens
D. Foster home about their role, introduction of delinquency prevention
programs, good parenting and others.
3153. The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated a. Maintenance of law and order
by law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall b. Reduction of crime
constitute at least percent of the earning of the child. c. crime prevention
A. 20 d. crime control
B. 40
3163. This principal character of the criminal justice process certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the
links all components of the CJS. possibility of error.
a. Offender a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Victim b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. witness c. substantive evidence
d. Crime d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
3164. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution 3176. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the
b. Correction prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
c. Police prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a
d. Court lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering
3165. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the a guilty plea.
police have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient a. arraignment
to warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged b. preliminary investigation
violator. c. pre-trial
a. Investigator d. plea bargaining
b. judge
c. prosecutor 3177. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the
d. solicitor genera country which is under the ________?
3166. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense a. DOJ
and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of b. DILG
introducing evidences. c. NAPOLCOM
a. Clerk of court d. DSWD
b. judge 3178. A person who is under custodial investigation is
c. sheriff basically protected by a number of rights mandated under
d. jury the constitution and this was even expounded in the
3167. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive legislative act known as _______?
branch of the government. a. Miranda Doctrine
a. law enforcement (Excutive) b. R.A. 7438
b. court c. Bill of Rights
c. prosecution (Executive) d. R.A. 6975
d. correction (judiciary) 3179. A body officially assembled under authority of law in
3168. This is a governmental body that is charged with the which judicial power is vested or the administration of
responsibility of administering justice. justice is delegated.
a. Law enforcement a. court
b. correction b. corrections
c. Prosecution c. prosecution
d. court d. law enforcement
3169. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether 3180. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and
as an individual or as a member of some court, order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and
Government Corporation, board or commission. ensure public safety.
a. Agent of person in authority a. police
b. Government employee b. prosecution
c. Government officer c. court
d. person in authority d. corrections
3170. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the 3181. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation
Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime.
of the State or government in criminal cases. a. police
a. law enforcement b. prosecution
b. court c. court
c. prosecution d. corrections
d. correction 3182. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
3171. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office a. R.A. 8294
before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by b. R.A. 7080
the Barangay Court. c. R.A. 1379
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement d. R.A. 3019
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit 3183. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses
3172. It refers to the study of the various agency of our punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
government in charged of processing law violators to a. Supreme Court
ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of c. RTC
peace and order. b. Court of Appeals
a. Criminology d. MTC
b. Criminal Justice 3184. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior
c. Victimlogy and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on December
d. Sociology 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the
3173. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the PPSC.
commission of a crime and subject of an investigation. a. R.A. 6975
a. Convict b. P.D. 1184
b. respondent c. R.A. 8551
c. Accused d. R.A. 6040
d. suspect
3174. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules 3185. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s,
of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote
maintain peace and order? the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and
a. Criminal Justice System exploitation.
b. Criminology a. crime control
c. Criminal law b. political parties
d. Criminal jurisprudence c. civil society
3175. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case d. volunteer
which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
3186. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the a. prosecution
existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen b. correction
the police work as suppressing the spread of criminality. c. court
a. Crime Prevention d. community
b. Crime control 3198. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who
c. Criminal apprehension d. law directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on
enforcement the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the
3187. Directly under the supervision of the Department of higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice State in the prosecution of the offense?
System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law a. Chief State Prosecutor
through the speedy d2elivery of services particularly in the b. Solicitor General
prosecution and investigation of all crimes. c. National or provincial prosecutor
a. National Prosecution Service d. Judge
b. PNP 3199. It refers to the questioning initiated by law
c. Ombudsman enforcement officer after a person has been taken into
d. Solicitor General custody.
3188. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more a. custodial investigation
municipalities? b. interview
a. MTC c. inquest
b. MeTC d. interrogation
c. MCTC 3200. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade
d. MTC’s 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art.
3189. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should
own judgment in a given situation without referring to your first be filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of the
superior due to the eminence of the situation? required preliminary investigation.
a. Police resourcefulness b. Police a. Ombudsman
discretion b. Solicitor General
c. Police integrity d. police c. Judge of MTC
prudence d. the President
3190. It refers to the art or science of identifying law 3201. In flagrante delicto means ______?
violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect their a. caught in the act
arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court. b. caught after commission
a. Crime prevention c. instigation
b. criminal investigation d. entrapment
c. Crime control 3202. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or
d. Intelligence work try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in
3191. An attached agency of the Office of the President referring to the authority or power to hear and decided
tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement. cases.
a. Narcotics Command a. Jurisdiction
b. AID-SOTF b. Venue
c. PDEA c. Jurisprudence
d. NBI d. Territory
3192. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any 3203. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the
peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of first time to the exclusion of other courts.
the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of a. original jurisdiction
the prosecutor. b. exclusive jurisdiction
a. Complaint c. appellate jurisdiction
b. Information d. concurrent jurisdiction
c. Pleadings 3204. It is the formal reading of the charges against a
d. Affidavit person accused of a crime and latter asking him whether
he pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
3193. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether a. arraignment
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief b. preliminary investigation
that a crime has been committed and the respondent is c. plea
probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial. d. promulgation of judgment
a. preliminary investigation 3205. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within
b. Prejudicial question Barangay level.
c. inquest proceeding a. barangay tanod
d. custodial investigation b. pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. barangay council
3194. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases d. lupon tagapamayapa
punishable by: 3206. It is the most common way by which the police
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed:
day. a. When the witness voluntarily reports the
b. more than four years, two months and one day crime.
c. less than four years, two months and one day b. When the police discovers the crime
d. six years, one day and above c. When the victim reports the crime
3195. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the d. When the suspect surrenders
law in order for him to answer for the commission of an 3207. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the
offense. Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
a. Arrest Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other
b. investigation members who shall be:
c. invitation a. more than 10 but less than 20
d. seizure b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
3196. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and c. more than 10
capturing the law breakers in the execution of their d. less than 10
criminal plan. 3208. When arrest may be made?
a. Instigation a. At any time of the day and night
b. Entrapment b. At day time
c. Investigation c. At night time
d. Raid d. from sun dust till dawn
3197. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or 3209. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
interdependent from any branch of government. without a warrant?
 a. All of the choices 3220. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities
the arresting officer. to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and a. Commitment Order
there is personal knowledge based on probable cause b. Mittimus
that the person to be arrest has committed it. c. warrant of arrest
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee d. habeas corpus
3210. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
documents under his control at the trial of an action. 3221. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
a. subpoena with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
b. subpoena ad testificandum convicted offender.
c. subpoena duces tecum a. Penology
d. warrant of arrest b. Probation
c. Correction
3211. The “anti-Plunder Act”. d. Criminology
a. R.A. 7080 3222. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by
c. R.A. 3019 the president. Which of the following is not one of them?
b. R.A. 1379 a. Pardon
d. R.A. 6713 b. Amnesty
3212. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide c. Commutation of Sentence
free legal assistance to poor members of society: d. Parole
a. National Bureau of Investigation 3223. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
b. National Prosecution Service prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to
c. Board of Pardons and Parole serve a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose
d. Public Attorney’s Office fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
3213. This is the power to apply the law to contests or a. National prisoner
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties b. City prisoner
between the state and private persons, or between c. provincial prisoner
individual litigants in cases properly brought before the d. municipal prisoner
judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power 3224. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted
b. Judicial Review offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
c. Court imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word
d. Court of Justice _____?
3214. This is the process or method whereby accusations a. Presinto
are brought before the court of justice to determine the b. Precindio
innocence or guilt of the accused. c. presidio
a. Prosecutor d. precinto
b. Prosecution 3225. There are how many members the composed the
c. Trial Lupon?
d. Preliminary Investigation a. 3 members
3215. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to b. 5 to 10 members
hear both sides and to come to a decision. c. 10 to 20 members
a. Mediation d. 5 members
b. Settlement 3226. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a
c. Arbitration portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons
d. Agreement and Parole.
3216. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name a. Pardon
of the government? b. Probation
a. Public Prosecutor c. Amnesty
b. Private Prosecutor d. Parole
c. Prosecution 3227. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police
d. Ombudsman stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for
3217. It refers to the “court of last resort”. investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before
a. RTC the prosecutor.
b. Sandiganbayan a. Lock-up jail
c. Supreme Court b. Ordinary jail
d. MTC c. workhouses
3218. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, d. prison
which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on 3228. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of
appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the
Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to
the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties. serve for his good conduct.
a. Court of Justice a. Commutation of sentence
b. Court of Appeals b. Parole
c. Sandiganbayan c. GCTA
d. Court of Tax Appeals d. reprieve
3229. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into
National and Local institution. What Department of the
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National
Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology
3219. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by b. Department of Justice
high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27 c.Department of Interior and Local
above), which can only be committed because of their Government
position. d. Bureau of Correction
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals 3230. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the
c. Sandiganbayan transgression of the law.
d. Court of Tax Appeals a. penalty
b. self-defense
 c. exemplarity 3241. These are not negotiable in a hostage taking
d. punishment situation:
a. guns and ammunition
3231. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional b. drinks
institution which primarily in charge of those detention c. foods
prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and d. all of the choices
serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology. While it is true that even the 3242. One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:
Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under a. bombing
the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the b. assassination
__________? c. hostage-taking
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. d. media exposure
Department of Justice 3243. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense
c. Bureau of Correction when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical
d. Provincial government and psychic energy, hence:
3232. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the the authorities
community. b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
a. Reintegration c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them
b. reincarnation down
c. Realization d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
d. Rehabilitation 3244. When a highly trained and motivated group of
3233. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands , they were
house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises left with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
used in the prosecution of a criminal action: more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they
a. Search choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
b. seizure a. attack them swiftly with precision
c. Raid b. withhold the media from the terrorist
d. entrapment c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
3234. This court was established by virtue of PD1083, 3245. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid
otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
Philippines”. a. to accept their beliefs as being true
a. Court of Tax Appeals b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are
b. Shari’a Court wrong
c. Sandiganbayan c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. Family Court d. to try to bluff or trick them
3235. Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those 3246. The following are reasons, why common criminals are
over but unable to fully take care of themselves from easy to negotiate, except:
neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due a. fears of police assault and punishment
to some physical defect or mental disability or condition. b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
a. child c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
b. wards d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
c. physically disabled
d. youth 3247. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
3236. Act or omission which may not be punishable if a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
are committed by a child or a person of tender year or one hostages
who is in need of supervision or assistance. c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
a. crime d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
b. status offense
c. delinquency 3248. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP officer who first
d. felonies arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves
3237. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the now as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having
society to prevent and repressed them? decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the
a. Penology objectives are as follows, except one:
b. Victimology a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed
c. Criminology and set free.
d. Sociology of law b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to
the demands of the hostage takers.
3238. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
by: surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position 3249. In a hostage negotiation and crisis management
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
assurance a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker
c. by not attempting to trick or lie face to face
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated
willing to negotiate agreement
3239. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
EXCEPT, d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage
a. Preservation of life taker
b. Arrest of hostage taker 3250. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but
c. recover and protect property “SALVARI VITAS”, which means:
d. involve the media a. the truth will prevail
3240. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these, b. kill the hostage-taker
EXCEPT c. to save lives
a. mental derange d. save the hostages
b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
c. sociopath personality 3251. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation.
d. mental balance a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
 b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the 3264. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result
hostages of armed conflict.?
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker a. war
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker b. treatment
c. evacuation
3252. Last option in hostage crisis: d. education
a. crowd control 3265. Science concerned with improving the quality of
b. negotiation offspring.
c. traffic control a. criminology
d. assault b. eugenics
c. genetics
3253. It is any incident in which people are being held by d. heredity
another person or persons against their will, usually by 3266. Commonly known as victimless crime:
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the A.occassional crime
perpetrator. B.political crime
a. kidnapping C.public order crime
b. crisis management D. conventional crime
c. hostage incident
d. abduction 3267. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
unattended.
3254. The following are the priorities in hostage taking a. abandoned child
situation, except: b. dependent child
a. preservation of life c. abusive child
b. arrest of the hostage-taker d. neglected child
c. inclusion of the media 3268. The principle that events including criminal behavior
d. successfully negotiate that has sufficient causes..
3255. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take a. atavism
hostages: b. narassism
a. by reason of mental illness c. determinism
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair d. positivism
and problems 3269. An established and generally accepted moral values
c. for personal reason refer to.
d. because of political and ideological belief a. integrity
3256. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out b. morality
assault operation whenever negotiation fails. c. ethical standard
a. medical team d. authority
b. tactical team 3270. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
c. negotiation team a. split mind
d. snipers b. psychosis
3257. This asserts that strong self-image protects the youth c. neurosis
from the influence and pressure of criminogenic pulls in d. schizoprenia
his environment.
A. Rational theory 3271. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate
B. Conflict theory events?
C. Label theory
D. Containment theory A.mass murder
3258. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in B. serial killer
conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private C.homicidal   
citizens is termed as: D. spree killer
3272. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank,
A.Arrest flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in
B.Initialcontact flight diving a chase would be an example of:
C.Childcustody
D. All of the above A. Serial Murder
3259. It is the study of human society, its origin structure, B. Spree Murder
functions and direction. C. Mass Murder
a. criminology D. Multiple Murder
b. sociology 3273. What is the legal term for nighttime?
c. psychology A. sanctuary
d. anthropology B.absurdity
3260. The science of classifying the physical characteristics. C. ephitomy
a. free will D. nocturnity
b. positivism 3274. These are the rights of an accused that are derived
c. atavism from special laws enacted by Congress.
d. somatology A. Constitutional rights
3261. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity B. Civil rights
in explaining the cause of crime. C.Statutoryrights
a. geographical approach D. Natural rights
b. biological approach 3275. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total
c. psychiatric application crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
d. psychological application to the police?
3262. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of a. 22, 868
criminology. b. 22, 068
a. retribution c. 20, 250
b. rejection d. 32, 644
c. reformation 3276. What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
d. restoration A. Apprehend
3263. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the B. Search
behavior of the criminal. C. Set free
a. entomology D. Renounce
b. penology 3277. How many members composed the “Pangkat?”
c. phrenology A. 1 member
d. criminology
 C. 2 members a. court power
B. 3 members b. legal power
D. 5 members c. judicial power
3278. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods b. right power
in the study of society, which to him passes through 3288. It has original exclusive jurisdiction over public officers
stages divided on the basis of how people try to accused of committing crimes in relation to their official
understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific functions and whose salary grade is 27 and above.
understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive
stage and those who followed his writings were called, a. Solicitor General Office
a. August Comte b. Public Attorney’s Office
b. Positivists c. Ombudsman
c. Positivism b. Sandiganbayan
d. Sociologists
3279. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to 3289. It is said that the home is the cradle of human
assist destitute litigant? personality, for it where the child develops his fundamental
a. Counsel de officio attitudes and habits that last throughout his life
b. counsel de parte a. school
c. Public Attorney’s Office b. community
d. volunteer counsel c. barangay
3280. He represent the government’s position in a criminal b. family
case during court proceedings from the time of the 3290. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within
suspect’s arrest until the adjudication of his case. Barangay level.
a. Counsel de officio a. barangay tanod
b. counsel de parte b. barangay council
c. Public Attorney’s Office c. pangkat tagpagkasundo
d. prosecutor b. lupon tagapamayapa
3281. What is the highest rank in the national prosecution
service SERVICE? 3291. It refers the process whereby disputants are
a. Prosecutor V persuaded by the Punong Barangay or Pangkat to
b. Prosecutor IV amicably settle their disputes
c. Prosecutor VI a. agreement
d. Chief Prosecutor b. conciliation
c. conference
3282. The Office of the ____________represents the b. mediation
Government of the Philippines, its agencies and 3292. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result
instrumentalities and its officials and agents in any of the frustration and anger people experience over their
litigation, proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
services of lawyers a. strain theory
a. Solicitor General b. psychological theories
b. Public Attorney’s Office c. differential association theory
c. Counsel de officio d. labeling theory
b. counsel de parte
3283. An office which Investigate and prosecute on its own 3293. This theory suggest that stability and changes in
or on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any criminal and deviant behavior through time and different
public officer or employee, office or agency, when such stages in life.
act or omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or a. Self Derogation Theory
inefficient b. Anomie Theory
c. Life Course Theory
a. Solicitor General Office d. Routine Activities Theory
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Ombudsman 3294. This theory suggest that females and males are
b. Sandiganbayan becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and
3284. An office which shall independently discharge its education
mandate to render, free of charge, legal representation, A.Feminist Theory
assistance, and counselling to indigent persons in B. Paternalism
criminal, civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-judicial C.Liberation Theory
cases D. Life Course Theory
a. Solicitor General Office 3295. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father
b. Public Attorney’s Office and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power
c. Ombudsman in the family
b. Sandiganbayan a. Feminist theory
3285. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether b. Egalitarian family
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded c. Patriarchal family
belief that a crime has been committed and the d. Matriarchal family
respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held 3296. These views suggest that males such as judges,
for trial police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional
a. custodial investigation views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as
b. inquest proceeding compared to their male counterparts.
c. preliminary investigation a. Paternalism
b. arraignment b. Chivalry Hypothesis
3286. Is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to c. Masculinity
determine the legality of the arrest made especially those d. Power Control Theory
arrests made without a warrant 3297. This new branch in criminology opposes the
a. custodial investigation theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of
b. inquest proceeding all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
c. preliminary investigation a. Peacemaking Criminology
b. arraignment b. Sociology of Law
3287. It is the power to apply the laws to contests or c. Restorative Justice
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties of d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
and between the state and the private persons or between 3298. This crimes are those that the lower class commit
individual litigants in cases properly brought before the against the upper class of society in a capitalist system
judicial tribunals. a. Crimes of Passion
b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
 c. Crimes of domination and. Repression d. light felonies
d. Crimes of Lower class group 3311. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen
3299. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the nulla poena sine lege” means:
a. Proletariat a. An act done by me against my will is not my act
b. Bourgeois b. There is no crime where no law punishing it.
c. Capitalist c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
d. Ruling class d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
3300. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked 3312. He was the one who introduced the following
communism as a remedy? definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
a. George Vold regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes
b. Karl Marx within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
c. Emile Durkheim laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
d. Max Weber a) Raffaelle Garofalo
3301. This theory believes that society is divided into two b) Edwin Sutherland
groups with competing values the upper class and lower c) Cesare Beccaria
class. d) Paul Topinard
a. Class Theory 3313. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill.
b. Differential Opportunity It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
c. Conflict Theory he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical
d. Consensus Theory Theory in giving punishment is________________.
3302. A problem that occurs when offenders who have been a) Restoration
released from the system are placed in a program simply b) Treatment
because the program exist. c) Retribution
a. Diversion Movement d) Deterrence
b. Intervention
c. Net widening 3314. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
d. Primary Deviance commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
3303. It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
exercise of free will. provided by law for the offense.
a. Classical theory a. Justifying
b. positivist theory b. Exempting
c. Neo-classical theory c. Mitigating
d. radical theory d. Aggravating
3315. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
3304. His great contributions to criminology were the accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. liability.
a. Cesare Beccaria a. Exempting
b. Jeremy Bentham b. aggravating
c. Cesare Lombroso c. Justifying
d. Emile Durkheim d. Mitigating
3305. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired
the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop 3316. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
the theory of atavism. shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
a. Cesare Lombroso a. Maternity home
b. Charles Goring b. Hospital
c. Cesare Beccaria c. Rehabilitation center
d. Charles Darwin d. Foster homes
3306. According to him, people with criminal behavior, 3317. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
should be prohibited from having children. severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
a. Robert Dugdale behavior.
b. Henry Goddard a. Psychological injury
c. Charles Goring b. Mental injury
d. George Wilker c. Physical injury
d. Emotional injury
3307. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because 3318. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act It may take the form of an individualized treatment
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the program, which may include counseling, skills training,
actor. education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
a. Containment Theory psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
b. Theory of Imitation
c. Social Process Theory a. Diversion
d. Social Reaction theory b. Rehabilitation
3308. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with c. Probation
five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. d. Intervention
a. Born-criminal type 3319. If children, whether male or female, who for money,
b. insane profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
c. Criminaloid influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
d. pseudo-criminal sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
3309. These are crimes which are wrong from their very a. Child Abuse
nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other b. Child Trafficking
violations of the Revised Penal Code. c. Child Prostitution
a. Heinous crimes d. Child Exploitation
b. mala in se
c. Serious crimes
d. mala prohibita 3320. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
3310. These are crimes which are wrong only because occurring
there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an a. Control
orderly society. Examples of these are the violations of b. Recession
special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. c. Repression
a. Mala prohibita d. Prevention
b. less grave felonies 3321. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
c. Mala in se it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
 defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not
including a barangay tanod. their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in
a. Police Officer it
b. Probation Officer 4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent
c. Law Enforcement Officer and shall be treated as such.
d. Public Officer a. 2 and 3
3322. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately b. 4 and 1
unattended or inadequately attended. c. 1 and 2
a. Abandoned Child d. 3 and 4
b. Abused Child 3333. What does classical theory provides?
c. Neglected Child a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could
d. Dependent Child be controlled by regulating the reproduction of
3323. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years families
old. b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with
a. Adolescence other persons in the process of communication
b. Early adolescence c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
c. Juvenile penalty disorders
d. None of the above d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and
3324. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which the purpose of penalty is retribution
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, 3334. The theory in criminal causation focuses on the
custom and culture which society does not accept and criminal disorders, chromosomes irregularity, and
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures abnormal brain activity?
in the public interest and it is being committed by minors? a. Biological
a. Juvenile Delinquency b. Psychological
b. Minor Delinquency c. Sociological
c. Child Delinquency d. Geological
d. Youth Delinquency 3335. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6
3325. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in months or less?
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is a. National prison
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the b. Municipal jail
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any c. City jail
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but d. Provincial jail
not later than hours after apprehension. 3336. Crimes with no private offended party?
a. 8 a. Complex crime
b. 24 b. Status offense
c. 12 c. Simple crime
d. 36 d. Victimless crime
3326. This concerns to the obligations of the community to 3337. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were
individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common granted the time for their marital sexual obligation. What
advantages and sharing of common burden. do you call this affair?
a. Prosecution a. Sexual relation
b. justice b. Conjugal partnership
c. equality c. Conjugal privilege
d. trial d. Conjugal visit
3327. A probationer is allowed to do the following except? 3338. What institution conducts the training program for
a. Stay away from bad associates uniformed personnel of the BJMP?
b. Work regularly to support his family a. Fire Training Center
c. Make periodic office report b. Philippine National Jail Academy
d. Go and play in a gambling den c. PNP Training Center
3328. Which of the following are the major goals of d. Jail Management Training Institute
correction? 3339. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, the Reception and Diagnostic Center?
rehabilitation a. He is a actor and photogenic
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
3329. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the d. Photographing the inmate is part of the
offender to remain in the community subject to conditions reception procedure
imposed by the court? 3340. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration
a. Reprieve is referred to as
b. Probation a. Determinate sentence
c. Commutation b. Capital punishment
d. Parole c. Corporal punishment
3330. Which of the following is an open correctional d. Indeterminate sentence
institution known to be the best and prison without walls? 3341. Which of the following executive clemency needs the
a. Davao penal farm concurrence of the congress?
b. Sablayan penal colony a. Pardon
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm b. Amnesty
d. Iwahig penal colony c. Probation
3331. Which is called the finest penal farm in the world? d. Parole
a. Davao penal farm 3342. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted
b. Sablayan penal colony person should serve part of his sentence?
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm a. Pardon
d. Iwahig penal colony b. Parole
3332. . Under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for c. Probation
treatment of Prisoners, which of the following are the two d. Amnesty
basic principles under rules of general application to 3343. What should the court do where the accused violated
prisoners? the terms and conditions of his probation?
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of a. Court releases the probationer to the community
race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, b. Revoked and let the probationer served his
national or social origin, birth or other status sentence
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
 d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his a. Municipal prisoner
probation b. Insular prisoner
3344. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail? c. Provincial prisoner
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate d. Detention prisoner
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place 3357. It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in system wherein they confine the prisoners in single cell at
the jail where it is off- limits to inmates night but allow them to work during the day.
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official a. Auburn system
communication, transaction or investigation b. Pennsylvania system
3345. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a c. Elmira reformatory
type of offense? d. None of the above
a. Grave offense 3358. It is an institution intended to detain or house political
b. Less grave offense offenders.
c. Not so grave offense a. Iwahig Penal farm
d. Minor offense b. Davao Penal Farm
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
3346. How many hours should the jail disciplinary board d. Sablayan Prison Farm
hear and decide the case brought before it? 3359. This forerunner whereby he introduced the theory of
a. 24 hours atavism?
b. 12 hours a. Lombroso
c. 48 hours b. Becarria
d. 72 hours c. Ferri
3347. Minimum number of time in counting the inmates on d. Garofalo
daily basis? 3360. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of
a. Three times sentence?
b. Two times a. Pardon
c. Four times b. Appeal
d. Five times c. Commutation
3348. What is the duration should the probation officer d. Reprieve
submit his post sentence investigation to the court? 3361. It is the deduction of the term of imprisonment due to
a. 60 days the convict’s good behavior while serving his sentence?
b. 30 days a. Special time allowance
c. within 60 days b. Parole
d. 15 days c. Good conduct time allowance
3349. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in d. Probation
the U.S 3362. A writ ordering the confinement of a person in penal
a. Mathew Davenport Hill institution.
b. Edward Savage a. Detention order
c. John Augustus b. Commitment order
d. Teodolo Natividad c. Warrant of arrest
3350. When does probation started? d. None of the above
a. 1938 3363. Who grants probation?
b. 1841 a. Probation officer
c. 1896 b. Solicitor general
d. 1932 c. Court
3351. It is regarded as the most important program that aids d. All of the above
in the rehabilitation or prisoners 3364. Where the application for probation should be filed?
a. Recreational program a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Religious program b. Office of the Solicitor General
c. Educational program c. Trial court
d. Employment of prisoners d. Appellate court
3352. Person who are deemed instrumental on the 3365. The court shall resolve the application for probation
reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with for _.
inmates? a. Not later than 60 days
a. Chaplain b. Within 10 days
b. Warden c. Within 5 days
c. Psychologist d. Within 15 days
d. Prison guards 3366. Pending the submission of the investigation report,
3353. Person who are deemed instrumental on the the defendant may be allowed on temporary liberty
reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with through_.
inmates? a. Release on recognizance
a. Chaplain b. Bail
b. Warden c. Manifestation
c. Psychologist d. Cash bond
d. Prison guards 3367. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_.
3354. It is given to prisoners who have returned to their a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the
places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity. offense committed.
a. Good conduct time allowance b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
b. Special time allowance c. There is undue risk that during the period of
c. Visitation privileges probation the offender will commit another crime
d. Good treatment allowance d. All of the choices
3355. Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve 3368. The probationer and his probation program shall be
the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his under the control and supervision of ___?
sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the a. Probation officer
prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned the b. Board of pardons and parole
following day, how many years would be deducted from c. Court
his sentence? d. All of the above
a. 4 years 3369. Is the denial of probation appealable?
b. 8 years a. It depends on the violation
c. 9 years b. Yes
d. 11 years c. No
3356. A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment d. Partially No
would be classified as what kind of prisoner?
3370. Who shall have the control over the probationer once 3383. He advocated the Irish system which is considered by
the latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of many as one of the most famous contributor to the
another court? reformatory movement.
a. Regional Director a. Z.R. Brockway
b. Executive judge of the municipal court b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Executive Judge of the first instance c. Ceasar Lombroso
d. Appellate court d. Walter Crofton
3371. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an 3384. He is the father of probation in the Philippines
imprisonment of six months, how many years would be the a. Ferdinand Marcos
duration of his probation? b. Manuel Roxas
a. One year c. Teodulo Natividad
b. Two years d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.
c. Shall not exceed two years 3385. A Boston shoemaker who advocated in behalf of
d. Shall not be more than six years alcoholic and youthful offenders and known as the father
3372. In the hearing for the violation committed by the of probation.
probationer, the latter shall have the right to be informed of a. Mathew Davenport Hill
the violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. b. Edward Savage
This right is in pursuant to his right to ___? c. John Augustus
a. Equal protection d. Alexander Rice
b. Presumption of innocence 3386. He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
c. Miranda rights a. Hans Gross
d. Due process of law b. Edward Savage
3373. What is the effect of the termination of probation? c. John Augustus
a. Erase criminal records d. Benjamin Franklin
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as 3387. This case paved the way for the abolition of the first
a result of conviction probation law?
c. Both A and B a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
d. None of the above b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
3374. Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___? c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
a. 3 years d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
b. 1 year 3388. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified
c. 2 years applicants.
d. 4 years a. Post Investigation Report
3375. Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
convicted offenders at the RDC? c. Admission report
a. 45 days d. Post Sentence Investigation
b. 30 days 3389. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must
c. 60 days a judge decide whether to grant or deny the application for
d. 15 days probation.
3376. An inherent responsibility of a warden in seeing to it a. 5 days
that he continually motivates his staff and personnel to b. 15 days
perform at their best. c. 30 days
a. Decision making d. 60 days
b. Control of prison operation and activities 3390. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as
c. Personnel program the chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
d. Executive leadership a. PNP Chief
3377. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed b. DILG Secretary
for at least a minimum period of 5 days to ten days for the c. DOJ Secretary
conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays to d. Chief Executive
prevent physical contamination 3391. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner
a. Reception diagnostic center maybe checked at anytime.
b. Medical center a. Search and seizure
c. Quarantine unit b. Confiscation
d. None of the above c. Inspection
3378. A writ issued by the court to a correctional facility d. Operation greyhound
indicating the basis of confinement of a prisoner 3392. These are long, narrow, single decked ships propelled
a. Mittimus by sails, usually rowed by criminals.
b. Detention order a. Hulks
c. Warrant of arrest b. Ships of criminals
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus c. Galleys
3379. A code which provides “an eye for an eye, a tooth for d. none of the above
a tooth.” 3393. What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable
a. Code of Babylon inmate?
b. Code of Kalantiaw a. One is to one security officer
c. Hammurabi code b. One is to three security officers
d. Bible c. One is to two plus one security officers
3380. A French word meaning “word of honor” d. One is to one plus one security officer
a. Pardon 3394. Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in
b. Probation order to serve their sentence after final conviction of a
c. Parole competent court is known as
d. Amnesty a. Detention prisoner
3381. Refers to those who are confined in correctional b. Sentenced prisoner
facilities awaiting verdict in their cases c. Provincial prisoner
a. Prisoner d. National prisoner
b. Detainees 3395. Penology came from the latin word “poena” which
c. Probationer means
d. Offender a. Conviction
3382. It is said to be the alternative for jail confinement in b. Pain and suffering
modern penology. c. Punishment
a. Amnesty d. Deterrence
b. Parole 3396. It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an
c. Probation offending member of the society for the transgression of
d. Pardon the law
 a. Penalty b. Mess Service Branch
b. Punishment c. Budget and Finance Brach
c. Suffering d. Property and Supply Branch
d. Any of the above 3410. The unit where the prisoner is given thorough physical
3397. When different crimes should be punished with examination including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and
different penalties, punishment should therefore be immunity for the purpose of insuring that the prisoner is
a. Correctional not suffering from contagious disease?
b. Legal a. Rehabilitation Unit
c. Productive of suffering b. Quarantine Cell
d. Commensurate with the offense c. Medical and Health Center
3398. An institution for the imprisonment of persons d. RDC
convicted of major offenses refers to 3411. Who provides the security system of sound custody,
a. Jail security and control of inamtes and their movements and
b. Prison also responsible to enforce jail or prison discipline
c. Penitentiary a. Administrative Group
d. All of the above b. Security Group
3399. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 day to 12 years c. Rehabilitation Group
a. Prision correccional d. Medical Group
b. Reclusion temporal
c. Arresto mayor
d. Prision mayor 3412. What law was passed during the Aquino
3400. A criminal can seek refuge in a church in order to administration that renamed the Bureau of Prisons to
avoid punishment in a period of ninety days. This refers to Bureau of Corrections?
a. Refuge a. E.O. 292
b. Securing sanctuary b. E.O. 229
c. Hidden church c. A.O 262
d. Claiming penitentiary d. E.O. 292
3401. This were the former warships used to house 3413. Who appoints the Director of Prisons who shall be the
prisoners in the 18th century and 19th century as means of Head of the Bureau?
relieving congestion of prisones refers to a. Chief BJMP
a. Galleys b. Sec. of DILG
b. Hulks c. Chief Executive
c. Gaols d. Sec. of DOJ
d. Warships 3414. What agency has supervision and control over all the
3402. In the ancient times, who were commonly subjected national prisons or penitentiaries?
to harsh punishments? a. Bureau of Prisons
a. Middle class b. Bureau of Correction
b. Black people c. Bureau of Jail
c. Slaves d. None of the above
d. Any of the above. 3415. Which of the following statements is not true?
3403. Offenders who were convicted should be kept away a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
from the society for its protection. This is frequently called jurisdiction of the DOJ
as b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
a. Incapacitation provincial government
b. Deterrence c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
c. Penalization supervision of all jails nationwide
d. Rehabilitation d. The BJMP is under the DILG
3404. What code specified punishment according to the 3416. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?
social class of the offenders? a. Chief Executive
a. Greek Code of Draco b. DILG Sec
b. Justinian Code c. Chief BJMP
c. Burgundian Code d. Chief of BUCOR
d. Akadian Code 3417. Who appoints the Chief Inspector as warden?
3405. The establishment of the usefulness and a. DILG sec
responsibility of the offender as a productive individual is a b. Chief Executive
punishment justified by c. Chief BJMP
a. Expiation d. Chief of BuCor
b. Rehabilitation 3418. Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering
c. Atonement insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to
d. Retribution the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of
3406. The penalty of banishing a person from the place prisoners.
where he committed a crime refers to what contemporary A. Degradation
forms of punishment B. Corporal Punishment
a. Atonement C. Monotony
b. Destierro D. Mass Movement
c. Exile 3419. The public will be protected if the offender has being
d. Incapacitation held in conditions where he cannot harm others especially
3407. The early Roman place of confinement which was the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders
built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to in prison so that society will be ensured from further
a. Town Gates criminal depredations of criminals.
b. Wulnut Street Jail A. Deterrence
c. Bridewell Workhouse B. Incapacitation & Protection
d. Mamertime Prison C. Retribution
3408. What was the most popular workhouse in London D. Atonement
which was built for the employment of English prisoners? 3420.
a. Borstal prison correctional treatment for major offenders also responsible
b. Panoptican prison for the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of
c. Elmira reformatory punishment.
d. None of the choices A. John Howard
3409. Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the B.Charles Montesquieu
daily menu, prepares and cooks food and serve to C. William Penn
inmates? D. Jeremy Bentham
a. General Service Branch
3421. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided D. Jail Chaplain
prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as petty 3434. A general agreed principle that women prisoners
officer in charge. should be placed in a special building on the same site
A. Domets of France with the men prison.
C. Manuel Montesimos A. Diversification by Sex
B. Zebulon Brockway B. Segregation
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise C. Diversification by Age
3422. What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
beliefs, customs and practices, it is also reflects the level 3435. What satellite of NBP does RDC is situated?
of uprightness and morality of the people? A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 B. Camp Sampaguita
B. Law of the Talion C. Main building
C. Kalantiaw Code D. Chapel
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 3436. What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum
3423. It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves Security Prisoners?
where they were attached to workbenches and forced to A. Blue
do hard labor in the period of their imprisonment. B. Brown
A. Underground Cistern C. Tangerine
B. Ergastalum D.Gray
C. Sing-Sing Prison 3437. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del Norte, General
D. Alcatraz Prison Paulino Santos led the first contingent which opened the
3424. It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age of colony.
Enlightment” A. Davao Penal Colony
A. 1870 – 1880 B. Tagum
B. 18th century C. Panabo
C. 19th century D. Kapalong
D. 21st century E. Tanglaw
3425. It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are 3438. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the suggestion of the
confined in their own cells during the night and congregate construction of this penal institution and it was established
work in shops during the day also known as “Congregate on 1904 through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is
System”. considered a one of the most open penal institutions in the
A. Auburn Prison System world.
B. Custody Oriented Prison A. Iwahig
C. Pennsylvania Prison System B. Tagumpay
D. Treatment Oriented Prison C. Sta. Lucia
3426. The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in D. Inagawan
January 1825 and located in New York City. 3439. The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison
A. Borstal Institution and Penal Farm.
B. Elmira Reformatory I. Central III. Pusog
C. New York House of Refuge II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
D. Panoptican Prison V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
3427. One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
consequence must be in accordance with the law it is a IX. Montible X. Central
result of a judgment rendered by a court of justice. A. I, II, III, IV
A. Equal B. V and VI
B. Legal C. VII, VIII, IX & X
C. Commensurate w/ the offense D. Either of these
D. Personal 3440. Convicts committed to BUCOR are brought to RDC for
3428. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion a total period of ____ for classification and determination
Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him? of appropriate program.
A. BuCor A. 60 days
C. BJMP B. 55 days
B. PNP C. 5 days
D. AFP D. NONE
3429. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional.
What is the duration of his penalty? 3441. One of the components of RDC which is responsible in
A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y the examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional
C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y make-up.
B. 6M1D to 6 Y A. Medical Center
D. 1M&1D – 6 M B. Sociologist
3430. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio. C. Psychologist
A. Old Bilibid Prison D.Psychiatrist
B. Manila City Jail 3442. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was
C. NBP created thru ____ as one of the Tri Bureau under the
D. May Halique Estate Department of Interior and Local Government .
3431. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal Settlement. A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm B. Section 53, RA 6975
B. San Ramon Prison C. Section 23 of RA 6975
C. Sablayan Prison D. Section 60 of RA 6975
D. New Bilibid Prison 3443. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion
3432. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him?
admission it meant A. BuCor
A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and C. BJMP
Photograph B. PNP
B. Examination for Contraband D. AFP
C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record 3444. All except one is included in the command group of
Clerk BJMP
D. All of These A. Chief of Staff
3433. ____ is the Chairman of the Classification Board in B. Deputy C/BJMP
BJMP. C. Chief of BJMP
A. Assistant Warden D. Chief of Directorial staff
B. Medical Officer
C. Chief, Security Officer
3445. One of the Administrative groups in BJMP responsible B. ¼ if his earnings
for preparation of the daily menu, prepare and cook the C. ¾ of his earnings
food and serve it to inmates. D. Discretion of Warden
A. Mess Service Branch
B. General Service Branch (maintenance) 3458. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be denied if the
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial) prisoner breaks the rules and only after due process is
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics) observed.
3446. When the offender is in transit, the ratio of __ for A. right
every offender shall be observed. B. Privileges
A. 1:1+1 C. Discretion
B. 1:2 D. liberty
C. 1:7 3459. A colonist when classified by the director of the
D. 1:500 Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion
3447. When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction
demands extra precaution additional guards shall be from maximum term of forty years to ___.
employed A. 20 Years
A. High Profile offender B. 25 Years
B. Female Offender C. 30 Years
C. High-risk offender D. 35 Years
D. Either of these 3460. Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative
3448. If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary is limited to ___ hours.
rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, he shall be asked A. 3
to, manifest his ___ in writing. B. 9
A. Certification C. 6
C. Agreement D. 12
B. Manifestation 3461. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed
D. Affidavit to see the remains of a dead immediate family member?
3449. John was sentenced to serve Arresto Mayor, what A. Minimum Security
classification of sentenced prisoner is John classified? B.Maximum Security
A. Municipal Prisoner C. Medium Security
C. City Prisoner D. None of these
B. Provincial Prisoner 3462. Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period
D. Insular Prisoner not exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
3450. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate committed for the A. 30
first time. He classified as a ____ among the classification B. 90
of inmates according to privileges. C. 60
A. 1st class inmate D. 120
B. 3rd class inmate 3463. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of
C. 2nd class inmate not less than ____ paces from his charge.
D. Colonist A. 10
3451. What classification of Prisoners according to Degree B. 30
of Security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in open C. 15
conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum-security D. 45
prisoners in case they escape. 3464. In mess hall and dining area for purposes of
A. Minimum Security Prisoners precaution, the prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made
B. Medium Security Prisoners of:
C. Maximum Security Prisoners A. Wood
D. Any of the Above B. Paper
3452. What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment C. Plastic
imposable to inmates? D. Carton
A. Close Confinement 3465. It is a continuing state of good order.
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty A. Discipline
C. Reprimand B. Communication
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges C. Morale
3453. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between D. Loyalty
___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment 3466. Unload as method in searching the prisoner for
shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible possession of contraband’s inside the prison cell and
prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been compound.
proven ineffective. A. Frisking
A. 30-60 days B. Shakedown
C. 1-7 Days C. Operation Greyhound
B. 1 day D. Body Frisking
D. NONE 3467. It is considered as the highest income earner among
3454. All except one are instruments of restraints. the Philippine Correctional Institution.
A. Handcuffs A. Iwahig Penal Colony
B. Whipping Rod B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
C. Leg iron C. Davao Penal Colony
D. Strait Jackets D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
3455. Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison 3468. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
labor. A. Excessive number of inmates
A. 60 years old B. Lack of funds
B. 56 years old C. Sex problems
C. 50 years old D. Discipline
D. 21 years old 3469. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee
3456. The _____ may grant GCTA to an inmate for good who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to
behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is
violation of prison rules and regulation. charged with?
A. Director of BJMP A. B.P 85
B. Warden B. RA 4200
C. President C. B.P. 22
D. Director of Corrections D. PD 968
3457. Inmates earnings that may be used to buy his needs.
A. ½ of his earnings
3470. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another 3481. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial
to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to
while under confinement is referred to as critical posts to:
A. Proselytizing A. plug off the escape routes
B. Initiation B. protect the other inmates
C. Fraternization C. to shoot the escape
D. Inducement D. give warning shots
3471. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling 3482. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has
and use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in centers shall immediately:
Command. A. sound the alarm
A. 1st group Anti-Riot B. notify the nearest police precinct
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot D. call the warden or the director
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot 3483. The following are the duties of the custodial force in
prison, except:
3472. Within the radius by road from the confinement facility A. Censor offender’s inmate
and the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains. B. Escort inmates
A. 20 kilometer C. Inspect security devices
B. 40 Kilometer D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
C. 30 Kilometer 3484. It served as the cornerstone or rehabilitation
D. 50 Kilometer A. Religion
3473. Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a B. Education
Child in Conflict with the law after conviction of a trial C. Discipline
Court? D. Recreational
A. His sentence serve 3485. Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; ____
B. His sentence is suspended A. Social degradation
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his B. Exile
family C. Physical torture
D. His sentence is NOT suspended D. Death Penalty
3474. One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty equivalent shall 3486. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already
be deducted from the inmates sentence if, after the inmate in excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to
abandoned prison due to disorder arising security or has become causative in making the place
A. STA unsanitary.
B. GCTA A. Contraband
C. Commutation B. Paraphernalia
D.Visitation Privilege C. Prohibited items
3475. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even D.Nuisance Contraband
individuals people conflicts: 3487. It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate
A. Bodong to a jail by competent court or authority for investigation,
C. Capic trial and/or service of sentence
B. Korte Supremo A. Commitment
D. Hito B. Safekeeping
3476. The following are the aims of diversification in prison C. Entrustment
or jail, except: D. Imprisonment
A. more effective execution of treatment programs 3488. This was the right in ecclesiastical court during the
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or middle ages particularly in England.
another A. Inquisition
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk B. Incapacitation
D. none of the above C. Benefit of Clergy
3477. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal D. Retribution
sex life. 3489. The inmates may request a review of the findings of
A. Maternal Visit the Disciplinary Board and the propriety and the penalty to
B. Sodomy the ____.
C. Masturbation A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
D. Conjugal Visit B. BJMP
3478. An offender who surrenders from escaping because C. Central office/BJMP
of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement D. Warden
of the passing away of calamity shall be granted 3490. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence has been posted, the mail should be delivered to him.
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence A. 48 hours
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence B. 24 hours
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence C. 30 days
D. 60 days
3479. Which of these is known as the Release on 3491. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s
Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender stamp at the ____ of each page and on the envelope. The
charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than letter should be placed back in the same envelope and
six (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the resealed.
custody of a responsible person in the community, instead A. Back
of a bail bond- B. Conspicuous Area
A. RA 6036 C. Side
B. PD 603 D. Top
C. Act 2489 3492. In case if jailbreaks, who will immediately sound the
D. RA 9262 alarm?
3480. If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents A. Desk Officer
and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the B. Armorer
next in command or the ___ officer present shall assume C. Control Center
the command. D. Officer-in-Charge
A. Veteran 3493. It is designed to improve their communication and
B. most senior computation skills, such as the ability to read and write in
C. assistant order to enhance their individual educational level.
D. custodian A. Skills Training
B. Adult Education
 C. Secondary Education A. Two
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults B. Four
3494. Detention Prisoners are allowed to smoke cigars and C. Three
cigarettes, except in prohibited cases. The statement is – D. Five
A. Partially true 3507. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the
B. Partially false quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
C. Absolute False A. 55 days
D. Absolutely True B. 5 days
3495. All persons in custody shall before final conviction, be C. 60 days
entitled to bail as a matter of ____ D. 15 days
A. Right 3508. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment
B. preference by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
C. Privilege end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by
D. Discretion a road or path assigned to him.
3496. The visiting room officer shall be responsible for
compiling the regular visiting list for each inmate. A. 30 days
A. Special Visitor B. 50 days
B. Strange Visitor C. 40 days
C. Regular Visitor D. 60 days
D. Unusual visitor 3509. In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop
3497. ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s movements will emanate from him.
quarter and the keys shall be available all the time. A. Assistant team leader
A. Key Matron B. Team Leader
B. .Resident Matron C. Ground Commander
C. Matron D. Security Teams
D. Any of these 3510. Who among the following shall be responsible in the
3498. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of penalty of 6 years custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior
and one day to 12 years. What correctional facility he to his detention?
should be incarcerated? A. Custodial Officer
A. Bureau of Correction B. Chief of Detention Center
B. Prision Correctional C. Evidence Custodian Officer
C. Prision Mayor D. Court
D. BJMP 3511. Female detainees shall not be transported in
3499. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of the crime handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper
murder. After 12 days from the promulgation of the escort preferably aided by a police woman. The statement
sentence he escaped from his place of confinement. Abdul is
Salsalani is: A. Yes
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence B. Wholly True
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence C. Partially False
C. considered as an escaped prisoner D. Wholly False
D. Either of C 3512. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns that she is
3500. It should be executed by the interviewer, which will already overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Benny B.
exempt prison authorities from any liability arising from Rotcha, who happens to be a law student advised her that
death or injury sustained while in prison: there is no more legal ground for his continued
A. Waiver of Liability imprisonment, and Benny told her that she can go. Ms.
B. Waiver of Responsibility Malou Wang got out of jail and went home. Was there any
C. Waiver of Acceptance crime committed?
D. Waiver of Agreement A. Evasion of Service
3501. Before the actual date of interview the media shall file B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
request within ____ C. Evasion through Negligence
A. 1 day D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
B. 3 days 3513. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard who allowed
C. 2 days Ms. Malou Wang to go, is concerned, the crime committed
D. 8 days is:
3502. Who should make an immediate preparation for the A. Evasion of Service
issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
firearms? C. Evasion through Negligence
A. the Warden D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
C. Director for operation 3514. This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison.
B. Director A. Director
D. Desk Officer C. Warden
3503. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a B. Superintendent
rank of Director, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the D. Wardress
rank of Senior Superintendent. This sentence is 3515. What correctional institution houses accused persons
A. partially true awaiting investigation?
C. true A. BUCOR
B. partially false B. Jail
D. false C. Penitentiary
3504. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment D. Prison
of offenders prescribes that penal facilities should not 3516. Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail.
exceed _____ inmates. A. DILG
A. 1000 B. Governor
B. 1500 C. DOJ
C. 1200 D. LGU
D. 2000
3505. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed 3517. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal
to see the remains of a dead immediate family members? severity of punishment through a compromise with the
A. Minimum security church.
B. Maximum security A. Benefit of Clergy
C. Medium security B. None
D. None of these C. Rehabilitation
3506. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on D. Retribution
a daily basis.
3518. Richard Alden was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 3531. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth
years imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority inside the jail is allowed to be with his child?
due to his frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, A. 6 months
what would be his classification under PD 29? B. 1 year
A. Detention prisoner C. 2 years
B. Municipal prisoner D. 7 years
C.Provincial prisoner 3532. A colonist when classified by the director of the
D. Insular prisoner Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion
3519. Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction
in interaction with other persons in the process of from a maximum term of forty years to ____.
communication. A. 20 years
A. Differential Association Theory B. 25 years
B. Social Disorganization Theory C. 30 years
C. Classical Theory D. 35 years
D. Strain Theory
3520. Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a? 3533. Close confinement in Prison shall not exceed –
A. Minor offense A. 45 days
B. Moral Turpitude B. 30 to 60 days
C. Grave Offense C. 7 days
D. Less grave offense D. 15 days
3521. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that 3534. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to imprisonment on
puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection. March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the judge who
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the
B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C. judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s sentence?
Sodium Thiopenthotal A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
D. Sodium chloride (salt) B. He will have to serve his sentence
3522. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 shifting guards, X C. His sentence will be suspended
which is a Death Convict should have___. D. His sentence will be reduced
A. 2 Shifting Guards
B. 3 Shifting Guards
C. 4 Shifting Guards
D. 5. Shifting Guards 3535. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid
3523. How do inmates know that they have letters? Prison.
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted A. Mittimus
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally B. Carpeta
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the C. Commitment Order
addressee D. Prison Record
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office 3536. How many days before election does inmate are
3524. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison? prohibited from going out?
A. Reporting illegal activities A. 30 days
B. Doing prison assignment B. 90 Days
C. Using prohibited drugs C. 60 Days
D. Selling illegal commodities D. 120 Days
3525. ____ program employs prisoner in various product or 3537. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has
good-producing tasks. never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor.
A. Agricultural If you were the prison director, how many days for each
B. Industrial month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
C. Operational allowance?
D. Administrative A. 5 days
3526. The 2nd group shall not use riot control gases, except B. 8 days
on orders of the – C. 10 days
D. 12 days
A. Desk Officer 3538. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where
B. Armorer W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W
C. Control Center surrendered after 24 hours, X b. surrendered after 24
D. Officer-in-Charge hours, X surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered after
3527. Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to have a 3 days. Who among them are not entitled to Special Time
Conjugal Visit. The statement is – Allowance for Loyalty under Art. 98.
A. True A. X
B. Maybe True C. W
C. Maybe False B. Y
D. False D. Z
3528. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was appointed in 2013 at a 3539. Which of the following organizations donated the Half-
monthly salary of 19,000, how much is longevity pay in way House inside the compound of the Bureau of
2018? Corrections?
A. 9000 pesos A. Office of the President
B. 1900 pesos B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office
C. 9500 pesos C. United Nations Security Council
D. NONE D. Asia Crime Foundation
3529. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center
for adjustment process from life in prison to life is free 3540. Mail letters of a Death Convict should be documented
community within – within ____ before the execution.
A. 60 days prior to release A. 24 hours
B. 30 days prior to release B. 72 hours
C. 90 days before release C. 48 hours
D. 15 days prior to release D. NONE
3530. How many days are given to the disciplinary board of 3541. Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment
BJMP to resolve issue? program best suited to the needs of the individual
A. 5 working days prisoner, based on the findings.
B. 2 days A. treatment planning
C. 30 working days C. reclassification
D. 24 hours B. Execution of treatment Plan
D. Diagnosis
3542. An authorization that permits inmate to leave place of D. Recidivism
confinement for emergency reasons.
A. Furlough 3554. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in
B. Prisonization possession of dangerous drugs can be considered a
C. Diversification quasi-recidivist?
D. Counseling A. Yes, because he committed another crime while
serving his sentence
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in
3543. A warden who limits his role to consider policy prison
matters and major problems, his responsibility is centered C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony
on: D. A and B
A. Decision Making
B. Personnel Program 3555. What is the legal process that results in the removal
C. Public Relations of conviction from the official records?
D. Executive Leadership A. Mitigation
3544. For minimum security institution, the purpose of B. Expungement
fencing the surrounding is: C. Exoneration
A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the D. Restriction
institution. 3556. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all
B. It is designed to prevent escapes. social actions must be the utilitarian conception of the
C. It is designed for agricultural purposes greatest happiness for the greatest number?
D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the A. John Howard
surrounding. B. Jeremy Bentham
3545. It is the primary objective of custodial and security C. Cesare Becaria
division? D. George Void
A. To prevent riots 3557. Prison work assignments are usually given to
B. To implement discipline prisoners.
C. To prevent escapes A. After recreational activities
D. To help in the reformation of prisoners B. At early morning hours
3546. 230. When the death penalty was still enforced by C. Before sleeping hours
means of lethal injection, four guards keep a death watch, D. During middle hours of the day
the convict is confined in an individual cell ___ hours prior 3558. Forced is used only by correctional to,
to the scheduled time of execution which is usually 3:00 in A. Exact respect
the afternoon. B. Enforce discipline
A. 6 C. Show physical strength and power
B. 24 D. Perform assignments
C. 12 3559. One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an
D. 36 unforgiving society against criminals is ____.
3547. What is the population of a type A Jail? A. Worked out good relationship with the community
A. More than 100 B. Respond to a rehabilitation program
B. 20 or less C. Difficulties in securing employment
C. 21 to 99 D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
D. 101 to 150 3560. With respect to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for
3548. This theory assumes that people are law abiding but the Treatment of Prisoners, which of the following should
under great pressure they will resort to crime and that NOT be done to the prisoners?
disparity between goals and means provides that A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from
pressure. convicted prisoners.
A. Differential Association Theory B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult
B. Psychoanalytic Theory prisoners.
D. Strain Theory C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away
3549. This is also known as “Youth Camps” and is being from male prisoners.
maintained by Bucor where youth offenders may serve D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children
their sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison. stay with her.
A. AFP Stockade 3561. Which of the following unusual offender should be
B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps under the close supervision of the jail physician?
C. Social Camps 1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
D. A or C 2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners
3550. It was established in 1910 under the American A. 1 and 2
Regime. B. 3 and 4
A. Philippine Prison System C. 1 and 3
B. Provincial Jail System D. 2 and 3
C. Probation 3562. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP?
D. Parole A. Deputy for Administration
3551. The following are the requisite of a valid Commitment B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
Order EXCEPT: C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
A. Signature of the Judge D. Any of these
B. Seal of the Court 3563. All original appointments of officers in the jail bureau
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner shall commence with the rank of ___
D. Signature of the Clerk A. JO1
3552. A prisoner having the natural inclination or tendency B. Jail Inspector
to evade custody against the will of the custodian or from C. JO11
the place where he is held in lawful custody or D. Jail Senior Inspector
confinement. 3564. What is the minimum tank required to be appointed as
A. Escape Prone Prisoner Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner A. Superintendent
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner B. C/Superintendent
D. Alien Prisoner C. Senior Superintendent
3553. Where a person commits FELONY before beginning D. Director
to serve or while serving his sentence on a previous 3565. It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to
conviction an institution where he can be treated well until he
A. Quasi-recidivism becomes fully recovered and accepted by the community.
B. Reiteration A. Institutional Corrections
C. Habitual Delinquency B. Non Institutional Correction
 C. BJMP A. Violation Report
D. Parole B. Progress Report
3566. This is the basic needs of a convicted person under C. Infraction Report
custody. D. Summary Report
a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes 3578. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an
b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks ____ against the parolee.
A. a,b,c,d A. Warrant of Arrest
B. a,c,d,e B. Search Warrant
C. c,d,e,f C. Order of Arrest
D. a,b,d,f D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
3567. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s 3579. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?
conviction is final and executory and has already served A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
the minimum period of the sentence imposed to him. B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
A. Parole C. Minimum sentence impose
B. Word of Hohor D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in
B. Parole d’ Honeur full
D.Probare 3580. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer
3568. He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island, residence stated in the release document except if the
a penal colony in the East of Australia and initiated the petition for transfer of residence is approved by ____.
famous “Mark System”. A. Regional Director
A. Alexander Macanochie B. Probation & Parole Officer
B. Edward Savage C. BOARD
C. Walter Crofton D. Administration
D. Edward Savage 3581. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize
3569. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of Pardons and outside travel his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT
Parole. more than ___.
A. Administrator A. 30 days
B. Sec. of DOJ B. 15 days
C. Sociologist C. 20 days
D. Clergyman D. 10 days
3570. It is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law that 3582. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be
creates the board of Indeterminate Sentence which took approved by the ____.
effect on December 5, 1933. A. Regional Director
A. EO 83 S. 1937 B. Probation & Parole Officer
B. EO 94 C. BOARD
C. Act 4103 D. Administration
D. EO 292 3583. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO
3571. All except one are the requisites to be eligible for pending criminal case in any court. Application for travel
review of a Parole cases. and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration
A. Final conviction and confirmed by the ____.
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr A. Regional Director
C. served the minimum period of said sentence C. BOARD
D. None of the above B. Probation and Parole Officer
3572. All except one are objectives of the Parole System. D. Administration
A. It standardize the penalty 3584. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This
liberty is statement is:
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and A. Partially true
economic usefulness C. True
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without B. Partially false
prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and D. False
protecting social order 3585. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be
3573. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward granted.
the document to the board, ____ before the expiration of a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
prisoner’s minimum sentence. b. those who have pending criminal case;
A. 15 days c. habitual delinquencies;
B. 45 days d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
C. 30 days e. conviction is on appeal
D. 60 days A. a,b,c, and e
3574. The board shall assess and determine whether the B. a,b,c, and d
petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action C. b,c,d, and e
must be suspended by ____ of the members of the board. D. a,b,c,d, and e
A. 4 votes 3586. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of
B. Majority the President for the objective of preventing miscarriage
C. 5 members of the Board of Justice or correcting manifests injustice.
D. at least four (4) votes A. Parole
3575. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a B. Pardon
____ or specifically known as discharge on parole. C. Executive
A. Release Document D. Reprieve
B. Final Release & Discharge 3587. Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in
C. Discharge on Parole his exercise of the power to grant executive clemency?
D. Summary Report A. DOJ
3576. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the B. BOARD
parolee is to report at least once a month for those C. Administration
residing outside Metro Manila/to report at least twice a D. Administrator
month for those who are residing in Metro Manila. 3588. Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an
A. True individual within certain limits or conditions from the
B. Partially True punishment that the law inflicts for the offense he has
C. False committed resulting from the partial extinction of his
D. Partially False criminal liability.
3577. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if A. Absolute Pardon
parolee commits any violation of the terms and conditions B. Reprieve
stated in the release document. C. Commutation of Sentence
 D. Conditional Pardon 3601. Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring
3589. Pardon by the President shall be extended ____. unconstitutional of the first probation law of November 16,
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action 1937
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment A. People vs. Vera
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information B. People vs. De Vera
D. Upon the discretion of the President C. People vs. De Vega
3590. A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for D. People vs. Vega
imprisonment of “prision correctional”. 3602. How long is the period of probation of a defendant
A. Article 95 of RPC sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one
B. Article 59 of RPC (1) year?
C. Article 159 of RPC A. Not to exceed 6 years
D. A and C B. Not to exceed 8 years
3591. On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner C. Not to exceed 10 years
should be addressed to ____. D. Not to exceed 2 years
A. Board 3603. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is
B. Administrator limited to the following, EXCEPT:
C. Chairman of BPP A. Pardon is administered by the court
D. President B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
3592. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
absolute or conditional pardon if the crime committed is violation of any election law may granted without
against the national security? favourable recommendation of the Commission of
A. DFA Secretary Elections.
B. COMELEC D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
C. DOJ Secretary 3604. What court will you apply for Probation?
D. DND Secretary A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
3593. Any wilful or malicious concealing material information B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
made by the client either or after the grant of Conditional C. Same court, where you had been convicted
Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD to – D. Any of these
A. Extend the period of Supervision 3605. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document for probation, the offender applying for probation –
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
Conditional Pardon B. Maybe set free without bail
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
behavior has shown by the client D. all of these
3594. All except one are the instances wherein supervision 3606. When will the court deny application for probation of a
of parole and conditional pardon case deemed to petitioner?
archive/close. A. Petitioner is a foreigner
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board B. Petitioner is a drug dependent
against the client C. Petitioner violates the condition
B. Certificate of transfer of resident D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and 3607. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of
discharge of the client Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to apply for probation?
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the A. Yes
deceased client B. True
3595. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is C. No
limited to the following, EXCEPT: D. False
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment 3608. Violations of the following Special Laws shall
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968.
violation of any election law may be granted without A. Omnibus Election Code
favourable recommendation of the Commission of B. Robbery
Elections C. Wage Rationalization Act
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction D. Videogram Law
D. Pardon is administered by the Court
3596. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, 3609. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive
EXCEPT: Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is disqualify to apply for
A. Carnapping Probation, EXCEPT:
B. Impeachment A. Section 12
B. Estafa B. Section 14
D. Parricide C. Section 13
3597. Father of Philippine Probation. D. Section 17
A. John Augustus E. Section 70
B. Edward Savage 3610. This decree mandated the disqualification of the
C. Matthew Davenport Hill petitioner’s application for probation if an appeal is
D. Teodulo Natividad perfected.
3598. First juvenile court established in 1899 A. PD 1357
A. Chicago B. BP 76
B. Massachusetts C. PD 968
C. England D.PD 1257
D. Philippines 3611. He is a convicted defendant whose application for
3599. Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin probation has been given due course by the court but fails
Coolidge became a Law on _____. to report to the probation officer or cannot be located
A. April 26, 1878 within a reasonable period of time.
B. 1899 A. Absconding Petitioner
C. 1887 B. Absconding Probationer
D. March 4, 1925 C. Disobedient Petitioner
3600. Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue D. Uncooperative Petitioner
of ___ also known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935 3612. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and
A. HB 393 qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of
B. PD 968 right?
C. Act 4221 A. After the submission of the PSIR
D. RA 4221 B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. When his probation is approved
3613. When shall probation order take effect? A. After submission of the PSIR
A. Three days after issuance B. When the convict files a petition for probation
B. Three days prior to issuance C. When the appeal was undertaken
C. Upon its issuance D. When the probation is approved
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer 3626. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?
3614. Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply A. Criminal
for probation? B. Society
A. Infanticide C. Family
C. Simple Theft D. Governor
B. Malicious Mischief 3627. It refers to those that handle the investigation of
D.Unjust Vexation petitioners for probation, and the supervision of
3615. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional probationers, parolees and conditional pardonees.
Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers? A. Parole and Probation Administration
A. DILG Secretary B. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. President C. Secretary of Justice
C. DOJ Secretary D. Department of Justice
D. Administrator 3628. Post Sentence Investigation report must be submitted
3616. How many days are given to the court to act on by the probation officer to the court within
application for probation? A. 20 days
A. 15 days B. 60 days
B. 60 days C. 30 days
C. 10 days D. 90 days
D. 5 days 3629. Those that have been once on probation under the
3617. Probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare a Probation Law:
_____. A. are qualified to apply for probation
A. Associate Plan B. are disqualified to apply for probation
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan C. may be granted for another probation
C. Treatment Program D. should be confined in prison
D. Orientation Plan 3630. Maximum term of office for those appointed as
3618. One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to members of the Board of Pardon and Parole.
present himself to the probation officer designated to A. 3 years
undertake his supervision within ___ from receipt of said B. 5 years
order. C. 4 years
A. 24 hours D. 6 years
B. 72 hours 3631. When will you close a probation case?
C. 48 hours A. When the probationer absconds the place
D. 150 hours B. When he incurred violations
3619. When shall probation order take effect? C. When there is recommendation for revocation
A. Three days after issuance D. When the termination order is approved
B. Upon its issuance 3632. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from
C. Three Days Prior to Issuance among the citizen’s of ____
D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer A. Good religious background
3620. Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed B. High Educational Level
___. C. Good Repute and Probity
A. 15 days after granting it D. High Social Standing
B. At any time during supervision 3633. It refers to the manner or practice of managing or
C. Upon the application of the community controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons.
D. Any of these A. Penology
B. Penal Management
C. Correctional Administration
D. Correction
3634. It refers to a long, low narrow, single decked ships
propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals. A. type of
3621. If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if ship used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century.
the reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the A. Gaols
court will issue a ____. B. Galleys
A. termination order C. Hulks
B. Warrant of Arrest D. D. Mamertine Prison
C. OAR
D. Revocation Order 3635. Represented the earliest codification of Roman Law
3622. What is the effect of the recommitment of a incorporated into the Justinian Code. It is also collection
Probationer? of legal principles engraved on metal tablets and set up
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence on .
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum A.Twelve Tablets
sentence B.Burgundian Code
C. Minimum sentence impose C. Hammurabic Code
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full D. Greek code of Draco
3623. Under rules and methods employed by probation,
what is the maximum number of minor violations that 3636. The most popular workhouse in London which was
would result in the revocation of the probation order? built for the employment and housing of English prisoners.
A. 5 Violations A. Bridewell
B. 3 Violations B. Hospicio de San Michelle
C. 4 Violations C. Saint Bridget” Well
D. 2 Violations D. Walnut Street Jail
3624. Maximum number of probationers under supervision
of a probation aide 3637. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional
A. 3 Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
B. 7 A. DILG Secretary
C. 5 C. President
D. 9 B. DOJ Secretary
3625. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and D. Administrator
qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of
right?
 a. Five
b. eight
3638. It is the branch of criminology which deals with the c. Ten
management and administration of inmates: d. fifteen
a. Criminal justice 3650. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he
b. Penology shall be allowed a deduction of:
c. Victimology a. Five days
d. d. Jail Management b. ten days
c. Seven days
3639. Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden d. twelve days
by jail rules is called: 3651. GCTA means:
a. Instrument of restraint a. Good conduct turning allowance
b. contraband b. . good conduct time allowance
c. Handcuff c. Good conduct training allotment
d. leg iron d. d. none of the foregoing
3640. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district,
city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and 3652. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person
sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the custody and in custody of a responsible person.
safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from a. Property bond
justice or persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial b. Recognizance
and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary: c. Corporate surety
a. Bureau of Corrections d. Cash deposit
b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development 3653. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
b. Jail Bureau Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
c. Department of Justice  a.   Department of Justice
3641. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day b. Chief Executive
or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly c.    Judiciary
accounted for: d. Legislative
a. Two  338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to
b. Four suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence
c. Three and extinguish criminal liability.
d. d. Five   a. Parole
3642. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever c. Pardon
the frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that   b. Executive clemency
warrants limitations: d. none of the above
a. Media group 3654. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
b. news team   a.    DILG c. BUCor
c.Press pool   b.    PNP
d. public affairs d. DOJ
3643. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in 3655. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier
CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not sentence to  a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter
exceeding: term.
a. 1 month   a.    Amnesty    
b. 1 year c. Reprieve
c. 6 months   b.    Commutation
d. 6 years d. none of the foregoing
3644. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for 3656. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear
Administration and Rehabilitation and one for: of punishment.
a. Health and Care services   a.   Retribution
b. Prisons and Security b. Punishment
c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security   c.   Deterrence
d. Rehabilitation
3657. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
3645. A representative of the news media may file a written   a.    Reprieve
request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an c. Amnesty
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least:   b.    Pardon
a. One day d. Communication
b. two days
c. Three days
d. four days
3646. This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert
inmates and be affiliated into their religion: 3658. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused
a. Conversions before a court or competent authority and is temporarily
b. agitation confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial
c. Proselytizing or final judgment.
d. Captivation a. Prisoner
3647. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by b. Bail
a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months c. Detainee
depending upon the gravity of the offense committed: d. Arrest
a. One to two 3659. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
b. one to three prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
c. One to four a. Parents
d. one to five b. Offended Spouse
3648. During the 11th and successive years of following years c. Guardians
of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction d. Godfather
of __ days for each month of good behaviour: 3660. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
a. Five a. Matthew Davenport Hill
b. eight b. John Augustus
c. Ten c. Father Cook
d. fifteen d. d. Edward Savage
3649. During the following years until the 10th year, inclusive, 3661.   Which of the following is an executive clemency that
of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction requires  the concurrence of congress?
of: a.   probation    
b. Amnesty a. Parole and Probation Administration
c.   pardon b. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Parole c. Probation and Parole Administration
3662. Post sentence investigation report must  be submitted d. Board of Parole and Pardons
by the  probation officer to the court within 3676.   It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of
 a. 20 days  2006.
c. 60 days a. R.A. 7610
 b. 30 days  b. P.D. 603
d. none of the above c. R.A. 9262
3663.     Parole is a matter of ___. d. R.A. 9344
 a.    privilege 3677.    The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
 b.    right a.    Director
 c.    grace b.    Secretary of the dnd
 d. requirement                                                c.    Chief of executive
3664.    For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __. d.    Prison inspector                                   
 a.  punishment 3678.  A term means a friend of a court
 b.  treatment a. Amicos curae
 c.  enjoyment b. Amigos curae
 d.  incarceration    c. Amicus curiae
3665. PPA is headed by: d. None of the above
a. Director 3679.  The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he
b. Administrator or she may not commit another crime in the future.
c. Secretary a.   Retribution
d. Superior b.   Deterrence
3666.    Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal c.   Incapacitation
upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor. d.   Rehabilitation  
a. Remission
b. Forfeiture 3680. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
c. Fine a. Matthew Davenport Hill
d. All of the above b. Father Cook
3667.    Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good c. John Augustus
behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and d. Edward Savage
regulations 3681.  An attached agency of the Department of Justice which
a. President provides  a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders
b. Director of Prisons who are likely to respond to individualized community based
c. Warden treatment programs.
d. None of the above     a.   BJMP    
3668.   A person who is placed under probation.     b.   Bureau of  Corrections
a. Petitioner     c.   Provincial Government  
b. Probationer     d.   Parole and Probation Administration
c. Probationee 3682.     Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual
d. None of the above for an ordinary crime.
a. General pardon
3669.      It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability b. Absolute pardon
of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition. c. Conditional pardon
a. Special pardon d. Special pardon
b. Absolute pardon 3683.   Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of
c. Conditional pardon money as the consequence of violating the provisions of some
d. General pardon statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of law.
3670. Which is not a form of bail? a. Remission
a. Cash deposit b. Forfeiture
b. Corporate surety c. Fine
c. Recognizance d. All of the above
d. Title bond 3684. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is
3671.   An offender who surrenders  from escaping because  limited to the following, except:
of calamity  immediately  48 hours  after the pronouncement of      a.  Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment. 
the passing  away  of calamity  shall be granted     b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
a.    1/5 reduction of sentence violation  of any election law may be granted without favorable
b.   1/2 reduction of sentence  recommendation of the Commission of Elections. 
c.    2/5 reduction of sentence      c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
d.    2/6 reduction of sentence                                   d. Pardon is administered by the court        
3672. He is considered as the father of probation in the 3685.  It refers to commission of another crime during service
Philippines. of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
a. Ferdinand Marcos       a.   Recidivism    
b. Teodulo Natividad       b.   Delinquency
c. Fidel Ramos       c.   Quasi-recidivism
d. Antonio Torres       d.   City prisoner 
3673.  The following are forms of executive clemency, 3686. It refers to leniency or mercy.
EXCEPT a. Power
a.    Commutation         b. Clemency
 b.    Reform model c. Grace
 c.    Amnesty d. Damages
 d.    Pardon      3687. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a
3674. An agency under the Department of Justice that is certain category.
charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, a. Special pardon
that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of b. Absolute pardon
more than three (3) years c. Conditional pardon
 a.   BJMP     d. General pardon
 b.   Bureau of Corrections 3688.   During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of
 c.   Provincial Government   an inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for
 d.   Parole and Probation Administration each month for displaying good behavior?
3675.  Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of a. 10 days
what government agency b. 15 days
c. 8 days a.    Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. 5 days   b.    Department of Justice
3689.   The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in   c.    Department of the Interior and Local Government
the state which exempts an individual from the punishment   d.    Department of Health
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by
the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole 3701. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending
and Pardon is  called: member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
a. Amnesty a. incarceration
b. Parole b. floggings
c. Probation c. ordeal
d. Pardon         d. punishment
3690. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.
a. Reprieve 3702. This code introduced the concept of restitution. But
b. Amnesty punishments were meted according to the social class of
c. Probation the offender:
d. Commutation a. Justinian code
3691. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a b. The Greeks
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his c. Burgundian code
prison sentences. d. Code of Hammurabi
a. Parole
b. Pardon 3703. According to this ancient law that was practice in the
c. Probation areas of Babylon, The killer is answerable not to the family
d. None of the above but to the king:
3692.  The who investigates  for the  court a referral  for a. Code of Hammurabi
probation or supervises a probationer or both b. Roman twelve tables
a. police officer  c. Pharaoh’s law
b. probationer officer d. Burgundian code
c. intelligence officer 3704. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the
d. law enforcer   detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
                                         a. Inquisition
3693.   When does probation revocable before the final b. Lateran council
discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of c. Ecclesiastical court
any of the conditions of probation.    d. Tortio millenio adviniente
a. any time during probation 3705. borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer so that their profitability can be maximized not out of
c. after 1 year under probation humanitarian reasons as the government and the merchants
d. none of the above want to make it appear:
a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners
3694. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners
been subsequently convicted of another crime; c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners
a. progress report d. US convention for treatment of prisoners
b. violation report 3706. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal
c. infraction report lords instituted official methods by which God could indicate
d. arrest report who was innocent and who was guilty. One such method was
called:
3695. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT a. Trial by fighting
one: b. Trial by ordeal
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence c. Trial by combat
b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty, d. Dei indicum
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment 3707. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this
c. those who are habitual delinquents was tied to the crime committed:
d. none of the above a. Banishment
b. Death
3696. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of c. Torture
an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days d. Mutilation
for each month for displaying good behavior? 3708. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the
a. 10 days public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the
b. 15 days latter to undergo institutional treatment program:
c. 8 days a. Solitary confinement
d. 5 days b. Punishment
c. Floggings
3697. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment d. Imprisonment
for a time after conviction and sentence. 3709. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served
a. Reprieve part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re-
b. Amnesty introducing them to free life:
c. Probation a. Probation
d. Commutation b. Parole
c. Pardon
3698. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction. d. Executive clemency
a. Administrator 3710. This school argues that since children and lunatic
b. Warden cannot calculate pleasure and pain they should not be
c. Director prepared as criminals and as such that they should not be
d. Commander punished:
a. Classical school
3699. Among the following, which has the authority to grant b. Neo classical school
parole? c. Positivist school
 a.    President d. Hedonism
 b.    Board of Pardons and Parole 3711. This approached of penology assessed at the time of
 c.    Director of Prison French Revolution:
 d.    Court      a. Classical school
                             b. Neo classical school
3700. The Bureau of Corrections is under the: c. Positivist school
d. Hedonism
3712. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man been known to resort to this form of punishment during the
who needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that time of inquisition for non believers, witches and heretics:
his illness which has something to do with the commission of a. stoning to death
crime may be cured”: b. breaking on a wheel
a. Corrections c. burning alive
b. Penology d. trial by ordeal
c. Classical 3725. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land
d. Positivist started to intensify in 17th Century.
3713. This school views as crime as social phenomenon: a. Absolutely true
a. Classical school b. Probably true
b. Neo classical school c. Absolutely false
c. Positivist school d. Probably false
d. Sociology
3714. It is the study and practice of a systematic management 3726. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for
in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the release on the basis of individual response and progress
custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders: within the correctional institution and a service by which they
a. Penology are provided with necessary control of guidance as they served
b. Corrections the remainder of their sentence with in the free community:
c. Correctional administration a. Probation
d. Penal management b. Parole
3715. a Latin word which means pain or suffering: c. Imprisonment
a. Penology d. Reprieve
b. Poena 3727. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on:
c. Peona a. December 5, 1933
d. All of the abovementioned b. December 25, 1933
3716. It is the field of criminal justice administration which c. December 5, 1955
utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the government d. December 25, 1955
and the society in handling individuals who have been 3728. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT:
convicted of an offense: a. Granted by the court
a. Penology b. He was once on Probation
b. Corrections c. Must not have committed any crime against national
c. Criminal justice security
d. All of the above d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
3717. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code: 3729. The following are the unanticipated consequence of
a. Code of drakon punishment; EXCEPT:
b. Code of Hammurabi a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing
c. Justinian code crime during night time
d. Burgundian code b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the
3718. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years law)
before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient c. Punishment elevates the criminal
Sumeria: d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals
a. king Ur Nammu 3730. It assumes that every individual has free will and knows
b. king Herodes the penal laws:
c. Emperor Justin a. Classical school
d. None of the above b. Neo classical
3719. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder, c. Positivist
assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations with 3731. This school focuses on crimes and on the
noble or middle class women and giving aid or comfort to corresponding punishment attached to it:
escape offender: a. Classical school
a. Burgundian code b. Neo classical
b. Drakonian code c. Positivist
c. Law of Talion 3732. This school maintains that criminals must be
d. The Greeks rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government and
3720. This people love to philosophize that their brand of should not be punished contrary to other schools ideology:
justice was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that a. Classical school
justice should reform the offender but must also serve as b. Neo classical
deterrence to others from committing offense: c. Positivist
a. The Romans 3733. BJMP stands for:
b. The Greeks a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. The Jews b. The government
d. The Americans c. The jail bureau
3721. Today, the stand of the Church has become a d. None of the abovementioned
complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope 3734. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are
John Paul II who reversed this so called: administered and controlled by the Provincial Government
a. Eclessiastical court (Governor).
b. Inquisition STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the
c. Ordeal supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local
d. Culture of death Government.
3722. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
practice of the Israelites in Jesus time: b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
a. stoning to death c. Both statement is true
b. breaking on a wheel d. Both statement is false
c. burning alive 3735. The following institutions are controlled and
d. trial by ordeal supervised by our government EXCEPT:
3723. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a a. New Bilibid Prisons
board made of wood and then had their bones systematically b. Manila City Jail
broken: c. Iwahig Penal Colony
a. stoning to death d. Elmira Reformatory
b. breaking on a wheel 3736. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an
c. burning alive AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum
d. trial by ordeal security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer perform
3724. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once manual work:
practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also a. More than 60
b. more than 50 c. Alcatraz
c. More than 70 d. Walnut street jail
d. more than 80 3750. This is considered as the “institution of silent
3737. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence:
relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased a. Auburn
relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road b. Pennsylvania
from prison: c. Walnut street
a. 10 d. Irish prisons
b. 30 3751. He established an agricultural colony for male
c. 20 youth:
d. d. 40 a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
3738. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from b. Sir Walter Crofton
mandatory labor: c. Manuel Montesinos
a. 50 d. Domer of france
b. 60 3752. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal
c. 55 Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia:
d. 65 a. Alexander Macanochie
3739. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform: b. Domer of France
a. Tangerine c. 8Sir Walter Crofton
b. Blue d. Zebulon Brockway
c. Brown 3753. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was
d. Yellow also referred to as the Irish System:
3740. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform: a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
a. Tangerine b. Manuel Montesinos
b. Blue c. Sir Walter Crofton
c. Brown d. Alexander Macanochie
d. Yellow 3754. He was the superintendent of the Elmira
3741. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform: Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of grades
a. Tangerine for prisoners:
b. Blue a. Zebulon Brockway
c. Brown b. Alexander Macanochie
d. Yellow c. Manuel Montesinos
d. Domer of France
3742. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or 3755. The progressive development of the prison system
custody by an inmate: came to the middle of the __ century:
a. Detention a. 18th
b. emancipation b. 19th
c. Release of prisoner c. 20th
d. escape d. 21st
3743. The following are considered instruments of restraint; 3756. This law brought about extensive reforms in the
EXCEPT: prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be
a. Leg irons built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement with
b. whipping rod labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’:
c. Straight jacket a. ACT of 1890
d. handcuffs b. ACT of 1790
3744. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders: c. ACT of 1690
a. 100 or more d. ACT of 1590
b. 21- 99
c. 150 or more
d. 20 or less
3745. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders:
a. 21 – 99
b. 120 3757. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large
c. 20 or less rooms for the inmates:
d. 150 a. Auburn Prison
3746. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders: b. Pennsylvania
a. 21 – 99 c. Walnut Street
b. 120 d. Irish Prisons
c. 20 or less 3758. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is
d. 150 founded:
3747. This correctional facility introduced individuals a. 1875
housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the b. 1876
day: c. 1877
a. Elmira reformatory d. 1888
b. Borstal institution 3759. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain
c. Auburn prison system which organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty
d. Pennsylvania prison system officer in charge:
3748. His progressive move was noted when the convicts a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
after good behavior were given marks and after accumulating b. Manuel Montesinos
the required number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving c. Alexander Maconochie
convicts: d. Sir Walter Crofton
a. Sir Walter Crofton 3760. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar
b. Alexander Macanochie to the underground cistern of long ago rome:
c. Zebulon Brockway a. St Michael System
d. Manuel Montesinos b. Sing-Sing prisons
3749. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to c. Maine State prisons
remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive d. Wal nut street
practices and veered towards reformation and treatment 3761. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was
educational and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in
way to treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them:
rules of the outside society: a. Penal guards
a. Elmira reformatory b. Immediate supervisors
b. Sing-sing prisons c. House fathers
d. Big brothers 3773. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon
3762. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to based on the recommendation of
lessen their period of imprisonment should be confined in a A.    Bureau of Corrections            
singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months        B.    Office of the Executive Secretary
with a reduce diet:        C.    Board of Pardon and Parole
a. 6 months        D.    Parole and Probation Administration
b. 7 months
c. 8 months 3774. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration
d. 9 months is referred to as
3763. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an a. Determinate sentence
equivalent to a modern day parole: b. Capital punishment
a. Progressive stage system c. Corporal punishment
b. Spanish system d. Indeterminate sentence
c. Criminal justice system 3775. Which of the following executive clemency needs the
d. None of the foregoing concurrence of the congress?
3764. It features consisted solitary confinement of a.Pardon
prisoners in their own cell day and night: a. Amnesty
a. Auburn system b. Probation
b. Pennsylvania system c. Parole
c. St Michael System 3776. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted
d. Irish system person should serve part of his sentence?
3765. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as a.Pardon
the father of prison reform in the United States of America: b.Parole
a. Alexander Maconochie c.Probation
b. Zebulon Reed Brockway d.Amnesty
c. Sir Walter Crofton 3777. How many days before election does inmate are
d. Domer of France prohibited from going out?
3766. It is considered the best reform institution for young A. 30 days
offenders: B. 90 Days
a. Borstal Institution C. 60 Days
b. St. Michael Institution D. 120 Days
c. Auburn System 3778. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has
d. Pennsylvania never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor.
3767. This is the discipline being implemented in If you were the prison director, how many days for each
Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
is responsible for the actuations of all the others: allowance?
a. Rough Rider Industries A. 5 days
b. I am my Brother’s keeper B. 8 days
c. Conditional setting C. 10 days
d. collective responsibility D. 12 days
3779. The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to
3768. Sweden, a convict may undergo probation with court within___________?
community service and render service to the community A.    10-days period           
for ___ to ____ hours depending on the seriousness of the        B.    30-days period
crime committed:        C.    15-days period
a. 50 – 250        D.    60-days period
b. 40- 280 3780. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the
c. 40 – 240 quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
d. 50 – 260 A. 55 days
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked B. 5 days
to a witness who is unwilling to testify? C. 60 days
A.    Intelligent             D. 15 days
       B.    Misleading
       C.    Unresponsive
       D.    Leading 3781. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment
3769. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by
vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the a road or path assigned to him.
criminal?
A.    Retribution             A. 30 days
       B.    Restoration B. 50 days
       C.    The Executive C. 40 days
       D.    The Quasi-Judiciary D. 60 days
3770. The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to 3782. Who among the following may be granted conditional
court within___________? pardon?
A.    10-days period            a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by
       B.    30-days period government physician
       C.    15-days period b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
       D.    60-days period c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
3771. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he
disposition,documentation and appropriate order? broke his probation conditions
A.    Bureau of Corrections             3783. The following are considered minor offenses of an
       B.    Bureau of Immigration and inmate, EXCEPT:
Deportation a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
       C.    Board of Pardons and Parole b. Failing to stand at attention and give due
       D.   National Bureau of Investigation respect when confronted by or reporting to
3772. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, any officer or member of the custodial force
EXCEPT: c. Willful waste of food
A.    The offended party            d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
       B.    other public officers orderliness in his quarter and/or
       C.    any peace officer surroundings
       D.    Offender 3784. What documents are attached to the Release
Document of the parolee?
 1. Prison record
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
4. Order of Court
a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
3785. An advantageous result in the integration of
correctional agencies is:
a. More physical facilities to maintain
b. More prisoners to supervise
c. Divided resources such as manpower and
finances
d. Better coordination of services and
increased cost-efficiency
3786. A petition for the grant of absolute or conditional
pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the
_______ if the crime committed by the petitioner is against
national security.
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
b. Secretary of Justice
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local
Government
3787. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
maximum penalty for the offense he may be
found guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is prision correccional
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
more than the possible maximum term of
punishment of the offense he may be found
guilty of
3788. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1)
day
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years
and one (1) day
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
and one (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one
(1) day
3789. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of
_____________ as follows: retribution, deterrence,
incapacitation and rehabilitation.
a. Criminal intent
b. Criminal mind
c. Criminal sanction
d. Criminal action
3790. The system of key control in a jail includes:
a. An updated system of monitoring and control
of keys
b. A documented inventory of security
personnel
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting
them
3791. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
disposition, documentation and appropriate order?
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. National Bureau of Investigation
3792. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted
to court within _____________.
a. 10-day period
b. 30-day period
c. 15-day period
d. 60-day period
3793. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon
based on the recommendation of:
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Office of the Executive Secretary
3794. Which of the following are classified as detainees?
1. Accused person who is confined in jail while
undergoing investigation
2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
of undergoing trial
3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
final judgment
4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
convicted to serve a prison term
a. 3, 4 and 1
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
3795. Why is probation service analogous to parole service?
a. Both have similar investigation and
supervision functions.
b. Both services are performed by the
prosecutors.
c. Both services are performed by alcoholics.
d. Both services are under the courts.
3796. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation
program is exercised by:
a. The Chief of Police of the place where
he/she resides
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who placed him on probation
3797. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is
charged with?
a. Batas Pambansa 95
b. Batas Pambansa 85
c. Batas Pambansa 105
d. Batas Pambansa 965
3798. What is the primary purpose of the presentence
investigation?
a. To help the judge in selecting the
appropriate sentence of the offender
b. To exonerate the offender
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend
himself
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
3799. According to the control theory, crime and
delinquency result when an individual’s bond to
________________ is weak and broken.
a. Behavior
b. Police
c. Law
d. Society
3800. A drug user who is placed under probation may be
made to serve his sentence by the court if he
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
b. Commits another offense
c. He is 21 years old
d. Violates any of the conditions of his
probation
3801. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white crystalline
substance rolled in a transparent sachet and she
suspected it to be “shabu”. What should he do first?
a. Record the incident in the logbook
b. Bring the substance to NBI
c. Properly identify the substance
d. Properly preserve the evidence
3802. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall
be treated _________________.
a. Comprehensively
 b. Appropriately
c. Confidentially
d. Judiciously
3803. Is the court order revoking the grant of probation
appealable?
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable
c. It depends on the outcome of the
investigation
d. It depends on the violations committed
3804. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to
vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the
criminal?
a. Retribution
b. Restoration
c. Rehabilitation
d. Deterrence
3805. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
a prison sentence?
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
3806. There are various types of prison programs. For what
purpose is a rehabilitative program?
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence
b. It employs prisoners in various products or
good-producing tasks
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills
or educational achievement
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like
laundry and janitorial
3807. There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some
items in their cell. You are the guard on duty. What will
you do?
a. Invite both of them to the office and
investigate the matter
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
heated discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the
culprit
3808. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the
Court to pay certain amounts to the victim as part of his
civil liability. To whom shall he pay the amount for
remittance of the victim?
a. Municipal treasurer
b. Cashier of the trial court
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
d. Cashier of the Probation Office
3809. The ______________ model of correctional institution
focuses in security, discipline and order:
a. Rehabilitative
b. Reintegration
c. Medical
d. Custodial
3810. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences
of residents with crimes which are not usually reported to
the police. What are these studies called?
a. Population surveys
b. Police surveys
c. Victimization surveys
d. Information surveys
3811. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a
little more care than other inmates. Which of the following
should NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical
staff regularly
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
prescribed diet
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
inmate
3812. What is the classification of the prisoner’s offense of
possession of lewd or pornographic literature and/or
photographs?
a. Minor offense
b. Less grave offense
c. Victimless offense
d. Grave offense
3813. Juveniles are not capable of committing deviant acts,
and what are considered deviant acts are deviant only by
mainstream standards, not by the offender’s standards.
This assumption is advanced by the ________________
theory.
a. Social
b. Juvenile
c. Cultural deviance
d. Choice
3814. If people fear being apprehended and punished, they
will not risk breaking the law. This view is being held by
the __________ theory.
a. Displacement
b. General deterrence
c. Discouragement
d. Incapacitation
3815. One of the following is NOT a gauge in determining
the age of the child and that is:
a. Baptismal certificate
b. Birth certificate
c. Looks
d. Warts
3816. What do you call the monitoring and support of
juveniles who have been released from custody or
supervision by the juvenile court.
a. After care
b. Welfare
c. Duty
d. Concern
3817. The scientific approach to the study of criminal
behavior is ____________________.
a. Research
b. Survey
c. Criminology
d. Study
3818. To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what
portion of the sentence must have been served by a
petitioner-prisoner?
a. At least one half of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence
b. At least one half of the maximum of his
indeterminate sentence
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his
indeterminate sentence
d. At least one third of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence
3819. Who among the following can apply for release under
the Law on Release on Recognizance?
a. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is three (3) years and above
b. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is twelve (12) months and above
c. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is not more than six (6) months
d. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is six (6) months and above
3820. Which of the following is NOT an objective in the
conduct of interview of probation applicant?
a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
b. To determine how the person shall respond
to supervision
c. To gather information about the person
d. To determine his paying capacity
3821. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
probation in the United States?
a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Alexander Maconochie
c. John Murray Spear
d. John Augustus
3822. What is meant by the concept of probation which is
from the Latin word “probatio” and had historical roots in
the practice of judicial reprieve?
a. Live with integrity
b. Testing period
 c. Walk with faith
d. Out of the institution
3823. Sociologists look at corrections as:
a. The intervention which documents the
attitudinal response of offenders and staff to
processes of punishment
b. The medium through which prisoners
change their behavior and attitudes
c. The consolidation of interactions between
correctional officers and the prisoners
d. A total institution in which the basic
physiological needs of prisoners were to be
met away from the outside world
3824. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
a. Inmates’ health
b. Prison security
c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
d. Prison industry
3825. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a
thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed
guards:
a. Maximum security facility
b. Medium security facility
c. Super maximum security facility
d. Minimum security facility
3826. Which of the following procedures should be
observed in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
1. They should be segregated especially during the
withdrawal period
2. They should be closely supervised to prevent
attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation
3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
unless prescribed by a physician
4. They should be transferred to mental institution of
proper psychiatric treatment
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 3, 4 and 1
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
3827. A prisoner who is aggressive, violent, quarrelsome
and does not cooperate with other inmates is referred to
as
a. Squealer
b. Sucker
c. Hustler
d. Tough
3828. When does an applicant who was granted probation
report to the assigned Probation Officer for Interview?
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of
probation order
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of
probation order
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his
receipt of the probation order
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of
probation order
3829. What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release
and Discharge of a Parolee?
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Department of Justice
3830. Pedro was arrested by the police for theft in the
amount of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police station
and an administrative record of the arrest was prepared.
He was fingerprinted, interrogated and placed in a line-up
for identification by witnesses. What process did he
undergo?
a. Preliminary hearing
b. Booking
c. Trial
d. Indictment
3831. The “Discharge on Parole” issued by the Board to the
parolee, and also issued by the President of the
Philippines to a pardonee upon the Board’s
recommendation.
a. Release document
b. Release folders
c. Release signatures
d. Release notes
3832. What is called the body of unwritten guidelines which
expresses the values, attitudes and types of behavior that
older inmates demand of younger ones?
a. Code of jail conduct
b. Rehabilitation guidelines
c. Code of silence
d. Inmate social code
3833. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed
when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and
conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon
and Parole
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders
the arrest of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board
finds that the continuation of his parole is
incompatible with public welfare
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 4, 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3, 4 and 1
3834. You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’
mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and
sentences. What shall you do?
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
give it to the inmate
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
contents to determine the real meaning of
the names and sentences
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
addressee
3835. The classical theory of criminology provides that the
basis for criminal liability is ______________________
a. Individual’s thinking
b. Individual’s mental state
c. Human free will
d. Human facilities
3836. He said the “crime must be considered an injury to
society, and the only rational measure of crime is the
extent of injury.”
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. James Wilson
d. John Howard
3837. What is the effect of the grant of probation?
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
b. The execution of sentence is suspended
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled
3838. To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that
they can engage in producing goods?
a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
d. Administrative
3839. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the
custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical
posts armed with their issued firearms to:
a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Protect the other inmates
c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Give warning shots
3840. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a
petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the
Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
for prison record and carpeta
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
of the minimum of the prisoner’s
indeterminate sentence
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
prison record and carpeta
 d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
BUCOR Director of the request made by the 3852. The approval of the application of probation is done
BPP for the prison record and carpeta by the Judge thru the issuance of
a. Probation Citation Ticket
3841. Which of the following contributes to prison violence? b. Probation Order
a. Prison industry c. Probation Certificate
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including d. Probation Clearance
overcrowding and threats of homosexual
rapes 3853. According to this theory, social actions are repeated
c. Conjugal visits (or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out the actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
and work a. Containment
3842. Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a b. Differential Association
released prisoner to lead a straight life? c. Operant Conditioning
a. Scientific advances have made modern d. Differential Identification
living more pleasant 3854. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
b. Police conduct close supervision on released under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
prisoners a. Strain theory
c. Lasting reformation must come from within b. Differential association theory
and cannot be imposed c. Social learning theory
d. Many of his contacts and friends are d. Psychoanalytic theory
underworld characters 3855. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
3843. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what a prison sentence?
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? a. Parole
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters b. Commutation of sentence
b. Saturate the area with riot gas c. Absolute pardon
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their d. Conditional pardon
respective cell 3856. It is a report on the background of the convict,
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial
3844. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees? of application of probation.
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole a. Probation Report
b. Probation and Parole Administration b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Bureau of Corrections c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Department of Justice d. Pre-Trial Report
3845. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation 3857. By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside
based on the report of the prison or jail known?
a. Social worker a. Gleaning
b. Probation officer b. Hustling
c. Prosecutor c. Benting
d. Police office d. Vending

3846. What law grants probation to first time offenders who 3858. There are various types of prison programs. What
are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years? type of program that secures prisoner from escape or
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 violence?
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 a. Maintenance
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 b. Rehabilitative
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 c. Industrial
3847. An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance d. Security
is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is: 3859. The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid
a. Three (3) years and above Prison is called
b. Not more than six (6) months a. Carpeta
c. Twelve (12) months and above b. Released Document
d. Six (6) months and above c. Commitment Order
3848. Which of the following is the prison administrator’s d. Mittimus
tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation? 3860. The founder of the Classical School of Criminological
a. Leadership Theory.
b. Supervision a. John Howard
c. Activity b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Recreation c. Cesare Lombroso
3849. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang d. Cesare Beccaria
Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called 3861. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants
_______________ for counseling and therapy. pardon?
a. Recreation Center a. Secretary of Justice
b. Congregate Group b. President of the Philippines
c. Half-way House c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
d. Diagnostic Center d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
3850. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy 3862. What guarantees the appearance in court of a
Bentham? defendant granted release on recognizance?
a. Utilitarianism a. His/her promise to live a new life
b. Rehabilitation b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
c. Reformation c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment,
d. Conformance etc.
3851. Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of d. His/her capacity to raise bail
serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision
correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for 3863. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their
probation? minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 or participating in various types of vocational, educational
day and treatment programs.
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 a. Good time
day b. Credits
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 c. Days off
years
 d. Vacation 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
3864. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
prisoner for parole? b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate c. All of those listed above
sentence d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a 3875. The institution during the Golden Age of Penology in
final judgment of conviction 1870 to 1880 that used parole extensively.
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less a. Irish Prison System
the good conduct time allowance earned b. Elmira Reformatory
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence c. Federal Bureau of Prisons
a. 4, 1 and 2 d. Irish Parole Organization
b. 2, 3 and 4 3876. Strip search should be conducted:
c. 3, 4 and 1 a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are
d. 1, 2 and 3 witnesses
3865. When an accused is released from imprisonment on b. At the warden’s office
his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail
the undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee personnel
the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the
a. Promise others to avoid further embarrassment
b. Acknowledgment 3877. Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century
c. Surety in
d. Recognizance a. Japan
3866. According to the routine activities theory, the volume b. U.S.A.
and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the c. England
following, EXCEPT: d. Ireland
a. Presence of motivated offenders
b. Absence of capable guardians
c. Availability of suitable targets 3878. You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’
d. Absence of motivated offenders mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and
3867. A group that has a short history, limited size, and little sentences. What shall you do?
define territory is a type of gang known as: a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
a. Status b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
b. Sporadic give it to the inmate
c. Criminal c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
d. Collective contents to determine the real meaning of
3868. The correctional program which enables an individual the names and sentences
to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community addressee
living all at the same time is referred to as 3879. The classical theory of criminology provides that the
_______________ basis for criminal liability is ______________________
a. Livelihood program a. Individual’s thinking
b. Guidance counseling b. Individual’s mental state
c. Education program c. Human free will
d. Religious program d. Human facilities
3869. What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial 3880. He said the “crime must be considered an injury to
environment within the prison to help the inmates develop society, and the only rational measure of crime is the
noncriminal ways to coping outside? extent of injury.”
a. Psychotherapy a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Behavior therapy b. Cesare Beccaria
c. Occupational therapy c. James Wilson
d. Milieu therapy d. John Howard
3870. Prisoners should not be given corporal punishment 3881. What is the effect of the grant of probation?
nor confined in dark cells or sweat boxes as these are: a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
a. Somewhat prohibited b. The execution of sentence is suspended
b. Relatively prohibited c. The probationer is sent to prison
c. Absolutely prohibited d. The prison term is doubled
d. Fairly prohibited 3882. To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that
3871. Which does not form part of the basic principles for they can engage in producing goods?
riot control? a. Industrial
a. Preparation of a specific plan of action b. Operational
b. Dissemination of plan to everyone c. Agricultural
c. Rapid execution of plan d. Administrative
d. Firmness in executing the plan 3883. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the
3872. Prison time is considered a dead time when minutes custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical
seem to crawl and the soul grows bitter. Which of the posts armed with their issued firearms to:
following mitigate the oppressiveness of time? a. Shoot at the escapees
a. Administrative program b. Protect the other inmates
b. Security programs c. Plug off the escape routes
c. Rehabilitation programs d. Give warning shots
d. Custodial program 3884. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a
3873. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the
(3) years and one (1) day to death, is known as: Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
a. Provincial Prisoner a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
b. Insular Prisoner BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
c. City Prisoner for prison record and carpeta
d. Municipal Prisoner b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
of the minimum of the prisoner’s
3874. How is an offender released from prison or jail? indeterminate sentence
1. After service of sentence c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
2. Issuance of order of the court BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
3. Grant of parole prison record and carpeta
4. Grant of pardon
5. Grant of amnesty
 d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
BUCOR Director of the request made by the 3896. The approval of the application of probation is done
BPP for the prison record and carpeta by the Judge thru the issuance of
a. Probation Citation Ticket
3885. Which of the following contributes to prison violence? b. Probation Order
a. Prison industry c. Probation Certificate
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including d. Probation Clearance
overcrowding and threats of homosexual
rapes 3897. According to this theory, social actions are repeated
c. Conjugal visits (or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out the actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
and work a. Containment
3886. Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a b. Differential Association
released prisoner to lead a straight life? c. Operant Conditioning
a. Scientific advances have made modern d. Differential Identification
living more pleasant 3898. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
b. Police conduct close supervision on released under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
prisoners a. Strain theory
c. Lasting reformation must come from within b. Differential association theory
and cannot be imposed c. Social learning theory
d. Many of his contacts and friends are d. Psychoanalytic theory
underworld characters 3899. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
3887. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what a prison sentence?
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? a. Parole
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters b. Commutation of sentence
b. Saturate the area with riot gas c. Absolute pardon
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their d. Conditional pardon
respective cell 3900. It is a report on the background of the convict,
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial
3888. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees? of application of probation.
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole a. Probation Report
b. Probation and Parole Administration b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Bureau of Corrections c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Department of Justice d. Pre-Trial Report
3889. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation 3901. By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside
based on the report of the prison or jail known?
a. Social worker a. Gleaning
b. Probation officer b. Hustling
c. Prosecutor c. Benting
d. Police office d. Vending

3890. What law grants probation to first time offenders who 3902. There are various types of prison programs. What
are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years? type of program that secures prisoner from escape or
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 violence?
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 a. Maintenance
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 b. Rehabilitative
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 c. Industrial
3891. An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance d. Security
is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is: 3903. The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid
a. Three (3) years and above Prison is called
b. Not more than six (6) months a. Carpeta
c. Twelve (12) months and above b. Released Document
d. Six (6) months and above c. Commitment Order
3892. Which of the following is the prison administrator’s d. Mittimus
tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation? 3904. The founder of the Classical School of Criminological
a. Leadership Theory.
b. Supervision a. John Howard
c. Activity b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Recreation c. Cesare Lombroso
3893. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang d. Cesare Beccaria
Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
_______________ for counseling and therapy. 3905. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants
a. Recreation Center pardon?
b. Congregate Group a. Secretary of Justice
c. Half-way House b. President of the Philippines
d. Diagnostic Center c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
3894. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism 3906. What guarantees the appearance in court of a
b. Rehabilitation defendant granted release on recognizance?
c. Reformation a. His/her promise to live a new life
d. Conformance b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
3895. Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment,
serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision etc.
correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for d. His/her capacity to raise bail
probation?
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 3907. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their
day minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 or participating in various types of vocational, educational
day and treatment programs.
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 a. Good time
years
 b. Credits b. Teodolo C Natividad
c. Days off c. Edward N Savage
d. Vacation d. Mattew Davenport
3908. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a
prisoner for parole? 3916. Which of the following is a prerogative of the chief
1. Confinement in jail or executive with concurrence of congress:
prison to serve an a. probation
indeterminate sentence b. amnesty
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to c. pardon
a final judgment of conviction d. parole
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence 3917. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims
less the good conduct time allowance earned such as gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence a. Compound crime
a. 4, 1 and 2 b. Complex crime
b. 2, 3 and 4 c. Blue collar crime
c. 3, 4 and 1 d. Victimless crime
d. 1, 2 and 3 3918. An open institution usually a penal form or camp.
3909. When an accused is released from imprisonment on a. Maximum security institution
his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon b. Minimum security institution
the undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee c. Medium security institution
the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: d. None of these
a. Promise 3919. They assist probation and parole office in the
b. Acknowledgment supervision of the probationers.
c. Surety a. Volunteer workers
d. Recognizance b. Volunteer probation officers
3910. According to the routine activities theory, the volume c. Volunteer community workers
and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the d. Volunteer probation aides
following, EXCEPT:
a. Presence of motivated offenders 3920. It ensures a more careful selection of the institution in
b. Absence of capable guardians which the prisoner is to be confined.
c. Availability of suitable targets a. Quarantine unit
d. Absence of motivated offenders b. Courts
c. RDC
3911. A group that has a short history, limited size, and little d. Correction
define territory is a type of gang known as: 3921. The continuing relationship between probation officer
a. Status and probationer is known as?
b. Sporadic a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
c. Criminal b. None of these
d. Collective c. supervision
3912. The correctional program which enables an individual d. affiliation guidance
to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual 3922. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for
faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community every____number of inmates.
living all at the same time is referred to as a. 1:2
_______________ b. 1:4
a. Livelihood program c. 1:12
b. Guidance counseling d. 1:7
c. Education program
d. Religious program 3923. He was the first Superintendent of Elmira sentence
3913. What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial reformatory.
environment within the prison to help the inmates develop a. John Augustus
noncriminal ways to coping outside? b. John Howard
a. Psychotherapy c. Zebulon Brockway
b. Behavior therapy d. Teodulo Natividad
c. Occupational therapy
d. Milieu therapy 3924. Reducing the degree of Death penalty inflected upon
3914. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following the council.
instances: a. amnesty
a. Rape b. commutation
b. Murder c. pardon
c. Impeachment d. commutation of sentence
d. Brigandage
3915. It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by
the government:
a. John Augustus

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