BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

TUYỂN TẬP ĐỀ THI

HỌC SINH GIỎI VÀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN
HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT
NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
TẬP 2
















LÊ TRUNG KIÊN
Sưu tầm và biên soạn
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHUYÊN ĐỀ HÈ CHO ĐỘI TUYỂN LẦN I
TỔ BỘ MÔN: Tiếng Anh NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
***************** MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
(Học sinh làm bài vào đề)

Họ và tên: ………………………………………………………………………. Số phách:

Số báo danh: ……………………………………………… Lớp: ………………
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Điểm bằng số Điểm bằng chữ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. (2.5pts)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. caress B. career C. carnivore D. carouse
2. A. cough B. dough C. laugh D. rough
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the other three.
3. A. triangle B. standardize C. infamous D. cathedral
4. A. hierarchy B. notable C. paparazzo D. monument
Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
5. They were ………… with excitement at the thought of seeing the sea.
A. acting out B. bubbling over C. jumping on D. sweeping away
6. There was a sudden ……… of anger in the General’s eyes as he listened to the soldier’s report.
A. fire B. flame C. flash D. shade
7. Fast & Furious 6 ……… at number one at the North American box office, taking more than double The
Hangover Part III’s opening takings.
A. debutes B. will debute C. has debuted D. is going to debute
8. What we know about habit ……… is that you want to make the behaviour easy to perform, so that people
repeat it often and it becomes part of their daily routine.
A. formation B. information C. format D. form
9. Mr. Hill gave the new secretary a good ……… explanation of her duties.
A. overall B. booklet C. actual D. major
10. – “Has Alice had an accident?” – “………”
A. I don’t hope so B. I hope no C. I hope not D. It’s hopeless
11. I was kept awake for most of the night by the ……… of a mosquito in my ear.
A. screech B. groan C. moan D. whine
12. I always feel he has a ……… against me, although I don’t know what wrong I’ve done him.
A. grudge B. grumble C. grunt groan
13. The authorities ……… a massive security operation in the city.
A. held B. landed C. launched D. dampened
14. As part of the takeover agreement, the new owners have agreed to ……… the existing senior managers.
A. enquire B. contain C. retain D. absorb
15. It is always nice to have a travelling ……… when visiting places for the first time.
A. company B. companion C. compatibility D. accompaniment
16. Which is the CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined?
Some species of birds, when migrating divide according to their age and sex
A. in keeping with B. in relation to C. in cognizance of D. in line with
17. I don’t agree with you, but your idea certainly gives me food ………
A. for fun B. for think C. for thinking D. for thought
18. I had to ……… the class all the answers to the test.
A. fork-feed B. spoon-feed C. knife-feed D. happily-feed
19. There’s no danger in using this machine as long as you ……… to the safety regulations.
A. adhere B. abide C. observe D. comply
20. Indoor gardens are sometimes ……… as part of air conditioning or heating systems.
A. corporated B. incorporated C. uncorporated D. miscorporated
21. An echo is a sound heard ……… it is reflected from an object.
A. subsequently B. as if C. lest D. seeing that
22. In the second half of the nineteenth century, textiles from the southwestern United state, particularly
fabrics woven by the Navajo people, ………
A. rugs began to be used C. began to be used as rugs
B. as rugs began to be used D. began to used them as rugs
23. During adolescence many young people begin to question ……… held by their families.
A. the values B. of the values C. the values are D. are the values
24. – “Do you think that the weather will be fine tomorrow?” – “Oh, yes. It’s ……… that it will.”
A. almost surely B. very likely C. near positive D. quite certainly
25. Persuading Chris to buy a round of drinks is like getting blood from a ………
A. sea B. beach C. rock D. stone
II. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets. (1pt)
Fears of Future Global Hunger
A recent report has warned of global food (1. SHORT) ……………… unless the current system of
farming and food distribution is changed. The report highlights fears that currently rapid increases in yields
come at the expense of (2. SUSTAIN) ………………, and that unless action is taken, hunger and (3.
NUTRIENT) ……………… will become growing problems. The population is expected to rise to around 8.3
billion in the next twenty years, and (4. URBAN) ……………… is set to continue, and it is expected that 65-
70% of the world’s population will live in cities. Increasing world (5. PROSPEROUS) …………………. will
lead to the rise in demand for energy, food and fresh water. The report also considers the billion people
worldwide who (6. EAT) ……………… and are therefore obese to be another example of the (7. FAIL)
……………… of the current system to provide health and well- being to the world’s population. The authors
believe that the (8. APPLY) ……………… of new technologies can play a role in (9. MINIMAL)
……………… future food shortages. They see cloning, nanotechnology and genetic (10. MODIFY)
……………… as potential solutions. However, although many of these technologies have been adopted
worldwide, there is still resistance to their use in parts of Europe.
III. Read the text below and think of ONE word which best fits each space. (1pt)
VISIT ANGKOR WAT
From the 9th to the 14th centuries, when Europe was still struggling out of the Dark Ages, the
Cambodian Empire of Angkor covered most of present-day Cambodia, Laos, Vietnam, and Thailand. The
heart of this empire during the 12th century was the ancient capital of Angkor Thom, near present day Siem
Reap, the site of the world’s largest temple complexes, (1) ……… were rediscovered in 1861. This
spectacular city (20 ……… built over 30 years under the reign of King Suryavarman II (1113-1150). The area
covers about 400 square kilometres and is full of (3) ……… finest examples of Khmer art and architecture.
Tourists are always amazed at the scale of the place.
In Angkor Wat you will find more (4) ……… 100 stone monuments and temple buildings, each of (5)
……… contains countless statues, sculptures and reliefs that have weathered extremely little over the (6)
……… 800 years. To see the whole thing can (7) ……… several days. The most important temples (8)
………. visit in the area are Angkor Wat, especially (9) ……… sunrise or sunset; Angkor Thom, the remains
of the capital; Ta Prohm, a palace overgrown (10) ……… jungle; and Bayon.
IV. Read the passage then choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each space. (1pt)
AUDIOBOOKS - BOOKS ON CASSETTE
In the modern world, there is a wealth of leisure activities to choose (0) from. Entertainment industries
(1) …… for your leisure time. You can watch TV, listen to music, go to an art gallery or concert or, of course,
read a book. Sometimes it seems that reading is (2) ……… because, (3) ……… you’re a fast reader, it can
take a (4) ……… amount of time to finish a novel, for example. But in the modern world, time is something
that can be in short supply. Book publishers haven’t been (5) ……… to realise this and are now selling a
product which needn’t take up as much of your time but still tells you an excellent story. The new product is
the audiobook - cassette recordings of shortened novels, often read by wellknown personalities or the authors
themselves. Audiobooks are (6) ……… new but people are becoming more aware of them and sales are
increasing (7) ………. One of the attractions of audiobooks is that they’re (8) ……… listening to the radio,
only better. You can listen to what you want when you want, and you won’t ever (9) ……… anything. Much
of their appeal (10) ……… in their flexibility. They allow you to do other things while you’re listening, such
as driving or doing the housework. For some people, audiobooks can be a much more enjoyable way of
gaining knowledge than reading.
0. A. among B. with C. from D. out
1. A. chase B. compete C. oppose D. pursue
2. A. neglected B. declined C. lessened D. disposed
3. A. in spite B. no matter C. regardless of D. even if
4. A. plentiful B. broad C. considerable D. lasting
5. A. behind B. slow C. delayed D. overdue
6. A. partly B. approximately C. roughly D. relatively
7. A. ever since then B. all the time C. up until now D. from then on
8. A. as B. same C. like D. both
9. A. pass B. lack C. miss D. lose
10. A. stands B. belongs C. bases D. lies
V. Read the text and mark the correct letter A, B, C or D for each question below. (1pt)
About 200 million years ago, as the Triassic Period came to a close, many species of animals
disappeared from the face of the Earth. Scientists previously believed that the series of extinctions happened
over a period of 15 to 20 million years. Recent discoveries in Nova Scotia 5 suggest, however, that the
extinctions may have happened over a much shorter period of time, perhaps less than 850,000 years.
Evidence for a rapid extinction of species at the end of the Triassic Period is found in the McCoy Brook
Formation along the Bay of Fundy 10 in Nova Scotia. Fossils found in this formation indicate a rapid
disappearance of species rather than a slow and gradual change over time. One explanation for a relatively
sudden extinction at the end of the Triassic may be that a large meteorite struck the earth at the time and is
responsible for a 70- kilometer hole nearby. If geologists 15 and other researchers can find evidence, such as
shocked quartz in the rock formations, that a meteorite did strike the earth, it would give more credence to
the theory of rapid Triassic extinctions. It is possible, however, that even if a rapid extinction happened in and
around Nova Scotia, it did not necessarily occur in the rest 20 of the world.
1. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the disappearance of animal species at the end of the Triassic Period
B. evidence of a relatively sudden extinction of species
C. the possibility of an extinction happening simultaneously throughout the world
D. a meteorite hole in the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia
2. The author uses the phrase “the face of the Earth” in line 2 in order to ………
A. emphasize the disappearance B. focus on one part of the Earth
C. focus on one period of time D. point out the reference to land, not water
3. All of the following were mentioned in the passage EXCEPT ………
A. the extinction of late Triassic animals
B. the duration of time for the extinction
C. a large meteorite hitting the Earth 10 million years ago
D. the use of types of rock in scientific research
4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “relatively” in line 7?
A. comparatively B. independently C. phenomenally D. visibly
5. According to the passage, what would give evidence that a meteorite struck the earth?
A. a gradual change in species over time C. gold deposits in the veins of rocks
B. a change in the quartz D. a change in the waters of the Bay of Fundy
6. Which of the following could best replace the word “struck” as used in line 8?
A. affected B. discovered C. devastated D. hit
7. Which of the following is most probably the meaning of “shocked quartz” in line 10?
A. narrow chasms B. tiny lines C. hardened ores D. cracked minerals
8. In line 10, “it” refers to ………
A. evidence B. an extinction C. the Earth D. a meteorite
9. Which of the following could best replace the word “credence” in line 10?
A. demonstration B. elevation C. suitability D. credibility
10. Which of the following best describes the author’s tone?
A. aggressive B. explanatory C. apologetic D. cynical
VI. Read the text and mark the correct letter A, B, C or D for each question below. (0,5pt)
 Earthquakes are probably one of the most frightening and destructive happenings of nature that man
experiences. The effects of an earthquake are often terrible. Earthquakes have caused the death of many
human beings, much suffering, and great damage. Today, the study of earthquakes has grown greatly as
scientists all over the world study the causes of earthquakes. Scientists hope that their studies will improve the
ways of predicting earthquakes and also develop ways to reduce their destructive effects.
The scientific study of earthquakes is somewhat new. Until the 18th century, few factual descriptions of
earthquakes were recorded; In general, people did not understand the cause of earthquakes. Many believed
that they were a punishment from God. One early theory was that earthquakes were caused by air rushing out
of caverns deep in the interior of the earth.
On November 1, 1755, a serious earthquake occurred near Lisbon, Portugal. Shocks from the quake
were felt in many parts of the world. After the quake, Portuguese priests were asked to observe the effects and
to make written records. These records were the first scientific steps to write down the effects of an
earthquake. Since that time, detailed records have been kept of almost every major earthquake.
Most earthquakes occur in areas around the Pacific Ocean. This belt of areas is called the “ring of fire”
and includes the Pacific coasts of North and South America, the Aleutian Islands, Japan, Southeast Asia, and
Australia. Half a million people within the “ring of fire” have died because of earthquakes and much valuable
property has been severely damaged or destroyed.
An earthquake is the oscillatory, sometimes violent, movement of the earth’s surface that comes after a
release of energy in the crust of the earth. Most destructive quakes are caused by the dislocation of the crust.
Forces from beneath the surface of the earth cause the crust to bend and then break and the rocks on the
surface move into a new position. The breaking of the rocks causes vibrations called “seismic waves”. These
vibrations travel from the source of the earthquake to distant places along the surface of the earth. The seismic
waves cause the entire planet to tremble or ring like a bell.
The vibrations produced by earthquakes are discovered, recorded, and measured by instruments called
seismographs. Vibrations are of two general types: surface waves and body waves. Surface waves travel
along the earth's surface and body waves travel through the earth. Surface waves usually have the strongest
vibrations and probably cause most of the damage done by earthquakes.
Currently, scientists are making studies to predict earthquakes. At the present time, scientists do not
have the knowledge required to predict the time and size of earthquakes. However, a large group of scientists
at the National Centre for Earthquake Research in California, has been able to predict the areas where
earthquakes might occur. Research at the centre about the physical and chemical nature of rocks and their
behavior under the force of an earthquake will help engineers to design and build structure for areas that often
suffer from earthquakes.
1. Line 9, “caverns” are probably ………
A. earthquakes occurring in the interior of the earth B. strong winds caused by earthquakes
C. rivers and lakes in major earthquake areas D. deep holes under the ground
2. The first detailed records of an earthquake ………
A. were kept in the 17th century
B. showed that earthquakes were a punishment from God
C. were written down in Portugal
D. explained the theory that earthquakes started in the caverns in the interior of the earth
3. The rocks on the surface of the earth change their position when ………
A. the crust of the earth is bent and broken by underground forces
B. forces on the surface of the earth bend and break the crust of the earth
C. the earth trembles or rings like a bell
D. great damage and much suffering are caused
4. Seismic waves can be defined as ………
A. the bending and breaking of the rocks on the surface of the earth
B. the vibrations that result from the breaking of rocks
C. the release of energy in the crust of the earth
D. the dislocation of the earth’s crust
5. Which of the following is not mentioned in the text?
A. Information about the types of vibrations.
B. Studies on earthquake prediction at present.
C. Examples of the biggest earthquakes that have occurred so far.
D. History of the scientific study of earthquakes.
VII. Find and correct the error in each of the following sentences. (1pt)
1. The majority (A) of the contract negotiator (B) that took place during the year were handled (C) by lawyers
from a local law firm (D).
Ø ………………… → ……………………
2. The reason I will (A) not be going (B) to Mexico this year is because (C) I will use up all my travel money
attending (D) an important meeting in Singapore.
Ø ………………… → ……………………
3. The union insisted (A) on an increase in their (B) members’ starting pay, and threatened to call a strike (C)
if the company refused to meet (D) the demand.
Ø ………………… → ……………………
4. Nearly (A) all everyday products have an impact in (B) terms of energy, especially when you consider their
energy requirements across (C) the whole life-cycled (D) : production, use and end-of-life.
Ø ………………… → ……………………
5. Public opinion polls (A) have consistently (B) demonstrated the public’s willingness for (C) “tradeoff”
economic (D) growth for environmental protection.
Ø ………………… → ……………………
VIII. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (1pt)
1. You can’t compare tabloids with quality newspaper. (FISH)
- …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I do not expect another accident of the same type to happen here again. (STRIKE)
- It is not my ……………………………………………………………………………………………… twice.
3. The children are in disgrace for being so badly bahaved. (CLOUD)
- The children are …………………………………………………………………………… their bad behavior.
4. The pressures of being in the public eye have proved too much for him.
- He has …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. She felt uncomfortable in the huge hotel. (OUT)
- She felt …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. The company avoids employing unqualified staff unless there is no alternative. (RESORT)
- Only ………………………………………………………………………………… employ unqualified staff.
7. His memory gradually failed as he grew old.
- The older ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. A number of sporting events had to be cancelled owing to bad weather. (LED)
- The …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
9. Tim tried to be like one of his heroes when he was a young musician. (MODELLED)
- As ………………………………………………………………………………………… one of his heroes.
10. Her mother talked her out of walking out alone at night. (DISSUADED)
- It ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
IX. Writing. (1pt)
One person asked you: “What would you do if you were as rich as Bill Gates?”
Write a passage (at least 150 words) to answer this question.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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THE END
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CHUYÊN ĐỀ HÈ CHO ĐỘI TUYỂN LẦN I
TỔ BỘ MÔN: Tiếng Anh NĂM HỌC: 2016-2017
***************** MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10
ĐÁP ÁN

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. (10 x 0,25 = 2.5pts)

1. C. carnivore 11. D. whine
2. B. dough 12. A. grudge
3. D. cathedral 13. C. launched
4. C. paparazzo 14. C. retain
5. B. bubbling over 15. B. companion
6. C. flash 16. D. in line with
7. C. has debuted 17. D. for thought
8. A. formation 18. B. spoon-feed
9. A. overall 19. A. adhere
10. C. I hope not 20. B. incorporated
21. B. as if
22. C. began to be used as rugs
23. A. the values
24. B. very likely
25. D. stone
II. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets. (10 x 0,1 = 1pt)
1. shortage(s) 6. overeat
2. sustainability 7. failure
3. malnutrition 8. application
4. urbanization 9. minimizing
5. prosperity 10. modification
III. Read the text below and think of ONE word which best fits each space. (10 x 0,1 = 1pt)
1. which 6. last/past
2. was 7. take
3. the 8. to
4. than 9. at
5. which 10. by
IV. Read the passage then choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each space. (10 x 0,1 = 1pt)
1. B. compete 6. D. relatively
2. A. neglected 7. B. all the time
3. D. even if 8. C. like
4. C. considerable 9. C. miss
5. B. slow 10. D. lies
V. Read the text and mark the correct letter A, B, C or D for each question below. (10 x 0,1 = 1pt)
1. B. evidence of a relatively sudden extinction of 6. D. hit
species 7. D. cracked minerals
2. A. emphasize the disappearance 8. A. evidence
3. C. a large meteorite hitting the Earth 10 million 9. D. credibility
years ago 10. B. explanatory
4. A. comparatively
5. B. a change in the quartz
VI. Read the text and mark the correct letter A, B, C or D for each question below. (5 x 0,1 = 0,5pt)
1. D. deep holes under the ground 4. B. the vibrations that result from the breaking of
2. C. were written down in Portugal rocks
3. A. the crust of the earth is bent and broken by 5. C. Examples of the biggest earthquakes that have
underground forces occurred so far.
VII. Find and correct the error in each of the following sentences. (5 x 0,2 = 1pt)
1. B. negotiator è negotiation 4. D. life-cycled è life-cycle
2. C. because è that 5. C. for è to
3. B. their è its
VIII. Finish the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one. (10 x 0,1 = 1pt)
1. Tabloids are a different kettle of fish from quality newspaper.
2. It is not my expectation that lightning (should / will) strike twice.
3.The children are under a cloud because of their bad behavior.
4. He has been unable to cope with pressures of being in the public eye.
5. She felt like a fish out of water in the huge hotel./ She felt out of place in the huge hotel.
6. Only as a last resort will the company employ unqualified staff.
7. The older he got, the more his memory failed him.
8. The bad weather led to the cancellation of a number of sporting events.
9. As a young musician, Tim modelled himself on one of his heroes.
10. It was her mother who/ that dissuaded her from walking out alone at night.
IX. Writing. (1pt)
1. Opening, closing: 0,25pt.
2. Body: 0,75pt (ideas, language use, grammar, spelling).
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Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the
papers.

Thank you for your cooperation.

˜THE END™
 Ertglish E.ramirtationfor seleclitrg goocl stttdertts,Gt acle 12,2"'t rorutd - school year 2010 -2011

SO GIAO DUC VA OAO TAO THAI NGUYEN

KY THI CHoN DoI TI.]Y6N DU THI CHUNG KHAo QUdC GIA

'$ NAM HOC 2010 - 2071

MON THr: TrfNG ANH - Lap D
Ngiy thi: 281 l0l 2010.
Thbi gian lim bii: 180 phrit (lchdng kd rhdi gian giao dd)

OE fru CHLNH THL|C (Please do as directed)

Di6m Gir{m khao sd 1 Gi6m khio s0 2 Sd ph6ch

(ho t6n, chft kf) (ho tOn, chf kf) (do chri tich HD
chdm thi ehi)
Bane so B[ne chfr

Ddthi ndy g6m 9 trang duoc ddnh sd tit I - 9. Tht sinh kidm tra sd trang trudc khi tdm bdi.
SECTION ONE: LISTENING
I.Questionsl-5
Choose the appropriate letters A - D
Exumple
Hannah's Dad
A. can hear her very well. @cannot hear her very well.
C. wants her to move. D. says the line is clear
1" How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live?
A. three weeks B. Iess than three weeks
C. more than three weeks D, more than four weeks
2. There is not enough accommodation to rent because
A" it is the end of the academic year.
B. Hannah is a new student.
C. the area has lots of new technology companies.
D. the town is small.
3. f 400 a month for rent is
A. higher than Hannah has paid before.
B. lower than Hannah has paid before.
C. not cheap for the area.
D. cheap for the area.
4. At the moment Hannah is living
A. in a hostel B. in a suitcase C. in a hotel D. in a flat
5" Hannah's new flat
A. is a bit noisy B. is on the second floor
C. has two bedrooms D. has a large roolterrace

5.
 Ettglislt Examirtation for se lectittg good sttdettts, Gracle I2 , 2"d rorutcl - school year 201A -201 I

II. Questions 6 - 7: Complete Dad's note

Hannah's address:
(6).... Whitehart Road.

{7)... ...... e RJ.

III. Questions 8 * l0: Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to cornplete each space

8. Hannah plans to travel to her parents' house on Friday

9. Hannah's dad wilt return the van on ....

10. The journey time is about
IV. Questions 11 - 14: Circle FOUR letters A - H
Which FOUR planned developments are mentioned?
A. a village town hall
B" a leisure center
C. a play area for children
D. a hospital
E. an industrial development
F. extra houses
G. a steel works
H. a motorway

SECTION TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the appropriate letter to complete the sentences.
15. Students need a lot of focus in orderto perform well on exams.
A. specific B. mental
C. abnormal D. catastrophic
16. Globat warming is damaging the environment._, goverRments are trying to reduce this
warming.
A. Consequently B. Unequivocally
C. Evidently D. Indisputably
17. The two nations got into a _over air pollution. The two governments solved the dispute
peacefully.
A. ego B. symptom C treaty D. conflict
18, Many disagreed with Freud's ideas on psychology,
A. theorists B. ides C. lobbies D. plateaus
19. l'hen bank is reported in the local newspaper in broad driylight yesterday.
A. to be robbed B. robbed
C" to have been robbed D. having been robbed
20. _before, his first performance for the amateur dramatic group was a success.
A" Though having never acted B. Despite he had never acted
C. As he had never acted D. In spite of his never having acted
21. In many aspects, the problems that Jason faced are _ a yoLrng man and woman might face
today.
A. much like that B. much like those
C" like much those D. like much that
22. Mr" Milton prefers to resign part in such dishonest business deal.
A. than take B. than to take
C. rather than take D. rather than to talce
23. His father had promised to buy hirn a computer?__ he behaved himself.
 ErrglislrEl'antitrationforselecrittggoocl stttcleilts,Gradel2,2"trouttcl 'scltoolyear20l0-2011

A. in case B. after C. provided D. while

24. There is a real possibility that these animals could be frightened,a sudden loud noise.
A. being there B. should there be
C. there lvas D. there have been
25. Bit by bit, a child makes the necessary changes to make his language-.
A. as other people B. as other people's
C. like other people D. like other peoPle's
26. the opportunity, he might well have become an outstanding cartoonist.
A. Being given B. To give, C. Giving D. Given
27.The scientific achievements of Albert Einstein those of almost every other scientist in history.
A. deem B. emit C. astound D. outshine
28. The money raised from this concert will go to a charity that helps build
such as hospitals and
schools in developing countries.
A. concessions B" burdens
C. disdain D. infrastructure
29. The students are going to experiment to determine the melting point of cotton.
A. buy into B. carry out
C. rage on D. come to mind
30. Many'scientists believe that the" of global warming is caused by pollution.
A. protocol B. phenomenon C. scope D. Trough

15. 16. "......... 17. 18. i9. 20.

1A
2l 22........... z). L+. 25. 26,

27. 28. 29" 30.

II. Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

Smallpox was the firstwidespread disease (31. eliminate) .... by human invention. In May 1966,
the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United Nations (32. authorize) ... to initiate a
global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one decade" At the time,
the disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations. Because similar projects for
malaria and yellow fever (33. fail) ... , few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven
yearsaftertheinitialorganizationofthecampaignnocases(34.report).... inthefield.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients with active
smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission.
Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating removed from contact with others and treated at the
same time, the entire village where the victim (35. live).... was vaccinated" By April of 1978 WHO
officials announced that they (36. isolate) ... the last known case of the disease but health workers
continued to search for new cases for two additional years to be completely sure. [n May 1980, a formal
statement (37. make)..." to the global community. Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity.
Routine vaccinations (38" stop)... worldwide.

3l J/.

JJ 34

35 36

37 38

III. Choose the underlined part (marked A, B, C or D) that contains an error, then correct it. There
is an example for you.
Example: 00" The (A) equipment in the office (B) was (C) badly in need of (D) to be repaired.
a
J
 Ettglislt Examitntiotrfor seleclittg goocl stuclents,Grade 12,2"'t rourrl - school year2010 -2011

39. Dreanrs are (A) commonly (B) made Lrp of (C) either visual
(D) verbal imases.
and
40. (A) Many bridges in New England (B) were covered with wooden roofs to protect (C) it from (D) rain
and snow.
41. (A) Unlike competitive (B) running, race walkers must always keep some portion of (C) thet feet (D)
in contact with the ground.
42. One of the (A) most beautiful botanical (B) gardens in the United States is the (C) wildly and lovely
Magnolia Gardens (D) near Charleston, South Carolina.
43. Abigail Adam's (A) letters to (B) l-rer husband present a (C) graphic picture of the (D) age which she
'lived.
44. (A) Almost of the (B) trees in this plantation (C) have been cut down (D) and burned.
45" Henry usually arrives (A) lately for his Physics class (B) even thoush he (C) leaves his dormitory (D)
in plentlof time.

Example: 00. D being repaired

->
39 40

4t 42

43 44
45

SECTION 3: READING
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 55.
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally
are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. ln winter especially, it is important for birds to
keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost.
Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity - horned larl<s dig holes in the ground and
ptarmigan bumow into snow banks - but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling
together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the
surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together
were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarler and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers." During
the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the
evening some will have fed well, but others may have found tittle to eat. Some investigators have observed
that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that'dicl not feed well on the previous day
appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different
feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate
animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a
large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks,
possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is salety in numbers at communal roosts since there willalways be a few birds awake
at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact
that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in
trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it
easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.

46. What does the passage mainly discuss?

"
A" How birds find and store food.
4
 Ettglislt Excrminatiolfor selectirrg good stttdenls,Gracle 12,2"'t roLtrrcl - scltool 1,gst'2010 -2011

B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter.

C. Why birds need to establish territory.
D. Why some species of birds nest together.
47.The 'word "conserve" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
48. The word "magnified" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. caused B. modified C" intensified D. combined
49. The author mentions kinglets in the passage as an example of birds that
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes.
B. Nest with other species of birds
C. Nest together for warmth
D. Usually feed and nest in pairs.
50. The word "forage" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A" fly B. assemble C. feed D. rest
51. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.
B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
C. I'he common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel,
.D. The common kestrel nests in trees, the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
52. The word "counteracted" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. suggested B. negated C. measured D. shielded
53" Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle
together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flocl< warm others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
54. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
55. The word "they" in the passage refers to
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predatclrs D, trees.

II. Fill in each numbered blank ONE suitable word

Comparisons were drawn between the development of television in the 20th century and diffusion
of printing in the I5th and 16th centuries. Yet much had happened before. As discussed before, it was not
,niil th. igth century that the newspapers (56)........ the dominant pre-electronic medium, following in the
wake of the pamphlet and the book and in the company of the periodical. It was during the same time that
the communications revolution speeded (57)....., beginning with transport, the railway, and leading on
through the telegraph, the telephone, radio, and motion pictures into the 20th century world of the motor car
and the airplane. Not everyone (58)...... that process in perspective. [t is important to do so.
It is generally recognized, (59)....., that the introduction of the computer in the early 20th century,
followed by the invention of the integrated circuit during the 1960s, radically changed the process,
although its impact on the media was.not immediately apparent. As time went by, computers became
 Etrglislr Examitwtiottfor selectirrg goocl students,Gracle 12,2"d rotutd - scltool 1,sav)010 -2()1 1

smaller and (60)."". powerflrl, and they became "personal" too, as well as institutional with display
becoming sharper and storage capacity increasing. They were thought of, like people, in term of
generations, with the distance (61).... generations much smaller.
It was within the computer age that the term "information society" began to be widely used to
describe the context lvithin which we now live. The communications revolutions have influenced both
worl< and leisure and (62).... we think and feel about place and time, but there have been controversial
views about its economic, political, social and cultural implications. "Benefits" have been weighed (63).....
"harmful" outcomes. And generalizations have proved difficult.

56 57

58 59

60 61

62 63

III. Choose the appropriate letter to complete the passage.

One of the most important features in any business is communication. Good communications are
required at all stages of the business process. Businesses employ and are owned and run by various groups
of people. Workers, directors and shared holders are three important groups closely a(64)-with
business. Other influential groups include customers, suppliers and the government.
Communication (65)_between these groups and the individuals who mal<e up the groups.
Within (66)_companies internal communications occur at, and between the various levels.
Directors communicate with one another concerning the company's overall strategy. They (67)
managers of their plans, and the managers then communicate with the other employees. (63)
are conducted concerning pay and working conditions. Managers communicate decisions and orders and ---
try to (69) _ morale and motivation through good communication.
Employees (70)-_ communicate with each other, for example, over production and wages"
External communication occurs when a company's directors or employees communicate with those
individuals and groups who (71)_with the company. Shareholders receive copies of the company's
annual accounts, together with the (72) _ of the chairmen and directors. Government departments
require statistical and financial information from the company.
An advertising agency is (73)_ about the company's advertising policies. Customers need to
know if goods have not been dispatched and suppliers contacted if their goods have not been delivered.
Reliable and effective communication is one of the key elements which leads to efficient management of a
company.
64. A. implicated B. committed C. involved D. interested
65. A. takes place B. takes in C. tal<e over D. takes hold
66. A" singular B. alone C. individual D. unique
67. A, reply B. show C" acquaint D. inform
68. A. interrogations B. questions C. negotiations D. interviews
69" A. grow B. mount C. gain D. lmprove
70. A" besides B. also C. such D. Iike
7l . A, cope B. engage C. deal D. relate
72. A. files B. reports C. articles D, profits
73. A. enquired B. prepared C. consulted D. warned

64. 65. 66. 67. 68.

69. /u. 71 72. 73.

6
 Ettglislt E.ramitratiottfor selectittg goocl strrderis.Grade 12,2"d rotutd - sclrool year2010 -2011

SECTION FOUR: WRITII{G

I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it has the same meaning as the one printed before it.

74. He hasn't smol(ed a cigarette for a weel<.

It's "..
75. The students started making noise tl'ie moment the teacher went out.

No sooner
76.Had it been forthe lottery prize, he was ableto buy a house now.
He ."

77 " Don't forget to write to me regardless of what happens.

No matter
78. I used to work as a telephone operator.
Ino

II. Task I . The chart below shows the pattern of interest change of university students in choosing
what to study in recent years in the courtry of Wonderland. Describe the changes. (79 - 36)

Variation in students' choices

180
160
,' l ,:,
, ,irr..

fua
$r4!'_:,i,tr,'t, Iiiiil,,t: riilt;t.,.:

I reo
rii,'111

:.-:::aa,:a::;'.iii=
6 i:;::,wri:9i::.::tni:*
roo
tr80
(!
itj

360
o
540 r.l, i

20
Ij;,i r.in'
0
20a7 2008 2009 ^ 2010
Year

"{-History *S*lT & English **"A*-Sciences

1
 Englislt ExantinatiortJor selectittg goocl slutlenls,Grade 12,2"'t rotrntl - scltoo! year2010 -2011

III. Task 2: The 1,000th year Thang Long - Ha Noi Anniversary has left good memories for not only
Yietnamese people but people all over the world as well. You are a young generation. What could
you do to preserve and promote precious traditions of Yietnam, which you consider as the most
three valuable traditions? (not more than 250 words). (87 - 100)
(You mustn't mention any proper name.)

0
o
Ertglislt ExarnirnrionJ'or selectittg good students,Grade 12,2"t rortrtcl 'sclrcol year2010 -2011

Total mark: 100 : 5:20

--- The end ---

9
 Engtish Exam.ination for selecting good students, Grade 12, 2"d rottnd, 2012 -2013

SO GIAO DUC VA DAO T4O THAI NGUYEN

KV tHr cHoN DOI TUyfN nUrul cHUNG KHAo eu6c cIA
NAM HOC 2OT2 .20L3
MON THr: TIbNc ANH -r1p n
I Ngiy thi: 09 llll20l2
Thoi gian tnm nni: f80 phrit (khdng ke thdi gian giao dd)

Oi tltt chinh thrbc (Ptease do as directed)

Ei€m Giem khio s6 1 Gi6m kh6o s6 2 56 ph6ch.

(hg t6n, chf, kf) (hg t6n, cht ky) (do chri tich HD ctr6m ttri ehi)
BIng s6 Bdng chir

DA'thi ndy gdm 10 trang duo. c ddnh sd til I - 10" Thi sinh kidm tra sd trang trudc khi ldm bdi"
SECTION ONE: LISTENING
I. Questions 1- 10
Complete the noles below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NaMBERfor each onswer.

LIBRARY INFORMATION

Example Answer
Minimum joining age 18 years

For registration, must take

- two (1). .". and

- two forms of I.D. e"g. driving license, (2)..".

Cost to join per year (without current student card): (3)

Number of items allowed: (members of public): (4)"...
Loan times: four weeks
Fines start at (5)

Computers can be booked up to (6). "...... hours in advance.

Library holds most national papers, all (7)" and magazines.

Need (8)" .".... to use photocopier.

Creative Writing class
- tutor is John (9)....
- Held on (10). evenings.
 English Examinationfor selectir.tg good strrcJents,Grade 12,2"d round,2012 -2013

II. Questions 1l-15

Choose the correct letter A, B or C
BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD
11. In 1993 Dan Pearson went to Ecuador
A. as a tourist guide.
B. as part of his study.
C. as a voluntary worker.
12" Dan's neighbour was successful in business because he
A" employed carpenters from the area.
B. was the most skilled craftsman in the town.
C. found it easy to reach customers.
13" Dan says the charity reiies on
A" getting enough bicycles to send regularly.
B. finding new areas which need the bicycles.
C. charging the bicycles it sends abroad.
14. What does Dan say about the town of Rivas?
A. It has received the greatest number of bikes.
B. It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam.
C. Its economy has been totally transformed.
15. What problem did the charity face in August 2000?
A. It oouldn't meet its overheads.
B. It had to delay sending the bikes.
C. It was criticised in the British media.

11 t2. 13. 14. 15.

III. Questions 16 and 17

Answer the questions below
lltrite NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMEERfioT each answet.
16. How much money did the charity receive when it won an award?

17. What is the charity currently hoping to buy?

IV. Questions L8-20

Choose THfuEE letters A'G (in any order)
Which THREE things can the general public do to help the charity Pedal Power?
A. organise a bicycle collection
B. repair the donated bikes
C. donate their unwanted tools
D. do voluntary work in its office
E. hold an event to raise money
F. identify areas that need bikes
G. write to the government

18. 19. 20"

 English Examination for selecting good students, Grade 12, 2"d round, 2012 -2013

SECTION TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

I. Choose the appropriate letter (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage.
Proof that silience is golden for studying
The combination of music and study has long been a source of disagreement between adults and
children. Parents and teachers alike maintain that silience is important when leaming, (21)..,"
youngsters insist that their favorite sounds help them concentrate.
Now a study shows that the grown-up have been (22)... all long. Psychologists in Florida tested
how fast students wrote essays with and without music in the (23)... . They found that the sounds
(24)... progress down by about sixty words per hour. "This demonstrates clearly that it is difficult to
(25)... with listening and writing at the same time," said Dr Sarah Randall. She also (26)... to the
conclusion that it is a myth that instrumental music is less distracting than vocals. "All types of music
(27)... the same effect," she said in her report. ooOne's ability to pay attention and write fluently is likely
to be (28)... by both vocal and instrumental music," she added.
Dr Dandall claimed the research (2g)... that the idea that music could improve performance was
wrong. "Writing an essay is a complex (30)... . You are recalling information and putting it in (31)... .
An addition stimulus in the form of music is bound to distract. But music is not the only distractor.
What is (32)... worrying is that more and more teenagers are studying in front of the television."
21. A. whereas B. unlike C. besides D. despite
22. A. precise B. right C. valid D" true
23. A. setting B. background C. surrounding D" circumstances
24. A. slowed B" reduced C. lowered D. decreased
25. A. manage B. support C. cope D. stand
26- A. reached B. drew C. arrived D. came
27. A. made B. had C. brought D. kept
28. A.disturbed B" interfered C. bothered D. shocked
29. A. pointed B. displayed C. demonstrated D. presented
30. A. project B" concern C. scheme D. task
31. A. order B. arrangement C. line D. pattem
32. A. partly B. largely C. particularly D. mainly

II. Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word

"Being in space is an exhilarating experience," recalls astronaut Buzz Aldrin, member of the
three-man (33)..,.. which made history 45 years ago (34)... they succeeded in being the first men ever
to set (35)... on the Moon" "Just being (36)... to float around is amazing. Unfortunately, the space suits
were very restrictive so we weren't able to move about very easily." They made the job of (37)....
Moon rock and soil to bring (38)... to Earth, we were put in quarantine. It was still not known (39)...
life existed on the Moon, Neil's famous first footprint should (40)... be there until it is disturbed by
other visitors.
"On our (41)... to Earth, we were put in quarantine. It was still not kno'am (42)... life existed on
the Moon and it was feared that organisms from the Moon could infect animals and plants on Earth.
Hopefully, in the next twenty-five years man will be setting (43)".. permanent bases on the Moon or
even on mars. I don't see much (44)... in just sending astronauts there. (45).." of short trips, which are
not a very efficient allocation of resources, we should be sending people there to stay.
"In time, (46)... possibly not in gry lifetime, people will be born on Mars. They will be our
"Martians", not the green creatures that science fiction writers write (47)... .
 Englislt Examination for selecting good sfitdents, Grade 12, 2M round, 201 2 -20 I 3

aa .A 37.
JJ. )+. 35. 36.

38. 39. 40. 4t 42.

43. 44. 45. 46. 47.

SECTION THREE: READING

I. You are going to read an article about a London tour guide. For questions 48-55' choose the
answer (A, E, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.
The best kind of know-it-all
There is an art to being a good tour gaide and Martin Priestly knows what it is.
It's obvious that the best way to explore a city is with a friend who is courteous, humorous,
intelligenl and - this is essential - extremely well-informed. Falling that, and if it is London you are
visitin-g, then the next best thing may well be Martin Priestly, former university lecturer, now a guide,
who sJems to bring together most of the necessary virtues and who will probably become a friend as
well. Last spring, I took a trip around London with him, along with a party of Indian journalists.
Accustomedto guides who are occasionally excellent but who often turn out to be a:rogant, repetitive
and sometimes bossy, I was so struck by Priestley's performance that I sought him out again to see, If I
could, just how the trick was done. This time the tour was for apat'ry of foreign students, aged anything
between 20 and60, who were here to improve their English, which was already more than passable. As
the 'tonrists' gathered, Martin welcomed them with a kind of dazzled pleasure, as if he had been
waiting for them with excitement and a touch of anxiety, now thankflrl relieved" I have to say, all this
seemed absolutely genuine.
Then we got on the coach and we were off. Martin sat in front, not in the low-level guide's seat,
but up with the gro,rp, constantly tuming round to make eye contact, to see if they understood him-
Sodn we're in a place called Bloomsbury, famous among writers in the early 20"'century. "Bloomsbury
is famous for biains," says Martin, getting into his stride. "It's a very clever place. It's not very
fashionable but it's very clever." Soon after, we pass the British Museum and Bedford Square, 'a great
architectural showpiece', advises Martin. The comment prompted questions which led to a conversation
about building, th,e part played by wealthy people and how big chunks of London still belonged to.
them- an issue which was to reemerge later. This was how he liked to work: themes, introduced as if
spontaneously, were laid down for subsequent discussion. Suddenly the coach stopped and it was over,
two and a half hours of non-stop performance, with information, observation and humor" Martin says
encouragingly, "I do hope you enjoy London."
W. go to a nearby cafe to talk. Why, I asked, had he become a guide? "Well, I used to organise
a lot of courses at the university I worked for. It was quite stressful. But I had shown students around
London and I enjoyed that. It seemed an obvious move to make. I did the London Tourist board's Blue
Badge course-two evenings a week for two years. That was tough, especially the exam in what is
known as 'coaching'. You are taught to smile but everybody had difficulty with that in the exam, when
you have other things to worry about. You have to do it backwards in the coach, desperately casting
yor, .y.r about to see what is coming next, and you're facing the tutors and the other trainees. "And
you huve to know so much to guide well, different places, all kinds of architecture, agriculture. What if
somebody asks a question about a crop beside the road? But some of it sticks, you know...eventually."
He also tells me he keeps himself up to date with radio, TV and newspapers..
There are several hundred other guides out there, all looking for a share of the work. I think, as
we talk, that I am starting to understand why good guides are so rare. It's a great deal harder than it
looks, and it demands, for every stretch of road, and even longer stretch of study and forethought"

48. What do we learn about Martin in the first paragraph?

A. He has two educational roles. '.
 Etzglish Examinationfor selecting good srudents, Grade 12,2'd round,2012 -2013

B. He is a colleague of the writer.

C. His job is an extension of his hobby.
D. His job suits his personality.
49. The writer decided to meet Martin again to find out how he managed to
A. win custom from other tourist guides.
B. entertain large and varied tour groups.
C. avoid the failings of many other tour guides.
D. encourage people to go back to him for another tour.
50. The writer notes that on meeting the tour group, Martin,
A. greeted everyone warmly.
B. seemed as nervous as everyone else.
C. praised everyone for their prompt arrival.
D. checked that everyone could understand him.
51. Martin's approach to guiding is to
A" begin with the bldest buildings.
B. encourage tourist participation.
C. move around the coach as he talks.
D. find out how much visitors knows fust.
52. What does It refer to?
A. showing students around London
B. performing in front of a group
C. becoming a guide
D. arranging courses
53. Martin says that the 'coaching' exam is difficult because
A. there is so much to think about.
B. you have to smile in different ways.
C. it has so many sections.
D. you have to cover different routes.
54. What does some of its sticks mean?
A. Some facts are up to date.
B. Some information is remembered.
C. Some questions are answered.
D.'Some lessons are revised.
55. In the last paragraph, the writer says he is.impressed by
A. the distances Martin covers on his tours.
B. the quantity of work available for tour guides.
C. the amount of preparation involved in Martin's job.
D. the variety of approaches taken to guiding.

II. You are going to read an article about a cookerycourse for children. Seven sentences have
been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-H the one which {its each gap (56-
62). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

Hitary Rose travets to Dorset, in the south:;;::;;:;;:;:,"vestisate o cookery coursefor chitdren.

There must be something in the air in Dorset, because the last place you'd expect to find
children dwing the summer holidays is in the kitchen. Yet in a farmhouse, deep in the English
countryside, that's exactly where they are-on a cookery course designed especially for children" It's all
the idea of Anna Wilson, who wants to educate young children about cooking and eating in a healthy
 English Examinarionfor selecting good sutdents,Gra:de 12,2'd round,2012'2013

way. "I am very keen to plant the idea in their heads that food doesn't grow on supennarket shelves,"
she explains. "The cours; is all about making food fun and enjoyable." She thinks that eight is the
-
perfecf age to start teaching children to cook, because at that age they are always hungry. (56. ...?)
These children are certainly all smiles as they arrive at the country farmhouse. Three girls and
four boys aged from ten to thirteen make up the group. They are immediately given a tour of what will
be
.home, for the next 48 hours. (57. ....?) But one thing is quite clear-they all have a genuine interest
in food and I'earning how to cook.
Anna has worked as a chef in ali sorts of situations and has even cooked for a crew of aracing
yacht, in limited space and difficult weather conditions, (5S. ....?) "Kids are easy to teach," she insists,
i'b..a.,s" they're naturally curious and if you treat them like adults they listen to you""
Back in the kitchen, Aona is giving the introductory talk, including advice on keeping hands clean, and
being carefully around hot ovens. (59. .....?)
Judging by the eager looks on their young faces as they watch Anna's demonstration, they are
just keen to itart cooking. The children learn the simplest way, by watching and then doing it
ihemselves. They gather around Anna chops an onion for the first evening meal. Then the boys compete
with each other to chop their onions as fast as possible, while the girls work carefully, concentrating on
being neat. (60....?) *hen they learn to make bread, the girls knead the dough with their hands
-
comietently, while ihr boyr punch it into the board, cheerfully hitting the table with their fits.
The following moming, four boys with dark shadows under their eyes stumble into the kitchen
at g.30 a.m. to leam how to make breakfast (sausages and eggs, and fruit drinks made with yoghurt and
honey). We learn later that they didn't stop talking until 4,30 a.m. (61.....?) Ignoring this, Anna brightly
continues trying to persuade everyone that fruit drinks are just as interesting as sausages and eggs. Anna
-great
has pi*r foi the courses and is reluctant to lower her standards in any way, even though her
students are so young. (62.....?) 'oAnd I like to keep the course fees down," Anna adds, "because if the
children enjoy it and go on to teach their own children to cook, I feel it's worth it"" If this course
doesn't inspire them to cook, nothing will.

A. Thid is followed by a session on 'knife skills', which will be important later on.
B. She always uses top-quality ingredients, such as the best cuts of meat and the finest cheeses, so
there's clearly no profit motive in this operation.
C. As they wander round, they argue light-heartedly about who has had the most experience in the
kitchen.
D. In the garden, they learn about the herbs that they will use in their cooking.
E. Their obuin6 tiiedness may explain why one of them goes about the tank so carefully that the
ingredients end up on the floor.
f'.-fnis is particularly true of young boys, who are happy to do anything that will end in a meal.
G. As a result, she his a very relaxed altitude to cooking, constantly encouraging the children and never
talking down to them.
H. This contrast will become something of a theme dwing the course.

III. you are going to read a magazine article about people who make short films. For questions 63
-77, choose from the options (A - D)" The options may be chosen more than once.
A short cut to HollYwood
We meet the most successful young makers of short films in Britain. These short films usually last no
more than ten minutes and are often shown before the main films in cinemas.
A. Keven Teller and Justin O'Brieh
 English Examinationfor selecting good students,Grade 12.2'd round,2AI2 -2013

Jumping Gerald
Anyone*who saw Together, the surptise arthouse hit, will have been as charmed by Jumping Gerald,
the short film which ran before it, as they were by the main feature film itself. Yet Gerald's creators
faced financial difficulties from the start, and the final version wasn't even hnished until the eve of its
first screening" As they sat in the cinema watching it for the first time, it dawned on Teller and O'Brien
at what they, had achieved. "The way people were laughing," Teller remembers, "we knew we were on
to a good ihing," Jumping Gerald was nominated for Best Short Film at the British Film Festival;
although it missed out on the award, it was thought by many to have deserved it. The two men are
pr.r.nily involved in their second production. 'o'We make a good team," Teller says, "and we'll continue
to work as one. Unless, of course, one of us gets an offer he can't refuse."
B. The Collins Brothers
Oh Josephine!
Tim and Mark Collins first fell in love with the art of film-making when they were young boys. Their
father was often abroad on business, and his two sons would send him video diaries to inform him of
the goings-on at hom'i. Several years later, their first short film was lucky ever to get made. At the time,
Tinr-was writing a novel between takes, and Mark was preparing to get married. Oh Josephine! Was
made with a cast of hundreds for just $500, but it went on to win several video awards nevertheless. The
film really began to get the brothers noticed, and several others followed, all exceptionally well
received. The brothers now feel ready to move into fuIl-length feature films, and are busy writing a
screenplay. The only disadvantage of having had such a perfect start to their careers is the weight of
expectations: they have to keep coming up with the goods.
C. Brian Radley and Niclry Tomlinson
More Cake Please
Radley and Tomlinson's very first short f:irm, More Cake Pleose, was nominated for a prestigious award
at the Cannes Film Festival. Tomlinson says, "We couliln't believe it when we found ourselves on a red
carpet at Cannes. No one knew who on earth we were, but that couldn't have mattered less." Although
Mire Cake Please didn't win, Radley and Tomlinson were sufficiently encouraged by the nominations
to enter the film into Channel Four's short film competition at the British Film Festival. To their
surprise it won, and their film-making career began to look even better with Channel Fotf's promise to
fund their next project. The duo had chosen university courses-in media and drama- with a film-making
future in mind but, disenchanted with the theoretical rather than practical experience of the industry that
was provided, both men left university before completing their courses and went to work for production
.o*p*i.r in London. They place enormous value on the hands-on experience that their work on film
o'We've seen so many directors get it wrong, that we kind of know how to get
sets provided them with.
it right," says Radley.
D. Hiroko Katsue and Mica Stevlovsky
The Big One
Katsue and Stevlovsky speak fondly of the days when every feature film at the cinema was precedqd by
a short-film-making debut, The Big One, was rather unusual, as it became the cinema advertisement
for Big Issue magazine.It won award after award. "Winning a festival is great in that it raises your
profilq but it doesn't mean you can rest on your laurels," says Stevlovsky. "Right, you can't just expect
it ir,gr to happen for you," echoes Katsue. "You could spend years going around festivals with the same
old film, but we're not into that. We're always looking for different sorts of projects, never standing
still. Even when we're lying on a beach on holiday, we both have ideas chuming around in our heads."

Which film makers

63. produced a short film at a very busy time in their lives?
64. are realistic about their future together?
65. mention the need to keep on working hard at producing short films?
66. made early career decisions that would lead them towards film-making?
67. gained financial assistance after impressing an organisation in the film world?
68. like variety in their working lives?
69. have benefited from observing profrssional film-makers at work?
 English Examination for selecting good sttdents, Grade 12, 2il round,2012 -2013

70. were not concerned by the fact that nobody recognised them?
71. suddenly realised the great potential of their film?
72. felttheir studies were not providing them with what they wanted?
73. now have a reputation for excellence which can put pressure on them?
Which fitm
74.was considered unlucky not to receive aprize?
75" was used for a different pu{pose from most short films?
76.has a lot of people acting in it?
77 . was completed only at the very last minute?

63. 64. 6s. 66. 67.

68. 69. 70. 71, 72.

73. 74. 75. 76. 77.

SECTION FOUR: WRITING

I. Task 1 (7S- S5).
The table below shows the monthly expenditure of an average Australian family in 1999 and
2009. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

Electricity and Water

*Other goods and services: non-essential goods and services

 EngIish Examinationfor serectittg good stucrents,Grocre
r2,2,d routtd,20I2 -20IJ

,\...........,....,.*....,
\_

-----

U. Task 2 (86 - 100).

Write about the following topic:
rn some c{-ufltdes young people are encouraged
finishing high schoor and sia-rtin! uuve.sity
studie;.
-'-*
ru work
to YY('r ,. ur
or rrav
travel for a year between
Discuss the advantoges ,"aanin"dotrg*iioung
peopre who decide to do this.
or experien'ce.
irffi;;6-r-r;r';;;;;;;;;,ry!our
Give reasons lfor vdur answer and
own knowtedse
Writeatleast3O0words.-=_---=---i+
(You mustnrt mention any proper
name.)
 English Exantinationfor selecting good sndents,Grade 12,2"d round,2012 -2013

'oi'riq .i'it'i'

Total mark: 100: 5 = 20

--- The end ---
,
 English Examinationfor selecting good stildents, Grade t2, 2d round, 20t4 -2015

sd crAo DUC vA DAo rAo rHAr NGUyEN

rY rur cHoN uOr ruvfN DurHi cHUNG rHAo qu6c crn,
NAM Hac iorq -irs
na0N rHr: rrflNc ANH -r6p n
Ngiy thiz 24fi0t 2014
Thbi gian ldm bdi: It0 phtu (Kh6ng kA thdi gian giao di)

oE cniNu rHuc
(Thi sinh lim bii trgc tiiip vio bii thi theo hu&hg din du6i mdi cauy
Ei6m Girim kh6o sd 1 Girim khio s6 2 ph6ch
SO
(hg t6n, cht kf) (hq t0n, cht kf)
@g chri tich HQi d6ne thi)
BIng s6 Bdng chfr

Bi *tndy gim cd 10 trang rtu,yc rtdnh sd th t-10. Thi sinh kiam fia sd tang trw6c ktti ldm bdi.
PART A: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Section 1: Questions I - 6: Complete the form below. Write NO MORE
THAN TwO WORDS AND/
OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Moving Company Service Report

Example Answer
Full name: Jane Bond
Phonenumber: Iftl..
USA address: I
SOO 1zy

1137 (3) in Seanle

Parking day: I f+1..
Date: 11th March
Clean-up by: I S:OO p.m.
Day:
About the price: I Ratfrer expensive
Storage time: I fel..

Questions 7-10: where does the speaker decide to put items in?
Write the correct letter A, B, or C next to questions7-10.
A. in emergency pack
B. in personal package
C. in storage with fumiture
Items

8. kettle
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade 12,2d round, 2014 -2015

9. alarm clock .

10. CD player

Section 2: Questions 11-16; Complete the table below. Write No MORE THAN THREE WORDS
AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.
ANNUAL WULLABALLOO CONFERENCE
TIME CONTENT LOCATION
Title of the lecture:
9:00 a.m. r1 1).. Main Hall
Lecturer: John Smith from the
(r2\..
10:30 a.m. Presentation of papers Garden Room on the ground floor
11:15 a.m. Coffee break Main Hall
Sea View Restaurant on the
1:00 p.m. Lunch fl3)..

2:00 p.m. Presentation of fuilher papers Ballroom

(1 s). . Afternoon tea Ballroom

5:00 p.m. Conference will be finished Main Hall

5:10 - 6:10 p.m. Informal reception (16)

Questions 17-20: Choose the correct letter A, B, or C

17. Tickets are available ...,
A. only at the reception desk B. tomorrow evening C. at any time before the reception
18. The delegates will be charged
A. $ 6.s0 B. $ 1s.00 c. $ 2s.00
19. The restaurant is famous for .......
A. steak B. fish C. barbecue
20. The trip on Sunday costs .
A. S 35 B. $ 35 plus entrance fees C. $ 35 plus lunch

t7. 18. 19. 20.

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Complete each sentence with a suitable particle or preposition.
after at back through across with
forward off out over u for

21. I received the news.........,.. a kind of naive enthusiasm.

22.He felt nervous before he started the first lecture of his life but he carried it ..........very well.
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade 12,2,d round, 2014 -2015

23.My group and yours have arrived.................. the same conclusion qulte dependently.
24. when he married for the second time, Fred got more than he bargained,.............. .
25. You can't sit.............. and do nothing like that while much remains to be done.
26.The favorable weather has put the harvest
27.We won't watch that program if the television is p1aying............. again.
28. We made .................1hat we had forgotten Jane's birthday, though it wus not true.
29. We had to sit ............ nearly two hours of speeches
30. We're both going...............the same job.

21. 22. 23. 24.

25. 26. 27. 28.

29. 30.

II. Fill in the blank with a suitable phrasal verb. Make possible changes if necessary.
bring out close down mahe up to sift through check over
round sit on work out do with lay down
31. Business was so bad that they had to .............two factories.
32. Next year, we intend to ..............several new products. But at the moment, we are still testing them.
33. The operator monitors the pressure by .................1he readings on these gauges.
34. calculations which used to take ages can now ....,...........in u re* r..ordr. -
35. You give the computer a command and it will ...... the data for you until it finds the
information you need.
36. People only . .......him because of his wealth.
37.He . . ....my letter for months, why doesn't he answer it?
38. This car could. .. . ...a good polish.
39. There should be enough sweets to.....
40. It is quite clearly......................that only amateurs can take part.

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the following passage, then do the exercises below.
Bring up children
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the
child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible - for
example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy iailway up to
any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of
children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in chitd clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual
stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world
around him is a warn and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to
 English Examinationfor serecting good students, Grade r2,2d
round, 20i4 -20t5

conforming to its.demarids. Leaming to wait for things, particularly for

food, is a very important
efglent in upbringing, and is achieved successfully ont/iitoo great demands
are not made before the
child can understand Every parent watches clild's
first spoken words, the th.t. "ugriy
fitst independent steps, o.
the
-beginning acquisiiion of each new skill: the
th. of reading and writing. It is often
tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning ,uti, brt ihi,
.* set"up dangerori reerinls or
failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might liupp., at any stage.
A baby might be forced to
use a toilet too early, a young child might be incouraged to learn
to read before he knows the
meanings of the words he reads. on the othir hand, thoughl if a child
is left alone too much, or without
any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest forliie and his
desire to find out new tt ing; ro,
himself' Leaming together is a fruitful source of relationship between
children and parents. By playing
together, parents learn more about their children and children learn
more from theii parents. toyr'arrd
games which both parents and children.can share are an important
means of achieving tt i, .oop.*tiorr.
Building-block toys, jigsaw
puzzles and crosswords are good examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictnesi or indulgence
towards their children. Some
may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times
of coming home at night,
punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the control
imposed represent the needs of
the parents and the values of the community u, *u-.h as the child's
o*r, frupfn.ss and well_being.
with regard to the development of moral siandards in the growing child, consistency
is very important
in parental teaching. To_forbid a thing one day and excuJe it thE next is no
fo,ndation for morality.
Also, parents should tealize that
"example is better than precept". If they are hypocritical and do not
practice what they preach, their children may grow confuria
una emotionally inse.ur. when they grow
old enough to think for themselves, and rea\ize they have been, to some
extent, deceived. A sudden
awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics
and their morals can be u a*!..ou,
disillusion.
Choose the correct answehs A, B, C or D.
41' The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties
in children....... .
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and traini
B. is to send them to clinics
c. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced
D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
42.Learring to wait for things is successfully taught......... .
A. in spite of excessive demands being made
B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive derhands are not advisable
D. is achieved successfully by all children
43. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills
A. should be focused on bnly at school
B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist theii development
D. should be balanced and moderate
44. P arental controls ban discipline.......... .
A. serve a dual purpose
B. are designed to promote the child,s happiness
C. reflect only the value of the community
D. should be avoided as far as possible
45. The practice of the rule ................. .
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics andhorals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
 English Examinationfor selecting good siudents, Grade 12, 2d round, 2014 -2015

!6.Inthe first paragraph, the author lays some emphasis the

on the role of in helping the child
in houble.
A. psychiatrists community
B. c. family D. nursery
47.the phrase "conforming to" in the second paragraph means
A. adapting B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
48. The word "zest" in the second parugraphcan be best replac.a uy
A. appetite B. excitement C. enthusiasm D. enjoyment
49. The word "imposed" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. accepted B. introduced C. made D. constrained
50. Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may................ .
A. result in their children's wrong behavior
B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disquali$, their teachings altogether
D. impair their children's mind

41. 42. 43. 44. 45.

46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

Decide whether the_following statements are true (T), false (F) or not given (NG).
51. It is important for a child to gradually get used to his aaiiy dema,idr inih. p.o..rs
of mental
development.
52. To force children to learn different skills beyond their natural learning rate is
encouraged by
parents.
53. The understanding between parents and children plays an important roie in mental
developrnent.
54. Parents should leave their children's mental development for school education.
55. Parents are advised to do everything for their right from early childhood.

51. 52. 53. s4. 55.

II. The following passage has six paragraphs A - f,'. Choose the correct heading for each
paragraph from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
i The difficulties of taking about smell
ii The role of smell in personal relationships
iii Future studies into smell
iv The relationship between the brain and the nose
v The inteqpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups
vi Why our ssnse of smell is not appreciated
vii Smell is our superior sense
viiiThe relationship between smell and feelings

56. Paragraph A
57. Paragraph B

58. Paragraph C

59. Paragraph D

60. Paragraph E

61. Paragraph F
 English Examinationfor serectinggood students, Grade r2,2"d round,
2014 -20r5

The meaning and power of smell

The sense of smell, or olfaction, is powirful. 6dours affect us on physical,
a psychological and
social level. For the most part, however, we breathe in the aromas
which-surroundus without being
consciously aware,lllheir,imP.ortance to us. It is only when the faculty
of smell is impaired for some
reason that we begin to reallze the essential role the sense of
smell plays in our sense of well-being.
A' A survey conducted by Anthony Synott at montreal's concordia
University asked
participants to comment on how important smell was to them
in their lives. It became apparent that
smell can evoke strong errlotional responses. A scent associated with good
a e*perience can bring a
rush of joy, while a foul odour or one associated with a bad memory
Luy make us grimace with
disgust. Respondents to the survey noted that many of their olfactory
U[es anO dislikes were based on
emotional associations. Such associations can be powerful enough so
that odours that we would
generally label unpleasant become agreeable, and ihose that
become disagreeable for phrticular individuals. The perception
*.
i"oua generally consider fragrant
of smell, thJrefore, consists not only of
the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experi"nces and emotions
associated with them.
B' Odours are also essential cues.in social bonding. one respondent to the survey
believed that
there is no true emotional bonding without touching "and smelling
a loved one. ln fact, infants
recognize the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults
often identiff their children and
spouses by scent' In one well-known test, women and men were
clothing won by their
able to distinguish Uy
partners from similar clothing worn by other people.
utor. .*.ti
-marriage Most of the
subjects would probably never hive given much thought to odour u, u for identifying family
members before being involved in the test, but as expJriment revealed, "rr.
even when not conlsciously
considered, smells register.

C' In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably
the most
undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the to*
i.gu.J in which smell is held
is that, in comparisol with its importance among animals, the human seirse
of smell is feeble and
undeveloped. While it is true that the olfactory po*.rc of humans
are nothing like as fine as those
possessed by certain animals, they are still rernarkably
acute. our noses are able to recognize
thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only
in extremely small quantities.
D' Smell, however, is a highly elusive phenomenon. odours, unlike colours,
for instance,
cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary
simply does not exist. ,olt smells
like """'\Me have to say when describing_ an odour, struggling to-express our
olfactory experience.
Nor can odours be recorded: there is no effective way to elther capture^or
store them over time. In the
realm of olfaction, we must make do with descriptions and recollections.
This has implications for
olfactory research.

E' Most of the rbsearch on smell undertaken to date has been of a physical scientific
nature.
Significant advances have been made in the understanding of the biological
and
olfaction, but many fundamental questions have yet to be -answered. ReJearchers
chemical nature of
have still to decide
whether smell is one sense or two-one responding to odours proper and the
other registering odourless
chemicals in the air. other unanswered questions are whethe, ih. nor.
is the only part of the body
affected by odours, and how smells can be. measured objectively given
the non-physical components.
Questions like these mean that interest in the psychology of imelt is ineviiably set to play
an
increasingly important role for researchers.

tr'. However, sqe]l is not simply

a biological and psychological phenomenon. Smell is cultural,
hence it is a social and-historical phenomenon. odours are invesied witir cultural
values: smells that
are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable
in others. Therefore, our
sense of smell is a means of, and model for, interacting with the world.
Different smells can provide us
with intimate and emotionally charged experiences una tn. value that we attach to
these explriences is
interiorized by the members of society in a deeply personal way. Importantly,
our commonly held
 English Exantination for selecting good students, Grade r 2, 2M round, 20
t 4 -20I 5

feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other cultures. The
study of the cultural history of
smell is, therefore, in a very real sense, an investigation into the essence
of human culture.
Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D
62. According to the introduction, we become aware of the importance
of smell when
A. we discover a new smell. B. we experience a powerful smell.
c. our ability to smell is damaged. D. we are surrounded by odours.
63. The experiment described in paragraph B ...... .
A. shows how we make use of smell witiout realizing it.
B. demonstrates that family members have a similar smell.
C. proves that a sense of smell is leamed.
D. compared the sense of smell in males and females.
64. What is the writer doing in paragraph C.. ... .
A. supporting other research
B. making a proposal
C. rejecting a common belief
D. describing limitations
65' What does the writer suggest about the study of smell in the atmosphere
in paragraph E?
A. The measurement of smell is becoming more accurate.
B. Researchers believe smell is a purely physical reaction.
C. Most smells are inoffensive.
D. Smell is yet to be defined.

62. 63. 64. 65.

Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage
for each answer.
66' Tests have shown that odours can help people recognize the ........ :;;dging
to their husbands
and wives.
67 ' Certain linguistic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they
lack the
appropriate
68. The sense of smell may involve response to .. .. ... which do not smell, in addition to obvious
odours.
69' Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain ....... are not regarded as unpleasant in others.

66. 67, 68. 69.

PART D: WRITING
I' Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence. Do NOT change
the form of the given word.
70. I'm afraid our problems are only just beginning. (ICEBERG)
+
7t. she was so anxious while the results were read out. (BREATH)
+
72.The two theories appear to be completery different. (coMMoN)
+
73. His rude behaviour is too much for me. (pUT)
+
 English Exaninationfor selecting good students, Grade 12,2,d round, 2014
-20t5

74. Not many people attended the meeting. (TURNOUT)

+
75. The new ambassador is well-informed about curent affairs. (WIDE)
+
76. You'd feel better if you had a quiet holiday. (DO)
+
77. I've lived in this town for three months and I've only just started to feel at home
here. (USED)
+
78. weather may cause various effects on a person's mood. (AFFECTED)
+
79.For thousands of years, people have highly believed in supernatural powers. (BELIEF)
+
II. Task 1. (80- 85). The table shows the number of mobile phones sold in millions for a period of
seven years. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words.

Nokia Ericson Samsung Motorola Apple

2006 345 t4 tt7 210
2007 436 102 154 165 23
2008 47s 9s 202 108 12
2009 442 57 238 59 24
2010 463 42 282 39 42
20tt 442 33 330 40 89
2012 335 28 396 28 135
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade
r 2, 2d round, 20r4 -20r 5

III. Task 2 (86 - 100). Write about the following topic:

some people suggest that social networking and online
communication have increased
social isolation. In what ways do you think this has
happened?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant
examples from your ovm knowledge or
experience.
You should write at least 300 words.
(You mustnrt mention any proper name.)
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade
12, 2d round, 2014 _2015

Total mark: 100: 5 = 20

;- The end ---

 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade t2, 2d round, 201 5 -2016

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NAM HAi: zols - irc
vTON THI: TTENG ANH .t6p Tz
Ngiy thi:2411012015
Thdi gian ldm bdi: 180 phfit (Khdng tc€ thdi gian giao di)

oi cnfNn rHuc
ail (Thf sinh lim bii trgc ti6p vio bhi thi theo hutfirg din dut6i m6i cauy

0 Ei6m Gi6m khio sd I GiSm khio s6 2 56 phAch

(ho t6n. chfr kf) (hq t6n, cht kv) (do chri tich HOi ddne thi)
BEng s6 Bdng cht

oi tnt ndy gom cti 12 trang ttuqc tldnh sd * l-tz . Ttti sinh ki€m tra sii trang trw6c khi ldm bdl
PART A: LISTEMNG COMPREHENSION
Questions L- 5. Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Apartments Facilities Other information Cost

Rose Garden studio flat Example:
Apartrnents Entertainment pro gramme : f.219
Greek ....dancing.....
Blue Bay Apartments large salt-water
swimming pool - just (1). metres
from beach f.275
- near shops

(2\
terrace water sports f 490
Apartments

- Greek paintings
The Grand - (3). .
- overlooking (4). .. (s).f..
- near a supermarket and a disco

Questions 6- 10. Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS

Insurance benefits Maximum Amount

Cancellation (6).f..
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade I 2, 2"d round, 201 5 -20 l 6

Hospital f600. Additional benefit allows a (7).

to travel to resort

(8). ...... .. Up to f 1000. Depends on reason

deparhre

Personal belongings Up to f3000; f500 for one (9) .

Name of Assistant manager: Ben (10).

l Direct phone line: 081260543?16

Questions 11-13. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Winridge Forest Railway park
11. Simon's idea for atheme park came from.......
A. his ihildhood hobby.
B. his interest in landscape design.
C. his visit to another park.
12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when.....
A. the weather was expected to be good.
B. the children weren't at school.
C. there were fewer farming commitments.
13. Since opening, the park has had. .....
A. 50,000 visitors.
B. 1,000,000 visitors.
C. 1,500,000 visitors.

11. t2. 13.

Questions 14-18. What is currently the mair area of work of each of the following people?
Choose FIVE answers from A-H, next to questions 14-18.
Area of Work

A advertising E engine maintenance

B animal care F food and drink
C building G sales
D educational links H staffing

People
14. Simon (the speaker)

15.Liz
16. Sarah

17. Duncan

18. Judith
 EnglishExaminationforselectinggoodstudents, Grade I2,2il round,201S -20t6

Questions lg-z}.Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.

Feature Size Biggest challense Target age grouD

Railway l.2knL Making tunnels
Removing mounds
Go-Kart arena on the track (20),.
year olds

PART B: VOCABTJLARY AND GRAMMAR

r. choose the correct answer A, B, c or D to comprete the sentences.

i 21. Most of
A. tooth and
the
nail
... . in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.

22.Whenyou do something, you should

B. rank andfile c. eager beavers D. old hand

A. get through to B. turn over a new leaf

C. weigh up pros and cons D. go down well with
23. She resigned . . . .. . No one forced her to do so.
A. for her own sake B. of her own accord C. with a will D. on purpose
24. Don't carry the boxes all together. We,ll move them .
A. once in a time B. once and for all C. one and all D. one at a time
25. The members of Green organization suggest that discharging chemical pollutants into the
environment should be ....
A. encouraged B. prohibited c. allowed D. comprehended
26. No matter how we asked him to ..... the news, he would still refuse to dll us anything.
A.launch B. break C. notiff D. clear
27-l'm tryrng this alternative cold remedy. It's... .. different plant roots and herbs, and tastes
very strange.
A. consisting of B. containing C. composed of D. included

If. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to finish the passage.

For years there have been endless articles stating that scientists are on the verge of (28).
artificial intelligence, that it is just around the comer. The truth is that it may be just around'the corner,
but they (29)......... the right block yet.
Artificial intelligence (30)......... to build machine that can think. One immediate problem is
to define thought, which is harder than you might think. The speciaiists in the (31). . of urtifi.iul
intelligence complain with some justification, that anything that the machines do is dismissed as not
(32)... For example, computers can now play very, very good chess. They can't beat the greatest
qllfgrs in the world, but they can beat just about (33)......... else. If a human being played Jhess at
this level, he or she would certainly be considered smart. Why not a machine/ The answer is that the
machine doesn't do anything clever in playing chess. It uses its blinding speed to do a brute-force
search of ail (3a). moves for several moves ahead, evaluates the outComes and picks the best
Humans don't play chess that way. They see patterns, (35). computers don,t.
This wooden (36). . to thought charucteizes machine intelligence. Computers have no
judgment, no flexibility, no common sense. So-called expert systems, one of the hottest areas in
artificial intelligence, aim to mimic the reasoning processes of human experts in a limited field, such
(37) medical diagnosis or weather forecasting. There may be limited commercial applications for this
sort of thing, but there is no way to make a machine that can think about anything (38)......... the sun.
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade 12,7'd round, 2015 -2016

The hallmark of artificial intelligence to date is that a problem is severely restricted, a machine
can achieve limited success. But when the problem is (39). to a realistic one, computers fall flat
(40)......... the screens. For example, machines can understand a few words spoken individually by a
speaker that they have been trained to hear. They cannot understand (41). speech using an
unlimited vocabulary spoken by just (42) . .. . . . . . . speaker.
28. A. achieving B. setting C. arriving D. instructing
29. A. hadn't found B. haven't found C. didn't find D. haven't been found
30. A. leads B. aims C. acts D. allows
31. A. field B. way C. level D. kind
32. A. having thought B. to be thought C. being thought D. thinking
33. A. everybody B. everyone C. anything D. anybody
34. A. available B. possible C. adaptable D. positive
35. A. that B. which C. what D. since
36. A. approach B. method C. means D. key
37. A.like B. for C. as D. that
38. A. restricted B. realized C. concerned D. retained
39. A. extended B. exceeded C. expanded D. extracted
40. A. in B. on C. with D. at
41. A. continual B. continuous C. convenient D. gradual
42. A. sorhe B.a C. any D. all

28. 29. 30. 31. )2.

aa
JJ. 34. 35. 36. 37.
38. 39. 40. 4t. 42.

III. Fill in each numbered lank ONE suitable word.

Our demand for water is constantly increasing. Every year there are more and more people in
the world. Factories tum out more and more (43)... and need more and more water. We live in a world
of water. But (44)... all of it - about 97 percent - is in the oceans. This water is too (45)... to be used
for drinking, farming, and manufacturing. Only about 3 percent of the world's water is fresh. Most of
this water is not easily available to man because it is locked in glaciers and icecaps.
There is as much water on earth today (46)... there ever was or will ever be. Most of the water
we (47)... finds its way to the oceans. There, it is evaporated by the sun, it then falls back to the earth
(48)... rain. Water is used and reused over and over again. It is never used up. (49)... the world as a
whole has plenty of fresh water, some regions have a water shortage. Rain does not fall (50).. . over the
earth. Some regions are always too dry, and (51)... too wet. A region that usually gets enough rain
may suddenly have a serious dry spell and (52)... region may be flooded with too much rain.

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION

I. Read the following passage, then do the exercises below.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
 English Exaninationfor selecting good students, Grade 12, 2d round, 20tS -2016

List of Headings
i The expansion of international tourism in recent years
ii How local communities can balance their own needs with
the demands of wildemess tourism
iii Fragile regions and the reasons for the expansion of tourism there
iv Traditional methods of food-supply in fragile regions
,v Some of the disruptive effects of wilderness tourism
/Vl The economic benefits of mass tourism
/
/
.!/ 53. Section A
54. Section B
55. Section C
l/ The Impact of Wilderness Tourism
A. The market for tourism in remote areas is booming as never before, Countries all across the world
are actively promoting their "wildemess" regions - such as mountains, Arctic lands, deserts, small
islands and wetlands - to high-spending tourists. The attraction of these areas is obvious: by definition,
wilderness tourism requires lifile or no initial investment. But that does not mean that there is no cost.
As the T992 Unrted Nations Conference on Environment and Development recognized, these regions
are fragile (i.e. highly vulnerable to abnormal pressure) not just in terms of theiiecology, but ai-so in
tenns of the culture of their inhabitants. The three most significant types of fragile environment in
these respects, and also in tenns of the promotion of the earth's surface they cover, are deserts,
mountains and arctic areas. An important characteristic is their marked seasonality, with harsh
conditions prevailing for many months each year. Consequently, most human activiiies, including
tourism, are limited to quite clearly defined parts of the year.
Tourists are drawn to these regions by their natural landscape beauty and the unique cultures of
their indigenous people. And poor govemments in these isolated areas have welcomed ihe new breed
of 'adventure tourist', grateful for the hard currency they bring. For several years now, tourism has
been the prime source of foreign exchange in Nepal and Bhutan. Tourism is also the key element in the
economies of Arctic zones such as Lapland and Alaska and in desert areas such as Ayers Rock in
Australia and Arizona's Monument Valley.

B. Once a location is established as a main tourist destination, the effects on the local community are
profound. When hill-farmers, for example, can make more money in a few weeks working ur po.t.r,
for foreign trekkers than they can in ayeff working in the fields, it is not surprising that many oith.*
give up their farrn-work, which is thus left to other members of the family.-In some hill regions, this
has led to a serious decline in farm output and a change in the local diet, Lecarrs. there is insufficient
labour to maintain terraces and irrigation systems and tend to crops. The result has been that many
people in these regions have turned to outside supplies of rice and other foods.
In Arctic and desert societies, year-round survival has traditionally depended on hunting
animals and fish and collecting fruit over a relatively short season. However, as some inhabitants
become involved in tourism, they no longer have time to collect wild food; this has led to increasing
dependence on bought food and stores. Tourism is not always the culprit behind such changes. AII
kinds of wage labour, or government handouts, tend to undermine traditional survival systems.
Whatever ttre cause, the dilemma is always the same: what happens if these new, external sources of
income dry up?
The physical impact of visitors is another serious problem associated with the gowth in
adventure tourism. Much attention has.focused on erosion along major trails, but perhaps more
important are the deforestation and impacts on water supplies arising from the need to piovide tourists
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade 12,2"d round, 2015 -2016

with cooked food and hot showers. In both mountains and deserts, slow-growing trees are often the
main sources of fuel and water supplies may be limited or vulnerable to degradation through heavy use.

C. Stories about the problems of tourism have become legion in the last few years. Yet it does not have
to be a problem. Although tourism inevitably affects the region in which it takes place, the costs to
these fragile environments and their local cultures, can be minimized. Indeed, it can even be a vehicle
for reinvigorating local cultures, as has happened with the Sherpas of Nepal's Khumbu Valley and in
some Alpine villages. And a growing number of adventure tourism operators are trying to ensure that
their activities benefit the local population and environment over the long term.
In the Swiss Alps communities have decided that their future depends on integrating tourism
more effectively with the local economy. Local concem about the rising number of second home
developments in the Swiss Pays d'Enhaut resulted in limits being imposed on their growth. There has
also been a renaissance in communal cheese production in the area, providing the locals with a reliable
source of income that does not depend on outside visitors.
Many of ihe Arctic tourist destinations have been exploited by outside companies, who employ
transient workers and repatriate most of the profits to their home base. But some Arctic communities
are now operating tour businesses themselves, thereby ensuring that the benefits accrue locally. For
instance, a native corporation in Alaska, employing local people, is running an air tour from
Anchorage to Kotlebue, where tourists eat Arctic food, walk on the tundra and watch local musicians
and dancers.
Native people in the desert regions of the American Southwest have followed similar strategies,
encouraging tourists to visit their pueblos and reservations to purchase high-quality handicrafts and
artwork. The Acoma and San Ildefonso pueblos have established highly profitable pottery businesses,
while the Navajo and Hopi groups have been similarly successful with jewellery.
Too many people living in fragile environments have lost control over their economies, their
culture and their environment when tourism has penetrated their homelands. Merely restricting tourism
cannot be the solution to the imbalance, because people's desire to see new places will not just
disappear. Instead, communities in fragile environments must achieve greater control over tourism
ventures in their regions, in order to balance their needs and aspirations with the demands of tourism.
A growing number of communities are demonstrating that, with firm communal decision-making, this
is possible. The critical question now is whether this can become the norm, rather than the exception.

Do thefollowing statements reflect the opinion of the writer of the above reading passage?
Write
YES if the statement reflects the opinion of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the opinion of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

56. The low cost of setting up wildemess tourism makes it attractive to many countries.
57. Deserts, mountains and Arctic regions are examples of environments that are both ecologically and
cultrnally fragile.
58. Wilderness tourism operates throughout the year in fragile areas.
59. The spread of tourism in certain hill-regions has resulted in a fall in the amount of food produced
locally.
60. Traditional food-gathering in desert societies was distributed evenly over the year.
61. Government handouts do more damage than tourism does to traditional pattems of food-gathering.

56. 57. 58.

59. 60. 61.

 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade 12, ?d round, 20t 5 _20t 6

Complete the table below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the above passage for each answer.

The positive ways in which some local communities have re;porded to tor.tr-
People/ Location Activify

Swiss Pays d'Enhaut Revised production of (62).

Arctic communities Operate (63). ... businesses
Acoma and san Ildefonso Produce and sell (64). .

Navajo and Hopi Produce and sell (65)..

II. Read the following passage , then do the exercises

A. A sense orserrdeverops in r",,I;:ililtffi';:J,'.'.::;[:'fi:,L

can useury be thought orin
terms of the gradual emergence of two somewhat separate feature: the self as a subject, anA
the self as
an object. William James introduced the distinction in 1892, and,contemporaries oihis, such
as
Charles Cooley, added to the developing debate. Ever since then psychologists have continued
building on the theory.
B. According to James, a child's first step in the road to self-understanding can be seen as the
recognition that he or she exists. This is an aspect of the self that he labellid ,self-as-subject,, and
he
gave it various elements. These included an awareness of one's own agency (i.e. one's po*e,
to act),
and an awareness of one's distinctiveness from other people. These features gradually .-.rg.
as in'fants
explore their world and interact with caregivers. Cooley (1902) suggested tnx usense of the
self-as-subject was primarily concerned with being able to exercise power. He proposed that
the earlies
t examples of this are an infant's attempts to control physical objects, such as toys or his or her own
limbs. This is followed by attempts to affect the behiviour of other people. For Lxample, infants leam
that when they cry or smile someone responds to them.
C' Another powerful source of information for infants about the effects they can have on the world
around them is provided when others mimic them. Many parents spend a lot of time, particularly
in the
_"qll months, copying their infant's vocalizations and expressions. In addition, young children enjoy
looking in mirrors, where the movements they can see are dependent upon their own movements. This
is not to say that infants recognize the reflection as their own image (a iater development). However,
Lewis and Brooks-Gunn (1979) suggest that infants'developing understanding that the movements
they see in the mirror are contingent on their own, leads to u gro*irrg u*ur.nJ5 that they are distinct
from other people. This is because they, and only they, can cliar,ge the reflection in the mi,or.
D. This understanding that children gain of themselves as active agents continues to develop in their
attempts to cooperate with other in play. Dunn (1988) points out that it is in such day to-day
relationships and interactions that the child's understanding of his or her self emerges. Empiiical
investigations of the self-as-subject in young children *e, ho*euer, rather scarce because of difficultie
s of communication: even if young infants can reflect on their experience, they certainly cannot
express

this aspect of the self directly.

E. Once children have acquired a certain level of self-awareness, they begin to place themselves in a
whole series of categories, which together play such an important part in defining them uniquely as
'themselves'. This second step in the development of a full sense of self is what James called the
'self-as-object'. This has been by many to,be the aspect of the self which is most influenced by social
elements, since it is made up of social roles (such as student, brother, colleague) and characteiistics
 English Examination for selecting good students, Grade I 2, 2"d round, 20 r 5 -20 r 6

72. 73. 74. 75.

Complete the summary below

choose oNE woRD oNLy from the passage for each answer

, How children acquire a sense of identity

First, chidren come to realise that he carhave an effect on the world aound them, for example
by handling objects,_or causing the image to move when they face a (76)..:......... . This
aspect of
self-awarenessisdifficulttoresearchdirectly,because of (77)...........problems.Secondly,children
start to become aware of how they are viewed by others. One importani stage
in this process is the
visual recognition of themseves which usually occurs when they feach the a'ge of
two. In Western
societies at least, the development of self-awareness is often linked to a sens"e
of (7g). can lead
to disputes.

PART D: WRITING
I' Task I (79- 85). The graph below gives information from a 2008 report about consumption of
energy in the USA since 1980 with projections until2030. Summariz. the irrfo.mation
by
selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

You should write at least 150 words.

U.S Enelgy Consumption by tuel (19fl}.ZB0)
50
Petrol and Oil
45

40

E3s
Coal
e30
e
NaturalGas
Ers
(!
dzo
15

.10
Nuclear
SolarAffind
5
Hydropower
0
1980 1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010 201s 2020 2025 2030
History Projections
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade I 2, 2"d round, 20t 5 -20 I 6

II. Task 2 (86 - 100). Write a composition about the following topic:
Every year several languages die out. Some people think that this is not important
because life will be easier if there are fewer languages in the world.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your owrt knowledge or
experience.
You should write at least 300 words.
(You mustn't mention any proper name.)
 English Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade 12, 2,d round, 20 t 5 -20 t 6

l/'
Yt'
 Englkh Examinationfor selecting good students, Grade r 2, 2"d round, 20t5 -20t 6

Total mark: 1A0: 5 = 20

--- The end --
 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)

A. LISTENING (Each recording will be played TWICE)

Part 1. Questions 1-10

You are going to hear a conversation on filling an enrollment form. As you listen, complete the form
below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each numbered blank.

EARLY LEARNING CHILDCARE CENTRE ENROLLMENT FORM

Example
Parent or guardian: Carol Smith

Personal details
Child’s name: Kate
Age: (1)____________________
Address: (2)___________________ Road, Woodside 4032
Phone: (3)____________________
Childcare information
Days enrolled for (4)____________________
Start time (5)____________________am
Childcare group The (6)____________________ group
Which meal(s) are required each day? (7)____________________
Medical conditions Needs (8)____________________
Emergency contact Jenny Ball
Relationship to child (9)____________________
Fees Will pay each (10)____________________

Part 2. Questions 1-5

You will hear people talking about different situations. For each question, choose the best answer A, B or C.
1. What does the woman say about learning Chinese?
A. It's more difficult to speak than write.
B. She finds the pronunciation easy to learn.
C. The grammar is not so difficult.
2. What does the woman say about her current job?
A. She is able to focus on her work.
B. She finds her colleagues very chatty.
C. She likes the atmosphere in the office.
3. What does the man say about travelling alone?
A. There is always someone to talk to.
B. It can be a problem if you are ill.
C. Decisions are easier to make.
4. What does the man plan to do after his voluntary work?
A. Find a job in a zoo. B. Do a journalism course. C. Work in Borneo.
5. Why is the woman calling?
A. To explain changes in arrangements.
B. Because she's run out of money.
C. To avoid being late for an interview.

1
Part 3. Questions 1-5
You will hear an interview with Leo Stone reviewing a book called “Following in Shackleton's Footsteps”
by Henry Worsley. For questions 1-5 complete each sentence with ONE word.
1. Leo Stone has been on quite a few __________ to the Pole himself.
2. Henry Worsley, descended from Shackleton's captain, took Shackleton's compass and _________ with
him on the trip.
3. The team had to undergo strict training, but they found the biggest challenge was the ________one.
4. They had similar problems to Shackleton, for example strong __________ kept them inside their tents for
a couple of days.
5. Despite the difficulties, Worsley was __________ about reaching the Pole.

B. PHONETICS

Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer
by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
1. A. September B. government C. primary D. separate
2. A. oceanic B. comprehensible C. television D. situational
3. A. mountain B. fountain C. police D. kitchen
4. A. replacement B. confinement C. argument D. enjoyment
5. A. politics B. frequency C. algebra D. specific

C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer A, B, C or D.

1. We hadn’t expected the trip to be ________ exhausting.
A. such B. so C. such an D. like so
2. Jane: “I hear Tom’s always been a bit of a problem.” Brian: “Yes, he’s the _______ of the family.”
A. lone wolf B. black sheep C. lame duck D. red bull
3. The curriculum at a public school is as good________ of any private school.
A. as or better than that B. as or that better than
C. as that or better than D. or better than
4. Well, it was _______good result, but you could’ve done better!
A. rather B. a bit C. a little D. a fairly
5. Jane: “Should we go to London or Paris?” Brian: “______________”
A. Let’s sleep on it and make our decision tomorrow.
B. How about tomorrow morning?
C. Let sleeping dogs lie, will you?
D. What about doing overnight?
6. Marriage, the American students believe, is essentially a partnership of _________.
A. equivalents B. equals C. equivalence D. equaling
7. About six million years ago, the Mediterranean sea is said ________, ________ thick layers of salt in
southern France.
A. to have evaporated – depositing B. to be evaporating – deposit
C. to evaporate – depositing D. having evaporated – to deposit
8. Not knowing who her father was, Laura asked her mother to __________ at the wedding.
A. give away her B. give her away C. give up her D. give her up
9. Susanna had always been an exemplary student, so it came as no surprise to us all that she passed the
exam__________.
A. correctly B. with difficulty C. truly D. with flying colors
10. Jane: “How do you like your meat done?” Brian: “_________________________.”
A. I don’t like it B. Yes, please C. Well done please D. Very much

2
Part 2. Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank.

Not all the creatures on the (1) _________ species list are doomed to extinction, as 1. DANGER
the story of the giant panda has shown. Their whole (2) _________ was considered to be 2. EXIST
in jeopardy some years ago, but now, after (3) __________ the most influential symbol of 3. BECOME
nature conservation, things are looking up. Their plight highlights how (4) _________ can 4. POPULATE
impact natural (5) _________ and should serve as a reminder that the unique habitats of 5. DIVERSE
these incredible creatures are (6) _________ irreplaceable. The good news is that whilst 6. SIMPLE
there may be an unwillingness to halt development and (7)_________ for the sake of 7. GROW
nature alone, many people are beginning to understand that sustainability can aid (8) 8. DEVELOP
_________ by bringing economic benefits, through eco-tourism for example, to
communities that are home to pandas. Such an (9) _________ would not only serve to 9. ARRANGE
protect the pandas, but also (10) _________ the lives of the inhabitants in the local 10. RICH
communities.
Part 3. The text below contains 5 errors. Edit the text by finding and correcting the errors as the
example below.
Line
The effects to employees of working long hours can be very serious, especially over a period of 1
time. Businesses need to look at whether their working practises encourage overwork. We should 2
consider the impact of long working hours on health and for family life. Children whose parents 3
are at work most of the times really miss out. When parents have little free time to spend with their 4
family, their children often develop problems with their behavior but get into bad habits. It is very 5
easy for children to get out of control because their busy parents have very few influence on them. 6
Example: Line 1: to => on

D. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by circling the corresponding letter
A, B, C or D.
In Death Valley, California, one of the hottest, most arid places in North America, there is much salt,
and salt can damage rocks impressively. Inhabitants of areas elsewhere, where streets and highways are
salted to control ice, are familiar with the resulting rust and deterioration on cars. That attests to the
chemically corrosive nature of salt, but it is not the way salt destroys rocks. Salt breaks rocks apart
principally by a process called crystal prying and wedging. This happens not by soaking the rocks in salt
water, but by moistening their bottoms with salt water. Such conditions exist in many areas along the eastern
edge of central Death Valley. There, salty water rises from the groundwater table by capillary action through
tiny spaces in sediment until it reaches the surface.
Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground. Death Valley provides
an ultra-dry atmosphere and high daily temperatures, which promote evaporation and the formation of salt
crystals along the cracks or other openings within stones. These crystals grow as long as salt water is
available. Like tree roots breaking up a sidewalk, the growing crystals exert pressure on the rock and
eventually pry the rock apart along planes of weakness, such as banding in metamorphic rocks, bedding in
sedimentary rocks, or preexisting or incipient fractions, and along boundaries between individual mineral
crystals or grains. Besides crystal growth, the expansion of halite crystals (the same as everyday table salt)
by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by hydration can contribute additional stresses. A rock durable
enough to have withstood natural conditions for a very long time in other areas could probably be shattered
into small pieces by salt weathering within a few generations.
The dominant salt in Death Valley is halite, or sodium chloride, but other salts, mostly carbonates and
sulfates, also cause prying and wedging, as does ordinary ice. Weathering by a variety of salts, though often
subtle, is a worldwide phenomenon. Not restricted to arid regions, intense salt weathering occurs mostly in
salt-rich places like the seashore, near the large saline lakes in the Dry Valleys of Antarctica, and in desert
sections of Australia, New Zealand, and central Asia.
1. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The destructive effects of salt on rocks.
B. The impressive salt rocks in Death Valley.
3
 C. The amount of salt produced in Death Valley.
D. The damaging effects of salt on roads and highways.
2. The word "it" in bold refers to _______.
A. salty water B. groundwater table C. capillary action D. sediment
3. The word "exert" in bold is closest in meaning to _______.
A. put B. reduce C. replace D. control
4. In paragraph 2, why does the author compare tree roots with growing salt crystals?
A. They both force hard surfaces to crack.
B. They both grow as long as water is available.
C. They both react quickly to a rise in temperature.
D. They both cause salty water to rise from the groundwater table.
5. The author mentions “the expansion of halite crystals … by hydration" in order to__________.
A. present an alternative theory about crystal growth
B. explain how some rocks are not affected by salt
C. simplify the explanation of crystal prying and wedging
D. introduce additional means by which crystals destroy rocks
6. The word "durable" in bold is closest in meaning to_________.
A. large B. strong C. flexible D. pressured
7. The word "shattered" in bold is closest in meaning to_________.
A. arranged B. dissolved C. broken apart D. gathered together
8. The word "dominant" in bold is closest in meaning to__________.
A. most recent B. most common C. least available D. least damaging
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the effects of salts on rocks?
A. Only two types of salts cause prying and wedging.
B. Salts usually cause damage only in combination with ice.
C. A variety of salts in all kinds of environments can cause weathering.
D. Salt damage at the seashore is more severe than salt damage in Death Valley.
10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about rocks that are found in areas where ice is
common?
A. They are protected from weathering.
B. They do not allow capillary action of water.
C. They show similar kinds of damage as rocks in Death Valley.
D. They contain more carbonates than sulfates.
Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to complete the following passage by
circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
TEEN FASHION
It is widely believed that boys are less interested in fashion than girls. While it is true that fashion for guys
is not as widely followed as fashion for girls, it is becoming more and more important. Girls’ fashion (1)
_________ to change more often, or at least it is more widely advertised. You can’t help (2) _________ when
fashion gets serious. One minute everyone is wearing one (3) _________ brand of trainers; six months later,
something new is in and a perfectly good pair of trainers gets pushed to the back of the wardrobe.
At some schools, the abolition of school uniform has also had (4) _________ an impact on what teenagers
wear. In other schools, where uniforms are more common, keeping up with teenage fashion is less (5)
_________ than in schools where kids can wear casual clothes. Nowadays, it costs more and more to stay (6)
_________ fashion and this can mean some students feel (7) _________ if what they are wearing is not trendy
enough. Some kids may even feel ashamed (8) _______ their parents don’t have enough money to buy them the
latest gear. The pressure from friends and the media to be trendy is so great that it is difficult to (9) _________.
For adults, it is easier to ignore the peer pressure, but (10)________ a teenager - boy or girl - you need a lot of
courage to say no to fashion.
1. A. looks B. comes C. becomes D. seems
2. A. to notice B. noticing C. to raise awareness D. awareness raising
3. A. similar B. same C. particular D. peculiar
4. A. fairly B. quite C. very D. really
5. A. profitable B. wealthy C. economic D. expensive

4
6. A. at B. by C. for D. in
7. A. embarrassed B. shameful C. shameless D. shy
8. A. if B. unless C. provided D. whether
9. A. refrain B. resist C. react D. retain
10. A. as B. from C. with D. like
Part 3. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
MY FIRST ENCOUNTER WITH DRACULA
I had been riding all (1) _________ and it had already got dark. I was on my way to Dracula’s castle,
but I had only got as far as the first village. I wanted to get (2) _________ my destination before midnight.
The mountain was steep and the forest all around was black and silent. Suddenly, I heard a strange sound
(3)_________ the distance. A few seconds later, I heard a horrible howl and realized that there were wolves
in the forest. I was beginning to wish I (4) _________ stayed at the village inn and waited until morning
before continuing with my journey, but I had been hoping to reach the castle just after eleven – no later than
mid-night. In his letter, Count Dracula had said he (5) _________ wait up till I arrived. I rode on.
(6) _________ a while, I came to a fork in the road. On my left, through the trees, I could see the
castle. Excited, I took the road (7) _________ led to Dracula’s castle. Soon, I was outside the gate. I
knocked and waited. After a few seconds, I heard a key turning. The door (8) _________ and I saw him.
“Good evening” he said “Come in, we have been waiting for you. We’ll have some wine and after that I’ll
show you to your room.” I made polite conversation with the Count for an hour or so and (9) _________ I
was shown upstairs. I was so tired I slept till midday the (10) _________ day.

E. WRITING
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one. You must not change the word given.
1. There is no point in waiting any longer. He’s not going to come. (WORTH)
→ It ___________________________________________________________.
2. They said he wasn’t tall enough to play basketball in the national team. (TOO)
→ According ____________________________________________________.
3. The number of students applying for our scholarship has increased dramatically. (INCREASE)
→ There has ____________________________________________________.
4. “Many thanks for your timely support”, said Jenny to the man. (GRATITUDE)
→ Jenny _______________________________________________________.
5. He was so angry that he was lost for words. (ANGER)
→ Such was ____________________________________________________.
Part 2. Write an essay within 250 words on the following topic.
“Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication such as letters, e-mails, or
telephone calls.”
Do you agree or disagree with the following statements?
Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.

-----THE END-----

Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

5
 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – THPT

(Đáp án gồm 02 trang)

A. LISTENING. (20 pts)

Part 1. (10 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. 4 2. 46 Wombat 3. 3345 9865 4. Monday (and) Thursday 5. 8.30
6. red 7. lunch 8. (to wear) glasses 9. aunt 10. month

Part 2. (5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A

Part 3. (5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. expeditions 2. diary 3. mental 4. winds 5. confident

B. PHONETICS. (5 pts: 1p/each correct answer)

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D

C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR. (25 pts)

Part 1. (10 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C

Part 2. (10 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. endangered 2. existence 3. becoming 4. overpopulation 5. diversity
6. simply 7. growth 8. development 9. arrangement 10. enrich

Part 3. (5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer – 0.5 pt/ each finding + 0.5pt/ each correction)
Mistake/ line Correction
1. Line 2: practises practices
2. Line 3: for on
3. Line 4: times time
4. Line 5: but and
5. Line 6: few little

D. READING (30 pts)

Part 1. (10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. C

Part 2. (10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A

Part 3 (10 pts: 1p/each correct answer)

1. day/ afternoon 2. to 3. in 4. had 5. would
6. After 7. that/which 8. opened 9. finally/ then 10. next/ following

6
E. WRITING. (20 pts)

Part 1. (5 pts: 1pt/each correct answer)

1. It is not worth waiting any longer. He’s not going to come.
2. According to them, he was too short to play basketball in the national team.
3. There has been a dramatic increase in the number of students applying for our scholarship.
4. Jenny expressed her gratitude to the man for his timely support/ for the man’s timely support.
5. Such was his anger that he was lost for words.

Part 2. Essay Writing (15 pts)

Correct form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
writing ideas and relevant examples (8pts)
(15 points) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (4pts)
- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (3pts)

Incorrect form of essay - Contents: a provision of all main reasons and appropriate supporting
writing ideas and relevant examples (4pts)
(8 points) - Language: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures (2pts)

- Presentation: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style (2p)

------------------- Hết-------------------

7
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HÓA Năm học: 2015 - 2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Lớp 12-THPT
Ngày thi: 10 tháng 3 năm 2016
Thời gian : 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi này gồm có 07 trang

Họ tên thí sinh: ...................................................... Phòng thi số:..........Số báo danh:.............

PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D. mountain
2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (3 pts)
3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D. depend
4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D. Individual
5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D. interactive
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15 pts)
6. ..............1915 that the cinema really became an industry.
A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D. Until in
7. I really appreciate________ to help me, but I am sure I’ll be able to manage by myself.
A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that you offer
8. My friend’s uncle has been________ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
9. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “………….”
A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
10. My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times C. more three times than
B. three times as much as D. as much three times as
11. We bought some ________.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
12. After years of neglect, there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. Refurbishment
13. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is_____ the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. Onto

1
14. On the_____, optimists believe that life will be much better than it is today.
A. contrary B. contrast C. opposition D. opponent
15. You had your house decorated, .............. ?
A. hadn’t you B. didn’t you C. weren’t you D. haven’t you
16. A part – time job gives me the freedom to ………… my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
17. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the
pond, .............., and the pond’s location.
A. what the quality of the water is B. how is the water quality
C. the quality of water D. what is the water quality
18. __________ its accuracy, laser is very useful in medicine.
A. In view of B. As a result of C. Thanks to D. Despite
19. ______ for their strong fiber include flax and hemp.
A. Plants are grown B. Plants grown
C. Plants that grow D. To grow plants
20. ______ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical
illusion.
A. What the Moon B. The Moon which
C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
Question II: The following passage contains 10 unnecessary words. Find and write the
word(s) on your answer sheet (10 pts) (Questions 21-30).
line
1 As you will see from my curriculum vitae, I have attended university, where I studied
English and Law. After finishing my course, I took a job in a travel agency in Paris and
now I organise few hours for people who wanting to go to Australia and the United
States. Although I enjoy this very much, I feel I need to get more experience and it
5 would seems to me that working as a specialised tour guide in England would help me
for do that. I would rather work in an English-speaking country, as I need to practise
my English. I spend one year at London University, which it was most useful. I did
much conversation classes and at first I thought that I would find them difficult.
However, they turned out to be very enjoyable. I will have no any difficulty in coming
10 to England for an interview if you will let me know in plenty of the time. I enclose
11 details of my present employer who will be too pleased to send you a reference.

Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
31. By the time the war is over, thousands of innocent people ( kill)_________.
32. Tom will never forget ( send)______ to a boarding school when he was just 8 years old.
33-34. The accident ( report)_______(cause)________ by a reckless motorist.
35. Many people (invite) ______ to the party couldn’t come because it rained heavily.
36. In her report, she mentioned (treat) ______ at a hospital abroad last year

2
37. Hardly our teacher (enter) ________the classroom when it started to rain.
38. Bi Rain, together with 58 members of the South Korean National Military Symphony
Orchestra and 17 traditional musicians, (come) _________to Vietnam since yesterday.
39. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look) _______ for the escaped prisoner.
40. My uncle would rather that I ( not leave) _________ yesterday.
Question IV: Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
41. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save _______ species.(DANGER)
42.There are some ______ and differences between the New Year in Japan and that in Vietnam.
(SIMILAR)
43. He resigned for a ___________________ of reasons. (VARIOUS)
44. We have to decide to interview only the best six __________ for the job. (APPLY)
45. Her son is always mischievous and ______, which annoys her very much. (OBEY)
46. Sugar is the_________ of healthy teeth. (DESTRUCTION)
47. What percentage of the city’s _______ live in poverty? (HOUSE)
48. When confronted with a mass of red tape, many people feel a sense of ______(POWER)
49. Mr. Pike has_________ his wife by three years. (LIVE)
50. I was a bit_______ by my performance in the first exam, but I decided (MORAL)
to make an extra effort in the ones left.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for
each space. (10 pts)
Childhood is the time when there are (51)_________ responsibilities to make life
difficult. If a child has good parents, he is (52) _________ , looked after and loved, whatever he
may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to
do anything in return. In (53) _________, life is always presenting new things to the child-
things that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well- known. A child
finds pleasure playing in the rain , or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous
adventure. But a child has his (54) _________ .He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks
older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) _________ what
he has done wrong. His life’s therefore not perfectly happy.
When a young man starts to (56) _________his own living, he becomes free from the
discipline of school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He
can no longer expect (57) _________ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to
work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as
a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of
his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of trouble and has good
health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) _________ in his
job and of building up for himself his own position in society.
Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the
old to be unhappy. With old age (59) _________wisdom and the ability to help others with

3
advice wisely given. The old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life:
they can watch their grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if
their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60) _________ the battle of
life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to
continue the fight.
51. A. little B. a few C. a little D. few
52. A. eaten B. fed C. feeded D. fetched
53. A. short B. term C. addition D. reality
54. A. injury B. difficulty C. problem D. pain
55. A. because B. by C. at D. for
56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn
57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone
58. A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments
59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come
60. A. out B. across C. through D. back
Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
THE THREAT TO THE ENVIRONMENT
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in___61___.Many
species of animals are threatened, and could easily become ____62__ if we do not make an
___63___ to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted
for their fur or for other valuable ___64___ of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are
caught ___65___ and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat
- the place ___66____ they live - is disappearing. More ___67___ is used for farms, for houses
or industry, and there are fewer open spaces ___68___ there once were. Farmers use powerful
chemicals to help them grow better crops but these chemicals ___69__ the environment and
harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones
___70___ unless we can solve this problem.
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape.
They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the
often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also
provide considerable environmental benefits.
Line 5 One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and
emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees
can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000
miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is
called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and
Line 10 asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than
organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of
these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas.

4
 Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is
Line 15 already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the
urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects
of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop
gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof,
human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some
Line 20 rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others
are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few
hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and
garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop
Line 25 gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also
help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the
summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which
can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that
materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating
Line 30 bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city
dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are
not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental
Line 33 investment.

71. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the
following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
72. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ........................
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
73. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that
..................
a. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
b. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
c. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. b and c B. a and b C. a D. a, b, and c

5
74. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main
difference between parks and rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
75. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except
........................
A. increased space for private relaxation
B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers
D. improved air quality
76. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
........................
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect
B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land
D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
77. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as................................
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
78. Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim
that rooftop gardens are good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can
remove from the air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a
rooftop garden.
79. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.
B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended.
D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
80. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that
..................
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop
gardens.
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens.
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city
park.
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the
peak of summer.

6
 PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. The heavy rain made it impossible for us to have our picnic.
à Had ___________________________________________________
82. People no longer smoke so many cigarettes as they used to.
à The ___________________________________________________
83. My decision to get up to dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing.
à The moment ___________________________________________
84. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
à He is the most __________________________________________
85. We were all shocked by his reaction.
à His reaction came_________________________________________
Question II: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as
possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not change the form of the given
word. (5 pts)
86. I left my last job because I didn’t really agree with my manager’s approach. ( EYE)
à I left my last job because I_______________________ with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that the accident was my fault. ( BLAME)
à All the witnesses said that___________________________ the accident.
88. It was childish of him not to accept my apologies. ( REFUSED)
à He _________________________________________________ of him.
89. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. (EARS)
à What ____________________________________________ last night.
90. She thought it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time. (FOUND)
à She _______________________________________ the class on time.
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts):
Some people say that cell phones have improved modern life. Others believe that cell
phones have caused many problems to people. What is your opinion? In about 150 - 200 words,
write an essay to assert your point of view on this problem.

---------- THE END ---------

7
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
THANH HOÁ Năm học: 2015-2016
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
HD CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC Lớp 12 THPT
Ngày thi: 10/03/2016
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang.

A- ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I.

6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B

11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B
16.A 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D
Question II.
WORD LINE WORD LINE
21. few 3 26. much 8
22. who 3 27. any 9
23. would 5 28. will 10
24. for 6 29. the 10
25. it 7 30. too 11
Question III
31. will have been killed 36. having been treated
32. being sent 37. had our teacher entered
33. was reported 38. has come
34. to have been caused 39 must be looking
35. invited 40. hadn’t left
Question IV

41.endangered 42. similarities 43. variety 44. applicants 45. disobedient

46. destroyer 47.households 48. powerlessness 49. outlived 50. demoralised/
demoralized

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

( Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
Question I
51.D 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.D
56.D 57.C 58.A 59.B 60.C

8
Question II.
61. danger 62. extinct 63. effort 64. parts 65. alive
66. where 67. land 68. than 69. pollute 70. left
Question III.
71. C 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. A
76. C 77. C 78. B 79. C 80. B
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
81. - Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic.
- Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.
82. The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be.
83. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
84. He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem
85. His reaction came as a shock to us all
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
86. I left my last job because I didn’t really see eye to eye with my manager.
87. All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident.
88. He refused to accept my apologies, which was childish of him
89. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
90. She found it too diffcult to come to the class on time.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân
bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1 - 4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ
pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không
quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25
Tổng số điểm thí sinh làm đúng
Điểm bài thi = ---------------------------------------
5

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TUYÊN QUANG CẤP QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

SỐ PHÁCH
(Do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)
Đề thi có 13 trang
• Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.
• Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào tờ đề thi.


Điểm của bài thi Chữ ký của giám khảo
Bằng số Bằng chữ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2





SECTION I. LISTENING: You will hear each recording twice (5 points)
Part 1: You will hear a conversation between a client and a Flight Centre agent about making changes
to an airline booking.
Question 1- 5. Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER
for each answer.

1. How long does it take to fly from Singapore to Hong Kong SAR? _____________________________

2. What time should the Greys check in? ______________________________________

3. What is the reason they cannot change their flight dates? __________________________________

4. What date will the Greys fly back to Hong Kong SAR? ______________________________________

5. What does Mrs. Grey want to do as soon as she gets back? _________________________________

Question 6-10. Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

6. Beth will_________________ the confirmation details to Mrs. Grey.

7. The maximum weight for_________________ luggage is 10 kilogram.

8. Mr. and Mrs. Grey will check in one_________________ at extra cost.

9. The reservation number is_________________

10. Mrs. Grey’s preference is for a seat next to the _________________

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Part 2: You will hear the Public Relations Officer from the council reviewing the events that were
hosted by the town in the previous year.
Question 11-16. What does the speaker say about the following events?
Write the correct letter A, B or C next to the question 11-16
A. They are art-focused
B. They are land-based
C. They are water-based

______ 11. The National Selections Competition

______ 12. The National Championships

______ 13. The Seriously Social Competition

______ 14. The Women’s Only Event

______ 15. The Autumn’s Festival

______ 16. The Kingstown Youth Tournament

Question 17-20. Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

School Holiday Programme

# Place Type Activities

Athletics, football, swimming, 17

One Prince Park Sporting
_____________________

Cooking, 18 __________________,
Two Lord Hall creative
craft, hair-styling

Skateboarding, rafting,
Three Duke Recreational Area 19_____________________ orienteering, 20_______________,
trekking

Part 3 (Question 21 – 25): Listen to the conversation between a man and a woman and choose
the best answer.
21. According to the conversation, which item did the woman NOT purchase with her credit card?
A. a digital camera
B. a TV
C. a stereo

22. What is one reason to explain why the woman obtained a student credit card?
A. She wants to buy things at a discount using the card.
B. She hopes to establish a good credit rating.
C. She doesn't want to borrow from her parents.
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23. According to the man, what is one reason for NOT having a credit card?
A. People generally have a difficult time getting out of debt.
B. Students often apply for more credit cards than they need.
C. The interest rates on student cards are very high.

24. What does the woman imply about how she plans on resolving her credit card problems?
A. She hopes that someone will give her the money.
B. She plans on getting rid of her student credit cards.
C. She is going to return the items she purchased on the card.

25. What is the man going to do for the woman to help her manage her money?
A. help her find a better paying job to cover her expenses.
B. teach her how to prepare a financial management plan.
C. show her how she can apply for low-interest student credit cards.

SECTION II: GRAMMAR AND LEXICO (3 points)

Part 1: Circle the best answers (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions.
1. He couldn’t _________his father that he was telling the truth.
A. admit B. confide C. trust D. convince
2. My passport _________last month, so I will have to get a new one.
A. elapsed B. expired C. ended D. terminated
3. His answer was so confused that I could hardly make any _________of it at all.
A. interpretation B. meaning C. intelligibility D. sense
4. After the campaign a special medal was _________to all combatants.
A. gained B. awarded C. earned D. deserved
5. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no _________for them.
A. request B. claim C. demand D. requirement
6. At the last concert we had the privilege of _________the composer’s latest symphony.
A. listening B. attending C. assisting D. hearing
7. Luckily my wallet was handed in to the police with all its contents _________.
A. preserved B. intact C. contained D. unscathed
8. He looks much older. His financial worries seem to have taken a terrible _____ on his health.
A. burden B. toll C. strain D. tax
9. A part-time job gives me the freedom to _________my own interests.
A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch
10. I bought this fridge because I had confidence in the _________name.
A. mark B. maker C. brand D. commodity

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Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space.
1. I wonder which party is going to put forward Mr. Cox's ______ in the next election. (CANDIDATE)
2. It wasn't clear who of the neighbors showed so strong a determination as to ______ the police of the
argument the Browns had at home. (NOTE)
3. Some of you must have forgotten to ______ the iron before leaving the house and therefore the fire
broke out. (CONNECT)
4. It is feared that this dreadful accident in the chemical plant may have severe ______ for the natural
environment in this region. (IMPLY)
5. The boy’s ______ behavior was the primary reason for which he was expelled from school. (OBJECT)
6. She wants to be an actress but her parents ______ of her intention. (APPROVE)
7. In the Middle Ages, salt was very valuable so that slaves were ______ with it. (COMPARE)
8. The ______ of the trains and the buses cause frustration and annoyance. (FREQUENT)
9. It is usually forbidden to destroy ______ buildings. (HISTORY)
10. This matter is very ______. Don’t discuss it outside the office. (CONFIDENCE)

Your answer:

1......................... 2.......................... 3.......................... 4........................... 5..............................

6......................... 7.......................... 8.......................... 9........................... 10..............................

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistakes a n d WRTTE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS in the space provided. (Line 1) has been done as an example.

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The Earth is the only place we know of in the universe who can Line 1: that
support human life. However, human activities are made the planet Line 2___________________
less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consume two-thirds Line 3___________________
of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so just Line 4___________________
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to stay alive, we are rapidly destroyed the resources we have by Line 5___________________
which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is Line 6___________________
either built on nor washed into the sea. Renewable resources are Line 7___________________
exploited so much that it will never be able to recover completely. We Line 8___________________
discharge pollutants onto the atmosphere without any thought of the Line 9___________________
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consequences. As a result, the planet's ability to support people is Line 10 __________________
being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and Line 11__________________
consumption is making increasingly heavy demands on it. Line 12__________________
The Earth's natural resources are there for us to use. We need Line 13__________________
food, water, air, energy, medicines, warm, shelter and minerals to 15 Line 14__________________
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keep us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensibly in Line 15__________________
how we use the resources they will last indefinitely. But if we use Line 16__________________
them wastefully and excessively they will soon run away and everyone Line 17__________________
will suffer.

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SECTION III: READING COMPREHENSION (6 points)
Part 1: Read the passage and circle one correct answer (A, B, C or D) f or each gap.
According to a magazine article I have read recently, we now live in an age of increasing leisure. Not
only are more and more people reaching (1) _____ age with their taste for enjoyment and even
adventure relatively (2) ______ but the working week is becoming shorter and the opportunities for (3)
_____ are becoming greater and greater all the time. Not to mention the fact that people (4) _____ to
spend less time traveling to work or may even be working from home. What I can’t understand,
however, is who these people are. As far as I can (5) ______ the whole thing is another one of (6) ____
journalistic fictions. I admit that there are a lot of retired people (7) _____ , but I am not sure that all of
them are dashing about learning hang-gliding or sailing single-handed (8) _____ the world. My own
parents seem to spend most of their time gazing at the television. And as for the shorter working week,
I wish someone (9) _______ remind my company about it. I seem to be working longer and longer hours
all the time. The little leisure time I have is eaten into by sitting in traffic jam or waiting for trains to
show up at rain-swept platforms. I haven’t noticed any dramatic improvements in my (10) ______
either, but perhaps I just have to wait until I get my pension.

1. A. retirement B. their C. later D. third

2. A. present B. survived C. free D. intact
3. A. this B. longer C. leisure D. people
4. A. use B. tend C. have D. demand
5. A. concern B. imagine C. expect D. tell
6. A. the B. those C. these D. some
7. A. in our days B. in these times C. nowadays D. now and again
8. A. round B. over C. through D. into
9. A. would B. to C. had D. might
10. A. cost of living B. lifestyle C. lifeline D. livelihood

Part 2: Read the text below and fill in each gap with one suitable word.
THE CULT OF CELEBRITY

Once, children had ambitions to be doctors, explorers, sportsmen, artists or scientists. Now, taking
their lead from TV, they just ‘want to be famous’. Fame is no (1) ______________ a reward for gallant
service or great, perhaps even selfless endeavour. It is an end in (2) ______________, and the sooner it
can be achieved, the sooner the lonely bedroom mirror can be replaced by the TV camera and flash gun,
the (3) ______________ . Celebrity is the profession (4) ______________ the moment, a vainglorious
vocation which, (5) ______________ some 18th-century royal court, seems to exist largely (6)
______________ that the rest of us might watch and be amazed (7) ______________ its members live
out their lives in public, like self-regarding members of some glittering soap opera.

Today, almost (8) ______________ can be famous. Never has fame been more democratic, more
ordinary, more achievable, (9) ______________ wonder it’s a modern ambition. It’s easy to see why
people crave celebrity, (10) ______________ generations reared on the instant fame offered by

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television want to step out of the limousine (11) ______________ the flashlights bouncing around them.
(12) ______________ doesn’t want to be the centre of attention at some time in their lives?

Modern celebrity, peopled by the largely vain and vacuous, fills a need in our lives. It peoples talk
shows, sells goods and newspapers and rewards the famous for – well, (13) ______________ famous.

Part 3: From the list in the box, select the correct words to complete the text and write them in the
space provided. Note that there are more words than there are spaces. Each word can be used once
only. The first one (0) has been done as an example.

debated soonest worst only emotional

technology acquire accent controversy optimum
education examination level no question
age

One aspect of the current debate on language teaching in Australian schools is the (0) question of
when is the best time for people to learn a second language.

Language teaching within the education system in Australia has traditionally been concentrated at
the secondary school (1) ________________. However, many people argue that the (2)
________________ age to commence language learning occurs in the early primary years or even in
pre-school, when children are able to (3) ________________ a language naturally with minimum
interference from their mother tongue. Some suggest that early adolescence is in fact the (4)
________________ time to begin to learn a language, given the psychological and (5)
________________ problems many high school students face. It should be remembered, however, that
many studies have shown that there is (6) ________________ age at which one cannot learn a language.
At 60 years, 70 years or 80 years you can still learn a language. What will cause the learner the greatest
difficulty after puberty is the (7) ________________. The reasons for this problem with accent have
been much (8) ________________.

Part 4: Read the following text and then choose from the list below the best phrase to fill each of
the spaces. There are more phrases than needed.
THE PULL OF THE LAND
Motorists driving along Croy Brae in Strathclyde, Scotland, sooner or later slow down or stop completely
in utter confusion. For Croy Brae is one of the most disorienting places on earth. Approaching the brae
("hill") from the north is an uncanny experience. The road appears to slope downwards and drivers
assume that the slope will accelerate the vehicle. Yet if they slow down, they are likely to come to a
complete halt. (1) _________ , the road runs uphill, not downhill. Unable to believe what has happened,
many motorists stop, only to find that their car begins to slide backwards, "uphill". (2) _________ but in
reverse. Thinking they are heading uphill, they accelerate, only to discover that they are speeding along
faster than they intended. The road actually goes down. No one has yet been able to come up with a
satisfactory explanation of what causes these strange effects at Croy Brae. (3) _________ magnetic
forces induced by the surrounding iron-rich rocks exerted such a strong attraction that they could
actually pull automobiles uphill. (4) _________ , but another theory suggests that the sensations are
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due to an optical variations in the earth's magnetic field - to which our sense of balance may somehow
be linked. (5) _________ the phenomenon is not unique to Croy; there are similar places all over the
world. Such roads have to be driven to be believed. (6) _________ can ever be explained, such conjuring
tricks of nature are a magnet for tourists and all lovers of the strange and bizarre.

A. Whether or not the truth about them

B. Despite every appearance to the contrary
C. This explanation is now generally dismissed
D. People on foot have similar experiences
E. Whatever the explanation
F. Little that is known about this experience
G. Travellers who are approaching from the south experience a similar situation
H. People do not realise I It was once believed that

Your answer:

1............. 2............... 3................ 4................ 5.................. 6……………...

Part 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
The reading passage below has 5 paragraphs (A-E). Which paragraph focuses on the information
below? Write the appropriate letters (A-E) before the questions 1-5.
Notes: Write only ONE letter for each answer.

_______ 1. The way parameters in the mind help people to be creative.

_______ 2. The need to learn rules in order to break them.

_______ 3. How habits restrict us and limit creativity.

_______ 4. How to train the mind to be creative.

_______ 5. How the mind is trapped by the desire for order.

The creation myth

A. It is a myth that creative people are born with their talents: gifts from God or nature. Creative
genius is, in fact, latent within many of us, without our realizing. But how far do we need to
travel to find the path to creativity? For many people, a long way. In our everyday lives, we have
to perform many acts out of habit to survive, like opening the door, shaving, getting dressed,
walking to work, and so on. If this were not the case, we would, in all probability, become
mentally unhinged. So strongly ingrained are our habits, though this varies from person to
person, that sometimes, when a conscious effort is made to be creative, automatic response
takes over. We may try, for example, to walk to work following a different route, but end up on
our usual path. By then it is too late to go back and change our minds. Another day, perhaps.
The same applies to all other areas of our lives. When we are solving problems, for example, we
may seek different answers, but, often as not, find ourselves walking along the same well-
trodden paths.

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 B. So, for many people, their actions and behaviour are set in immovable blocks, their minds
clogged with the cholesterol of habitual actions, preventing them from operating freely, and
thereby stifling creation. Unfortunately, mankind’s very struggle for survival has become a
tyranny- the obsessive desire to give order to the world is a case in point. Witness people’s
attitude to time, social customs and the panoply of rules and regulations by which the human
mind is now circumscribed.
C. The groundwork for keeping creative ability in check begins at school. School, later university
and then work teach us to regulate our lives, imposing a continuous process of restrictions,
which is increasing exponentially with the advancement of technology. Is it surprising then that
creative ability appears to be so rare? It is trapped in the prison that we have erected. Yet, even
here in this hostile environment, the foundations for creativity are being laid, because setting off
on the creative path is also partly about using rules and regulations. Such limitations are needed
so that once they are learnt, they can be broken.
D. The truly creative mind is often seen as totally free and unfettered. But a better image is of a
mind, which can be free when it wants, and one that recognises that rules and regulations are
parameters, or barriers, to be raised and dropped again at will. An example of how the human
mind can be trained to be creative might help here. People’s minds are just like tense muscles
that need to be freed up and the potential unlocked. One strategy is to erect artificial barriers or
hurdles in solving a problem. In this way, they are obliged to explore unfamiliar territory, which
may lead to some startling discoveries. Unfortunately, the difficulty in this exercise, and with
creation itself, is convincing people that creation is possible, shrouded subliminal, as deviating
from the safety of one’s own thought patterns is very much akin to madness. But, open
Pandora’s box, and a whole new world unfolds before your eyes.
E. Lifting barriers into place also plays a major part in helping the mind to control ideas rather than
letting them collide at random. Parameters act as containers for ideas, and thus help the mind to
fix on them. When the mind is thinking laterally, and two ideas from different areas of the brain
come or are brought together, they form a new idea, just like atoms floating around and then
forming a molecule. Once the idea has been formed, it needs to be contained or it will fly away,
so fleeting is its passage. The mind needs to hold it in place for a time so that it can recognise it
or call it again. And then the parameters can act as channels along which the ideas can flow,
developing and expanding. When the mind has brought the idea to fruition by thinking it
through to its final conclusion, the parameters can be brought down and the idea allowed to
float off and come in contact with other ideas.

Questions 6-10: Circle one correct answer to the following questions
6. According to the writer, creative people ____________.
A. are usually born with their talents B. are born with their talents
C. are not born with their talents D. are geniuses
7. According to the writer, creativity is ____________.
A. a gift from God and nature B. an automatic response
C. difficult for many people to achieve D. a well-trodden path
8. According to the writer, ____________.
A. The human race’s fight to live is becoming a tyranny
B. The human brain is blocked with cholesterol
C. The human race is now circumscribed by talents
D. The human race’s fight to service stifles creative ability

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9. Advancing technology ____________.
A. holds creativity in check B. improves creativity
C. enhances creativity D. is a tyranny
10. According to the author, creativity ____________.
A. is common B. is increasingly common
C. is becoming rarer and rarer D. is a rare commodity

Questions 11-15: Do the statements below agree with the information in the Reading Passage?
Write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage.
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage.
Not given if there is no information about the statement in the passage.

_______ 11. Rules and regulations are examples of parameters.

_______ 12. The truly creative mind is associated with the need for free speech and a totally free society.

_______ 13. One problem with creativity is that people think it is impossible.

_______ 14. The act of creation is linked to madness.

_______ 15. Parameters help the mind by holding ideas and helping them to develop.

Part 6: Read the following extract and answer the questions.

Climate Change
Recent computer model simulations and statistical measurements have confirmed what scientists
have been suspecting for a long time now, namely that the average temperature of our planet is on the
rise. Since the late 19th century, climatologists have observed an increase of about 0.6oC in the global
temperature, which makes the earth overall hotter by about 0.2%. They estimate that this trend and
direction of development will continue throughout the next decade, amounting to an increase by 1.4%
to 5.8% between 1990-2010. In the same spirit, ocean levels have risen by 15 cm since 1880 as well, and
are anticipated to double their increase by 2030.
This observed global warming is a cause for concern in many scientific communities as it may lead
to drastic and severe changes in the environment. Significantly warmer weather has a direct impact on
glaciers, which have been shown to melt and retreat in almost all mountain ranges in the world. Glacier
retreat contributes to the rise in the sea level, which in turn causes flooding, mudslides and the
destruction of valuable ecosystems. Already a large number of cities in the world are built below sea
level, and they feel the threat of oncoming high tides most severely. Floods plague and terrorise India,
Bangladesh and Eastern Europe year after year. Crops are destroyed, people lose their homes and their
cattle, and evacuation costs are a financial burden to these poor countries.
While coastal cities have to cope with the devastating effect of regular floods, territories with no
access to the sea face a different kind of plight and suffering. In such regions, high temperatures bring
with them hot, dusty winds, but unfortunately no rain whatsoever. Africa, especially, has been hit hard
by a series of droughts, and people are going through some difficult times as they cannot farm the land
and raise their crops. Lack of food and water causes not only famine, but also contributes to the spread
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of infectious diseases as people have no access to safe drinking water and are unable to clean
themselves properly. Epidemics are on the rise also due to the fact that the unusually hot weather
increases the number of bugs, flies and mosquitoes that carry malaria and other diseases.
Global warming not only has a negative effect on humans, but also impacts wildlife. Several
species are already in danger of becoming extinct because climate change has modified their
environment. This is especially true at the poles, where glacier retreat and warmer ocean temperatures
are forcing polar bears and penguins out of their natural habitat.
In salt marshes and deltas, where freshwater mixes naturally with salt water coming from the
ocean, several species of fish are dying out because of a phenomenon called ocean acidification. Since
oceans are currently warmer, it gets more difficult to dissolve the salt in its waters. As a result, seawater
becomes more acidic, almost like vinegar, and eats away at the coral reefs that other fish use to feed on.
At the same time, more salty ocean water than usual mixes with regular freshwater coming from rivers.
This upsets the natural balance within marshes and rivers and leads to the destruction of numerous rare
wildlife.
Scientists therefore agree that it is high time to stop the spread of global warming before it is too
late. Solar radiation and volcanic emissions undoubtedly produce natural global warming. Yet, the major
responsibilities for turning global warming into a potentially dangerous activity falls on humans. Ever
since the Industrial Revolution, the burning of fossil fuels to power cars and generate electricity has led
to the ever-increasing emission of toxic carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
These gases trap heat and lead to the formation of the so-called greenhouse effect, which in turn raises
global temperatures. Only decisive government measures will curb down and limit the growth of this
destructive effect on our planet.

1. What is the main topic of this reading passage?
A. Human-related causes of global warming
B. Overall causes of global warming
C. Effect of global warming on the environment
D. Predictions for the future of global warming

2. What can be inferred about the weather in 2010?

A. The weather will be hotter by about 1.4% as of 2010.
B. Temperatures will increase by about 1.4% on a yearly basis.
C. The weather will be hotter by about 1.4% as compared to 1990.
D. Precipitations will rise by about 1.4% as compared to 1990.

3. Which of the following best fits the highlighted sentence in paragraph 1?

A. The level of water in the ocean is already 15 cm higher in comparison to 1880, and will probably
be 30 cm higher in the year 2030.
B. The level of water in the ocean is already 15 cm higher in comparison to 1880, and it certainly will
add another 15 cm until the year 2030.
C. The level of water in the ocean is as high as 15 cm in comparison to 1880, and will probably be 30
cm higher in the year 2030.
D. The level of water in the ocean used to be 15 cm lower in 1880, but it will probably be 15 cm
higher in the year 2030.

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4. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Many people in African countries die of hunger because they cannot farm their land without any
rain.
B. Many people in African countries no longer live there because hot and dusty winds caused them
to leave for other countries.
C. Many people in African countries get sick because the little water they have is contaminated.
D. Many people in African countries get sick because more insects bite them when it is hot outside.

5. Why does the author mention polar bears and penguins at the end of paragraph 4?
A. To demonstrate one negative effect of global warming.
B. To suggest a possible comparison between humans and wildlife.
C. To give an example of behavior in the wild.
D. To predict the destruction of wildlife described in the next paragraph.

6. What does the phenomenon called “ocean acidification” imply?

A. Mixing freshwater with saltwater is not good for fish.
B. Mixing too much freshwater with saltwater is not good for fish.
C. Having too much salt in freshwater is not good for fish.
D. Having too much salt in the ocean water is not good for fish.

7. Which two things cause global warming without being harmful to the environment?
A. The greenhouse effect
B. The heat that comes from the sun
C. The gases that come out of volcanoes.
D. The gases that come from burning fossil fuels.

8. What does the author think about global warming?

A. it must and can be controlled by people.
B. It must but cannot be controlled by people.
C. It can and will definitely be controlled by people.
D. It should but will not be controlled by people.

IV. WRITING (4 points)
Part 1:
The graph below shows the number of books read by men and women at Burnaby Public Library from
2011 to 2014.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant.
You should write about 150 words.

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Part 2: Essay writing
Nowadays the way many people interact with each other has changed because of technology.
In what ways has technology affected the types of relationships that people make? Has this been a
positive or negative development?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
You should write about 250 words.
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_________ The end ________

13
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
TUYÊN QUANG
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian thi: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 11/10/2015
SỐ PHÁCH
(Do Chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)

Đề thi có 12 trang

• Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu.

• Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào tờ đề thi.

Điểm của bài thi Chữ ký của giám khảo

Bằng số Bằng chữ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2

SECTION I: LISTENING (5 points)

There are 4 parts in this section.

Part 1: You will hear Peter Walsh being interviewed for a job. Listen and choose the
correct answer for each question. You will hear the interview TWICE.
1. How long has he been in his present job?
A. Since 2005
B. For about three years
C. For three months
2. Why does he want a new job?
A. For a change
B. To earn more money
C. To get promotion
3. What does he like most about his job?
A. The right to take action and make decisions
B. His colleagues
C. Working conditions
4. What kind of person are they looking for?
A. Someone prepared to work overtime
B. Someone who is punctual
C. Someone who wants to get on
5. What qualifications does Peter have?
A. A degree
B. A school leaving certificate
C. A postgraduate diploma

1
Part 2:

You will hear two people discussing an extramural course. Complete the note below
with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear
the talk TWICE.

DEPARTMENT OF EXTRAMURAL STUDIES CENTRAL COURSE

APPLICATION FORM

Course No.: (1) _____________________ Fee enclosed: (2) £ __________________

Course title: Drama & Theatre Studies

If there is an examination involved, do you intend sitting it? Yes/No

Surname: (3) _____________________________

First name: Jenny

Address: (4) ___________________________ Avenue, Longford

Telephone No.: day time: No evening: (5) __________________________

Occupation: (6) __________________________ Age: (7) ________________

Educational qualification: Degree in (8) ______________________________

Diploma in (9) ______________________________

Previous extramural courses attended: (10) __________________________

Part 3: Listen to the talk and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False
(F). Check (√) the appropriate boxes. You will hear the talk TWICE.

T F

1. Every year, Americans produce 308 billion pounds of garbage.

2. There were 3,900 landfills in the United States.

3. Many landfills will be closed because there will be no more room for garbage.

4. People in the United States always concern about the garbage problem.

5. People bring newspapers, glass, cans and plastic to a recycling center once
after a month of saving.

2
Part 4: You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about
her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. For each question, circle the correct
answer. You will hear the interview TWICE.

1. How long has Britta lived in Berlin?

A. four years B. six years C. twenty years
2. What does Britta say about living in Berlin?
A. She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise.
B. She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn.
C. She likes living in a big, busy city.
3. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is __________
A. a rather expensive place to live
B. a good place to eat out
C. a long way from the city centre
4. Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, likes going __________
A. to the park with her
B. to the shop with his parents
C. to a gallery with her
5. Britta has a lot of friends who __________
A. live near her B. work with her C. are still in England

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3,9 points)

Part 1: Choose one word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle its
corresponding letter A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer.
1. I’m sure he enjoyed the evening. He didn’t say much because he has _________ nature.
A. quiet B. subdued C. inactive D. passive
2. My car was so old that I could only sell it for _________.
A. rubbish B. scrap C. debris D. waste
3. Sandra and Paul have just bought a small house _________ of the town.
A. in the district B. on the outskirts C. in the suburb D. in the edge
4. You’ve got to get up very early tomorrow, so don’t forget to _________ your alarm.
A. set B. put C. wind D. fix
5. Sharon: “You live in Mumbai? How long _________ there?
Shilpa: “Oh, it must be 5 years now.”
A. do you live B. have you lived C. are you living D. did you live
6. It takes me a long ____ to get dressed for work in the morning; I never know what to wear!
A. hour B. way C. age D. time
7. It was only _____ he told me his surname that I realized that he had been to the same
school.
A. then B. until C. when D. as soon as
8. I am not very _________ on history.
A. fond B. keen C. interested D. committed
9. She was caught cheating in the race. _________, she was disqualified.
A. Explicitly B. Equally C. Accordingly D. Fundamentally
10. _________, I dislike Hollywood films but this was an exception.
A. As a result B. As far as I know C. As a rule D. As it turns out

3
11. Most _________ tell lies – they just want to win elections.
A. politics B. political C. politicians D. politically
12. You are talking too fast. I am getting _________.
A. mystified B. puzzled C. lost D. baffled
13. I walked away as calmly as I could _________ they thought I was the thief.
A. if not B. to avoid C. in case D. owing to
14. Lorra: "I didn’t get the job?"
John: “Oh, _________.”
A. Good heavens! B. That’s brilliant! C. Same to you D. Never mind, better luck next time
15. The face of the moon is changed by collisions with meteoroids, ___ new craters to appear.
A. causing B. cause C. caused D. have caused
16. If you put your money in the bank, it will earn ten percent _________.
A. interest B. profit C. deposit D. investment
17. Most doctors and nurses have to work on a ________ once or twice a week at the hospital.
A. solution B. night shift C. household chores D. special dishes
18. The government must take _________ to reduce crime so that tourists will feel safe when
they come to our country.
A. ways B. stages C. measures D. steps
19. Ann hoped ______ to the private club so that she could make important business contacts.
A. inviting B. to be invited C. to invite D. being invited

Part 2: Read the text below. Use the word given in CAPITAL at the end of each line to
form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Number (0) is an example.

WEATHER FORECASTING

Before the (0) invention of instruments to measure weather conditions, INVENT

people relied on their own (1) _______ of the wind and sky as well as the OBSERVE

(2) _______ of birds and animals in connection with different types of BEHAVE

weather. Many rhymes that have an (3) _______ with the weather have ASSOCIATE

become popular over the centuries. In the short term, a (4) _______ like SAY

“red sky in the morning, sailor's warning”, often proves to be (5) _______ accurate.SURPRISE

However, it is very (6) _______ that next year's summer can be predicted LIKELY

from this year's winter. Such predictions can't be considered (7) _______ USE

in precise weather forecasting. (8) _______ of this can be found in past records. PROVE

Nowadays, all aspects of the weather such as hours of (9) _______ SUN

and (10) _______ are observed on a basis by meteorological stations with RAIN

specialised equipment.

1. ___________ 2. ___________ 3. ___________ 4. ___________ 5. ___________

6. ___________ 7. ___________ 8. ___________ 9. ___________ 10. __________

4
Part 3: Fill in the gap in the following sentences with suitable prepositions or
participles. Write your answers in the space provided.

1. Jack didn’t expect to come up ____________ such difficulties.

2. The problem stems ____________ the government’s lack of action.

3. We put ____________ a sum of money each month for our summer holidays.

4. "I understand Diane lost her job." - "Yes, but she's actually better ____________.”

5. She carries ______________ her duties well enough but she’s just not interested in her job.

6. We were on holiday there when the civil war broke ____________.

7. This watch used to belong to my great-great-grand father. It has been handed

____________ from father to son for five generations.

8. My karate instructor always singles ____________ Robert to demonstrate techniques as he’s

the best in class.

9. I think I always associate this song ____________ our holiday in Majorca.

10. I just want to settle ____________ and start a family before I get too old.

SECTION III. READING COMPREHENSION (6,1 points)

Part 1: Read the passage and fill in one word that best fits each space.

The Lake District

One of the most beautiful parts of Britain is the Lake District. The Lake District is
situated (1) _______ the north-west of England and consists of high hills, mountains, and, of
course, lakes. In all there are sixteen lakes of (2) _______ the largest is Lake Windermere.

Over the years many writers have been associated (3) _______ this region but there can
be no doubt that the most famous of all was William Wordsworth (1770-1850), (4) _______
was born and lived almost the whole of his life there. He had close connections with the village
of Grasmere, (5) _______ he lived for some thirteen years. Many of his poems speak of the
joy he felt when surrounded (6) _______ beautiful countryside.

Every year, more (7) _______ fourteen million people from Britain and abroad visit the
Lake District to enjoy the fresh air and the scenery. Unfortunately, the region (8) _______
becoming a victim of (9) _______ own success in attracting visitors; (10) _______ many
people come to the Lake District that they threaten to destroy the peace and quiet which many
are searching for there.

Your answers:

1. ___________ 2. ___________ 3. ___________ 4. ___________ 5. ___________

6. ___________ 7. ___________ 8. ___________ 9. ___________ 10. __________

5
Part 2: Read the text and circle one correct answer A, B, C or D that best fits each
blank.

TRAFFIC IN OUR CITIES

The volume of traffic in many cities in the world today continues to expand. This causes
many problems, including serious air pollution, lengthy delays, and the greater risk of
accidents. Clearly, something must be done, but it is often difficult to (1) ____________
people to change their habits and leave their cars at home.
One possible approach is to make it more expensive for people to use their cars by (2)
____________ charges of parking and bringing in tougher fines for anyone who (3)
____________ the law. In addition, drivers could be required to pay for using particular routes
at different times of the day. This system, (4) ____________ as “road pricing”, is already
being introduced in a (5) ____________ of cities, using a special electronic card fixed to the
windscreen of the car.
Another way of (6) ____________ with the problem is to provide cheap parking on the
(7) ____________ of the city, and strictly control the number of vehicles allowed into the
centre. Drivers and their passengers then use a special bus service for the (8) ____________
stage of their journey.
Of course, the most important thing is to provide good public transport. However, to get
people to (9) ____________ the comfort of their cars, public transport must be felt to be
reliable, convenient and comfortable, with fares (10) ____________ at an acceptable level.
1. A. make B. arrange C. suggest D. persuade
2. A. enlarging B. increasing C. growing D. developing
3. A. crosses B. refuses C. breaks D. cracks
4. A. named B. seen C. called D. known
5. A. quantity B. number C. total D. sum
6. A. doing B. handling C. dealing D. solving
7. A. outskirts B. border C. outside D. limit
8. A. late B. end C. complete D. final
9. A. pass on B. throw away C. give up D. leave out
10. A. taken B. kept C. given D. stood

Part 3. You are going to read a newspaper article about air travel. Choose the most
suitable summary sentence from the list A-l for each part (1-7) of the article. There is
one extra summary sentence which you do not need to use. There is an example at
the beginning (0).

A. It is important to report missing luggage.

B. Airlines make special efforts to avoid errors.

C. Airlines sometimes blame travellers for lost luggage.

D. No airline is free from mistakes.

E. Plan ahead when travelling.

F. Unexpected events can result in luggage going missing.

G. No airport can guarantee the safe handling of luggage.

H. Busy airports are likely to have more problems.

I. Losing your luggage can be very inconvenient.

6
 Flying has its disadvantages
When was the last time an airline lost your bag?
0. ____I____________
There is nothing more disappointing than
arriving at an airport overseas to discover that
your baggage has been left behind. At best
you will have to put up with wearing the
clothes you stand up in for hours or days,
until the airline reunites you with your
luggage. At worst, you may be in a different
climate zone, thousands of miles from home
and forced to wear wholly unsuitable clothes.
1. _________________
Although airlines rarely reveal how many
cases they lose, it is a fact of life that sooner
or later regular travellers will be parted from
their luggage. Even the best airlines slip up
from time to time, and it is impossible for any
carrier to guarantee that a passenger's
checked luggage will go on the same flight,
particularly when a journey calls for one or
more changes of aircraft.
2. _________________
The system works like this. Airlines insist on
exaggerated check-in times (which require
passengers to report to the airport at a given
time before departure) designed to allow
sufficient time for baggage to pass through
the airport and be loaded on to the plane.
Minimum connecting times (MCTs) are the
shortest time it takes to transfer between two
flights. These, too, are exaggerated to allow
for baggage transfers.
3. _________________
In normal circumstances the system works
well. But extra security checks at airports and
problems with air traffic combine to cause
delayed flights. All this can cause the baggage
system to fail. Then there is the possibility of
human error, or an accident in which the
destination label is torn off.
4. _________________
These problems can become severe at large
transfer airports, known as 'hubs', because of
the large number of bags that are processed.
Last year, for example, London's Heathrow
airport handled more than 41 million
passengers, of whom nine million were
changing planes. British Airways alone
handled two million transfer passengers at
Heathrow, with most making the one-mile
transfer between Terminal 1 (for Domestic
and European flights and Terminal 4 (for long-
distance flights).
5. _________________
Even efficient transfer airports, such as
Amsterdam, Copenhagen, Singapore and
Zurich have their bad days. The risk of
baggage being lost when changing planes is
higher than average at certain airports. Even
the United States has problems - Miami
airport is well known for luggage going
missing when transatlantic passengers make
immediate connections for destinations in
Latin America.
6. _________________
You should choose direct flights whenever
possible and check in well before the official
time. If a change of plane is unavoidable, or
makes your flight less expensive, then try to
fly the same airline throughout. Try to allow
more connecting time by taking an earlier
flight to the transfer airport, and make sure
you label your luggage inside and out with
your home and holiday addresses. Don't
forget to include the flight numbers.
7. _________________
If, after all this, your luggage still goes
missing, you must contact the appropriate
airline official in the baggage hall and
complete a property irregularity report (PIR).
This must be done before leaving the airport.
7
Part 4: Read the following passage then circle the best choice to the statement.
Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.
1
What are the keys to career success? Our background? Our education? Maybe. But they only
affect our careers; they by no means guarantee success. If there is any guarantee of success,
and that is questionable, it is through one’s own intrinsic qualities, one’s own hard work and a
constant re-assessment of one’s goals.
5
A recent study in the US showed that something between 10 and 20% of the Harvard College
Class of 1958 have lost their jobs in the past ten years. So, not only the best education but
also the best possible social background cannot guarantee career success. If these people,
mainly men, had not believed their background was an insurance to success in life, and if they
had searched for ways to make new and better-quality contributions to their work, they
10
wouldn’t now be out of work. Anyone can succeed, and anyone can fail, and in terms of one’s
career this is very important to recognize. As long as one has goals and one takes action to
achieve these goals, then one can be said to be following a successful career strategy.

1. Which of the following would be a suitable title for the passage?

A. Career Success B. Background and Education
C. The Guarantee of Success D. Our Intrinsic Qualities
2. As used in line 3 the word “intrinsic” means _________
A. financial. B. hard-working. C. basic. D. physical.
3. What does the author imply the reason why the Harvard graduates lost their jobs?
A. Their lack of insurance. B. Failure to work hard.
C. Bad luck D. Failure to improve their own abilities.
4. What is the way to a successful career strategy?
A. Good education. B. Having goals. C. Good background. D. Hard work.
5. What is the author’s attitude to having a good education?
A. It cannot guarantee career success.
B. It is better than changing one’s goals.
C. It is better than having a good background.
D. It is a good insurance to life and work.

Part 5: Read the following passage then circle the best choice to the statement.
Identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D.

1
Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous
speeches, among them is his moving “I Have A Dream” speech. But fewer people know much
about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the
home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather, the Reverend A.D. Williams, purchased
5
their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The Reverend
Williams, an eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many
people’s lives centered around the church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a
meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social
advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a
10
community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.

8
M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was a
musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all-black schools in a black
neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was the main artery
through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize achievement for Atlanta’s
15
black people. It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors,
doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner black-operated businesses and services. Even in the
face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he
had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a seemingly
insurmountable barrier that kept black Atlantans from mingling with whites.

1. What is this passage mainly about?

A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King’s childhood

C. M.L.’s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up in

2. The word “eloquent” in line 6 means most nearly

A. powerful B. active C. romantic D. fascinating

3. The word “gathering” in line 10 could best be replaced by

A. picking B. learning C. exciting D. meeting

4. As used, the word “eventful” in line 11 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. valued B. memorable C. admirable D. emotional

5. In line 15, the word “it” refers to which of the following?

A. achievement B. neighborhood C. segregation D. services

6. According to the author, blacks in King’s neighborhood were involved in all the following
businesses and services EXCEPT

A. dentistry B. medicine C. law D. banking

7. The word “tailors” in line 15 describes people who are associated with which of the following
trades?

A. flower arranging B. shoe making C. garment making D. book binding

8. According to the author, King was influenced by

A. community spirit B. black lawyers C. his mother D. his speeches

9. The word “thrived” in line 17 refers to which of the following?

A. achieved B. surrendered C. flourished D. held

10. As used in line 18, which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “seemingly”?

A. apparently B. inevitably C. inexplicably D. hastily

11. The word “mingling” in line 19 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. interfering B. gargling C. consuming D. associating

12. According to the author, Martin Luther King

A. had a difficult childhood B. was a good musician as a child

C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta

9
Part 6: Read the following passage then complete the sentences below, using no
more than THREE words from the passage.
Melting of sea ice in the Artic has reduced the population size of polar bears and
threatens the species with extinction.
Scientist say that the earlier annual break-up of sea ice caused by climate change is
cutting short the hunting season for the bears, which depend on floating banks of ice to reach
their prey.
Lack of sea ice in spring and summer is forcing the hungry polar bears to spend longer on
land. This gives a false impression that their numbers are increasing as they encroach on
human settlements to search for food.
Female polar bears depend on the spring hunting season in order to built the fat reserves
needed to see them through the summer months. But the ice is disappearing, which means
that the bears have not had time to build up normal levels of fat.
Since female bears become thinner, they are easily affected by diseases. Their ability to
reproduce and the survival chances of their cubs decline significantly.
The sea ice provides polar bears with a hunting ground, from which the bears can reach
their preywild seals and other marine mammals.
Scientists are worried that if the sea ice season continues to get shorter, polar bears will
not be able to spend enough time on the ice to hunt and feed themselves.

1. According to scientists, polar ice is melting because of _____________________________.

2. Polar bears are getting closer to where people live in order to _______________________.

3. When female bears cannot build up fat reserves, they are vulnerable to _______________.

4. Polar bears need a _________________ to catch seals and other marine mammals for food.

5. if the sea ice season goes on to _________________________, polar bears will not have

enough time for hunting and feeding.

SECTION IV: WRITING (5 points)

Part 1: Rewrite each sentence beginning as shown, so that the meaning remains the
same. (1 point)

1. “If I were you, I wouldn’t trust Tim” She told Sam.

She advised _________________________________________________________________

2. We arrived too late to see the first film.

We didn’t ___________________________________________________________________

3. She usually stays up so late.

She’s not used _______________________________________________________________

4. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car.

The man ___________________________________________________________________

5. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.

Having _____________________________________________________________________

10
6. No one has lived in that house for years.

That house __________________________________________________________________

7. “Would you mind not smoking in here?”

I’d rather ___________________________________________________________________

8. Sue is excited about going to Spain on holiday.

Sue is looking _______________________________________________________________

9. I only made that terrible mistake because I wasn’t thinking.

If _________________________________________________________________________

10. I’ve never read a more romantic story.

It is _______________________________________________________________________

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first
sentence using the word given. Do not change the word given. (1 point)

1. There is no sugar left in our kitchen. run

___________________________________________________________________________

2. It would be difficult for me to finish the work by the weekend. difficulty

___________________________________________________________________________

3. I’d rather not spend another day at the beach. feel

___________________________________________________________________________

4. Sally might not bring her camera to the party, so I’ll take mine. in

___________________________________________________________________________

5. When he walked out of the meeting, he didn’t say goodbye to everyone. without

___________________________________________________________________________

6. Tan looks nothing like his father. take

___________________________________________________________________________

7. My parents were always telling me what to do when I was small. being

___________________________________________________________________________

8. I can’t describe people as well as you can. better

___________________________________________________________________________

9. If I don’t leave now, I’ll miss the train. unless

___________________________________________________________________________

10. They left early because they didn’t want to get caught in the traffic. avoid

___________________________________________________________________________

11
Part 3: The chart below shows the percentage of time an average Vietnamese
student spends on Natural sciences and English from 2011 to 2014. Study the chart
carefully and comment on the proportion of time they spend on these subjects.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write about 120 words. (3 points)

50

40 Natural
sciences
30

20

10
English

0
2011 2012 2013 2014

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

____________The end___________

12
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 12 tháng 10 năm 2015
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 16 trang

SỐ PHÁCH
(Do CTHĐ chấm thi ghi)

I. LISTENING ( 5 points)

LISTENING (5 points)
Part 1: For questions 1-5, you will hear an interview with David McKinley, who recently opened
“The Adventure Centre” an adventure sports centre in Scotland, and decide whether the following
statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. David was first inspired to set up “The Adventure Centre” when he was working as a TV
cameraman.
2. David describes himself as over-critical of others when he was asked to sum himself up.
3. David says that the most memorable period of his career involved watching something being built.
4. David thinks he will have difficulty in encouraging more interest in adventure sports.
5. David tells us that his customers have unrealistic expectations about participation in adventure
sports.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: For questions 6-10, listen to a piece of news from BBC about solar energy and fill in the
missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the spaces provided.
6. According to the report, energy from the Sun is converted into electricity by _______________.
7. To make one type of solar cell, the researchers have replaced a ______________ with a chemical
that is much cheaper, completely safe and works just well.
8. Magnesium chloride, the new compound is found in bath salts and sea water and costs much less
than the currently used ____________.
9. Dr. Jon Major states that if we could reduce the cost of making the solar cells, we could really make
the difference into making solar energy ___________with fossil fuels

Page 1 of 21
10. However, more work will need to be done to see if the cost savings in the lab can work on
__________________.
Part 3: For questions 11-20, you will hear a talk on New Zealand Radio about an Art Sale which has
just been held to raise money for charity and fill in the blanks with missing information. Write NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the spaces provided.
Question 11-13
Charity Art Sale
The paintings will be displayed in the (11)___________and in a nearby Café. The sale of pictures will
begin at (12)___________on Thursday, and there will be refreshments beforehand. The money raised
will be all used to help (13) _____________________ in New Zealand and other countries.

Question 14-20
Artist Personal information
Don Studley Daughter is recovering from a
problem with her back
(14)_________________artist
James Chang Originally from Taiwan
Had a number of (15)
_____________________ there
Natalie has shown pictures in many
Stevens countries
is an artist and a(17)
___________________
Christine Shin lived in New Zealand for
(19)__________________
Korean
Type of painting
Pictures of the birds of New Zealand
(16) __________________paintings
Strong colors
soft colors, various media
mainly does (18)_______________
Paintings are based on
(20)___________________
Watercolors of New Zealand landscape

Part 4: For questions 21-25, you will hear a radio interview with two people, Frank Johnson and
Anna Pritchard, discussing education in Britain and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear.
21. What does Frank Johnson suggest about current teaching methods?
A. they help teachers get their message across in an amusing way.
B. they result in teachers losing sight of their main professional tasks.
C. they allow students a necessary break from serious study.

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 D. they encourage parental involvement in the educational process.
22. According to Frank, what is the key to a good education?
A. promoting traditional skills through creativity
B. developing general knowledge through linguistic ability
C. ensuring the accuracy of what is taught
D. enabling students to acquire reasoning powers
23. Anna Pritchard thinks that, in the average school today,
A. most teachers adopt satisfactory teaching methods.
B. there is an insufficient variety of classroom activities.
C. most teachers adapt their methods to suit different leaners.
D. there are too many students per class for teachers to deal with.
24. How does Anna think schools should change their approach?
A. by helping students investigate the ways in which they learn
B. by allowing students to choose precisely what they want to learn
C. by letting students play music in the background during class
D. by encouraging students to talk through their ideas in class
25. Anna thinks that note-taking activities should be
A. varied according to topic.
B. replaced by other activities.
C. adjusted to suit each student.
D. checked carefully for inaccuracies.
Your answers:
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3 points)

Part 1: Choose the option that best fits the blank of each sentence. (1pt)
26. By the end of next month Annabel and I .......................out with each other for three years.
A will have been going B will go C have been going D will be going
27. We have to leave now because we are due .......................in Edinburgh by six.
A being B to being C to be D be
28. It turned out that I .......................have bought Frank a present after all.
A mustn't B oughtn't C needn't D mightn't
29. It .......................that there is easily enough food in the world to feed everyone.
A has been calculated B calculates C being calculated D would calculate
30. It was the first time I .......................in such an important match.
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 A was ever playing C have ever been playing
B have ever played D had ever played
31. Nobody has any firm information, so we can only.......................on what caused the accident.
A guess B contemplate C speculate D assume
32. Cars have been banned from the city center, which makes the area much safer for..................
A passersby B onlookers C pedestrians D footmen
33. There has been a real boom in .......................electronics over the last three decades.
A consumer B customer C buyer D client
34. Are you having a .......................exam before you sit the actual exam in June?
A fake B mock C false D dress
35. I know it’s got his name on the cover, but he used a..........................
A correspondent B model C ghostwriter D fellow

Your answers:

26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces provided.
(1pt).

Car review: the XR1200

Although still a relative (36)......................... to the world of high-performance sports COME
cars, General Autos has (37)................................ quite a transformation since their first GO
effort, the Xtreme, attracted such (38 )........................... comment in the motoring press, FAVOUR
which led to disappointing sales. Their latest effort, the XR1200 (39)............................, CONVERT
went into (40).................................. last month, and I had the chance to test-drive one. PRODUCE
To say that the XR1200 is better than the Xtreme is a huge (41 )............................Not STATE
only is it much better, it represents a (42 )........................ new approach to this class of REVOLT
car. From the seats to the angle of the steering wheel, everything on this car is
(43) .............................., meaning that you can set the car up to fit you perfectly. The ADJUST
engine, too, is easy to set up for maximum efficiency, with the help of powerful dual
(44) .................................. that monitor performance 1,000 times a second. PROCESS
Even the bodywork incorporates state-of-the-art ideas, with a new durable material
that should mean that your XR1200 (45 ).................................. almost anything else LAST
on the road.
Your answers:
36. 41.

37. 42.

38. 43.

39. 44.

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 40. 45.

Part 3: There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the
space provided below. (0,5pts)
46. Tom’s very good at science when his brother is absolutely hopeless.
47. A good artist like a good engineer learns as much from their mistakes as from successes.
48. Marry told me that it was the loveliest gift she has ever received.
49. The direct sources of fresh water in lakes are rain, melted snowy and ice.
50. Many women have reached high positions in business but there are still little women in
government.

Your answers:
MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS
46 47
48 49
50

Part 4: Fill in the blank with one of these suitable prepositions or particles. (0,5pts)

51 Timmy’s only six, but he comes.......................with the funniest things sometimes.

52 The destruction of this area of habitat will mean that some species of plant will die..........................
53 You’re going to have to knuckle.......................if you don’t want to fail the exam next month.
54 Could you pass a message...................................to your brother?
55. I decided to have a few lessons to brush.......................my German before I went on holiday.

Your answers:

51. 52. 53. 54. 55.

III. READING COMPREHENSION (5 points)

Part 1: For questions 56-60, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes (0,5pts).
PASSPORT REGULATION
Please find enclosed within this envelope your newly issued passport. As a privileged passport holder,
you are obliged to read the succinct, attached information leaflet carefully and (56)_________by the
rules listed within. Bear in mind that this passport is the property of the issuing office, thus
(57)_________the sale of the passport. Allowing another individual the use of this document is a
criminal (58)________ and punishable by federal law. In the case where one’s passport is either lost or
stolen, a report to the appropriate authorities must be supplied immediately. Be aware that the passport
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office will (59)___________a thorough investigation into the loss or theft. Completion of page four of
this document is compulsory and the next of (60)_________named within should be an individual who
does not, as a rule, travel with you.
56. A. keep B. abide C. confine D. comply
57. A. forbidding B. disabling C. banning D. prohibiting
58. A. procedure B. offence C. perjury D. edict
59. A. draw up B. set down C. carry out D. put through
60. A. family B. kin C. clan D. relation

Part 2: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided below the passage. (1pt)
GET A JOB THE ON-LINE WAY
Of the (61)................. 6.5 million people in the UK using the Internet, a fifth are using it
to look for work. Applying for a job in (62) ... manner is quick, convenient and a tacit
claim that you are (63)................ the technological ball.
The positive side to internet job hunting for the applicant is the ability to find out
about an organization. You can prepare thoroughly for both application and interview
(64)………….the comfort of your PC. The main downside is that, (65) ... printed
applications, Internet forms have almost limitless (66)................ of space for applicants
to enter their details. ‘There’s always a danger they will ramble on. It is important to
remain focused on (67) ... key points an employer will be looking for,’ says Karen
Skewies, an on-line recruitment specialist. A growing number of companies use
software packages to scan applications, (68) ... including the right key words is essential.
‘These programs look for specific skills, qualifications or relevant experience. They do
so by searching for particular words or phrases,” she explains.
This must be balanced (69) ... the need to communicate your personality and
attitude. Other computer tracking systems identify particular traits, such as responsibility
or reliability. Where possible, (70) ... original in your language and avoid clichés.
Your answers:
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.

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Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided below the passage (1,5pts)
Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually
been a series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873. P. T.
Barnum built Barnum's Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison
Avenue and 26th Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later bandleader Patrick Gilmore
bought the property, added statues and fountains and renamed it Gilmore's Gardens. When Cornelius
Vanderbilt bought the property in 1879, it was renamed Madison Square Garden.
A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a
ballroom. a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However,
this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted only until 1924, when it was torn down to make way for a
forty-story skyscraper.
When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from
Madison Square Park. boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison
Square Garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location on 8 th
Avenue and 50th Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue.
Rickard's Madison Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing prizefights and circus events
until it outgrew its usefulness by the late 1950s.
A new location was found for a fourth Madison Square Garden. atop Pennsylvania Railroad
Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a
huge sports arena. a bowling center. a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-story office building,
does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite a
misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that
contributed to the original name
71. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden
(A) has had a varied history in various locations
(B) was P. T. Barnum's major accomplishment
(C) is home to many different sporting events
(D). was named after an adjacent park
72. Which paragraph discusses the third incarnation of Madison Square Garden?
(A) The first paragraph (B) The second paragraph
(C) The third paragraph (D). The last paragraph
73. What is a "venue"?

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 (A) A place where people come together (B) An event in a competition
(C) An exhibit of various products (D). An invitation to a program
74. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he
(A) purchased the property at the corner' of Madison Avenue and 26th Street
(B) made improvements to the property that he bought
(C) named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden
(D) sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt
75. The word "lavish" is closest in meaning to
(A) simple (B) modern (C) elaborate (D) outlandish
76. How long did the second Madison Square Garden last?
(A) 11 years (B) 34 years (C) 45 years (D) 60years
77. The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to
(A). circus events (B). arena (C). Square Garden (D). Square Park
78. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard's Madison Square Garden?
(A) A ballroom dance (B) A theater production
(C) A basketball game (D) A tiger show
79. The word "edifice" is most likely
(A) an address (B) an association
(C) a component (D) a building
80. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?
(A) It is on Madison Avenue.
(B) It is across from Madison Square Park.
(C) It has incredible gardens
(D) It is above a transportation center.
Your answers
71. 72. 73. 74. 75.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.

Part 4: Read the following article. Five parts of sentence have been removed from it. Choose the
most suitable part of sentence from the list A-G (in the box) for each numbered blank. There are two
parts of sentence you do not need to use. (0,5 points)
WORLD ISSUES
Over the past thirty years or so, the methods used for collecting money from the public to aid the
developing world have changed out of all recognition, (81)______, and the increasing awareness
among the population that something must be done. At the beginning of this period, it would be

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common to put money in a collecting box, perhaps on the street or at church, or to receive a small
“flag” to wear in a lapel. The 1960s saw the development of shops (82)______, donated by the public,
and which also began to sell articles manufactured in the developing world in projects set up by the
parents charity, to guarantee a fair income to local people.
The next development was probably the charity event, (83)______ to run, cycle, swim, etc. and
collected money from friends and relatives according to how far or long they managed to keep going.
The first hint of what was to become the most successful means of raising money was charity record,
where the artists donated their time and talent, and the process from sales went to a good cause. This
was perhaps a reflection of the fact that young people felt increasingly concerned about the obvious
differences between life in Europe and the United States, and that in most of Africa and Asia,
(84)______, besides being clearly shown on television. The problems were becoming hard to avoid,
(85)______. Why was so little being done? The huge success of Band Aid, and subsequent televised
concerts, reflected the power of the media and of music in particular, but also differed in style from
other events. People phoned up in their thousands on the day and pledged money by quoting their
credit card numbers. After all, if you have enough money to buy CDs and a stereo player, you can
afford something for the world’s starving children.

A. with the money donated by the public E. and which existed in a real life
B. along with the gravity of the problems faced F. but a feeling of frustration was building up
C. in which participants were sponsored G. and this concern was reflected in songs
D. which show second-hand goods

Your answers
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

Part 5: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (1,5 points)
A. The space around us affects us profoundly – emotionally, behaviorally, cognitively. In
Britain that space is changing at a pace not seen for a generation. "Surely psychology has something to
say about all this change. But is anyone listening? There is a huge amount of psychology research that
is relevant, but at the moment we’re talking to ourselves." Says Chris Spencer, professor of
environmental psychology at the University of Sheffield. Spencer recalls a recent talk he gave in which
he called on fellow researchers to make greater effort to communicate their findings to architects and
planners. "I was amazed at the response of many of the senior researchers, who would say: “I’m doing

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my research for pure science, the industry can take or leave it.” But there are models of how to apply
environmental psychology to real problems, if you know where to look. Professor Frances Kuo is an
example.

B. Kuo’s website provides pictures and plain English summaries of research conducted by her
Human Environment Research Laboratory. Among these is a study using police records that found
inner-city Chicago apartment buildings surrounded by more vegetation suffered 52 per cent fewer
crimes than apartment blocks with little or no greenery. Frances Kuo and her co-researcher William
Sullivan believe that greenery reduces crime – so long as visibility is preserved – because it reduces
aggression, brings local residents together outdoors, and the conspicuous presence of people deters
criminals.

C. ‘Environmental psychologists are increasingly in demand,’ says David Uzzell, professor of

environmental psychology. ‘We’re asked to contribute to the planning, design and management of
many different environments, ranging from neighborhoods, offices, schools, health, transport, traffic
and leisure environments for the purpose of improving quality of life and creating a better people-
environment fit.’ Uzzell points to the rebuilding of one south London school as a striking example of
how building design can affect human behavior positively. Before its redesign, it was ranked as the
worst school in the area – now it is recognized as one of the country’s twenty most improved schools.

D. Uzzell has been involved in a pioneering project between M.Sc students in England and
Scotland. Architecture students in Scotland acted as designers while environmental psychology
students in England acted as consultants, as together they worked on a community project in a run-
down area of Glasgow. ‘The psychology students encouraged the architecture students to think about
who their client group was, to consider issues of crowding and social cohesion, and they introduce
them to psychological methodologies, for example, observation and interviewing local residents about
their needs.’ The collaborative projects currently stand as a one-off experiment. ‘Hopefully these
trainee architects will now go away with some understanding of the psychological issues involved in
design and will take into account people’s needs,’ says Uzzell.

E. Hilary Barker, a recent graduate in psychology, now works for a design consultancy. She’s
part of a four-person research team that contributes to the overall work of the company in helping client
use their office space more productively. Her team all have backgrounds in psychology and social
science, but the rest of the firm consists mainly of architects and interior designers. ‘What I do is pretty

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rare to be honest,’ Barker says. ‘I feel very privileged to be able to use my degree in such a way.’
Barker explains that the team carries out observational studies on behalf of companies, to identify
exactly how occupants are using buildings, for example that staff use meeting rooms for quiet,
individual work.

F. One area where the findings from environment-behavior research have certainly influenced
building is in hospital design. ‘The government has a checklist of criteria that must be met in the design
of new hospitals, and these are derived largely from the work of the behavioral scientist Professor
Roger Ulrich,’ Chris Spencer says. Ulrich’s work has shown, for example, how the view from a patient
window can affect their recovery. Even a hospital’s layout can impact on human’s health, according to
Dr John Zeisel. ‘If people get lost in hospitals, they get stressed, which lowers their immune system
and means their medication works less well. You might think that way-finding round the hospital is the
responsibility of the person who put all the signs up, but the truth is that the basic layout of a building
is what helps people finding their way around,’ he says.

G. Zeisel also points to the need for a balance between private and shared room in hospitals.
"Falls are reduced and fewer medication errors occur in private rooms," he says. There’s also research
showing how important it is that patients have access to the outdoors and that gardens in hospitals are a
major contributor to well-being. However, more generally, Zeisel shares Chris Spencer’s concern that
the lessons from environmental psychology research are not getting through. ‘There is certainly a gap
between what we in social science and know and the world of designers and architects,’ says Zeisel. He
believes that most countries, from sports to film making, have now recognized the importance of an
evidence-based approach, and that the building trade needs to formulate itself more in that vein, and to
recognize that there is relevant research out there. ‘It would be outrageous, silly, to go ahead with huge
building projects without learning the lessons from the new towns established between 30 and 40 years
ago.’ He warns.
Task 1: Choose the correct heading each paragraph from the list of headings below.
i. A comparison between similar buildings
ii. The negative reaction of local residents
iii. An unusual job for psychologist
iv. A type of building benefiting from prescribed guidelines
v. The need for government action
vi. A failure to use available information in practical ways
vii. Academics with an unhelpful attitude

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viii. A refusal by architects to accept criticism
ix. A unique co-operative scheme
x. The expanding scope of environmental psychology
Example: Paragraph A. vii
86. Paragraph B
87. Paragraph C
88. Paragraph D
89. Paragraph E
90. Paragraph F
Example: Paragraph G. vi

Task 2: Decide whether the following statements are true (T), false (F) or no information (NG).
91. The use of environmental psychology can fewer mistakes made by staff.
92. The students from England suggested that the Scottish students should identify their client group.
93. Observing patient’s reactions to each other is used in collecting data for the research.
94. Professor Roger Ulrich believes that if the basic layout of a building is clear, patient's outcomes
will improve.
95. Environmental psychology helps to reduce pollution.

Your answers:
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

IV. WRITING (5 points)

Part 1: a. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it.(0,5pts)
96. It’s been reported that the chancellor is very satisfied with his visit to Japan.
The chancellor ____________________________________________________________________ .
97. This matter is so complicated that we don’t know how to deal with it.
So ______________________________________________________________________________ .
b. Write the new sentences using the words in brackets. Do not alter the given words in any way.
98. My younger brother speaks Spanish very well. (command)
________________________________________________________________________________ .
99. Jane is very likely to be promoted. (stands)
________________________________________________________________________________ .
100. The inspector showed us four potential health hazards. (drew)

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________________________________________________________________________.

PART 2: Write an essay summarizing and evaluating the key points from both texts. Use your
own words throughout as far as possible, and include your own ideas in your answer.
Write your answer in in about 150 words. (0.5pts)

Unsustainable tourism
We are increasingly familiar with some of the worst effects of unthinking, unmanageable,
unsustainable tourism: previously undeveloped coastal villages that have become sprawling, charmless
towns, their seas poisoned by sewage, denuded of wildlife, their beaches stained with litter and tubes of
sun cream; and historic towns, their streets now choked with traffic, their temples, churches and
cathedrals seemingly reduced to a backdrop for holiday snaps that proclaim, ‘Been there, Done that'.
Less appreciated, perhaps, is the social dislocation unsustainable tourism can cause: once-cohesive
communities disrupted as the holiday industry replaces old crafts, turning fishermen into tour boat
operators and farmers into fast-food store waiters or hotel cleaners.

Criticism of the tourism industry

Although its strongest critics view the tourism industry as a rapacious predator - moving on to fresh
conquests after one environment has been spoiled, and forever fuelling the desires of holidaymakers
with the prospect of a new paradise that must be enjoyed before it's gone -there are many within the
industry who reject the claim. They are at least partly right. There are examples where the travel trade
is doing better. Of course, reforming initiatives often come after the damage has been done and in some
cases for public relations purposes rather than from a commitment to sustainability.

Your answers:

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PART 3: The chart below shows the cost-of-living averages in two different cities as compared to the
national cost-of living average. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant. (1pt)

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Part 4. Essay writing (3pts)

Facebook dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative
effect on their study and the physical development.
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (about 250 words) to express your opinion.
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THE END!

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 12 tháng 10 năm 2015
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐÁP ÁN gồm 4 trang

SỐ PHÁCH
(Do CTHĐ chấm thi ghi)

V. LISTENING ( 5 points)

Part 1: (1PT) 0,2 points for each correct answer

1. F 2.F 3.T 4.F 5.T

Part 2: (1pt) 0, 2 points for each correct answer

6. Solar cells.
7. toxic compound.
8. poisonous chemical
9. competitive
10. Industrial scale

Part 3: (2pts) 0,2 points for each correct answer

11. Star Gallery 12. 7:30 (p.m)/ seven thirty/ half past seven 13. The disabled children
14. self-taught 15. (art) exhibitions 16. abstract 17. Website designer
18. portraits 19. two/ 2 years (yrs) 20. photographs/ photos

Part 4: 2 points for each correct answer

21. B 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C

VI. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3 points)

Part 1: Choose the option that best fits the blank of each sentence. (1pt) (0.1 point each)
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. B
35. C
Page 17 of 21
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces provided.
(1pt). (0.1 point each)
36 newcomer
37 undergone
38 unfavorable
39 convertible
40 production
41 understatement
42 revolutionary
43 adjustable
44 processors
45 outlasts

Part 3: There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the
space provided below. (0,5pts) (0.1 point each)

MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS

46 when while/ whereas 47 their his/ her
48 has had 49 snowy snow
50 little few

Part 4: Fill in the blank with one of these suitable prepositions or particles. (0,5pts) (0.1 point each)
51. up/ out
52. out
53. down
54. on
55. up

56. READING COMPREHENSION (5 points)

Part 1: (0,5pts) ( 0, 1 point for each correct answer)

56.B 57.D 58.B 59.C 60.B

Part 2: (1 pt) ( 0,1pt point for each correct answer)

61. estimated 62. this 63.on 64. from 65. unlike
66. amounts 67.the 68. so 69. against 70.be

Part 3: (1,5 pts) ( 0,15 point for each correct answer)

71.A 72.C 73.A 74.C 75.C
76.B 77.C 78.D 79.D 80.D

Part 4: (0,5 pt: ) (0,1 point for each correct answer)

81. B 82. D 83. C 84. G 85. F

Page 18 of 21
Part 5: (1,5pt) ( 0,15 point for each correct answer)

86. i 87. x 88. ix 89. iii 90. iv

91. T 92. T 93. NG 94. F 95. NG

57. WRITING (5 points)

Part 1: a. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it. (0,2pts)
96.The chancellor has been reported to be very satisfied with his visit to Japan.
97. So complicated is this matter that we don’t know how to deal with it.
b. Write the new sentences using the words in brackets. Do not alter the given words in any way.
(0,3pts)
98. My younger brother has a good command of Spanish.
99. Jane stands a good chance of being promoted.
100. The inspector drew my attention to four potential health hazard.

PART 2: Write an essay summarizing and evaluating the key points from both texts. Use your
own words throughout as far as possible, and include your own ideas in your answer.
Write your answer in in about 150 words. (0.5pts)

Content
The two main points from the first text are included in the first paragraph of this answer. The
first key point of the second text is not specifically mentioned but the second one is present,
although there is some copying of the phrasing used in the text.
Communicative Achievement
The register is suitably neutral/formal. The answer fully addresses the general issues raised in
both texts in a coherent way and the candidate’s own views are clearly expressed in the last
paragraph.
Organization
The essay is very well organized. It is divided into clear paragraphs, each having a different
focus - the first text, the second text and the writer's opinions on the size raised in the two texts.
The essay flows well, with coherence linking of points in the answer as a whole and within
paragraphs.
Language
The language used in the essay shows a good level of fluency. Complex sentences are used
throughout and these are well constructed in terms of grammatical

Unsustainable tourism
The author of the first text points out the damaging effects of unsustainable tourism. The text states
how undeveloped villages have been forced to replace traditional crafts and fishing for more appealing
entertainment to the tourist point of view. The statement ‘Been there, Done that’ results in an arrogant
approach to the so valued culture of people living in the villages. Seas contaminated by sewage, vastly
reduced wildlife, constant litter and air polluted by traffic are the main concerns when it comes to
unsustainable tourism. The author of the second text talks about holiday spots where the damage hasn't
been visible or hasn't occurred at all, and those places have been reformed and better equipped to
Page 19 of 21
welcome tourists. Unfortunately in most cases reforming came after the damage has been done.
Reforming in holiday spots has happened mostly for public relations purposes and not to commit to
sustainable tourism.
With human curiosity and tourist hunger to discover new holiday places, unsustainable tourism will
always cause problems for places newly open to tourism. The general need for holidays is growing
vastly, and the costs of holidays abroad are sometimes cheaper than holidays people can take in own
countries. As most tourists are involved in unsustainable tourism, the damage done to places and local
people will continue to happen and to spread. However, a genuine commitment to sustainable tourism
would bring benefits to the freshly discovered holiday spots in the long term.

PART 3: The chart below shows the cost-of-living averages in two different cities as compared to the
national cost-of living average. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main
features, and make comparisons where relevant. (1pt)
Ideas sufficient and interesting: 40%
Organization, coherence, cohesion: 20%
Vocabulary and grammar: 40%

These are models.

The chart shows how the cost of living in two different cities, Riverdale and Cape Alicia, compares
with the national average cost of living. The average costs of several different types of living expenses
are shown.

The cost of living in the city of Riverdale is higher than the national average in all the areas shown. The
highest is housing, with an average cost 19 percent higher than the national average. The lowest is
transportation, but that is still 4 percent higher than the national average. Groceries, utilities, health
care, and clothing all have average costs between 4 and 7 percent higher than the national average.

The cost of living in Cape Alicia is close to the national average for most types of expenses. The
expense that differs most from the national average is housing, with an average cost 12.5 percent lower
than the national average. Transportation costs average 3.8 percent lower than the national average.
The other expenses listed range from .5 to 1.2 percent higher than the national average. The cost of
living in Cape Alicia appears to be significantly lower than it is in Riverdale, and it is probably also
lower than many other cities in the nation.
Part 4: Essay writing ( 3pts)
1. Completion: (1pt)
- Consist of three parts
- Neither too long nor too short
2. Content: (0,5pts)
Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable
justification.
3. Organisation: (0,5pts)
- Present the right form of a paragraph
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: (0,5pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
- Easy to follow.
5. Punctuation and spelling: (0,5pts)

Page 20 of 21
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/1015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 1 (2 points):
What kinds of movies are popular these days? Why do you think they are popular?
- What can we learn from watching movies?
- How are movies different from live theater?
- How do you think movies will be different in the future?
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/12 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 2 (2 points):
Generally, friendships are important to people?
- How can friends help each other?
- Do people spend more time with friends or with relatives?
- How do our friendships change as we grow older?
- How do you think movies will be different in the future?
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 3 (2 points):
Why do people have hobbies?
- Are there any hobbies you think are not worthwhile?
- What can we learn from hobbies?
- Is it important to teach hobbies to children? Why or why not?
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 4 (2 points):
Describe a book you read recently.
You should say:
The title and author of the book
What the book was about
Why you decided to read it and explain why you enjoyed/didn’t enjoyreading it?

You can take notes here.

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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 5 (2 points):
Why do people read?
How important do you think reading is?
What kinds of things are popular to read these days?
How do you think reading will be different in the future?
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 6 (2 points):

Classmates are a more important influence than parents on children’s success in school.

To what extent do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

You can take notes here.

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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 7 (2points):

Some people say that computers have made life easier and more convenient. Other people say that computers
have made life more stressful and complex. What is your opinion? Use specific reasons and examples to
support your opinion.

You can take notes here.

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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 8 (2 points):

Most experiences in our lives that seemed difficult at the time become valuable lessons for the future.

To what extent do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

You can take notes here.

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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 9 (2points):

“There’s a will, there’s a way”.

Do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

You can take notes here.

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________ THE END________

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Kỹ năng: NÓI
Ngày thi: 12/10/2015 SỐ BÁO DANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of full
sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 10 (2 points):

What is a very important skill a person should learn in order to be successful in the world today?

Choose one skill and use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

You can take notes here.

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________ THE END________

 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian thi: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 20/10/2015 Số phách
Đề thi có 13 trang
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING (50 POINTS)

Part 1: You will hear a conversation between two students and their professor who is asking them to
organize a panel discussion from upcoming conference. Listen carefully and answer the questions
from 1 to 10.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
1. What period of English literature will the conference cover?
................................................................................
2. How many panel discussions have been arranged?
................................................................................
3. What is the aim of a panel discussion?
To present...............................................................
Complete the notes below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Procedure (dealt with by prof.)
Identify topic of interest involving 4. ................................
Invite panelists
Select a 5. ...............................
Decide on 6. ...........................
Guidelines
Introduction of topic & speakers – get 7. ..........................information from prof.
Each panelist speaks for 2 mins – make a hand 8. ...........................to show time is up
Primary function = panel discussion (about 40 mins)
Close discussion & give 9. .........................
Secondary function = question time (about 15-20 mins)
At the end of question time, panel is thanked and audience shows appreciation by 10.
...............................
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part 2: You will hear a radio documentary about myths. For questions 1-10, complete the sentences
with a short phrase.
Myths were created as a means of explaining 1. ......................................
Man expressed his feelings about himself and his world in stories with 2. ........................ that we call
myths.
The first Greek myths were stories 3. ............................. from parent to child.
Man’s 4. ............................. was controlled by a group of 5. ................................
The Greeks used the behaviour of the gods to show them the way to have a 6. ..................................
The 7. ...................................... of the world thought nothing existed beyond the earth.
Because of its ability to give life, Earth was represented as 8. ..............................
Only later did 9. .................................... gods appear.
1
 Names of mythological figures still familiar today were discovered written on 10. ...............................
Your answers:
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
Part 3: You will hear an interview with Margery Paige, a specialist in alternative medicine. For
questions 1-5, choose the answer (A. B, C or D) which best fits what you hear.
1. Margery tells us that the convention was held because …
A. previous events had been too informal.
B. more illnesses had come to light in the recent past.
C. an international meeting was long overdue.
D. alternative medicine had been slow to catch on among lay people.
2. According to Margery, what was different about this particular event?
A. It was more widely advertised.
B. Members of the public were able to attend.
C. People from opposing schools of thought were welcome.
D. Medical practitioners were barred.
3. The fact that non-specialists were present meant that …
A. more money was collected in registration fees.
B. no one could be recognized as being an expert.
C. the proceedings were more interesting.
D. clarity became indispensable.
4. The response received by the ideas presented at the convention was…
A. too enthusiastic.
B. rather subdued.
C. generally favourable.
D. very skeptical.
5. Margery’s conclusion was that the convention had been…
A. an indication of a smaller gap between traditional and alternative views
B. a way of improving the professional standing of alternative healers.
C. an exercise in public relations.
D. important in strengthening international collaboration.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
1. Victoria went to great ..............................to complete a high quality presentation
A. pains B. torment C. efforts D. difficulty
2. Julia’s work is not a .......................on Natalie’s.
A. spot B. patch C. scratch D. scrap
3. Somebody as conceited as Ron needs bringing down a ...................or two.
A. step B. notch C. peg D. rung
4. New technology is being .................in at work.
A. shown B. phased C. installed D. filtered
5. Many people are feeling the .....................now that there is an economic recession.
A. strain B. prod C. pinch D. pain
6. I have no appetite and I am lethargic. I’ve been feeling under ..................for ages.
A. pair B. par C. stress D. threat
7. The economic situation makes many people unwilling to take the ....................and open their own
business.
A. initiative B. bull C. plunge D. opportunity
8. I don’t know how I can ......................up the courage to tell him the awful news.
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 A. pick B. pluck C. store D. set
9. The new soap opera on Channel 3 ........................new depths in terms of tastelessness.
A. plumbs B. reaches C. fills D. achieves
10. We’ll keep you ..................of any further changes in the examination specifications.
A. noticed B. announced C. mailed D. posted
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: The passage below contains 6 errors in spelling, grammar, word form, and punctuation. For
questions 1-6, underline the errors and write the correction in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Dyslexia is a disorder that affects millions of people all over the world. It is one type of specific
learning ability that affects literacy and which can manifest itself in a number of ways. In adults,
dyslexia may not have been identify and individuals often believe they have a literacy problem
or related difficulties which make it hard for them to function efficiently in the workplace. An indicator
of whether these problems are due to dyslexia or to other reasons can be gained by running through
an adult dyslexia checklist, followed by an initial interview to gain background information about the
individuals and their educational history. If an adult is assessed as dyslexic, a report would then
provide a full description of the individual’s strengths and weaknesses and offer recommendations
for action. The concrete evidence of the presence of dyslexia provided in the report can be used in
a variety of ways, for example, when apply for support on courses and receiving apropriate support
within the workplace.
Experience suggests that the majority of dyslexic adults are relieved to discover their dyslexia.
It enables dyslexic adults to understand their educational history and put past experiences into
context; this relieves some of the frustration they will inevitably have felt. When dyslexic adults
understand their dyslexia, they are able to participate in continuing education and succeed in the
areas of their choice; some people will need specific details about dyslexia and advice in how
they can improve their skills effectively. In a sympathetic environment, dyslexic adults are able to
fulfill their potential.
Your answers:
No Mistakes Correction
1
2
3
4
5
6
Part 3: For questions 1-8, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits
in the space in the same line.
There is an example at the beginning (0).
WITH MANY THANKS
Many people have given (0) ...assistance… to me during the writing of this book, but it is to Miss
Leigh Keith, senior editor of Ramsay and Brown that I am most deeply 1. .......................(DEBT) for
her loyalty and devotion during the four years the project lasted. She gave her time and advice 2.
........................ (STINT) in order for this work to be completed, giving both moral and practical
support for the lengthy research into social conditions the project
3..............................(NECESSARY). Her 4. .......................(SURE) and encouragement sustained
me in my belief that this was valuable work and it was 5. .............................. (DOUBT) what
enabled me to continue in the face of often 6. ........................... (COURAGE) circumstances.
I must also thank my father, who has been a willing collaborator in all my efforts and who spent long
hours in libraries and on trains to distant parts of the country in search of material. I know that he will
say that he enjoyed it, but without his 7. ....................... (FLAG) enthusiasm this book would never
have been written. Finally, I would like to thank my friends and family, who have had to put up with
what must have seemed to them an 8. ......................... (EXCEPT) long drawn out piece of writing.
Thank you, all of you, very much.

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 Your answers:
1. 5.
2. 6.
3. 7.
4. 8.
Part 4: For questions 1-6, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. The secretary was asked to run .......................copies of the report for the employees.
2. I’ll see you ................; you may not be able to find your way to the lift.
3. They settled ..................the Rits as the best place for the reception.
4. We went to the Modern Art Gallery but I honestly didn't know what to make ………….. half the
pictures. Just seemed very strange to me!
5. She is so thirsty .......................success that she would do anything.
6. He triumphed .......................his competitors by flooding the market place with advertising.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
III. READING (50 POINTS)
Part 1: For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space.
Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Example: 0 – as
CHANGING SEASONS
If we measure the seasons, (0)... as .. in the past they have 1. .............., by ordinary natural
events such as the departure of migrating birds or the appearance of the first flower, then
spring now begins in November and autumn ends in December. This may seem an unlikely
situation to us, but in 2. ................ fact, data shows that spring now occurs ten to thirty days earlier
than it did, while recent research bears 3. ..................... that autumn is arriving later.
Traditional data on phonology - the study of the timing of natural events - goes 4. .......................
to 1736 in Britain. Taken 5. ................. isolation, phonological data may not mean 6.
....................., but the received wisdom from ecology is about interconnectedness. 7. ...................,
with higher temperatures in winter, some species will breed earlier and then find that their food
source has been destroyed when winter finally arrives. Competition for winter food will probably
increase too, as birds stop migrating south in winter, as has 8. ........................ happened in a 9.
........................ of cases.
10. ....................... it is often difficult to be certain that seasonal trends are progressive and not
cyclical, those involved in analyzing the information see the fingerprints of global warming in this
blurring of the seasons’ edges.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: For questions 1-12, read the three texts below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best
fits each gap. Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.
GOLD
Almost every culture throughout history has valued gold in its various 1. ............. and sought it as a
precious material, either to worship or 2. ............. in. A symbol of power and success, the desire to
own it tends to provoke greed and lust. Its very presence can make or break a nation. The esteem
associated with it has 3. .............. mankind to great lengths to obtain it and the great gold rushes
th
of the 19 century saw hundreds of thousands die in their attempt to 4. .............. it rich.
Despite declining gold prices and uncertainties in the market, as countries such as Australia
and the UK sell off large 5. .............. of their gold reserves, the desire to find gold is as
strong as ever. In the US, panning for gold has become a huge leisure industry, where once men
6. .............. and slaved for the glitter of gold, families now take their gold pans and picnics for a day

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 out. However, for most, gold is still only the stuff of dreams.
1. A. kinds B. forms C. states D. designs
2. A. bargain B. engage C. trade D. handle
3. A. sent B. thrown C. forced D. driven
4. A. hit B. discover C. strike D. make
5. A. helpings B. fractions C. portions D. servings
6. A. exerted B. toiled C. strained D. ground
BEARS
Bears are famous for waking up with sore heads, at least according to the popular 7. ..............
Someone who’d disagree with 8. ........... is Professor Hook Harlow of the University of
Wyoming. He has found that hears wake up raring to go after their winter sleep. ‘After 130
days of hibernation, a bear can come 9. ............... out of its den and climb a mountain." he says.
His team is investigating how bears manage to 10. ……………….. this trick, in the hope of helping
humans with muscle-wasting conditions. There are a number of possible explanations of how
bears 11. .............. their strength during hibernation. One possibility is that bears sacrifice their less
essential muscles to keep ‘fight or flight’ muscles up to 12. ................. which is a useful idea
for anyone trying to get back to normal after a plaster cast is removed.
7. A. knowledge B. belief C. judgment D. awareness
8. A. pledge B. fallacy C. claim D. avowal
9. A. away B. far C. clear D. straight
10. A. pull off B. set off C. take off D. start off
11. A. keep B. maintain C. hoard D. uphold
12. A. scratch B. level C. score D. mark
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Part 3: For questions 1-14, read the text and do the task that follows.
For the questions from 1 – 7, read the passage and choose the correct heading for each paragraph
from the list of headings below. Write the correct number i-xiii in the corresponding numbered boxes.
List of headings
i/ 165 million years
ii/ The body plan of archosaurs
iii/ Dinosaurs – terrible lizards
iv/ Classification according to pelvic anatomy
v/ The suborders of Saurischia
vi/ Lizards and dinosaurs – two distinct superorders
vii/ Unique body plan helps indentify dinosaurs from the other animals
viii/ Herbivore dinosaurs
ix/ Lepidosaurs
x/ Frills and shelves
xi/ The origins of dinosaurs and lizards
xii/ Bird-hipped dinosaurs
xiii/ Skull bones distinguish dinosaurs from the other archosaurs

1. Paragraph A 5. Paragraph E
2 . Paragraph B 6. Paragraph F
3. Paragraph C 7. Paragraph G
4. Paragraph D
Example: Answer:
Paragraph H x

What is a dinosaur?
A.
Although the name dinosaur is derived from the Greek for “terrible lizard”, dinosaurs were not, in
fact, lizards at all. Like lizards, dinosaurs are included in the class Repitlia or reptiles, one of the five
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main classes of Vertebrata, animals with backbones. However, at the next level of classification,
within reptiles, significant differences in the skeletal anatomy of lizards and dinosaurs have led
scientists to place these groups of animals into two different superorders. Lepidosaurria or
lepidosaurs, and Archosauria or archosaurs.
B.
Classified as lepidosaurs are lizard and snakes and their prehistoric ancestors. Included among the
archosaurs or “ruling reptiles” are prehistoric and modern crocodiles, and the now extinct
thecodonts, pterosaurs and dinosaurs. Palaeontologists believe that both dinosaurs and crocodiles
evolved, in the late year of the Triassic Period (c248-208 million years ago), from creatures called
pseudosuchian thecodonts. Lizards, snakes and different types of thedocont are believed to have
evolved earlier in the Triassic Period from reptiles known as eosuchians.
C.
The most important skeletal differences between dinosaurs and other archosaurs are in the bones of
the skull, pelvis and limbs. Dinosaur skulls are found in a great range of shapes and sizes, reflecting
the different eating habits and lifestyles of great range and varied group of animals that dominated
life on Earth for an extraordinary 165 million years. However, unlike the skull of any other known
animals, the skulls of dinosaurs had two long bones known as vomers. These bones extended on
either side of the head, from the front of the snout to the level of the holes in the skull known as the
antorbital fenestra, situated in front of the dinosaur’s orbits, or eyes sockets.
D.
All dinosaurs, whether large or small, quadrupedal or bipedal, fleed-footed or slow-moving, shared a
common body plan. Indentification of this plan makes it possible to differentiate dinosaurs from any
other types of animal, even other archosaurs. Most significantly, in dinosaurs, the pelvis and femur
had evolved so that the hind limbs were held vertically beneath the body, rather than sprawling out
to the sides like the limbs of a lizard. The femur of a dinosaur had a sharply in-turned neck and a
ball-shaped head, which slotted into a fully open acetabulum or hip socket. A supra-acetabular crest
helped prevent dislocation of the femur. The position of the knee joint, aligned below the
acetabulum, made it possible for the whole hind limb to swing backwards and forwards. This unique
combination of features gave dinosaurs what is known as a “fully improved gait”. Evolution of this
highly efficient mothod of walking also developed in mammals, but among reptiles it occurred only in
dinosaurs.
E.
For the purpose of further classification, dinosaurs are divided into two orders: Saurischia or
saurischian dinosaurs, and Ornithischia or ornithischian dinosaurs. This division is made on the
basic of their pelvic anatomy. All dinosaurs had a pelvic girdle with each side comprised of three
bones: the pubis, ilium and ischium. However, the orientation of these bones follows one of two
patterns. In saurischian dinosaurs, also known as lizard-hipped dinosaurs, the pubis points forwards,
as is usual in most types of reptile. By contrast, in ornithischian or bird-hipped dinosaurs, the pubis
points backwards towards the rear of the animal, which is also true of birds
F.
Of the two orders of dinosaurs, the Saurischia was the larger and the first to evolve. It is divided into
two suborders: Therapoda or therapods, and Sauropodomorpha or sauropodomorphs. The
therapods or “beast feet” were bipedal, predatory carnivores. They ranged in size from the mighty
Tyrannosaurus rex, 12m long, 5.6m tall and weighing an estimated 6.4 tonnes, to the smallest
known dinosaur, Compsognathus, merely 1.4m long and estimated 3 kg in weight when fully grown.
The sauropodomorphs or “lizard feet forms” included both bipedal and quadrupedal dinosaurs.
Some sauropodomorphs were carnivorous or omnivorous, but later species were typically
herbivorous. They included some of the largest and best known of all dinosaurs, such as
Diplodocus, a huge quadruped with an elephant-like body, a long, thin tail and neck that gave it a
total length of 27m and a tiny head.
G.
Ornithischian dinosaurs were bipedal or quadrupedal herbivores. They are now usually divided into
three suborderes: Ornithopoda. Thyreophora and Marginocephalia. The ornithopods or “bird-feet”,
both large and small, could walk or run on their long hind legs, balancing their body by holding their
tails stiffly off the ground behind them. An example is Iguanodon, up to 9m long, 5m tall and
weighing 4.5 tonnes. The thyreophorans or “shield bearers”, also known as armoured dinosaurs,

6
were quadrupeds with rows of protective bony spikes, studs or plates along their backs and tails.
They included Stegosaurus, 9m long and weighing 2 tonnes.
H.
The marginocephalians or “Margined head” were bipedal or quadrupedal ornithischian with a deep
bony frill or narrow shelf at the back of the skull. An example of Triceratops, a rihnoceros-like
dinosaur, 9m long, weighing 5.4 tonnes and bearing a prominent neck frill and three large horns.
For questions from 8-10, complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
from the passage for each answer. Write the answer in the corresponding numbered boxes.
8. Lizards and dinosaurs are classified into two different superorders because of the difference in
their _______________________________
9. In the Traissic Period, ___________ evolved into thecodonts, for example, lizards and snakes.
10. Dinosaur skulls differed from those of any other known animals because of the presence of
vomers: __________
For questions from 11– 14, choose the phrase A- H from the list of features to match with the
dinosaurs listed below. (You may use each letter once only)
11. Dinosaurs differed from lizards because ___________________
12. Saurischian and ornithischian dinosaurs ___________________
13. Unlike therapods, sauropodomorphs ______________________
14. Some dinosaurs used their tails to balance, others ____________
List of features
A. are both divided into two orders
B. the former had a “fully improved gait”
C. were not usually very heavy
D. could walk or run on their back legs
E. their hind limbs sprawled out to the sides
F. walked or ran on four legs rather than two
G. both had a pelvic girdle comprising six bones
H. did not always eat meat
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14.
Part 4: For questions 1-14, read the text and do the task that follows.
The Columbian Exchange
A
Millions of years ago, continental drift carried the Old World and New World apart, splitting North and
South America from Eurasia and Africa. That separation lasted so long that it fostered divergent
evolution; for instance, the development of rattlesnakes on one side of the Atlantic and of vipers on
the other. After 1492, human voyagers in part reversed this tendency. Their artificial re-
establishment of connections through the commingling of Old and New World plants, animals, and
bacteria, commonly known as the Columbian Exchange, is one of the more spectacular and
significant ecological events of the past millennium.
B
When Europeans first touched the shores of the Americas, Old World crops such as wheat, barley,
rice, and turnips had not traveled west across the Atlantic, and New World crops such as maize,
white potatoes, sweet potatoes and manioc had not traveled east to Europe. In the Americas, there
were no horses, cattle, sheep, or goats, all animals of Old World origin. Except for the llama, alpaca,
dog, a few fowl, and guinea pig, the New World had no equivalents to the domesticated animals
associated with the Old World, nor did it have the pathogens associated with the Old World’s dense
populations of humans and such associated creatures as chickens, cattle, black rats, and Aedes
aegypti mosquitoes. Among these germs were those that carried smallpox, measles, chickenpox,
influenza, malaria, and yellow fever.

C
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As might be expected, the Europeans who settled on the east coast of the United States cultivated
crops like wheat and apples, which they had brought with them. European weeds, which the
colonists did not cultivate, and, in fact, preferred to uproot, also fared well in the New World. John
Josselyn, and Englishman and amateur naturalist who visited New England twice in the seventeenth
century, left us a list, “Of Such Plants as Have Sprung Up since the English Planted and Kept Cattle
in New England”, which included couch grass, dandelion, shepherd’s purse, groundsel, sow thistle,
and chickweed. One of these, a plantian (Plantago major), was named “Englishman’s Foot” by the
Ameridians of New England and Virginia who believed that it would grow only where the English
“have trodden, and was never known before the English came into this country”. Thus, as they
intentionally sowed Old World crop fields with weed seeds. More importantly, they were stripping
and burning forests, exposing the native minor flora to direct sunlight, and the hooves and teeth of
New World livestocks. The native flora could not tolerate the stress. The imported weeds could,
because they had lived in large numbers of grazing animals for thousands of years.
D
Cattle and horses were brought ashore in the early 1600s and found hospitable climate and terrain
in North America. Horses arrived in Virginia as early as 1620 and in Massachusetts in 1629. Many
wandered free with little more evidence of their connection to humanity than collars with a hook at
the bottom to catch on fences as they tried to leap over them to get at crops. Fences were not
keeping livestock in, but for keeping livestock out.
E
Native American resistance to the Europeans was ineffective. Indigenous peoples suffered from
white brutality, alcoholism, the killing and driving off the game, and the expropriation of farmland, but
all these together are insufficient to explain the degree of their defeat. The crucial factor was not
people, plants or animals, but germs. Smallpox was the worst and the most spectacular of the
infectious diseases mowing down the Native Americans. The first recorded pandemic of that disease
in British North American detonated among the Algonquin of Massachusetts in the early 1630s.
William Bradford of Plymouth Plantation wrote that the victims “fell down so generally of this disease
as they were in the end not able to help one another, no, not to make a fire nor fetch a little water to
drink, nor any to bury the dead”. The missionaries and the traders who ventured into the American
interior told the same appalling story about smallpox and the indigenes. In 1738 alone, the epidemic
destroyed half of Cherokee; in 1759 nearly half of the Catawbas; in the first years of the next
century, two thirds of the Omahas and perhaps half of the entire population between the Missoursi
River and New Mexico; in 1837-38 nearly every last one of the Mandans and perhaps half the
people of the high plains.
F
The export of America’s native animals has not revolutionised Old World agriculture or ecosystems
as the introduction of European animals to the New World did. America’s grey squirrels and
muskrats and a few others have established themselves east of the Atlantic and west of the Pacific,
but that has not made much of difference. Some of America’s domesticated animals are raised in the
Old World, but turkeys have not displaced chickens and geese, and guinea pigs have proved useful
in laboratories, but have not usurped rabbits in the butcher shops.
G
The New World’s great contribution to the Old is in crop plants. Maize, white potatoes, sweet
potatoes, various squashes, chiles, and manioc have become essentials in the diets of hundreds of
millions of Europeans, Africans, and Asians. Their influence on Old World peoples, like that of wheat
and rice on New World peoples, goes far to explain the global population explosion of the past three
centuries. The Columbian Exchange has been an indispensable factor in that demographic
explosion.
H
All this had nothing to do with superiority or inferiority of biosystems in any absolute sense. It has to
do with environmental contrasts. Amerindians were accustomed to living in one particular kind of
environment, Europeans and Africans in another. When the Old World peoples came to America,
they brought with them all their plants, animals, and germs, creating a kind of environment to which
they were already adapted, and so they increased in number. Amerindians had not adapted to
European germs, and so initially their numbers plunged. That decline has reversed in our times as
Amerindian populations have adapted to the Old World’s environmental influence, but the

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demographic triumph of the invaders, which was the most spectacular feature of the Old World’
invasion of the New, still stands.
For questions 1-8, which paragraph contains the following information, write the correct letter A-H in
the corresponding numbered boxes
1. A description of an imported species that is named after the English colonists
2. The reason why both the New World and Old World experienced population growth
3. The formation of new continents explained
4. The reason why the indigenous population declined
5. An overall description of the species lacked in the Old World and New World
6. A description of some animal species being ineffective in affecting the Old World
7. An overall explanation of the success of the Old World species invasion
8. An account of European animals taking roots in the New World
For questions 9 – 12, write in the corresponding numbered boxes
YES if the statement reflects the writer’s claim
NO if the statement contradicts the writer’s claim
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
9. European settlers built fences to keep their cattle and horses inside.
10. The indigenous people had been brutally killed by the European colonists.
11. America’s domesticated animals, such as turkey, became popular in the Old World.
12. Crop exchange between the two worlds played a major role in world population growth.
For questions 13-14, answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer. Write the answer in corresponding numbered box.
13. Who reported the same story of European diseases among the indigenes from the American
interior?
14. What is the still existing feature of the Old World’s invasion of the New?
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14.

IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)

Part 1: Summarize in your own words, the advantages and disadvantages of owning a
television. Your account should not be more than 120 words.
With the invention of televisions, many forms of entertainments have been replaced.
Lively programs like television serials and world news, have removed from us the need to read
books or papers, to listen to radios or even to watch movies. In fact, during the 1970s, when
televisions were first introduced, cinema theatres suffered great losses as many people chose
to stay in the comforts of their homes to watch their favorite programs.
Indeed, the television brings the world into our house. Hence, by staying at home and
pressing some buttons world happenings are immediately presented before us. Children
nowadays develop faster in language, owing to the early exposure to television programs. At
such tender age, it would be difficult for them to read books or papers. Thus, television
programs are a good source of learning for them. Furthermore, pronunciations by the
newscasters, actors or actresses are usually standardized, hence young children watching
these programs will learn the 'right' pronunciations too. Owning a television is also extremely
beneficial to working parents who are usually too busy or tired to take their kids out for
entertainments. Surrounded by the comforts of their home, the family can have a chance to get
together and watch their favorite television programs.
Of course, we should not be too carried away by the advantages of the television and
overlook its negative points. Watching television programs takes away our need to read. Why
bother to read the papers when we can hear them from the television news reports? Why read
books when exciting movies are screened? The lack of reading is unhealthy especially to
younger children as they will grow up only with the ability to speak but not write. I have a
neighbor whose six-year-old child can say complete sentences like "I like cats," but when told to
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write out the sentence, is unable to do so. Not only are the writing skills of children affected,
their thinking capacities are also handicapped. Television programs remove the need to think.
The stories, ideas and facts are woven in the way television planners wanted. Exposure to such
opinions and the lack of thinking opportunities will hinder the children's analyzing ability.
Despite the disadvantages of watching television programs, personally, I think that
choosing the 'middle path', which is to do selective television viewing and not over indulging in
the habit should be the best solution to reconcile both the merits and demerits of owning a
television.

Your answer:
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Part 2:
The line graph below gives information about the number of visitors to three London
museums between June and September 2013.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

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Your answer:

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Part 3:
With the increasing use and development of new technology, many machines are now able to do the
work which people used to perform.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of this trend?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience.
Your essay should be about 250 -300 words.

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_THE END_

13
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn: Tiếng Anh

V. LISTENING (50 POINTS) 2 pts cho 1 câu đúng

Part 1: (20 pts)
1. 17th/ seventeenth century 6. format
2. five/ 5 7. biographical
3. (different) views/ viewpoints/ opinions/ 8. gesture
positions
4. conflict 9. summary
5. moderator/ leader 10. applause
Part 2: (20 pts)
1. living things 6. virtuous life
2. symbolic content 7. earliest inhabitants
3. passed down (orally) 8. female (deity)
4. destiny 9. male
5. supreme beings 10. clay tablets
Part 3: (10 pts)
1.C 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.A
VI. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS) 1 pt cho 1 câu đúng
Question 1:(10 pts)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. D
Question 2:
No Mistakes Correction
1 ability disability
2 identify identified
3 indicator indication
4 apropriate appropriate
5 apply applying
6 advice in advice on/about
Question 3:
1. indebted 2. unstintingly 3. necessitated 4. assurance 5. undoubtedly
6. discouraging 7. unflagging 8. exceptionally
Question 4:
1.off 2.out 3.on 4. of 5.for 6.over
VII. READING (50 POINTS)
Part 1:
1. been 2. actual 3. out 4. back 5. in
6. much 7. Consequently 8. already 9. number 10. Although
Part 2:
1. B 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.C 6.B
7.B 8.C 9.D 10.A 11.B 12.A
Part 3:
1. vi 2. xi 3. xiii 4. vii 5. iv
6. v 7. viii 8. skeletal 9. eosuchians 10. two long
anatomy bones
11. B 12. G 13. H 14. F
Part 4:
1. C 2. G 3. A 4. E 5. B
6. F 7. H 8. D 9. False 10. True
14
11. False 12. True 13. missionaries 14. demographic
and traders triumph
VIII. WRITING (50 POINTS)
PART 1: 10 Pts
Suggested answer:
The television keeps us informed of the world affairs. Early exposure to television programs
helps to develop language skills of young children. These children can also learn to pronounce
words accurately because of the standardized pronunciation in the programs. In a family where
both the parents are working, the television provides the family an opportunity to get together at
leisure times. One disadvantages of watching television programs is that we do less reading
and hence our writing skills are affected. Younger children may learn to speak but not write from
television programs. Furthermore, television programs often spare viewers, especially the young
ones, from pondering upon opinion s presented before the, which will in turn handicap their
ability analyze facts. (119 words)
1. Completion: 1 pts
2. Content: 3 pts
- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.
- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.
3. Organisation: 2 pts
- The ideas are well organized
- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs
4. Language: 3 pts
- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure
- Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt
PART 2: 15 pts
1. Completion: 1 pts
2. Content: 5 pts
- Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too many details.
- Make general remarks and effective comparisons.
3. Organisation: 3 pts
- The ideas are well organized
- The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs
4. Language: 5 pts
- Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure
- Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt
PART 3: 25 pts
1. Completion: (2 pt.)
2. Content: (8 pts)
Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or
reasonable justification.
3. Organisation: (6 pts)
- Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence.
4. Language: (6 pts)
- Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures.
- Good use of grammatical structures.
- Present the ideas with clarity.
5. Punctuations and spelling. (3 pts)

_THE END_

15
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 1 (20 points):

"Better late than never."
To what extent do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons and examples to support your
opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

1
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 2 (20 points):

Some people think that smacking or using any type of physical violence as punishment against
children is wrong. What’s your view?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

2
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 3 (20 points):

What do you think are some of the reasons why children misbehave?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

3
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….

You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 4 (20 points):

Some people think that the media is highly influential in spreading new ideas and trends. What is
your opinion?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

4
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 5 (20 points):

Do you think children nowadays misbehave more or less than they did in the past? Why might this
be so?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

5
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 6 (20 points):

“Actions speak louder than words”
To what extent do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons and examples to support your
opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

6
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 7 (20 points):

It is said that creative genius was born, not made.
What is your opinion? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

7
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 8 (20 points):

Nowadays, celebrities increasingly have the status of role models, in particular for young people.
Do you see this as a positive or negative development?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

8
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 9 (20 points):

Many celebrities are using their fame to raise awareness of social issues. Do you think this is a
good trend or a bad trend.
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

9
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC: 2015-2016
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, Kỹ năng: NÓI
kể cả từ điển. Ngày thi: 20/10/2015
Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

Name:…………………………………..……………………………………………………………………………….
You have 5 minutes to sketch out what you are going to say. You should prepare notes instead of
full sentences and try to speak as naturally as possible. Your talking time should not exceed 5 minutes.

Question 10 (20 points):

Who tends to enjoy outdoor recreation: young people or old people? Why?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
You can take notes here.
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________ THE END________

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
KHÁNH HÒA NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – THPT (Đề thi viết)
! Ngày thi: 08/10/2015
(Đề thi có 12 trang) (Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

Nhắc nhở thí sinh:

Điền đầy đủ thông tin của cá nhân;
Bài làm có 12 trang, thí sinh kiểm tra số trang, chất lượng bản in trước khi làm bài;
Bài NGHE gồm 03 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 02 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây;
Bài làm bằng bút mực hoặc bút bi, không làm bằng bút chì kể cả phần trắc nghiệm;
Thí sinh làm bài ngay trên tập Đề thi này (viết câu trả lời vào phần Your answers được cung cấp hoặc vào
các phần trống ở các câu hỏi (ở các phần không có Your answers);
Không sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu nào trong quá trình làm bài.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………………………………………… SBD: ………………

Ngày, tháng, năm sinh:……… /……… /………… - Nơi sinh: …………………………………… Phòng: ……………

SỐ PHÁCH
Họ, tên và chữ ký giám thị 1 ……………………………………………………………………

Họ, tên và chữ ký giám thị 2 …………………………………………………………………… ………………………

!
 Điểm bài thi đã quy đổi Họ, tên và chữ ký giám khảo
Bằng số Bằng chữ
GK1: ………………………………………………………… ………………………

SỐ PHÁCH
GK2: …………………………………………………………

I. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1: You’ll hear a dialogue between a foreign student and a Student Union officer. For questions 1 – 10,
listen and do as directed.

Complete the statements below in the space provided.

1. In Britain a foreign student can get treatment from the British Medical Scheme if the student’s course
of study is for .
2. For a long-term student, treatment in British hospitals is .

Answer the following question by writing a short phrase in the space provided.
3. What should the student do first if he wishes to join the British Medical Scheme?

Circle the appropriate letter and write a short phrase in the space provided.
4. Where can you find lists of doctors?
A. From the Student Union office. B. From local post offices.
C. From the registration’s office. D. From the university medical clinic.
5. Give two ways to find out a doctor’s consulting hours.
A.
B.

Indicate whether the following statements are accurate or not by writing in the space provided
A for an accurate statement;
I for an inaccurate statement;
N if the information is not given.
6. Casualty or emergency treatment is free for everyone in all hospitals.
7. A dentist can choose whether or not to accept a patient for NHS treatment.
8. A private patient will pay the full cost of dental treatment.
9. Dentists like to check patients’ teeth once a month.
10. Basic dental treatment is a minimum of 17 pounds.
Part 2: You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. For questions 11 – 16, choose
the answer A, B, C or D, which fits best according to what you hear and write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
11. According to the presenter, __________.
A. we have to adjust our friendships as our lives change
B. new books are being written to teach people how to manage friendships
C. it’s almost impossible to keep childhood friends for life
D. the most important friends are childhood friends

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12. Barbara warns that foul-weather friends __________.
A. never want you to be happy
B. engineer bad situations so that they can feel superior
C. have their life perfectly organized
D. can spoil the times when you are feeling good about life
13. The danger of a trophy friend is that __________.
A. he or she will inhibit your social life
B. you may develop unrealistic expectations
C. he or she will push you to be a higher achiever
D. he or she will expect you to become more popular
14. A sisterly friend __________.
A. can be relied on but may be too involved in your life
B. will resent other close friendships in your life
C. will be as close to your family as she is to you
D. will want to go out on dates with you and your new partner
15. According to Barbara, a good friend __________.
A. probably needs to be someone that you see very often
B. tends to ask for your help slightly more than you would like but you tolerate it
C. doesn’t expend too much of your time or energy
D. never puts you in a serious mood
16. When making new friends __________.
A. try to be as funny as you can
B. don’t mention serious issues before you have got to know them well
C. be sensitive to their need for space
D. spend as much time with them as you can
Your answers:

11. ………… 12. ………… 13. ………… 14. ………… 15. ………… 16. …………

Part 3: You will hear a researcher talking about communication in the environmental science fields,
and how communication on environmental issues could be improved. For questions 17 – 25, complete
the sentences with a word or a short phrase in the space provided.

17. There is a deep cultural view that knowledge leads people to do .

18. However, to solve environmental problems, obstacles must also be .
19. The idea that knowledge automatically leads to the correct behaviour is too .
20. People are now convinced of climate change but don’t know about the .
21. Martin Luther King was effective because he gave people a message of .
22. Hard work and luck might produce warming at the of future
projections.
23. We will see negative change in the environment in spite of .
24. Though those living today will see only climate , they may
see positive social change.
25. It is important to sustain people’s in working towards a better
climate.

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II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1: For questions 26 – 33, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following
questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
26. They were __________ from their apartment because they hadn’t paid the rent.
A. evicted B. deposed C. expelled D. discarded
27. I took __________ with him on a number of his comments which I thought unfair.
A. challenge B. offence C. exception D. issue
28. It was three days before the storm __________ and life began to return to normal.
A. abated B. dwindled C. slackened D. alleviated
29. She works very hard and finds it difficult to __________ when she gets home.
A. give in B. switch off C. let out D. wind up
30. I thought I had made it __________ that I didn’t wish to discuss this matter.
A. distinct B. plain C. frank D. straight
31. Working there was good for me __________ I gained a lot of valuable experience.
A. as far as B. in that C. as for D. in terms of
32. She __________ disputed his version of what had happened.
A. hotly B. intensely C. harshly D. acutely
33. I’m afraid that the facts don’t __________ your theory.
A. pull off B. check out C. bear out D. show off
For questions 34 – 35, choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined part of the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
34. At every faculty meeting, Ms.Volatie always manages to put her foot in her mouth.
A. trip over her big feet B. say the wrong thing
C. move rapidly D. fall asleep
35. I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.
A. being considerate of things B. remembering to do right things
C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things

Your answers:

26. ………… 27. ………… 28. ………… 29. ………… 30. …………

31. ………… 32. ………… 33. ………… 34. ………… 35. …………

Part 2: For questions 36 – 45, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
From what we had read in the (36) _____ (ADVERTISE), it promised to be the holiday of a lifetime –
not only a quality hotel in a top (37) _____ (SEA) resort, but also (38) _____ (SURPRISE) cheap with it!
We should have known it was too good to be true! We arrived at the airport to discover we only had (39)
_____ (STAND) tickets and there was no guarantee we would be flying. Luckily, two places became free
at the last minute and we took off. The flight lasted at least (40) _____ (TWO) as long as it should have
and by the time we arrived, we were both feeling rather (41) _____ (POOR) probably because of the
dubious in-flight meal we had had. We were met by our guide, who seemed (42) _____ (LANGUAGE)
incompetent and understood very little of what we said to him. Instead of the hotel we had seen in the
photograph back home, he took us to a squalid little guesthouse much (43) _____ (FAR) away from the
resort than we were expecting. We wanted to explain that there had been a (44) _____ (DREAD) mistake
but it was (45) _____ (USE) trying to complain – nobody could understand us.
Your answers:

36. ……………… 37. ……………… 38. ……………… 39. ……………… 40. ………………

41. ……………… 42. ……………… 43. ……………… 44. ……………… 45. ………………
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Part 3: For questions 46 – 50, complete each of the following sentences with one of the correct phrasal
verb forms in the corresponding numbered boxes.

break up meet up cut in break into bring forward

46. If you’d like to _____ for a drink sometimes, give me a call.

47. Thieves _____ the school and took a quantity of cash.
48. That matter was _____ in the last meeting.
49. Can you _____ some of these sticks? They are too big to start a fire with.
50. She has a very annoying habit of _____ on people while they’re speaking.

Your answers:

46. ……………… 47. ……………… 48. ……………… 49. ……………… 50. ………………

Part 4: Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct and some
have a word which should not be there. For questions 51 – 60, put a stick ( ) if the line is correct, and
write a word which should not be there in the corresponding numbered boxes.

0 Not so long ago I had the good fortune to make friends 0 

00 with a neighbour who was owned a garage which socialized in
00 was
51. repairing quality cars. He usually arrived at home with a customer’s
52. car when he finished work in order to test it all fully before 51. ..............................
53. giving it back the following day. Most of the cars he has brought 52. ..............................
54. back were more expensive but I didn’t really like them. That was 53. ..............................
55. until one day when I saw Daimler 5.3 parked outside of his
56. house. At that time such a car was cost about £30,000. This 54. ..............................
57. meant that I could only to dream of owning or driving 55. ..............................
58. one. After a moment’s hesitation, I knocked on his door and 56. ..............................
59. waited. When he answered, I was staring at the car so he
57. ..............................
60. knew about what I was going to ask him. He invited me in
for a cup of some tea and tried to tell me that driving the 58. ..............................
car was out of the question. 59. ..............................
60. ..............................
!
III. READING (50 points)
Part 1: For questions 61 – 68, read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each
gap and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Stressful atmosphere (61) _____ of deadlines and long hours dominate office life, according to a survey
published recently.
The majority of those questioned said a good salary and career (62) _____ were their main reasons for
working. But significant numbers did not believe their employers offered either. In general the survey
found that most felt that (63) _____ of life was more important than status and company perks. Most
would prefer employers to offer flexible hours, challenging tasks and job (64) _____ rather than perks
such as company cars and private health care. Many employers’ (65) _____ to understand this meant
more than a third worried about their work on holiday, and 40 percent took days off sick when not ill.
Workers were also (66) _____ by the conditions they had to work in. A fifth struggled with (67) _____
technology badly lit offices and chairs which caused backache. Half said their productivity would
increase if their environment improved.

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On the plus side, the biggest (68) _____ was the friendship offered by colleagues, and it appears that the
office also affords the chance to flirt with colleagues, make personal calls to friends abroad, steal
stationery and play computer games.
61. A. weight B. force C. heaviness D. pressure
62. A. outlooks B. odds C. prospects D. views
63. A. quality B. caliber C. excellence D. worth
64. A. safety B. security C. sanctuary D. protection
65. A. failure B. defeat C. deficiency D. lack
66. A. pestered B. inflamed C. irritated D. ruffled
67. A. behind the times B. expired C. out-of-date D. invalid
68. A. compensation B. damages C. reimbursement D. atonement
Your answers:!

61. ……………… 62. ……………… 63. ……………… 64. ………………

65. ……………… 66. ……………… 67. ……………… 68. ………………

Part 2: For questions 69 – 78, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use
only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
It is a fairly common (69) _____ in Britain that men these days do more housework than they did in
previous (70) _____. But is this really so? A recent survey has made some interesting discoveries.
Apparently, when men do help out, they enjoy cooking and shopping but most are (71) _____ to do the
washing. A quarter of men think that women are better (72) _____ to look after the home than men and
19% admit to making no (73) _____ to housework. The average man says he does a (74) _____ of the
housework, while average women says she does three quarter of it, so someone isn’t telling the
(75) _____. It was impossible to find any men who shared housework (76) _____ with their partners.
Perhaps it is not so (77) _____ therefore, that there are some (78) _____ who want a new law forcing men
to do their share.
Your answers:

69. ……………… 70. ……………… 71. ……………… 72. ……………… 73. ………………

74. ……………… 75. ……………… 76. ……………… 77. ……………… 78. ………………
Part 3: For questions 79 – 84, choose which of the paragraphs A – G fits into the numbered gaps in
the following newspaper article. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
A. It was the finest friendship anyone could have, a brilliant pure friendship in which you would give
your life for your friend. And life seemed marvelous, it seemed full of sunshine, full of incredible
beautiful things to discover, and I look forward so much to growing up with Rene.
B. There is not a single bitter note, there are no power games, there is nothing secret, there is nothing
which detracts from the purity of it.
C. Maybe because he was more mature he understood a bit better that this was part of life, that life
brings people together and separates them, and distance is not necessarily the end.
D. Well our parents realised it would be very traumatic, and they did not know how to break the news,
so they just announced it the day before. It was a beautiful summer’s day, around five o’clock in the
evening and both parents came and said: “We are moving away, and obviously Rene will have to
come with us.”
E. Our neighbours had a son, and my wonderful childhood was shared with Rene; basically, we grew up
together, we spent every day together, went to school together, we did all the things that children can
do. It was a childhood spent in the woods, discovering the beautiful seasons, there was an abundance
of produce that grew in the wild, and we went mushrooming and frog hunting, and we searched for
toadstools under a full moon in winter, which we would sell because my parents didn’t have much
money.
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F. Hopefully, we will see each other more, but it is not essential. We now have a beautifully matured,
adult friendship where it is easy to talk about anything because we feel totally at ease.
G. And at that time my world stopped, it was the most incredible pain I have experienced, I couldn’t see
life without my friend, my whole system, my life, was based on Rene, our friendship was my life.
And although he was only going away, he didn’t die, it was the worst loss I have ever had in my life,
still, now, and 30 years later I have not received another shock of that nature.

BEST OF TIMES, WORST OF TIMES

I thought the world was caving in, for the first time ever I lost somebody I loved; he didn’t die, he just
went away, but I still measure all pain by the hurt Rene caused me. It was a very nice childhood, an
adolescence most people would wish to have, we lived in a tiny village and were a close family.
79. _____ The adventure that children go through are the making of a friendship, building a tree house
and spending a night in the forest – and losing our way back home, these things create a fantastic
fabric to the friendship. There was the loving element; too, he was very caring. Rene was a tall bloke
and very strong, and he would be my defender: if anyone ever teased me, he would be there.
80. _____ And then at the age of 14, his family moved to the south of France, and we were in the east of
France, which is 750 kilometers away.... the south of France sounded the end of the world.
81. _____ I went quiet for the news to sink in; at first it was sheer disbelief, numbness. I couldn’t sleep,
and then in the night I understood the impact of the news, I understood that my life would be totally
separate from his, and I had to be myself, alone.
82. _____ I had other friends, but never did I achieve that kind of closeness. My world completely
collapsed, and nothing was the same, people, the classroom, nature, the country, butterflies.
83. _____ He accepted that life would separate us, he didn’t see it as something final, it was my dramatic
side to see only the negative side, self-pity in a way. He is now living a happy life in Provence with a
beautiful wife and two lovely daughters, and he is coming here next year, so it is going to be quite
wonderful. It is the first time he has ever come to England, he’s a good Frenchman, he doesn’t speak
a word of English.
84. _____ It is a good, solid relationship that has been established over so many years, and has overcome
all the barriers which life and time can create. I don’t think it really could have lasted the way it was.
Your answers:

79. ………… 80. ………… 81. ………… 82. ………… 83. ………… 84. …………

Part 4: For questions 85 – 90, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A – F from the list of
headings below. Write the correct number (i – ix) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
LIST OF HEADINGS!
i. Indecision about a name!
ii. Current problems with distribution !
iii. Uncertainty about financial advantages!
iv. The contrasts of cinema today!
v. The history of cinema!
vi. Integrating other events into cinema!
vii. The plans for the future of films!
viii. An unexpected advantage!
ix. Too true to life?!

THE END OF THE SILVER SCREEN?

Cinema technology has remained much the same for a century, so when will it go digital? Kelvin Hilton
views the projections.

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A. Cinema is full of contradictions. It is high-tech and old-fashioned at the same time. Today’s films are
full of digital sound and computer-generated special effects. Yet they are still stored on celluloid
film, the basis of which is more than 100 years old. They are also displayed with projectors and
screens that seem to belong to our great-grandparents’ generation.
B. Now that we are in the second century of cinema, there are moves to bring the medium right up to
date. This will involve revolutionising not just how films are made but also how they are distributed
and presented. The aim is not only to produce and prepare films digitally, but to be able to send them
to movie theatres by digital, electronic means. High-resolution digital projectors would then show
the film. Supporters say this will make considerable savings at all stages of this chain, particularly for
distribution.
C. With such a major technological revolution on the horizon, it seems strange that the industry is still
not sure what to call itself. This may appear a minor point, but the choices, “digital” cinema and
“electronic” cinema (e-cinema), suggest different approaches to, and aspects of, the business. Digital
cinema refers to the physical capture of images; e-cinema covers the whole chain, from production
through post-production (editing, addition of special effects and construction of soundtrack) to
distribution and projection.
D. And what about the effects of the new medium? The main selling point of digital cinema is the high
resolution and sharpness of the final image. But those who support the old-fashioned approach to
film point to the celluloid medium’s quality of warmth. A recurring criticism of video is that it may
be too good: uncomfortably real, rather like looking through an open window. In 1989, the director of
the first full-length American digital high-definition movie admitted that the picture had a “stark,
strange reality to it”.
E. Even the money-saving aspect of e-cinema is doubted. One expert says that exciting cinema will
have to show the new material and not all of them will readily or rapidly furnish themselves with the
right equipment. “E-cinema is seen as a way of saving money, because print costs a lot,” he says.
“But for that to work, cinemas have to be showing the films because cinemas are the engine that
drives the film industry.”
F. This view has prompted some pro-digital entrepreneurs to take a slightly different approach. HD
Thames is looking at reinventing the existing cinema market, moving towards e-theatre, which would
use digital video and projection to present plays, musicals and some sporting events to the public.
This is not that different from the large-screen TV system that was set up in New York in 1930 and
John Logie Baird’s experiments with TV in the late 1920s and early 30s.
Your answers:

85. Paragraph A: ………. 86. Paragraph B: ………. 87. Paragraph C: ……….

88. Paragraph D: ………. 89. Paragraph E: ………. 90. Paragraph F: ……….

Part 5: For questions 91 – 100, read the following passage and do as directed.
Forests are one of the main elements of our natural heritage. The decline of Europe’s forests over the last
decade and a half has led to an increasing awareness and understanding of the serious imbalances which
threaten them. European countries are becoming increasingly concerned by major threats to European
forests, threats with no frontier other than those of geography and climate: air pollution, soil deterioration,
the increasing number of forest fires and sometimes even the mismanagement of our woodland and forest
heritage. There has been a growing awareness of the need for countries to get together to co-ordinate their
policies. In December 1990, Strasbourg hosted the first Ministerial Conference on the protection of
Europe’s forests. The conference brought together 31 countries from both Western and Eastern Europe.
The topics discussed included the co-ordinated study of the destruction of forests, as well as how to
combat forest fires and the extension of European research programs on the forest ecosystem. The
preparatory work for the conference had been undertaken at two meetings of experts. Their initial task
was to decide which of the many forest problems of concern to Europe involved the largest number of
countries and might be the subject of joint action. Those confined to particular geographical areas, such as
countries bordering the Mediterranean or the Nordic countries therefore had to be discarded. However,
this does not mean that in future they will be ignored.
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As a whole, European countries see forests as performing a triple function: biological, economic and
recreational. The first is to act as a “green lung” for our planet; by means of photosynthesis, forests
produce oxygen through the transformation of solar energy, thus fulfilling what for humans is the
essential role of an immense, non-polluting power plant. At the same time, forests provide raw materials
for human activities through their constantly renewed production of wood. Finally, they offer those
condemned to spend five days a week in an urban environment an unrivalled area of freedom to unwind
and take part in a range of leisure activities, such as hunting, riding and hiking. The economic importance
of forests has been understood since the dawn of man - wood was the first fuel. The other aspects have
been recognised only for a few centuries but they are becoming more and more important. Hence, there is
a real concern throughout Europe about the damage to the forest environment which threatens these three
basic roles.
The myth of the “natural” forest has survived, yet there are effectively no remaining “primary” forests in
Europe. All European forests are artificial, having been adapted and exploited by man for thousands of
years. This means that a forest policy is vital, that it must transcend national frontiers and generations of
people, and that it must allow for the inevitable changes that take place in the forests, in needs, and hence
in policy. The Strasbourg conference was one of the first events on such a scale to reach this conclusion.
A general declaration was made that “a central place in any ecologically coherent forest policy must be
given to continuity over time and to the possible effects of unforeseen events, to ensure that the full
potential of these forests is maintained”.
That general declaration was accompanied by six detailed resolutions to assist national policy-making.
The first proposes the extension and systematisation of surveillance sites to monitor forest decline. Forest
decline is still poorly understood but leads to the loss of a high proportion of a tree’s needles or leaves.
The entire continent and the majority of species are now affected: between 30% and 50% of the tree
population. The condition appears to result from the cumulative effect of a number of factors, with
atmospheric pollutants the principal culprits. Compounds of nitrogen and sulphur dioxide should be
particularly closely watched. However, their effects are probably accentuated by climatic factors, such as
drought and hard winters, or soil imbalances such as soil acidification, which damages the roots. The
second resolution concentrates on the need to preserve the genetic diversity of European forests. The aim
is to reverse the decline in the number of tree species or at least to preserve the “genetic material” of all of
them. Although forest fires do not affect all of Europe to the same extent, the amount of damage caused
the experts to propose as the third resolution that the Strasbourg conference consider the establishment of
a European databank on the subject. All information used in the development of national preventative
policies would become generally available. The subject of the fourth resolution discussed by the ministers
was mountain forests. In Europe, it is undoubtedly the mountain ecosystem which has changed most
rapidly and is most at risk. A thinly scattered permanent population and development of leisure activities,
particularly skiing, have resulted in significant long-term changes to the local ecosystems. Proposed
developments include a preferential research program on mountain forests. The fifth resolution
relaunched the European research network on the physiology of trees, called Eurosilva. Eurosilva should
support joint European research on tree diseases and their physiological and biochemical aspects. Each
country concerned could increase the number of scholarships and other financial support or doctoral
theses and research projects in this area. Finally, the conference established the framework for a European
research network on forest ecosystems. This would also involve harmonising activities in individual
countries as well as identifying a number of priority research topics relating to the protection of forests.
The Strasbourg conference’s main concern was to provide for the future. This was the initial motivation,
one now shared by all 31 participants representing 31 European countries. Their final text commits them
to on-going discussion between government representatives with responsibility for forests.
Write T (True), F (False), and NG (Not given) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
T if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage
F if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage
NG if there is no information about this in the passage
91. _____ Forest problems of Mediterranean countries are to be discussed at the next meeting of experts.
92. _____ The biological functions of forests were recognised only in the twentieth century.
93. _____ The Strasbourg conference decided that a forest policy must allow for the possibility of change.
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Your answers: 91. ………… 92. ………… 93. …………

Which of the following statements refers to the resolutions that were issued? Match the statements with
the appropriate resolutions. Write the correct letter (A - J) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
A All kinds of species of trees should be preserved.
B Fragile mountain forests should be given priority in research programs.
C The surviving natural forests of Europe do not need priority treatment.
D Research is to be better co-ordinated throughout Europe.
E Information on forest fires should be collected and shared.
F Loss of leaves from trees should be more extensively and carefully monitored.
G Resources should be allocated to research into tree diseases.
H Skiing should be encouraged in thinly populated areas.
I Soil imbalances such as acidification should be treated with compounds nitrogen and sulphur.
J Information is to be systematically gathered on any decline in the condition of forests.
Your answers:

94. Resolution 1: ………. 95. Resolution 2: ………. 96. Resolution 3: ……….

97. Resolution 4: ………. 98. Resolution 5: ………. 99. Resolution 6: ……….

Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to the question. Write your answer A, B, C, or D in the
corresponding numbered box.
100. What is the best title for the reading passage?
A. The biological, economic and recreational role of forests
B. Plans to protect the forests of Europe
C. The priority of European research into ecosystems
D. Proposals for a world-wide policy on forest management

Your answer: 100. …………

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. Do not
change the word given. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given.
Here is an example.
0. He paid no intention to our warning. (notice)  He took no notice of our warning.
101. He was really jealous when he saw his brother’s new car. (green)
 He was see his brother’s new car.
102. I phone her nearly every day. (goes)
 Hardly her.
103. His childhood piano teacher impressed him in a way he would never forget. (lasting)
 His childhood piano teacher him.
104. Jane certainly wasn’t going to accept Alex’s apology last night. (mood)
 Jane from Alex last night.
105. No matter what happens, we will never make the same mistake again. (ever)
 Under the same mistake again.

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Part 2: The bar chart below gives information about the percentage of the population living in urban
areas in the world and in different continents.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

Percentage=of=Population=in=Urban=Areas=
87
84
78 79
76
72

64
60
54
51 51
49

41 42
37

29

17
15

World Africa Asia Europe Latin=America North=America

Caribbean

1950 2007 2030

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Source:!UN,!World!Urbanization!Prospects:!The!2005!Revision!(2006)!and!Carl!Haub,!2007!World!Population!Data!Sheet.!
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Part 3: There are social, medical, and technical problems associated with the use of mobile phones.
What forms do they take?
Do you agree the problems of mobile phones outweigh the benefits?
In at least 350 words, write an essay to express your opinion on the issue. Use reasons and examples to
support your position.
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
KHÁNH HÒA NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016

(Đáp án có 08 trang) Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH – THPT

Ngày thi: 08/10/2015

ĐÁP ÁN & HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM CHÍNH THỨC

I. LISTENING (50 points)  2 pts x 25 = 50 pts

Part 1:

1. 6 months or more 6. I
2. free 7. A
3. Register with a doctor. 8. A
4. B 9. I
5. A. From the doctor. 10. I
B. From the receptionist.

Part 2:

11. A 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. C

Part 3:

17. the right thing 22. lower end

18. addressed 23. trying really (really) hard
19. simplistic 24. degradation
20. solutions 25. engagement
21. hope

II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1: (0.5 pt x 10 = 5 pts)

26. A 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. B

31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D

Part 2: (1 pt x 10 = 10 pts)

36. advertisement 37. seaside 38. surprisingly 39. standby 40. twice
41. poorly 42. linguistically 43. farther/ further 44. dreadful 45. useless

Part 3: (1 pt x 5 = 5 pts)

46. meet up 47. broke into 48. brought forward 49. break up 50. cutting in

Part 4: (1 pt x 10 = 10 pts)

51. at 52. all 53. has 54. more 55. of

56. was 57. to 58.  59.  60. about

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III. READING (50 points)

Part 1: (1 pt x 8 = 8 pts)

61. D 62. C 63. A 64. B

65. A 66. C 67. C 68. A

Part 2: (2 pts x 10 = 20 pts)

69. belief 70. generation 71. unwilling 72. suited 73. contribution
74. third 75. truth 76. equally 77. surprising 78. politicians

Part 3: (1 pt x 6 = 6 pts)

79. E 80. A 81. D 82. G 83. C 84. F

Part 4: (1 pt x 6 = 6 pts)

85. iv 86. vii 87. i 88. ix 89. iii 90. vi

Part 5: (1 pt x 10 = 10 pts)

91. NG 92. F 93. T

94. J 95. A 96. E
97. B 98. G 99. D
100. B

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1: (2 pts x 5 = 10 pts)

101. He was really jealous when he saw his brother’s new car. (green)
 He was green with envy to see his brother’s new car.
102. I phone her nearly every day. (goes)
 Hardly a day goes by that I don’t call her.
 Hardly a day goes by when I don’t call her.
 Hardly a day goes by without my calling her.
103. His childhood piano teacher impressed him in a way he would never forget. (lasting)
 His childhood piano teacher left/ made a lasting impression on him.
104. Jane certainly wasn’t going to accept Alex’s apology last night. (mood)
 Jane was in no mood to accept an apology/ was not in the mood for an apology from Alex last
night.
105. No matter what happens, we will never make the same mistake again. (ever)
 Under no circumstances will we ever make the same mistake again.

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Part 2: (16 points)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

Task Achievement covers the requirements of the task 4

Coherence and Cohesion arranges information and ideas coherently 4

Lexical Resource uses an adequate range of vocabulary 4

Grammatical Range and
uses a variety of complex structures 4
Accuracy

OVERALL SCORE 16

Model answer

The bar chart shows the urbanization percentage of the world in 1950 and compares this with the
percentage in 2007 and the projected percentage for 2030.

Between 1950 and 2030, the proportion of the world's population residing in cities is expected to double,
growing from 29% to 60%. However, this rate is less marked in some continents than others.

For example, 64% of the population of North America was urban in 1950, increasing to 79% by 2007. By
contrast, just 15% of the African population was urban in 1950, but this rose to 37% by 2007. This
represents one of the highest urbanization rates in the world, even though the percentage of Africans in
urban areas is still smaller than the world average.

It is also clear from the graph that, urbanization in Latin America is projected to be higher than Europe in
2030, in spite of being lower in 1950.

(150 words)

Part 3: (24 points)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

Task Achievement covers the requirements of the task 6

Coherence and Cohesion arranges information and ideas coherently 6

Lexical Resource uses an adequate range of vocabulary 6

Grammatical Range and
uses a variety of complex structures 6
Accuracy

OVERALL SCORE 24

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Model answer

Whilst I agree that mobile phones have their problems, I still believe that these problem, are outweighed
by the benefits that mobile phones bring us. In this essay, I will look at the problems and the benefits.

I think that the social problems presented by the use of mobile phones are quite serious. However, it is not
the phones themselves that create this problem - it is the way that people use mobile phones. Many people
seem to think that it is perfectly acceptable to use mobile during meetings, classes, and even classical
music concerts. This is an indication of their lack of respect for other people and their lack of a decent
upbringing rather than a demonstration of the problems of mobile phones, since every mobile phone has
an “off” button.

There may be medical problems associated with mobile phones, such as interference with brain waves,
but these have not yet been proven. Indeed, a recent study by a Spanish researcher demonstrated that there
was no danger even when hundreds of people were using mobile phones at the same time in a train. Any
detrimental medical effects are likely to be minor and unlikely to outweigh the advantages that mobiles
bring.

The main technical problems associated with mobile phones include the problems that they cannot
receive signals everywhere, the system can become overloaded, and battery time may be short. Signals
are usually only missing in remote areas where there are few people. Systems can generally deal with all
but the heaviest traffic, and in such situations, there are alternative forms of communication available.
Manufacturers are constantly looking at ways to extend battery life.

The benefits of mobiles are that they provide person-to-person communication almost everywhere. People
can be contacted at any time, though callers should bear in mind the time of day. Mobile phones have
been proven to be particularly useful in poor rural areas of Africa and India, allowing reliable
communication with the outside world and, as a result, furthering rural economies.

In conclusion, there are certain problems associated with the use of mobiles, but these are easily
outweighed by the benefits they bring, in my opinion.

(359 words)

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V. SPEAKING (20 points)

GRADING CRITERIA SCORE

How fluently you speak and how well you link your
Fluency and Coherence 5
ideas together

Pronunciation How accurate your pronunciation is 5

Lexical Resource How accurate and varied your vocabulary is 5

Grammatical Range and
How accurate and varied your grammar is 5
Accuracy

OVERALL SCORE 20

1. Fluency and Coherence:

- Ability to produce long responses
- How easily the candidate can produce long responses
- The amount of hesitation
- The speed of speech
- Use of discourse markers/ linking phrases/ connectives
- The amount of self-correction
2. Pronunciation:
- How easily the examiner understands what is being said
- Word stress
- Sentence stress
- Intonation
3. Lexical Resource:
- Ability to use less common words
- Use of idiomatic language
- Paraphrasing (explaining words that you don't know)
- Ability to talk about unfamiliar topics
- Ability to convey precise meaning
4. Grammatical Range and Accuracy:
- Sentence formation
- Use of clauses (subordinates etc.)
- Use of complex structures
- Range of tense use
- Error density (the amount of errors in each sentence)
- The level of errors (whether the errors occur in basic or complex structures)

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VI. AUDIO SCRIPTS

Part 1: You’ll hear a dialogue between a foreign student and a Student Union officer. As you listen,
answer the following questions.
Officer: Good morning. Can I help you?
Student: Yes. I’d like to know something about the British Medical Scheme.
Officer: Yes. What’s your question?
Student: Can I use British doctors if I fall ill?
Officer: That will depend on how long your course of study is. If it is six months or more, then you are
entitled to treatment from the British Medical Scheme called the National Health Service – NHS,
as if you were a British citizen. With the NHS, consultations with doctors are free, but you will
be asked to pay something towards the cost of medicines. In 1987, this is two pounds forty for
each item of medicine. You are also entitled to free treatment in British hospitals. Always make
sure the doctor knows you want treatment from the NHS, as doctors also take private patients,
who pay the full cost of all their treatment.
Student: How do I make sure I can be treated by the NHS?
Officer: If you are eligible for treatment, that is, you are registered on a course of six months or longer,
then the first thing you should do is to register with a doctor. You should register with any doctor
close to where you live – local post offices have lists. All you need to do is visit the doctor or the
doctor’s receptionist during consulting hours and ask to be included on the doctor’s list of
patients. If the doctor decides to accept you, you will then be sent a medical card by post which
will carry your National Health Service number. Take great care not to lose this. If the doctor
cannot accept you, try elsewhere or contact the local Family Practitioner Committee. You can
get the address from the post office or any doctor. Find out your doctor’s consulting hours from
the doctor or the receptionist and ask whether or not you need to make an appointment before
seeing the doctor. Remember to be on time for any appointment you make. You can see him or
her during those hours, unless you are seriously ill. If you are seriously ill, the doctor can be
called out to see you. Once you have registered you should tell your warden, landlord, landlady
or a friend the name, address and telephone number of your doctor, so that if you are suddenly
taken ill, the doctor can be called out to see you.
Student: I see. Could you tell me something about British hospitals?
Officer: Yes. Hospitals provide specialist treatments, or treatment for which any kind of extended stay is
required. Your doctor will recommend you to go if it is necessary. Casualty or emergency
treatment following accidents is free for everyone. As not all hospitals provide such services,
you should find out which local hospitals do in case you ever need treatment.
Student: How about dental care in Britain?
Officer: You can find lists of dentists who give National Health Service treatment at local main post
offices. You do not register with a dentist, but you should ask whether they are willing to give
you NHS treatment, as dentists are free to accept or refuse patients and to provide private
treatment only. If you are accepted, you should give the dentist the NHS number which is on
your medical card. There is a charge for all dental treatment. For basic treatment this could be up
to seventeen pounds. More extensive dental treatment will cost more if you are not registered
with a doctor. You will have to pay the full cost of dental treatment as a private patient. You will
have to make an appointment to see your dentist and should give notice if you are unable to
attend an appointment, or you will be charged for loss of time. You should try to have your teeth
checked at least once per year by the dentist. From the NHS you are entitled to a free 6-monthly
check-up.
Student: Thank you very much. This helps me a lot.

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Part 2: You will hear an interview with a psychologist about friendships. Choose the answer A, B, C or
D, which fits best according to what you hear.
Presenter: Walk into any bookshop and there are self-help manuals on every aspect of human behaviour,
including how to cope with difficult partners, awkward bosses, contrary children – but very
little on how to manage friendships. ‘Managing’ friendships sounds cold, but it’s essential if
you value them and want to keep them, or want to learn when it’s time to let them go. Your
friendship landscape changes through life. You marry and have less in common with single
friends. You move and keeping up with old friends proves hard. Sometimes the changes are
more subtle: you experience a life crisis and some friends can’t or won’t support you. You
become successful and friends feel awkward around you. Change in one of you means the fit
between you alters. That’s when you find out if the relationship has the capacity to evolve, or
if it’s just come to a natural end. In the studio today we have Barbara Smith, a psychologist.
Barbara, welcome to the show.
Barbara: Thank you John. Well, there’s only one rule of friendship: it must be mutually beneficial.
Friendships can be put into categories. Firstly, let’s look at the foul-weather friend. On the
surface, this is a totally dependable, loyal friend, particularly when you are having a bad time.
But the downside with this foul-weather friend is that they’ll put a dampener on you when
you’re up, forever pointing out what can go wrong. They are rarely looking for a more
balanced relationship: their self-esteem may be invested in their superior feeling that you are a
bit of a disaster area, and they have everything under control. When actually, of course, the
opposite is true.
Presenter: Now, you’ve got a category called the trophy friend, haven’t you? What do you mean by that
exactly?
Barbara: Ah yes. That’s the friend that you admire because they are so interesting and popular, or
successful in a way you want to be. You can bathe in their reflected glory and feel part of a
different social sphere but you must remember that this isn’t necessarily the world you fit
into. If they are nice as well, this relationship can bring out the best in you, as you stretch it to
be deserving of the friendship. But beware if being with them makes you behave falsely so
that you are not true to yourself or to others. This situation can only lead to a downfall and
great disappointment.
Presenter: What about the friend since childhood who you grew up with?
Barbara: The sisterly friend. She might live next door or have gone to school with you. Over the years
you have built up a strong relationship that makes her feel more like a sister than a friend. On
the plus side, she can bring a real sense of security and support. You can ring her any time and
confide in her. She can be a powerful ally, but because she’ll be there whether you like it or
not, she has the power to make you miserable if you don’t keep her informed and involved in
your life. This friend is like family, you’re so close it can become claustrophobic. For
example, if you start a new relationship, she’ll expect to be as big a part of your life as she’s
always been. Then you need to define clear boundaries.
Presenter: But that sounds like the kind of friend you’d want to hang on to on the whole. So how can you
make the decision who a good friend really is and who is no longer a valid person to have in
your life?
Barbara: Well, good friends should be low maintenance – and that goes for you too. See enough of
each other to keep the rapport going: neither demand too much nor avoid so frequently that
the relationship becomes unbalanced. If it’s always a moan session, or one of you is often
looking for favours or support, the goodwill will soon burn out. It’s always important to be
open to making new friends too. Most of us want to see people who make us feel good. It
doesn’t mean you have to be a barrel of laughs all the time (which can be off-putting); it’s
about showing real interest, being light-hearted and not too obviously needy. Don’t force the
pace. Some people need time to get to know you better. It’s best to be pleasant and casual.
Don’t bombard them with too many invitations. Don’t assume that one good heart-to-heart
makes you best friends. Respect their time and other commitments and the friendship will
blossom naturally in time.
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Part 3: You will hear a researcher talking about communication in the environmental science fields,
and how communication on environmental issues could be improved. Complete the sentences with a
word or short phrase.
I think it’s deeply rooted in our culture since the enlightenment. You know, knowledge will set you free,
right? It will liberate you and empower you to do the right thing. I used to live about three and a half
miles away from my place of work. With a bike, twenty minutes in the summer, you know, to ride to
work. If I wanted to cross that same distance by public transportation, an hour and a half. I’m not going to
do that. I have things to do. I’m busy. So I’m gonna drive my car. And those are the kinds of real-life
obstacles all of us face, that need to be addressed; there are many other obstacles we might face, not
feeling like it makes any difference, or whatever, there are many obstacles but I think the assumption that
knowledge itself will lead to the right behaviour change. I think it’s just too simplistic and that’s what,
you know, all the social scientists keep finding. But if you want to link your.... whatever you have to say,
to the behavioral change or policy change or management change – whatever you want to achieve, you
need to elevate the motivation and give people a really good reason to want to do that and lower all the....
or, er, at least help lower or address the barriers or resistance that people face in making that change. I
think the communicators have spent a lot of time focusing on the motivation side but they don’t address
the barriers people face when they have to make the changes and so I think we need to spend a lot more
time really thinking hard about the particular audience we’re dealing with, what obstacles are in their way
of doing the right thing and only when we are very specifically thinking about that can we actually begin
to help them overcome them and that’s where our communication should focus; much more than... people
have heard, people are convinced climate change is here. People have heard that, yeah, the coast is
eroding. I mean, those are established facts; people see it now too. It’s, um. what to do about it. people
don’t know a lot about the solutions, people feel quite disillusioned or pessimistic that their little addition
will address this global overwhelming problem. Sometimes they don’t even know what the solutions are
or what they could possibly do. We as communicators have failed to show them that their action is one of
many, many others that can actually shift, um, the trajectory that we’re on. You know, when Martin
Luther King gave his famous speech about I have a dream, he didn’t say “I have a nightmare, people.
Here is how bad it is”. He said “I have a dream. I have told you a positive vision of what we want to work
towards together”. That’s what he gave people, and he was obviously a rhetorician who was wonderful at
doing it. but basically he gave a message of hope. He gave an image of hope.
Let me give you one, sort of, a very optimistic scenario of the future. And that is we can get together, all
of us, collectively, and we work as hard as we can on changing our energy system, changing our trans-
portation system, changing our buildings all over, you know, and we get to a very low CO2 emitting
future. If we do that, with the still growing population we have, if we’re really, really lucky and working
really hard, we might get to a scenario that is on the lower end of what the intergovernmental panel of
climate change is projecting – you know, 550 parts per million of CO2 in the atmosphere. That is the most
optimistic I can come up with at the moment. Well, that is still double prehistoric levels of CO2. That is
still a 2-, 3-degree Celsius warming, or four degrees, five degrees Fahrenheit warming. It’s a hugely
different world to what we have lived in in the past. Basically people will see more negative impact, get
negative feedback from the environment, for trying really really hard. It’s not going to sustain them in
staying engaged in doing the right thing. We need to show people, first of all, the right indicators of
change which are gonna be social change indicators, not environmental change indicators, they will all go
down negative for a long time. For anyone living today they’re going to see degradation rather than
improvement in the climate but we might see positive social change and that’s where we need to direct
our people’s attention to and show them how that is actually moving towards that positive vision.
Eventually we might get back to a climate that is far more conducive and less, you know, disruptive, as
the one that we’re probably creating right now. But we need to give people a vision – a positive vision
that’s worth fighting for and that will sustain their engagement in working towards it. And it’s not gonna
be looking at the climate; it will be looking at a sustainable community where there’s a lot of social
interaction, where we’re not hitting each other over the head but giving each other, I don’t know, a sense
of community, of enjoyment, despite a difficult climate, despite a difficult world.

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ĐÁP ÁN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH - MÔN TIẾNG ANH - NĂM HỌC 2015-2016 T r a n g ! 8!|!8!