You are on page 1of 3

Algebra Worksheet 3 – Inequalities

All SMC, BMO and Mentoring problems are © UKMT (www.ukmt.org.uk)

1. For all real values of the variables involved, and using the Trivial Inequality:
a. Prove that x 2+ 2 xy + y 2 ≥0 .
b. Hence or otherwise, prove that ( a+ b )2 +2 a2+ ( a−b )2 ≥ 2 b2
2. Show that ( a 2 b+ b2 c+ c 2 a )( a b2 +b c 2 +c a2 ) ≥ 9 a 2 b 2 c 2 for all real a , b , c using the AM-GM
inequality.
3. Given that x , y , z are positive reals and that xyz=1, use both the AM-GM inequality and
Cauchy-Schwarz to prove that x 2+ y 2+ z 2 ≥ x + y + z
4. Given that a , b and c are positive real numbers, prove using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality
a2 b 2 c 2
that + + ≥ a+b+c
c a b

5. [Source: UKMT Mentoring] Let n be a positive integer. Let d (n) denote the number of
divisors of n , and let σ ( n ) be the sum of these divisors (in each case including n itself). Prove
that:
σ ( n)
≥ √ n(Hint: we have a sum here, so we can probably use the AM-GM inequality)
d ( n)

6. [Source: BMO1] Show that for all real a , b , c :


2
( a 2+ b2 ) ≥( a+b+ c)(a+ b−c)(b +c−a)( c+ a−b)(Hint: Using the Trivial Inequality will do
here. The hard part is working out the factorisation after you’ve expanded!)

7. [Optional] [Source: Irish Olympiad 99] Let a , b , c , d be positive real numbers which add to 1.
Prove that:
a2 b2 c2 d2 1
+ + + ≥ (Hint: the squared a 2 , b2 , … terms on the LHS gives a clue as
a+b b+c c+ d d +a 2
to what we should use on the RHS of a Cauchy-Schwarz inequality)

www.drfrostmaths.com/rzc
Algebra Worksheet 3 - ANSWERS

1. For all real values of the variables involved, and using the Trivial Inequality:
a. Prove thatx 2+ 2 xy + y 2 ≥0 .
This factorises to ( x + y )2 ≥ 0, which is true by the Trivial Inequality.
b. Hence or otherwise, prove that ( a+ b )2 +2 a2+ ( a−b )2 ≥ 2 b2
2
Rearranging: ( a+ b )2 +2 ( a2−b )
+ ( a−b )2 ≥ 0
Making the substitution x=a+ b and y +a−b , we obtain the inequality in (a).

2. Show that ( a 2 b+ b2 c+ c 2 a )( a b2 +b c 2 +c a2 ) ≥ 9 a 2 b 2 c 2 for all real a , b , c using the AM-GM


inequality.
Using AM-GM on each factor: a 2 b+ b2 c+ c2 a ≥ 3 3 a 3 b 3 c 3=3 abc . Similarly

2 2 2 3 3 3 3
a b + b c + c a ≥ 3 √ a b c =3 abc. Multiplying these together yields the above inequality.

x y z
3. Show that + + ≥ 3 for all real x , y , z.
y z x
x y z 3 x y z
By the AM-GM inequality, + + ≥ 3×
y z x y z x
=3

4. Given that x , y , z are positive reals and that
xyz=1, use both the AM-GM inequality and Cauchy-
2 2 2
Schwarz inequality to prove that x + y + z ≥ x + y + z .
3
By the AM-GM inequality, x + y + z ≥ 3 √ xyz =3.
2
By the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, ( 1+1+1 ) ( x2 + y 2 + z 2 ) ≥ ( x + y + z ) .
So 3 ( x 2+ y 2+ z 2 ) ≥ ( x + y + z ) ( x + y + z ) ≥3( x+ y + z ).
Thus x 2+ y 2+ z 2 ≥ x + y + z .

5. Let n be a positive integer. Let d (n) denote the number of divisors of n , and let σ ( n ) be the sum of
σ ( n)
these divisors (in each case including n itself). Prove that: ≥ √n
d ( n)
Suppose that the divisors of n are n1, n2 up to n d(n) .
n1 +n2 +…+ nd (n)
Then the left hand side is which is the Arithmetic Mean of the divisors. Thus by the
d (n)
n1 +n2 +…+ nd (n) d (n )
AM-GM inequality, ≥ √ n1 n2 … nd (n). But we can organise the divisors into pairs
d (n)
1
d (n) d (n )
such that the product of each pair is n , thus we find d (n)
√ n1 n2 … n d (n )= √n
d (n)
2 ( )
= n 2
d (n)
=√ n
.

www.drfrostmaths.com/rzc
2
6. Show that for all real a , b , c : ( a 2+ b2 ) ≥( a+b+ c)( a+ b−c)(b +c−a)( c+ a−b)
Expanding both sides and moving to the left gives us:
2 a4 + 2b 4 +c 4 −2 a2 c 2−2 b2 c2 ≥ 0This requires some ingenuity to factorise. Looking at the terms,
2
we might try ( a 2+ b2−c 2 ) , which gives us a 4 +b 4 +c 4 +2 a2 b2−2a 2 c 2−2 b2 c 2. Conveniently, this
just leaves a 4 +b 4−2 a2 b2 left to make up to obtain the above expression. This factorises to
2
( a 2−b2 ) .
2 2
Thus we have ( a 2+ b2−c 2 ) + ( a 2−b2 ) ≥ 0. This is true by the Trivial Inequality.

7. Let a , b , c , d be positive real numbers which add to 1. Prove that:

a2 b2 c2 d2 1
+ + + ≥ By the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality:
a+b b+c c+ d d +a 2
2 2 2 2
( ( a+ b ) + ( b+ c )+ ( c+ d )+ ( d+ a ) ) a + b + c + d ≥ ( a+ b+c +d )2
( a+ b )
b+ c c +d d +a
a2 b2 c2 d2
2 ( a+b+ c+ d ) ( + + +
a+b b+c c+ d d+ a
≥ ( a+b+ c+ d ))2

a2 b2 c2 d2 ( a+b+ c+ d )2 a2 b2 c2 d 2 1 The last line follows


+ + + ≥ + + + ≥
a+b b+c c+ d d +a 2(a+b +c +d ) a+b b+c c+ d d +a 2
because a+ b+c +d=1 .

www.drfrostmaths.com/rzc

You might also like