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    BASIC Questions PDF

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    of 31
    QL. Q2. Q3. Qa. Qs. NT— TC - 1A QUESTION SI C xv A) THERE ARE FIVE BASIC LEVELS OF QUALIFICATION. = B) THERE ARE THREE BASIC LEVELS OF QUALIFICATION. C) THERE LEVELS CAN BE FURTHER SUBDIVIDED BY THE EMPLOYER INTO ADDITIONAL LEVELS WHEN DEEMED NECESSARY. D)_A& C ARE CORRECT. B& CARE CORRECT. —~ WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE TRUE STATEMEN' AN INDIVIDUAL WAS CERTIFIED LEVEL II BY EMPLOYER “A, THIS INDIVIDUAL LEFT ‘A’ AND JOINED EMPLOYER ‘B’ AFTER A GAP OF 9 MONTHS. AS PER SNT’ «TC ~ 1A THIS INDIVIDUAL CAN BE CERTIFIED TO LEVEL 1 BY EMPLOYER ‘B” A) AFTER CONDUCTING AN EXAMINATION ONLY DIRECTLY. B) AFTER RECEIVING FULL TRAINING FOLLOWED BY EXAMINATION ©) AFTER RECEIVING TRAINING AS DEEMED NECESSARY BY EMPLOYER «B’ HE CAN BE CERTIFIED TO LEVEL Il AFTER AN EXAMINATION (BS NONE OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT. a AS REGARDS EXAMINATIONS OF LEVEL T & LEVEL Il PERSONNEL, THE NDT LEVEL MI: B) SHALL CONDUCT THE AMINATIONS. (©) SHALL GRADE THE EXAMINATIONS ''D) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRI —— EB) A&BONLY ARE CORRECT Np St PREPARE THE GENERAL QUESTION PAPER. ‘THE REQUIREMENTS OF A PERSON TO BE CERTIFIED TO NDT LEVEL Ill CAN BE REDUCED BY AN EMPLOYER IF: A) THE CANDIDATE IS A POSTGRADUATE, B) THE CANDIDATE HAS WORKED AS CERT METHOD. ©) THE CANDIDATE HAS WORKED AS CERTIFIED LEVEL II IN ANY NDT ETHOD GIVEN IN SNT~ TC ~ 14 : NONE OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT. << IED LEVEL I IN THE SAME A QUALIFIED REPRESENTATIVE OF THE EMPLOYER CAN CONDUCT AND GRADE THE EXAMINATIONS FOR: A) LEVELT. B) LEVEL IL LEVEL IIL ) ALL OF THE ABOVE, E) BORCONLY. SNT-TC-ALSEE'C Q.6. THE THREE EXAMINATIONS REQUIRED FOR CERTIFYING A PERSON TO NDT LEVEL Il ARE: A) BASIC, SPECIFIC, PRACTICAL. oT B) GENERAL, SPECIFIC, PRACTICAL. )\.£y METHOD, BASIC, SPECIFIC. D) NONE OF THE ABOVE. Q.7. AS PER SNT-TC- 1A, A PERSON SHOULD BE CERTIFIED TO APPROPRIATE NDT LEVEL IF HE IS TO: A) PERFORM NDT. B) EVALUATE NDT. ©), WITNESS NDT. Y ANY OF THE ABOVE REQUIRES CERTIFICATION. E) AORB ONLY. Q8. ANNDTLEVEL I SHOULD CARRY OUT {INSPECTION AS PER: A) CODES. B)_ASTM STANDARDS. ), WRITTEN INSTRUCTIONS. D) ANY OF THE ABOVE. Q.9. YOU ARE AUDITING AN EMPLOYERS WRITTEN PRACTICE, HE. HAS SPECIFIED THAT THE LEVEL I CANDIDATE SHALL HAVE MINIMUM 4".STANDARD EDUCATION: A) YOU WILL CHANGE I'l 'TO MINIMUM HIGH SCHOOL EDUC ATION AS RECOMMENDED BY SNT TC - 1A B) YOU WILL CHANGE IT TO MINIMUM 8" STANDARD AS RECOMMENDED BY SNT - TC - 1A. ©) YOU WILL DISCUSS THIS MATTER WITH SNT - TC 1A GOVERNING BODY. A) YOU WILL ACCEPT THE WRITTEN PRACTICE, Q.10, ACCORDING TO SNT - TC - 1A WHO CAN CONDUCT TRAINING? A) ANY ASNT LEVEL IIL B) THE COMPANY NDT LEVEL Il! EMPLOYERS REPRESENTATIVE, )) NOT SPECIFIED BY THE DOCUMENT. THIS MATTER SHOULD BE ADDRESSED BY THE EMPLOYER IN HIS WRITTEN PRACTICE. -~ E) ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE WRONG. Qui, AN EMPLOYER CAN HIRE AN OUTSIDE AGENCY TO PROVIDE NDT LEVEL Il SERVICES WHICH INCLUDE: A) TRAINING. B) ADMINISTERING EXAMINATION, ©) CERTIFICATION. a D), ALL OF THE ABOVE. bE) A&BONLY. Q.12, WHO CAN DIRECTLY QUALIFY TO LEVEL It A) ANENGINEERING DEGREE HOLDER B) AN ENGINEERING DIPLOMA HOLDER. C) A SCIENCE GRADUATE. B) ANY PERSON TO HAS FULFILLED TRAINING, EXPERIENCE & EDUCATION REQUIREMENTS OF THE EMPLOYERS WRITTEN PRACTICE. E) NO ONECAN DIRECTLY QUALIFY TO LEVEL I Q.13. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD CONSTITUTE EXPERIENCE: |A) TIME SPENT IN WITNESSING NDT INSPECTIONS. B) TIME SPENT IN PRACTICAL EXERCISES DURING TRAINING L*® TIME SPENT IN NDT ACTIVITH pel THE DIRECTION OF QUALIFIED SUPERVISION. D) ALL OF THE ABOVE, E) A&CONLY. Q.14, THE NDT LEVEL Ill SHOULD BE CAPABLE OF: A) TRAINING LEVEL I & LEVEL I. —— B) EXAMINING LEVEL | & LEVEL IL ©) CERTIFYING LEVEL | & LEVEL IL D) AU OF TE BOO \BY A&BONLY. Q.15. AS PER THIS EDITION OF SNT ~ TC = 1A, THE NDT METHODS TO BE CONSIDERED ARE: A) SHEAROGRAPHY. B) ACOUSTIC EMISSION. C) VIBRATION ANALYSIS TESTING. nya OF THE ABOVE. B&CONLY. » Ql "CP. 189A Documentation of certificates is responsibility of 5 7 4 — x ‘A) Employer B) ASNT Level III of the employer ° §} Any designated representative of the employer D) Any of above we. The NDT personnel shall be recertified when _ A) Three years have passed for Level I or zB ° B) Five years have passed for Level III ° G) The ASNT Level IIT certification expires for Level IIL D) All of above -E) A and B only In a "Closed Book" Examination A) No reference material is to be used a B) ASME or relevant published codes may be used C) Any reference material approved ani supplied by employer may be tasea D) All of above may be used “B) None of above Determination of the significance of a relevant indication is called as A) Inspection B) Assessment C) Interpretation ~D) None of above, ~ Pifferent ways of doing a Test, such as contact Ultrasonic Testing or Immersion Ultrasonic Testing are called test A) Methods -B) Techniques —~ C) Types D) All of above =) None of above A Trainee shall work with ®) any certified person ~~ 2) any certified person so designated by the company Level III ©) Any person ‘nominated by the employes eon ue written so in the! written practice’ D) None of above A practical check list 4 “A) * must be in a written format B) is needed for Level I & Level II examinations only should have minimum 10 check points DB) All of above A candidate was examined for visjon + The test was conducted by @ certified optometrists and conteined following information. Test Chart : Jaeger Ulumination +500 Lux Eye chart Distance ; 10" Candidate wore contact lenses during examination. Test result + Left eye : Jaeger 1 Right eye: Jaeger 2 AS the company Level III would you approve the candidate ? cont... A) Yes B) No, because eye vision must be Jaeger 1 in both eyes GY Nov because contact lenses are not acceptable _B) You would not accept the test for some other reason Q.9 Who can work ‘as an NDT Instructor ? AY” Any specialised person such as a metallurgist, welding engineer ete. who are nominated by the company Level III Only ASNT Level III personnel €) Only the company Level III D) Instructers certified or authorised by ASNT D) None of above Q.10 Practical Examination is to be done for Level II certification. ‘The Practfite will be using three different techniques. How many test samples he must be examined on ? A) two B) four CL six None of above © eneva! Q.11 The Level I and Tjexaminations must be B&B Prepared by a Level III a ) Administered by a Level IIT C) Graded by a Leys}Ill D) All of above \-%) None of above a Q.12 When a certified individual has not carried out any inspection for more than J2months, in the method qualified in, the employer eo) May suspend his certificate 4 must suspend his certificate C) must revoke his certificate D) may consider that certificate as lapsed Q.13 The Level Ill practical examination 4 A)» may include procedure writing and practical test imust include procedure writing and practical test @} fhust include procedure writing and practical test and reporting. D) None of above Q.14 A company has hired an ASNT Level LI individual. Prior to his Expnination 992 formal approval he shall be classified as a § Train B) Level I C) Level D) None of above Q.15 To receive credit for training hours the candidate must A) Have documental proof of class attendance 3) Have documented proof of having performed practical tests €)- Have documented/proof of education “D) None of above E) Only A and B RWS. co ASNT LEVEL IIr - BASIC Fekonish ein . Artem EHS ne ent MO» Get tk {andetory outline for employers to follow in documenting their nondestructive testing activities. Bb. Document which descriies the way that an employer must Classify his nondestructive tasting personnel. LX 2% ponmandatory guide for employer to use in preparing their own nondestructive testing documentation suitable to their specific needs / with the approval of their.cus tomer) GA document’ which specifies the training, education and experience required(for three classes of nondestructive testing persounel) 2. Qualification indicates : a. That a person has passed the physical, general, specific, and practival examinations in a method. b. That a person has completed his training course for this method. % That the person has the skill, knowledge, training, and experience necessary to perform the duties of a specific job. d. That the employee has completed the tests’ and training necessary for a particular job. Certification is : Ac paper signed by the employer stating what certifications his employees hold. A means for the employer to know which people are entitled to pay raises. Written testimony of qualification, A written history of the employer's experience. 4. For Level Y and II examinations, which one of the following statements is not correct ? a. The questions used must be approved by the Level 111 examiner. b. The questions used need not be taken from ASNT guestion booklets. “@, The number of questions to be answered may not be changed by the Level ITI examiner. : ie chert cyanea test principles, operating procedures, specifications, and sther subjects to the degree required by the employer's written practice. 4 Al gpecial ball-check valve, which has a stainless steel body anda nylon ball, is leaking after a period of service. Which of the following NDT methods would be most suitable to determine if the ball is worn, cracked or jammed ? ey Ulterasonic Testing : ; Radiograhic testing. 6. c. Eddy current testing. »A. Neutron radiographic testing. Estalishing differential pressure between test object and the environment is an essential element in which of the following NDT methods ? WE x-ray aiferaction. b. Neutron radiography. WA. Leak testing. a. Gamma radiography e. Eddy current testing. It is desired to test a fabrication consisting of stainless steel castings welded together with stainless steel filler wire and which are solution heat treated after welding. The section to be tested ranges from 1 inch to 15 inches (2.5 cm to 38 em)thick. Which of the . following combinations of NDT methods would be most suitable for testing the entire fabrication for surface aaa(ecsene rset coed Pen a. Ultrasonic and penetrant testing. a b. Radiographic and magnetic particle testing. £6 /es ddy current and radiographic testing. \@. Radiographic and penetrant testing. e. Ultrasonic and neutron radiographic testing. In angle beam ultrasonic testing of plate, the defect most probably undetectable would be + cks which perpendicular to the soundwave. clusions which are randomly oriented. 7. Cracks which are parallel to the plate's surface. d. A series of small discontinuities located close to one another, When maintenance inspection using the magnetic particle test method is performed on parts which have been in most probable type of defect being sought is ser ity Cracks Lack of Penetration Shrinkage 10. Material exposed to Y radiation or to million volt X-rays: a. Should not be handled for at least 3 minutes after exposure has ceased. Should be stored ina lead-lined room. (Will not be dangerous to hanese after exposure to @" radiation has ceased. 4. Should be monitored by means of a Geiger counter. 1, Which of the following is an advantage of fluorescent penetrants over visible dye penetrants ? @. The inspection can be carried out in a well-lighted area. -®. small indications are more easily seen. ¢, Can be used where contact with water is objectionable Less sensitive to contamination of discontinuities. 12, Reference standards used for eddy current testing: a, Must contain artifical discontinuities such as notches and drilled holes. b. Must contain natural discontinuities such as + cracks and inclusions. c- Must be free of tieasurable discontinuities wt. May contain artifical or natural discontinuities or may be free of discontinuities depending on the test system and the type of testing being conducted. 13, The accumulation of magnetic particles at a site on a part's surface, collected at and held to the site by a Magnetic leakage field, is called : a. A discontinuity b, A defect, An indication d. & rejection e+, & digcre 14, Crater cracks in welds usually result from : a, Too high heat input. bs. Too low heat input. \e<” Interruption in the welding operation, d. Improper welding electrodes. 15. Which of the following inherent discontinuities are associated with the forging process ? laps, cracks and flakes. laminations, scoring and inclusion. ge, cracks, pipe and flakes. laps and laminations. wet All 7. 18. 20. Fracture mechanics analysis is an established engineering analysis process which assumes that : @. All components are flaw free at the time of manufacture. b. All components contai determining warranty. ¢. The number of flaws can be calculated from the fatigue life of the component. d. The number of flaws in a component is determined by the Flaw Index (K£i) components contain flaws, and the maximum size of the flaws that can be accepted for static toading is dependent on the fracture toughness of the component material. flaws as a requirement for Which of the following describes the damage to human tissue caused by radiation exposure ? ion pairs are created in body cells causing damage by ionization. ‘ b. The basic structure of the body cell breaks down causing damage to the cell. The body cells simply lose their ability to seproduce or may reproduce in an abnormal manner. All of the above are true. None of the above can be caused by the low energies in the enviornment of the average radiation worker. Wow is radiation protection in field setups possible without compromising radiographic quality ? ye axing radigraphic exposure times holder by a factor of one ~£5urth b. Using low tube currents. c+ Using a long tube-to-film distance. d. All of the above. LX None of the above. Of the following welding processes. which has the capabilit of producing the smallest fusion zone ? a. Submerged arc, b. Oxyacetulene gas. c. Gas metal arc Electron beam. , In. metal emblies, cracks emanating from fastener holes are : a. Usually easy to detect nondestructively. + Of minor consequence, because they seldom show. + Difficult to detect nondestructively and usually require removal of the fastene a. Only present in structures which are subject to high static 1 al. 22. 23. 24, a t The shielding required to reduce the intensity of a 20 curie cobalt source to 275 mR/h at 1 meter would be approximately. Rom CoS = 1-35 Rhy , HVE read = 25 OM a. 6 es (15.20m) of Jreod b. 3% inches (8.3 cm) of head —c% 7 inches (17.8 cm) of head d. 24 inches (61 cm) of ‘Aaa A person is 30 years old. According to the banking concept, this person may have an accumulated dosage of a. 65 rem. Bb. 60 rem. c. 270 rem. d. 260 rem, What is the geometric unsharpness of the image of a discontinuity 1 inch from the source side surface in a 3 inch (7. em) thick test object when radiographed with a 0.315 inch (0.8 cm) focal spot at 24 inches (61 em) focal spot to film. 0.002 inch (0.05 mm). 90.029 inch (0.7 mm) c. 0.114 inch (2.8 mm) d. 0.075 ch (1.9 mm) Which of the following is false concerning the magnetic field in a hollow conductor as compared to that of a solid conductor of the same diameter, when both are of magnetic material ? The field at the outer surface of the hollow ductor is greater. + The field gradient inside the hollow conductor is he fields outside the conductor are the same. The field are the same at the centre. What hazard is involved with the use of prods to examine a finished part ? a. The part may be too large in either length or width to permit a proper <2armimna tion b. The part may be magnetically saturated. as magnetic field may be applied in the wrong directions, The part may receive are burns. While inspecting several magnetic parts having highly finished surfaces, it is ‘noted that several have indications ranging from quite sharp to feathery and/or. fuzzy in appearance. There appears to be no similar pattern or relation as to locations or general 27. 29, 30. directions on the parts. After demagnetization and xeinspection, the indications do not recur.—What is the most probable cause of this condition ? Machining tears Magnetic writing. inding cracks. Numerous nonmetallic inclusions. When demagnetizing small parts, it is most effective to position them : a. ssible to the center of the coil. ossible to the outside wall of the as possible to the inside wall of the coil d. In any of the above positions. An article has been circularly magnetized and retains a circular residual field. To replace the circular field with a longitudinal field, longitudinally magnetize the article with a field that is as great or greater than : a. The circular residual field b. The original magnetizing circular field. he longitudinal residual field. d. All of the above. When sound travels from one material to another, some of the sound is reflected at the interface. The amount transmitted into the second material is a function of a. The ratio of the impedance of the second material to the impedance of the first material, b. Frequency of sound in the first material. ¢. Piezoelectric effect in the transducer. d, Internal reflections within the transducer. In the absence of a reference speicmen, a preliminary test for detecting voids in a bonded structure would be: a. Liguid penetrant inspection. b. Through transmission ultrasonic testing. €. Shear wave ultrasonic testing. a. Lamb wave ultrasonic testing. e. Rayleigh wave ultrasonic testing. Generation of ultrasonic energy for shear wave testing can best be accomplished by : a. A crystal generating a face-shear type of energy. b. Angulation of the crystal past the first critical angle. c. A transverse length expansion crystal. a. A crystal a thickness-shear type of deformation an In the absence of test blocks of the same alloy as the yest object, a reasonably accurate ultrasonic test can be performed by : + Calibrating the equipment on aluminum test. blocks. + Calibrating the equipment on the back surface echo / vbtained from the material to be tested. + Obtaining a comparison of’ the back surface echoes between existing reference blocks and the material SS “ to be tested to establish a correction factor for g the appropriate reference target echo. . a. Calibrating the equipment on the target hole in an aluminium test block for which the metal travel distance is not less than twice the thickness of Kh the material to be tested . + Both b and c are used. C3 Compact, digital-display _ thickness _—_ measurement instruments depend upon which of the following for their operating principles ? cho. } b. Through-trans: + Resonance. t 4. Immersion 34. Wet penetrant developer concentration is typically a. Sensitivity test d. Visual test. (35. ‘The type of penetrant emulsifier which is primarily a surface tive agent or detergent is called a rophilic emulsifier. by Auroyhilic emulsifier. wf Lipophilic emulsifier d. Ureaphilic emulsifier. 6. Which of the following materials is used as a solvent to determine amount of water contaminating the when using an open tank liguid penetrant emulsifier system ? Xylene. Aceton Methylethy1 x: Kerosene. 37, The property of liquid penetrant test materials” which results from molecular or internal friction is + a. Erulsifiability bs Volatility ¢ c. Viscosity ad. Solubility. 38. Liquid penetrant test materials to be applied with electrostatic spray equipment must have : a. High electrical resistance b. Very low viscosity. t €. Good electrical conductivity. d. A low flash point. 39. The phase velocity of the electromagnetic wave in a conductor. a. Decreases with an increase in excitation frequency. b. Is constant at any excitation frequency. G. | Would change if the excitation frequency, material conductivity, or permeability changed. a. Is greater than in air. 40. What fill factor is present for a 1.0 inch (2-54 om) inside diameter heat exchanger tube being examined with an internal probe whose coil diameter is 0.9 inch (2-29 cm) ? a. 0.81 b. 0.90 een ale] CG aot @. None of the above. As the width/depth ratio of a discontinuity increases : reactive component in the complex impedance raane increases. b. The reactive component in the complex impedance lane decreases. The reactive component in the complex impedance ns the same. a. Detection of the discontinuity becomes easier. 42. If 0.08 inch (2mm) thickness of material attenuates a thermal neutron beam by a factor of Sp,then 0.8 inch (20 mm) of same material will attenuate it by approximately a factor of a. 10 b. 50 c. 1,000 a. 10,000,000 43. 46 47. In neutron radiography boron can be. readily discriminated from carbon because of differences in ? a. X-ray mass absorption coefficients. be Neutron mass absorption coefficients. ce Atomic number. a. Density. Dire: exposure converter screens of Gd can be reused + a.Only after 2-4 hours from the last exposure. bs. Only within 2-4 hours following the last exposure. €." Essentially just following the last expomcce, a. Only after determining when the residual radioactivity has diminished to a safe level for handling. The unigue properties of the neutron of decisive importance in neutron radiography come primarily from the fact that is a nuclear particle that i: electrically netural. ‘The lack of electric charge means that its electrostatic interaction with the atom's electrons is : a. Almost complete. b. A scattering reaction. le, Almost completely negligible. d. That the electrons and neutrons combine with each other, + The absorption of neutrons in an object depends on : a. its neutron cross section. b. the quantity of nuclides it contains. co. its thickness. AO 111 of the above. Which of the following would be easiest to detect in tubing by the eddy current method using the self-comparison differential coil arrangement ? a, Gradual changes in diameter. b. Gradual changes in conductivity. ¢. Changes in temperature, d. Short flaws. The generally accepted F/fg ratio of the impedance plane for discontinuity detection is in the range of : 0<£/£g¢2 Hm « < & CIO YK J Z£1SD 5 49, When very small leaks go undetected during -a- olution film test, it is usually because the operator is + eae Observing the leak detector solution for too short a time period. s b, Not observing the leak detector sélution as it is i initially applied. c. Not maintaining pressure differential. @. Using too much leak detector solution. 50. Which of the following properties would not affect the Performance of a bubble solution ? a. Viscosity b. Surface tension. - ¢. Contrast. d. All of the above. 51. Under normal shop or field conditions at a differential pressure of one atmosphere a solution film test enables. detection of leakage as small as : a -7 rie Ba a. 107% to atm-ce/sec. (10° te 16 be 103 to atm-ce/sec. c. 197/* to atm=cc/sec. ad 10"* to atm-cc/sec. $2. Which of the following is not true regarding the halogen sniffer test method ? a. Can be a very sensitive test method be Detected leaks can usually be pinpointed. ce Total leakage rate of a component or vessel is accurately known on completion of a halogen suffer test. a. Can be performed on most vessels or components which are capable of withstanding internal pressure. Refrigeyant 12 in the presence of high temperatures (such as weld puddle) will break down into hydrogen, + fluorine, chlorine and: a Sulfur dioxid Ag Phasgone 54. Which of is not applicable to liquid penetrant This method can accurately measure the depth of a Om crack or discontinuity. a 5S, 56. 57. 58. b- This method can be used for onsite testing of large parts. cS: This method can be used to find shallow surface discontinuities. + This method can be made more or less sensitive by ; using different penetrant materials. Which of the following is generally accepted as the most important precaution when using solvent-removeble Penetrants ? Do not apply an excessive amount of emulsifier. Do not apply an excessive amount of solvent. Do not use an insufficient rinse pressur Be sure to use a black light to determine if the excess penetrant has been rined away. nore A Weld in overhead position is to be L.P.tested which Penetrant can be used for this test ? a. “Solvent removable fluorescent penetrant. b. Solvent removable colour contrast penetrant. ©. All of above. a. None of above, since L.P.Testing cannot be done in overhead position. Fluorescent magnetic particle indications should be inspected under + Fluorescent light Any Light Black light. d. Neon light. gnetie particle testing method can be used for detecting ? a, Laps in carbon steel forgings. b. deep seated cavities in C.I.Castings. ¢. cracks in austenatic stainless steel welds. d. all of above. A coil around the part produces : eld b. a longitudinal field. c+ either A or B depending on the type of current applided d. an intermittent field. Testing a surface defect produces an indication pis : sharp and district. wide and indefinite usually nonrelevat. sually transverse. peo 61. A forged steel shaft, after a service of five years it being M.P.test using A.C., wet flouroscent method. the defect being sought is most probably : a. a forging lap P b. a forging burst C oe a fatigue crack a. a seam 62. 12mm thick plates were welded using .GTAW process. on radiographing this weld few spots of very light density were observed in the welded region. Those spots are most probably due to : a. Porosity : b. Tungsten inclusions. ¢. Pin holes on the surface of the weld. d. Worm holes. 63. In leak testing by pressure drop method, the leak rate is given by the formula L.R.= V x4BAy If volume of the vessel(V) is 10 litres, drop of pressure (AP) is 0.36 kg/em and time taken (QT) for this pressure drop is two hours, Leak rate is ! a. 30 ce/Sec. b. 1.8 cc/Sec. c. 0.5 cc/sec. ad. 5x10 cc/sec. After hydro test (to check the integrity of the vessel), bubble test using soap solution, has to be carried out. | Which of the following precautions are necessary to get reliable results : a. vessel must be throughly dried before leak testing. be ae a P: si Al he job must be cleaned to remove grease, oil, irt, dust ete. ressure gauge must be properly calibrated and hould have a suitable range. 11 above precauions are necessary. 65. Conductivity of material can be chawged by changing the a. Alloy of the specimen = b. Heat treatment of the specimen v ¢. Temperature of the specimen. a. All of above. 66. In eddy current testing, depth of penetration can be increased by : a. Increasing the test frequency b. Reducing the test frequency ¢. Increasing the number of turns in the coil 4. None or above have any effect on the depth of P enetration 67. In eddy current testing of hest exchanger tubes, multifrequency eddy current units are used : a. To improve the sensitivity b. To improve the depth of penetration &e c. 0 minimise the effect of unwanted signals from tube supports d. To take advantage to natural frequency of test object. 68. Acoustic emission test is used to detect : a. Reduction in pipe wall thickness due to corrosion and errosion. b. Crack growth at 2 propagation. ©. and measure the size of cracks caused due to adverse service conditions. . a. All of above. he moment of formation or 69. Which of the following is considered volumetric testing technique : a, Ultrasonic testing A b. Magnetic particle testing ¢. Eddy current testing d. All of above. /fWepricn method is most suited to detect shrinkage and inclusion in castings ? eo Radiographic testing a A be Ultrasonic Testing ST. os ct Acoustic emission testing. - - da. Magnetic particle testing. 71. Major advantage of ultrasonic testing (over radiography) is’: a. Testing can be carried out even when only one surface is accessible for testing. Permanent record of the test is available which can be evaluated by the experts. U.T.has higher penetrating power and can be used for testing thick jobS. ‘A’ and 'C! only ate correct statements. which of the following NDT Methods, source of electric power is not essential ? Liguid Penetrant Testing Eddy Current Testing Acoi on Testing. Ultrasonic Testing. = Co 73, 74. 75. 76. 76 44 Which of the following method is best suited for~ detecting internal lamination in 25 min. thick carbon steel plate ? a. Radiography b. Ultrasonic testing ¢. Magnetic particle testing. d. None of above. Which of the following defects occur only in castings ? a. Inclusions b. Cold shut c. Cracks a. Poros. ty A weld radiograph shows a defectindication. Indication is a dark and sharp straight line at the centre of the weld. This indication is due to a. Centre line crevice b, lack of side wall fusion. c. Lack of penetration d. Blongated slag. In radiography, a densitometer is used to measure + a. density of developer solution b. intensity of radiation in the working area ¢. relative blackening of the radiographic fiim. 4. The amount of radiation leaking through the radiographic cameras. Which of the following is not a non-destructive testing method : a. Ultrasonic testing b, Fatigue testing c. Bddy current testing. d. Radiographic testing. In addition to flaw detection and evaluation, Nn? methods are also used for : a. thickness testing b. measurement physical properties of materials €. Checking paint on S.S.Material _-4 All of above. To detect service induced cracks (such as fatigue cracks and stress corrosion cracks) in ferromagnetic materials, magnetic particle testing is prefered over liquid penetrant testing because can ferromagnetism {cause heavy back ground in Testing, hénce reducesthe sensitivity. vice induced cracks are usually filled with ust, rust and other corrosion products. Hence these may not be detected by L.P.Testing. ¢. L.P.Testing is not suitable for detecting cracks in ferromagnetic materials. d. All of above. Eg b. 80) 81. 82. 83. 84. as. To detect loss of thickness in pipe; line due~ to corrosion and errosion, best sensitivity is obtained using : 4 a. Ultrasonic thickness meter (also called D-meter). b. Radiographic thickness gauge c. Survey meter a. Densitometer The process of comparing an instrument or a device with a standard is called : a. Attenuation b. Correlation ¢. Calibration @. Angulation Ultrasonic testing of butt welds is normally carried out using : b. Normal probes c. Surface wave probes d. TR probes To detect centre line piping in round bars and forgings, Ultrasonic testing is carried out using a. Angle probes b. Normal probes c. Shear wave probes a. Surface wave probes. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the part surface is necessary because + a. lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface. b. An air interface between the crystal surface and the part surface would almost completely reflect the ultrasonic vibrations. ©, the ‘crystal will not vibrate if place directly in contact with the surface of the part being inspected a. the liguid is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the search unit. In an A-scan ultrasonic equipment, height of the signal on the screen represents the : a. relative amount of reflected sound energy returning to the probe. b. distance traveled by the probe c. thickness of material being tested ad. elassed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated. Rar ager rare Eine Pv a6. 88. a9. 90. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of sound travel is generated in the second material due to : a. Attenuation b. reflection ¢. compression d. refraction Why are standard reference blocks required in ultrasonic testing ? a. To ensure that the job being tested passes the UT. b. To ensure repeatability o. response while doing instrument setting. ¢+ To increase the sensitivity of the test. a. All of the above are correct. Around pin is magnetized by passing electric current ie refer fig. and say which cracks can be detected by the method : a. xX andy be ¥ and z c. Zand x 4d. X only e. Z only. x Cobalt 60 radio~isotope, in non-destructive testing, emits a. Alpha rays b. Neutrons c a. A penetrameter is used to indicate : a. the size of discontinuities present in the test object. b. the density of the film ¢. the amount of film contrast G. the quality of the radiographic technique, The main advantage of Gamma radiography over X-radiography is : a. Gamma ray equipment is compact and portable. b. Gamma Ray equipment is very costly c. X-ray equipment has very good electrical stability d. the exposures required to be given with X-rays is very small. 92. 93. > 94, 95. 97. 98. o : 17 Double wall double image technique is used for radiographing : a. large pipes - 200 mm dia and more b. plate welds ¢- Tubular products with less than 80 mm dia. @. Circumferential welds in large vessels. ' Which of the following will improve the sensitivity in radiography ? a. Using fine grain film b. Reducing the source to film distance ¢. Reducing the size of penetrameter 4, All of above will improve the sensitivity. Thin sheets of lead foll in intimate contact with radigrahic film increase film density because they uorece and emit visible light which helps expose the film. b. absorb the scattered radiation. ©. prevent back-scattered radiation from fogging the film. d. emit electrons which helps darken the film. The fact that gases, when bombarded with radiation. ionise and become electrically conducting make them useful in + a. X-ray transformers b, -X+ray tubes c. masks d. monitoring equipment. Developer preferentially reduces + bromide © over sitver ¢'3 , C aystots) “Silver “C3 over bromide C/S i exposed silver <’’S over unexposed silver GéSs, unexposed silverc {~ over exposed silver 1/3, A beam of radiation consisting of a single wavelength is known as a. Microscopic Radiation b. Monochromatic Radiation ¢. Heterogeneous Radiation d. Pluoroscopic Radiation. The pocket dosjmeter has the advantage of : g more accurate than the film badge viding a permanent record of radiation exposure an immediate indication of radiation All of the above. 99. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that : radiation intensity varies inversely as thésquare of the time spent near the iocal spot. radiation intensity varies Proportionally with distance from the focal spot. radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the distance from the radiation source. none of the above. 100. For a given thickness the most effective protection from X or gamma radiation is bricks conerete barium plaster lead. Qu Q2. Q3 Q4. Qs NT ~ Th A (1996) QUESTION SET‘ SNT - TC - 1A IS INTENDED TO BE A) A STRICT SPECIFICATION B) USED FOR ASME CODED VESSELS ONLY. C) USED FOR THE PRODUCTS TO BE EXPORTED TO U. S.A ~D) A GUIDE LINE FOR EMPLOYERS TO ESTABLISH THEIR OWN WRITTEN PRACTICE, CERTIFICATION IS RESPONSIBILITY OF: ~A) EMPLOYER. a B) EXAMINER. C) TRAINER, D) LEVEL - III DESIGNEE. AN INSPECTOR IS NOT CARRYING OUT L. P. TEST. HOWEVER HE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR INTERPRETATION OF IT. WHO SHOULD ASSESS WHETHER HE SHOULD BE QUALIFIED & CERTIFIED: A) INSPECTOR’S BOSS. B) 3" PARTY INSPECTOR. C) CUSTOMER \O) INSPECTOR'S EMPLOYER, =~ SNT ~ TC ~ 1A GUIDELINES ARE NOT APPROPRIATE FOR EMPLOYER X. HENCE EMPLOYER X SHALL: A) REFER THE MATTER TO THE CHAIRMAN. ASNT. B) REFER THE MATTER TO SNT ~ TC ~ 1A INTERPRETATION COMMITTEE, C) MAKE HIS WORKING CHANGED TO SUIT SNT~ TC - 1A. \®) MODIFY THEM AS NECESSARY TO MEET HIS PARTICULAR NEEDS, CERTIFYING AGENCY IS: A) ASME. B) AMERICAN BUREAU OF SHIPPING. C) ASNT, D) ISNT (IN INDIA ONLY), \£) THE EMPLOYER OF THE PERSONNEL BEING CERTIFIED. SNT-TC-1A SET a 4 Q6, SNT-TC~ IA IS CURRENTLY 1996 NOT APPLICABLE FOR: STRAIN GAUGE MEASUREMENT. C) VISUAL TESTING. D) B&CONLY, E) ALL OF THE ABOVE, 4 NEUTRON RADIOGRAPHY, Q.7. THE BASIC LEVELS OF QUALIFICATION ARE: A) LI,L1,L Il, L lll DESIGNEE. B) TRAINEE, LI, LU, L Ill. Me) LULULOL 2 D) NONE OF THE ABOVE, Q8. A TRAINEE CAN INDEPENDENTLY: A) PERFORM THE TEST, INTERPRET AND RECORD THE RESULT. B) ONLY PERFORM & INTERPRET, REQUEST LEVEL - 1 TO RECORD. C) ONLY PERFORM & REQUESPLEVEL -ITO RECORD. “D) NONE OF THE ABOVE, Q9. A TRAINEE SHOULD WORK WITH: A) AN EXAMINER (ASNT), B) AN EXAMINER (ISNT). C) A TRAINING MANAGER ™D) A CERTIFIED INDIVIDUAL. E) NONE OF THE ABOVE. Q.10. WHO SHOULD GIVE INSTRUCTIONS TO LEVEL - 1 CLIENTS REPRESENTATIVE. ) LEVEL =I, ©) EMPLOYER. D) ALL OF THE ABOVE E) ONLYBORC. Q.11. THE FOLLOWING IS NOT WITHIN THE SCOPE OF LEVEL -1 INDIVIDUAL: A) PROVIDE TRAINING B) SPECIFIC CALIBRATIONS, C) SPECIFIC EVALUATION. =~ D) PREPARATION OF PROCEDURE, \#) A&DONLY.-— Q.12. THE EMPLOYER’S WRITTEN PRACTICE SHOULD INCLUDE: A) TRAINING & EXAMINATION REQUIREMENT. B) CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENT. ©) RULES COVERING THE DURATION OF INTERRUPTED SERVICE WHICH WILL REQUIRE RE-EXAMINATION AND RECERTIFICATION. \D) ALL OF THE ABOVE. Vie E) A&BONLY. Q.13, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING AUTOMATICALLY REVOKES THE CERTIFICATION. A) AN INDIVIDUAL QUARRELS WITH HIS BOSS, B) AN INDIVIDUAL MEETS AN ACCIDENT & HOSPITALIZED. \€) AN INDIVIDUAL’S EMPLOYMENT IS TERMINATED, D) AN INDIVIDUAL MAKES SERIOUS MISTAKES IN TESTING. E) BOTHC&DONLY. ~ Q.14. EXPERIENCE RECOMMENDED FOR ALL THE LEVELS OF EDUCATION FOR A GIVEN TEST METHOD IS: "A) SAME 7 <8) DIFFERENT. ~~ C) PROPORTIONAL TO TRAIN ING HOURS. D) SAME EXCEPT BUBBLE TESTING. QUIS. FOR NDT LEVEL III QUALIFICATION, WITHOUT ANY EDUCATIONAL BACKGROUND AN INDIVIDUAL SHALL HAVE MINIMUM --- YRS EXPERIENCE IN A METHOD COMPARABLE TO THAT OF LEVEL Il: A) 3. YRS, B) 2YRS. NC) 4 YRS. D) NONE OF THE ABOVE, Q.16. AT LEAST ~ DIFFERENT CHECK POINTS ARE REQUIRED IN PRACTICAL EXAM OF LEVEL I/ LEVEL I: A) 12.

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