NTA NET Law Paper 2 July 2018 PDF

Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)
(Name)
Roll No.
2. (Signature)
(In figures as per admission card)
(Name)
Roll No.
J 0 5 8 1 8 PAPER - II (In words)
Time : 2 hours] LAW [Maximum Marks : 200

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 64 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates ¬⁄ËˇÊÊÁÕ¸ÿÙ¢ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
1. ß‚ ¬ÎD ∑ ™ ¬⁄ ÁŸÿÃ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄ •¬ŸÊ ⁄Ù‹ Ÿê’⁄ Á‹Áπ∞–
this page.
2. This paper consists of hundred multiple-choice type of questions. 2. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¢ ‚ÊÒ ’„ÈÁfl∑ À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥–
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet 3. ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ¬˝Ê⁄ê÷ „ÙŸ ¬⁄, ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê •Ê¬∑ Ù Œ ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ¬„‹ ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©‚∑ Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ¡Ê°ø ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŒÿ
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : ¡Êÿ¢ª, Á¡‚∑ Ë ¡Ê°ø •Ê¬∑ Ù •fl‡ÿ ∑ ⁄ŸË „Ò —
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the (i) ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê πÙ‹Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ¬⁄ ‹ªË ∑ Êª¡ ∑ Ë ‚Ë‹ ∑ Ê
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
» Ê«∏ ‹¢ – πÈ‹Ë „Èß¸ ÿÊ Á’ŸÊ S≈Ë∑ ⁄-‚Ë‹ ∑ Ë ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê SflË∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ ∑ ⁄¢ –
booklet. (ii) ∑ fl⁄ ¬ÎD ¬⁄ ¿¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ ¬ÎD ÃÕÊ ¬˝‡ŸÙ¢ ∑ Ë
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in ‚¢ÅÿÊ ∑ Ù •ë¿Ë Ã⁄„ øÒ∑ ∑ ⁄ ‹¢ Á∑ ÿ ¬Í⁄ „Ò¢ – ŒÙ·¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê
the booklet with the information printed on the cover Á¡Ÿ◊¢ ¬ÎD /¬˝‡Ÿ ∑ ◊ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄Ê •Ê ªÿ „Ù¢ ÿÊ ‚ËÁ⁄ÿ‹ ◊¢ Ÿ „Ù¢
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing •ÕÊ¸Ã˜ Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë òÊÈÁ≈¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê SflË∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ ∑ ⁄¢ ÃÕÊ
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other ©‚Ë ‚◊ÿ ©‚ ‹ı≈Ê∑ ⁄ ©‚∑ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄ ŒÍ‚⁄Ë ‚„Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ‹
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
‹¢– ß‚∑ Á‹∞ •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬Ê°ø Á◊Ÿ≈ ÁŒÿ ¡Êÿ¢ª– ©‚∑ ’ÊŒ Ÿ ÃÙ
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet •Ê¬∑ Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê flÊ¬‚ ‹Ë ¡ÊÿªË •ı⁄ Ÿ „Ë •Ê¬∑ Ù •ÁÃÁ⁄Q
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. ‚◊ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ–
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number (iii) ß‚ ¡Ê°ø ∑ ’ÊŒ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ Ê Ÿ¥’⁄ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ •¢Á∑ Ã ∑ ⁄¢
should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet •ı⁄ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ∑ Ê Ÿ¥’⁄ ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ¬⁄ •¢Á∑ Ã ∑ ⁄ Œ¢–
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. ¬˝àÿ∑ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ øÊ⁄ ©ûÊ⁄ Áfl∑ À¬ (1), (2), (3) ÃÕÊ (4) ÁŒÿ ªÿ „Ò¢–
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)
and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
•Ê¬∑ Ù ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ∑ flÎûÊ ∑ Ù ¬Ÿ ‚ ÷⁄∑ ⁄ ∑ Ê‹Ê ∑ ⁄ŸÊ „Ò ¡Ò‚Ê Á∑ ŸËø
the correct response against each item. ÁŒπÊÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
Example : where (3) is the correct response. ©ŒÊ„⁄áÊ — ¡’Á∑ (3) ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ „Ò–
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR 5. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑ ©ûÊ⁄ ∑ fl‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ •ãŒ⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ „Ë
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your •¥Á∑ Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ „Ò¥– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ flÎûÊ ∑ •‹ÊflÊ Á∑ ‚Ë
response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR •ãÿ SÕÊŸ ¬⁄ ©ûÊ⁄ ÁøqÊ¢Á∑ Ã ∑ ⁄Ã „Ò¥, ÃÙ ©‚∑ Ê ◊ÍÀ ÿÊ¢∑ Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¢ „ÙªÊ–
Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. •ãŒ⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÙ¢ ∑ Ù äÿÊŸ¬Ífl¸∑ ¬…∏¢ –
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. ∑ ìÊÊ ∑ Ê◊ (Rough Work) ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê ∑ •ÁãÃ◊ ¬ÎD ¬⁄ ∑ ⁄¢ –
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or 8. ÿÁŒ •Ê¬ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ¬⁄ ÁŸÿÃ SÕÊŸ ∑ •‹ÊflÊ •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊, ⁄Ê‹ Ÿê’⁄,
put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the » ÊŸ Ÿê’⁄ ÿÊ ∑ Êß¸ ÷Ë ∞‚Ê Áøq Á¡‚‚ •Ê¬∑ Ë ¬„øÊŸ „Ê ‚∑ , •¥Á∑ Ã ∑ ⁄Ã
space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose „Ò¥ •ÕflÊ •÷Œ˝ ÷Ê·Ê ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ã „Ò¥, ÿÊ ∑ Êß¸ •ãÿ •ŸÈÁøÃ ‚ÊœŸ ∑ Ê
your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ã „Ò¥, ¡Ò‚ Á∑ •¥Á∑ Ã Á∑ ÿ ªÿ ©ûÊ⁄ ∑ Ê Á◊≈ÊŸÊ ÿÊ ‚» Œ SÿÊ„Ë ‚
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or ’Œ‹ŸÊ ÃÊ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ∑ Á‹ÿ •ÿÊÇÿ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã Á∑ ÿ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to
9. •Ê¬∑ Ù ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊Ê# „ÙŸ ¬⁄ ◊Í‹ OMR ¬òÊ∑ ÁŸ⁄ËˇÊ∑ ◊„ÙŒÿ ∑ Ù ‹ı≈ÊŸÊ
disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
•Êfl‡ÿ∑ „Ò •ı⁄ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ∑ ’ÊŒ ©‚ •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ÷flŸ ‚ ’Ê„⁄
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not Ÿ ‹∑ ⁄ ¡Êÿ¢– „Ê‹Ê¥Á∑ •Ê¬ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁ# ¬⁄ ◊Í‹ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑ Ê •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
however, allowed to carry original question booklet on 10. ∑ fl‹ ŸË‹/∑ Ê‹ ’Ê‹ åflÊßZ≈ ¬Ÿ ∑ Ê „Ë ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄¢ –
conclusion of examination. 11. Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ‚¢ªáÊ∑ (∑Ò ‹∑È ‹≈ ⁄) ÿÊ ‹Êª ≈ ’‹ •ÊÁŒ ∑ Ê
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
¬˝ÿÙª flÁ¡¸Ã „Ò–
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄Ê¥ ∑ Á‹∞ ∑ Êß¸ Ÿ∑ Ê⁄Êà◊∑ •¥∑ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, 13. ÿÁŒ •¥ª˝¡Ë ÿÊ Á„¥ŒË Áflfl⁄áÊ ◊¥ ∑ Êß¸ Áfl‚¥ªÁÃ „Ê, ÃÊ •¥ª˝¡Ë Áflfl⁄áÊ •¥ÁÃ◊
English version will be taken as final. ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ–
J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.
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LAW
PAPER - II
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the
Constitution of India ?
(1) Legislation (2) Customs
(3) Usage having no force of law (4) Ordinance
2. Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law’ ?
(1) Article 33 (2) Article 34 (3) Article 352 (4) Article 353
3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using the code given
below :
Assertion (A) : A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member
of either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the
Government.
Reason (R) : If ‘pecuniary gain’ is receivable in connection with the office. Then it shall
not become an office of profit, irrespective of whether such gains are actually
promised or not.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect ? Give answer by using the
code given below :
(a) The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of single non-transferable vote.
(b) The President may resign, by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of
India.
(c) No resolution to remove the Vice-President of India from his office, shall be moved
unless at least thirty days notice has been given to him.
(d) Vice-President shall, not with standing the expiration of his term, continue to hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(3) Only (a) and (b) are incorrect
(4) Only (a) is incorrect
J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 2 Paper-II
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ÁflÁœ
¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ - II
ŸÊ≈ — ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬òÊ ◊¥ ‚ÊÒ (100) ’„È-Áfl∑ À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑ ŒÙ (2) •¢∑ „Ò¥– ‚÷Ë ¬˝‡Ÿ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò¥–
1. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑ •ŸÈë¿ Œ 13 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ë ¬Á⁄÷Ê·Ê ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ÁflœÊÿŸ (2) ¬˝ÕÊ∞°
(3) ⁄ËÁÃ Á¡‚ ∑ ÊŸÍŸË ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ¬˝ÊåÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò (4) •äÿÊŒ‡Ê
2. ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑ Ê ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê •ŸÈë¿ Œ “◊Ê‡Ê¸‹ ‹ÊÚ” ‡ÊéŒ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 33 (2) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 34 (3) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 352 (4) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 353
3. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ¬…∏¥ ÃÕÊ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ∞∑ √ÿÁÄàÊ ÿÁŒ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ •œËŸ ‹Ê÷ ∑ Ê ¬Œ œÊ⁄áÊ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò¥ ÃÊ fl„ ‚¥‚Œ ∑ Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ‚ŒŸ
∑ Ê ‚ŒSÿ øÈŸ ¡ÊŸ ÿÊ ⁄„Ÿ ∑ ÁŸÿÊ¸Çÿ „ÊªÊ–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ÿÁŒ ¬Œ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ •ÊÁÕ¸∑ ‹Ê÷ ¬˝ÊåàÊ „Ò ÃÊ ÿ„ øÊ„ ß‚ ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ ‹Ê÷ ∑ flÊSÃfl ◊¥ fløŸ ÁŒ∞
ª∞ „Ò¥ •ÕflÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑ ÁŸ⁄¬ˇÊ ‹Ê÷ ∑ Ê ¬Œ Ÿ„Ë¥ ’ŸªÊ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
4. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ª‹Ã „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ ∑ Ê ÁŸflÊ¸øŸ •ÊŸÈ¬ÊÁÃ∑ ¬˝ÁÃÁŸÁœàfl ¬hÁÃ ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ∞∑ ‹ ‚¥∑˝ ◊áÊËÿ ◊Ã mÊ⁄Ê „ÊªÊ–
(b) ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ◊ÈÅÿ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑ Ê ‚¥’ÊÁœÃ •¬Ÿ ¬òÊ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê àÿÊª¬òÊ Œ ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò–
(c) ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ©¬ ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ ∑ Ê ©‚∑ ¬Œ ‚ „≈ÊŸ ∑ Á‹∞ ‚¥∑ À¬ ©‚ ∑ ◊ ‚ ∑ ◊ ÃË‚ ÁŒŸÊ¥ ∑ Ê ŸÊÁ≈‚ ÁŒ∞ Á’ŸÊ
Ÿ„Ë¥ ‹ÊÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ–
(d) ©¬ ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ •¬Ÿ ∑ Êÿ¸∑ Ê‹ ∑ ‚◊ÊåàÊ „ÊŸ ¬⁄ ÷Ë •¬Ÿ ©ûÊ⁄ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄Ë ∑ ¬Œ ª˝„áÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ Ã∑ •¬Ÿ ¬Œ ¬⁄
’ŸÊ ⁄„ªÊ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(2) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(4) ∑ fl‹ (a) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
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5. Match List-I (name of the case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by
using the code below :
List-I List-II
(a) K.M. Nanawati Vs. State of Bombay (i) Right to life
(b) Ram Prasad Vs. State of U.P. (ii) Power to pardon
(c) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India (iii) Fundamental Duties
(d) Dr. P. Naller Thampy Terah v. Union of India (iv) Disqualification of members
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
6. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Theory of basic structure’ under Article 368 of
the Constitution ?
(1) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
(2) Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
(3) L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
(4) T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu
7. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by

the President under Article 360 of the constitution ?
(1) It shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless approved by both Houses
of Parliament.
(2) Salary and allowances of persons serving in connection with affairs of state may be
reduced.
(3) It may be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation by President.
(4) Salary and allowances of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced.
8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ? Give correct answer by using
the code given below :
(a) An ordinary Bill can only originate in council of states
(b) A Bill pending in House of people shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the
House
(c) A Bill pending in the council of state which has not been passed by the House of people
shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the people
(d) A Bill pending in the House of people shall not lapse by reason of the dissolution of the
House.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct (2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are correct (4) (b) and (d) are correct
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5. ‚ÍøË-I (◊Ê◊‹ ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ‚ÍøË-II (‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Áfl·ÿ) ∑ Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄
‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
‚ÍøË-I ‚ÍøË-II
(a) ∑ .∞◊. ŸÊŸÊflÃË ’ŸÊ◊ ’ê’ß¸ ⁄Êíÿ (i) ¡ËflŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄
(b) ⁄Ê◊ ¬˝‚ÊŒ ’ŸÊ◊ ©.¬˝. ⁄Êíÿ (ii) ˇÊ◊ŒÊŸ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ
(c) Á‹Á‹ ÕÊÚ◊‚ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ (iii) ◊Í‹ ∑ Ã¸√ÿ
(d) «ÊÚ.¬Ë.ŸÀÀÊ⁄ Õê¬Ë Ã⁄ „ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ (iv) ‚ŒSÿÊ¥ ∑ Ë ÁŸÿÊ¸ÇÿÃÊ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
6. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑ •ŸÈë¿ Œ 368 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã “’ÈÁŸÿÊŒË ‚¥⁄ øŸÊ ∑ Á‚hÊ¥Ã” ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ
Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) Á◊ŸflÊ¸ Á◊À‚ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(2) flÊ◊Ÿ ⁄Êfl ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(3) ∞‹. øãŒ˝ ∑È ◊Ê⁄ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(4) ≈Ë.∑ . ⁄¥ ª⁄Ê¡Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ÃÁ◊‹ŸÊ«È ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄
7. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑ •ŸÈë¿ Œ 360 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ mÊ⁄Ê ÁflûÊËÿ •Ê¬ÊÃ˜∑ Ê‹ ÉÊÊÁ·Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑
‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ‚¥‚Œ ∑ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚ŒŸÊ¥ mÊ⁄Ê •ŸÈ◊ÊÁŒÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑ ∞ ¡ÊŸ ¬⁄ ∞∑ ◊„ËŸÊ ‚◊ÊåàÊ „ÊŸ ¬⁄ ÿ„ ¬˝÷ÊflË Ÿ„Ë¥ ⁄„ªÊ–
(2) ⁄Êíÿ ∑ ∑ ÊÿÊZ ∑ Ê ‚¥¬ÊÁŒÃ ∑ ⁄ ⁄„ √ÿÁÄàÊÿÊ¥ ∑ flÃŸ •ÊÒ⁄ ÷ûÊ ∑ ◊ Á∑ ∞ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
(3) ÿ„ ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ mÊ⁄Ê ¬⁄flÃË¸ ©Œ˜ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê flÊ¬‚ Á‹ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò ÿÊ ’Œ‹Ê ¡Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò–
(4) ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ •ÊÒ⁄ ©ìÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿÊ¥ ∑ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡ÊÊ¥ ∑ flÃŸ •ÊÒ⁄ ÷ûÊÊ¥ ∑ Ê ∑ ◊ Á∑ ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò–
8. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ∑ ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ‚ÊœÊ⁄áÊ Áflœÿ∑ ∑ fl‹ ⁄Êíÿ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ¬˝SÃÈÃ ∑ Ë ¡Ê ‚∑ ÃË „Ò–
(b) ‹Ê∑ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ‹¥Á’Ã Áflœÿ∑ ‚÷Ê ∑ ‚òÊÊfl‚ÊŸ „ÊŸ ∑ ∑ Ê⁄áÊ √ÿ¬ªÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊªÊ–
(c) ⁄Êíÿ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ‹¥Á’Ã Áflœÿ∑ ¡Ê ‹Ê∑ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄Ê ¬ÊÁ⁄Ã Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑ ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò ‹Ê∑ ‚÷Ê ∑ ÁflÉÊ≈Ÿ „ÊŸ ¬⁄ √ÿ¬ªÃ
Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊªÊ–
(d) ‹Ê∑ ‚÷Ê ◊¥ ‹¥Á’Ã Áflœÿ∑ ‚ŒŸ ∑ ÁflÉÊ≈Ÿ „ÊŸ ∑ ∑ Ê⁄áÊ √ÿ¬ªÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊªÊ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (2) (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥– (4) (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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9. In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?
(1) Consent of two states
(2) Implementing international agreements
(3) Emergency is in operation
(4) In the Public interest if so declared by council of states
10. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (related subject) and give correct answer by using
the code below :
List-I List-II
(a) Union of India Vs. Sankalchand Seth (i) Power to do complete justice
(b) Leila David Vs. State of Maharashtra (ii) Foreign Precedent
(c) B.S.E.S. Ltd. Vs. Fenner India Ltd. (iii) Power to punish for contempt
(d) Darsan Gupta Vs. Radhika Gupta (iv) Appointment/Transfer of Judges
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
11. Which of the following case is not related to the Parliamentary previleges ?
(1) M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
(2) State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
(3) Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan Mukherjee
(4) State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder
12. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ? Answer by using code given
below :
(a) It shall be the duty of every citizen to respect the country and abide by the constitution.
(b) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish
and administer educational institutions of their choice.
(c) The state shall in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and
prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.
(d) No law here after enacted by the legislature of Jammu and Kashmir shall be void on
the ground that it is inconsistent with any rights conferred on other citizens of India by
any provision of part - III of the Constitution.
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct
(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
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9. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ‚¥‚Œ ∑ Ê ⁄Êíÿ ‚ÍøË ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁflœÊŸ ’ŸÊŸ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ŒÊ ⁄ÊíÿÊ¥ ∑ Ë ‚„◊ÁÃ
(2) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ‚◊¤ÊÊÒÃÊ¥ ∑ Á∑˝ ÿÊãflÿŸ ◊¥
(3) •Ê¬ÊÃ˜∑ Ê‹ ∑ ‹ÊªÍ ⁄„Ÿ ¬⁄
(4) ¡ŸÁ„Ã ◊¥ ÿÁŒ ∞‚Ê ⁄Êíÿ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄Ê ÉÊÊÁ·Ã Á∑ ÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò–
10. ‚ÍøË-I (◊Ê◊‹ ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II (‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Áfl·ÿ) ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚
‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ‚Ê¥∑ ‹ø¥Œ ‚∆ (i) ¬ÍáÊ¸ ãÿÊÿ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ
(b) ‹Ë‹Ê « Áfl« ’ŸÊ◊ ◊„Ê⁄Êc≈˛ ⁄Êíÿ (ii) ÁflŒ‡ÊË ¬Ífl¸ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ
(c) ’Ë.∞‚.ß¸.∞‚. Á‹Á◊≈ « ’ŸÊ◊ » Ÿ⁄ ß¥Á«ÿÊ (iii) •fl◊ÊŸŸÊ ∑ Á‹∞ Œ¥Á«Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ
Á‹Á◊≈ «
(d) Œ‡Ê¸Ÿ ªÈåàÊÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ⁄ÊÁœ∑ Ê ªÈåàÊÊ (iv) ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ∑ Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄàÊ/SÕÊŸÊãÃ⁄áÊ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
11. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ◊Ê◊‹Ê ‚¥‚ŒËÿ Áfl‡Ê·ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ∞◊.∞‚.∞◊. ‡Ê◊Ê¸ ’ŸÊ◊ üÊË∑Î cáÊ Á‚ã„Ê (2) ∑ ŸÊ¸≈ ∑ ⁄Êíÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(3) ¡ÁÃ‡Ê ø¥Œ˝ ÉÊÊ· ’ŸÊ◊ „Á⁄‚ÊœŸ ◊Èπ¡Ë¸ (4) ÃÁ◊‹ŸÊ«È ⁄Êíÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ∑ . ‡ÿÊ◊ ‚È¥Œ⁄
12. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ¬˝àÿ∑ ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ ∑ Ê ÿ„ ∑ Ã¸√ÿ „ÊªÊ Á∑ fl„ Œ‡Ê ∑ Ê ‚ê◊ÊŸ ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑ Ê ¬Ê‹Ÿ ∑ ⁄¥ –
(b) ‚÷Ë •À¬‚¥Åÿ∑ Ê¥, øÊ„ œ◊¸ ¬⁄ •ÊœÊÁ⁄Ã „Ê ÿÊ ÷Ê·Ê ¬⁄, ∑ Ê •¬Ÿ ¬‚¥Œ ∑ Ê ‡ÊÒˇÊÁáÊ∑ ‚¥SÕÊŸ SÕÊÁ¬Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ
ÃÕÊ ©‚ ¬˝‡ÊÊÁ‚Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ „Ò–
(c) ⁄Êíÿ Áfl‡Ê·∑ ⁄ ªÊÿÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ’¿«∏Ê¥ ÃÕÊ •ãÿ ŒÈœÊM •ÊÒ⁄ ◊Ê‹flÊ„Ë ¬‡ÊÈ•Ê¥ ∑ Ë ¬˝¡ÊÁÃ ∑ Ê ‚¥⁄ ˇÊáÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ, ©Ÿ◊¥
‚ÈœÊ⁄ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ÃÕÊ ©Ÿ∑ flœ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÁÃÁ·h ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ∑ Œ◊ ©∆Ê∞ªÊ–
(d) ¡ê◊Í •ÊÒ⁄ ∑ ‡◊Ë⁄ ÁflœÊŸ ‚÷Ê mÊ⁄Ê ß‚∑ ¬‡øÊÃ˜ •ÁœÁŸÿÁ◊Ã ∑ Êß¸ ÷Ë ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ß‚ •ÊœÊ⁄ ¬⁄ ‡ÊÍãÿ „ÊªÊ Á∑
ÿ„ ‚¥ÁflœÊŸ ∑ ÷Êª III ∑ Á∑ ‚Ë ©¬’¥œ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ •ãÿ ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ Ê¥ ∑ Ê ¬˝ŒûÊ Á∑ ã„Ë¥ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄Ê¥ ∑ ‚ÊÕ
•‚¥ªÃ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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13. Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between ‘expositorial’ jurisprudence (What
the law is) and ‘Censorial’ jurisprudence (What the law ought to be) ?
(1) John Austin (2) Hans Kelsen
(3) Jeremy Benthem (4) H.L.A. Hart
14. ‘Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable
contents.’ This observation specifically relates to :
(1) Dabin (2) Stammler (3) Finnis (4) Acquinas
15. According to Professor Hart the meaning of the term ‘Positivism’ includes :
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established or defended by rational argument, evidence or
proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought to
be.
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(2) Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
16. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List-II
(Theory) (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social solidarity (i) Ehrlich
(b) Theory of categorical Imperative (ii) Duguit
(c) Imperative Theory of Law (iii) John Austin
(d) Theory of Living Law (iv) Emanual Kant
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
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13. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ÁflÁœflûÊÊ•Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ “∞Ä‚¬ÊÁ¡≈ÊÁ⁄ÿ‹” ÁflÁœ‡ÊÊSòÊ (¡Ê ∑ ÊŸÍŸ „Ò) •ÊÒ⁄ “‚ã‚ÊÁ⁄ÿ‹” ÁflÁœ‡ÊÊSòÊ
(¡Ò‚Ê ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ê „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞) ∑ ’Ëø Áfl÷Œ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò?
(1) ¡ÊÚŸ •ÊÚÁS≈Ÿ (2) „Òã‚ ∑ À‚Ÿ
(3) ¡⁄ ◊Ë ’ãÕ◊ (4) ∞ø.∞‹.∞. „Ê≈¸
14. “•’, ¬˝Ê∑Î ÁÃ∑ ÁflÁœ ∑ Ê •àÿ¥ÁÃ∑ Ÿ„Ë¥ •Á¬ÃÈ ‚Ê¬ÁˇÊ∑ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ÿ„ ¬Á⁄flÁÃ¸Ã •¥Ãfl¸SÃÈ ∑ ‚ÊÕ ¬˝Ê∑Î ÁÃ∑
ÁflÁœ „Ò–” ÿ„ Á≈å¬áÊË Áfl‡Ê·M ¬ ‚ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò?
(1) «ÊÁ’Ÿ (2) S≈Ò ◊‹⁄ (3) Á» ÁŸ‚ (4) ∞ÁÄ√ÊŸÊ‚
15. ¬˝Ê» ‚⁄ „Ê≈¸ ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ “¬˝àÿˇÊflÊŒ” ∑ •Õ¸ ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ò —

(a) ÁflÁœ ‚◊ÊŒ‡Ê „Ò¥–
(b) ÁflÁœ∑ •flœÊ⁄áÊÊ•Ê¥ ∑ Ê Áfl‡‹·áÊ ‚◊Ê¡‡ÊÊSòÊËÿ •ÊÒ⁄ ∞ÁÃ„ÊÁ‚∑ ¡Ê°øÊ¥ ‚ Á÷ÛÊ „Ò–
(c) ŸÒÁÃ∑ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ Ã∑¸ áÊÊ¬⁄∑ Œ‹Ë‹Ê¥, ‚ÊˇÿÊ¥ •ÕflÊ ¬˝◊ÊáÊÊ¥ mÊ⁄Ê SÕÊÁ¬Ã ÿÊ ’øÊfl Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑ ∞ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
(d) ÁflÁœ Á¡‚ M ¬ ◊¥ flÊSÃfl ◊¥ „Ò ©‚ ÁflÁœ ““¡Ê „ÊŸÊ”” øÊÁ„∞ ‚ •‹ª ⁄πÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„ÿ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (a), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
16. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(Á‚hÊ¥Ã) (ÁflÁœflûÊÊ)
(a) âÿÊ⁄ Ë •ÊÚ» ‚Ê‡Ê‹ ‚ÊÚÁ‹« Á⁄≈Ë (i) ß„Á‹¸ø
(b) âÿÊ⁄ Ë •ÊÚ» ∑Ò ≈ ªÊÁ⁄∑ ‹ ßê¬⁄ Á≈fl (ii) «È ßÁª≈
(c) ßê¬⁄ Á≈fl âÿÊ⁄ Ë •ÊÚ» ‹ÊÚ (iii) ¡ÊÚŸ •ÊÚÁS≈Ÿ
(d) âÿÊ⁄ Ë •ÊÚ» Á‹Áfl¥ª ‹ÊÚ (iv) ß◊ÒŸÈ∞‹ ∑ Êã≈
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
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List - I List-II
(Book) (Author)
(a) The Growth of the Law (i) Gray
(b) Foundations of Jurisprudence (ii) R. Dworkin
(c) The Nature and Sources of Law (iii) Cardozo
(d) Taking Rights Seriously (iv) Jerome Hall
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
18. Which one of the following are the two main theories of legal right ?
(1) Interest Theory and Fiction Theory
(2) Realist Theory and Will Theory
(3) Bracket Theory and Interest Theory
(4) Interest Theory and Will Theory
19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality ?

(1) Fiction Theory (2) Realistic Theory
(3) Purpose Theory (4) Functional Theory
20. Match List-I with List-II and give the Jural correlatives by using the code given below :
List - I List-II
(a) Claim (i) No claim
(b) Liberty (ii) Disability
(c) Power (iii) Duty
(d) Immunity (iv) Liability
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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17. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(¬ÈSÃ∑ ) (‹π∑ )
(a) Œ ª˝ÊÕ •ÊÚ» Œ ‹ÊÚ (i) ª˝
(b) » Ê©ã« ‡Êã‚ •ÊÚ» ¡ÈÁ⁄S¬˝È« ã‚ (ii) •Ê⁄. «˜ flÊÁ∑¸ Ÿ
(c) Œ Ÿø⁄ ∞¥« ‚Ê‚¸‚ •ÊÚ» ‹ÊÚ (iii) ∑ Ê«Ê¸¡Ê
(d) ≈ Á∑¥ ª ⁄Êß≈˜ ‚ ‚ËÁ⁄ÿ‚‹Ë (iv) ¡⁄ Ê◊ „ÊÚ‹
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
18. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑ ÊŸÍŸË •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ∑ ŒÊ ◊ÈÅÿ Á‚hÊãÃ „Ò¥?
(1) Á„Ã Á‚hÊãÃ •ÊÒ⁄ ∑ ÁÀ¬Ã Á‚hÊãÃ
(2) ÿÕÊÕ¸flÊŒË Á‚hÊãÃ •ÊÒ⁄ ßÁë¿Ã Á‚hÊãÃ
(3) ∑ Êc∆∑ Á‚hÊãÃ •ÊÒ⁄ Á„Ã Á‚hÊãÃ
(4) Á„Ã Á‚hÊãÃ •ÊÒ⁄ ßÁë¿Ã Á‚hÊãÃ
19. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑ Ê¬Ê¸⁄ ≈ √ÿÁÄàÊàfl ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Á‚hÊãÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ∑ ÁÀ¬Ã Á‚hÊãÃ (2) ÿÕÊÕ¸flÊŒË Á‚hÊãÃ
(3) ¬˝ÿÊ¡Ÿ Á‚hÊãÃ (4) ∑ ÊÿÊ¸à◊∑ Á‚hÊãÃ
20. ‚ÍøË-I •ÊÒ⁄ ‚ÍøË-II ∑ Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ÁflÁœ∑ ‚„‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ’ÃÊßÿ —
(a) ŒÊflÊ (i) ŒÊflÊ Ÿ„Ë¥
(b) SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ (ii) ÁŸÿÊ¸ÇÿÃÊ
(c) ‡ÊÁÄàÊ (iii) ∑ Ã¸√ÿ
(d) ©ã◊ÈÁÄàÊ (iv) ŒÊÁÿàfl
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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21. ‘X’, a servant, finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to ‘Y’, the owner of
the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of :
(1) ‘X’, because he was the finder.
(2) ‘Y’, because he was the owner of the shop.
(3) ‘Y’, because in him there was corpus and animus.
(4) ‘X’, because he kept it in the almirah.
22. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code given
below :
Assertion (A) : Laws are valid only if they are just.
Reason (R) : The aim of law is to secure justice.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
below :
Assertion (A) : Judges must follow authoritative precedents.
Reason (R) : Authoritative precedents derive their authority from basic postulates of the
legal system itself.
Code :
24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

(a) Hobbes, Austin and Pufendorf subscribe to the view that law “Properly so called” in
command of the sovereign and enforced by a superior political authority and hence
deny legal character of International law.
(b) Oppenheim has remarked that International law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence.
(c) Holland subscribes to the view that International law is really law.
(d) Starke has expressed the view that International law is a “Weak law”.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) (a) and (d) both are correct
(3) (a), (b), (c) are correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all correct
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21. ∞∑ ŸÊÒ∑ ⁄ ‘X’ ŒÈ∑ ÊŸ ∑ ’‚◊¥≈ ◊¥ ∞∑ ’Òª ¬ÊÃÊ „Ò¥– fl„ ß‚ ŒÈ∑ ÊŸ ∑ SflÊ◊Ë ‘Y’ ∑ Ê ‚ÊÒ¥¬ ŒÃÊ „Ò, ¡Ê ©‚ ß‚
•‹◊Ê⁄Ë ◊¥ ⁄πŸ ∑ Ê ∑ „ÃÊ „Ò– •’ ÿ„ ’Òª Á∑ ‚∑ ∑ é¡ ◊¥ „Ò?
(1) ‘X’, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑ ©‚ ’Òª Á◊‹Ê „Ò–
(2) ‘Y’, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑ fl„ ŒÈ∑ ÊŸ ∑ Ê SflÊ◊Ë „Ò–
(3) ‘Y’, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑ ©‚◊¥ ÷ÊÒÁÃ∑ •ÊÒ⁄ ◊ÊŸÁ‚∑ (∑ Ê¬¸‚ •ÊÒ⁄ ∞ÁŸ◊‚) ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ ŒÊŸÊ¥ „Ò–
(4) ‘X’, ÄÿÊ¥Á∑ ©‚Ÿ ß‚ •‹◊Ê⁄Ë ◊¥ ⁄πÊ–
22. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ∑ Ê ¬…¥∏ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ÁflÁœ ∑ fl‹ Ã÷Ë flÒœ „Ò¥ ÿÁŒ fl ãÿÊÿÊÁøÃ „Ò¥–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ÁflÁœ ∑ Ê ©g‡ÿ ãÿÊÿ „ÊÁ‚‹ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
23. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ãÿÊÿÊœË‡ÊÊ¥ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬Ífl¸ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿÊ¥ ∑ Ê •ŸÈ‚⁄áÊ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ¬˝ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬Ífl¸ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ •¬ŸÊ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ Sflÿ¥ ãÿÊÿ ¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë ∑ ◊Í‹ •ÊœÊ⁄Ãàfl ‚ ¬˝ÊåàÊ ∑ ⁄Ã „Ò¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥, •ÊÒ⁄ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „¥Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
24. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?

(a) „ÊÚé‚, •ÊÚÁS≈Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄ ¬Í» ã«˛ ÊÚ» ß‚ ÁfløÊ⁄ ∑ ‚◊Õ¸∑ „Ò¥ Á∑ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ “ÿÁŒ ‚◊ÈÁøÃ M ¬ ‚ ∑ „Ê ¡Ê∞ ÃÊ” ⁄Ê¡Ê ∑ Ê
•ÊŒ‡Ê „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ üÊc∆Ã⁄ ⁄Ê¡ŸËÁÃ∑ ¬˝ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄Ë mÊ⁄Ê ¬˝flÁÃ¸Ã Á∑ ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ ß‚Á‹∞ •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ë
flÒœÊÁŸ∑ ÃÊ ∑ Ê •SflË∑ Ê⁄ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò–
(b) •Ê¬Ÿ„Êÿ◊ Ÿ ÿ„ Á≈å¬áÊË ∑ Ë „Ò Á∑ •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ÁflÁœ‡ÊÊSòÊ ∑ Ê ‚◊Ê¬Ÿ Á’¥ŒÈ „Ò–
(c) „ÊÚ‹Òá« ß‚ ÁfløÊ⁄ ∑ Ê ◊ÊŸÃÊ „Ò Á∑ •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ flÊSÃfl ◊¥ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ „Ò–
(d) S≈Ê∑¸ Ÿ ÿ„ ÁfløÊ⁄ √ÿÄàÊ Á∑ ÿÊ „Ò Á∑ •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ““∑ ◊¡Ê⁄ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ”” „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b), (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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25. ‘Triepel’ and ‘Anzilloti’ are the exponents of which of the following theory of Relationship
between International law and Municipal law ?
(1) Monism (2) Dualism
(3) Specific Adoption Theory (4) Delegation Theory
26. Which one of the following is one of the Chief Exponents of ‘Constitutive Theory’ of
Recognition ?
(1) Pit corbett (2) Kelson (3) Hegel (4) Hall
27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

(a) In accordance with the provisions of Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the Security
Council is one of the Principal organs of the United Nations.
(b) The First Security Council came into being on 12th January, 1946.
(c) At Dumharton proposals, it was finally decided to establish such as an organ in the
form of the Security Council
(d) Ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the General Assembly
for 5 years.
Code :
(1) Only (c) is not correct
(2) (c) and (d) are not correct
(3) (a), (b), (c) are not correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct
List - I List-II
(Provisions) (Articles of statute of court of International Justice)
(a) Law applied by the International (i) Article 41
Court of Justice
(b) Binding force of the decision of (ii) Article 62
International Court of Justice
(c) Interim Measures or Relief (iii) Article 38
(d) International court’s power to allow (iv) Article 59
a state to intervene, in case to which
it is not a party
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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25. “≈˛ Êß¸¬‹” •ÊÒ⁄ “∞Áã¡‹ÊÁÃ” •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ •ÊÒ⁄ Ÿª⁄¬ÊÁ‹∑ Ê ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ ’Ëø ‚¥’¥œ ∑ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ Á‚hÊãÃÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚
Á∑ ‚∑ ¬˝ÁÃ¬ÊŒ∑ „Ò¥?
(1) ∞∑ àflflÊŒ (2) mÒÃflÊŒ
(3) ÁflÁ‡Êc≈ •¥ªË∑ ⁄áÊ Á‚hÊãÃ (4) ¬˝àÿÊÿÊ¡Ÿ Á‚hÊãÃ
26. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ∑ “‚¥ÉÊ≈∑ Á‚hÊãÃ” ∑ Ê ◊ÈÅÿ ¬˝ÁÃ¬ÊŒ∑ „Ò?
(1) Á¬≈ ∑ ÊÚ’¸≈ (2) ∑ À‚Ÿ (3) „Ëª‹ (4) „ÊÚ‹
27. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò/„Ò¥?

(a) ‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ øÊ≈¸ ⁄ ∑ •ŸÈë¿ Œ 7 ∑ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸÊ¥ ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ ‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ ∑ ◊ÈÅÿ •¥ªÊ¥ ◊¥ ∞∑ „Ò–
(b) ¬„‹Ë ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ 12 ¡Ÿfl⁄Ë 1946 ∑ Ê •ÁSÃàfl ◊¥ •Êß¸–
(c) «Í ê„≈¸ Ÿ ∑ ¬˝SÃÊfl ¬⁄ •¥ÃÃ— ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ ß‚ ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ •¥ª ∑ Ë SÕÊ¬ŸÊ ∑ Ê ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ Á‹ÿÊ ªÿÊ–
(d) ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ ∑ Œ‚ •SÕÊÿË ‚ŒSÿ 5 fl·ÊZ ∑ Á‹∞ ◊„Ê‚÷Ê mÊ⁄Ê øÈŸ ¡ÊÃ „Ò¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (c) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(2) (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b), (c) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
28. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(¬˝ÊflœÊŸ) (•¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ Ë ‚¥ÁflÁœ ∑ •ŸÈë¿ Œ)
(a) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ mÊ⁄Ê ‹ÊªÍ Á∑ ÿÊ ªÿÊ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ (i) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 41
(b) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ∑ Ê ’Êäÿ∑ Ê⁄Ë „ÊŸÊ (ii) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 62
(c) •¥ÃÁ⁄◊ ©¬Êÿ ÿÊ ⁄Ê„Ã (iii) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 38
(d) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ Ë Á∑ ‚Ë ⁄Êíÿ ∑ Ê ©‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ (iv) •ŸÈë¿ Œ 59
Á¡‚◊¥ fl„ ¬ˇÊ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò „SÃˇÊ¬ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë •ŸÈ◊ÁÃ ŒŸ
∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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List - I List-II
(Modes) (Provision)
(a) Cession (i) Acquisition of Nationality
(b) Reprisal (ii) Loss of Nationality
(c) Good offices (iii) Pacific means of settlement of International Disputes
(d) Substitution (iv) Coercive means of settlement of International Disputes
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
30. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both and give the correct answer by using the code
given below :
Assertion (A) : Article 10 of the U.N. charter confers upon the General Assembly very wide
deliberative functions except in respect of those matters which are being
considered by the Security Council.
Reason (R) : The Resolutions or declarations of the General Assembly are not binding
upon the states. They are merely recommendations.
Code :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong.
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

(a) All members of the United Nations are ipso facto the members of the statute of the
International court of justice.
(b) The International court of justice consists of 25 judges. Which are elected by the General
Assembly.
(c) The judges of the International court of justice are elected for a term of 5 years.
(d) All the decisions of the International court of justice are on the basis of the majority of
judges.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are only correct
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
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29. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ Ê ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(‚ÊœŸ) (¬˝ÊflœÊŸ)
(a) •äÿ¬¸áÊ (i) ⁄Êc≈˛ ËÿÃÊ ∑ Ê •¡¸Ÿ
(b) ¬˝ÁÃ‡ÊÊœ (ii) ⁄Êc≈˛ ËÿÃÊ ∑ Ë „ÊÁŸ
(c) ‚à¬˝ÿàŸ (iii) •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ÁflflÊŒÊ¥ ∑ ÁŸ¬≈Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ‡ÊÊ¥ÁÃ¬ÍáÊ¸ ◊Êäÿ◊
(d) ¬˝ÁÃSÕÊ¬Ÿ (iv) •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ÁflflÊŒÊ¥ ∑ ÁŸ¬≈Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ’‹¬ÍáÊ¸ ◊Êäÿ◊
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
30. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬…¥∏ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ øÊ≈¸ ⁄ ∑ Ê •ŸÈë¿ Œ 10 ©Ÿ Áfl·ÿÊ¥ ∑ Ê ¿Ê«∏ ∑ ⁄ Á¡Ÿ ¬⁄ ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ mÊ⁄Ê ÁfløÊ⁄
Á∑ ÿÊ ¡Ê ⁄„Ê „Ò ◊„Ê‚÷Ê ∑ Ê •àÿãÃ „Ë √ÿÊ¬∑ Áfl◊‡ÊÊ¸à◊∑ ∑Î àÿ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ◊„Ê‚÷Ê ∑ ‚¥∑ À¬ ÿÊ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ ⁄ÊíÿÊ¥ ¬⁄ ’Êäÿ∑ Ê⁄Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥– fl ◊ÊòÊ Á‚» ÊÁ⁄‡Ê¥ „Ò¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

(a) ‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ ∑ ‚÷Ë ‚ŒSÿ ÃâÿÃ— •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ Ë ‚¥ÁflÁœ ∑ ‚ŒSÿ „Ò¥–
(b) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ◊¥ 25 ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê „ÊÃ „Ò¥ ¡Ê ◊„Ê‚÷Ê mÊ⁄Ê ÁŸflÊ¸ÁøÃ Á∑ ∞ ¡ÊÃ „Ò¥–
(c) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê 5 fl·ÊZ ∑ ∑ Êÿ¸∑ Ê‹ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸflÊ¸ÁøÃ „ÊÃ „Ò¥–
(d) •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ ‚÷Ë ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡ÊÊ¥ ∑ ’„È◊Ã ∑ •ÊœÊ⁄ ¬⁄ Á∑ ∞ ¡ÊÃ „Ò¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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32. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the code
given below :
Assertion (A) : When a state behaves in discourteous manner with another state,
International law confers right upon the state affected to resort to ‘retorsion’
which means retaliation.
Reason (R) : If the International disputes are not resolved through ‘peaceful’, means then
the states resort to compulsive or coercive means.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by :

(1) General Assembly
(2) Security Council
(3) Economic and Social Council
(4) International Court of Justice
34. Under Hindu law, the persons descended from a common ancestor but by different wives,
are known as :
(1) Full blood Relations
(2) Half Blood Relations
(3) Uterine Blood Relations
(4) No Blood Relations
List - I List-II
(a) Agnate (i) What was heard
(b) Shruti (ii) Related wholly through males
(c) Cognate (iii) What has been remembered
(d) Smriti (iv) Related not wholly through males
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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32. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ¡’ ∞∑ ⁄Êíÿ ŒÍ‚⁄ ⁄Êíÿ ∑ ¬˝ÁÃ •Á‡Êc≈ √ÿfl„Ê⁄ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ¬˝÷ÊÁflÃ ⁄Êíÿ
∑ Ê “◊È°„ÃÊ«∏ ¡flÊ’” Á¡‚∑ Ê •Õ¸ „Ò “¬˝ÁÃ∑ Ê⁄ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ” ŒŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ÿÁŒ •¥Ã⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ÁflflÊŒÊ¥ ∑ Ê ‚◊ÊœÊŸ “‡ÊÊ¥ÁÃ¬ÍáÊ¸” ◊Êäÿ◊Ê¥ ‚ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ ⁄Êíÿ ’Êäÿ∑ Ê⁄Ë ÿÊ
’‹¬ÍáÊ¸ ‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑ Ê ‚„Ê⁄Ê ‹Ã „Ò¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
33. “◊ÊŸfl •Áœ∑ Ê⁄Ê¥ ‚¥’¥œË ‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ •ÊÿÊª” ∑ Ë SÕÊ¬ŸÊ 1946 ◊¥ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê ∑ Ë ªß¸ ÕË–
(1) ◊„Ê‚÷Ê
(2) ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜
(3) •ÊÁÕ¸∑ •ÊÒ⁄ ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜
(4) •ãÃ⁄⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ
34. Á„ãŒÍ ÁflÁœ ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ∞∑ „Ë ¬Ífl¸¡ Á∑¥ ÃÈ Á÷ÛÊ ¬ÁàŸÿÊ¥ ‚ •fl¡ÁŸÃ √ÿÁÄàÊÿÊ¥ ∑ Ê ∑ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ¬ÍáÊ¸ ⁄ÄàÊ ‚¥’¥œË
(2) •œ¸ ⁄ÄàÊ ‚¥’¥œË
(3) ∞∑ ÊŒ⁄ ⁄ÄàÊ ‚¥’¥œË
(4) ∑ Êß¸ ⁄ÄàÊ ‚¥’¥œË Ÿ„Ë¥
35. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) ∞ÇãÊ≈ (i) ¡Ê ‚ÈŸÊ ªÿÊ
(b) üÊÈÁÃ (ii) ¬ÍáÊ¸ÃÿÊ ¬ÈL ·Ê¥ ∑ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ
(c) ∑ ÊÚÇãÊ≈ (iii) ¡Ê S◊⁄áÊ ⁄πÊ ªÿÊ „Ò
(d) S◊ÎÁÃ (iv) ¬ÍáÊ¸ÃÿÊ ¬ÈL ·Ê¥ ∑ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
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36. If the condition laid down under section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is violated,
such marriage under the Act is :
(1) Void but not punishable
(2) Valid and not punishable
(3) Void and Punishable
(4) Valid but Punishable
37. Under sec. 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939, the following grounds of
divorce are available to a wife :
(a) Where abouts of the husband have not been known for a period of four years.
(b) Four years imprisonment of the husband.
(c) Husband has treated her with cruelty.
(d) The husband has neglected her or has failed to pay her maintenance for a period of
two years.
Code :
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (d), (c) and (a)
(3) (d), (c), (b) and (a)
(4) (a), (d), (b) and (c)
38. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : No person except the father or mother or guardian of a Hindu child has the
capacity to give such child in adoption.
Reason (R) : No re-adoption may take place under the Hindu Adoptions and maintenance
Act, 1956.
Code :
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
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36. Á„ãŒÍ ÁflflÊ„ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1955 ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 5 (iii) ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ŒË ªß¸ ‡ÊÃÊZ ∑ Ê ÿÁŒ ©À‹¥ÉÊŸ Á∑ ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ∞‚Ê ÁflflÊ„ „Ò —
(1) ‡ÊÍãÿ Á∑¥ ÃÈ Œ¥« ŸËÿ Ÿ„Ë¥
(2) ÁflÁœ◊Êãÿ •ÊÒ⁄ Œ¥« ŸËÿ Ÿ„Ë¥
(3) ‡ÊÍãÿ •ÊÒ⁄ Œ¥« ŸËÿ
(4) ÁflÁœ◊Êãÿ Á∑¥ ÃÈ Œ¥« ŸËÿ
37. ◊ÈÁS‹◊ ÁflflÊ„ ÁflÉÊ≈Ÿ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1939 ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 2 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ¬àãÊË ∑ Ê Ã‹Ê∑ ∑ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ •ÊœÊ⁄ ©¬‹éœ
„Ò¥ —
(a) ¬ÁÃ ∑ Ê ¬ÃÊ Á∆∑ ÊŸÊ øÊ⁄ fl·ÊZ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ‚ ôÊÊÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(b) ¬ÁÃ ∑ Ë øÊ⁄ fl·ÊZ ∑ Ë ∑Ò Œ
(c) ¬ÁÃ Ÿ ©‚∑ ‚ÊÕ ∑˝Í ⁄ÃÊ ¬Ífl¸∑ √ÿfl„Ê⁄ Á∑ ÿÊ „Ò–
(d) ŒÊ fl·ÊZ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ∑ Á‹∞ ¬ÁÃ Ÿ ©‚∑ Ë ©¬ˇÊÊ ∑ Ë „Ò •ÕflÊ ©‚∑ ÷⁄áÊ ¬Ê·áÊ ∑ Ê ÷ÈªÃÊŸ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ◊¥ Áfl» ‹
⁄„Ê „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d)
(2) (b), (d), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (a)
(3) (d), (c), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (a)
(4) (a), (d), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c)
38. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ¬…∏¥ ÃÕÊ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : Á∑ ‚Ë Á„ãŒÍ ’Ê‹∑ ∑ Á¬ÃÊ ÿÊ ◊ÊÃÊ ÿÊ •Á÷÷Êfl∑ ∑ Ê ¿Ê«∏ ∑ ⁄ Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë √ÿÁÄàÊ ∑ Ê ∞‚
’Ê‹∑ ∑ Ê ŒûÊ∑ ª˝„áÊ ◊¥ ŒŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : Á„ãŒÈ ŒûÊ∑ •ÊÒ⁄ ÷⁄áÊ-¬Ê·áÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1956 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ŒÊ’Ê⁄Ê ŒûÊ∑ ª˝„áÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò ¬⁄¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(2) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(3) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
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39. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956
and give correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List-II
(Section) (Provision)
(a) Sec.18 (i) Maintenance of dependants
(b) Sec.19 (ii) Amount of maintenance
(c) Sec.22 (iii) Maintenance of wife
(d) Sec.23 (iv) Maintenance of widowed daughter-in law
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
40. “Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be
made compulsorily registrable in their respective states where the marriage is solemnized”.
This was ruled by the supreme court in which of the following case :
(1) Sarla Mudgil v/s Union of India
(2) Gurupad v/s Hirabai
(3) Shastri v/s Muldass
(4) Seema v/s Ashwani Kumar
41. Give the correct answer with the help of code given below :
A ‘Muta’ marriage is :
(a) A temporary marriage
(b) Recognized under sunni law
(c) Recognized under shia law
(d) A marriage for a fixed period
Code :
(1) (d), (b), (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
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39. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ Á„ãŒÍ ŒûÊ∑ •ÊÒ⁄ ÷⁄áÊ-¬Ê·áÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1956 ∑ •Ê‹Ê∑ ◊¥ ŸËø ÁŒ∞
ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ Ê ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(œÊ⁄Ê) (¬˝ÊflœÊŸ)
(a) œÊ⁄Ê - 18 (i) •ÊÁüÊÃÊ¥ ∑ Ê ÷⁄áÊ-¬Ê·áÊ
(b) œÊ⁄Ê - 19 (ii) ÷⁄áÊ-¬Ê·áÊ ∑ Ë ⁄ÊÁ‡Ê
(c) œÊ⁄Ê - 22 (iii) ¬àŸË ∑ Ê ÷⁄áÊ-¬Ê·áÊ
(d) œÊ⁄Ê - 23 (iv) ÁflœflÊ ’„È ∑ Ê ÷⁄áÊ-¬Ê·áÊ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
40. ““ÁflÁ÷ÛÊ œ◊ÊZ ∑ ◊ÊŸŸ flÊ‹ ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ ‚÷Ë √ÿÁÄàÊÿÊ¥ ∑ ÁflflÊ„ ∑ Ê ©Ÿ∑ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ ⁄ÊíÿÊ¥ ¡„Ê° ÁflflÊ„ ‚¥¬ÛÊ
„È•Ê „Ò ◊¥ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ M ¬ ‚ ⁄Á¡S≈˛ Ë∑Î Ã „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–”” ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ÿ„
ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ÕÊ —
(1) ‚⁄‹Ê ◊ÈŒ˜ª‹ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(2) ªÈL ¬ÊŒ ’ŸÊ◊ „Ë⁄Ê’Êß¸
(3) ‡ÊÊSòÊË ’ŸÊ◊ ◊Í‹ŒÊ‚
(4) ‚Ë◊Ê ’ŸÊ◊ •Á‡flŸË ∑È ◊Ê⁄
41. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —

◊ÍÃÊ ÁflflÊ„ „Ò —
(a) ∞∑ •SÕÊÿË ÁflflÊ„
(b) ‚ÈãŸË ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ¬˝ÊåàÊ
(c) Á‡ÊÿÊ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ◊ÊãÿÃÊ ¬˝ÊåàÊ
(d) ÁŸÁ‡øÃ •flÁœ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁflflÊ„
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (d), (b), (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c)
(2) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d)
(3) (a), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d)
(4) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d)
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42. Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and give correct
answer with the help of code given below :
List - I List-II
(Section) (Provision)
(a) Section 14 (i) Alternative Relief in divorce proceedings
(b) Section 13-A (ii) Restitution of conjugal Rights
(c) Section 9 (iii) Judicial separation
(d) Section 10 (iv) No petition for divorce within one year of marriage
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
below :
Assertion (A) : A proposal may be revoked at any time before the communication of its
acceptance is complete as against the proposer, But not afterwards.
Reason (R) : Section 5 of the Indian contract Act 1872, deals with the revocation of
proposals and acceptances.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A).
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

Consideration is :
(a) a price for any promise.
(b) only a moral obligation.
(c) a motive for any promise.
(d) something of value in the eye of law.
Code :
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (c) and (d) are correct
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42. Á„ãŒÍ ÁflflÊ„ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1955 ∑ •Ê‹Ê∑ ◊¥ ‚ÍøË-I •ÊÒ⁄ ‚ÍøË-II ∑ Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë
‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(œÊ⁄Ê) (¬˝ÊflœÊŸ)
(a) œÊ⁄Ê 14 (i) Ã‹Ê∑ ∑ Êÿ¸flÊÁ„ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ flÒ∑ ÁÀ¬∑ ⁄Ê„Ã
(b) œÊ⁄Ê 13-∞ (ii) ŒÊê¬àÿ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄Ê¥ ∑ Ê ¬˝àÿÊSÕÊ¬Ÿ
(c) œÊ⁄Ê 9 (iii) ãÿÊÁÿ∑ ¬ÎÕÄ∑ ⁄áÊ
(d) œÊ⁄Ê 10 (iv) ÁflflÊ„ ∑ ∞∑ fl·¸ ∑ •¥Œ⁄ Ã‹Ê∑ ∑ Á‹∞ ∑ Êß¸ •¡Ë¸ Ÿ„Ë¥
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
43. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ∑ Ê ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ¬˝SÃÊfl∑ mÊ⁄Ê ∞∑ ¬˝SÃÊfl ß‚∑ SflË∑ Ê⁄ Á∑ ∞ ¡ÊŸ ∑ Ë ‚ÍøŸÊ ŒŸ ‚ ¬Ífl¸ Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ‚◊ÿ flÊ¬‚
Á‹ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò, ‹Á∑ Ÿ ß‚∑ ©¬⁄ÊãÃ Ÿ„Ë¥–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1872 ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 5 ¬˝SÃÊflÊ¥ ∑ Ê flÊ¬‚ ‹Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄ ©ã„¥ SflË∑ Ê⁄ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑
’Ê⁄ ◊¥ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R), (A) ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(2) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(3) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–

¬˝ÁÃ» ‹ „Ò —
(a) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë fløŸ ∑ Ë ∑ Ë◊Ã
(b) ∑ fl‹ ŸÒÁÃ∑ ’ÊäÿÃÊ
(c) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë fløŸ ∑ Á‹∞ ∑ Ê⁄áÊ
(d) ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ë ŒÎÁc≈ ◊¥ ∑ Êß¸ ÷Ë ◊ÍÀÿflÊŸ øË¡
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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45. Consider the following statements and give correct answer with the help of code given
below :
The case of Mohori Bibee Vs Dharmodas Ghose :
(a) has laid down that a minor’s contract becomes valid when he attains majority.
(b) is the decision of the Supreme Court of India regarding minor’s contract.
(c) is the decision of Privy Council regarding voidness of minor’s contract.
(d) has laid down that contract without consideration is void.
Code :
(1) (c) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (b) are incorrect.
(2) (a) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (d) are incorrect.
(3) (c) is correct, but (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect.
(4) (b) and (d) are correct, but (a) and (c) are incorrect.
46. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder.
Reason (R) : Acceptance cannot be separated from offer.
Code :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
47. The defence of ‘non est factum’ is available to the contracting party who has committed
mistake as to the :
(1) Identity of the other contracting party
(2) Nature of contract
(3) Quality of the subject matter of the contract
(4) Quality of the promise made by the other party
48. Under the Indian Contract Act 1872 Which one of the following does not fall in the meaning
of fraud :
(1) Active concealment of a fact.
(2) Suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true.
(3) Positive assertion of unwarranted statements.
(4) A promise made without any intention of performing it.
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45. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ¬⁄ ÁfløÊ⁄ ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
◊Ê„Ê⁄ Ë ’Ë’Ë ’ŸÊ◊ œ◊¸ŒÊ‚ ÉÊÊ· ◊Ê◊‹Ê —
(a) Ÿ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Ã Á∑ ÿÊ Á∑ •flÿS∑ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê Á∑ ÿÊ ªÿÊ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ©‚∑ flÿS∑ „ÊŸ ¬⁄ flÒœ „Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(b) •flÿS∑ ∑ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ Ê ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ „Ò–
(c) •flÿS∑ ∑ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÍãÿÃÊ ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ Á¬˝Áfl ∑ ÊÒ¥Á‚‹ ∑ Ê ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ
(d) Ÿ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Ã Á∑ ÿÊ Á∑ ¬˝ÁÃ» ‹ ∑ Á’ŸÊ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ‡ÊÍãÿ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(3) (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
(4) (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
46. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ¬˝SÃÊfl ∑ Ë SflË∑Î ÁÃ flÒ‚Ë „Ë „Ò ¡Ò‚ ’ÊM Œ ∑ Ë ⁄ ‹ªÊ«∏Ë ∑ Á‹∞ ◊ÊÁø‚ ∑ Ë ¡‹ÃË „Èß¸ ÃË‹Ë–
Ã∑¸ (R) : SflË∑Î ÁÃ ∑ Ê ¬˝SÃÊfl ‚ ¬ÎÕ∑˜ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑ ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(2) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
47. ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ flÊ‹ ¬ˇÊ Á¡‚Ÿ ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ª‹ÃË ∑ Ë „Ò ∑ Ê “ŸÊÁSÃ Ãâÿ ∑ •Á÷flÊ∑˜ ” ∑ Ê ¬˝ÁÃflÊŒ
©¬‹éœ „Ò–
(1) ŒÍ‚⁄ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ∑ Ê⁄ ¬ˇÊ ∑ Ë ¬„øÊŸ
(2) ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ Ë ¬˝∑Î ÁÃ
(3) ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ Ë Áfl·ÿ flSÃÈ ∑ Ë ªÈáÊflûÊÊ
(4) ŒÍ‚⁄ ¬ˇÊ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê ÁŒ∞ ª∞ fløŸ ∑ Ë ªÈáÊflûÊÊ
48. ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1872 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑ ¬≈ ∑ •Õ¸ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥ •ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) Ãâÿ ∑ Ê ‚Á∑˝ ÿ M ¬ ‚ ¿È ¬ÊŸÊ–
(2) ‚È¤ÊÊfl, flSÃÈÃ—, ©‚∑ Á‹∞ ‚àÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ¡Ê ß‚∑ ‚àÿ „ÊŸ ¬⁄ Áfl‡flÊ‚ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò¥–
(3) •flÊ¥Á¿Ã ∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ∑ Ê ‚∑ Ê⁄Êà◊∑ •Á÷∑ ÕŸ–
(4) ∞∑ fløŸ ¡Ê ß‚ ¬Í⁄ Ê Á∑ ∞ ¡ÊŸ ∑ Ë ◊¥‡ÊÊ ∑ Á’ŸÊ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ–
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49. Special damages will be awarded in case of a breach of contract :
(1) Only when the contracting parties express the same specifically as the terms of the
contract.
(2) Always in the special circumstances leading to the formation of the contract.
(3) Only when the court of law thinks fit in the special circumstances of the case.
(4) Only when the special circumstances causing loss of profit resulting from the breach of
contract were brought to the notice of the party committing breach at the time of
formation of the contract.
(a) Tort is a civil wrong for which remedy is a common law action.
(b) Tort is exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust.
(c) Tort is an infringement of a right in rein of a private individual.
(d) Tort is violation of a legal duty owed to people generally for maintenance of law and
order.
Code :
(1) Only (b) and (d) are correct
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(4) Only (a) and (d) are correct
51. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (name of defense) and give the correct answer by
using the code given below :
List - I List-II
(a) Samira Kohli Vs Prabha Manchanda (i) Plaintiff a wrong-doer
(b) Sodan Singh Vs New Delhi Municipal Committee (ii) Leave and licence
(c) Bird Vs Holbrook (iii) Act of God
(d) Kallulal Vs Hemchand (iv) Necessity
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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49. ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ÷¥ª „ÊŸ ∑ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ÁSÕÁÃ ◊¥ Áfl‡Ê· ˇÊÁÃ¬ÍÁÃ¸ ∑ Ê •ÁœÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ Ã÷Ë ¡’ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ flÊ‹ ¬ˇÊ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÃÊZ ◊¥ ß‚ Áfl‡Ê· M ¬ ‚ √ÿÄàÊ ∑ ⁄Ã „Ò¥–
(2) ‚ŒÒfl Áfl‡Ê· ¬Á⁄ÁSÕÁÃÿÊ¥ ◊¥ Á¡Ÿ∑ ∑ Ê⁄áÊ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ Ê ª∆Ÿ „È•Ê–
(3) ∑ fl‹ Ã÷Ë ¡’ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ◊Ê◊‹ ∑ Ë Áfl‡Ê· ¬Á⁄ÁSÕÁÃ ◊¥ ß‚ ©¬ÿÈÄàÊ ‚◊¤ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(4) ∑ fl‹ Ã÷Ë ¡’ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ∑ ª∆Ÿ ∑ ‚◊ÿ ÷¥ª ∑ ⁄Ÿ flÊ‹ ¬ˇÊ ∑ äÿÊŸ ◊¥ ©Ÿ Áfl‡Ê· ¬Á⁄ÁSÕÁÃÿÊ¥, Á¡Ÿ∑
∑ Ê⁄áÊ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ÷¥ª „ÊŸ ∑ ¬Á⁄áÊÊ◊SflL ¬ ‹Ê÷ ∑ Ë „ÊÁŸ „Èß¸, ∑ Ê ‹ÊÿÊ ªÿÊ–
50. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ∑ ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ã „È∞ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) •¬∑Î àÿ ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ •¬∑ Ê⁄ „Ò Á¡‚∑ Ê ©¬øÊ⁄ ‚Ê◊Êãÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸË ∑ Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë „Ò–
(b) •¬∑Î àÿ ∑ fl‹ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ÷¥ª •ÕflÊ Áfl‡flÊ‚ ÷¥ª „Ò–
(c) •¬∑Î àÿ ÁŸ¡Ë √ÿÁÄàÊ ∑ ‚fl¸’¥œË •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê •ÁÃ∑˝ ◊áÊ „Ò–
(d) •¬∑Î àÿ ‚Ê◊ÊãÿÃ— ‹ÊªÊ¥ ¬⁄ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ √ÿflSÕÊ ∑ ⁄π-⁄πÊfl ∑ Á‹∞ ’∑ ÊÿÊ ÁflÁœ∑ ∑ ⁄Ê¥ ∑ Ê ©ÀÀÊ¥ÉÊŸ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
51. ‚ÍøË-I (flÊŒ ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II (¬˝ÁÃflÊŒË ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª
∑ ⁄Ã „È∞ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) ‚◊Ë⁄Ê ∑ Ê„‹Ë ’ŸÊ◊ ¬˝÷Ê ◊Ÿø¥ŒÊ (i) •ãÿÊÿ ∑ ⁄Ÿ flÊ‹Ê flÊŒË
(b) ‚ÊŒŸ Á‚¥„ ’ŸÊ◊ Ÿß¸ ÁŒÀ‹Ë Ÿª⁄ ‚Á◊ÁÃ (ii) ß¡Ê¡Ã ∞fl¥ •ŸÈôÊÁåàÊ
(c) ’«¸ ’ŸÊ◊ „Ê‹’˝È∑ (iii) ŒÒfl∑Î Ã
(d) ∑ À‹Í‹Ê‹ ’ŸÊ◊ „◊ø¥Œ (iv) •Êfl‡ÿ∑ ÃÊ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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52. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to the defences of tort of
defamation ?
(1) Fair comment - An expression of statement of fact rather than expression
of opinion
(2) Absolute previlege - Statements made by the members of either House of
Parliament in the House or outside the House
(3) Justification by truth - It is enough if the statement is substantially true and may
not be mathematically accurate
(4) Consent - Plaintiff has not consented to the publication of defamatory
words by the defendant
53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage’ ?

(1) Scott Vs Shepherd
(2) In re an Arbitration between Polemis and Furness, Withy and Co.
(3) Sirros Vs. Moore
(4) Overseas Tankship Ltd. Vs Morts Dock and Engineering Co.
54. Which of the following tort is not related to nuisance based on ‘Physical discomfort’ or
interference with another’s health and safety ?
(1) Obstruction of light
(2) Injury to property
(3) Noise pollution
(4) Pollution of water and air
55. Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (capacity to sue) and give the correct answer by
using the code given below :
List - I List-II
(a) State of Saurashtra Vs Memon Haji Ismail (i) No right to Sue as an
un-incorporated association
(b) Delhi Transport Corporation Vs Kumari Lalita (ii) Municipal law does not apply
(c) Brown Vs Lewis (iii) Suit against corporation
(d) Campbell Vs Paddington (iv) Suit by minor
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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52. ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ ∑ •¬∑Î àÿ ∑ ¬˝ÁÃflÊŒ ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ ‚„Ë ‚È◊Á‹Ã „Ò?
(1) ©ÁøÃ ≈Ë∑ Ê Á≈å¬áÊË - Ãâÿ ∑ ∑ ÕŸ ∑ ¬˝∑ ≈Ÿ ∑ ’¡Êÿ ⁄Êÿ ∑ Ê ¬˝∑ ≈Ÿ
(2) ÁŸ⁄¬ˇÊ Áfl‡Ê·ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ - ‚¥‚Œ ∑ ŒÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∞∑ ‚ŒŸ ∑ ‚ŒSÿÊ¥ mÊ⁄Ê ‚ŒŸ ◊¥ •ÕflÊ ‚ŒŸ ∑
’Ê„⁄ ÁŒÿ ªÿ flÄàÊ√ÿ
(3) ‚àÿ mÊ⁄Ê ãÿÊÿÊÁøàÿ - ÿ„ ¬ÿÊ¸åàÊ „Ò ÿÁŒ flÄàÊ√ÿ flSÃÈÃ— ‚àÿ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ ªÁáÊÃ ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ∞∑ Œ◊
‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ê ‚∑ Ã
(4) ‚„◊ÁÃ - •Á÷ÿÈÄàÊ mÊ⁄Ê ∑ „ ªÿ ◊ÊŸ„ÊÁŸ ¬ÍáÊ¸ ‡ÊéŒÊ¥ ∑ ¬˝∑ Ê‡ÊŸ ∑ Ë ‚„◊ÁÃ
•Á÷ÿÊªË Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ ŒË „Ò
53. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê flÊŒ “ˇÊÁÃ ∑ Ë ŒÍ⁄ Ë” ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) S∑ ÊÚ≈ ’ŸÊ◊ ‡ÊÒ» «¸
(2) ¬Ê‹Á◊‚ •ÊÒ⁄ » Ÿ¸‚, Á’∆Ë ∞¥« ∑¥ . ∑ ◊äÿ ⁄ ◊äÿSÕÃÊ ◊¥
(3) Á‚⁄Ê‚ ’ŸÊ◊ ◊Í⁄
(4) •Êfl⁄‚Ë$¡ ≈Ò¥ ∑ Á‡Ê¬ Á‹Á◊≈ « ’ŸÊ◊ ◊Ê≈˜ ¸‚˜ «ÊÚ∑ ∞¥« ß¥¡ËÁŸÿÁ⁄¥ ª ∑¥ .
54. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê •¬∑Î àÿ “÷ÊÒÁÃ∑ •‚ÈÁflœÊ” •ÕflÊ Á∑ ‚Ë ∑ SflÊSâÿ ∞fl¥ ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ ‚ ¿ «∏¿ Ê«∏ ¬⁄ •ÊœÊÁ⁄Ã
©à¬ÊÃ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ¬˝∑ Ê‡Ê ◊¥ √ÿflœÊŸ
(2) ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑ Ë ˇÊÁÃ
(3) äflÁŸ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ
(4) ¡‹ ∞fl¥ flÊÿÈ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ
55. ‚ÍøË-I (flÊŒ ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II (•Á÷ÿÊª ∑ Ê ‚Ê◊âÿ¸) ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª
∑ ⁄Ã „È∞ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) ‚ÊÒ⁄ Êc≈˛ ⁄Êíÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ◊◊Ÿ „Ê¡Ë ßS◊Êß‹ (i) •ÁŸªÁ◊Ã ‚¥SÕÊ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ •Á÷ÿÊª ∑ Ê
•Áœ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥
(b) ÁŒÀ‹Ë ≈˛ Ê¥‚¬Ê≈¸ ∑ Ê¬Ê¸⁄ ‡ÊŸ ’ŸÊ◊ ∑È ◊Ê⁄Ë ‹Á‹ÃÊ (ii) Ÿª⁄Ëÿ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ‹ÊªÍ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃÊ
(c) ’˝Ê©Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ‹Áfl‚ (iii) ÁŸª◊ ∑ ÁflM h ◊È∑ Œ◊Ê
(d) ∑Ò ê¬’‹ ’ŸÊ◊ ¬ÒÁ«¥ Ç≈Ÿ (iv) •flÿS∑ mÊ⁄Ê ◊È∑ Œ◊Ê
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
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56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Negligence means a conduct which creates a risk of causing damage, rather
than a state of mind.
Reason (R) : It is safe to start a bus before passengers completely get into it.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(4) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
57. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to Consumer Courts ?

(1) National Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum
to another in the same State.
(2) State Commission has power to transfer a pending complaint from a District Forum to
another in the same State.
(3) National Commission can not have circuit benches except the permanent bench at
New Delhi.
(4) State Commission can not have circuit benches but can have two State Commissions.
58. Point out the correct statement :

(1) Crime is necessarily an immoral act.
(2) Crime is necessarily an anti-social act.
(3) Crime is necessarily an anti-communal act.
(4) Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act.
59. Four accused with common intention to kill, shot one B in the bona fide belief that B was A.
In this case :
(1) None of them is liable for the offence of murder.
(2) All accused are guilty of causing death.
(3) Section 34 of Indian Penal Code does not apply.
(4) All accused are guilty of causing death without invoking Section 34.
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56. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ∑ Ê ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ã „È∞ ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ©¬ˇÊÊ ∑ Ê •Ê‡Êÿ ∞‚ •Êø⁄áÊ ‚ „Ò ¡Ê ˇÊÁÃ ¬„È°øÊŸ ∑ Ê ¡ÊÁπ◊ ©à¬ÛÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ ’¡Êÿ
◊Ÿ—ÁSÕÁÃ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ÿÊÁòÊÿÊ¥ ∑ ø…∏Ÿ ∑ ¬Ífl¸ ’‚ øÊ‹Í ∑ ⁄ŸÊ ‚È⁄ ÁˇÊÃ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥ ‹Á∑ Ÿ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(4) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
57. ©¬÷ÊÄàÊÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿÊ¥ ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ∑ ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò?
(1) ÁfløÊ⁄ÊœËŸ Á‡Ê∑ ÊÿÃ ∑ Ê Á¡‹Ê » Ê⁄ ◊ ‚ ©‚Ë ⁄Êíÿ ◊¥ ŒÍ‚⁄Ë ¡ª„ SÕÊŸÊãÃÁ⁄Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ •ÊÿÊª
∑ ¬Ê‚ „Ò–
(2) ÁfløÊ⁄ÊœËŸ Á‡Ê∑ ÊÿÃ ∑ Ê Á¡‹Ê » Ê⁄ ◊ ‚ ©‚Ë ⁄Êíÿ ◊¥ ŒÍ‚⁄Ë ¡ª„ SÕÊŸÊãÃÁ⁄Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊ ⁄Êíÿ •ÊÿÊª ∑
¬Ê‚ „Ò–
(3) Ÿß¸ ÁŒÀÀÊË ÁSÕÃ SÕÊÿË ¬Ë∆ ∑ •‹ÊflÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ •ÊÿÊª ‚Á∑¸ ≈ ’¥ø Ÿ„Ë¥ ⁄π ‚∑ ÃÊ–
(4) ⁄Êíÿ •ÊÿÊª ‚Á∑¸ ≈ ’¥ø Ÿ„Ë¥ ⁄π ‚∑ ÃÊ ‹Á∑ Ÿ ŒÊ ⁄Êíÿ •ÊÿÊª ⁄π ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò–
58. ‚„Ë ∑ ÕŸ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê „Ò?

(1) •¬⁄Êœ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸Ã— •ŸÒÁÃ∑ ∑ Êÿ¸ „Ò–
(2) •¬⁄Êœ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸Ã— ‚◊Ê¡-Áfl⁄ÊœË ∑ Êÿ¸ „Ò–
(3) •¬⁄Êœ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸Ã— ‚ê¬˝ŒÊÿ-Áfl⁄ÊœË ∑ Êÿ¸ „Ò–
(4) •¬⁄Êœ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸Ã— œ◊¸-Áfl⁄ÊœË ∑ Êÿ¸ „Ò–
59. „àÿÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë ‚◊ÊŸ •Ê‡Êÿ ∑ ‚ÊÕ øÊ⁄ •Ê⁄Ê¬Ë ß‚ ‚Œ˜÷Êfl¬Ífl¸∑ Áfl‡flÊ‚ ∑ ‚ÊÕ B ∑ Ê ªÊ‹Ë ◊Ê⁄Ã „Ò¥ Á∑ B, A
ÕÊ– ß‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ —
(1) ©Ÿ◊¥ ‚ ∑ Êß¸ ÷Ë „àÿÊ ∑ •¬⁄Êœ ∑ Á‹∞ ©ûÊ⁄ŒÊÿË Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(2) ‚÷Ë •Ê⁄Ê¬Ë ◊ÎàÿÈ ∑ ÊÁ⁄Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ ŒÊ·Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ Œá« ‚¥Á„ÃÊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 34 ‹ÊªÍ Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊÃË „Ò–
(4) ‚÷Ë •Ê⁄Ê¬Ë œÊ⁄Ê 34 ∑ •fl‹¥’ ∑ Á’ŸÊ ◊ÎàÿÈ ∑ ÊÁ⁄Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ ŒÊ·Ë „Ò–
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60. Under Section 65 of Indian Penal Code, 1860, sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of
fine shall be limited to :
(1) One-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(2) One-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(3) One-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
(4) One-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
61. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, promoting enmity
between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language etc.
and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony is dealt with ?
(1) Section 153
(2) Section 153-A
(3) Section 153-AA
(4) Section 153-B
62. A instigates B to murder D. B in pursuance of the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the
wound. Here A is guilty of :
(1) Instigating B to commit murder
(2) Instigating B to commit attempt to murder
(3) Instigating B to commit grievous hurt
(4) No offence
63. Under which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal
force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable ?
(1) Section 356
(2) Section 378
(3) Section 379
(4) Section 384
64. ‘X’ gives grave and sudden provocation to ‘Y’. ‘Y’ on this provocation, fires a pistol at ‘X’,
neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘Z’, who is near him, but out of
sight. ‘Y’ kills ‘Z’. Here ‘Y’ has committed :
(1) Death by negligence
(2) Murder
(3) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(4) No offence
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60. ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ Œ¥« ‚¥Á„ÃÊ, 1860 ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 65 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ¡È◊Ê¸ŸÊ Ÿ ŒŸ ¬⁄ ∑ Ê⁄ÊflÊ‚ ∑ Ê Œá«ÊŒ‡Ê Ã∑
‚ËÁ◊Ã „ÊªÊ–
(1) ß‚ •¬⁄Êœ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸÿÃ •Áœ∑ Ã◊ ∑ Ê⁄ÊflÊ‚ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ∑ Ê •ÊœÊ
(2) ß‚ •¬⁄Êœ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸÿÃ •Áœ∑ Ã◊ ∑ Ê⁄ÊflÊ‚ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ∑ Ê ∞∑ ÁÃ„Êß¸
(3) ß‚ •¬⁄Êœ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸÿÃ •Áœ∑ Ã◊ ∑ Ê⁄ÊflÊ‚ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ∑ Ê ∞∑ øÊÒÕÊß¸
(4) ß‚ •¬⁄Êœ ∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸÿÃ •Áœ∑ Ã◊ ∑ Ê⁄ÊflÊ‚ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ∑ Ê ¬Ê°øflÊ Á„S‚Ê
61. ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ Œ¥« ‚¥Á„ÃÊ, 1860 ∑ Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ œÊ⁄Ê ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã œ◊¸, ◊Í‹fl¥‡Ê, ¡ã◊-SÕÊŸ, ÁŸflÊ‚-SÕÊŸ,
÷Ê·Ê, ßàÿÊÁŒ ∑ •ÊœÊ⁄Ê¥ ¬⁄ ÁflÁ÷ÛÊ ‚◊Í„Ê¥ ∑ ’Ëø ‡ÊòÊÈÃÊ ∑ Ê ‚¥¬˝flÃ¸Ÿ •ÊÒ⁄ ‚ÊÒ„ÊŒ˝¸ ’Ÿ ⁄„Ÿ ¬⁄ ¬˝ÁÃ∑Í ‹ ¬˝÷Êfl «Ê‹Ÿ
flÊ‹ ∑ Êÿ¸ ‚ ÁŸ¬≈Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?
(1) œÊ⁄Ê 153
(2) œÊ⁄Ê 153-∞
(3) œÊ⁄Ê 153-∞ ∞
(4) œÊ⁄Ê 153-’Ë
62. A, B ∑ Ê D ∑ Ë „àÿÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ©∑ ‚ÊÃÊ „Ò– B ß‚ ©∑ ‚Êß¸ ¬⁄ D ∑ Ê øÊ∑Í ◊Ê⁄ ŒÃÊ „Ò– D, ÉÊÊfl ‚ SflSÕ „Ê
¡ÊÃÊ „Ò– ÿ„Ê° A ∑ Ê ŒÊ·Ë „Ò–
(1) B ∑ Ê „àÿÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ©∑ ‚ÊŸ
(2) B ∑ Ê „àÿÊ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊ‚ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ©∑ ‚ÊŸ
(3) B ∑ Ê ª¥÷Ë⁄ øÊ≈ ¬„È°øÊŸ ∑ Á‹∞ ©∑ ‚ÊŸ
(4) ∑ Êß¸ •¬⁄Êœ Ÿ„Ë¥
63. ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ Œ¥« ‚¥Á„ÃÊ, 1860 ∑ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑ Ë øÊ⁄ Ë ∑ ¬˝ÿàŸÊ¥ ◊¥ „◊‹Ê ÿÊ
•Ê¬⁄ÊÁœ∑ ’‹ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª Œ¥« ŸËÿ „¥Ò?
(1) œÊ⁄Ê 356
(2) œÊ⁄Ê 378
(3) œÊ⁄Ê 379
(4) œÊ⁄Ê 384
64. ‘X’, ‘Y’∑ Ê ªê÷Ë⁄ •ÊÒ⁄ •øÊŸ∑ ¬˝∑ Ê¬Ÿ ‚ ©∑ ‚ÊÃÊ „Ò– ß‚ ©∑ ‚Êfl ¬⁄ ‘Y’, ‘X’ ¬⁄ Á¬SÃÊÒ‹ ‚ ªÊ‹Ë ø‹ÊÃÊ „Ò,
Ÿ ÃÊ ©‚∑ Ê •Ê‡Êÿ ÿ„ ÕÊ •ÊÒ⁄ Ÿ „Ë fl„ ÿ„ ¡ÊŸÃÊ ÕÊ Á∑ ‘Z’, ¡Ê ©‚∑ ‚◊Ë¬ „Ò, Á∑¥ ÃÈ ÁŒπÊß¸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ¬«∏ ⁄„Ê „Ò, ◊Ê⁄Ê
¡Ê∞ªÊ– ‘Y’ ‘Z’ ∑ Ë ◊ÎàÿÈ ∑ ÊÁ⁄Ã ∑ ⁄ ŒÃÊ „Ò– ÿ„Ê° ‘Y’ Ÿ Á∑ ÿÊ „Ò —
(1) ©¬ˇÊÊ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê ◊ÎàÿÈ
(2) „àÿÊ
(3) „àÿÊ ∑ Ë ∑ ÊÁ≈ ◊¥ Ÿ •ÊŸ flÊ‹ •Ê¬⁄ÊÁœ∑ ◊ÊŸfl flœ
(4) ∑ Êß¸ •¬⁄Êœ Ÿ„Ë¥
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List - I List-II
(a) Dishonest taking of property (i) Criminal breach of Trust
(b) Dishonestly inducing any person to (ii) Extortion
deliver property
(c) Entrustment of property (iii) Criminal Misapprociation
(d) Conversion of property (iv) Theft
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
below :
Assertion (A) : Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing
it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the exact
nature of the act.
Reason (R) : Mistake of fact is a good defence and mistake of law is no defence.
Code :
List - I List-II
(a) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor (i) Mens rea
(b) State of Maharashtra Vs. M.H. George (ii) Intoxication
(c) Director of Public Prosecutions Vs. Beard (iii) Common Intention
(d) R.V. Dudley Vs. Stephens (iv) Necessity
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
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65. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ’ß¸◊ÊŸË ‚ ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ‹ ‹ŸÊ (i) •Ê¬⁄ÊÁœ∑ ãÿÊ‚÷¥ª
(b) ’ß¸◊ÊŸË ‚ Á∑ ‚Ë √ÿÁÄàÊ ∑ Ê ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ¬Á⁄ŒûÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ (ii) ©gÊ¬Ÿ
©à¬˝Á⁄Ã ∑ ⁄ŸÊ
(c) ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ‚ÊÒ¥¬Ê ¡ÊŸÊ (iii) •Ê¬⁄ÊÁœ∑ ŒÈÁfl¸ÁŸÿÊª
(d) ‚¥¬ÁûÊ ∑ Ê ‚¥¬Á⁄flÃ¸Ÿ (iv) øÊ⁄ Ë
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ∑È ¿ ÷Ë •¬⁄Êœ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ¡Ê ∞∑ √ÿÁÄàÊ ∑ mÊ⁄Ê Á∑ ÿÊ ªÿÊ ¡Ê ÿ„ ∑ ⁄Ã ‚◊ÿ ÁøûÊ Áfl∑Î ÁÃ ∑
∑ Ê⁄áÊ ©‚ ∑ Êÿ¸ ∑ Ë ∆Ë∑ -∆Ë∑ ¬˝∑Î ÁÃ ¡ÊŸŸ ◊¥ •‚◊Õ¸ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : Ãâÿ ∑ Ë òÊÈÁ≈ ∞∑ •ë¿Ê ’øÊfl „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ë òÊÈÁ≈ ∑ Êß¸ ’øÊfl Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
67. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ŒË∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ◊„’Í’ ‡ÊÊ„ ’ŸÊ◊ ‚◊˝Ê≈ (i) •Ê¬⁄ÊÁœ∑ ◊Ÿ—ÁSÕÁÃ
(b) ◊„Ê⁄Êc≈˛ ⁄Êíÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ∞◊.∞ø.¡ÊÚ¡¸ (ii) ◊ûÊÃÊ
(c) ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑ , ‹Ê∑ •Á÷ÿÊ¡Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ’ÿ«¸ (iii) ‚Ê◊Êãÿ •Ê‡Êÿ
(d) •Ê⁄.flË. ««‹ ’ŸÊ◊ S≈Ë» ã‚ (iv) •Êfl‡ÿ∑ ÃÊ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
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List - I List-II
(Provision for) (Sections of I.P.C.)
(a) Punishment for causing death or resulting (i) Section 376-D
in persistent vegetative state of victim
(b) Sexual intercourse by husband upon his (ii) Section 376-B
wife during separation
(c) Sexual intercourse by a person in authority (iii) Section 376-A
(d) Gang rape (iv) Section 376-C
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
69. Give the correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) The workman has a right to approach the Labour court directly without waiting for
the conciliation proceedings and government reference.
(b) The appropriate government in respect of Corporations and Public Sector undertakings
owned or controlled by the central government will be the central government.
(c) Every industry employing 20 or more workmen is under legal obligation to Constitute
and have a Grievances Redressal Committee.
(d) The award passed by the Labour Court can be transmitted to a Civil Court for the
effective enforcement of the award.
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.
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68. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ‚ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(. . . ∑ Á‹∞ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸ) (÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ Œ¥« ‚¥Á„ÃÊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê∞¥)
(a) ¬ËÁ«∏ÃÊ ∑ Ë ◊ÎàÿÈ ÿÊ ‹ªÊÃÊ⁄ Áfl∑Î Ã‡ÊË‹ Œ‡ÊÊ ∑ ÊÁ⁄Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ (i) œÊ⁄Ê 376-«Ë
∑ Á‹∞ Œ¥«
(b) ¬ÁÃ mÊ⁄Ê •¬ŸË ¬àŸË ∑ ‚ÊÕ ¬ÎÕÄ∑ ⁄áÊ ∑ ŒÊÒ⁄ ÊŸ ◊ÒÕÈŸ (ii) œÊ⁄Ê 376-’Ë
(c) ¬˝ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ◊¥ Á∑ ‚Ë √ÿÁÄàÊ mÊ⁄Ê ◊ÒÕÈŸ (iii) œÊ⁄Ê 376-∞
(d) ‚Ê◊ÍÁ„∑ ’‹Êà∑ Ê⁄ (iv) œÊ⁄Ê 376-‚Ë
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
69. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —

(a) ∞∑ ∑ ◊¸∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ‚È‹„ ∑ Êÿ¸flÊÁ„ÿÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ‚¥ŒÁ÷¸Ã Á∑ ∞ ¡ÊŸ ∑ Ë ¬˝ÃËˇÊÊ Á∑ ∞ Á’ŸÊ ‚Ëœ üÊ◊
ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ◊¥ ¡ÊŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ „Ò–
(b) ∑¥ Œ˝ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ SÕÊÁÿàfl ◊¥ •ÕflÊ ß‚∑ mÊ⁄Ê ÁŸÿ¥ÁòÊÃ ÁŸª◊Ê¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑ ˇÊòÊ ∑ ©l◊Ê¥ ∑ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥
‚◊ÈÁøÃ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑¥ Œ˝ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ „ÊªË–
(c) ¬˝àÿ∑ ©lÊª Á¡‚◊¥ 20 ÿÊ •Áœ∑ ∑ ◊¸∑ Ê⁄ ÁŸÿÊÁ¡Ã „Ò¥ ¬Á⁄flÊŒ ‚◊ÊœÊŸ ‚Á◊ÁÃ ∑ Ê ª∆Ÿ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ ÿÊ „ÊŸÊ
∑ ÊŸÍŸË ’ÊäÿÃÊ „Ò–
(d) üÊ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ mÊ⁄Ê ÁŒ∞ ª∞ •Áœ-ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ß‚∑ ¬˝÷ÊflË ¬˝flÃ¸Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ Á‚Áfl‹ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ Ê ÷¡ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã
„Ò–¥
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : The strike or lockout as the weapon has to be used sparingly for redressal of
urgent and pressing grievances when no means are available or when
available means have failed to resolve it.
Reason (R) : The employment that workmen get and the profit the employer earns are
both generated by utilisation of the resources of the society in one form or
other and they are to act as Trustees of the said resources.
Code :
(1) (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List-II
(a) A strike could be legal or illegal and (i) Award

illegal strike could be justified one
(b) Right of the Workmen to approach the (ii) Bharat Singh Vs Management of
Labour Court directly within a period of New Delhi Tuberculosis Centre
three years
(c) Right of the workmen to payment of full (iii) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
wages pending proceedings in the
High Courts
(d) An interim or a final determination of any (iv) Section 2-A(2) Industrial Dispute
Industrial Dispute (Amendment) Act 2010
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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70. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ÃÊà∑ ÊÁ‹∑ •ÊÒ⁄ ◊„àfl¬ÍáÊ¸ ¬Á⁄flÊŒÊ¥ ∑ ‚◊ÊœÊŸ ∑ Á‹∞, ¡’ ∑ Êß¸ ‚ÊœŸ ©¬‹éœ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò ÿÊ
©¬‹éœ ‚ÊœŸ ß‚∑ Ê ‚◊ÊœÊŸ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ◊¥ Áfl» ‹ ⁄„ „Ò¥, •¬flÊŒSflM ¬ „«∏ÃÊ‹ ÿÊ ÃÊ‹Ê’¥ŒË ∑ Ê
„ÁÕÿÊ⁄ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ŸÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ∑ ◊¸∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ¡Ê ⁄Ê¡ªÊ⁄ Á◊‹ÃÊ „Ò ÃÕÊ ÁŸÿÊ¡∑ ¡Ê ‹Ê÷ •Á¡¸Ã ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò ŒÊŸÊ¥ Á∑ ‚Ë Ÿ Á∑ ‚Ë
M ¬ ◊¥ ‚◊Ê¡ ∑ ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑ ¬˝ÿÊª mÊ⁄Ê ‚ÎÁ¡Ã „ÊÃ „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ©ã„¥ ©ÄàÊ ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ∑ ãÿÊ‚Ë ∑ M ¬
◊¥ ∑ Ê◊ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ •ÊÒ⁄ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ „Ò–
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò¥ Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(4) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
71. ‚ÍøË-I •ÊÒ⁄ ‚ÍøË-II ∑ Ê ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ ÃÕÊ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) ∞∑ „«∏ÃÊ‹ flÒœ ÿÊ •flÒœ „Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ •flÒœ (i) •ÁœÁŸáÊ¸ÿ
„«∏ÃÊ‹ •ÊÒÁøàÿ¬ÍáÊ¸ „Ê ‚∑ ÃÊ „Ò–
(b) ∑ ◊¸∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ÃËŸ fl·ÊZ ∑ Ë •flÁœ ∑ •¥Œ⁄ ‚Ëœ (ii) ÷⁄Ã Á‚¥„ ’ŸÊ◊ Ÿß¸ ÁŒÀ‹Ë Ã¬ÁŒ∑ ∑¥ Œ˝
üÊ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ◊¥ ¡ÊŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ¬˝’ãœŸ
(c) ∑ ◊¸∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ©ìÊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿÊ¥ ◊¥ ∑ Êÿ¸flÊÁ„ÿÊ¥ ∑ ‹¥Á’Ã (iii) ãÿÊÿ◊ÍÁÃ¸ flË.•Ê⁄. ∑Î cáÊÊ •ƒÿ⁄
⁄„Ÿ Ã∑ ¬ÍáÊ¸ ◊¡ŒÍ⁄ Ë ∑ ÷ÈªÃÊŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄
(d) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ∑ Ê •¥ÃÁ⁄◊ •ÕflÊ •¥ÁÃ◊ (iv) œÊ⁄Ê 2-∑ (2) •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ (‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ)
ÁŸœÊ¸⁄ áÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ 2010
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
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72. “Although the Judicial interpretation given to the expression “Industry” by Supreme Court
in Bangalore Water Supply Case was intended to settle the test to determine its scope, judicial
trends point out that it has done more damage than good, not merely to organisations but
also to employees by curtailment of employment opportunities”. The above trend is reflected
through one of the following case :
(1) Corporation of city of Nagpur Vs Employees
(2) State of Bombay Vs Hospital Mazdoor Sabha
(3) Coir Board, Ernakulam, Cochin and another Vs Indira Devi P.S. and other
(4) Madras Gymkhana Club Employees Union Vs Gymkhana Club
73. Answer the following using the code given below :

The condition precedent to the order of Reference under section 10(1) of the Industrial Disputes
Act is the satisfactions of the appropriate government to the following :
(a) Existence of Industrial Dispute
(b) Apprehension of Industrial Dispute
Code :
(1) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) (a) alone is correct.
(3) (b) alone is correct.
(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong.
74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given
below :
Assertion (A) : (a) The unrecognised union has right to meet and discuss with the
employer the grievances of Individual workman with the employer
and
(b) to appeal and participate in a Domestic Departmental Enquiry in
which its member is involved.
Reason (R) : This is a statutory recognition of a unrecognised Union.
Code :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is True.
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is False.
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72. ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ mÊ⁄Ê ’¥ª‹Ê⁄ flÊ≈⁄ ‚å‹Êß¸ (’¥ª‹Ê⁄ ¡‹Ê¬ÍÁÃ¸) ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ““©lÊª”” •Á÷√ÿÁÄàÊ ∑ Ê ÿlÁ¬ Á∑
ãÿÊÁÿ∑ ÁŸfl¸øŸ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ ¡Ê ß‚∑ ˇÊòÊÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ∑ ÁŸœÊ¸⁄ áÊ ∑ Ë ¡Ê°ø ∑ Ê ÁŸ¬≈Ê⁄Ê ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ •Á÷¬˝Ã ÕÊ,
ãÿÊÁÿ∑ ¬˝flÎÁûÊÿÊ¥ ’ÃÊÃË „Ò¥ Á∑ ß‚Ÿ Ÿ Á‚»¸ ‚¥ª∆ŸÊ¥ ∑ Ê •Á¬ÃÈ ⁄Ê¡ªÊ⁄ ∑ •fl‚⁄Ê¥ ∑ Ê ∑ ◊ ∑ ⁄∑ ∑ ◊¸øÊÁ⁄ÿÊ¥ ∑ Ê
‹Ê÷ ¬„È°øÊŸ ‚ ∑ „Ë¥ •Áœ∑ „ÊÁŸ ¬„È°øÊß¸– ©¬ÿÈ¸ÄàÊ ¬˝flÎÁûÊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ∞∑ ◊Ê◊‹ ∑ ◊Êäÿ◊ ‚
¬˝ÁÃÁ’Áê’Ã „ÊÃÊ „Ò —
(1) ŸÊª¬È⁄ Ÿª⁄ ÁŸª◊ ’ŸÊ◊ ∑ ◊¸øÊ⁄Ë
(2) ’ê’ß¸ ⁄Êíÿ ’ŸÊ◊ „ÊÚÁS¬≈‹ ◊¡ŒÍ⁄ ‚÷Ê
(3) ∑ ÿ⁄ ’Ê«¸ , ∞ŸÊ¸∑È ‹◊, ∑ ÊøËŸ •ÊÒ⁄ •ãÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ß¥ÁŒ⁄Ê ŒflË ¬Ë.∞‚. •ÊÒ⁄ •ãÿ
(4) ◊Œ˝Ê‚ Á¡◊πÊŸÊ Ä‹’ ∑ ◊¸øÊ⁄Ë ÿÍÁŸÿŸ ’ŸÊ◊ Á¡◊πÊŸÊ Ä‹’
73. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ Ê ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —

•ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 10(1) ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê ∑ •ÊŒ‡Ê ∑ Ë ¬Ífl¸ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÃ¸ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ¬˝ÁÃ
‚◊ÈÁøÃ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë ‚¥ÃÈÁc≈ „Ò —
(a) •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ∑ Ê •ÁSÃàfl
(b) •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ∑ Ë •Ê‡Ê¥∑ Ê
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(4) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ª‹Ã „Ò¥–
74. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ¬…∏ ÃÕÊ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : (a) ªÒ⁄ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ¬˝ÊåàÊ ÿÍÁŸÿŸ ∑ Ê ‚÷Ê ∑ ⁄Ÿ ÃÕÊ •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ∑ ◊¸∑ Ê⁄Ê¥ ∑ Ë ÁŸÿÊÄàÊÊ ∑ ‚ÊÕ
¬Á⁄flÊŒÊ¥ ∑ ’Ê⁄ ◊¥ ÁŸÿÊÄàÊÊ ∑ ‚ÊÕ øøÊ¸ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄
(b) ÉÊ⁄ ‹Í Áfl÷ÊªËÿ ¡Ê°ø Á¡‚◊¥ ß‚∑ Ê ‚ŒSÿ ‚¥Á‹åàÊ „Ò, •¬Ë‹ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ÃÕÊ ÷Êª ‹Ÿ ∑ Ê
•Áœ∑ Ê⁄
Ã∑¸ (R) : ÿ„ ªÒ⁄ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ¬˝ÊåàÊ ÿÍÁŸÿŸ ∑ Ë ‚Ê¥ÁflÁœ∑ ◊ÊãÿÃÊ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(4) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
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75. Answer the following using the code given below :
The following are the pre-condition for acquiring Jurisdiction by the National Tribunal Under
the Industrial Disputes Act :
(a) Industrial Dispute must involve question of National importance in the opinion of the
Central Government
OR
(b) Industrial Dispute must involve question of State importance in the opinion of the
State Government
OR
(c) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than one
State and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes
OR
(d) Industrial Disputes must be of such a nature that Industries situated in more than five
States and are likely to be interested in or affected by such disputes.
Code :
(1) (a) and (d) are correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (b) and (d) are correct.
(4) (d) alone is correct.
76. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer by using code below :
Assertion (A) : Administrative law is a branch of public law in contradiction to Private

law.
Reason (R) : Administrative law primarily deals with the relationship of individuals inter
se.
Code :
(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect (R) is correct.
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75. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ Ê ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ •Áœ∑ ⁄áÊ mÊ⁄Ê ˇÊòÊÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •Á¡¸Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ¬Ífl¸Œ‡ÊÊ
„Ò —
(a) ∑¥ Œ˝ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë ⁄Êÿ ◊¥ •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ◊¥ ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ◊„àfl ∑ Ê ¬˝‡Ÿ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ò
•ÕflÊ
(b) ⁄Êíÿ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë ⁄Êÿ ◊¥ •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ◊¥ ⁄Êíÿ ∑ ◊„àfl ∑ Ê ¬˝‡Ÿ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ò
•ÕflÊ
(c) •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ß‚ ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ „Ê¥ Á∑ ©lÊª ∞∑ ‚ •Áœ∑ ⁄ÊíÿÊ¥ ◊¥ •flÁSÕÃ „Ê¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ∞‚ ÁflflÊŒÊ¥ ◊¥ L Áø „Ê
ÿÊ ¬˝÷ÊÁflÃ „Ê¥
•ÕflÊ
(d) •ÊÒlÊÁª∑ ÁflflÊŒ ß‚ ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ∑ „Ê¥ Á∑ ©lÊª ¬Ê°ø ‚ •Áœ∑ ⁄ÊíÿÊ¥ ◊¥ •flÁSÕÃ „Ê¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ∞‚ ÁflflÊŒÊ¥ ◊¥ L Áø „Ê
ÿÊ ¬˝÷ÊÁflÃ „Ê¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) ∑ fl‹ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò–
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ÁŸ¡Ë ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Áfl¬⁄ËÃ ‹Ê∑ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÊπÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚ÁŸ∑ ∑ ÊŸÍŸ ∑ Ê ◊ÍÅÿÃÿÊ √ÿÁÄàÊÿÊ¥ ∑ ¬⁄S¬⁄ /•Ê¬‚Ë ‚¥’¥œ ‚ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
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77. Match List - I (name of case) with List - II (principle of natural justice) and give correct
answer by using the code below :
List - I List - II
(a) Hira Nath Mishra Vs Rajindra (i) Right to notice or requirement of notice
Medical College
(b) Union of India Vs Mohd. Ramzan (ii) No evidence should be taken at back of
Khan the other party
(c) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India (iii) Report of the enquiry to be shown to the
other party
(d) Union of India Vs Narendra Singh (iv) Reasoned decision or speaking orders
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
78. Match List - I (name of case) with List - II (name of writ) and give correct answer by using
code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Sunil Batra Vs Delhi Administration (i) Quo Warranto
(b) U.N.R. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi (ii) Habeas Corpus
(c) Gujrat State Financial Corporation Vs Lotus Hotels (iii) Certiorari
(d) Nalini Ranjan Vs Annada Shankar (iv) Mandamus
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
79. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India ruled that when the selection
process consists of only a viva-voce test without any written examination no limit need be
imposed on prescribing marks for the interview.
(1) A.K. Roy Vs Union of India
(2) A.P. State Financial Corporation Vs C.M. Ashok Raju
(3) Sambhu Nath Sarkar Vs State of W.B.
(4) P. Lakhanpal Vs Union of India
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77. ‚ÍøË-I (◊Ê◊‹ ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II (¬˝Ê∑Î ÁÃ∑ ãÿÊÿ ∑ Ê Á‚hÊ¥ãÃ) ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ ÃÕÊ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞
∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) „Ë⁄ÊŸÊÕ Á◊üÊÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ⁄ÊÁ¡ãŒ˝ ◊Á«∑ ‹ ∑ ÊÚ‹¡ (i) ŸÊÁ≈‚ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ÿÊ ŸÊÁ≈‚ ∑ Ë •Êfl‡ÿ∑ ÃÊ
(b) ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ◊Ê„ê◊Œ ⁄◊¡Ê◊ πÊŸ (ii) ŒÍ‚⁄ ¬ˇÊ ∑ Ë •ŸÈ¬ÁSÕÁÃ ◊¥ ∑ Êß¸ ‚Êˇÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á‹ÿÊ
¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
(c) ◊Ÿ∑ Ê ªÊ¥œË ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ (iii) ŒÍ‚⁄ ¬ˇÊ ∑ Ê ¡Ê°ø Á⁄¬Ê≈¸ ÁŒπÊÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ „Ò–
(d) ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ ’ŸÊ◊ Ÿ⁄ ãŒ˝ Á‚¥„ (iv) ‚∑ Ê⁄áÊ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ÿÊ S¬ËÁ∑¥ ª •ÊŒ‡Ê
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
78. ‚ÍøË-I (◊Ê◊‹ ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II (ÿÊÁø∑ Ê ∑ Ê ŸÊ◊) ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê
¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —
(a) ‚ÈŸË‹ ’òÊÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÁŒÀÀÊË ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ (i) •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ¬Îë¿Ê
(b) ÿÍ.∞Ÿ.•Ê⁄.⁄Êfl ’ŸÊ◊ ß¥ÁŒ⁄Ê ªÊ¥œË (ii) ’ãŒË ¬˝àÿˇÊË∑ ⁄áÊ
(c) ªÈ¡⁄ÊÃ ⁄Êíÿ ÁflûÊ ÁŸª◊ ’ŸÊ◊ ‹Ê≈ ‚ „Ê≈ ‹ (iii) ©à¬˝·áÊ
(d) ŸÁ‹ŸË ⁄¥¡Ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ •ãŸŒÊ ‡Ê¥∑ ⁄ (iv) ¬⁄◊ÊŒ‡Ê
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
79. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ÿ„ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ÁŒÿÊ Á∑ ¡’ øÿŸ ¬˝Á∑˝ ÿÊ ◊¥ Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë
Á‹ÁπÃ ¬⁄ËˇÊÊ ∑ Á’ŸÊ ∑ fl‹ ◊ÊÒÁπ∑ ¡Ê°ø „Ê ÃÊ ‚ÊˇÊÊà∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Á‹∞ •¥∑ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Ã ∑ ⁄Ÿ ¬⁄ ∑ Êß¸ ‚Ë◊Ê ⁄πŸ ∑ Ë
•Êfl‡ÿ∑ ÃÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) ∞.∑ . ⁄ÊÚÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(2) •Ê¥œ˝¬˝Œ‡Ê ⁄Êíÿ ÁflûÊ ÁŸª◊ ’ŸÊ◊ ‚Ë.∞◊. •‡ÊÊ∑ ⁄Ê¡Í
(3) ‡Ê¥÷ÈŸÊÕ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ’ŸÊ◊ ¬Á‡ø◊ ’¥ªÊ‹ ⁄Êíÿ
(4) ¬Ë. ‹πŸ¬Ê‹ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
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(a) Absolute discretion is a ruthless master.
(b) Where reasonable conduct of government official is expected, the criterion of
reasonableness is subjective and not objective
(c) Every action of the executive government must be informed with excuse and should be
arbitrary.
(d) Exercise of discretion is an inseparable part of sound administration.
Code :
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) Only (b) and (d) are correct.
(4) Only (a) and (d) are correct.
81. Which of the following Acts shall be amended as per Section 58 of the Lokpal and Lokayukta
Act, 2013 ? Give correct answer by using the code given below :
(a) Commission of Inquiry Act
(b) Central Vigilance Commission Act
(c) Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation Act
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) (c) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a) and (d) are correct.
(4) (b) and (c) are correct.
82. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Montreal protocol is related to Hazardous Waste.
(2) The Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle are essential features of the
principles of sustainable development.
(3) The Stockholm Declaration of 1972 has been described as the Magna Carta of our
environment.
(4) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by
fumes in the territory of another.
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80. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ¬⁄◊ Áflfl∑ ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ÁŸŒ¸ÿË SflÊ◊Ë „Ò–
(b) ¡„Ê° ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄Ë •Áœ∑ Ê⁄Ë ‚ ‚◊ÈÁøÃ •Êø⁄áÊ ∑ Ë •Ê‡ÊÊ ∑ Ë ¡ÊÃË „Ò •ÊÒÁøàÿ ∑ Ê ◊Ê¬Œ¥« Áfl·ÿÁŸc∆ „ÊÃÊ „Ò Ÿ
Á∑ flSÃÈÁŸc∆
(c) ∑ Êÿ¸∑ Ê⁄Ë ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë ¬˝àÿ∑ ∑ Êÿ¸ flÊß¸ ∑ Ê ’„ÊŸ ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚ÍÁøÃ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ß‚ ◊Ÿ◊ÊŸÊ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞–
(d) Áflfl∑ ÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ª¥÷Ë⁄ ¬˝‡ÊÊ‚Ÿ ∑ Ê •¬ÎÕÄ∑ ⁄áÊËÿ ÷Êª „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) ∑ fl‹ (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
81. ‹Ê∑ ¬Ê‹ •ÊÒ⁄ ‹Ê∑ ÊÿÈÄàÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 2013 ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 58 ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ◊¥ ‚¥‡ÊÊœŸ
„ÊªÊ? ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) ¡Ê°ø •ÊÿÊª •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
(b) ∑¥ Œ˝Ëÿ ‚Ã∑¸ ÃÊ •ÊÿÊª •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
(c) Á‚Áfl‹ ¬˝Á∑˝ ÿÊ ‚¥Á„ÃÊ
(d) ∑ ãŒ˝Ëÿ •ãfl·áÊ éÿÍ⁄ Ê •ÁœÁŸÿ◊
∑Í ≈ —
(1) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (b) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(2) (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
82. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê ª‹Ã „Ò?

(1) ◊ÊÚÁã≈˛ ÿÊ‹ ¬˝Ê≈ Ê∑ Ê‹ πÃ⁄ŸÊ∑ •¬Á‡Êc≈ ‚ ‚¥’¥ÁœÃ „Ò–
(2) ∞„ÁÃÿÊÃË Á‚hÊãÃ •ÊÒ⁄ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ »Ò ‹ÊŸ flÊ‹Ê ÷ÈªÃÊŸ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò Á‚hÊãÃ ‚¥fl„ŸËÿ Áfl∑ Ê‚ ∑ Ë •ÁŸflÊÿ¸
Áfl‡Ê·ÃÊ∞° „Ò¥–
(3) Œ S≈ÊÚ∑ „Ê◊ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ, 1972 ∑ Ê „◊Ê⁄ ¬ÿÊ¸fl⁄áÊ ∑ Ê ◊ÒÇŸÊ∑ Ê≈Ê¸ ∑ „Ê ªÿÊ „Ò–
(4) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ⁄Êíÿ ∑ Ê •¬Ÿ ÷Í÷Êª ∑ Ê ß‚ ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ÿ ÿÊ ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë •ŸÈ◊ÁÃ ŒŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥
Á∑ ©‚‚ ŒÍ‚⁄ ∑ ÷Í÷Êª ◊¥ œÈ•Ê° ‚ ˇÊÁÃ ¬„È°ø–
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83. “The State is the trustee of all natural resources which are by nature meant for public use
and enjoyment and that Indian legal system includes the Public Trust Doctrine as a part of
its jurisprudence”
The Supreme Court of India has observed the above in one of the following case :
(1) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad Vs Union of India
(2) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action Vs Union of India
(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India
(4) Shri Sachidananda Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
84. Match List - I with List - II and give correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) No state has a right to use or permit the use of (i) Basel Convention
its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the
territory of another
(b) The Economic Benefit must substantially exceed (ii) Trial Smelter Case
its Environmental Cost
(c) The present generation has no right to deplete (iii) Environment Impact
all the existing forest and leave nothing for the Assessment
next and future generation
(d) Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (iv) Inter Generational Equity
and their Disposal
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
given below :
Assertion (A) : It is the duty of the state to devise and implement a coherent and
co-ordinated programme to meet its obligation of Sustainable Development.
Reason (R) : Adherence to the principle of Sustainable Development is now a
Constitutional requirement.
Code :
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
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83. ““⁄Êíÿ ‚÷Ë ¬˝Ê∑Î ÁÃ∑ ‚¥‚ÊœŸÊ¥ ¡Ê ŸÒ‚Áª¸∑ M ¬ ‚ ‹Ê∑ ¬˝ÿÊª •ÊÒ⁄ ÷Êª ∑ Á‹∞ „Ò¥ ∑ Ê ãÿÊ‚Ë „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ ÷Ê⁄ÃËÿ ÁflÁœ∑
¬˝áÊÊ‹Ë •¬Ÿ ÁflÁœ‡ÊÊSòÊ ∑ •¥ª ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ ‹Ê∑ ãÿÊ‚ Á‚hÊãÃ ∑ Ê ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò–””
÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ÿ„ Á≈å¬áÊË ∑ Ë „Ò —
(1) ≈Ë.∞Ÿ. ªÊŒfl◊¸Ÿ ÁÃL ◊È‹¬ÊŒ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(2) ß¥Á«ÿŸ ∑ ÊÒ¥Á‚‹ » Ê⁄ ∞ãflÊÿ⁄Ê ‹Ëª‹ ∞Ä‡ÊŸ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(3) ∞◊.‚Ë. ◊„ÃÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(4) üÊË ‚ÁìÊŒÊŸ¥Œ ¬Ê¥« ÿ ’ŸÊ◊ ¬Á‡ø◊ ’¥ªÊ‹ ⁄Êíÿ
84. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ⁄¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈Ê¥ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
(a) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷Ë ⁄Êíÿ ∑ Ê •¬Ÿ ÷Í÷Êª ∑ Ê ß‚ ¬˝∑ Ê⁄ ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ÿ ÿÊ (i) ’Ê‚‹ ‚¥Áœ
¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ë •ŸÈ◊ÁÃ ŒŸ ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑ ©‚‚
ŒÍ‚⁄ ÷Í÷Êª ◊¥ œÈ•Ê° ‚ ˇÊÁÃ ¬„È°ø
(b) •ÊÁÕ¸∑ ‹Ê÷ ß‚∑ ¬ÿÊ¸fl⁄áÊËÿ ∑ Ë◊Ã ‚ ¬ÿÊ¸åàÊ M ¬ ‚ (ii) ≈˛ Êÿ‹ S◊À≈⁄ ◊Ê◊‹Ê
•Áœ∑ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞
(c) flÃ¸◊ÊŸ ¬Ë…∏Ë ∑ Ê ‚÷Ë Áfll◊ÊŸ flŸ ∑ Ê ˇÊ⁄áÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ÃÕÊ (iii) ¬ÿÊ¸fl⁄áÊËÿ ¬˝÷Êfl ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑ Ÿ
•ª‹Ë •ÊÒ⁄ ÷ÊflË ¬ËÁ…∏ÿÊ¥ ∑ Á‹∞ ∑È ¿ ÷Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ ¿Ê«∏Ÿ ∑ Ê
•Áœ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(d) πÃ⁄ŸÊ∑ •¬Á‡Êc≈Ê¥ ∑ Ë ‚Ë◊Ê-¬Ê⁄ •ÊflÊ¡Ê„Ë •ÊÒ⁄ ©Ÿ∑ Ê (iv) •¥Ã⁄ ¬Ë…∏ËªÃ ‚◊ÃÊ
ÁŸ¬≈ÊŸ
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
85. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ∑ Ê ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑ ⁄ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ÿ„ ⁄Êíÿ ∑ Ê ∑ Ã¸√ÿ „Ò Á∑ fl„ ‚¥fl„ŸËÿ Áfl∑ Ê‚ ∑ ©ûÊ⁄ŒÊÁÿàfl ∑ Ê ¬Í⁄ Ê ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Á‹∞ ‚¥ªÃ
ÃÕÊ ‚◊ÁãflÃ ∑ Êÿ¸∑˝ ◊ ∑ Ë ÿÈÁÄàÊ ÁŸ∑ Ê‹ ÃÕÊ ©‚ ∑ ÊÿÊ¸ÁãflÃ ∑ ⁄ –
Ã∑¸ (R) : ‚¥fl„ŸËÿ Áfl∑ Ê‚ ∑ Á‚hÊ¥Ã ∑ Ê •ŸÈ‚⁄áÊ •’ ‚¥flÒœÊÁŸ∑ •Êfl‡ÿ∑ ÃÊ „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
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86. Which of the following do not come under the powers and functions of the Central Board as
provided Under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 ?
(1) Planning and execution of National programme for prevention, control and abatement
of Air Pollution.
(2) Co-ordinating activities of State Boards and resolving disputes among them.
(3) Fixing standards of Quality of Air.
(4) Making recommendations to the State government for removal of State Board which is
defaulter in discharging its duties under the Act.
87. In which one of the following case the Supreme Court of India held that right to access to
drinking water is fundamental to life and it is the duty of the State under Act 21 to provide
clean drinking water to its citizens ?
(1) Vellore Citizens Welfare forum Vs Union of India
(2) A.P. Pollution Control Board Vs M.V. Nayadu
(3) M.C. Mehtha Vs Union of India
(4) Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board Vs Shri C. Kenchappa
given below :
Assertion (A) : The provisions concerning Human Rights run throughout the U.N. Charter
‘like a golden thread’.
Reason (R) : Much of the credit for this goes to the determined lobbying by
non-governmental organisations at San Francisco Conference.
Code :
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
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86. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê flÊÿÈ (¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ ∑ Ê ÁŸflÊ⁄áÊ •ÊÒ⁄ ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ) •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, 1981 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã Á∑ ∞ ª∞ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸÊ¥
∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ ∑ ãŒ˝Ëÿ ’Ê«¸ ∑ Ë ‡ÊÁÄàÊÿÊ¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ∑Î àÿÊ¥ ∑ •œËŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ •ÊÃÊ „Ò¥?
(1) flÊÿÈ ¬˝ŒÍ·áÊ ∑ ÁŸflÊ⁄áÊ, ÁŸÿ¥òÊáÊ •ÊÒ⁄ ∑ ◊Ë ∑ Á‹∞ ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ∑ Êÿ¸∑˝ ◊ ∑ Ë ÿÊ¡ŸÊ ’ŸÊŸÊ ÃÕÊ ©‚ ∑ Êÿ¸ÁãflÃ
∑ ⁄ŸÊ–
(2) ⁄Êíÿ ’Ê« ÊZ ∑ Á∑˝ ÿÊ∑ ‹Ê¬Ê¥ ◊¥ ‚◊ãflÿ SÕÊÁ¬Ã ∑ ⁄ŸÊ ÃÕÊ ©Ÿ∑ ’Ëø ∑ ÁflflÊŒÊ¥ ∑ Ê ‚◊ÊœÊŸ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ–
(3) flÊÿÈ ∑ Ë ªÈáÊflûÊÊ ∑ ◊ÊŸ∑ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Ã ∑ ⁄ŸÊ–
(4) ⁄Êíÿ ’Ê«¸ ¡Ê ß‚ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã •¬Ÿ ∑ ûÊ¸√ÿÊ¥ ∑ ÁŸfl¸„Ÿ ◊¥ øÍ∑ ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò ©‚ „≈ÊŸ ∑ Á‹∞ ⁄Êíÿ
‚⁄∑ Ê⁄ ‚ Á‚» ÊÁ⁄‡Ê ∑ ⁄ŸÊ–
87. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ Á∑ ‚ ◊Ê◊‹ ◊¥ ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ Ÿ ÿ„ ÁŸáÊ¸ÿ ÁŒÿÊ Á∑ ¬ÿ¡‹ Ã∑ ¬„È°ø ∑ Ê •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ¡ËflŸ ∑
Á‹∞ ’ÈÁŸÿÊŒË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ •ŸÈë¿ Œ 21 ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ÿ„ ⁄Êíÿ ∑ Ê ∑ Ã¸√ÿ „Ò Á∑ fl„ •¬Ÿ ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ Ê¥ ∑ Ê Sflë¿ ¬ÿ¡‹
©¬‹éœ ∑ ⁄Ê∞?
(1) flÀÀÊÊ⁄ Á‚Á≈¡ã‚ flÀ» ÿ⁄ » Ê⁄ ◊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(2) ∞.¬Ë. ¬ÊÚÀÿÈ‡ÊŸ ∑¥ ≈˛ Ê‹ ’Ê«¸ ’ŸÊ◊ ∞◊.flË. ŸÊÿ«Í
(3) ∞◊.‚Ë. ◊„ÃÊ ’ŸÊ◊ ÷Ê⁄Ã ‚¥ÉÊ
(4) ∑ ŸÊ¸≈ ∑ ß¥« ÁS≈˛ ÿ‹ ∞Á⁄ÿÊ « fl‹¬◊¥≈ ’Ê«¸ ’ŸÊ◊ üÊË ‚Ë. ∑ ãøå¬Ê
88. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) ÃÕÊ Ã∑¸ (R) ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ‡ÊÊ¸∞¥ —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ¬Í⁄ ÿÍ.∞Ÿ. øÊ≈¸ ⁄ ◊¥ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚¥’¥œË ¬˝ÊflœÊŸ ∞∑ “SflÁáÊ¸◊ ‚ÍòÊ”” ∑ Ë Ã⁄„ √ÿÊåàÊ „Ò–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ß‚∑ Ê ∑ Ê» Ë üÊÿ ‚ÒŸ »˝ Ê¥Á‚S∑ Ê ‚ê◊‹Ÿ ◊¥ ªÒ⁄ ‚⁄∑ Ê⁄Ë ‚¥ª∆ŸÊ¥ mÊ⁄Ê ÁŸ‡øÿÊà◊∑ M ¬ ‚
•flœÊÁ⁄Ã ‹Ê÷’ãŒË „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò Á∑ ãÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
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Under its terms of reference, the UN Commission on Human Rights was directed to prepare
recommendations and reports on :
(a) An International Bill on Human Rights.
(b) International Conventions or declarations on civil liberties; the status of woman, freedom
of information and similar other matters.
(c) The protection of Minorities.
(d) The prevention of discrimination on the basis of race, sex, language or religion and
other matters concerning Human Rights.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
90. Match List - I with List - II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Human Rights Council (i) 1993
(b) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (ii) 2006
(c) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (iii) 1948
(d) World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna (iv) 1966
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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89. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ∑ ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?
‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ Ê ©‚∑ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê ¬Œ ∑ •ãÃª¸Ã Á∑ ‚ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ Á‚» ÊÁ⁄‡Ê¥ ∞fl¥ ¬˝ÁÃflŒŸ ÃÒÿÊ⁄ ∑ ⁄Ÿ
∑ Á‹∞ ÁŸŒ¸‡Ê ÁŒÿ ªÿ Õ?
(a) ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚¥’¥œË •ãÃ⁄Ê¸c≈˛ Ëÿ Á’‹
(b) ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ, ◊Á„‹Ê•Ê¥ ∑ Ë ÁSÕÁÃ, ‚ÍøŸÊ ∑ Ë SflÃ¥òÊÃÊ ÃÕÊ •ãÿ ‚ŒÎ‡Ê Áfl·ÿÊ¥ ∑ ‚¥’¥œ ◊¥ •ãÃ⁄Ê¸c≈˛ Ëÿ
•Á÷‚◊ÿ (∑ ãfl¥‡ÊŸ) •ÕflÊ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ
(c) •À¬‚¥Åÿ∑ Ê¥ ∑ Ë ‚È⁄ ˇÊÊ
(d) ¡ÊÁÃ, Á‹¥ª, ÷Ê·Ê •ÕflÊ œ◊¸ ∑ •ÊœÊ⁄ ¬⁄ ÷Œ÷Êfl ŒÍ⁄ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ ÃÕÊ •ãÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚¥’¥œË •ãÿ Áfl·ÿ
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(2) ∑ fl‹ (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) ∑ fl‹ (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
90. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ Á◊‹Ê∞° •ÊÒ⁄ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ‡ÊÊ¸∞° —
‚ÍøË- I ‚ÍøË-II
(a) ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ (i) 1993
(b) ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ∑ Ë ‚Êfl¸÷ÊÒÁ◊∑ ÉÊÊ·áÊÊ (ii) 2006
(c) ŸÊªÁ⁄∑ ∞fl¥ ⁄Ê¡ŸËÃË∑ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚¥’¥œË •ãÃ⁄Ê¸c≈˛ Ëÿ •Á÷‚◊ÿ (iii) 1948
(d) Áfl‡fl ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚ê◊‹Ÿ, Áfl∞ŸÊ (iv) 1966
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
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91. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?
(a) The position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economic
and Social Council.
(b) The High Commissioner was to be appointed by the Secretary. General subject to
approval by the General Assembly.
(c) The term of office of High Commissioner was five years.
(d) The High Commissioner’s principal location would be in New York.
Code :
(1) Only (d) is not correct.
(2) (a), (c) and (d) all are not correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are not correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are not correct.
92. Which of the following statement/statements are correct ?
(a) The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be who has been the
Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(b) The Chairperson and the other Members of National Human Rights Commission are
appointed by the President of India after consultation with Prime Minister.
(c) Chairperson and other Members of National Human Rights Commission are eligible
for re-appointment.
(d) The Chairperson and the other Members of the Commission can be removed on the
Recommendation of the Law Minister of India.
Code :
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
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91. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ∑ ÕŸ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò/„Ò¥?
(a) ‚¥ÿÈÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ ©ìÊÊÿÈÄàÊ ∑ ¬Œ ∑ Ê ‚Î¡Ÿ •ÊÁÕ¸∑ ∞fl¥ ‚Ê◊ÊÁ¡∑ ¬Á⁄·Œ˜ Ÿ Á∑ ÿÊ ÕÊ–
(b) ©ìÊÊÿÈÄàÊ ∑ Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄàÊ ◊Ê„Ê‚Áøfl mÊ⁄Ê ∑ Ë ¡ÊŸË „ÊÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ ÿ„ ◊„Ê‚÷Ê ∑ •ŸÈ◊ÊŒŸ ∑ •äÿœËŸ „ÊÃÊ „Ò–
(c) ©ìÊÊÿÈÄàÊ ∑ Ë ¬ŒÊflÁœ ¬Ê°ø fl·¸ ∑ Ë ÕË–
(d) ©ìÊÊÿÈÄàÊ ∑ Ê ¬˝◊Èπ SÕÊŸ ãÿÍÿÊ∑¸ ◊¥ „ÊªÊ–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (d) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(2) (a), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
92. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ∑ ÕŸ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?
(a) ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ Ê •äÿˇÊ fl„ „ÊªÊ ¡Ê ©ìÊÃ◊ ãÿÊÿÊ‹ÿ ∑ Ê ◊ÈÅÿ ãÿÊÿÊœË‡Ê ⁄„ øÈ∑ Ê „Ê–
(b) ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ •äÿˇÊ ÃÕÊ •ãÿ ‚ŒSÿÊ¥ ∑ Ë ÁŸÿÈÁÄàÊ ⁄Êc≈˛ ¬ÁÃ, ¬˝œÊŸ◊¥òÊË ∑ ¬⁄Ê◊‡Ê¸ ‚
∑ ⁄¥ ª–
(c) ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ •äÿˇÊ ∞fl¥ •ãÿ ‚ŒSÿ ŒÈ’Ê⁄Ê ÁŸÿÈÄàÊ „ÊŸ ∑ ¬ÊòÊ „Ò¥–
(d) •ÊÿÊª ∑ •äÿˇÊ ∞fl¥ •ãÿ ‚ŒSÿ ÷Ê⁄Ã ∑ ÁflÁœ ◊¥òÊË ∑ Ë Á‚» ÊÁ⁄‡Ê ¬⁄ „≈Êÿ ¡Ê ‚∑ Ã „Ò¥–
∑Í ≈ —
(1) ∑ fl‹ (a) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(2) (a) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(3) (a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c) ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
(4) (a), (b), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (d) ‚÷Ë ‚„Ë „Ò¥–
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93. Match List - I with List - II and give the correct answer by using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(Provisions) (Sections of the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993)
(a) Constitution of National Human Rights (i) Section 10
Commission
(b) Constitution of State Human Rights Commission (ii) Section 12
(c) Functions of the National Human Rights (iii) Section 3
Commission
(d) Procedure of the Commission (iv) Section 21
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Under the Partnership Act, a minor who has been admitted to partnership when attains
majority should adhere to the following :
(1) Issue a public notice that he has elected to become or that he has elected not to become
a partner
(2) Option must be exercised within 2 months on attaining majority
(3) When the minor opted to become a partner his rights and liabilities as a minor continue
upto the date on which he becomes a partner
(4) When the minor opted not to become a partner his rights and liabilities shall continue
upto the date on which he gives a public notice
95. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List - I List - II
(a) Mutual Rights and Liabilities of Partners (i) Section 34 of Partnership Act
(b) Dissolution of Partnership (ii) Section 13 of Partnership Act
(c) Retirement of a Partner (iii) Section 39 of Partnership Act
(d) Insolvency of a Partner (iv) Section 32 of Partnership Act
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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93. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ Á◊‹Ê∞° ÃÕÊ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ‡ÊÊ¸∞° —
(¬˝ÊflœÊŸ) (◊ÊŸfl •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ‚¥⁄ ˇÊáÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊,1993 ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê∞°)
(a) ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ Ê ª∆Ÿ (i) œÊ⁄Ê 10
(b) ⁄Êíÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ Ê ª∆Ÿ (ii) œÊ⁄Ê 12
(c) ⁄Êc≈˛ Ëÿ ◊ÊŸflÊÁœ∑ Ê⁄ •ÊÿÊª ∑ ∑ Êÿ¸ (iii) œÊ⁄Ê 3
(d) •ÊÿÊª ∑ Ë ¬˝Á∑˝ ÿÊ (iv) œÊ⁄Ê 21
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
94. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ ª‹Ã „Ò?

‚„÷ÊÁªÃÊ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã, ¡’ ∑ Êß¸ •flÿS∑ flÿS∑ ÃÊ ¬˝ÊåàÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ ¬‡øÊÃ˜ ‚„÷ÊÁªÃÊ ◊¥ ¬˝fl‡Ê ∑ ⁄ÃÊ „Ò ÃÊ
©‚ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ Ê •ŸÈ¬Ê‹Ÿ ∑ ⁄ŸÊ øÊÁ„ÿ —
(1) ∞∑ ‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¡Ê⁄Ë ∑ ⁄ŸÊ Á∑ ©‚Ÿ ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄ ’ŸŸ •ÕflÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ’ŸŸ ∑ Ê øÿŸ Á∑ ÿÊ „Ò–
(2) flÿS∑ ÃÊ ¬˝ÊÁåàÊ ∑ ŒÊ ◊Ê„ ∑ •ãŒ⁄ Áfl∑ À¬ øÈŸ ‹ŸÊ øÊÁ„ÿ–
(3) ¡’ Á∑ ‚Ë •flÿS∑ Ÿ ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄ ’ŸŸ ∑ Ê Áfl∑ À¬ øÈŸÊ „Ò ÃÊ ∞∑ •flÿS∑ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ ©‚∑ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ∞fl¥
ŒÊÁÿàfl ©‚∑ ‚„÷ÊªË ’ŸŸ ∑ Ë ÃÊ⁄Ëπ Ã∑ ¡Ê⁄Ë ⁄„¥ª–
(4) ÿÁŒ Á∑ ‚Ë •flÿS∑ Ÿ ‚„÷ÊªË Ÿ„Ë¥ ’ŸŸ ∑ Ê Áfl∑ À¬ øÈŸÊ „Ò, ÃÊ ©‚∑ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ∞fl¥ ŒÊÁÿàfl ©‚∑ mÊ⁄Ê
‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑ ‚ÍøŸÊ ŒŸ ∑ Ë ÃÊ⁄Ëπ Ã∑ ¡Ê⁄Ë ⁄„¥ª–
95. ‚ÍøË-I ∑ Ê ‚ÍøË-II ∑ ‚ÊÕ ‚È◊Á‹Ã ∑ ËÁ¡∞ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ øÈÁŸÿ —
(a) ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ê¥ ∑ ¬Ê⁄S¬Á⁄∑ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ ∞fl¥ ŒÊÁÿàfl (i) ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ë •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 34
(b) ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ë ∑ Ë ‚◊ÊÁåàÊ (ii) ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ë •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 13
(c) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ë ∑ Ë ‚flÊÁŸflÎÁûÊ (iii) ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ë •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 39
(d) Á∑ ‚Ë ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄ ∑ Ê ÁŒflÊ‹Ê (iv) ÷ÊªËŒÊ⁄Ë •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ Ë œÊ⁄Ê 32
∑Í ≈ —
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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96. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of code given
below :
Assertion (A) : The surety has no right to restrain execution against him until the creditor
exhausted all his remedies against the Principal Debtor.
Reason (R) : The Liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the Principal Debtor,
unless it is otherwise provided by contract.
Code :
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Under the Sale of Goods Act, to make the buyer liable for neglecting or refusing delivery of
goods the following conditions must be fulfilled :
(1) The seller was ready and willing to deliver the goods.
(2) The seller requested the buyer to take delivery.
(3) The seller informed the buyer to ignore the delay and take delivery.
(4) The buyer did not, within a reasonable time after such request take delivery of the
goods.
98. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer by using code given below :
Assertion (A) : Under the Company Law, though any outsider is presumed to be aware of
the documents which are publicly accessable, but not the internal
proceedings of which he can not reasonably aware of, because those are
not accessible to the public.
Reason (R) : The Doctrine of indoor management evolved as a partial exception to the
Doctrine of Constructive Notice and the rule was laid down in Royal British
Bank Vs Turquand.
Code :
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96. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) ÃÕÊ Ã∑¸ (R) ∑ Ê ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒÿ ªÿ ∑Í ≈ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ‡ÊÊ¸∞° —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁÃ (SÿÊÁ⁄≈Ë) ∑ Ê ©‚∑ Áπ‹Ê» ∑ ÊÿÊ¸ÁãflÃ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ •fl⁄Êœ ∑ Ê Ã’Ã∑ •Áœ∑ Ê⁄ Ÿ„Ë¥
¡’Ã∑ Á∑ ‹ŸŒÊ⁄ Ÿ ◊Í‹ ´ áÊË ∑ Áπ‹Ê» ‚÷Ë ©¬øÊ⁄ ‚◊ÊåàÊ Ÿ ∑ ⁄ ÁŒÿ „Ê¥–
Ã∑¸ (R) : ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁÃ ∑ Ê ŒÊÁÿàfl ◊Í‹ ´ áÊË ∑ ‚◊ÁflSÃËáÊ¸ „Ò, ¡’Ã∑ Á∑ ‚¥ÁflŒÊ ◊¥ •ãÿÕÊ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸ Ÿ „Ê–
∑Í ≈ —
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
(4) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–

◊Ê‹ Áfl∑˝ ÿ •ÁœÁŸÿ◊, ∑ •¥Ãª¸Ã ◊Ê‹ ∑ ¬Á⁄ŒÊŸ ∑ Ë ©¬ˇÊÊ •ÕflÊ •SflË∑Î ÁÃ „ÃÈ ∑˝ ÃÊ ∑ Ê Á¡ê◊ŒÊ⁄ ∆„⁄ÊŸ ∑
Á‹ÿ ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ‡ÊÃZ •fl‡ÿ ¬Í⁄ Ë ∑ Ë ¡ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞ —
(1) Áfl∑˝ ÃÊ ÃÒÿÊ⁄ ÕÊ •ÊÒ⁄ ◊Ê‹ ∑ ¬Á⁄ŒÊŸ ∑ Ê ßë¿È ∑ ÕÊ–
(2) Áfl∑˝ ÃÊ Ÿ ¬Á⁄ŒÊŸ ¬˝ÊåàÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ „ÃÈ ∑˝ ÃÊ ‚ •ŸÈ⁄ Êœ Á∑ ÿÊ ÕÊ–
(3) Áfl∑˝ ÃÊ Ÿ ∑˝ ÃÊ ∑ Ê ‚ÍÁøÃ Á∑ ÿÊ ÕÊ Á∑ fl„ Áfl‹¥’ ∑ Ê Ÿ¡⁄•¥ŒÊ¡ ∑ ⁄ ¬Á⁄ŒÊŸ ¬˝ÊåàÊ ∑ ⁄ ‹–
(4) ∑˝ ÃÊ Ÿ ©ÁøÃ ‚◊ÿ ‚Ë◊Ê ∑ •ãŒ⁄ ∞‚ •ŸÈ⁄ Êœ ∑ Ë ¬˝ÊÁåàÊ ∑ ¬‡øÊÃ˜ ◊Ê‹ ∑ Ê ¬Á⁄ŒÊŸ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á‹ÿÊ–
98. •Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) •ÊÒ⁄ Ã∑¸ (R) ∑ Ê ¬…∏¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ Œ‡ÊÊ¸∞° —
•Á÷∑ ÕŸ (A) : ÿlÁ¬ Á∑ ‚Ë ’Ê„⁄Ë √ÿÁÄàÊ ∑ ’Ê⁄ ◊¥ ÿ„ ◊ÊŸ Á‹ÿÊ ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò Á∑ ©‚ ‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑ M ¬ ‚ ‚Èª◊
ŒSÃÊfl¡Ê¥ ∑ Ë ¡ÊŸ∑ Ê⁄Ë „Ò, ¬⁄¥ ÃÈ •ÊãÃÁ⁄∑ ∑ Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë ∑ ’Ê⁄ ◊¥ Ÿ„Ë¥, Á¡Ÿ∑ ’Ê⁄ ◊¥ ÿÈÁÄàÊ‚¥ªÃ
M ¬ ‚ ©‚ ¡ÊŸ∑ Ê⁄Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „ÊŸË øÊÁ„∞ ÄÿÊ¥Á∑ ÿ ‚Êfl¸¡ÁŸ∑ M ¬ ‚ ‚Èª◊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò¥–
Ã∑¸ (R) : •ÊãÃÁ⁄∑ ¬˝’¥œŸ Á‚hÊãÃ ∑ Ê ÁŸ◊ÊáÊ¸ •ÊãflÁÿ∑ ‚ÍøŸÊ (∑¥ S≈˛ ÁÄ≈fl ŸÊÁ≈‚) ∑ •Ê¥Á‡Ê∑
•¬flÊŒ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ „È•Ê „Ò •ÊÒ⁄ ÁŸÿ◊ ∑ Ê ⁄ÊÚÿ‹ Á’˝Á≈‡Ê ’Ò¥∑ ’ŸÊ◊ ≈È ∑ Ê¸á« ◊¥ •Á÷ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Ã „Ò–
∑Í ≈ —
(2) (A) •ÊÒ⁄ (R) ŒÊŸÊ¥ ‚„Ë „Ò¥, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R), (A) ∑ Ë ‚„Ë √ÿÊÅÿÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
(3) (A) ‚„Ë „Ò, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ª‹Ã „Ò–
(4) (A) ª‹Ã „Ò, Á∑¥ ÃÈ (R) ‚„Ë „Ò–
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Any mis-statement made in the Prospectus would attract the liability of the following persons
under the Companies Act :
(1) Every person who is a director of the company at the time of the issue of the prospectus.
(2) Every person who has authorised himself to be named and is named in the prospectus
either as director or as having agreed to become a director either immediately or after
an interval of time.
(3) Every person who is a promotor of the company.
(4) An Expert, whose consent has not been endorsed to the registration and liable in respect
of every content in the prospectus.
100. Which one of the following is not the essential requirement to fulfil an instrument intended
to be a Promissory Note ?
(1) The instrument must contain a promise to pay.
(2) A mere acknowledgement of indebtedness is sufficient.
(3) The sum of money to be paid must be certain.
(4) Promise to pay must be unconditional.
-oOo-
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Áflfl⁄áÊ ¬ÁòÊ∑ Ê (¬˝ÊÚS¬Ä≈˜ ‚) ◊¥ Á∑ ÿ ªÿ Á∑ ‚Ë •‡ÊÈh ∑ ÕŸ ‚ ∑ ê¬ŸË •ÁœÁŸÿ◊ ∑ •ãÃª¸Ã ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ
√ÿÁÄàÊÿÊ¥ ∑ Ë ŒÿÃÊ „ÊªË?
(1) Áflfl⁄áÊ ¬ÁòÊ∑ Ê ¡Ê⁄Ë Á∑ ÿ ¡ÊŸ ∑ ‚◊ÿ ∑ ê¬ŸË ∑ ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ ¬˝àÿ∑ √ÿÁÄàÊ–
(2) fl„ ¬˝àÿ∑ √ÿÁÄàÊ Á¡‚Ÿ Áflfl⁄áÊ ¬ÁòÊ∑ Ê ◊¥ •¬ŸÊ ŸÊ◊ ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑ ∑ M ¬ ◊¥ Sflÿ¥ ∑ Ê ¬˝ÊÁœ∑Î Ã Á∑ ÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄
Ãà∑ Ê‹ •ÕflÊ ∑È ¿ ‚◊ÿÊãÃ⁄Ê‹ ¬‡øÊÃ ©‚Ÿ ÁŸŒ‡Ê∑ ’ŸŸ ∑ Ë ‚„◊ÁÃ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑ Ë „Ò–
(3) ¬˝àÿ∑ √ÿÁÄàÊ ¡Ê ∑¥ ¬ŸË ∑ Ê ‚¥¬˝flÃ¸∑ (¬˝Ê◊Ê≈ ⁄) „Ò–
(4) ∑ Êß¸ Áfl‡Ê·ôÊ Á¡‚∑ Ë ‚„◊ÁÃ ¬¥¡ËÿŸ ◊¥ •ÊÒ⁄ ¬ÁòÊ∑ Ê Áflfl⁄áÊ ∑ ¬˝àÿ∑ ‚¥Œ÷¸ ◊¥ ¬Îc∆Ê¥Á∑ Ã Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò–
100. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ Á∑ ‚Ë fløŸ ¬òÊ (¬˝ÊÁ◊‚⁄Ë ŸÊ≈ ) ∑ ’ŸŸ ∑ •Ê‡Êÿ „ÃÈ Á∑ ‚Ë Á‹ÁπÃ ∑ Ë •ÁŸflÊÿ¸
•Êfl‡ÿ∑ ÃÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò?
(1) Á‹ÁπÃ ◊¥ •ŒÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ê fløŸ „ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„ÿ–
(2) ´ áÊª˝SÃÃÊ ∑ Ë •Á÷SflË∑Î ÁÃ ◊ÊòÊ ¬ÿÊ¸åàÊ „Ò–
(3) •ŒÊ ∑ Ë ¡ÊŸ flÊ‹Ë ∞∑ ÁŸÁ‡øÃ œŸ⁄ÊÁ‡Ê „Ê–
(4) •ŒÊ ∑ ⁄Ÿ ∑ Ê fløŸ ÁŸ—‡ÊÃ¸ „Ê–
-oOo-
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Space For Rough Work
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Signature and Name of Invigilator

1. (Signature) OMR Sheet No. : ..........................................................

Time : 2 hours] LAW [Maximum Marks : 200

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 1 P.T.O.

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 2 Paper-II

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7. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 4 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 5 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 6 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 7 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 8 Paper-II

15. ¬˝Ê» ‚⁄ „Ê≈¸ ∑ •ŸÈ‚Ê⁄ “¬˝àÿˇÊﬂÊŒ” ∑ •Õ¸ ◊¥ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ò —

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 9 Paper-II

19. Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality ?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 10 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 11 Paper-II

24. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 12 Paper-II

24. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 13 Paper-II

27. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 14 Paper-II

27. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò/„Ò¥?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 15 Paper-II

31. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 16 Paper-II

31. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 17 Paper-II

33. The ‘U.N. Commission on Human Rights’ was established in 1946 by :

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 18 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 19 Paper-II

(1) Void but not punishable

(2) Valid and not punishable

(3) Void and Punishable

(4) Valid but Punishable

(b) Four years imprisonment of the husband.

(c) Husband has treated her with cruelty.

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (b), (d), (c) and (a)

(3) (d), (c), (b) and (a)

(4) (a), (d), (b) and (c)

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false but (R) is correct

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 20 Paper-II

(2) (b), (d), (c) •ÊÒ⁄ (a)

(3) (d), (c), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (a)

(4) (a), (d), (b) •ÊÒ⁄ (c)

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 22 Paper-II

41. ŸËø ÁŒ∞ ª∞ ∑Í ≈ ∑ Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄ ŒËÁ¡∞ —

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 23 Paper-II

44. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 24 Paper-II

44. ÁŸêŸÁ‹ÁπÃ ∑ ÕŸ/∑ ÕŸÊ¥ ◊¥ ‚ ∑ ÊÒŸ-‚Ê/‚ ‚„Ë „Ò/„Ò¥?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 25 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 26 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 27 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 28 Paper-II

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 29 Paper-II

53. Which of the following case is not related to ‘Remoteness of Damage’ ?

J-05818 !J-05818-PAPER-II! 30 Paper-II