5. The threshold for levy of GST is a turnover of Rs.

: a) 50 lakhs

Q.6. For a taxpayer who conducts business in a northeastern State of India the
threshold is Rs.: b) 5,00,000

Q.7. The Amendment Bill suggests levy of GST on all goods and services, except: a)
Alcohol

Q.8. The tax is levied as Dual GST by the Centre: b) CGST

Q.9. The tax is levied as Dual GST by the State: a) SGST

Q.10.The tax is levied as Dual GST by the Union Territories: c) UTGST

Q.11.The tax is levied as Dual GST by the Centre as inter-state sale d) IGST

Q.12.GSTN stands for b) Goods and Services Tax Network

Q.13.Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) was set up as a private company by
the Government under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 a) 2013

Q.14.GST is applicable on the c) Supply

of goods and services:

Q.15.Taxpayers with an aggregate turnover in a financial year would be exempt

from tax up to Rs. : c) 30 lakhs

Q.16.Composition levy in case of restaurants is: b) 2.5%

Q.17.HSN stands for a) Harmonized System of Nomenclature

Q.18.Taxpayers whose turnover is above Rs. 1.5 crores but below Rs. 5 crores
shall use digit HSN code: b) 2

Q.19.Taxpayers whose turnover is Rs. 5 crores and above shall use digit HSN code:
d) 4
Q.20.SPV stands for: a) Special Purpose Vehicle

Q.21.The Goods and Services Tax was launched at midnight on 1st July 2017 by b)
Pranab Mukharjee and Narendra Modi

Q.22.There are around c) 160

countries in the world that have GST in place.

Q.23.PM Narendra Modi called GST a: a) Good and Simple Tax

Q.24.The tax launched under the banner of 'One Nation One Tax' is: c) GST

Q.25.Transfer of Property Act: a) 1882

Q.26.Information Technology Act: c) 2000

Q.27.Indian Contract Act: a) 1872

Q.28.Under GST board means: b) CBEC

Q.29.GST Act: c) 2017

Q.30.Supply of goods or services or both which is not leviable to tax under this Act
is: b) Non taxable supply

Q.31.There are States and Union Territories in India. a) 29 and 7

Q.32.The constitution of GST council consist of c) 31 members

Q.33.The chairman of GST council is: c) Finance Minister

Q.34.The chairman of GST council is: c) Arun Jetly

Q.35.The Central Goods and Services Tax bill, Integrated Goods and Services Tax
bill, Union Territories Goods and Services Tax bill and Goods and Services Tax bill
have been passed by the Lok Sabha on a) 29' March 2017

Q.36.The Central Goods and Services Tax bill, Integrated Goods and Services Tax
bill, Union Territories Goods and Services Tax bill and Goods and Services Tax bill
have been passed by the Rajya Sabha on a) 6' April 2017

Q.37.GST on gold is: b) 3%

Q.38.Education cess is: b) 2%

Q.39.Swachh Bharat cess is: a) 0.5%

Q.40.The tax rate b) 12.5%

% with input tax credit is being imposed on Jewelers.

Q.41.Special additional duty of custom on goods imported is: d) 4%

Q.42.As per the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to State) Act 2017,
compensation cess would be levied for a period of years from implementation. a)
3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

Q.43.GST cess is a compensation cess levied under section of The Goods and
Services Tax (Compensation to State) Act 2017. a) 8

Q.44.GST rates on items were approved at the 14" GST Council meeting held at
Srinagar on 18' and 19th of May 2017. c) 1211

Q.45.The Central Board of Excise and Customs constituted under the Central
Boards of Revenue Act: c) 1963

Q.46.UIN stands for: a) Unique Identity Number

Q.47.Motor vehicle act (E way bill): b) 1988

Q.48.In relation to a person, shall mean receipt of goods or services or both
whether by purchase, acquisition or any other means with or without
consideration is: c) Inward supply

Q.49.ISD stands for: a) Input Service Distributor

Q.50.VMI stands for: b) Vendor Managed Inventory

Q.51.Small businesses having all India aggregate turnovers below Rs. not register.
b) 20 lakhs

Q.52.GSTIN stands for: d) Goods and Services Tax Identification Number

Q.53.GSTIN is having: c) 15 digits

Q.54.The first 2 digits of the GSTIN are for: a) State code

Q.55.The middle 10 digits of the GSTIN are for: b) PAN number

Q.56.The second last 2 digits of the GSTIN are for: c) Entity code

Q.57.The last digit of the GSTIN is the: d) Check sum number

0.58.A person is one who has a registered business in some State in India, but
wants tc effect supplies from some other State in which he is not having any fixed
place x' business is a: b) Casual taxable person

Q.59.A total of c) 30

forms/formats have been prescribed in the GST registration rules (

Q.60.Proper Officer has to cancel the registration within days from the date c' C

application or the date of reply to notice. c) 30

Q. Q.61.Taxpayers with an aggregate turnover of Rs. lakhs would be exempted

from tax. b) 20

Q.62.The tax payer from North Indian states and Sikkim, the exemption would be:
a) 10
Q.63.Any person with the aggregate turnover not exceeding Rs. eligible to pay tax
by composition scheme. c) 75

lakhs shall be

Q.64.Any person with the aggregate turnover not exceeding Rs. _ Iakhs for North
Eastern States shall be eligible to pay tax by composition scheme. b) 50

Q.65.Provisions for tax deduction at source shall apply as notified under the act if
the value of supply under a contract exceeds Rs.: a) 2.5 lakhs

Q.66.The taxpayers who have turnover below 1.5 crores: a) HSN code is not
mandatory

Q.67.The taxpayers who have turnover limit 1.5 crores to 5 crores: b) HSN code 2
digit is mandatory

Q.68.The taxpayers who have turnover limit above 5 crores: c) HSN code 4 digit is
mandatory

Q.69.The taxpayers who have export business only: d) HSN code 8 digit is
mandatory

Q.70.Suppliers liable to be registered where it makes a taxable supply of goods o'

services if its aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds 0: b) 9 lakhs

Q.71.Suppliers liable to be registered where it makes a taxable supply of goods of

services if its aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds (For NE states and
Sikkim) b) 4 lakhs

Q.72.GST registration fee is Rs.: d) Free of cost

Q.73.Penalty for not registering under GST is: a) 10% tax or minimum10,000

Q.74.The rate of tax for manufacturer under GST is: a) 1%

Q.75.The details regarding the outward supply of goods or services shall be
provided in a) Form GSTR 1

Q.76.The details regarding the inward supply of goods or services shall be

provided in b) Form GSTR 2

Q.77.The refund shall be claimed through: c) Form GSTR 3

Q.78.Any person who occasionally undertakes transactions involving supply of

goods or services or both, whether as principal or agent or in any other capacity,
but who has no fixed place of business or residence in India c) Non - resident
taxable person

Q.79.A non-resident taxable person required to filled: b) Form GSTR 9

Q.80.Non-resident taxable person intends to extend the period of registration

indicated in his application of registration, an application in FORM GST REG-11
shall be submitted electronically through the Common Portal: c) Form GSTR 11

Q.81.The non-resident taxable person shall furnish a return in: a) Form GSTR 5

Q.82.The organization must apply for UIN using: b) Form GSTR 13

Q.83.A11 persons having GST UIN are required to file a quarterly return using: a)
Form GSTR 11

Q.84.The state code of Maharashtra under GSTIN is: b) 27

Q.85.As per the 2011 census of India total number of state codes under GSTIN
are: c) 35

Q.86.Every person, other than a non-resident taxable person, a person required

to deduct tax at source under section: a) 51

Q.87.Every person, other than a non-resident taxable person, a person required

to collect tax at source under section: b) 52
Q.88.Application for registration using: a) Form GSTR 1

Q.89.The Permanent Account Number shall be validated online by the common

portal from the database maintained by b) CBDT

Q.90.Appiication for grant of registration has been approved under rule: c) 9

Q.91.Any person having multiple business verticals within a State or a Union

territory, requiring a separate registration for any of its business verticals under
subsection (2) of section: b) 25

Q.92.Cancellation of registration rule is: b) 22

Q.93.Application for cancellation of registration: d) Form GSTR 16

Q.1. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax levied in India on the sale of:
b) Goods and services

Q.2. Goods and services tax are divided into slabs. d) 5

Q.3. GST came into effect from: c) 1st July 2017

Q.4. The President of India approved the Constitution Amendment Bill for Goods
and Services Tax (GST) on: a) 8th September 2016

Q.100. The taxpayer who are exempted from GST registration: c) Agriculturist

Q.101. When does liability to pay GST arise in case of supply of goods? d) Earliest
of any of above

Q.102. What is date of receipt of payment? c) Earlier of (a) and (b)

Q.103. The value of supply of goods and services shall be the: a) Transaction value

Q.104. When can be the transaction value be rejected for computation of value of
supply: b) When the buyer and seller are related and price is not the sole
consideration
Q.105. What deductions are allowed from transactions value? a) Discounts
mention on invoice

Q.106. When does the liability to pay GST arise in case of supply of goods? d)
Earliest of a ,b or c

Q.107. What is time of supply of goods under CGST Act, 2017? d) Earlier of (a) &
(b)

Q.108. What is time of supply of goods liable to tax under reverse charge
mechanism? d) Earlier of a/b/c

Q.109. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to
the voucher is identifiable? a) Date of issue of voucher

Q.110. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to
the voucher is not identifiable? b) Date of redemption of voucher

Q.111. What is date of receipt of payment? c) Earlier of a and b

Q.112. Mr. A supplies goods worth Rs. 24,300 to Mr. B and issues an invoice
dated 25.7.2017 for Rs. 24,300 and Mr. B pays Rs. 25,000 on 30.7.2017 against
such supply of goods. The excess Rs. 700 (being less than Rs. 1,000) is adjusted in
the next invoice for supply of goods issued on 5.8.2017. Identify the time of
supply and value of supply: d) for rs 24,300-25.7.2017 and for rs 700-5.8.2017

Q.113. What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is issued within 30 days
fror the date of provision of service? b) Date on which the supplier receives
payment

Q.114. What is the time of supply of service for the supply of taxable services up
IC Rs.1000 in excess of the amount indicated in the taxable invoice? a) At the
option of the supplier — Invoice date or Date of receipt of consideration

Q.115. How is the date of receipt of consideration by the supplier determined? c)

Earlier of (a) & (b)
Q.116. What is the time of supply of service in case of reverse charge mechanism?
d) Earlier of (a) & (b)

Q.117. What is the time of supply of service in case an associated enterprise

receives services from the service provider located outside India? c) Earlier of (a)
& (b)

Q.118. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to
the voucher is identifiable? a) Date of issue of voucher

Q.119. What is the time of supply of vouchers when the supply with respect to
the voucher is not identifiable? b) Date of redemption of voucher

Q.120. Value of services rendered is Rs. 1,00,000/. Date of issue of invoice is 5th
August 2017.Advance Received is Rs. 25,000/- on 20th July 2017. Balance amount
received on 7th August 2017. What is the time of supply for Rs. 1,00,000/- c) 20th
July 2017- Rs. 25,000/- and 5th August 2017 for Rs. 75,000/-

Q.121. What are different types of supplies covered under the scope of Supply? a)
Supplies made with consideration b) Supplies made without consideration c) Both
of the above d) None of the above Q.122. What are the factors differentiating
Composite Supply & Mixed Supply? c) Both of the above

Q.123. What are the taxes levied on an intra-State Supply? c) CGST and SGST

Q.124. What is the maximum rate prescribed under CGST? c) 20%

Q.125. Who will notify the rate of tax to be levied under CGST? d) Central
Government as per the recommendations of the GST Council

Q.126. What are the supplies on which reverse charge mechanism would apply?
c) Both of the above

Q.127. Which of the following taxes will be levied on Imports? c) IGST

Q.128. Which of the following taxes would be levied on an intra-State supply of

goods or services or both: c) Both of the above

Q.129. Is there any maximum rate prescribed under UTGST? c) 20%

Q.130. supply shall attract IGST? b) Inter-State

Q.131. Is there any ceiling limit prescribed on the rate under IGST? b) 40%

Q.132. What if an e-commerce operator having no physical presence in the

taxable territory, does not have a representative in the taxable territory? c) He
has to appoint a person in the taxable territory for the purpose of paying tax on
his behalf

Q.133. Unless and until notified, IGST shall not be levied on the inter-State supply
of which of the following: c) Petroleum

Q.134. Which of the following is an inter-State supply? d) All the above

Q.135. Which of the following is an intrastate supply? c) Supplier of goods located

in Delhi and place of supply of goods in Delhi

Q.136. Which of the following transaction is inter-state supply of goods involvinc,

movement of goods? b) Location of supplier is in Bangalore and place of supply is
Mumbai

Q.137. Supply of goods in the course of import of territory of India is: d) Inter-
state trade or commerce

Q.138. Which of the following supply involving movement of goods is an intra-

State supply? b) Location of supplier in Karnataka and place of supply in
Karnataka

Q.139. Place of supply in case of installation of elevator is: c) Where the

installation of elevator is made

Q.140. Place of supply of food taken onboard at Delhi for an aircraft departing
fro," Delhi to Bangalore via Hyderabad is: b) Delhi
Q.141. In case of any ambiguity where place of supply of goods cannot be
determined ( as provided in IGST Act, 2106 who will determine the place of
supply? d) In a manner as may be prescribed

Q.142. What is location of supply in case of importation of goods? b) Location of

the importer

Q.143. Real estate agent in Delhi charges brokerage fee to Company a located in
Chandigarh for assistance in getting a commercial property in Kolkata. Which is
the place of supply in this case? d) Kolkata

Q.144. Mr. X a resident from Pune conducts training for employees of P Ltd. being
a registered person under GST based out in Chennai at a resort in Darjeeling. The
place of supply in this case is: a) Chennai

Q.145. Place of supply of service for DTH by ABC Pvt. Ltd. located in Mumbai to
customer in Patna is: d) Patna

Q.146. Mr. X of Hyderabad not having bank account takes a demand draft in
Kolkata from ABC Bank for his visa purpose. The place of supply is: d) Kolkata

Q.147. The provider of AMC service outside India has entered into an agreement
for an aircraft company PQR located in India AMC. The service provider provides
repair service to the aircraft when it was in India. The place of service in this case
is: d) india

Q.148. If XYZ Ltd a company based out of Bangalore, awards online maintenance
contract of its servers located in Mumbai office to Y INC, a company based out of
USA, and as per the terms of the online maintenance X INC shall be required to
perform regular maintenance from USA using Internet, then the place of supply is:
b) Mumbai

Q.149. Mr. Y residing in Ahmedabad appoints an architect in Delhi to provide

Indian traditional home design for his proposed construction at Los Angeles, the
place of supply of service is: a) Los Angeles
0.150. If NM shipping Co. located in Chennai charges ocean freight charges for
transport of goods to California for a customer located in Bangalore, the place of
supply of service will be: b) California

Q.151. Whether definition of Inputs includes capital goods: a) Yes

Q.152. Is it mandatory to capitalize the capital goods in books of Accounts? a) Yes

Q.153. Whether credit on capital goods can be taken immediately on receipt of

the goods? a) Yes

Q.154. Whether it is necessary to capitalize the capital goods in the books of

account. a) Yes

Q.155. The term "used in the course or furtherance of business" means? c) It is

used in the course of business

Q.156. Under section 16(2) of CGST Act how many conditions are to be fulfilled
for the entitlement of credit? a) All the conditions

Q.157. Whether credit on inputs should be availed based on receipt of documents

or receipt of goods: b) Receipt of Documents

Q.158. In case supplier has deposited the taxes but the receiver has not received
the documents, is receiver entitled to avail credit? b) No as one of the conditions
of 16(2) is not fulfilled

Q.159. Input tax credit on capital goods and Inputs can be availed in one
installment or in multiple installments? c) In one installment

Q.160. The tax-paying documents in section 16(2) is: a) Biil of entry, Invoice raised
on RCM supplies, etc.

Q.161. The time limit to pay the value of supply with taxes to avail the input tax
credit? c) One hundred and eighty days

Q.162. Can the recipient avail the Input tax credit for the part payment of the
amount to the supplier within one hundred and eighty days? b) No he can't until
full amount is paid to supplier
0,163. Whether credit can be availed without actual receipt of goods where goods
are transferred through transfer of document of title before or during the
movement of goods? c) Yes, in specific instances

Q.164. Whether depreciation on tax component of capital goods and Plant and
Machinery and whether input tax credit is Permissible? c) Input tax credit is
eligible if depreciation on tax component is not availed

Q.165. What is the maximum time limit to claim the Input tax credit? c) Earliest
of (a) or (b)

Q.166. Proportionate credit for capital goods is allowed: a) For business and non-
business purpose

Q.167. Banking company or Financial Institution have an option of claiming: a)

Eligible Credit or 50% credit

Q.168. Can Banking Company or Financial Institution withdraw the option of

availing actual credit or 50% credit anytime in the financial year? b) No

Q.94.A registered person, whose registration is cancelled by the proper officer on

his own motion, may submit an application for revocation of cancellation of
registration, in: a) Form GSTR 21

Q.95.GST being a tax on the event of: d) Supply

Q.96.Casual taxable persons or non-resident taxable persons have to apply fc•

registration at least days in advance before making any supply. b) 5

Q.97.The tax shall be deducted at source at the rate of payment made to the
supplier. a) 1%

Q.98.The aggregate value of all taxable and non-taxable supplies, exempt supplies
anc exports of goods and/or services of a person is called as c) Aggregate
turnover

Q.99.A person who supplies the products out of his cultivation land is called as: a)
Agriculturist
0.174. Can the unutilized input tax credit be transferred in case of change in
constitution of business? c) Yes, It will be transferred only if there is provision for
transfer of liabilities

.175. Is Input tax fully restricted in case of switchover from taxable to exempt
supplies: a) Yes

Q.176. Is Input tax to be paid in case of switchover from taxable to exempt

supplies: a) Yes, equivalent to the credit in respect of inputs held in stock and on
capital goods held in stock

Q.177. Is Input tax to be reversed in case of supply of capital goods: c) Yes, to

extent of credit taken as reduced by prescribed percentage or tax on transaction
value whichever is higher

Q.178. The time limit beyond which if goods are not returned, the inputs sent for
job work shall be treated as supply: a) One year

Q.179. The time limit beyond which if goods are not returned, the capital goods
sent for job work shall be treated as supply: c) Three Years

Q.180. Principal entitled for input tax credit on inputs sent for job work: a) If
goods sent are returned within one year

Q.181. Principal entitled for input tax credit on capital goods if sent for job work:
b) If goods sent are returned within three years

Q.182. Is the principal entitled for credit of goods though he has not received the
goods and has been sent to job worker directly by vendor: a) Yes

Q.183. In case of ISD whether distributor and recipient should have same PAN: a)
Yes

Q.184. Can the credit distributed by an ISD exceed the amount available for
distribution b) No
Q.185. If credit applicable to more than one recipient, then it shall be distributed:
b) On Pro rata basis to the aggregate turnover of such recipients

Q.186. The credit attributable to a particular recipient shall be distributed to a)

Only to that recipient

Q.187. A person is entitled to take credit of input tax as self-assessed in the return
and credited to Electronic credit ledger on b) Provisional basis

Q.188. Provisional Input tax credit can be utilized against: b) Self Assessed output
Tax liability

Q.189. Matching of Input Tax credit on inward supply by recipient is undertaken

with: b) Outward supply filed by the supplier

Q.190. Is it mandatory that the tax on the supply has to be paid by the supplier so
that the recipient can claim credit? b) Yes

Q.191. If there is Mis-match of supplier's outward supply and recipient's claim for
Input Tax credit on the same transaction: a) It shall be added as output tax liability
in the hands of receiver

Q.192. Input Tax credit as credited in Electronic Credit ledger can be utilized for:
d) Payment of Taxes

Q.193. The details of outward supplies of goods or services shall be submitted by

a) 10th of the succeeding month

Q.194. Details of Outward supplies shall include: d) All the above

Q.195. The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be
furnished to the recipient regular dealer in form: c) GSTR 2A

Q.196. The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be
furnished to the recipient compounding dealer in form: a) GSTR 4A
Q.197. The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be
furnished to the input service distributor in form: d) GSTR 6A

Q.198. Details of Inward supplies shall include: d) All the above

Q.199. Any modification / deletion done by the recipient to the details contained
in Form GSTR 2 shall be communicated to the supplier in: a) Form GSTR 1A

Q.200. The supplier on receiving the communication in Form GSTR 1A shall

accept, reject or modify the details by: c) 17' of the succeeding month

Q.201. Every registered taxable person shall be entitled to take credit of input tax
in his return and such input tax credit shall be credited to: d) Electronic Credit
Ledger

Q.202. The details of every credit note relating to outward supplies furnished by
the registered taxable person shall be matched: c) All of the above

Q.203. Every registered taxable person who is required to get his accounts
audited under section 35(5) shah furnish electronically: d) all of the above

Q.204. The annual return shall be filed by the registered taxable person in form:
b) GSTR 9

Q.205. Find the correct match of annual returns to be filed: d) Compounding

taxable person — Form GSTR 9A

Q.206. Notice to non-filers of return shall be sent in Form: c) GSTR 3A

Q.207. Any registered taxable person who fails to furnish the details and file the
return within the due date prescribed shall be liable to: b) Late fee of Rs. 100 for
every day up to Rs. 5000

Q.208. Which of the following is correct? a) Failure to file annual return within
due date attracts a late fee of Rs. 100 per day up to 0.25% of his turnover
Q.209. A goods and service tax practitioner can undertake the following activities
if authorized by the taxable person: d) All of the above

Q.210. Refunds will not be allowed in cases of: a) Exports made on payment of tax

Q.211. Refund application is to be filed before the expiry of a) Two years

Q.212. A specialized agency of the UNO can claim refund of tax paid on: c) Inward
supply of goods and/or services

Q.213. The applicant is not required to furnish documentary evidence if the

amount of refund claimed is less than: b) Rs 2 lakhs

Q.214. Refund shall not be paid to the applicant if the amount of refund is less
than a) Rs 1000

Q.215. The sanction refund amount can be adjusted against the payments which
he is liable to pay but remains unpaid under the earlier law. d) all of the above

Q.216. The time limit to proper officer to pass final order after accepting the
refund application is: a) Within sixty days from the date of receipt of application

Q.217. Interest on refund amount is required to be paid after expiry of from the
date of receipt of the application. a) 60 days

Q.218. What is the rate of interest to be payable in case of delay in sanctioning

the refund claimed: a) Not exceeding 6%

Q.219. The Tourist can claim Refund of following taxes paid: d) None of the above

Q.220. Tourist means a person: d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.221. Which of the following commodities is not subjected to payment of Export

Duty at the time of export? a) Iron Ore Pallets

Q.222. What is the time limit prescribed under the Customs Act, 2016 as on date
for issuance of demand notice U/s 28 of the Customs Act, 1962 in cases where
fraud, suppression of facts, willful mis-statement is not involved? c) Two Years
Q.223. Which of the following Rules have been substituted with new Rules w.e
01.04.2016? a) Customs (Import of Goods at Concessional Rate of Duty for
Manufacture of Excisable Goods) Rules, 1996

Q.224. What is the quantum of pre deposit for a person filing second appeal
before CESTAT when 7.5% of the duty has already been pre deposited by him at
the time of filing first appeal before Commissions (Appeals)? c) 2.5 % of duty

Q.225. A person can make an application to the settlement commission under

Custom Act? b) Before adjudication.

Q.226. Which of these is/are not an adjudicating authority under Customs Act,
1962? c) Commissioner (Appeals) & Tribunal

Q,227. As per section 11 of the Customs Act, 1962, which of these is a purpose for
which Central Government may prohibit (absolutely or conditionally) the
importation / exportation of any specified goods? d) All of the above

Q.228. Which section of the Customs Act, 1962 provides for levy of Customs duty
on import and export of goods? b) Section 12

Q.229, Where shall an appeal against the Order passed by the CESTAT relating to
the valuation of goods shall lie? b) Supreme Court

Q.230. Under Section 14 of the Customs Act 1962, the transaction value shall be
calculated with reference to the rate of exchange as in force on the date on
which: d) Date of filing the Bill of Entry

Q.169. Any input tax paid on purchase of goods or services by an assessee for
employees is eligible? c) Yes, on the services notified which are obligatory for an
employer to provide to its employees under any law for the time being in force

0.170. A supplier of goods or services pays tax under under section 74,129 and
130 (fraud, willful misstatement etc ). Receiver of goods can avail its credit: a) Yes
0.171. An assessee obtains new registration, voluntary registration, and change of
scheme from composition to regular scheme and from exempted goods/services
to taxable goods/services. It can avail credit on inputs lying in stock. What is the
time limit for taking said credit: a) 1 year from the date of invoice

Q.172. Credit on Input services or capital goods held in stock can be availed in
case of new Registration/Voluntary Registration: b) No

Q.173. Eligibility of credit on capital goods in case of change of scheme from

Composition scheme to Regular scheme: c) Yes, Immediately before the date
from which he becomes liable to pay tax under the Regular scheme

Q.236. Indirect taxes are taxes on a) Consumption

Q.237. Central Excise Act was passed in the year d) 1944

Q.238. The amount payable to the dealer as a sale consideration is a) Sale price

Q.239. A sale of goods with no tax payable is c) Zero rate sale

Q.240. Union list consists of entries. c) 97

Q.241. Levy of tax on Sale of Goods specified in b) Section 3

Q.242. Tax levy on Sugarcane is specified in c) Section 11

Q.243. Purchase tax levy is specified in b) Section 12

Q.244. Article c) 265

of the constitution has laid down the levy and collection.

Q.245. Government from time to time fixes tariff value which is called c) Notional

Value.

Q.246. is the duty levied on commodity produced within the country for sale
within the country. d) Excise Duty
Q.247. means the time at which the goods cleared from the factory. a) Time of
removal

Q.248. A customs valuation rule was imposed in the year d) 1988

Q.249. Customs and central excise rules was passed in the year d) 1995

Q.250. means goods transported by vessel c) Coastal goods

Q.251. are goods which are chargeable to duty. d) Dutiable goods

Q.252. is a tax levied for the special purpose. b) CESS

Q.253. is a tax on using a bridge or a road. a) Toll tax

Q.254. Apex body for administering indirect taxes is: a) Central Board of Excise
and Customs

Q.255. The tax reduces the taxpayers burden on purchasing is b) Income effect

Q.256. Essential for a valid sale requires: a) Transfer of goods

Q.257. No rebate is allowed if the rebate amount is less than: a) Rs. 500

0.258. The unutilized CENVAT Credit can be carried forward upto : d) Without any
time limit

Q.259. CENVAT Credit on inputs other than capital goods can be allowed at: a)
100%

Q.260. Registration is not required if the turnover for SSI units is a) Less than 15
lakhs

Q.261. The period covered by the return is called a Tax period and will cover a • a)
Calendar month

0.262. Captively consumed goods means a) Goods manufactured and consumed

within the factory
0.263. If a tax is based on the sale price of the product it is a) Cascading effect

Q.264. Excise duty should be levied on purposes. a) Revenue

Q.265. A person who neither intends to hold nor holds any title to the goods or
services is called? a) Pure Agent

Q.266. Under Invoice method, tax credit can't be claimed unless and until the a)
Tax Invoice is produced

Q.267. CHA stands for: b) Customs house agents

Q.268. means area of customs station. a) Customs area

Q.231. As on date, the On-Site Post Clearance Audit (OSPCA) has been mad,,
operational by the Board for: a) ACP clients

Q.232. Under what situation, SCN transferred to the call book can be taken out of
ca book? a) When the grounds on basis of which a SCN has been transferred to cal
book, ceases to exist.

Q.233. What is the quantum of pre-deposit for the Department at the time of
filing application (appeal) (w. e. f. 06.08.2014) before the Commissioner
(Appeals):- d) Nil

Q.234. Export Income earned by which of the following type of manufacturing

Unit is normally eligible for exemption from payment of Income Tax under the
Income Tax Act, 1961? c) SEZ unit

Q.235. Under which of the following Export Promotion Schemes, Capital Goods
are allowed to be imported duty free? d) all of the above

Q.260. CVD stands for: b) Countervailing duty

Q.270. Which of the following duties are under the purview of the state? a) VAT

13) The highest rate of tax prescribed under IGST is d) 28%

14) GST comes under which Amendment Bill'? s.) 122

15) Which of the following statement is not correct about GST? b) GST will abolish
all the direct tax levied in India.

16) Which of the following tax will be abolished by the GST'? a) Service Tax

17) GST will be levied on d) All of the above

18) Which of the following good will not be covered under the GST bill? d) All of
the above

19) Which of the following is the main motive of the government behind the
introduction of the Goods and Services Tax b) To increase government revenue

20) Who is the head of the GST council? c.) Arun Jaitley

21) A special purpose vehicle has been launghed to cater the needs of GST. d)
GSTN

22) Coal comes under which GST rate Structure? .b) 5%

23) GST rate on Smart Phones is: c) 12%

24) What is Integrated Goods and Services Tax? b) Tax imposed on interstate
trade.

12) Which of the following requires amendment in the registration certificate? d)

All the above.

13) What is the threshold limit of turnover in the preceding financial year for
opting to pay tax under composition scheme? c) 50 lac

14) Which of the following persons can opt for composition scheme? d) None of
these

15) What is the rate applicable under CGST to a registered person being a hotelier
opting to pay taxes under composition scheme? c) 2.5%

16) What is the rate applicable under CGST to a registered person opting to taxes
under composition scheme, not being a manufacturer or a hotelier? c) 0.5%
17) An Unique Identity Number will be allotted to the following persons upon
submitting an application: c) Specialised agency of the UNO or any multilateral
financial institution or consulate or embassy of foreign countries.

18) Application for GST UIN can be made in form a) GST REG-13

19) GSTIN contain digit. d) 15 digit

20) GSTIN 10 digit covers of a business entity, etc. b) PAN number

Supply includes which of the following d) Goods and/or services

what are the different types of supplies covered under the definition of supply d)
all of the above

what are the different forms supply of goods d) as specified in section 3 of the
CGST act

What are the taxes levied on an intra state supply? c) CGST and SGST

Which of the following taxes will be levied on imports? C) IGST

In IGST_state shall pay the amount equal to the ITC SGST used by the supplier in
the state to centre. a) Exporting state

7) Place of supply of goods when supply involves movement of goods. a) Location

of the goods at the time at which the movement of goods terminates for delivery
to the recipient.

8) Place of supply of goods where the supply does not involve movement of
goods_. b) Location of the goods at the time of delivery to the recipient..

9) Place of supply where the goods are assembled or installed. d) Place of the
such assembly or installation

10) Place of supply where the goods are supplied on hoard a conveyance such as
vessel, an aircraft, a train or motor vehicle. c) Location at which such goods are
taken on board
The default rule of place of supply of services made to a registered person shall be
...a) Location of such person.

12) The default rule of place of supply of services made to any person other than
a registered person if address on record exist shall be_. d) Location of the
recipient.

5) Indian GST model has rate structure. b) 4

6) What does "I" stands for in IGST? c) Integrated

7) How many types of taxes will be in Indian GST? b) 3

8) Which of the following tax is not subsumed in GST b) stamp duty

9) What are the taxes levied on an Intra-State Supply? c) CGST and SGST

10) Which of the following taxes will be levied on imports of goods and services?
c) IGST

11) What is the maximum rate prescribed under CGST? b) 20 %

12) The headquarters of GST council is located at b) Lucknow

the time limit to pay the value of supply with taxes to avail the input tax credit. b)
One hundred and eighty days

2) What is the time limit for taking input tax credit by a registered taxable person?
d) Due date of furnishing of the return under Section 39 for the month of
September following the end of financial year to which such invoice or invoice
relating to such debit note pertains or furnishing of the relevant annual return,
whichever is earlier.

3) Whether credit on input should be availed based on receipt of documents or

receipt of goods. c) Both (a) and (b)

4) Input tax credit on capital goods and inputs can be availed in one instalment or
in multiple instalments. c) In one instalment
5) What is the maximum time limit to claim the input tax credit? c) Earliest of (a)
or (b)

6) Proportionate credit for capital goods is allowed a) For business and non-
business purpose

7) Exempt supplies under Section 17 (apportionment of credit) includes: c)

Exempted supplies, reverse charge supplies, transaction in securities, sale of land,
sale of building.

8) Banking company or financial Institution have an option of claiming: a) Eligible

credit or 50% credit

9) Manner of utilising ITC for payment of IGST d), (i) IGST (ii) CGST (iii) SGST (iv)
Cash

10) If credit applicable to mom than one recipient, then it shall be distributed_. b)
On pro-data basis to the aggregate turnover of such recipients

13) Import/Export is treated as in GST. b) Inter-state supply c) Non-taxable supply

14) Inter-state supplies means: b)- Any supply where the location of supplier and
the place of supply are in different states.

15) IGST is levied and collected is d) Apportioned between centre and states

16) Which of the following supply involving movement of goods is an intra-state

supply? b) Location of supplier in Karnataka and place of supply in Karnataka.

17) Which of the following taxes would be levied on an intra-state supply of goods
or services or both? c) Both of the above

18) The value of supply of goods and services shall be the a) Transaction value

19) The value of supply should include: d) All of the above

20) When can the transaction value be rejected for computation of value of
supply? b.) When the buyer and seller are related or price is not the sole
consideration.
21) What deductions are allowed from the transaction value? a) Discounts offered
to customers, subject to conditions.

21) The due date f furnishing the annual return for every financial year by every
registered taxable pers.., other than ISD, non-resident tax-payer, a person paying
tax under Section 10, 51 or 52 and a casual taxable person is: c) 31st of December
following the end of the financial year.

22) A taxable person failed to pay tax and/or file returns on time. He should pay
interest on a) Gross tax payable

23) From which date interest is liable in case of excess input tax credit claimed?
c) From the due date for filing GSTR-03 of the month in which credit is claimed.

24) Any registered taxable person who fails to furnish the details and file the
return within the due date prescribed shall be liable to: b) Late fee of Z l 00 for
every day upto 5,000.

25) Which of the following is correct? a) Failure to file annual return within due
date attracts a late fee of Z100 per day upto 0.25% of his turnover.

Central Excise Act was passed in the year d) 1944

2) is the duty levied on commodity produced within the country for sale within
the country. d) Excise Duty

3) Excise duty can be levied on those goods which are a) Manufactured in India

Dutiable goods means_. b) Goods are subject to Central Excise duty

5) Place of Removal under Central Excise means_. c) Removing the goods from
the place of factory

6) Non-dutiable goods means . d) Name of the product mentioned in the Tariff Act
with the Zero Rate

7) Which of the following duties is covered under the First Schedule of the Central
Excise Tariff Act? a) Basic Excise duty
8) Which of the following is not correct in respect of prohibited goods? c) Can be
imported against a licence or can be imported subject to certain conditions

9) Which charges are payable to port trust authorities for delay in clearing goods?
b) Demurrage charges

10) FOB means__ C) Free on Board

11) CIF means . a) Cost, Insurance and Freight

12) The effective date for determining the rate of duty in case of prior bill of
entry is- c) The date of entry inward of the vessel

13) STP means b) Software Technology Park

14) CST stands for a) Central Sale Tax

15) Sales Tax is Tax b) indirect tax

16) Central Sales Tax is levied by b) central government

17) CST act apply only c) Interstate sales

18) CST can apply under act a) Central Sale T. Act 1957

19) Tax on intrastate sale is levied by b) State Government

20) The central sales tax is collected in a state where a) The movement of goods
commences

21) The Value Added Tax (VAT) is based on the a) Value addition to the goods

22) How many Schedules are there under the VAT Act? b) Six Schedules

23) Abbreviate ITC. b) Input Tax Credit

24) Which of the following is not a method of computation of VAT, d) Gross

product variant

25) Which of the following is not an advantage of VAT? d) No credit for tax paid
on interstate purchase
26) VAT is calculated by deducting tax credit from tax collected . a). During the
payment period

27) Service tax was introduced in India in the year d) 1994

28) Service is applicable to . b) Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir

29) Service tax is administered by a) Excise Department

30) Service tax is a charge on_. c.) Taxable service provided or to be provided

31) Service tax is an example of a) Indirect Tax

32) The basic objective of service tax is d) All of the above.

33) Service tax (inclusive of cess) rate is_. d) 15%

A person is entitled to lake credit of input as as self-assessed in the return and

credited to electronic credit ledger on: b) Provisional basis

12) Provisional input tax credit can be utilised against_. b) Self-assessed output
tax liability

13) Matching of input too credit on inward supply by recipient is undertaken with
b) Outward supply filed by the supplier

14) The details of outward supplies of goods or services shall be submitted by: a)
10th off the succeeding month

15) Details of outward supplies shall include d) All of the above

16) The details submitted by the outward supplier in Form GSTR 1 shall be
furnished to the recipient regular dealer in Form . c) GSTR 2A

17) The details of inward supplies of goods or services in Form GSTR 2 shall be
submitted by: c) 15th of the succeeding month
18) What is the due data for payment of tax? c) Within 20 days of the subsequent
month

19) The annual return shall be filed by the registered taxable person (other than
dealers paying tax under Section 10) in Form. b) GSTR 9

20) Notice to non-filers of return shall be sent in Form_. c) GSTR 3A

r20 lac „ha„s the dl for registration of reguiar tax_ paye„ c) 1'50 lac b) C75 lac 2)d)
f25 lac a) Normal tax _payer is a person who occasionally supplies goods and
services in a territory. c) Regular to .b) Casual taxable person d) None of above 3)
Aggregate turnover includes the aggregate value of a) All taxable supplies 0.) Both
a and b b) All exempt supplies 4) d) None of above

Any person who occasionally undertakes transactions involving supply of goods or

services or both who has no fixed place of business in India. b) Non-resident
taxable person

5) Which form is to be used for registration? C) Form GST- REG 01

6) Within how many days a person should apply for registration? b.) Within 30
days from the date he becomes liable for registration.

7) A person having business verticals in a State obtain a separate registration for

each business vertical. c.) Multiple, may

8) Where the application for grant of registration has been approved, a certificate
of registration in shall be made available to the applicant on the a) FORM GST
REG-06, Common Portal.

9) Which of the below statements are incorrect in finding out the effective date
of registration? d) Date of issue of certificate of registration.

10) PAN issued under the Income Tax Act is mandatory for grant of registration. d)
Both (b) and (c).

11) An e-commerce operator should get registered irrespective of his threshold

limit? a) Yes