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Veterinary Public Health

1. The ultimate pH of red meat is
A)6.5-7.5
B)5.4-5.6
C)6-7
D)5.8 -6.8
2. Kitten test is used for the detection of
A) Streptococcal toxin
B) Staphylococcal toxin
C)Clostridial toxin
D)Enterobacterial toxin
3. Reference organism used to assess the efficiency of pasteurization of milk is
A) Coxiella burnetti
B) Bacillus sp.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) E. coli
4. Media used for enumeration of yeast and moulds is
A) Brain heart infusion agar
B) Sabouraud dextrose agar
C)Muller hington agar
D)Baird parker agar
5. The efficiency of bleeding in a carcass can be determined by using the test
A) CuSO4 Test
B) Remington Foweri Test
C)Peroxide Test
D)Acid malachite green
6. The liver is a rich source of vitamin
A) Vit. A
B) Vit. B complex
C)Vit. E
D)Vit. C
7. Ropiness in milk is caused by
A Bacillus cereus
B Alcaligenes viscolactis
C Pseudomonas putrefaciens
D Lactococcus lactis
8. Meat unfit for human consumption in Jewish method is
A Terefa
B Schochet
C Kosher
D Schechita
9. A disease that does not produce any overt clinical sign is
A Clinical
B Acute
C Subclinical
Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP
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D Chronic
10. World zoonosis day celebrated on
A June 6
B July 6
C September 28
D December 1
11. Which disease among the following is zooanthroponosis
A Staphylococcosis
B Leptospirosis
C Diphtheria
D Salmonellosis
12. Leptospirosis in dogs is known as
A Stuttgart disease
B Weil’s disease
C Moon blindness
D Perinaud’s occulo glandular syndrome
13. The causative agent of Lyme disease is
A Bartonella henselae
B Borrelia burgdorferi
C Coxiella burnetti
D Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
14. The amplifying host for Japanese encephalitis is
A Monkey
B Lizard
C Pig
D Rabbit
15. Bovine spongiform Encephalopathy is caused due to
A Virus
B Fungus
C Bacteria
D Prions
16. Zika virus is transmitted by
A Culex
B Anopheles
C Aedes
D Ticks
17. Dhobi’s itch is caused by
A Trichophyton cruise
B Microsporum spp.
C Trichophyton pedis
D Epidermophyton spp.
18. The proportion of animals resistant to infection or disease in a population
A Ecological interface
B Eradication
C Herd immunity
D Group behaviour

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19. The functional position occupied by the animal in an ecosystem is

A Biotope
B Home range
C Niche
D Territory
20. Infection transmitted from one segment of the population to another constitute
A Horizontal transmission
B Phase transmission
C Vertical transmission
D Trans-ovarian transmission
21. The stain used for the demonstration of nucleus/ DNA
A Giemsa stains
B Wright stain
C Feulgen stain
D Lactophenol cotton blue stain
22. Following is the component of California mastitis test reagent
A Boric acid
B Teepol
C Resolic acid
D Formaldehyde
23. Earliest recognized carcinogen
A Smut
B Sludge
C Soot
D Dust
24. The ELISA technique was developed by
A Peter Pearlman & Eva Engvall
B Henry Becquerel
C Robert Koch
D Louis Pasteur
25. The causative agent rat-bite fever or haver hill fever is
Streptococcus pyogenes
B Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C Streptobacillus moniliformis
D Capnocytophaga canimorsus
26. Kitchen death is associated with
A Sulphur dioxide poisoning
B Carbon monoxide poisoning
C Nitrous oxide poisoning
D Carbon dioxide poisoning
27. The agent used to tenderize meat

A Iodine
B Glycine
C Tryptone
D Papain
28. The iodine value of goat lard is

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A 76%
B 81%
C 66%
D 54%
29. A chemical method for meat species identification
A Fouchet’s test
B Peroxide test
C Glycogen test
D Sulphide test
30. Mixing vessel for avian influenza virus
A Pig
B Monkey
C Horse
D Mule
31. Permanent hardness of water is due to
A Bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
B Sulphates of Ca and Mg
C Carbonated of Ca and Mg
D Chlorides of Ca and Mg
32. As per EEC regulation, fresh carcass meat and offal should be chilled below
A 5°C and 3°C
B 7°C and 3°C
C 6°C and 2°C
D 2°C and 1°C
33. FSSAI recommendation of maximum permissible limit of DDT in milk is
A 5 ppm
B 7 ppm
C 10 ppm
D 1 ppm
34. Over the rail bleeding time for cattle is
A 5 min
B 7 min
C 6 min
D 8 min
35. The fruity flavour of milk is due to
A Pseudomonas mephitica
B Pseudomonas putrefaciens
C Pseudomonas fragi
D Lactococcus lactis
36. Byssinosis condition is due to inhalation of
A Cotton fibre dust
B Carbon dust
C Pseudomonas Fragi
D Asbestos dust
37. Solid waste arising from sewage treatment plant is called as
A Slurry
B Soot
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C Sludge
D Slink
38. World ozone day is observed on
A September 12
B September 16
C September 13
D September 28
39. The following test is applied for the detection of mastitis in milch animal
A Coomb’s test
B Whit side test
C Antons eye test
D Ascolis test
40. Haemal lymph nodes perform the function of
A Liver
B Spleen
C Kidney
D Heart
41. Prior to slaughter, ante-mortem inspection must be carried out within
A 12 hrs
B 48 hrs
C 24 hrs
D 72 hrs
42. According to Jewish slaughter, the knife used for neck stabbing is known as
A Schochet
B Chalaf
C Talmud
D Schechita
43. Ideal stunning method for pig is
A Electric
B Captive bolt pistol
C Gaseous
D Mechanical
44. Lairage design must accommodate pig and cattle for days
A 5 and 7
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 2
45. Minamata disease is associated with
A Methyl mercury
B Mercuric chloride
C Ethyl mercury
D Mercuric hydroxide
46. Carcass cutting yield is
A Carcass weight / pound of meat x 100
B Pounds of meat / carcass weight x 100
C Kilogram of meat/ animal weight x 100
D Live weight / green weight x100
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47. Average carcass yield of the beef, pig, poultry, and lamb is
A 75, 68, 44, 72
B 62, 75, 72, 45
C 81, 56, 48, 55
D 63, 74, 77, 44
48. Abattoir effluent BOD must be
A 1000-1500 ppm
B 2000- 3000 ppm
C 1500-2000 ppm
D 995-1750 ppm
49. In comparison to the live weight, total byproduct yield from meat animal is
A 70 %
B 60%
C 80%
D 40%
50. Dipple’s oil is obtained from
A Bones
B Nails
C Skin
D Muscles
51. Unborn calf meat is called as
A Venison
B Lamp
C Biltong
D Slink veal
52. Weight obtained after flaying, removal of intestinal contents and other non-
edible parts
A Dressing yield
B Dry weight
C Green weight
D Jerked beef
53. Warble flies produce a condition
A Butchers jelly
B Two toning
C Current jelly
D Ferris wheel
54. A sub-mucous layer of the intestine is used to prepare
A Corned beef
B Ham
C Casings
D Corning
55. Cured and smoked belly of pigs is called as
A Kofta
B Patties
C Ham
D Bacon
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56. Beef fat is known as

A Lard
B Tallow
C Marbling
D Rind
57. Fat of pork is
A Lard
B Tallow
C Flaying
D Marbling
58. Important eating quality of meat is
A Moisture
B Chilling
C Tenderness
D Marbling
59. Drop-in pH of meat during post-mortem glycolysis in muscle is due to the
production of
A Acetic acid
B Vinegar
C Lactic acid
D Hydrochloric acid
60. The meat of horse is known as
A Chevon
B Venison
C Chevalin
D Veal
61. The temperature of water used for sterilization in an abattoir is
A 72°C
B 76°C
C 82°C
D 98°C
62. Black rot in an egg is caused by
A Sporotrichum spp.
B Proteus spp.
C Cladosporium spp.
D Penicillium spp.
63. National Research Centre on Meat is located at
A New Delhi
B Mumbai
C Hyderabad
D Kolkata
64. The egg is deficient in
A Vit. A
B Vit. D
C Vit. C
D Vit. E
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65. The average generation time of bacteria is

A 10 min.
B 20 min.
C 15 min.
D 30 min.
66. Desirable colour of cured meat pigment nitroso-haemo chromogen is
A Green
B Red
C Yellow
D Pink
67. The end product of anaerobic glycolysis in meat/muscle is
A Lactic acid
B Sulphuric acid
C Ascorbic acid
D Hydrochloric acid
68. The iron-binding protein present in milk is
A Lactoperoxidase system
B Lactanin
C Lactoferrin
D Bifidus factor
69. Heat stability of milk is tested by
A Dye reduction test
B Clot on boiling
C Ethanol test
D Alcohol - alizarin test
70. Scarlet fever is caused by
A S.pyogenes
B P. aerogenosa
C S. aureus
D E. coli
71. The causative agent of winter mastitis is
A Clostridium spp.
B Corynebacterium spp.
C Campylobacter spp.
D Saccharomyces spp.
72. Fishy flavour in milk is due to
A Lactococcus lactis
B Pseudomonas fragi
C Proteus icthyosmius
D E. coli
73. Colouring agent used in milk is
A Saccharin
B Starch
C Annatto
D Sucrose

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74. The specific gravity of cow milk is

A 1.031-1.032
B 1.028-1.030
C 1.033-1.038
D 1.024-1.024
75. The typical colour of pork is
A Greyish Pink
B Red
C Brownish black
D Reddish blue
76. Thaw rigor shortening approximates to the original length of muscles to the
tune of
A 70 %
B 88%
C 60 %
D 92%
77. The iodine value of mutton is
A 35-46%
B 71-86%
C 60-70%
D 66-88%
78. Amount of calcium present in 100 ml of milk
A 140 mg
B 118 mg
C 180 mg
D 142 mg
79. The fat percentage of ewe milk
A 8.6
B 5.2
C 4.6
D 3.8
80. Water-soluble pigment present in milk is
A Carotene
B Riboflavin
C Xanthophyll
D Lysozyme
81. The boiling point of milk is
A 100-101 °C
B 99-100 °C
C 100.17-101 °C
D 101-102 °C
82. Test that identifies the presence of neutralizing agents in milk is
A) Iodine test
B) Rosalic acid test
C Picric acid test
D Resorcinol test
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83. The test used to detect adulteration of cow milk with buffalo milk is
A Hansa test
B Baudoin test
C Nitric acid test
D Barfoed test
84. Vanaspati in milk is detected by
A Hansa tests
B Baudouin test
C Nitric acid test
D Barfoed test
85. Antibiotic residues in milk can be detected by
A Iodine test
B Delvotest
C Picric acid test
D Barfoed test
86. Ultra-pasteurization is done at
A 72 °C for 15 sec
B 63°C for 30 min
C 63-65 °C for 15 sec
D 115-130 °C for 2 sec
87. The fat percentage of cream is
A 20 %
B 25%
C 21%
D 28%
88. The fat content of plastic cream is
A 25-30%
B 80-90%
C 30-40%
D 60-80%
89.Commonly used flavouring agent in butter
A Diacetyl
B Monoacetyl
C Acetic acid
D Gelatine
90. Best cheese suitable for pizza preparation is
A Cottage
B Mozzarella
C Cheddar
D Plastic
91. The fat percentage of skim milk is
A 3.5%
B 2.8%
C 0.8%
D 8.5%
92. The temperature used for bacto-fugation is
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A 55-60 °C
B 60-65 °C
C 110 °C
D 135-150 °C
93. The freezing point of evaporated milk is
A -4.5 °C
B -1 °C
C -14.9 °C
D -1.3 °C
94. Vector Control Research Centre is located at
A New Delhi
B Bikaner
C Pondicherry
D Avikanagar
95. Ante-mortem inspection is repeated if the duration of holding food animal
exceeds,
A 6 Hours
B 18 Hours
C 12 Hours
D 24 Hours
96. Very soft water rainwater contains dissolved solids
A 0.00005 %
B 0.000005 %
C 0.0005 %
D 0.005 %
97. The area that drain into a reservoir is known as
A Collection area
B Catchment area
C Attached area
D Draining area
98. Self-purification in river occurs by
A Dilution and sedimentation
B Sunlight, plant and animal life
C Aeration and Oxidation
D All the above
99. The salt content of seawater is
A 7.5 %
B 3.5 %
C 6.5 %
D 2.5 %
100. Deep well taps water from
A Above first impervious strata
B From first porous strata
C Below first impervious strata
D Below second impervious strata
101. Katcha and Pucca wells are examples for

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A Tube wells
B Step wells
C Dug wells
C None of the above
102. The disease of public health significance in areas where people used step
wells
A Cholera
B Guinea worm
C Taeniasis
D E. coli
103. The distance of sanitary well from likely sources of contamination is
A 15 m
B 10 m
C 50 Feet
D Both a & b
104. Sanitary well’s parapet wall height above the ground level must be at least
A 90-95 cm
B 50-55 cm
C 70-75 cm
D 100-110 cm
105. The hardness of water appears to have a beneficial effect against

A Neurological disease
B Musculoskeletal diseases
C Cardiovascular diseases
D Reproductive diseases
106. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in the year
A 1974
B 1978
C 1964
D 1968
107. The optimum period of storage of river water for purification is

A 1-2 days
B 8-9 days
C 3-7 days
D 10-14 days
108. Biogenic amines in food affect the following natural detoxifying enzyme
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B Choline esterase
C MAO/DAO
D Trypsin
109. Depth of supernatant water over the sand bed in slow sand filter is
A 0.5-1 meter
B 2-3 meters

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C 1-1.5 meters
D 3-5 meters
110.Depth of supernatant water over the sand bed in slow sand filter is
A 0.5-1 meter
B 2-3 meters
C 1-1.5 meters
D 3-5 meters
111. Supernatant water of slow sand filter provides a waiting of about

A 1-2 hours
B 12-24 hours
C 3-12 hours
D 24-48 hours
112. Effective diameter of sand grains used in slow sand filter is

A 0.2-0.3 mm
B 0.8-1 mm
C 0.4 -0.7 mm
D 1-1.5 mm
113. Rate of filtration of water in case of a biological filter sand bed surface
A 0.1-0.4 m3/h per m2 sand bed
B 5-15 m3/h per m2 sand bed
C 0.02-0.04 m3/h per m2 sand bed
D 20-25 m3/h per m2 sand bed
114. Ripening of the biological layer/vital layer/schmutzdecke/zoogleal layer means

A Completion of purification
B Time to close down filter plant
C Formation of biological filter
D Removal of biological layer
115. Heart of biological filter is

A Vital layer
B Gravel support
C Filter control
D Under-drainage system
116. Venturi meter regulate the slow sand filter by

A Rate of filtration
B Bed resistance or loss of head
C Rate of oxidation
D Rate of reduction in BOD
117. A derivative of mycotoxin detected in the cow milk is,

A) AFB1
B AFG1
C Ochratoxin M
D Tyramine

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118. The sequence of operations used in rapid sand filtration is A. Coagulation, B.

Rapid mixing, C. Flocculation, D. Sedimentation, E. Filtration
A A, B, C, D, E
B B, A, C, D, E
C D, A, B, C, E
D E, B, C, A, D
119. Time allotted for sedimentation in rapid sand filter is

A 0.5-1 hours
B 8-10 hours
C 2-6 hours
D 12-24 hours
120. Effective diameter of sand grains used in rapid sand filter is

A 0.2-0.3 mm
B 0.8-1 mm
C 0.4 -0.7 mm
D 1-1.5 mm
121. Rate of filtration of water (m3 / m2 / h) through the biological filter is

A 0.1-0.4
B 5-15
C 0.02-0.04
D 20-25
122. Slow-sand filter related statements are wrong?

A Washing by scrapping sand bed
B Loss of head allowed in slow sand filter is 4 feet
C Loss of head allowed in rapid sand filter is 6-8 feet
D None of the above
123. The rapid sand filter removes bacteria to the tune of

A 90-95 per cent
B 98-99 per cent
C 95-96 per cent
D 99.9-99.99 per cent
124. The slow sand filter removes bacteria to the extent of

A 90-95 per cent
B 98-99 per cent
C 95-96 per cent
D 99.9-99.99 per cent
125. Following is a property of chlorine

A Kills vegetative bacterium
B Oxidize certain metal
D All the above
126. Disinfection action of chlorine is predominantly due to

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A Hypo chloric acid

B Hypochlorite ion
C Hypochlorous acid
D Hydrochloric acid
127. Optimum activity of chlorine is exhibited at water pH

A9
B7
C 10
D5
128. Difference between the amount of chlorine added to water and chlorine that
remains at the end of a specific contact period at a given temperature and pH of
water is known as
A Break points
B Residual chlorine
C Chlorine demand
D Super chlorination
129. Contact time of chlorination of water is

A 30 minutes
B 120 minutes
C 60 minutes
D 80 minutes
130. The point at which chlorine demand of the water is met and residual chlorine
appears is
A Break points
B Bleaching
C Chlorine demand
D super chlorination
131. At routine doses, chlorine does not have an effect on

A Spores
B Helminthic ova
C Protozoal cysts
D All the above
132. Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine in water after 1-hour

contact period is
A 0.5 mg/L
B 5 mg/L
C 1 mg/L
D 10 mg/L
133. Paterson’s chloranome measures regulate and administer to the water

supplies the following
A Chloramine
B Chlorine gas
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C Perchloron
D Bleaching powder
134. Loose compounds of chlorine and ammonia are

A Chloramine
B Chlorine gas
C Perchloron
D Bleaching powder
135. Available chlorine in Perchloron or high-test hypochlorite (H.T.H.) is

A 20-30%
B 40-50%
C 50-60%
D 60-70%
136. Type of chlorination suitable for heavily polluted water is

A Break-point chlorination
B Chloramine
C Super-chlorination
D Perchloron
137. Application of Orth toluidine test is

A Detection of chlorine in water
B Detection of calcium in water
C Detection of magnesium in water
D None
138. Sanitization of drinking water by ozonisation requires a contact time of

A 1-5 minutes
B 30-60 minutes
C 10-20 minutes
D 60-120 minutes
139. The dose of ozone required for the ozonation of drinking water is
A 0.5-1 mg/L
B 2-5 mg/L
C 1-2 mg/L
D 6-10 mg/L
140. The operating pressure used in case of reverse osmosis is

A 1-5 bar
B 15-50 bar
C 5-10 bar
D 50-100 bar
141. Reverse osmosis rejects monovalent ions and organics of molecular weight
exceeding
A 10 Dalton
B 100 Dalton
C 50 Dalton
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D 200 Dalton
142. The NEERI is located at

A Nagar Havelli
B Bareilly
C Ludhiana
D Nagpur
143. Available chlorine in bleaching powder or chlorinated lime is

A 23 per cent
B 37 per cent
C 33 per cent
D 43 per cent
144. Halazone tablet contains

A Chlorine
B Amine
C Ozone
D Potassium permanganate
145. Preferred sanitizer for emergency disinfection of water is

A Chlorine
B Iodine
C Ozone
D Radiation
146. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by the addition of

A Na2CO3
B NH3
C Al2CO3
D NaOH
147. Water derived from underground source is called as

A Standing water
B Lotic water
C Juvenile water
D Lentic water
148. Well in which water rises above the level of groundwater due to pressure is
called as
A Shallow well
B Artesian well
C Dug well
D Sanitary well
149. The maximum permissible level of iron in water is

A 0.05 mg/L
B 0.01 mg/L
C 0.3 mg/L
D 0.2 mg/L
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150. The biological oxygen demand of treated effluent water should be

A 250 mg/L
B 500 mg/L
C 300 mg/L
D 30 mg/L
151. Iron bacteria include

A Nitrosomonas
B Crenothrix
C Gallionella
D Both c and d
152. Toxic gas released when plastic is burnt

A) Endosulfan
B Dioxin
C Nitrogen oxide
D Both b and c
153. A disease that spread over a wide geographical area is known as

A) Endemic
B Pandemic
C Epidemic
D Sporadic
154. A disease that has been stamped-out from a region is

A) Exotic disease
B Epizootic disease
C Exotic disease
D Epornithic disease
155. Infection acquired or contracted in hospitals is

A Nosocomial infection
B Contagious disease
C Iatrogenic infection
D Communicable disease
156. The atmospheric zone that contain ozone is

A Troposphere
B Stratosphere
C Thermosphere
D Mesosphere
157. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred in the year

A 1947
B 1997
C 1962
D 1984
158. Unit of decay of radiation is

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A Rad
B Roentgen
C Curie
D None of the above
159. Desirable limit of noise at a calm environment is

A 64 Decibel
B 100 Decibel
C 50 Decibel
D 140 Decibel
160. What is the temperature used for the incineration of a carcass

A 1500 °C
B 1300 °C
C 2000 °C
D 5000 °C
161. The prevention of cruelty to animals was enacted in the year

A 1966
B 1968
C 1962
D 1960
162. Smoke contains higher concentrations of

A Hydrogen
B Nitrogen
C Carbon
D Phosphorus
163. Aerosol as a dispersed form of water is

A Fume
B Fog
C Mist
D Smut
164. Height from the earth surface at which the ozone layer is present
A 20-30 KM
B 70-80 KM
C 40-50 KM
D > 100 KM
165. Carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon produced at meat smoking

temperatures is,
A Polyphosphate
B PVC
C 3,4 Benzopyrene
D Nitrite
166. An imported source of acid rain across the globe is

A Hydrochloric acid
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B Nitric acid
C Sulphuric acid
D Nitrous acid
167. ISO 9000 series applicable to the food supplier is,

A ISO 9001
B ISO 9003
C ISO 9002
D ISO 9004
168. Koster stain is used for the detection of an agent of

A Lyme disease
B Angara disease
C Brucellosis
D Tuberculosis
169. Trade harmonization (Article 3) of SPS agreement conforms to international

standards by,
A Codex
B USDA
C FAO
D WHO
170. Registration of FBO in accordance with the FSSA-2006 is required for

A 50 birds/day abattoir
B Importer
C Multistate retailer
D Exporter
171. Most prevalent udder infection among the dairy cattle is,
A Subclinical mastitis
B Clinical mastitis
C Acute mastitis
D Chronic mastitis
172. The relationship between DO and BOD

A Directly proportional
B Inversely proportional
C Unrelated
D Equal
173. The red data book records

A Species diversity in wetland
B List of threatened animals
C List of water pollutants
D Rate of population decline
174. What is the full form of MAB

A Man and Biosphere
B Man and Biosphere reserve
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C Man and Biosphere Programme

D Man and Biosphere Reserve Programme
175. Identify the mismatch

A Rio convention - Air pollution
B Montreal protocol - Ozone depletion
C Kyoto Protocol - Climate change
D Ramsar convention - Wetland conservation
176. Rainwater should not be stored in the metal container made of

A Iron
B Lead
C Galvanized iron
D Copper
177.Operation flood III was launched in the year

A 1986
B 1992
C 1990
D 1998
178. Curdling of milk occurring without pronounced acid production is

A Sweet curdling
B Curdling
C Acid curdling
D Alkaline curdling
179. In epidemiological investigations, the disease is taken as,

A) Explanatory variable
B Study variable
C Response variable
D Logical variable
180. Following is a psychrophile of milk hygiene significance

A Pseudomonas
B Listeria monocytogenes
C Both a and b
D None of the above
181. Cold sterilization means

A Sterilization at low temperature
B Flash pasteurization
C Sterilization by radiations
D None of the above
182. The term one health was given by

A Rudolf Virchow
B Louis Pasteur
C Calvin Schwabe
D Edward Jenner

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183. Zoonoses transmitted through organ transplantations

A Saprozoonosis
B Xenozoonotic
C Amphixenosis
D Metazoonosis
184. Tularaemia is also known as

A) Ohara disease
B Deer fly fever
C Rat bite fever
D All the above
185. Hanger Rose test is performed for

A Yersiniosis
B Lyme disease
C Cat scratch fever
D Campylobacteriosis
186. Bacterial disease transmitted through a dog bite

A Borrelia
B Capnocytophaga
C Leptospirosis
D Listeriosis
187. A major cause for ozone depletion is

A Organophosphrous compounds
B Chlorofluorocarbons
C Organochlorine
D None of the above
188. Kumis is prepared from

A Goat milk
B Camel milk
C Cow milk
D Mare milk
189. Aging of meat is also known as

A Conditioning
B Ripening
C Maturing
D All the above
190. Carter’s agar is used for the cultivation of species of

A Salmonella
B Streptococcus
C Staphylococcus
D Micrococcus
191. Greening in sausages is due to

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A Pseudomonas fragi
B Lactobacillus viridecens
C Lactobacillus lactis
D Staphylococcus aureus
192. The ICMR recommendation of meat per day/person is

A 40 gm
B 20 gm
C 34 gm
D 50 gm
193. The protein of egg that binds to the vitamin biotin

A Avidin
B Elastin
C Casein
D Actin
194. The factor that tends to aggravate the disease is,

A Precipitating factor
B Predisposing factor
C Enabling factor
D Reinforcing factor
195. Type of biological transmission involving multiplication of agent in the vector

is,
A Propagative
B Developmental
C Cyclopropagative
D Sylvatic
196. Actions and measures that inhibit risk factors constitute,

A Primordial prevention
B Primary prevention
C Secondary prevention
D Tertiary prevention
197. An ecologist who plotted biome diagram of the globe based on rainfall &
temperature,
A de Candolle
B Merriam
C Robert Whittaker
D Reed-Frost
198. A sampling of clinically normal animals in the population

A Active surveillance
B Passive surveillance
C Sentinel surveillance
D Scanning surveillance
199. Acquiring information about an object, area or phenomenon from distance is,
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A Time-series analysis
B Disease forecasting
C Early warning
D Remote Sensing
200. Detection of disease in its early pathogenesis phase so as to better controlled

it constitutes,
A Prescriptive screening
B Strategic screening
C Mass screening
C Diagnostic screening
201. Detection of disease in its early pathogenesis phase so as to better controlled

it constitutes,
A Prescriptive screening
B Strategic screening
C Mass screening
D Diagnostic screening
202. Term ‘zoonoses’ was coined by,

A C.W. Schwabe
B Rudolph Virchow
C D.E. Salmon
D Robert Koch
203. Bovine type tuberculosis is classified under,

A Anthropozoonoses
B Amphixenosis
C Zooanthroponosis
D Both a & b
204. Cyclozoonoses that involve humans as accidental host are referred to as,
A) Obligatory Cyclozoonoses
B Para zoonoses
C Non-obligatory Cyclozoonoses
D Both b or c
205. Metazoonoses type II in addition to one vertebrate host also involve,

A 1 invertebrate host
B 2 invertebrate host
C Trans-ovarian transmission in vector
D Both b & c
206. An example for sapro-metazoonoses is,

A Histoplasmosis
B Ancylostomiasis
C Fascioliasis
D All

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207. Arthropod in which the agent develops and also undergoes cyclic changes is
known as,
A Cyclo-propagative vector
B Biological vector
C Mechanical Vector
D Both a & b
208. Emerging zoonoses is associated with,

A New pathogen
B New host
C New territory
D All
209. Zoonotic transmission of anisakiasis is associated with the ingestion of,

A Crab meat
B Raw sea fish
C Raw pork
D Raw milk
210. The white colour of milk is due to

a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium caseinate
c) Calcium alginate
d) Calcium bicarbonate
211. Name the coolant used in HTST pasteurization

a) Sodium alginate
b) Glycerol
c) Glycol
d) Solid CO2
212. Yellow colour in cow milk is due to

a) Carotene
b) Xanthophylls
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
213. Predominant bacteria of milk is

a) Aeromonas
b) Actinomycetes
c) E. coli
d) Micrococci
214. The blue colour of the milk is due to

a) Low fat
b) Watering
c) E. coli
d) Micrococci
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215. The pink colour of milk is due to

a) Serratia marcescens
b) Geotrichum
c) Rhodotorula glutinis
d) Aeromonas
216. pH of buffalo milk is

a) 6.4-6.6
b) 6.7-6.8
c) 6-7
d) 6.2-6.3
217. Direct exposure of milk to sunlight will lead to

a) Spoilage
b) Ropiness
c) Tallowing
d) Acidity
218. Cooked or burnt flavour of the milk is due to

a) Streptococcus lactis
b) Arcobacter
c) Actinomycetes
d) E. coli
219. Bitty cream is produced by the enzyme

a) Renin
b) Lecithinase
c) Lysozymes
d) Pectin
220. Potato flavour of milk is due to

a) P. graveolens
b) P. mucidolensare
c) Both a and b
221. Sodium alginate is obtained from

a) Aeromonas
b) Streptococcus lactis
c) Macrocystis pyrifera
d) S. diacetylactis
222. Commonly used packaging material for milk is

a) LDPE Food grade
b) HDPE Food grade
c) PE Food grade
d) PP Food grade
223. Rapid test to determine the acidity of milk

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a) Sedimentation test
b) Clot on boiling test
c) Both a and b
224. The specific gravity of milk is determined by

a) Quevennes Lactometer
b) Gerbers butyrometer
c) Hortvet cryoscope
225. Total solids and SNF of milk can be calculated by

a) Richmond Scale
b) Babcock’s Method
c) Fleischmann’s method
d) All the above
226. Ewe milk is used to prepare which cheese

a) Manchago
b) Roquefort
c) Feta
d) All the above
227. Detection of sodium bicarbonate in the milk is done by

a) Formalin
b) Rosalic acid test
c) Resorcinol test
d) Picric acid test
228. The immunoglobulin secreted in milk

a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgE
d) Both a and b
229. How many components of complement are present in milk

a) 10
b) 9
c) 8
d) 7
230. Fucoma test is used to estimate

a) Fat
b) Acidity
c) Alkalinity
d) Specific gravity
231. Quantity of Ice cream to be collected for microbiological analysis

a) 250gm
b) 300gm

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c) 200gm
d) 100gm
232. Agar contains

a) Protein
b) Lipid
c) Carbohydrates
d) All the above
233. Muscle contraction without shortening in length

a) Idiomatic contraction
b) Hypotonic contraction
c) Isometric contraction
d) Hypertonic contraction
234. Disease accounting is best done by estimating

a) Predictive value
b) Antibody assay
c) Rates and ratios
d) Frequency of occurrence
235. Disease and causal factors are examples of

a) Determinants
b) Variables
c) Statistical analysis
d) Risk factors
236. In a herd of 120 deer, 75 have diarrhoea and vomiting within the last 24 hours.
All the animals were normal 48 hours ago. The most likely source for the outbreak
is:
A Exposure to a common source
B An infection propagated in the herd and spread from animal to animal
C A change in the diet of younger animals
D None of the above
237. Early detection (e.g. through screening programs) designed to minimize the
health and economic effects of diseases in a population is known as
a) Primary prevention
b) Secondary prevention
c) Tertiary prevention
d) All the above
238. The length of a quarantine period in disease control is based on the

A Duration of communicability of the disease
B Duration of agent shedding (patent period)
C Incubation period
D None of the above

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239. The ability of a screening test to correctly identify individuals in a population

that are truly free of disease (non-diseased) is a measure of the test’s
a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity
c) Reliability
240. Time series analysis is used to detect

A Temporal trend
B Spatial trends
C False changes in morbidity & mortality
D None of the above
241. Surveillance is referred to as

a) Intensive follow up
b) Monitoring
c) Active disease accounting process
d) Survey
242. The species or environment in which pathogenic organisms are maintained

and upon which the organisms depend for survival is called as
A Clinical carrier
B Vectors
C Incubatory carriers
D Reservoir
243. Etiologic epidemiology primarily concerned with

a) Establishing causal association with environment
b) Forecasting possible causes of a disease
c) Agent – host relationship
d) Identification of an infectious agent
244. The outbreak of disease that occurs irregularly and haphazardly is known as
a) Sporadic
b) Endemic
c) Epidemic
d) Pandemic
245. Practical multidisciplinary coordination to evolve strategies for disease and/or

health management is referred to as
a) Clinical epidemiology
b) Analytical epidemiology
c) Applied epidemiology
d) General epidemiology
246. “Test and slaughter” is a control procedure employed most beneficially in a

disease
a) That is spreading rapidly through a population
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b) In which 50% of the cattle population may be infected

c) With a low prevalence and for which a sensitive and specific diagnostic test exists.
247. Iatrogenic infection means

a) Hospital-borne infection
b) Infection by ingestion
c) Doctor induced infection
d) Infection in-utero
248. Tertiary prevention is known as

a) Prevention
b) Control
c) Vaccination
d) Treatment
249. The latent incubation period is the period between infection and shedding of
the organisms and is usually _____________ the incubation period.
a) Shorter than
b) Longer than
c) Equal to
d) b & c are correct
250. If organisms undergo multiplication process in a vehicle, then the type of

transmission is termed as
a) Propagative transmission
b) Mechanical transmission
c) Developmental transmission
d) Cyclopropagative transmission
251. Epidemiological diagnosis concerned with

a) Whole herd
b) Diseased individual animal
c) Dead animals
d) The population at risk
252. If epidemiology deals with a disease which is still in latency, then it is referred
to as
a) Disaster epidemiology
b) Clinical epidemiology
c) Subclinical epidemiology
d) Predictive epidemiology
253. The important parameters to be considered in a serological test are

a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity
c) False positive and negative
d) All the above
254. A disease which does not produce any overt clinical sign
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a) Clinical infection
b) Subclinical infection
c) Acute infection
d) Chronic infection
255. Studies of disease outbreak in the avian population are called as

a) Epizootic
b) Enzootic
c) Epornithic
d) Epidemic
256. The study of cause, distribution, and control of disease in related to individual
and of inherited defects
a) Genetic epidemiology
b) Field epidemiology
c) Cross sectional epidemiology
d) Environmental epidemiology
257. The proportion of animals that are resistant to infection or disease in the
population
a) Herd epidemiology
b) Landscape epidemiology
c) Cohert study
d) Cross sectional epidemiology
258. Amount of death in a population is given by

a) Morbidity
b) Mortality
c) Infertility
d) Fatality
259. Foci of infection are called as

a) Loci
b) Intensity
c) Nidi
d) Infectivity
260. Part of the animal’s home range that it defends aggressively from invaders is
known as
a) Nidus
b) Foci
c) Territory
d) Biodiversity
261. Which is the smallest spatial unit providing uniform condition for life
a) Biocenosis
b) Niche
c) Biotope
d) Nosoarea

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262. The rain forest is described as-------

a) Megatherms
b) Mesotherms
c) Homeotherm’s
d) Heterotherms
263. Collection of all living organism in a biotope is known as

a) Biocenosis
b) Niche
c) Biotope
d) Nosoarea
264. Blood is added in blood medium agar at the following concentration

a) 5 to 10 %
b) 15 %
c) 20 %
d) 2 %
265. Humidity is measured by

a) Wet bulb thermometer
b) Lux meter
c) Dry bulb thermometer
d) Chlorinometer
266. ------- is an examination of aggregation of units

a) Cross sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Survey
d) Longitudinal study
267. An animal which excretes agents during the recovery period is known as
a) Sympatric animals
b) Convalescent carriers
c) Paratenic host
d) Amplifier host
268. The time between infection and availability of agent in an arthropod vector is
known as
a) Extrinsic incubation period
b) Intrinsic incubation period
c) Generation time
d) Propagation
269. ------- is the quality of disease induction.

a) Virulence
b) Hot spot
c) Pathogenicity
d) Carrier

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270. Man-made ecosystem

a) Biotope
b) Biocenosis
c) Nidi
d) Anthropurgic
271. Host in which agents are transmitted mechanically

a) Paratenic host
b) Primary host
c) Amplifying host
d) Hibernating host
272. Host in which multiplication of agents takes place

a) Paratenic host
b) Primary host
c) Amplifying host
d) Hibernating host
273. An animal which carries an infectious agent to the primary or secondary host
a) Mechanical vector
b) Biological vector
c) Propagative transmission
274. The period of time lapses between infection and shedding of the agent in
parasitic disease is a
a) Eclipse phase
b) Incubation period
c) Latent period
d) Prepatent period
275. The period of time lapses between infection and shedding of the agent in viral
infection is a
a) Eclipse phase
c) Latent period
d) Prepatent period
276. The period of time lapses between infection and shedding of the agent in
bacterial infection is
a) Eclipse phase
c) Latent period
d) Prepatent period
277. The period between infection and maximum infectiousness

a) Incubation period
b) Latent period
c) Generation period
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d) Survival period
278. Nantucket fever is

a) Brucellosis in human
b) Babesiosis in human
c) BSE in humans
d) Anthrax in humans
279. Common vector for babesiosis

a) Hyloma tick
b) Rhipicephalus tick
c) Ixodid ticks
280. Babesiosis can be transmitted by

a) Adult ticks
b) Larvae
c) Nymph
d) All the above
281. Subclinical carrier of babesiosis

a) Dash hound
b) Greyhounds
c) Pug
d) Pomeranian
282. Shaker foal syndrome is

a) Babesiosis
b) Brucellosis
c) Botulism
d) Campylobacteriosis
283. Flaccid paralysis is a sign of

a) Colibacillosis
b) Campylobacteriosis
c) Anthrax
d) Botulism
284. Water-birds with paralyzed necks developed a toxic infectious disease which
is called as
a) Limberneck
b) Ranikhet disease
c) Marek’s disease
285. Infant botulism is caused due to

a) Toxin A and E
b) Toxin B and C
c) Toxin A and B
d) Toxin C and D
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286. The disease associated with consumption of uncooked shellfish

a) Salmonellosis
b) Colibacillosis
c) Listeriosis
d) Vibriosis
287. Primary reservoir hosts for B. burgdorferi are

a) White-footed mice
b) Whitetail deer
c) Both a and b
d) Cloven footed animals
288. The cow infected with Lyme disease will secrete organisms in
a) Milk
b) Blood
c) Synovial fluid
d) All the above
289. The rash produced by a tick bite in Lyme disease is called as

a) Erythema migrans
b) Erythema moniliformis
c) Erythema centralis
d) Erythema marginalis
290. Chemical used for control of snail population

a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Potassium permanganate
c) Copper sulphate
d) Boric acid
291. ‘Bioterrorism’ associated with which disease

a) Brucellosis
b) Anthrax
c) Clostridial infection
d) Both b and c
292. Water content in the body of new-born calf is about

a) 70%
b) 80 %
c) 90%
d) 50%
293. Lumpy Skin Disease reported from India?

a) Never
b) Yes, recently
c) Yes, during 1990s
d) Yes, during 1950s
294. The gold standard test used for identifying Leptospirosis

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a) Compliment fixation test

b) Hemagglutination inhibition test
c) Fluorescent antibody test
d) Microscopic agglutination test
295. Father of meat inspection

a) Ostertag
b) August comte
c) Adam smith
d) Robert bakewell
296. Vegetable oil in ghee is identified by

a) Baudoin test
b) Phytosterol acetate test
c) Phosphorous test
d) Hansa test
297. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy infection in humans is called

a) Schmorl’s disease
b) Wesslsborn disease
c) Creutzfeldt –Jacob disease
d) Grouse disease
298. Ehrlichiosis in dogs is also called as

a) Tracker dog disease
b) Canine haemorrhagic fever
c) Canine typhus
d) All the above
299. Ehrlichiosis multiply in WBC and develops large aggregates called as

a) Morulae
b) Hovel jolly bodies
c) Koch blue bodies
d) Bollinger bodies
300. Giardiasis is also called as

a) Back-packer’s disease
b) Beaver disease
c) Traveller’s diarrhoea
d) All the above
301. CFC’s are responsible for the depletion of….

a) Ozone
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon
d) Nitrogen
302. National Institutes of Nutrition (NIN) to the Government of India has

recommended eggs and poultry meat consumption per capita per annum are
a) 18 eggs and 9 kg of poultry meat
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b) 180 eggs and 0.90 kg of poultry meat

c) 180 eggs and 9.0 kg of poultry meat
d) 180 eggs and 11.0 kg of poultry meat
303. Among the following is the safest source of drinking water….

a) Shallow well
b) Surface water
c) River
d) Deep well
304. Agar acts as a

a) Cathartics
b) Emollient purgative
c) Bulk purgative
d) Osmotic purgative
305. Bacteria that grow at 50-550 C are known as:

A Psychrophiles
B Mesophiles
C Thermophiles
d) Halophiles
306. Seller’s staining technique is used for diagnosis of…..

a) Rabies
b) Brucellosis
c) Listeriosis
d) Tuberculosis
307. Disposable articles are best sterilized by

a) Hot air oven
b) Autoclave
c) Gamma Radiation
d) Alcohol
308. Who is the Architect of Indian Dairy Industry

a) Dr. Kurian
b) Dr. Amrita Patel
c) Shree Parthi Bhatol
d) Mansi Bhai
309. Curdling without pronounced acid production associated with milk and milk
products
a) Sweet curdling
b) Acid curdling
c) Curdling
d) Alkaline curdling
310. Galacto toxins in milk are produced by

a) Streptococci spp.
b) Contact of milk with steel vessels
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c) Contact of milk with copper vessel

d) Serratia species
311. In which disease the post mortem of the carcass is prohibited

a) Haemorrhagic septicaemia
b) Rinderpest
c) Brucellosis
d) Anthrax
312. NDDB was established in the year

a) 1965
b) 1975
c) 1955
d) 1985
313. Immediate test to judge the quality of milk…...

a) Electro impedance method
b) Alcohol test
c) Organoleptic tests
d) Sediment test
314. Clinical features of Lumpy Skin Disease in dairy cows include.

a) Fever that may exceed 41°C
b) Marked reduction in milk yield
c) Enlarged superficial lymph nodes
d) All above
315. Psychrophiles of significance in milk hygiene is/are….

a) Pseudomonas
b) Listeria monocytogenes
c) Both a and b
316. Cold sterilization means….

a) Sterilization at low temperature
b) Sterilization by radiations
c) Flash pasteurization
317. Trichinella cyst can be destroyed by….

a) Salting
b) Smoking
c) Both of the above
318. Scrapie is a….

a) Progressive fatal disease of CNS
b) Disease of young animals
c) The causal agent is antigenic
d) All of the above

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319. Knott’s test is a method to detect which parasite in blood

a) Trichomonas
b) Trypanosome
c) Microfilariae
d) All the above
320. Cold enrichment is required for the isolation of

a) Listeria monocytogenes
b) Erysipelothrix
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Clostridium tetani
321. Bacteria responsible for food poisoning

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Bacillus cereus
d) All of these
322. Satellite growth on a blood agar plate in the presence of Staph. aureus is
characteristic of
a) Pasteurella
b) Haemophilus
c) Actinobacillus
d) Mycoplasma
323. Emaciation in meat is caused by….

a) Inadequate intake of nutrients
b) Pathological conditions
c) Advanced age of animal
d) Over eating
324. Clostridium botulinum secretes toxin under…...

a) Aseptic condition
b) Aerobic condition
c) Anaerobic condition
d) Aerobic as well as anaerobic condition
325. Chlamydia can be stained with following stains except

a) Gram’s stain
b) Macchiavello stain
c) Gimenez stain
d) Castaneda stain
326. Calf hood vaccination is advisable for

a) Brucellosis
b) Salmonellosis
c) Pasteurellosis
d) Neonatal calf diarrhoea

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327. Amul is established in the year

a) 1846
b) 1848
c) 1850
d) 1990
328. The pulsation ratio in milking machine should be kept within the limit of
a) 1: 1
b) 2.5: 1
c) Both a & b
d) None
329. Coagulation of water by the chemical is essential in

a) Slow sand filter
b) Rapid sand filter
c) Boiling
330. The desirable limit of fluoride in water should be (mg/l)

a) 0.2
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 0.6-1.8
331. The BOD of strong sewage is

a) 50
b) 100
c) 300
332. Who is the first chief of VPH in WHO

a) Dr. Kurian
b) Dr. Daniel E. Salmon
c) Dr. Karl F. Meyer
d) Dr. Martin Kaplan
333. Example of algal zoonoses

a) Scrub Typhus
b) Actinomycosis
c) Fasciolosis
d) Protothecosis
334. In Bacillus by which reaction the organisms can be detected in the blood
smear
a) Mac fad yean reaction
b) Zeil Nielsen reaction
c) Ascoli’s precipitation test
d) None of this

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335. Media used for isolation of TB

a) XLD
b) LJ
c) EMJH
d) Blood agar
336. Greenish discoloration of water is due to

a) Iron
b) Organic matter
c) Algal flora
337. The ozone layer is found at the height of

a) 10-20 km
b) 40-50 km
c) 70-80 km
d) 90-100 km
338. Which among the following is an iron bacterium

a) Crenothrix
b) Gallionella
c) Klebsiella
d) Both a and b
339. Incineration of the carcass can be done at a temperature of

a) 600 C
b) 800 C
c) 1300 C
d) 1000 C
340. Circling disease is caused due to

a) Listeria
b) Erysipelothrix
c) Streptococcus
d) Chlamydia
341. The best method for making instrument germ free is

a) Direct flame
b) Boiling water wash
c) Chemicals
d) Autoclave
342. First anti-rabies vaccine was developed by

a) Edward Jenner
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Robert Koch
d) Robert Hook
343. The chief source of Leptospira is

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a) Blood
b) Urine
c) Milk
d) Faeces
344. Spore forming bacteria

a) Bacillus
b) Clostridium
c) Both a and b
345. India ranks in total milk production in the world.

a) Third
b) Second
c) Fifth
d) First
346. The host provides a medium for the larval or asexual phase of the life cycle of
an infectious agent.
a) Intermediate host
b) Final host
c) Obligatory host
347. Yellow fever is transmitted by

a) Ades aegypti
b) Argus
c) Ixodus
d) Simules
348. The zone comprises the ozone layer.

a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
d) Thermosphere
349. Method of carcass disposal are

a) Cremation
b) Burial
c) Flamegum
d) Incineration
e) All the above
350. The term refers to smoke mixed with dust

a) Smog
b) Smuts
c) Soot
d) Mist
351. Rotten egg odour in water is due to

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a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Algae
c) Cyanide
d) Ammonia
352. Standard of ventilation

a) Cubic space
b) Air space
c) Floor space
d) All of the above
353. The test used for the diagnosis of brucellosis in cattle.

a) MRT
b) Coagulation test
c) Hansa test
d) Gmelin test
354. Yellow fever caused by which virus.

a) Flavi virus
b) Lyssa virus
c) Hendra virus
d) Picorna virus
355. The constant presence of a disease or organism in a community

a) Epidemic
b) Sporadic
c) Endemic
d) Panzootic
356. Diseases transmitted from man to lower vertebrate animals called as

a) Zooanthropozoonosis
b) Anthropozoonosis
c) Amphixenosis
d) Saprozoonosis
357. Test for residual chlorine

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Organoleptic
d) Ortho toluidine
358. The term referred to a mixture of smoke and fog

a) Smog
b) Must
c) Sute
d) Mist
359. IMViC pattern of Salmonella is

a. + + - -
b. + - + -

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c. - - + +
d. - + - +
360. Nitrate test of the milk will detect

a) Water
b) Urea
c) Milk powder
d) Ghee
361. Scombroid fish poisoning in man is due to

a) Salmonella enteritidis
b) Morgenella morgani
c) Clostridium Perfingenes
d) Bacillus cereus
362. Starter culture failure in the dairy industry is due to

a) Prophage
b) Macrophage
c) Bacteriophage
d) Karyophage
363. An antiseptic toxic in cat

a) Iodine
b) Cetrimide
c) Cresol
d) Proflavin
364. Rennate used in the preparation of cheese has two main enzymes
a) Rennin and trypsin
b) Rennin and pepsin
c) Rennin and chymotrypsin
d) Rennin and chimin
365. One important pathogen that is frequently isolated from dried milk powders is
a) Shigella
b) E. coli
d) Campylobacter jejunai
366. Gas production in fermented milk is due to bacteria

a) Lactobacillus
b) E. coli
c) Clostridium
d) Streptococcus
367. The commonly used procedure for studying antimicrobial action is

a) Antibiotic disc test
b) Agar diffusion test
c) Biological test
d) Bang ring test

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368. The coliform count in dahi should not exceed

a) 100 /g
b) 10/g
c) 1/g
d) 1000/g
369. Surface discoloration in the form of black spots in cheese is due to an

organism
a) Clostridium
b) Aspergillus Niger
c) Aspergillus flavus
370. Q-fever is caused by the organism

a) Coxiella burnetti
b) Streptococcus uberis
c) Brucella abortus
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
371. Pseudomonas species can be grown on which of the following media

a) Braids parkers medium
b) Kings medium
c) Lactose broth
d) Lees medium
372. Summer mastitis is caused by

a) E. coli
b) Staphylococci
c) Corynebacterium pyogenes
d) Streptococcus agalactia
373. It is an organism which can grow in agar containing bile salts and ferment
lactose
a) Bifidobacterium
b) Lactobacillus
c) Pseudomonas
d) Coliforms
374. The amount of water available in a portion of food is called

a) Bound water
b) Condensed water
c) Water activity
d) None
375. The Mastitis milk

a) has a higher chloride content
b) may not pass alcohol test
c) is more alkaline
d) all the above
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376. Prominent scientist involved in the study of Lacto Peroxidase system in milk
a) Korhonen
b) Juffs
c) Zajac
d) Bjorck
377. Lactoperoxidase content in normal milk is about

a) 2.0-35 micro gram/ml
b) 100-200 micro gm/ml
c) < 0.5 micro gm/ml
d) Nil
378. Enumeration of microorganisms in dairy environment is done by

a) Sedimentation
b) Filtration
c) Electrostatic precipitation
d) All the above
379. Charm test is a method to

a) Detect antibiotic residue
b) Assess the efficiency of detergent
c) Assess the efficiency of sterilization
d) To detect the presence of thermostable enterotoxin in food
380. A biological method employed for detection staphylococcal enterotoxin

a) Thermo-nuclease test
b) Coagulase test
c) Hemagglutination test
d) Sereny test
381. Eijkman's test is used to

a) is to detect inhibitory substances in milk
b) is a test to asses efficiency of sterilization
c) is to differentiate faecal coliforms from non-faecal coliforms
d) for identifying proteolytic psychrotrophs
382. The permitted preservative for ghee is

a) Potassium sorbate
b) Nisin
c) Hydrogen peroxide
d) Beta Hydroxy Anisole
383. The functional properties of detergent are

a) Wetting
b) Penetration
c) Dissolving
d) All the above
384. An organism capable of growing at refrigeration temperature is called

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a) Halophilic
b) Mesophiles
c) Cryophilic
d) Psychotropic
385. The unit of myofibril between two adjacent Z discs is called

a) Collagen
b) Sarcomere
c) Elastin
386. Excessive fat infiltration in muscle fibres is called

a) Steatosis
b) Double Muscling
c) Seam fat
d) Marbling
387. The typical colour of meat from pork is

a) Pink
b) White
c) Greyish Pink
d) Grey
388. The bright red colour development of meat is due to oxymyoglobin is called
a) Ageing
b) Conditioning
c) Bloom
389. Large fat particles coalesce at the end of the sausages to form
a) Nitrite burn
b) Fat cap
c) Warmed over
390. Loss of weight during storage of meat is called

a) Shrinkage
b) Heat loss
c) Weight loss
d) Cold shortening
391. ----------- is the most abundant fatty acid in the animal body
a) Steric acid
b) Glycolic acid
c) Lactic acid
d) Oleic acid
392. Mold formation is common in

a) Dried meat
b) Chilled meat

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c) Freeze meat
393. Process of freeze-drying called

a) Lyophilisation
b) Curarisation
c) Radurization
d) Radapperization
394. The musky odour is seen in

a) Buffalo meat
b) Chevon
c) Pork
d) Beef
395. The Dressing % of veal

a) 70%
b) 83%
c) 63%
d) 52%
396. Giblet consisting of

a) Heart
b) liver
c) gizzard
d) All the above
397. Canned meat products have a self-life of

a) 1 year
b) 2 year
c) 3 year
d) 4 year
398.-------------- is an artificial meat-tenderizing agent

a) Cathepsins
b) Papain
c) Iron
d) Nicin
399. Refrigerants are liquids or liquefied gases with low

a) Boiling point
b) Density
c) Freezing point
d) Melting point
400. ------------------- is an important eating quality of meat

a) Moisture
b) Chilling
c) Tenderness
d) Marbling

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401. In meat curing, Sodium ascorbate is used as a ---------------agent

a) Flavoring
b) Colouring
c) Oxidizing
d) Reducing
402. _________ is used to measure air velocity in mechanical refrigeration of meat

a) Hygrometer
b) Anemometer
c) Thermohygrograph
d) Psychrometer
403. In India, the working of slaughter is governed under the law _________
a) MFPO
b) PFA
c) AGMARK
d) ISO
404. Deonar abattoir situated at _______

a) Chennai
b) Delhi
c) Mumbai
d) Kolkata
405. The food quality standards all over the world are maintained as per the
guidelines of ___
a) APEDA
b) OIE
c) ISO
d) BIS
406. National Research Centre on Meat is situated in _______

a) Hyderabad
b) Delhi
c) Mumbai
d) Kolkata
407. ________ is a commonly used antioxidant in foods

a) PAH
b) Sugar
c) BHA
d) Sodium hypochlorite
408. Condensations of water vapor on meat brought out firm cold store into
ordinary room temperature are called _________
a) Drip
b) Whip
c) Sweating
d) Shrinkage
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409. Halothane test has been widely used to identify

a) Incomplete bleeding
b) meat spoilage
c) stress susceptibility test in pigs
d) bruises
410. Cold shortening in beef can be prevented by

a) Quick chilling
b) Irradiation
c) Rapid freezing
d) Electric stimulation
411. Well done meat is cooked to an internal temperature of

a) 58-60 C
b) 66-68 C
c) 80-82 C
d) 100-105 C
412. Pasteurization of eggs is primarily meant for destroying pathogenic bacteria,

especially
a) B. cereus
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) E. coli
d) Salmonella
413. Thaw rigor is caused by the activity of __________ enzyme.

a) Lysozyme
b) Protease
c) ATPase
d) Lipase
414. The desirable colour of cured meat pigment nitroso-hemochromogen is

a) Brown
b) Pink
c) Red
d) Green
415. Cold shortening in muscles occur when the pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a
temperature between
a) -5 to 10 C
b) 0 to15 C
c) -1.5 to -3 C
d) -20 to -30 C
416. ________ instrument is used in measuring the strength of the brine solution.
a) Salinometer
b) Hygrometer
c) Thermometer
d) Lactometer
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417. A can with a normal appearance but one end flips out when the can is struck
against solid object but snaps back to normal under light pressure is referred to
as________
a) Flipper
b) Springer
c) Leaker
d) Overfill can
418. __________ is the main refrigerant used in commercial refrigeration

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Freon
c) Ammonia
d) Sulphur dioxide
419. __________ is the main refrigerant used in commercial refrigeration

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Freon
c) Ammonia
d) Sulphur dioxide
420. Whirling psychrometer is used to measure

a) Wind velocity
b) Specific humidity
c) Radiation
d) Relative humidity
421. IPCC stands for

a) International protocol for climate change
b) Intergovernmental panel on climate change
c) International profile for climate change
d) Indian protocol for climate change
422.Trans placental transmission from mother to offspring occurs in

a) Q- fever
b) Anthrax
c) Toxoplasmosis
d) KFD
423. The scientific management of animal waste is called as

a) Seweology
b) Copronomy
c) Feedlot
d) Engology
424. As per the BIS specification, the coliforms in the ice-cream should not exceed
a) 50/g
b) 90/g
c) 95/g
d) 100/g
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425. Seitz filter is

a) An earthen wear filters
b) Glass filter
c) Asbestos filter
d) Cellulose membrane filter
426. Which among the following is an observational study?

a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case control study
c) Cohort study
d) All the above
427. Gail Borden in associated with invention of

a) Evaporated milk
b) Cheese
c) Condensed milk
d) Yoghurt
428. The recommended maximum level of sound which a person can tolerate
without loss of hearing ability
a) 100 dB
b) 85 dB
c) 80 dB
d) 90 dB
429. Heterogeneous area composed of clusters of interacting ecosystems is called

as
a) Community
b) Landscape
c) Ecosystem
d) Biome
430. The biological productivity of land is measured by

a) Bio-indicators
b) Bio- capacity
c) Bio-monitor
431. The ISO 9000 series applicable to set requirements for the quality system of
the supplier is
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9002
c) ISO 9003
d) ISO 9004
432. ISO 9000 is mainly related to

a) Quality Management system
b) Quality Assurance system
c) Quality Standards system
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d) All the above
433. The permissible limit for turbidity in drinking water is

a) 2.5 NTU
b) 5 NTU
c) 10 NTU
d) 20 NTU
434. Among the following which is major contributor to the global warming
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water vapor
c) Methane
d) Oxides of sulphur
435. Which of the following pyramids can never be inverted?

a) Biomass
b) Population
c) Energy
d) Both a & b
436. The most common and widely distributed air pollutant is

a) Carbon monoxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Cadmium
d) Nitrogen oxide
437. A system of natural ventilation is

a) Exhaust fan
b) Cross end-to-end
c) Air curtain
d) Air conditioning
438. Pollutant associated with the Bhopal gas tragedy

a) Methyl isothiocyanate
b) Chlorinated phenol
c) Nuclear fission
d) Nuclear fusion
439. Solid, liquid or gaseous substance occurring at a concentration injurious to the

environment is
a) Contaminant
b) Pollutant
c) Hazard
d) Risk
440. Variety and variability among living organisms and ecological complexes
determines
a) Natural calamities
b) Greenhouse effect

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c) Biodiversity
d) Climate change
441. Use of naturally occurring microorganisms like bacteria, fungi or plants to

breakdown or degrade toxic chemicals accumulated in the environment is
a) Bioremediation
b) Eutrophication
c) Biomagnification
d) Detoxification
442. Acquiring information about an object, area or phenomenon from distance is

a) Time-series analysis
b) Disease forecasting
c) Early warning
d) Remote Sensing
443. For a given period of observation, the sum of case fatality and survival equals
to
a) One
b) zero
c) Two
d) zero to one
444. Survey or investigation of all animals of the population is called as

a) Counting
b) Epidemiological survey
c) Census
d) Epidemiological investigation
445. Termination of all transmissions of infection by extermination of the infectious

agent through surveillance and containment is known as
a) Elimination
b) Extraction
c) Stamp out
d) Eradication
446. Sequence of stages and operations involved in the production, processing,

distribution, storage and handling of food or food ingredients from the primary
production to the consumption is referred as
a) Food chain
b) Food web
c) Food hygiene
d) Food safety
447. Statistically significant association between the factor and disease which is
consistent with modern concepts of causality was established by
a) Koch
b) Evan

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c) Pasteur
d) Schwabe
448. Metazoonoses type II in addition to one vertebrate host also involve

a) 1 invertebrate host
b) 2 invertebrate hosts
c) Trans-ovarian transmission in vector
d) Both b & c
449. Observation period for an animal suspected for rabies is

a) 60-90 days
b) 90-100 days
c) 10-15 days
d) 20-25 days
450. Live strain of Brucella melitensis used in the vaccine for small ruminants is
a) Strain 19
b) RB 51
c) Rev 1
d) All the above
451. Zoonotic rickettsia responsible for the shinbone fever is

a) Rickettsia rickettsi
b) Rochalimaea quintana
c) Bartonella henselae
d) Bartonella bacilliformis
452. RODAC stands for

a) Random organism direct agar contact method
b) Replicate organism direct agar contact method
c) Replicate organic diffused agar contact method
d) Randomized orientation of disease area control
453. The growth and multiplication of one organism suppress the activity of other
one is called as
a) Antibiosis
b) Synergism
c) Metabiosis
d) Symbiosis
454. Synthetic milk is composed of

a) Urea
b) Detergent
c) Oils
d) All the above
455. Cow milk contains

a) Peroxidase
b) Xanthine oxidase
c) Xanthine dehydrogenase
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d) Methyl sulfoxamide
456. Apo lactoferrin inhibits growth of

a) Klebsiella
b) Salmonella
c) Proteus
d) Pasteurella
457. Gassiness in the milk and cream is due to

a) CO
b) CO2
c) O2
d) Water vapor
458. Ropiness in the milk is due to

a) Alkaligenes viscolactis
b) Achromobactin lacti
c) Flavobacterim tremelloides
d) All the above
459. Wetting agent used in detergents

a) Teepol
b) Sodium lauryl sulphate
c) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
All of the above
460. For acid rinse of stainless-steel plate which component is used

a) HNO3
b) H3PO4
c) HCL
d) H2SO4
461. The meat obtained from wild animals are called as

a) Lean meat
b) Game meat
c) Red meat
d) White meat
462. The signs developed due to electrical stunning are combinedly called as
a) Electric fits
b) Elective fits
c) Electric stimulation
d) Elecroplectic fits
463. After gaseous method of stunning, bleeding will commence in

a) 45 sec
b) 30 sec
c) 20 sec
d) 10 sec

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464. For head only stunning in sheep and calves, how much mA current is required
a) 400mA
b) 300mA
c) 250mA
d) 100mA
465. The colour of vacuum-packed meat is

a) Bluish
b) Greyish
c) Reddish
d) Whitish
466. A can with one end bulged but can be forced back into normal position is
called as
a) Flipper
b) Springer
c) Nitrate swell
d) Blower
467. Fishy odour of spoiled egg is due to

a) Enterobacter cloacae
b) E. coli
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Pseudomonas sp
468. Consumption of fish with high level of histamine in it causes

a) Scombroid poisoning
b) Paralytic poisoning
c) Fish borne infection
d) Ciguatera infection
469. Intramuscular post exposure prophylactic measures for rabies includes

a) Essen schedule
b) Thai red cross schedule
c) Zagreb schedule
d) Both a and c
470. Several ecosystems joined together to form

a) Biocenosis
b) Biotic community
c) Biome
d) Biotope
471. The relationship between polluted water and disease is established by

a) Hippocrates
b) Robert Burton
c) John snow
d) C.W. Schwabe

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472. The BIS, recommended dose of Nitrite in drinking water is

a) 45-50 mg/lit
b) 0-3 mg/lit
c) 1-1.5 mg/lit
d) 50-100 mg/lit
472. The BIS, recommended dose of Nitrite in drinking water is

a) 45-50 mg/lit
b) 0-3 mg/lit
c) 1-1.5 mg/lit
d) 50-100 mg/lit
473. Softening of water is recommended when the hardness of water exceeds

a) 6 m Eq
b) 5 m Eq
c) 3 m Eq
d) 10 m Eq
474. Process of ensuring that food will not cause harm to the consumer when it is
prepared or eaten according to its intended use
a) Food safety
b) Food security
c) Food hygiene
d) Food chain
475. Case fatality rate is

a) Rate
b) Ratio
c) Proportion
476. The ration of the disease in a population exposed to a risk factor, to a

population not exposed to risk is called as
a) Relative risks
b) Odds ratio
c) Prevalence
d) Incidence
477. A public health practitioner may be called upon to estimate the size of
population of
a) Stray dog
b) Foxes
c) Wild animals
d) All the above
478. The amount of residual chlorine remains in swimming pool should be

a) 5 mg/lit
b) 10 mg/lit
c) 1 mg/lit
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d) 3 mg/lit
479. Peroxyl Acetyl Nitrate can cause plant damage at the dose rate of
a) 0.02-0.03 ppm
b) 0.01-0.05 ppm
c) 0.2 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm
480. Among the meat, beef is the richest source of

a) Ascorbic acid
b) Vit. B complex
c) Folic acid
d) Thiamine
481. Frozen storage of beef must be at a temperature of

a) -4 C
b) -12 C
c) -18 C
d) -20 C
482. Corning refers to preservation of beef by

a) Curing
b) Smoking
c) Vacuum packing
d) Canning
483. Protein in the egg that binds with Fe, Cu and Zn

a) Albumin
b) Ova globulin
c) Trans albumin
d) Con albumin
484. The ability of a screening test to correctly identify individuals in a population

that are truly free of disease (non diseased) is a measure of the test’s
a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity
c) Reliability
485. Disease accounting is best done by estimating

a) Predictive value
b) Antibody assay
c) Rates and ratios
d) Frequency of occurrence
486. The length of a quarantine period in disease control is based on the

a) Duration of communicability of the disease
b) Duration of agent shedding (patent period)
c) Incubation period
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487. Margarine is a substitute for

a) Butter
b) Chesse
c) Ghee
d) Curd
488. The ________ test measures the protein content of milk

a) Kjeldahl
b) Mohr titration
c) Mojjonier
d) Babcock
489. GDP stands for

a) Global Domestic Product
b) Gross Domestic Product
c) Gross Density Population
d) Gross Dairy Products
490. The gas used in the manufacture of vanaspati from vegetable oil is
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
491. Most of the foodborne outbreaks following consumption of soft cheese have
been reported to be associated with
a) Yersinia enterocolitica
b) Escherichia coli
d) Listeria monocytogene
492. The motto “Fiat panis” is associated with

a) WHO
b) FAO
c) OIE
d) Codex alimentarius
493. The phenomenon of “hot-cold reversal” is associated with

a) Ciguatoxin
b) Saxitoxin
c) Tetrodotoxin
d) Brevitoxin
494. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of

a) Point source epidemic
b) Continuous epidemic
c) Propagated epidemic
d) Slow epidemic

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495. Meat bone ratio in dressed broiler is approximately

a) 4:1
b) 2: 1
c) 3:1
d) 5:1
496. The quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per
a) ISO
b) APEDA
c) OIE
d) FAO
497. Organ taken for toxic residue analysis

a) Liver
b) Heart
c) Spleen
d) Intestine
498. Representation of disease dynamics using mathematical equation

a) Survey
b) Measures of causal association
c) Sampling
d) Modelling
499. Stormont test is

a) Single intra dermal test
b) Double intra dermal test
c) Short thermal test
d) Sub cutaneous test
500. Essen schedule for post exposure antirabies vaccination

a) 0,3,7,14,28,90
b) 0,3,7,14,28
c) 0,3,7,21,28
d) 0,3,7,14,21,90

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1|P ag e

Veterinary Public Health

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

19. The functional position occupied by the animal in an ecosystem is

27. The agent used to tenderize meat

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

56. Beef fat is known as

65. The average generation time of bacteria is

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

74. The specific gravity of cow milk is

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

105. The hardness of water appears to have a beneficial effect against

107. The optimum period of storage of river water for purification is

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

111. Supernatant water of slow sand filter provides a waiting of about

112. Effective diameter of sand grains used in slow sand filter is

114. Ripening of the biological layer/vital layer/schmutzdecke/zoogleal layer means

115. Heart of biological filter is

116. Venturi meter regulate the slow sand filter by

117. A derivative of mycotoxin detected in the cow milk is,

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

118. The sequence of operations used in rapid sand filtration is A. Coagulation, B.

119. Time allotted for sedimentation in rapid sand filter is

120. Effective diameter of sand grains used in rapid sand filter is

121. Rate of filtration of water (m3 / m2 / h) through the biological filter is

122. Slow-sand filter related statements are wrong?

123. The rapid sand filter removes bacteria to the tune of

124. The slow sand filter removes bacteria to the extent of

125. Following is a property of chlorine

126. Disinfection action of chlorine is predominantly due to

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

A Hypo chloric acid

127. Optimum activity of chlorine is exhibited at water pH

129. Contact time of chlorination of water is

131. At routine doses, chlorine does not have an effect on

132. Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine in water after 1-hour

133. Paterson’s chloranome measures regulate and administer to the water

134. Loose compounds of chlorine and ammonia are

135. Available chlorine in Perchloron or high-test hypochlorite (H.T.H.) is

136. Type of chlorination suitable for heavily polluted water is

137. Application of Orth toluidine test is

138. Sanitization of drinking water by ozonisation requires a contact time of

140. The operating pressure used in case of reverse osmosis is

142. The NEERI is located at

143. Available chlorine in bleaching powder or chlorinated lime is

144. Halazone tablet contains

145. Preferred sanitizer for emergency disinfection of water is

146. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by the addition of

147. Water derived from underground source is called as

149. The maximum permissible level of iron in water is

150. The biological oxygen demand of treated effluent water should be

151. Iron bacteria include

152. Toxic gas released when plastic is burnt

153. A disease that spread over a wide geographical area is known as

154. A disease that has been stamped-out from a region is

155. Infection acquired or contracted in hospitals is

156. The atmospheric zone that contain ozone is

157. Bhopal gas tragedy occurred in the year

158. Unit of decay of radiation is

Compiled By: ABHIJITH SP

159. Desirable limit of noise at a calm environment is

160. What is the temperature used for the incineration of a carcass

161. The prevention of cruelty to animals was enacted in the year