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(a) Lonly (b) 2only (© Both 1and2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 A right circular cylinder of height 10 em and cireular base of radius 5 em is filled to half of| its capacity by water. The eylinder is tilted so that no water goes out of the cylinder. The angle from the vertical by which the cylinder is tilted is (@) not more than 30° (b) not more than 45°, (©) more than 45°, but not more than 60°, (@) not less than 60°, (3A) ‘The average weight of a class is 20 kg. If the strength of the class is increased by 25%, then the average weight of the class gets increased by 1%. What is the average weight of the additional students ? (@) 2050 ke (b) 21-00 kg © 2150 kg @ 22-00 kg ‘Suppose x is the smallest integer greater than 3 such that when it is divided by 6 or 8, the remainder is 3. y is the smallest integer Greater than 2 such that when it is divided by 6 or 8, the remainder is 2. What is x-y ? (@) ) © @ Last year the age of R was three times that of V. At present, the age of R is double that of V. How old is R? (a) 8years (b) 6 years (© Byears @) 4years A circle is divided into four sectors such that the proportions of their areas are 1: 2:3: 4, ‘What is the angle of the largest sector ? (a), 120° &) 125° © 136° @ 1445 mm Brea % ara srqreattede (wre) aT we os Fi Giver (Gere) TER Sgr arm & Pe sear ayuenafeae aia wat weet] 1 at og a Gam & ae wh aad, ys eng AM aK aM eR ort &, Te agrenniceade Hi fsa en @ 7 (a) b) © @ feemr 1H 2 ater et aft 9 eet oh at Paar 21 Reem m1 6 cftee et ate 7 ete ort aA fieaor 8 | Reeat 1 & fron =r some stk feet OE 3 Roar a 25% Roar nH eararatha Peat sar | Reeat TH Aer tte ooh aT SGT FAT a? 15mm 2-0 mm 25mm 30 mm @ ) © @ 3 2 aa fre am a otk BE, we aot € ott Fa fea 21% sg AE 2m A 3 fi weet # AL, a2 aft a3, Fam feed 1:2:3% squad € | aa Bw AR Ee #1, Bo, Ba afk Ba, Feat feed 12:34 aqme #1 aR Bs a aeafae fren = 2,25,000 ®, at Aaa area feet et ? 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A rod with circular cross-section of radius 5 mm is stretched such that its cross-section remains circular. If after stretching the rod its Iength becomes four times the original length, then what is the radius of the new cross-section ? (@) 15mm ) 20mm (© 25mm @ 30mm Container I contains a mixture of 2 liters of oil and 3 liters of water. Container II contains a mixture of 6 liters of oil and 7 liters of water. 50% of the mixture of container I and 25% of| the mixture of container II are transferred to container III. What is the proportion of oil and water in container III? (@) 4:5 (b) 5:4 (@) 13:10 @ 10:18 ‘Two teams named A and B do business together and their shares are in the ratio of| 2:1. Team A has got three members Al, A2 and A3 whose shares are in the ratio of| 1:2:3, Team B has got four members B1, B2, B3 and B4 whose shares are in the ratio of| 1:2: 8: 4. If the actual share of BS is & 2,25,000, then what is the actual share of| A2? (@) %5,00,000 (>) © 4,00,000 (©) © 2,00,000 @ — %1,00,000 ‘The first ten letters of the English Alphabet are used in place of the integers 0, 1, 2, .., 9 respectively. ‘Then what is the value of| BAG ~ ADD + FIG? (@) GFT (6) GAD © GIF @ GE DFRT-AUSN 12, ‘There are four large urns numbered 1 to 4. ‘The number of different ways all the three balls numbered 1 to 3 can be kept inside the. four urns is, @ 7 12 © 27 @ 64 Consider the following number : 85 5° x 61 x 108 x 151? x 12° x 257 What is the number of consecutive zeros at the’ end of the number given above ? @) 50 >) 46 © 37 @ 35 R walks a long distance every Sunday. He walks 2 km towards the north from his house and then turns right; he walks another 2 km and again turns right; next he walks 5 km and turns left; he further walks 2 km and stops. He rests for some time and returns home following a straight route without any turning point. 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(Teta wet (b) erat (Fag) (co) sit wr seb @ Fi S te Rage aa16. The kingdom Plantae as laid down by 21. R. Whittaker comprises which of the following group of plants ? (a) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms (b) Thallophyta, Pteridophyta, Fungi, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms (©) Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms (@ Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms Protista, Monera, Which of the following organelle(s) in an animal cell would have DNA and RNA? (a) Nucleus only (b). Nucleus and mitochondria only (© Nucleus, mitochondria and ribosomes (@) Mitochondria only During photosynthesis, © of the atmosphere is fixed with the help of H,O and sunlight to synthesize carbohydrate and Oz is evolved by the splitting of (@) CO, ) H,0 © Nog @ PO, Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilizers ? (a) Tron (b) Nitrogen (© Phosphorus (@) Potassium Tigers have a shorter small intestine compared to cows. The length of the small intestine differs in various animals depending | on the (a) availability of water in their habitat. (b) size of their mouth cavity, (©) _ kind of habitats where they live. (@) kind of food they eat, DFRT-A-JSN ‘Tyndall effect appears due to which one of the following properties of light ? (a) Reflection of ight () Diffraction of light (© Polarization of light (@) Scattering of light An object is kept at infinity from the position of a concave (spherical) mirror. Which one is not true about the image of the object ? (a) Position of image is at the focus of the mirror (b) Size of image is the same as that of the object, (©) Image is real (a) Image is inverted An electric refrigerator rated 400 W operates 10 hours/day. What is the cost of the energy to operate it for 30 days at & 3-00 per kWh ? (a) = 360 (b)& 3,600 @ =36 @ = 400 ‘The transfer of thermal energy carries which of the following phenomena ? (a) Conduction and convection only () Only conduetion (© Conduction, convection and radiation (@ Only radiation In an atomic gas, the motion of particles (atoms) is governed by the collisions. If the gas is ionized, then the motion of created particles may be mainly governed by (a) gravitational force. () collisions. (©) scattering of particles. (@) electromagnetic particles. force between thefeel a eer aren (gra eT) ST BAT B (@) wa ak aH were | (o) TA a BH SH ATA TET | (Be weret Sik ATTA AGTH | (a) Te a HEH She TTA ETT | Reh ara wT TTY soni 16 8 | Ras ATTA waaghi A ger aarea eM () FE? @ 1 ) 2 © 3 @ 4 sitar A afte H, sree fa, CH, 3 30. aw tie & opt oer 8 et & fat he oo ‘Mn0p(s) + Al (s) —+ Mn () + Al,05 (8) Mn & aiaargs & Mn Ue Het Sera SF fa Al() % feet ata (A dem) A srrerera Beh 7 @ 4 &) 075 © 133 @ 2 frafafaa 4 8 saan veha freer ser) am? () NHC (b) NaCl () KCN (@) NaHSO, DFRT-ASN . 7da, 2019 # ISRO. gH weides % Ae 1s cranes ere tee) wT arg vat en | 3 13 arate AAteeere, Preaferfiad 4 & fire ta 8? @) Fa >) FAI © aae @ 3 wae veer werefee (afordtevera Ft teh H) Breve te Fe, feats te Ger en aT? (a) abefre att apts (bo) HA afte wireTeaT (©) witeeferar aft eats @ eas ak apis . Seats efter 2019 ar yor fea, Prefrea aaa a? (a) aris ag aa & om fal aH saa Fae ) (feet Gea (&n) snes sear ote are wa Fa @ 84 git a waft se % fee wer wafenaran eH aarhtes ‘fre 2020° & at 4, Prafertiad a a aaa "pu at BA? 1. ae em seria far ster 2 | 2 we aera A vet edt (eT) wT cardia 1995 4 fea re aT AS Re mee ae ve a A Se GFA : @) Fa (b) Bat 2 ( 13h 2 at @ atiaa2Gases can be liquefied by (a) reducing pressure and temperature. (©) applying pressure and reducing, temperature, (© reducing pressure ‘temperature, (@ applying pressure temperature. ‘An element has an atomic number of 16, What is the principal quantum number (n) of its outermost electrons ? @ 1 ® 2 © 3 @ 4 How many moles of water would be produced by the complete combustion of one mole of natural gas, CH, in excess of oxygen ? @ a ® 2 © 3 @ 4 Manganese is extracted from Manganese dioxide by reaction with Aluminium as described by the following unbalanced chemical equation : 31. and raising and raising ‘MnO, (s) + Al (s) —> Mn (1) + 1,0; (s) The number of moles of Al (s) required to form one mole of Mn from its oxide is @ 1 () 0-75 © 138 @ 2 Which one of the following aqueous solutions will be neutral ? @ NH,CI (b) Nac @ KCN (@ NaHso, DFRT-AJSN Along with Cartosat-3, 18 commercial nanosatellites were also launched by ISRO in November, 2019. These 13 commercial nanosatellites are from (@) Russia (®) Canada © usa @) Japan ‘The first.ever floodlit test cricket match was played between (a) Australia and New Zealand. (b) India and Bangladesh, (©) Australia and England. (@) England and New Zealand. Which one of the following was the main theme of Defeom India 2019? (a) Information and Communication ‘Technology for improved communication support to forward edges of tactical battle area (b) Communication as a decisive catalyst for jointness (©) . Digital army infrastructure and skilled human resource (@) Technology as a key enabler to overcome military challenges Which of the following statements about “Milan 2020’ is/are correct ? 1, This is an international naval exercise. 2. The first edition of the exercise was held in 1995, Select the correct answer using the code given below : (@) only () Qonly (© Both 1and2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2yp aretigra aga sera set fea 8? 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Preaferftaa 3S fare frarwverren sr Bet BHTe Co seftater (sia ara) @ fara Logis are & ahr am avira Be Pe fer feat eT aT? (a) Mel aareTera (qa) % atest % Fre (bo) Garth (Refer) wees & aetett % fre Co eta Git she atsta (ores) eat idl & faq @) see Fa a ae et anh dadt arch tha, wea Hae eT eT? (a) 18a eared F o © @85. Guru Ghasidas National Park is situated in (@) Uttar Pradesh (&) Madhya Pradesh (©) Chhattisgarh (@) Jharkhand According to the 2019 Global Diplomacy Index. released by Sydney-based Lowy Institute, which country has the maximum diplomatic posts across the world ? (a) USA (b) China (© France (@) Japan In November 2019, authorised capital of] which one of the following public sector units was increased from © 3,500 crore to 10,000 crore ? (@) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (>) Numaligarh Refinery Limited (© National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (@) Food Corporation of India a Kasyasvidhanam) is the motto of (a) Lokpal (b) Election Commission of India (©) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (@ Central Information Commission Gridhah ‘Manu Bhaker excels in which one of the following sports ? (a) Badminton (>) Lawn Tennis (© Shooting (@) Archery DFRT-AISN Recently, thousands of birds were killed in the shoreline of which one of the following lakes of India by the infection of avian botulism, a deadly neuro-muscular illness ? (a) Haflong lake, Assam (>) Sukhna lake, Chandigarh (©) Badkhal lake, Haryana (@) Sambhar lake, Rajasthan OF the following visitors, who compared medieval Vijayanagara with Rome ? (a) Nicola de Conti (b) Afanasy Nikitin (© Domingo Paes (@)Fernao Nuniz The term pahi-kashta refers to which one of the following ? (a) Resident cultivators (>) Landless cultivators (©) Non-resident cultivators (@) Peasants with more than 5 acres of land During the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar, which one of the following practices was introduced in the daily routine of the king? (a) Kornish (b) Jharokha Darshan (©) Zaminbos (@) Sijda During the Mughal period, the word wakil referred to (a) lawyers in the Imperial Court. (b) lawyers in a Civil Court. (©) agents of nobles and regional rulers. (d) None of the above Seydi Ali Reis was a Turkish traveller to India inthe (a) 18" Century. () 14 Century. © 13" Century. (@) 16 Century.preafrfisa a fared 1250 4, we & gues aati 3 wad wea Pega faa Ia a? (@) aie Fash te) setts iret (© Wa aria @ 3.e6. wefte Rem & usta 3, Prafefiad #8 fre Saat (omar) 3 ree ae fear? @ 7 (b) fee (© factar (a) fereuert wrens srrat eT amareia, Baik I FEAT 8 (1575-1605) 4 aT? fa) free wrEaTE oo) wan a om fare (Ge are Sarafa (wart) @ we site wercta (ures) eras 3 ah Parr ag Preston #8 aa ard TET AT? (a) wera are Tag rE (bo) Sater gra TSE ATT (o) Welter A safeera (Pst) af (@) Hreaar ft saftora aah 1857 %& fagte & em, feat chet nist (atereft a) % aflrersit wi cafes Fart 2 (@) Mert srenggre ae me At arn aif Ta DFRT-ASN apt gaidt A Eas Rear (teen) A A feat Hh? (@) Fan ae feeA (© we seh air (a) se TT se a 3 eH mere BT A aera ST area a Peg Fret fea 8? (a) TTS o wa (© rene (a) aie . Rrafarfian # @ ats, ad 1856 - 57% eh Sar wae’ & a & cite a? ae Fe EAGT TE wer Geer gem git . 1910 3th 1913 % ata fares sree oT HAT ar oreanfees Sar? (feat ara (bo) rte ag ate (© igre tie @ GH, we . Preah dere wT fish 3 1915 - 16 & ah cad wee rt ite so ire? (a) are Fie Frere >) Bren aaa Ty ( A%. weet @ att. we46. Who among the following in 1856 has taken the first detailed photographs archaeological remains at Hampi ? @ ) © @ of the Colin Mackenzie Alexander Greenlaw John Marshall SF, Fleet ‘The Vijayanagara Kings ruled in the name of| which of the following Gods ? @ ) © @ Rama Vishnu Vithoba Virupaksha Muhammad = Husayn of Kashmir, (1575 ~ 1605), contemporary of Emperor} Akbar, was a (@) reputed Mansabdar. (b) painter at Court. (© Mughal General. (@) reputed calligrapher. During the Mughal period, the term milkiyat denoted which one of the following ? @ b) © @ Sagirs held by Jagirdars Taras held by Karadars Personal lands of Zamindars Personal property of Mansabdars During the revolt of 1857, who mobilised the headmen of Eighty Four Villages (chaurasee des)? @) () © @ Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah Shah Mal ‘Nana Sahib Rao Tula Ram DFRT-AJSN 51. ‘Who wrote the book of travels called Rihla ? (a) Ibn Battuta (6) ALBiruni (© Shaikh Ali Hazin (@) Abdur Razzaq Which traveller described the postal system Prevalent in India in the medieval period in detail ? fa) ) Abdur Razzaq Ibn Battuta (©) Pelsaert (@ Bernier Who among the following was popularly called Danka Shah in the years 1856 ~ 57? Shah Mal Ahmadullah Shah Zahir Dehlvi @ b) © (@) Ghulam Hussain Who serialized the autobiography called Amar Katha between 1910 and 1931? (a) Binodini Das © rc) @ Girish Chandra Ghosh Rabindranath Tagore M.G. Ranade On whose advice did Gandhiji spend a year travelling around India in 1915 - 16? Bal Gangadhar Tilak Lala Lajpat Rai GK. Gokhale B.C. Pal @) ) © @Page uta uaert aferara, Peferfas 4 & fea siteat @ 2 (a) fara a Tree (>) Siege B Fae (© sean 8 srERETATE @ grange are Hote da Cea Feeh) fea sett F ‘farnfira @ 2 (@) staat b) 10 %eet F (vist H (a). 20 teat F . UNESCO grt Frefeifaa 4 & fina sex fire mera a & faq ata gaeh Bar waren (RTSP)% #4 H Hae at 1g BP wera teary a rarer aH, ataeree aT aaa ag tise wet firerat a? ai ea BT ws sits ). atom aa fea AER Ha ae Frere @ 2 (a) FIST ATR &) eT arK (© fear ark @ aes ar DFRT-AJSN . eamgates tad wet & wet aH arate? Go) sea a antes () Be stent & west (oe trade 8 cartes (a) Went a at . ASEAN (afer a uftreng ag aevonftrea) er eaters sal fea & 7 oer aaie wera frafefar #8 fea aan A sae afta & 2 (a) eee to) afeet (ere) (@ % (Fe) @ fasta (ara) UH wae A BA, sre GA (fSReem), For: fara a Ah feear 8? sorties Bot prorat ssiton oonigen‘The East-West Corridor National Highway connects which of the following ? @ (b) © @ Silchar to Porbandar Jorhat to Jaisalmer Agartala to Ahmedabad Itanagar to Mapusa ‘The railway network in India is di (@) 8 zones. (b) 10 zones. © 17 zones. (@) 20 zones. Which one of the following cities has been recognised ‘as the Regional Tsunami Service Provider (RTSP) for the Indian Ocean region by UNESCO? (a) Kolkata (b) Hyderabad (© Chennai (@) Visakhapatnam In India, the largest reserve of Bauxite is found in (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat (©) Jharkhand @ Odisha ‘The river Volga merges into the (@) Black Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea (©) Caspian Sea (@ Baltic Sea DFRT-AJSN ‘The Trans-Siberian Railway runs from (a) Moscow to Viadivostok. (b) St. Petersburg to Moscow, St. Petersburg to Viadivostok. Moscow to Socki. Where is the headquarters of the ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) located ? (a) Dhaka () Bangkok Kuala Lumpur Jakarta Which one of the following megacities has the highest population ? (@) Delhi () Tokyo (©) Canton (@) Seoul Viticulture is a type of cultivation, largely a speciality of (a) Tropical areas. (b) Mediterranean region, (©) Sub-tropical areas. Semi-arid areas,65. Preafeiiaa #3 Aaah wh, vie A site wea] 68, sera FeTTo Heft arch ad 8? am (wer) Freafeea 8a aaah afte (a) ten wert? — Co) Tyee eater ew eT SA ate oT 3 aaa 100 weet sree THT aT 50 wee gra Fett wh, sere (eta) — carer waa (Sata) BH Rar aren & Fam ara % 2 aranieit sit wa ‘ofafta FART & at ew af gee we et fer BR % cated S fez wr ok sear ate & fore fer aren @ set Sensi gro Aewra sel Fe aT _ReAT | aff A fad a Peat ae atta, afar at Shem agede, Fara ETE ZIT Ai ag FH oat A GE TB? (b) Wea HASTA TET TTB | we wena dag % wes wer are eth (a) sgedq 143K 19 ye eee den & ages we cer see &) saree 16 3th 21 ait wa @ are weet & Afert sera vate Se sree (© syee 4st 21 eee ut @ sys 19 3K 32 . Rrafear st arena A (STEGER) raters Fife : Prefer Ha Maat ww, ta ate] Aaa deter soff aaeer a ae Rear & 2? 2. firral free fiota (a) (a) tet arta 3, sere a ates @) Wea an fost ar arr aa aim] 4 Berar ere via (=) a Aa ere ae a we aw aE BAAR : Co after area Baral % cafe a Tet ae wailed fren ot wart & Mt Ree went (b) 43-261 (©) 3412 (a) 43-12 Bue. USA) % saga (fia), wail arent ot Steet worett et eet @ 2431 DFRT-AUSNOFRT-AJSN Which among the following is a west flowing (@) Testa (b) Tapti (© Subarnarekha (@) Betwa Persons belonging to the third gender category cannot be discriminated against by the State and its institutions. Which Articles of the Constitution support this interpretation by the ‘Supreme Court ? (a) Articles 14 and 19 (b) Articles 16 and 21 (© Articles 14 and 21 (@) Articles 19 and 32 Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Federal System ? (a) Dual citizenship (b) States have equal representation in the Council of States (©) Persons belonging to the all-India services can be dismissed or removed by the States Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts (17-A) 68. Which of the following is an incorrect procedure to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court ? (@) A motion addressed to the President signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or the Chairman, ‘The motion is to be taken up for investigation by a Committee comprising 2 Judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist, ‘The motion is put to vote irrespective of the outcome of the Committee's Report. ‘The motion needs to be passed by each House by majority of the total membership of that House and ‘two-thirds of the members present and voting. Arrange the following chronologically : 1. 44% Amendment Act 2. Minerva Mills Case 3. Amendment to Preamble 4. Kesavananda Bharati Case Select the correct answer using the code given below: (@) 4312 (43-21 © 3412 @ 249470. Prafafad #8 tan we, wea aaa & eaherdt ft veer ar are 8h aie aeF ara? eo) arena 3 date ar fates ae A ae 2 Fae wea Hc AT TARR | atta & ore fateasit Heater saei Ren AT | (© dag & thi ai & ate nie A Fae i, cg wa & form ag sade ae 2 @ wean %& deter % Pet Ries a capafa Fat (sal) et ae eT | . rafter a am, a UH sa at eat ea 8 afta wen 2, sel feet cafe a fe adafie sad fra sat Penta at 8 Far a? (a) Wore (#8re) afer © sae (@) sifraresgear (art at) . Rrafean a aaa om al, ur Brie Te wercraratiers At Sq TeF 8? (@) Fare ose ait fa aH aa da TTA 3s, rea A afea Pr qu aM aa At Sraratien a after a7 da ot asi onaferrat Rr sit ates Sarail 8 ae wh ra A aerate wet afeaer Gat fart of frum stv fist sent get wa ag aft aman, faPraion ae ere ote eh] Srarsii At Sraraten at wien SA da a asa owes 8 aia ea a farts aah Perit oft suftecit & snfrai ik ora A Barat a wftaeT ST 13, Sgr ddd Fo oRadt A fama sea & feu, frefafaa # @ am arin nied fear man? anf or a. ara one tart sarin -aeeattan art Profan 4 8 aaa we ard, ante arnitet wai ag afer ae 8? (a) Tha eae atte TET a A GT ) aa Fe ee © Wa A ge eT @ we a otk dee at te Hong ret wa wh fer fq aR IE ST 5. Farcertta fret ar dada ex, wet Be ary (wert) faeaeia eareeg Baril At sree Hasta argent at ate wen, Peafefars # a. fara um ar sea 8? (q) waa Hh care Gen aT (>) are wae aa (©) SIE ATA (a) Tea ore Far DFRT-AYSN (18-A)DFRT-AJSN Which one of the following does not deseribe the procedure or substance of the amendments. ‘to the Indian Constitution ? (a) The Bill to amend the Constitution has to be laid in any House of the Union Parliament. (b) The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended. (©) In the event of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint session. ‘The President cannot veto a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution. Which of the following best describes a remedy where a person can be commanded to perform some public duty which s/he has refused to perform ? (a) Mandamus (b) Prohibition (© Certiorari (2) Quo Warranto ‘Which one of the following is not a duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (@) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India of| each State and Union Territory that has a Legislative Assembly ‘To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts of the Union and the States To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts kept by any Department and/or| private enterprises To audit and report on the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Union or State revenues (19-A) 78. Which of the following Commissions was set up to recommend changes in the Centre-State relations ? (a) Verma Commission (b) ULC. Banerjee Commission (© Kothari Commission (@) Sarkaria Commission Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens ? (a) To respect the National flag and the National anthem ‘To defend the country ‘To safeguard all property ‘To provide opportunities for education to ‘one’s own child between the age of six and fourteen years ‘Which one of the following aims at correcting regional imbalances in the availability of affordable and reliable healthcare services by augmenting medical education ? (a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (b) Swachh Swasth Sarvatra (© Ayushman Bharat (@) Rashtriya Arogya Nidhiwt -B aftren ateret feck agar oC wan finf wacme Sa & fe|s0. x-BIS HA gar yO ah Sagal H te aria sere ht ATTA BET FA e ? eg ee (@) 20cm ) 30cm © (©) 60cm @ (@) 40em @ ) . ROP % wea @f & fare, fefetad # a fer . Reafefaa Fa sa ws, DFMD = AT ee aH Pe SVT ore ae R 7 A (a) et aterm ware cat @ regis ae (>) yet seat (aa) set art area Se er (HA #1 oT) ©) AAA ore sree foe ghar are @ stata (ad) ar aor (sem) sri FA aia te fact amd & fern #8 ata ew wend, want A ie O% TNT HH eR? a atts aa 8 @ eae da afer se (steer eR) ee eater © ama tag ‘fee @ agg age a . feat ofeifies sam Ht aRfenfa cis ft afrar sik afiea #, aie dt x, frafefan a a . fit aie (ata) St fet aa a orf ° a — a) een, Higtg aT SF eH 3 wa waifin eT ach afte? a SEH Bs mecaqUh Geet a Bee (a) 10 fie . ) 3a sen FH) daft ar age a ear (b) 15 fre © sa sam A aft % eg are F fea on fae (om) aoe & feared & at A 2 armas agen Waa ee @ 25 fire aan a DFRT-A-JSNPART-B PROFESSIONAL SKILLS 76. What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous prisoner on board an. aeroplane ? @ 4 ) 3 © 2 @ 1 Which one of the following is not part of| DFMD? @) (b) Electronic Unit, ‘Lead Curtain (©) Remote Control Unit (@) Cross Piece Which one of the following substances does not belong to class ®B’ fire ? @) ) Molten Sulphur Aleohol (©) Solvent @ =~ Paint A screener should not be doing screening for more than @ () 10 minutes 15 minutes © @ 20 minutes 25 minutes DFRT-AJSN 80. Which one of the following should be the minimum distance between two items going through the X-BIS ? @) 20cm (b) © @ 30 em 60 em 40cm Which one of the following is not necessary for the ROP to be successful ? (a) Maintaining full confidentiality (b) Full strength should be there (©) Good knowledge of area (@ Can move once the convoy starts moving What does TNT stand for? (a) ‘Tri Nitro Toluene (6) Tri Nitro Tartum © @ ‘Tetra Nitro Toluene ‘Thallium Nitrate Tetryl Broadly speaking, the role and responsibility of CISF deployed at an industrial undertaking would consist of which of the following ? (@) Protection of vital installations of the undertaking against attacks, sabotage or other types of damage Prevention of crime against property of the undertaking Collection of criminal intelligence regarding activities of criminals indulging in crime against property of the undertaking All of the abovega. Aaa wh, CHSP a de} ew eae at Hse, fora she ae A fram Seas aT B? era sites Fem ar? G@ 10R # fan ae an wr weieA (a) 1969 ‘Sec veiaa (Pere) b) 1973 o on fi dan & wa ita wt wafer ech wets (Preven) © 95 A han Reh st waist gach & fa (© 1983 (@ 1990 refed 2 ARB, CISF aT weM weETPIeRT ‘Pegs Pra er an? @ 10s dan a ag (a) Aue, fret ®R = — wet co) A eer aah aft fe 2 © AUK, ves @) Rar & viet ae oie aes a 3 ait after area Ft aie ft Bras Be See @ vm ae after gare & ad ae after are frafifaa 3a sea mars sneer & Feast wee a BE 2, CISe& goa wr al SET BT? after agar 3 atl we site sfteter & aiet (a). gas arte wed Fa EE arta eri (araziatl) & wi ow me sts omen fet are 8 ae aH (waa omit (@ Berta sarin te area wig aedisite (agi) DFMD ‘Peer Tar oT H Ba a? (a) & faa tech eH SR A arieaH wegi co) enftaer afte ara Gh arene aeqt (© ute aed, serra seg’ ait are a (>) 55 0 arr Tiiaies frenies © 6aaaa afte (a wife ag, sents aeqd othe are eh a) te faeage veins aft ao ee = ene: wan ga Rresizad wita ot Rea ae ftra (aftefe) sR SAAMI stra rae eae fsa eT fee ? @) 35a DFRT-AYSN (22-A)84, DFRT-AJSN In which year was CISF declared as an Armed Foree of the Union ? (@) 1969 () 1973 © 1983 (@ 1990 Who among the following was appointed the first Director General of the CISF ? (@) ShriP.S. Bhinder (®) Shri Surendranath (© Shri AF, Rustomjee (@ Shri Trinath Mishra Findings of which one of the following Judicial Commissions paved the way for ereation of the cIsF? (a) B. Mukherjee Commission (©) Shah Commission of Enquiry (© Nanavati Commission (@ — Sarkaria Commission What should be the average lux level of the Perimeter lighting at the airports ? (@) 35 lux (>) 55Iux (© More than 6 lux (@) The perimeter should not be lit at all (23-A) What is the prescribed height of the airport perimeter wall ? (@) 10% of wall overhang of 2 ft with concertina coil (b) 8 ft of wall with concertina coil overhang oft 2 (© 96 of wall without any concertina coil (@) - 10 fof wall or fence ‘The perimeter lighting at the airports should be provided on the (@) inner side of the airport along the perimeter road and focusing towards the perimeter fencing/wall top of the perimeter wall focusing outside the perimeter. top of the perimeter road and focusing inside the perimeter. top of the watch-towers focusing outside the perimeter wall. A highly sophisticated Multi-Zone DFMD is capable of detecting (a) metallic items above a set threshold level. (b) metallic as well as non-metallic items. (©) metallic items, non-metallic items, as well as conventional explosives. (@ metallic items, non-metallic items, as well as all explosives including plastic and liquid explosives.. UH AY GRA: ox. wm afta GAY agar Pernt ve cH we a? anfarerai ao aa riots Prete cenfea att 7a Prete are at . Puita ARES agen, NLD eH foo mend aH ae fest % siet 7S BE ABCD caftgar ar van rel H ae tar TART? @ Be &) 1884 © “em @ 36% ace aT CMROV), PE stad amt Kop aft Steet we H eae eT afeg 2 1. ayant 2, aah fife vat & 3, Wael oft effet a Ree ae ee aw wa ax Ba Se GAT (a) Hae 1 site 2 () Faw 2373 © ea isits @ 12383 . MANPADS (Hrra-qarer arg wet wenferai) = a2 (a) era & arg Freee &) aga ag frreneet (© Bara Sh (q Preifia ara) @ sede HS ag FET DFRT-AWSN 95, CISF # ata-8 srt fare #8 SAT CAPFs & sem wanfia ae 8? (a) We ea A wees eB () 3e waa ter wa & Free sre aafie sargeat fT 2 1 (ae waa ten aa @ fre afte sat yaiun ard & fare atthraifira wa & 1 Ga) weer orTa fag a8 LAGS Fat aH 2? (a) farfiaga, variates att Ira cb) ferae, Rewteter afte Feratts werd (o facia Graff & yy (fee) sever SRR (@ sede Ha ate ae oe iat fara ama, dents sie aftciicadta Puree & ai aiga #1 frafafad i a eh uw, I FH TH aafeeiaeratia Parva we & 2 (a) 3h ferret >) sag RET (©) sé faerrat (a) Sag fara Rae « Cory fester & daar A Raa (fafa) areas ga & 2 (a) 03 fer &) 07 er wo 15% (@) 30f&91. A non-linear junction detector is capable of| detecting (a) devices containing semi-conductors. (b) ‘conventional explosives. (©) plastic and liquid explosives. (@_Allof the above According to the prescribed specifications, the NLID should be capable of detecting ABCD cireuit buried under dry soil up to a depth of| at least (@) 12inches (b) 18 inches (©) 24 inches (@) 36 inches A Mini Remotely Operated Vehicle (MROV) should be capable of conducting EOD and surveillance inside 1 aircrafts, 2. passenger terminal buildings. 8. buildings and terminals. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Land 2only (b) 2and 3 only (©) Land 8 only @ 1,2and3 What are MANPADS. Air-Defense Systems) ? (a) Surface to Air Missiles (b) Air to Air Missiles (©) Portable Drones (@) None of the above (Man-Portable DFRT-AJSN 95. What unique feature of the CISF sets it apart from other CAPs ? (a) tis the only armed force of the Union. (b) It is the only force to have its own dedicated intelligence wing. (©) It is the only force whose personnel are deployed to deal with disaster management, (@)__ Itis the only cost reimbursement force. What does LAGs stand for ? (a) Liquids, Aerosols and Gels (6) Liquor, Aleohol_ and substances Glycerine (©) Detonating equipment fitted with delay mechanism (@) None of the above All the airports in the country are classified as Normal, Sensitive and — Hypersensitive airports. Which one of the following is not a hypersensitive airport of India ? (a) Pune airport (b) Jaipur airport (© Chandigarh airport (@) Chennai airport What is the prescribed duration of storage of CCTV recording at the airports ? (a) 03 days, (b) 07 days © 15 days (@) 30 days99. BCAS 9 famaved a mit muclerst (aid ion) at Hears saftey (seftard) Fret 2) fame go wh fae aah shentnetentival Pratits dd RA 7 1. sre fafiror 3 sit aretha swebiofa Sheet (Bas Grex Bah) | 2, aarant Regaegraciea face & war caeht fretitec a MMW see 1 Fe fee me ae a wT a a ae GIG: @ ¥aa1 aaa 2 ait 2a orga (ohihin) & az a art BI ara “Sa werk” (eg are) sraftrat & eee 1 pacers (GhrR) at aes B Ace Se aes AMA F aU TH podem ae ara weet ar Foy a we ca) (a) 3A abet wt ae wea wei & she HI ‘eras sorcerer fer TET | . worse eT aA aftefies te ora zero were (tear we) ot ar Bw aes area are oe Pra aaa A Zehr erat oh ane, 3 at A Praifes are wart 2 (a) ete 03 aft HB or (b) wets 05 anbaat FB 01 (©) seks 10 aTfeat FB on (a) wete 20 aft HB or DFRT-A-JSN . Bite tee aT wore (eT Bes Ts fern) fart Sih a agen Ae-reETATE egret (age) TaR & fore Fram 8 2 (a) 450% 80087 © 12008 (@ 150031 .CISF St aad weet ae Rea get Sa vapat aaftrearftta (Fegan) fap aren en? (a) Rare Parr ) dag Rare (© wag Rare @ Tad mares . Reet UN fies % CISF FI aaa vec ZH, fiea 2a F Aah mg ete tanta aanfsar arate afear 5. Aaa Ba (sree Seer) sear a gee wer #0 & fore cise & siftte st fre ae a ‘rege re a? @ o © (@)99.. The BCAS has mandated installation of body. ‘scanners at the airports. What is/are the technology/technologies prescribed for it by. the regulator ? 1. Back Scatter Technology using ionizing radiation, Millimeter-wave (MMW) Technology using non-ionizing electromagnetic radiation. Select the correct answer using the code given, below : : (a) only () only (©). Both Land 2 (@ Neither 1 nor 2 Which one of the following is the prescribed guideline for conducting pre-embarkation security check of a passenger with prosthetics such as an artificial limb ete. ? (a) On compassionate grounds the Passenger is exempted from sereening. (b) Such a passenger is only screened during “High Alert” periods. (©) The screener in consultation with his: supervisor may take a decision to screen or not, on case to case basis, (Such passengers are not exempted and, will be subject to normal screening. Pat-Down Search is carried out by the screener based on his subjective satisfaction. What are the prescribed norms regarding the number of passengers to be subjected to Pat-Down Search on a continuous random basis ? (a) Ol inevery 03 passengers (b). 01 in every 05 passengers (©) OL in every 10 passengers (@ Ol inevery 20 passengers DFRT-ASN 102, The In-line Hold Baggage System is Prescribed to have a minimum throughput of (a) 450 bags (>) 800 bags (©) 1200 bags (@) 1500 bags ‘The CISF was first inducted for aviation security duties at (a) Delhi airport. (6) Mumbai airport. (© Jaipur airport. (@) Guwahati airport. To which country was the first contingent of the CISF on a UN mission sent ? (2) Mozambique (b) Cambodia (©) Kosovo @ In which year was the mandate of the CISF broadened to provide security to private sector establishments ? (@ 1983 ©) 1996 2000 2009106, stems gen ata der Sa ae (Gita) ee 8 aereh 3 argos ae fee Bratita ste ara we 2 @) wae a a Haw aT (bo) Fars ota Si TS ew AT © We watiaw a @) Wee volta Ort Ha ew a . Raarradt we CCTV FenRtal, ear ghee Fe 2 fer ents tah #2 ae aa Ht wordt Ferrtt eek A werarary Fader (wee ores) & faq aH BI atte (ea) catia (Reig) asta wants ath sifiretaag stata a ee me Ee a RIT a A Be BARE: (@ Faa1 @) Fan isis © Faa2aits @ 123%3 frafafaa BDDs svewi # a sea TG, aeart saaAT BP (a) Giga aA ater aT (SLCV) o Raat © wat ae a (a) Previews are vigae (fEeazt) DFRT-AVSN roo, Reet fame amy me (Fare FE 7e) fea aa wher ae SLcv) Futter pan Preview erat war 8 7 (a) Lkg TNT (Geet wart) (bo) 2kg TNT (Geet Natt) (©) Skg TNT (wae stn) (a) 3kg TNT (aeqt sat) feeh saree gr 2 wire aiken, 1973 & sre are) fasar wren Frege aor wees eee ET], em (a) Wa am ae Frome 3 aH Rem aT aL (owe ae ae ea oA araTETa THI TET fen eT a I (© wane A wm waft & fee | @ Ws wd a H ada a afters gr (3) wre #6 atafer % fee | . Preaferfian #8 atacar um wel we BR? Se sh after % ania, atg oft cafe fe feeft gfera arat ar Frese feat vat B, StsT adi sem, fara (a) Jas wad do (AS) TI (b) Prat afrde & fate oneeit & eta 1 © WRIT) @ Pan (sa) & gta Kt faeh afte at cts sega (ate =e) ser wea ard waa @ tet (Ate we) % eq arte aftr er A as, Prefered HB farm ae eft 8? (a) Pron afieze >) wee wear a fren age a ee Fife wares Feat ran ag erforers BAER ( sarrfa afee @ wer ah‘What is the prescribed average norm for| random selection of hand search of cabin baggage during pre-embarkation security check ? (a) One bag out of every two bags (b) One bag out of every five bags (©) One bag out of every ten bags (@) One bag out of every twenty-five bags The CCTV systems at the airports are installed to ensure 1. effective surveillance of the area. 2 a tamper-proof record, for _any| post-event analysis, 3. live and recorded images. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (@) Lonly (b) Land 3 only (©) and 3 only @) 1,2and3 Which one of the following BDDS equipments is a protection equipment ? (a) Suspect Luggage Containment Vehicle (sLcv) (b) Stethoscope (©) Hook and Line Set (@) Explosive Vapour Detector DFRT-AJSN . What is the prescribed minimum explosive capacity of a Suspect Luggage Containment Vehicle (SLCV) deployed at the airport ? (@) kg TNT (single use) (b) 2kg TNT (single use) (©) 3kg TNT (single use) (@) 3g TNT (multiple use) Every warrant of arrest issued by a court under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall remain in force (@) until itis executed. (b) until it is cancelled by any court. (©) for a period of one month. (4) for a maximum period of 3 months from the date of its issue. ‘Which one of the following is not correct ? Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, no Person who has beén arrested by a police officer shall be discharged except (@) onhis own bond. (b) under the special orders of a magistrate. © onbs (@) upon the completion of trial. Which of the following has the power to pass orders prohibiting any person from repeating or continuing a public nuisance ? (@) A District Magistrate (b) Any Executive Magistrate empowered by the State Government or the District ‘Magistrate in this behalf A Sub-Divisional Magistrate All of the aboveDFRT-AJSN aia, fret ces Sars gre ore Patt safenat & sei a @ om), Bm wi wa Bae veafte gaa gear Psat rar st se ate feet wat aa & fe ah ea a area 8, tt See ae STH FT AAT (wm wetia ares FE BI (arta us are & arava @ avetia BI (oda ae ae aeeh or ae arch oH Taf a arvana 8 wets 8 | @) Beme THe Grae a wea ez | . IPC 1860 1 URI 354A 3 om, ae eter arene a cifea ate Bt Baa 8? (Sac we afte (o) aret TH OT (© yer aan aftend, at @ ean pened AT RATA STR ST THiDA TATA ATA TH woate % faa a, wH safe BR AeA aera 8 |B year a eer 8 fH ae ara, fa aearae Oy ar arte eran 7 &, THe | Fraferfaa 8 amr cH Gina wer ae? @ wart @ se aa A fet, oe ae de enna EST eT @ wet } vam} wa, we area aa werfira EAT a (o fed aa & at Fa am BS ae fret frag an Rae, st sae & orig | (sem) A wer B & ate fh (arg) fare & ae, State dha & wert A waist at a (30-A) aie, ae & awa & at, Heaters FS eat wae? (@) SO ats earfiies % fares TH rT 8 | (>) Ader wr gua SG FH sTTG wT STE a (aah a a wa % farm daft Ft eer, Ste F anfter St gave & sree ae sh wae | @ Fa wae & waa saa ashe Ft ata a aad 2 ae, SI ee are (or) &, FTE ZA, HPA reat et & A a fore Ta ge (A) AR Loa se Ente a Adar @ na (geet) a da 8 a ae Refer Fa AeaT sxe ran a a? (e) srvafiras =are.sin (feeara-tin) (b) Beater ar Sdarh 8 fetta (TH) © fee @ wf we aati ot ai git aftes are aT &, 3% fare afters fare safe, 1947 xan aan aus fata fra en 8? (a) a are we BT BATA TT € 1,000 7H gata an ett co) aa ae aw A BTA AT & 1,000 TH HT gata at SH (©) BME TH H HVAT AC 1,000 TH HI gata at at (@) Hat aww TUTATA MF 1,000 TH HT gaia a at113. Refusal to answer questions asked by a public Servant in exercise of his legal powers, by a Person legally bound to state the truth on that Particular subject is (a) not a punishable offence. () punishable with maximum one month of| imprisonment. (©) punishable with imprisonment for a term extending up to three months. @ punishable with imprisonment up-to six months, 114. Under Section 354A of the IPC 1860, who can be a victim of the crime of sexual harassment ? (@) Only awoman (&) Only aman (©) Both men as well as women (@ Only transgenders 116. ‘A’ sues ‘BY for a libel imputing disgraceful conduct to ‘A’, ‘B’ affirms that the matter alleged to be libelous is true. Which one of the following is not a relevant fact ? (a) Position of parties at the time when the 118, 146. Which one of the following with regards to offence of theft is correct ? (@) Theft is always an offence against ownership. (b) Dishonest intention is the gist of offence of theft, (©) Theft may or may not include moving of Property in order to take the property away, (@) Theft may be of movable as well as immovable properties. » @ carrier, is entrusted by ‘Z' with property to be carried by land or by water, ‘A’ dishonestly misappropriates the property. Which one of the following offences was committed by ‘A’? (a) Criminal breach of trust (®) Dishonest misappropriation of property (© Mischiet @ Thett What is the penalty prescribed under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for a person who ‘commits any unfair labour practices ? (@) Imprisonment up to 2 months or fine up to © 1,000 or both (b) Imprisonment up to 3 months or fine up to © 1,000 or both (©) Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to & 1,000 or both (@) Imprisonment up to 1 year or fine up to libel was published (b) The relations of the parties at the time when the libel was published (©) Particulars of some dispute between A and B about a matter unconnected with the libel (d) Facts of some dispute between A and B which affected relations between them DFRT-A-JSN (31-A © 1,000 or both )rio, afretftes frarg sifefam, 1947 % sega Feet aft sein H Prats Uw wafer ot ow ad a aT raf 3 frm Pre a wer @, A eh & Fee dad a, freon HB stat f? (a) Pefad Hata ae a ee co) afar Bem ore a fe fo Fae pt he me rae wt S fee, agen aa me & ote aaa & aT sagt (@aa) ar TAA eT EAT @ as Gi hem wes ats fe, ag we we ates ert TT oA sagt (aaa) ar TAA eT eT 120, steifies Prag afta, 1947 A aT 7% cane, Fett mm Pararera % rarely softer 3 aud Agi tg ww Gadd a, Frees FA aah 8? () ana 4, ART 15 ae % fore mae oe sare Fara @ (b) fren arent ar stat Pore sarareter % wad agen sad a sara (3) ‘fare ft asa soften & ane nea Peet an area % carats sated 3 wT B apm 20 ad sr agra et @ wea =afe ta Tem #, aaftrend 3 ee eH sat ar sa et DFRT-AJSN aan, went free RT ote whieh aueee aRiaH 3p ania, Seah ween, Peat aifteart & Pater ar 88 aftears & ater & ae TT FE me ante %, se sar & tie HoH safe PART caren TOA A ere Ptr aN sue at weft %, awd fe sa dea % Pris cafe er @ 2awmae &) so8mnae (© w0eHAe @ 2008 ATH tert afer Af oft weet sere afar, farafetra H @ fara oe oy, za Bien 8? (a) Beart Stared afer, 1912 %& ania tiga HE sh eas (siftrara) Jet 50 afiedi @ aa cafes Petr gi wae ‘cach (aifts) St area & Peet aT aA a @) afifen # ARR a of are ot fet sim A dor (a GT) & ‘arcarat &, Fret am 20 mats Pett a fo BE A ara anor, set IIA 20 sHRR Pedra a, Sar Fee HK aT ‘afte Roar at & @ FR 2 We & add Gen & Tar, ania ae ga want wo AG frat aa faite fra me, ¥8 THK & ah afinar Bri 20 oat @ ar cafe Prine Bi (32-A)119. According to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947] 191, Under the Employees’ Provident Funds and which one of the following is a condition Miscellaneous Provisions Act, the Central Precedent to retrenchment of a workman Government may authorize an employee. to ‘employed in any industry for not less than one maintain Provident Fund Account in year? relation to the establishment, upon an application made by the employer and majority of such establishment's employees Provided that the number of persons employed in that establishment is not less than (a) Three months’ notice in writing (b) One month’s notice in writing (© Wages equivalent to minimum three] (a) 20 months’ average pay for every year of tw’ no completed service to be paid © 100 (@) Wages equivalent to minimum one nae (@ 200 month’s average pay for every year of completed service to be paid 122. The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act does not a 120. Which one of the following is a condition to = Precedent for appointment as the presiding] officer of a labour court under Section 7 of the| (a) any establishment registered under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ? Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 employing less than 50 persons and (@) Holding judicial office in India for a working without the aid of power. ‘minimum of 15 years (b) any establishment which is a factory (®) Having minimum experience of 5 years engaged in any industry as = as a District Judge or Additional District under the Act in which minimum of 2 con persons are employed. (© any other establishment employing minimum of 20 persons as specified by the Central Government. (© Mininium 20 years of experience as Presiding officer of a labour court constituted under any State Act (@) all such establishments employing less (@) Minimum 3 years of experience as an than 20 persons, as specified by a officer of the Indian Judicial Service in notification in the Official Gazette by Grade 1 the Central Government after a minimum of 2 months prior notice, DFRT-A-JSN (33-A)sos, aoe sere fafa 2 ei Rr & 227. ogee feet SK sagas wasnt ea safer a ar TH aT? (arcarare Prarea) cif, 1989 % ants (a) wre wet sateen (ae BIRRaTT pean 3S tee Seem CE) ewe) : afar (@) Sf waTT os : oy Feat sees ity ROR a RIERA (aatteneot) co, pies set fem wert gf giagier & arden sited ge ) catego) Feet a) Rag afehram (ithe tre) _ oa, eee site fafa, 1961 % oN, AB] ioe, ha wre ae et wea A SE areata HE HHT ar we een 8, wet Area oer aT Sectet @) Fae ote Hots Ga RT| eer ge a we AT ae EN I ST (ereneertofta) te 1 aaah ye (sea) BT oe gw i re eS aR (ea wh hn ae wert Qu) er se vege Fee a am fie gees & fore coat BI © eee eee ee @ Raa wh ae aera Rare H 3 eR ae afi Front en | @ waem 8 at feat fer cafe we ‘gat afte & fet oats geo sega Ht AE ios. aft (Praem) afufem, 1997 oni piel cllllaacehdih! Fraferiaa 8 ahaa wel veda we Re? = co aah Bet (GTA) Oe Setar (>) al Be (Fra) (©) aa ee WAS FT @ edt ar aig 129, ara after dea ofehean, 1993 % atin, grr afar? weg a fea a A oftenfe Far man 8? rae. seis saree (Ramen) furan, 1956 %] Go) Ha, am (sta) wa aa SG aftr wait 2g, aoa? ar od 8, cH tet maf pe Aafia i a aaah w og Tt >) Fe % arma aftr (seca saftresr) aa HR? @ wat dt © oe, em, Te oh Oe ‘wear safe ot area & afBeA geT & pee aries (veer) Fe 7a een (@) Ram, FART, FOR TT TT TT @ avs ‘afta ae are after DFRT-AWISN128. The Workmen's Compensation Act has been amended and renamed as 127. Under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Ce Act, 1989, which one of the following is not a permitted ? () The Employees’ Compensation Act (®) Anticipatory Bail (©) The Labour Compensation Act (b) Registration of FIR without preliminary (@) The Apprentices Act enquiry (©) Arrest of an éccused by the Investigating Officer witho 124. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, any a nee a ae ‘agreement for giving or taking dowry shall be _ @ Bail (a) voidable at the behest of the bride. (b) void. 128. The National Human Rights Commission (©) valid omy to the extent that it is conducts inquiries into incidents where beneficial to the bride. human rights have been violated. Such inquiry shall be initiated by the Commission (@ valid only if executed within 3 f faa ea (@) only upon a petition presented to it by a the marriage. es victim, (©) only when it is directed to do so by a 125. Which one of the following is not punishable Court, under the Commission of Sati (Prevention) (© suo motu or on a petition by the victim Act, 1987? or any person on the victim’s behalf or (@) Abetment of Sati ‘ona direction or order of any Court. ©) Commission of Sati (@ only when such complaint is forwarded by the concerned SHO, (©) Attempt to commit Sati (@ — Glorification of Sati nash 126. For the purpose of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, a ‘child’ means a Person who has not completed the age of (@) 14years () 16 years © 18 years @ 21 years Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the term ‘Human Rights’ has been defined as @ () © basic rights to food, shelter and clothing, inalienable rights of a human being. the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution of India. (@ the rights ensuring liberty, equality, DFRT-AJSN fraternity and state sovereignty,ro, A we oe a7 A SG aS A oe aw ter sed 7 A sree (3) TA so 143 ac sre va 2 age, res smend 1Ac Ft aeATE dem H aftaltes Aifse | (@) 428 @) wt (424 (o) fafa (zreret) (©) 408 Ce) sarees =ae.si (fewest) @ 420 (@) Ba (srearsh) 1a1, Rann doa 110.101 TA Gers FT rT aaa, ets & ASCH Preom aA H, w PIT (a) 65 sacnsit 28, At, 1A, 2, 2a, aA SIN Aa Ht Sere : ‘Pra aa aT? (&) 6.625 ~o (a) 1Ac23<2acAl fara want Pref fare at ear t ? 4ao<« K.B+A.B fra fre aT wr a aE TAR GAL Se (b) .B+A.B @ fi (bh) A-B+A.B eas (© A.B+A.B © ou @ G+B.Aa+B @ 1294 DFRT-AYSN180. ‘A’ voluntarily throws into a river, a ring|193, Convert IAC in hexadecimal into a decimal belonging to ‘Z’ with the intention of thereby causing wrongful loss to ‘Z’.‘A’ has committed number. (a) 428 (a) theft. ° (b) mischief, (424 (©) criminal breach of trust. © 408 (@) cheating. @ 420 Find the decimal equivalent of the binary number 110.101. (@) 65 In case of ASCII representation of characters, in which order will a computer sort the strings (>) 6.625 23, Al, 1A, a2, 2a, aA and Aa? © 66 © (a) 1A<23<2a) Fa ITE, CISF % UH AMP ATT a a, sont & ated a wafers ae t wa aT CISF & ws amiss wee ea 4, aaah & wei & waft 2, ferg UH Star aT (Tew) rT z aa sera Fa pA ae PH ETE Prana eat & fae aire A afta & fafifea aaidz, cai at eee steT THT aafea ara @143. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) No member of the CISF has any authority to carry out any search without a warrant, Searches can be carried out after obtaining a éearch warrant from the Sector Inspector General ‘There is no blanket prohibition on carrying out searches without a warrant. Searches can be carried out without a warrant by any member of CISF in the presence of the local police. Which one of the following statements is correct ? Any member of the CISF making an arrest| under the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 (a) may detain the person up to a maximum of 10 days for the purpose of completing the preliminary investigation. may obtain the person for a maximum of| 48 “hours for the purpose of | interrogation. must immediately hand over the person to the Security Officer of the industrial undertaking being protected by the cIsF. shall hand over the person to a police officer without unnecessary delay. DFRT-A-JSN 145. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (@) During the period of suspension, a member of the CISF continues to be subjected to the same responsibilities to which he would have been subject, if he were on duty. ‘A person temporarily ceases to be a member of the CISF during suspension. The certificate of appointment is not required to be surrendered when a Person ceases to be an ‘enrolled’ member of the CISF, Clothing articles furnished to him need not be surrendered when one ceases to be an ‘enrolled’ member of the CISF. Certain offences can be tried by an ordinary Criminal Court having jurisdiction in the matter, if the prescribed authority under whose jurisdiction the offence was committed 50 requires, Which of the following offences do not fall in this category ? (a) Offences committed while the offender is absent from duty (b) When the offence is not connected with the offender's duties as an enrolled member of the CISF ‘When the offence is connected with the offender's duties as an enrolled member of the CISF but is a petty offence When the offence is of such a nature that the Commandant invested with the Powers of the Magistrate to try the offence considers it appropriate to recuse himselherselfDFRT-A-JSN a7, Prafefad 8 a-at Her we B? CISE & Peet saftresrd ar arerhieares wes eat te (ste) & 60 4, va aftrerd ara enfta be a samt te xen at aaa 8 we wh ISK & dent ord & fea weiter geo ae aay Bae TE | (a) Ut warta te sae wen, Feta aH are grea & ares aT 2 | (>) ates ariseeeras Tefiters A te a aftr act ee wen Fe aw Ht cara mrenfieres gre eet St a eB CISF # #§ aftrert fa warts tH wer oft me 8, teh te re ae & fare) fea sf safes daa der sat ar sifted (eran) FER af sragas waa ame, at eara te yer we A af, meters aT aT enfidares a weariifire =f on aah 8 freafafara # & ata oe wer aE ae RP a) feet sas Hofer CISE, 3H sem sin: Rtas & ara wider, Fite af friam & ana ai wt | cisr a afte amit wie Rs a cise & feat wie ai aaa & opt ara TT | sein fate are sam H orafeea CISF 4 dfn wat i anda we fatten a | sie Rites we ster a wet # fe az aint safe wt Real & dea Hi cISK # ae aft ah AY fed (42-A) 149, Praferian 4 & aaa ae we R 7 (a) werae wa 3a (ford) wage I CISF ad aaa # frei aa A fe (safer) 8 8 aftes anita afte waa ai, Poet a ae , cisr & wa wee A sata we Ft af eI ear aa redeavmetters (qomea) a wf aceti Ht etal Jer Ar afer 2 | fret fafine oq @ ad aceat & Pepe sear fafine uftaterdt & aft ace & dar wr ore Sat werhiaers ate oT wrenfideres gra fear at wate | . rafefan Ha ah ws, CISK ga a wt are aarthAt were Sarsii At aR sit gt are 8? @ saa K Tanda, Se okt carafe ere & faeg vat A aoe AT ) af dam dafa evens er ere wer sit sree Sarit & Gera BAT dan feaé A ater wart sit siftraers (fearea) wer stk daiftea vitarert seqeet at tan ear saver wie ote aaa Fate ata fare war ait tat atrsii & yatta dq FT147. Which one of the following statements is correct ? ‘The Director General may grant to an officer of the CISF a higher rank than the one held by hhim, as a local rank, whenever considered necessary by him in the interest of better functioning of the CISF. (@) Grant of such a local rank is not subject to confirmation by the Central Government. Local rank can be conferred by the Director General up to and including the rank of Senior Commandant/Assistant Inspector General. An officer of the CISF who has been granted a local rank is not entitled to any extra pay and allowances for holding such a rank. ‘The power to grant a local rank can be delegated by the Director General to the Additional Director General, _if considered necessary. . Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (@) The CISF deputed to an Undertaking shall work under the — general supervision, direction and control of the Managing Director of the Undertaking. ‘The Unit Commander of the CISF shall keep the Managing Director fully informed of all developments including | the state of the CISF. ‘The Managing Director shall inspect the posts of the CISF situated in his Undertaking at least once a year. ‘The Managing Director may roquire the Unit Commander to report directly to his superiors in the CISF in regard to all matters mentioned above, 149. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The Assistant aad Deputy Commandants do not have the power to suspend the enrolled members of the ISR. The Senior Commandants and Commandants have the power to dismiss enrolled members of the CISF except the Inspectors, ‘Only the Seetor Inspector General/ Inspector General (Headquarters) has the power to withhold promotion of the enrolled members. Removal of enrolled members from an office of distinction or deprivation of special emoluments can be ordered only by the Director General and Additional Director General. Which one of the following does not fall within the scope of technical consultancy services provided by the CISF ? (a) Planning for defence against nuclear, biological and chemical attack on the Undertaking Study of fire protection related problems ‘and suggesting appropriate measures Planning and designing of communication network and preparation of related operating instructions Preparation of disaster management and contingency plan and supervision of rehearsals of such plans DFRT-A-JSN (43-A)wel wre & fee ae SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK DFRT-AJSNwel are & fre wag SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK DFRT-AJSNwre are & fore we SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK DFRT-AYSNwel on & fee ag SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK DFRT-AWISNDo NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : DFRT-A-JSN ‘Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET GENERAL ABILITY & INTELLIGENCE AND PROFESSIONAL SKILLS Time Allowed : Two Hours and Thirty Minutes ‘Maximum Marks : 300 INSTRUCTIONS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THA® IMIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. If SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. Please riote that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Boculet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriste in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet linble for ‘You have to enter your Roll Number on the ‘Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. ‘This Test Booklet contains 160 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Bek item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark Each tee com het. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the Seaponse which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. ‘You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, Before Je ta fil in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your ‘Admission Certificate, ‘After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has axel ued. you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. ‘There is no negative marking for wrong answers. ‘This Test Booklet consists of Two Parts. Part A deals with General Ability and Intelligence and consists of 76 questions. Part B deals with Professional Skills and consists of 75 questions. ‘All 150 questions are to be answered. DO NOT OPEN THIS ‘TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO aa ar Fh ore Fe Geer & Gays ToT RT DFRT-AJSN (48-A)