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Shri.

ShamraoPatil (Yadravkar) Educational & Charitable Trust’s


Sharad Institute of Technology College of Engineering
Yadrav (Ichalkarnji)-416121
(Approved by AICTE, New Delhi, Recognized by Government of Maharashtra & Affiliated to Shivaji University, Kolhapur)

Department of Mechanical Engineering


Energy and Power Engineering
Multiple Choice Question Bank for Unit test-II
(For BE A/B/C)

1-Which of the following is (are) renewable resource(s)


(A) wind
(B) tides
(C) geothermal heat
(D) all of the above

2-Which of the following country generate all their electricity using renewable energy?
(A) Iceland
(B) England
(C) USA
(D) China

3-Renwable energy often displaces conventional fuel in which of the following area
(A) space heating
(B) transportation
(C) electricity generation
(D) all of the above

4-Which of the following is used as fuel for transportation


(A) ethanol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) all of the above

5-Biodiesel is produced from oils or fats using


(A) fermentation
(B) transesterification
(C) distillation
(D) none of the above
6-Photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into
(A) heat energy
(B) electric energy
(C) mechanical energy
(D) chemical energy

7-In which of the following region winds are stronger and constant
(A) deserts
(B) offshore
(C) low altitudes sites
(D) all of the above

8-Following country met more than 40% of its electricity demand from wind energy
(A) Denmark
(B) Portugal
(C) Ireland
(D) Spain

9-Concentrated solar power (CSP) systems use ____ to focus a large area of sunlight into a
small beam.
(A) lenses
(B) mirrors
(C) tracking systems
(D) all of the above

10-The difference, in temperature between the core of the planet and its surface, is known
as
(A) geothermal coefficient
(B) geothermal gradient
(C) geothermal constant
(D) none of the above

11-Biomass can be converted to


(A) methane gas
(B) ethanol
(C) biodiesel
(D) all of the above
12-The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) was formed in
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

13-Which of the following was the first solar powered aircraft to complete a
circumnavigation of the world?
(A) Solar impulse
(B) Solar impulse 2
(C) Solar impulse 3
(D) Solar impulse 4

14-Following is true for biomass and biofuels


(A) their contribution in reduction in CO2 emissions is limited
(B) both emit large amount of air pollution when burned
(C) they consume large amounts of water
(D) all of the above

15-Direct Solar energy is used for


(A) Water heating
(B) Distillation
(C) Drying
(D) All of the above

16-The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately


(A) 1.8 x 108 MW
(B) 1.8 x 1011 MW
(C) 1.8 x 1014 MW
(D) 1.8 x 1017 MW

17-The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization


(A) Wind energy
(B) Biomass energy
(C) Wave energy
(D) All of the above
18-A liquid flat plate collector is usually held tilted in a fixed position, facing _____ if
located in the northern hemisphere.
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West

19-The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be improved by


(A) putting a selective coating on the plate
(B) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

20-The efficiency of various types of collectors ______ with _______ temperature.


(A) increases, decreasing
(B) decreases, increasing
(C) remains same, increasing
(D) depends upon type of collector

21-Maximum efficiency is obtained in


(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Evacuated tube collector
(C) Line focussing collector
(D) Paraboloid dish collector

22-The following type of energy is stored as latent heat


(A) Thermal energy
(B) Chemical energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Mechanical energy

23-Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
(A) Flat plate collector
(B) Line focussing parabolic collector
(C) Paraboloid dish collector
(D) All of the above
24-In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks the sun by rotating about
(A) One axes
(B) Two axes
(C) Three axes
(D) None of the above

25-The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the earth’s surface.


(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 52

26-The value of Solar Constant is


(A) 1347 W/m2
(B) 1357 W/m2
(C) 1367 W/m2
(D) 1377 W/m2

27-The extraterrestrial radiation flux varies by ____ % over a year.


(A) ± 1.1
(B) ± 2.2
(C) ± 3.3
(D) ± 4.4

28-The following is (are) laws of black body radiation.


(A) Plank’s law
(B) Stefan-Boltzmann law
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

29-Absorption of Solar radiations at earth’s surface occur due to presence of


(A) Ozone
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon di-oxide
(D) All of the above
30-Global radiation =
(A) Direct radiation – Diffuse Radiation
(B) Direct radiation + Diffuse Radiation
(C) Direct radiation / Diffuse Radiation
(D) Diffuse Radiation / Direct radiation

31-The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the ____ to a ______ surface.
(A) normal, horizontal
(B) tangent, horizontal
(C) normal, vertical
(D) tangent, vertical

32-Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of a


(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyranometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
(D) All of the above

33-Beam radiations are measured with


(A) Anemometer
(B) Pyrheliometer
(C) Sunshine recorder
(D) All of the above

34-The angle made by the plane surface with the horizontal is known as
(A) Latitude
(B) Slope
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Declination

35-The angle made in the horizontal plane between the horizontal line due south and the
projection of the normal to the surface on the horizontal plane is
(A) Hour angle
(B) Declination
(C) Surface azimuth angle
(D) Solar altitude angle
36-Surface azimuth angle varies from
(A) 0 to 90°
(B) -90 to 90°
(C) 0 to 180°
(D) -180° to 180°

37-The hour angle is equivalent to


(A) 10° per hour
(B) 15° per hour
(C) 20° per hour
(D) 25° per hour

38-The complement of zenith angle is


(A) Solar altitude angle
(B) Surface azimuth angle
(C) Solar azimuth angle
(D) Slope

39-The correction has a magnitude of ___ minutes for every degree difference in longitude.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

40-The global radiation reaching a horizontal surface on the earth is given by


(A) Hourly beam radiation + Hourly diffuse radiation
(B) Hourly beam radiation – Hourly diffuse radiation
(C) Hourly beam radiation / Hourly diffuse radiation
(D) Hourly diffuse radiation / Hourly beam radiation

41-The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted surface to that falling on a
horizontal surface is called the
(A) Radiation shape factor
(B) Tilt factor
(C) Slope
(D) None of the above
Answers:
1-(D), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(A), 5-(B), 6-(B), 7-(B), 8-(A), 9-(D), 10-(B), 11-(D), 12-(B), 13-(B), 14-
(D), 15-(D), 16-(B), 17-(D), 18-(B), 19-(C), 20-(B), 21-(D), 22-(A), 23-(A), 24-(B), 25-(B), 26-
(C), 27-(C), 28-(C), 29-(D), 30-(B), 31-(A), 32-(B), 33-(B), 34-(B), 35-(C), 36-(D), 37-(B), 38-
(A), 39-(C), 40-(A), 41-(B)

42. The commercial sources of energy are


(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

43. Compounding of steam turbine is done for


(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c

44. In India largest thermal power station is located at


(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c

45. The percentage O2 by weight in atmospheric air is


(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b

46. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is


(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
47. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is
(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a

48. The main source of production of biogas is


(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d

49. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at


(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

50. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b

51. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by


(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d

52. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately


(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2 Ans: c
53. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c

54. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to


(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c

55. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 percent
(6) 35 to 45 percent
(c) 70 to 80 percent
(d) 90 to 95 percent
Ans: b

56. A steam power station requires space


(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
(d) None of above
Ans: b

57. Economiser is used to heat


(a) air
(b) feed water
(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b

58. The average ash content in Indian coals is about


(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20% Ans: d
59. Load centre in a power station is
(a) centre of coal fields
(b) centre of maximum load of equip-ments
(c) centre of gravity of electrical system
Ans: c

60. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the
order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d

61. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by


(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b

62. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?


a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
Ans: c

63. How much is the energy available in the winds over the earth surface is estimated to be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
Ans: b

64. How much wind power does India hold?


a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
Ans: a
65. What is the main source for the formation of wind?
a) Uneven land
b) Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
Ans: b

66. Which country created wind mills?


a) Egypt
b) Mongolia
c) Iran
d) Japan
Ans: c

67. What happens when the land near the earth’s equator is heated?
a) All the oceans gets heated up
b) Small wind currents are formed
c) Rise in tides
d) Large atmospheric winds are created
Ans: d

68. What type of energy is wind energy?


a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
Ans: a

69. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
Ans: a
70. What is the diameter of wind turbine blades?
a) 320 feet
b) 220 feet
c) 80 feet
d) 500 feet
Ans:b

71. At what range of speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is generated?
a) 100 – 125 mph
b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
d) 30-35 mph
Ans: d

72. When did the development of wind power in India began?


a) 1965
b) 1954
c) 1990
d) 1985
Ans: c

73. Which of the following is detected using manometer devices?


a) Pressure difference between manometric and measuring liquid
b) pH difference between manometric and measuring liquid
c) Density difference between manometric and measuring liquid
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

74. What is the difference between water and transformer oil as a manometric liquid?
a) Water is used for large pressure differential
b) Transformer oil is used for large pressure differential
c) Transformer oil has evaporation problems
d) Water has evaporation problems
Ans: d
75. In which of the following categories be thin plate diaphragm included?
a) Primary transducer
b) Secondary transducer
c) Voltage measuring devices
d) Spring balance systems
Ans: a

76. Which of the following applications are suited for thin plate diaphragms?
a) Static pressure only
b) Dynamic pressure only
c) Both static and dynamic pressure with large frequency
d) Both static and dynamic pressure with small frequency
Ans: d

77. Using a membrane for measuring pressure, which of the following represents correct
relation for displacement?
a) (R2 ΔP)/4S
b) ΔP/4S
c) (R2 ΔP)/S
d) (R2 ΔP)/2
Ans: a

78. Which of the following quantities can be measured using bellows?


a) Absolute pressure
b) Gauge pressure
c) Differential pressure
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

79. Which of the following conversion take place in bourdon tubes?


a) Pressure to displacement
b) Pressure to voltage
c) Pressure to strain
d) Pressure to force
Ans: a
80. Which of the following devices convert pressure to displacement?
a) Diaphragm
b) Bellow
c) Capsule
d) Both diaphragm and capsule
Ans: d

81. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of power plant?


a) High reliability
b) Low capital cost
c) Low maintenance
d) Easy operation

82. The area under the load curve represents ____________


a) the average load on power system
b) maximum demand
c) number of units generated
d) load factor

83. Which of the following is equal to the maximum demand?


a) The ratio of area under curve to the total area of rectangle
b) The ratio of area under curve and number of hours
c) The peak of the load curve
d) The area under the curve

84. Load duration curve indicates _______


a) the variation of load during different hours of the day
b) total number of units generated for the given demand
c) total energy consumed by the load
d) the number of hours for which the particular load lasts during a day

85. During which time the demand of electrical energy is maximum?


a) 2 A.M. to 5 A.M.
b) 5 A.M. to 12 P.M.
c) 12 P.M. to 7 P.M.
d) 7 P.M. to 9 P.M

86. Size and cost of installation depends upon ____________


a) average load
b) maximum demand
c) square mean load
d) square of peak load

87. What is Demand factor?


a) Ratio of connected load to maximum demand
b) Ratio of average load to connected load
c) Ratio of maximum demand to the connected load
d) Ratio of kilowatt hour consumed to 24 hours

88. Which of the following represents the annual average load?


a) (KWh supplied in a day)/24
b) {(KWh supplied in a day)/ 24 } × 365
c) {(KWh supplied in a month)/(30 x 24)
d) (KWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365)

89. The load factor is __________


a) always less than unity
b) less than or greater than 1
c) always greater than 1
d) less than zero

90. In practice what is the value of diversity factor?


a) Less than Unity
b) Geater than Unity
c) Equal to or greater than Unity
d) Less than zero

91. Coincidence factor is reciprocal of ___________


a) average load
b) demand factor
c) capacity factor
d) diversity factor

92. Which of the following is called as cold reserve?


a) Reserve capacity available but not ready for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for use
c) Generating capacity connected to bus and ready to take load
d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
Answers:
81: a 82: c 83: a 84: d 85: d 86: b 87: c 88: d 89: a 90: b 91:d 92: a

93. Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from those listed
here:
(A) Type J
(B) Type K
(C) Type S
(D) Type T
Answer : C

94. The negative lead of a thermocouple is always colored:


(A) Blue
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) White
Answer : C

95. The most rugged temperature sensing element listed here is a/an:
(A) Thermocouple
(B) Orifice plate
(C) RTD
(D) Filled bulb
Answer : A

96. Convert a temperature measurement of 250 deg C into Kelvin.


(A) 523.2 K
(B) -209.7 K
(C) 709.7 K
(D) -23.2 K
Answer : A

97. When the reference junction is the same temperature as the measurement junction in a
thermocouple circuit, the output voltage (measured by the sensing instrument) is:
(A) Zero
(B) Reverse polarity
(C) Noisy
(D) AC instead of DC
Answer : A
98. Ozone layer is in earth layer ______________
a) Toposphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Mesosphere
Answer: c

99. Ozone depletion is higher at _______________


a) Polar regions
b) Near polar regions
c) Non polar regions
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

100. Which of the following is not poisonous to humans?


a) Flue gases
b) Stack gases
c) HCl
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d

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